Thread: Kerygmania: The Biblical basis of traditional marriage Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
On another list, this topic came up, and this is my response:

The biblegateway Topical Index for polygamy is large.

The Old Testament nowhere clearly prohibits polygamy, although many of the examples are bad news:

Monogamy is required in the New Testament - for priests and deacons:
It's worth noting that the Jews _formally_ adopted monogamy by Rabbinic decree of Rabbenu Gershom in the 11th century CE - although practically long before.

Can anyone point me to solid Biblical authority for "traditional" universal monogamy?

[ 30. December 2006, 13:43: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Henry, while I don't think that there is any one passages that says "You must have one wife and one wife only," I do think that a number of passage imply this, in addition to the ones that you note.

In the Old Testament, Malachi comes out forcefully against divorce:
quote:
Malachi 2:14 The LORD has been witness Between you and the wife of your youth, with whom you have dealt treacherously; Yet she is your companion and your wife by covenant.
But did He not make them one, having a remnant of the Spirit? And why one? He seeks godly offspring. Therefore take heed to your spirit, and let none deal treacherously with the wife of his youth. 16 For the LORD God of Israel says that He hates divorce, for it covers one’s garment with violence,” Says the LORD of hosts.

Malachi does not specify monogamy, but the idea of being "made one" implies it. And what he is saying about divorce is quite different than what Moses said.

Jesus repeats Malachi's thoughts on divorce:
quote:
Matthew 5.31 “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.
This radically changes Moses' teaching about divorce. Does it imply that it is wrong to add a wife without divorce? Jesus takes up the topic again in Matthew 19:
quote:
Matthew 19.3 The Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?”
4 And He answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”
7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”
8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

There are two things here:
I would also add that in the New Testament there are no examples of men with more than one wife, unlike the OT. The repeated injunctions always assume one wife. Similarly, the divine imagery in places like Revelation speak of God being married to His church in a marriage-like reltionship:
quote:
Revelation 19:7 Let us be glad and rejoice and give Him glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and His wife has made herself ready.

Revelation 21.9 “Come, I will show you the bride, the Lamb’s wife.”

None of these examples are exactly definitive. Still, there hasn't been as much controversy on this point as you might expect. I think that people intuitively grasp that polygamy doesn't work that well when you really think about it - despite the obvious appeal for many men. [Disappointed]
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
ISTM that Jesus at least tacitly acknowledged the legitimacy of levirate marriages in his response to the Sadducees (e.g., Mark 12:18-27). I will readily grant that polygamy is no longer appropriate, but it is far from clear that it was dismissed by Christ.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
ISTM that Jesus at least tacitly acknowledged the legitimacy of levirate marriages in his response to the Sadducees (e.g., Mark 12:18-27). I will readily grant that polygamy is no longer appropriate, but it is far from clear that it was dismissed by Christ.

I'm not sure that levirate marriages were considered polygamy. The idea was for a man to impregnate his brother's widow so that his family line could be carried on. It was the duty of a surviving brother--not something that he simply wanted to do.

Moo
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I'm not sure that levirate marriages were considered polygamy. The idea was for a man to impregnate his brother's widow so that his family line could be carried on. It was the duty of a surviving brother--not something that he simply wanted to do.

I can't believe that you are suggesting that any marriage based on a sense of duty isn't a marriage. Is this really your point?

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
Actually, I think the question is whether or not the levirate marriage is your marriage, or a continuation by proxy of your brother's marriage.

[ 20. June 2006, 02:17: Message edited by: Henry Troup ]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.
 
Posted by Demas (# 24) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.

It didn't seem to suggest that to the old testament patriarchs...
 
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Demas:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.

It didn't seem to suggest that to the old testament patriarchs...
To be fair, the OT Patriarchs didn't have Genesis 2.

I know, you probably mean that the created order didn't seem to suggest "one man and one woman" to them, which is a good point.

I think marriage is a good case of our reading the way we do things back into the Bible. There's probably nothing like modern marriage in the Bible, if for no other reason than that gender was constructed differently in biblical cultures (which differed from each other as well). Social roles, status, and economics always factor into marriages in any culture.

A biblical basis for traditional marriage - or for any modification(s) to the tradition - can't be found by simply quoting verses. I think what we recognize in most of our churches as marriage can be drawn in principle from Scripture, but so could other arrangements. The discussion needs more than just Bible-quoting - it needs theological, philosophical, political, sociological, anthropological, and probably other types of -ological thinking as well.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:
I think marriage is a good case of our reading the way we do things back into the Bible. There's probably nothing like modern marriage in the Bible, if for no other reason than that gender was constructed differently in biblical cultures (which differed from each other as well). Social roles, status, and economics always factor into marriages in any culture.

Very true. I think, however, that the Bible is reasonably definite in praising sexual exclusivity and criticizing alternatives.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Henry Troup:
Actually, I think the question is whether or not the levirate marriage is your marriage, or a continuation by proxy of your brother's marriage.

That's how I see it.

Moo
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Demas:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.

It didn't seem to suggest that to the old testament patriarchs...
Though I would suggest that it did suggest itself to the recorders of the Patriarchal narratives. As HenryTroup pointed out in the OP - polygamy never seems to produce a happy home.
The first explicit example we have of polygamy is Lamech in the line of Cain!
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
The basis for monogamy lies in the Ten Commandments , which advocate fidelity only to One Person and honouring of one's father and mother, whilst explicitly prohibiting adultery and forbidding the coveting of a neighbour's wife.

It seems very clear to me.
But as Jesus the realist said:

quote:
“Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.

 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
The basis for monogamy lies in the Ten Commandments , which advocate fidelity only to One Person and honouring of one's father and mother, whilst explicitly prohibiting adultery and forbidding the coveting of a neighbour's wife.

It seems very clear to me.

Clear if you don't read them perhaps.
They prohibit sex with another person's husband or wife, and forbid men to covet other men's wives. How you get "fidelity only to One Person" from that baffles me, once again.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom

quote:
They prohibit sex with another person's husband or wife, and forbid men to covet other men's wives.
Does your reading infer that women are not forbidden from coveting other women's husbands ?


quote:
How you get "fidelity only to One Person" from that baffles me, once again.
I refer to fidelity to the One God, Who makes relationship with individuals in the community of His people, which is likened to marriage.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
SteveTom

quote:
They prohibit sex with another person's husband or wife, and forbid men to covet other men's wives.
Does your reading infer that women are not forbidden from coveting other women's husbands ?
It specifies wives, it doesn't specify husbands.


quote:
I refer to fidelity to the One God, Who makes relationship with individuals in the community of His people, which is likened to marriage.
So how exactly does worshipping one God make it "very clear" that a man should only have one wife?

[ 21. June 2006, 11:22: Message edited by: SteveTom ]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom

quote:
It specifies wives, it doesn't specify husbands.
This is a joke, isn't it ? [Ultra confused]

quote:
So how exactly does worshipping one God make it "very clear" that a man should only have one wife?
Are you seriously suggesting that the covenant/marriage relationship refers to a one-sided fidelity, and that on the part of women only ? [Ultra confused]
 
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
[QB] ...whilst explicitly prohibiting adultery and forbidding the coveting of a neighbour's wife.

...

However, adultery (for a man) is sex with a woman who is not [one of] your wives. (For me, the set is of cardinality one.)

And "coveting a neighbor's wife" says nothing about marrying both his daughters, and six others besides.

I hate to be post-modern here, but you're reading it through the eyes of someone raised in a monogamous culture, so you see the two as requiring monogamy.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
SteveTom

quote:
It specifies wives, it doesn't specify husbands.
This is a joke, isn't it ? [Ultra confused]
Good guess, but no, this is called logic.

Have another look at the commandment against coveting.
You see the word "wife"? That's where it specifies wives.
You see the word "husband"? No? That's not specifying husbands.

Thus the most basic level of comprehension tells you that the commandment specifies wives, and doesn't specify husbands.

quote:
quote:
So how exactly does worshipping one God make it "very clear" that a man should only have one wife?
Are you seriously suggesting that the covenant/marriage relationship refers to a one-sided fidelity, and that on the part of women only ? [Ultra confused]
What the hell are you talking about? How is that supposed to be an answer to my question?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
I can't help you, friend.

And get off my case.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
I hate to be post-modern here, but you're reading it through the eyes of someone raised in a monogamous culture, so you see the two as requiring monogamy.
Proabably.

But it has already been said - polygamy does not make for a happy home. Always assuming that is the objective, of course.
 
Posted by OliviaG (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
...
In the Old Testament, Malachi comes out forcefully against divorce:
quote:
Malachi 2:14 The LORD has been witness Between you and the wife of your youth, with whom you have dealt treacherously; Yet she is your companion and your wife by covenant.
But did He not make them one, having a remnant of the Spirit? And why one? He seeks godly offspring. Therefore take heed to your spirit, and let none deal treacherously with the wife of his youth. ...

Malachi does not specify monogamy, but the idea of being "made one" implies it. And what he is saying about divorce is quite different than what Moses said. ...
Being a cynic, when I see, "the wife of your youth," the first thing I think of is "How many other wives ya got?" Sort of like when I used to jokingly call my spouse "my first husband." There can be "rank" among women in a polygamous situation. The wife of your youth may be the mother of your first-born son, giving her a higher status in the household than the other wives, and entitling her to some additional consideration from you, her husband, to whom she has given an heir. (Obviously I mean the generic you!)

quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Does your reading infer that women are not forbidden from coveting other women's husbands ?

If it was thought that women's sexual desires were non-existent, or far weaker than men's desires, there might not have been a lot of female coveting going on, so it might not have been felt necessary to specify it explicitly. And depending on the organization of the society and the restrictions on women's activities, married women may not have often come into contact with the husbands of other women (except members of the extended family, and who covets a brother-in-law?).

And I too don't see anything in Exodus 20:14 or 17 that couldn't apply to polygamous marriages.

I'll now crawl back under the porch with the lil' dawgs. OliviaG
 
Posted by BroJames (# 9636) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:
I think marriage is a good case of our reading the way we do things back into the Bible. There's probably nothing like modern marriage in the Bible, if for no other reason than that gender was constructed differently in biblical cultures (which differed from each other as well). Social roles, status, and economics always factor into marriages in any culture.

Very true. I think, however, that the Bible is reasonably definite in praising sexual exclusivity and criticizing alternatives.
Not so in the OT IMHO. There is no criticism (e.g.) of Jacob for having more than one wife, nor of Elkanah. There is perh. implied criticism of Jacob's favouritism.

quote:
Originally posted by Henry Troup:
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
[QB] ...whilst explicitly prohibiting adultery and forbidding the coveting of a neighbour's wife.

...

However, adultery (for a man) is sex with a woman who is not [one of] your wives. (For me, the set is of cardinality one.)
In the OT adultery is sex with a woman who is someone else's wife. Sex with an unmarried and unbetrothed woman by a married man is not adultery.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
But it has already been said - polygamy does not make for a happy home. Always assuming that is the objective, of course.

Given the excessive divorce rate in our culture, it appears that monogamy doesn't make for a happy home, either.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
BroJames
quote:
Sex with an unmarried and unbetrothed woman by a married man is not adultery
Can you proof text this ?

tclune
quote:
Given the excessive divorce rate in our culture, it appears that monogamy doesn't make for a happy home, either.
Or perhaps people are naturally polygamous, but, wishing to apply some kind of 'spirituality' to relationships, they are engaging in serial monogamy, as an approximation of that mystical 'ideal'.... Who knows ?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
BroJames
quote:
There is no criticism (e.g.) of Jacob for having more than one wife, nor of Elkanah. There is perh. implied criticism of Jacob's favouritism.
Apologies for double-posting. [Hot and Hormonal]

This is an important point about God's apparent inaction.

I found my personal resolution of this parodoxical God in the song of Moses Deut 32 vs 26-27:

quote:
I said I would scatter them
and blot out their memory from mankind,

but I dreaded the taunt of the enemy, lest the adversary misunderstand and say,
'Our hand has triumphed;
the LORD has not done all this.'

Dunno about anyone else, but it works for me.....
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
But it has already been said - polygamy does not make for a happy home. Always assuming that is the objective, of course.

Really?

Then why was it so popular and "successful" in so many ancient (and not so ancient) cultures?

If polygamy always led to unhappiness, it would have quickly died out. Polygamy (like arranged marriages) is something our Western culture finds alien and distasteful, but that shouldn't prevent us from acknowledging that it has as much chance of leading to "happiness" as monogamy.

The PLAIN reading of the OT is that polygamy is perfectly acceptable. OT characters practised it with little or no criticism from the OT writers. What criticism that DOES exist is mainly to do with HOW polygamy was practised, rather than its actual existence.

Which - to bring us back to the OP - means that there is actually precious little "biblical basis" for traditional views on marriage.

That doesn't make such views wrong or invalid. It is just a helpful reminder that we don't get ALL our theology and morality from the Bible and that sometimes the Bible accepts things which we shouldn't actually accept.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
BroJames
quote:
Sex with an unmarried and unbetrothed woman by a married man is not adultery
Can you proof text this ?

The Catholic Encyclopedia (quite a good source for these kinds of things, BTW), says:

quote:
In the Mosaic Law, as in the old Roman Law, adultery meant only the carnal intercourse of a wife with a man who was not her lawful husband. The intercourse of a married man with a single woman was not accounted adultery, but fornication. The penal statute on the subject, in Lev., xx, 10, makes this clear: "If any man commit adultery with the wife of another and defile his neighbor's wife let them be put to death both the adulterer and the adulteress." (See also Deuteronomy 22:22) This was quite in keeping with the prevailing practice of polygamy among the Israelites
The text around the two references cited in the quote provide some supporting text. The facts as stated in the article are pretty widely recognized, and it is awkward to read much of the OT any other way. But I am not enough of a scholar to be able to cite a specific line that says, "sex with an unmarried and unpromised woman is not adultery." Nonetheless, since the penalty is called out as a fine for that, and stoning for adultery, it is very hard to maintain a coherent interpretation that treats adultery as applying to unattached women. I would also note that men don't seem to be subject to any penalty that I can find for having sex with a prostitute (assuming of course that she is a bad jewish woman, and not one of them dread ferriners), which I can only see as further indication that these proscriptions were more a matter of property rights of other men than some abstract concern about being upright sexually.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by OliviaG:
Being a cynic, when I see, "the wife of your youth," the first thing I think of is "How many other wives ya got?"

Not cynical at all. In a society where polygyny was common people would likely read Malachi as saying that when a man marries a second wife he must not divorce the first wife.

The vital thing is not where he puts his willy but that everyone is slotted in to an acceptable role in society as a member of a family. A divorced woman doesn't fit into the system, she sticks out.

Marrying a second wife is not neccessarily seen as infidelity to the first wife. And it could be seen as socially desirable because it mops up spare women who would otherwise be at a loose end.

Its a completely different attitude to sexual morality and family life from ours and sometimes it doesn't translate well. To make things more confusing the sexual morality and kinship structure of patriarchal times was very different from that of the period in which the OT was written down (or of Malachi) and they were different from NT times or the Church Fathers.

And even those can be hard to interpret. For example there is no consensus at all about 1 Corinthians 7.36-38 - is Paul talking about a man marrying his fiancee, or a father giving his daughter in marriage? No-one has been able to be definitive about that for 1500 years, but presumably it must have been completely obvious to the Corinthians.

Or the command that a bishop or deacon be the husband of one wife (literally "a one-woman man") in 1 Timothy 3 and itn Titus 1.

Timothy and Titus must have known what was meant. It must have been obvious to them. But its not any more. In various times and places this has been taken to mean that:


Not all mutually exclusive of course. The answer must have been obvious once upon a time, but it isn't now.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
Which - to bring us back to the OP - means that there is actually precious little "biblical basis" for traditional views on marriage.

Yes - at least so far as monogamy is concerned. Both OT and NT seem simply to reflect the expectations of their respective cultures, i.e. that polygamy is normative; and then that monogamy is normative. This is especially obvious when you compare the silence of the Bible on this to all it has to say about, e.g. divorce, and adultery. The ethics of polygamy is one where the Bible isn't a lot of use.

quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I can't help you, friend.

I'm pretty sure I didn't say anything that suggested I wished or expected you to.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom
quote:
I'm pretty sure I didn't say anything that suggested I wished or expected you to.

Well, I'm glad that's settled then.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Oscar the Grouch

quote:
Then why was it so popular and "successful" in so many ancient (and not so ancient) cultures?

If polygamy always led to unhappiness, it would have quickly died out.

Hang on a mo'.... [Ultra confused]

Are you suggesting that slavery or cannibalism have not died out, because they are popular modes of human behaviour ?

As I read the bible, God's purpose in revealing Himself to Israel was to wean His people away from 'natural' inclinations - which evidently included child sacrifice, idol worship and polygamy.

Unfortunately, as communities of believers have demostrated time and time again, we are not very adept at abandoning practises abhorrent to God; but highly skilled at justifying the necessity for such behaviour, within individual conscience.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
The PLAIN reading of the OT is that polygamy is perfectly acceptable. OT characters practised it with little or no criticism from the OT writers. What criticism that DOES exist is mainly to do with HOW polygamy was practised, rather than its actual existence.

Which - to bring us back to the OP - means that there is actually precious little "biblical basis" for traditional views on marriage.

Only if the NT isn't part of the Bible.
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Oscar the Grouch

quote:
Then why was it so popular and "successful" in so many ancient (and not so ancient) cultures?

If polygamy always led to unhappiness, it would have quickly died out.

Hang on a mo'.... [Ultra confused]

Are you suggesting that slavery or cannibalism have not died out, because they are popular modes of human behaviour ?

As I read the bible, God's purpose in revealing Himself to Israel was to wean His people away from 'natural' inclinations - which evidently included child sacrifice, idol worship and polygamy.

First of all, you were the one arguing that polygamy was self-evidently wrong because polygamy does not make for a happy home. All I am doing is pointing out that this is not true and that the Bible does not actually condemn polygamy. So your bits about child sacrifice, idols etc are rather irrelevent to the point in hand.

Slavery is an interesting case to look at, though. The Bible never condemns slavery and indeed seems to condone it. Once again - like polygamy - we have reached the conclusion that slavery is wrong - but we shouldn't think for a moment that this is in response to a clear biblical instruction.

quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Unfortunately, as communities of believers have demostrated time and time again, we are not very adept at abandoning practises abhorrent to God; but highly skilled at justifying the necessity for such behaviour, within individual conscience.

But the problem is that you have assumed that it is self-evident that polygamy (and slavery) are "abhorrent to God". Yet the bible doesn't say so and in fact the merest glance at history will tell you that these practices do not have to be "abhorrent".

Although I would reject all forms of slavery, it is important to acknowledge that some forms of ancient slavery were relatively benign and gave slaves a degree of security and prosperity that would have been impossible to gain otherwise. In fact, I would say that some of our present day employment practices result in people being WORSE off than if they had been slaves in some ancient cultures.

The point here is that we reach decisions about the morality of slavery and polygamy using SOME biblical foundations but mainly through using our own (God-given and inspired) reason and moral sense.

(Which is bad news for conservative evangelicals and good news for liberals - but that is another argument!)
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
The PLAIN reading of the OT is that polygamy is perfectly acceptable. OT characters practised it with little or no criticism from the OT writers. What criticism that DOES exist is mainly to do with HOW polygamy was practised, rather than its actual existence.

Which - to bring us back to the OP - means that there is actually precious little "biblical basis" for traditional views on marriage.

Only if the NT isn't part of the Bible.
Even in the NT, views about marriage are (on the whole) assumed rather than spelled out.

1 Timothy 3:2 & 12 and Titus 1:6 seem to indicate that monogamy was only required for church leaders. Nowhere do I see it made clear beyond all doubt that monogamy is God's only way for believers.

(I happen to think it is - but that you don't reach that conclusion solely from the Bible)
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
OscartheGrouch

quote:
But the problem is that you have assumed that it is self-evident that polygamy (and slavery) are "abhorrent to God". Yet the bible doesn't say so and in fact the merest glance at history will tell you that these practices do not have to be "abhorrent".
On balance, this is correct, being based on the premise that any code of conduct may be applied in a manner which is either beneficial or detrimental to others, depending on individual circumstances. Lawyers grow rich as a direct result. I agree that wage slavery is probably as malign as outright ownership of people - however this takes no account of the value of human freedom, which becomes priceless upon deprival.

My own approach is derived from placing unqualified trust in a God, Who was prepared to overlook David's polygamy AND adultery, and to find in his favour because of an unequivocal fidelity to God.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
Which - to bring us back to the OP - means that there is actually precious little "biblical basis" for traditional views on marriage.

Only if the NT isn't part of the Bible.
Exhaustive working through of the relevant issues...

Bearing in mind that we're talking about monogamy and polygamy here, are you really saying you find instructions against the latter in the NT? I don't see any.
 
Posted by les@BALM (# 11237) on :
 
My own take is that the modern day practice of marriage is based more on cultural custom and tradition rather than Biblical pronouncements.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
As I read the bible, God's purpose in revealing Himself to Israel was to wean His people away from 'natural' inclinations - which evidently included child sacrifice, idol worship and polygamy.

This is sensible enough, prima facie, but it doesn't stand up to examining the actual content of the Bible. Why if God's purpose was to wean his people off polygamy (as off child sacrifice and idol worship) did he not tell them it was wrong (as he did so emphatically with child sacrifice and idol worship)?

quote:
Unfortunately, as communities of believers have demostrated time and time again, we are not very adept at abandoning practises abhorrent to God; but highly skilled at justifying the necessity for such behaviour, within individual conscience.
But it's the Law of Moses, not just individual conscience, which justified polygamy to the people of Israel.

quote:
My own approach is derived from placing unqualified trust in a God, Who was prepared to overlook David's polygamy AND adultery, and to find in his favour because of an unequivocal fidelity to God.
That's a bit twisted, isn't it? Sin doesn't matter if you're religious enough?

And unequivocal fidelity to God being compatible with a lifestyle that is abhorrent to God? That's just nuts.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
My own approach is derived from placing unqualified trust in a God, Who was prepared to overlook David's polygamy AND adultery, and to find in his favour because of an unequivocal fidelity to God.
That's a bit twisted, isn't it? Sin doesn't matter if you're religious enough?

And unequivocal fidelity to God being compatible with a lifestyle that is abhorrent to God? That's just nuts.

First, let me say how much I enjoy your posts. They are generally thoughtful, educational, and entertaining -- quite a hat trick!

But this particular comment seems a bit too dismissive. David is a hard nut to crack. He was massively flawed and yet, according to scripture and tradition, unusually favored by God. It's pretty hard to understand why. Noelper's idea that it was because of David's unwavering fidelity to God doesn't quite ring true to me -- I'm not quite sure what it means to be faithful to God while stealing another man's wife, for example. But I don't really have an alternative understanding that makes sense out of what God saw in David that He didn't see in, say, the people of Sodom and Gomorrah. So, is it Noelper that is nuts here, or is it God?

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
tomclune
quote:
I'm not quite sure what it means to be faithful to God while stealing another man's wife, for example.
The adultery was blotted out through David's repentance (Ps 51). Was God wrong to have done so ?

quote:
So, is it Noelper that is nuts here, or is it God?
In the light of the above, both, actually. [Two face]
 
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
... Noelper's idea that it was because of David's unwavering fidelity to God doesn't quite ring true to me -- I'm not quite sure what it means to be faithful to God while stealing another man's wife, for example.

David, when the prophet rubs his nose in it, confesses his sin and takes his punishment, which is certainly in his favor. But, it's the adultery and murder that he confesses to, the polygamy is not an issue.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom

quote:
But it's the Law of Moses, not just individual conscience, which justified polygamy to the people of Israel.
Sorry, don't geddit.
I have shown my own interpretation, which I hold equally as valid as any other presented here.

quote:
Sin doesn't matter if you're religious enough?
You confuse fidelity with religiosity. Big difference.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I have shown my own interpretation, which I hold equally as valid as any other presented here.

You have remeinded us that the old Law forbade adultery and coveting someone else's wife. And that children were commanded to honour their father and mother.

That says nothing at all about polygyny, which is clearly at least tolerated by the Law, as is divorce.

It also says nothing at all about sex between consenting unmarried adults - which is against the tradition of both Judaism and Christianity but not explicitly condemned anywhere in the Bible as far as i can see.

That doesn't mean that the priests or the scribes or the rabbis or the apostles would have approved of it. I'm pretty sure that all or almost all of them would have strongly disapproved. But they never bothered to put it in the Bible. Maybe they assumed it was too obvious to be worth saying. But its not in the Bible.
 
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
SteveTom

quote:
But it's the Law of Moses, not just individual conscience, which justified polygamy to the people of Israel.
Sorry, don't geddit.
I have shown my own interpretation, which I hold equally as valid as any other presented here....

There's very little to interpret. From the OP:

quote:
Exodus 21:10 says:

10 If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.

It doesn't say "don't marry another woman".
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
tomclune
quote:
I'm not quite sure what it means to be faithful to God while stealing another man's wife, for example.
The adultery was blotted out through David's repentance (Ps 51). Was God wrong to have done so ?

My point was not that God should not forgive, but that David was not being faithful to God's dictates. If I were to cheat on my wife, she might forgive me. But that would not mean that I had been unwaveringly faithful.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Niënna (# 4652) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.

Backing up for a second, I think this is a pretty good argument.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
les@balm
quote:
My own take is that the modern day practice of marriage is based more on cultural custom and tradition rather than Biblical pronouncements.
ken's 12 variations of interpretation suggests that there is a significant element of de rigeur thinking concerning the marriage relationship.

ken
quote:
It also says nothing at all about sex between consenting unmarried adults...
quote:


I fully agree. This omission invalidates the quasi-church view of such sex, too often linked with the happily ever-after image of monogamy, which (we are all aware) is a chocolate-box representation of a rite-of-passage which might only achieve sacramental status, after many tears.

Henry Troup
quote:
But, it's the adultery and murder that he confesses to, the polygamy is not an issue.
King Solomon's polygamy, servicing 1000 wives and concubines [Big Grin] , is unequivocally blamed as the eventual cause of Israel's inexorable decline.

Originally posted by Henry Troup:
Originally posted by noelper:
SteveTom

quote:
But it's the Law of Moses, not just individual conscience, which justified polygamy to the people of Israel.
Sorry, don't geddit.
I have shown my own interpretation, which I hold equally as valid as any other presented here....

There's very little to interpret. From the OP:

quote:
Exodus 21:10 says:

10 If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.

It doesn't say "don't marry another woman".

What on earth do you mean ???

In context, EX 21:10 refers to the son of a slave trader, who decides to cast off his slave-wife and marry someone else; in which event the slave must be granted her freedom.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
King Solomon's polygamy, servicing 1000 wives and concubines [Big Grin] , is unequivocally blamed as the eventual cause of Israel's inexorable decline.

It's had to believe that we're reading the same passage. The problem was that King Solomon had married foreign wives, who turned him away from God. The sheer number of them may have added to the distraction, but the OT is always more alarmed at marrying goyem than at polygamy. Marrying many non-jews is just proof that you are persistent in your apostacy.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
SteveTom

quote:
But it's the Law of Moses, not just individual conscience, which justified polygamy to the people of Israel.
Sorry, don't geddit.
I have shown my own interpretation, which I hold equally as valid as any other presented here.

"Valid"? In what sense?
If you mean justified by the evidence, it's obvious to everyone apart from you that it isn't.

The evidence is:
1. The Law of Moses explicitly accepts polygamy:

quote:
Deuteronomy 21:15-16
If a man has two wives..., he is not permitted to treat the son of the loved as the firstborn in preference to the son of the disliked, who is the firstborn.

2. And it nowhere condemns polygamy.

3. It condemns polytheism.

The interpretation of this that you offered is that the Law of Moses gives "very clear" teaching that only monogamy is acceptable to God.

It is simply impossible for anyone to see this interpretation as justified by the evidence.

quote:
King Solomon's polygamy, servicing 1000 wives and concubines, is unequivocally blamed as the eventual cause of Israel's inexorable decline.
Which, of course, is beside the point. Condemning a king for having a thousand wives is not the same thing as saying that no man may have more than one wife. Deuteronomy says the king "must not acquire many horses for himself", but that's hardly a universal ban on horseriding, is it?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
I agree that the dividing line between polygamy and apostasy is blurred, but perhaps that is the point of the story. That is, would a harem of 1000 Jewesses have yielded a different result ?

When Paul in the NT argues against marriage (presumably monogamous ?) as a distraction from the Lord, how much more of a distraction would be 1000 'loves' ?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom

quote:
"Valid"? In what sense?
If you mean justified by the evidence, it's obvious to everyone apart from you that it isn't.

Valid to me as compared with your opinion, for example. This also reflects the basis of my faith, and takes no account of majority opinion.

If you don't like my conclusions, simply move on and allow me the right to be wrong, for goodness sake. [Roll Eyes]
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
First, let me say how much I enjoy your posts. They are generally thoughtful, educational, and entertaining -- quite a hat trick!

But this particular comment seems a bit too dismissive.

Generously and moderately put.

It's an interesting question, David 'n' God, but perhaps rather a diversion on a thread about polygamy which seems to have plenty of steam still. A new thread might be in order.

quote:
So, is it Noelper that is nuts here, or is it God?
You appreciate of course that I applied the words "twisted" and "nuts" to the ideas expressed in Noelper's posts, and that therefore any impressions you may have about my opinions of any person or persons here present are matters of conjecture, or at best inference, and are not based on information that I have either stated or implied.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom

quote:
You appreciate of course that I applied the words "twisted" and "nuts" to the ideas expressed in Noelper's posts, and that therefore any impressions you may have about my opinions of any person or persons here present are matters of conjecture, or at best inference, and are not based on information that I have either stated or implied.
Yeah, right. [Snore]
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
SteveTom

quote:
"Valid"? In what sense?
If you mean justified by the evidence, it's obvious to everyone apart from you that it isn't.

Valid to me as compared with your opinion, for example.
That is not a sense of the word "valid".

quote:
If you don't like my conclusions, simply move on and allow me the right to be wrong, for goodness sake. [Roll Eyes]
No one is trying to take away your rights or your opinions; but if you are going to write and defend obviously incoherent, illogical and objectionable rubbish in a forum for intelligent debate, your views are going to be challenged.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
SteveTom, out of interest, when are you going to challenge Henry Troup's incoherent illogical and objectionable rubbish ?
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Hosting

Steve and noelper take it to Hell, enough with the inferences and the blizzard of emoticons. This thread returns to biblical based argument or it gets closed. Purg for theology, Hell for "issues."

Pyx_e, Kerygmania Host

Hosting
 
Posted by OliviaG (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Niënna:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.

Backing up for a second, I think this is a pretty good argument.
So what happened between Genesis 2 and Genesis 4:19? A few generations go by, and, for no apparent reason, Lamech decides to take two wives. OliviaG
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
There is an existing thread dealing with the question of why God liked David.

Moo
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by OliviaG:
quote:
Originally posted by Niënna:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
In addition to the other passages listed Genesis 2 suggests that the created order was for one man and one woman.

Backing up for a second, I think this is a pretty good argument.
So what happened between Genesis 2 and Genesis 4:19? A few generations go by, and, for no apparent reason, Lamech decides to take two wives. OliviaG
I think Genesis 3 happened. It may be worth noting that one of the explicit consequences of the "Fall"™ is that the marriage relationship is cursed.
Lamech is then, of course, in the line of Cain.

ps thank you Niënna, great minds think alike [Biased]

[ 22. June 2006, 23:04: Message edited by: Anselm ]
 
Posted by OliviaG (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
I think Genesis 3 happened. It may be worth noting that one of the explicit consequences of the "Fall"™ is that the marriage relationship is cursed.
Lamech is then, of course, in the line of Cain.

Yes, I thought of that too. Is the line of Cain thought to have perished in the Flood? There doesn't seem to be any mention of multiple wives down the line from Seth to Noah, or in the listing of Noah's descendants. The next polygamist is Abraham, no? OliviaG
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
Bearing in mind that we're talking about monogamy and polygamy here, are you really saying you find instructions against the latter in the NT? I don't see any.

"An overseer must be the husband of one wife...."

What do you think this means?
 
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
..."An overseer must be the husband of one wife...."

What do you think this means?

And as the OP says, the same is repeated for the three-fold orders of ministry. There is nothing that clearly makes this binding on all Christian men.

I think one can go a fair ways with those NT passages - they make it clear that monogamy is the most clearly moral form of marriage. But they don't cross the line into prohibiting other arrangements for everyone.
 
Posted by MSHB (# 9228) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Henry Troup:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
..."An overseer must be the husband of one wife...."

What do you think this means?

I think one can go a fair ways with those NT passages - they make it clear that monogamy is the most clearly moral form of marriage. But they don't cross the line into prohibiting other arrangements for everyone.
Or ... being an "overseer" (sounds like foreman at the slave farm) is so taxing a job, you wouldn't want it AND the responsibilities of more than one spouse. Bit like Paul and his "better to be single in the current situation" remarks in 1 Cor.

Not more moral, just more practical in some situations. (Playing devil's advocate here).
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
"An overseer must be the husband of one wife...."

What do you think this means?

The same as you, I imagine. But it's a qualification for a job, isn't it? The same passage (1 Tim 3:1-7) also lists being above reproach, respectable, a good teacher, gentle, a good household-manager, a father of submissive children, a longstanding believer, and well respected by non-Christians.

It's not clear these qualifications for episcopal office are the moral standard for all Christian life.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
It's not clear these qualifications for episcopal office are the moral standard for all Christian life.

So the conclusion I am getting from this thread is that while there is something of a biblical basis for monogamy, it is not nearly as clear and definitive as you might expect.

Nevertheless, Christianity has never especially struggled with this issue. There are not factions of Christianity that practice polygamy, except perhaps some old-style Mormons.

I doubt that any of us wonder whether monogamous marriages are the only acceptable form of Christian marriage.

Maybe this joins other topics, like slavery, where the biblical evidence could be seen as ambiguous, yet which spark little debate among modern Christians.
 
Posted by TomOfTarsus (# 3053) on :
 
It seems ol' Solomon struck out - three strikes, to be exact, in Deut. 17:14-17. There it is explcitly stated that the king shall not multiply horses, wives, or silver & gold to himself.

Inasmuch as I can't imagine that the Lord is saying "no more than one horse," and the silver & gold limits are unspecified as well, I don't know that this is a forbidding of polygamy, but one has to wonder where you'd draw the line in attempting to obey this directive.

But could we gain from looking at this passage in detail, perhaps try to tie it all together or cross-reference it?

Blessings,

Tom
 
Posted by Grits (# 4169) on :
 
I've attempted to read through the thread as thoroughly as possible, and I don't think I saw any mention of the legal aspects involved. I know the OP asked for biblical authority concerning monogamy, but I would suggest that living in a country where polygamy was illegal would be sufficient reason to avoid it. I feel that part of being a Christian is being a good citizen by not breaking the law.
 
Posted by OliviaG (# 9881) on :
 
Going back to Abraham and Genesis:

Genesis 15:
quote:
4 Then the word of the LORD came to him: "This man will not be your heir, but a son coming from your own body will be your heir." 5 He took him outside and said, "Look up at the heavens and count the stars—if indeed you can count them." Then he said to him, "So shall your offspring be."

6 Abram believed the LORD, and he credited it to him as righteousness.

Genesis 16:
quote:
1 Now Sarai, Abram's wife, had borne him no children. But she had an Egyptian maidservant named Hagar; 2 so she said to Abram, "The LORD has kept me from having children. Go, sleep with my maidservant; perhaps I can build a family through her."
Abram agreed to what Sarai said.

I'd like to compare that with Mary's response in Luke 1:
quote:
34Then said Mary unto the angel, "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"
...
36 [Angel]"And behold, thy cousin Elizabeth: she hath also conceived a son in her old age, and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren. 37 For with God nothing shall be impossible."

38And Mary said, "Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word." And the angel departed from her.

So when presented with what appears to be a reproductive impossibility, Mary accepts that God can and will make it happen. Abraham and Sarah seem to feel that they have to take matters into their own hands (so to speak) to make God's promise come true.

In this case, I think one might be able to say that Abraham was unwilling to trust God completely, and that led him to choose polygamy. (The rest is history.) And somewhere out there, there's a non-Biblical aphorism that says something like "If you can't be happy with one _____, you'll be miserable with two." But I can't think of it right now. Cheers, OliviaG

Edited to clarify quotes

[ 23. June 2006, 21:49: Message edited by: OliviaG ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I have shown my own interpretation, which I hold equally as valid as any other presented here.

"Valid"? In what sense?
If you mean justified by the evidence, it's obvious to everyone apart from you that it isn't.

The evidence is:
1. The Law of Moses explicitly accepts polygamy:
quote:
Deuteronomy 21:15-16
If a man has two wives..., he is not permitted to treat the son of the loved as the firstborn in preference to the son of the disliked, who is the firstborn.

2. And it nowhere condemns polygamy.

3. It condemns polytheism.

Steve, I'm going back to this because I think that there is more evidence than this. I gave quite a bit in the second post above. Others have added more. Admittedly the passages are not direct and conclusive, but I don't think that it is fair to say that there is no evidence.

I would summarize the points this way:
While these are not especially powerful arguments or evidence, the idea of monogamy has been universally endorsed in Christian countries for a very long time. It has been seen as a Christian teaching. It has been accepted as a matter of principle to the point that polygamy is illegal in many countries. It may just be due to the confirmation of pre-existing accepted practices, but that doesn't seem to explain it fully.

I would compare it to the topic of slavery. You can make a biblical case against slavery. It is not a very clear cut case. There are many passages that support it and others that assume slavery without criticism. But I'm sure we would agree that the Bible, taken as a whole, does not actually support slavery.

So it is not obvious to me that monogamy is not justified by the biblical evidence. Christians have accepted it for centuries as a biblical concept, with little debate. It is not the best case in the world, certainly, but I don't think that there is anything invalid about accepting it.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Maybe this joins other topics, like slavery, where the biblical evidence could be seen as ambiguous, yet which spark little debate among modern Christians.

But I imagine it's rather less of an academic question if someone from a polygamous Islamic country converts to Christianity, especially if they are already in a polygamous marriage. Then again in those kinds of countries I would guess you have a lot to worry about if you're going to convert to Christianity.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
The evidence is:
1. The Law of Moses explicitly accepts polygamy:

2. And it nowhere condemns polygamy.

3. It condemns polytheism.

Steve, I'm going back to this because I think that there is more evidence than this. I gave quite a bit in the second post above. Others have added more. Admittedly the passages are not direct and conclusive, but I don't think that it is fair to say that there is no evidence.
I should point out that the discussion you quote was specifically about the law of Moses and not the whole Bible, so what you go on to say is mostly beside that particular point. I don't think there can be any reasonable case made for the Law of Moses in itself clearly condemning polygamy.

But your argument as a whole is a good one.

quote:
The creation account appears to present the marriage of one man and one woman as ideal.
Yes, it does. But how prescriptive can we be about that ideal? It also presents vegetarianism, veganism in fact, as ideal. Does 1-2 Genesis frown on celibacy, singleness and homosexuality as well as on polygamy?

quote:
Jesus appears to reinforce this idea in Matthew 19.
He does. But then his point is the permanence of marriage, not its exclusivity. And if he's talking about divorce within a monogamous culture, then he would talk about divorce between one man and one woman, wouldn't he?

quote:
The injunctions against adultery and divorce can be seen as implying the sacredness of sex with only one partner.
Hm. Or not.

quote:
The permission of polygamy to the Israelites can be seen as similar to their permission to divorce - being due to the "hardness of their hearts."
It can indeed.

quote:
The prohibition of polytheism is many times expressed in language relating to marriage. This can be seen as implicitly supporting monogamy.
I don't see it. The point of the analogy is that a wife (Israel) should stay faithful to her husband (the Lord), not that she should be his only wife.

quote:
While these are not especially powerful arguments or evidence, the idea of monogamy has been universally endorsed in Christian countries for a very long time. It has been seen as a Christian teaching. It has been accepted as a matter of principle to the point that polygamy is illegal in many countries. It may just be due to the confirmation of pre-existing accepted practices, but that doesn't seem to explain it fully.

I would compare it to the topic of slavery. You can make a biblical case against slavery. It is not a very clear cut case. There are many passages that support it and others that assume slavery without criticism. But I'm sure we would agree that the Bible, taken as a whole, does not actually support slavery.

I think this is it. People who have learnt their moral instincts from the Bible and Christian tradition have, as in the case of slavery, ended up applying them more adequately than the Bible itself. The difference is not so stark with polygamy as it is with slavery, but I think is fair.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Another possibility that may perhaps be pursued comes from recognising that the Bible distinguishes between "morally right and wrong issues" and the broader category of "wise and unwise decisions".
Thus while there is nothing morally wrong with marrying a nagging wife or a lazy husband, it is an unwise thing to do.

Perhaps it could be argued that the scriptures' position is that polygamy, while not necessarily morally wrong, is unwise.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Had polygamous marriage had been permissable under OT Law, there would not have been a provision for divorce.

Otherwise a bored husband could have cast off any number of wives in favour of updated versions, without having to undergo the trouble of obtaining a divorce. Presumably that was the position adopted by Solomon - to his detriment.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Had polygamous marriage had been permissable under OT Law, there would not have been a provision for divorce.

Otherwise a bored husband could have cast off any number of wives in favour of updated versions, without having to undergo the trouble of obtaining a divorce.

No, that is exactly the point of the Torah law on divorce - but you have the reason 180 degrees out!

A Jewish divorce is a licence from the man to the woman to permit her to marry someone else. It doesn't work the other way round because the man needs no such permission - or didn't in the patriarchal period, things changed later. Originally the man would have been entitled to marry again whether divorced or not.

In a society where a woman is expected to be under the rule or protection of a man a loose woman is a loose end. She has to be filed away somewhere. So a woman whose husband no longer wants her needs the get (cerificate of divorce) in order to get another man - or perhaps her male relatives need it so they can get her another man.

There is no concept of divorce without permission to remarry. The Biblical idea that we translate "divorce" is precisely permission to remarry, neither more nor less. There is no concept at all of a woman divorcing a man. There is no place for it in the system. A man does not need that permission because he can remarry anyway - or could when the law was set up. It is completely asymmetrical.

By the time of Christ the law of divorce was being applied in a kinship and marriage system very different from the one it had originated in, and into which it perhaps didn't fit very well. Which is one of the reasons why there is so much rabbinical discussion and argument on the matter. (which Jesus joined in with). Big questions of the time were things like "can a man divorce his wife for any cause at all" and "can a woman (or her family) force a man to divorce her". All this is because of the assymetric, unbalanced idea of marriage that had been inherited from the patriarchal age.

Our European notion of divorce originates in what we now call legal separation (that's what the Latin word originally meant I believe) which went along with continuing responsibilities of both parties to each other, or to their children. The Old Law did not have that concept - the idea of what a divorce was is quite different.

There are some very intersting writings about all this online by David Instone-Brewer - Google for him and you will see them.
 
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on :
 
A few thoughts here. By reason of the fact that no-one condems Abraham's morality for having a son by a slave woman, or Jacob's for having two wives or David for having wives and concubines in the hundreds, its obvious that those practices must have been acceptable in the time in which the stories were written. Many Middle Eastern societies had patriarchal, harem based systems which may appear unfair to us now, but were quite normal then. Yet the important thing is that for a man to have many wives and children he had to be able to support them so it was the perogative of the very rich. As the story of David and Bathsheba illustrates, and Nathan's parable (I Samuel 12.1-14) Uriah the Hittite had only one wife and David's great sin was to covet his neighbours wife when he lacked nothing himself.

It seems, though we have no proof, that by the time of Jesus monogamy had become the norm, but Jesus, in making the pronouncement he did on dovorce revealed his great sensitivity to the needs of women. The pharasaic debate on divorce revolved around a dispute between the two main schools, that of Hilel and that of Shammai. In general, Hilel was much gentler of sinners than Shammai. It was only his own followers who he expected to live piously and sinlessly. He tried to encourage repentance through kindness. He took the liberal Mosaic view of divorce. Shammai, on the other hand was stern on sin and sinners and took a hard line on divorce.

In general, Jesus followed Hilel, but on the subject of divorce he followed Shammai. In a society where a man could divorce his wife just by sending her a writ and for no other reason than that he didn't want to be married to her any more, women had no rights, no security and no prtection against exploitation. But the hard line taken by Jesus requiures the man to take as much responsibility for the relationship as the woman and therefore is a means of protecting women from unfair abandonmemnt.

Jewish divorce law is unfair to women to this day. There are cases where men make extortionate demands on their wives before agreeing to a get, which is a man's perogative to obtain, because under Jewish law the woman isn't free to remarry until her husband has divorced her by get.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
I am absolutely shocked !
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Would you care to enlighten us about what you found absolutely shocking, and why? It's very hard to discuss whether it is actually shocking, or not, otherwise.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
I am finding it difficult to distinguish between wives and slaves, within the biblical terms of reference. Given patriarchial dominion of traditional christianity until the 20th century, this confirms the basis of the prevalence of property rights over human rights, to this very day.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I am absolutely shocked !

quote:
I am finding it difficult to distinguish between wives and slaves, within the biblical terms of reference.
Perhaps the fact that you did not appreciate the cultural context of the Law of Moses explains your failure to grasp its explicit provision for polygamy?
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
So, you're offended that the people for which most of the OT (and probably some of the NT) were originally written considered women to be closer to property than free individual humans? OK, I'm sure most people here would prefer it if women had always had equal status to men, but our preferences don't alter the facts of history.

As I see it that leaves us with only two real options in dealing with the Biblical texts.

One is to say that because those texts were written in a time and place where social standards were much less than we would consider to be just and fair, that therefore we should just ignore what the Bible says. So, as the OT is written on the assumption that women are property of her father and then husband; we reject that assumption (quite rightly IMO), and therefore the texts are meaningless. The problem with that approach is that you very rapidly strip the Bible down to leave nothing with any meaning. And, it also means that you miss out on the facts that Jesus (and, for that matter, some of the Prophets) quite often radically re-interpret things so that they go against the social norms thus removing Biblical support for the position that women aren't just property.

The better approach is to take those same passages, and say "what are the principles beneath them, and how would those principles work out in modern society?". The only place to start to do that is to understand the society that they were written in - unpleasant as it may be to think about the times when women were considered property.
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
A few thoughts here. By reason of the fact that no-one condems Abraham's morality for having a son by a slave woman, or Jacob's for having two wives or David for having wives and concubines in the hundreds, its obvious that those practices must have been acceptable in the time in which the stories were written.

I think you fall into the trap of assuming because there is not explicit condemnation (editorializing, essentially) that there was no condemnation. Personally, I've often wished the Bible came right out and said, "and this was wrong, because..." but it hardly ever does. In the case of Abraham, Sarah, and Hagar, it is abundantly clear that "helping God along" was not a good idea (see Genesis 17 and 22 for evidence of that conclusion). So while you may argue that Abraham was not condemned for bearing a child with his wife's servant Hagar, he is not praised for it; it is a failure of faith, setting up "the son of the flesh" and "the son of the promise." Yes, Ishmael IS blessed, for Abraham's sake - but he's also sent away, out of the story of Israel. God has a relationship with Hagar (she interacts with the Angel of the Lord twice; Sarah's only interaction is to claim she didn't laugh at the thought of a late pregnancy) and I trust He had one with Ishmael, too - but it's not recorded in scripture.

Jacob's two wives are a result of Laban's deceitfulness (which is certainly a speedy version of "what goes around, comes around") and the fact that he fathered sons with their handmaids came out of their jealousy and squabbling, because Jacob loved Rachel rather than Leah, the older sister. God uses it all, but it doesn't mean He approved it.

As for David (btw, he had hundreds of wives? I know four by name and there were additional unnamed wives, but I can't find anything that indicates hundreds - where? I know Solomon did: 700 wives and 300 concubines), in Lev. 17:14-20, God gives very specific instruction that when the people cry out for a human king, how he should behave and NOT multiply wives, horses, wealth - laws that were not obeyed.

Yes, people did these things. They also committed adultery, murdered each other, didn't keep the sabbath year for the land, and often allowed trade to occur on the sabbath (etc., ad infinitum). But it doesn't mean those behaviors were approved; they were tolerated. I would challenge you to find a Biblical example of polygamy that is a "good" thing (even Hannah, the mother of Samuel - I suspect she was the first wife but, when she proved barren, Elkanah married again).

You are right that the number of wives a man had was practically limited by his wealth and, by the time of Christ, most of the Jews were not wealthy and couldn't afford many wives. Jesus, in His teaching on divorce, clearly says "From the beginning it was not so--" Moses *allowed* divorce because of the hardness of men's hearts (and I daresay women can be just as hardhearted; they simply weren't given the opportunity to exercise it in this manner). I think the Matthew 19:4-6 teaching is pretty clear (And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created {them} from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE, and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate." - caps are in the NASB).

Jesus was radical in His view and treatment of women - remember how shocked the disciples were to find Him speaking with the Samaritan woman at the well, in John 4? Can you imagine Martha's surprise when Jesus didn't send Mary into the kitchen to prepare food but approved her staying to learn with the men? Luke's gospel shows us that Jesus' ministry was financed, at least in part, by women who sometimes travelled with Him and took care of the them (somebody's got to do the cooking, don'cha know-- Although Jesus clearly didn't mind fixing fish for breakfast!). But the disciples were still very much men of their time and culture (as are we--), so when Jesus sends His resurrection message through Mary Magdalene, most of the guys are dismissive.

Again, I don't think the fact that humanity embraced sexism, racism, greed, or slavery means that the Bible approved of any of those attitudes or behaviors, but we do see scripture attempting to ameliorate the conditions and circumstances. Jesus came with a massive course correction; Paul, the quintessential pharisee, turned around and did a complete 180 to follow Him. Sadly, the Church has not held to that high calling as well as she might have - and God continues to send course corrections.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
So while you may argue that Abraham was not condemned for bearing a child with his wife's servant Hagar, he is not praised for it;

8< snip

God uses it all, but it doesn't mean He approved it.

8< snip

But it doesn't mean those behaviors were approved;

Nor does it mean they weren't. You're arguing from silence here, reading condemnation where there is none expressed.

quote:
Jesus, in His teaching on divorce, clearly says "From the beginning it was not so--" Moses *allowed* divorce because of the hardness of men's hearts
What does divorce have to do with polygamy?

quote:
I think the Matthew 19:4-6 teaching is pretty clear (And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created {them} from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE, and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate."
This has already been covered, and it isn't much of an argument against polygamy.

quote:
Jesus was radical in His view and treatment of women
Which is obviously why he condemned polygamy - oh, wait, he didn't, did he?

quote:
Again, I don't think the fact that humanity embraced sexism, racism, greed, or slavery means that the Bible approved of any of those attitudes or behaviors, but we do see scripture attempting to ameliorate the conditions and circumstances.
How, in that case, do you distinguish something that is bad from something that is neutral (or even good) but can have bad effects, which need to be ameliorated? And how do you demonstrate that polygamy falls into either category? Gluttony might be bad, but food isn't bad per se. What test do you apply to categorise something as wholly bad, possibly bad, or wholly good?
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Perhaps it could be argued that the scriptures' position is that polygamy, while not necessarily morally wrong, is unwise.

"No Answer" was the stern reply...
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Alan Cresswell
quote:
So, you're offended that the people for which most of the OT (and probably some of the NT) were originally written considered women to be closer to property than free individual humans?
Nope, not offended. I am simply amazed at the extent of measures used by the patriarchial exponents of scripture, to deny the equality of women. In my reading, the Laws of God are entirely counter-cultural - aside from Jewish rituals which affirm that culture. Jesus re-affirmed this. Yet scripture as expounded by men for thousands of years, would have women barely differentiated from slaves and ranked amongst the posssesion of men. This despite the eulogising at Proverbs 31:10-31.

Bearing in mind that women occupy the status of chattells throughout the world, the God Whom I worship, does not uphold the practises prevailing throughout the world. Hence ken and PaulTH* have filled an enormous gap in my education concerning the source methods of women's oppression.

If, as Jesus claimed ( although I myself can find little evidence of this in the OT ) divorce was a concession from Moses' law - the 'get' procedure described by ken, appears to have been perverted in favour of men's overarching desire to retain the slave-status of women.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I am simply amazed at the extent of measures used by the patriarchial exponents of scripture, to deny the equality of women.

I'm not quite sure who these "patriarchial exponents of Scripture" are, certainly no one here has expounded Scripture to deny the equality of women. There's a big difference between saying that the society in which ancient documents were written didn't recognise the equality of women and saying that women aren't equal to men.

quote:
In my reading, the Laws of God are entirely counter-cultural - aside from Jewish rituals which affirm that culture.
Correct me if I'm wrong, but that reads very much like "the Bible is counter cultural, except where it isn't". Which doesn't seem to be an awfully enlightening statement to me.

quote:
Yet scripture as expounded by men for thousands of years, would have women barely differentiated from slaves and ranked amongst the posssesion of men.
Well, Scripture certainly has been abused like that. For a time, Scripture was used to defend the proposition that the Earth is stationary and the sun, stars and planets orbit the earth. So what? We look back and realise that people were reading their own pre-suppositions about the nature of the universe (or, in the case of the status of women the relative position of men and women in their society) into Scripture and say "tut, tut, that was wrong" - often without recognising that we're doing exactly the same thing by reading our own pre-suppositions back into Scripture.

But, we're not really here to discuss what others have understood the Bible to mean. Rather, we're here to discuss what we think it means. And, specifically, whether there's anything in Scripture that specifically supports the "traditional marriage" (that being the standard marriage of Europe and derived cultures for the last few hundred years). That the Bible was written in a culture in which women were often treated as chattels is important to recognise when reading the Bible, that doesn't mean that the Bible only supports the sort of society in which it was written. The fact that society changed during the writing of the Bible, often barely raising comment from the authors, should tell us that the societies in which individual books were written are incidental.

As far as I can see, there's nothing that explicitely teaches "one man, one woman, for life" as the ideal marriage in Scripture. I do see a strong argument for the equality of women, especially in Jesus who very counter-culturally treated women as equals and in Paul who writes that "in Christ there is neither male nor female". The effect of that on interpreting passages where polygamous relationships aren't condemned could lead one to conclude that it's OK for a man to have several wives, and it's OK for a woman to have several husbands.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
Thinking about OT scripture, it is worth bearing in mind that Islam also venerates these scriptures - and that in many predominately Islamic states polygamy is still practised.
It is going out of fashion as countries become more westernised and richer. I think this has to do with the speed of change of the economic organisation of these socities as well as theology.

It is compartively easier to provide four wives with a tent and food each than it is to provide for each a house and a car and so on. In some ways I think that polygamy was easier to maintain in a nomadc culture.

When I lived in the middle east our family knew many folk in polygamus marriages - two big determinants seemed to be high mortality rates and workload.

People have many children when they know half of them won't live to adulthood - and childbirth itself in pre-industrial societies is dangerous, never mind the other risks that can lower life expectency both for the children and their mothers.

Workloadwise these people would have been minding small children, minding the animals, weaving their own clothes from scratch, walking miles to fetch water etc. We find it hard to do a deskjob, cook ready prepared food and hoover in singlehood or coupledom.

As work became more specialised, i.e, you could buy or barter for cloth, you could get flour already milled - the costs of such a large family start to outway the benefits. By Christ's time we are talking about a structurally different, settled society - you can see why polygamy might be on the decrease.

Re women being chattels:

Married women in the UK were only allowed to own property in the 19th century - interestingly they had been able to do so in Islamic countries since the 14th century.

Not sure what all that says about the interpetation of religious texts except that they came to very different conclusions from the Torah than we did.

[ 28. June 2006, 17:20: Message edited by: Doublethink ]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Alan Cresswell
quote:
I'm not quite sure who these "patriarchial exponents of Scripture" are, certainly no one here has expounded Scripture to deny the equality of women.
You infer more than I wrote. Why ?

quote:
Correct me if I'm wrong, but that reads very much like "the Bible is counter cultural, except where it isn't". Which doesn't seem to be an awfully enlightening statement to me.

You are wrong. The Bible gave rise to Jewish tradition. Fact.

quote:
But, we're not really here to discuss what others have understood the Bible to mean.
I am attempting to discuss what it has meant, and continues to mean, for both Jewish and Christian women ie ascribed roles secondary to men, as justified by reference to a variety of biblical passages with that single objective in common - if little else.

quote:
As far as I can see, there's nothing that explicitely teaches "one man, one woman, for life" as the ideal marriage in Scripture.
As far as I can see, there is. Stale mate.

quote:
The effect of that on interpreting passages where polygamous relationships aren't condemned could lead one to conclude that it's OK for a man to have several wives, and it's OK for a woman to have several husbands.

You must live according to your rules, as I shall live according to mine.
 
Posted by Henry Troup (# 3722) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
...As far as I can see, there is. Stale mate....

You must live according to your rules, as I shall live according to mine.

noelper - this is Kerygmania, where we study the text. Don't assume that either Alan or I are attempting to find justification for polygamy - that would be a Purgatory topic, for one thing.

Can you provide a text explicitly against polygamy?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
An excellent link, Doublethink, with some ideas relevant to the biblical basis of a spiritual relationship, as approximated by monogamous marriage.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Henry Troup

quote:
Can you provide a text explicitly against polygamy?
No. Can you provide a text explicitly in favour of polygamy ?
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
You infer more than I wrote. Why ?

Presumably because what you wrote was so unclear.

quote:
quote:
As far as I can see, there's nothing that explicitly teaches "one man, one woman, for life" as the ideal marriage in Scripture.
As far as I can see, there is. Stale mate.
quote:
quote:
Can you provide a text explicitly against polygamy?
No. Can you provide a text explicitly in favour of polygamy?
Can you see how perfectly you contradict yourself here?
Which is it to be, the Bible does not explicitly condemn polygamy, or it does and you just don't want to tell us where?


quote:
quote:
The effect of that on interpreting passages where polygamous relationships aren't condemned could lead one to conclude that it's OK for a man to have several wives, and it's OK for a woman to have several husbands.
You must live according to your rules, as I shall live according to mine.
Why are you bringing the way Alan lives into this? What the hell does it have to do with this discussion?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Get off my case.
 
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on :
 
Dear noelper

I think the story of King David is the most important in any biblical discussion about polygamy. David had many wives and concubines. Yet he coveted the wife of Uriah the Hittite, who was Bathsheba. He saw her sunbathing from his vantage view across the City of Jerusalem. So, after beginning an adultrous relationship with her,he placed Uriah in a position in battle which was almost sure to get him killed and it worked. So David got Bathsheba, but from there on it all went bent. Their child died. David's fououred son Absalem rose up in rebellion against him and was slaughtered when his long hair caught in a tree.

So in all of this grisly tale, there is no condemnation of David for having multiple wives. because that's what a king would do within that culture. Many aspects of morality especially in the realms of sexual ethics are governed by the mores of the surrounding society, so it could never be said that the morals of monogamy or even those regarding homosexuality are absolute. Thye could as well be cultural. King David sinned because he stole another man's wife when it was a simple man who had only one wife. And he had her husband killed.

As evidence that God forgave David ultimately, its worth remembering that Solomon was also the son of David and Bathsheba and perhaps the most penitent of all the psalms, Psalm 51 is traditionally regarded as David's penitent psalm following his teshuva for his wicked actions. And Soloman remains the ancestor of the messianic tree.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper
Get off my case.

Host hat on

SteveTom has criticized the clarity and logic of your argument. This is appropriate in Kerygmania. Saying 'Get off my case.' is not appropriate. It personalizes what should not be a personal argument. If you want a personal argument, call SteveTom to Hell.

Host hat off

Moo
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
So while you may argue that Abraham was not condemned for bearing a child with his wife's servant Hagar, he is not praised for it;

8< snip

God uses it all, but it doesn't mean He approved it.

8< snip

But it doesn't mean those behaviors were approved;

Nor does it mean they weren't. You're arguing from silence here, reading condemnation where there is none expressed.
Actually, I am not. In order to keep my post short, I didn't include the scriptures I mentioned, but I will include them now: Gen. 17:15-21 Then God said to Abraham, "As for Sarai your wife, you shall not call her name Sarai, but Sarah {shall be} her name. I will bless her, and indeed I will give you a son by her. Then I will bless her, and she shall be {a mother of} nations; kings of peoples will come from her."
Then Abraham fell on his face and laughed, and said in his heart, "Will a child be born to a man one hundred years old? And will Sarah, who is ninety years old, bear {a child?}" And Abraham said to God, "Oh that Ishmael might live before You!"
But God said, "No, but Sarah your wife will bear you a son, and you shall call his name Isaac; and I will establish My covenant with him for an everlasting covenant for his descendants after him. As for Ishmael, I have heard you; behold, I will bless him, and will make him fruitful and will multiply him exceedingly. He shall become the father of twelve princes, and I will make him a great nation. But My covenant I will establish with Isaac, whom Sarah will bear to you at this season next year."


and Gen.22:1-2 Now it came about after these things, that God tested Abraham, and said to him, "Abraham!" And he said, "Here I am."
He said, "Take now your son, your only son, whom you love, Isaac, and go to the land of Moriah, and offer him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains of which I will tell you."


In the first, we see that God has rejected the child that Abraham and Sarah conspire to conceive through Hagar - not as a person, but as the son of the promise, in a prophetic sense. In the second we see God completely ignore the existence of Ishmael, saying, "Take your son, your only son whom you love," which is the first appearance of the word "love" in the Bible, btw. For God's purposes with Abraham and his descendants, Ishmael does not exist. I do not call that an argument from silence.

quote:
quote:
Jesus, in His teaching on divorce, clearly says "From the beginning it was not so--" Moses *allowed* divorce because of the hardness of men's hearts
What does divorce have to do with polygamy?
It's not divorce that reflects on polygamy, it's God's intent from the beginning that humans be coupled - "the two become one flesh, let no one put asunder what God has joined together."

quote:
quote:
I think the Matthew 19:4-6 teaching is pretty clear (And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created {them} from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE, and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate."
This has already been covered, and it isn't much of an argument against polygamy.
"they are no longer TWO" ??? I think it's a simple numeric argument. They cannot be ONE flesh if half that flesh is also ONE flesh with another... it does not work.

quote:
quote:
Jesus was radical in His view and treatment of women
Which is obviously why he condemned polygamy - oh, wait, he didn't, did he?
Like *most* of the old testament law, Jesus did not reiterate the position of scripture. I see the position of scripture as pretty clear, even though there was no legal prohibition of polygamy. And, in the context of warring cultures, it was a way to regenerate a population - practical, from the human standpoint.

quote:
quote:
Again, I don't think the fact that humanity embraced sexism, racism, greed, or slavery means that the Bible approved of any of those attitudes or behaviors, but we do see scripture attempting to ameliorate the conditions and circumstances.
How, in that case, do you distinguish something that is bad from something that is neutral (or even good) but can have bad effects, which need to be ameliorated? And how do you demonstrate that polygamy falls into either category? Gluttony might be bad, but food isn't bad per se. What test do you apply to categorise something as wholly bad, possibly bad, or wholly good?
If you follow the argument from Genesis 17 and 22, as well as the prohibition against *kings* multiplying wives (and if it wasn't good for the king, it's going to be good for "just plain folks?" I don't think so) from Leviticus, you see that polygamy is not "the best way" - it's tolerated, but NOT encouraged.

So what are your arguments from scripture to indicate that polygamy was good? I will be very interested to see them.

PaulTH*, you skim over the really critical part of the David/Bathsheba story: SHE becomes pregnant; David called Uriah back from the front in the hope that Uriah will sleep with his wife, allowing the child to be passed off as his; Uriah is too noble to enjoy the pleasures of his marital bed while his companions-in-arms are still sleeping on the hard ground (and doesn't yield on this point even after a second night, when David gets him drunk). IF Uriah had simply slept with Bathsheba, the ruse would have worked, the baby who died would have been considered Uriah's, and Solomon would likely never have been conceived; David might not have been brought to a place of broken repentance and rather continued to live in denial, thinking he got away with something (I like to think God would have sent Nathan to break through that shell, anyway)... God uses it all. Even now, in our little lives. [Smile]
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
"they are no longer TWO" ??? I think it's a simple numeric argument. They cannot be ONE flesh if half that flesh is also ONE flesh with another... it does not work.

I think two millennia of monogamy make this argument seem more valid than it actually is.

That fact that marriage unites a man and a woman does not mathematically preclude either or both of them being united with a third person.

Take an analogy with children: I love my son with my whole heart, with so much of myself that there's nothing left over. And I love my other son just as much. Taking the first statement "mathematically" as you put it, ought to make the second impossible, but relationships don't work like that, do they?
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
SteveTom

Yes there's truth in that. But the key is what is really meant by becoming "one flesh". I would hate ever to be in a position where I needed to choose between the love I have for my sons and the love I have for my wife. But I think "one flesh" declares the ideal of an indelible priority. In that horrible hypothetical situation I describe, it would be the love for my wife which would win out. This bites home most hard of course, when one parent discovers that another is abusing their children - or that they themselves are being abused. But it is not an abandonment of the priority of love in that situation to give a priority to the safety of the vulnerable (including ourselves). Becoming "one flesh" is an ideal which we express, in our imperfection, by saying "for better, for worse". That is what we promise.

Earlier it was argued, correctly I think, that traditional marriage has not arisen just because of categorical biblical proof. But if there is a single powerful indicator of a "from the beginning" principle, it is probably to be found in the Genesis 2 verse, which is both pre-fall and also used significantly in the New Testament as a model of the ideal.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Dear PaulTH*
Re David and Bathsheba, I wrote earlier:

quote:
My own approach is derived from placing unqualified trust in a God, Who was prepared to overlook David's polygamy AND adultery, and to find in his favour because of an unequivocal fidelity to God.
LynnMagdalenCollege

quote:
I see the position of scripture as pretty clear, even though there was no legal prohibition of polygamy.
So do I.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I would hate ever to be in a position where I needed to choose between the love I have for my sons and the love I have for my wife. But I think "one flesh" declares the ideal of an indelible priority. In that horrible hypothetical situation I describe, it would be the love for my wife which would win out.

I don't think that you can assume that that priority would be the same for everyone.

As to the 'maths' argument, I note folk on the thread have drawn anologies between marriage and relating to God. On that basis one could use the trinity to argue for polygamy, God as three-in-one rather than two-in-one after all.

However, I think this is a blind alley - because bascially one's relationship with God or the church is not like a marriage. It is a romantic analogy that seeks to sanitise sexual love, and I think mistaken. (The virgin Mary is, possibly, the only exception to this.)

Arguing from the OT to justify current practice is always going to be dubious, wasn't it David who swapped a cartload of foreskins for a woman who didn't want to marry him - but was sent anyway ?
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
Thanks for two helpful posts, Doublethink. The point about economics is especially well taken.

To us in the contemporary west, polygamy is obviously and instinctively wrong, whether as a sexual taboo or as sexual politics, or both.

Without wanting to get too relativistic about it, I think it is extremely hard for us appreciate the economic imperative that operated towards polygamy in the early iron age, and absolutely impossible to imagine the psychological and emotional life of women and men then.

Within our own economic, psychological and ethical framework, polygamy unambiguously exploits and undervalues women. But simply to import those values back into the iron age is pretty naive, isn't it?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Doublethink

quote:
I note folk on the thread have drawn anologies between marriage and relating to God. On that basis one could use the trinity to argue for polygamy, God as three-in-one rather than two-in-one after all.
Alternatively, the analogy could be continued in a Holy Family, with Jesus the Offspring as the product of a sacred union.

quote:
However, I think this is a blind alley - because bascially one's relationship with God or the church is not like a marriage.
I agree that one's relationship with the church is not like a marriage. We are all a single body however, irrespective of the size, scale or relative importance in comparison with other body parts.

quote:

It is a romantic analogy that seeks to sanitise sexual love, and I think mistaken. (The virgin Mary is, possibly, the only exception to this.)

Marriage (whether by formal agreement of not )is a covenant relationship in a rite-of-passage which is dependent upon on-going agreement, and which may or may not prove synergistic. The fact that we romanticise the facts of marital relationship, does not detract from the essentially contractual basis.

I am unclear about the reference to Mary; please
amplify.

quote:
Arguing from the OT to justify current practice is always going to be dubious, wasn't it David who swapped a cartload of foreskins for a woman who didn't want to marry him - but was sent anyway ?
This does not differentiate the rite-of-passage, (which persists as a foundational construct of human relations) from the social mores which accompany it. In the example quoted, David was paying a dowry for the privilige of marrying the King's daughter. The methods of payment change, or are abandoned, thank God.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
"An overseer must be the husband of one wife...."

What do you think this means?

The same as you, I imagine. But it's a qualification for a job, isn't it? The same passage (1 Tim 3:1-7) also lists being above reproach, respectable, a good teacher, gentle, a good household-manager, a father of submissive children, a longstanding believer, and well respected by non-Christians.

It's not clear these qualifications for episcopal office are the moral standard for all Christian life.

Though you would have to say that, other than the ability to teach, the list is an ideal that is set for all to aspire to, isn't it?
quote:
A few posts later
quote:
The creation account appears to present the marriage of one man and one woman as ideal.
Yes, it does. But how prescriptive can we be about that ideal? It also presents vegetarianism, veganism in fact, as ideal. Does 1-2 Genesis frown on celibacy, singleness and homosexuality as well as on polygamy?
I am not sure what you are saying here (you seem to agree that monogamy is presented as the ideal), or how the logic of your argument works (if you are saying that the ideal is... not binding, not really an ideal?). ISTM that at most it urges caution in interpreting 'the ideal'™ rather than dismissing it from the present discussion.

I think Genesis 1-2 does say something about the issues you raised - though it would be off the topic to deal with them now...other than to mention that veganism was directly dealt with by God in Gen 9.
mmmmmmm juicy steak.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink:
It is a romantic analogy that seeks to sanitise sexual love, and I think mistaken. (The virgin Mary is, possibly, the only exception to this.)


The fact that we romanticise the facts of marital relationship, does not detract from the essentially contractual basis.

I am unclear about the reference to Mary; please
amplify.

I mean my relationship with God is not like a sexual relationship that I might have with another human being, however loving.

I think that the analogy has been used before because the church has been uncomfortable with messy humaness of sexual relationships and has tried to gloss over it, or de-emphasise it. (Sex is OK if your going to have kids otherwise don't, oh OK if you must but remember all these other things are much more important, etc, etc,).

Consequently, I don't think it works to argue back the other way from that position - the Church is the bride of Christ there is only supposed to be one Church so therefore one should only have one wife etc.

(My point about about Mary is that she was impregnated by the deity, which is a near as human is going to get to a sexual relationship with God. Therefore, she is the one exception I recognise to the statement I made above.)

quote:
N:
quote:
DT: Arguing from the OT to justify current practice is always going to be dubious, wasn't it David who swapped a cartload of foreskins for a woman who didn't want to marry him - but was sent anyway ?
This does not differentiate the rite-of-passage, (which persists as a foundational construct of human relations) from the social mores which accompany it. In the example quoted, David was paying a dowry for the privilige of marrying the King's daughter. The methods of payment change, or are abandoned, thank God.
My point being I think we are being highly selective about which pieces of the presence/absence of text in the OT we take to be significant. That story could be used to support a biblical basis for arranged marriage or the payment of dowries, never mind anything else.

[ 29. June 2006, 16:15: Message edited by: Doublethink ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink:

However, I think this is a blind alley - because bascially one's relationship with God or the church is not like a marriage. It is a romantic analogy that seeks to sanitise sexual love, and I think mistaken. (The virgin Mary is, possibly, the only exception to this.)


Two points. Firstly, from Ephesians 5 there is analogical interplay, both ways, between marriage relationships and the relationship between Christ and the Church. So from that scripture, one can argue that marriage, ideally, is in some sense "like" the relationship between Christ and the Church. Secondly, I dont think Paul is being romantic, or sanitising sexual love in Ephesians 5. He is simply relating back to the idealised "pre-Fall" model. In which the man and the woman were naked and unashamed. Overall, I think it is legitimate to argue that it is an idealised view, which does not invalidate its principles.

This aint theory for me; we've been married for 38 years and it has been a very good journey for both of us. Our understanding of compatibility has been revolutionised by the process of living it out. The understanding that love in marriage is mutually sacrificial has stood us in very good stead. (Enforced submission has had no place in our relationship. We took trad vows and talked about "obey" before we got married. We agreed a deal to avoid an argument with the vicar. She would obey me when she agreed with me and I agreed never to "push it"! We've kept that. These days we would "include it out").

We know this experience isn't everyone's and are sorry about that. We cannot deny our own. I told my wife about this thread and she smiled. "Anyone who fancies taking on more than one life partner at a time wants their head examining" she said. "One is quite enough". That made us both laugh.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
Congratulations on 38 years [Smile]
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
Nor does it mean they weren't. You're arguing from silence here, reading condemnation where there is none expressed.

Actually, I am not. In order to keep my post short, I didn't include the scriptures I mentioned, but I will include them now:

8< snip

In the first, we see that God has rejected the child that Abraham and Sarah conspire to conceive through Hagar - not as a person, but as the son of the promise, in a prophetic sense. In the second we see God completely ignore the existence of Ishmael, saying, "Take your son, your only son whom you love," which is the first appearance of the word "love" in the Bible, btw. For God's purposes with Abraham and his descendants, Ishmael does not exist. I do not call that an argument from silence.

That's your interpretation. I could equally say that God rejects Ishmael because he is a manifestation of Abraham's lack of faith. There's no evidence here that God either approved or disapproved of polygamy per se.

quote:
quote:
What does divorce have to do with polygamy?
It's not divorce that reflects on polygamy, it's God's intent from the beginning that humans be coupled - "the two become one flesh, let no one put asunder what God has joined together."
quote:
"they are no longer TWO" ??? I think it's a simple numeric argument. They cannot be ONE flesh if half that flesh is also ONE flesh with another... it does not work.
These are relying on exactly the same argument, which SteveTom's already answered very effectively. I can't help feeling, LMC, that you're reading these passages through the prism of your existing expectations of what marriage ought to look like.

quote:
Like *most* of the old testament law, Jesus did not reiterate the position of scripture. I see the position of scripture as pretty clear, even though there was no legal prohibition of polygamy. And, in the context of warring cultures, it was a way to regenerate a population - practical, from the human standpoint.
(my italics)

If there's no legal prohibition, but you nevertheless think polygamy is clearly rejected by scripture, it's a funny sort of clarity to my mind. And I wouldn't have thought any moral law could be cast aside for pragmatic reasons, as you suggest.

quote:
If you follow the argument from Genesis 17 and 22, as well as the prohibition against *kings* multiplying wives (and if it wasn't good for the king, it's going to be good for "just plain folks?" I don't think so) from Leviticus, you see that polygamy is not "the best way" - it's tolerated, but NOT encouraged.
The same prohibitions include having great numbers of horses, or too much gold, and the NIV has in Deut 17:17
quote:
He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray.
How do you get from this to a clear Biblical argument against polygamy? It reads to me like several would be OK, just not many, and the reason for that is practical, rather than moral.

quote:
So what are your arguments from scripture to indicate that polygamy was good? I will be very interested to see them.
Not good, just neutral. Most of the OT, I think - time and time again, the OT explicitly describes polygamous relationships, and you know what? It isn't ever condemned. There is criticism of Solomon's many foreign wives, various adulterous relationships, and some passages, like Deut 17:17 preach "polygamy in moderation", but there's no outright condemnation. Considering some of the things that are condemned, that it seems to have been such a common practice, and that you can find some form of "thou shalt not" almost anywhere, I think this is quite revealing.

I don't hold any kind of brief for polygamy - there are good practical reasons for rejecting it as a viable model for worldwide marriage, and legal ones for not living polygamously. Besides which, I don't think Keren-Happuch would like the idea much. [Biased] But if you say that the Bible clearly rejects polygamy, I'll have to say I think you're completely wrong.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
Anselm:
Though you would have to say that, other than the ability to teach, the list is an ideal that is set for all to aspire to, isn't it?

Especially so in a Kingdom of priests.


quote:
Doublethink:
I mean my relationship with God is not like a sexual relationship that I might have with another human being, however loving.

Just as well really, since the NT relationship predicated between God and individuals is that of Father-Child; and the OT relationship between God and the community is that of Husband-Wife. Accordingly the lower emphasis on
sexual relationships by church, reflects a valid position where all aspects of Love are represented as God-given - albeit out-of-place within a marriage ceremony.

quote:
Doublethink:
I think that the analogy has been used before because the church has been uncomfortable with messy humaness of sexual relationships and has tried to gloss over it, or de-emphasise it.

Agreed. This possibly represents an attempt to embrace the chocolate-box image, prevalent in wider society.

quote:
Doublethink:
That story could be used to support a biblical basis for arranged marriage or the payment of dowries, never mind anything else.

It could be so used, but isn't.

quote:

Barnabas62:
This aint theory for me...

For me neither. Having married as an atheist, with a husband remaining atheist/agnostic, the only safe conclusion is that we both consider the marriage covenant to be binding - for whatever reason.


quote:
The Great Gumby:
Most of the OT, I think - time and time again, the OT explicitly describes polygamous relationships, and you know what? It isn't ever condemned.

It isn't about the practice, but about This amazing God.

quote:
John 3:17
For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.


 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
"they are no longer TWO" ??? I think it's a simple numeric argument. They cannot be ONE flesh if half that flesh is also ONE flesh with another... it does not work.

I think two millennia of monogamy make this argument seem more valid than it actually is.

That fact that marriage unites a man and a woman does not mathematically preclude either or both of them being united with a third person.

But being united with a third person (sexually) sunders the one-flesh relationship he/she has with the first person, since the "let no one put asunder" argument is not about coitus interruptus (otherwise, every time we *ahem* disengaged, we would be putting asunder our marriages...). I'm not sure how bringing in the figurative speech of "I love my son with my whole heart, with so much of myself that there's nothing left over" really applies in the argument, as the only "you shall love with your whole heart" instruction within scripture directs us to love God with our whole heart (Deut. 6:5, etc.) - not wives, husbands, or children. Please don't misunderstand (!), I'm not saying we shouldn't love our wives, husbands, children as much as we can, secondary to loving God.

Barnabbas62, I think "one flesh" is not actually an emotional description, but a spiritual reality best described as "one flesh" (I know, "flesh" isn't a "spiritual" word, but this is the terminology of scripture). One can be annoyed with one's spouse and still be "one flesh"...

Doublethink, respectfully, the Bible doesn't instruct us to "make three one, as God is triune" but rather directs "and the two shall become one flesh and let them not be separated." The numeric argument is the Bible's argument.

gotta run; I'll read the rest later - blessings!
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by SteveTom:

Barnabbas62, I think "one flesh" is not actually an emotional description, but a spiritual reality best described as "one flesh" (I know, "flesh" isn't a "spiritual" word, but this is the terminology of scripture). One can be annoyed with one's spouse and still be "one flesh"...


LMC

It is actually a "becoming" which I believe means that God's in it, we're in it, and anyone who really cares about us is, ideally, some sort of positive support (that's the leaving bit). If you don't annoy, or get annoyed, some of the time, you're either very fortunate or there's something wrong! Short answer - not either/or, but both. And on the human side, maybe more about the enduring promise than the really important matter of the heart.
 
Posted by OliviaG (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Two points. Firstly, from Ephesians 5 there is analogical interplay, both ways, between marriage relationships and the relationship between Christ and the Church. So from that scripture, one can argue that marriage, ideally, is in some sense "like" the relationship between Christ and the Church.

Forgive my stupid question... obviously there is only one Christ, but the Church has many believers. Is there a "marriage-like" relationship between individual members of the Church and Christ? (Remember that Personal Relationship with God/Jesus? [Biased] ) Does that make God "polyamorous" by analogy?

OliviaG
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
I think in the analogy it is because the church is one singular Body (composed of many parts) and is also described, in the singular, as "the Bride of Christ". Analogies are dangerous of course, but I think that is what is going on.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
If you follow the argument from ... the prohibition against *kings* multiplying wives (and if it wasn't good for the king, it's going to be good for "just plain folks?" I don't think so) from Leviticus, you see that polygamy is not "the best way" - it's tolerated, but NOT encouraged.

I think there's something in this, especially when combined with Doublethink's economic point.

Polygamy is expensive, and only viable for those who can afford to support a very large family. So if it is religiously prohibited for the king, and economically prohibitive for the common man, then that doesn't leave a great deal in between.

Except that, it's not prohibited, or even discouraged, for the king, but restricted. The law reads to me like: "Just don't go mad, OK?"

The argument from "Don't overdo it" to "Ideally it don't do it at all" seems to me exactly the same argument as teetotallers' who say that when the Bible warns against too much wine it's encouraging us not to drink at all.
By the same logic, wouldn't we have to read teachings against gluttony and idleness as discouraging us from yummy food and from taking a well-earned rest.

After all, there's a world of difference between having 700 wives and 300 concubines, and having three wives, isn't there? The first is effectively free love, the second is insurance.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I think in the analogy it is because the church is one singular Body (composed of many parts) and is also described, in the singular, as "the Bride of Christ". Analogies are dangerous of course, but I think that is what is going on.

That's how I see it too. In fact, I think that institution of marriage derives its sacredness from its metaphoric relationship with that heavenly marriage.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
It's not clear these qualifications for episcopal office are the moral standard for all Christian life.

Though you would have to say that, other than the ability to teach, the list is an ideal that is set for all to aspire to, isn't it?
Yes, I guess it is.

But I think this just brings us back to what I said way back about OT & NT both simply reflecting the norms of their respective times (about marital plurality). I see a big difference between the occasions when the NT consistently and deliberately lays down the law (taking oaths, divorce, judging) and occasions when it incidentally reveals the values of the people who wrote it and of their society.

This passage suggests that in first-century Asia Minor polygamy was not respectable, and that the writer shared that attitude. I don't think that's the same thing as saying that the NT presents monogamy as the right way to live.

I imagine that if the issue had arisen Paul would have insisted on monogamy emphatically - how else did he ever do anything? - but in fact he never did.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Just as well really, since the NT relationship predicated between God and individuals is that of Father-Child; and the OT relationship between God and the community is that of Husband-Wife. Accordingly the lower emphasis on sexual relationships by church, reflects a valid position where all aspects of Love are represented as God-given - albeit out-of-place within a marriage ceremony.

>snip<

Agreed. This possibly represents an attempt to embrace the chocolate-box image, prevalent in wider society.

I think we basically agree, its an analogy, its an imperfect analogy. My further point is that because it is a particularly - to my mind - imperfect analogy, I don't think we should stretch it too far.

quote:
N:
quote:
DT:
That story could be used to support a biblical basis for arranged marriage or the payment of dowries, never mind anything else.

It could be so used, but isn't.
Exactly, and why isn't it ? That's what I mean about us being highly selective - and I think that selectivity is determined by our current cultural mores. By extention I think we project backwards in time to support our current views about monogamy.

I happen to think monogamy is a good idea - I think that by extrapolation from what I see as Christian principles about caring for others, rather than based upon a particular textual reference. However, this is due to my cultural context. If I try for a multi-partner relationship, chances are - that due to my cultural conditioning and that of my partners - we'll never quite believe in the equality of shared love and probably get torn apart by jealousy. (Might work for a small minority in our culture if you found exactly the right people but very small chance of that.) So my objection to polygamy is a product of the intertwining of my faith and my culture.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
That's how I see it too. In fact, I think that institution of marriage derives its sacredness from its metaphoric relationship with that heavenly marriage.

May I disassemble that statement for a moment ?

Marriage (approved hetero sexual relationship)

is

Sacred (holy / special / blessed by God)

because of

Metaphor (analogous to / a bit like /colourfully described as)

Church's relationship to God.

---

A)

In what way, exactly, is the relationship between God and the Church similar to a marital relationship ?

&

B)

Do you not think that the gospel writers tried to describe something new - church - in terms of something that already existed - marital relationship ? So direction of causality is backwards.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
The Great Gumby:
Most of the OT, I think - time and time again, the OT explicitly describes polygamous relationships, and you know what? It isn't ever condemned.

It isn't about the practice, but about This amazing God.
In what way? The topic of this thread is the Biblical basis of traditional marriage, so what is it about if not marriage practices?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink:
In what way, exactly, is the relationship between God and the Church similar to a marital relationship?

Good question, Doublethink. I'm not sure. [Roll Eyes]

I guess it is just that both describe a relationship characterized by ultimate love - the kind of love that makes people say things like, "I love you more than anything or anyone in the world." (Much like beer and chocolate. [Biased] )

As I understand it, love has three characteristics:
It seems to me that while many relationships and situations can be described by these three characteristics, the most powerful and permanent expressions of them are the ones usually found in people's relationship with God and the "love of their life."
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink:
Do you not think that the gospel writers tried to describe something new - church - in terms of something that already existed - marital relationship ? So direction of causality is backwards.

Yes, it is a kind of reverse causality. That would be, I think, because the marital relationship is a known and observable entity, whereas God is, for the most part, invisible.

Aside from the point that I think that God, not the gospel writers, was the true "author" of the gospel, this is a well-established Old Testament metaphor as well. For example:
quote:
Isaiah 54:4 “ Do not fear, for you will not be ashamed;
Neither be disgraced, for you will not be put to shame;
For you will forget the shame of your youth,
And will not remember the reproach of your widowhood anymore.
5 For your Maker is your husband,
The LORD of hosts is His name;
And your Redeemer is the Holy One of Israel;
He is called the God of the whole earth."

Jeremiah 3:20 Surely, as a wife treacherously departs from her husband, So have you dealt treacherously with Me, O house of Israel,” says the LORD.

Jeremiah 31:32 ...not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the LORD.

Ezekiel 16:32 O Israel, you are an adulterous wife, who takes strangers instead of her husband.

Hosea 2:2 “Bring charges against your mother, bring charges; For she is not My wife, nor am I her Husband! Let her put away her harlotries from her sight, And her adulteries from between her breasts;

Hosea 2:7 She will chase her lovers, But not overtake them; Yes, she will seek them, but not find them.Then she will say, ‘ I will go and return to my first husband, For then it was better for me than now.’

Hosea 2:16 “ And it shall be, in that day,”
Says the LORD,
“ That you will call Me ‘My Husband,’
And no longer call Me ‘My Master,’
19 “ I will betroth you to Me forever;
Yes, I will betroth you to Me
In righteousness and justice,
In lovingkindness and mercy;
20 I will betroth you to Me in faithfulness,
And you shall know the LORD.

It seems to me that the many Old Testament references to this kind of relationship with God - which essentially equates idolatry and adultery - can be seen as elevating the marriage relationship.

I'm sure other interpretations are also possible.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Freddy

That is a powerful post. I was thinking "Hosea" too. It is perhaps these qualities of faithfulness (which elevates) and unfaithfulness (which costs) which are the illustrators. The best in human marriages illustrates the power and value of faithfulness maintained, despite the challenges of the relationship. The worst illustrates how the faithfulness and commitment of one partner can be exploited and manipulated by the unfaithfulness of the other (and I'm not just talking about adultery.

So I suppose the short summary is something like this. The faithfulness which we all hope for from our partners in relationships, and which we see in the best of marriages, is a pointer to just how faithful Christ has been, is, and will be towards his church.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
It isn't about the practice, but about This amazing God.

In what way? The topic of this thread is the Biblical basis of traditional marriage, so what is it about if not marriage practices?

The Biblical basis of traditional marriage is a God, Who would teach us better ways to love, rather than condemn our dysfunctionality.

quote:
Barnabas62
So I suppose the short summary is something like this. The faithfulness which we all hope for from our partners in relationships, and which we see in the best of marriages, is a pointer to just how faithful Christ has been, is, and will be towards his church.

Amen to that.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
TGG
In what way? The topic of this thread is the Biblical basis of traditional marriage, so what is it about if not marriage practices?

The Biblical basis of traditional marriage is a God, Who would teach us better ways to love, rather than condemn our dysfunctionality.
Right, but I think you need to provide some Biblical evidence that polygamy is indeed dysfunctional. It may be argued that there are better ways to do things, referencing the NT requirements for an elder, for example, but that might just be an ideal for a particular purpose. Note that Paul also says it's better not to marry at all - we can all work out how practical this would be if everyone followed it to the letter.

So have you got any Biblical evidence of the dysfunctionality of polygamy? That's the basic thrust of the thread, and I've yet to see anything very convincing.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I was thinking "Hosea" too. It is perhaps these qualities of faithfulness (which elevates) and unfaithfulness (which costs) which are the illustrators.

Hosea is a story about a man who marries a woman who is unfaithful to him, yet keeps taking her back. And, it's an illustration of a God who keeps taking back his people despite their repeated unfaithfulness.

Would that message be any different if Hosea had two wives, one who remained faithful and the other unfaithful? Any more than a story about a man with two sons, one of whom runs off an squanders the riches his father gave him and the other who remained at home faithfully fulfilling the duties of a son.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Would that message be any different if Hosea had two wives, one who remained faithful and the other unfaithful? Any more than a story about a man with two sons, one of whom runs off an squanders the riches his father gave him and the other who remained at home faithfully fulfilling the duties of a son.

Good question, Alan.

Jesus did say:
quote:
John 10:16 And other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must bring,
So if there are "other sheep" there could theoretically be "other wives." Considering how much the marriage metaphor is used, however, it might be seen as telling that there is no hint of that possibility. Of course it would naturally be anathema to ancient Israel to think that there might be another "virgin daughter" that Jehovah was chasing after to add to His harem.

At the same time, that same John quote about "other sheep" does emphasize the unity, or rather singularity, of the flock:
quote:
and they will hear My voice; and there will be one flock and one shepherd.
One flock, one wife, one husband. I can see how people could come to that conclusion. [Angel]
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
But a flock is multiple, lots of baffled sheep rather than one - similarly a church is made up of lots of people not just one - as is a harem, on entity but with mutiple units.

This is the problem with argument by analogy.

However, if we want to argue from silence, as some have being doing with the OT, we could say that the fact the church is never described as the harem of God is indicative of an anti-polygamus attitude. But I still think it is human writers, inspired by God, calling upon metaphors that occur to them in the everyday life of their temporal and cultural context, that results in the particular analogy used.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink:
However, if we want to argue from silence, as some have being doing with the OT, we could say that the fact the church is never described as the harem of God is indicative of an anti-polygamus attitude. But I still think it is human writers, inspired by God, calling upon metaphors that occur to them in the everyday life of their temporal and cultural context, that results in the particular analogy used.

Yes, that's probably right. And it does depend on how we think the human writers were inspired by God. I would go with the option that the particular analogy was also inspired, as was the cultural context.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
So have you got any Biblical evidence of the dysfunctionality of polygamy? That's the basic thrust of the thread, and I've yet to see anything very convincing.

Nope, aside from the case of Solomon, previously cited.

Yet, in the light of Alan Cresswell's excellent question, I am wondering whether the absence of condemnation is directly linked to Jesus' point blank refusal to condemn the adulterous woman. That is, His judgement was based upon her circumstances, relative to the practices of those around her.

If women were only accorded status through marriage or child-rearing, or other sexual association ie concubine/prostitute, then an outright condemnation of polygamy would have consigned countless women and their children to.... what exactly ?

And which of the parties would be counted as the wrong-doing 'adulterer' ?

Jesus' silence must have been deafening.
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
Ooh, interesting point.
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
That's your interpretation. I could equally say that God rejects Ishmael because he is a manifestation of Abraham's lack of faith. There's no evidence here that God either approved or disapproved of polygamy per se.

I can't find a place BEFORE the conception of Ishmael where God says specifically to Abra(ha)m that Sarai (later Sarah) would be the mother of his child - so for it to demonstrate a "lack of faith" on Abram's part, that would require that there was something "unfatihful" or "insufficient in faith" about taking Sarai's handmaid to bear his son.
quote:
I can't help feeling, LMC, that you're reading these passages through the prism of your existing expectations of what marriage ought to look like.
We all read scripture through our own prisms of expectation and assumption, every one of us. I think my expectation of what marriage "ought to look like" came from growing up with married parents. I spent a good 10 years living a life which didn't conform to Biblical standards because I thought they didn't apply any longer and at a certain point, I became convinced that they do apply. So, in looking to scripture, I found the best justification for sex outside marriage is Tamar and Judah (Gen. 38; and that ain't very justified!) and a clear sense of one man/one woman/forever as the ideal. This was not what I wanted to find.
quote:
quote:
Like *most* of the old testament law, Jesus did not reiterate the position of scripture. I see the position of scripture as pretty clear, even though there was no legal prohibition of polygamy. And, in the context of warring cultures, it was a way to regenerate a population - practical, from the human standpoint.
(my italics)

If there's no legal prohibition, but you nevertheless think polygamy is clearly rejected by scripture, it's a funny sort of clarity to my mind. And I wouldn't have thought any moral law could be cast aside for pragmatic reasons, as you suggest.

You're taking my argument farther than I take it myself: I am not saying "polygamy is clearly rejected by scripture" - I am arguing the Biblical basis of traditional marriage, which does *not* require that scripture clearly reject polygamy or make it "legally immoral" but only that scripture present a clear ideal. For me, this is one of the places where reading the Bible is very interesting and very challenging: to what degree has scripture "compromised" God's "perfect will" to accomodate the foibles of humanity, the realities of iron age economics, the hardness of our hearts? Jesus certainly indicates that the laws regarding divorce which Moses was "allowed" to include are just that, a concession to our imperfection. I think NOT condemning polygamy outright was another concession, but not one I can prove - but that's not the basis of this discussion, is it? "prove polygamy is wrong, from scripture"?
quote:
quote:
If you follow the argument from Genesis 17 and 22, as well as the prohibition against *kings* multiplying wives (and if it wasn't good for the king, it's going to be good for "just plain folks?" I don't think so) from Leviticus, you see that polygamy is not "the best way" - it's tolerated, but NOT encouraged.
The same prohibitions include having great numbers of horses, or too much gold, and the NIV has in Deut 17:17
quote:
He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray.
How do you get from this to a clear Biblical argument against polygamy? It reads to me like several would be OK, just not many, and the reason for that is practical, rather than moral.

To quote my first post, "Lev. 17:14-20, God gives very specific instruction that when the people cry out for a human king, how he should behave and NOT multiply wives, horses, wealth - laws that were not obeyed so please note I included the prohibitions against horses and wealth, as well. We can *speculate* about why God included these warnings for the king (I expect all three were arenas in which kings competed amongst themselves) and we know that Solomon's foreign wives turned his heart from God (marriage to non-Hebrews was also discouraged, so he blew it on a number of counts - and he was the wisest man on the planet.
quote:
quote:
So what are your arguments from scripture to indicate that polygamy was good? I will be very interested to see them.
Not good, just neutral. Most of the OT, I think - time and time again, the OT explicitly describes polygamous relationships, and you know what? It isn't ever condemned. There is criticism of Solomon's many foreign wives, various adulterous relationships, and some passages, like Deut 17:17 preach "polygamy in moderation", but there's no outright condemnation. Considering some of the things that are condemned, that it seems to have been such a common practice, and that you can find some form of "thou shalt not" almost anywhere, I think this is quite revealing.

I don't hold any kind of brief for polygamy - there are good practical reasons for rejecting it as a viable model for worldwide marriage, and legal ones for not living polygamously. Besides which, I don't think Keren-Happuch would like the idea much. [Biased] But if you say that the Bible clearly rejects polygamy, I'll have to say I think you're completely wrong.

I don't see how you get "polygamy in moderation" out of Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold... It looks to me, however, that the bulk of our argument is over the misapprehension that MY claim is that scripture "clearly rejects" polygamy, and that is not my argument. I do think scripture makes it clear that polygamy is NOT the ideal and you haven't presented any scriptures which counter that; the fact that God doesn't attach a big red "thou shalt not" to something which nearly all men of means were practicing at the time doesn't make an argument for ideal. If you can find an instance in which polygamy doesn't create pain or trouble, I will be very impressed, because I sure can't think of any.
quote:
Barnabbas62 said:
It is actually a "becoming" which I believe means that God's in it, we're in it, and anyone who really cares about us is, ideally, some sort of positive support (that's the leaving bit). If you don't annoy, or get annoyed, some of the time, you're either very fortunate or there's something wrong! Short answer - not either/or, but both. And on the human side, maybe more about the enduring promise than the really important matter of the heart.

I agree with the and/both aspect of your response but no one has addressed how this is NOT an argument against polygamy - an additional sexual partner sunders the relationship. I don't see any way around that. "The two" cannot be "one flesh" and ALSO have one of those people be "one flesh" with another person.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
You're taking my argument farther than I take it myself: I am not saying "polygamy is clearly rejected by scripture" - I am arguing the Biblical basis of traditional marriage, which does *not* require that scripture clearly reject polygamy or make it "legally immoral" but only that scripture present a clear ideal. For me, this is one of the places where reading the Bible is very interesting and very challenging: to what degree has scripture "compromised" God's "perfect will" to accomodate the foibles of humanity, the realities of iron age economics, the hardness of our hearts? Jesus certainly indicates that the laws regarding divorce which Moses was "allowed" to include are just that, a concession to our imperfection. I think NOT condemning polygamy outright was another concession, but not one I can prove - but that's not the basis of this discussion, is it? "prove polygamy is wrong, from scripture"?

Well, polygamy is explicitly mentioned in the OP as the contender, if you like, for the title of Biblical Model of Marriage, so any attempt to address the OP has got to assess the Biblical attitude to polygamy, especially as there are far more examples than there are of monogamy.

You've referred more than once to passages being "clear" in support of your position, and drawing a conclusion against polygamy. I don't think it's unreasonable to conclude from that that you're saying "polygamy is clearly rejected by scripture". If that's not what you're saying, maybe we need to investigate what you think a little further. Do you believe polygamy is a sin, for example? It's interesting that you mention divorce, which is not an absolute sin. I would suggest that polygamy is possibly in a similar part of the "sin spectrum" - possibly not ideal, but not forbidden, just subject to controls. Would you agree with this assessment?
quote:
I don't see how you get "polygamy in moderation" out of Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold...
Then read my post again. I think you've quoted the wrong passage when you refer to Lev 17:14-20 (look it up - I suspect you meant Deut), but the NIV (and, it would appear, most translations apart from the KJV) renders the Deuteronomy passage as "He must not take many wives, or his heart will be led astray", which suggest to me a) a practical, rather than moral objection, and b) an objection not to 2, 3 or 4 wives, but 200, 300 or 400. I certainly can't imagine using "many" to mean 2. Without going into the precise detail of the Hebrew, I think it's fair to say the passage is less than explicit.

quote:
I do think scripture makes it clear that polygamy is NOT the ideal and you haven't presented any scriptures which counter that; the fact that God doesn't attach a big red "thou shalt not" to something which nearly all men of means were practicing at the time doesn't make an argument for ideal. If you can find an instance in which polygamy doesn't create pain or trouble, I will be very impressed, because I sure can't think of any.
The fact that no big red "thou shalt not" attached to something so many people were doing suggests to me that at worst, it can't be far from the ideal - God seems to have been fairly quick to condemn various widespread practices throughout the OT. I agree that polygamy isn't the ideal, but I don't think scripture makes that clear at all, not when the overwhelming majority of marriages mentioned are polygamous, and yet are not condemned for that.

As an instance of polygamy that doesn't cause trouble, how about David? He seems to have been positively blessed in his polygamy. It also seems reasonable to assume that God wasn't just keeping his counsel about this straying, considering how efficiently David was brought to repentance by Nathan over the Bathsheba incident. If ever there was someone God would lead towards a better model, it was surely David, but He didn't and David prospered.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:

TGG
If ever there was someone God would lead towards a better model, it was surely David, but He didn't and David prospered.

Err....David prospered because he was nothing less than a man after God's own heart. So much so, that Jesus is modelled upon the example set by David. That his polygamy prospered (in contrast with that of Solomon) was a by product of the love which God had for him - warts and all.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Though you would have to say that, other than the ability to teach, the list is an ideal that is set for all to aspire to, isn't it?

Yes, I guess it is.

But I think this just brings us back to what I said way back about OT & NT both simply reflecting the norms of their respective times (about marital plurality).

Only that we now have a NT passage that gives an ideal of monogamy AND an OT passage (Gen 2) that sets an ideal of monogamy.

Also, as LMC suggested, the Torah's allowance of polygamy doesn't take away from the idea that monogamy is the ideal, any more than the Torah's allowance of divorce takes away from the fact that the ideal is that marriages are "til do us part".
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:

TGG
If ever there was someone God would lead towards a better model, it was surely David, but He didn't and David prospered.

Err....David prospered because he was nothing less than a man after God's own heart.
You asserted this earlier. If David was a man after God's own heart, why would he do something that was against God's will? If he didn't know it was against God's will, why didn't God tell him? He wasn't exactly shy about sending Nathan to slap him down over his adultery and murder.
quote:
So much so, that Jesus is modelled upon the example set by David.
Exactly what do you mean by this?
quote:
That his polygamy prospered (in contrast with that of Solomon) was a by product of the love which God had for him - warts and all.
So God loves some people so much that He doesn't even bother to tell them to stop sinning, while at the same time He makes life hell for people He doesn't like for doing exactly the same thing? I don't recognise this picture at all - it seems to be bordering on Calvinism.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Sorry for the double post
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
As an instance of polygamy that doesn't cause trouble, how about David? He seems to have been positively blessed in his polygamy. It also seems reasonable to assume that God wasn't just keeping his counsel about this straying, considering how efficiently David was brought to repentance by Nathan over the Bathsheba incident. If ever there was someone God would lead towards a better , it was surely David, but He didn't and David prospered.

Though the civil war that occurred under his rule could hardly be seen as a "high point" of prosperity in his reign - and this could be seen as a direct consequence of his polygamy; i.e. the interplay of siblings from different mothers (not unlike what we see in the relations between the sons of Jacob).
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
You asserted this earlier. If David was a man after God's own heart, why would he do something that was against God's will? If he didn't know it was against God's will, why didn't God tell him? He wasn't exactly shy about sending Nathan to slap him down over his adultery and murder.

David disobeyed God by running contrary to His Will, plenty of times. This is my own experience too. God has His own ways of showing how wrong we are - mostly through hindsight, if not through the likes of Samuel and Nathan. David always repented and turned back to God; as do I -eventually.

quote:
So much so, that Jesus is modelled upon the example set by David.
Exactly what do you mean by this?

Whilst Jesus' priesthood is in the order of Melchizedek, his Kingship is in David's line ie the Servant King whose Kingdom was established and ruled by God.

quote:
So God loves some people so much that He doesn't even bother to tell them to stop sinning, while at the same time He makes life hell for people He doesn't like for doing exactly the same thing?
I don't understand what this means. God has made Himself and His message known throughout history. Don't people have a share in the Hell which engulfs us ?

quote:
I don't recognise this picture at all - it seems to be bordering on Calvinism.
God's love centres on mutuality as exemplified by David, not on Calvinist predestiny.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I am wondering whether the absence of condemnation is directly linked to Jesus' point blank refusal to condemn the adulterous woman. That is, His judgement was based upon her circumstances, relative to the practices of those around her.

If women were only accorded status through marriage or child-rearing, or other sexual association ie concubine/prostitute, then an outright condemnation of polygamy would have consigned countless women and their children to.... what exactly ?

And which of the parties would be counted as the wrong-doing 'adulterer' ?

Jesus' silence must have been deafening.

I agree that this is an interesting point, but it's a pretty weird one too.

For a start, "the absence of condemnation"? Do I read right that you are trying to explain the the absence of condemnation of polygamy in the Bible? This would seem to negate a very very large number of your posts maintaining that the Bible condemns polygamy loudly & clearly & consistently.

And secondly, you seem to be arguing that the reason polygamy is not condemned is out of sympathy for women who had no choice but polygamy. This seems muddled to me, because all of us on both sides of the argument have agreed that we dislike polygamy precisely because it abuses and undervalues women. There's something a bit wrong about declining to condemn and prohibit the abuse of women out of sympathy for women, isn't there?

You might as well say that the Bible should not tell men not to use prostitutes because it's not their fault they're prostitutes.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
I think Genesis 1-2 does say something about the issues you raised - though it would be off the topic to deal with them now...other than to mention that veganism was directly dealt with by God in Gen 9.
mmmmmmm juicy steak.

OK, so the creation story presents monogamy and veganism as ideal.
Polygamy is permitted by the law of Moses.
Meat-eating is permitted by the law of Noah.

Christians are expected to live not by the permission but by the ideal.

Therefore Christians shun polygamy and steak. No?
 
Posted by Caz... (# 3026) on :
 
SteveTom you're saying everything I want to, better than I could.

Thanks and damn you [Smile]
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
I really hope this thread doesn't dry up and blow away before I get a chance to respond to some interesting arguments! I'm nearly cross-eyed with fatigue at the moment, so off to my solo bed momentarily (pity me! no? ah, well...) and may or may not have much time to get back online for the next few days - blessings, all.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
OK, so the creation story presents monogamy and veganism as ideal.
Polygamy is permitted by the law of Moses.
Meat-eating is permitted by the law of Noah.

Christians are expected to live not by the permission but by the ideal.

Therefore Christians shun polygamy and steak. No?

And, indeed, no Christian should marry at all, monogamously or otherwise, if we apply that reasoning to 1Cor7.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
Apologies for the DP, but I've been thinking about this one for a while.
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Though the civil war that occurred under his rule could hardly be seen as a "high point" of prosperity in his reign - and this could be seen as a direct consequence of his polygamy; i.e. the interplay of siblings from different mothers (not unlike what we see in the relations between the sons of Jacob).

I certainly agree that you could read it this way, but you could look at it in other ways as well. The problem is that we have no way of knowing whether the facts are even related. However, inasmuch as all things are related to each other in the wider scheme of things, you probably have a point. In fact, I wonder if I'm on a fool's errand attempting to show an entirely positive example of polygamy, not because there weren't any, but because they weren't recorded.

The whole OT (and the Bible in general) is filled with stories of deeply flawed characters, with one notable exception (but he didn't marry [Biased] ), so any exemplar for any argument is most likely going to be all too fallible in one way or another. The further problem is that in general, only "interesting" stories get much attention from the authors, and when they bother to mention an entirely blameless person, they shockingly neglect to record his marital arrangements for posterity! So, for example, King Hezekiah, son of Ahaz, is praised in glowing terms, and I couldn't find any criticism of him at all, but his marital situation isn't recorded. I suspect he would have had more than one wife, but without confirmation, this is just a supposition.

In the circumstances, I think it would be hard to construct much of a case that any model of marriage inherently causes problems. Certainly, it would be possible to claim the occasional high-profile monogamist as evidence in favour of that model (Moses springs to mind), but it doesn't demonstrate an inherent superiority over polygamy. I think the best we can do is probably to examine the Law, and any recorded criticism of marriage practices. All else is open to far too much interpretation.

Noelper, could you give some examples of David persistently sinning and not repenting of his own accord? Because that's what he was doing if his polygamy was contrary to God's will. Apart from the business with Bathsheba, I can't think of any. In fact, it seems very odd to me, if polygamy is wrong in some way, that God would send a prophet to tell him off about his adultery and not bother to mention his equally sinful polygamy.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
Noelper, could you give some examples of David persistently sinning and not repenting of his own accord? Because that's what he was doing if his polygamy was contrary to God's will. Apart from the business with Bathsheba, I can't think of any. In fact, it seems very odd to me, if polygamy is wrong in some way, that God would send a prophet to tell him off about his adultery and not bother to mention his equally sinful polygamy.

I'm not sure I fully understand the question, but the story in 1 Sam 25 portrays David in bigamous marriage with Abigail, being already married to Michal. By this time he had also married Ahinoam. v 44 indicates that Saul disapproved so violently that he gave Michal to another man - but Saul was a nutter anyway.

When the ark was brought to Jerusalem, I Chron 14:3 states that David had acquired yet more wives and children whilst still married to Michal. Having formerly loved David, she now despises him and berates his immodesty(!) before slave girls. Michal is ultimately rewarded with barrenness, whilst David is humilliated by his son Absalom, shagging his concubines.

God appears to be giving some pointed hints in these accounts - to me anyway.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I'm not sure I fully understand the question

OK, I'll try again. You contend that David's polygamy was against God's will, and support this position by observing that David sinned many times, but always repented. This much I agree with. However, he didn't repent of his polygamy, nor did he ever give any indication that he might, or even that there might have been anything wrong with it. If it was, indeed, against God's will, I would have expected him to do something along these lines - after all, he always repented, right? The only other occasion I can think of when he sinned, but didn't come to repentance off his own bat shortly afterwards was Bathsheba-gate, when Nathan the prophet challenged him about it.

This, to me, builds up a picture of someone who was very aware of his own failings, was self-critical almost to a fault, and constantly examined himself to see if he was doing anything that might displease God. On the one occasion he allowed himself to slip, God quickly stepped in, via Nathan, to put him back on track. If this picture is accurate, it seems unlikely that his polygamy was against God's will, as you contend. This would mean that not only did David uncharacteristically base his entire life on sin, he never even considered the possibility that God might have other ideas, and God didn't bother to send him the rebuke that would surely have prompted David to clean up his act, even though He was already sending a prophet on another matter.

However, if there is any evidence that David committed other persistent sins (I'll settle for persistent, rather than life-long) without either bringing himself to repentance or being called to it by God, I'll accept that my picture of David needs some modification.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
I think Genesis 1-2 does say something about the issues you raised - though it would be off the topic to deal with them now...other than to mention that veganism was directly dealt with by God in Gen 9.
mmmmmmm juicy steak.

OK, so the creation story presents monogamy and veganism as ideal.
Polygamy is permitted by the law of Moses.
Meat-eating is permitted by the law of Noah.

Christians are expected to live not by the permission but by the ideal.

Therefore Christians shun polygamy and steak. No?

I suspect I am missing something in your logic or assumptions here, because this seems to me to be "guilt by association" that you are arguing. "Monogamy and veganism are both ideals ... surely we aren't required too be vegans...therefore we aren't required to be monogamous."

Isn't it possible that these "ideals" might be developed through salvation history in different ways and with varying degrees of significance?

BTW, are you now acknowledging that monogamy is more than simply a cultural preference in the Bible. Doesn't this then shift the discussion from whether the Bible has an ideal for marriage, to how the Bible applies the ideal of marriage?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
TGG,
Sorry, I've completely lost the plot . [Hot and Hormonal]
Here are some comments in the faint hope that I hit the mark..... [Confused]

A propos David's sins, it seems that God so loved David that few of his sins are recorded; indeed the Chronicles are entirely silent on the subject of his adultery with Bathsheba. Although David's sin of counting of his men is recorded, it is difficult for us to understand the nature of the offence. That he ate the shewbread whilst in exile, is affirmed by Jesus as the means of distinguishing between ritual practice and God's Presence. When acting in the priestly role of presenting offerings at the return of the ark, this wasnot counted against David. Yet King Uzziah was smitten with leprosy for his pretension to priesthood, whilst Korah et al were incinerated.

These incidents fully accord with the principle, established from the start with Abraham, that God credits those whom He loves with righteousness. That is, David, the patriarchs, and indeed every single one of us, are sinful beings; but God may (or may not) blot out our sins, if we only remain faithful to Him.

quote:
This would mean that not only did David uncharacteristically base his entire life on sin, he never even considered the possibility that God might have other ideas, and God didn't bother to send him the rebuke that would surely have prompted David to clean up his act, even though He was already sending a prophet on another matter.

Resuming the earlier argument, ie which of the parties of polygamy would be the adulterer?. David's polygamy was clearly in keeping with the cultural practices prevailing at the time. Despite many indications of God's displeasure over his womanising (previously cited), in the story of Bathsheba, God acted decisively because David was unequivocally the guilty party. He had broken 4 out of the 10 commandments, because he was unfaithful - not only to his plentiful supply of wives, but to God.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
I suspect I am missing something in your logic or assumptions here, because this seems to me to be "guilt by association" that you are arguing. "Monogamy and veganism are both ideals ... surely we aren't required too be vegans...therefore we aren't required to be monogamous."

The point of my argument was to follow through the logic of your argument, and show that it applies to meat-eating in the same way that it applies to polygamy.

If, as you suggest, the monogamy of the creation story is binding (or whatever it is) on Christians, then so is its veganism.

If you accept one and not the other, then I think there is a weakness in your argument, and you need to explain, without special pleading, what the difference is.

I do not say "surely we aren't required too be vegans"; but I suspect that you do, and if so I want to know why you do, if you read the creation story as offering a universal pattern for human life.

quote:
Isn't it possible that these "ideals" might be developed through salvation history in different ways and with varying degrees of significance?
They have been. But as I understand it, you are appealing to the ideals of the creation story against the way they were developed in the OT.

quote:
BTW, are you now acknowledging that monogamy is more than simply a cultural preference in the Bible. Doesn't this then shift the discussion from whether the Bible has an ideal for marriage, to how the Bible applies the ideal of marriage?
Not yet. But I like your vigilance.
 
Posted by Ann (# 94) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
<snip>

In fact, I wonder if I'm on a fool's errand attempting to show an entirely positive example of polygamy, not because there weren't any, but because they weren't recorded.

<snip>

... only "interesting" stories get much attention from the authors, and when they bother to mention an entirely blameless person, they shockingly neglect to record his marital arrangements for posterity! So, for example, King Hezekiah, son of Ahaz, is praised in glowing terms, and I couldn't find any criticism of him at all, but his marital situation isn't recorded. I suspect he would have had more than one wife, but without confirmation, this is just a supposition.

In the circumstances, I think it would be hard to construct much of a case that any model of marriage inherently causes problems. Certainly, it would be possible to claim the occasional high-profile monogamist as evidence in favour of that model (Moses springs to mind), but it doesn't demonstrate an inherent superiority over polygamy. I think the best we can do is probably to examine the Law, and any recorded criticism of marriage practices. All else is open to far too much interpretation.

<snip>


Although there's no mention of the number of wives, I'd say you can infer polygamy (the only other inference would be a severely exhausted single wife) in at least a couple of cases in Judges 12:8 to the end.

Ibzan and Abdon may not have set Israel on fire, but their couple of verses each show a quiet competence - their children were provided for and they and their children were not a cause for scandal.

The Old Testament ranges over at least fifteen hundred years, probably two thousand or more, in an area where polygamy was not uncommon. I think that although Israel was called out to be special, t didn't happen all at once (the OT is full of remonstrances from God and the prophets). There's also the problem of when the OT (especially the earlier bits) was codified. I've got the impression that a lot of the identity of Israel was forged during the Babylonian exile; it is possible that if by that time monogamy was the norm for the Jews, the creation accounts would have been written from that viewpoint.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Sorry, I've completely lost the plot . [Hot and Hormonal]

Then I don't know how else I can explain what I'm asking.

quote:
A propos David's sins, it seems that God so loved David that few of his sins are recorded
This is an extraordinary claim, and one that is entirely unprovable. I don't think differences between the events related in different books demonstrates anything.

quote:
These incidents fully accord with the principle, established from the start with Abraham, that God credits those whom He loves with righteousness. That is, David, the patriarchs, and indeed every single one of us, are sinful beings; but God may (or may not) blot out our sins, if we only remain faithful to Him.
Yes, we're all sinners, and yes, attitude is important, but God nevertheless requires the sin to cease. Why not in this case? There is a possible parallel with the woman caught in adultery. After no one feels able to condemn her, Jesus, despite having intervened to save her life, instructs her to go and sin no more.

quote:
David's polygamy was clearly in keeping with the cultural practices prevailing at the time.
No argument here. The question is, as it has been for a while, if polygamy is against God's will, why did He remain silent, rather than condemning it?

[ETA: Thanks for the suggestions of polygamous rolemodels, Ann. I could remember a few "Good Kings", but there was no mention at all of their wives.]

[ 03. July 2006, 12:02: Message edited by: The Great Gumby ]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
Then I don't know how else I can explain what I'm asking.

Sorry for my incomprehension. [Hot and Hormonal]

quote:
This is an extraordinary claim, and one that is entirely unprovable. I don't think differences between the events related in different books demonstrates anything.
Whilst accepting that it is unproveable, why is it extraordinary ?

quote:
Yes, we're all sinners, and yes, attitude is important, but God nevertheless requires the sin to cease. Why not in this case? There is a possible parallel with the woman caught in adultery. After no one feels able to condemn her, Jesus, despite having intervened to save her life, instructs her to go and sin no more.
This might be the source of my misunderstanding...
Do you really believe that:
A)the woman stopped sinning ?
B)Jesus believed that she would cease the sinful life ?
C) If so, why ?

quote:
The question is, as it has been for a while, if polygamy is against God's will, why did He remain silent, rather than condemning it?
For myself, the answer is that He remains silent about the practice, even to now, because He prefers Salvation to condemnation.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
For myself, the answer is that He remains silent about the practice, even to now, because He prefers Salvation to condemnation.

The word "abomination" occurs about 140 times in the OT.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
This is an extraordinary claim, and one that is entirely unprovable. I don't think differences between the events related in different books demonstrates anything.
Whilst accepting that it is unproveable, why is it extraordinary ?
Because it more or less turns the entire Bible into one big hagiography. If you believe this, why believe that Jesus was really sinless, or performed the miracles that are recorded? The gospel accounts may have been "sexed up" because he loved God, and that's all that matters.

quote:
This might be the source of my misunderstanding...
Do you really believe that:
A)the woman stopped sinning ?
B)Jesus believed that she would cease the sinful life ?
C) If so, why ?

I don't know. I suspect that nearly being stoned to death would have had quite a profound effect on her, and probably prompted some sort of change, but I don't see that it's relevant. The point is that even while not condemning, Jesus leaves her in no doubt about the "right" course of action, information which seems to be lacking in David's case.

quote:
quote:
The question is, as it has been for a while, if polygamy is against God's will, why did He remain silent, rather than condemning it?
For myself, the answer is that He remains silent about the practice, even to now, because He prefers Salvation to condemnation.
But the Bible, especially the OT, is chock full of condemnation of this practice, that practice, and frequently the other practice. God's commands range from the deadly serious, to the apparently ridiculous, to the downright bizarre, so if you propose that God's preference for salvation over condemnation explains His silence on polygamy, I think you need to demonstrate why all the OT laws are different, and need to be laid down in this way.

[ETA: And what SteveTom said]

[ 04. July 2006, 08:29: Message edited by: The Great Gumby ]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
But the Bible, especially the OT, is chock full of condemnation of this practice, that practice, and frequently the other practice. God's commands range from the deadly serious, to the apparently ridiculous, to the downright bizarre, so if you propose that God's preference for salvation over condemnation explains His silence on polygamy, I think you need to demonstrate why all the OT laws are different, and need to be laid down in this way.

I shall respond to your other points later, but note that your approach seeks to justify the ways of God to men and women - when the bible teaches that it is our ways which are not justifiable.
 
Posted by Caz... (# 3026) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
For myself, the answer is that He remains silent about the practice, even to now, because He prefers Salvation to condemnation.

Noelper, in this you are surely also justifying God's ways though?

I don't think 'justifying' is a helpful word though actually. Understanding might be better. We are all trying to understand God's way, in order to try and understand a tiny bit more of God and what he requires of us.

The point here though is that you seem to be putting forward the case that polygamy was a special case for God - that although he spoke against a myriad of other things in the OT, he did not speak against this one thing because he preferred salvation over condemnation - which is an admirable soundbite, but how does it stand against all the things he DID speak out on?
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I shall respond to your other points later, but note that your approach seeks to justify the ways of God to men and women - when the bible teaches that it is our ways which are not justifiable.

This is a classic cop out - insist that you have a true and right understanding of God and that other people's are contradictory and inconsistent, then when someone points out the contradiction and inconsistency in your own, you say "Ah, but God is an incomprehensible mystery"
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
This is a classic cop out - insist that you have a true and right understanding of God and that other people's are contradictory and inconsistent, then when someone points out the contradiction and inconsistency in your own, you say "Ah, but God is an incomprehensible mystery"

While I'm not in agreement with N's general thrust in this thread, I think that your point here is not well-taken. ISTM that the nature of our appreciation of God is that we see through a glass darkly. There are things that have been given to us, both as a Church and as individuals, to see clearly. Most of God's creation does remain a mystery to us, though. The fault, I think, is in attempting to argue one's way out of our God-imposed limits.

It is entirely appropriate to hold on to the Truth we have been given. I agree that this is a bit slippery -- we are sinful creatures, and can easily deceive ourselves that we have been given truths that are convient. Nonetheless, placing our ability to argue at the core of our faith seems absurd. So we are pretty much left with the "cop out," aren't we?

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
tclune
It is entirely appropriate to hold on to the Truth we have been given. I agree that this is a bit slippery -- we are sinful creatures, and can easily deceive ourselves that we have been given truths that are convient. Nonetheless, placing our ability to argue at the core of our faith seems absurd. So we are pretty much left with the "cop out," aren't we?

Agreed. The general thrust of my position ( as I have consistently made clear ) is that I have indeed 'copped out' in favour of a position where God is Right, no matter what. This in turn raises the question 'What is Faith?'- which I have answered in my own mind.

( Thanks for expressing your disagreement with courtesy.)
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
The general thrust of my position ( as I have consistently made clear ) is that I have indeed 'copped out' in favour of a position where God is Right, no matter what.

That's all well and good, but the problem here is that it's difficult to extrapolate from the general "God is Right" to the specific "God wants us to be in monogamous marriages" based on what God has actually said on the subject - which, in the Christian Scriptures at least (which is the only thing relevant for a thread on the Biblical Basis of traditional marriage), is practically nothing.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
Because it more or less turns the entire Bible into one big hagiography. If you believe this, why believe that Jesus was really sinless, or performed the miracles that are recorded? The gospel accounts may have been "sexed up" because he loved God, and that's all that matters.

It is because I believe that Jesus was sinless that I assert David and others' sinfulness. The scriptural picture painted of David is warts-n-all - a far cry from hagiography.

Wikipedia:
"The term "hagiography" has also come to be used as a pejorative reference to the works of contemporary biographers and historians whom critics perceive to be uncritical and even "reverential" in their writing."


quote:
The point is that even while not condemning, Jesus leaves her in no doubt about the "right" course of action, information which seems to be lacking in David's case.
You have not established which part of " Do not commit adultery " amounts to equivocation about marriage or to second, third or more spouses; nor about sexual relations with people already married. Jesus simply reiterated the old, old story and OT scriptures document peoples' failure to follow God's instructions.

quote:
Alan Cresswell
That's all well and good, but the problem here is that it's difficult to extrapolate from the general "God is Right" to the specific "God wants us to be in monogamous marriages" based on what God has actually said on the subject - which, in the Christian Scriptures at least (which is the only thing relevant for a thread on the Biblical Basis of traditional marriage), is practically nothing.

I can't believe we are reading the same bible.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
I can't believe we are reading the same bible.

Sorry, I thought we'd already concluded that the Bible is silent on the pro/con of polygamy
quote:
Originally posted by noelper about 3/4 down p2 of this thread:
Henry Troup

quote:
Can you provide a text explicitly against polygamy?
No. Can you provide a text explicitly in favour of polygamy ?
You can't offer a text that explicitely condemns polygamy. We can't offer a text explicitely in favour. The Bible is practically silent on the subject.

The same seems to be true of virtually everything else relevant to the question. We have a few verses in the Pastoral Epistles recommending that church leaders be men with a single wife - without any indication if that's a universal rule, or just that they should be respectable citizens (and, that in that culture, respectable men had a single wife). We have a "Creation Principle" that a man and a woman leave their parents and become one flesh - without any indication whether one flesh is exclusive (can a man have two wives, and each be one flesh?), nor how come this principle still holds when other creation principles such as veganism are considered to be no longer binding.

That seems to be the sum totally of the Biblical texts on the subject. Hardly a deafening, unmistakable command from God.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
Alan Cresswell
Sorry, I thought we'd already concluded that the Bible is silent on the pro/con of polygamy.
And....

That seems to be the sum totally of the Biblical texts on the subject. Hardly a deafening, unmistakable command from God.

No. The consensus has been that the texts previously quoted do not constitute open dispprobation /condemnation of polygamy. It appears that only a cursing in Black and White constitutes a command. As if that ever made any difference with the human race....

quote:

noelper
Shipmate
# 9961

Posted 21 June, 2006 09:21
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The basis for monogamy lies in the Ten Commandments , which advocate fidelity only to One Person and honouring of one's father and mother, whilst explicitly prohibiting adultery and forbidding the coveting of a neighbour's wife.

It seems very clear to me.
But as Jesus the realist said:


quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
“Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Of course, honouring your parents isn't related in anyway to the monogamy/polygamy question, or divorce for that matter. If a man has three wives (whether serially following divorce or death, or polygamously) all of whom bear him children, those children all have parents (albeit different parents for some of the kids) to whom honour is due. Is there any reason for someone to honour their father less if he has more than one wife, or to honour their mother less if she's just one of several wives?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
Alan C
Is there any reason for someone to honour their father less if he has more than one wife, or to honour their mother less if she's just one of several wives?

Is there any reason to pre-suppose that the child/ren of such relationships are less entitled to love, nurture or shelter from both parents (irrespective of marital/sexual relations)- apart from common sense, that is ?
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
While I'm not in agreement with N's general thrust in this thread, I think that your point here is not well-taken. ISTM that the nature of our appreciation of God is that we see through a glass darkly. There are things that have been given to us, both as a Church and as individuals, to see clearly. Most of God's creation does remain a mystery to us, though. The fault, I think, is in attempting to argue one's way out of our God-imposed limits.

I wonder if perhaps we are reading the post I was replying to differently. Perhaps not, but it's hard to see how what you say applies to it otherwise.

That there is a mystery at the heart of faith in God, and that at a certain point those who defend their faith rationally have to say "It's a mystery" - I don't necessarily have a problem with that. That's not what's going on here.

To condemn polygamy on the basis of repeated explicit condemnation in the Bible;
and when unable to demonstrate such biblical condemnation, to say that God has dropped subtle hints, it not being his way to condemn things explicitly;
and when confronted with the fact that God thoroughly condemns no end of things explicitly in the Bible, and asked how a theory that God does not condemn bad things is reconcilable with that,
to then say "It is not my business to justify the ways of God to men";
that is not bowing before the mystery of God. That's just talking shite, squirming every possible way to justify it, and when you can't see any squirm room left, saying that your own irrationality is truer than others' rationality because the ways of God cannot be justified to reason.

God may be mystery, but that does not mean that talking bollocks gets you closer to God than talking sense.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Get off my case.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Get off my case.

You keep saying this. Can you explain what it means?
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
It is because I believe that Jesus was sinless that I assert David and others' sinfulness. The scriptural picture painted of David is warts-n-all - a far cry from hagiography.

[unnecessary definition of hagiography]

You can't say that David is portrayed warts-and-all, at the same time as you say that many of his sins were left out of the Bible in deference to his love of God. These statements are mutually contradictory, so which is it to be?

quote:
You have not established which part of " Do not commit adultery " amounts to equivocation about marriage or to second, third or more spouses; nor about sexual relations with people already married. Jesus simply reiterated the old, old story and OT scriptures document peoples' failure to follow God's instructions.
That's been established at great length on this thread already, and I see no reason to go over the same ground again. However, to keep you happy, adultery refers to sex with someone not your spouse. It says nothing about how many spouses one should have.

I think the problem here is that you seem to regard it as axiomatic that polygamy is against God's will. That would explain the extraordinary contortions you're going through to justify the Bible's silence on the matter, but it really doesn't help to address the OP. If you can discard your prior assumptions, maybe we can have a fruitful discussion about this, but otherwise, I don't think we're going to get very far.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
Alan C
Is there any reason for someone to honour their father less if he has more than one wife, or to honour their mother less if she's just one of several wives?

Is there any reason to pre-suppose that the child/ren of such relationships are less entitled to love, nurture or shelter from both parents (irrespective of marital/sexual relations)- apart from common sense, that is ?
No reason at all. In fact, I'd say that the children of a polygamous marriage shouldn't expect to get any less love and nurture from both parents as children from a monogamous relationship. There is a danger of children of a wife who is more loved by the father being specially treated (eg: the story of Joseph and his brothers), but that's an issue of human jealousy and failing, and I don't think it's necessarily a part of polygamous relationships any more than poor parenting is a part of a monogamous one.

I'd even go as far as saying that a polygamous marriage provides better nuture for children than the modern trend of two parents bringing up their children on their own - though whether it's any better than more traditional social structures where those parents have their parents and siblings, and other members of the community, available to help out I don't know.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
TGG
You can't say that David is portrayed warts-and-all, at the same time as you say that many of his sins were left out of the Bible in deference to his love of God. These statements are mutually contradictory, so which is it to be?

I can say so because it is simple fact. If you believe there is a contradiction, perhaps you should consult the authors.

quote:
However, to keep you happy, adultery refers to sex with someone not your spouse. It says nothing about how many spouses one should have.
This kind of hair-splitting is possibly appropriate in a court of law; less so in a discussion of christian theology where Jesus said in Matt 5:27-28 :-

"You have heard that it was said, 'Do not commit adultery.' But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart."

quote:
That would explain the extraordinary contortions you're going through to justify the Bible's silence on the matter, but it really doesn't help to address the OP.
I proposed a reason; take it or leave it. Makes no difference to me.

quote:
If you can discard your prior assumptions, maybe we can have a fruitful discussion about this, but otherwise, I don't think we're going to get very far.
This is a fair statement of the position, mainly because you have not given any good reason for discarding my basic assumption - that God knows what He is talking about. Moreover, since none of the participants in the discussion appear to consider polygamy appropriate to their individual lifestyle, the academic discussion is somewhat meaningless IMO.

BTW. Thanks for the courtesy.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
TGG
You can't say that David is portrayed warts-and-all, at the same time as you say that many of his sins were left out of the Bible in deference to his love of God. These statements are mutually contradictory, so which is it to be?

I can say so because it is simple fact.
You're going to have to explain how two contradictory statements can make one simple fact.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
TGG
You can't say that David is portrayed warts-and-all, at the same time as you say that many of his sins were left out of the Bible in deference to his love of God. These statements are mutually contradictory, so which is it to be?

I can say so because it is simple fact. If you believe there is a contradiction, perhaps you should consult the authors.
No, it isn't a fact, because you can't hold two opinions which contradict each other. If various sins were deliberately left out, as you maintain, it isn't a warts-and-all account. It's that simple.

quote:
This kind of hair-splitting is possibly appropriate in a court of law; less so in a discussion of christian theology where Jesus said in Matt 5:27-28 :-

"You have heard that it was said, 'Do not commit adultery.' But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart."

There's that prior assumption again. I see no mention of any form of marriage in this passage. This does nothing to demonstrate a link between a prohibition of adultery and a prohibition of polygamy.

quote:
quote:
If you can discard your prior assumptions, maybe we can have a fruitful discussion about this, but otherwise, I don't think we're going to get very far.
This is a fair statement of the position, mainly because you have not given any good reason for discarding my basic assumption - that God knows what He is talking about.
I wouldn't disagree that God knows what he's talking about. The problem is, you haven't demonstrated that God has ever said anything against polygamy, so the question has no relevance.

quote:
Moreover, since none of the participants in the discussion appear to consider polygamy appropriate to their individual lifestyle, the academic discussion is somewhat meaningless IMO.
Not at all. In particular, there is the issue of whether monogamy should be insisted on as a moral command in cultures where polygamy is the norm, or at least acceptable.

[Cross-post with SteveTom]

[ 05. July 2006, 10:29: Message edited by: The Great Gumby ]
 
Posted by Scot (# 2095) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Get off my case.

quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Host hat on

SteveTom has criticized the clarity and logic of your argument. This is appropriate in Kerygmania. Saying 'Get off my case.' is not appropriate. It personalizes what should not be a personal argument. If you want a personal argument, call SteveTom to Hell.

Host hat off

quote:
Originally posted by noelper (again):
Get off my case.

ADMIN MODE

Noelper, when you registered to use these boards, you agreed to abide by the Ship's 10 Commandments. Commandment 6 requires that you respect the hosts and that you take any disputes with them to the Styx. By repeating the exact post that Moo warned you was inappropriate, you have shown a complete disregard for the rules and for the hosts' authority.

Your posting privileges are suspended for a period of at least two weeks. The admins will discuss this matter and determine whether you will be reinstated after two weeks or not.

Scot
Member Admin
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
The problem is, you haven't demonstrated that God has ever said anything against polygamy, so the question has no relevance.
quote:
Moreover, since none of the participants in the discussion appear to consider polygamy appropriate to their individual lifestyle, the academic discussion is somewhat meaningless IMO.
Not at all. In particular, there is the issue of whether monogamy should be insisted on as a moral command in cultures where polygamy is the norm, or at least acceptable.
Thanks, TGG, this is really the issue here, I think.

Didn't I advance a half-way reasonable biblical argument earlier in this thread? I don't think we need to keep trying to pin Noelper down about it. The argument that I advanced is not the strongest in the world, but it has been pretty well accepted in Christianity for a very long time that polygamy is "a bad thing."

You can't say that there is no biblical argument. It's just not very direct or strong. Much like the arguments against slavery, child abuse, and a host of other "bad things" that we would all be happy to impose on other cultures.

Should monogamy be insisted on as a moral command in cultures where polygamy is the norm, or at least acceptable? The answer to that doesn't really depend on whether the Bible offers indisputable evidence that monogamy is a Christian principle. The question is really whether or not polygamy is "a bad thing." Does it hurt people? Does it harm society? Does it violate Christ's commands to love our neighbor, or to do to others as we would have them do to us?

I think that it is pretty clear that the Western answer to these questions is that polygamy is "bad." It is no fun to be a second or third wife. It does not make for good relationships, happy families, or happy children. It is not good for women or men. Sure it can work, and people can be happy in it, but you won't find many testimonies to that in the Western world.

It's not worth going to war over, but in the U.S. people are happy to have the government go after old-style Mormons over it.

So I think that it is perfectly reasonable for monogamy to be insisted on as a moral command, even among people for whom it is the norm - at least within a nation where it is not the norm.

I don't think that it rises to the level of things that are worth insisting on internationally. [Biased]
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Didn't I advance a half-way reasonable biblical argument earlier in this thread?

Yes, certainly half-way. [Biased] I have various reservations about your reasoning, though, as stated since. In particular, I can't make the leap from a prohibition of adultery to a prohibition of polygamy.

quote:
You can't say that there is no biblical argument. It's just not very direct or strong. Much like the arguments against slavery, child abuse, and a host of other "bad things" that we would all be happy to impose on other cultures.
I don't say there's no argument. You can construct an argument for anything! [Biased] Seriously, a reasonable argument can be made, but I think it's rather short of convincing. I think you meant we would be happy to impose our condemnation of these "bad things" on others - I don't think we really want child abuse for all! But I think we would impose it on rather more secular "human rights" grounds, albeit drawing on Biblical principles of love and justice - would you agree? I don't think the same issues have much of a bearing on the subject of how many people you can marry.

quote:
Should monogamy be insisted on as a moral command in cultures where polygamy is the norm, or at least acceptable? The answer to that doesn't really depend on whether the Bible offers indisputable evidence that monogamy is a Christian principle.
I disagree. Let's say a woman lives in a polygamous culture, and has recently converted to Christianity. She loves a man, and he loves her, and they want to get married, but he's already married to another woman. I'd want to be pretty damn sure of my ground before I told her she'd be committing a sin if she married him. You appeal to our cultural consensus, but that doesn't have the authority of holy writ, and in any case, this woman's culture says different. So what now?

This position may be coloured a little by my professed agnosticism. I've noticed that one significant effect this has on me is that while I'm quite happy to live by my considered understanding of the Bible, I'm generally insufficiently certain of the correctness of this understanding to tell others to do the same. Explain what I think and why, yes, but when it comes down to "you must do this", I tend to step away. As I said above, I don't feel polygamy is the best model of marriage, but I don't think it's a bad thing* per se. I'm certainly not convinced that the Bible supports such an interpretation, even if it could be read as indicating that polygamy is generally "sub-optimal".


* - Talk about Freudian - I just typed that as "bed thing"!
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
In particular, I can't make the leap from a prohibition of adultery to a prohibition of polygamy.

That's understandable, TGG. It's more of an inference than a link.
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
I think you meant we would be happy to impose our condemnation of these "bad things" on others - I don't think we really want child abuse for all! But I think we would impose it on rather more secular "human rights" grounds, albeit drawing on Biblical principles of love and justice - would you agree?

Yes. I think that this is really the strongest way to approach it.
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
I don't think the same issues have much of a bearing on the subject of how many people you can marry.

You never know. Marital issues have a pretty large effect on society. In the big picture it can be seen as being about people being hurt, children suffering, the moral fabric of society, etc. etc. Of course it is debatable.
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
As I said above, I don't feel polygamy is the best model of marriage, but I don't think it's a bad thing* per se. I'm certainly not convinced that the Bible supports such an interpretation, even if it could be read as indicating that polygamy is generally "sub-optimal".

*Yes, it is a bed thing.

But you're right that it is debatable. Seems clear to me, but plenty of people on earth see it differently.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
But you're right that it is debatable. Seems clear to me, but plenty of people on earth see it differently.

So how would you act in my hypothetical? I thought from your earlier comments that you'd insist that the marriage shouldn't go ahead, but maybe I've got that wrong.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
But you're right that it is debatable. Seems clear to me, but plenty of people on earth see it differently.

So how would you act in my hypothetical? I thought from your earlier comments that you'd insist that the marriage shouldn't go ahead, but maybe I've got that wrong.
No, you're right about that. If I had anything to say about it. My point was just that if it's in another culture I wouldn't have a say about it.

It's not that I don't think that polygamists can go to heaven. They can.

My own experience with living in West Africa, where polygamy is legal and fairly common, is that few people actually live in polygamous situations, both because of the number problem and because it is expensive. Also, no one likes polygamy, and every young African vows never to get involved with it. But they sometimes slip into it later, much like young people in the West vow never to be divorced but at some point run out of options.

I was friends with two half-sisters in a polygamous household and spent a fair amount of time with their family. It seemed like a happy enough family, but neither of the girls approved of their situation in the slightest.

On a visit to a church in Owo, Nigeria, I discussed the situation of the Awolowo of Owo, the local king, with the girls at the church. He added to his harem each year by picking a young woman to be his new wife. They apparently didn't have much choice in the matter. He was public enemy number one, as far as the girls were concerned.

I wouldn't tell someone not to become a second wife because it is a sin. I would tell them not to do it because it won't be any fun. But they already know this, so I probably wouldn't say anything. I don't think that true love is normally the main motivating factor in polygamous marriages - not that they don't love each other, but that the western-style romance is not where they are coming from, in my limited experience.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
I can imagine people at some point in OT history feeling about polygamy like people today might feel about divorce - that it's not ideal but a fact of life.

Which is not to say that the OT itself presents it like that, but it would certainly give you plenty of support for that attitude.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
But you're right that it is debatable. Seems clear to me, but plenty of people on earth see it differently.

So how would you act in my hypothetical? I thought from your earlier comments that you'd insist that the marriage shouldn't go ahead, but maybe I've got that wrong.
No, you're right about that. If I had anything to say about it. My point was just that if it's in another culture I wouldn't have a say about it.
OK, I was assuming that you'd be in a position where you did - say, as a missionary pastor of some type - and the woman was a member of your church who wanted advice.

You made some very interesting points after this - not Biblical, but interesting - which are all reasonable practical considerations of the issue, and I'd tend to agree with the thrust of your argument. The question remaining in my mind, though, is whether polygamy can legitimately be described as an absolute sin. I'd say not, but if you would insist, rather than advise, that the polygamous marriage shouldn't happen, maybe you'd disagree.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
I was assuming that you'd be in a position where you did - say, as a missionary pastor of some type - and the woman was a member of your church who wanted advice.

Well in that situation I could be very clear. The New Church has very definite teachings about polygamy. And there are many New Church congregations in Africa, and this does come up.
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
I am back from a longer tour of duty than anticipated (so weird you don't wanna know about it!) and I hope to read through this thread tomorrow afternoon and catch up, possibly comment further (who, moi?!) - so please consider this a *bump*... thanks.
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
After skimming this.. amd I may have missed something Is there anyone who thinks Jesus comment "He who made them in the beginning made the male and female,,What God has joined together let no man put asunder" implies a spiritual jioning of the two that would necessitate the exclusion of anyone else from the relationship?
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Jamac please could you give us the verses where Jesus said those things? Thanks.

P

[ 16. July 2006, 11:11: Message edited by: Pyx_e ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
After skimming this.. amd I may have missed something Is there anyone who thinks Jesus comment "He who made them in the beginning made the male and female,,What God has joined together let no man put asunder" implies a spiritual jioning of the two that would necessitate the exclusion of anyone else from the relationship?

Jamac, yes, I think that.

The reference is:
quote:
Matthew 19.4 And He answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”

This seems to me to imply that two people become, in a sense, one person by marriage.

This would reasonably exclude others, although someone might argue that three, four or five may also become one.
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pyx_e:
Jamac please could you give us the verses where Jesus said those things? Thanks.

P

oops sorry that sounded like I doubted He said them, I simply could not remember where and wished to put them in Context, thank you Freddy.

P
 
Posted by duchess (# 2764) on :
 
This question always comes up from kidlets in jail that hear the story of Leah and Rachel. I just tell them "it is obvious that polygamy is shown to be full of jealousy and strife from the examples shown in the OT. God did not give his stamp of approval on it even if He did allow it to go on. In the New Testament later elders are told to only have one wife...and while every man is not an elder, the passages about elders are good examples for any man to folllow and for any young lady to look for in a potential husband. and Ephesians 5 shows one man and one woman being compared to Christ and the Church..."


But yeah, it ain't an airtight case one can make from Scripture. It is the bane of me anwering questions from kidlets in juvenille hall. I wish it were easier. The paragraph I wrote above is the best I can come up with at the moment.

[ 17. July 2006, 01:31: Message edited by: duchess ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by duchess:
This question always comes up from kidlets in jail that hear the story of Leah and Rachel.

You tell jailed teens Bible stories? And they ask good questions? Way to go! [Overused]
 
Posted by duchess (# 2764) on :
 
I am not worthy. I do it out of selfishness since it is like reverse therapy. But yes, it keeps me on my toes and actually makes me care about this OP. Usually I could not give a toss. Thanks Freddy. [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
Interestingly nobody has quoted: Luke 20 V 34 onwards: Jesus said to them.'Those who belong to this age marry
and are given in marriage; but those who are considered worthy of a place in
that age and in the resurrection from the dead neither marry nor are given
in marriage. Indeed they cannot die any more, because they are like angels
and are children of God, being children of the resurrection.'

Some translations (plus Matt and Mr in paralel pericopae) make this out to mean that people do not get married in the NEXT life but the Greek as gamousin - present tense 3rd person plural.

The logic of the above seems to suggest that only those who do not marry are
the children of, and also worthy of, resurrection from the dead etc. So is it only single people who go to heaven?
 


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