Thread: Purgatory: Does Scripture support the Trinity? Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
On the 12uthy thread, she wrote:
quote:
I would respectfully welcome a discussion on any Scriptures that support the Trinity, because I have struggled with this issue since I was a little girl at school and none of the nuns or priest could convince me; the best I ever got was (paraphrasing) "It's a mystery and if you don't understand it you lack faith and will burn in hell". Who says that to a 12yr old girl! (Hence my issue with the Hellfire doctrine)
I am sure she is not alone.
So let's see, there are Scriptures that:
- Have Jesus addressing the Father as if He were another person.
- Talk about the Holy Spirit as if It/He/She were another person.
- Talk about Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, making it clear that they comprise the Godhead.
Yet Christians also affirm that God is one, not three.
Anyone have a better answer than "It's a mystery"?
We have been over this many times. Is it a dead horse?
[ 27. June 2005, 03:53: Message edited by: RuthW ]
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
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It always amazes me that Protestants who stick so closely to the Sola Scriptura ideal are so willing to accept the Trinity because it is nowhere adequately expounded in Scripture. But it is, IMO a natural progression of Pauline theology and parts of the Jewish wisdom tradition. Churches such as the Orthodox and Catholic have no problem with an idea which came to full fruition within the tradition of the early church, which is certainly so of the Trinity.
On the ideal of "the further from the source the muddier the water" I believe that Christianity is at its "purest" the closer to its cradle. The original Christianity of the Jerusalen church is lost to us. The Orthodox tradition of the Trinity modelled on the Cappodocian Fathers makes far more sense to me than Augustine.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
It always amazes me that Protestants who stick so closely to the Sola Scriptura ideal are so willing to accept the Trinity because it is nowhere adequately expounded in Scripture.
That is also my opinion.
To me it seems obvious that the Scripture references to the Trinity are metaphors, and that the weight of the Scriptures make it clear that there is one God in one Person.
I know, however, that the great majority of Christian theology and opinion over the centuries does not agree.
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on
:
Yes it is scriptural but as Paul and Freddy has said it is the experience of God as Trinity which is as yet unsystematic and not fully thought through in the Bible but which Tradition necessarily and later teases out. So, I hold and teach that trinitarianism is the only way you can be a MONOTHEIST IF you take the Christian biblically attested experience of God as Father, Son and Holy Spirit seriously.
Interestingly, the Fathers tend to regard the reception of this trinitarian teaching as a matter of spiritual regeneration, not abstracted research and debate. So I can only know Jesus to be True God and True Man if I have personally known the power of the Saviour. I can only attest to the divine personhood of the Holy Spirit if I have been baptised in the same Holy Spirit. I can only know God as Father if I have come to know him as His adopted regenerate Child.
Naturally, I endorse the hurrah's for the Cappadocians.
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on
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12uthy's comment seems like a request for a discussion on Scriptures that support the Trinity, but Freddy you seem to be asking for an attempt to explain the Trinity.
I don't think that there is much doubt that the scriptures outline that God is Trinity, but they don't explain it ontologically or anything.
Which way were you wanting to head?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
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The support from Scripture is simply that the Father is God, Jesus is God and the Holy Spirit is God.
The Divinity of the Father goes without saying.
The Divinity of the Son is clearly seen in
John 1 v 1: the Word is with God and is God.
Mark 2 v 5 - 7: only God can forgive sins but Jesus does it anyway.
John 8 v 58: Jesus assumes the name of the Godhead for himself.
John 20 v 28: Jesus accepts divine worship from Thomas.
Philippians 2 v 5 etc: Not Pauline theology but his quotation of a hymn in common use that ascribes both the nature and title of Divinity to Jesus.
The Divinity of the Spirit is clearly seen throughout Scripture beginning with Genesis 1 v 2. That the Holy Spirit is a person, rather than a force or influence is seen as passages where he is referred to as 'he': John 16 v 13.
An example of where he is directly referred to as God is Acts 5 v 3 - 4.
It's also interesting that the very early church battled with doecetism - ie that Jesus only seemed to be human. They had no problem convincing people of his divinity, but they had to reassert the idea that Jesus was also a real man in the face of those who said he didn't really suffer on the cross, that he never left a shadow or even that he walked just above the ground, leaving no footprints. It's only as the waters grew muddy away from the source that the teachers in the church felt they had to combat those who taught Jesus was a mere man.
And don't forget the baptismal formula that ascribes a collective, singular name to the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit - ie in the name of the Father...
I see no mystery, no difficulty here.
If you accept the divinity of Jesus of Nazareth, as clearly demonstrated in Scripture and required by the Christian theology of Incarnation and Atonement, then the Trinity is not a problem at all.
If however, you reject the Divinity and Deity of Jesus, then of course the Trinity becomes a stumbling block.
The question must be, of course, do you reject the Trinity because you refuse the Deity of Jesus, or do you reject the Deity of Jesus because you can't grasp the obvious teaching of scripture on a trinitarian Godhead?
It seems to me that all Unitarian thinking people reject the Trinity simply because they are prejudiced against the Divinity of the Son of God in the first place.
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It seems to me that all Unitarian thinking people reject the Trinity simply because they are prejudiced against the Divinity of the Son of God in the first place.
Thanks for the verses on the divinity of Jesus, but you seem to have forgotten the flip side of the Trinity - one God.
What you have outlined is tri-theism.
The unitarians I have spoken with don't deny the deity of Jesus - they just deny that he is a separate "person" from the Father and the Spirit.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
12uthy's comment seems like a request for a discussion on Scriptures that support the Trinity, but Freddy you seem to be asking for an attempt to explain the Trinity.
True. Her comments about being unsatisfied with the "mystery" explanation was part of her request.
Either way is fine with me, especially since I don't expect to be able to direct anyone's comments anyway.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It seems to me that all Unitarian thinking people reject the Trinity simply because they are prejudiced against the Divinity of the Son of God in the first place.
Thanks for the verses on the divinity of Jesus, but you seem to have forgotten the flip side of the Trinity - one God.
What you have outlined is tri-theism.
The unitarians I have spoken with don't deny the deity of Jesus - they just deny that he is a separate "person" from the Father and the Spirit.
I think those two possibilities are important. As I understand it, the JW objection is what Mudfrog says. My objection is what Anselm said.
So I fully accept Mudfrog's references, and agree that they do declare Jesus' divinity. My favorites, however, are the OT passages that declare that Messiah would be Jehovah Himself:
quote:
1. Unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given, and the government shall he upon His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, God, Hero, Father of eternity, Prince of peace. (Isa. 9:6-7).
2. It shall be said in that day, Lo, this is our God; we have waited for Him that He may save us: THIS IS JEHOVAH we have waited for Him, we will rejoice and be glad in His salvation (Isa. 25:9).
3. Behold, the LORD JEHOVIH will come in strength, and His arm shall rule for Him; behold, His reward is with Him. He shall feed His flock like a shepherd (Isa. 40:3, 5, 10-11).
4. Behold, the days come that I will raise up to David a righteous offshoot, who shall reign a king, and shall prosper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth: and this is His name whereby they shall call Him, JEHOVAH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS (Jer. 23:5, 6; 33:15, 16).
5. Behold, I send Mine Angel, who shall prepare the way before Me, and the LORD whom ye seek shall suddenly come to His temple. (Mal. 3:1, 2; 4:5).
6. I saw, and behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven; and there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages may worship Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed; and all dominions shall worship Him, and obey Him (Dan. 7:13, 14, 27).
7. Jehovah, remember David, who sware unto Jehovah, and vowed to the Mighty One of Jacob,If I shall enter within the tent of my house,if I shall go up upon my couch,if I shall give sleep to mine eyes, until I find out a place for Jehovah, a habitation for the Mighty One of Jacob. Lo, we heard of Him at Ephratah, we found Him in the fields of the forest. (Ps. 132:1-7, 9).
8. The Lord Himself shall give you a sign: Behold a virgin shall conceive and hear a Son, and shall call His name GOD-WITH-US (Isa. 7:14; Matt. 1:22, 23).
But of course these don't especially help us with the Trinity...
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Thanks for the verses on the divinity of Jesus, but you seem to have forgotten the flip side of the Trinity - one God.
Do you really need proof texts for monotheism?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
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What does help, perhaps, are verses such as this one:
"If anyone loves me, he will keep my word: and my father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him." John 14 v 23
This serves, in the context of there being one God (which Jesus also taught), to show that Jesus and the Father are not one person. ie the Father is not the Son.
There is also the verse where Jesus speaks of the Holy Spirit as being 'another (of the same kind) counsellor'. This shows that the Holy Spirit is not the same person as Jesus.
There is only one God. But the Bible also tells us that whilst the Father is God, so is the Son - who also has the attributes and titles of Yahweh. But, whilst Jesus the Son is God, he is not the same person as the Father. Neither is he an altered form of the Father. Neither is the Holy Spirit Jesus is a spiritual form. He too, being divine, is a separate person.
I recognise that the problem is not the concept nor the theology, but the weakness of the English language which confines us to unhelpful words like 'persons'.
Scripture aside - which we cannot really do! - what about this as an illustration of how one 'being' can be three 'persons' all at once whilst the three 'persons' are entirely separate and recognisable:
The female known as Elizabeth is one biological entity.
She is a wife.
She is a mother.
She is a monarch.
She comes as neither wife nor mother, as far as her subjects are concerned when she 'appears' enrobed and crowned as the Sovereign. She is Majesty and State personified. Her image, her authority has little to do with the person who actually wears the robes. And yet, whilst appearing in Majesty, she is still the other two 'persons'.
When she eats breakfast in her slippers on the other side of the table to Philip Mountbatten; when she shares moments of married, erm, 'life' with him, the last thing either of them are concerned with is crowns, parliaments, and 'Majesty'. She is his wife - and yet, she is still, in essence, the other two 'persons'.
When the family gathers for Christmas, weddings, etc. To 4 particular people she is 'Mother'. She is not wife to Charles and his siblings, she is not his Sovereign - she is his biological parents, the one he loves as parent. And yet, whilst she shares, and has shared, maternal duties, influence and affection, she has also been, in essence, the other two persons of wife and monarch.
What I am saying is that when the Queen appears as soverieng, she doesn't relinquish her married state as wife.
When she watches TV with Philip, she doesn't abdicate from the throne in order to fulfil wifely duties.
When she talks to Charles on the phone, she doesn't divorce Philip on the grounds that she cannot be 3 things at once.
And yet, being all three, she is one being, of one substance, one essence.
If Jesus is divine, either there has to be a Trinity where the three persons are one unity as God, or else there has to be three gods - in which case none of them are God in the Biblical sense - or God is modalistic. Which makes a nonesense of the New Testament which - in the story of the baptism of Jesus for example - shows very clearly the parallel existence of the three persons at the same time. In other words, the Father didn't become the Son for 33 years and then become the Spirit subsequent to Pentecost.
They are all three divine and all three in existence and operation at the same time - co-existent and co-eternal, consubstantial, undivided in essence - yet each with integrity and identity.
Posted by sabine (# 3861) on
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Not everything Christians have come to believe is contained in the bible....there is such a thing as "shared understanding" which in some religions is referred to as church tradition.
However, if that church tradition contains an element of imposition by fear [e.g., we can't explain it but if you don't believe you'll go to hell) the whole idea of describing the nature of God in a certain way loses some of its power.
I'm not a scholar of other religions, but I suspect that trinitarian religions with the highest number of people who actually believe are not the ones who have "proved" it or have threatened it. I suspect they are the ones that live according to their shared understanding and lovingly gather into that understanding all who are receptive to it.
sabine
[ 30. April 2005, 15:38: Message edited by: sabine ]
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on
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quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
[QB] It always amazes me that Protestants who stick so closely to the Sola Scriptura ideal are so willing to accept the Trinity because it is nowhere adequately expounded in Scripture.
It's perfectly adequately there in scripture - not all the doctrines we accept are presented in an entirely explicit way, we take scripture as the data and build our model from that - scripture makes the trinity perfectly clear, it just doesn't use the word 'Trinity' and say in a single statement 'God is three persons in one being'
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
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I've a confession to make. I can't see clear, irrefutable evidence in Scripture that Jesus is God without putting in some theological effort. The Arian position seems at first glance to stack up just as well - I wouldn't say it was stronger than the Trinitarian, just that it's not conclusive at the superficial level.
What clinches it for me is something that often comes out when we have a scrap over penal substitutionary atonement. The one, if you'll forgive the pun, redeeming feature of PSA to me, is that the entity being punished in this Atonement model is God Himself. If Jesus Christ is not God then all possible models of the Atonement, including the ones I think are true, appear to me to collapse to nonsense. Fitting the Christology to Scripture works reasonably well for Arianism until I ask the questions, what's it all about? What is salvation? Why did God do it this way? Christ being a created super-angel or someone less, just doesn't fit.
And that's without bringing the witness of the Church into it.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
The one, if you'll forgive the pun, redeeming feature of PSA to me, is that the entity being punished in this Atonement model is God Himself. If Jesus Christ is not God then all possible models of the Atonement, including the ones I think are true, appear to me to collapse to nonsense.
You could have gone all day without saying that.
To my mind, PSA does nothing but present a God who is too terrible to believe in. I would choose Arianism any day.
But the Gospels present a Jesus who defeats the power of darkness itself. That, to me, is what requires Him to be God.
And, as I mention above, that's what the messianic prophecies clearly say anyway.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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Now here's a shocking confession for a non-conformist protestant. I accept as doctrinal truth the doctrine of the Trinity and the fully divine/fully human nature of Christ because of their authoritative declaration by the early church councils. These two doctrines do more to protect Christians from error than any others. Those who put them together after reflection on both scripture and the resurrection life of Christ in the church did us all a favour.
We can all go through again the processes of reflection and argument - and disagreement - and problems with heretical belief - which led to these formulations. But why bother? I'm much more inclined to accept the inspiration of the Holy Spirit in the work of these early councils.
It is good for protestants to come to terms with the undeniable fact that while belief in the authority and inspiration of scripture is necessary, it is not always sufficient. I reckon many of need to do some work in our understanding of the doctrine of the church.
And, no, I am not an Orthodox sockpuppet.
Posted by Campbellite (# 1202) on
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What Barnabas just said.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
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quote:
Originally posted by sabine:
However, if that church tradition contains an element of imposition by fear [e.g., we can't explain it but if you don't believe you'll go to hell) the whole idea of describing the nature of God in a certain way loses some of its power.
This is precisely why the trinity in many places brings forth hostility, too many are simply told to disengage one's brain and accept it. From being a mystery we can adore, the trinity is turned into a straitjacket. Alternatively one is presented with elaborate other-wordly scholastic exercises which attempts to demonstrate that 3=1.
What would be a good approach to teach and present the trinity that takes account of both head and heart?
"And that, by the way, is perhaps the most important difference between Christianity and all other religions: that in Christianity God is not a static thing--not even a person--but a dynamic, pulsating activity, a life, almost a kind of drama. Almost, if you will not think me irreverent, a kind of dance."
-C.S. Lewis "Mere Christianity".
[ 30. April 2005, 22:38: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
To my mind, PSA does nothing but present a God who is too terrible to believe in. I would choose Arianism any day.
But the Gospels present a Jesus who defeats the power of darkness itself. That, to me, is what requires Him to be God.
Actually Freddy, simple PSA theology that emphasises the punishment that is heaped upon the Son by the Father is actually heading into a pseudo-arian direction by emphasising the separateness of the Son and the Father.
Anyway arianism is not necessarily a defence against PSA, just add a little bit of scotist acceptance theory into that and the image of the sadistic God still remains, just that it now seems all arbitrary. A robust trinitarian doctrine can prevent bad theology like this.
Have a look at this
article from the tablet.
[fixed a moronic UBB code error]
[ 30. April 2005, 22:48: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The female known as Elizabeth is one biological entity.
She is a wife.
She is a mother.
She is a monarch.
This adds up to modalism.
And Bonaventura -- i´m with you on this.
GOD BLESS!
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Actually Freddy, simple PSA theology that emphasises the punishment that is heaped upon the Son by the Father is actually heading into a pseudo-arian direction by emphasising the separateness of the Son and the Father.
Excellent point. This is just the way I see it. PSA is Arianism in disguise.
But, to get back to the OP, a Trinity of three omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent Beings is an absurd impossibility. It is fine to say that it is a mystery, but this really amounts to no explanation at all.
As long as the Trinity is taken seriously, that idea is inevitably an idea of three gods. Thankfully most Christians don't even think about it. They just hold an idea of "God" in their minds, as is by far the most common biblical concept.
Given this disadvantage, isn't it more rational to accept the gospel references to "Father" and "Son" as metaphor, and to take literally Jesus' declaration that "he who has seen Me has seen the Father"? Why choose the imagery of Jesus praying and crying out to the Father over other passages that contradict it?
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
"And that, by the way, is perhaps the most important difference between Christianity and all other religions: that in Christianity God is not a static thing--not even a person--but a dynamic, pulsating activity, a life, almost a kind of drama. Almost, if you will not think me irreverent, a kind of dance."
-C.S. Lewis "Mere Christianity".
Ah! You beat me to it! I was just going to quote this! Well, I can always comment it.
If God is love -- how can he not be triune (or at least two-une (this is not a proper word))?
GOD BLESS!
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
But, to get back to the OP, a Trinity of three omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent Beings is an absurd impossibility.
This is not trinitarian -- it´s tritheism.
Trinity = One being, three persone/hypostates.
GOD BLESS!
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
But, to get back to the OP, a Trinity of three omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent Beings is an absurd impossibility. It is fine to say that it is a mystery, but this really amounts to no explanation at all.
You are confusing 'being' with 'personhood' here, and you end up with tritheism.
Person or hypostasis in trinitarian language does not denote an individual or a being as we moderns understand the term.
One being, three hypostases.
[cross posted with k-mann]
[ 30. April 2005, 23:20: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by londonderrry (# 9158) on
:
'For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.' 1 John 5:7
One can see the great damage that much of textual criticism has done of the church when the greatest verse in Scripture on the Trinity is not even quoted.
Reformed in Christ,
Sean, N. Ireland
www.cprf.co.uk
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
As a totally orthodox trinitarian, I would say that 1 John 5 v 7 is an interpolation into the Bible. John didn't write it. It is however a clear intimation of what the second century church believed.
As far as my illustration of Elizabeth Windsor being modalism; I thought modalism was when God was Father THEN Son, THEN HS in turn.
My (less than perfect) point was that Elizabeth is monarch, wife and mother all at the same time, but that the 'person' of monarch is not the 'person' of wife, the 'person' of wife is not the 'person' of mother.
She is three in one - a trinity of persons in one being.
Posted by kiwigoldfish (# 5512) on
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It doesn't really work Mudfrog. HRH is also a Corgi Owner, an Auntie and a Grandmother. I don't know about her hobbies, but she might well be a stamp collector. You can't just arbitrarily choose three aspects of someone's life and call them "persons."
Liz the Mother did not go to the garden to talk to Liz the Monarch (or if she did, then she'd be a raving looney.) God the Son did go to the garden to talk to God the Father. There is a relationship between the persons of the Trinity. They are united enough to be of one essence, but distinct enough to be three persons.
Posted by Matrix (# 3452) on
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I'm a simple baptist..I like the way Jesus phrases things when he speaks of himself and the Father being one, and when he tell the disciples that he will send another "counsellor", he says "you will know him for you have seen him already", referring to himself.
In short, although Jesus isn;t recorder as saying "this is how the trinity works..." he does say that he, Father and Holy Spirit are the same thing.
M
[aditted fur spalling]
[ 01. May 2005, 07:37: Message edited by: Matrix ]
Posted by londonderrry (# 9158) on
:
quote:
As a totally orthodox trinitarian, I would say that 1 John 5 v 7 is an interpolation into the Bible. John didn't write it. It is however a clear intimation of what the second century church believed.
To suggest that God would allow entire verses into the text of Scripture for 1800 years before 20th century scholarship came to the rescue is dubious at best. I suppose if we find older mss that do not contain John 3:16 in them... than that will be next to go (although I am aware that there are more factors than age alone that are used by "scholarship" to figure out what truly is "Thus saith the Lord!")
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
what about this as an illustration
*snip*
The female known as Elizabeth is one biological entity.
She is a wife.
She is a mother.
She is a monarch.
As was pointed out previously this is modalism, or sabellianism.
It denies the reality of the relationships within the godhead. It is just one God who reveals different aspects of his personality to others.
Does Elizabeth the wife ever plead with Elisabeth the monarch or listen to Elisabeth the mother?
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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I think this scripture supports the trinity in terms of salvific experience. If the scripture is both believed and applied it is not possible to deny that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit: one God indwells the believer.
Romans 8:9-14 (KJV)
9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.
12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh.
13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.
14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.
So we see that the indwelling of God is Trinitarian in nature. Without a Trinitarian undersatnding of God the whole notion of divine indwelling become blasphemous, even idolatrous. We are a temple to the Holy Spirit are we not? Anything that is put in a temple that is not God is an idol. Has God placed the Holy Spirit (something that is not God) in his Temple? No! The only rightful occupant of a Temple is God! The Holy Spirit is God; he can be none other because we are a Temple to Him.
We can see from this passage of Scripture that each person of the Trinity indwells the Christian. Now, as a Christian I am told by Paul in Ephesians 3:14-21 'to be strengthened with might through his Spirit in the inner man, that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith'... 'that may be be filled with [i]all the fulness of God.' Christ by the Holy Spirit fills me with the fulness of God! If Christ, who indwells me, is not God why does his presence fill me with the fulness of God?
Just some thoughts...
Daron
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
I think this scripture supports the trinity in terms of salvific experience. If the scripture is both believed and applied it is not possible to deny that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit: one God indwells the believer.
Romans 8:9-14 (KJV)
9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.
12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh.
13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.
14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.
So we see that the indwelling of God is Trinitarian in nature. Without a Trinitarian undersatnding of God the whole notion of divine indwelling become blasphemous, even idolatrous. We are a temple to the Holy Spirit are we not? Anything that is put in a temple that is not God is an idol. Has God placed the Holy Spirit (something that is not God) in his Temple? No! The only rightful occupant of a Temple is God! The Holy Spirit is God; he can be none other because we are a Temple to Him.
We can see from this passage of Scripture that each person of the Trinity indwells the Christian. Now, as a Christian I am told by Paul in Ephesians 3:14-21 'to be strengthened with might through his Spirit in the inner man, that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith'... 'that may be be filled with [i]all the fulness of God.' Christ by the Holy Spirit fills me with the fulness of God! If Christ, who indwells me, is not God why does his presence fill me with the fulness of God?
Just some thoughts...
Daron
Posted by Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz (# 9228) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
As a totally orthodox trinitarian, I would say that 1 John 5 v 7 is an interpolation into the Bible. John didn't write it. It is however a clear intimation of what the second century church believed.
As far as my illustration of Elizabeth Windsor being modalism; I thought modalism was when God was Father THEN Son, THEN HS in turn.
My (less than perfect) point was that Elizabeth is monarch, wife and mother all at the same time, but that the 'person' of monarch is not the 'person' of wife, the 'person' of wife is not the 'person' of mother.
She is three in one - a trinity of persons in one being.
Elizabeth Windsor is one person performing three roles. Perhaps - a big perhaps - if she suffered multiple personality syndrome (or whatever it is called) she might be a little closer to the notion of three persons, but still not seriously so.
The Father and the Son, for instance, not only talk about each other in the third person ("This is my Beloved Son" etc), but also in the second person: (Jn 17.5) "glorify thou me in thy own presence with the glory I had with thee before the world was made".
The "thou and me" language is the language of deepest personal relationship. The Father and the Son have a "face to face" relationship of perfect knowledge, perfect love, perfect unity of will. The Father and the Son are one God (there cannot be two omnipotents - who would win a fight?) - but they possess an "I-You" relationship to each other. The Trinity is necessary for God to be love: the Father loves the Son from all eternity, and the Son loves the Father from all eternity. If God is a single person, whom does he love?
The multiple personalities of the disordered mind are not real persons: but the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are the most perfect community of love - absolutely one in knowledge, power, and presence (omniscience, omnipotent, omnipresence). God is a perfect unity of Love: the Father, Son and Spirit possess a closeness that is far beyond our experience - _everything_ the Father knows is known to the Son - no secrets at all, no "private thoughts", complete and total and instant sharing of the innermost thoughts of the heart, if you will.
If you and I were omniscient, I would know everyone of your thoughts as you thought them, and you would know everyone of my thoughts as I thought them. Either this would be sheer claustrophobic hell, and we would destroy each other - or we would possess a unity and transparency to each other unknown in actual human experience. No two human beings ever experience that degree of intimacy and closeness, but I imagine God does.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Sorry I'm late to the party, dh rebooted the comp yesterday and I've only just got back.
Glad to see you started without me
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The Divinity of the Son is clearly seen in
John 1 v 1: the Word is with God and is God.
I believe I already explained this scripture on the other thread
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Mark 2 v 5 - 7: only God can forgive sins but Jesus does it anyway.
Only God and whomever he decides to deligate that authority to as clearly indicated by:
(1 Corinthians 15:27) 27 For [God] “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
John 8 v 58: Jesus assumes the name of the Godhead for himself.
(John 8:58) 58 Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”
Here he is merely saying that he was created before Abraham, so were the angels, that doesn't make him God
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
John 20 v 28: Jesus accepts divine worship from Thomas.
The word god on its own does not infer divinity, as I explained about John 1:1.
Strong's dictionary defines that word as :
theos
theh'-os
Of uncertain affinity; a deity, especially (with G3588) the supreme Divinity; figuratively a magistrate; by Hebraism very: - X exceeding, God, god [-ly, -ward].
This explains its use at:
(John 10:34-36) . . .Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “YOU are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came, and yet the Scripture cannot be nullified, 36 do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?
which as I've explained before quotes:
(Psalm 82:6) 6 “I myself have said, ‘YOU are gods, And all of YOU are sons of the Most High.
It also explains:
(Psalm 82:1) . . .God is stationing himself in the assembly of the Divine One; In the middle of the gods he judges. . .
The only way to identify exactly what kind of "god" is being referred to is to use some other title or name as well such as Almighty or Jehovah/Yahwah or whatever form you prefer.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Philippians 2 v 5 etc: Not Pauline theology but his quotation of a hymn in common use that ascribes both the nature and title of Divinity to Jesus.
(Philippians 2:5-7) 5 Keep this mental attitude in YOU that was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. 7 No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and came to be in the likeness of men. . .
I think this explains itself
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The Divinity of the Spirit is clearly seen throughout Scripture beginning with Genesis 1 v 2.
The fact that the Holy Spirit is Holy and powerful is not at issue.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
That the Holy Spirit is a person, rather than a force or influence is seen as passages where he is referred to as 'he': John 16 v 13.
(John 16:13) 13 However, when that one arrives, the spirit of the truth, he will guide YOU into all the truth, for he will not speak of his own impulse, but what things he hears he will speak, and he will declare to YOU the things coming. . .
Many things are refered to as he/she even though they are not really people cars, boats and even if his Holy Spirit were technically a person, it does not make it God himself. The scriptures are littered with examples of God's spirit being an active force used to fulfil his will, including the one that you yourself quoted.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
An example of where he is directly referred to as God is Acts 5 v 3 - 4.
Not sure what you are trying to say here, have you got that scripture right. (I haven't read the rest of the posts so I apologise if this has already been cleared up)
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It's also interesting that the very early church battled with doecetism - ie that Jesus only seemed to be human. They had no problem convincing people of his divinity, but they had to reassert the idea that Jesus was also a real man in the face of those who said he didn't really suffer on the cross, that he never left a shadow or even that he walked just above the ground, leaving no footprints. It's only as the waters grew muddy away from the source that the teachers in the church felt they had to combat those who taught Jesus was a mere man.
This is indeed interesting but does not argue for the Scriptural basis of the Trinity
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
And don't forget the baptismal formula that ascribes a collective, singular name to the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit - ie in the name of the Father...
A collective name is not always a singular name and does not indicate that all are the same person; My husband, I and all my children share the same name but we are very different people.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I see no mystery, no difficulty here.
If you accept the divinity of Jesus of Nazareth, as clearly demonstrated in Scripture and required by the Christian theology of Incarnation and Atonement, then the Trinity is not a problem at all.
Incarnation and atonement are totally seperate issues and I don't have any problem with either of them since for a God who created the awesome universe such things are no problem at all.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
If however, you reject the Divinity and Deity of Jesus, then of course the Trinity becomes a stumbling block.
You seem to assume that if I cannot accept Jesus as the Almighty God that I cannot accept him as Lord, or that I am somehow disregarding or disrespecting his role as saviour.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The question must be, of course, do you reject the Trinity because you refuse the Deity of Jesus, or do you reject the Deity of Jesus because you can't grasp the obvious teaching of scripture on a trinitarian Godhead?
If they were that obvious we wouldn't be having that discussion.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It seems to me that all Unitarian thinking people reject the Trinity simply because they are prejudiced against the Divinity of the Son of God in the first place.
Or that all Trinitarians are prejudiced against all Unitarians.
[fixed code -- 12uthy -- your code is much improved, but could you take a moment to check out the UBB code thread in the Styx -- you seem to be missing out on one simple step that would make your posts a lot easier to follow and my life a lot simpler]
[ 01. May 2005, 17:40: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
As far as my illustration of Elizabeth Windsor being modalism; I thought modalism was when God was Father THEN Son, THEN HS in turn.
The thought that God is first the Father, then the Son, and is now with us as the HS exclusively is called sabellianism, and is a form of modalism. Modalism claims that the one-personal God picks and chooses whether he wants to manfiest as either, Father, Son or holy spirit at any given moment. You can find this teaching among "oneness pentecoastals" or "Christadelphians".
When the concept of "person" is applied to denote the Father, Son and Holy spirit, this denotes more than role that the one God is in, otherwise that would imply modalism. "Person" does not denote a being either, as that would imply tritheism. What it really means is that there are three ways of being in God, that has a certain polarity, but are not independent of each other. (I'm doing a barthian take on it here for you)
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The Divinity of the Son is clearly seen in
John 1 v 1: the Word is with God and is God.
I believe I already explained this scripture on the other thread.
How do you explain the OT prophecies that say the Messiah will be God Himself?
quote:
1. Unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given, and the government shall he upon His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, God, Hero, Father of eternity, Prince of peace. (Isa. 9:6-7).
2. It shall be said in that day, Lo, this is our God; we have waited for Him that He may save us: THIS IS JEHOVAH we have waited for Him, we will rejoice and be glad in His salvation (Isa. 25:9).
3. Behold, the LORD JEHOVIH will come in strength, and His arm shall rule for Him; behold, His reward is with Him. He shall feed His flock like a shepherd (Isa. 40:3, 5, 10-11).
4. Behold, the days come that I will raise up to David a righteous offshoot, who shall reign a king, and shall prosper, and shall execute judgment and justice in the earth: and this is His name whereby they shall call Him, JEHOVAH OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS (Jer. 23:5, 6; 33:15, 16).
5. Behold, I send Mine Angel, who shall prepare the way before Me, and the LORD whom ye seek shall suddenly come to His temple. (Mal. 3:1, 2; 4:5).
6. I saw, and behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven; and there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages may worship Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed; and all dominions shall worship Him, and obey Him (Dan. 7:13, 14, 27).
7. Jehovah, remember David, who sware unto Jehovah, and vowed to the Mighty One of Jacob,If I shall enter within the tent of my house,if I shall go up upon my couch,if I shall give sleep to mine eyes, until I find out a place for Jehovah, a habitation for the Mighty One of Jacob. Lo, we heard of Him at Ephratah, we found Him in the fields of the forest. (Ps. 132:1-7, 9).
8. The Lord Himself shall give you a sign: Behold a virgin shall conceive and hear a Son, and shall call His name GOD-WITH-US (Isa. 7:14; Matt. 1:22, 23).
While I'm not a fan of a Trinity that is understood as a Trinity of persons, I have no doubts about the divinity of Jesus. He is Jehovah made visible, for "he who has seen Me has seen the Father."
+
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
quote:
But, to get back to the OP, a Trinity of three omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent Beings is an absurd impossibility. It is fine to say that it is a mystery, but this really amounts to no explanation at all.
You are confusing 'being' with 'personhood' here, and you end up with tritheism.
Person or hypostasis in trinitarian language does not denote an individual or a being as we moderns understand the term.
One being, three hypostases.
The Trinity does look like tritheism. I see that there must be some mysterious difference between "being" and "person." This still amounts to no explanation.
Of course, if by "person" we mean something such as three ways of understanding God, then they can plausibly be seen as one.
I personally would say, as is said in the Athanasian Creed, that the three are like the soul, body, and activity of a single individual.
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on
:
I've often thought that the baptism of Jesus was an excellent illustration of the Trinity: God the Son was present - and John the Baptizer says of him "before I was born, he already was"; in Matthew, Mark, and Luke the Spirit descends and the voice of the Father is heard.
Later, Jesus accepts divine titles.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
what about this as an illustration
*snip*
The female known as Elizabeth is one biological entity.
She is a wife.
She is a mother.
She is a monarch.
As was pointed out previously this is modalism, or sabellianism.
It denies the reality of the relationships within the godhead. It is just one God who reveals different aspects of his personality to others.
Does Elizabeth the wife ever plead with Elisabeth the monarch or listen to Elisabeth the mother?
Possibly - Elizabeth the mother might well behave in a certain way because she is the Queen. As a wife, she might behave a certain way because she is also a mother. She might not speak to herself in words, but it may be that the position she holds dictates her behaviour in other spheres.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
12uthy.
Many thanks for predictably using you grossly distorted version of the Bible to back up your prejudiced argument.
I think you'll find that no church accepts your rewritten Bible as authentic opr authoritative - other than the Jehovah's Witnesses to which you belong.
Posted by Margaret (# 283) on
:
Could I put in a word for the JWs' New World Translation of the Bible, as its accuracy seems significant to this discussion? Yes, the translators obviously did bring their theological preconceptions to the task of translating - but that's inevitable; all translators bring their own theological slant, inevitably and usually unconsciously.
I belong to an NT Greek discussion list and John 1.1 comes up quite regularly. There are serious academics on the list, and the general agreement seems to be that the NWT's handling of the verse can be defended as a possible, though perhaps not very likely, translation. As someone who reads Greek I think the NWT NT (obviously I can say nothing about the OT as my Hebrew's minimal) is generally a pretty accurate translation, though the translators' determination to give as exact a translation of Koine Greek as they could does make the English painfully stilted at times.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
At least it's a bit better than a certain version of John 1 we've read about recently that says that "the Word" should be translated as the plan.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Hi folks,
This will be my last post for today since my health is non-too good atm but since I effectively started this fire, I feel I must clarify a few things.
Mudfrog,
I appreciate your explanation about the three "persons" and I agree that English semantics is responsible for much of the confusion.
However, if we are to take each role of God as a separate person, why limit it to a Trinity. After all, is he not:
A creator (The Father)
a Redeemer (The Son)
an evangeliser (The Spirit) but also
a Judge
an avenger and
a mighty warrior
That would make him a polytheism.
But enough of the "theospeak".
Until we can agree on a definition of the terms divinity and deity, I shall try to lay out my beliefs regarding the "3 persons" and their relationship to each other.
Jehovah is the Almighty and Eternal God and creator of all things.
Having said that, it is clear (at least to me) from Scripture that Jesus was the first person that He created and that all "other things" were created "through" Jesus but according to Jehovah's will. Thus Jesus can truly be said to be his "only begotten son"
(Since you evidently believe that the NWT is untrustworthy I shall use the English Standard Version.)
Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together.
Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent.
Col 1:19 For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell,
Col 1:20 and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.
Pro 8:22 "The LORD possessed me at the beginning of his work, the first of his acts of old.
Pro 8:23 Ages ago I was set up, at the first, before the beginning of the earth.
Pro 8:24 When there were no depths I was brought forth, when there were no springs abounding with water.
Pro 8:25 Before the mountains had been shaped, before the hills, I was brought forth,
Pro 8:26 before he had made the earth with its fields, or the first of the dust of the world.
Pro 8:27 When he established the heavens, I was there; when he drew a circle on the face of the deep,
Pro 8:28 when he made firm the skies above, when he established the fountains of the deep,
Pro 8:29 when he assigned to the sea its limit, so that the waters might not transgress his command, when he marked out the foundations of the earth,
Pro 8:30 then I was beside him, like a master workman, and I was daily his delight, rejoicing before him always,
Pro 8:31 rejoicing in his inhabited world and delighting in the children of man.
Since he is evidently a creation by Jehovah, he cannot be the same person although I concede that it could be said that he is a part of him.
The Spirit, I believe, is only a person in the sense of it being anthropomorphise in order to reassure his disciples. For every scripture that refers to the Spirit as a person, there are many, many that refer to it as a motivating and creating force.
Thus, God created all things "through" Jesus and the Holy Spirit which is why we are baptised in the name of these three.
Likewise it can be said that since the Holy Spirit is used to accomplish his will and both have come from Jehovah, both these "persons" can be said to be a part of the one God, Jehovah. Just as we can be said to have a spirit which is a part of us.
Rom 8:16 The Spirit himself bears witness with our spirit that we are children of God,
Hope this clarifies things a bit, if not you'll have to talk amongst yourselves for a while because I going to bed to rest.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
Rest up, 12uthy.
And when you get back, I'd really like to hear your take on that passage of Isaiah that Freddy cited. quote:
Unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given, and the government shall he upon His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, God, Hero, Father of eternity, Prince of peace. (Isa. 9:6-7).
That one.
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
As far as my illustration of Elizabeth Windsor being modalism; I thought modalism was when God was Father THEN Son, THEN HS in turn.
Does she have any relationship between these? Does the wife etarnally begets the mother? Does the monarch proceed from the wife?
What you present us with, is the teaching that God is one, but reveals himself as three. This is not my cup of tea. Think about it:
"Although Modalism initially has appeal in its simplicity, it is a dangerous teaching because it misunderstands not only “what” God is, but more importantly, “who” God is and therefore who we are. If the Father, Son, and Spirit are only modes of God (or “masks” as some taught), then the God behind the mask is unknown to us. We are forced to understand the Father, Son and Spirit as illusions and not the true God we desire to know and love. Moreover, if we are God’s children in relation to him as Father, but the Father is an illusion, then our status as his children is also an illusion (Gal 4:6)."
http://www.basictheology.com/definitions/Modalism/
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
To go back to the source:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
We have been over this many times. Is it a dead horse?
I don´t think so. For me, a dead horse must "qualify" these points:
1. Discussed over and over.
2. Not be that important.
Let´s try it out on a few things:
Evolution:
1. check
2. check
Homosexuality:
1. check
2. check
Trinity:
1. check
2. does not check.
GOD BLESS!
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
The only problem, k-mann, is that whether we use modalism or not we still don't understand what God is in Trinity- he is illusive to our understanding. So what the heck is a Person when referring to God? It sure ain't the same thing I mean when speaking of a human person. "Person" is just a word to fill in a space of unknown and perhaps unknowable. It's the same for me with the salvation of the cross: what is it? Ransom? Victory over death? Penal substitution? All of the above? Or not exactly?
To me, theological language is an approximation. It's like physicists trying to explain concepts of quantum and relativity to me, a layman, without being able to communicate the math because it would be over my head. They have to use examples like trains, elevators, spaceships, and cats in boxes to try to give me a sense of the subjects.
And theologically God is eternally over our heads except in the clues he gave to his followers during his Incarnation and the bits the Spirit gave in the OT and to Paul and other Church Fathers.
Posted by Ley Druid (# 3246) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Margaret:
Could I put in a word for the JWs' New World Translation of the Bible, as its accuracy seems significant to this discussion? Yes, the translators obviously did bring their theological preconceptions to the task of translating - but that's inevitable; all translators bring their own theological slant, inevitably and usually unconsciously.
I belong to an NT Greek discussion list and John 1.1 comes up quite regularly. There are serious academics on the list, and the general agreement seems to be that the NWT's handling of the verse can be defended as a possible, though perhaps not very likely, translation. As someone who reads Greek I think the NWT NT (obviously I can say nothing about the OT as my Hebrew's minimal) is generally a pretty accurate translation, though the translators' determination to give as exact a translation of Koine Greek as they could does make the English painfully stilted at times.
OK Greek scholar,
I've never heard a good defense for the NWT's inconsistent translation of κυριο&sigmaf.
This is sometimes rendered as "Jehovah", which, of course, is never found in any Greek manuscript. Ever. "The translators' determination to give as exact a translation of Koine Greek as they could"?"Generally a pretty accurate translation"?
[ 01. May 2005, 17:45: Message edited by: Ley Druid ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
The only problem, k-mann, is that whether we use modalism or not we still don't understand what God is in Trinity- he is illusive to our understanding. So what the heck is a Person when referring to God? It sure ain't the same thing I mean when speaking of a human person. "Person" is just a word to fill in a space of unknown and perhaps unknowable.
My view as well. You still end up with a mystery. Which is ironic, since, as I understand it, the point of the Incarnation was to shed light on human darkness:
quote:
Isaiah 9 - The people who walked in darkness Have seen a great light;
Those who dwelt in the land of the shadow of death, Upon them a light has shined.
Isaiah 42 - I will keep You and give You as a covenant to the people, As a light to the Gentiles, To open blind eyes, To bring out prisoners from the prison, Those who sit in darkness from the prison house.
Isaiah 60 - Arise, shine; For your light has come! And the glory of the LORD is risen upon you. 2 For behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, And deep darkness the people; But the LORD will arise over you, And His glory will be seen upon you. The Gentiles shall come to your light, And kings to the brightness of your rising.
Mark 4 - For there is nothing hidden which will not be revealed, nor has anything been kept secret but that it should come to light.
Luke 1 - the Dayspring from on high has visited us; To give light to those who sit in darkness and the shadow of death,
John 1.4 - In Him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it… 9That was the true Light which gives light to every man coming into the world.
John 3.19 - And this is the condemnation, that the light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.
John 8.12 Then Jesus spoke to them again, saying, “I am the light of the world. He who follows Me shall not walk in darkness, but have the light of life.”
John 12 “And he who sees Me sees Him who sent Me. 46“I have come as a light into the world, that whoever believes in Me should not abide in darkness.
John 9 “For judgment I have come into this world, that those who do not see may see, and that those who see may be made blind.”
John 18 - For this cause I was born, and for this cause I have come into the world, that I should bear witness to the truth. Everyone who is of the truth hears My voice.
The point is that Jesus came to make the invisible God visible. This is why He says "He who has seen Me has seen the Father." And why John says:
quote:
John 1.18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
So it is ironic that Christianity has concocted this incomprehensible concept of a Trinity of persons.
Doesn't it work much better to see the Father-Son language as metaphor for "God-as-He-exists-beyond-all-human-understanding" and "God-as-we-can-comprehend-Him"?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Doesn't it work much better to see the Father-Son language as metaphor for "God-as-He-exists-beyond-all-human-understanding" and "God-as-we-can-comprehend-Him"?
Not when God-as-we-can-comprehend-Him says to God-as-He-exists-beyond-all-human-understanding, "Nevertheless not my will, but Thy will, be done."
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Doesn't it work much better to see the Father-Son language as metaphor for "God-as-He-exists-beyond-all-human-understanding" and "God-as-we-can-comprehend-Him"?
Not when God-as-we-can-comprehend-Him says to God-as-He-exists-beyond-all-human-understanding, "Nevertheless not my will, but Thy will, be done."
But that's the point of exinanition. To unite the two.
Had this not been the case an Incarnation in actual human history would not have been necessary.
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on
:
quote:
12uthie wrote
(John 8:58) 58 Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”
This is one of those places where the difference between the version you use and the ones the rest of us use really matters. And as long as you use your version and the rest of us use any other version I have ever heard of, we're going to be split on what this means.
All versions I have seen translate the Greek of that verse as "Before Abraham was, I AM."
That matters, because I AM was the name God/the Father used to identify himself to Moses, and was the name by which God continued to be known throughout Jewish history. Jesus isn't saying he existed before Abraham -- a pointless thing to say in and of itself. He is identifying himself with the Name of God -- and in that culture, that meant identifying himself with God in a specific and blasphemous way -- unless he was in fact God.
John
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
The Trinity at least begins to explain how God can appear to have two wills. I don't see how on your theory that can be explained, Freddy?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
The Trinity at least begins to explain how God can appear to have two wills. I don't see how on your theory that can be explained, Freddy?
God can't have two wills. That would mean two gods.
If Jesus was the visible face of God, it is simply that there was a process involved in making the divine visible. So Jesus lived a life, He didn't just make an appearance.
His whole life was a journey towards unition with the Father. Until the crucifixion and resurrection, the appearance would therefore have been that there were two wills.
After the resurrection, however, He said "all power has been given to Me in heaven and on earth" (Matthew 28). And Thomas called Him "my Lord and my God" (John 20).
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
Except he was with the Father in the beginning, so the gradually-becoming-God thing doesn't float.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
Except he was with the Father in the beginning, so the gradually-becoming-God thing doesn't float.
Yes, He was with the Father at the beginning. Coming to earth, however, and taking on a body, born of a woman, involved a process. If not, why didn't He just manifest Himself fully formed?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
Involved what kind of a promise? We affirm that Mary is Theotokos, that is, the child born of her was already fully God as well as fully Man. He didn't become more God. He was already as God as he was going to get. Of course in the flesh he might not have REALIZED that yet. Is that what you are saying?
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
The Trinity at least begins to explain how God can appear to have two wills. I don't see how on your theory that can be explained, Freddy?
ohhh...
Read up on your Maximos the Confessor, God does not have two wills, that would imply two gods. But Christ being fully God and fully man, did have a divine will and a human will. Look up on the monothelite heresy. ;-)
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
He was already as God as he was going to get. Of course in the flesh he might not have REALIZED that yet. Is that what you are saying?
Yes, He was already God. I wouldn't say it was that He didn't realize it yet. He realized quite a bit when He was only 12 years old. It is more a matter that when the Word was made flesh, the "made flesh" part did not happen instantly but formed gradually. He was fully human and fully divine, but the joining of the two took His lifetime. This was the reason for the events of His life.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
The Trinity does look like tritheism. I see that there must be some mysterious difference between "being" and "person." This still amounts to no explanation.
The concept of person is used as a relational concept to explain how the Father and The Son and Holy Spirit relate to each other in a personal way. It was never intended to imply independence and complete individuality as we moderns understand the term.
The term "person" has undergone a vast change of meaning when it was used in the Athanasian creed. Ironically the term persona was taken from the theatrical world and had connotations to a mask.
A being is not identical to a person. You can have non-personal beings like a plant or a tree, one-personal beings like human beings, and one tri-personal being, namely God.
Do you think that the trinity is a problem to be solved or a mystery which you experienced and be transformed by?
quote:
I personally would say, as is said in the Athanasian Creed, that the three are like the soul, body, and activity of a single individual.
Go ahead with Augustine, I think the psychological analogy to be a perfectly valid model of the trinity (although I am sure both Mousethief and FrG woud disagree), although personally I prefer other models.
[ 01. May 2005, 20:33: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Freddy, I also think it is fair to say that there were some sort of process going on in Christ's life.
Luk 2:52 And Jesus advanced in wisdom and age and grace with God and men.
Jesus increased in wisdom, As to his human nature.
I think the event of baptism did represent a turning point in the life of Christ when he received the beatific vision, which, I think, due to kenosis had been clouded up till that time.
Best,
Posted by Margaret (# 283) on
:
Ley Druid said
quote:
I've never heard a good defense for the NWT's inconsistent translation of kurios.
Have a look at this site , which deals with translating the tetragrammaton. It's from a mainstream perspective, but includes an interesting discussion with Greg Stafford, a scholarly Witness.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
The term "person" has undergone a vast change of meaning when it was used in the Athanasian creed. Ironically the term persona was taken from the theatrical world and had connotations to a mask.
I like that. Very nice explanation. I only wish that this was clearer in the popular imagination. Then people wouldn't wonder which one to pray to.
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Do you think that the trinity is a problem to be solved or a mystery which you experienced and be transformed by?
Good question. I guess I would go with problem to be solved, since a clear sight of God is an important part of transformation.
Like Lyda Rose I'm hoping for an explanation of how the Messiah is the Everlasting Father of Isaiah 9. Isn't Jesus the "Our Father" that we pray to?
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
:
Where polytheism or tritheism go wrong, IMO is in seeing the attributes of the One God as gods in themselves. God is One, but within creation, He manifests Himself to us via certain attributes such as lovingkindness or judgement. They are His qualities, not independent entities. In the thread on the Wisdom Tradition, we discussed how Wisdom is indistinguishable from YHVH and how it is through Him that God interacts with His creation.
While the Trinity is in no way explicit in such and idea, it is quite compatible with it and has helped me to come to an acceptance of the Trinity after many years of finding it an incomprehensible idea. But we can cause ourselves unnecessary brain ache by getting too tied up in these things. If we accept that God the Father creates us, God the Son redeems us and God the Holy Spirit sanctifies us then we clearly owe everything to God and can simply rest in His love.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I only wish that this was clearer in the popular imagination. Then people wouldn't wonder which one to pray to.
One prays to the Father in the name of Jesus through the Holy Spirit
quote:
Good question. I guess I would go with problem to be solved, since a clear sight of God is an important part of transformation.
I just can't help myself. I have to show what my favourite saint, Ephraem the Syrian would say
Wrong
1. Mistaken confidence in reason as
all-competent: leads to presumption.
Right (Ephrem)
1. Acknowledge inadequacy of reason
and of all concepts: humility.
Wrong
2. Literalism and rationalism: failure to
distinguish levels of thought and find
the mean between equivocal and univocal;
subjects God to limited human
concepts; tends to determinism.
Right (Ephrem)
2. Prefer use of symbols, because of
their power to encourage heuristic
experience, in which free will is in
play. Prefer contemplation of
God’s Mystery.
Wrong
3. Over-confidence in argument leads to
quarrels and schisms.
Right (Ephrem)
3. Result: preservation of charity
and union.
quote:
Like Lyda Rose I'm hoping for an explanation of how the Messiah is the Everlasting Father of Isaiah 9. Isn't Jesus the "Our Father" that we pray to?
Nope,
the LXX does not have the four titles, but instead the one title: "Messenger of great counsel" (NETS Septuagint)
[fixed code]
[ 02. May 2005, 00:37: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
quote:
Like Lyda Rose I'm hoping for an explanation of how the Messiah is the Everlasting Father of Isaiah 9. Isn't Jesus the "Our Father" that we pray to?
Nope,
the LXX does not have the four titles, but instead the one title: "Messenger of great counsel" (NETS Septuagint)
Wow. I never knew that. Well, I guess that solves it.
I guess no one ever told Handel.
I forget. Who is it exactly who accept the LXX?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I forget. Who is it exactly who accept the LXX?
That would be the Orthodox.
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I forget. Who is it exactly who accept the LXX?
That would be the Orthodox.
And about all the apostles (ok, they are orthodox).
And me! I accept LXX (I´m protestant... for now).
GOD BLESS!
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I forget. Who is it exactly who accept the LXX?
That would be the Orthodox.
Do you have a link to an approved LXX English version so that I could look at the passage in context? Thanks, MT.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
Do you have a link to an approved LXX English version so that I could look at the passage in context? Thanks, MT.
Voila the provisional new english translation:
http://ccat.sas.upenn.edu/nets/
[ 02. May 2005, 04:16: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Ley Druid (# 3246) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Margaret:
Ley Druid said
quote:
I've never heard a good defense for the NWT's inconsistent translation of kurios.
Have a look at this site , which deals with translating the tetragrammaton. It's from a mainstream perspective, but includes an interesting discussion with Greg Stafford, a scholarly Witness.
quote:
The restoration of "Jehovah" into the New World Translation Christian Scriptures is the primary focus of our publications. This restoration of the divine name is based on the claim that the Tetragrammaton was used by the original inspired authors. However, after examining the extant manuscripts of the Christian Scriptures and evaluating the history of the period, there is insufficient evidence to support the claim that the Tetragrammaton was removed from the circulating Christian Scriptures in the 2nd and 3rd centuries. From your own source
Have you got a better defense than that?
Hardly a ringing endorsement. Not really an "exact translation of Koine Greek" is it? Not even "a pretty accurate translation" is it?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
As usual, the Catholic Encyclopedia article on the Blessed Trinity is very helpful. It first lists the support for the Trinity dogma from scripture, mostly NT but some OT, thereby thoroughly refuting 12uthy. For example:
quote:
CE writes:
Rationalist critics lay great stress upon the text: "The Father is greater than I" (14:28). They argue that this suffices to establish that the author of the Gospel held subordinationist views, and they expound in this sense certain texts in which the Son declares His dependence on the Father (5:19; 8:28). In point of fact the doctrine of the Incarnation involves that, in regard of His Human Nature, the Son should be less than the Father. No argument against Catholic doctrine can, therefore, be drawn from this text. So too, the passages referring to the dependence of the Son upon the Father do but express what is essential to Trinitarian dogma, namely, that the Father is the supreme source from Whom the Divine Nature and perfections flow to the Son.
A detailed discussion of scripture supporting the Divinity but difference of the three Persons is given, which together with the ubiquitous support for there being only One God clearly implies some form of Trinity dogma.
It goes on to trace the Trinity to earliest church tradition, for example:
quote:
CE writes:
The information we possess regarding another heresy -- that of Montanus -- supplies us with further proof that the doctrine of the Trinity was the Church's teaching in A.D. 150. Tertullian affirms in the clearest terms that what he held as to the Trinity when a Catholic he still holds as a Montanist ("Adv. Prax.", II, 156); and in the same work he explicitly teaches the Divinity of the Three Persons, their distinction, the eternity of God the Son (op. cit., xxvii).
Modern errors attributed to the ante-Nicene Fathers, like claiming that the Son is a created being, are dealt with one by one.
Next it clarifies that the Trinity is a, perhaps the, mystery of revelation:
quote:
CE writes:
The Vatican Council further defined that the Christian Faith contains mysteries strictly so called (can. 4). All theologians admit that the doctrine of the Trinity is of the number of these. Indeed, of all revealed truths this is the most impenetrable to reason. Hence, to declare this to be no mystery would be a virtual denial of the canon in question.
Hence there will always be a "darkness" about this concept for us in this life, and reasons's job is not to thoroughly understand this mystery, but simply to show that there is no contradiction in what faith declares.
Next we find a very thorough and IMHO entirely fair assessment of the Greek Father's development of the Trinity doctrine. For example:
quote:
CE writes:
In Latin theology thought fixed first on the Nature and only subsequently on the Persons. Personality is viewed as being, so to speak, the final complement of the Nature: the Nature is regarded as logically prior to the Personality. <snip> This is entirely different from the Greek point of view. Greek thought fixed primarily on the Three distinct Persons: the Father, to Whom, as the source and origin of all, the name of God (Theos) more especially belongs; the Son, proceeding from the Father by an eternal generation, and therefore rightly termed God also; and the Divine Spirit, proceeding from the Father through the Son. The Personality is treated as logically prior to the Nature.
Then we finally reach the Latin intepretation, which is not set over and above the Greek one, but rather as a different take which, following St Augustine, stresses unity. Obviously, the role of relations a la St Thomas Aquinas is discussed. For example:
quote:
CE writes:
It is urged that since there are Three Persons there must be three self-consciousnesses: but the Divine mind ex hypothesi is one, and therefore can possess but one self-consciousness; in other words, the dogma contains an irreconcilable contradiction. This whole objection rests on a petitio principii: for it takes for granted the identification of person and of mind with self-consciousness. This identification is rejected by Catholic philosophers as altogether misleading. <snip> Granted that in the infinite mind, in which the categories are transcended, there are three relations which are subsistent realities, distinguished one from another in virtue of their relative opposition then it will follow that the same mind will have a three-fold consciousness, knowing itself in three ways in accordance with its three modes of existence.
The text is lengthy, but quite readable. I hope the short quotes whet the appetite for reading the whole thing...
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:
quote:
12uthie wrote
(John 8:58) 58 Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”
This is one of those places where the difference between the version you use and the ones the rest of us use really matters. And as long as you use your version and the rest of us use any other version I have ever heard of, we're going to be split on what this means.
All versions I have seen translate the Greek of that verse as "Before Abraham was, I AM."
That matters, because I AM was the name God/the Father used to identify himself to Moses, and was the name by which God continued to be known throughout Jewish history. Jesus isn't saying he existed before Abraham -- a pointless thing to say in and of itself. He is identifying himself with the Name of God -- and in that culture, that meant identifying himself with God in a specific and blasphemous way -- unless he was in fact God.
John
We cannot make this assertion since the NT was written in Greek and the OT in Hebrew and Aramaic.
The two words rendered I AM therefore can not be directly equated unless we have anyone on the board who reads both languages and can enlighten us.
At John 8:58 Jesus used the Greek word explained in Strong's Dictionary thus:
G1510
εἰμί
eimi
i-mee'
First person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic): - am, have been, X it is I, was. See also G1488, G1498, G1511, G1527, G2258, G2071, G2070, G2075, G2076, G2771, G2468, G5600.
Whereas at Exo 3:14 he explains the Hebrew word thus
H1961
היה
hâyâh
haw-yaw'
A primitive root (compare H1933); to exist, that is, be or become, come to pass (always emphatic, and not a mere copula or auxiliary): - beacon, X altogether, be (-come, accomplished, committed, like), break, cause, come (to pass), continue, do, faint, fall, + follow, happen, X have, last, pertain, quit (one-) self, require, X use.
Interestingly enough at Ex 6:3, one of the few places in the KJV that uses the divine name, indicated by the tetragrammaton Strong gives the explanation of that word as:
H3068
יהוה
yehôvâh
yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord. Compare H3050, H3069.
If he was specifically identifying himself as the same God that spoke to Moses surely he would have used this unique name not a general explanation of what the name means.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Wondering out loud here...
Is strong's dictionary divinely inpsired above all others - or do all dictionaries say the same. Could it be that you only quote that one particular tome because it's the only one that backs up your prejudices?
Can I also ask, if your views are correct, why did God not raise up his Witnesses until that bloke in the 19th century decided the world was going to end very soon? Seems a bit neglectful of God to forget to tell 19 hundred years of divine-Christ worshippers they were wrong!
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
It goes on to trace the Trinity to earliest church tradition, for example:
quote:
CE writes:
The information we possess regarding another heresy -- that of Montanus -- supplies us with further proof that the doctrine of the Trinity was the Church's teaching in A.D. 150. Tertullian affirms in the clearest terms that what he held as to the Trinity when a Catholic he still holds as a Montanist ("Adv. Prax.", II, 156); and in the same work he explicitly teaches the Divinity of the Three Persons, their distinction, the eternity of God the Son (op. cit., xxvii).
Modern errors attributed to the ante-Nicene Fathers, like claiming that the Son is a created being, are dealt with one by one.
Next it clarifies that the Trinity is a, perhaps the, mystery of revelation:
quote:
CE writes:
The Vatican Council further defined that the Christian Faith contains mysteries strictly so called (can. 4). All theologians admit that the doctrine of the Trinity is of the number of these. Indeed, of all revealed truths this is the most impenetrable to reason. Hence, to declare this to be no mystery would be a virtual denial of the canon in question.
Hence there will always be a "darkness" about this concept for us in this life, and reasons's job is not to thoroughly understand this mystery, but simply to show that there is no contradiction in what faith declares.
Next we find a very thorough and IMHO entirely fair assessment of the Greek Father's development of the Trinity doctrine. For example:
quote:
CE writes:
In Latin theology thought fixed first on the Nature and only subsequently on the Persons. Personality is viewed as being, so to speak, the final complement of the Nature: the Nature is regarded as logically prior to the Personality. <snip> This is entirely different from the Greek point of view. Greek thought fixed primarily on the Three distinct Persons: the Father, to Whom, as the source and origin of all, the name of God (Theos) more especially belongs; the Son, proceeding from the Father by an eternal generation, and therefore rightly termed God also; and the Divine Spirit, proceeding from the Father through the Son. The Personality is treated as logically prior to the Nature.
Then we finally reach the Latin intepretation, which is not set over and above the Greek one, but rather as a different take which, following St Augustine, stresses unity. Obviously, the role of relations a la St Thomas Aquinas is discussed. For example:
quote:
CE writes:
It is urged that since there are Three Persons there must be three self-consciousnesses: but the Divine mind ex hypothesi is one, and therefore can possess but one self-consciousness; in other words, the dogma contains an irreconcilable contradiction. This whole objection rests on a petitio principii: for it takes for granted the identification of person and of mind with self-consciousness. This identification is rejected by Catholic philosophers as altogether misleading. <snip> Granted that in the infinite mind, in which the categories are transcended, there are three relations which are subsistent realities, distinguished one from another in virtue of their relative opposition then it will follow that the same mind will have a three-fold consciousness, knowing itself in three ways in accordance with its three modes of existence.
The text is lengthy, but quite readable. I hope the short quotes whet the appetite for reading the whole thing...
All this shows, I'm afraid, is that the issue was just as contentious then as it is now.
I am, however quite interested in reading the part that you indicated when you said
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Modern errors attributed to the ante-Nicene Fathers, like claiming that the Son is a created being, are dealt with one by one.
That might help me more.
Thanks
[fixed code]
[ 02. May 2005, 14:43: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Cod (# 2643) on
:
Just a quick, but I think crucially important point.
It is very easy to translate words, but it is extremely difficult to translate concepts from ancient Greek into English.
As an illustration: the aforementioned verse: "he is the image of the invisible God" is a classic example. Perhaps a lurking scholar of Plato would like to pick up on exactly what St. Paul meant by it; he wrote in a culture strongly influenced by Plato, amongst others.
Discussing passages of Scripture without discussing the philosophical and theological ideas of the time is a completely futile activity. For this reason, the witness of the early Church (which chose the canon, not in a void, but with well developed ideas about what it believed) cannot be lightly set aside as being irrelevant to an interpretation of Scripture.
Otherwise all we are left with is naked words, regardless of how faithfully and painstakingly translated.
Posted by Margaret (# 283) on
:
Cod, I think you're absolutely right about the difficulties of translation. And Ley Druid, I think you've misunderstood me - I'm not trying to attack or defend anyone, just pointing out that there are arguments to be made on both (or all?) sides of the discussion.
I think it's a great mistake to dismiss the Witnesses as a bunch of wild theological crazies; others may not agree with their interpretations of scripture, or the conclusions they draw from them, but they can always, in my experience, back them up with reasons. (I say this with feeling, having had a stand-up fight with a Witness friend over the Trinity, and he really knew his stuff!) Witnesses are deeply devoted to studying the Bible, and their approach to it strikes me as very logical and consistent, even if it's not one that I, as a liberal Christian aware of modern scholarship, could possibly buy into. It also, incidentally, makes it very hard to discuss things with them, as we start from such incompatible sets of premises.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Blood Transfusions.
By their fruits you shall know them.
Nuff said.
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
The two words rendered I AM therefore can not be directly equated unless we have anyone on the board who reads both languages and can enlighten us.
At John 8:58 Jesus used the Greek word explained in Strong's Dictionary thus:
G1510
εἰμί
eimi
i-mee'
First person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic): - am, have been, X it is I, was. See also G1488, G1498, G1511, G1527, G2258, G2071, G2070, G2075, G2076, G2771, G2468, G5600.
Whereas at Exo 3:14 he explains the Hebrew word thus
H1961
היה
hâyâh
haw-yaw'
A primitive root (compare H1933); to exist, that is, be or become, come to pass (always emphatic, and not a mere copula or auxiliary): - beacon, X altogether, be (-come, accomplished, committed, like), break, cause, come (to pass), continue, do, faint, fall, + follow, happen, X have, last, pertain, quit (one-) self, require, X use.
The LXX -- the version of the Scriptures used by the early church -- says this on Exo 3:14:
"και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην εγω ειμι ο ων και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ ο ων απεσταλκεν με προς υμας"
"kai eiπen o qeoV πroV mwushn egw eimi o wn kai eiπen outwV ereiV toiV uioiV israhl o wn aπestalken me πroV umaV"
GOD BLESS!
[fixed code]
[ 02. May 2005, 14:45: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cod:
As an illustration: the aforementioned verse: "he is the image of the invisible God" is a classic example. Perhaps a lurking scholar of Plato would like to pick up on exactly what St. Paul meant by it; he wrote in a culture strongly influenced by Plato, amongst others.
Doubtless discussion of this verse in the light of Platonism would be interesting but it would seem that most scholars these days tend to interpret Paul and the early church first and foremost in the light of the Judaism of the period and only secondarily in the light of Hellenistic philosophy. This has led scholars such as Richard Bauckham to come up with a perhaps surprisingly radical reading of the 'highness' of NT Christology even in quite early texts.
You also say that we can't understand the words of the NT etc without understanding its cultural and philosophical background. I don't see anybody denying that. But (assuming I understood your point correctly - apologies if I didn't) does reading it against such a background challenge the view that the NT presents Jesus as God? And if so, how?
Posted by Cod (# 2643) on
:
Certainly JWs can't be faulted for their ability to pull out verses of scripture. But anyone can do that.
As I have already mentioned to justify an argument from scripture one needs to explain how the words would have been understood by the audience at the time - for whom 'seeing was not believing' which puts 'image of the invisible God' in a rather different lights.
What would a Martian, upon visiting Earth one billion years from now make of Shakespeare or George Orwell?
Posted by Cod (# 2643) on
:
Apologies: crossposted.
quote:
Originally posted by Sean D:
Doubtless discussion of this verse in the light of Platonism would be interesting but it would seem that most scholars these days tend to interpret Paul and the early church first and foremost in the light of the Judaism of the period and only secondarily in the light of Hellenistic philosophy.
This has led scholars such as Richard Bauckham to come up with a perhaps surprisingly radical reading of the 'highness' of NT Christology even in quite early texts.
A fair point, and I'm no expert - but I put this to a friend of mine currently teaching at Edinburgh University a year back - he said that Judaism was pretty heavily Hellenized by the NT period.
quote:
You also say that we can't understand the words of the NT etc without understanding its cultural and philosophical background. I don't see anybody denying that.
Rather, I don't see anyone specifically addressing it. It's an issue not considered to be as important as I think it should be at least.
quote:
But (assuming I understood your point correctly - apologies if I didn't) does reading it against such a background challenge the view that the NT presents Jesus as God? And if so, how?
I think that probably it supports the view that the NT presents Jesus as God (which is my belief).
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
Rest up, 12uthy.
And when you get back, I'd really like to hear your take on that passage of Isaiah that Freddy cited. quote:
Unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given, and the government shall he upon His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, God, Hero, Father of eternity, Prince of peace. (Isa. 9:6-7).
That one.
Sorry Freddy and Lyda*Rose, I've been doing some research, I wasn't ignoring you
Ok Freddy that is a long list so I will do my best:
Isaiah 9:6-7 I don't know what translation you are using so I will paste it in from the KJV that I used when I was a Catholic and most frequently use now since it has the Strong's no's listed:
Isa 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
Isa 9:7 Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth, even forever. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will perform this.
(KJV)
I can see how this impressive list of titles might suggest that the Messiah and ultimate King of God's Kingdom might be Jehovah God, however the term everlasting Father can rightly be atributed to Jesus since he was used to create man in the first instance (according to God's will and using his Spirit). Likewise the title Mighty God could suggest this, however it is conspicuously different from the term Almighty God. As brought out before the term God can be attributed to anyone, or anything that we choose to venerate, hence we could venerate anyone or thing including our own bodies (see Col 3:5). Thus Mighty God would give him a suitable title for his exulted position yet still inferior to the Almighty God, Jehovah.
Note also that it is the zeal (which could be translated spirit) of Jehovah that accomplishes this not the Messiah
Isaiah 25:9
Since Jehovah is the one who sent Jesus, then it is by Jehovah that we are saved, this merely lays the praise for doing so at the feet of the correct Saviour, our God and Father Jehovah.
Jeremiah 33:15,16 is particularly interesting according to which translation you use.
Jer 33:16
(ASV) In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely; and this is the name whereby she shall be called: Jehovah our righteousness.
(BBE) In those days, Judah will have salvation and Jerusalem will be safe: and this is the name which will be given to her : The Lord is our righteousness.
(CEV) In those days, Judah will be safe; Jerusalem will have peace and will be named, "The LORD Gives Justice."
(DRB) In those days shall Juda be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell securely: and this is the name that they shall call him , The Lord our just one.
(ESV) In those days Judah will be saved and Jerusalem will dwell securely. And this is the name by which it will be called : 'The LORD is our righteousness.'
(GB) In those dayes shall Iudah be saued, and Ierusalem shall dwell safely, and hee that shall call her , is the Lord our righteousnesse.
(GNB) The people of Judah and of Jerusalem will be rescued and will live in safety. The city will be called 'The LORD Our Salvation.'
(KJV+) In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell safely: and this is the name wherewith she shall be called, The LORD our righteousness.
(Webster) In those days shall Judah be saved, and Jerusalem shall dwell in safety: and this is the name by which she shall be called, JEHOVAH our righteousness.
(YLT) In those days is Judah saved, And Jerusalem doth dwell confidently, And this is he whom Jehovah proclaimeth to her: `Our Righteousness.'
As you can see in the majority of cases the interpretation seems to be that the one who is being called "Jehovah our righteousness" is Jerusalem not the messiah.
The use of a derivative of Jehovah's name in other people's or place names is not uncommon in the Bible, for example Jeremiah means literally Jehovah Exalts or possibly Jehovah Loosens(such as from the womb).
I will get back to you on the other scriptures you cited as I don't want to overdo it and make myself unwell again.
hth
[ 02. May 2005, 08:58: Message edited by: 12uthy ]
Posted by Cod (# 2643) on
:
12uthy, your last post is a better illustration than I ever could have managed, of the pointlessness of translating words and ignorning concepts.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
PS On the point of using Jehovah's name in other names it is important to note that Jesus means "Jehovah Is Salvation"
which might explain Jer 23:6 use of the name "Jehovah, our righteousness" as the name of the Messiah
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
12uthy,
Thank you. You are giving some great replies.
I am fascinated that you think that this explains away all of passages identifying Jesus or Messiah and Jehovah. I can see using this kind of logic to question one or two of the references. But is it really logical to force so many references into that mold?
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Isaiah 25:9
Since Jehovah is the one who sent Jesus, then it is by Jehovah that we are saved, this merely lays the praise for doing so at the feet of the correct Saviour, our God and Father Jehovah.
Isaiah 25.9 (in the NKJV) says:
quote:
It shall be said in that day, Lo, this is our God; we have waited for Him that He may save us: THIS IS JEHOVAH we have waited for Him, we will rejoice and be glad in His salvation (Isa. 25:9).
No doubt that Jehovah and the Savior are the same person. But this is the point. Jesus and Jehovah are one, as He claimed. "This is our God" is a reference to Messiah. You can certainly argue that it only means that the power behind Messiah is Jehovah, but then why question any of references - since they could all mean that.
In any case, I like the approach of looking carefully at each passage and its context. Very interesting.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Ok, this is not scripture at all, but I just thought this would be interesting:
According to the kabbalists, The Messiah has only one name, the ineffable YHWH.
Johann Reuchlin, On the Art of the Kabbalah Book 1 (1517)
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
It is also true that when the early Christians said "Jesus is Lord" they were actually affirming that Jesus is YHWH.
The Greek word for Lord is the word used by the LXX in place of YHWH in the OT.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Mal 3:1
(ASV) Behold, I send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant, whom ye desire, behold, he cometh, saith Jehovah of hosts.
(BBE) See, I am sending my servant, and he will make ready the way before me; and the Lord, whom you are looking for, will suddenly come to his Temple; and the angel of the agreement, in whom you have delight, see, he is coming, says the Lord of armies.
(CEV) I, the LORD All-Powerful, will send my messenger to prepare the way for me. Then suddenly the Lord you are looking for will appear in his temple. The messenger you desire is coming with my promise, and he is on his way.
(DRB) Behold I send my angel, and he shall prepare the way before my face. And presently the Lord, whom you seek, and the angel of the testament, whom you desire, shall come to his temple. Behold, he cometh, saith the Lord of hosts.
(ESV) "Behold, I send my messenger and he will prepare the way before me. And the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant in whom you delight, behold, he is coming, says the LORD of hosts.
(GB) Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord whom ye seeke, shall speedely come to his Temple: euen the messenger of the couenant whom ye desire: beholde, he shall come, sayth the Lord of hostes.
(GNB) The LORD Almighty answers, "I will send my messenger to prepare the way for me. Then the Lord you are looking for will suddenly come to his Temple. The messenger you long to see will come and proclaim my covenant."
(ISV)
(KJV+) Behold,2009 I will send7971 my messenger,4397 and he shall prepare6437 the way1870 before6440 me: and the Lord,113 whom834 ye859 seek,1245 shall suddenly6597 come935 to413 his temple,1964 even the messenger4397 of the covenant,1285 whom834 ye859 delight2655 in: behold,2009 he shall come,935 saith559 the LORD3068 of hosts.6635
(Webster) Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, will suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he will come, saith the LORD of hosts.
(YLT) Lo, I am sending My messenger, And he hath prepared a way before Me, And suddenly come in unto his temple Doth the Lord whom ye are seeking, Even the messenger of the covenant, Whom ye are desiring, Lo, he is coming, said Jehovah of Hosts.
If you notice in the KJV+ which includes the Strong's numbers, the words used for Lord at the begining and end of the verse are from different Hebrew words, hence the different Strong's numbers. The Strong's Dictionary lists the two words as:
H113
אדן אדון
'âdôn 'âdôn
aw-done', aw-done'
From an unused root (meaning to rule); sovereign, that is, controller (human or divine): - lord, master, owner. Compare also names beginning with “Adoni-”.
H3068
יהוה
yehôvâh
yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord. Compare H3050, H3069.
That is why the Lord at the end of the verse is printed in Upper Case, to indicate that it is used in substitution for the Divine name (or Tetragrammaton)
If the two persons were one, wouldn't the writer have used the same word.
Hence as I understand that verse, Jehovah is sending a messenger of the covenant, and that he will reign as King in his Kingdom, but not equal to himself.
Note:
Dan 4:17 This matter is by the decree of the watchers, and the demand by the word of the holy ones: to the intent that the living may know that the most High ruleth in the kingdom of men,and giveth it to whomsoever, he will, and setteth up over it the basest of men.
I'd just like to say that I am thoroughly enjoying this discussion, this is the first time that I've actually come close to understanding how the Trinity doctrine came into being.
I confess that I did, to some extent, assume that those who believed in the Trinity did so out of ignorance. I now realise that not to be the case.
Thank you particularly Freddy.
Contrary to the opinion of some here, I am not one of those JW's who believes that we alone have the keys to salvation. That is why I'm here.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It is also true that when the early Christians said "Jesus is Lord" they were actually affirming that Jesus is YHWH.
The Greek word for Lord is the word used by the LXX in place of YHWH in the OT.
If I were to believe a superstitious notion that the word Mudfrog was cursed and hence refused to use it, substituting instead the respectful title of "Sir", would that mean that I was equating you to every individual Knight of the British Realm?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
If the two persons were one, wouldn't the writer have used the same word.
Hence as I understand that verse, Jehovah is sending a messenger of the covenant, and that he will reign as King in his Kingdom, but not equal to himself.
OK. Except that it is well accepted that Jehovah is known by a number of different names in the Scriptures. The Greek "Kurios" and Hebrew "El" and "Adonai" are not normally assumed to be different or subordinate beings.
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
I'd just like to say that I am thoroughly enjoying this discussion, this is the first time that I've actually come close to understanding how the Trinity doctrine came into being.
I confess that I did, to some extent, assume that those who believed in the Trinity did so out of ignorance. I now realise that not to be the case.
I agree that this quite interesting, and especially appreciate your research.
What did you think the ignorance was about? Was it about Jesus being equated with God or about God being divided into three persons? It seems like there are two different questions here.
[ 02. May 2005, 15:29: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
12uthy, have you read St Athanasius' On The Incarnation ? The condemnation of Arianism by the Church was not an enforced political decision but based on these arguments.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
12uthy,
Are you happy with idea that someone or something less than God dwells within you?
And, are you happy with the idea that the Church is a Temple to something that isn't God?
Daron
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
"I am the Alpha and Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."
Rev 1 v 8
"Holy, holy, holy is the Lord God Almighty, who was and is and is to come."
Rev 4 v 8
"I am the First and the Last. I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever!"
Rev 1 v 17,18
"Behold I am coming soon! My reward is with me and I will give to everyone according to what he has done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End...I Jesus have sent my angel to you...I am the Root and offspring of David, etc."
Rev 22 v 12 - 16.
If these are not self-refences, spoken by the same person, then one of them is usurping the other.
The easiest and most logical conclusion is that the same person - Jesus, the Lord God Almighty, spoke them all.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
TANGENT: 12uthy quote:
Contrary to the opinion of some here, I am not one of those JW's who believes that we alone have the keys to salvation. That is why I'm here.
I just wanted to say that that cheered me up immensely.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The easiest and most logical conclusion is that the same person - Jesus, the Lord God Almighty, spoke them all.
Makes sense to me.
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on
:
Quakers have traditionally taken the position--which probably seems paradoxical to other Christians--of acknowledging God as Father, God as Son, and God as Holy Spirit, while refusing to use the word "trinity" or subscribe to any creed. The reasons being that neither the word "trinity" nor any explicit schema defining it occurs in scripture, and (more substantively) that we believe that attempts to delineate the internal relations of God to himself in various persons so as to produce a definitive verbal formulation are nothing more than vain speculation about the unknowable, and serve only to create occasions for division among Christians, not unity.
Timothy
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
12uthy, have you read St Athanasius' On The Incarnation ? The condemnation of Arianism by the Church was not an enforced political decision but based on these arguments.
Thanks for this Greyface, no I haven't read it yet but I've saved the link and will do with great interest.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
PS On the point of using Jehovah's name in other names it is important to note that Jesus means "Jehovah Is Salvation"
which might explain Jer 23:6 use of the name "Jehovah, our righteousness" as the name of the Messiah
12uthy, how do you explain Luke 2:30 in the light of this observation?
'For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people.' (NIV)
'...because mine eyes did see Thy salvation, which Thou didst prepare before the face of all the peoples.' (YLT)
'For mine eys have seen thy salavtion, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people.' (KJV)
Yes, YHWH is salvation. But Scripture clearly says that Jesus is the one that Simeon was speaking about. (see v.33)
Daron
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
As most of you probably know the LDS church refutes the concept of the Trinity. Here is a small excerpt from an essay I wrote after preaching at BYU:
The basic concept of the Trinity can be plainly read in the “Creed” (Credo) recited by Roman Catholics and Orthodox Christians to this day.
“And we (I) believe in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only Son of God; eternally begotten of the Father. God from God, Light From Light, True God of True God, begotten not made. Of one essence with the Father.”
To summarise, therefore: in Trinitarian thought, Jesus Christ, and the Father (and the Holy Spirit) are One God – inseperable, one and the same. Trinitarian Christians insist that the One God, has made Himself manifest in three persons. This concept is not completely new to Christianity. Some may even note that this is a type of pantheism or polytheism. In Hinduism, for example, the gods worshipped are simply said to be manifestations of the one “god.” Moreover, each Deity expresses different aspects of the “one god’s” persona. In a similar way, in Trinitarian thought, Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit are manifestations of the One God – representations of God. Jesus Christ, for example, would be an Earthly symbol. It is for this reason, that mainstream Christians worship Jesus Christ, as one and the same “God” as Jehovah of the Old Testament. It would also be beneficial to note, that the Holy Spirit is also worshipped as the same God.
For purposes of precision, let us focus on the relationship between the Father and the Son first. It is already established, that in Trinitarian thought, the Father and the Son are one and the same. That Jesus Christ was never made by the Father. There is manifold evidence in the New Testament, however, that Jesus Christ is subject to the Father. Christians often try to support their belief by quoting biblical evidences showing that Jesus Christ was with the Father in the beginning. For example:
“In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God.” JOHN 1:1
Let us look at this more closely. In asserting this, Christians would assume that Latter-Day Saints do not believe that Jesus Christ lived before He was in His bodily form. This could not be further from the truth. We believe that Jesus Christ was born in the spirit world by God, just as we are – but that He was the first. We acknowledge that Jesus Christ was in the beginning of time. The term “in the beginning” is a reflective parallel of Genesis 1, where the Hebrew “B’reyshit” actually refers to the beginning of the universe. Jesus Christ was there! Not only that, but Jesus Christ was the creator! The fulfillment of God’s word! It is no wonder, therefore, that in the verse mentioned above, He refers to Jesus Christ as “the word.”
Even more striking in this verse, we read “and the word was with God.” This would assert a separation between them. In Greek, it can also be translated as “face to face with God.” John explicitly explains that the two were seperate. Further on we read that "the word was God." Another striking verse, which seems to correlate with Trinitarian thought at first glance. However, by acknowledging that Jesus Christ was (is) the “word”, whatever He does, is an order of God. Furthermore, the “word” is God. God made the Earth, by Jesus Christ (Jehovah.) This complex truth becomes hard to understand.
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Timothy the Obscure:
Quakers have traditionally taken the position--which probably seems paradoxical to other Christians--of acknowledging God as Father, God as Son, and God as Holy Spirit, while refusing to use the word "trinity" or subscribe to any creed. The reasons being that neither the word "trinity" nor any explicit schema defining it occurs in scripture, and (more substantively) that we believe that attempts to delineate the internal relations of God to himself in various persons so as to produce a definitive verbal formulation are nothing more than vain speculation about the unknowable, and serve only to create occasions for division among Christians, not unity.
Timothy
Sensible folk, Quakers.
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
OK - unpack your sermon a little for me...
Jesus is God but is not part of the trinity..?
C
[crosspost - directed at the Elder]
[ 03. May 2005, 08:17: Message edited by: Cheesy* ]
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
12uthy,
Are you happy with idea that someone or something less than God dwells within you?
And, are you happy with the idea that the Church is a Temple to something that isn't God?
Daron
The only thing that dwells within me that did not come from my beloved God is sin and no I am not happy about this, and will echo Paul's words on this:
Rom 7:20 Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.
Rom 7:21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.
Rom 7:22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
Rom 7:23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity, to the law of sin which is in my members.
Rom 7:24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
Rom 7:25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself, serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.(KJV)
The point I wish to make is that we do not need to revere God's gift as if it were a God in itself in order to use it and cherish it. If a loved one gave you a gift would you treat that gift as though it were that loved one or would you cherish it because it was a gift from a dear loved one.
I have a much better understanding as to why some cherish the idea of a Trinity, and I flatter myself that I am not obdurate on any matter but I doubt if I will ever accept the teaching myself.
As I see it (and this brings me to Freddy's question) believing in the Trinity is not essential to salvation and I do not need it to worship my God in Spirit and Truth, as I endevour to do.
I still view it as an unnecessary confounding of the simple Christian message, which is this:
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.(KJV)
And insisting that the congregation believe such unnecessary doctrines run the risk of creating a barrier between God and his people,and by that I mean the simple amha'a´rets who do not have a degree in Theology or Philosophy so as to enable them to wrestle with such things.
Whether intentional or not, by insisting upon believing such things the Church could possibly be seen as doing the same as the Pharisee's did with the Jewish religion:
Mat 23:4 For they bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men's shoulders...(KJV)
Mat 23:13 But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees,hypocrites! for ye shut up the kingdom of heaven against men: for ye neither go in yourselves, neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in.(KJV)
The Church does not have to answer to me, but it must answer to Our Lord, and since it has positioned itself as a teacher of God's people it must bear a greater responsibility for the results of what and how it teaches God's Word.
Jam 3:1 Not many of you should become teachers, my brothers, for you know that we who teach will be judged with greater strictness. (ESV)
If I am to teach I would sooner do it in a manner that does not alienate the "foolish" ones of this world:
1Co 3:19 For the wisdom of this world is folly with God. For it is written, "He catches the wise in their craftiness,"
1Co 3:20 and again, "The Lord knows the thoughts of the wise, that they are futile."
(ESV)
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
PS On the point of using Jehovah's name in other names it is important to note that Jesus means "Jehovah Is Salvation"
which might explain Jer 23:6 use of the name "Jehovah, our righteousness" as the name of the Messiah
12uthy, how do you explain Luke 2:30 in the light of this observation?
'For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people.' (NIV)
'...because mine eyes did see Thy salvation, which Thou didst prepare before the face of all the peoples.' (YLT)
'For mine eys have seen thy salavtion, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people.' (KJV)
Yes, YHWH is salvation. But Scripture clearly says that Jesus is the one that Simeon was speaking about. (see v.33)
Daron
Yes, that's especially important in the light of verses like Isaiah 43:3 & 11:
quote:
For I am the Lord your God,
The Holy One of Israel, your Savior;
“I, even I, am the Lord,
And there is no savior besides Me."
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Is 43:11). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
Isaiah 44 continues: quote:
6 “Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts:
‘I am the first and I am the last,
And there is no God besides Me.
7 ‘Who is like Me? Let him proclaim and declare it;
Yes, let him recount it to Me in order,
From the time that I established the ancient nation.
And let them declare to them the things that are coming
And the events that are going to take place.
8 ‘Do not tremble and do not be afraid;
Have I not long since announced it to you and declared it?
And you are My witnesses.
Is there any God besides Me,
Or is there any other Rock?
I know of none.’ ”
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Is 44:6). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
Because Jesus is Jehovah there is no conflict between Jesus being our saviour and Jehovah being our only saviour.
Pax,
anglicanrascal
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
The basic concept of the Trinity can be plainly read in the “Creed” (Credo) recited by Roman Catholics and Orthodox Christians to this day.
And Anglicans, and many others. A huge majority of those that don't recite the Creed, accept the beliefs it contains as central to Christianity. It's probably fair to say that the Creed represents universal orthodox Christian belief.
quote:
Trinitarian Christians insist that the One God, has made Himself manifest in three persons.
Eternally so. We're not modalists, this is not how God appears as certain times, but how He is eternally. I think your essay misunderstands Trinitarian doctrine, which is easily done to be fair.
quote:
Let us look at this more closely. In asserting this, Christians would assume that Latter-Day Saints do not believe that Jesus Christ lived before He was in His bodily form. This could not be further from the truth.
You are mistaken in your assumptions about our assumptions. The early Arian heresy took your position, so those of us that have studied this question (I suspect most of us) are as familiar with that as with adoptionism.
quote:
The fulfillment of God’s word! It is no wonder, therefore, that in the verse mentioned above, He refers to Jesus Christ as “the word.”
Logos doesn't mean the fulfillment of the word, in my understanding.
quote:
Even more striking in this verse, we read “and the word was with God.” This would assert a separation between them. In Greek, it can also be translated as “face to face with God.” John explicitly explains that the two were seperate.
Yes, which means that modalism or similar is not true.
quote:
Further on we read that "the word was God." Another striking verse, which seems to correlate with Trinitarian thought at first glance. However, by acknowledging that Jesus Christ was (is) the “word”, whatever He does, is an order of God. Furthermore, the “word” is God. God made the Earth, by Jesus Christ (Jehovah.) This complex truth becomes hard to understand.
I'm sorry, but this seems a thoroughly weak argument to me. You are decoupling the Word as Christ from the Word as God on the basis that the Trinity makes no sense to you, but the text does not leave you room to say that.
You accept that Jesus is referred to as the Word, and then you are faced with "the Word was God". If St John did not mean that Jesus is God but rather his agent, he chose a catastrophically poor phrase with which to express it. Other Arians tend to take the view that this last is better translated as "the Word was a god", which although I believe is wrong, has some logic to it.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
PS On the point of using Jehovah's name in other names it is important to note that Jesus means "Jehovah Is Salvation"
which might explain Jer 23:6 use of the name "Jehovah, our righteousness" as the name of the Messiah
12uthy, how do you explain Luke 2:30 in the light of this observation?
'For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people.' (NIV)
'...because mine eyes did see Thy salvation, which Thou didst prepare before the face of all the peoples.' (YLT)
'For mine eys have seen thy salavtion, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people.' (KJV)
Yes, YHWH is salvation. But Scripture clearly says that Jesus is the one that Simeon was speaking about. (see v.33)
Daron
I think you may have misunderstood me.
Jesus was indeed the one of whom he was speaking, and he is indeed God's means of salvation. Simeon was not saying that he has seen God, but his means of salvation, ie Jesus.
Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
12uthy,
Are you happy with idea that someone or something less than God dwells within you?
And, are you happy with the idea that the Church is a Temple to something that isn't God?
Daron
The only thing that dwells within me that did not come from my beloved God is sin
I think mt was referring to John 14:16-18:
quote:
“I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever;
17 that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you.
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Jn 14:16). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
If you do not know him, if you have not received the Holy Spirit, then you must be vary wary because the warning of Romans 8.
quote:
... those who are in the flesh cannot please God.
9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him.
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Ro 8:8). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
The Apostle Paul makes it very plain that if, as you said 12uthy, the Holy Spirit does not dwell in you, then you do not belong to Christ, you are in the flesh and cannot please God. That is a very dangerous position to be in.
Please pray for the Holy Spirit to enter your life and your heart.
Pax,
ar
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
anglicanrascal, I am not sure that is a very kind thing to say to our guest. Who are you to say in whom the Spirit lives?
12uthy, you may have already answered this, but how do you hold that Jesus the Christ was the messiah and saviour without him being God?
C
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
PS On the point of using Jehovah's name in other names it is important to note that Jesus means "Jehovah Is Salvation"
which might explain Jer 23:6 use of the name "Jehovah, our righteousness" as the name of the Messiah
12uthy, how do you explain Luke 2:30 in the light of this observation?
'For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people.' (NIV)
'...because mine eyes did see Thy salvation, which Thou didst prepare before the face of all the peoples.' (YLT)
'For mine eys have seen thy salavtion, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people.' (KJV)
Yes, YHWH is salvation. But Scripture clearly says that Jesus is the one that Simeon was speaking about. (see v.33)
Daron
I think you may have misunderstood me.
Jesus was indeed the one of whom he was speaking, and he is indeed God's means of salvation. Simeon was not saying that he has seen God, but his means of salvation, ie Jesus.
Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)
He saw his Lord and Saviour - while he would have known from his OT that Jehovah is the only Saviour - as per my earlier post.
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cheesy*:
anglicanrascal, I am not sure that is a very kind thing to say to our guest. Who are you to say in whom the Spirit lives?
If our guest will say that the Holy Spirit lives in him/her, then I will rejoice and I will apologise.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
PS On the point of using Jehovah's name in other names it is important to note that Jesus means "Jehovah Is Salvation"
which might explain Jer 23:6 use of the name "Jehovah, our righteousness" as the name of the Messiah
12uthy, how do you explain Luke 2:30 in the light of this observation?
'For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people.' (NIV)
'...because mine eyes did see Thy salvation, which Thou didst prepare before the face of all the peoples.' (YLT)
'For mine eys have seen thy salavtion, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people.' (KJV)
Yes, YHWH is salvation. But Scripture clearly says that Jesus is the one that Simeon was speaking about. (see v.33)
Daron
Yes, that's especially important in the light of verses like Isaiah 43:3 & 11:
quote:
For I am the Lord your God,
The Holy One of Israel, your Savior;
“I, even I, am the Lord,
And there is no savior besides Me."
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Is 43:11). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
Isaiah 44 continues: quote:
6 “Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts:
‘I am the first and I am the last,
And there is no God besides Me.
7 ‘Who is like Me? Let him proclaim and declare it;
Yes, let him recount it to Me in order,
From the time that I established the ancient nation.
And let them declare to them the things that are coming
And the events that are going to take place.
8 ‘Do not tremble and do not be afraid;
Have I not long since announced it to you and declared it?
And you are My witnesses.
Is there any God besides Me,
Or is there any other Rock?
I know of none.’ ”
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Is 44:6). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
Because Jesus is Jehovah there is no conflict between Jesus being our saviour and Jehovah being our only saviour.
Pax,
anglicanrascal
OK lets put this in perspective,
At the time of Jesus, Israel was under the rulership of Rome.
Yet it had a King, Herod. (Actually the different districts had different Kings)
The Romans permitted Herod to rule, but not to the extent or exclusion of the rulership of Caesar as Emperor.
Thus Jehovah, the Father, is, always has been and always will be Sovereign of the Universe, yet in recognision of Jesus' sacrifice and absolute faithfulness and love He has assigned his Son as King over the earth. This does not make him one and the same person.
On that point, Elder Moroni, where do you get the idea that Jesus is Jehovah if you do not believe in a trinity?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
12uthy,
Are you happy with idea that someone or something less than God dwells within you?
And, are you happy with the idea that the Church is a Temple to something that isn't God?
Daron
The only thing that dwells within me that did not come from my beloved God is sin
I think mt was referring to John 14:16-18:
quote:
“I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever;
17 that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you.
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Jn 14:16). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
If you do not know him, if you have not received the Holy Spirit, then you must be vary wary because the warning of Romans 8.
quote:
... those who are in the flesh cannot please God.
9 However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him.
New American Standard Bible : 1995 update. 1995 (Ro 8:8). LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
The Apostle Paul makes it very plain that if, as you said 12uthy, the Holy Spirit does not dwell in you, then you do not belong to Christ, you are in the flesh and cannot please God. That is a very dangerous position to be in.
Please pray for the Holy Spirit to enter your life and your heart.
Pax,
ar
Thank you for the warning, actually I do, several times each day.
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
Hi 12uthy,
I understand that might be what you have been taught, but it doesn't answer the verses from Holy Scripture that I mentioned in my earlier post.
It doesn't answer how Jehovah can be our only saviour and there can be "no savior besides [him]" if Jesus Christ (who dwells at his right hand in heaven) is our saviour.
Also, please don't believe that Christians believe that the Father and the Son are "one and the same person" - that is a complete misrepresentation of what Christians believe. We believe that the Bible reveals that there are three distinct persons who are of one divine nature. There are three persons, but one eternal God.
Pax,
ar
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal: quote:
'For my eyes have seen your salvation, which you have prepared in the sight of all people.' (NIV)
'...because mine eyes did see Thy salvation, which Thou didst prepare before the face of all the peoples.' (YLT)
'For mine eys have seen thy salavtion, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people.' (KJV)
Yes, YHWH is salvation. But Scripture clearly says that Jesus is the one that Simeon was speaking about. (see v.33)
Joh 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)
He saw his Lord and Saviour - while he would have known from his OT that Jehovah is the only Saviour - as per my earlier post.
If you read the scriptures again you will find that Simeon was saying that his eyes had seen the means by which God saves, not God himself.
I suspect we are never going to agree on this.
[fixed code]
[ 03. May 2005, 13:52: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Please pray for the Holy Spirit to enter your life and your heart.
Pax,
ar
Thank you for the warning, actually I do, several times each day.
Yay! I rejoice, apologise and pray that the Holy Spirit will hear your prayer!
Pax,
ar
[ 03. May 2005, 09:28: Message edited by: anglicanrascal ]
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
He saw his Lord and Saviour - while he would have known from his OT that Jehovah is the only Saviour - as per my earlier post.
If you read the scriptures again you will find that Simeon was saying that his eyes had seen the means by which God saves, not God himself.
I suspect we are never going to agree on this.
Maybe I could phrase that question a different way: Did Simeon see the only saviour of the world, or not?
[ 03. May 2005, 09:30: Message edited by: anglicanrascal ]
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Yes he did
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Let me illustrate it this way,
If you were dangling off the edge of a cliff, and I was the only one there.
Who would you say was your only means of saving, me or the rope I throw to you?
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Yes he did
OK - and does Isaiah 43:10 & 11 clearly state that the one true God is the only Saviour of the world?
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Let me illustrate it this way,
If you were dangling off the edge of a cliff, and I was the only one there.
Who would you say was your only means of saving, me or the rope I throw to you?
The analogy is false. We are talking about the person who takes on the title of saviour of the world. In your example there would only be one saviour - the rope would not be a saviour.
If Jesus is not Jehovah he cannot be the saviour of the world. Isaiah 43:10&11 rule that possibility out.
Pax,
ar
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Let me illustrate it this way,
If you were dangling off the edge of a cliff, and I was the only one there.
Who would you say was your only means of saving, me or the rope I throw to you?
The analogy is false. We are talking about the person who takes on the title of saviour of the world. In your example there would only be one saviour - the rope would not be a saviour.
Pax,
ar
No but I could not save you without it.
Jehovah can use whatever and whoever he chooses to accomplish his will.
Who better than the one person who has been with him from the beginning and with whom he created the earth and everything in it:
Pro 8:22 "The LORD possessed me at the beginning of his work, the first of his acts of old.
Pro 8:23 Ages ago I was set up, at the first, before the beginning of the earth.
Pro 8:24 When there were no depths I was brought forth, when there were no springs abounding with water.
Pro 8:25 Before the mountains had been shaped, before the hills, I was brought forth,
Pro 8:26 before he had made the earth with its fields, or the first of the dust of the world.
Pro 8:27 When he established the heavens, I was there; when he drew a circle on the face of the deep,
Pro 8:28 when he made firm the skies above, when he established the fountains of the deep,
Pro 8:29 when he assigned to the sea its limit, so that the waters might not transgress his command, when he marked out the foundations of the earth,
Pro 8:30 then I was beside him, like a master workman, and I was daily his delight, rejoicing before him always,
Pro 8:31 rejoicing in his inhabited world and delighting in the children of man.
Simply because Jesus was a separate person does not mean that we were saved by anyone other than Jehovah, or that anyone else could do so.
However I accept that Jesus and Jehovah are inseperable, but they are inseparable because they are beloved father and son and because of their unparalleled personal affinity, their wills coincide so perfectly, not because they are part of the same person.
I think we have gone as far as we can on this subject and I agree to differ, but I appreciate the Trinity doctrine much more, thank you.
I still think that it is an unnecessary and therefore dangerous complication to God's Message.
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Jehovah can use whatever and whoever he chooses to accomplish his will.
Who better than the one person who has been with him from the beginning and with whom he created the earth and everything in it:
<snip>
Simply because Jesus was a separate person does not mean that we were saved by anyone other than Jehovah, or that anyone else could do so.
However I accept that Jesus and Jehovah are inseperable, but they are inseparable because they are beloved father and son and because of their unparalleled personal affinity, their wills coincide so perfectly, not because they are part of the same person.
I think we have gone as far as we can on this subject and I agree to differ, but I appreciate the Trinity doctrine much more, thank you.
I still think that it is an unnecessary and therefore dangerous complication to God's Message.
12uthy, I hope you don't think me stupid, but I am really struggling to understand your position. If Jesus and God are separate individuals (presumably immortal) how can we at the same time say there is only one God (given that we have just identified two)?
C
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cheesy*:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Jehovah can use whatever and whoever he chooses to accomplish his will.
Who better than the one person who has been with him from the beginning and with whom he created the earth and everything in it:
<snip>
Simply because Jesus was a separate person does not mean that we were saved by anyone other than Jehovah, or that anyone else could do so.
However I accept that Jesus and Jehovah are inseperable, but they are inseparable because they are beloved father and son and because of their unparalleled personal affinity, their wills coincide so perfectly, not because they are part of the same person.
I think we have gone as far as we can on this subject and I agree to differ, but I appreciate the Trinity doctrine much more, thank you.
I still think that it is an unnecessary and therefore dangerous complication to God's Message.
12uthy, I hope you don't think me stupid, but I am really struggling to understand your position. If Jesus and God are separate individuals (presumably immortal) how can we at the same time say there is only one God (given that we have just identified two)?
C
Because My God is Jehovah, Jesus is my Lord, the one through whom Jehovah saved me.
I laud my Lord as the one who willingly sacrificed himself for me and through whom I have my salvation but I attribute the praise, glory and honour for doing so to the only True God, Jehovah.
Rev 7:10 And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb.(KJV)
Jehovah can give immortality to anyone and everyone he wishes, as indeed he has promised he will do for each one of us,(John 3:13-15) so yes Jesus as the firstfruits is immortal, but that does not make him The One True God.
1Co 15:20 But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.
1Co 15:21 For as by a man came death, by a man has come also the resurrection of the dead.
1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.
1Co 15:23 But each in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, then at his coming those who belong to Christ.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
However, if we are to take each role of God as a separate person, why limit it to a Trinity. After all, is he not:
A creator (The Father)
a Redeemer (The Son)
an evangeliser (The Spirit) but also
a Judge
an avenger and
a mighty warrior
That would make him a polytheism.
Sorry to go back to something on page 1, I've been away for the weekend and I've only just managed to get through this thread and no one seems to have addressed this point yet.
Your point would be well made if the Doctrine of the Trinity did say that each person is distinguished by seperate roles. The Doctrine doesn't teach that the Father created, the Son redeemed and the Spirit evangelises. It teaches that God does each of these, and the other roles you listed. Thus Father, Son and Spirit all created; they all redeem us, they all teach us, judge us etc.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
12uthy, on this (I think) and other threads you've said that the word "god" was used to refer to anyone in a position of authority, rather than necessarily a diety. So, saying "the Word was (a) god" could simply mean he had authority, much as a king or emporer might, rather than being divine in the sense Trinitarian Christians would normally understand the phrase. Have I understood your position correctly?
If so, how do you handle the Ten Commandments? Specifically, "you shall have no other gods". Because the word there nust surely apply to a diety, either that or for most of Israels history they deliberately sinned in having leaders over them - first Moses, the Joshua and the Judges and then Saul, David, Solomon and the kings that followed them. And, the first Christians definitely deliberately sinned by worshipping Jesus.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Dear Grey face - i will respond to you later today - as I am a little cut for time atm.
But to 12uthy:
quote:
On that point, Elder Moroni, where do you get the idea that Jesus is Jehovah if you do not believe in a trinity?
There is a common theory amongst modern day theologions that different sections of the Old Testament were written by different people and even at different periods - because they have noticed a categorical pattern in the names that are used. The authors of scriptures that use the name of "Jehovah" are known as "Jahwists." The LDS church takes a different approach in showing that these are not different categories by different authors - but that "Elohim" and "Jehovah" are actually seperate persons. The famous verse:
Exo 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.
It was Jehovah (Jesus Christ) who appeared frequently throughout the Old Testament. There are also places in the OT where the term "Elohim Jehovah" is used, like in Genesis 3. Such a vivid example would be when "Elohim Jehovah" was walking in the Garden of Eden. This would demontrate how both Elohim and Jehovah are present.
Please note - I can only discuss with you on the subject of biblical doctrine. I cannot argue with you about church history, since we believe there has been an apostasy. Furthermore, in that light of latter-day revelation, it has been revealed to us that "Jehovah" is the name of Jesus Christ and "Elohim" the name of the Father. I know I can not argue this to you, but this answers your question. Simply put - we can believe "that Jesus is Jehovah if you do not believe in a trinity" because we have received latter day revelation (in our opinion.)
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Jesus is God but is not part of the trinity..?
Jesus is a God. Jesus is a member of the Godhead. Members of the Mormon Church do not use the term "Trinity" simply because it denotes a oneness between the three. Although we believe that members of the Godhead (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit)are seperate - they are one in purpose. Therefore, the argument that a man shouldn't serve "two masters" becomes irrelevant to us. Christ has gained exaltation AFTER His death - as we believe we will to. Therefore, to refer to Jesus Christ as a "God" would not neccessarily meant that it is He we worship. In actual fact we do not directly worship Jesus Christ at any time - not even in hymns. We always pray in the name of Jesus Christ, but to our Heavenly Father. I can't remember who it was, but a General Authority of the church once said: "We worship the glory of the Father, and the selflessness of the Son."
Essentially, every single human being is as close to the Father as Jesus Christ is. If we believed in a concept like the Trinity, then this would mean that we all too must be included in it. Jesus Christ had to gain His exaltation just in the same way that we do.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
12uthy, on this (I think) and other threads you've said that the word "god" was used to refer to anyone in a position of authority, rather than necessarily a diety. So, saying "the Word was (a) god" could simply mean he had authority, much as a king or emporer might, rather than being divine in the sense Trinitarian Christians would normally understand the phrase. Have I understood your position correctly?
If so, how do you handle the Ten Commandments? Specifically, "you shall have no other gods". Because the word there nust surely apply to a diety, either that or for most of Israels history they deliberately sinned in having leaders over them - first Moses, the Joshua and the Judges and then Saul, David, Solomon and the kings that followed them. And, the first Christians definitely deliberately sinned by worshipping Jesus.
This has to do with your definition of Worship.
There are those within my religion that believe that certain gestures are acts of worship. For example saluting the flag, which is one reason JW children have so much trouble in school in the States.
That being said, would I be right in curtseying to a member of the royal family. Personally this would not conflict with my conscience (even though I'm not a royalist) because I do not consider curtseying to be an act of worship towards the state, only a gesture of respect for the authority of the land (whether I agree with that authority or not )
So, in order to have no other God's we must not give an inappropriate degree of reverence to anything or anyone other than our God, Jehovah.
Therefore, while I will praise Jesus I will only pray to and worship Jehovah (and not a triad of Gods).
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Jesus is a God.
How many are there, then? And why do you worship just one of them?
quote:
Christ has gained exaltation AFTER His death - as we believe we will to.
So he wasn't God before his death, and St John was mistaken?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
I believe the idea is that you too can become a god.
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Jesus is a God. Jesus is a member of the Godhead. Members of the Mormon Church do not use the term "Trinity" simply because it denotes a oneness between the three. Although we believe that members of the Godhead (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit)are seperate - they are one in purpose. Therefore, the argument that a man shouldn't serve "two masters" becomes irrelevant to us. Christ has gained exaltation AFTER His death - as we believe we will to. Therefore, to refer to Jesus Christ as a "God" would not neccessarily meant that it is He we worship. In actual fact we do not directly worship Jesus Christ at any time - not even in hymns. We always pray in the name of Jesus Christ, but to our Heavenly Father. I can't remember who it was, but a General Authority of the church once said: "We worship the glory of the Father, and the selflessness of the Son."
Essentially, every single human being is as close to the Father as Jesus Christ is. If we believed in a concept like the Trinity, then this would mean that we all too must be included in it. Jesus Christ had to gain His exaltation just in the same way that we do.
I still don't understand. Either you are worshipping three gods (contravening the commandment) or you are saying that Jesus was not actually 'God' in any real sense.
I understand your comment about receiving a latter-day revelation but 1) how come we can't discuss that with you and 2) how can you be so sure that your new knowledge is more reliable than our old knowledge?
C
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
This has to do with your definition of Worship.
There are those within my religion that believe that certain gestures are acts of worship. For example saluting the flag, which is one reason JW children have so much trouble in school in the States.
That being said, would I be right in curtseying to a member of the royal family. Personally this would not conflict with my conscience (even though I'm not a royalist) because I do not consider curtseying to be an act of worship towards the state, only a gesture of respect for the authority of the land (whether I agree with that authority or not )
So, in order to have no other God's we must not give an inappropriate degree of reverence to anything or anyone other than our God, Jehovah.
Therefore, while I will praise Jesus I will only pray to and worship Jehovah (and not a triad of Gods).
So, to clarify, you are saying that you can have other gods, but just not have them as more important than Jehovah?
I'm not sure that this is consistant with the biblical narrative as I read it.
[Incidentally, why is the name Jehovah? Surely that is an anglicised word - if the name is so important, why are you using a word that it plainly isn't?]
C
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
OK! hehe. Let me make this absolutely clear! This is the fastest forum I've even participated in!
quote:
So, to clarify, you are saying that you can have other gods, but just not have them as more important than Jehovah?
We believe that there are other "exalted beings". We believe that the Father and Son are both Gods in their own right. However, the only God with which WE have anything to do with (concerning worship, glorification and praise) is Elohim (the father.)
quote:
I understand your comment about receiving a latter-day revelation but 1) how come we can't discuss that with you and 2) how can you be so sure that your new knowledge is more reliable than our old knowledge?
You CAN discuss it with me - but what would be the point if you didn't agree with the excerpts from the Book of Mormon I posted? If you would like me to go into the ins and outs of Latter Day revelation on this subject, I could write a book (!) but I don't think it would be to your advantage because you don't believe it! Therefore, when I post on here, I try to only use biblical quotes and universally accepted sources rendered by all Christians.
quote:
How many are there, then? And why do you worship just one of them?
quote:
Christ has gained exaltation AFTER His death - as we believe we will to.
So he wasn't God before his death, and St John was mistaken?
No John was not mistaken. Perhaps in the essay I posted I didn't get the point accross to you that when John says "the word was [a] God" that they very "word" is God and not Jesus Christ. In the pre-existance, we believe that Jesus Christ was a semi-exalted being. In other words, he was Godly, Godlike and innocent but unperfected.
How many Gods are there? Please don't think that this is a shallow statement which I am about to make. It is a real LDS belief and there is MUCH reason behind it. How many Gods? = How many people have died who have gone through the LDS temple? How many people have had proxy baptisms and endowments? How many people from other worlds have gained exaltation? The number would be infinite.
[ 03. May 2005, 15:04: Message edited by: Callan ]
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cheesy*:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
So, in order to have no other God's we must not give an inappropriate degree of reverence to anything or anyone other than our God, Jehovah.
Therefore, while I will praise Jesus I will only pray to and worship Jehovah (and not a triad of Gods).
So, to clarify, you are saying that you can have other gods, but just not have them as more important than Jehovah?
I'm not sure that this is consistant with the biblical narrative as I read it.
[Incidentally, why is the name Jehovah? Surely that is an anglicised word - if the name is so important, why are you using a word that it plainly isn't?]
C
That's pretty much it yeah!
Why Jehovah? Because since the Tetragrammaton has no vowels, none of us know how to pronounce it. I could just as easily use Yahweh, Ieovah, or simply Jah.
I use the anglicised version because I am English, much the same reason, I suspect, you use Jesus rather than Yeshua.
Given the context of our discussion here, I think the name is very important to distinguish which "god" we are talking about, don't you?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
I just explained something very badly - as my missionary companion has noticed!
The official church stance on whether Jesus Christ was a God, is this:
1)Jehovah WAS a God at the creation of the world
2) JESUS CHRIST [in His bodily form] was NOT a God while He was on the Earth
3) Jesus Christ is now fully God
About your comment on the name of Jehovah. We accept that there are no vowels in the original name "yud" "hey" "vav" "heh" however Latter Day revelation has shown us (LDS) that the correct way to pronounce and spell the name is Jehovah. We believe the translator Joseph Smith was inspired directly from God - it should be noted however that Joseph Smith did not have profound insight.
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
How many Gods are there? Please don't think that this is a shallow statement which I am about to make. It is a real LDS belief and there is MUCH reason behind it. How many Gods? = How many people have died who have gone through the LDS temple? How many people have had proxy baptisms and endowments? How many people from other worlds have gained exaltation? The number would be infinite.
Just pausing to allow that to sink in.
C
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
We believe that there are other "exalted beings". We believe that the Father and Son are both Gods in their own right.
So you're not monotheist, you're perhaps somewhere between henotheist and polytheist.
quote:
However, the only God with which WE have anything to do with (concerning worship, glorification and praise) is Elohim (the father.)
Technically henotheist then. So are you defining a God as any exalted being, rather than the source of all being, the only self-existent, the Creator of all things?
quote:
No John was not mistaken. Perhaps in the essay I posted I didn't get the point accross to you that when John says "the word was [a] God" that they very "word" is God and not Jesus Christ.
I assume you've now switched to God = The Father, and I fail to understand how you get this out of...
"1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was with God in the beginning....
14The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us."
(NIV - first one I came across)
If, as you say, the Word is referring to God and not Jesus, how do you interpret the Word becoming flesh if not in the person of Jesus Christ?
quote:
How many Gods are there? Please don't think that this is a shallow statement which I am about to make. It is a real LDS belief and there is MUCH reason behind it. How many Gods? = How many people have died who have gone through the LDS temple? How many people have had proxy baptisms and endowments? How many people from other worlds have gained exaltation? The number would be infinite.
I don't understand. Are you back to using God = any exalted being? Or have I missed something that allows you to say that each of these Gods created all things ex nihilo, is our saviour, has no rival, and so on?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Okay - let me define what I mean by exalted being and God.
We believe in God - the Heavenly Father. The Supreme being - through who's power the cosmos was created. Through who's authority priests can do their duties.
We believe that Heavenly Father wants us to be more like Him - and God has given us a plan of salvation - all people that are faithful to the plan of salvation, can gain their own exaltation. We believe that we were born in the pre-existance - and we believe that we are the literal sons and daughters of Heavenly Father.
We believe that ALL people are saved through the atonement of Christ (save those few, the sons of perdition, who blaspheme the Holy Ghost or commit grievious murder.)
"In my fathers house there are many mansions" - the terrestrial, the tellestial and the celesital.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
I just explained something very badly - as my missionary companion has noticed!
The official church stance on whether Jesus Christ was a God, is this:
1)Jehovah WAS a God at the creation of the world
2) JESUS CHRIST [in His bodily form] was NOT a God while He was on the Earth
3) Jesus Christ is now fully God
About your comment on the name of Jehovah. We accept that there are no vowels in the original name "yud" "hey" "vav" "heh" however Latter Day revelation has shown us (LDS) that the correct way to pronounce and spell the name is Jehovah. We believe the translator Joseph Smith was inspired directly from God - it should be noted however that Joseph Smith did not have profound insight.
So how do you spell it in a language that does not use our alphabet, or are you saying that he is only a God of English speaking people?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
How did the death of a mere man save me?
How did a mere man become God?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Joseph Smith translated the Book of Mormon and the Pearl of Great price with direct inspiration from God. Joseph Smith also only wrote the Book of Mormon in English. Therefore, the English copy of the book of Mormon (the first translation) contains the English name we would give to Jehovah. Although universally in the LDS church the name of Jehovah is used - there is no reason why the name cannot be transliterated into the appropriate language (should it be neccessary.) However, looking at the Hebrew form of the name, "YHVH" there is an absolute possibility (which we believe to be so) that the name given to Moses was actually "Jehovah." The name "Jehovah" is not neccessarily angliscized in the way that it is written in English! It is an educated guess by biblical scholars as to which vowels could have been consituted into the name.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
How did the death of a mere man save me?
How did a mere man become God?
There was a war in heaven. Jesus Christ was sinless, because He was born half God half Man (but it would not be correct to call Him a God while he was on the Earth.) Because Jesus Christ was sinless - he was the only person who could have been good enough to meet God's standards of true sacrifice.
There is more about this in the "Pearl of Great Price." If you would like a free copy let me know.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Okay - let me define what I mean by exalted being and God.
Please do. With respect, the rest of your post, didn't.
So far you've said the following (apologies if my paraphrasing or memory is inaccurate)
There are an infinite number of Gods.
Jesus was not a God until after his death.
Jesus was never the Father.
Only the Father is the Creator, source of all being, etc, who the rest of us call God.
The Word in 1 John 1 is actually God (and by this you mean the Father).
The Word in 1 John 1 is not Jesus.
(I note that you haven't answered then, how God became flesh if not Jesus).
All people existed logically prior to the creation of the universe.
Forgive me, but I'm having difficulty discussing this because you haven't defined your terms.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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[tangent]This is the best thread on the Trinity and the nature of Christ! Instead of a bunch of trinitarians splitting hairs on modality and the nature of Persons, we have a number of really distinct theological points of view. Plus we are learning scads about JW and LDS. Kudos, guys!
I hope this gets aworthy retirement in Limbo.[/tangent]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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I was just thinking the same thing!
Thank you Elder Maroni and 12uthy. You are very helpful and interesting.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
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quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
1 John 1
Everyone please translate what I wrote into what I obviously meant
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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[TANGENT]
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
We believe the translator Joseph Smith was inspired directly from God - it should be noted however that Joseph Smith did not have profound insight.
Very interesting comment.
I should note that I am a Swedenborgian. Many Mormons read Swedenborg as his books were the source of much of what Smith wrote about heaven.
Anyway, you're not the only one in this discussion who believes in alternate authoritative revelations.
Of course, one could argue that this is exactly what the traditions of the Catholic and Orthodox churches are. [/TANGENT]
Posted by Ley Druid (# 3246) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Margaret:
And Ley Druid, I think you've misunderstood me - I'm not trying to attack or defend anyone, just pointing out that there are arguments to be made on both (or all?) sides of the discussion.
No one said you were attacking or defending anyone.
Sure arguments can be made on all sides of any discussion, like whether the world is flat, or the moon is made of green cheese.
quote:
I think it's a great mistake to dismiss the Witnesses as a bunch of wild theological crazies;
No one has called anybody crazy either.
quote:
others may not agree with their interpretations of scripture, or the conclusions they draw from them, but they can always, in my experience, back them up with reasons.(I say this with feeling, having had a stand-up fight with a Witness friend over the Trinity, and he really knew his stuff!)
The plains are very flat and I have seen cheese that looks the same color as the moon. I am sure that anyone can provide reasons for anything they want.
quote:
Witnesses are deeply devoted to studying the Bible, and their approach to it strikes me as very logical and consistent, even if it's not one that I, as a liberal Christian aware of modern scholarship, could possibly buy into.
That is very rich of you. So from your position of privelege, you could never buy into it, but you won't bother sharing your awareness of modern scholarship with those who might be ignorant of it. Heck, you don't have to. Instead you make a bunch of unsubstantiated claims of how the NWT is "a pretty accurate translation", fruit of a "determination to give as exact a translation of Koine Greek". But why should you take responsibility for anything you post; I mean, we all know that this is stuff that you, "as a liberal Christian aware of modern scholarship, could possibly buy into."
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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Thanks for answering 12uthy! By the way I hope you don't feel that too many people are 'on your case'. If it's too much just pm me or just decline to answer!
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
12uthy,
Are you happy with idea that someone or something less than God dwells within you?
And, are you happy with the idea that the Church is a Temple to something that isn't God?
Daron
The only thing that dwells within me that did not come from my beloved God is sin and no I am not happy about this, and will echo Paul's words on this:
The point I wish to make is that we do not need to revere God's gift as if it were a God in itself in order to use it and cherish it. If a loved one gave you a gift would you treat that gift as though it were that loved one or would you cherish it because it was a gift from a dear loved one.
<snipped to removed tangent on sin>
I still view it as an unnecessary confounding of the simple Christian message, which is this:
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.(KJV) <snipped to remove tangent on phariseeism>
Are you saying that Jesus Christ is God's gift? John clearly does! If you are saying that Jesus Christ is God's gift, are you saying that this gift dwells within you?
As you rightly say, John 3:16 clearly states that God's gift is a person: namely Jesus Christ; 'he gave his only Son'.
Furthermore, Scripture states in too many places to mention that Christ is to indwell the believer. So, Christ the person indwells the believer; right? Now, are you saying that Christ, a person who is less than God, dwells within you?
Are you really saying that you are a temple to someone, or something, that is less than God? Yes or no?
For my part, if I am to be a temple, I want to be a temple to God. Anything else would be idolatrous surely?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
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quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Thanks for answering 12uthy! By the way I hope you don't feel that too many people are 'on your case'. If it's too much just pm me or just decline to answer!
Are you saying that Jesus Christ is God's gift? John clearly does! If you are saying that Jesus Christ is God's gift, are you saying that this gift dwells within you?
As you rightly say, John 3:16 clearly states that God's gift is a person: namely Jesus Christ; 'he gave his only Son'.
Furthermore, Scripture states in too many places to mention that Christ is to indwell the believer. So, Christ the person indwells the believer; right? Now, are you saying that Christ, a person who is less than God, dwells within you?
Are you really saying that you are a temple to someone, or something, that is less than God? Yes or no?
For my part, if I am to be a temple, I want to be a temple to God. Anything else would be idolatrous surely?
Is Jesus Christ God's gift? Yes
Does this gift dwell within me?
In the sense that I love him and follow his steps as closely as humanly possible, yes. But it would be more accurate to say that I hope to have his spirit dwell within me. Since Jesus had Jehovah's spirit it could thus be said that I hope to have Jesus' spirit too. (Does that make sense, I'm getting a bit tired )
I personally am not the temple, the Congregation of Jehovah's followers make up the temple (and by that I don't mean just JW's).
Collectively we all make up the body of Christ (not literally of course) of which I'm probably something like a toe.
(1 Corinthians 12:12-13) 12 For just as the body is one but has many members, and all the members of that body, although being many, are one body, so also is the Christ. 13 For truly by one spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink one spirit.
(sorry I'm too tired to go searching through the interlinear so you'll have to make do with the unreliable NWT )
So yes in a way I am a temple, or at least a part of one, to Jehovah God and no-one else. The way in which we have Jesus dwell in us is not by some mystic rite but through love and faithfulness in our hearts, plain and simple.
hth
With all my Christian love
ps I don't feel as though you are "on my case", I only appreciate the opportunity to share my views and hear others ideas
(Malachi 3:16-18) 16 At that time those in fear of Jehovah spoke with one another, each one with his companion, and Jehovah kept paying attention and listening. And a book of remembrance began to be written up before him for those in fear of Jehovah and for those thinking upon his name.
17 “And they will certainly become mine,” Jehovah of armies has said, “at the day when I am producing a special property. And I will show compassion upon them, just as a man shows compassion upon his son who is serving him. 18 And YOU people will again certainly see [the distinction] between a righteous one and a wicked one, between one serving God and one who has not served him.”
, thanks
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:Is Jesus Christ God's gift? Yes. Does this gift dwell within me? In the sense that I love him and follow his steps as closely as humanly possible, yes.
And I would suggest that Christ dwells within a person not by a person's might or strength (i.e. according their efforts at obedience) but by the Spirit of God. As it says in Galatians 3:2-3
'This only would I learn of you? Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by hearing the faith? Are ye so foolish? having begun in Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?'
quote:
I personally am not the temple, the Congregation of Jehovah's followers make up the temple (and by that I don't mean just JW's). Collectively we all make up the body of Christ (not literally of course) of which I'm probably something like a toe.
You are right that the Apostle Paul uses the image of the temple collectively in 1 Cor 3:16. But later, in the same letter, the image is used individually. In 1 Cor 6:19-20 Paul asks those who have been having sex with prostitutes the following question: '...do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, whom you have from God? You are not your own for you were bought with a price.' And of course, Jesus himself, as an individual, used temple imagary to describe his own physical body (John 2:21).
So, I suggest that it is perfectly acceptable for Christians to use this imagery in both a collective and in an individual sense. Collectively, it refers to the Church as the 'body of Christ'; individually it refers to the physical body of each believer bought with the precious blood of Christ.
Furthermore, 'the gift of the Holy Spirit' is given individually. In Acts 2:38 the Apostle Peter preaches the gospel thus, 'Repent and be baptised every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.'
Now, why is this Temple imagery consistently linked with the indwelling Holy Spirit? How can both the Church collectively and the Christian individually be a Temple 'to the Holy Spirit' unless the Holy Spirit is God? God does not tollerate idolatry; he will not permit other Gods. Why on earth would Jehovah make the Church, or individual Christians, into Temples to something less than himself?
quote:
So yes in a way I am a temple, or at least a part of one, to Jehovah God and no-one else.
Quite right! But you cannot make this statement and still continue to deny the personhood and the divinity of the Holy Spirit (see 1 Cor 3:16 & !2 Cor 6:16; Eph 2:22). The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of Jehovah. If Jehovah has a temple, corporte or individual, the Holy Spirit must be Jehovah. Anything else would be an abomination! Only God Himself can have a Temple!
quote:
The way in which we have Jesus dwell in us is not by some mystic rite but through love and faithfulness in our hearts, plain and simple.
You are right when you say that a rite cannot make Jesus dwell within us. In fact you do not go far enough! We've already established that God's Spirit is a gift. Nothing, can make God God give a gift other than his generosity as a Father; not even our love and faithfulness can earn a gift. If we try to earn it; it ceases to be a gift and becomes a wage. What an insult to God that would be!
However, I think there is quite a lot of evidence is Scripture that suggests that the indwelling of Christ by the Holy Spirit is mystical in some sense. Look at Rev 3:20, that's fairly mystical. You can't take it literally can you! It is figurative language that describes how Father, Son, and Holy Spirit indwell a person by grace through faith.
Hope you are getting me! Enough for now!
Daron
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Let me illustrate it this way,
If you were dangling off the edge of a cliff, and I was the only one there.
Who would you say was your only means of saving, me or the rope I throw to you?
The analogy is false. We are talking about the person who takes on the title of saviour of the world. In your example there would only be one saviour - the rope would not be a saviour.
Pax,
ar
No but I could not save you without it.
Jehovah can use whatever and whoever he chooses to accomplish his will.
Who better than the one person who has been with him from the beginning and with whom he created the earth and everything in it:
...
Simply because Jesus was a separate person does not mean that we were saved by anyone other than Jehovah, or that anyone else could do so.
That would be true if the New Testament didn't clearly call Jesus our saviour! And yet, it clearly does so:
quote:
... for today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who is Christ the Lord.Luke 2:11
Here Jesus is has two of God's titles applied to him: Saviour and Lord. quote:
“It is no longer because of what you said that we believe, for we have heard for ourselves and know that this One is indeed the Savior of the world.” (Jn 4:42).
quote:
For the husband is the head of the wife, as Christ also is the head of the church, He Himself being the Savior of the body.Eph 5:23
quote:
For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.1 Ti 4:10
quote:
For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.1 Ti 4:10
and this!: quote:
... grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To Him be the glory, both now and to the day of eternity. Amen.2 Pe 3:18. LaHabra, CA: The Lockman Foundation.
If Jesus was just the "rope" by which Jehovah saved the world, why would he receive "glory, both now and to the day of eternity"? Jesus is our Lord and our Saviour. He is worthy of glory, honour and all the worship that we give to him.
quote:
I still think that it is an unnecessary and therefore dangerous complication to God's Message.
No, it's a dangerous complication of God's message to believe that there are two or three separate gods in heaven, like a big god and a little god. We must give all our worship to the One True God of perfect unity.
Pax,
ar
[ 04. May 2005, 01:37: Message edited by: anglicanrascal ]
Posted by Living in Gin (# 2572) on
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quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
No, it's a dangerous complication of God's message to believe that there are two or three separate gods in heaven, like a big god and a little god. We must give all our worship to the One True God of perfect unity.
Agreed. It should be noted that JW's have their own translation of the Bible, which conveniently changes a few key phrases to better suit their theology. There's no point in supplying proof texts if you aren't reading from the same book. (FWIW, I have no idea if any of the verses you quoted are different in the JW version or not.)
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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12uthy has been pretty considerate about drawing on texts that are in general usage even if the ones in this last post aren't.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
12uthy has been pretty considerate about drawing on texts that are in general usage even if the ones in this last post aren't.
...and s/he quotes from a variety of translations, including the NWT (which s/he admits is dodgy ).
Posted by Living in Gin (# 2572) on
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Okay, noted.... Carry on.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
12uthy has been pretty considerate about drawing on texts that are in general usage even if the ones in this last post aren't.
...and s/he quotes from a variety of translations, including the NWT (which s/he admits is dodgy ).
Just to clarify, I did not admit that the NWT was dodgy, I merely acknowledged that some of you(generic) thought it was dodgy.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
12uthy has been pretty considerate about drawing on texts that are in general usage even if the ones in this last post aren't.
...and s/he quotes from a variety of translations, including the NWT (which s/he admits is dodgy ).
Just to clarify, I did not admit that the NWT was dodgy, I merely acknowledged that some of you(generic) thought it was dodgy.
Granted
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
TO RECAP:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Okay - let me define what I mean by exalted being and God.
Please do. With respect, the rest of your post, didn't.
So far you've said the following (apologies if my paraphrasing or memory is inaccurate)
There are an infinite number of Gods.
Jesus was not a God until after his death.
Jesus was never the Father.
Only the Father is the Creator, source of all being, etc, who the rest of us call God.
The Word in 1 John 1 is actually God (and by this you mean the Father).
The Word in 1 John 1 is not Jesus.
(I note that you haven't answered then, how God became flesh if not Jesus).
All people existed logically prior to the creation of the universe.
Forgive me, but I'm having difficulty discussing this because you haven't defined your terms.
There are an infinite number of "gods."
There is One God, One Lord - whom we worship. However, we believe that the whole purpose of human beings, is to become "exalted" ourselves. This is not merely a latter day belief. Read James 1:9. Therefore, if you call exalted beings "gods" then yes there are an infinite number of Gods. Notwithstanding this, there is one Lord God (Elohim) whom we worship and glorify.
Let me quote something to you from a famous LDS writer called Talmage.
quote:
The identity of Jesus Christ with the Jehovah of the Israelites was well understood by the Nephite prophets, and the truth of their teachings was confirmed by the risen Lord who manifested Himself unto them shortly after His ascension from the midst of the apostles at Jerusalem. This is the record: "And it came to pass that the Lord spake unto them saying, Arise and come forth unto me, that ye may thrust your hands into my side, and also that ye may feel the prints of the nails in my hands, and in my feet, that ye may know that I am the God of Israel, and the God of the whole earth, and have been slain for the sins of the world." It would appear unnecessary to cite at greater length in substantiating our affirmation that Jesus Christ was God even before He assumed a body of flesh. During that ante-mortal period there was essential difference between the Father and the Son, in that the former had already passed through the experiences of mortal life, including death and resurrection, and was therefore a Being possessed of a perfect, immortalized body of flesh and bones, while the Son was yet unembodied. Through His death, and subsequent resurection Jesus the Christ is today a Being like unto the Father in all essential characteristics.
It was a hard thing for me to work out myself exactly what Jesus Christ was before He came to the Earth. But Talmage - who is an Apostle of the church, has described it well:- Jesus Christ was a God before He came to the Earth, however He was unembodied (unlike God - who we believe has a tangible body of flesh and bones.) To reach further perfection, Jesus Christ (Jehovah) needed to come to the Earth to gain a body; another purpose to His resurrection.
I'm sure most here agree that Jesus Christ is "God" (or à mon avis "a God.") God has a physical body of flesh and bones - for He showed it to the apostles when He died. All those infinite number of "Gods" I talked about or "exalted beings" do NOT yet have physical bodies, and furthermore and not perfected like Elohim and Jehovah. There are few, however aside from Elohim and Jehovah like Enoch who we have no revelation about concerning His current state towards the plan of salvation.
I apologise - there is so much to comment on here, I don't know how I can clearly explain each point to you without swamping the message board!
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
There are an infinite number of "gods."
There is One God, One Lord - whom we worship. However, we believe that the whole purpose of human beings, is to become "exalted" ourselves. This is not merely a latter day belief. Read James 1:9. Therefore, if you call exalted beings "gods" then yes there are an infinite number of Gods. Notwithstanding this, there is one Lord God (Elohim) whom we worship and glorify.
OK - so a) what makes you think we are destined to be 'gods' b) was Christ just a 'god' in the sense that we all will be c) are there some who will be in heaven and not be 'gods'?
quote:
It was a hard thing for me to work out myself exactly what Jesus Christ was before He came to the Earth. But Talmage - who is an Apostle of the church, has described it well:- Jesus Christ was a God before He came to the Earth, however He was unembodied (unlike God - who we believe has a tangible body of flesh and bones.) To reach further perfection, Jesus Christ (Jehovah) needed to come to the Earth to gain a body; another purpose to His resurrection.
So, he was then he wasn't then he was again? Isn't this a bit convoluted? Whats the problem with believing he was the whole time?
quote:
I'm sure most here agree that Jesus Christ is "God" (or à mon avis "a God.") God has a physical body of flesh and bones - for He showed it to the apostles when He died. All those infinite number of "Gods" I talked about or "exalted beings" do NOT yet have physical bodies, and furthermore and not perfected like Elohim and Jehovah. There are few, however aside from Elohim and Jehovah like Enoch who we have no revelation about concerning His current state towards the plan of salvation.
ISTM that people are not 'gods', they would never become 'gods' and this is not a desirable condition to attain.
C
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
OK - so a) what makes you think we are destined to be 'gods' b) was Christ just a 'god' in the sense that we all will be c) are there some who will be in heaven and not be 'gods'?
Latter Day revelation tells us that we are going to become "exalted" if we follow the plan of salvation. We believe in three kingdoms - the terrestrial (for Earthly people who had no faith at all but still will be resurrected), tellestial (for Christians or faithful people but who didn't follow the latter day plan of salvation) and the celestial (for endowed, sealed, married and faithful members of the church.) In the Celestial Kingdom we have been promised: "kingdoms, principalities, and a share in the glory of God."
As for Christ - because of His actions and being the most favoured in the eyes of Elohim, He is a God now equal to Elohim in stature, yet Elohim is His literal Father. We see Jesus as our Older brother, because in the pre-existance we were all born of God just like Jesus Christ - but He was the first.
quote:
So, he was then he wasn't then he was again? Isn't this a bit convoluted? Whats the problem with believing he was the whole time?
The problem is that a God cannot have an unperfected body.
[ 04. May 2005, 08:57: Message edited by: Elder Moroni ]
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
]Latter Day revelation tells us that we are going to become "exalted" if we follow the plan of salvation. We believe in three kingdoms - the terrestrial (for Earthly people who had no faith at all but still will be resurrected), tellestial (for Christians or faithful people but who didn't follow the latter day plan of salvation) and the celestial (for endowed, sealed, married and faithful members of the church.) In the Celestial Kingdom we have been promised: "kingdoms, principalities, and a share in the glory of God."
As for Christ - because of His actions and being the most favoured in the eyes of Elohim, He is a God now equal to Elohim in stature, yet Elohim is His literal Father. We see Jesus as our Older brother, because in the pre-existance we were all born of God just like Jesus Christ - but He was the first.
I reject completely the idea that there are some people who are more saved than others in heaven.
quote:
The problem is that a God cannot have an unperfected body.
Why?
C
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Which half was which? And no thanks, I already have the original, not a counterfeit in specific contravention of it.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
quote:
------------------------------------------
The problem is that a God cannot have an unperfected body.
------------------------------------------
Why?
Flesh cannot exist in the presence of the Father - this is common knowledge throughout the Old Testament. Perfect flesh, however can - Jesus Christ ascended to His father with a body of flesh and bones - the Father too also having a body of flesh and bones (perfected.)
[fixed horizontal scroll lock]
[ 05. May 2005, 04:11: Message edited by: RuthW ]
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
quote:
quote:
------------------------------------
The problem is that a God cannot have an unperfected body.
------------------------------------
Why?
Flesh cannot exist in the presence of the Father - this is common knowledge throughout the Old Testament. Perfect flesh, however can - Jesus Christ ascended to His father with a body of flesh and bones - the Father too also having a body of flesh and bones (perfected.)
Really? Where does it say that? On the contrary, the OT is the story of holy God coming and getting involved with sinful man. Sin and flesh is no problem to him.
C
[fixed horizontal scroll lock]
[ 05. May 2005, 04:10: Message edited by: RuthW ]
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Flesh cannot exist in the presence of the Father - this is common knowledge throughout the Old Testament.
It is common knowledge? Then, how did Adam and Eve survive the presence of God? Or Moses? How did Jacob wrestle God? Or Abraham invite God in for dinner? Why did Isaiah declare "woe is me! for I stand in the presence of God" because of his "unclean lips" rather than the fact he was flesh and blood?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
You'll notice all those places that you referred to it was "Jehovah" who was present - Jesus Christ
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Exactly, God.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
So you're saying that when St John speaks of the Word becoming flesh and living with us, he means the Father become flesh and lived with us, and not Jesus?
When is this alleged to have happened, and why did nobody notice?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
No... Jesus did become flesh; there is no doubt about that. This is not the dispute; the dispute is: was the word a MAN while on the Earth.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
So what was Jesus before He became flesh?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Jesus was a semi-exalted being - in so far that He was favoured amongst all others and shared the glory of God - however, he did not have a perfected body which meant that He did not obtain full exaltation.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
What are exalted beings? Apart from God? In what way wasn't Jesus' body, pre-incarnation, not perfect? By what biblical authority does any extra-biblical 'revelation' reverse the authority of the bible?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
What are exalted beings? Apart from God? In what way wasn't Jesus' body, pre-incarnation, not perfect? By what biblical authority does any extra-biblical 'revelation' reverse the authority of the bible?
Exalted beings are people who have gained exaltation! We believe this is done through instruction in the Temple.
By what biblical authority does any extra-biblical revelation reverse the authority of the bible?
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
This, however is besides the point. Jesus' body could not have been perfect, because He was born of a mere mortal woman, and had not yet Himself fulfilled his own exaltation.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
So how did Jesus, pre-incarnation, fail to obtain instruction in the temple that would have made His body perferct? What did His pre-incarnation body lack? How did Him receiving instruction in the temple as a child change His body?
I'm afraid I don't see how your Timothean reference authorizes biblical autorefutation.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Okay - Jesus' body was unperfected because it was born of a sinful people - unclean - the human body during the state of probation is unclean! We refute the idea that Mary was sinless. Furthermore - Jesus was born of a person bearing sin - or the sins of her parents.
The scripture I gave you shows how that scripture can undergo "correction" and "reproof." If modern revelation is revealed - scripture might need to be corrected - we have a Joseph Smith translation of the bible. What do we mean by corrected? Am I a heretic for thinking that the inspired word of God can be corrected? This is not what we mean - we refer to the "language" and "grammar" which can never be perfect regardless of how learned the transductor is. The Joseph Smith translation clears up some things and some aspects of language which perhaps shine a better light on their meaning.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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How was Jesus' body unclean by being born of the sinner Mary?
Your interpretation of Timothy is ... distinctive. Timothy is not self-referential. Scripture is not there to reprove scripture. It is there to reprove YOU.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
I disagree completely. I do think that this verse is self referential. But even so - we are reproved by scripture; the canon is not closed nor will it ever be.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
No... Jesus did become flesh; there is no doubt about that. This is not the dispute; the dispute is: was the word a MAN while on the Earth.
I'm sorry EM, I'm trying to be as clear as I can be. Is it your belief that, when John's Gospel refers to the Word, he is not referring to Jesus Christ but to the Father alone? In each of these:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God...The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth."
If you do not dispute that "the Word was God" means actually the real One God and not some less-than-God meaning of the word, then I would like you to justify your assertion that Jesus is not God, in the real One True God sense.
If you're saying this is from your later revelation contradicting St John, I'll leave it at that. If, however, you're claiming that St John's Gospel is inspired, there does not appear to be any loophole other than the one 12uthy proposes, namely that the translation above, and all other translations I've ever seen apart from the NWT, are wrong.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Ok this argument about John 1:1 has been going on for a while now so I'll comment verse for verse on LDS beliefs on this.
"In the beginning was the word..."
In the beginning - the beginning of time - the universe, when God created the Heavens and the Earth as paralleled in Genesis 1 - was the word - JESUS CHRIST (JEHOVAH)
"And the word was with God" (or "face to face with God.")
Nothing more to say except that this clearly demonstrates a seperation between the two.
And the word was [a] God.
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute. The Book of Mormon repeatedly appellates "the Holy One of Israel, the Holy God of Israel." He is a God - inasmuch as that He is the one who interacted with the Israelites. He was not, however, equal with the Father - He also did not have a physical body.
[ 04. May 2005, 12:27: Message edited by: Elder Moroni ]
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
Thank you. Now could you clear up what you mean by the word God? Clearly, you don't mean what orthodox Christians, Jews, Muslims and other monotheists mean by it.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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This is very interesting! An LDS and a JW presenting heterodoxies that wouldn't have any less in common if they came from different planets! Which, if the LDS's are right, is probably true!
No, offence 12uthy (Ruthy)
Oh, and I guess Elder Moroni will the God of his own planet at some point. In which case he can blast any JW's that live there to Kingdom (Hall) come.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
haha. That's about the full extent of it yes! Although to be honest - I wouldn't care if I cleaned windows for all eternity in heaven as long as I got there!
Grey face - by o logos I just mean that Jesus is the similitude of the Father's command. "Let there be light" and (by Jesus) "there was light."
[ 04. May 2005, 12:56: Message edited by: Elder Moroni ]
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Grey face - by o logos I just mean that Jesus is the similitude of the Father's command. "Let there be light" and (by Jesus) "there was light."
But your whole premise is based on "God" in the translation of John 1 meaning two different things. In fact, in the same sentence.
The Word was with God, and the Word was God.
If God means an exalted being in the sense that you think Jesus and a multitude are, then the first part doesn't have to mean that Jesus is not the Father at all. It could be referring to any other exalted being. But what point would John be trying to make?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
So here we have a thread on the Trinity that is not about whether Trinity means three gods, but about whether Jesus is a god at all and what that means.
The LDS and JW angles really change things!
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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You disagree completely with what? I like that, all by itself: "I disagree completely.". Yes, you do.
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
And the word was [a] God.
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute. The Book of Mormon repeatedly appellates "the Holy One of Israel, the Holy God of Israel." He is a God - inasmuch as that He is the one who interacted with the Israelites. He was not, however, equal with the Father - He also did not have a physical body.
How do you (and Ruthy if you're still reading!) explain that later Jesus accepts Thomas's confession (presumably regarded by John as normative else why include it) of Jesus as "My Lord and my God"? God in this instance takes the definite article - the God (of whom there is only one according to Scripture), not a divine being lower than the Almighty. Clearly he is referring to Jesus. What are we to make of it, if not an ascription of the same divinty as God has to Jesus?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
As I have asserted many times throughout these posts (maybe on other boards but I've posted so many now I can't remember!) that when Jesus Christ died He became equal with God (ah.. I remember - it was quoted in the passage from Talmage.) Although Jesus Christ is now fully God - and is the God of all Israel - we worship Elohim through Jesus Christ.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Asserted on your ipse dixit. Good for you mate. But on no scriptural authority.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
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You ask me my beliefs - I tell you them. Is there much point in me quoting places in the BoM and Doctrine and Covenants of the LDS church if you don't accept it?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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No.
Posted by Belle (# 4792) on
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Posted by Elder Moroni
quote:
As I have asserted many times throughout these posts (maybe on other boards but I've posted so many now I can't remember!) that when Jesus Christ died He became equal with God
I have to admit that I have my problems with believing in the Trinity - but I don't have a problem saying I'm a monotheist. To my way of thinking, the God I believe in, the God of Abraham, Moses and Jesus, is too big for any created being to become equal with. We are not operating according to the same parameters as him. God is infinite and the creator and sustainer of all. God has no beginning and no end. God is (ultimately) beyond being comprehended or defined by humans. To me, Jesus either is and was and shall be God, or Jesus was a man - he could not become equal with God - unless you mean God in a very different way to the way I mean the word, or equal to in a very different way.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
So here we have a thread on the Trinity that is not about whether Trinity means three gods, but about whether Jesus is a god at all and what that means.
The LDS and JW angles really change things!
The LDS and JW angels really change things too!
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
there does not appear to be any loophole other than the one 12uthy proposes, namely that the translation above, and all other translations I've ever seen apart from the NWT, are wrong.
The NWT says:
(John 1:1) 1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
(John 1:14) 14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth.
As you can see the NWT does not alter all that much from your translation, I don't understand why you have such a downer on the NWT.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
This is very interesting! An LDS and a JW presenting heterodoxies that wouldn't have any less in common if they came from different planets! Which, if the LDS's are right, is probably true!
No, offence 12uthy (Ruthy)
Oh, and I guess Elder Moroni will the God of his own planet at some point. In which case he can blast any JW's that live there to Kingdom (Hall) come.
No offense taken
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sean D:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
And the word was [a] God.
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute. The Book of Mormon repeatedly appellates "the Holy One of Israel, the Holy God of Israel." He is a God - inasmuch as that He is the one who interacted with the Israelites. He was not, however, equal with the Father - He also did not have a physical body.
How do you (and Ruthy if you're still reading!) explain that later Jesus accepts Thomas's confession (presumably regarded by John as normative else why include it) of Jesus as "My Lord and my God"? God in this instance takes the definite article - the God (of whom there is only one according to Scripture), not a divine being lower than the Almighty. Clearly he is referring to Jesus. What are we to make of it, if not an ascription of the same divinty as God has to Jesus?
I admit that this is the only real sticking point I've come across, however Jesus does not comment on this and so cannot truly be said to have accepted this title, he then goes on to make another point about those who would believe although not having seen him.
Ok that may seem lame and I admit it, but answer me this, if Jesus is God why does he say at:
Joh 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God. '"
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
there does not appear to be any loophole other than the one 12uthy proposes, namely that the translation above, and all other translations I've ever seen apart from the NWT, are wrong.
The NWT says:
(John 1:1) 1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
(John 1:14) 14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth.
As you can see the NWT does not alter all that much from your translation, I don't understand why you have such a downer on the NWT.
Cos there is a pretty major change of emphasis in that translation of that verse compared to all the other translations.
C
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Ok that may seem lame and I admit it, but answer me this, if Jesus is God why does he say at:
Joh 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God. '"
Because in relation to Mary Magdalene's lack of recognition of Him, and her dwelling on the body in the tomb, He had not yet ascended.
However, He was ascending, and once ascended "all power in heaven and on earth" (Matthew 28) was given to Him. That is, He was fully joined to the Father as the omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent God of the universe.
[ 04. May 2005, 21:38: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by Rusty John (# 9305) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
However, He was ascending, and once ascended "all power in heaven and on earth" (Matthew 28) was given to Him. That is, He was fully joined to the Father as the omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent God of the universe.
I thought he was always, in his divine nature, in possession of these qualities. Is there much disagreement on this point?
Posted by Ley Druid (# 3246) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cheesy*:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
there does not appear to be any loophole other than the one 12uthy proposes, namely that the translation above, and all other translations I've ever seen apart from the NWT, are wrong.
The NWT says:
(John 1:1) 1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
(John 1:14) 14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth.
As you can see the NWT does not alter all that much from your translation, I don't understand why you have such a downer on the NWT.
Cos there is a pretty major change of emphasis in that translation of that verse compared to all the other translations.
C
Yeah but that is what is pretty pathetic about people who only read translations.
Sure "a god" is a bit clunky, but what JW are trying to get across is that in the Greek "Word"(ho logos) is the subject and "a god" (theos) has no definite article. "divine was the Word" must surely be admitted as a valid translation and all the time people call things divine that aren't God.
There was a reason why the Church had to call Ecumenical Councils to define the Divinty of Jesus Christ. And they didn't just say "Look, it says right here in English that the Word was God".
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Jesus is a God. Jesus is a member of the Godhead. Members of the Mormon Church do not use the term "Trinity" simply because it denotes a oneness between the three. Although we believe that members of the Godhead (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit)are seperate - they are one in purpose. ...
Ah, yes -- that would explain the "Testimony of Three Witnesses," wouldn't it?
quote:
...And the honor be to the Father, and to the Son, and to the Holy Ghost, which is one God. Amen.
OLIVER COWDERY, DAVID WHITMER, MARTIN HARRIS
As I recall, the old Temple movie showed those three gods-of-this-world as identical albino dudes with long white beards, sitting around confabbing on matching thrones. Interesting imagery.
Smith didn't understand the concept of the Trinity (which is not particularly surprising; he was, as advertised, essentially uneducated), so it's not surprising that he muffed up his theology here, as elsewhere. Mormons are essentially polytheists, in any case, and polytheism isn't really consistent with a Christian viewpoint. Or so it seems to me.
Rossweisse // doubtless your mileage differs!
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
...Jesus Christ was sinless, because He was born half God half Man ...
So how does this make him different from, say, Herakles?
If your father-god is having sex (you did say something about a "literal sense") with mortal women, how is he different from, say, Zeus?
And if Satan is Jesus's literal half-brother, who is his mother?
quote:
We believe in three kingdoms - the terrestrial (for Earthly people who had no faith at all but still will be resurrected), tellestial (for Christians or faithful people but who didn't follow the latter day plan of salvation) and the celestial (for endowed, sealed, married and faithful members of the church.) In the Celestial Kingdom we have been promised: "kingdoms, principalities, and a share in the glory of God."
Steerage, tourist, and first class?
How is positing different classes of heaven consistent with a Christian point of view?
quote:
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute.
Well, yes, actually, there is, since there is no such name as "Jehovah;" it's a misreading and totally unscholarly. But I think others have gone into that fact already.
Rossweisse // wondering what kind of god would make one's spot in heaven depend upon human beings
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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Glad to see your're still here Ruthy.
Coming back to our discussion about the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. I really haven't had an answer that satisfies my curiosity yet. Let me ask my question again: Why on earth would Jehovah make the Church, or individual Christians, into Temples for something less than himself: namely holy spirit?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Rusty John:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
However, He was ascending, and once ascended "all power in heaven and on earth" (Matthew 28) was given to Him. That is, He was fully joined to the Father as the omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent God of the universe.
I thought he was always, in his divine nature, in possession of these qualities. Is there much disagreement on this point?
I don't think so. Yes, He was always, in His divine nature, in possession of these qualities. However, many passages make it clear that as to His human nature He was always progressing towards union with the Father. Finally, Matthew 28 has Him declaring:
quote:
All power has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Rossweisse:
quote:
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute.
Well, yes, actually, there is, since there is no such name as "Jehovah;" it's a misreading and totally unscholarly. But I think others have gone into that fact already.
Sorry, I must be a bit thick or did I miss something - where did we find that the name Jehovah does not exist?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Rossweisse:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Jesus is a God. Jesus is a member of the Godhead. Members of the Mormon Church do not use the term "Trinity" simply because it denotes a oneness between the three. Although we believe that members of the Godhead (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit)are seperate - they are one in purpose. ...
Ah, yes -- that would explain the "Testimony of Three Witnesses," wouldn't it?
quote:
...And the honor be to the Father, and to the Son, and to the Holy Ghost, which is one God. Amen.
OLIVER COWDERY, DAVID WHITMER, MARTIN HARRIS
As I recall, the old Temple movie showed those three gods-of-this-world as identical albino dudes with long white beards, sitting around confabbing on matching thrones. Interesting imagery.
Smith didn't understand the concept of the Trinity (which is not particularly surprising; he was, as advertised, essentially uneducated), so it's not surprising that he muffed up his theology here, as elsewhere. Mormons are essentially polytheists, in any case, and polytheism isn't really consistent with a Christian viewpoint. Or so it seems to me.
Rossweisse // doubtless your mileage differs!
I asked that exact same question! About what the three witnesses meant by one God. The answer is One in purpose. This is why we still have "One" God - it is the fundamental principle of the LDS doctrine of God. For if they were not one in purpose - it would be as serving two masters.
Also - there is a possibility (I admit) that the three witnesses did actually still believe in the Trinity. Right they were! The truth had not yet been revealed to them... non of them - not even Joseph Smith had profound insight - he was just a translator, seer and revelator.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Rossweisse:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
...Jesus Christ was sinless, because He was born half God half Man ...
So how does this make him different from, say, Herakles?
If your father-god is having sex (you did say something about a "literal sense") with mortal women, how is he different from, say, Zeus?
And if Satan is Jesus's literal half-brother, who is his mother?
quote:
We believe in three kingdoms - the terrestrial (for Earthly people who had no faith at all but still will be resurrected), tellestial (for Christians or faithful people but who didn't follow the latter day plan of salvation) and the celestial (for endowed, sealed, married and faithful members of the church.) In the Celestial Kingdom we have been promised: "kingdoms, principalities, and a share in the glory of God."
Steerage, tourist, and first class?
How is positing different classes of heaven consistent with a Christian point of view?
quote:
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute.
Well, yes, actually, there is, since there is no such name as "Jehovah;" it's a misreading and totally unscholarly. But I think others have gone into that fact already.
Rossweisse // wondering what kind of god would make one's spot in heaven depend upon human beings
First - Satan is Jesus' (and our) literal brother. (not half brother.) Second - the three classifications of the kingdoms of heaven are actually mentioned in the bible:
1Co 15:40 There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another.
The "Celestial Kingdom" shall be established on earth:
Rev 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Let me see if I have this straight:
My original objection to the Trinity was that it was not supported by Scripture. I concede that within the limits of interpretation that may not be the case.
However the main sticking points seem to be:
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
My (unitarian) argument is that the word God here being "theos" cannot be considered exclusive to the one true God Jehovah on the grounds that when Jesus at John 10:34 referred to the OT scripture at Psm 82:6 where God himself refers to the mortal judges of the earth as "gods" (Hebrew el-o-heem) he translates it into the Greek theos, the same word. (pauses for breath)
This is the reasoning for the NWT rendering it as "a god" (lower case) in John 1:1.
This then led to the problem with:
Exo 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before, me.
Which of course I hold to mean that worship of Jesus would be idolatry (depending upon your definition of worship)
The Trinitarian view, as I understand it, finds this a problem since it appears that Thomas called him "My God" and Jesus did not rebuke him (John 20:28). I on the other hand maintain that Jesus could be said to be a god without actually worshipping him "before" the True God, ie to a greater or equal degree to the worship of Jehovah.
On the matter of divinity, could someone please define this as it seems that many here seem to equate it with immortality which of course every spirit creature in heaven, including the angels can be said to be immortal since they are not destined to die. Only imperfect man and Satan and his demons are thus destined to die due to their sinning.
Personally I define divinity to be holy and perfect in the eyes of Jehovah and not exclusive to the person of God. In this sense any person who exists in or has been resurrected to heavenly perfection can be defined as being divine. Thus Jesus can be said to be divine and was whilst on earth because he was perfect when he was incarnated of Mary and continued perfect throughout his life, otherwise he could not have been a propitiatory sacrifice to atone for Adam and his offspring.
There is no doubt that Jesus is divine and he is a god (theos) in the sense of being a judge, as appointed by his father and ours, Jehovah. Jesus himself conspicuously never called himself God, but often referred to himself as the Son of Man or Son of God and specifically said that the Father was (and still is IMO) greater than him.
(Romans 8:16) . . .The spirit itself bears witness with our spirit that we are God’s children.
Now on the matter of the Spirit. (Takes a deep breath)
We all are said to have a spirit which can be defined as that part of ourselves that motivates us into fulfilling our will (our vital force):
Rom 8:16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:
Since we are created in his image, it seems logical that Jehovah would have a similar part of himself that motivates him to act in the way that he does.
Since Jehovah is not human and hence not bound by a human body, his spirit can move freely throughout the universe and motivate others:
2Pe 1:20 Knowing this first, that no, prophecy of the Scripture is of any private interpretation.
2Pe 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
He promises to give his spirit (his vital force) to those who ask, because only those who ask for it are worthy of it.
It can be seen as divine because it is the very vital force of Jehovah and hence absolutely Holy.
As to your question m.t:
Why on earth would Jehovah make the Church, or individual Christians, into Temples for something less than himself: namely holy spirit?
He wouldn't, because the Holy Spirit is the very essence of himself.
That makes the Holy Spirit a part of Jehovah not a god in itself.
I have no problem with considering the HS being one with Jehovah, the part I find difficult is the separating of it into a separate individual person.
Does this help any, because all this talk of Jehovah being the same as Jesus or even not existing at all is kind of making my head spin.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by Rossweisse:
quote:
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute.
Well, yes, actually, there is, since there is no such name as "Jehovah;" it's a misreading and totally unscholarly. But I think others have gone into that fact already.
Sorry, I must be a bit thick or did I miss something - where did we find that the name Jehovah does not exist?
The tetragrammaton exists, yes. But the word Jehovah contains the vowels e o & a. These vowel were never in the original Hebrew text. The vowels that appear in the text as we have received it are the vowel pointing from the word Adonai meaning Lord. The tetragrammaton in the text as we have received it is intentionally unpronouncable because it is formed from two separate words. This is intentional.
The word Jehovah is simply one among many possible ways of pointing YHWH e.g. Yud -Veh-Vah-Heh would be more accurate or how about Jihavoh, or Johivah or Juhavih etc. All of the are equally plausible options: there is nothing to suggest that the Jehovah combination is the way to render the sacred name of God (YHWH).
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by Rossweisse:
quote:
JEHOVAH was a God - there is no dispute.
Well, yes, actually, there is, since there is no such name as "Jehovah;" it's a misreading and totally unscholarly. But I think others have gone into that fact already.
Sorry, I must be a bit thick or did I miss something - where did we find that the name Jehovah does not exist?
The tetragrammaton exists, yes. But the word Jehovah contains the vowels e o & a. These vowel were never in the original Hebrew text. The vowels that appear in the text as we have received it are the vowel pointing from the word Adonai meaning Lord. The tetragrammaton in the text as we have received it is intentionally unpronouncable because it is formed from two separate words. This is intentional.
The word Jehovah is simply one among many possible ways of pointing YHWH e.g. Yud -Veh-Vah-Heh would be more accurate or how about Jihavoh, or Johivah or Juhavih etc. All of the are equally plausible options: there is nothing to suggest that the Jehovah combination is the way to render the sacred name of God (YHWH).
Thank you I understand now.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
12uthy, I completely agree with you (apart from the names which you give to God and Jesus but we'd be splitting hairs there!)
quote:
My (unitarian) argument is that the word God here being "theos" cannot be considered exclusive to the one true God Jehovah on the grounds that when Jesus at John 10:34 referred to the OT scripture at Psm 82:6 where God himself refers to the mortal judges of the earth as "gods" (Hebrew el-o-heem) he translates it into the Greek theos, the same word. (pauses for breath)
This was my argument also! You stated the word "God" cannot be considered exclusive to the one true God - this is true. The lack of the definite article "O" (kai theos ein o logos) means that "the word was God" can actually be translated as "the word was A God." This parallels, as you have noted, with "Elohim" which means "gods" rather than "God."
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Ok that may seem lame and I admit it
Not lame but definitely not very convincing - since Jesus' answer actually seems to imply that Thomas' confession of him as THE God is actually what everyone else should confess, even though they haven't seen the risen Jesus.
quote:
Joh 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God. '"
That's simple, and it's why I believe that God is Trinity. Jesus is God - as John himself tells us. Yet he is somehow distinct from God. Therefore, there is more than one person involved in God. Jesus relates to God perfectly as a son. The one who relates to God the Father perfectly as a son cannot be less than divine himself.
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
As I have asserted many times throughout these posts (maybe on other boards but I've posted so many now I can't remember!) that when Jesus Christ died He became equal with God (ah.. I remember - it was quoted in the passage from Talmage.) Although Jesus Christ is now fully God - and is the God of all Israel - we worship Elohim through Jesus Christ.
But this is just not what John's gospel teaches - surely whatever you make of inarticular "God" at the beginning of John 1, you cannot get away from the fact that whatever divinity Jesus had, he had when he became human.
Incidentally the fact that God there has no article proves precisely nothing - it could of course in theory mean "a" god - but equally it could mean "God". It doesn't prove anything either way.
More to the point, how can you become God? If God is God, isn't that just what he's like, full stop? If Jesus wasn't God when he became human, I'm blowed if I can see how he became so later on without playing merry hell with the idea that God is who he is without change.
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
This parallels, as you have noted, with "Elohim" which means "gods" rather than "God."
What about the fact that the OT frequently refers to God (YHWH) as "Elohim"? The terms are completely interchangeable.
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
This is the reasoning for the NWT rendering it as "a god" (lower case) in John 1:1.
This then led to the problem with:
Exo 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before, me.
Which of course I hold to mean that worship of Jesus would be idolatry (depending upon your definition of worship)
I completely agree with you. If we give Jesus worship and he is not the Almighty God, then we are in serious trouble.
This becomes interesting if you look at how the word "worship" (pr?skun?? ?????????) is used in the New Testament. It is used to apply to God as much as it is used to apply to Jesus.
This chart is very interesting because it shows how the NWT translates the same word differently depending on who it applies to. About 35 times it applies to God, the Devil, demons, idols, "the beast" and "his image". All those times, the NWT translates the word as "worship". But the 15 times that it applies to Jesus, the word magically becomes "obeisance".
The NWT is translated in a way that tries to present the image that the worship that the Father receives is somehow different from the worship that Jesus receives - despite the same greek word being used for both of them.
quote:
The Trinitarian view, as I understand it, finds this a problem since it appears that Thomas called him "My God" and Jesus did not rebuke him (John 20:28). I on the other hand maintain that Jesus could be said to be a god without actually worshipping him "before" the True God, ie to a greater or equal degree to the worship of Jehovah.
Yes, that does cause a huge problem - could you worship the flag, as long as you gave it less worship than you would give to Jehovah?
quote:
There is no doubt that Jesus is divine and he is a god (theos)
Again the JW argument runs into huge problems. The first commandment sctricly prohibits us having other Gods than the true one. If Jehovah is the "only true god" then where does that leave Jesus?
quote:
He wouldn't, because the Holy Spirit is the very essence of himself.
That makes the Holy Spirit a part of Jehovah not a god in itself.
I have no problem with considering the HS being one with Jehovah, the part I find difficult is the separating of it into a separate individual person.
Ahh - you are getting so close here, Ruthy! The Holy Spirit is indeed the very essense of God - he is truly divine. There is nothing about him that is not God.
I really have to dash, but can I leave you with this page?
May the Holy Spirit intercede for you!
Pax,
ar
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
there does not appear to be any loophole other than the one 12uthy proposes, namely that the translation above, and all other translations I've ever seen apart from the NWT, are wrong.
The NWT says:
(John 1:1) 1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
(John 1:14) 14 So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth.
As you can see the NWT does not alter all that much from your translation, I don't understand why you have such a downer on the NWT.
Well, apart from the fact that it changes the fabric of reality as I understand it, from Jesus being God to Jesus being not-God in the monotheistic sense, I wasn't actually attacking the NWT here, though I think it's wrong. The distinction the NWT makes (and other translations though in different places) between God and god is an essential one if there is only one God.
I was defending the NWT translation to "The Word was with God, and the Word was a god" as logical on this passage, given the starting point that the translators believe in one God and that Jesus is a creature - which is where I and the Church disagree of course.
With respect to Elder Moroni, the position of the LDS as presented on this thread in the terminology that the rest of us would use is that Jesus Christ is not God, if I understand correctly, as we believe in one God and reserve that name for the Creator, the Eternal, and so on. EM, it would be helpful to me if you would confirm that this is in fact the case and try to avoid obscuring the LDS position in this way (inadvertently I'm sure), and then explain again how a creature can become truly equal to the one God, and if that is the case why worshipping him is wrong.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ruthy:
We all are said to have a spirit which can be defined as that part of ourselves that motivates us into fulfilling our will (our vital force):
A human being is a psychosomatic unity. We are embodied spirits that can only be fully human when we are embodied. The spirit is not superior to the body: both have equal standing in human ontology. This is why the resurrection of the dead is about the shift from mortal to immortal embodiment (see 1 Cor 15).
At the resurrection, the mortal human spirit is clothed with the immortality of Christ who is the life giving Spirit. Hence, the embodied human spirit is immortal only derivitatively: Christ is our resurrection life.
Now, you say that the human spirit is 'part of oursleves'. And you are right, but a spirit is only human when we exist psychosomatically. For us, disembodiment is sub-humanity. That is our glory: we will always, and can only, fully exist holistically. We will never become disembodied spirits floating somewhere in an ethereal heaven.
The conjoining of my spirit and body is me. It is who and what I am; both now and at the resurrection. Without my body I am sub-human; without my spirit I am sub-human. My spirit alone is not 'me'; my body alone is not 'me'. The amalgamation of the two; spirit and body (me) is called a soul. I am a soul; a psychosomatic unity.
quote:
Since we are created in his image, it seems logical that Jehovah would have a similar part of himself that motivates him to act in the way that he does. Since Jehovah is not human and hence not bound by a human body, his spirit can move freely throughout the universe and motivate others.
My spirit is me; God's spirit is God. I think you are mistaken when you attempt to disect humanity into 'parts'. Likewise, I think you are mistaken when you attempt you disect God into 'parts'; he is Triune. You seem to be suggesting that 'part' of God isn't God: namely his spirit. That doesn't make sense to me. To suggest that my spirit isn't me, or indeed, that my body isn't me, is to fall into the grip of neo-Hellenistic philosophy. It represents an unaccepatble departure from Judeo-Christian anthropology.
quote:
He promises to give his spirit (his vital force) to those who ask, because only those who ask for it are worthy of it.
And I maintain that nothing, not even 'asking', can make a person 'worthy' of God's gift of himself by his Spirit. Children do not need to be worthy of gifts; they are given out of love - pure and simple.
quote:
[holy spirit] can be seen as divine because it is the very vital force of Jehovah and hence absolutely Holy.
Are you suggesting that without something that isn't God, God would have no vitality? Are you really suggesting that God's vitality is derived from something that is less than himself? I hope not! Otherwise we have a Jehovah who can do nothing but for something that is less than himself!
quote:
As to your question m.t:
Why on earth would Jehovah make the Church, or individual Christians, into Temples for something less than himself: namely holy spirit?
He wouldn't, because the Holy Spirit is the very essence of himself.
That makes the Holy Spirit a part of Jehovah not a god in itself.
So you seem to be suggesting that the 'very essence' of God isn't actually God! If I apply that to myself, you seem to be asking me to say that the very essence of me, isn't me. Plus, I don't accept the notion that my spirit constitutes my essence to the exclusion of my body (the Corinthian heresy). I am me: body and spirit.
quote:
I have no problem with considering the HS being one with Jehovah, the part I find difficult is the separating of it into a separate individual person.
If you can accept that the Holy Spirit is one with the Father and that Jesus is also one with the Father (John 14:9-10) without either 'separating' them or confounding* them, you are getting close to the truth that is the Trinity After, Christians believe that YHWH is tri-une not tri-partite. Grasp the unity of the three and you're there!
*mistaking one for another
God Bless!
Posted by Aim for the Prize (# 7054) on
:
Interesting discussion.
12uthy. Can I ask you, who is being reffered to in Psalm 45:6. Jehovah?
" Your throne, O God , is forever and ever."
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sean D:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
As I have asserted many times throughout these posts (maybe on other boards but I've posted so many now I can't remember!) that when Jesus Christ died He became equal with God (ah.. I remember - it was quoted in the passage from Talmage.) Although Jesus Christ is now fully God - and is the God of all Israel - we worship Elohim through Jesus Christ.
But this is just not what John's gospel teaches - surely whatever you make of inarticular "God" at the beginning of John 1, you cannot get away from the fact that whatever divinity Jesus had, he had when he became human.
Incidentally the fact that God there has no article proves precisely nothing - it could of course in theory mean "a" god - but equally it could mean "God". It doesn't prove anything either way.
More to the point, how can you become God? If God is God, isn't that just what he's like, full stop? If Jesus wasn't God when he became human, I'm blowed if I can see how he became so later on without playing merry hell with the idea that God is who he is without change.
First show me from scripture why this is not what John teaches - is it just your take on the Gospel of St.John because of what you think you already know or otherwise?
Secondly - LDS believe that God (Elohim, the Heavenly Father) was once a man (or a non-exalted being) and like Jesus Christ worked His way to exaltation. The famous LDS quote shows this well: "As God once was, man now is..."
D&C 76
And are apriests of the Most High, after the order of Melchizedek, which was after the order of bEnoch•, which was after the corder• of the Only Begotten Son.
58 Wherefore, as it is written, they are agods•, even the bsons• of cGod•—
59 Wherefore, aall• things are theirs, whether life or death, or things present, or things to come, all are theirs and they are Christ’s, and Christ is God’s.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Secondly - LDS believe that God (Elohim, the Heavenly Father) was once a man (or a non-exalted being) and like Jesus Christ worked His way to exaltation.
Where did he live when he was a non-exalted being? How did he create everything before he was exalted? Do you in fact believe that the Universe is self-existent and God is not?
You see, issues such as these rarely come out until we get into in-depth discussions and I'm grateful to you for expressing them here, but the deeper we go the more apparent it is that far from being close to orthodox Christianity, you are actually much further away from us in theology than Islam or Judaism.
Mormons and Witnesses often seem to be thrown together in lazy Christian thought as similar Arians. I'm fairly convinced this is not the case. JWs are from my understanding of what is true*, following a recognisably Christian heresy - I use the term in the technical, not the derogatory sense, no offence, 12uthy - but the LDS have in my opinion a completely different religion.
I don't mean any of that in the sense of rubbishing your beliefs or your right to hold them, although obviously I believe you're wrong or I would join you.
* usual disclaimers apply
Posted by Aim for the Prize (# 7054) on
:
Elder Moroni.
You say there are countless gods according to LDS, but doesen't your own Book of Morman refute this?
"And Amulek said: Yea, there is a true and living God. Now Zeezrom said, is there more than one God? ANd he answered, No." Al. 11:27-29
And if God is an exalted being, why does your book of Morman state:
"For I know God is not a partial God, neither a changeable being; but he is unchangeable from all eternity to eternity" Mo 8:18
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Secondly - LDS believe that God (Elohim, the Heavenly Father) was once a man (or a non-exalted being) and like Jesus Christ worked His way to exaltation.
Where did he live when he was a non-exalted being? How did he create everything before he was exalted? Do you in fact believe that the Universe is self-existent and God is not?
You see, issues such as these rarely come out until we get into in-depth discussions and I'm grateful to you for expressing them here, but the deeper we go the more apparent it is that far from being close to orthodox Christianity, you are actually much further away from us in theology than Islam or Judaism.
Mormons and Witnesses often seem to be thrown together in lazy Christian thought as similar Arians. I'm fairly convinced this is not the case. JWs are from my understanding of what is true*, following a recognisably Christian heresy - I use the term in the technical, not the derogatory sense, no offence, 12uthy - but the LDS have in my opinion a completely different religion.
I don't mean any of that in the sense of rubbishing your beliefs or your right to hold them, although obviously I believe you're wrong or I would join you.
* usual disclaimers apply
Hi Grey Face,
Well I agree with you completely. We are a complete different religion. The basics are there - as in Jesus Christ being the redeemer - but the awkward theology which underlines the "frilly" parts of Christianity fundamentally differ when it comes to LDS and orthodox Christianit.
So... when did God become a man? First let me tell you that not a lot has been revealed to us about this at the moment. We await as always more information on the nature of God. However - it is accepted generally that Elohim was God before the universe / cosmos was created. To this you may ask: "then how was God a man? When man did not exist and the universe did not exist?" God was a non-exalted being - just like Jesus Christ. Imagine Jesus Christ now - He will go on to start His own kingdom in another dimension (sounds spacy but couldn't think of another word!) just as God did - this would mean that there was a chain of Gods - God's Father - his mother (yes mother!), and His Father and Mother and so on. This is why LDS place so much emphasis on family history (aside from vicarious baptism.)
Please let me apologize to you all. I was lay in bed last night thinking about what I posted. And it seems I have been VERY insensitive towards your beliefs. But moreso, I have portrayed myself as somebody who does not accept the full divinity of Jesus Christ - this is not so. I adore Jesus Christ, He is my redeemer, my saviour. We are HIS people - the church of JESUS CHRIST, of latter-day saints. I fear sometimes that I am giving you the wrong impression - there is only so much I can explain on a discussion forum when my native tongue is French! Please forgive me if I seem arrogant!
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Aim for the Prize:
Elder Moroni.
You say there are countless gods according to LDS, but doesen't your own Book of Morman refute this?
"And Amulek said: Yea, there is a true and living God. Now Zeezrom said, is there more than one God? ANd he answered, No." Al. 11:27-29
And if God is an exalted being, why does your book of Morman state:
"For I know God is not a partial God, neither a changeable being; but he is unchangeable from all eternity to eternity" Mo 8:18
1) There is ONE God (Elohim) which we have anything to do with!
2) "eternity to eternity" denotes time. Just like the scripture: "God was the same yesterday, today and tomorrow." However - we must understand that before God created the cosmos - time did not exist as it does now. Even so - "GOD" - meaning, "NOW ELOHIM IS A GOD...he is unchangeable." He is NOW unchangeable since He became exalted.
Mormon scriptures certainly do NOT dispute that there are other Gods - Gods belonging to Elohim - read the Pearl of Great price - "the Gods" are mentioned on nearly every page through the Book of Abraham!
Posted by Aim for the Prize (# 7054) on
:
quote:
1) There is ONE God (Elohim) which we have anything to do with!
2) "eternity to eternity" denotes time. Just like the scripture: "God was the same yesterday, today and tomorrow." However - we must understand that before God created the cosmos - time did not exist as it does now. Even so - "GOD" - meaning, "NOW ELOHIM IS A GOD...he is unchangeable." He is NOW unchangeable since He became exalted.
Mormon scriptures certainly do NOT dispute that there are other Gods - Gods belonging to Elohim - read the Pearl of Great price - "the Gods" are mentioned on nearly every page through the Book of Abraham!
Right, so you interpret your own "scriptures" to say;
1)No there are no other God's - except all the other ones.
and
2)God is changless from eternity to eternity - but we really mean just TO eternity not FROM eternity?
Why the disagreement between different Mormon "scriptures"?
Posted by Belle (# 4792) on
:
The good news is that the Trinity is looking a lot more straightforward now. The bad news is that I'm not sure any more that scripture can be said to support anything.
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
First show me from scripture why this is not what John teaches - is it just your take on the Gospel of St.John because of what you think you already know or otherwise?
No - it is because of the text which I then immediately mentioned in my answer: John 1. Feel free to reread what I said about it.
Elder Moroni I would like to ask you: to what extent do you think the Old and New Testaments are in tension/conflict with the Book of Mormon? I was under the impression that that they were read as equally authoritative with one another. Or has the NT etc been somehow superseded in your understanding? I am asking because it seems to me on the one hand it sounds like we are conducting an intra-Christian debate - on the basis of Christian Scripture. Whilst on the other hand, you are citing scriptures which most Christians don't regard as authoritative, and which perhaps understandably don't really cut any ice with us (cf e.g. the warning at the end of Revelation not to add to Scripture). I ask as I think if I understood your presuppositions a bit more it would help me a great deal in this discussion.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Sean, to be pedantic, the warning at the end of Revelation minimally only applies to Revelation.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Secondly - LDS believe that God (Elohim, the Heavenly Father) was once a man (or a non-exalted being) and like Jesus Christ worked His way to exaltation. The famous LDS quote shows this well: "As God once was, man now is..."
This is what makes you so different. I have to echo greyface's remarks. This LDS POV is very far from the tradition of classical theism found in both Judaism, Christianity and Islam.
Actually Buddhists would nod their heads at you mormons, at least as you present it.
Buddhist tradition generally do accept the existence of devas, that is godlings, but would deny the existence of a single creator God that is the source of everything isvara. However, in buddhist thought, it is precisely because these devas are only godlings that buddhists cheerfully can discount their importance to salvation.
May I ask you elder Moroni, since you explain that The Father and the Son are both exalted beings, and they themselves was born from other gods, presumeably in a long line from eternity (?) What then is the ultimate source of everything that is, seen and unseen? What is the absolute? What is beyond the god(ling)s?
Do the LDS have any teaching on this?
[ 05. May 2005, 13:23: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sean D:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
First show me from scripture why this is not what John teaches - is it just your take on the Gospel of St.John because of what you think you already know or otherwise?
No - it is because of the text which I then immediately mentioned in my answer: John 1. Feel free to reread what I said about it.
Elder Moroni I would like to ask you: to what extent do you think the Old and New Testaments are in tension/conflict with the Book of Mormon? I was under the impression that that they were read as equally authoritative with one another. Or has the NT etc been somehow superseded in your understanding? I am asking because it seems to me on the one hand it sounds like we are conducting an intra-Christian debate - on the basis of Christian Scripture. Whilst on the other hand, you are citing scriptures which most Christians don't regard as authoritative, and which perhaps understandably don't really cut any ice with us (cf e.g. the warning at the end of Revelation not to add to Scripture). I ask as I think if I understood your presuppositions a bit more it would help me a great deal in this discussion.
The Old and New Testaments are seen as equal with the Book of Mormon, provided it is translated correctly. However, said one prophet: "The Book of Mormon is the most righteous book ever to be upon the Earth, and is the keystone of our religion."
Also - your argument about the end of revelation really makes me laugh (with much respect)!! Revelation says "don't add anything to the scriptures" in a round about way in the last chapter! Yes I agree! But Revelations, was written BEFORE the Gospel of St. John!!!!! How do you support this? Revelation was saying - don't add anything to this *respective* book; who is John to instruct anybody not to add to the canon? Are you saying God is bound by the bible? I think not.
The reason why we disagree is not because the Book of Mormon conflicts with traditional-Christianity, but because yours and my idea of God are abherrently different.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Sean, to be pedantic, the warning at the end of Revelation minimally only applies to Revelation.
Yes. Similar warning was given by Moses. Yet neither Christians or Jews limit themselves to the Mosaic law.
quote:
Deuteronomy 4:2 "You shall not add to the word which I command you, nor take from it, that you may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you."
Deuteronomy 12:32 "Whatever I command you, be careful to observe it; you shall not add to it nor take away from it."
I think the meaning is that we are not to change it, or add our own ideas to it. The rest of the OT and NT, however, are neither changes nor our own ideas, but are the consistent revelation of God.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Yes - and like John (which was written after Revelations) we believe that the Book of Mormon is absolutely divinly inspired. I agree completely with your concept.
But this:
Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
...does not mean that we can not have ANY other scriptures after the Book of Revelation - or else we wouldn't have one of the most beautiful Gospels in the NT today!
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
Still, it does apply if Joseph Smith's work is not, in fact, from God.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Well... brother (or sister!), on that note, we will have to agree to disagree. We've come to the end of the road with this argument, because it all rests on the reliability of Joseph Smith. I believe he was a prophet - you don't! Let's move on!
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Moroni,
Since when have prophets had the authority to cut covenants/testaments? When you talk of your scriptures being a 'testament' are you refering to a covenant to which they testify? Or are you using the word 'testament' to refer to a book or books?
If you are saying that there is another testament/covenant that improves upon the New Covenant in Jesus' blood, what may I ask is it? What promise has God made over above the promise of eternal life that we have in Christ?
If you cannot tell me plainly what this 'another covenant' is in terms of an agreement bewteen humanity and God based on God's faithfulness to a promise, then I will not read another word you post.
Sorry to be blunt, but i have no time for 'covenants' that detract from, add to, or in any other way occlude, the work of Jesus Christ on the cross as the final, perfect and sufficient sacrifice for sin and the eternal salvation of humanity. Why, tell me, does humanity need anything else.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Well... brother (or sister!), on that note, we will have to agree to disagree. We've come to the end of the road with this argument, because it all rests on the reliability of Joseph Smith. I believe he was a prophet - you don't! Let's move on!
I didn't quite say that. I just said that IF JS wasn't actually reliable THEN... I didn't say that he wasn't.
As I noted, I am a Swedenborgian. I think that Swedenborg received reliable revelations. He might well be wrong as well, bringing on the curses mentioned in Revelation and by Moses.
And don't forget that Catholics and the Orthodox believe that their church traditions are divinely inspired.
So it is not an open and shut case. One question, of course, is why we should believe any of them.
But I think that on a board like this we would want to stick we things that we all mutually believe.
Posted by Corpus cani (# 1663) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Yes - and like John (which was written after Revelations)...
The sources I have checked date John's Gospel before his Revelation.
Revelation was certainly not added to the canon until much later than many other books.
Corpus
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Absolutely, Dog's Body. But we mustn't let fact and logic get in the way of polytheistic, arian heresy must we?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
In response to mt tomb -
The official name of the Book of Mormon is: The Book of Mormon - another testament of Jesus Christ.
The book of Mormon neither improves upon nor corrects the bible. The book of Mormon reveals more to us which we didn't know - and reconstitutes the teachings of the early apostles (it was for this reason that the plates were written by the Nephites.) For example - we now know more about the nature of God (His physical nature), more about creation - more about heaven - more about our tasks on Earth and how to gain exaltation.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
So as it neither improves on nor corrects it is utterly superfluous. So as the Bible teaches clearly that God is three entities in one that does not stand corrected by LDS arian polytheism.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Moroni, what exactly do you understand by the word 'testament'?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
So as it neither improves on nor corrects it is utterly superfluous. So as the Bible teaches clearly that God is three entities in one that does not stand corrected by LDS arian polytheism.
It corrects it for us!
tomb -
I would define "testament" as: testimony, witness, evidence, proof, attestation; demonstration, indication, exemplification; monument [to], tribute [to.]
But just as a covenant , as at Sinai , and used of OT by Paul (Gal. 3: 15–18). It is also used of a speech or blessing given to children or followers, as by Moses (Deut. 33); this served as the model for such works as the Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Let me put this plainly, a testament is not a book. A testament is a covenant (a binding agreement) made between God and humanity. The Book of Mormon: another 'testament' of Jesus Christ should, if it is true, clearly state what this 'other' testament (covenant) actually is.
The testament of Abraham is well known.
The testament of Jesus (through his blood, shed on the cross) is also well known.
What, then, is this 'other testament'?
What 'other covenant' is there?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
EM - it's not for correction and it is? Or it's not to correct Christians but Mormons? It's an esoteric calling then? Like Christianity.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Sorry Martin PC - you've lost me - I've lost the thread of convo you're refering to! Sorry.
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Let me put this plainly, a testament is not a book. A testament is a covenant (a binding agreement) made between God and humanity. The Book of Mormon: another 'testament' of Jesus Christ should, if it is true, clearly state what this 'other' testament (covenant) actually is.
The testament of Abraham is well known.
The testament of Jesus (through his blood, shed on the cross) is also well known.
What, then, is this 'other testament'?
What 'other covenant' is there?
Yes I mentioned the covenant earlier. The covenant (which is mentioned so many times throughout the BoM) is that: if we follow "these" commands (in the BoM) we have been promised exaltation. Not only this - we have been promised that if we use our priesthood (and motherhood) well... the spirit will always be with us, and all things will be known unto us - See Moroni 10:4.
To be honest with you though, I don't think this is what the LDS church means by "testament." - Not "covenant" anyway. Testament - to testify - from the Greek evalgelicos (in some places) can just mean "to preach" or "to support."
However, as some have mentioned, LDS take a different slant on some traditional Christian terminology (I know this will start a riot now!)
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
What I think it means is that Joseph Smith didn't understand what a testament was when he invented 'another testament'. He was under the false assumption that a testament is a book. You are mixing up the word testimony and the word testament.
The word occurs twelve times in the New Testament as the rendering of the Gr. diatheke, which is twenty times rendered "covenant" in the Authorized Version, and always so in the Revised Version. The Vulgate translates incorrectly by testamentum, whence the names "Old" and "New Testament," by which we now designate the two sections into which the Bible is divided.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Sorry M.T - if I didn't explain - the book of mormon NOW is called another "testament of Jesus Christ." There was no such title when Joseph Smith wrote the book. There again - there were no page numbers, no scripture references, no chapters, no footnotes, headings and so forth.
Posted by RuthW (# 13) on
:
I would really like to know what any of this has to do with the topic of this thread, which is whether or not the Bible offers support for the Christian doctrine of the Trinity.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
Thank you, Ruth.
The topic is not whether LDS or JW theology is true, but whether the Bible supports:
1. The claim that Jesus is God
2. The claim that Father, Son and Holy Spirit is more than a metaphor.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Ruth - it becomes very hard with Christians, LDS and JW in the room! But it's so interesting at the same time!
The reason we diverge so often is because - if we cannot agree on the nature of God - most other things are appendages and become hard to agree on.
Ok - starting the Trinitarian concept again I actually have a question about it:
Does the Trinity refer to the unity between the three personages, or the actual three personages themselves?
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Does the Trinity refer to the unity between the three personages, or the actual three personages themselves?
Yes
It refers to both the concept/mystery, and to God, who is triune.
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
The Old and New Testaments are seen as equal with the Book of Mormon, provided it is translated correctly.
That would be in the Joseph Smith rewrite?
quote:
However, said one prophet: "The Book of Mormon is the most righteous book ever to be upon the Earth, and is the keystone of our religion."
And which prophet would that be?
quote:
...The reason why we disagree is not because the Book of Mormon conflicts with traditional-Christianity, but because yours and my idea of God are abherrently different.
No, the Book of Mormon was written from a Christian point of view (as the "testimony" attests); it's Smith and the later "revelators" (and very convenient it is to be able to completely rewrite and reconfigure everything on a moment's notice, I'm sure) who turned it into the partial basis for a non-Christian religion.
I can't find the word "abherrently" in the Oxford English Dictionary. Could you provide a definition, please? Thank you!
Posted by Campbellite (# 1202) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
It corrects it for us!
How Post-Modern of you.
Who knew the LDS was PoMo?
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Campbellite:
...Who knew the LDS was PoMo?
Another convenience of getting to make it up as you go along...
Posted by Duo Seraphim (# 3251) on
:
Rossweisse, Campbellite and others:
If you want to take pot-shots at the Church of the Latter Day Saints, then do so on the Hell thread. Otherwise what you have posted is needlessly inflammatory for Purgatory.
It's also a long way off topic.
Duo Seraphim, Purgatory Host
[ 06. May 2005, 08:03: Message edited by: Duo Seraphim ]
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Hi Ruthy, I'm enjoying this debate immensely! What did you make of what I posted here ? I'd really like to get to the nitty gritty of the divinity of the Holy Spirit on the basis that he has a temple before I move on to the evidence concerning his personality. Hope you're interested in continuing...
Sorry about the 'testament' tangent everyone; I just couldn't resist knocking a religion whose inaccuracies begin on the dust cover!
Posted by Belle (# 4792) on
:
So we can't talk about God in three persons unless we have the understanding that they are all 'part' of one God? Can we say 'part' or is that a misunderstanding?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sean D:
That's simple, and it's why I believe that God is Trinity. Jesus is God - as John himself tells us. Yet he is somehow distinct from God. Therefore, there is more than one person involved in God. Jesus relates to God perfectly as a son. The one who relates to God the Father perfectly as a son cannot be less than divine himself.
I don't agree as explained earlier I do not believe that John does tell us that Jesus is God, only that he is worthy of reverence because of his exulted position by God.
You say that Jesus relates to God perfectly as a son. which I concede completely.
I also concede that Jesus is divine since his exulted position at God's right hand is in full agreememt with God's will. I absolutely refute the idea that this means he must be God.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Just a quick note to say to ar,m.t_tomb and others I am on the case but I'm struggling to keep up as I have limited time on the comp due to other committments.
Just wanted to say I will get back and answer your questions asap
Agape
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Belle:
So we can't talk about God in three persons unless we have the understanding that they are all 'part' of one God? Can we say 'part' or is that a misunderstanding?
Yes, 'part' is a misunderstanding. I happy to explain but I'm off out...
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
This might be a long one - sorry in advance.
Firstly, sorry for muddying the waters with the Revelation reference. I certainly didn't mean it as a kind of knock-down proof text! Also sorry for taking the discussion off-topic - but I am finding it difficult to actually engage with Elder Moroni in particular since (no offence) your approach to Scripture seems somewhat slippery - as soon as we start to get into the exegetics of why adoptionism/arianism is wrong, you cite the Mormon Scriptures as evidence against it since they provide the interpretative grid through which you read the Bible. Perhaps we need another thread on which to discuss this question much more generally as I don't think I can actually engage with your position without going way off-topic (i.e. delving into what from my perspective is the question of why God in his trustworthiness would inspire such a misleading and incomplete account of his self-revelation in Jesus and waiting for centuries to correct it... although obviously this isn't how you would regard it EM).
Ruthy - I appreciate that you explained earlier why you don't think John portrays Jesus as the God - but I did put some other exgetical arguments to you on that one which I don't think you have taken in, particularly about Thomas' confession of Jesus as "my (the) God".
At the end of the day, I just can't accept the distinction between you draw between "divine" and "God" since surely this is the very distinction which the Bible works so hard to counteract (even though equally clearly it also contains traces [rather than teachings!] of a prior tradition where YHWH was one god among many). Surely one of the central thrusts of the OT is that God shares his divinity with nobody. To be divine is to be YHWH and he is utterly alone in his transcendence. To be other than YHWH is to be not-divine.
Some other comments/passages:
In the context of Jewish monotheism ONLY YHWH is to be worshipped - all else is idolatry. Worship/obeisance paid to Jesus if he is only divine in some subsidiary sense beneath God is idolatry since how could he, a creature, be worthy of worship? That is breaking the first commandment, and probably some others too.
The famous Philippians 2: Jesus is in the "form/nature" (Grk: morphe) of God. Obviously could be interpreted as being "divine but not quite in the Trinity" but again hard to make sense of in a Jewish context. Who else has the form/nature of God but God?
Equally famous is Colossians 1: the image (ikon) of the invisible God. Again, who could reveal and image God but God? This passage, like John 1, also points to Jesus's role in creation - and the OT knows only ONE creator... guess who
John's gospel - John frames his gospel with the two ascriptions of deity to Jesus... but within those two he also has Jesus variously claiming to be the Resurrection and the Life, the Good Shepherd (cf Psalm 23 - the LORD is my shepherd) and lots of other titles and roles belonging to God. To put it in CS Lewis's terms, John's Jesus is either God incarnate or the devil of hell, to arrogate not just some kind of exalted status onto himself but the very titles and qualities of God himself - similarly with Matthew's claims that he will be the Judge at the end of time.
That's quite a lot for now - sorry to overload... Basically my summary is: I really struggle to see how ALL of these passages can be read as Jesus being divine but not God himself, in the context of a Bible which states that there is only one God.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sean D:
At the end of the day, I just can't accept the distinction between you draw between "divine" and "God" since surely this is the very distinction which the Bible works so hard to counteract (even though equally clearly it also contains traces [rather than teachings!] of a prior tradition where YHWH was one god among many). Surely one of the central thrusts of the OT is that God shares his divinity with nobody. To be divine is to be YHWH and he is utterly alone in his transcendence. To be other than YHWH is to be not-divine.
This lies at the heart of it. Very nice.
Even though the Bible says "You are gods" this should not be taken to mean that a person can become a god. We read in John:
quote:
John 10.33 The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.” 34Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods” ’? 35“If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36“do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? 37“If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me; 38“but if I do, though you do not believe Me, believe the works, that you may know and believe that the Father is in Me, and I in Him.” 39Therefore they sought again to seize Him, but He escaped out of their hand. John 10
Jesus is quoting Psalm 82:
quote:
God stands in the congregation of the mighty;
He judges among the gods.
2 How long will you judge unjustly,
And show partiality to the wicked? Selah
3 Defend the poor and fatherless;
Do justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Deliver the poor and needy;
Free them from the hand of the wicked.
5 They do not know, nor do they understand;
They walk about in darkness;
All the foundations of the earth are unstable.
6 I said, “You are gods,
And all of you are children of the Most High.
7 But you shall die like men,
And fall like one of the princes.”
8 Arise, O God, judge the earth;
For You shall inherit all nations.
These two passages are admittedly a little confusing, since they do seem to call us gods. Psalm 82 seems an odd thing for Jesus to quote in defense of His divinity. He seems to be saying, "Of course I'm a god - the Scriptures say that we are all gods." This seems pretty distant from anything else He ever says, although the Psalms sometimes talk about people as "gods" or "sons of God" (Psalm 29.1, 89.6, 136.2).
My own explanation would be that the word "god" here is used to refer to angels, with the meaning being that people can become angels.
I agree with Sean that the uniqueness of YHWH as the one only God of heaven and earth is a universal theme of Scripture, and that Jesus' claim to be one with that God makes Him the same as YHWH. There is no other God.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
Anyone else interested in exploring further the soteriological implications of Christology, which is I would suggest perhaps a more useful way of looking at Scripture than narrow proof-texting?
For openers, how does the Cross save us if Christ is not God, and what does it save us from?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
For openers, how does the Cross save us if Christ is not God, and what does it save us from?
GreyFace - that's a very interesting point. Of course, I can only answer this from the position that Jesus was not God - but the literal Son of God while on Earth in the flesh. And, so, my answer from this perspective:
We read in revelations that there was a war in heaven. It is my understanding that Satan wanted to bring salvation to all by force, and that Jesus Christ wanted to bring all back by love. Jesus accepted His mission from God, whereas Satan fell. Jesus saves us (saved) because He was destined for this mission before He was born. Compare Enoch to Jesus - Enoch was translated (didn't die)... some may ask - would not Enoch be able to be the sacrifice because He was sinless? The answer is no. Enoch BECAME sinless (but had sinned atleast once during his life.) Jesus the Christ, on the other hand, did not sin once during His life. Also - Jesus is the literal first born son of God - and the only begotten of God in the flesh. Nobody else has been born of the power of the Holy Spirit on the Earth - Jesus was set apart; Holy.
Jesus also had power while he was on earth. He had a priesthood. This is why people could not kill Him until the "hour" had come.
Moreover - Jesus was a self-sacrifice. He sacrificed Himself - a thought that should bring a tear to everybody's cheek. "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotton son, that all who should believe in Him should not perish but have everlasting life."
And: "Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down His life for His friends."
Furthermore, it is my belief that Jesus was half man - half God when He was on the Earth. Wherefore, the pain Christ endured on the cross, probably hurt more (hurt being an under-statement) because His Godliness could endure more than any other person being killed on a cross. Ultimately - Christ gave Himself for the sins of the whole world.
I don't think it's a case of whether He was God or not - I just think it depends on if the personage who is the sacrifice can take on the burden of the sins of the whole world.
I stand in awe of His sacrifice.
My interpretation of what He saves us from, is that Jesus saves us on the most part for the sins we cannot put right ourselves. Jesus left commandments; if we follow these commandments to the best of our known ability, Jesus' sacrifice will compensate for the rest.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
My interpretation of what He saves us from, is that Jesus saves us on the most part for the sins we cannot put right ourselves.
Can you go into this any further? I should have been more explicit in my question. Here are a number of options that orthodox Christianity has considered, for example, to show what I'm getting at:
1. By dying for us, Christ who is God and thus eternal and thus cannot be held by death, has destroyed death's power, and so we are saved from death by God death transforming death.
2. By dying for us, Christ has satisfied the demands of honour that separate humanity from God. We are saved from the separation from God (=sin, or caused by sin) that results in eternal death.
3. By dying for us, Christ has suffered the punishment his nature as the God of justice demands for our sin, and so we are saved from God's wrath by God's love.
4. By dying for us, Christ has demonstrated God's love of us in a manner that calls us to follow him. We are saved from separation from God caused by misapprehension of his nature.
5. By assuming human nature, God has united himself with his creation and we are thus saved from separation from God by him opening the way to participation in the life of the Trinity.
I could go on, but I'm sure you get the point, and I'm not advocating one in particular here. So, what are we saved from - if you say merely from our sins, could you please define what you mean by that - and how?
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
To suggest that Jesus is sub-divine or proto-divine or half divine (or any other weird extrapolation of his personhood) is to under-estimate the power and corruption of sin. Elder Moroni, you seem to think that sin can merely be equated with wrong deeds, thoughts, and words. What about the fact that we are sinful in and of our very human nature? If you believe that your sin can be removed by anyone [or anything] less that God then you have sadly under-estimated the power than sin has over you and you are insulting the One who saves you.
Martin Luther said this, quote:
'The bestowal peace and grace lies in the province of God, who alone can create these blessings... In attributing to Christ the divine power of creating and giving grace, peace, everlasting life, righteousness, and forgiveness of sins, the conclusion is inevitable that Christ is truly God... So viciuos is sin that only the sacrifice of Christ could atone for sin... Sin is an exacting despot who can be vanquished by no created power, but by the sovereign power Jesus Christ alone.'
Moroni,
Since Christ was given for our sins it stands to reason that they cannot be put away by our own efforts. To suggest that Christ's death alone is not sufficient for dealing with sin, but that it needs a little bit of help from us by our own efforts, is a blaphemous insult to the crucified God. Yes, a crucified God, do you find that idea offensive? Good! Scripture says that we should!
[ 06. May 2005, 13:04: Message edited by: m.t_tomb ]
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Hi,
First let me tell you what I believe about sin, and ask you what you believe about sin. I don't believe in original/ancestral sin. I don't think that Adam's sin has put a stain on each human born... but I do think that Adam brought the capability to sin, and death into the world.
I teach a seminary class here at Manchester. We put a video on the other day which describes our belief about how Christ saves very well.
[The video is set in around Christ's time.] A man loans some money off a wealthy man to set up his own crop growing business. It ends up, the crops don't grow, and the man cannot pay the wealthy man back his money. The man is arrested, and brought to the loan broker for punishment. All of a sudden, another man (representing Jesus) comes in, and offers to pay off the loan, provided that the man who loaned the money works for Him in return. In a similar way, Christ compensates for the sins we commit by paying the price for His sacrifice on the cross (or in the garden of Gethsemane.) Salvation, therefore is solely dependant upon the mercy of Christ.
To be more specific:
1. Christ's Earthly sacrifice, and the sacrifice of His glory on the Earth pays the price for the sins people have commited while in the days of their probation.
2. [Comapare with your 5th idea.] By assuming human nature, God, through Jesus Christ has united himself with his creation and we are thus saved from separation from God by him opening the way to participation in the life of the Godhead.
M.T Tomb - as aforementioned, I do not accept that we are a "sinful" people - I do believe that we all have the capability of being perfect - Enoch demonstrated this well. We are told Mat 5:48 "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect."
Christ's suffering DID pay the price for our sins, the sins that we cannot put right, or the sins that we have repented for - and the sins of our ancestors and so forth. However, why did Christ leave commandments on the Earth? Did He leave them simply as a nice way of life, or did He leave them because following these commandments are essential for entrance into Heaven?
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
However, why did Christ leave commandments on the Earth? Did He leave them simply as a nice way of life, or did He leave them because following these commandments are essential for entrance into Heaven?
He left them to provide a way for us to show our love for him. In showing our love for him others will: see his glory, benefit from his Kingdom, be blessed, be led to a saving knowledge of God in Christ. Our obedience is a sacrifice of praise, not an attempt to earn our entrance into heaven. Obedience is a gratituitous act of love and respect, not a self-serving attempt to get something from God.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Hi,
I respectfully disagree, because of scriptures like:
Mat 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
If we do not do the will of the Father in heaven, we cannot gain admission into the same. In a similar way:
Mat 18:3 And said, Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.
It has nothing to do with the love we show for Christ (alone) - although of course we must show love for Christ (if ye love me, keep my commandments.) Christ left commandments, specifically that we might go to heaven.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Ephesians 2:8-10 Case closed.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
It has nothing to do with the love we show for Christ (alone) - although of course we must show love for Christ (if ye love me, keep my commandments.) Christ left commandments, specifically that we might go to heaven.
You are right on with this. One of the big problems with the Trinity is that it leads to the idea that Christ's sacrifice frees us from the obligation to keep the commandments.
Christ as God overcame the power of evil. This is something only God can do. So He freed us from its power so that we too can keep the commandments and live a life of love to the neighbor. We do this not by our own power but by His.
I do think that this is one of the appeals of LDS doctrine, since traditional Christian doctrine is so nonsensical on this point.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Anyone else interested in exploring further the soteriological implications of Christology, which is I would suggest perhaps a more useful way of looking at Scripture than narrow proof-texting?
For openers, how does the Cross save us if Christ is not God, and what does it save us from?
"Narrow" proof-texting is the point of this thread. The question is whether Scripture supports the Trinity. The answer is therefore expected to include Scripture.
The soteriological implications of Christology are meaningless if the Scriptures do not support the Christology.
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
One of the big problems with the Trinity is that it leads to the idea that Christ's sacrifice frees us from the obligation to keep the commandments.
Say WHAT? There are oodles of Trinitarians who believe that we are still beholden to live lives in accordance with God's commands. So I don't think you can lay this particular bogeyman at the foot of the Trinity. Whatever you yourself believe about the Trinity, you should try to be accurate and fair when ascribing beliefs and actions to Trinitarians.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
This is the reasoning for the NWT rendering it as "a god" (lower case) in John 1:1.
This then led to the problem with:
Exo 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before, me.
Which of course I hold to mean that worship of Jesus would be idolatry (depending upon your definition of worship)
I completely agree with you. If we give Jesus worship and he is not the Almighty God, then we are in serious trouble.
This becomes interesting if you look at how the word "worship" (pr?skun?? ?????????) is used in the New Testament. It is used to apply to God as much as it is used to apply to Jesus.
This chart is very interesting because it shows how the NWT translates the same word differently depending on who it applies to. About 35 times it applies to God, the Devil, demons, idols, "the beast" and "his image". All those times, the NWT translates the word as "worship". But the 15 times that it applies to Jesus, the word magically becomes "obeisance".
This is indeed very interesting, and I must say quite a revelation to me, but I still maintain that this does not point to a trinity.
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
Yes, that does cause a huge problem - could you worship the flag, as long as you gave it less worship than you would give to Jehovah?
That is a very good question, which I admit atm I cannot justify. (but watch this space )
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
There is no doubt that Jesus is divine and he is a god (theos)
Again the JW argument runs into huge problems. The first commandment sctricly prohibits us having other Gods than the true one. If Jehovah is the "only true god" then where does that leave Jesus?
Precisely where Jehovah put him, at his right hand, but still subordinate to the only true God, Jehovah.
If he is not subordinate tell me what
1Cor 15:24-28 means?
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
Ahh - you are getting so close here, Ruthy! The Holy Spirit is indeed the very essense of God - he is truly divine. There is nothing about him that is not God.
Yes I agree that the HS is God, what I have isssue with is the Trinitarian extrapolation that "he" is another person, in his own right, also.
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
can I leave you with this page?
By all means, but I don't think that it clarifies much. I haven't had time to look up each of the references in the tables yet but I do have a few comments about the introductory paragraph:
It states that the Holy Spirit must be a person rather than a force because:
1)a force "could not speak" (Acts 13:2)
This is a gross simplification of the word epo in this verse.
Do our consciences not "speak" to us?
Do not actions "speak" louder than words?
Does not a witness have to "speak" yet Job 16:8 speaks of wrath (or in some translations wrinkles ) being a witness.
And if he were a person who could speak why would he use other people to speak for him:
Mat 10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.
and 2) A force could not be grieved.
Can we not be grieved in our spirit?
Isa 54:6 For the LORD hath called thee as a woman forsaken and grieved in spirit, and a wife of youth, when thou wast refused, saith thy God.
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
May the Holy Spirit intercede for you!
Pax,
ar
Thank you likewise
[fixed code]
[ 06. May 2005, 18:27: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Ephesians 2:8-10 Case closed.
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Eph 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.
Faith does save us, first and foremost. But Jesus left commandments: "unless....ye shall not enter the kingdom of heaven." Is this a contradiction? No. Because equally we know that faith without works are dead. (James 2:20). Faith and works are inseperable.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
Now to m.t_tomb:
You said "And I maintain that nothing, not even 'asking', can make a person 'worthy' of God's gift of himself by his Spirit. Children do not need to be worthy of gifts; they are given out of love - pure and simple."
Agreed, but if we truly love God then we should ask and he assures us that if we ask with a pure heart, he will graciously grant it to us:
Luk 11:13 If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly, Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?
(See also 1 John 3:21 and James 4:3)
You said "If you can accept that the Holy Spirit is one with the Father and that Jesus is also one with the Father (John 14:9-10) without either 'separating' them or confounding* them, you are getting close to the truth that is the Trinity After, Christians believe that YHWH is tri-une not tri-partite. Grasp the unity of the three and you're there!"
Yes but the problem is that the way in which Jesus is "one with the Father" ie metaphorically (If we are to take John 14:10 literally then we must take John 14:20 to be also, which plainly we cannot do)differs in the way that the Holy Spirit is God ie literally, therefore they are neither tri-une nor tri-partite.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
"Narrow" proof-texting is the point of this thread. The question is whether Scripture supports the Trinity. The answer is therefore expected to include Scripture.
Narrow proof-texting is not the point of the thread. There are ways of using Scripture as a whole, rather than looking at one, two or three passages and attempting to construct proofs based on those alone.
quote:
The soteriological implications of Christology are meaningless if the Scriptures do not support the Christology.
Agreed. That's not what I'm saying. I'm saying that, taking Scripture as a whole, more than one understanding of soteriology may be derived. This is not, in essence, narrow proof-texting although I think you could say it's broad proof-texting. I'm talking themes, concepts, and so on derived from Scripture rather than individual verses.
This is why we disagree on interpretations of John 1.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Hi Ruthy,
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Yes I agree that the HS is God...
That's great news!
quote:
...what I have issue with is the Trinitarian extrapolation that "he" is another person, in his own right, also.
How about John 14:15-17?
And I [God the Son] will ask [God] the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever - the [God the Holy] Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you
Remember:
We're His temple!
He is 'another' like Jesus
He's a [wonderful] counsellor i.e. He has a ministry
So He is God; He is ontologically continuous with Jesus; and He has a ministry. Does that sound like an impersonal force to you?
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
[The video is set in around Christ's time.] A man loans some money off a wealthy man to set up his own crop growing business. It ends up, the crops don't grow, and the man cannot pay the wealthy man back his money. The man is arrested, and brought to the loan broker for punishment. All of a sudden, another man (representing Jesus) comes in, and offers to pay off the loan, provided that the man who loaned the money works for Him in return. In a similar way, Christ compensates for the sins we commit by paying the price for His sacrifice on the cross (or in the garden of Gethsemane.) Salvation, therefore is solely dependant upon the mercy of Christ.
Okay, so it's essentially Anselm with a smattering of penal substitution.
Do you consider it just that the wealthy man wants to punish the lender when the lender didn't actually cause the crops to fail to grow, or indeed ask for the loan in the first place however much he may have needed it?
Would you say that in Mormon eyes, the problem of sin that needs to be solved is that God wants to punish us for something we didn't do?
quote:
1. Christ's Earthly sacrifice, and the sacrifice of His glory on the Earth pays the price for the sins people have commited while in the days of their probation.
I think you need to expand on this a little. You see Anselm if I remember correctly reasoned that as the debt incurred by our rebellion is an overwhelming one, perfect submission of any human alone even to death, would not be sufficient to pay the debt of honour owed by the rest of us - it would be actually "just" matching the baseline of required righteousness - and so for the merits of the Cross to save us, Christ must be God. I may have that garbled and I'm too lazy to read him again. No doubt I'll be corrected if I'm mistaken.
quote:
M.T Tomb - as aforementioned, I do not accept that we are a "sinful" people - I do believe that we all have the capability of being perfect - Enoch demonstrated this well. We are told Mat 5:48 "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect."
This seems incompatible with your view that Christ was nothing more than a man who became exalted through his perfect obedience. Because otherwise Enoch was our Saviour, and we all agree he wasn't and isn't.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
I'm saying that, taking Scripture as a whole, more than one understanding of soteriology may be derived. This is not, in essence, narrow proof-texting although I think you could say it's broad proof-texting. I'm talking themes, concepts, and so on derived from Scripture rather than individual verses.
This is why we disagree on interpretations of John 1.
Good point. I agree completely. I was sure that this is what you meant. You are right that narrow proof-texting results in problems such as that with John 1, and so broad proof-texting is a much better mode.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
One of the big problems with the Trinity is that it leads to the idea that Christ's sacrifice frees us from the obligation to keep the commandments.
Say WHAT? There are oodles of Trinitarians who believe that we are still beholden to live lives in accordance with God's commands. So I don't think you can lay this particular bogeyman at the foot of the Trinity. Whatever you yourself believe about the Trinity, you should try to be accurate and fair when ascribing beliefs and actions to Trinitarians.
I agree that no Christian would deny that they are beholden to live lives in accordance with God's commands.
Still, I do lay that bogeyman at the foot of the Trinity because I believe that the substitutionary atonement is implicit in the dividing of God into three persons.
I realize that most Christians do not take it that far, or accept the idea that "we are saved while we are still sinners." Nevertheless, this is the direction that a trinity of persons leads. The Athanasian Trinity of "soul, body and operation", however, is completely different.
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Narrow proof-texting is not the point of the thread. There are ways of using Scripture as a whole, rather than looking at one, two or three passages and attempting to construct proofs based on those alone.
Just to say that I strongly agree with you GreyFace - and thank you for laying out those arguments much better than I could have. I must admit I steered clear of those kinds of arguments since I wasn't sure whether they'd fit within the context of the thread but actually you're dead right that it's not as if they are separate, non-Scriptural arguments but rather are seeking to explain and interpret the whole witness of Scripture (as well as a number of particularly important texts).
For me the most convincing argument is that Jesus cannot reveal God (which I am sure we would all agree Scripture teaches he does) unless he is God, because who could possibly show us God but God? If he is not God, it is not God he reveals to us but himself, and we're still in the dark.
[ 06. May 2005, 14:56: Message edited by: Sean D ]
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Still, I do lay that bogeyman at the foot of the Trinity because I believe that the substitutionary atonement is implicit in the dividing of God into three persons.
I think, before Elder Moroni said he'd made his last post, that I was about to demonstrate that the LDS believed in (P)SA without the Trinity and without believing that Jesus is God. Which makes things a fair bit worse, in my humble opinion.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
Agreed, Sean.
Just to add, Freddy, that I'd agree Tritheism has similar problems to polytheist/henotheist/Arian substitutionary atonement. Luckily, Trinitarianism has one God
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Sorry - you've misunderstood me - it's my last post on the "lies, lies, lies" thread not the general forum. I'm just not participating in threads that can affect my position within the church. I'm not easily offended by what people think about the church - I just can't break the covenants I made in the temple! C'est tout!
Please go ahead with your point grey face.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
That's good, EM. I was hoping you would stick around. These discussions are valuable.
As to my point - there are questions in my last post responding to yours.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I agree that no Christian would deny that they are beholden to live lives in accordance with God's commands.
Still, I do lay that bogeyman at the foot of the Trinity because I believe that the substitutionary atonement is implicit in the dividing of God into three persons.
I realize that most Christians do not take it that far, or accept the idea that "we are saved while we are still sinners." Nevertheless, this is the direction that a trinity of persons leads. The Athanasian Trinity of "soul, body and operation", however, is completely different.
Sorry Freddy, but I think you are completely mistaken.
First, the psychological analogy of the trinity is not from Athanasius himself nor from Eastern theology, but from the athanasian creed, which is latin and augustinian. It was the (augustinian) West which eventually formulated PSA. (Though St. Augustine did not formulate this himself).
The Cappadocians, who do not cling to PSA, have a somewhat different conception of the trinity in contrast to the psychological analogy that St. Augustine offered, yet they were not prone to PSA.
What do one of them say?
Gregory asks: to Whom was Christ sacrificed?
But if to the Father, I ask first, how? For it was not by Him that we were being oppressed; and next, On what principle did the Blood of His Only begotten Son delight the Father, Who would not receive even Isaac, when he was being offered by his Father, but changed the sacrifice, putting a ram in the place of the human victim? Is it not evident that the Father accepts Him, but neither asked for Him nor demanded Him; but on account of the Incarnation, and because Humanity must be sanctified by the Humanity of God, that He might deliver us Himself, and overcome the tyrant, and draw us to Himself by the mediation of His Son, Who also arranged this to the honour of the Father, Whom it is manifest that He obeys in all things? So much we have said of Christ; the greater part of what we might say shall be reverenced with silence St. Gregory the Theologian, The second oration on pascha
This bogeyman should not be put at the feet of the trinity, perhaps pseudo-arianism?
[ 06. May 2005, 15:19: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Hi Greyface,
I am a little confused as to what you are asking me. Are you asking does the LDS church adhere to a polytheistic, tritheistic or hedonistic doctrine on the Godhead? The best category I could fit it into is Hedonistic - but there are even underlying theological problems we have with that.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Moroni, I'm quite sure you mean henotheistic not hedonistic! But then again, you might mean hedonistic... how many wives do you have?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
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Haha yeah - that's the French mix up coming in - I knew it would do sooner or later. Henotheistic - que je veux-dire!
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Ephesians 2:8-10 Case closed.
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Eph 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.
Faith does save us, first and foremost. But Jesus left commandments: "unless....ye shall not enter the kingdom of heaven." Is this a contradiction? No. Because equally we know that faith without works are dead. (James 2:20). Faith and works are inseperable.
Yes, salvation through faith; service through works. Our service does not earn us salavtion; salvation fits us for service.
quote:
So likewise ye, when ye have done all those things which are commanded you, say, We are unprofitable servants: we have done that which was our duty to do. Luke 17:10
Do you hope to profit from you obedience? Do hope for a reward for you duty? You're nothing more than an unprofitable servant! Don't make demands of God; it's rude.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Sorry Freddy, but I think you are completely mistaken.
First, the psychological analogy of the trinity is not from Athanasius himself nor from Eastern theology, but from the athanasian creed, which is latin and augustinian. It was the (augustinian) West which eventually formulated PSA. (Though St. Augustine did not formulate this himself).
The Cappadocians, who do not cling to PSA, have a somewhat different conception of the trinity in contrast to the psychological analogy that St. Augustine offered, yet they were not prone to PSA.
Very interesting. It is curious that PSA comes out of the West. I agree that the Eastern Trinity is less prone to PSA thinking, but I'm not sure how this came about.
In my book the Trinity becomes problematic insofar as it approaches PSA theology and tritheism.
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
I was about to demonstrate that the LDS believed in (P)SA without the Trinity and without believing that Jesus is God. Which makes things a fair bit worse, in my humble opinion.
Right you are. The worst of both worlds.
What I like about LDS is the belief that good people go to heaven and bad people go to hell. At least, I think they believe that.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
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My spelling! Arrrgh!
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
No not at all... we believe that ALL are saved. But... this sounds so lame but it's our belief... all good endowed members of our church, and a few of whom Christ has mercy on will be exalted in the Celestial Kingdom. All will be saved (apart from those few who blaspheme against the Holy Ghost.)
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
No not at all... we believe that ALL are saved. But... this sounds so lame but it's our belief... all good endowed members of our church, and a few of whom Christ has mercy on will be exalted in the Celestial Kingdom. All will be saved (apart from those few who blaspheme against the Holy Ghost.)
OK. Well, that should make the universalists happy.
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
No not at all... we believe that ALL are saved. But... this sounds so lame but it's our belief... all good endowed members of our church, and a few of whom Christ has mercy on will be exalted in the Celestial Kingdom. All will be saved (apart from those few who blaspheme against the Holy Ghost.)
I don't mean to be rude, but as a tea-drinking, gum-chewing, wine-bibbling, messed up Christian, knowing that I'm going to be in the second class lounge in heaven is not very inspiring.
If that is really what heaven is like then you can keep it. No, no, I insist. You live with my mother-in-law for all eternity - I don't mind in the least.
[Actually I quite like my mother-in-law, but living with her for all eternity would be hell in itself]
C
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Well although this sounds arrogant, when you die, you will have the chance again to accept the true gospel, and can be with your whole family if you accept it in the Celestial kingdom - that, of course, is provided that somebody baptizes you vicariously in the Temple, which - if you have LDS family - will almost certainly happen!
But, the Lord said Himself: "In my Father's house there are many mansions." I do think that God will favour some over others at the judgement. Somewhere in the world, whatever you believe, there has to be one church which contains the "fulness" of the Gospel. Or, better put - contains the most of the fulness of the gospel than any other church!
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Well although this sounds arrogant, when you die, you will have the chance again to accept the true gospel, and can be with your whole family if you accept it in the Celestial kingdom - that, of course, is provided that somebody baptizes you vicariously in the Temple, which - if you have LDS family - will almost certainly happen!
I don't and even if I did, I would specifically request them not to do this.
This is a long way from a discussion about the trinity.
C
Posted by RuthW (# 13) on
:
It is indeed a long way away from discussion of the Trinity. If anyone wants to pursue this tangent, please start a new thread.
RuthW
Purgatory host
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Why do we have to reinvent the wheel?
There are questions that are being asked again and again. People take different stances and they are happy with them. But the fact is that many of the matters debated have been closed. Why don't we first read what the church has said on the matter from antiquity and then ask questions? Why should we not be bothered with the answers our fathers gave? The orthodox faith is a result of praying, fasting, doing what Christ commanded, giving one's entire life to Him, thinking really hard, using logic to interpret the scriptures and all other evidence available. The orthodox faith is a fruit of these things by the grace of the Holy Spirit. Are we better than the men that explained our faith? They were no ordinary men. People like Basil (who has been called the Great), Athanasios (again, called the Great), Augustine (who has been called divine), Gregory (who has been called the Theologian), Ambrose, Maximos (who has been called the Confessor) et cetera. They confronted heresy and explained why the faith of the church is the true one. The showed the errors in their opponents thinking, not by using power, but by using logic.
Are we greater than them to dismiss their help without first listening to what they said?
I think a more honest approach would be to read their works first and then, if we disagree with an ARGUMENT they use, we should be free to debate it. Starting a debate by declaring that we disagree with the CONCLUSIONS they reached, without making any mention to a particular argument of theirs, is not an honest approach.
The orthodox view can be summarised in this: There is the Father, the cause of the Son's existence and the cause of the Spirit's existence. He is the cause and has been the cause before time was created. What the Father is, the Son is, and the Holy Spirit is. The words "father", "son", "spirit" denote a difference in the way the Father causes the Son and the Spirit to exist. The first we call generation, the second we call spiration. We confess there is a difference, but we can tell nothing about what this difference means. The three divine persons are not corporeal. This means that we cannot say that there is a space where one of them is and another is not. Because they are immaterial and incorporeal, we say that the exist in each other.
Some people deny that he truly took the form of a servant, by calling him servant even before the Incarnation. To take the form of a servant, means, one that was not servant before, to be like a servant. But angels are truly servants of God. Only God is not a servant. Some people deny that in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and god was the Word. Some people make Him a liar, because He said "All things that the Father hath are mine", and he did not exclude the divine essence. Other people make Him a liar too, for he said that "I am not alone"; yet they claim that there is only one divine person which is made known by us under three masks.
But we do not learn from those that were before us, we do not revere what we have received; we exalt ourselves by thinking that we have it right and those before us have got it wrong.
Listen to what scriptures say: "On you I was cast from my birth, and since my mother bore me you have been my God." Stop saying that Jesus had a god before He was made man.
P.S. Stop making Him a liar for saying "See, I am coming soon; my reward is with me, to repay according to everyone's work" and "all were judged according to what they had done" and "the dead were judged according to their works, as recorded in the books" and "blessed are those who do his commandments, so that they will have the right to the tree of life and may enter the city by the gates" and "'Blessed are the dead who from now on die in the Lord.' 'Yes,' says the Spirit, 'they will rest from their labours, for their deeds follow them.'" Faith in Christ is the beginning for entering the kingdom of heavens right now, but it is not the standard by which people will be judged at Judgement Day. Everybody will be judged according to our works, but in order for one to be a Christian now, one needs to have faith in Christ.
m.t_tomb Christ's commandments are not a way to show our love for Him, although our love for Him is showed when we follow His commandments. His commandments, according to the orthodox tradition and experience, are the way for us to live in the kingdom of heavens right now and here. We enter the kingdom by following Christ's commandments, not by mere intellectual agreement that He is Lord. Salvation does not come because we love and respect Christ, but because we have trust (aka faith) in triune god. If one puts all one's trust in God and makes one's life a sacrifice of thanksgiving to God, then God will give him / her salvation and He will be his / her god and they will be His holy people.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
m.t_tomb Christ's commandments are not a way to show our love for Him, although our love for Him is showed when we follow His commandments. His commandments, according to the orthodox tradition and experience, are the way for us to live in the kingdom of heavens right now and here. We enter the kingdom by following Christ's commandments, not by mere intellectual agreement that He is Lord.
Yes, I agree with you that Christ's commandments are the means by which we manifest the Kingdom; I said that in my previous post. But we don't enter the realm of Christ's Kingdom by obedience to those commands: entrance to the Kingdom, as Christ's parables clearly point out, is by God's invitation only. We obey after we've entered, not to gain our entrance.
quote:
Salvation does not come because we love and respect Christ, but because we have trust (aka faith) in triune god. If one puts all one's trust in God and makes one's life a sacrifice of thanksgiving to God, then God will give him / her salvation and He will be his / her god and they will be His holy people.
Good. I agree with you. But don't run away with the idea that anything you do can adorn the free gift of salvation. Yes, we do good works because God has prepared them for us to do. But we don't have the ability to make God any more favourably disposed toward us by what we do for him. He is favourably disposed toward me because he chooses to be, not because I've made him happy.
Anyway, enough of these tangential perambulations! I've been warned once already!
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Yes, I agree with you that Christ's commandments are the means by which we manifest the Kingdom; I said that in my previous post. But we don't enter the realm of Christ's Kingdom by obedience to those commands: entrance to the Kingdom, as Christ's parables clearly point out, is by God's invitation only. We obey after we've entered, not to gain our entrance.
No, you are not saying that we enter the kingdom by doing what Christ commanded; I am.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Matthew 22:1-14
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Isaiah 6 - "I saw the Lord (YHWH) high and lifted up and the train of his robe filled the temple, etc, etc...
...Woe to me, for I have seen the King, the Lord Almighty."
John 12 v 41 (quoting Isaiah 6 v 9 - 11) - "Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him."
The inescapable conclusion is that Isaiah saw Jesus on that throne, and ascribed to him the name YHWH, the Lord Almighty.
Unless of course, John is wrong.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Isaiah 6 - "I saw the Lord (YHWH) high and lifted up and the train of his robe filled the temple, etc, etc...
...Woe to me, for I have seen the King, the Lord Almighty."
John 12 v 41 (quoting Isaiah 6 v 9 - 11) - "Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him."
The inescapable conclusion is that Isaiah saw Jesus on that throne, and ascribed to him the name YHWH, the Lord Almighty.
Unless of course, John is wrong.
Then are you concluding that YHWH is the name given to Jesus? Just to clarify? If so I certainly agree!
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
No, you are not saying that we enter the kingdom by doing what Christ commanded; I am.
Me too. This is by far the most easily supported Scriptural position. The opposite can be supported also, but it really requires the prior assumption of PSA.
A trinity of persons may not seem to lead to the necessary conclusion that obedience to Christ is not the requirement for entrance into the kingdom. When you ask the question "How did Christ save us?" however, it goes that way pretty quickly.
On the other hand if Christ is simply God, and He saved us by overcoming the power of hell to make us free, then obedience to Him is the obvious requirement for entrance into His kingdom.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
And I maintain that Christ's commands would mean nothing to us if we were already subjects of his Kingdom. He must be our King before we can obey him. We must bow the knee first and confess his Kingship. Then we obey. It is the confession of Christ's Kingship in response to the revelation of the same that marks our entrance to the Kingdom. Our obedience to Christ's commands is the practical outworking of our prior confession of his Kingship.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Correction! Sorry...
And I maintain that Christ's commands would mean nothing to us if we were not already subjects of his Kingdom. He must be our King before we can obey him. We must bow the knee first and confess his Kingship. Then we obey. It is the confession of Christ's Kingship in response to the revelation of the same that marks our entrance to the Kingdom. Our obedience to Christ's commands is the practical outworking of our prior confession of his Kingship.
Posted by Sean D (# 2271) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Then are you concluding that YHWH is the name given to Jesus? Just to clarify? If so I certainly agree!
If so, doesn't that rather undermine any adoptionist or Arian christology?!
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
.
A trinity of persons may not seem to lead to the necessary conclusion that obedience to Christ is not the requirement for entrance into the kingdom. When you ask the question "How did Christ save us?" however, it goes that way pretty quickly.
On the other hand if Christ is simply God, and He saved us by overcoming the power of hell to make us free, then obedience to Him is the obvious requirement for entrance into His kingdom.
And trinitarians don't believe that Christ is god?
also all trinitarians accept PSA? Perhaps in your world...
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Then are you concluding that YHWH is the name given to Jesus? Just to clarify? If so I certainly agree!
Didn't he say "Before Abraham, I am"?
Of course there are other names; son of man, High Priest in the order of Melchizadek, Emmanuel, Fullness of deity in bodily form....... Hard to come up with a strict, logical, no_further_questions_raised explanation for it all.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Or is YHWH as a title used to denote the entire godhead?
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Then are you concluding that YHWH is the name given to Jesus? Just to clarify? If so I certainly agree!
Didn't he say "Before Abraham, I am"?
Of course there are other names; son of man, High Priest in the order of Melchizadek, Emmanuel, Fullness of deity in bodily form....... Hard to come up with a strict, logical, no_further_questions_raised explanation for it all.
I was working on the assumption that in the pre-Christian era the members of the Godhead were seperate entities. If we can focus on Jesus Christ as a person beforehand - seperated from God I mean - would you still give Jesus Christ the name of YHWH?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Matthew 22:1-14
This is where Reformation got us. They have become bold and teach that when a man gets reborn that man enters the kingdom of heaven. They have no idea what they are talking about. They reject the wholeness of scripture and the experience of the church. Paul says that he keeps working hard until Christ gets formed in each baptised person of his flock. If we enter the kingdom of heavens by getting reborn, then why do we have to struggle throughout our lives for Christ to get formed in ourselves? Jesus taught Nicodemus that a man gets reborn when he gets baptised. At that moment the water and the Spirit give birth to a man once again. Jesus taught Nicodemus that it is necessary for a man to get reborn if one wants to enter the kingdom of heavens. The new birth is not the entrance to the kingdom. It is a necessary requirement so that one can enter the kingdom of heavens. One enters the kingdom of heavens by following Christ's commandments. But no, Reformation defies the experience of the church and teaches new things. What an act of pride to think that the entire tradition of the church, the christian message itself, gets nullified or adjusted by mentioning a couple of verses from the scriptures. Ignorance, pride and bad faith have gotten us in this situation.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
Then are you concluding that YHWH is the name given to Jesus? Just to clarify? If so I certainly agree!
Didn't he say "Before Abraham, I am"?
Of course there are other names; son of man, High Priest in the order of Melchizadek, Emmanuel, Fullness of deity in bodily form....... Hard to come up with a strict, logical, no_further_questions_raised explanation for it all.
I was working on the assumption that in the pre-Christian era the members of the Godhead were seperate entities. If we can focus on Jesus Christ as a person beforehand - seperated from God I mean - would you still give Jesus Christ the name of YHWH?
Elder Moroni, you should read the book 'Does God Change?' by Prof. Thomas G. Weinandy. I think it would blow your mind how far from Orthodoxy your thinking actually is!! The very idea of God changing ontologically seems bizarre to me. What further mental gymnastics does your religion require of you? I'm truly amazed that you actually believe this stuff!!
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
mt tomb:
Hi - I understand your post. However, never has a member of the LDS church stated that our beliefs are NOT far from orthodox Christianity. The truth is, the whole point of the LDS church is NOT to be parallel with orthodox Christianity. We believe it has apostasized - the "plain and precious things" have been removed from the gospel after the death of the Apostles. In addition to this, it would be immoral for us to change our beliefs according to the opinions / history of mainstream Christianity.
Abour our belief in God's unchangeable nature: we belief He was ONCE a man - yes (when I say a man, that "man" might not have been what we call a "man nowadays, as this was before the present cosmos was apparent.) However, when Elohim became exalted, it is THEN that we believe that God is unchangeable. We believe that God will not change, nor has ever changed since He became exalted.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
andreas1984
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Matthew 22:1-14
This is where Reformation got us.
Amen
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
If you remember, early, eaaaaarly on in this post (!) I promised you that I would give you an official answer on what we mean by "the word" in John 1:1 and how we view the Godhead. My Mission presidently has kindly answered my question, (He having more knowledge about the faith in general than me,) and so I will post it here for you to read:
Dear Brother and Sisters in Christ,
As heretofore shown in another connection, the Father operated in the work of creation through the Son, who thus became the executive through whom the will, commandment, or word of the Father was put into effect. It is with incisive appropriateness therefore, that the Son, Jesus Christ, is designated by the apostle John as, "the word;" or as declared by the Father "the word of my power." The part to justify our calling Him the Creator, is set forth in many scriptures. The author of the Epistle to the Hebrews refers in this wise distinctively to the Father and the Son as separate though associated beings: "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds." Paul is even more explicit in his letter to the Colossians, wherein, speaking of Jesus the Son, he says: "For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: and he is before all things, and by him all things consist." And here let be repeated the testimony of John, that by the Word who was with God, and who was God even in the beginning, all things were made; "and without him was not anything made that was made."
That the Christ who was to come was in reality God the Creator was revealed in plainness to the prophets on the western himisphere. Samuel, the converted Lamanite, in preaching to the unbelieving Nephites justified his testimony as follows: And also that ye might know of the coming of Jesus Christ, the Son of God, the Father of Heaven and of earth, the Creator of all things, from the beginning; and that ye might know of the signs of his coming, to the intent that ye might believe on his name."
I hope this helps, and I hope that our Heavenly Father will richly bless you for your heavenly discussions.
I leave these words in the name of Jesus Christ the Lord.
Elder G. Fusato.
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
...That the Christ who was to come was in reality God the Creator was revealed in plainness to the prophets on the western himisphere. ...
I hope this helps, and I hope that our Heavenly Father will richly bless you for your heavenly discussions. ...
What about the Purgatorial and Hellish ones?
This egregiously overwritten foolishness actually doesn't support much of anything, but it does prompt me to suggest to you that a list of Mormon definitions of words (since so many of those differ from the ordinary definitions) might be helpful to your readers here.
For instance, when your chappie says "God the Creator," what he REALLY means is "god the organizer," since Mormons don't believe that one God created all that is -- rather, their gods took stuff they found lying around already and recycled it into this world.* As I recall, you also mean something very different by "salvation" than what Christians mean by the word.
As you might expect, using what most of us consider the demonstrably bogus "scriptures" of the Book of Mormon will not go very far in supporting your argument. Can you find something in the Bible -- the unSmithized version -- perhaps? That might be more convincing.
* This was the explanation for the fossils given me by one Mormon missionary; it was all just recycled material, from old worlds that weren't being used anymore. (The other explanation, from another Mormon missionary, was that the Devil put them there to confuse us. I asked him what despicable sort of god would allow such things, but he didn't have an answer.)
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Isaiah 6 - "I saw the Lord (YHWH) high and lifted up and the train of his robe filled the temple, etc, etc...
...Woe to me, for I have seen the King, the Lord Almighty."
John 12 v 41 (quoting Isaiah 6 v 9 - 11) - "Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him."
The inescapable conclusion is that Isaiah saw Jesus on that throne, and ascribed to him the name YHWH, the Lord Almighty.
Unless of course, John is wrong.
No John is not wrong, however on the matter of translation of scripture, as far as I am aware the Good News Bible is the only translation that renders it specifically as Jesus' glory, every other one uses the word "his" from autos:
Strong's dictionary says:
G846
αὐτός
autos
ow-tos'
From the particle αὖ au (perhaps akin to the base of G109 through the idea of a baffling wind; backward); the reflexive pronoun self, used (alone or in the compound of G1438) of the third person, and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons: - her, it (-self), one, the other, (mine) own, said, ([self-], the) same, ([him-, my-, thy-]) self, [your-] selves, she, that, their (-s), them ([-selves]), there [-at, -by, -in, -into, -of, -on, -with], they, (these) things, this (man), those, together, very, which. Compare G848.
Thus contrasting starkly against the quote from Isaiah which you rightly attribute to YHWH.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Or is YHWH as a title used to denote the entire godhead?
Highly likely! Especially when one considers how little Yahweh is actually called 'Father' in the OT. I think it is possible to take the name Yahweh in a trinitarian sense inasmuch as it refers to God in his entire nature: Father, pre-esistent Son, and Holy Spirit.
p.s. Ruthy, I'm still waiting for your answer to my earlier post. Hope you are still interested in debate and that things went well at the hosp.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Matthew 22:1-14
Jesus taught Nicodemus that a man gets reborn when he gets baptised. At that moment the water and the Spirit give birth to a man once again. Jesus taught Nicodemus that it is necessary for a man to get reborn if one wants to enter the kingdom of heavens. The new birth is not the entrance to the kingdom. It is a necessary requirement so that one can enter the kingdom of heavens. One enters the kingdom of heavens by following Christ's commandments. But no, Reformation defies the experience of the church and teaches new things. What an act of pride to think that the entire tradition of the church, the christian message itself, gets nullified or adjusted by mentioning a couple of verses from the scriptures. Ignorance, pride and bad faith have gotten us in this situation.
While I agree with you here, I cannot attribute the problem to the Reformation. After all was not the formation of the orthodox church not a reformation in itself, caused by the pride of those who decided what we should believe.
On your point about being born again, Jesus said that in order to enter into the Kingdom one must be born again from water and spirit, water being the physical manifestation of faith and the spirit being the spiritual approval of God. However you are correct that at any time in our lives we can reject that approval in our conduct and just as Adam wilfully threw away his approved standing before God, so can we if we do not keep his commandments.
We cannot be found finally approved until we have completed our earthly course. Just as Jesus had to be put to death with his integrity intact, why else would Satan have tried to tempt him in the wilderness; he knew that if Jesus had succumbed, the sacrifice would have meant nothing.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
p.s. Ruthy, I'm still waiting for your answer to my earlier post. Hope you are still interested in debate and that things went well at the hosp.
Haven't I answered this, sorry, can you refresh my memory, I'm struggling to keep up
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
....I was working on the assumption that in the pre-Christian era the members of the Godhead were seperate entities..... If we can focus on Jesus Christ as a person beforehand - seperated from God I mean - would you still give Jesus Christ the name of YHWH?
Yes - since I don't accept the assumption. Indeed "Before Abraham I am", seems to deny the assumption.
Posted by Elder Moroni (# 9432) on
:
Hi,
Yes it's true that LDS believe that God "organised" the world rather than "created" is, but let me say that this is not something which I can totally agree with - simply due to my knowledge of the scientific creationist theory etc.
The reason, non the less, is because in Genesis, before God creates the universe, a sense of matter is already asserted:
Gen 1:2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.
This is the LDS answer that many are given in LDS seminary or institute.. However, I am aware that Genesis 1 states:
Gen 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
Infact, I emphatically do NOT agree with this idea. The idea is wrong - I will be the first to admit this. This is one of the many things in my religion that has not been given through revelation - it is not a doctrine. I believe that God is the creator.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
fao m.t_tomb
I think this is the answer you were looking for, sorry I don't know how to make it into a link.
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
Now to m.t_tomb:
You said "And I maintain that nothing, not even 'asking', can make a person 'worthy' of God's gift of himself by his Spirit. Children do not need to be worthy of gifts; they are given out of love - pure and simple."
Agreed, but if we truly love God then we should ask and he assures us that if we ask with a pure heart, he will graciously grant it to us:
Luk 11:13 If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly, Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?
(See also 1 John 3:21 and James 4:3)
You said "If you can accept that the Holy Spirit is one with the Father and that Jesus is also one with the Father (John 14:9-10) without either 'separating' them or confounding* them, you are getting close to the truth that is the Trinity After, Christians believe that YHWH is tri-une not tri-partite. Grasp the unity of the three and you're there!"
Yes but the problem is that the way in which Jesus is "one with the Father" ie metaphorically (If we are to take John 14:10 literally then we must take John 14:20 to be also, which plainly we cannot do)differs in the way that the Holy Spirit is God ie literally, therefore they are neither tri-une nor tri-partite.
Anyway, m.t_tomb if this is not what you were looking for, then I'm sure you will let me know
Posted by Aim for the Prize (# 7054) on
:
12ruthy - I asked earlier who is being reffered to in Psalm 45:6. Jehovah?
" Your throne, O God , is forever and ever."
Any thoughts?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Aim for the Prize:
12ruthy - I asked earlier who is being reffered to in Psalm 45:6. Jehovah?
" Your throne, O God , is forever and ever."
Any thoughts?
Indeed the throne being refered to is Jehovah's but as you know the Psalm is describing Jesus, the Messiah as sitting on that throne. This is in the sense of sitting on the throne which is God's righteousness.
hth
Posted by Aim for the Prize (# 7054) on
:
Doesn't read very well though does it?
"Your throne, O "Jehovah", is forever...
... Therfore "Jehovah", your "Jehovah" has anointed you....
mmm
and reading Hebrews 1, you certainly have to twist things to arrive at that conclusion doen't you?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Aim for the Prize:
Doesn't read very well though does it?
"Your throne, O "Jehovah", is forever...
... Therfore "Jehovah", your "Jehovah" has anointed you....
mmm
and reading Hebrews 1, you certainly have to twist things to arrive at that conclusion doen't you?
I'm not sure of your point here, in what way does Hebrews 1 not harmonise with the idea that Jesus was annointed by "his God" Jehovah?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
On the matter of Scripture supporting the Trinity, I'd just like to draw your attention to this essay and would be interested in your comments:
http://www.commentarypress.com/eng-onetruegod.html
Must dash, see you tomorrow probably
ps a friend of mine on another forum has the signiture:
"If the holy spirit is a person, he sure is clumsy! (Acts 10:44)"
Ok, I'll go
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
And trinitarians don't believe that Christ is god?
also all trinitarians accept PSA? Perhaps in your world...
Yes, trinitarians certainly believe Christ is God. My point is that it is almost impossible to hold an idea of three persons that is not also an idea of three gods. Whereas it is much better to simply see Christ as God Himself, the one you pray to. Not the one you pray through, but just plain God.
And, no, trinitarians do not mostly accept PSA. But the answer to "How did Christ save?" will almost inevitably come very close in any trinitarian system.
The question is what fits with (Christian) Scripture.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Isaiah 6 - "I saw the Lord (YHWH) high and lifted up and the train of his robe filled the temple, etc, etc...
...Woe to me, for I have seen the King, the Lord Almighty."
John 12 v 41 (quoting Isaiah 6 v 9 - 11) - "Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him."
The inescapable conclusion is that Isaiah saw Jesus on that throne, and ascribed to him the name YHWH, the Lord Almighty.
Unless of course, John is wrong.
No John is not wrong, however on the matter of translation of scripture, as far as I am aware the Good News Bible is the only translation that renders it specifically as Jesus' glory, every other one uses the word "his" from autos:
Strong's dictionary says:
G846
αὐτός
autos
ow-tos'
From the particle αὖ au (perhaps akin to the base of G109 through the idea of a baffling wind; backward); the reflexive pronoun self, used (alone or in the compound of G1438) of the third person, and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons: - her, it (-self), one, the other, (mine) own, said, ([self-], the) same, ([him-, my-, thy-]) self, [your-] selves, she, that, their (-s), them ([-selves]), there [-at, -by, -in, -into, -of, -on, -with], they, (these) things, this (man), those, together, very, which. Compare G848.
Thus contrasting starkly against the quote from Isaiah which you rightly attribute to YHWH.
I quoted the NIV
And context clearly shows that the 'Him' is Jesus, because all the other 'Hims' in the passage refer to Jesus.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Isaiah 6 - "I saw the Lord (YHWH) high and lifted up and the train of his robe filled the temple, etc, etc...
...Woe to me, for I have seen the King, the Lord Almighty."
John 12 v 41 (quoting Isaiah 6 v 9 - 11) - "Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him."
The inescapable conclusion is that Isaiah saw Jesus on that throne, and ascribed to him the name YHWH, the Lord Almighty.
Unless of course, John is wrong.
No John is not wrong, however on the matter of translation of scripture, as far as I am aware the Good News Bible is the only translation that renders it specifically as Jesus' glory, every other one uses the word "his" from autos:
Strong's dictionary says:
G846
αὐτός
autos
ow-tos'
From the particle αὖ au (perhaps akin to the base of G109 through the idea of a baffling wind; backward); the reflexive pronoun self, used (alone or in the compound of G1438) of the third person, and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons: - her, it (-self), one, the other, (mine) own, said, ([self-], the) same, ([him-, my-, thy-]) self, [your-] selves, she, that, their (-s), them ([-selves]), there [-at, -by, -in, -into, -of, -on, -with], they, (these) things, this (man), those, together, very, which. Compare G848.
Thus contrasting starkly against the quote from Isaiah which you rightly attribute to YHWH.
I quoted the NIV
And context clearly shows that the 'Him' is Jesus, because all the other 'Hims' in the passage refer to Jesus.
I don't mean any offense but I beg to differ; I don't think that it does.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
This is Jesus speaking; so why would he refer to "his" if he meant himself rather than "my"?
After all, this passage didn't get him stoned; the "I am" bit nearly did of course. I can imagine a phrase like "The Fullness of Deity" would have upset them at the time also. His acceptance of Peter's worship also, had it not been relatively private; so I'm a trinitarian, I just don't think the Isaiah quote is the strongest case.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I'm a trinitarian, I just don't think the Isaiah quote is the strongest case.
Neither do I, but it is strong enough.
The entire context is about believing in Jesus, and that people did not believe in Him because "seeing they do not see and hearing they do not hear."
Jesus then says:
quote:
"He who believes in Me, believes not in Me but in Him who sent Me. And he who sees Me sees Him who sent Me." John 12.44,45
The Isaiah quote makes it very clear, I think, that the one they didn't believe in there, and that Isaiah saw, is Jesus, who is also Jehovah.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Yes, trinitarians certainly believe Christ is God. My point is that it is almost impossible to hold an idea of three persons that is not also an idea of three gods. Whereas it is much better to simply see Christ as God Himself, the one you pray to. Not the one you pray through, but just plain God.
To be honest I don't find it exceptionally difficult to hold an idea of a trinity (at least in its immanent version), without it collapsing into tritheism. What I find the most mind numbingly difficult is to get my head around the doctrine of the incarnation, that Christ is both perfect God and perfect man. You see it is precisely because I am aware of the issues involved with the immanent trinity which makes the incarnation difficult, and it is precisely why a kenotic christology won't cut the mustard.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
My point is that it is almost impossible to hold an idea of three persons that is not also an idea of three gods. Whereas it is much better to simply see Christ as God Himself, the one you pray to. Not the one you pray through, but just plain God.
Well, this is because you have no idea what the concept of one god means.
Think about the ancient times. There were many people worshipping things that varied greatly. Things that looked like humans were considered to be divine, things that looked like animals were considered to be divine, things that looked like mythical creatures were considered to be divine, nature itself was considered divine. So, what's divinity like? The Hebrews gave a definite answer to that question. The deity is nothing like what you have imagined. There are not many different things that govern the world. There is only one divinity. The deity does not have a form. It does not consist of matter. It is not limited in space.
Well, everybody knows that human is one. We all know that humanity has a specific set of characteristics. There are not many humanities. There are no oxen-like or water-like humanities. Just one humanity, the humanity we are familiar with. Just like we know this humanity by experience, so did the Hebrews came to know god by experience.
How many persons are there that share in the one humanity? I don't know. But I do know by experience that there is only one humanity. We are all the same. We all have the same characteristics, the same set of characteristics that makes us all human. You may think that we differ, and we do differ, but our differences are not the same as the differences of a man and an ox. We differ; yea. But we are first human.
In god, there are three persons, just like there are almost 6 billion persons in man. There is one person who is the source of the other two, and he himself is of no source. The other two persons exist because of the uncaused person, but they are not caused by that person in the same way. This is how we distinguish between the three persons. That's the only difference we know. Therefore, there exist three divine persons, just like there exist almost 6 billions human persons, and we can distinguish between the three, just like we can distinguish between the almost 6 billions.
When early Christians named the cause of the other two divine persons God, they didn't mean that the other two persons were less divine than that person. They honoured Him by naming him God, because He is the source of the divinity. This is why Jesus admitted that "the father is greater than I".
Saying that we reach God through Jesus, is not supposed to mean that one divine person is reached through another divine person, as though we could divide the three divine persons. They do not exist inside the material universe so that they can be divided. We mean that because of their interaction with history, we can approach divinity through the life on earth of the humanity of Jesus. In order for one to do so, one has to live in the Holy Spirit. Indeed, the third divine person interacts with human history. It's because of that interaction that we have the Spirit living in us.
When we say that the three divine persons live within each other, we mean that we cannot perceive a division among them. Matter can be divided; not immaterial god. It's because we want to declare what they are not, that we say they live within each other.
When we talk about divinity, we cannot use words to describe what divinity is. Its impossible. But we can say what it's not. So, all the things we say about it, if we want to be accurate, tell us nothing about divinity itself. They only explain what divinity is not.
And when we pray, we pray to the father, and to the son, and to the holy spirit. And when we pray to one of the three persons, we actually pray to all three of them, because they are identical. They have the same will and power and they perform their works together, because there is one observable effect in material universe and not many. This is because they are ontologically different from the universe itself. They do not exist inside the universe. So, there are not three operations, but one.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
To be honest I don't find it exceptionally difficult to hold an idea of a trinity (at least in its immanent version), without it collapsing into tritheism. What I find the most mind numbingly difficult is to get my head around the doctrine of the incarnation, that Christ is both perfect God and perfect man. You see it is precisely because I am aware of the issues involved with the immanent trinity which makes the incarnation difficult, and it is precisely why a kenotic christology won't cut the mustard.
Very interesting way of looking at it. I agree about kenotic christology. That can't be how it worked.
I would say, however, that it is precisely the concept of an immanent trinity that causes the difficulties with the Incarnation. I believe that if we conceive of Christ as God-With-Us, or God-as-He-is-visible-to-us, or the Divine Human, these difficulties go away.
Christ as the Word existed from the beginning, because humanity has always had a concept of God. But in taking on a human form He brought light into the world in a way that it had not existed before. Not that it hadn't existed, but it had not existed in the world.
An important concept here is that God works from first things through last things into intermediate ones. Not, as you would expect, from first things through intermediate ones into last. So He did not descend through a process of self-limitation. He was born as an infant and was lifted up.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
In god, there are three persons, just like there are almost 6 billion persons in man.
As I see it, there actually are almost billion individuals in man. So there are three individuals in God? And this isn't tritheism?
Explain to me again how I have no idea what the concept of one God means.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
This is John 12 v 37 - 43. The comments of John, not the words of Jesus:
"Even after JESUS had done all these miraculous signs in their presence, they (the Jews) still would not believe in HIM.
This was to fulfil the word of Isaiah the prophet, "Lord, who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?"
For this reason they (the Jews) could not believe, because, as Isaiah says elsewhere: "He has blinded their eyes and deadened their hearts, so they can neither see with their eyes, nor understand with their hearts, nor turn - and I would heal them."
Isaiah said this because he saw JESUS' glory and spoke about HIM (Jesus). Yet at the same time many even among the leaders believed in HIM (Jesus)."
Even if you substituted the word Jesus for HIM where it says Isaiah spoke about him, it would sttill habve to refer to Jesus otherwise it makes nos ense whatever. The grammar would be wrong because if it meant a third person, you would have to specify who that person was.
Isaiah saw the glory of Jesus in the Temple and referred to him as "The King, the LORD Almighty."
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
In god, there are three persons, just like there are almost 6 billion persons in man.
As I see it, there actually are almost billion individuals in man. So there are three individuals in God? And this isn't tritheism?
Explain to me again how I have no idea what the concept of one God means.
I'll use an example to explain.
There is only one humanity.
Let me re-phrase.
There is only one man.
The above statement is true. This is the correct concept of "one man".
Man might exist in many persons, but there is only one man. There is one man in many persons.
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
And, no, trinitarians do not mostly accept PSA. But the answer to "How did Christ save?" will almost inevitably come very close in any trinitarian system.
Tommyrot. Not in Orthodoxy.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
And, no, trinitarians do not mostly accept PSA. But the answer to "How did Christ save?" will almost inevitably come very close in any trinitarian system.
Tommyrot. Not in Orthodoxy.
You're right. I should have said "except in Orthodoxy." Thanks for pointing that out.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Man might exist in many persons, but there is only one man. There is one man in many persons.
So you are suggesting that the trinity is three individual beings who collectively make up "God" just as 6 billion individuals in this world collectively make up "man"?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Man might exist in many persons, but there is only one man. There is one man in many persons.
So you are suggesting that the trinity is three individual beings who collectively make up "God" just as 6 billion individuals in this world collectively make up "man"?
Just let me take this opportunity to distance myself from andreas1984's use of the term "man."
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
andreas1984:
The hypostases of the trinity are not one the way Fx. John, Peter and Paul by virtue of being humans are, despite sharing the same human nature and gender. They are all individuals
The hypostases of the trinity are one in that they are consubstantial, have one will and one power, it is important to qualify that. Thus we can talk about only one divine being, and monotheism.
[ 08. May 2005, 22:22: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
...Infact, I emphatically do NOT agree with this idea. The idea is wrong - I will be the first to admit this. This is one of the many things in my religion that has not been given through revelation - it is not a doctrine. I believe that God is the creator.
Careful there, EM. You don't want to end up like Samuel W. Taylor.
So whence do YOU think the fossil record came?
Rossweisse // curious
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
The hypostases of the trinity are one in that they are consubstantial, have one will and one power, it is important to qualify that. Thus we can talk about only one divine being, and monotheism.
Phew.
Thanks for clearing that up. I'm fine as long as we are talking about one will, one power, and thus one omniscient, omnipresent, and omnipotent God.
Posted by Duo Seraphim (# 3251) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Rossweisse:
quote:
Originally posted by Elder Moroni:
...That the Christ who was to come was in reality God the Creator was revealed in plainness to the prophets on the western himisphere. ...
I hope this helps, and I hope that our Heavenly Father will richly bless you for your heavenly discussions. ...
What about the Purgatorial and Hellish ones?
This egregiously overwritten foolishness actually doesn't support much of anything, but it does prompt me to suggest to you that a list of Mormon definitions of words (since so many of those differ from the ordinary definitions) might be helpful to your readers here.
For instance, when your chappie says "God the Creator," what he REALLY means is "god the organizer," since Mormons don't believe that one God created all that is -- rather, their gods took stuff they found lying around already and recycled it into this world.* As I recall, you also mean something very different by "salvation" than what Christians mean by the word.
As you might expect, using what most of us consider the demonstrably bogus "scriptures" of the Book of Mormon will not go very far in supporting your argument. Can you find something in the Bible -- the unSmithized version -- perhaps? That might be more convincing.
These are remarks that would be better off made in Hell. There's robust debate and then there's provocative use of the words "bogus" and "egregious". You can ask someone to define his terms, without using them.
Duo Seraphim, Purgatory Host
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
:
Sorry, Duo. I recognized the overstepping after the two-minute limit had passed.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Dear Bonaventura
You are wrong.
According to the christian faith all men are co-substantial. We have one essence, or nature, the human essence, or human nature. We all share that same essence, because we are all humans. We also have one will and one operation. This means that to will is common among men; not that we will the same things. To will is common. When the christian church teaches that god has one will, it means that the three divine persons will in the same way, just like man's will is the same. When we say that Christ has two wills, we say so because Christ is both god and man, so there is His divine will and His human will. His human will is the same as the will of me, Andreas, you Bonaventura and so on. To will is of the nature. For more information on what the one will / one operation means please read St. Maximos the Confessor's works. We don't have to rerun that ecumenical council here.
And we do talk about monotheism, because there is one divine nature; just like there is one human nature. Polytheism means to be many different divine natures; not many different divine persons. In fact, Christianity has preserved the concept of one divinity from the Jews and the concept of many persons from the heathens. This is the official teaching of the church.
Dear Freddy
There are no individuals in the trinity. That would be a heretical opinion. The reason why there are no individuals is that one cannot divide between the three persons. They do not consist of matter. We are two different individuals because I take a space in Greece and you take a different space in a different country. But god does not exist in places. So, we cannot say they are individuals. Besides, the term person means much more than that.
And we do not collectively make up man. We are all man. I am man, you are man etc. We do not make up anything. Humanity is in each and every one of us. Just like divinity is in each person of the trinity.
Dear Mousethief
You could argue that Aristotelian term "essence" is not the most appropriate to describe reality, but I have just sticked to what the fathers of the church taught always. Basil, Gregory and so on teach specifically that there is one man in many persons, meaning that there is one human nature, but many different human persons.
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
I fear you have read them wrong. There are billions of men, yet only one human nature.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
I fear you have read them wrong. There are billions of men, yet only one human nature.
Um, you are wrong. Hear ye, hear ye, so that you can amend your ways (or ideas)
quote:
Gregory (On "not three gods" -- epistle to Ablabius)
The argument which you state is something like this: Peter, James, and John, being in one human nature, are called three men; and there is no absurdity in describing those who are united in nature, if they are more than one, by the plural number of the name derived from their nature.
We say then, to begin with, that the practice of calling those who are not divided in nature by the very name of their common nature in the plural, and saying they are "many men", is a customary abuse of language, and that it would be much the same thing to say they are "many human natures".
Thus it would be much better to correct our erroneous habit, so no longer to extend to a plurality the name of the nature, than by our bondage to habit to transfer to our statements concerning God the error which exists in the above case. But since the correction of the habit is impracticable... we are not so far wrong in not going contrary to the habit in the case of the lower nature, since no harm results from the mistaken use of the name: but in the case of the statement concerning the Divine nature the various use of terms is no longer so free from danger: for that which is of small account is in these subjects no longer a small matter.[/qb]
[ 09. May 2005, 05:54: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Ruthy, this is what i'd like to discuss: In a previos post I said:
quote:
I think you are mistaken when you attempt to disect humanity into 'parts'. Likewise, I think you are mistaken when you attempt you disect God into 'parts'; he is Triune. You seem to be suggesting that 'part' of God isn't God: namely his spirit. That doesn't make sense to me. To suggest that my spirit isn't 'me', or indeed, that my body isn't 'me', is to fall into the grip of Pagan philosophy. It represents an unaccepatble departure from Judeo-Christian anthropology.
quote:
When you said that...
[holy spirit] can be seen as divine because it is the very vital force of Jehovah and hence absolutely Holy.
...I responded withn this question:
quote:
Are you suggesting that without something that isn't God (i.e. holy spirit), Jehovah would have no vitality? Are you really suggesting that God's vitality is derived from something (holy spirit) that is less than Jehovah himself? I hope not! Otherwise we have a Jehovah who can do nothing but for something (holy spirit) that is less than himself!
So, Ruthy, is Jehovah capable of acting without holy spirit? If holy spirit is the 'very vital force of Jehovah', but is not God, does Jehovah need holy spirit? Are you suggesting that Jehovah only acts through something that is sub-ordinate to him? Is holy spirit a created force? Is it one of Jehovah's creatures? If holy spirtit was created, but is at the same time 'the very vital force of Jehovah', how did Jehovah create holy spirit? Does Jehovah rely on something that is not Jehovah for life [L vitalis, from vita life, from vivere to live]?
Posted by anglicanrascal (# 3412) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
This is the reasoning for the NWT rendering it as "a god" (lower case) in John 1:1.
This then led to the problem with:
Exo 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before, me.
Which of course I hold to mean that worship of Jesus would be idolatry (depending upon your definition of worship)
I completely agree with you. If we give Jesus worship and he is not the Almighty God, then we are in serious trouble.
This becomes interesting if you look at how the word "worship" (pr?skun?? ?????????) is used in the New Testament. It is used to apply to God as much as it is used to apply to Jesus.
This chart is very interesting because it shows how the NWT translates the same word differently depending on who it applies to. About 35 times it applies to God, the Devil, demons, idols, "the beast" and "his image". All those times, the NWT translates the word as "worship". But the 15 times that it applies to Jesus, the word magically becomes "obeisance".
This is indeed very interesting, and I must say quite a revelation to me, but I still maintain that this does not point to a trinity.
Even if that point doesn't prove the Trinity to you, Ruthy, would you agree that it shows that Jesus (according to the New Testament) can receive the same worship that Jehovah receives? If Jesus can receive that worship according to the New Testament, how does that make you reflect on passages such as the Ten Commandments, where Jehovah says that only he can receive our worship?
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
Yes, that does cause a huge problem - could you worship the flag, as long as you gave it less worship than you would give to Jehovah?
That is a very good question, which I admit atm I cannot justify. (but watch this space )
There's no rush, take your time!
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
quote:
There is no doubt that Jesus is divine and he is a god (theos)
Again the JW argument runs into huge problems. The first commandment sctricly prohibits us having other Gods than the true one. If Jehovah is the "only true god" then where does that leave Jesus?
Precisely where Jehovah put him, at his right hand, but still subordinate to the only true God, Jehovah.
If he is not subordinate tell me what
1Cor 15:24-28 means?
I agree that Jesus' role includes some form of voluntary subordination to his Father. That is shown most fully for us in the fact that he was made a little lower than the angels for a time when he came to Earth, and when he took on a role here on Earth where he could fully say "The Father is greater than I am".
But when I think about statements like that, I am forced to think of passages that speak of a wife being subject (G5293 - the same Greek word as at 1 Cor 15:28 and Eph 5:21[!]) to her husband. Is the wife therefore of a different nature to her husband? Is she therefore a creature of a lower order than her husband? Well, we know that isn't the case. They are of the same nature - as the Son, however much rule he has and how much he obeys the Father, is of the same nature as him. Subordination or being subhect to someone does NOT imply that the two persons are of a different nature.
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
Ahh - you are getting so close here, Ruthy! The Holy Spirit is indeed the very essense of God - he is truly divine. There is nothing about him that is not God.
Yes I agree that the HS is God, what I have isssue with is the Trinitarian extrapolation that "he" is another person, in his own right, also.
quote:
Originally posted by anglicanrascal:
can I leave you with this page?
By all means, but I don't think that it clarifies much. I haven't had time to look up each of the references in the tables yet but I do have a few comments about the introductory paragraph:
It states that the Holy Spirit must be a person rather than a force because:
1)a force "could not speak" (Acts 13:2)
This is a gross simplification of the word epo in this verse.
Do our consciences not "speak" to us?
Do not actions "speak" louder than words?
Does not a witness have to "speak" yet Job 16:8 speaks of wrath (or in some translations wrinkles ) being a witness.
And if he were a person who could speak why would he use other people to speak for him:
Mat 10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.
and 2) A force could not be grieved.
Can we not be grieved in our spirit?
Isa 54:6 For the LORD hath called thee as a woman forsaken and grieved in spirit, and a wife of youth, when thou wast refused, saith thy God.
OK - it's time for me to go home for my dinner now, but I would like to talk to you further about the Holy Spirit.
I firmly believe that the weight of the biblical evidence shows that the Holy Spirit is a person, not some kind of metaphor for God's power.
I hope you can see from our dicussion earlier in this post why we believe that the Bible shows us that Jesus is to be worshipped and how, when we compare that with statements that only God is to be worshipped, we believe that Jesus is the True God.
As a taster for next time: quote:
The following is solid biblical evidence that points to the Holy Spirit as a distinct person in His own right and performs functions we attribute to personhood: He appoints missionaries (Acts 13:2; 20:28), He leads and directs them in their ministry (Acts 8:29; 10:19-20; 16:6-7; 1 Corinthians 2:13), He speaks through the prophets (Acts 1:16; 1 Peter 1:11-12; 2 Peter 1:21), He corrects (John 16:8), comforts (Acts 9:31), helps us in our infirmities (Romans 8:26), teaches (John 14:26; 1 Corinthians 12:3), guides (John 16:13), sanctifies (Romans 15:16; 1 Corinthians 6:11), testifies of Christ (John 15:26), glorifies Christ (John 16:14), has a power of his own (Romans 15:13), searches all things (Romans 11:33-34; 1 Corinthians 2:10-11), works according to his own will (1 Corinthians 12:11), dwells with saints (John 14:17), can be grieved (Ephesians 4:30), can be resisted (Acts 7:51), and can be tempted (Acts 5:9).
In many languages, including Greek, words have masculine, feminine, or neuter genders which have no real counterpart in English. While the Spirit is often referred to by a neuter Greek pronoun, since the pneuma has a neuter tense in Greek (such as John 14:17, 26; 15:26), in other instances the masculine pronoun is used which emphasizes the Holy Spirit's personhood. Jesus said,
"But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom (neuter pronoun) the Father will send in my name, He (masculine pronoun) will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you" (John 15:16, RSV).
We see Jesus use similar language in John 15:26, and especially John 16:13:
"When the Spirit of truth comes, He (masculine pronoun) will guide you into all truth.”
Pax,
anglicanrascal
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Dear andreas1984
Sorry, what you have written is not correct. I suggest you consult Kallistos Ware's "The Orthodox Way" for an explanation on this, and why a simple analogy to humanity won't work.
BTW if humanity only got one will, then we would all live in utopia now!
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
I haven't read through any of the most recent posts yet, so forgive me if I haven't answered any specific questions yet.
I just wanted to sum up what I have gleaned from this discussion so far. Please feel free to correct me if I am wrong in any of my assumptions.
As far as I can see, the impasse that we seem to have reached is the important business of "One God".
We are all in agreement, are we not that there can only be "One True God" and that he exacts exclusive devotion.
As brought out earlier I have no problem with the concept that the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are "one".
Jesus is one with the Father because all that he has ever done has been for the glory of Jehovah, his father and ours. Jesus' will perfectly harmonises with Jehovah's and because of this, Jehovah has purposed to appoint him King, which is why Psalm 45:6 says that Jehovah is his throne.
The Holy Spirit is one with Jehovah because it is His power to act out his will, therefore the "will" of the Holy Spirit equates perfectly with the will of the Father. Whether you wish to make the Holy Spirit into a "person" is up to you; personally I feel it is a stretch of a metaphore used by Jesus (and we all know how effective he was in the use of metaphores to get his points across Matt 13:34)
Where I find the Trinity doctrine offensive is in its declaration of there being 3 Gods, which I see as a clear violation of Jehovah's exclusive devotion.
On the other hand I can see that some could find the fact that Jesus apparently accepted "worship"(specifically by Thomas) as being likewise such a violation if he was not God himself.
I would argue that Jesus so perfectly reflected Jehovah and always did his Father's will (perfectly and with divine authority, not as we try to do in our imperfection)and all for his Father's glory (John 5:30). Because of this Jehovah permitted Jesus to recieve such reverence as being tantamount to worshipping himself.
Trinitarians, however solve this problem by qualifying the 3 Gods statement with another saying that they are also the same God.
This lacks logic in my mind but I can see now how this works for many.
On this point, therefore, I doubt that we will ever agree but I thank you all sincerely for helping me to understand the issue much better. This whole thread has certainly blown the "mystery" explanation wide open.
I can only praise my God that, whoever turns out to be right in the end, he can discern the intentions of our hearts and can see that our only motivation is to worship him whole-souled.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I would say, however, that it is precisely the concept of an immanent trinity that causes the difficulties with the Incarnation. I believe that if we conceive of Christ as God-With-Us, or God-as-He-is-visible-to-us, or the Divine Human, these difficulties go away.
Christ as the Word existed from the beginning, because humanity has always had a concept of God. But in taking on a human form He brought light into the world in a way that it had not existed before. Not that it hadn't existed, but it had not existed in the world.
An important concept here is that God works from first things through last things into intermediate ones. Not, as you would expect, from first things through intermediate ones into last. So He did not descend through a process of self-limitation. He was born as an infant and was lifted up.
That is not quite where my head goes but still...
I would recommend to you Jarl E. Fossum "The image of the invisible God: Essays on the Influence of Jewish Mysticism on Early Christology"
Best,
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Posted by Ruthy:
Where I find the Trinity doctrine offensive is in its declaration of there being 3 Gods, which I see as a clear violation of Jehovah's exclusive devotion.
Ruthy, I find the notion of three Gods offensive too. The Doctrine of the Trinity most certainly does not make any form of Tri-theistic declaration. It does not assert the existence of three Gods. There is one God: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. He is Tri-une (as in unity): Three in One and One in Three.
Orthodox Christianity is Trinitarian Monotheism: it neither separates nor confounds (confuses) the three 'persons' of the Trinity.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
So, Ruthy, is Jehovah capable of acting without holy spirit? If holy spirit is the 'very vital force of Jehovah', but is not God, does Jehovah need holy spirit? Are you suggesting that Jehovah only acts through something that is sub-ordinate to him? Is holy spirit a created force? Is it one of Jehovah's creatures? If holy spirtit was created, but is at the same time 'the very vital force of Jehovah', how did Jehovah create holy spirit? Does Jehovah rely on something that is not Jehovah for life [L vitalis, from vita life, from vivere to live]?
This is a very academic argument and one which I think detracts from the nature of God and more importantly from our worship of him.
It is not I who have separated God into "parts" but the Trinity doctrine.
The fact is that the Holy Spirit is intergral to Jehovah himself, whether he could survive without it is not our concern. No he did not create it, he IS it or rather IT is him, his will, his thoughts and his means of fulfilling his will.
When Jehovah "speaks" do we really think that he has vocal cords and that he needs them to speak? It's all nonsense, we can only understand Jehovah by putting these things into concepts that we are familiar with, that is why Jesus used metaphors, as did many other Bible writers and indeed did the prophets of old.
If our doctrine's rely upon us knowing the physically unknowable God then we could be "Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth."(2Ti 3:7)because we have missed the point, frankly.
We are a temple to the Spirit because we worship God, Jehovah, the True God, The Most High, whatever term you wish to use. If our spirit, though imperfect, harmonises with Jehovah's spirit as it will if we love him wholeheartedly, then we are worshipping Him in Spirit and Truth, which is what he is looking for.
I hope this answers your question.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
So the Father IS the Holy Spirit? The trinity doctrine is PERFECTLY predicated on the canonical scriptures.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
So the Father IS the Holy Spirit? The trinity doctrine is PERFECTLY predicated on the canonical scriptures.
No, to suggest that the Father is the Spirit is to confound them.
[ 09. May 2005, 12:00: Message edited by: m.t_tomb ]
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Posted by Ruthy:
This is a very academic argument and one which I think detracts from the nature of God and more importantly from our worship of him.
I don't think it's an academic argument at all. If you can't answer these questions then I will conclude that you haven't thought properly through the implications of your monadism in terms of the whole counsel of Scripture from Creation in Genesis to New Creation in Revelation.
The Christian way of reading the Scriptures is to endeavour to read them in such a way as no interpretation of one part of Scripture is regugnant to another part of Scripture. If your pnematology does not stand up when looked at in the light of Jehovah as the creator of all that is, seen and unseen, then you have a faulty pneumatology.
p.s. Only God can have a temple. The Church is a temple to the Holy Spirit because he is God. Anything else is idolatry.
[ 09. May 2005, 12:08: Message edited by: m.t_tomb ]
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Absolutely MTT
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Ruthy posted:
quote:
When Jehovah "speaks" do we really think that he has vocal cords and that he needs them to speak?
No, he doesn't need vocal chords, but he does need the Word! If God creates by speaking how did God create the Word? Answer, he didn't! It is not possible for the Word to be created because without the Word God could not have spoken anything into existence (See John 1:3).
[ 09. May 2005, 12:23: Message edited by: m.t_tomb ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
No, he doesn't need vocal chords, but he does need the Word! If God creates by speaking how did God create the Word? Answer, he didn't! It is not possible for the Word to be created because without the Word God could not have spoken anything into existence (See John 1:3).
Am I right in assuming that you also mean the divine truth by the Word? Certainly divine truth and divine good are part of the definition of what God is.
[ 09. May 2005, 12:28: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
No, he doesn't need vocal chords, but he does need the Word! If God creates by speaking how did God create the Word? Answer, he didn't! It is not possible for the Word to be created because without the Word God could not have spoken anything into existence (See John 1:3).
Am I right in assuming that you also mean the divine truth by the Word? Certainly divine truth and divine good are part of the definition of what God is.
Jesus said, 'I am the truth' and I know that his 'word is truth'. The truth is true before it is spoken.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Jesus said, 'I am the truth' and I know that his 'word is truth'. The truth is true before it is spoken.
This sounds like the Word to me, and it would explain how it was "in the beginning with God."
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Jesus said, 'I am the truth' and I know that his 'word is truth'. The truth is true before it is spoken.
This sounds like the Word to me, and it would explain how it was "in the beginning with God."
Jesus doesn't just tell the truth: he is the truth. The Apostle John speaks of being 'in the truth'; the Apostle Paul speaks of being 'in Christ'. Different language; similar concepts. Whatever the language, we're talking about a person.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
p.s. Only God can have a temple. The Church is a temple to the Holy Spirit because he is God. Anything else is idolatry.
Haven't I already said this
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Posted by Ruthy:
This is a very academic argument and one which I think detracts from the nature of God and more importantly from our worship of him.
I don't think it's an academic argument at all. If you can't answer these questions then I will conclude that you haven't thought properly through the implications of your monadism in terms of the whole counsel of Scripture from Creation in Genesis to New Creation in Revelation.
The Christian way of reading the Scriptures is to endeavour to read them in such a way as no interpretation of one part of Scripture is regugnant to another part of Scripture. If your pnematology does not stand up when looked at in the light of Jehovah as the creator of all that is, seen and unseen, then you have a faulty pneumatology.
In what way does my pnematology not stand up in the light of Jehovah as the creator?
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
So the Father IS the Holy Spirit? The trinity doctrine is PERFECTLY predicated on the canonical scriptures.
No because a trinity has to have three persons being one and that is only 2 (and only if you consider Jehovah's Spirit to be a seperate person and a god in it's own right)
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Posted by Ruthy:
This is a very academic argument and one which I think detracts from the nature of God and more importantly from our worship of him.
I don't think it's an academic argument at all. If you can't answer these questions then I will conclude that you haven't thought properly through the implications of your monadism in terms of the whole counsel of Scripture from Creation in Genesis to New Creation in Revelation.
The Christian way of reading the Scriptures is to endeavour to read them in such a way as no interpretation of one part of Scripture is regugnant to another part of Scripture. If your pnematology does not stand up when looked at in the light of Jehovah as the creator of all that is, seen and unseen, then you have a faulty pneumatology.
In what way does my pnematology not stand up in the light of Jehovah as the creator?
Did Jehovah create holy spirit?
If you say that Jehovah did create holy spirit, I will ask how because, according to your definition, holy spirit is the means by which Jehovah does everything: 'it' is His 'vital force'. In other words without holy spirit Jehovah would have no vitality; no ability to create, act or communicate.
If you say that Jehovah did not create holy spirit then I will ask you why you insist that 'something' that is not Jehovah existed with Jehovah before creation.
If you insist that holy spirit is eternal and uncreated I will ask you how you can maintain that 'it' is not God.
So:
Did Jehovah create holy spirit? If so, how?
Or, is holy spirit eternal? If so how can you maintain that 'it' is not God?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Jesus doesn't just tell the truth: he is the truth. The Apostle John speaks of being 'in the truth'; the Apostle Paul speaks of being 'in Christ'. Different language; similar concepts. Whatever the language, we're talking about a person.
Yes. The person is God.
Jesus IS the truth. This is also "the Word." It is possible to talk about God in respect to His divine truth, but this isn't really any other than God Himself. His truth is merely an aspect of what He is. Love is another aspect. These can be spoken of separately, but they can't really be divided because they are actually the same, just as Father, Son and Holy Spirit are the same God.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
Freddy,
Yes, but Jesus is the truth because he is God; he isn't God because He's the truth. Likewise, to say that God is love is different than saying that love is God.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Dear andreas1984
Sorry, what you have written is not correct. I suggest you consult Kallistos Ware's "The Orthodox Way" for an explanation on this, and why a simple analogy to humanity won't work.
BTW if humanity only got one will, then we would all live in utopia now!
Sir, you do not understand what "one will" means and therefore you have problems with your understanding of the trinity. You say that the three divine persons have one will. I agree with you. You say that this is why they are one god. I agree with you. But you have no idea what this means. Therefore, by giving it a different meaning than the one intended by the church, you go away from orthodoxy. We use the same words but we use them to express different meanings. This difference in meaning is obvious when we talk about man.
According to the fathers who taught that the three divine persons have one will, humans have one will too. All our fathers meant by "one will", is "to will is one". They meant that they have the same ability to will. You are using the term "one will" as well, but you use it to mean "to will the same things at the same time". This is not what those who explained the oneness of god based on the oneness of the divine essence meant! Therefore your understanding of the triune god is problematic.
I don't know what Kallistos wrote. Besides, I do not belong to his book's target group. I do know what Maximos confessed in front of Pyrros. Maximos clearly shows that to will is of the nature; therefore all things that participate in the same nature have the same will. A synonym for nature is essence.
This is a quote from his discussion with Pyrros. I do not have the time to translate parts from the ancient text, so if you are interested in the matter, and you should be, please read St. Maximos works (or any other orthodox work from the era of that ecumenical council on the two wills of Jesus).
quote:
Saint Maximos the Confessor said to Pyrros:
It is not the same thing to will and how to will, just like it is not the same thing to see and how to see. Because the "to will", exactly like the "to see", is of the nature, and it is appropriate for all those who have the same nature or genus. But the "how to will", exactly like the "how to see", that is to will to walk, or not to will to walk, to will to see something at the right, or at the left, or above, or below, or to lust it, or to understand the reasons for the things, it is the way of the use of the will and of the sight, and is to him only that has the ability, and it distinguishes him from the other with an obvious way.
So, when the church teaches that the three divine persons have one will, we mean that they have the same ability to will, just like humans have the same ability to will. The same applies to the term "operation". There is one operation in god, just like there is one operation is man.
Sometimes I have this feeling, that the west has fallen in the heresy of Sabelious.
One more thing: The one operation of god, according to the church, is his creative operation, i.e. his giving being to the creatures.
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You say that the three divine persons have one will. I agree with you. You say that this is why they are one god. I agree with you.
This is backwards. They have one will because they are one God; not the other way around.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You say that the three divine persons have one will. I agree with you. You say that this is why they are one god. I agree with you.
This is backwards. They have one will because they are one God; not the other way around.
Actually, the church always thought that it goes both ways. Sure, we have human will because we are humans, but when one has the human will, one is human; it cannot be something else. Just like god. When a person has the divine will, that person is divine, i.e. he participates in the divine nature / essence.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Andreas1984:
I really think you should read de trinitate.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Jesus is the truth because he is God; he isn't God because He's the truth. Likewise, to say that God is love is different than saying that love is God.
I think that it works both ways. It's not just that He is the truth, He is the ultimate divine truth itself. Similarly He is love itself and wisdom itself. Love is not God, but nothing is love itself other than God.
This is quite relevant to this discussion, because if Jesus is essentially the divine truth which is the Word, then the point of the Word being "made flesh" is to bring that truth to level of humanity for the purpose of saving them from evil.
This doesn't make Jesus another person than the Father, it makes Him God accommodated to our fallen nature.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Jesus is the truth because he is God; he isn't God because He's the truth. Likewise, to say that God is love is different than saying that love is God.
I think that it works both ways. It's not just that He is the truth, He is the ultimate divine truth itself. Similarly He is love itself and wisdom itself. Love is not God, but nothing is love itself other than God.
This is quite relevant to this discussion, because if Jesus is essentially the divine truth which is the Word, then the point of the Word being "made flesh" is to bring that truth to level of humanity for the purpose of saving them from evil.
This doesn't make Jesus another person than the Father, it makes Him God accommodated to our fallen nature.
Which is the heresy of modalism isn't it?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Which is the heresy of modalism isn't it?
No. Modalism involves consecutive, not simultaneous, conceptions of God. I am just saying what Paul said:
quote:
Colossians 2 - "In Christ dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily; 10 and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all principality and power."
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Which is the heresy of modalism isn't it?
No. Modalism involves consecutive, not simultaneous, conceptions of God. I am just saying what Paul said:
quote:
Colossians 2 - "In Christ dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily; 10 and you are complete in Him, who is the head of all principality and power."
True. And thanks for helping me see the difference. However, Paul doesn't say that Christ is the fulness of the Godhead does he? I can accept that the Father and the Spirit indwelt Christ during his earthly ministry. This is what I take to be Paul's meaning. To encounter Christ was to encounter the fulness of the Godhead: Father, Son (1 John 1:1), and Holy Spirit. However, one encounters the fulness of the Godhead in Christ only because he is the locus for the indwelling of both Father and Spirit. So, yes, I suppose it is possible to say that to encounter Christ is to encounter the Trinity.
[ 10. May 2005, 16:04: Message edited by: m.t_tomb ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Paul doesn't say that Christ is the fulness of the Godhead does he? I can accept that the Father and the Spirit indwelt Christ during his earthly ministry. This is what I take to be Paul's meaning. To encounter Christ was to encounter the fulness of the Godhead: Father, Son (1 John 1:1), and Holy Spirit. However, one encounters the fulness of the Godhead in Christ only because he is the locus for the indwelling of both Father and Spirit. So, yes, I suppose it is possible to say that to encounter Christ is to encounter the Trinity.
I'm not sure that Paul means only that the Father and the Spirit indwelt Christ during His earthly ministry.
On another thread people talked about how no one will be able to deny God once they stand in His presence in the next life. How do we picture this? Is it the Father's presence that we stand in? Is the Son at His right hand? Are all three there? I think that most people think in terms of standing before only one. So wouldn't that be Jesus?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
How do we picture this?
God is immaterial. He does not take up space. His presence can be signified though by many ways. Remember Elias? God appeared to him through the sound the leaves made. God appeared to humanity in the flesh of Jesus. God's presence is most clearly manifested through the uncreated light He emits.
So, we cannot actually see God; yet we can become aware of His presence in many ways.
P.S. Christ will judge the people through His humanity; not through His divinity. Through their divinity, all three divine persons judge the people. When we stress that Jesus will judge us, we mean that He is Lord in His humanity as well as in His divinity.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
So, we cannot actually see God; yet we can become aware of His presence in many ways.
I realize that. I'm talking about heaven. Will God continue to be invisible there?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I realize that. I'm talking about heaven. Will God continue to be invisible there?
You do not seem to realise that God is immaterial. There is an ontological difference between God and mankind. We are created, He is uncreated. We cannot see Him because he is immaterial and creation is material. We can become aware of Hid presence, but we cannot, have not, and will not see God.
According to the orthodox tradition, the uncreated light of God can be said to be God Himself. So, if that's what you are asking, one could really say that he has seen God when God reveals to him His uncreated light.
Posted by 12uthy (# 9400) on
:
There is a lot of talk about the "physical" nature of God, but how do angels fit in to this, they are created and yet we cannot see them.
Can they see God?
Just a thought.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by 12uthy:
There is a lot of talk about the "physical" nature of God, but how do angels fit in to this, they are created and yet we cannot see them.
Can they see God?
Just a thought.
According to the orthodox tradition, all created things are material. So, angels too, in a way, they are material. The only being that is immaterial is God. Take our thoughts for example. Are they immaterial? Well, there is a materialistic underlying basis. Can we see our thoughts? No.
As far as the angels are concerned, of whose nature I know almost nothing, I think that there are degrees in their closeness to God. Some are closer to God than others, so, they experience His presence in different degrees.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You do not seem to realise that God is immaterial. There is an ontological difference between God and mankind. We are created, He is uncreated. We cannot see Him because he is immaterial and creation is material. We can become aware of Hid presence, but we cannot, have not, and will not see God.
Yet Jesus said, "He who has seen Me has seen the Father."
I think that most Christians believe that in heaven we will see God in a human form. I realize that He is not material and that at the same time He is substance itself. I also realize that as He is in Himself He is a discrete degree beyond any human or angelic power to behold Him.
At the same time I do think that He appears to us. And not just as light. He is not simply a force. He is an individual. Isn't this the whole point of the Incarnation?
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
andreas1984:
We could perhaps debate the merits of the a latin vs. social conceptualisation of the trinity, but that can perhaps be the stuff for another thread.
Freddy and MTT:
You have modalism and you have sabellianism and there is a difference between the two, but I suggest we don't split hairs over this.
And specifically to you Freddy, the quote about "whover has seen me has seen the Father" must be weighted against the following:
Joh 5:36-37 But I have a greater testimony than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to perfect, the works themselves which I do, give testimony of me, that the Father hath sent me. And the Father himself who hath sent me hath given testimony of me: neither have you heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.
Which suggests that the Father is indeed invisible, and moreover that the visions of God in the OT especially the throne visions in Isaiah and Ezekiel could not involve the Father (?). chew on that.
I think the point of the incarnation was not simply to make the invisible visible, but also that God divinized our human nature by partaking in it.
whisper
I could perhaps dare say that the purpose of Jesus' life is the fulfillment of God's eternal longing to become human. /whisper
[ 10. May 2005, 22:28: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
the quote about "whover has seen me has seen the Father" must be weighted against the following:
Joh 5:36-37 But I have a greater testimony than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to perfect, the works themselves which I do, give testimony of me, that the Father hath sent me. And the Father himself who hath sent me hath given testimony of me: neither have you heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.
Which suggests that the Father is indeed invisible, and moreover that the visions of God in the OT especially the throne visions in Isaiah and Ezekiel could not involve the Father (?)
Except that the Bible record is contradictory. Jehovah appears to Moses and many others as the Angel of Jehovah or simply Jehovah.
Yes, the Gospels make it very clear that the Father is invisible:
quote:
John 1.8 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
I think that the weight of the passages declare that while the Father is invisible, the Son is visible and shows us the Father.
quote:
Matthew 11.27 "Nor does anyone know the Father except the Son, and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him. Come to Me, all you who labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest."
John 8.19 "Then they said to Him, “Where is Your Father?” Jesus answered, “You know neither Me nor My Father. If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also."
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
andreas1984:
We could perhaps debate the merits of the a latin vs. social conceptualisation of the trinity, but that can perhaps be the stuff for another thread.
According to the Catechism of the Roman Catholic Church, we believe in one god, because there is one divine nature. I have not said something different than that.
Neither I nor the Cappadocians are really fond of analogies. This is why we don't use them, unlike Augustine. Behind every analogy there lies heresy, because the analogy is only to some extent true about the trinity. I confess I hate Augustine's analogies in the context he uses them. Now days they are used by different kinds of people to show either a)there are three divine natures b)there is only one divine person. They might have worked at his time, but in contemporary times they don't seem to work. The Cappadocians explained why god is one. They did n't propose analogies. They just did the difficult work of finding a working explanation.
Like it or not, we have built our theology using terms like "nature" and "person". (we = RCC + OC) So, if we want to see how those before us understood one god, we should also accept these terms. Sure, god is something much more than the terms we use to describe him. He is not limited by the human concepts used by theologians. But when there is the fear of having people slipped into heresy, we should stick to the one nature explanation, because it's so easy for everyone to understand. Let's start from this explanation, and build our discussion on it.
I have found out that people do not understand what the word essence means in the context of the trinitarian debate. Why don't we make clear to everyone that essence is not a substance, but it's a nature? They use the term essence to escape the debate. It's like the term essence is a mystical word, a word that can mean nothing to us, but somehow it means something to god. But essence is a human term; it's not a divine revelation. We have made the term and we should know what it means. Essence, in this context, means nothing more than the nature of something. It is true that the fathers said that all human persons have the same essence. Why don't we start our discussion from this fact? I think that this would help all people understand that essence is not something mystical, it's something easily understood by everyone.
I used St. Maximos's works because you questioned the one will of humanity letting the people assume that one will, just like essence, is supposed to be a mystical term signifying something that is true only for god. But this is the wrong way to follow! It leads people to some sort of thinking that there is one divine person. In fact, Maximos does quote the Cappadocians to explain that the church always thought that just like man has one will, god has one will too. Which backs my argument and my understanding of the trinity.
I understand that people are not used to terms like essence, nature, person or will. But unless someone has new terms to propose, words that are understood by all people, I think we should try to show the correct explanation of these terms to all people, so they can leave uncertainty or heresy and embrace orthodoxy.
By the way, the monothelite vs dithelite debate, was all about our understanding of the trinity. In fact, in my humble opinion, all seven ecumenical councils were all about our understanding of the trinity. If the monothelites were right, then there would either have to be three wills in the trinity, and introduce therefore three gods, or one divine person, and introduce the Sabellian heresy. The same applies for the one operation vs two operations debate.
From the very first ecumenical council which affirmed that there are three divine persons, to the very last ecumenical council, which affirmed that the icons are to be used (and thus taught that Christ has indeed have two natures, and that He is Lord with both of His natures, and the two natures do not mix into a third nature, but there is a unity of natures in one person), there has been a fight between different understandings of the trinity, between orthodoxy and heresy.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
while the Father is invisible, the Son is visible and shows us the Father.
When we say that the Son is visible, we mean that His humanity is visible, not His divinity. His divinity, like the divinity of His Father and of His Father's Spirit, is unvisible because it is immaterial. So, when we say that the Son of man is visible, and that He is the image of the invisible God, we mean that through His humanity we are brought to the understanding of God, who is working through His human nature to draw people closer to Him.
So, it's just like in the icons. When we see Christ, we see His humanity, but because His humanity and His divinity belong to the same person, we worship Him and we acknowledge His divine presence,
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
When we say that the Son is visible, we mean that His humanity is visible, not His divinity. His divinity, like the divinity of His Father and of His Father's Spirit, is unvisible because it is immaterial. So, when we say that the Son of man is visible, and that He is the image of the invisible God, we mean that through His humanity we are brought to the understanding of God, who is working through His human nature to draw people closer to Him.
I assume that you mean visible to the spirit, or understandable.
So are you saying that the God that we see after death in the next life is only the humanity of Jesus Christ? Or are you saying that after death God is just as invisible as He is to us in this world?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
I don't know much about what happens after death. I am really focused on what may happen while we are alive. I know that we can see God now; we don't have to wait until after the resurrection. (You could read St. Gregory the Palamas's works on that) For me, what really matters, is to comply to Jesus's commandments now, to die to oneself, and to live in Christ. I trust God for what will take place after we die.
Yes, I meant visible to the flesh, and understandable to the spirit.
I know for sure that we will get resurrected in the flesh, and live with Christ in the flesh. He is in the flesh, and he will continue to be in the flesh. We will be aware of the presence of the Father, the Logos, and the Spirit, but I think that we will still be limited from our having a body. So, the bodily eyes will see what the apostles saw; yet in spirit we will worship the true god.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
So you believe that we are resurrected as to the flesh, not that we die and go to heaven. That certainly does change everything.
I think, though, that Christians who believe that people die and go to heaven have the idea that in heaven it is possible to see God, and not just as light.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
God is light.
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
So you believe that we are resurrected as to the flesh, not that we die and go to heaven. That certainly does change everything.
I think, though, that Christians who believe that people die and go to heaven have the idea that in heaven it is possible to see God, and not just as light.
Freddy, Christians that believe that people die and go to heaven, without a bodily resurrection, have departed from the catholic faith. To be honest with you the concept of physically 'seeing' God is less important that the concept of knowing Him. We shall fully know him even as we are fully known by him (1 Cor. 13.12).
So, just as God does not look on the outward appearance but upon the heart, likewise we will not look upon God's outward appearance but shall know him in the same way that he knows us. That we be the most 'heavenly' part of meeting God.
I also believe that I shall physically see Jesus for I will be physically like him in his resurrection. We will be of the same immortal substance. So, in the respect that the poor in spirit 'shall see God', I will see Jesus, who is God the Son.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
Freddy, Christians that believe that people die and go to heaven, without a bodily resurrection, have departed from the catholic faith.
Someone should probably point that out in the discussions on the ship where people are discussing heaven and hell. Both the "Appropriate Sentence?" and "Hell according to Orthodoxy" discussions are merrily proceeding on the widely held assumption that when you die you go to either heaven or hell.
But I like what you say about Christ's resurrection body. Admittedly it's all very difficult to work out.
The relevance of all this to the Trinity discussion is that if the God that we see and know after death is Christ, and if the Father is persistently invisible and unknowable to us, then why would we insist on them different persons?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Jesus's body won't be the God we will see. Jesus's body would be Jesus's body You know, with molecules and stuff. This is not god's essence. It is human essence. We will see a human body. That body may belong to God Himself, but it is material. We bow before Christ because He is the Lord in both His natures, but His humanity remains His humanity. It is not God what we will see, although it is God's. If you want to see God, become an orthodox, and start doing what the Hesychastes do. This way you might see God while in this life. In any case, you will learn more about God than you probably do
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
This way you might see God while in this life. In any case, you will learn more about God than you probably do
Thanks! I might just do that.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
That body may belong to God Himself, but it is material. We bow before Christ because He is the Lord in both His natures, but His humanity remains His humanity. It is not God what we will see, although it is God's.
In my book that body was glorified, united with the divine essence, and is therefore the divine human, not merely His humanity. So it is God that we see, but with the eyes of the spirit.
But I see that Christ and God really are two as you see them. This does not square with my idea of monotheism.
Are you thinking that this view is a better explanation of the Scriptures than what I am saying?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Here is what I am saying:
Christ's body was united with His divinity the moment His conception took place from the virgin Mary. So, the Uncreated Logos was united with that cell from the body of the virgin that made his body eventually.
This is the way I see it: There is God, who is the source of the Trinity. One person is the cause of the existence for two other persons. So, there are three persons that have a relation to each other. The first person I call the Father. He is the one named God by e.g. Paul. This does not mean that the other two persons are not exactly like Him. Their only difference is that they are caused by Him. Caused, not created! Their existence does not take place in time. They existed when time was created! In fact, all three of them created time and space.
If we want to see things clearly, we have to worship three persons; not one. But these three persons do not differ from each other, save for the difference in the cause of their existence, for one is without cause, and the other two are caused by the cause but not in the same way.
I do think that this is what scriptures tell us.
I do think that Jesus has the power to forgive sins or to perform miracles. But this is something that only a divine being can do. Therefore He is divine and we are to worship Him.
Yet He says that He is not alone. Therefore I acknowledge there are three divine persons, and not one! When I name the Cause "God", I do not exclude those that are caused by Him from divinity.
OK, to be even clearer: The word "God" can be used having two meanings. It can be used to name a person (the cause). It can also be used to describe the nature of that person (the divine nature), which is common to all three divine persons. 'Common' means that they all are of the same nature, just like one could say that all men are of the same nature. (Nature means a set of characteristics that characterise things of the same genus. OK, weird definition, but you know what I mean. In other words, all humans can be said to have one nature, all stones have another nature, all planets have another nature. Just when we see a rock and we say "hey, it's a rock", and then we see a different rock but we also say "it's a rock", you know what I mean?)
So, Jesus is god, but He is not God. I use a small letter to denote the nature and a capital letter to denote a person's name.
This is important, because when we pray we pray to persons and not to natures. At least, I am not used to talking to natures, that's all. I talk to persons and have relationships with persons.
So, all three of them have the same characteristics; they can forgive sins, they can create things, they can perform miracles, they have created the world, they existed before creation, they are eternal, they do not change, they love humanity, they are immaterial and so on. But they are different from each other because one causes to exist the other two in different ways (this is why we talk of generation of the Son from the Father and of procession of the Spirit from the Father).
When these three interact with the world, there is one observable result; not three. So, although we get life from all three of them, there is only one life we get; not three. This is because they are ontologically different from creation; they exist in a different "realm". For example, in order for Christ to become man, all three performed that miracle and the virgin gave birth to a child. In order for Christ to make the blind see, all three performed that miracle. They love each other and they will the same things and do the same things (if you pardon my using human terms to explain their relationship to each other). So, what the Father wills, the Son wills too and vice versa.
It's because they are so much different from what we see in nature, that we have difficulties in talking about them.
In the beginning was the Word (so before time He was; He is uncreated. wow! This is an attribute of God alone, and not of angels or humans)
and the Word was with God (so, the Word is different than whom we call God; they are in relationship with each other, in relation to each other, there are two "I"s here. They can say "I" and "You", they are not the same "I")
and god was the Word (we kinda have guessed that. The Word is divine, worthy to be worshipped and praised, and exalted forever. Let us bow our heads before Him.)
and the Word was made flesh (weird! I cannot find the words to describe that miracle. So, One of those two became man. Let us listen to Him and see what He has to say. Amen.)
Posted by m.t_tomb (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Andreas:
If you want to see God, become an orthodox, and start doing what the Hesychastes do.
Would it be bragging if I told you that I have seen the uncreated light of God when in prayer? Would you believe that this is possible for a non-Orthodox?
[ 11. May 2005, 18:48: Message edited by: m.t_tomb ]
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t_tomb:
quote:
Originally posted by Andreas:
If you want to see God, become an orthodox, and start doing what the Hesychastes do.
Would it be bragging if I told you that I have seen the uncreated light of God when in prayer?
No bragging. I would praise God for revealing Himself to you. Nice job mate.
quote:
Would you believe that this is possible for a non-Orthodox?
Who am I to limit what God can and what He cannot do? God can do as He pleases. Thank God for that
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
When these three interact with the world, there is one observable result; not three. So, although we get life from all three of them, there is only one life we get; not three. This is because they are ontologically different from creation; they exist in a different "realm". For example, in order for Christ to become man, all three performed that miracle and the virgin gave birth to a child. In order for Christ to make the blind see, all three performed that miracle. They love each other and they will the same things and do the same things (if you pardon my using human terms to explain their relationship to each other). So, what the Father wills, the Son wills too and vice versa.
If all three simultaneously and with one will performed the miracles, and did everything else that Jesus did, why does the gospel account persist in naming one? There is no indication that all three did these miracles.
Besides, it's impossible for three to share one will and still be three persons. There is only one person. Three acting perfectly simultaneously and with one will is the definition of one not three.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Actually, the gospel does mention all three of them performing the miracles. Jesus said clearly that He did what He saw His Father doing. Unless there exists a different universe in which the Father performed the miracles so that Jesus could see them and then perform the same miracles here on earth, we have to accept that the Father performed the miracles the same way Jesus did.
What you are saying is absurd. God is DIFFERENT than us. He does not operate the same we we do. In fact, He does not operate in ways we are accustomed with.
Impossible for three persons to will the same things? Haven't you read that the Saints of the church willed what God wills? Isn't that an example of many people will for the same thing?
In Africa, where many people will to eat food, do they seize to be different persons and become one?
I do not understand what you mean.
Who says that this is the definition of being one person? This is something I hear for the first time, although I have been using the term "person" for ages.
How can you say that they cannot so the same things simultaneously? Haven't you read that the Father has built the world? Haven't you read that the Father's Son has also created the world? Haven't you heard that the Spirit of God has created the world? Are there three creations?
Saying that somebody and his son are the same person is absurd. How can it be? Can I give birth to myself? This does not make sense.
In Epiphany we read: Jesus got baptised by John the Baptist, His Father declared Him to be His only-begotten Son, the Spirit of the Father rested upon Him. This should be enough to prove that there are three different persons and not one.
I have a question for you: Why did Jesus say that He was not alone and that His father was with Him, if He and the Father were one person?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Besides, it's impossible for three to share one will and still be three persons. There is only one person. Three acting perfectly simultaneously and with one will is the definition of one not three.
Ah, so the Supremes were really only one person? I'm sure that Diana and Mary and Flo will be surprised to learn that.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
Ah, so the Supremes were really only one person? I'm sure that Diana and Mary and Flo will be surprised to learn that.
Good point.
I may have to re-think.
On the other hand it always seemed to me that Diana was trying to upstage the others. Not that I wouldn't have done the same thing if I were her.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Saying that somebody and his son are the same person is absurd. How can it be? Can I give birth to myself? This does not make sense.
Jesus stated that He and His Father are one. He stated that whoever sees Him has seen the Father. This is not the normal father-son relationship.
It is much less problematic, in my view, to see this relationship as a metaphor for the relationship between the visible and invisible God.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
I have a question for you: Why did Jesus say that He was not alone and that His father was with Him, if He and the Father were one person?
The metaphor is carried throughout the gospels. It simply means that the human is not separated from the divine in Him. The divine is always within.
Jesus makes too many statements identifying Himself with the Father for there to be two literal persons:
quote:
I and the Father are one (John 10:30).
Believe that the Father is in Me, and I in the Father (John 10:38).
He that beholdeth Me beholdeth Him that sent Me (John 12:45).
If ye had known Me ye would have known My Father also; and from henceforth ye have known Him, and have seen Him. Philip said unto Him, Lord, show us the Father. Jesus saith, Am I so long time with you, and thou dost not know Me, Philip? he that hath seen Me hath seen the Father; how sayest thou then, Show us the Father? Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The Father that abideth in Me doeth the works. Believe Me, that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me (John 14:7-11).
If ye had known Me ye would have known My Father also (John 8:19).
All power hath been given unto Me in heaven and on earth (Matt. 28:18)
He also states:
- That all things of the Father are His, and His are the Father's (John 17:10);
- That all things whatsoever that the Father hath are His (John 16:15);
- That the Father hath given all things into the hands of the Son (John 3:35; 13:3);
- That all things have been delivered unto Him by the Father;
- That no one knoweth the Son save the Father, neither doth any one know the Father save the Son (Matt. 11:27; Luke 19:22).
- That no one hath seen the Father except the Son, who is in the bosom of the Father (John 1:18; 6:46).
These descriptions summon the imagery of a father giving things to his son and being known by his son, but the statements make no sense if they are actually taken literally. The Father can't both be one with the Son and give things to Him. The two cannot be within each other and be separate.
More fundamentally, the Scriptures make it clear that Jehovah is the Savior:
quote:
Am not I Jehovah, and there is no God else beside Me, a just God and a Saviour, there is none beside Me (Isa. 45:21, 22).
I Jehovah am thy God, and thou shalt acknowledge no God beside Me, and there is no Saviour beside Me (Hos. 13:4).
Thus said Jehovah the King of Israel and his Redeemer, Jehovah of Hosts, I am the First and the Last, and beside Me there is no God (Isa. 46:6).
Jehovah of Hosts is His name, and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel, the God of the whole earth shall He be called (Isa. 54:5).
In that day Jehovah shall be King over the whole earth; in that day there shall be one Jehovah, and His name One (Zech. 14:9).
Jesus and Jehovah are one and the same person. The Trinity describes the relationship between the visible and the invisible divine. If taken literally, even allowing for the fact that these things are beyond our understanding, a trinity of persons tends towards tritheism. At least that is the way that it seems to me.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Jesus and Jehovah are one and the same person. The Trinity describes the relationship between the visible and the invisible divine.
Well, there cannot be a "relationship" between the 'visible and invisible divine' as described by the biblical passages below, relationships are between personages, unless you want to interpret the passages below metaphorically.
Joh 3:35 The Father loveth the Son: and he hath given all things into his hand.
Joh 5:20 For the Father loveth the Son and sheweth him all things which himself doth: and greater works than these will he shew him, that you may wonder.
Joh 15:9 As the Father hath loved me, I also have loved you. Abide in my love.
Joh 17:23 I in them, and thou in me: that they may be made perfect in one: and the world may know that thou hast sent me and hast loved them, as thou hast also loved me.
Joh 17:24 Father, I will that where I am, they also whom thou hast given me may be with me: that they may see my glory which thou hast given me, because thou hast loved me before the creation of the world.
If these are metaphorical, then this passage is also ultimately metaphorical
1Jo 4:8 He that loveth not knoweth not God: for God is love.
IMHO I think your attempt to rationalise the mystery is impoverishing the text.
In this case my approach would definitely be a 'fides adorans mysterium' rather than 'fides querens intellectum'
Ultimate reality cannot be captured exactly in words because ultimate reality is more than words, the ultimate reality of God as trinity was an experience of the apostles, poetry is closer to reality.
Naught is but I and Thou. Were there nor Thou nor I,
Then God is no more God, and Heaven falls from the sky.
I am not I nor Thou: Thou art the I in Me:
Therefore I yield the meed of honour unto Thee.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
So, instead of interpreting the verses that talk about Jesus's being one with the father as allegorical or metaphorical, YOU CHOOSE to do this with the verses talking about His being different than the Father. how can you give a logical explanation for this?
He says that He and His Father are one. I am asking you. One what? Did He say that they are one person? No. Then why are you adding the word person as if that was supposed to be meant?
I and the father are one god. This means that they are one in essence. But we humans are one in essence as well. You and I are one. One human. Not one human person, but one human nature. The word "am" draws our attention to the essence. I am my essence. I am not a person. I am human. You are human. We are human. They are god. Why is it so hard to understand this?
Of course He and His Father are identical. Haven't you read that He is the icon of His Father? He is the same as His Father. The same god. Not the same person.
If the "I am not alone" was referring to His humanity, then why did He say the same thing to describe the time before he bacame man? For "the Word was with God" in the beginning.
And please, jehova is not a name like Andreas is. The Hebrew (or the greek for that matter) word for that means "the one who was, is, and will be"; He said "I am the Being". And truly, all three of them, are the absolute essence; They just ARE. Their essence cannot be named, and if we want to use a name for it, it would only be appropriate to use the word "Essence".
And there is no visible God. What we can see, it's the humanity of Jesus. Through His humanity we may come to the understanding of God. But His flesh and blood are not themselves divine.
It's not tritheism, so long as we still confess one divine nature, and this is what we do!
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Ultimate reality cannot be captured exactly in words because ultimate reality is more than words
How true!
quote:
the ultimate reality of God as trinity was an experience of the apostles,
How true!
quote:
poetry is closer to reality.
How true!
Posted by peaceheretic (# 9483) on
:
If we take the modern understanding of the word "person" then the use of that word to describe the "Trinity" as G-d in three persons is no longer appropriate.
For a Christian to answer an earnest inquirer about the understanding of the "Trinity" doctrine with "it's a mystery" when most Christians, today, don't even know that the formula of words to describe the doctrine that was compliled when there was still a vestige of understanding of Christianity's Mother and Father, Hellenist Monotheistic Mysticism and Judaism.
For two thousand years Christianity has been abusing it's mother and father with unChristlike insult. I have in mind the fixed attitude that all Hellenism was/is pagan and all Judaism was/is Christ killers.
This from people who try to explain the trinity or what I would rather term "Triunity" to none-Christians by saying it consists of three "persons".
The mystery might begin to make some sense when we recall that the word "personae" meant "mask" as used in the Greek Mystery plays which were intended to be spiritually and psychologically transforming. The actors in the Mystery plays assumed personalities by placing the mask in front of the space.
I suggest this is worth reflecting on.
But more provocatively from the point of view of this haughty/humble heretic, obsessed with Interfaith Understanding, I suggest that the Gnostic Christians were right.
Using the term "person" in it's moder sense, I will provocatively re-present the Gnostic view of Christianity and of everybodies relationship with G-d:-
G-d is not a person. The Holy Spirit is not a person. The only person in the "trinunity" is you. It is through the Holy Spirit that you become one with G-d.
But that is not demystifying the mystery!
We all still have a long way to go, including this heretical sinner who hasn't been to synagogue for 5 weeks, haven't prayed in a mosque since I went to see the Naqshbandis, and insist on wearing a yarmulkah every Sunday when I sing in the church choir!
So what do I know?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
What you write is wrong.
First of all, the church has ALWAYS rejected the idea of personas. There are three divine persons (prosopa), not masks (prosopea). Your theology is what the Sabbelians teach. However, they have been condemned by the church from the very beginning.
You are saying that we cannot understand what the term person means, because it's an ancient term. This is not correct. We can understand clearly what a person is. Read Thomas Aquinas, or Basil the Great, or Gregory the Theologian, or any other orthodox father. The term person signifies the individual of the genus of rational substance. A substance, or essence, strictly speaking, is what it is expressed by the definition.
So, essence, is what we call nature. You know, human nature, divine nature, the nature of rocks etc. It's a definition, a set of characteristics.
A person is a rational individual of the essence. A hypostases is an individual of the essence. So, a person, is a rational hypostases. So, we can talk about the hypostases of a rock, and the hypostases of a human, but we only talk about a human person, and not a rock person.
The 'father' of Christianity is neither Judaism nor Hellenism. It's Christ Himself.
Don't confuse people by saying that the church believed in masks. This opinion was condemned from the very beginning. Our conception is quite different. Just like there are 6 billions human persons, there are 3 divine persons. Just like there is one humanity, there is one deity. Period.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Jesus and Jehovah are one and the same person. The Trinity describes the relationship between the visible and the invisible divine.
Well, there cannot be a "relationship" between the 'visible and invisible divine' as described by the biblical passages below, relationships are between personages, unless you want to interpret the passages below metaphorically.
Joh 3:35 The Father loveth the Son: and he hath given all things into his hand.
There is a definite relationship between the inner and outer parts of all things. There is a relationship between you and your "inner child" ( ). By the Father loving the Son is meant that God as He exists in Himself beyond all human understanding wills that humanity be able to understand and love Him and so loves the means for that to happen.
Trying to understand these things does not impoverish the faith. As long as they are incomprehensible they will never be believed.
quote:
Originally posted by Andreas1984:
So, instead of interpreting the verses that talk about Jesus's being one with the father as allegorical or metaphorical, YOU CHOOSE to do this with the verses talking about His being different than the Father. how can you give a logical explanation for this?
The reason is that all of Scripture makes it clear that God is One, and so any kind of division in God must therefore be metaphoric. The alternative sets up an impossible contradiction.
How can you even talk about logical explanation when the doctrine of three divine persons from eternity raises so many unanswerable questions? For example:
- What is meant by a Son born from God the Father from eternity?
- How could He be born?
- What is the Holy Spirit proceeding from God the Father through the Son from eternity?
- How could He proceed and become God by Himself?
- How could a person beget a person from eternity and both produce a person?
- How can three Persons, of which each is God, be joined into one God, otherwise than into one person?
- How can the Divinity be divided into three Persons, and yet not into three Gods, when yet each Person is God?
- How can the Divine essence, which is one, the same, and indivisible, be expressed as a number, and so be either divided or multiplied?
- How can three Divine Persons be together and take counsel together outside of space and time, such as was before the world was created?
How, from Jehovah God, who is One, and is Infinite, Eternal, and Omnipotent, could there be produced three equals? - How can a Trinity of Persons be conceived of in the Unity of God, and the Unity of God in a Trinity of Persons?
- Would it be possible for the Greeks and Romans to unite all their gods into one by an identity of essence?
- Of what use was it that a Son was born, and that the Holy Spirit went forth from the Father through the Son before the world was created?
- What is the purpose of three to consult how the universe should be created?
- How does it make sense that “it is Christian verity that each Person by Himself is God, and yet that it is not lawful by the Catholic religion to account them three Gods?”
Taking refuge in the concept of mystery is not an answer. While everyone acknowledges that divine things are beyond human understanding, glaringly inconsistent and contradictory teachings do nothing but defeat belief.
The point is that while a literal understanding of many gospel passages leads to the idea of three divine persons in the trinity, it is less problematic and more consistent with the totality of Scripture to see this trinity as metaphor, or as being like the soul, body and activity of a single person.
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
While everyone acknowledges that divine things are beyond human understanding, glaringly inconsistent and contradictory teachings do nothing but defeat belief.
Do they? The Trinity has been in the Creed since three hundred summat. Hell of a lot of belief has happened since then. What exactly do YOU mean by "defeat"?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
Do they? The Trinity has been in the Creed since three hundred summat. Hell of a lot of belief has happened since then. What exactly do YOU mean by "defeat"?
I mean that Christianity has not fared well among European peoples over the long term. How many people in the "Christian world" actually believe this stuff?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
Do they? The Trinity has been in the Creed since three hundred summat. Hell of a lot of belief has happened since then. What exactly do YOU mean by "defeat"?
I mean that Christianity has not fared well among European peoples over the long term. How many people in the "Christian world" actually believe this stuff?
And you think that's because of the doctrine of the Trinity? If that were the case they would all be Unitarians, surely?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
And you think that's because of the doctrine of the Trinity? If that were the case they would all be Unitarians, surely?
No, they would all be atheists.
I don't think this is solely due to the Trinity. We're just not all believers. But such a confusing and contradictory idea of God plays a part.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Freddy, your questions do not make any sense to me.
This is what YOU think: Andreas and Freddy are two different men. We are two humans. We are not one. Therefore, when we say that there is one god, we must mean that there are not two persons that are divine.
This is what the ANCIENTS thought: Andreas and Freddy are one man. Man is one. There cannot be many men. However man can be in many persons. Therefore, there is one man in many persons.
This is why they used the expression "one god in three persons".
But YOU are using the same expression as the church did, by you give it a different meaning than what the church did. CAN YOU PROVE THAT THE ANCIENTS THOUGHT THAT THERE WERE MANY MEN? Because I can give you proof, and indeed I have provided with the proof needed, to show that they considered man to be one.
It is said that god is one.
But YOU add to that sentence "god is one person". This is NOT what the Hebrews said. The Hebrews said that "god is one god". You pau no attention to that. Hear ye Israel, God your Lord is one God. Shema Yisrael... It is specifically said that god is one god; not one person. This means that the diversity of deities the ancient nations worshipped is wrong. There cannot be a sum of dog-like, man-like, devil-like, river-like deities. God is either man-like, or dog-like etc. Only one nature is divine. The others do not exist. The Hebrews went further, saying that the deity is uncreated, immaterial, eternal, it has no shape etc etc. This concept of the deity is the correct one.
Because you are using the term gods to signify many divine persons, you think that the ancients did the same.
Your questions do not make sense. Can you explain how can God be uncreated? And how He created the world? Explain these things first, and then I will explain you how three divine persons have created the one world. Or how the Spirit proceeds from the Father.
Haven't you heard: "Let US create man"?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
This is what the ANCIENTS thought: Andreas and Freddy are one man. Man is one. There cannot be many men. However man can be in many persons. Therefore, there is one man in many persons.
This is why they used the expression "one god in three persons".
You have mentioned this parallel a number of times. I'm not seeing it myself, but you must have a reason for bringing it up. Where are you getting this idea? How do you know what the Ancients thought?
Posted by peaceheretic (# 9483) on
:
It would be ungracious and unChristlike to direct my provisional response to any one poster.
However, I have no fear of quoting :-
"Christ could have been born a thousand times in Galilee,
But all in vain, 'til He is Born in me."
and as the venerable and scholarly Rev F.G. Downing once wrote, or words to this effect; we should all retain the humility to bear in mind that on that last day we might find out that we were all wrong.
So maybe I am wrong.
But if anybody doesn't know that bit of scripture I was quoting about Thomas/Didymus speaking his original Christianity to all of us who wish to continue learning (that's all Christians.... isn't it?) here it is from an ENGLISH STANDARD VERSION translation :-
John 11 v 16 'So Thomas, called the Twin, said to his fellow disciples, "Let us also go, that we may die with him." '
Now since it doesn't mean what I thought it meant, because I am wrong, please correct my error. What does it mean?
Shalomheretic
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
/me bringing forth ancient scrolls
What do these verses mean?
being born in human likeness
with a face like a human face
for God is not like a human being
the Sabbath was made for man
teaching human percepts
who is like the wise man?
do not curse the king
the heart of the wise inclines to the right
if the iron is blunt
but wisdom helps one to succeed
consider the work of God
a good name is better than precious ointment
the house of mourning
the wind blows to the south
the simple believe everything
the wise woman builds her house
poverty and disgrace are for the one who ignores instruction
they are like a breath
oh God, what is man that you regard him?
Are these verses talking about a specific iron, king, man, wind, work of God, wise decision, wise man, human face, human being, name, simple man, house, wise woman etc?
According to these verses all 'wise women', 'irons', 'kings' 'men', 'winds', 'wise decisions' etc are one. They are talking about one kind, one iron, one wind etc
Why is this?
It's because we all understand what "man", "iron", "king", "wind", "god" is.
We all have a definition in mind. These verses are talking about that definition; they are talking about all the individual 'irons', 'winds', 'men', 'kings'. They are talking about the "kingship", the "what-makes-iron-to-be-iron-and-not-water", the "what-makes-man-to-be-man-and-not-donkey" etc
They presume that man is one, i.e. that human nature is one. That there is one king, i.e. all 'kings' share the same kingship, meaning that they are all equally 'kings'. No one is 'more king' than the other. There is no "who is a king" question for them? They all share the same kingship. Even if they rule different kingdoms. Just like the wind. There is no wind "more wind" than another wind. All 'winds' are windy with the same way.
This is what Aristotle calls "nature", or "essence.
This concept is accepted by the philosophers of the antiquity. For example, Socrates wants to find out what "virtue is", or what "bravery is". According to them, virtue is one, bravery is one.
OK, I am not going to bring those scrolls after all. Too lazy to search for ancient documents in my library. But I will sum up some of the sources that explain this attitude.
You have already what Gregory wrote to Ablabious. He says that it is wrong for us to say that "there are many men". It's only a custom, and it does not make sense. He asks the question, how can there be two men? One is either man or he is not. One is not more man than another. All 'men' are equally 'men', because there is one concept of "man". He says that this is only a custom, and that it is a wrong one.
St. Basil the Great affirms that this is the case.
St. Maximos the Confessor affirms that there is one man too.
They all show sources from the more-ancient-than-them documents. But it's not about documents. It is a universal idea, that things can be categorised using words to describe their similarities. This is why we call all rocks "rock". We recognise them, because we know what a rock is. We do not have in mind a specific rock. We just know what a rock is supposed to be like. Just like we know what man is.
Modern philosophers argue that this is not the correct way to describe things, but this has nothing to do with what we are talking about, because these ideas are new, and they were not accepted by the previous generations. So, we have to think like they did. This can't be that hard.
Throughout the centuries the universal church confessed that there is one divine nature and three divine persons. Do you think that the entire church has fallen astray and that YOU got it right?
From Athanasius to Aquinas, from Basil to Gregory the Palamas the church has confessed that there are three divine persons to be worshipped because they are of the same nature, co-eternal, omnipotent, omniscient, good, immaterial etc etc, worthy to be praised at all times.
This is what the "Word was with God" means, this is what Jesus revealed to us.
You are asking how can god proceed from god and how can god be generated from god. In the scriptures it is written that God created Adam from dust, that Eve was created from Adam's, and that Abel generated from Adam and Eve. Yet scripture accepts that they are all three of them human. Scripture does not question the humanity of Abel or Eve. Why should we question the divinity of the Son or the Spirit?
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Andreas1984 please calm a little bit down
Now on to business,
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
And you think that's because of the doctrine of the Trinity? If that were the case they would all be Unitarians, surely?
No, they would all be atheists.
I don't think this is solely due to the Trinity. We're just not all believers. But such a confusing and contradictory idea of God plays a part.
Funny that you say that Freddy, because the theological rediscovery of the trinity by Moltman et al. happened in response to protest atheism. This form of atheism was a rejection of a certain type of deist God constructed by the philosphers; an unmoving, rational deity who ultimately did not care for his creatures. This was addressed in the article I linked to previously. An interesting book which adresses this point is: "Theism, Atheism and the Doctrine of the Trinity: The Trinitarian Theologies of Karl Barth and Jurgen Moltmann in Response to Protest Atheism" (American Academy of Religion Academy Series) by W. Waite, Jr. Willis
This interesting article lists several possible reasons from an Orthodox perspective; among them are 1) fundamentalism and 2) PSA
"It turns out that the Greek iconographer and philosopher Photios Kontaglou was correct when he said that the Western Christian concept of God is a primary cause of atheism in the West. Perhaps more clearly, the novel Western doctrine of redemption called "atonement" (penal substitution) is the real culprit."
quote:
There is a definite relationship between the inner and outer parts of all things. There is a relationship between you and your "inner child" ( [Paranoid] ). By the Father loving the Son is meant that God as He exists in Himself beyond all human understanding wills that humanity be able to understand and love Him and so loves the means for that to happen.
Yes I speak about my inner child in metaphorical terms but I do not have true regular conversations with him, like Jesus apparently had with the Father
quote:
Trying to understand these things does not impoverish the faith. As long as they are incomprehensible they will never be believed.
The overtly rationalistic conception of god that emerged in theology after the enlightenment was perfectly comprehensible but ultimately led to atheism and bodhisattva-theology (importance of Mary and the saints and other intermediaries bacame more important as God became more "rational")
Christian doctrines such as those of Creation, Incarnation, and Trinity are “mysteries” that lie beyond our power to comprehend fully. However, we can love these mysteries. In addition, they cast light on the things of this world, they increase our understanding of God, our world, and ourselves. These mysteries illuminate those places that are otherwise murky and disconnected.
I cannot "explain" beauty and love in an overtly rationalistic manner, if I did they would become meaningless.
Re: your questions do point to a clear difference of understanding of some of the central terms here. However, I think this is becoming obvious for the readers of this debate already.
peaceheretic: I like Angelus Silesius as well!
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You have already what Gregory wrote to Ablabious. He says that it is wrong for us to say that "there are many men". It's only a custom, and it does not make sense. He asks the question, how can there be two men? One is either man or he is not.
OK. It's not a quote but I guess it is a rationale. I've just never heard it before.
It just sounds like you are saying that since there is only one MAN no matter how many men there are, then there is only one GOD no matter how many gods there are.
I can see that this is an argument, and I'm sure that it is persuasive to some. Thanks.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
This interesting article lists several possible reasons from an Orthodox perspective; among them are 1) fundamentalism and 2) PSA
"It turns out that the Greek iconographer and philosopher Photios Kontaglou was correct when he said that the Western Christian concept of God is a primary cause of atheism in the West. Perhaps more clearly, the novel Western doctrine of redemption called "atonement" (penal substitution) is the real culprit."
I love this. I'm on board with that idea. But surely it is a confluence of many factors.
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
quote:
There is a definite relationship between the inner and outer parts of all things. There is a relationship between you and your "inner child" ( [Paranoid] ). By the Father loving the Son is meant that God as He exists in Himself beyond all human understanding wills that humanity be able to understand and love Him and so loves the means for that to happen.
Yes I speak about my inner child in metaphorical terms but I do not have true regular conversations with him, like Jesus apparently had with the Father
I would say that there is a continual conversation going on between the inner you and the outer you, and for that matter, between you and God. The only difference is that Jesus was aware in ways that we seldom are. For Him it was overt and conscious.
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Christian doctrines such as those of Creation, Incarnation, and Trinity are “mysteries” that lie beyond our power to comprehend fully. However, we can love these mysteries....I cannot "explain" beauty and love in an overtly rationalistic manner, if I did they would become meaningless.
I don't disagree. It is one thing, however, to realize that there are certain poetic and beautiful mysteries to life where rational analysis is not fruitful. It is another to espouse contradictory and manifestly absurd ideas about the most basic realities of existence. The leap of faith is always required, but I wouldn't say that it is necessarily a leap into mystery. People don't really believe things that make no sense to them. Fortunately belief has a rationale in and of itself, and this is often enough.
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Re: your questions do point to a clear difference of understanding of some of the central terms here. However, I think this is becoming obvious for the readers of this debate already.
I think you are right.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
Oh dear, Babel has occurred and nobody is understanding what anyone is saying.
andreas1984: I also share Freddy's concerns.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
Oh dear, Babel has occurred and nobody is understanding what anyone is saying.
Si le dzifowo! Wo nko nuti nako! Wo fiadufe nava!
But it's better than trying to understand the LDS or JW concept of "God".
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
Bonaventura, there might be a difference in what we perceive as "mystery". To me, it is really mysterious, how God made the world; not the fact that He made it. Another mystery to me is what God really is; not the fact that He is. The existence of the Trinity, and the mode of the existence of the trinity are mysteries; not the fact that there are three divine persons.
There is this thread in Hell, about what orthodoxy has to offer.
Well, as far as the trinitarian debate is concerned, this is what we offer, and we offer it freely to anyone. We explain what is "mystery" and what can be explained, we worship three divine persons; not one. We worship one divine being; not three. We explain who the Cause of the Trinity is; we show who are they that are Caused by the Cause. We explain there is a difference in the way they are caused; we confess that the mode in which they are caused is a mystery.
This is the faith that the Apostles gave to the rest of us. We have kept that faith. We do not start from scratch. We know that Christ in both His natures is the Son of God. He is not the Son of His own Self. He is the Son of His Father. This we know. After confessing our faith, we can try to show why we believe what we believe. But the faith trusted to us by the Apostles of Christ is to be kept intact at all cases. It is not the object of a debate. It is taken fro granted. Explanations are made, but they are not required for the faith to be valid.
Freddy, I never admitted many 'men'. So, as far as I am concerned, I cannot be blamed for introducing the term many 'gods'. For me, there is only one god.
Freddy, there are other arguments as well in what one god means. But I don't think there is any point in starting this conversation here, because you seem to think in a way different than the apophatic one the orthodox church uses. I daresay that the orthodox theology is almost entirely built using the apophatic way of thinking and expressing things.
Bonaventura, what is it that concerns you too? I do not understand.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
you seem to think in a way different than the apophatic one the orthodox church uses. I daresay that the orthodox theology is almost entirely built using the apophatic way of thinking and expressing things.
Good point. It is hard to twist my brain around to apophatic thinking.
From wikipedia:
quote:
Adherents of apophatic theology hold that God, by definition, is that which is utterly beyond this universe and outside the bounds of what humans can understand. Rather than producing straightforward, positive assertions about the nature of God, it speaks by way of negation. Examples of statements made by those adhering to negative theology include:
One should not say that God exists in the usual sense of the term; nor should we say that God is nonexistent. We can only say that neither existence nor nonexistence applies to God.
I agree that this clearly changes the discussion!
[ 12. May 2005, 18:37: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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Bonaventura, thank you very much for the links you gave us. Really interesting stuff. Excellent reading and food for thought! Thank you very much indeed.
Freddy, orthodox theology is a living experience. When we put it in writing though, we use the apophatic way of thinking. Perhaps we could discuss on the ways this approach could benefit our dialogue.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
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This link could perhaps clear some of the confusion of Babel.
Freddy, I primarily see the differences here in choice of basic analogy.
"Historically, theologians have sought basic models in creation for understanding the Trinity. Essentially there are two kinds of models. The first is the nature of the human mind, the second the nature of human social relationships."
Now lets go back to:
[ 12. May 2005, 22:30: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
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Freddy I just have to ask;
From what little knowledge I have of Swedenborg, I recall that he was rather heavy into psychological analogies. I remember that he speculated on how the Tabernacle was a model of how God works in the human mind. Is this right?
Is this distinctive emphasis in Swedenborg also the background for your general approach in this debate?
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
People don't really believe things that make no sense to them.
I disagree. This is basically my relationship to quantum mechanics.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Bonaventura:
From what little knowledge I have of Swedenborg, I recall that he was rather heavy into psychological analogies. I remember that he speculated on how the Tabernacle was a model of how God works in the human mind. Is this right?
Is this distinctive emphasis in Swedenborg also the background for your general approach in this debate?
Yes and no.
Swedenborg is especially heavily into the idea that there is a consistent symbolism used throughout the Bible, which can be seen by noting how terms, numbers, places, and names are used repeatedly in different contexts. Holy things such as the tabernacle, temple, ark, bread and wine in the eucharist, etc. are holy because they stand for intrinsically holy things such as God, faith, love to God, love to the neighbor, and how this love operates and is created. So, yes, things like this are about how God works in the human mind.
This definitely contributes to my thoughts about the trinity being a metaphor that describes the relationship of the divine love, the divine truth, and the resulting divine activity, the visible and invisible God, and other conceptions of divinity.
But Swedenborg is even more heavily into the careful comparison of Scripture passages in order to see the consistent meanings of terms and the doctrines they teach.
So, no, my approach here is not so much about psychological analogies - although I do subscribe to the Augustinian psychological model of the trinity - as it is about forming a consistent picture of all Scripture passages relating to the trinity.
My interest here is questions such as whether Scripture supports the idea of a trinity of persons, whether it supports the idea that Jesus is in fact divine, and similar questions. It is interesting to me to see the Scriptural reasoning and understanding behind various positions.
The LDS and JW contributors seem to base their positions on certain definitions and translations of specific words, as well as ideas from extra-biblical revelations. The same is really true of all of us in one way or other. So we won't necessarily ever agree, but it is usually helpful to have our assumptions challenged. I know mine continue to be.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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I do not think that John M. Frame is right in what he says.
Firstly, the Cappadocians did not present their model as an analogy. They presented it is a perfectly logical explanation of what the trinity really means. They did not started from the human society of persons. They explained that there is one god in three persons; after having clarifying that they said that we already accept a "one nature in many substances" approach when we discuss about man. So, it's the other way around. They did not started from man and went to god. They started from god, explained what the church believes in, and then they said that this is not a new concept; we already do this for other things, this is what we should do.
As far as analogies are concerned, Augustine was the one that used them greatly in West. This does not mean that he was the first person to use analogies to explain the Trinity. Analogies were in use from the very beginning in the East, much earlier than Augustine's very birth. Most Eastern Fathers used them, from Origen, to Athanasious, and so on. Besides, the Cappadocians themselves used them. The Orthodox Church used them throughout the centuries. But they are just analogies. The Orthodox Church has always rejected that we can logically understand what the trinity means by using such analogies. In fact, the Orthodox Church has declared them to be heretical, if taken to the extreme. This is not the case however with the concept of one god in three persons, as explained by the Cappadocians. Besides, the Catechism of the RCC clearly subscribes to this view, by declaring that the Church believes that the three divine persons are confessed to be one god, because they are of the same nature.
There are many ways we can use to explain that the deity is one. However, I have persisted in the "one nature, three persons" explanation, because we can all understand (more or less) what nature is and what persons are. Even young children are familiar with these concepts. Everybody confesses a rock when seeing one. We don't give special names to every rock we see. They are all names rock because of the common nature they share in.
Freddy, if you have understood our point, i.e. that we believe that the one god subsists in three persons, we can continue our discussion further by either finding biblical support for this explanation, or by thinking on the other explanations the Church have used. Beware though, we have to dwell into apophatic theology.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Freddy, if you have understood our point, i.e. that we believe that the one god subsists in three persons, we can continue our discussion further by either finding biblical support for this explanation, or by thinking on the other explanations the Church have used. Beware though, we have to dwell into apophatic theology.
Who is "we"? And since when is apophatic theology the standard for discussions here?
Otherwise, sure, I understand your point about how one god can subsist in three persons.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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By "we" I was referring to those of us that believe in the "one god in three persons" formula.
As far as apophatic theology is concerned, it is the only way we can use to talk about god in a way that is accurate. I am not going to argue about this thesis. The church, throughout the centuries, has demonstrated in many ways that this is the case. We can say nothing about god. This is what we have learnt; His essence is ineffable. Thinking otherwise would be heretical.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
We can say nothing about god. This is what we have learnt; His essence is ineffable. Thinking otherwise would be heretical.
In that case, why not just agree with me that God is one in person and in essence, and that references to Father, Son and Holy Spirit make more sense as ways of describing God than as literal personages?
Since there is no way to adequately describe God, why take these things literally rather than metaphorically? Isn't this kind of literalism almost sure to be wrong?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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No, because saying that there are three divine persons, tells us nothing of "what" these persons are. We know they are divine, but we do not know what divine really means. OK, they can do everything, but this, in an apophatic way of thinking, only means that there i nothing they can't do. They know all things, which means that there is nothing that they are unaware of. They are everywhere; this means that there is not a specific place where we say that there only they are. We say they are darkness, meaning that they are not the light we see with our eyes. We say they are light, and we mean that they are not the darkness we see with our physical eyes. We say that they are eternal, which only means that there will not be a point at time when they will stop being. So, we know that there are three persons, but we don't know what these persons are. We call them divine; yet we cannot give a positive definition to what divinity is like. We can only say what they are not. I know they are not human, they are not rocks, they are not flowers; but what they are I do not know. In fact, I can only share in their energies; not their essence.
So, even though god is ineffable, we do know that god exists in three persons. We do know He exists; even if we cannot tell what this essence is like. If what you propose was to be done, i.e. to stop confessing three persons because this has to do with their nature (but this has nothing to do with their nature, with what they are, like I showed you earlier in this post), then we shouldn't confess either that god exist. But these things we confess, i.e. that god exists and that god exists in three persons, because these facts have nothing to do with god's nature.
The West has been led to different ways because people with different understandings of the Trinity lived there. Two different civilisations co-existed in Europe. The western way of life was driven by those that accepted only one divine person (mainly Arians, i.e. Jesus is a mere human). They conquered the orthodox West and did not let orthodoxy affect them. They created a different civilisation, a culture of the "new". This has not been the case for the East. The East has embraced the civilisation of the "kaino" and accessed the deity through addressing three divine persons. These two different world-views fought. The Byzantine Empire has fallen, and the western civilisation led to the humanitarian movements of Italy and the Enlightenment of France and Germany and England. This way of thinking has led to what we perceive today as "globalisation". The consequences of the loss of holiness are apparent to the scholars.
It seems that holiness, although really apparent and observable in the beginnings of our faith, has been decreasing throughout the centuries, and now it's almost near zero. The two different ways of life, their battle for prevalence, the new world they created, have certainly played a role in forming this situation.
But maybe this is another thread altogether.
It is really odd for the church, how you prefer to think that He is the Son of Himself, as if that could be possible. This sounds really impious and absurd. He said that He is not alone. You are saying that He is alone, instead of accepting what He said. The church does not say how things can be; it just formulates what the facts are. This is a revelation from God to mankind, that God is and that He is in three persons. The Son of God chose to reveal Himself to us. With reverence, we accept His revelation, and do not try to explain why and how this is. We do not come to the conclusion that God exists through rational arguments. We accept His revelation to us.
I will quote Ambrose and I will ask you again these questions, because I want to understand what you believe in. How can something that is caused be the cause of itself? And why did He say that He is not alone? You are saying that His humanity was not alone because there was His divinity. But the two natures indeed were separate from each other. They had nothing in common, for one is uncreated and the other created. The deity does not dwell a certain place; it's immaterial. So, His divinity was not in relation to His humanity, as if there were two different persons, one human and one divine. The same person was both human and divine. If He meant Himself, then He would be alone. That would make Him a liar. Jesus is not a liar. So, is He alone, like He said, or is He not? And what about before He assumed the human nature? For He didn't say that "on the cross I will not be alone", but He said that He is not alone, meaning that He is not alone at all times; even before time itself was created, He was not alone.
To quote C.S.Lewis, we say that God is love, and this is true. Whom did God love before the universe was created? Was God alone before time was created? Love is not something God gives to the people only. Love is essential for God. The fact that God loves essentially, should bring someone to the fact that there are more than one persons in the deity.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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Why we do not talk about three divine beings
There are three reasons that prevent orthodox christians from talking about three divine beings and compel us to use the term "person" instead.
Firstly, a being can be used as a synonym for essence. But we do not confess three divine essences. Therefore there is only one divine being. Another word to describe that reality could be "essence", or "nature".
Secondly, a being exists in itself. But the Son of God and the Spirit of God are caused by God. They do not exist by themselves. They need the Father and Cause of the Trinity to exist. Therefore, because there is one Cause in the Trinity, we confess one being. This is the doctrine of Monarchy. There is one God, because there is one Cause in the Trinity, the Father of the Son and Emmiter of the Holy Spirit.
Thirdly, apophatically speaking, we cannot say that "God is here" or "God is there". God cannot be found inside the creation. He is ontologically different than the creation, i.e. the creation is created, while God is uncreated. Therefore we cannot speak of many gods, as if one could be found here and another there. This is why we confess one God. There is one God, because there cannot be found many gods.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
I will ask you again these questions, because I want to understand what you believe in. How can something that is caused be the cause of itself? And why did He say that He is not alone? You are saying that His humanity was not alone because there was His divinity. But the two natures indeed were separate from each other. They had nothing in common, for one is uncreated and the other created. The deity does not dwell a certain place; it's immaterial. So, His divinity was not in relation to His humanity, as if there were two different persons, one human and one divine.
That is very observant, and I think that you have a good point.
The situation was like this, as I understand it.
Humanity in ancient times worshiped an invisible God. They had this God in their hearts and they worshiped Him intuitively. This is Adam and Eve in Eden. Over time, however, they estranged themselves from this God by an increasing focus on material things. This was leaving Eden.
God, however, gave the human race means to find their way back to Eden. These means were the truths of religion, which were gradually given over a long period of time, as people gained the means to understand, record and transmit them.
The ultimate means was that Jehovah Himself came to earth to teach us with His own mouth. The divine truth that He came to give us had always existed. Truth is the means by which all creation happened, as if God spoke and it was done, or as if God gave a form to all things. This was the Word with God that also was God.
The divine truth and the divine love can be said to be the same thing, since they are what God is. However, insofar as they can be distinguished, divine love always takes precedence, and so the truth, or the Word, can be said to be "begotten" from the divine love.
When He was born on earth in a human form, this human actually was separate from the Father. There was a long period of development as the human form was glorified from the divine within it, gradually becoming one with the Father. This is the reason for the language of Father and Son. This is why He constantly referred to doing His Father's will and fullfilling the prophecies. As He did the Father's will He became one with the Father. At the resurrection He was completely united with the Father, and this is why He then said "All power has been given to me in heaven and on earth."
So the Word became flesh and dwelt among us.
The point is for humanity to be able to see and understand God, to know what God commands, and to love and follow Him - thus causing his will to be done on earth as it is in heaven.
To me this is a good explanation. It seems to me to account for more Scriptures than other explanations. It also provides a hopeful picture of human progress as people come to know and obey their creator and savior - leading eventually to the New Jerusalem.
I realize that this is not the majority opinion. Still, it seems reasonable and Scriptural to me, without leaving gaps in the explanation.
I do understand and accept that a real understanding of divine things are beyond all human understanding. But surely there are levels of approach that don't leave us completely in the dark.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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This is how I see it.
Man became to exist out of an extremely slow process, called natural selection.
I don't have a clue what species we can call "man". It must be a Hominidae. Perhaps of the genus Homo. I am not sure though that he was a H. Sapiens.
So, first men were beings quite different than what we think. They lived in a hostile environment and I doubt they worshipped one God. The very question if they worshipped can be asked.
We created civilisations. We worshipped. We tried to solve crucial existential questions using religion. Until one people, the ancient Hebrews, understood that God was one in nature. Not that the other peoples did not interact with God. No, God gives His gifts to all people. But after the Jews understood that there is but one deity, things have changed.
You know the story from that point.
So, there was no Adam, no Eve, and no Fall. No Edem as well.
Yet God is constantly with His creation.
It's fanny that you use the "Word" analogy to show that God is one person. Throughout the centuries this analogy was used to show the Trinity of the persons. The Father speaks His Word. By speaking He breathes His Spirit and speaks His Word. The Father and the Air and the Word are different substances. So, if we think that all three of them are divine, and indeed we confess all three of them to be divine, we have to confess three divine substances.
How is it that you confess only one divine substance? I do not understand.
P.S. When you speak of a man that gradually becomes God's Word, you miss the entire point. You introduce two persons. One God and one man. You are saying that the two are separate, but they become one in the process. This is a version of Nestorianism. The man Jesus is not different that Jesus the God. There is only one "I". Not two. Besides, if John the Baptist was aware of who Christ was while he was in his mother's womb, would n't Christ Himself be aware that He is the true God?
The process of salvation is not always time-consuming. Remember the man at the right of Jesus's Cross? It took him only one moment to get saved.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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Andreas,
Very interesting thoughts about the process of creation and the evolution of man. I didn't realize that it was Orthodox to reject the idea of Adam, Eve and Eden. For myself, I accept these accounts as Divine Revelation, but see them as an ancient description of humanity's spiritual history, not a literal description.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
The Father and the Air and the Word are different substances. So, if we think that all three of them are divine, and indeed we confess all three of them to be divine, we have to confess three divine substances.
How is it that you confess only one divine substance? I do not understand.
I think that Scripture is very clear in many places that there is only one possible divine substance. "I am Jehovah and beside Me there is no God." It also makes sense logically that there can be only one omnipotence, omnipresence and omniscience.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
When you speak of a man that gradually becomes God's Word, you miss the entire point. You introduce two persons. One God and one man. You are saying that the two are separate, but they become one in the process. This is a version of Nestorianism. The man Jesus is not different that Jesus the God. There is only one "I". Not two. Besides, if John the Baptist was aware of who Christ was while he was in his mother's womb, would n't Christ Himself be aware that He is the true God?
This isn't Nestorianism. Jesus was divine from the beginning. The Father was within Him as the soul is within the body, as in Augustine's model of the trinity. Yes, Jesus was aware of this from the beginning of His consciousness. The process of the glorification of His human nature was like the process of human regeneration. By doing His Father's will He gradually became one with the Father.
quote:
John 5.19 "The Son can do nothing of Himself, but what He sees the Father do; for whatever He does, the Son also does in like manner. For the Father loves the Son, and shows Him all things that He Himself does; and He will show Him greater works than these, that you may marvel."
John 8.28 "When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and that I do nothing of Myself; but as My Father taught Me, I speak these things. And He who sent Me is with Me. The Father has not left Me alone, for I always do those things that please Him."
John 15.10 "If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love, just as I have kept My Father’s commandments and abide in His love... 15 No longer do I call you servants, for a servant does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I heard from My Father I have made known to you."
Jesus did the will of His Father, the Father was within Him, and He ascended to the Father. This is a description of the glorification of His human, not of the relationship between three equally divine persons.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
The process of salvation is not always time-consuming. Remember the man at the right of Jesus's Cross? It took him only one moment to get saved.
Yes, a person can repent quickly. However, we don't know what that man was truly like. Jesus did. The man's humble words indicate that he was repentant of whatever deeds he had done. Jesus was able to look into his heart and know whether or not he could be happy in heaven.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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Dear Freddy
Thinking that beings that have hardly any resemblance to what we now call "man" could possibly worship the one true deity is rather hard to accept.
There is only one divine essence, but three divine substances. The scripture is clear on that. There is the Father and Emiter of the Word and the Air He breathes. This analogy shows clearly that there are three divine substances. How can one accept there is a Word and not introduce two substances in the deity? If there is one substance, then there can be no Word of that substance. One and His Word are two different substances. Just like His Word and the Air He breathes are two different substances. So, by confessing a Word we must confess a substance different than the One that speaks that Word. By not confessing two substances you have no right using the term "Word", for you do not actually admit there is a Word or an Air. You think that the Word and the Air is the same person with Him that emits the Air and speaks the Word. But this is absurd.
The scripture clearly guide us to accept there are three substances by acknowledging the Father, His Word and His Breath.
Sure, there is one deity. But you keep changing the phrase "there is one god" to add "there is one divine person" while it says "there is one divine nature". You are changing the phrase's meaning. The phrase does not tell what you say it does. Can't you see it? One could interpret it to mean "one divine essence" AND NOT "one divine essence in one divine person" after having understood that there is a Word and a Breath.
A substance does not generate itself. Nor can it breathe itself. A substance's breath is another substance. A substance's word, is another substance.
P.S. Jesus was not glorified when He ascended to Heavens. He had been glorified by the Father from the very beginning. The Father confesses that He has glorified Him and that He will keep glorifying Him.
If Jesus was divine, then there was no need of regeneration. Clearly, since the Word and the Breath the Father breathes to speak His Word are brought forth simultaneously, Christ's regeneration is the same with His generation, because of the sanctifying Spirit that is aspirated when the Word is spoken. (The regeneration included the Spirit's sanctifying power.)
In your quotation it is written that the Father shows all things to the Son. If this is the case, and indeed it is, the Father has shown the Son the creation of the Universe, the formation of the stars and planets and so on. So, the Son had a relationship with the Father from the beginning, and not just when He became man. This quotation clearly shows that a substance different from the Father existed along with Him from the very beginning of time.
Your interpretation is not accurate, because it confuses natures with persons. Two different natures cannot have a relationship with each other. Two different persons can. To relate is something only persons, or substances, can do; not essences. You are confusing the terms here.
When the three divine persons speak, we are not to listen to three different voices. The interaction of the uncreated with the created is not the same with the interaction of the created with the created. By saying that since we have listened to one voice, there must be one person, you are severely damaging the concept of the Uncreated God. Orthodoxy has experienced the ontological difference of the Uncreated and the Created. You cannot just assume that there is no such different and that the Uncreated God interacts with the created world just like two created substances interact with each other. Even if there were one hundred divine beings, the voice Moses has heard would be only one, saying "Hear you Israel; your deity is one deity".
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
There is only one divine essence, but three divine substances. The scripture is clear on that. There is the Father and Emiter of the Word and the Air He breathes. This analogy shows clearly that there are three divine substances. How can one accept there is a Word and not introduce two substances in the deity?
I would not say that the Scriptures are clear that there are these different substances. They speak of Father, Spirit, Word, and use other terms as well. Every term does not indicate a substance. Why are bread, light, and living water not also substances? These are simply terms descriptive of God, what He does, and who He is. Taking these metaphors literally multiplies what can't be multiplied.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Sure, there is one deity. But you keep changing the phrase "there is one god" to add "there is one divine person" while it says "there is one divine nature". You are changing the phrase's meaning. The phrase does not tell what you say it does. Can't you see it? One could interpret it to mean "one divine essence" AND NOT "one divine essence in one divine person" after having understood that there is a Word and a Breath.
So what is the difference between and essence and a person? If there is one essence can there really be more than one person? The Word and the Breath are both simply God - the Word is His divine truth, the Breath is His divine life proceeding from Him.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
A substance does not generate itself. Nor can it breathe itself. A substance's breath is another substance. A substance's word, is another substance.
These are not other substances, they are qualities and actions of God. He breathes life into us, and He teaches us by means of His divine truth. The divine love is substance, the divine truth is form - the two are inseparable.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
P.S. Jesus was not glorified when He ascended to Heavens. He had been glorified by the Father from the very beginning. The Father confesses that He has glorified Him and that He will keep glorifying Him.
The word "glorify" is used in several contexts is the gospels. It can mean "praise" and other things, but Jesus often uses it to refer to the process of lifting up His human and uniting it with the Father. The essential divine truth, which is the Word, and which was together with God at the beginning was always glorified. But Jesus clearly speaks of a process of being united with His Father and lifted up:
quote:
John 7.37 - On the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, "If anyone thirsts, let him come to Me and drink. He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water." But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.
Jesus was in the process of being glorified. It took time and happened in time. He speaks of it as He approaches the crucifixion. It was only after this that He was fully glorified:
quote:
John 12.16 His disciples did not understand these things at first; but when Jesus was glorified, then they remembered that these things were written about Him and that they had done these things to Him.
That is, after He was crucified and raised up to His Father.
quote:
John 12.23 - Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, it remains alone; but if it dies, it produces much grain."
Jesus is saying that He is about to become fully glorified.
quote:
John 12.27 - "Now My soul is troubled, and what shall I say? ‘Father, save Me from this hour’? But for this purpose I came to this hour. 28“Father, glorify Your name.” Then a voice came from heaven, saying, “I have both glorified it and will glorify it again.”
Jesus, as the divine truth which is the Word, was always glorified. But He is to be glorified again in this world as to His human, which is to be lifted up spiritually. The meaning here is that God Himself is becoming visible in the world through what Jesus did.
quote:
John 13.30 Having received the piece of bread, Judas then went out immediately. And it was night. So, when he had gone out, Jesus said, “Now the Son of Man is glorified, and God is glorified in Him. If God is glorified in Him, God will also glorify Him in Himself, and glorify Him immediately."
That is, when Jesus is crucified He will be fully glorified. He will then be fully united with the Father, so that the Father is visible through Him. Jesus is then the face of God, or the visible God. The Lord God the Savior Jesus Christ is the one God of heaven and earth.
quote:
John 17.1 - "Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You, as You have given Him authority over all flesh, that He should give eternal life to as many as You have given Him. And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. I have glorified You on the earth. I have finished the work which You have given Me to do. And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.
The "work" that Jesus came to do was to overcome the power of evil, or the power of darkness, by bringing the light into the world, that is, His truth. This is what it means to make God visible. It was a process and not a momentary sacrifice. During the process the Father and the Son were still separate. When the process was complete the Son was glorified, and the Father was glorified in the Son. All power was then given to the Son because He is God as humanity can see and understand and love Him.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
If Jesus was divine, then there was no need of regeneration. Clearly, since the Word and the Breath the Father breathes to speak His Word are brought forth simultaneously, Christ's regeneration is the same with His generation, because of the sanctifying Spirit that is aspirated when the Word is spoken. (The regeneration included the Spirit's sanctifying power.)
There was not a need for regeneration. Jesus was Divine from birth. But there was a need for the process of glorification. Jesus had to teach, to endure conflicts with the devil and correspondingly with evil powers on earth and in the church. This could not happen instantly.
The whole process of the Incarnation was for the purpose of reuniting God with humanity. People had fallen into disorder because they obeyed the dictates of their senses rather than God. He therefore came down to make Himself visible to the senses, so that people by means of their sense could learn about, understand, obey and love Him. This way He brings humanity back into order, so far as people are willing to obey, and restores peace to the world.
So the imagery of Father, Son and Holy Spirit is a metaphor for the separations and distinctions necessary in this process. They shouldn't be taken literally as three persons in one God.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
The West has been led to different ways because people with different understandings of the Trinity lived there. Two different civilisations co-existed in Europe. The western way of life was driven by those that accepted only one divine person (mainly Arians, i.e. Jesus is a mere human). They conquered the orthodox West and did not let orthodoxy affect them.
Firstly, I do not think that Arians ever believed that Jesus is a mere human. Opinions seem to range from him being the greatest of the angels, to someone so high above the angels that one would not compare the two, yet still a created being.
Secondly, could you please provide some evidence for the ridiculous assertion that Arianism has been driving the West in spite of the historical dominance of the Catholic, Lutheran, Reformed and later various independent churches that confess the doctrine of the Holy Trinity?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
The West has been led to different ways because people with different understandings of the Trinity lived there. Two different civilisations co-existed in Europe. The western way of life was driven by those that accepted only one divine person (mainly Arians, i.e. Jesus is a mere human). They conquered the orthodox West and did not let orthodoxy affect them.
Firstly, I do not think that Arians ever believed that Jesus is a mere human. Opinions seem to range from him being the greatest of the angels, to someone so high above the angels that one would not compare the two, yet still a created being.
While I don't really understand Andreas' assertion, I do think that Arianism can be broadly characterized as a lack of belief in the divinity of Jesus. Catholic Encyclopedia on Arianism:
quote:
Using Greek terms, it denies that the Son is of one essence, nature, or substance with God; He is not consubstantial (homoousios) with the Father, and therefore not like Him, or equal in dignity, or co-eternal, or within the real sphere of Deity.
I agree that this is more complicated than just denying Christ's divinity, but this is what it amounts to.
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Secondly, could you please provide some evidence for the ridiculous assertion that Arianism has been driving the West in spite of the historical dominance of the Catholic, Lutheran, Reformed and later various independent churches that confess the doctrine of the Holy Trinity?
My view on this is that the long term result of Trinitarian doctrine has been to separate God and Jesus in the minds of the average Christian.
The effect, in my opinion, has been that the average person of Christian ancestry does not believe that Jesus is really divine. I think that polls confirm this. On this ship there is quite a bit of support for the idea that Joseph was Jesus' father. In my mind this confirms what Andreas is saying.
Posted by Bonaventura (# 5561) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
My view on this is that the long term result of Trinitarian doctrine has been to separate God and Jesus in the minds of the average Christian.
The effect, in my opinion, has been that the average person of Christian ancestry does not believe that Jesus is really divine. I think that polls confirm this. On this ship there is quite a bit of support for the idea that Joseph was Jesus' father. In my mind this confirms what Andreas is saying.
Perhaps you ought to blame the Jesus seminar™ instead?
[ 16. May 2005, 17:14: Message edited by: Bonaventura ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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You're probably right.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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The Word is not a metaphor. You cannot deny that BEFORE the world was created, the Word existed. But before the creation itself, no metaphors could exist. The Uncreated Word of God existed before the creation itself. This we know. But for something to exist, it has to have a substance. Therefore there are two substances in the deity.
Keep this in mind: for something to exist, it must have a substance. Therefore, if the Spirit exists, it has a substance. But if He is the Spirit of God, then His substance is different than God's substance. So, there are two substances, not one.
When the Word says that He is the Gate, this is clearly a metaphor. When He says that He will send the Spirit though, this is no metaphor; He really means it. Is He a liar for He sent no Spirit, if no Spirit exists? But if the Spirit exists, then it must subsist. It is a substance different from Him that sends Him. Let's assume that the Gate is also a substance. You are saying that if my thinking is correct, then, somehow, the Gate metaphor must be a substance as well. But the Gate is not a substance. Therefore metaphors can be used that indicate no different substance that the one person. Your argument is logically wrong. Let's think about the Gate having a substance. OK, it has a substance. But the Word does not say that the Gate is different from Him. He says "I am the Gate". Or "I am the Shepherd" or "I am the Way". Assuming that the Gate has a substance, or the Way has a substance, this substance is the same with the substance of the Word, because He said "I am this or that". But Jesus's Father never said that "I am Jesus". He said that "I am in Him and He is in me". Did Jesus say that He is His Father? De He say that the Spirit is His Father? Did the Father say "I am the holy spirit"?
So, your arguments are not logical.
Now we have talked this, can you see that you have made a mistake?
You are asking what the difference between an essence and a person is. I am a person. You are a person. We are two persons. But we are one essence. The human essence is one. Is the difference clear?
All rocks have the same essence. They are all rocks! But they subsist in different substances. So, one essence, different substances (or, for rational substances, we can use the term "persons").
You are saying that there can be forms without substances. This is something I hear for the first time in my life. Everything that exists, subsists. To exist, means to subsist in substances. It's the definition! How on earth can you think that God's love does not subsist? If it does not subsist, it does not exist!
For Christ's shake, I will make one more effort to convince you that there are three divine persons and not just one.
Please, bear with me and try to think hard on what I am saying.
You saying that God loves. I am asking you, does God really love? If he does, and I confess that He does, then His love exists. But another word for "exists" is "subsists". So, His love subsists in a substance. God's love is God's love; it is not God Himself. So, God loves, i.e. from Him comes something. That something is a substance. His love has a substance, else it could n't have existed. Is His love divine? Of course not. The scriptures do not teach that His love is divine. So, His love is not God. It is something different, but not God. Therefore there are two substances; God and His love. What about His Word? FOR THE SAME REASONS, His Word has to subsist. But the scriptures clearly show that His Word is divine. Therefore this other substance is divine. So, there are two divine substances. To make a long story short, if we think using the same arguments for the Spirit, we reach to the conclusion that there are three divine substances. because these substances are rational, we call them persons. So, there are three divine persons.
P.S. I do not comment on what you are saying about Jesus's glorification, because I want the thread to focus on the Trinity.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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andreas1984 said: quote:
God's love is God's love; it is not God Himself.
So what about 1 John 4:16? quote:
God is love; he who dwells in love is dwelling in God, and God in him.
Okay, I personally think that's a metaphor, but since we were pulling up the proof texts...
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
could you please provide some evidence for the ridiculous assertion that Arianism has been driving the West
I was mainly referring to the period from 410 AD to 476 AD. When Rome fell, the "winners" were Arians. The "losers" were orthodox. Now, for the winner to let himself be spiritually influenced by the loser, the winner has to have a great ethical height. For example, when Rome conquered Greece, the Greek civilisation prevailed over the Roman civilisation of that time, and another civilisation emerged (or, like the Latins said, "the barbarian Latios conquered Greece, but in fact, it was Greece that conquered Latios"). This is not, however, the case with the Fall of Rome. The new conquerors were not like Latios. The barbaric tribes did not accept the trinitarian orthodoxy in it's fullness. For everyone that is interested in understanding what played an extremely important role for the formation of today's West, read about what happened with the Fall of Rome. Who conquered whom, which different religions they confessed, what happened after the Fall of Rome, especially as far as THE PEOPLES are concerned. After inter-marriages, what do you think the leading culture was? The defeated orthodox or the conquering who-learnt-Christ-from-Arians non-orthodox one?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
andreas1984 said: quote:
God's love is God's love; it is not God Himself.
So what about 1 John 4:16? quote:
God is love; he who dwells in love is dwelling in God, and God in him.
Okay, I personally think that's a metaphor, but since we were pulling up the proof texts...
Lyda*Rose, God did not say "Hear ye Israel, Love is me". If He did, then Love would be a person. John was trying to explain that when we love we live in Christ. If love is literally God, then we can create God, because we can start loving, and we can destroy God, for we can stop loving. So, God would be defeated whenever we were wicked, for then we would have nothing to do with God; God would not exist for us. But God is everywhere, even in Hell. This is what the scriptures say.
So, even if God said that love is divine, it would have to be another divine person that God. And if God said that He is Love, then God's nature would be explained and named. But we have been taught that what God is cannot be named, and it cannot be explained.
John is only saying that when we love, God abides in us. When we hate, we are not doing God's will.
Besides, for God to love, there must be at least another person whom He will love. But before the world was created, whom did God love? God loved His Son and His Spirit.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Keep this in mind: for something to exist, it must have a substance. Therefore, if the Spirit exists, it has a substance. But if He is the Spirit of God, then His substance is different than God's substance. So, there are two substances, not one.
Things do not need substance to exist. If God is both divine truth and divine love, is He two different substances? These are attributes of God, not different substances. Love itself is a substance, but truth is the form of that substance, not a separate substance.
The Word is simply the divine truth. This was in the beginning with God, but it is not a substance.
But we are not looking at Scripture here. Do you have Scripture passages that illustrate what you mean about the three persons being different substance and not just metaphor?
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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Listen to what you are saying carefully. Truth us different from love. They are not the same thing. They are two different essences. Even if one of them was God, the other would not be God, or we would introduce polytheism. The two essences have to subsist is substances in order for them to exist!
Humanity is an essence. If there were no human person, then the human nature would not exist. The human nature exists because there are human persons. An essence cannot exist without a substance. This has to do with logic. If what you are saying is illogical, then it does not matter what the scriptures say. Illogical syllogisms have nothing to do with reality. And it is reality we are talking about here.
Every love subsists. It is not without substance. If it was without substance, then it would not exist. The same applies for the truths we speak. They subsist; else they would not exist. If the Word is the divine truth, then you have named that which cannot be named. You have explained that which cannot be explained, you have given form to that which has no form, you have limited the Unlimited. (because you are actually saying that the Word *IS* God's truth or love or whatever, while we use the term "Word" as a name for the person; we do not say that His nature is that of God's speech)
Truth in general is an essence. But for truth in general to exist, there must be specific truths. So, there must be substances in truth. Else, truth would not exist.
You are speaking of metaphors and so on. But you miss the whole point. For something to exist, it must subsist. All that is existent subsists. By claiming that the Word or the Spirit does not subsist, you confess that they do not exist, which is absurd. Besides, by claiming that the Word is divine, you already accept that He subsist (even though you say that His substance is the same as His Father's substance). But, in your last posts, you are arguing that the Word is different from God because it does not have a substance.
You are terribly confusing God with God's energies. Both God and His energies exist, but His energies are different than God Himself. Our conversation here cannot continue because you have stopped using logic for your arguments. Logos makes it clear that when something exists, it subsists. What you are saying does not make sense.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Besides, for God to love, there must be at least another person whom He will love. But before the world was created, whom did God love?
This is right. The whole nature of love is to love another. So this is the purpose of creation.
quote:
1 John 4:8 He who does not love does not know God, for God is love.
1 John 4:16 And we have known and believed the love that God has for us. God is love, and he who abides in love abides in God, and God in him.
I think that these do mean that love defines what God is, and vice-versa. This central Christian metaphor is accepted throughout Christianity.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
For something to exist, it must subsist. All that is existent subsists. By claiming that the Word or the Spirit does not subsist, you confess that they do not exist, which is absurd. Besides, by claiming that the Word is divine, you already accept that He subsist (even though you say that His substance is the same as His Father's substance). But, in your last posts, you are arguing that the Word is different from God because it does not have a substance.
I'm not saying anything complicated. The Word is the divine truth. That's all. No one thinks that truth is a substance.
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You are terribly confusing God with God's energies. Both God and His energies exist, but His energies are different than God Himself. Our conversation here cannot continue because you have stopped using logic for your arguments. Logos makes it clear that when something exists, it subsists. What you are saying does not make sense.
I realize that love is considered by the Orthodox to be an energy and not God's essence. This is not the Western view or my view.
But you can't say it's not logical just because it is different than your own theology. All Christian theology must be based on the Christian Scriptures. I'm not seeing how your view is substantiated by either Scripture or logic.
Still, I agree with your approach to Jesus' work and the path to salvation.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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No. This has nothing to do with what the church believed in.
Firstly, the creation is not created so tha God has something to love. If God loves, then God must love even BEFORE the creation got created. This is why the Father generated the Son and spirates the Spirit.
Secondly,love does not define God. It is one thing to say that love is god (idolatry) and another to say that God loves.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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In that case you worship idols; not God. For you worship the truth, while the Christians worship God. God's essence cannot be named or explained or limited. By saying that His essence is His love, you make Him a thing rather than a person. Your deity is impersonal. Even the person of the Father becomes a mere substance. This has nothing to do with the religions that stem from Abraham. To us, God is personal.
P.S. What you are saying is not logical not because you are not accepting the distinction between God's essence and energies, but because you say that something may exist without subsisting, which is ABSURD. This is refuted by logic itself. This is why I am saying that what you wrote is illogical. This has nothing to do with what the Western Christianity teaches. Read any RC Father you want. They all affirm that to exist, one has to subsist in something. This is plain Aristotelian logic. No "Eastern" novelty.
[ 16. May 2005, 19:25: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Firstly, the creation is not created so tha God has something to love. If God loves, then God must love even BEFORE the creation got created. This is why the Father generated the Son and spirates the Spirit.
There is no "before" creation. Time only came into existence with creation.
Love needs an object. The love between the divine persons is self-love, since there is only one God. Love is the purpose of creation, because it needs an object to love, make happy and be joined with.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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There can be no love between a person and an object. Love needs at least two persons. There are two subjects of love.
There is no "before" creation for the created; not for the Uncreated. For God there is no time or place. God exists in a different mode of existence than creation.
Did God love before creation? You say that He loved Himself. What kind of love is this? How strange and novel a concept for love! This is not what the experience of the church shows. We exist because we are in relation with others (in Zulu: Ubuntu). The same applies to God. The Uncreated Source generates the Son and becomes the Fountain for the Spirit. The three persons exist in relation to each other; they are because they are related to each other. There is no Father without a Son, nor there is an Emitter without a Spirit.
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on
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Andreas -- as a Host I am finding it a little difficult to relate each of your posts to the appropriate antecedent. This is making it very difficult to follow the lines of the discussion for me, and no doubt for anyone else who may be following htis.
This isn't a formal ruling, but a gentle request, to somehow reference the post to which you are referring when you are posting a series of responses. Better still, remember that there is a general feeling that double or triple posting is a problem, just because it causes this problem.
John Holding
Purgatory Host
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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I want to apologize to the readers. I'll do my best next time.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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Sorry. My fault as well.
Andreas, I appreciate your ideas here.
I'm wondering if it is generally accepted that the mutual love among the persons of the Trinity "before" creation fulfilled the requirement of love needing an object. I have heard this before, but am not aware if it is an official position.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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The Lord created me as the beginning of his way
the first of his acts of long ago.
Ages ago I was set up.
at the first, before the beginning of the earth.
When there were no depths I was brought forth,
when there were no springs abounding with water.
Before the mountains had been shaped,
before the hills, I was brought forth-
when he had not yet made earth and fields,
or the world's first bits of soil.
When he established the heavens, I was there,
when he drew a circle on the face of the deep,
when he made firm the skies above,
when he established the fountains of the deep,
when he assigned to the sea it's limit,
so that the waters might not transgress his command,
when he marked out the foundations of the earth,
then I was beside him, like a master worker (or a little child);
and I was daily his delight,
rejoicing before him always
rejoicing in his inhabiting world
and delighting in the human race.
Proverbs 8.22 - 8.31
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
and I was daily his delight,
rejoicing before him always
This does sound like the Son being loved by the Father at the beginning. So I see the point.
I think, however, that this is just as likely to be speaking metaphorically as literally about a divine person.
In fact if you look at the whole proverb it gives a different impression:
quote:
Proverbs 8.1 Does not wisdom cry out,
And understanding lift up her voice?
2 She takes her stand on the top of the high hill,
Beside the way, where the paths meet.
3 She cries out by the gates, at the entry of the city,
At the entrance of the doors:
4 “To you, O men, I call,
And my voice is to the sons of men.
...
12 “I, wisdom, dwell with prudence,
And find out knowledge and discretion.
13 The fear of the Lord is to hate evil;
Pride and arrogance and the evil way
And the perverse mouth I hate.
14 Counsel is mine, and sound wisdom;
I am understanding, I have strength.
15 By me kings reign,
And rulers decree justice.
16 By me princes rule, and nobles,
All the judges of the earth.
17 I love those who love me,
And those who seek me diligently will find me.
18 Riches and honor are with me,
Enduring riches and righteousness.
19 My fruit is better than gold, yes, than fine gold,
And my revenue than choice silver.
20 I traverse the way of righteousness,
In the midst of the paths of justice,
21 That I may cause those who love me to inherit wealth,
That I may fill their treasuries.
22“The Lord possessed me at the beginning of His way,
Before His works of old...
And it continues from there as you quoted.
This is about "wisdom" as a quality that always has existed with God, not "the Son" as a person who existed with Him.
As I see it, this is the same as "the Word" which was in the beginning with God. It is not a substance but a divine attribute, namely the divine truth, or, as here, wisdom itself. Not a substance, but a way of talking about the way that wisdom and prudence are eternal and come from God.
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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Truly, Wisdom has "cried out by the gates, at the entry of the city, At the entrance of the doors: 'To you, O men, I call, And my voice is to the sons of men.'" but the people did not listen to her (Jesus). This prophecy has been fulfilled by the Christ of God, when, at the entrance of Jerusalem, he asked for repentance. But the people did not repent.
Actually, the text you quote shows clearly that Wisdom is not an attribute; it is divine itself. She says that He is Lord (I, Wisdom... The fear of the Lord is... I hate...). So, Wisdom is Lord. It is not the same as the attribute of wisdom rational substances can show. In fact, Wisdom has wisdom. If She is an attribute like you are saying, then how can She say that "Counsel is mine, and sound wisdom;"? She says that wisdom is hers; that wisdom is Wisdom's. So, as an attribute, wisdom belongs to all three divine persons. But as a person, She exists in relation to the Father, for "The Lord possessed me at the beginning of His way, Before His works of old".
P.S. It might be interesting to read the Wisdom thread in the forum.
[ 17. May 2005, 11:34: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Actually, the text you quote shows clearly that Wisdom is not an attribute; it is divine itself. She says that He is Lord (I, Wisdom... The fear of the Lord is... I hate...). So, Wisdom is Lord.
I guess you can read it that way. She can be said to be Jesus.
I think that a more normal reading, however, would that wisdom is an eternal concept not a person. There is no problem, for example, that wisdom is usually pictured as female whereas Jesus was male. We all know that the thing itself that is being talked about is not gendered, and that the gender is just a way of picturing it (and it may also describe some deep and significant aspect of it.)
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on
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Actually, the deity has no gender; therefore we can call the deity using either male or female characteristics. So, Jesus in His deity He can be called a "she", just like God is depicted as a loving mother in Isaiah.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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Absolutely.
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