Thread: Purgatory: At-one-ment. ONLY one? Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.
To visit this thread, use this URL:
http://forum.ship-of-fools.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic;f=11;t=000768
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
I thought it might be helpful to start this thread, following the er... "exotic" growth on the Ecclesiantics one '"In Christ alone" the wrath of God ' about the Stewart Townend hymn. A lot of tangential debate seemed to swirl there around PSA.
The specific relevance of all this to that thread was the worry that, since Townend seems to be explicit in his intention to make all or most of his hymns refer to Penal Substitutionary Atonement, this rendered it difficult or impossible for people with other views of the atonement to sing it wholeheartedly.
ISTM that the tangents were focusing on whether PSA can ever simply be one among many perspectives on what God was doing in Christ's incarnation, death and resurrection, or whether PSA necessarily claims to be such a complete theory of the atonement that to hold it is to claim that it exhaustively explains what God was/is doing in Christ.
Some of the possible positions seem to be:
1) PSA is the Scriptural doctrine of the atonement. It draws together all the threads exhaustively. Any other perspectives on the atonement are of the nature of poetic or ornamental elaborations of aspects of the story, and can't claim, rival or sustain the status or completeness of PSA.
2) (Relatedly, but not quite the same) Only a PSA doctrine of the atonement deals satisfactorily with the issue of sin.
2) PSA takes up the central strand of sacrifice which runs through both testaments. It's the way in which its advocates principally understand the atonement, but of course there are other valid ways of speaking of it.
3) Sacrifice is certainly a hugely important theme in Scripture, but there are many kinds of sacrifices, and a number of them are explicitly applied to the Christ-event in the NT.
4) There are several overlapping understandings of the atonement: sacrificial, "moral influence", Christus Victor and others. You have to do justice to the theme of sacrifice,but you also have to take into account the rich profusion of ways of talking about what God was/is doing in Jesus Christ, and PSA is reductionist, and effectively excludes other perspectives.
5) PSA is a depiction of a cruel, vindictive and sadistic God who is happy to punish the innocent so that the guilty can arbitrarily go free. This is an obscene distortion of the Christian faith.
Etc. etc. etc.
These are overstatements and simplifications, and are not meant as an accurate or exhaustive classification even of what appeared on the Ecclesiantics thread.
However this is clearly a live topic - there are other open threads on it in Purgatory. The only justification of another (apart from taking the strain off Ecclesiantics) is the specific issue of whether PSA is logically and necessarily an exhaustive treatment of the atonement (that is, you either hold it, in which case you understand all other ways of speaking of atonement as satellites of it - or you don't, because you object to its totalizing claims) or whether something approximating to a rounded Penal Substitutionary Atonement theory can be co-ordinated meaningfully with other developed understandings of atonement.
That's it launched. If it dies, it dies... ![[Frown]](frown.gif)
[ 05. November 2010, 00:07: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by PhilA (# 8792) on
:
If there is a theory of atonement that is The™ actual one, then we are too far removed from it to know it.
Any and all theories of atonement must be Biblical in origin because that is the only source of the narrative of the atonement story we have. It could be argued - quite successfully - that the entire Bible is the atonement narrative.
I personally find PSA to be unhelpful because it raises more questions than it answers, but I wouldn't go as far as to say its untrue. I personally find Christus Victor to be more helpful, but again, I find it an atonement theory I can wrap my head around and it be internally sensible. But just because I understand it doesn't mean I think it more true than any other, it just makes more sense to me.
I find the idea of being able to fully understand God and his ways to be unbiblical and bordering on blasphemous. I am quite happy with the 'many different paths' approach and think the discussions are purely academic rather than truth gaining.
Posted by Carys (# 78) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
2) PSA takes up the central strand of sacrifice which runs through both testaments. It's the way in which its advocates principally understand the atonement, but of course there are other valid ways of speaking of it.
3) Sacrifice is certainly a hugely important theme in Scripture, but there are many kinds of sacrifices, and a number of them are explicitly applied to the Christ-event in the NT.
Now this is what I was talking about mixing theories. Sacrifice is different from Penal Substitutionary Atonement but many advocates of the later (and here non-advocates) conflate the two.
CArys
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
I'm not a massive fan of PSA - though I'm more sympathetic to it than I used to be - but I've always seen its proponents strenuously deny that they regard it as a complete description of the atonement.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Good thread. I don't mean to sound unsympathetic, but it's only a song ....?
Personally I see it all as allegory anyway. The idea that there's a divine being who was angry with people, and who needed a sacrifice to be reconciled with those people, is by no means peculiar to modern Christianity.
Reading this source on the subject does make the idea of "Penal Substitutionary Atonement" sound rather antinomian to me. But that's just me I suppose.
Personally, I suspect that you can't argue that it's the only valid scriptural kind of atonement without resorting to some serious games of exegetical sophistry.
So, point by point:
1) If PSA was "exhaustive", then there would be no risk of it being perceived as antinomian. Since that risk does exist, and since Paul speaks out against antinomianism in the letter to the Romans, it therefore follows that PSA is (probably) not exhaustive. It's all a game of exegetical sophistry to me, and I find it hard to take it seriously.
2) "the way in which its advocates principally understand the atonement" - I would find it hard to believe that it's that primary, although maybe I haven't fully understood it properly.
But it seems to me that it's missing the whole point of "sacrifice". You're supposed to sacrifice the best cuts of meat, not the entrails that can't be used. By a similar reasoning, the thing being sacrificed cannot be tainted with sin; it's not a good sacrifice otherwise. So if sacrifice is conceived of as a "punishment" against whatever or whoever it is that is being sacrificed, then it isn't actually a sacrifice at all.
It's a bit like saying that the sentence passed on convicted criminals constitutes a "sacrifice". It's absurd!
Having said that - the concept of PSA isn't a million miles away from what happens in Euripides The Bacchae, or the 1973 film The Wicker Man.
The sacrifice of the innocent does appease the gods, and it does strike out the sin of the guilty - but it's not because the innocent somehow takes on the sin of the guilty.
It's not the passing of sin from one party to another that makes the sacrifice "substitutionary". The thing that makes it substitutionary is simply that one guy has died for some other guy's benefit; nothing more than that. The death of the war heroes who "fought for our country" is therefore "substitutionary" by the same reasoning.
3) Agreed.
4) Agreed.
5) Not sure if I would agree with that. Is God cruel, vindictive and sadistic? Or is he just the ultimate sovereign? These are knotty issues, and I don't think they're easily solved by turning Christianity into a "fluffy bunny" religion, which bangs on about how much "God is love" but is a million miles removed from the reality of everyday suffering.
Still, just my views so far.
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
Sorry, why should the theology of PSA be thought to be necessarily exclusivist? I don't see the link here.
On a slightly different note and to carry something over from the other thread, you (Psyduck) said that
quote:
I welcome the obvious corollary of that, that you feel able to work with other models of atonement.
which implies that you thought I was some sort of exclusivist fundie beforehand, no? I feel like I've been guilty until proven innocent, especially since I've never said anything to imply I'm an exclusivist, since I'm not.
Be very careful of interpreting people's words in the least charitable fashion. That way lie reds under the beds. I'm afraid all this is part of my little Mickey Mouse psych model that Seeker rubished other the other thread - you see PSA exclusivism everywhere because you want to see it and because it gets talked up.
Posted by Nunc Dimittis (# 848) on
:
quote:
Not sure if I would agree with that. Is God cruel, vindictive and sadistic? Or is he just the ultimate sovereign? These are knotty issues, and I don't think they're easily solved by turning Christianity into a "fluffy bunny" religion, which bangs on about how much "God is love" but is a million miles removed from the reality of everyday suffering.
This is the standard response of proponents of PSA to those who say it paints God as a vindictive child abuser etc etc etc.
I want to point out that just because those of us who are against the pernicious doctrine of PSA are at pains to try to expunge the picture of a vindictive God doesn't logically involve a denial of pain and suffering, or turn Christian faith into fluffy bunnies.
Far from it: I think of Moltmann's view of the Trinity, which, far from seeing God the Father as the just All-Holy whose wrath needs to be appeased by sacrifice, sees God, Father, Son and Spirit united in the sundering event of the cross. In the death of Christ, all pain and suffering is taken into the heart of God. This view of atonement rightly (in my view) points out that salvation is not just achieved by the death of the Son, but is the achievement of the Trinity.
Or take another view, that of James Allison (albeit that this is a modified and in some ways revisionist view of PSA). That Jesus' (self-sacrificial) death was the sacrifice to end all sacrifices, and that far from God needing to be appeased, it is the brokenness of sinful society which demands a scapegoat which needs to be appeased. He is therefore OUR sacrifice.
I have mixed feelings and opinions about both approaches. However, I mention these two as ways of seeing a faith which is not founded on PSA as nevertheless taking seriously the ideas of sacrifice and even substitution without the two having to be conflated, and without needing to subscribe to PSA. To my mind, faith which takes seriously the concept of sacrifice, and which realises the reality of pain (remember, Moltmann's theology was wrought in the concentration camps, and Allison's is formed by his experience of being a gay Roman Catholic), faith which proclaims the triumphing transforming love of God - this is not fluffy bunny religion.
So there!
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
It's not the passing of sin from one party to another that makes the sacrifice "substitutionary". The thing that makes it substitutionary is simply that one guy has died for some other guy's benefit; nothing more than that.
Wrong. You can do something for somebody else's benefit without substituting for them. If I buy a bike for my son, that is for his benefit, but I'm not substituting for him in any way. This is one of the chief logical errors made by the PSA folks. They take all the language in Scripture in which Christ's death is for our benefit and twist it to mean that it is in our stead. The two are patently not the same thing. I'm amazed you fell into this trap.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
I have seen a lot of advocates of PSA claim that they support and endorse other views of the atonement along with it. However their explanations of their positions have always led me to believe exactly the opposite.
As example is John Stott in his book The Cross of Christ. He adopts PSA as his overall model of that atonement. He then points out that a person holding PSA can affirm that Christ defeated the devil, or that that love of God was demonstrated in the atonement. He tries to convince the reader that to affirm such statements is the same as also holding the atonement models of Christus Victor and Moral Exemplar. His view then is that anyone who affirms PSA automatically gets CV and ME thrown in for free too.
I believe that Stott, and the others who take such a position are fundamentally wrong in their claims that they are endorsing multiple atonement models. They say the phrase-snippets that someone who holds another atonement model might say. But atonement models are fundamentally about explaining the reality behind the phrase-snippets. The whole issue of the atonement is that the NT has a large number of phrase-snippets and atonement theories attempt to provide competing explanations of the reality behind the phrase-snippets. So to say that a PSA advocate can endorse the key phrase-snippets of Christus Victor or Moral Exemplar, is a statement implying that PSA is a complete theory in and of itself, with such great explanatory power that it can even explain the presence of seemingly non-PSA phrase-snippets in the NT. To claim this is to deny that the Christus Victor or Moral Exemplar views of atonement make true statements about the reality behind the phrase-snippets they purport to explain.
So, I have seen many many PSA advocates claim to hold other atonement theories in addition to PSA. However, when I examine their claims, all I have found is the precise opposite - they deny the reality of the other atonement models.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Dinghy Sailor: quote:
On a slightly different note and to carry something over from the other thread, you (Psyduck) said that
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I welcome the obvious corollary of that, that you feel able to work with other models of atonement.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
which implies that you thought I was some sort of exclusivist fundie beforehand, no? I feel like I've been guilty until proven innocent, especially since I've never said anything to imply I'm an exclusivist, since I'm not.
Be very careful of interpreting people's words in the least charitable fashion. That way lie reds under the beds. I'm afraid all this is part of my little Mickey Mouse psych model that Seeker rubished other the other thread - you see PSA exclusivism everywhere because you want to see it and because it gets talked up.
First off, enough with the personalized moral indignation already. I was - and am - opening a valid line of argument here which has nothing to do with my personal percepitions of your personal position.
The OP tries to co-ordinate an examination of two things: (1) a thesis, that PSA is a theory of the atonement which by its own internal logic cannot but claim to be complete in itself, and (2) assertions by adherents of what they hold to be a form of PSA that they do not believe that they hold a doctrine of the atonement which is exclusve of other atonement perspectives. In the Ecclesiantics thread, you asserted (2) and I took you at your word regarding your assertion, but that still leaves me free, without impugning you in any way, to hold (1) - the belief that PSA is necessarily exclusive of other atonement perspectives.
That means that I am gratified, and completely believe you, when I hear you assert (2), but I'm still free to argue that, while I'm sure that you are being completely honest about your own position regarding PSA and other atonement perspectives, you are actually mistaken about the internal logic of PSA not necessarily being exclusive.
In other words, I can say - as have several other posters, here and there - that all we have are assertions. It's no more "personal" than that. Please don't try to make it so.
Just for clarification:
ISTM that PSA claims the following:
1) That there is a certain moral situation in the universe, created by two things:
a) Humankind's participation in a guilt incurred by an original act of rebellion, and necessarily reinforced by each individual's participation in that act of rebellion, against God's will, and
b) God's inability to overlook or mitigate the punishment for this rebellion without being untrue to his divine nature and the inexorable demands of his holiness and goodness.
2) The logic of 1a and 1b above lead to the prescription of a particular penalty. This is often described as death, though in fact it is physical death from the created universe followed by separation from God in Hell.
3) 1 and 2 above contribute to a situation in which God wills two contradictory things - the punishment and salvation of humanity.
4) The resolution of this impasse is that God's Son should undertake to be born into a humanity untainted by 1a, and should, undeservingly but freely, take upon himself the guilt of 1a and the punishment specified in 2 above.
Now that's a potted summary, and it's deliberately terse enough that it exposes some of the difficulties that I acknowledge PSA thought also recognizes, and moves to tackle. In particular, I've collapsed the relationship of sacrificial and legal, and indeed of religious and juridical law, in a way that indicates the problems here but not some of the solutions that have been suggested.
That said, have I really left anything out from the inner core of PSA?
And my point is this. If you believe that that is what's really happening on the cross, then what's left for any other perspective on the atonement to acount for?
Is speaking of Jesus as the Victor over enslaving forces of sin, which hold a world captive, really anything more than describing a Q.C. renowned for legal aid work as a doughty battler for the poor? He's still Perry Mason, not Simon Bolivar! And if I refer to the great Q.C.'s saintly character and love of the poor, ("moral influence")he's still Perry Mason, not Mother Teresa. And he's still fighting injustice in a courtroom, not an oppressed land or a despairing, loveless world.
I say again: you can assert all you want that PSA is not exclusive - let's see an argument.
[ 25. June 2010, 04:58: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
There were a few comments made in the original thread in Ecclesiantics that I would like to respond to...
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
I go for the one first espoused by Peter Abelard. Its is that the Cross is a demonstration of an amazing love which will not cease to love even when crucified.
As I have pointed out before, Peter Abelard was not the inventor of a new atonement theory. The key passages in his writings which espouse the love of God and a moralistic view of atonement are quotes from Augustine. Quoting Augustine and deriving ideas from him was pretty much universally done by the theologians of the medieval period. And, in turn, the reason Augustine was espousing a moralistic view of the atonement was not because he invented it, but because Christians earlier than he had taught it.
In the second and third centuries a view of the atonement focusing on moral transformation can be found across all Christian documents (well, all those sufficiently detailed to touch on the atonement). While some Christian writers of this early period hold other ideas such as Ransom from Satan or Recapitulation in addition to a Moral Transformation viewpoint, the majority of the Christian writers of this period appear to hold a Moral Transformation view of the atonement as their sole and complete view.
That is to say, they believed final judgment to be based on the moral character of humans and saw the primary/sole purpose of Christ as improving the moral character of humans through his teachings, examples, martyrdom, founding a movement to continue his work (the church), sending the spirit to help etc. In this moralistic paradigm the focus lies on the moral transformation of people, with the purpose of Christ's work being to further that moral transformation.
It is arguably true that Peter Abelard is guilty of a certain 'narrowing' of this moralistic paradigm. Since Abelard was quoting Augustine, he did not see himself as inventing a new view of the atonement. As such, he did not bother to espouse it at length in a book-length treatment of the subject (like Anselm did with his view, for example). He merely included several quotes from Augustine on the subject in his Commentary on Romans. As a result, the Moralistic paradigm as it appears in Abelard's writings is rather stunted and narrowed, as the presentation of it is incomplete. So in a sense, Abelard did end up inventing a new model of the atonement - insofar as people who read Abelard to see what 'his' model of that atonement is see a 'new' model - a tiny screwed up snippet view of what was earlier a comprehensive Moralistic paradigm. Thus, many people today have wrongly come to believe that Abelard invented the 'Moral Exemplar' view of atonement which allegedly teaches that Christ killed himself to show how much he loved us.
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The thing is whether the gospel is transfomative in that it actually alters one's basis of existence, or whether it is actually about Jesus as an example for believers to emulate.
I did a double take on reading that, since I call my view of the atonement Moral Transformation. I see the main contrast between Moral Transformation and PSA being that MT actually involves real change, real transformation, whereas PSA involves only a change of status in the eyes of God. In various descriptions of PSA, when God looks at us he sees Jesus' righteousness rather than our sin, or he knows the debt of our guilt is paid. Either way what has changed has to do with the knowledge of God rather than a real-world change. In contrast Moral Transformation is about humans having a real-world change of character, their real selves undergoing radical change. So when I compare Moralism with PSA I think of it as being real transformative change versus a status change which is intangible and non-transformative. It intrigues me then to see Jamat trying to compare them oppositely, saying that PSA is about 'real' transformation whereas Moral Transformation is about emulating Jesus' example (which apparently doesn't result in 'real' moral change?!).
Psyduck,
In light of the original post, it may interest you to hear why Moral Transformation did not exclude other atonement models in the early church Fathers, despite it being a complete standalone Christian paradigm. Moral transformation was strongly tied to God's view of humans - God wanted humans to be righteous and would judge them accordingly at the final judgment. Therefore if the question was "how do I pass God's final judgment?" the answer was "through moral transformation to become the type of person God judges as righteous". But the Fathers were able to add other atonement models in addition to this one by focusing on 'problems' other than passing the final judgment. Two other 'problems' that the Fathers focused on, apart from "God's opinion of humans at the final judgment" were "Satan's power" and "eternal death outside of God's control". The Fathers convinced themselves that Satan was sufficiently powerful to be a serious threat to humanity in this life and/or in the afterlife. Depending on how they constructed this threat to humanity, they needed Christ to do certain things to save humanity from it. This would then be seen part of the function of Christ (ie part of the 'atonement'). Whatever the particulars of their proposed Christ-solutions to the threat from Satan (and they varied widely), they were by their nature entirely independent of their view that humans needed to be morally righteous for the final judgment and that Christ had assisted this moral transformation. Thus by seeing independent 'problems' facing humanity, they could see different parts of Christ's incarnation, life, death and resurrection as solving multiple 'problems' facing humanity, and their atonement models thus added together nicely rather than conflicting or being in tension.
I suppose that, in theory, there is no reason that a person could not do exactly the same thing with PSA. PSA solves the 'problem' of humans passing God's final judgment, exactly like Moral Transformation does. Those two, therefore, are mutually exclusive as they propose conflicting solutions to the same problem. However a PSA advocate could in theory also believe there were other serious 'problems' of eternal significance facing humanity and adopt other corresponding atonement models to solve those problems in addition to solving the final-judgment problem. So, maybe I've answered your question: All atonement theories which purport to solve the theological 'problem' of humans passing God's final judgment are inherently mutually exclusive, but all atonement theories which solve other theological 'problems' can be added without conflict.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Starlight: Thanks for that. My own position is a modification of "moral influence," understanding it as centred on the incarnation, and the question "How would the coming of God in incarnate fullness necessarily play out in a universe like this?" I completely agree that when you set the scope of atonement this broadly, you can co-ordinate all the scriptural perspectives on and insights into what God is doing in Christ, including the sacrificial ones, and deal completely with all the crucial issues, including human sinfulness.
I also think it's very enlightening to contemplate the attitude of Duns Scotus, developed by the Franciscan tradition, that the incarnation would have happened anyway, had there been no fall, as I understand it because the Son would have offered the Father the fulness of incarnate worship anyway, and also because God would always have revealed himself in love to his creation in this incarnate way.
I think that undercuts PSA, which always seems to me to be a band-aid solution to a problem generated by a situation that God didn't want, a construal which is only saved by making God want the situation-he-didn't-want in some way.
I think this - and the inadequate answers to it - contribute one of the really big problems PSA faces. It takes God's problem and makes it the world's problem, rather than vice-versa. There are solutions to this, I acknowledge, but I don't think any of them are convincing or even stable.
But I don't want to divert from the central point that PSA is necessarily an all-or-nothing perspective, unlike the others.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
But I don't want to divert from the central point that PSA is necessarily an all-or-nothing perspective, unlike the others.
I'm not really sure what you are looking for here. Generally speaking PSA advocates do look to the model as the central understanding of what is going on in Jesus' death. Jesus dealing with our punishment is the key to unlocking all the other blessings his sacrifice brings: eg, its because it's Jesus doing something about our objective problem that it has moral influence on us.
None of that means that I can't sit through a sermon on Jesus victory over sin wherein punishment for our sins is not mentioned and say a hearty Amen.
If this is what you mean by exclusivist - that the model you think is central dictates how you interpret other models - then all the suggested models are exclusivist. For example, your own rejection of PSA centres on the model of the atonement ("modified moral influence") that you have chosen to adopt.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Leprechaun: quote:
For example, your own rejection of PSA centres on the model of the atonement ("modified moral influence") that you have chosen to adopt.
Actually, no. The moral influence model isn't really a model at all. It simply predicates everything on the incarnation of God - as does PSA. However, in PSA the real function of the incarnation is to guarantee the eternal worth of the atoning sacrifice as payment for sin. In a moral influence perspective, the whole articulation of the being of God in Jesus Christ, his Word, is recognized. Also, moral influence allows a full exploration of all the sacrificial themes of Scripture, and the other perspectives on atonement found there. It doesn't organize by excluding.
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
I wondered whether to post this here or not, but it follows on somewhat from what Leprechaun says. I tripped over this blog entry and responses looking for something else entirely, but it seems to back up something Psychduck was saying on the Ecclesiantics thread.
Part of the discussion is around the view of the crucifixion discussed in a sermon which says:
quote:
The terrible things that happened to Jesus at the end of his life were the result of human actions. They were not engineered by God. If we believe that God would do such a thing we end up worshiping a god who is nothing less than a heartless monster.
One of the responses in the comment section:
quote:
Jonathan is a heretic who, while taking the name of Christ, leads people to hell. So I am pleased that he may no longer have a pulpit from which to spew lies.
As someone else says further down the commments - a blog about someone losing their job turns into a discussion about PSA - which sounds horribly familiar.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Leprechaun: quote:
For example, your own rejection of PSA centres on the model of the atonement ("modified moral influence") that you have chosen to adopt.
Actually, no. The moral influence model isn't really a model at all. It simply predicates everything on the incarnation of God - as does PSA. However, in PSA the real function of the incarnation is to guarantee the eternal worth of the atoning sacrifice as payment for sin. In a moral influence perspective, the whole articulation of the being of God in Jesus Christ, his Word, is recognized. Also, moral influence allows a full exploration of all the sacrificial themes of Scripture, and the other perspectives on atonement found there. It doesn't organize by excluding.
I don't understand this discussion then. Not only are you now claiming that the model you have adopted isn't even a model, merely self evident truth based on believing the incarnation, but now you claim it is the only model that allows a full exploration of Scripture. I charge you that your approach is, in fact, rather exclusivist!
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Curiosity killed quoted ...
The terrible things that happened to Jesus at the end of his life were the result of human actions. They were not engineered by God. If we believe that God would do such a thing we end up worshiping a god who is nothing less than a heartless monster.
I completely agree with this.
And would like to add that those of us who say that 'God is only love and demonstrates only love' is not a fluffy bunny position.
Love (even human love)is tough and strong, can bear a great deal, suffer deeply and bring about amazing change. It is not the easy option.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Wrong. You can do something for somebody else's benefit without substituting for them. If I buy a bike for my son, that is for his benefit, but I'm not substituting for him in any way. This is one of the chief logical errors made by the PSA folks. They take all the language in Scripture in which Christ's death is for our benefit and twist it to mean that it is in our stead. The two are patently not the same thing. I'm amazed you fell into this trap.
Wrong.
What is at stake are the many NT references to the fact that 'Christ died for us / for our sins'.
If what you were trying to say is that such phrases can be interpreted as either 'in our place' or 'for our benefit' then fair enough.
However that is not what you said. Instead you tried to imply that the correct translation has been established as 'for our benefit' and not 'in our place'. That is simply false.
As to the question of where the idea that 'Christ died for us' should re rendered as 'Christ died in our place' came from in the first place - I see that no one has taken up my offer in kergy to look closely at Isaiah 53.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I charge you that your approach is, in fact, rather exclusivist!
But that's where these endless threads always end up. At least we've got here on page one!
I appreciate the honesty of Starlight and psyduck here - they are being clear about their desire to remove PSA from orthodox Christianity.
These discussions always begin with a complaint that PSA is exclusionist and they always end with the clear desire to exclude PSA.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S : quote:
I appreciate the honesty of Starlight and psyduck here - they are being clear about their desire to remove PSA from orthodox Christianity.
These discussions always begin with a complaint that PSA is exclusionist and they always end with the clear desire to exclude PSA.
I have no "desire to remove PSA from orthodox Christianity." Actually that post isn't just a bit disingenuous - it conflates sacrificial language and the perception of the reality of sin with PSA as things "we" want to get rid of - it's a dead giveaway! What "we" want, ISTM - and it's certainly what I want - is to give the whole rich sacrificial language and conceptuality its due place in the exposition of what God was doing with Christ. What you are saying here, albeit in a disguised fashion, from my POV, is that a theory which abstracts selectively from Scripture and constructs an exclusive rationale for the crucifixion is to be admitted on its own terms - which, we argue, start with the sufficiency of PSA as a theory of the atonement. "We've" begun to state the case - but ("as usual"
) what we get back are liminally personal recriminations that we're so nasty and unfair to PSA advocates and their theory - with the added innuendo no doubt in the mail that as liberals, we're being hypocritical in demanding freedom of expression for everybody but conservatives! There - I concede you aren't saying that (though I caught a whiff of implication, I thought) but I thought I'd head this off at the pass.
Just state how one can hold a full PSA theory and grant the full validity of other approaches, and we've got a debate.
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
Hi Psyduck - thanks for starting this thread. How different atonement models can be related together is an interesting question, and the ever-controversial PSA model is a particularly tricky example.
I believe both that PSA is essential to a proper understanding of the Cross, and also that many other atonement models are essential to a full and rounded understanding of Jesus' death and resurrection.
I can understand to a point why you say that "PSA is necessarily an all-or-nothing perspective, unlike the others", because I believe that PSA gives a unifying basis from which to relate other models of the atonement to each other.
You might see this as exclusivist, but I don't think it is. There's a difference between PSA excluding other models, and PSA affecting the interpretation of other models.
Because I believe in PSA as a model of the atonement, my understandings of Christus Victor, Moral Example and so on are modified as I bring them into relationship with each other - but that goes the other way too. Other models deepen and inform my understanding of PSA - they complement each other.
You seem to me to have made two contradictory arguments against PSA. On the one hand you claim that PSA doesn't leave anything for any other perspective to account for:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
If you believe that that is what's really happening on the cross, then what's left for any other perspective on the atonement to acount for?
But you then go on to make another argument, that PSA doesn't explore other themes and perspectives:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
The moral influence model isn't really a model at all. It simply predicates everything on the incarnation of God - as does PSA. However, in PSA the real function of the incarnation is to guarantee the eternal worth of the atoning sacrifice as payment for sin. In a moral influence perspective, the whole articulation of the being of God in Jesus Christ, his Word, is recognized. Also, moral influence allows a full exploration of all the sacrificial themes of Scripture, and the other perspectives on atonement found there. It doesn't organize by excluding.
You seem to be implying that PSA doesn't allow a "full exploration of all the sacrificial themes of Scripture, and the other perspectives on atonement". This seems to me to answer your earlier question.
If PSA is to be exclusivist, it must give contradictory answers to the questions that other models each try specifically to answer. But if PSA doesn't give a full exploration of all the themes of Scripture regarding the atonement, then this leaves room for it to co-exist alongside other models in a complementary fashion.
I agree that many themes and perspectives are not explored by PSA, which is why I believe PSA can be part of a broad understanding that includes the messiness of multiple metaphors.
quote:
Originally posted by Nunc Dimittis:
I think of Moltmann's view of the Trinity, which, far from seeing God the Father as the just All-Holy whose wrath needs to be appeased by sacrifice, sees God, Father, Son and Spirit united in the sundering event of the cross. In the death of Christ, all pain and suffering is taken into the heart of God. This view of atonement rightly (in my view) points out that salvation is not just achieved by the death of the Son, but is the achievement of the Trinity.
I'd agree entirely with that, and see no contradiction with PSA, except for the implication at the start that it is incompatible with the idea of a wrathful God. Our understanding of the atonement can and must be deepened by an understanding of doctrines such as the Trinity, Incarnation and so on.
I think PSA makes more sense within a full theological context rather than less sense - it's only when its over-simplified and not put in a full theological context that you get a "monstrous" God.
quote:
Originally posted by Nunc Dimittis:
Or take another view, that of James Allison (albeit that this is a modified and in some ways revisionist view of PSA). That Jesus' (self-sacrificial) death was the sacrifice to end all sacrifices, and that far from God needing to be appeased, it is the brokenness of sinful society which demands a scapegoat which needs to be appeased. He is therefore OUR sacrifice.
I would agree that Jesus' death was also an appeasement of the demand for a scapegoat made by a sinful, broken society, as well as satisfying God's justice.
I believe the reason we as sinful human beings look for scapegoats is because we have an instinctive awareness that we are guilty before a holy God, and so try to appease God on our own terms by our own unholy sacrifices, though we rationalise it in other ways.
Jesus' death is the sacrifice to end all sacrifices, not as a demonstration that there was never any need for sacrifice, but as a demonstration that the self-sacrifice of God has been made, which was the only sacrifice possible that is adequate.
So I think there's a lot in what Allison, and others such as Girard, have to say about scapegoating. But I think that such insights can be reconciled in a modified way with PSA.
quote:
The terrible things that happened to Jesus at the end of his life were the result of human actions. They were not engineered by God. If we believe that God would do such a thing we end up worshiping a god who is nothing less than a heartless monster.
I'm not sure how that fits with Acts 2:23, where Peter preached that Jesus was "handed over to you by God's set purpose and foreknowledge, and you, with the help of wicked men, put him to death", which seems to imply that Jesus' death was both an act of human wickedness and part of "God's set purpose and foreknowledge".
I must say I find it rather funny that those on the more conservative end of the theological spectrum seem happier to accept insights from other atonement models, whereas people who reject PSA are very "all or nothing" about it!
Posted by Carys (# 78) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
As example is John Stott in his book The Cross of Christ. He adopts PSA as his overall model of that atonement. He then points out that a person holding PSA can affirm that Christ defeated the devil, or that that love of God was demonstrated in the atonement. He tries to convince the reader that to affirm such statements is the same as also holding the atonement models of Christus Victor and Moral Exemplar. His view then is that anyone who affirms PSA automatically gets CV and ME thrown in for free too.
Exactly. Thanks for mentioning John Stott's book; I'd forgotten it but it is where a lot of my perception of how PSAers view the atonement comes from. I might try and find a relevant quote at some point.
Carys
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Seems to me that, apart from the idea of appeasing a wrathful God etc, the PSA breaks down on a simple fact.
Guilt cannot be transferred. It can only be forgiven.
And the Cross, to my mind, shows what it cost God to offer us a free forgiveness.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
The Revolutionist said:
I must say I find it rather funny that those on the more conservative end of the theological spectrum seem happier to accept insights from other atonement models, whereas people who reject PSA are very "all or nothing" about it!
I would say this is because of all the many (imo untenable) assumptions that lead to PSA - like, for example, that there is a personal 'devil' to be defeated.
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on
:
Can PSA be completely consistent with a full, orthodox Trinitarian view of the Godhead? ISTM that PSA tends toward a view of Christ that, while identified as "Son of God", is less than "God the Son". My limited experience with members of stronly PSA-oriented denominations is that they don't place much emphasis on Trinitarian theology - even if they nominally confess belief in a Trinitarian God - and tend toward adoptionist views or to the Incarnation as involving something less than a true hypostatic union of deity and humanity. A Chalcedonian understanding of the Incarnation to me seems to make PSA rather nonsensical because it creates a situation in which God is sacrificing Himself to appease Himself. Rather, the scriptural figure ofJesus seems to allude to the Incarnation as a rescue mission. Pauline theology seems to me to modify the emphasis found in the gospels, especially in John's gospel, in a PSA direction, though I'm unsure that the Pauline epistles are at all consistent, perhaps partly due to their authorship by multiple sources. ISTM that an understanding of the atonement along Christus Victor lines is consistent with the vision set out in the gospels and by the early Fathers. ISTM that the Pauline epistles are working on a theology of the atonement and an understanding of the incarnation that would only be more clearly and definitively defined by the Church over the ensuing few centuries.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
My own position is a modification of "moral influence," understanding it as centred on the incarnation, and the question "How would the coming of God in incarnate fullness necessarily play out in a universe like this?" I completely agree that when you set the scope of atonement this broadly, you can co-ordinate all the scriptural perspectives on and insights into what God is doing in Christ, including the sacrificial ones, and deal completely with all the crucial issues, including human sinfulness.
I also think it's very enlightening to contemplate the attitude of Duns Scotus, developed by the Franciscan tradition, that the incarnation would have happened anyway, had there been no fall, as I understand it because the Son would have offered the Father the fulness of incarnate worship anyway, and also because God would always have revealed himself in love to his creation in this incarnate way.
From that, I am left a little unclear on what you think, or if we agree or not. I tend to like my terms simple and precise and the logic clear, so when you start talking about "fullness of incarnate worship" I'm left a little confused as to how to unpack that. It's not clear to me what you mean when you say your paradigm involves 'moral influence'.
In my paradigm, Jesus' teachings, example, his movement and martyrdom, and the holy spirit all work to morally transform people's lives leading them to pass a moral-character based final judgment. There is a fairly simple and clear progression of human sinfulness -> moral change -> human righteousness. I think this paradigm is the NT paradigm, and I believe it to be the best explanation of the various salvation metaphors, sacrificial language, etc in the NT. I would definitely call it an atonement model, and would say its a fairly exclusive, complete, straight-forward, and non-mystical one. So I'm a little confused when you say your version of the moral influence view is 'not a model'. And you talk of 'predicating everything on the incarnation of God', which seems strange to me, since I doubt the first Christians saw Jesus as God (so more ideal in my mind is an atonement model that doesn't require Jesus' divinity but is consistent with it (such as my one)).
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
These discussions always begin with a complaint that PSA is exclusionist and they always end with the clear desire to exclude PSA.
I personally don't have any problem with PSA as a theory being exclusionist. I would say my own Moral Transformation view of the atonement is exclusionist. The truth is often exclusionist. It is kind of annoying however when advocates of PSA are exclusionist toward other people - ie it is unpleasant when they try to exclude me for not conforming to their beliefs.
quote:
Originally posted by the Revolutionist:
Because I believe in PSA as a model of the atonement, my understandings of Christus Victor, Moral Example and so on are modified as I bring them into relationship with each other - but that goes the other way too. Other models deepen and inform my understanding of PSA - they complement each other.
It seems to me you are doing the same word-trick as John Stott: 'modifying' the other atonement models in order to 'fit them into' PSA. When in reality, I suspect, you're denying the essence of those other models and taking phrases from them and using those phrases with a PSA-supplied meaning behind them. If you think otherwise, perhaps you could explain in detail the relationship you see between the theories you hold and tell me how you really do hold Christus victor and Moral Example models rather than merely steal their key-phrases.
quote:
I must say I find it rather funny that those on the more conservative end of the theological spectrum seem happier to accept insights from other atonement models, whereas people who reject PSA are very "all or nothing" about it!
Well, I find conservatives are happy to add phrases to their list of things Jesus did but not to add ideas. So a conservative PSA advocate is happy to add the phrase "Christ defeated the devil" to his creed, and feels piously happy at gaining yet another way of speaking of Christ's penal substitutionary atonement. But the conservative PSA advocate will refuse to add the idea behind that phrase - they will not, for example, adopt the belief that after Christ died on the cross he entered hades with an army of angels and fought the legions of the devil and defeated them. They will instead use the idea of PSA as their theological explanation for why the new phrase "Christ defeated the devil" is true - they will say that Christ taking the punishment for sin frees the believers' conscience and thus they can no longer be taunted by the devil (or somesuch). Thus they will adopt a new atonement-phrase and tie it into PSA but will reject new atonement-ideas.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
The Revolutionist: quote:
I must say I find it rather funny that those on the more conservative end of the theological spectrum seem happier to accept insights from other atonement models, whereas people who reject PSA are very "all or nothing" about it!
Well, that's rather the point! "Accepting insights" from other perspectives on the incarnation is a bit like "accepting insights" from, say, contemporary culture. Jesus is the vanquisher of the forces that hold us captive, Jesus is the revelation of God's love, Jesus is the captain of the team, Jesus is the pilot of the ship, Jesus is the truthful newsreader, Jesus is the leader of my gang...
The point which still isn't getting addressed here is the charge that PSA must necessarily present itself as the only real understanding of the atonement, and it has to do this by reducing other understandings - including a complexified sacrificial understanding - to illustrative material that you can "accept insights" from.
What's fascinating, with respect, is that people who say that they are PSA adherents just don't seem to see this, and the reason seems to be that they consistently conflate PSA and sacrificial perspectives - or they conflate PSA with the issue of "having to deal satisfactorily with sin."
It's in some ways analogous to the arguments that used to rage around the respective validity of Anglican and Presbyterian orders in Scottish ecumenical debate bck in the 60s. The Anglicans would speak of each side receiving something from the other in the proposed rapprochement - but without giving up the insistence on the validity of Anglican orders and the implication of the invalidity of Presbyterian ones.
Prof. Ian Henderson characterized this perception as like two lifeboats meeting in the sea after a shipwreck, one with two barrels of water, and one with two gramophones. After the meeting, each lifeboat would have a barrel of water and a lifeboat. But it was obvious who had given the vital thing to the other and who had just enhanced the onboard entertainment.
The advocates of PSA do sound a lot to me like people saying "Have our life-giving water - we insist! And of course we respect your lovely little gramophones..."
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
Thankyou Psyduck for your last four posts. Until those, I also felt that all I'd got was assertions that PSA was exclusive, which I couldn't engage with further than to simply deny. So, to engage...
I think there's a lot of sloppy wording on this thread. Do we see models/theories of atonement as theories or as models, or even as metaphors?
Theory: A proposed explanation of a mechanism functions. Once explained and proven/accepted, no further explanation is necessary.
Model: A simplified explanation of a phenomenon, describing one aspect of how it works.
Metaphor: An implied comparison with something else to give an idea of how the phenomenon in question works, because its function is similar to the more familiar example in the metaphor.
If we're talking about theories of atonement here, of course PSA is exclusive because all the other theories are exclusive as well. Just as (neo)Darwinism excludes Lamarckism, so would Lamarckism have excluded Darwinism had the former turned out to be true. That's not the fault of either theory, it's how logic works.
If, on the other hand, we take them as models, we can run explanations parallel to each other. Each is a simplified description of one or more aspect(s) the full atonement, which stands as what it is and is not confined within any of the models. Did Jesus pay for our in on the cross? Yes he did. Did he conquer death? Yes he did. Did he provide us with an example to follow? Yes he did. Did he come down from God to man, living with us, sharing our sorrows and bridging the gap downwards in a way that we couldn't achieve upwards? Yes he did, and none of these contradict any of the others. My work is in modelling, I can run any number of models of a situation and their results don't invalidate the other models' results but they can they inform them and give me extra insight into the phenomenon under test.
So, which is it to be? Is PSA a complete description, a theory, in which case all the other theories are also complete descriptions with no room for manoeuvre? Or is it a model, an incomplete description, in which case it can't invalidate another description as that would be outside its competence?
[X post - make that your last FIVE posts]
[ 25. June 2010, 11:48: Message edited by: Dinghy Sailor ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Can PSA be completely consistent with a full, orthodox Trinitarian view of the Godhead? ...A Chalcedonian understanding of the Incarnation to me seems to make PSA rather nonsensical
Bear in mind that historically, the Chalcedonian declarations about the relationship of Jesus' Godhood and manhood were a product of the popularity of Athanasius' Recapitulation model of the atonement. ie Belief in a particular model of the atonement caused the Chalcedonian definitions.
As such, I think it is totally unreasonable to judge other atonement models based on whether they meet the Chalcedonian definitions. If those different models of the atonement had been popular at the time of the council of Chalcedon then the Chalcedonian definitions would have been different. So to hold the Chalcedonian definitions up as a standard against which to judge the atonement models is to get cause and effect backward. By definition the Chalcedonian definitions will pair best with the atonement model they were defined in order to defend - Athanasius' Recapitulation model.
Posted by seasick (# 48) on
:
But the Chalcedonian definitions are what they are: they are the faith of the church. If - for whatever reason - PSA doesn't fit with them, then the problem is with PSA not with Chalcedon.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Dinghy Sailor: quote:
I think there's a lot of sloppy wording on this thread. Do we see models/theories of atonement as theories or as models, or even as metaphors?
Theory: A proposed explanation of a mechanism functions. Once explained and proven/accepted, no further explanation is necessary.
Model: A simplified explanation of a phenomenon, describing one aspect of how it works.
Metaphor: An implied comparison with something else to give an idea of how the phenomenon in question works, because its function is similar to the more familiar example in the metaphor.
I don't think there's any ambiguity at all. Out of sheer interest, I collated all my uses of the term theory, and I think they are all completely consistent, and consistent with the OP - and also with the usage you outline.
Here they are: quote:
whether PSA necessarily claims to be such a complete theory of the atonement that to hold it is to claim that it exhaustively explains what God was/is doing in Christ.
quote:
whether something approximating to a rounded Penal Substitutionary Atonement theory can be co-ordinated meaningfully with other developed understandings of atonement.
quote:
PSA is a theory of the atonement which by its own internal logic cannot but claim to be complete in itself,
quote:
a theory which abstracts selectively from Scripture and constructs an exclusive rationale for the crucifixion
quote:
the sufficiency of PSA as a theory of the atonement.
quote:
what we get back are liminally personal recriminations that we're so nasty and unfair to PSA advocates and their theory
quote:
Just state how one can hold a full PSA theory and grant the full validity of other approaches, and we've got a debate.
For the record, I'm familiar with the concepts of theory, model, metaphor, and paradigm, both from the work on science and theology of Ian Barbour and also from Thomas Kuhn. I think the point you make is irrelevant. You ask:
quote:
So, which is it to be? Is PSA a complete description, a theory, in which case all the other theories are also complete descriptions with no room for manoeuvre? Or is it a model, an incomplete description, in which case it can't invalidate another description as that would be outside its competence?
I say PSA is a theory, in your terms. I've said so consistently, and I've asked to have the contrary proven to me. Which is it to be? You tell us.
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on
:
In the thread on Eccles that spawned this one, I argued that PSA imagery may provide a psychological "fit" for some persons. I'd tend to see it as an expression of the so-called "paranoid-schizoid position", in which the infant mind bifurcates its "objects" (persons, actually) into all-good/nurturing/idealised images on the one hand, and bad/sadistic/hated-feared/hostility-laden figures on the other. This psychological operation of "splitting" (which continues to be present even in the "normal" adult to some degree and much more so in various states of disturbed mental functioning)serves to preserve an entirely happy image of the object(s) to which one can psychologically return, albeit at the expense of maintaining a competing image of a bad, hostile and punitive object. In reality, of course, our objects are ambiguous - neither fully good nor fully bad - but the operation of splitting allows us to escape coming to terms with the painful reality that we have no state of unambiguous non-frustration to which we can return. As long as the paranoid-schizoid position is maintained, we fail to mourn the painful and frustrating realities with which we are confronted. This coming to terms with the inherent frustrations encountered in our object relationships is termed the "depressive position", in which we realise difficult realities of ambivalence, ambiguity, irrevocable choices, unreconcilable contradictions, and the like. The more primitive paranoid-schizoid position involves a great deal of projection (the hungry/collicky infant is angry at the frustrating, unavailable breast/mother, rather than - usually - the breast/mother deliberately frustrating the infant). I would submit that PSA is an expression of this kind of splitting and projection of our own primitive hostilities onto the image of God as a parent-figure. Yet by contrast the mission of Christ is to show us that "God is love".
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by seasick:
But the Chalcedonian definitions are what they are: they are the faith of the church. If - for whatever reason - PSA doesn't fit with them, then the problem is with PSA not with Chalcedon.
The faith of whose church precisely? The vast majority of Christians today have probably never heard of them. I suspect lots of denominations in theory hold to them but don't in practice.
Not to mention that this council anathematized about one quarter of the Church (ie the Oriental Orthodox). And today even Eastern Orthodox scholars admit the council got it wrong and that the Oriental Orthodox do really believe the same thing as them.
I'm sorry, but the Byzantine councils were subject to so many ridiculous unchristian political shenanigans that I can't take them very seriously.
Dinghy Sailor,
I haven't been using your terms thus far, but given your terms I would say that PSA is a theory, as is my own Moral Transformation view of the atonement. I think a lot of PSA advocates try to pretend that it is only a model for them when really it is a theory.
As I explained earlier it is possible to hold more than one theory of the atonement. It just requires that those theories be dealing with completely separate issues. eg the theory that Christ invaded hades with an army of angels can coexist together with the theory of PSA.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
As to the question of where the idea that 'Christ died for us' should re rendered as 'Christ died in our place' came from in the first place - I see that no one has taken up my offer in kergy to look closely at Isaiah 53.
I offered but you didn't respond.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Leprechaun: quote:
I don't understand this discussion then. Not only are you now claiming that the model you have adopted isn't even a model, merely self evident truth based on believing the incarnation, but now you claim it is the only model that allows a full exploration of Scripture. I charge you that your approach is, in fact, rather exclusivist!
Hang on! I've never used the word "model" on this thread at all, except to deny that my version of "moral influence" is a model - to complete my thought, I would call it a "perspective" which is consistent with my usage elsewhere.
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
Well, I think most of those who are arguing for PSA see it as a model or metaphor - a true but partial description - rather than an exhaustive theory.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
The Revolutionist: quote:
I must say I find it rather funny that those on the more conservative end of the theological spectrum seem happier to accept insights from other atonement models, whereas people who reject PSA are very "all or nothing" about it!
Well, that's rather the point! "Accepting insights" from other perspectives on the incarnation is a bit like "accepting insights" from, say, contemporary culture. Jesus is the vanquisher of the forces that hold us captive, Jesus is the revelation of God's love, Jesus is the captain of the team, Jesus is the pilot of the ship, Jesus is the truthful newsreader, Jesus is the leader of my gang...
The point which still isn't getting addressed here is the charge that PSA must necessarily present itself as the only real understanding of the atonement, and it has to do this by reducing other understandings - including a complexified sacrificial understanding - to illustrative material that you can "accept insights" from.
Again, I'd say you're confusing PSA excluding other models with PSA affecting the interpretation of other models.
As I said before, I don't think that PSA is an exhaustive account of the atonement. I believe it is a true description that forms a necessary part of understanding the Cross, but is still a partial description. As I also said before, I believe that other models give explanations that PSA doesn't give. They have worth in themselves, not just as further insights in PSA.
I agree that some adherents of PSA take the approach you're describing, but I don't think I'm one of them.
quote:
Well, I find conservatives are happy to add phrases to their list of things Jesus did but not to add ideas. So a conservative PSA advocate is happy to add the phrase "Christ defeated the devil" to his creed, and feels piously happy at gaining yet another way of speaking of Christ's penal substitutionary atonement. But the conservative PSA advocate will refuse to add the idea behind that phrase - they will not, for example, adopt the belief that after Christ died on the cross he entered hades with an army of angels and fought the legions of the devil and defeated them. They will instead use the idea of PSA as their theological explanation for why the new phrase "Christ defeated the devil" is true - they will say that Christ taking the punishment for sin frees the believers' conscience and thus they can no longer be taunted by the devil (or somesuch). Thus they will adopt a new atonement-phrase and tie it into PSA but will reject new atonement-ideas.
Any attempt to bring together different perspectives together involves letting them inform each other, and reconciling differences between them. This involves adapting ideas, but it is possible to bring different ideas together into a larger, integrated understanding without doing violence to the individual ideas.
I don't think that many people would insist that Christ literally kicking demonic butt in Hades with an army of angels is an essential part of the Christus Victor model - that's a red herring.
Aulen argued that Christus Victor gives a narrative account of the atonement, a drama rather than a systematic theology. So I don't see that it's in competition with PSA. They are explanations in different genres, different modes of metaphor, and so can co-exist happily.
[ 25. June 2010, 13:49: Message edited by: The Revolutionist ]
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Leprechaun: quote:
I don't understand this discussion then. Not only are you now claiming that the model you have adopted isn't even a model, merely self evident truth based on believing the incarnation, but now you claim it is the only model that allows a full exploration of Scripture. I charge you that your approach is, in fact, rather exclusivist!
Hang on! I've never used the word "model" on this thread at all, except to deny that my version of "moral influence" is a model - to complete my thought, I would call it a "perspective" which is consistent with my usage elsewhere.
Which totally misses the point. You are using your "perspective" to rule out alternative "perspectives" with which it conflicts. Which is all any PSA advocate is doing.
Really, this does just seem to boil down to "wa wa wa, evangelicals do what we all do, but in an infuriatingly evangelical way."
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Interesting.
It never occurred to me to question PSA one iota during my full-on evangelical/charismatic phase ... which lasted around two decades.
I found John Stott's 'The Cross of Christ' utterly convincing when I first read it and, in fairness, it did help me over and away from some of the more grotesque language and imagery used by PSA advocates in popular worship and evangelism.
I was aware of Christus Victor and aware that many charismatics had moved more towards this position than the full-on evangelical PSA one. In my more Reformed, Calvinistic moments, I felt they'd moved too far away from what I took to be the central scriptural model of the atonement.
Dr Martyn Lloyd Jones doubted that C S Lewis was truly 'saved' as Lewis was squeamish about PSA and not rigorously wedded to any particular atonement model.
I wouldn't have gone as far as that.
If I'm honest, I am reluctant to abandon PSA wholesale ... such is its power as a shibboleth. Sure, I can see the pitfalls, particularly in popular sound-bite evangelism and dumbed down contemporary worship. I don't know why this should be. If I shrugged it off completely I'd either feel intensely liberated or else some sense of loss.
It's funny, peculiar, but there it is.
I'm sort of post-evangelical (pre-catholic?
) these days but the whole evangelical thing is part of the warp and woof of where I've come from. So even though I feel increasingly alienated from much evangelical worship and discourse, I retain elements of its ethos.
If my memory serves me correctly, Stott was effectively saying, 'all these other models are fine as far as they go and contain much truth, but the main point is that God in Christ was reconciling the world to himself and the means with which he did that was through a penal substitutionary sacrifice of God the Son.'
So, yes, that does sound pretty exclusivist. I suppose, to mix metaphors, he's not so much saying that PSA is 'first among equals' but much more than that ...
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
And this is all that seems to come back: quote:
You are using your "perspective" to rule out alternative "perspectives" with which it conflicts. Which is all any PSA advocate is doing.
Really, this does just seem to boil down to "wa wa wa, evangelicals do what we all do, but in an infuriatingly evangelical way."
Can we step back from this mirroring, and maybe address the issues? You accuse me of advancing an exclusivist - well I think you mean "theory" in Dinghy Sailor's terms, and I've said that "perspective" in my book doesn't mean that, but you say that my perspective is as exclusivist as PSA.
I'm saying that if you start off from a "moral influence" perspective, all you do is to start from an assertion that Jesus' death on the cross says something about God, and something about us - how we are, and how we should be. That's really all that a stripped-down moral influence perspective contains.
Now, nobody holds it in such a bare form - but notice how it gets fleshed out. It can become the decisive exemplar of God's love, so that we can see the lovelessness of our own lives, and respond by changing. Or you can say that in Jesus, God is showing us what true humanity in and before God should be. Or you can say both. You can take it a step further and say that God's love is shown in interaction with the reality of a fallen world, a world in which inhuman and maybe superhuman systems of domination hold us fast. Now at that point you clearly need to supplement it with another perspective. Or you could - I'd say certainly would - have to take into account the perspective out of the Old Testament into the New in which the community of God's people is conceived in terms of both sacrifice, and law. You'd also want to treat the understanding of the Exodus that leads through the Passover - but you wouldn't want to confuse that or conflate it with the (other) sacrificial themes, because it is quite separate. And you'd want to do a whole lot more, and you could.
But - and I'm repeating myself here - if you start from a PSA perspective, then you start from a situation in which everything necessary for our salvation is boiled down to a transaction which is defined in terms of a single theory. If you slacken the theory, you don't have PSA. You have sacrificial imagery dealt with in a way not unlike it is from other perspectives, as a highly important dimension of the Christian understanding of what God was doing in Christ. But you don't have PSA.
The danger is that people step into PSA and back out of it at will - into it when they want to talk about what's really going on in the Bible, and back out of it when they want to counter the accusation that they don't give enough space to the rest of the testimony of Scripture.
The test of this is still the same. Expound a recognizable PSA doctrine, then tell us what else it demands to make it complete.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Leprechaun: BTW - this is a fascinating post. quote:
Really, this does just seem to boil down to "wa wa wa, evangelicals do what we all do, but in an infuriatingly evangelical way."
Did you mean to make PSA a touchstone of evangelicalism?
And FWIW, I'm not only delighted when evangelicals do things "our way", it often delights me to see evangelical influence disseminated through other traditions.
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
Psyduck, this 'PSA' thing you keep talking about is starting to confuse me. You (and LSV and seasick) have given a very pedantic, tightly defined account of PSA that according to you is exclusive of any other model of atonement, then asked people to disprove this. Your 'PSA' is, however, not the penal substitution that I know. Whenever people who believe in PSA have told you that's not what they believe and set out why that's the case, you've come back and said that's not really PSA.
I'm afraid that's not how this works. PSA is arguably 'that which is believed by people who believe in PSA'. The believership gets to define PSA, not you. You may say that PSA is automatically exclusive but if a goodly proportion of its believers (all of the ones on this thread, for instance) don't treat it as exclusive, it's not. I'm afraid I don't see that it matters very much whether it's exclusive when held to the theoretical principles of Psyduck, what matters is whether Lep, The Rev. et al treat it as automatically exclusive. It is noticeable, once again, that PSA is being defined a lot more tightly by people who don't believe in it, which begs the question of why eg. LSV seems so desperately want to make it seem heretical. Does someone want to get rid of it, by any chance?
The sloppy language thing wasn't aimed at you by the way, I saw the two words being used interchangeably elsewhere on the thread.
That's all from me, I'm off for the weekend.
[X posted with Psyduck's last post]
[ 25. June 2010, 14:44: Message edited by: Dinghy Sailor ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Dinghy Sailor: quote:
I'm afraid that's not how this works. PSA is arguably 'that which is believed by people who believe in PSA'. The believership gets to define PSA, not you. You may say that PSA is automatically exclusive but if a goodly proportion of its believers (all of the ones on this thread, for instance) don't treat it as exclusive, it's not.
Sorry, but that's just wrong. PSA is a reconized, closely defined doctrine, with some variants as mentioned above, but the core of it isn't some sprawling pick n' mix construct, still less "what evangelicals believe."
Anyway, I'm posting far too much, and reactively. I'll away and see if someone actually puts up a recognizable PSA, and defends it from the charge of exclusivism as outlined above. That's all that's needed.
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
If I'm honest, I am reluctant to abandon PSA wholesale ... such is its power as a shibboleth. Sure, I can see the pitfalls, particularly in popular sound-bite evangelism and dumbed down contemporary worship. I don't know why this should be. If I shrugged it off completely I'd either feel intensely liberated or else some sense of loss.
Yes, the way that PSA is mishandled in some songs and evangelism annoys me terribly! There's some dreadful mishandling of the doctrine and bad explanations of it.
I'll have a go at explaining what PSA doesn't say, what it leaves to other models. First of all I'll quote Psyduck's summary of the theory:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
ISTM that PSA claims the following:
1) That there is a certain moral situation in the universe, created by two things:
a) Humankind's participation in a guilt incurred by an original act of rebellion, and necessarily reinforced by each individual's participation in that act of rebellion, against God's will, and
b) God's inability to overlook or mitigate the punishment for this rebellion without being untrue to his divine nature and the inexorable demands of his holiness and goodness.
2) The logic of 1a and 1b above lead to the prescription of a particular penalty. This is often described as death, though in fact it is physical death from the created universe followed by separation from God in Hell.
3) 1 and 2 above contribute to a situation in which God wills two contradictory things - the punishment and salvation of humanity.
4) The resolution of this impasse is that God's Son should undertake to be born into a humanity untainted by 1a, and should, undeservingly but freely, take upon himself the guilt of 1a and the punishment specified in 2 above.
And my point is this. If you believe that that is what's really happening on the cross, then what's left for any other perspective on the atonement to acount for?
The first point I'd make is that this only make sense if the doctrinal basics - trinity, incarnation and so on are in place.
A low Christology leads to the problem of "cosmic child abuse", whereas a trinitarian understanding of PSA sees Jesus' death as a willing self-sacrifice, with Father, Son and Spirit working together to redeem the world.
On the other hand, neglect Jesus' full humanity, and it doesn't make sense how he can stand in our place as our representative. It is by being fully human, by being the new Adam, that he is able to die in our place on the Cross.
The second point is that PSA focuses on our standing before God, our relationship with him. But the Cross wasn't just about the forgiveness of individual souls, but a whole bunch of other stuff too that PSA doesn't directly deal with.
We see in the different models of the atonement different aspects of Christ's threefold ministry of Prophet, Priest and King reflected. PSA mainly describes his role as priest, but not so much prophet and king.
Christus Victor tells of the cosmic impact of the Cross - that Jesus defeated Satan, death, and evil. If you only had PSA as a model, then you could believe we'll be zapped off to heaven while creation goes to hell in a handcart, but CV tells us that "the kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of the Lord and of his Christ" (Rev 11:15). This describes the kingly aspect of Christ's death and resurrection.
Scapegoating theories of the atonement, such as that proposed by Girard, show the social impact of the Cross, that it is the sacrifice to end all sacrifices and exposes the cycle of violence and scapegoating in society. This reflects both on Christ's priestly role and his prophetic role.
Moral Exemplar tells of the ongoing impact of the Cross on believers lives. PSA tells us how we are forgiven, while Moral Exemplar shows us how our lives should be transformed. This reflects the prophetic aspect of the Atonement once more.
Other aspects that could be expanded on would be the idea of Union with Christ and also of the Resurrection, which aren't developed in detail by PSA, but are necessary for a full understanding of the Atonement.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Hmm. So summary of the main things I've picked up so far:
Psyduck says
quote:
ISTM that PSA claims the following:
1) That there is a certain moral situation in the universe, created by two things:
a) Humankind's participation in a guilt incurred by an original act of rebellion, and necessarily reinforced by each individual's participation in that act of rebellion, against God's will, and
b) God's inability to overlook or mitigate the punishment for this rebellion without being untrue to his divine nature and the inexorable demands of his holiness and goodness.
I can see how if these two things are taken as the starting point, then PSA might seem to be the only atonement theory that works properly.
Dinghy Sailor says
quote:
PSA is arguably 'that which is believed by people who believe in PSA'. The believership gets to define PSA, not you.
Good point. But the trouble is, we end up going round in semantic circles. If we can't even reach an agreed definition of what PSA actually is, then how is it possible to judge its merits by any other yardstick - be it the Bible, or the creeds, or modern psychotherapy?
The Revolutionist says
quote:
The first point I'd make is that this only make sense if the doctrinal basics - trinity, incarnation and so on are in place.
A low Christology leads to the problem of "cosmic child abuse", whereas a trinitarian understanding of PSA sees Jesus' death as a willing self-sacrifice, with Father, Son and Spirit working together to redeem the world.
On the other hand, neglect Jesus' full humanity, and it doesn't make sense how he can stand in our place as our representative. It is by being fully human, by being the new Adam, that he is able to die in our place on the Cross.
The second point is that PSA focuses on our standing before God, our relationship with him. But the Cross wasn't just about the forgiveness of individual souls, but a whole bunch of other stuff too that PSA doesn't directly deal with.
All good points. Even after you've explained it like that, though, I for one still think that PSA tends to lead to antinomianism, whereas other atonement theories - in particular, theories of moral influence - don't have this problem quite so much.
Having said that, I appreciate the point that evangelical teaching isn't entirely encapsulated in PSA. It may be sufficient as a theory of atonement, if you happen to believe that it's okay for a theory of atonement to leave the door open for antinomianism. But if you think that atonement theories should exclude antinomianism, then, since PSA does not exclude antinomianism, it is therefore not sufficient.
Still, that's just my view.
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Seems to me that, apart from the idea of appeasing a wrathful God etc, the PSA breaks down on a simple fact.
Guilt cannot be transferred. It can only be forgiven.
And the Cross, to my mind, shows what it cost God to offer us a free forgiveness.
The modern economy is based on precisely the opposite theory*...although that might show it doesn't work well, and perhaps relate it to it's followers?
Actually reading your last paragraph that seems very similar..but [with a description of the trinity that brings out more features that it shares with Modalist view of God than those it shares with a Polytheistic view of God.]
(to my experiences of what I'd call PSA, ]
*In the psa picture, forgive us our sins becomes very much forgive us our debts.
[ 25. June 2010, 17:50: Message edited by: Jay-Emm ]
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Thanks to Jay-Emm for flagging up shamwari's previous point:
quote:
Guilt cannot be transferred. It can only be forgiven.
I guess this will be the point at which the Penal Substitutionary theory relies on other, potentially contradictory theories in order to argue that the substitution is real.
Which brings us back to the point about the difference between substitution and benefit.
mousethief said way back:
quote:
You can do something for somebody else's benefit without substituting for them. If I buy a bike for my son, that is for his benefit, but I'm not substituting for him in any way.
Agreed. Forgive me for the loose use of language, but let me use war heroes as a metaphor.
When a heroic soldier has died on the battlefield, the fact that he was part of an army that eventually saw off an enemy successfully means that he has died for our benefit. However, has the soldier died in our place? That's a point that you could argue either way.
However, if the way you see it is that if the army hadn't organised themselves and fought the enemy off, then the enemy would have sacked our towns and cities, killing us all - then, yes, in a very real sense, the soldier has died in our place.
I'm of the opinion that this concept of substitutionary military sacrifice was probably spelled out in detail in classical Athenian literature, by the contemporaries of Plato (if not actually Plato himself) - and it probably made use of similar Greek language vocabulary to that which was subsequently used to explain the meaning of the substitutionary sacrifice of Jesus on the cross.
Admittedly, there is also something of a reliance on the concept of sacrifice in both Jewish and ancient Greek religion, and I dare say Egyptian religion too. When you do something that annoys a divine being, you have to make a sacrifice to that being in order to reconcile yourself to him or her. That sacrifice can part of your livestock, or it can be one of your children. It can even be your own life. (And I think there's evidence from the tragedies of Euripides that the sacrifice of warriors on the "altar" of the battlefield was sometimes thought of in the same way.)
So, going back to Psyduck's two points:
quote:
a) Humankind's participation in a guilt incurred by an original act of rebellion, and necessarily reinforced by each individual's participation in that act of rebellion, against God's will, and
b) God's inability to overlook or mitigate the punishment for this rebellion without being untrue to his divine nature and the inexorable demands of his holiness and goodness.
Point a) - we have really really annoyed God. But by point b) - as well as what the letter to the Hebrews says - we have sacrificed Jesus to God, and God is now happy. More than that, because Jesus was the best sacrifice ever that it was possible to make, it therefore won't be necessary to make any other sacrifices ever again
Was Jesus ever "ours" to sacrifice to God in the first place? It seems to me that from the PSA perspective, the answer has got to be "yes". But that doesn't mean to say that God can't give you a gift which you then sacrifice back to God. The deer in the legend of the sacrifice of Iphigenia springs to mind.
So - Jesus was God's gift to us, and we sacrificed him to God, and that made God happy. But hang on a moment, you may ask - surely if God was that angry, he would never have made a gift in the first place? That's the clever bit, because PSA adherents are able to say that the gift of Jesus shows that in spite of his anger, God really did love us all along.
Or something like that. I don't know really. Too much speculative pattern-spotting in myth on my part, perhaps. Maybe I've completely misrepresented PSA - but then, I don't claim that I necessarily believe in PSA myself. I do think that its faults get overstated sometimes though.
[ 25. June 2010, 18:14: Message edited by: Jessie Phillips ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
God's inability to overlook or mitigate the punishment for this rebellion without being untrue to his divine nature and the inexorable demands of his holiness and goodness.
This is the premise I reject. I think the idea of God having to punish somebody in order to forgive is out of keeping with the spirit of the New Testament. I don't think God "punished" the animals in the OT sacrifices. So the idea of them being a substitution is fallacious.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Thanks for mousethief's comment. Just to clarify a couple of things from my last post:
Firstly, God was angry with us, and he was going to punish us - but his anger was appeased when we sacrificed Jesus to him. So whilst that means that Jesus did die in our place, what it does not mean is that what God did to Jesus constitutes a "punishment" of Jesus. Nevertheless, if that substitutionary sacrifice had not been made, then the thing that God would have done to us as a result would have constituted a "punishment".
I don't know whether that's what traditional PSA teaches or not, though. Perhaps it can be considered a variant on PSA - however, I think it still follows logically from Psyduck's first principles. So, question is, does the thing that happened to Jesus need to be thought of as a "punishment" in order for the atonement theory to qualify for the name of "Penal Substitutionary Atonement"?
Secondly, whilst I can point to examples of sacrifice in the Old Testament, Homer and Athenian literature that form the backdrop for this, I'm not yet able to do the same with anything surviving from ancient Egypt. I think I'll have to look into that one a bit more.
Posted by Carys (# 78) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
If my memory serves me correctly, Stott was effectively saying, 'all these other models are fine as far as they go and contain much truth, but the main point is that God in Christ was reconciling the world to himself and the means with which he did that was through a penal substitutionary sacrifice of God the Son.'
It's a long time (nearly 11 years) since I read the Cross of Christ but I recall something similar. On a quick scan I've found the following:
quote:
In Part Three we looked beyond the cross itself to its consequences, indeed its achievement in three spheres: the salvation of sinners, the revelation of God and the conquest of evil. As for salvation, we studied the four words 'propitiation', 'redemption', 'justification' and 'reconciliation'. These are New Testament 'images', metaphors of what God has done in and through Christ's death. 'Substitution', however is not another image; it is the reality which lies behind them all. We then saw (chapter 8) that has fully and finally revealed his love and justice by exercising them in the cross. When substitution is denied, God's self-disclosure is obscured, but when it is affirmed, his glory shines forth brightly. Having thus far concentrated on the cross as both objective achievement (salvation from sin) and subjective influence (through the revelation of holy love), we agreed that Christus Victor is a third biblical theme, which depicts Christ's victory over the devil, the law, the flesh, the world and death, and our victory through him (chapter 9).*
Carys
*The Cross of Christ John Stott. Conclusion p. 338-339 (second edition with study guide)
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
God's inability to overlook or mitigate the punishment for this rebellion without being untrue to his divine nature and the inexorable demands of his holiness and goodness.
This is the premise I reject. I think the idea of God having to punish somebody in order to forgive is out of keeping with the spirit of the New Testament. I don't think God "punished" the animals in the OT sacrifices. So the idea of them being a substitution is fallacious.
The confusion is perhaps between the punishment of sin and the punishment of Jesus.
The model conflates the two if you are not careful to hold the ideas separate.
One cannot object to the judgement of sin, but certainly, one can object to the judgement of Christ.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Thanks Carys, that section seems a pretty good summary of what I understand to be Stott's position, and that of a good many evangelicals.
On the antinomian thing, there is a strand within certain more 'Reformed' evangelical circles that suggests that if one hasn't strayed close to antinomianism in one's presentation of the Gospel, one hasn't presented the Gospel properly at all. I've heard this preached and the Apostle Paul cited as having done just that himself.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
It's not the passing of sin from one party to another that makes the sacrifice "substitutionary". The thing that makes it substitutionary is simply that one guy has died for some other guy's benefit; nothing more than that.
Wrong. You can do something for somebody else's benefit without substituting for them. If I buy a bike for my son, that is for his benefit, but I'm not substituting for him in any way. This is one of the chief logical errors made by the PSA folks. They take all the language in Scripture in which Christ's death is for our benefit and twist it to mean that it is in our stead. The two are patently not the same thing. I'm amazed you fell into this trap.
Mousethief, heaven knows I'm no fan of PSA, but I do think you're barking up the wrong tree here. The most common meaning of substitution is that you accomplish something for somebody else that they could not do for themself. Thus, a substitute is sent on to a soccer pitch when an existing player is injured, so that he can do what the injured player cannot do. In that sense, Christ's death is, I would argue, sunstiturionary, since He accomplishes that which we cannot do, that is, in dying He defeats death. He does indeed die in our place, since His death is efficatious in a way in which ours could never be. But it has nothing to do with anybody being punished by a supposedly amgry God.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
We see in the different models of the atonement different aspects of Christ's threefold ministry of Prophet, Priest and King reflected. PSA mainly describes his role as priest, but not so much prophet and king.
Christus Victor tells of the cosmic impact of the Cross - that Jesus defeated Satan, death, and evil. If you only had PSA as a model, then you could believe we'll be zapped off to heaven while creation goes to hell in a handcart, but CV tells us that "the kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of the Lord and of his Christ" (Rev 11:15). This describes the kingly aspect of Christ's death and resurrection.
Scapegoating theories of the atonement, such as that proposed by Girard, show the social impact of the Cross, that it is the sacrifice to end all sacrifices and exposes the cycle of violence and scapegoating in society. This reflects both on Christ's priestly role and his prophetic role.
Moral Exemplar tells of the ongoing impact of the Cross on believers lives. PSA tells us how we are forgiven, while Moral Exemplar shows us how our lives should be transformed. This reflects the prophetic aspect of the Atonement once more.
Other aspects that could be expanded on would be the idea of Union with Christ and also of the Resurrection, which aren't developed in detail by PSA, but are necessary for a full understanding of the Atonement.
Thanks for sharing that. You seem to be a prime example of someone who holds PSA as one among many models/theories of the atonement. I think that answers Psyduck's original question: It is possible to hold PSA non-exclusively.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Gamaliel says
quote:
On the antinomian thing, there is a strand within certain more 'Reformed' evangelical circles that suggests that if one hasn't strayed close to antinomianism in one's presentation of the Gospel, one hasn't presented the Gospel properly at all. I've heard this preached and the Apostle Paul cited as having done just that himself.
Thanks, I'm pleased that someone's acknowledged the antinomianism issue with PSA.
It also makes sense of some sermons I've heard at my local evo church. They say that just because you've been saved by Christ's death on the cross, doesn't mean that you can do exactly as you please. But conversely, they're also at pains to point out that just because you might struggle to live a good upstanding moral life, does not mean that you are not saved by Christ's death on the cross. It's two ways of looking at the same issue - namely, that PSA doesn't exclude antinomianism.
But for me, it begs the question - what exactly do Protestant and Evangelical churches think is wrong with antinomianism? It seems to me that Protestant and Evangelical theology isn't quite as tightly sewn up on this matter as Catholic and Orthodox theology is. It's almost as though the whole reason for not being antinomian is that it paints a bad image of Protestantism and Evangelicalism generally, rather than because of any significant theological reasons. Still, I could be wrong. Thanks for the comments.
The Revolutionist says
quote:
Christus Victor tells of the cosmic impact of the Cross - that Jesus defeated Satan, death, and evil. If you only had PSA as a model, then you could believe we'll be zapped off to heaven while creation goes to hell in a handcart, but CV tells us that "the kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of the Lord and of his Christ" (Rev 11:15). This describes the kingly aspect of Christ's death and resurrection.
Didn't King Arthur defeat Satan, death and evil as well? It seems to me that the idea of Jesus as victor is, by necessity, very closely connected with the expectation in his future return. It's no good saying that Jesus has defeated evil when bad stuff still happens in the world - unless he's going to come back to sort it out, of course.
PSA doesn't address this issue, though. Under PSA, you're saved from "punishment" - however, what actually constitutes "punishment" seems a bit vague to me. It's certainly not the case that Jesus's death on the cross means that we don't die, so I guess the "punishment" we are saved from is something other than our deaths.
Unless, of course, being sure of the future resurrection is thought of as akin to not dying at all. So I guess that means that if PSA is coupled with the idea that there's no form of "punishment" worse than death, then it must be messianic. However, it's not necessarily messianic if it's possible to conceive of a punishment that's worse than death.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I personally don't have any problem with PSA as a theory being exclusionist. I would say my own Moral Transformation view of the atonement is exclusionist. The truth is often exclusionist. It is kind of annoying however when advocates of PSA are exclusionist toward other people - ie it is unpleasant when they try to exclude me for not conforming to their beliefs.
So your problem with advocates of PSA is that they are consistent? Surely our beliefs are supposed to impact our behaviour?
"If only the followers of Jesus were more hypocritical then the world would be a better place."
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
I offered but you didn't respond.
Sorry Leo I must have missed it.
I bumped the Isaiah 53 thread with a question two weeks ago and then PMed you for your comments. You haven't replied to these at all.
Or have I missed something?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
heaven knows I'm no fan of PSA, but I do think you're barking up the wrong tree here. The most common meaning of substitution is that you accomplish something for somebody else that they could not do for themself.
That's just not how the word is used in everyday life, nor is it the dictionary definition -- MW gives "a person or thing that takes the place or function of another". Dictionary.com says "a person or thing acting or serving in place of another" and "one that takes the place of another."
It's not just doing something FOR somebody. It's acting in their stead. Like I said above.
quote:
Thus, a substitute is sent on to a soccer pitch when an existing player is injured, so that he can do what the injured player cannot do.
True but not the point. He substitutes for the injured player, i.e. takes his place.
quote:
In that sense, Christ's death is, I would argue, sunstiturionary, since He accomplishes that which we cannot do, that is, in dying He defeats death.
But since that's not what substitutionary means, it's wrong.
quote:
He does indeed die in our place, since His death is efficatious in a way in which ours could never be.
That's not what "in our place" means. He dies on our behalf. He does what we cannot do. But he doesn't die in our stead.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
I offered but you didn't respond.
Sorry Leo I must have missed it.
I bumped the Isaiah 53 thread with a question two weeks ago and then PMed you for your comments. You haven't replied to these at all.
Or have I missed something?
Look in your mail box. The stuff was too long to post here.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Look in your mail box. The stuff was too long to post here.
Aha, the mystery is (partially) solved.
Your email ended up in my junk folder but I've retrieved it now, thanks.
(Although according to my profile on the ship it was never sent to me... it must be one of those philosophical mysteries like God's transcendence.)
[ETA - although your email address is bouncing back to me]
[ 26. June 2010, 07:36: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Starlight re. post from The Revolutionist: quote:
Thanks for sharing that. You seem to be a prime example of someone who holds PSA as one among many models/theories of the atonement. I think that answers Psyduck's original question: It is possible to hold PSA non-exclusively.
Ah... I am so scared of sounding mega-picky. Such a clear and generous post lets me make my point better. I think what The Revolutionist is outlining is not a PSA understanding of the Atonement, but a balanced, rounded, personally-held evangelical theology with an emphasis on sacrificial themes,and that (in common with many evangelicals) he maybe uses PSA as a shorthand for this.
Please bear with me. I may rearrange the post somewhat.
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist: We see in the different models of the atonement different aspects of Christ's threefold ministry of Prophet, Priest and King reflected. PSA mainly describes his role as priest, but not so much prophet and king.… The first point I'd make is that this only make sense if the doctrinal basics - trinity, incarnation and so on are in place.
OK – this is about the adequacy of PSA as an exposition of the Biblical and orthodox witness to the work of Christ, yes? But these “doctrinal basics” weren't fixed in the way they need to be for PSA until three hundred years after the close of the canon. You can really only fit PSA in as a doctrinal development well after Nicea and Chalcedon. PSA as such still arguably doesn't exist before Anselm in the twelfth century. That in itself suggests that PSA, rather than being the elaboration of a scriptural theme of sacrifice, is a second- or third-remove theological synthesis. It (I allege!) tries to answer a particular question by abstracting elements from Scripture and putting them together as a theory.
And another giveaway is the post-Biblically time-conditioned exposition of classical PSA theories: for Anselm, the offence of humanity in Adam is against a feudally conceived honour of God. For Calvin, it's - well it's partially a civil, partially a criminal Capital Crime, set in what is clearly in parts an early modern courtroom (an odd botch for a lawyer!)
All of this suggests how abstract and synthetic and selective PSA is with respect to the Bible.
I would also argue that PSA downgrades Christ's role from the Biblical Priest-Victim (Hebrews!) to that essentially of victim. His priestly role really isn’t needed, because of the forensic nature of the transaction on the cross. To be crude, all that’s needed is for somebody to go to the cash-desk and pay up. It isn’t that PSA theologians don’t use the priestly language and imagery. It’s that the role sacrifice plays in PSA is a reduction to an element in an algorithm. If (someone can turn up with something of requisite value) then (the debtors/prisoners can be ransomed/go free). There’s nothing remotely resembling that reductionism in the huge exposition of the themes of obedience, priesthood and sacrifice in Hebrews.
quote:
A low Christology leads to the problem of "cosmic child abuse", whereas a trinitarian understanding of PSA sees Jesus' death as a willing self-sacrifice, with Father, Son and Spirit working together to redeem the world.
Well yes, but you are still left either making huge assumptions about Jesus’ incarnate humanity, and in particular about his insight, foreknowledge and (as I see it) practical omniscience – or you still make the whole thing swing on Jesus’ fully human obedience, in which not only is the cry of dereliction from the cross a “real” cry of dereliction because the Father is turning away, but the fully-human Jesus really doesn’t know what’s going on, and you are back with cosmic child-abuse. ISTM either you have an Apollinarian Jesus, whose unity with us is impaired, because it’s “God in a meat suit,” or you have a fully human Jesus with a human soul, suffering cosmic child abuse. I’d go so far as to say that I don’t see how you can save the situation from cosmic child abuse without postulating Jesus’ incarnate omniscience – against the Biblical witness. I don't think any other atonement perspective lands you with these problems.
quote:
On the other hand, neglect Jesus' full humanity, and it doesn't make sense how he can stand in our place as our representative. It is by being fully human, by being the new Adam, that he is able to die in our place on the Cross.
Absolutely. But Jesus being fully human for the purposes of PSA really means no more than a battery being fully charged, or a gold ring being fully gold. The other things about Jesus being fully human - like his capacity to understand our humanity, so stressed in Hebrews, or our oneness in his humanity so stressed by Bonhoeffer, are like nice collateral gains, bonuses which come our way accidentally. They are not materially relevant to the Atonement.
Further, the impulse for the incarnation is derived directly from the Fall – but the Fall understood according to a definition which is internal to PSA. Heck, Anselm even called his book Cur Deus Homo? ("Why did God become Man?") The incarnation is part of the solution of a problem which is defined exclusively by PSA. QED!
The point about PSA being a synthesis is vital, too. It's a fusion of the courtroom and the altar. Mousethief already made the point that animals being sacrificed aren't being punished. Jesus, in Hebrews, isn't being punished - he's the great High Priest offering the once-for-all sacrifice for our sin. By fusing - which very specifically isn't respecting the autonomy of - the themes of sacrifice, and of vicarious punishment found in Is 53, that you get to a sacrifice-punishment effected in/on a courtroom-altar which is simultaneously a green hill far away, that you get to PSA. (Again, Jesus the victim, but not really the priest.)
The early Church dwelt on all these themes as it struggled with the truth of the coming of the Saviour and his crucifixion. What it didn't do was make all the ingredients into a pizza, market it, and put Penal Substitutionary Atonement on the box lid. And trademark it! It’s an exclusive recipe! QED!
But look at The Revolutionist's post.
It takes Biblical themes, treats them separately and with individual emphasis and respect. I know Calvin was capable of doing this as an expositor. But as a theorist of Atonement, that isn't how it works with him. And of course I'm not accusing Calvin of theological incompetence. He knew what he was doing, and thought it was legitimate. Atonement is the penal substitutionary act of Christ on the Cross.
Which is fair enough, but what it means is that you become completely liable for all the defects and moral and logical problems of PSA - which in the end only get solved by saying something like "God is God, and whatever God does, is moral, right and just."
(And I'm very clear that The Revolutionist isn't saying that!)
quote:
Another point is that PSA focuses on our standing before God, our relationship with him. But the Cross wasn't just about the forgiveness of individual souls, but a whole bunch of other stuff too that PSA doesn't directly deal with.
Indeed. Isn’t the reason it doesn’t, though, that the other stuff is dealt with once the atoning act is done? PSA claims by an exhaustive and explicit logic that it alone achieves the conditions for salvation. Once that’s done, you can depict the other aspects of the Gospel story or the human condition in whatever Biblical terms you like, but you’re really adding nothing to the fact that what needed to be done was done in an act of penal substitutionary atonement which was all-sufficient.
I’d argue that it’s crucial that when God's love, open and vuilnerable, intersects with a fallen world, crucifixion is what happens, but God still does it – still comes into the world. And goes to the cross. That would be the kernel of "moral influence" as I understand it. But, again, all that's just a nice collateral gain if your theory is PSA. The Son comes into the world not in order to show what love is like, and what the unloving world does to love, and that God still loves anyway - but to die on the cross to remit a punishment that humanity has brought upon itself. The rest is a sort of edifying bonus.
quote:
Christus Victor tells of the cosmic impact of the Cross - that Jesus defeated Satan, death, and evil. If you only had PSA as a model, then you could believe we'll be zapped off to heaven while creation goes to hell in a handcart, but CV tells us that "the kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of the Lord and of his Christ" (Rev 11:15). This describes the kingly aspect of Christ's death and resurrection.
Indeed – though the theme here in CV is Jesus at least as much of a champion and warrior as a king, to say nothing of the Patristic version of Jesus as the bait the fish couldn’t swallow!
The Revolutionist goes beyond PSA to a really substantial and rounded necessary understanding of Christ as the conqueror of evil. But I really think that’s a step outside PSA, and an assertion that you can’t understand everything material about the atonement in terms of PSA that is the practical abandonment of a PSA theory. Not, note, of sacrificial themes as necessary to understanding the atonement.
quote:
Scapegoating theories of the atonement, such as that proposed by Girard, show the social impact of the Cross, that it is the sacrifice to end all sacrifices and exposes the cycle of violence and scapegoating in society. This reflects both on Christ's priestly role and his prophetic role.
Absolutely - copy that - I'd accept Girard's as a valid perspective on the atonement. And for him, the uniqueness of Christianity lies in the fact that whereas religion, through sacrifice and the victim, functions in human society to hide violence, the cross at the centre of Christianity unmasks human violence. But what PSA does, in Girardian terms, is to cover up human violence again, by turning it back into a religious masking. It resacralizes it. Violence again becomes what God demands, not how human beings are.
It's "moral influence" that can appropriate Girard's insights - but PSA is to do with rejecting them. What Girard understands the cross as unmasking as human violence usually dealt with by the mechanisms of the sacrificial system is turned by PSA back into God’s violence.
quote:
Moral Exemplar tells of the ongoing impact of the Cross on believers lives. PSA tells us how we are forgiven, while Moral Exemplar shows us how our lives should be transformed. This reflects the prophetic aspect of the Atonement once more.
Ah, now that I have problems with! Because that fairly explicitly downgrades moral influence, and subordinates it to PSA - in just the way I'd allege that PSA necessarily does with all other perspectives on the atonement! Moral example understandings of the atonement are viewed in this light as edifying examples for people who have already been reconciled to God through the blood of the cross. This is what PSA does. It starts with a problem, which is sin, and defines everything in terms of that.
quote:
Other aspects that could be expanded on would be the idea of Union with Christ and also of the Resurrection, which aren't developed in detail by PSA, but are necessary for a full understanding of the Atonement.
Ditto with above. They are in my terms "ornamental" additions to a PSA understanding.
To take only the resurrection, it becomes no more than what happens when you kill an innocent man who is also God. It isn’t a victory, because there’s nothing to defeat. Yes, it’s a fact that the powers of hell couldn’t hold Jesus fast, but you’d expect that anyway. The point is – it (the resurrection) isn’t “how he did it.” It isn’t what makes things work – as it is in CV perspectives (OK, and theories – another thread there…)
What “makes things work” in PSA is one thing, and one thing only: God’s accepting of Jesus’ sacrifice as the payment/punishment for sin in our place. And yes, that’s a compound “one thing” – but that’s how it works, that’s why PSA is a theory, and that’s why it’s exclusive. It leaves nothing at all to be said about the atonement outside itself. Everything crucial is reduced to one mechanism, everything else is edifying, or ornamental, but basically dispensable.
I really respect The Revolutionist’s theological position, but I don’t think it’s PSA.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Further, the impulse for the incarnation is derived directly from the Fall
As a point of interest, this is not the case in Orthodoxy. Many Orthodox writers have said that even if humankind hadn't fallen, Christ would still have become incarnate to unite the divine and human natures in Himself (incarnation) and lift our nature into the Godhead (ascension). What would not have been necessary if we had not fallen is his death and resurrection, which together conquer sin and death, sin and death being two sides of the same coin. If he isn't resurrected, he doesn't conquer death, and therefore doesn't conquer sin. Our understanding of the nature of the atonement (aside from cross-pollination from the post-Anselmic West) is primarily one of sickness and healing.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Mousethief: quote:
Further, the impulse for the incarnation is derived directly from the Fall
Thanks for that. I didn't express myself clearly. I meant "In PSA understandings the impulse... yadda yadda." I do actually say above somewhere quote:
I also think it's very enlightening to contemplate the attitude of Duns Scotus, developed by the Franciscan tradition, that the incarnation would have happened anyway, had there been no fall, as I understand it because the Son would have offered the Father the fulness of incarnate worship anyway, and also because God would always have revealed himself in love to his creation in this incarnate way.
I also take your point about the sickness-healing understanding of the Fall, together with what John Hick calls the "Irenaean" understanding that the Fall is a sort of infant stumbling of humanity. A lot of stuff in the West starts with Augustine's view that Adam was laden with perfections that magnified an otherwise trivial offence. Again, PSA is seen as implicated in a narowing western focus on the fall as the objective guilt of sin, which must be removed to avert divine wrath. You narrow the focus of what's wrong to one problem, you wind up with one patent solution. A fallen world is much more complex than that.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
mousethief replies to Jolly Jape:
quote:
quote:
heaven knows I'm no fan of PSA, but I do think you're barking up the wrong tree here. The most common meaning of substitution is that you accomplish something for somebody else that they could not do for themself.
That's just not how the word is used in everyday life, nor is it the dictionary definition -- MW gives "a person or thing that takes the place or function of another". Dictionary.com says "a person or thing acting or serving in place of another" and "one that takes the place of another."
To me, this is starting to sound awfully like a semantic tangent that's peculiar to modern English vocabulary.
For me, the concept of a soldier dying on the battlefield so that the enemy doesn't sack the towns and kill the civilians is a clear example of soldiers dying in place of civilians. I personally would call that "substitutionary sacrifice" - and I suspect it forms part of the way that people understand the meaning of the death of Jesus on the cross. It certainly forms a significant part of my own understanding of the meaning of the death of Jesus on the cross, although there are other aspects to it besides this one.
But if you think that's not what "substitution" means, then fair enough, maybe "substitution" is the wrong word. But what other word would you suggest we use for this concept? Thanks.
Psyduck says
quote:
Again, PSA is seen as implicated in a narowing western focus on the fall as the objective guilt of sin, which must be removed to avert divine wrath.
For the sake of clarity, would I be right in assuming that there's a distinction to be made between "objective guilt" and merely feeling bad about something?
It sounds to me as though "objective guilt" is itself defined in terms of "divine wrath". So it all becomes a bit tautological.
I suspect that many evangelicals read the fall as a metaphor for their own moral inadequacies. But the trouble with viewing the Fall metaphorically is that the atonement might be regarded metaphorically too, given the way that Paul speaks about both Adam and Christ side-by-side in Romans.
Yet it seems to me that evangelical churches don't exactly go out of their way to prevent people thinking of the Fall in metaphorical terms. Maybe it's just me.
Thanks for the comments.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
The problem with the transmission of information in Scripture is that it IS structural, depending on patterns, themes, motifs to convey information. Of course Paul is in the loop and sees these patterns as a result of his training in midrash. The problem is that the biblical writers relay the information to us again in patterns, and we are most definitely NOT in the loop. IOW, we are not used to receiving information in pattern format but analytical
So here's a humble attempt at presenting the information in analytical format.
A recurrent theme in Scripture is
God commands
People act
Consequences ensue
God commands avoidance of the fruit
Adam disobeys
Sin arrives along with its attendant effects: pain, sickness, death.
God asks for belief in Him
Adam disbelieves
Adam 's decision to part ways with God leads to a parting of ways, a relocation to the danger zone.
In the NT,
1. God commands fulfillment of Law: Love God and Love your fellow man
2. Jesus obeys by
a. loving God (having faith in Him to rollback the effects of sin as presented to him in the form of hunger, sickness, death) and
b. loving men (stepping out in faith and setting aside self).
3. God acts by providing bread, medicine, life (feeding of multitude, healing of sick, raising of dead)
At the Cross specifically:
God commands fullfilment of Law
Jesus obeys by having faith
God acts by providing a sin offering.
God acts through Christ, what Jesus called the finger of God (Luke 11:20). A problem with the retelling is that the element of God acting through Christ is not reiterated at every instance. Yes Christ holds the bread, but it is God acting to multiply it. Yes it is Christ mixing spittle and mud, but God who acts to convert it into the healing salve. Yes it is Christ placing His body on the altar, but it is God making it the atoning (reconciling, but more than that, as Tyndale tried to convey) sin offering.
So PSA is not something that Jesus does, but what God does. And God does it by making the unblemished Lamb ill (KJV) to remove the illness from humanity.
10But the LORD was pleased To crush Him, putting Him to grief; If He would render Himself as a guilt offering, He will see His offspring, He will prolong His days, And the good pleasure of the LORD will prosper in His hand. Isaiah 53 NASB
IOW, PSA is the specific solution chosen by God for providing forgiveness of sin, just as multiplying bread was the specific solution for the providing alleviation of hunger. Asking why God couldn't forgive sin without punishing Jesus is like asking why God couldn't alleviate hunger by removing the sensation from the minds of the hungry.
God created the material earth and said that it was good. Avoiding the material leads to the dualism found in Hellenist worldview of understanding the physical as bad and the spiritual as good. The new earth and the new heavens will be physical, just as Jesus resurrected body was physical.
Jesus mission was to serve as an example for us to follow towards the end of rolling back the results of sin in the lives of those joined to him (the last achieved through PSA) which in turn will be an example for those who see these events.
16In the same way, let your light shine before men, that they may see your good deeds and praise your Father in heaven. Matt 5
So yes, Moral Exemplar is the the main platform of his manifesto. PSA is just one plank (albeit an important plank) of the many planks that constitute that platform.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
footwasher: Thanks for that. My problem is that this: quote:
PSA is the specific solution chosen by God for providing forgiveness of sin,
seems incompatible with this: quote:
So yes, Moral Exemplar is the the main platform of his manifesto. PSA is just one plank (albeit an important plank) of the many planks that constitute that platform.
Not juggling with words, honestly.
[ 26. June 2010, 19:58: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Put it this way. Is this fair?
1) If you hold PSA, whatever else you believe it's important to say about Jesus, PSA is indispensable, because it is the way God deals with sin.
2) Therefore, if you believe in PSA you are committed to believing that people who don't believe in it are missing the point - the point - about what Jesus was all about in terms of our relationship with God.
I'm not trying to entrap anyone, but I don't see how this can be avoided.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
In reductionist terms, I see
1. Not depending on God as leading to bad consequences.
2. Depending on God as having good consequences.
Sin and alienation are an expression of that bad consequence, just as pain, hunger and death are expressions of the bad consequences.
That's why I see PSA as secondary to exemplar.
God uses Christ like he used mud and spittle.
Just another cure...
[ 26. June 2010, 20:23: Message edited by: footwasher ]
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
Maybe I'm not seeing the problem. Will sleep on it!
Thanks for fleshing out the inbuit contradiction I may have made in my proposed solution. I agree it is a possibility and could have been avoided by a better wording of my understanding. Your explanation of the problem may sink in in the morning!
G'night.
[ 26. June 2010, 21:12: Message edited by: footwasher ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Sleep well!
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
I think what The Revolutionist is outlining is not a PSA understanding of the Atonement, but a balanced, rounded, personally-held evangelical theology with an emphasis on sacrificial themes,and that (in common with many evangelicals) he maybe uses PSA as a shorthand for this.
It looks to me like he really does hold more than one atonement theory, PSA among them.
The key part of his post that swayed me was this:
Christus Victor tells of the cosmic impact of the Cross - that Jesus defeated Satan, death, and evil. If you only had PSA as a model, then you could believe we'll be zapped off to heaven while creation goes to hell in a handcart, but CV tells us that [creation itself was affected]...
Here he is adding multiple theories of the atonement together by making each perform a different function - each 'solves' a different 'problem'. This is just like I explained earlier how the early church fathers were able to hold multiple atonement theories at once.
To explain the relationship of these theories clearly...
Problem 1: The Final Judgment of God is facing humanity. How can sinful humans pass it?
Solution 1: PSA. Christ takes the punishment.
Problem 2: Creation itself is under the power of Satan and subject to decay. Will God just whisk humans off to heaven, or will he transform the world and rescue it from Satan's power.
Solution 2: Christus Victor. Something Jesus did involved some sort of victory over Satan and was world-transforming.
Those two atonement theories are very coherent together. They are not at all mutually exclusive as they both solve different theological problems. One says how humans can get to heaven, and the other says how Creation itself can be transformed. There's no overlap or conflict between them.
As long as you can keep thinking up further theological 'problems', you can keep adding more and more atonement theories together, each as a solution to the different 'problem'. The resulting theology would be perfectly coherent. Occam's razor, of course, might make you wonder if it's really all that likely for there to be more than one major theological problem facing humanity/God that needs Jesus to deal with it.
If the only 'problem' you are going to focus on is humans passing the final judgment, then yes, I'd say PSA is pretty exclusive. Generally PSA is phrased as being the exclusive path to passing the final judgment.
quote:
What Girard understands the cross as unmasking as human violence usually dealt with by the mechanisms of the sacrificial system is turned by PSA back into God’s violence.
Fair call. PSA and Girard would seem pretty mutually exclusive.
quote:
Because that fairly explicitly downgrades moral influence, and subordinates it to PSA - in just the way I'd allege that PSA necessarily does with all other perspectives on the atonement! Moral example understandings of the atonement are viewed in this light as edifying examples for people who have already been reconciled to God through the blood of the cross. This is what PSA does. It starts with a problem, which is sin, and defines everything in terms of that.
I'd agree. It's nearly impossible to hold a PSA view and a fullblown Moral atonement theory at the same time, because both are trying to simultaneously answer the question of "how do I achieve a positive final judgment?" with two different answers.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Starlight: quote:
PSA. Christ takes the punishment.
But the trouble is, ISTM, that PSA is much more than "Christ takes the punishment." Isa 53 is "Christ takes the punishment." Paul is "Christ is sacrificed for us, and the wrath is averted." (and much else!) The scapegoat is "God provides a means for the removal of the sins of the people."
PSA is "God has been offended against, and because of his holiness cannot overlook this, therefore Christ, completely innocent, comes and dies in our place as a propitiating sacrifice, pays our penalty, and lets us go free. Etc. etc." That's not the same thing as "Christ takes the punishment." That's this is exactly how Christ takes the punishment, exactly how atonement is wrought, and exactly how everything is dealt with."
That's what accounts for the optical illusion that PSA can coexist with other perspectives on the atonement. All these other themes can and do coexist. But - as Dinghy Sailor pointed out - PSA is more than a perspective, a way of looking at the atonement. It's a theory of the atonement.
I really can't but see it that the evangelicals who are defending PSA are actually defending an ethos, not a theory - the ethos of a religious understanding in which guilt, with all its reality and oppression, is taken away. Nobody is arguing with that. It's a central part of the Christian tradition. (Along with others, which most of the evangelicals who are talking this way are clearly, and properly, anxious to defend.)
But it's not PSA.
It's not "my thread" and I'm not trying to steer the argument, though it must look that way.
All I'm saying is that, speaking for myself, I'm still waiting for someone to (1) give me their exposition of PSA and (2) tell me how it can treat other perspectives on the atonement with equal weight. Nobody's yet done that, because nobody's yet done (1). I'm just saying...
[ 27. June 2010, 09:22: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
I support SA. The New Testament witness suggests to me that substitution was pretty central to the kerygma from the start. And one can find it in the expositions of the Fathers. Here is John Chrysostom's Homily X1 on 2 Corinthians. Note in particular this extract re 2 Cor 5:21
quote:
If one that was himself a king, beholding a robber and malefactor under punishment, gave his well-beloved son, his only-begotten and true, to be slain; and transferred the death and the guilt as well, from him to his son, (who was himself of no such character,) that he might both save the condemned man and clear him from his evil reputation and then if, having subsequently promoted him to great dignity, he had yet, after thus saving him and advancing him to that glory unspeakable, been outraged by the person that had received such treatment: would not that man, if he had any sense, have chosen ten thousand deaths rather than appear guilty of so great ingratitude?
[The footnote to that treatment is also of some importance].
But I've always been uncomfortable with the P. It kind of crosses a line for me. I'm fine with "God hates the sin but loves the sinner" as a means of looking at the notion of wrath in God. The P does seem to suggest that the wrath moves from the deed to the perpetrator, which seems to me to be in such sharp contrast with the NT emphasis that God is Love.
We explored this theme at some length in the huge Christus Victor thread. From memory, there were some pretty good attempts at defining PSA within that thread, but I wouldn't encourage you to trawl for them unless you;ve got a lot of time!
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Actually, I remembered a particular post by Call Me Numpty (who believes in PSA) which impressed me in that long thread, so here is a link. You might need to look at posts immediately preceding and following to get the full sense of it.
Posted by LutheranChik (# 9826) on
:
I think -- and in my tradition, despite a seeming emphasis on SA, this is pretty much the party line -- there are multiple ways to think about the Atonement, none of which are mutually exclusive.
I do find the obsession with PSA among crankypants American neo-Calvinists -- those angry young men in goatees and tats who pretend to be hipsters but who are really a combination of Cotton Mather and Jerry Falwell -- weird, to say the least; there's a school of thought among some of them that one cannot be a Real Christian [tm] and hold to anything but PSA. They remind me of my Uncle Edwin, whom the rest of the family tended to avoid at holiday dinners when he started holding forth on The Communist Menace Among Us.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
But I've always been uncomfortable with the P. It kind of crosses a line for me. I'm fine with "God hates the sin but loves the sinner" as a means of looking at the notion of wrath in God. The P does seem to suggest that the wrath moves from the deed to the perpetrator, which seems to me to be in such sharp contrast with the NT emphasis that God is Love.
At the risk of starting it all over again (well you brought it up
) - the reason you give is precisely why the P must stay. How can we be held responsible for what we do if we divorce our deeds from our very being?
"God hates the sin but loves the sinner" (ISTM
) is a meaningless aphorism. How is it possible to talk about sin without the sinner?
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
footwasher says
quote:
The problem with the transmission of information in Scripture is that it IS structural, depending on patterns, themes, motifs to convey information.
To me, that sounds like an argument in favour of taking the approach of Joseph Campbell towards scriptures.
quote:
PSA is the specific solution chosen by God for providing forgiveness of sin, just as multiplying bread was the specific solution for the providing alleviation of hunger.
I think the concept of the Trinity is important here. To say that God chose PSA makes it sound like God might not have needed the sacrifice of Jesus in the first place - which, to my way of thinking, makes God sound rather capricious.
I don't think that PSA theory allows much room for the idea of God umming and arring over different ways of reconciling to us, and then plonking for the one he fancied the most.
If that means that the Sovereignty of God is constrained by the greater sovereignty of something else even more powerful than God, then so be it. To my way of thinking, absolute sovereignty by its very nature implies capriciousness. If God has got to follow rules and keep promises, it follows that he is not truly sovereign. But I realise that most evangelical Christians probably don't see it that way. Point is, a properly conceived PSA theory does impose a set of limits on what God theoretically can and can't do - and once you reject those limits, it's no longer PSA.
But I guess that's part of the point of the Trinity. Once you speak of individual persons of God, it becomes okay to talk about what they can and can't do, without undermining the concept of the Sovereignty of the One God.
Psyduck says
quote:
PSA is "God has been offended against, and because of his holiness cannot overlook this, therefore Christ, completely innocent, comes and dies in our place as a propitiating sacrifice, pays our penalty, and lets us go free. Etc. etc."
Hmm. Not sure that God's inability to overlook offence is something that derives from his holiness, in standard PSA thought. I'd have thought that the fact he sent his Son as a gift to us, so that we can offer Jesus to God - I'm guessing that's probably more likely to be the reason.
What exactly do we mean by "holiness" anyway? To me, "holiness" means the power of encouragement that I associate with martyr relics - but I'm not sure that evangelicals give much truck to that one. To describe God as "holy" is either tautologous, or a mismatch of contexts. But since I conceive of "holiness" as a kind of encouragement, I find it difficult to conceive of holiness being able to stop you doing something you might otherwise have been able to do.
In other words, it's like saying that if God wasn't as holy as he is, then he would be able to overlook offence. Is that what PSA adherents actually believe? Personally I doubt it.
quote:
All I'm saying is that, speaking for myself, I'm still waiting for someone to (1) give me their exposition of PSA and (2) tell me how it can treat other perspectives on the atonement with equal weight. Nobody's yet done that, because nobody's yet done (1). I'm just saying...
I personally am beginning to suspect that it's a semantics issue. Some describe the thing that happened to Christ as a "punishment". But the idea that what would have happened to us if Christ had not died in our place would have constituted a "punishment" seems fairly widespread - but is it PSA?
Apart from the fact that some people who say they believe in PSA (though not all) insist on calling what happened to Christ a "punishment", I'm not seeing how PSA is really much different to the understanding of atonement that's applied to sacrifices other than the sacrifice of Christ, in the Old Testament, in Homer and in Greek tragedy. The main difference is that the sacrifice of Christ is supposed to be sufficient for everything - but this is not a feature that's peculiar to PSA.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
"God hates the sin but loves the sinner" (ISTM
) is a meaningless aphorism. How is it possible to talk about sin without the sinner?
Pretty easily. What we do certainly reflects something of who we are, but it is not the whole story of who we are. Any of us. It's not too trite to say that we are primarily human beings, not human doings.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Pretty easily. What we do certainly reflects something of who we are, but it is not the whole story of who we are. Any of us. It's not too trite to say that we are primarily human beings, not human doings.
Come on B62.
'reflects something' ... 'primarily human beings' ... the defendant is perspiring under the faintest of pressure.
You're the one who is supposed to demonstrating that we are only human beings and not human doings.
I'm perfectly content to see humanity as both.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Pretty easily. What we do certainly reflects something of who we are, but it is not the whole story of who we are. Any of us. It's not too trite to say that we are primarily human beings, not human doings.
Come on B62.
'reflects something' ... 'primarily human beings' ... the defendant is perspiring under the faintest of pressure.
You're the one who is supposed to demonstrating that we are only human beings and not human doings.
I'm perfectly content to see humanity as both.
Not at all - primarily doesn't mean only. I am without perspiration - even on this heatwave day in the UK. And I don't have to demonstrate anything when I'm expressing personal reservations about PSA.
Too judicial, Johnny S. Too penal! Try a little more forbearance ..
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
It's not "my thread" and I'm not trying to steer the argument, though it must look that way.
It does rather.
Anyway - I think my take would be this. Taking God's wrath is not the only thing Jesus' death achieves. But it's only because he does do that, that we are able to experience all the other blessings of the atonement - his victory over death, his lifting of the curse from us, his moral example. So, if that's what you mean, then you're right (about me at least)
But I don't think that means I don't see value in other persepctives on the atonement. Simply that I think we receive those other blessings cos PSA is true.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Johnny S says
quote:
You're the one who is supposed to demonstrating that we are only human beings and not human doings.
I'm perfectly content to see humanity as both.
So am I. The way I look at it is that you don't come to be remembered after you die as a "saint" or "martyr" or "hero", or even just as a "great dad", just by "being".
But whoa - wait a minute. "perfectly content"? Maybe that's overstating it a bit, because I do find the thought of how I might come to be remembered and/or forgotten rather unsettling.
Leprechaun says
quote:
Anyway - I think my take would be this. Taking God's wrath is not the only thing Jesus' death achieves. But it's only because he does do that, that we are able to experience all the other blessings of the atonement - his victory over death, his lifting of the curse from us, his moral example. So, if that's what you mean, then you're right (about me at least)
Thanks for that, that makes sense to me.
Nevertheless, I'm still of the opinion that whilst Old Testament and Homeric concepts of atoning sacrifice can appease the wrath of a divine being - indeed, that's the whole point of sacrifice - but on the other hand, this does not necessarily mean that the person or animal who is offered as a sacrifice undergoes what can be described as a "punishment".
Warriors who die on the battlefield are considered heroes. But it wouldn't do to consider their deaths to be a form of "punishment". That doesn't mean that their deaths are pleasant experiences; they're not, and I think few of us envy dead warriors. But "punishment" implies that they've done something "wrong", when in reality it's quite the opposite; there are few things more "right" you can do than to sacrifice yourself for your community. John 15:13 and all that.
And that's the way that I personally suspect that the sacrifice of Jesus on the cross has been thought of, throughout a significant chunk of Christianity's history.
So I think I understand why it upsets people to have the sacrifice of Jesus called a "punishment", because it implies that Jesus is culpable somehow, and it robs him of his glory. But on the other hand, to say that it's not a punishment may be seen as sugar-coating the grim nature of the suffering and death of Jesus. After all, those who are actually punished may come to be seen as more courageous for having the guts to accept their punishment, and not fight it.
I don't see how you can resolve that one. Perhaps we've got to accept that the death of Jesus must be thought of as both a "punishment" and as not a "punishment" at the same time.
Alternatively, we can try to nail down the attributes of what we think the word "punishment" means. Perhaps "punishment" isn't a very good word, and there's another word which is more suitable.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
Psyduck wrote: quote:
footwasher: Thanks for that. My problem is that this:
quote:
PSA is the specific solution chosen by God for providing forgiveness of sin,
seems incompatible with this:
quote:
So yes, Moral Exemplar is the the main platform of his manifesto. PSA is just one plank (albeit an important plank) of the many planks that constitute that platform.
Not juggling with words, honestly.
Well PSA is a specific resolution for the sin debt.
And moral exemplar is a general resolution for reaching the resolutions for hunger, sickness, etc. each of which have specific cures.
quote:
Put it this way. Is this fair?
1) If you hold PSA, whatever else you believe it's important to say about Jesus, PSA is indispensable, because it is the way God deals with sin.
2) Therefore, if you believe in PSA you are committed to believing that people who don't believe in it are missing the point - the point - about what Jesus was all about in terms of our relationship with God.
I'm not trying to entrap anyone, but I don't see how this can be avoided.
As others have already noted, people dislike PSA because they see in it a strict God, unlike the God depicted in the Prodigal Son story. They dislike also the infliction of punishment on an innocent victim.
But the stern God is also the God who takes on the punishment.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Oh its a bit more than stern and strict, footwasher!
Here is a lovely quote from C S Lewis's "The Pilgrim's Regress" which illustrates the point. Here is a character called the Steward explaining to the hero John the Landlord's (landlord is a metaphor for God) attitude to sin. "He'd take you and shut you up for ever in a black hole full of snakes and scorpions for ever and ever. And besides, he is such a kind man, so very very kind, that I'm sure you would never want to displease him". Later the Steward explained to John that the Landlord was quite extraordinarily good to all his tenants and would certainly torture most of them for ever if he had the slightest pretext. In the story, John ends up very confused by all of this. And of course he's not the only one.
You can see why strict and stern don't really cut it.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
quote:
You can see why strict and stern don't really cut it.
I used to think that this was a type of "Stockholm syndrome". God is so unspeakably horrible to us, that when He offers us one little concession, we go totally overboard, and give him a load of gushing praise that He really doesn't deserve. A bit like the way that a battered wife would do with an abusive husband.
Whilst I suspect that this kind of psychology might drive a form of PSA belief for some people who say they believe in PSA, I don't think it would be fair to say it of all of them.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Oh its a bit more than stern and strict, footwasher!
Here is a lovely quote from C S Lewis's "The Pilgrim's Regress" which illustrates the point. Here is a character called the Steward explaining to the hero John the Landlord's (landlord is a metaphor for God) attitude to sin. "He'd take you and shut you up for ever in a black hole full of snakes and scorpions for ever and ever. And besides, he is such a kind man, so very very kind, that I'm sure you would never want to displease him". Later the Steward explained to John that the Landlord was quite extraordinarily good to all his tenants and would certainly torture most of them for ever if he had the slightest pretext. In the story, John ends up very confused by all of this. And of course he's not the only one.
You can see why strict and stern don't really cut it.
One good quote deserves another, then, and this from a lady who whupped Lewis' ass.
Quote
Christianity is, of course, not the only religion that has found the best explanation of human life in the idea of an incarnate and suffering god. The Egyptian Osiris died and rose again; Aeschylus in his play, The Eumenides, reconciled man to God by the theory of a suffering Zeus. But in most theologies, the god is supposed to have suffered and died in some remote and mythical period of prehistory. The Christian story, on the other hand, starts off briskly in St. Matthew's account with a place and a date: "When Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of Herod the King." St. Luke, still more practically and prosaically, pins the thing down by a reference to a piece of government finance. God, he says, was made man in the year when Caesar Augustus was taking a census in connection with a scheme of taxation. Similarly, we might date an event by saying that it took place in the year that Great Britain went off the gold standard. About thirty-three years later (we are informed), God was executed, for being a political nuisance, "under Pontius Pilate"—much as we might say, "when Mr. Johnson-Hicks was Home Secretary." It is as definite and concrete as all that.
Possibly we might prefer not to take this tale too seriously—there are disquieting points about it. Here we had a man of divine character walking and talking among us—and what did we find to do with him? The common people, indeed, "heard him gladly"; but our leading authorities in church and state considered that he talked too much and uttered too many disconcerting truths. So we bribed one of his friends to hand him over quietly to the police, and we tried him on a rather vague charge of creating a disturbance, and had him publicly flogged and hanged on the common gallows, "thanking God we were rid of a knave." All this was not very creditable to us, even if he was (as many people thought and think) only a harmless, crazy preacher. But if the Church is right about him, it was more discreditable still, for the man we hanged was God Almighty. So that is the outline of the official story—the tale of the time when God was the underdog and got beaten, when he submitted to the conditions he had laid down and became a man like the men he had made, and the men he had made broke him and killed him. This is the dogma we find so dull—this terrifying drama of which God is the victim and hero.
You can find the rest of the article on the 'Net.
The Poetry of Search and the Poetry of Statement (London: Gollancz, 1963).
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Nice quote, footwasher. A neat fusion of moral influence, Christus Victor and sacrificial themes, but no trace of PSA that I can see...
Thanks to you and Leprechaun for making my points for me!
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
footwasher quotes someone (who exactly? - thanks)
quote:
The Christian story, on the other hand, starts off briskly in St. Matthew's account with a place and a date: "When Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of Herod the King." St. Luke, still more practically and prosaically, pins the thing down by a reference to a piece of government finance. God, he says, was made man in the year when Caesar Augustus was taking a census in connection with a scheme of taxation. Similarly, we might date an event by saying that it took place in the year that Great Britain went off the gold standard. About thirty-three years later (we are informed), God was executed, for being a political nuisance, "under Pontius Pilate"—much as we might say, "when Mr. Johnson-Hicks was Home Secretary." It is as definite and concrete as all that.
I have a theory about that. It's a bit like King Arthur.
Maybe Jesus did live, maybe he didn't - or, maybe like Josephus says, there were 19 people called Jesus.
Regardless of how mythical or historical it was, Jesus, like King Arthur, came to be thought of as a legendary hero. However, like King Arthur, there was another aspect to the legend; that of his future messianic return.
When there's no messianic element to the legend, then the question of how true it is isn't really that important. How many of the ancient Greeks thought it was that important to believe that Heracles literally conducted 12 labours - one of which, as it happened, involved him going down to Hades and returning again (a bit like some other guy we've been talking about)? Probably not many. Yes, there's a legend of Heracles turning into a god upon his death - but there was no legend about his possible future return.
But with Jesus - and King Arthur - it was different. A group of people who, rightfully or wrongfully, thought of themselves as persecuted, started putting hope in an imminent future return of Jesus. But it's ridiculous to think that he might come back in the future if he never actually lived in the first place. As a result, this had the effect of "historicising" the myth.
The same thing happened with King Arthur - which is why Geoffrey of Monmouth's History of the Kings of Britain was widely considered to be a reliable historical chronicle in the late Middle Ages.
This "historicising" effect does not constitute proof that Jesus never lived at all - however, even if he had lived, his legend would still have come to be embellished - and those embellishments would then have been written back into history. We have to bear in mind that the "history" of Jesus has not been written by disinterested scholars, but by people who, for the most part, are placing hope in his future return.
The embellishment of legend is a naturally occurring phenomenon, as is obvious from Jacobus de Voragine's Golden Legend. Did St George really slay a dragon? It doesn't necessarily mean that someone is deliberately trying to deceive anyone.
Having said all of that, though, I think there's a danger in reading too much into the parallels with Osiris and the tragedies of Euripides. Just because there are similarities doesn't mean there aren't differences. But my point is that I personally don't think that the relative weight of historical pin-points are the most important differences.
For example, whilst Osiris was regarded as being the god of resurrection, I don't think there was a legend associated with him of his being sacrificed.
quote:
This is the dogma we find so dull—this terrifying drama of which God is the victim and hero.
Part of the problem, in my opinion, is that if you overemphasise the divinity of Jesus, then it becomes difficult for ordinary people to identify with him. Legends of heroes (and Christian saints, for that matter) encourage us because it makes us think perhaps, if we are courageous enough, we might come to be remembered in the same way. But once you start saying that the central "hero" of your legend is a divine being, you lock people out of responding to it in that way.
Comparing all four Gospels with Euripides tragedy Iphigenia in Aulis - all four Gospels get the point in about Jesus being God quite early. But the Euripides tragedy doesn't hint at the possibility that Iphigenia might be divine until after she has died and is in the process of ascending to heaven. Up until that point, her humanity is really played up - especially in the scene where she first meets Agamemnon, and realises that something is bothering Agamemnon, but doesn't yet understand what it is. That's one of the most powerful scenes in the whole drama, in my opinion.
It may well be that Jesus is theoretically supposed to be human - but I find that the Gospels aren't anywhere near as good at portraying his humanity as Euripides was about the protagonists of his tragedies. But perhaps that's because I've been relying on inferior translations, I don't know.
But that's a question of literary criticism. Point is, though, I think the way legends are narrated does affect the way they are interpreted. So perhaps we shouldn't be surprised by the fact that even today, people are still bemused by atonement, and not everyone agrees about it.
I still think we need to nail down the definition of the word "punishment", though.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Nice quote, footwasher. A neat fusion of moral influence, Christus Victor and sacrificial themes, but no trace of PSA that I can see...
And I thought it was just me! There I was, working through the quote and thinking "sooner or later the pro-P point will emerge". But it never did.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jessie Phillips - it's Dorothy L Sayers. (I gave myself a vainglorious pat on the back for recognizing it before googling to check!)
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Sayers whupped Lewis's butt? Are you confusing her with Elizabeth Anscombe?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
"God hates the sin but loves the sinner" (ISTM
) is a meaningless aphorism. How is it possible to talk about sin without the sinner?
Would it be okay to say, "I love my father, but hate his lung cancer"? Certainly we can't talk about the lung cancer without talking about my father, because he is the one who has the lung cancer. But they are enough separable that I can hate the one and love the other.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Not at all - primarily doesn't mean only. I am without perspiration - even on this heatwave day in the UK. And I don't have to demonstrate anything when I'm expressing personal reservations about PSA.
Sorry B62 I obviously wasn't clear enough.
My point was precisely that primarily doesn't mean only.
Your point is logically inconsistent.
'God loves sinners but hates sin' is okay as a general aphorism but it is hopelessly reductionistic when applied to atonement models. If you are, in effect, using it as a model to apply to how God treats sin then it can only work if it is possible to speak of sin as something entirely separate from our being. Primarily isn't enough. If the definition of who we are is at all a mixture of being and doing then your argument falls down.
I'm quite happy to say that God loves sinners and is angry with them at the same time. I'm often in the same position regarding my children. Sometimes it is because of my impatience and other faults, but not always.
(I realise that by speaking of 'anger' I'm switching away from judicial categories here, but that is the point: we are constantly toing-and-froing between scripture and human analogies here.)
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Too judicial, Johnny S. Too penal! Try a little more forbearance ..
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
"God hates the sin but loves the sinner" (ISTM
) is a meaningless aphorism. How is it possible to talk about sin without the sinner?
Would it be okay to say, "I love my father, but hate his lung cancer"? Certainly we can't talk about the lung cancer without talking about my father, because he is the one who has the lung cancer. But they are enough separable that I can hate the one and love the other.
We talked about this endlessly on the original CV thread ... but just for the record...
This is why we need several atonement models to explain the gospel. (And hence why PSA is not enough on its own and why other models are insufficient without PSA.)
I like the sin as a disease analogy and am happy to use it on occasions - after all the concept of 'salvation = healing' is found throughout the scriptures.
However, the problem with it (as with most models), is not so much what it affirms but what it denies. Cancer is not a moral agent. It's not that it is immoral, but simply amoral.
In what senses is the father responsible for his cancer? If he is not responsible then the analogy with sin breaks down. And if he is responsible (I suppose you could argue that if he has knowingly smoked etc.) then we have the issue that God created this cause and effect world in the first place so if he is hating the cancer (and its effects) he is hating himself.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
PSA is much more than "Christ takes the punishment."
Sure. PSA is generally part and parcel of an entire system of theology, focused around how God can let humans into heaven.
But a person who holds PSA could add to that another system of theology like the bait-and-switch Ransom from Satan theology, focused around how Satan gets tricked out of his power over human souls in the afterlife.
Likewise a person who holds the PSA system of theology could also hold the theology of Christ storming hell between his death and resurrection.
Or a person who holds the PSA system could adopt Athanasius' theology of Recapitulation - that human souls would have faded out of existence entirely had not the Incarnate Christ joined humanity and God together by virtue of his incarnation.
PSA can theoretically be held in parallel with most theories of the atonement. However in practice I think you're definitely right that most advocates of PSA don't hold any other theories.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Unusually, Johnny S, I'm not getting you! I'll have another look tomorrow and see how the misunderstanding has arisen.
It has nowt to do with football, of course. Oh no. The UK sports press will be in Penal mode no doubt and I wouldn't have thought anyone will be prepared to substitute for Fabio Capello. There will be a lot of karma, not much grace.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
Hi mousethief. Hmmm... ooops! My bad: yo' right. She questioned the logic he used in "Miracles", took him on in open debate. Upshot, Lewis revised his book and never wrote on religion again. I read a passel of stuff on Lewis in my fanboy days, and it was a while ago. I've changed my own views on his Christology since, and am seeing things more like Jessie Phillips now: fully man before the Cross.
Barnabas62 wrote:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Nice quote, footwasher. A neat fusion of moral influence, Christus Victor and sacrificial themes, but no trace of PSA that I can see...
And I thought it was just me! There I was, working through the quote and thinking "sooner or later the pro-P point will emerge". But it never did.
Then you missed this:
So that is the outline of the official story—the tale of the time when God was the underdog and got beaten, when he submitted to the conditions he had laid down and became a man like the men he had made, and the men he had made broke him and killed him.
So man deserves punishment, Jesus becomes a man and takes on all the punishment INSTEAD of all humanity. Punishment and Substitution: PSA in a nutshell.
I've posted before about how Judaism understands that the ground-rules laid down in Torah applied to all, including God himself, likening it to an architect who binds himself to the blueprint he has made. This would explain an anthropomorphism like God resting on the seventh day: He has set in place a system that takes care of sin, good deeds, long-suffering, hardening, forbearance, compensation, etc. and He is so confident it works, He adopts a hands off approach. This would explain the flip-flopping: the system is impersonal, but it's God's system. I have to admit I still haven't wrapped my mind around all of its out-workings.
Note that Lazarus is compensated for his undeserved suffering, when he goes to Abraham's bosom. I'm sure that the man born blind gets some credit points for the years he spent sightless, since neither he nor his parents sinned.
God's system stands alone, apart from Him, and we can tap into it and enter our own Sabbath rest.
[ 28. June 2010, 06:04: Message edited by: footwasher ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Starlight: Sure. quote:
PSA is generally part and parcel of an entire system of theology, focused around how God can let humans into heaven.
See, I think that PSA necessarily is that whole system of theology.
quote:
But a person who holds PSA could add to that another system of theology like the bait-and-switch Ransom from Satan theology, focused around how Satan gets tricked out of his power over human souls in the afterlife.
Absolutely. But that would really be a commentary on one of the collateral effects of PSA. Indeed - and this is an interesting demonstration of the exclusiveness of PSA - what role does Satan actually play in a PSA schema? He's just part of the occasion of the Fall. It doesn't even have to be Satan in Eden - a simple talking snake would have done! If you hold PSA - that man incurs a penalty and objective guilt by his disobedience - then Satan, too, is an ornament. Makes a good story, and explains why we have some days worse than others, but - that's it.
Whereas if you deploy a CV approach, you are treating evil as an imprisoning reality of oppressive structures in the world. Very much like an occupying power! And you can then speak of the Church as a resistance cell, struggling to be obedient to the forces of good, and of Calvary as the gigantic victory that's already been won, that renders the war unwinnable for the Dark Powers, and of the atonement on the Cross as a real - not metaphorical - victory.
If you hold a PSA understanding, then eventually, when you strip things down to basics, Jesus on the cross is a hybrid sacrifice/punishment, and everything else is metaphor.
quote:
Likewise a person who holds the PSA system of theology could also hold the theology of Christ storming hell between his death and resurrection.
Yes - as a metaphor. And because you can't get away from it, because it's there in the Creeds, so you have to talk about it occasionally. But it isn't part of a huge, integrated cosmic act of atonement. It's a consequence of one.
quote:
Or a person who holds the PSA system could adopt Athanasius' theology of Recapitulation - that human souls would have faded out of existence entirely had not the Incarnate Christ joined humanity and God together by virtue of his incarnation.
Indeed. Or any number of other perspectives - or none of them - because none of them is so crucial that they can't be done without. Because everything gets organized around PSA. Because PSA is "what really happens on the Cross." It's the measurable, quantifiable, scientific transaction. It's the pivot that swings everything else.
quote:
PSA can theoretically be held in parallel with most theories of the atonement.
And usually is, because most Christians feel the need to do justice to the whole deposit of faith in some way. quote:
But in practice I think you're definitely right that most advocates of PSA don't hold any other theories.
I think there's a wee knot of important points there. Firstly - why don't they?
Secondly - There are Christians (I'm one of them!) who have huge problems with PSA for all the usual stated reasons! But look at it this way.
Someone can say to me "Moral influence is my basic perspective on the atonement. CV doesn't really make sense to me. I can see bits of it in the NT, but I can't make it work for me. Sacrifice - yes. Sacrifice, and Jesus' sacrifice of himself, that fits with moral influence, but not CV, for me." What do I say? Probably "I think you're missing something very important. I'd say there are huge areas of yoru Christian life in the real world that will be hard to make sense of without CV."
But what happens when someone says something like "I can work with CV, with moral influence, and with sacrificial themes, in Paul and in Hebrews. But PSA I can't buy"? (Which would be my position.)What would a PSA advocate say to me? Wouldn't they be bound to say "But you're missing the whole point of Christian faith? Everything turns on..." and then give me a fairly detailed account of PSA, and how it works, as a theory and a system?
And if they didn't do that, wouldn't I have grounds to wonder if they were really talking about PSA at all?
Several of us have spoken of the reality we've encountered, of PSA as a "shibboleth." A test of who's out and who's in, who is "one of us" and who's not. Now, I'll absolutely concede at once that not every advocate of PSA treats it as a shibboleth.
But isn't that exactly what it is? Either Christ on the cross is paying for our sins in a combination sacrifice/death-sentence, and bearing the punishment that should fall on us - in which case everything else is footnotes - or something else is going on. Maybe a whole load of other things, some of which cover the same ground, and do the same job as PSA -like sacrificial and substitutionary themes - and all of them are a valid, truth-filled commentary on what is fact, that Jesus Christ hung on the cross and died.
Does the New Testament say that Jesus Christ saved the world by paying for our sin in a death that was a sacrifice/punishment, or does the New Testament say that Jesus Christ saved the world by dying on the Cross?
They're not the same thing.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
footwasher: quote:
Then you missed this
Nope, sorry - you misunderstood it. quote:
So that is the outline of the official story—the tale of the time when God was the underdog and got beaten, when he submitted to the conditions he had laid down and became a man like the men he had made, and the men he had made broke him and killed him.
So man deserves punishment, Jesus becomes a man and takes on all the punishment INSTEAD of all humanity. Punishment and Substitution: PSA in a nutshell.
That's a complete importation. "Submitting to the conditions he laid down" means the conditions of actual historic human existence in the world (which is why DLS goes to such trouble to compare the Gospel time references to contemporary news-reporting of events) which the Christ enters - it's the incarnation, not PSA.
So's this: quote:
became a man like the men he had made,
quote:
...and the men he had made broke him and killed him.
And what stems from that? "And still he loved and forgave them"? Moral influence. "Yet he rose in triumph, the Third Day"? Christus Victor. "He was the willing victim"? Sacrifice.
Still no trace of PSA.
See, this is the trouble with PSA. To hold it is to hold that it must be there, and it must be there because it explains everything else. And everything else gets drawn into it. It's a totalizing, exclusive explanatory theory. That's what it is, people. It distorts the way everything gets read and understood.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
That's what it is, people. It distorts the way everything gets read and understood.
Or enlightens. Depending on your perspective.
Of course the way you have just used Moral Influence and Christus Victor to enlighten the quote in the same way footwasher did with PSA goes to show, I think, that this is true of any perspective.
[ 28. June 2010, 07:07: Message edited by: Leprechaun ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Leprechaun:
quote:
Or enlightens. Depending on your perspective.
Of course the way you have just used Moral Influence and Christus Victor to enlighten the quote in the same way footwasher did with PSA goes to show, I think, that this is true of any perspective.
D'you know - with respect, I'm seeing loads of assertions at the moment, but no argument.
footwasher's post is IMO just wrong in its interpretation of the quote. If you think there's PSA in it, show me where it is.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Leprechaun
Maybe you are right? I guess I am wearing similar specs to Psyduck. In the Dorothy Sayers quote I can see Jesus being punished by cruel men in some distorted pursuit of human justice. But I cannot see a punishing God in that quote.
We are in danger of re-running Christus Victor - which I suppose is inevitable. But perhaps I can ask a question based on a central passage of scripture at this point, because in terms of my own conscience on that matter, I regard it as pretty central. This is from 2 Cor 5.
quote:
16. So from now on we regard no one from a worldly point of view. Though we once regarded Christ in this way, we do so no longer. 17. Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; the old has gone, the new has come! 18. All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19. that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men's sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. 20. We are therefore Christ's ambassadors, as though God were making his appeal through us. We implore you on Christ's behalf: Be reconciled to God. 21. God made him who had no sin to be sin[a] for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
I've quoted the whole of the context, but want to look at verse 19 in particular. Others have observed this point so I know it is not a personal interpretation. It is clear that God was the reconciler, not the one to be reconciled. Yet I see PSA as arguing that God needed to be reconciled to human beings because we sin. The process of sinbearing, according to PSA, is somehow necessary for God in order that he be reconciled to us. Yet the central problem is that we are alienated from Him. We are the ones who need to be reconciled.
It is indeed the God represented in the story of the lost son who we see here.
So my question is this. Does PSA really require God to be reconciled to us by the punishment of Jesus? Does He need to be satisfied in order to be reconciled? For if so, I can make no sense of the above passage. As I argued earlier, using John Chrysostom's exposition as an example, I do see 2 Cor 5:21 as clear evidence that substitution is scriptural and witnessed to by the Fathers. But the punishment comes from the unjust acts of people. He became sin for us, God made him to be sin for us, not to change God's heart, but rather that our hearts might be changed.
Perhaps I misrepresent PSA here? I hope not. I think in all of these things we struggle to make sense of the central fact for us that it is we who have become reconciled. Also I hope not to be proof-texting, simply trying to explain my own understanding. [I think the "purple passage" in Ephesians 2 reinforces this understanding, but I'll leave that on one side for now]
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Leprechaun:
quote:
Or enlightens. Depending on your perspective.
Of course the way you have just used Moral Influence and Christus Victor to enlighten the quote in the same way footwasher did with PSA goes to show, I think, that this is true of any perspective.
D'you know - with respect, I'm seeing loads of assertions at the moment, but no argument.
footwasher's post is IMO just wrong in its interpretation of the quote. If you think there's PSA in it, show me where it is.
I don't actually there's any particular explication of any atonement model in the quote: it's a sort of literary reflection on Jesus' death. What I'm saying is that you'll either rule PSA in our out of what she's saying depending on whether you think it's the best way of describing Jesus work, or the portrayal of God as a vicious monster.
Footwasher's already shown how the quote can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe it. You have done the same with Moral Influence and CV.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
footwasher says
quote:
So man deserves punishment, Jesus becomes a man and takes on all the punishment INSTEAD of all humanity. Punishment and Substitution: PSA in a nutshell.
Aha!
I must concede, when you put it like that, I think PSA makes sense.
One of the problems still outstanding, however, is that I think it robs Christ of any kind of hero credit. Catholics regard Christ as the model for martyrdom - however, leaving the Holy Innocents aside for a moment, one of the important characteristics of martyrdom is that it's a free choice - or a free-ish choice. You're not a martyr if you were going to die anyway, because if you were, then everyone would be a martyr. Which effectively constitutes a form of "universal salvation", and makes a nonsense of the idea that there's a point in Jesus coming back to judge the world.
That's why the Last Supper is important. Jesus knew that he had an arrest warrant out for him, he had an opportunity to escape, and he didn't take it, so that he could spend his last night with his disciples.
In this way, the legend of Jesus is similar to the legend of Socrates; in Euthyphro, it's clear that Socrates has an opportunity to escape his death sentence, but he doesn't take it, because he says it's right that he should die. Same also with Jesus.
Of course, some go further than that, and argue that since Jesus was God, he could have actually stepped down off the cross after he was nailed on it. But to my way of thinking, that's just legendary embellishment; the Gospels don't actually say this. But they're fairly clear that Jesus could have turned his back on his disciples and avoided his betrayal to the Roman guards.
PSA (as footwasher has defined it) doesn't seem to recognise this.
Mind you, I notice Psyduck's remark:
quote:
That's a complete importation. "Submitting to the conditions he laid down" means the conditions of actual historic human existence in the world (which is why DLS goes to such trouble to compare the Gospel time references to contemporary news-reporting of events) which the Christ enters - it's the incarnation, not PSA.
Hmmm.
This is starting to sound like Christopher Hitchens arguing that you're not a "real" Christian unless you agree with Jerry Falwell.
PSA is being set up as a straw man.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Oh, too late to edit. I've got my dialogues on the death of Socrates muddled up. When I said "Euthyphro", I actually meant "Crito". Sorry about that.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jessie Phillips: quote:
PSA is being set up as a straw man.
No, it's absolutely not. However much people wriggle about it, PSA as written up in any competent manual of theology, as taught in any decent Doctrine 101 course, and as expounded by its classic sources and everybody who commentates on them, is a very particular thing.
It's not "what evangelicals believe".
It's not "Jesus took my sins away."
It's not "Jesus' death can be understood as a sacrifice."
It's precisely what it says on the box. It's a Penal Substitutionary Theory of the Atonement. All the irrelevant, disconnected citing of beside-the-point classical parallels, all the wailing about poor little evangelicals being persecuted by liberals who are really fundamentalists, all the tedious, unsubstantiated assertion in the world doesn't doesn't change that PSA is a defined, particular thing.
It isn't just me saying that. It's everybody who has ever actually studied it.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Leprechaun:
quote:
Footwasher's already shown how the quote can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe it. You have done the same with Moral Influence and CV.
I've shown that anything can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe PSA. Flying saucers, a young earth, the Rapture, the sagacity of George Bush, anything you like. That's what I said in the OP. As long as PSA describes what is actually, really, solely-significantly going on on the cross, you can fit anything you like in. The trouble is that all that other stuff, however much other Christians see it as part of the substance of the faith, is there just to bulk up the New Testament.
Or show me the contrary.
And did I say
?
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
But isn't that exactly what it is? Either Christ on the cross is paying for our sins in a combination sacrifice/death-sentence, and bearing the punishment that should fall on us - in which case everything else is footnotes - or something else is going on. Maybe a whole load of other things, some of which cover the same ground, and do the same job as PSA -like sacrificial and substitutionary themes - and all of them are a valid, truth-filled commentary on what is fact, that Jesus Christ hung on the cross and died.
You keep making this assertion, that somehow Christ paying the punishment for our sins means that there's nothing left to be done and PSA is therefore automatically exclusive of everything else. I haven't seen much support for this basic tenet of your faith and I haven't seen it supported by anyone who actually believes in PSA. This is what I was saying in my last post - you don't get to make PSA exclusive just because you say so. You've asked for someone to argue against you but I don't see that the burden of proof lies with anyone but you. You've made an accusation against a doctrine, now support it. Please spell out to me in words of one syllable precisely which bit of PSA makes it automatically exclusive of every other atonement model, and why.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Leprechaun:
quote:
Footwasher's already shown how the quote can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe it. You have done the same with Moral Influence and CV.
I've shown that anything can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe PSA. Flying saucers, a young earth, the Rapture, the sagacity of George Bush, anything you like. That's what I said in the OP. As long as PSA describes what is actually, really, solely-significantly going on on the cross, you can fit anything you like in. The trouble is that all that other stuff, however much other Christians see it as part of the substance of the faith, is there just to bulk up the New Testament.
Or show me the contrary.
And did I say
?
I've shown how PSA is not exclusivist and does include moral influence. I also threw in how PSA does appear in the Sayers quote. And I'm sure we can work something out with CV and Sacrifice as well.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Leprechaun:
quote:
Footwasher's already shown how the quote can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe it. You have done the same with Moral Influence and CV.
I've shown that anything can be made to fit with PSA if you already believe PSA. Flying saucers, a young earth, the Rapture, the sagacity of George Bush, anything you like. That's what I said in the OP. As long as PSA describes what is actually, really, solely-significantly going on on the cross, you can fit anything you like in. The trouble is that all that other stuff, however much other Christians see it as part of the substance of the faith, is there just to bulk up the New Testament.
Or show me the contrary.
And did I say
?
Sigh.
So - we have established: you can take any atonement model and make it fit with any isolated piece of text you can find. Your dealing with any particular text (of Scripture or otherwise) is likely, as you have proven, to rest on what atonement model you have already accepted or rejected.
And - you have a one man personal crusade against PSA that we are all failing to understand.
What next?
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Someone can say to me "Moral influence is my basic perspective on the atonement. ... What do I say? Probably "I think you're missing something very important. I'd say there are huge areas of yoru Christian life in the real world that will be hard to make sense of without CV."
But what happens when someone says something like " ... PSA I can't buy"? .. What would a PSA advocate say to me? Wouldn't they be bound to say "But you're missing the whole point of Christian faith? Everything turns on..." and then give me a fairly detailed account of PSA, and how it works, as a theory and a system?
And if they didn't do that, wouldn't I have grounds to wonder if they were really talking about PSA at all?
You're stereotyping here. You're also playing Richard Dawkins' trick of labelling people as woolly liberal half-believers if they don't fit with your stereotype. However, to answer your point, recall that PSA tends to be an evangelical thang, for whatever reason. The evangelicals are more likely to recall biblical passages such as these:
quote:
Matthew 5:18-19a
I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. 19Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven
quote:
Revelation 22:19
And if anyone takes words away from this book of prophecy, God will take away from him his share in the tree of life and in the holy city, which are described in this book
For someone who is mindful of these passages then of course it's really important if a person dispenses with PSA. Dispensing with parts of the faith is something that you simply don't do. Jesus calls us to follow him and leave our nets on the shore, not to keep looking back like Lot's wife looking at Sodom. Truth is God's truth, doctrine is God's doctrine and to be fiercely protected. Doctrinal error is a very serious matter. If you've had the experience you describe with a PSA believer, try going back to the same person and telling them that you're a universalist or that you pray to the saints because you don't think God wants to hear your prayers, or that you believe our good works save us or that the trinity is bunkum, or any other doctrinal error that they'll recognise. You'll get the same response as you did with PSA.
[ 28. June 2010, 10:00: Message edited by: Dinghy Sailor ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Well, Leprechaun, I'm not campaigning. But I did ask a specific question about who needs to be reconciled. Us to God - or God to us?
I don't know enough in detail about the theological defences and expositions on PSA to know how that question is answered. Currently, I'm looking through the Institutes (given the relationship between Calvinism and PSA this seems a good place to start) but so far haven't found anything all that clear relating to that question.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Well, Leprechaun, I'm not campaigning. But I did ask a specific question about who needs to be reconciled. Us to God - or God to us?
I don't know enough in detail about the theological defences and expositions on PSA to know how that question is answered. Currently, I'm looking through the Institutes (given the relationship between Calvinism and PSA this seems a good place to start) but so far haven't found anything all that clear relating to that question.
In my understanding, it is both. (Perhaps yet another example that PSA is not necessarily exclusive!)
I don't think the passage you quote is conclusive: it could mean that we hated God and he wins us back, it could just as easily mean that God took the action, in Christ, to deal with his problem against us.
Indeed, the "not counting their trespasses against them" makes it sound like the problem being solved is God counting our trespasses against us, in which case it is God being reconciled to people: creating a way for him to NOT count our trespasses any more.
But I think in an overview of the Bible you see both: Jesus death both takes our punishment and displays God's glory in such a way that it wins us back to worshipping him.
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
Would it be fair to say that PSA arises mainly out of Anselm? He presents a model of necessary 'satisfaction'. It's rather bound up in his own historical and social setting (feudalism mainly). But it might help to unpack what Psyduck is trying to say. It requires (like PSA) that you hold core foundational beliefs about the nature of God and if you hold to these core 'principles' of belief about God then it doesn't exactly leave room for other expressions of atonement.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Dinghy Sailor:
quote:
You're stereotyping here. You're also playing Richard Dawkins' trick of labelling people as woolly liberal half-believers if they don't fit with your stereotype.
That is an absolutely imbecilic argument. You are accusing me of stereotyping people who agree with me as "woolly liberal half-believers."
quote:
However, to answer your point, recall that PSA tends to be an evangelical thang, for whatever reason. The evangelicals are more likely to recall biblical passages such as these:
And that is a thoroughly disreputable and disingenuous argument. You are using evangelicals as human shields.
quote:
For someone who is mindful of these passages
And what makes you think that I'm not mindful of these passages? What gives you the right to insinuate that I don't take them seriously? (Actually, I'm pretty sure I know the answer to this, but let's see if we can tease it out in the course of the "debate" on this thread.)
quote:
then of course it's really important if a person dispenses with PSA. Dispensing with parts of the faith is something that you simply don't do.
Oh look! I didn't have to wait! I'm dispensing with parts of the faith because I'm dispensing with PSA! You said it, friend! It's there in your own words!!!
quote:
Jesus calls us to follow him and leave our nets on the shore, not to keep looking back like Lot's wife looking at Sodom. Truth is God's truth, doctrine is God's doctrine and to be fiercely protected. Doctrinal error is a very serious matter. If you've had the experience you describe with a PSA believer, try going back to the same person and telling them that you're a universalist or that you pray to the saints because you don't think God wants to hear your prayers, or that you believe our good works save us or that the trinity is bunkum, or any other doctrinal error that they'll recognise. You'll get the same response as you did with PSA.
It couldn't be clearer, could it?!? I'll range myself with the Catholics, and the Orthodox, and the moderate evangelicals, and the humble, middle-of-the-road people who try to cling to a faith because they haven't the time, energy or inclination to do PSA-orthodox theology, or are too stupid, wicked, reprobate or just plain unpopular with God and his Squad to understand that it isn't Jesus, dying and rising, who saves them, it's a correct doctrine about what Jesus does.
If you'd just posted this straight after the OP, we could have omitted the rest of the thread!
Bang to rights!
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
Missed edit window.
Calvin says, for example: "If he had not come to reconcile God, the honour of his priesthood would fall" or "he declared the cause of his advent to be, that by appeasing God he might bring us from death to life".
"In fine, the only end which the Scripture uniformly assigns for the Son of God voluntarily assuming our nature ....is that he might propitiate God the Father to us by becoming a victim."
Which sounds rather like what Psyduck has been saying actually!
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Leprechaun: quote:
"In fine, the only end which the Scripture uniformly assigns for the Son of God voluntarily assuming our nature ....is that he might propitiate God the Father to us by becoming a victim."
Which sounds rather like what Psyduck has been saying actually!
OK, genuinely, thanks for that.
And my point is really just this - that Calvin is perhaps THE advocate of PSA. And a wonderfully clear thinker. My biggest problems come from the clarity of PSA thought - because that's why it drives off the other stuff.
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Dinghy Sailor:
quote:
You're stereotyping here. You're also playing Richard Dawkins' trick of labelling people as woolly liberal half-believers if they don't fit with your stereotype.
That is an absolutely imbecilic argument. You are accusing me of stereotyping people who agree with me as "woolly liberal half-believers."
No, you're stereotyping me (and Lep, and The Rev ...) as a woolly liberal half-believer. According to you, anyone who believes in PSA is an exclusivist pig and anyone who isn't exclusivist, isn't a proper believer in PSA.
quote:
quote:
then of course it's really important if a person dispenses with PSA. Dispensing with parts of the faith is something that you simply don't do.
Oh look! I didn't have to wait! I'm dispensing with parts of the faith because I'm dispensing with PSA! You said it, friend! It's there in your own words!!!
If someone believes in PSA then of course it's part of their faith. How could it not be? This was precisely my point: the average PSA believer (in whose mouth I put those words, in case you didn't notice) is very protective about all parts of their doctrine, it's nothing special about the particular doctrine they hold that is PSA.
quote:
I'll range myself with the Catholics, and the Orthodox, and the moderate evangelicals, and the humble, middle-of-the-road people who try to cling to a faith because they haven't the time, energy or inclination to do PSA-orthodox theology, or are too stupid, wicked, reprobate or just plain unpopular with God and his Squad to understand that it isn't Jesus, dying and rising, who saves them, it's a correct doctrine about what Jesus does.
(italics mine)
I didn't say that. I don't agree with that and I've argued your point, at several years' length, with people before. I'm therefore going to play my get out of jail free card and let all your bile fly right over my head. To restate my last post's point:
The average PSA believer is very protective of all parts of their doctrine, it's nothing special about PSA.
Now could you return the favour please and answer my request in my penultimate post:
quote:
You've asked for someone to argue against you but I don't see that the burden of proof lies with anyone but you. You've made an accusation against a doctrine, now support it. Please spell out to me in words of one syllable precisely which bit of PSA makes it automatically exclusive of every other atonement model, and why.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Psyduck says quote:
It's precisely what it says on the box. It's a Penal Substitutionary Theory of the Atonement. All the irrelevant, disconnected citing of beside-the-point classical parallels, all the wailing about poor little evangelicals being persecuted by liberals who are really fundamentalists, all the tedious, unsubstantiated assertion in the world doesn't doesn't change that PSA is a defined, particular thing.
That may be - but it seems clear to me that different people have different ideas of what they think "PSA" means. There are theological problems that exist with some of those ideas but not others - and vice versa. Different conceptions of PSA have different strengths and weaknesses associated with them.
quote:
It isn't just me saying that. It's everybody who has ever actually studied it.
It's easy to say that anyone who's been through an independently accredited evangelical theological seminary would know exactly what it means - but how many local churches make this a requirement of faith? Not many I bet. Appeals to authority won't shut this issue down.
Dinghy sailor says
quote:
For someone who is mindful of these passages then of course it's really important if a person dispenses with PSA. Dispensing with parts of the faith is something that you simply don't do.
I fully agree with you that this is the way that some people see it. Of course, I also happen to think that this opens the door to people playing games of exegetical sophistry, and bibliomancy. But you knew that.
Going back a bit to footwasher's previous comment:
quote:
So man deserves punishment, Jesus becomes a man and takes on all the punishment INSTEAD of all humanity. Punishment and Substitution: PSA in a nutshell.
It's just occurred to me that this view of punishment presupposes that righteousness is primarily defined as the prohibition of negatives, rather than the compulsion of positives. In other words, as long as you don't murder, and you don't commit adultery, and you don't do half a dozen other things, then you're clean. The reason humans "deserve" punishment is because they can't stop doing these things.
Jesus is regarded as without sin not because he's particularly heroic, but simply because it's thought that he didn't contravene any of these prohibitions of negatives.
Rightly or wrongly, Mosaic Law is often portrayed as more concerned with prohibition of negatives than compulsion of positives. Even in the Gospels. It seems to me that that's what the issue of healing on the Sabbath is all about. I don't know whether that's a fair portrayal of Mosaic Law or not - but if it is, then the emphasis of negatives over positives is something that Mosaic Law has in common with Spell 125 from the Egyptian Book of the Dead. The idea of 42 "devourer gods" eating you, and thereby preventing any opportunity for reincarnation and/or resurrection, is something that only makes sense when righteousness is thought of primarily as avoiding negatives.
So I suspect that the summary of prohibitions in Mosaic Law that we call the "Ten Commandments" may either be descended from Spell 125, or the Ten Commandments and Spell 125 are both at least partially descended from the same source.
Contrast that with ancient Greek hero cults and legends. In legends of Greek heroes - and Catholic saints, for that matter - the negatives generally aren't as important as the positives. People are regarded as heroes and saints not because of what they haven't done, but because of what they have done. Those "heroic deeds" can range from martyrdom to the establishment of hospitals to the intelligent exegesis of scripture - but my point is, merely averting your eyes from the top shelf at the newsagent generally doesn't count for much.
I'm not saying whether it's right or wrong to focus more on the negatives or positives - but my point is, those who do focus on positive deeds as a moral example, will tend to find that PSA dishonours them.
When you say that all humans deserve punishment, it begs the question of whether that includes saints and war heroes. Even if you do concede that saints and war heroes aren't as holy as they are often made out to be, the idea that Jesus was God made man specifically for the purpose of taking punishment, undermines the idea that there was anything heroic about Jesus going to the cross on his own merit as a man. To put it another way, it can be seen as a very limiting concept of "humanity". Whilst Jesus may be "human" in the sense that he was able to be substituted for us, he's not "human" in the sense that he is in any way like you or me.
I'm no expert on theology (can you tell?) - but if this focus on positive moral examples is the way that Catholics see it, then it's hardly surprising that they're irreconcilably at odds with Evangelicals over atonement theory. The theory we call "Christus Victor" seems to be closer to this idea of positive moral examples - but PSA's failure to define righteousness in terms of positives rather than negatives means that PSA and CV can't really sit together.
So, my current view is that CV is closer to ancient Greek religion and hero cults, whereas PSA seems to have more in common with Egyptian religion and the worship of Osiris. The social circumstances that led to the focus on negatives in Spell 125 may well have repeated themselves in the late Middle Ages, thereby spawning the idea of PSA - but that's just speculation on my part.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Psyduck,
I'm beginning to get a little frustrated here. I'm one of the world's biggest opponents of PSA, and I'm currently doing the final edits on my book against PSA. I certainly know what PSA is. You're making me feel bad because I'm beginning to feel as if I have to defend PSA against your over-criticism, because you're going too far.
I have explained to you how the church Fathers were able to hold multiple atonement theories simultaneously. I have explained to you that modern holders of PSA have exactly the same ability to hold multiple atonement views simultaneously. I have tried to explain clearly exactly how this can be done, and I will try again to explain it simply in this post.
The one thing I do agree with you about (apart from that PSA is wrong, unbiblical etc) is that PSA holders often delude themselves into thinking that they are holding more than one atonement theory when really they are only holding PSA. But just because most of these people are wrong doesn't mean they all are. I believe there really are people out there who do really hold fullblown PSA plus other atonement theories in their fullness. Earlier in this thread, The Revolutionist said something which convinced me that he was one such person, as I explained to you in an earlier post.
If you just want a PSA-bashing thread, that is fine and I will join in with glee. But as far as I am concerned, the original thesis statement of this thread has been disproved to my satisfaction. Each time I have explained how it is possible to hold multiple atonement theories simultaneously with PSA, you have responded by asserting it's impossible, so perhaps there is nothing more to be said. I will try again to explain clearly one last time.
Also, a trap I think you're falling into is over-defining the exclusivity of PSA. I think you're in danger of saying "PSA refers to a complete system of theology which affirms A, B, C etc and denies the truth or relevance of all other possible theological statements". It's that last bit that concerns me - you're defining PSA as exclusive. When really, the definition of PSA is only a series of affirmative statements. PSA does not include, as part of its definition, that all other theories of the atonement are wrong, nor does it assert as part of its definition that nothing else meaningful can be said theologically apart from PSA. You're defining it as exclusive and then asking "is it exclusive?"
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
But a person who holds PSA could add to that another system of theology like the bait-and-switch Ransom from Satan theology, focused around how Satan gets tricked out of his power over human souls in the afterlife.
Absolutely. But that would really be a commentary on one of the collateral effects of PSA.
No it wouldn't. A person holding the PSA theological system, could, really and truly add to that system the beliefs that (i) Satan had power over humans in the afterlife, (ii) After Jesus died on the cross as the penal substitute for humanity (PSA) Jesus went to Satan in the afterlife and offered himself in exchange for humanity, (iii) God resurrected Jesus out of Satan's grasp. (Or equivalent beliefs, pick your preferred Mousetrap model)
In this way they could add the fullblown Mousetrap-Ransom-From-Satan atonement theory to a complete PSA theology and hold both together. It is perfectly possible.
quote:
Whereas if you deploy a CV approach, you are treating evil as an imprisoning reality of oppressive structures in the world. Very much like an occupying power! And you can then speak of the Church as a resistance cell, struggling to be obedient to the forces of good, and of Calvary as the gigantic victory that's already been won, that renders the war unwinnable for the Dark Powers, and of the atonement on the Cross as a real - not metaphorical - victory.
You can do all that in addition to holding PSA. What is to stop a PSA believer also believing evil is an imprisoning reality of oppressive structures in the world? What is to stop a PSA believer also speaking of the Church as a resistance cell, struggling to be obedient to the forces of good? etc Why can't a PSA believer also believe in a cosmic battle against evil - really and truly believe, and not in any watered down PSA-filtered way? It seems perfectly logically possible.
quote:
If you hold a PSA understanding, then eventually, when you strip things down to basics, Jesus on the cross is a hybrid sacrifice/punishment, and everything else is metaphor.
But if you hold PSA and something else also then when you strip things down to basics you get Jesus on the cross as hybrid sacrifice/punishment and that something else also. eg and a Jesus the Mousetrap for Satan after death
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Likewise a person who holds the PSA system of theology could also hold the theology of Christ storming hell between his death and resurrection.
Yes - as a metaphor. And because you can't get away from it, because it's there in the Creeds, so you have to talk about it occasionally. But it isn't part of a huge, integrated cosmic act of atonement. It's a consequence of one.
No - not as a metaphor, as a theory, as a fullblown theology. A person holding PSA could really and truly believe that after dying Christ stormed hades, driving out the evil there and then rose from the grave proving his defeat of Satan and Death. There is nothing logically inconsistent about that. It is perfectly possible to believe in the reality of Christ storming hell and in the reality of PSA, there is no conflict.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Or a person who holds the PSA system could adopt Athanasius' theology of Recapitulation - that human souls would have faded out of existence entirely had not the Incarnate Christ joined humanity and God together by virtue of his incarnation.
Indeed. Or any number of other perspectives - or none of them - because none of them is so crucial that they can't be done without. Because everything gets organized around PSA.
No, no, no. Sure, often people choose to organize everything around PSA. But it doesn't have to be that way. Nothing in PSA makes it need to be that way. Someone could really and truly believe Athanasius' theology of Recapitulation, really and fully believe it, and in addition hold PSA completely too.
quote:
But what happens when someone says something like "I can work with CV, with moral influence, and with sacrificial themes, in Paul and in Hebrews. But PSA I can't buy"? (Which would be my position.)What would a PSA advocate say to me? Wouldn't they be bound to say "But you're missing the whole point of Christian faith? Everything turns on..." and then give me a fairly detailed account of PSA, and how it works, as a theory and a system?
A person who held PSA only would think you were missing 100% of the truth about the atonement and would respond accordingly. A person who held CV and PSA would think you were missing 50% of the truth about the atonement and would respond accordingly. I hold only the Moral Transformation model of the atonement, and I am quite familiar with people saying to me "I think you're missing some of the crucial concepts of the atonement..." and then try to tell me I'm missing CV or PSA or Recapitulation etc.
quote:
But isn't that exactly what it is? Either Christ on the cross is paying for our sins in a combination sacrifice/death-sentence, and bearing the punishment that should fall on us - in which case everything else is footnotes - or something else is going on.
PSA makes everything else about how humans get to heaven to be footnotes. But it doesn't mean that something else isn't going on too. Yes, humans get to heaven by Christ's atonement (according to PSA), but what about the world and evil? PSA says nothing about those, and so those PSA believers who think God is concerned about the world and evil may add a full and complete CV theory to their ideas in addition to PSA.
quote:
Does the New Testament say that Jesus Christ saved the world by paying for our sin in a death that was a sacrifice/punishment, or does the New Testament say that Jesus Christ saved the world by dying on the Cross?
Am I allowed to vote "neither"? I think PSA has led to an overemphasis on the cross in Christian theology even among those who oppose PSA. Other things (eg the resurrection) are depicted as important too in the NT. The cross is not THE Christian saving event, contra PSA.
When I first became interested in studying the different models of the atonement, I thought I would read the early church Fathers to see which model they held. So I read their writings looking carefully to see how they thought the cross worked, what they thought the cross did. After a while, I got a bit confused because their writings didn't seem to indicate that the cross had done anything. It took me quite a long time to realize that I had started the whole exercise with a PSA-induced faulty assumption that the cross was the center of their atonement thinking, that the cross must 'do' something, and that I could find out their view of the atonement by studying their view of Jesus' death.
So it is with a certain nostalgia that I reject your suggestion that the NT teaches Jesus saved the world by dying on the cross. Sure his death was part of the salvation, but not the whole of it, part the paradigm of salvation of the NT writers, but it wasn't the One Great Saving Event that PSA makes it out to be.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
starlight says
quote:
No it wouldn't. A person holding the PSA theological system, could, really and truly add to that system the beliefs that (i) Satan had power over humans in the afterlife, (ii) After Jesus died on the cross as the penal substitute for humanity (PSA) Jesus went to Satan in the afterlife and offered himself in exchange for humanity, (iii) God resurrected Jesus out of Satan's grasp. (Or equivalent beliefs, pick your preferred Mousetrap model)
In this way they could add the fullblown Mousetrap-Ransom-From-Satan atonement theory to a complete PSA theology and hold both together. It is perfectly possible.
Sounds like I'm in the middle on this one then. Whilst I agree with you that I think Psyduck is over-specifying PSA, on the other hand, I'm not sure that the example you give is a particularly good one of reconciling PSA with other atonement theories.
In particular, the idea that humanity is enslaved to Satan, and that Jesus freed us from Satan, still strikes me as defining righteousness in terms of negatives rather than positives. So it doesn't surprise me that such a theory is compatible with PSA. However, it's still very much at odds with an atonement theory that's based on some kind of moral example - that is, that Jesus was a hero for being courageous enough to sacrifice himself.
Having said that, there's an irony here - because the storming of Hades could be considered to be a heroic deed in itself. The twelfth labour of Hercules springs to mind.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
Would it be fair to say that PSA arises mainly out of Anselm? He presents a model of necessary 'satisfaction'. It's rather bound up in his own historical and social setting (feudalism mainly).
Yes. Anselm's work was crucial in leading to the rejecting of the then-popular Ransom from Satan model, and the popularizing of Anselm's Satisfaction model.
Anselm's Satisfaction model was, as you point out, based on his feudalistic social setting. He based his theological system on certain customs regarding the behaviour of nobles in his time. Anselm's system became popular and by the time of the Reformation was widely held by both the Reformers and the Catholics and little disputed.
After the feudal system passed out of usage, Anselm's controlling analogy no longer had great relevance to people. I do not know who first suggested it, but a new controlling analogy of the Law Court became very popular around the time of the Reformation and was widely adopted. This new formulation was called Penal Substitutionary Atonement. It does differ from Anselm's original idea of Satisfaction in some subtle ways.
Satisfaction focuses on the idea of Christ gifting his obedient life to God, and that gift pleases God sufficiently to counteract the displeasure he got from our sin. So in Satisfaction, Christ doesn't take our punishment at all. Logically, Christ's actual death is not necessary in the Satisfaction model - it merely represents the culmination of his obedience - his obedience unto death is his gift to God.
quote:
But it might help to unpack what Psyduck is trying to say. It requires (like PSA) that you hold core foundational beliefs about the nature of God and if you hold to these core 'principles' of belief about God then it doesn't exactly leave room for other expressions of atonement.
The core foundational change introduced by Anselm that PSA inherits is the belief that God can't "just forgive" sin. Christians throughout the first millennia AD believed that God could freely forgive repentant sinners out of his love and grace. Anselm deliberately attacked this doctrine, arguing that by the standards of his culture it would be dishonorable of God to freely forgive sin. This was a permanent and pivotal change in Western Christian history - the adoption of the theological idea that God cannot/should not/does not freely forgive the repentant sinner.
As a result, God and humans have a problem: All humans sin sometimes, and God can't just forgive them - he'd like to but he can't. This is where Satisfaction and PSA step in, to bring solutions to this problem facing God and humanity.
This is one reason a lot of modern Eastern Orthodox believers find PSA a little strange. Their tradition still retains the belief that God freely forgives out of love those who repent. So PSA attempts to give an answer ("God can forgive through Jesus' death") to a problem their theology doesn't pose ("How can God forgive?"). It is also one of the reasons why some (such as myself, and modern Jews of course) who consider God's free forgiveness a basis biblical doctrine, don't see any use for PSA: As I like to put it - PSA's theological finish line (God's free forgiveness out of love and grace) is our starting line.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
starlight says
quote:
Satisfaction focuses on the idea of Christ gifting his obedient life to God, and that gift pleases God sufficiently to counteract the displeasure he got from our sin. So in Satisfaction, Christ doesn't take our punishment at all. Logically, Christ's actual death is not necessary in the Satisfaction model - it merely represents the culmination of his obedience - his obedience unto death is his gift to God.
Forgive me if you think I've fallen into the same trap as Psyduck here - but the way you've explained it makes it sound to me that the difference between "Satisfaction" and "Penal substitution" isn't that minor or subtle at all.
You say that Christ's death is not logically necessary in Satisfaction, and that it merely represents the culmination of obedience - but I dare say that many people may have regarded "martyrdom" in the same way.
Is martyrdom an obedience? Or is it a heroic deed? I guess it could be both.
starlight says
quote:
The core foundational change introduced by Anselm that PSA inherits is the belief that God can't "just forgive" sin. Christians throughout the first millennia AD believed that God could freely forgive repentant sinners out of his love and grace.
Are you sure about that? Because if that's true, then how did anyone ever come to think that it was necessary to make a sacrifice to God in the first place?
Surely the whole point of atoning sacrifices, in both the Old Testament and in Homer, is to placate a wrathful divine being? Or to derive some sort of advantage from the divine being that said being would not have otherwise given?
I don't deny that ancient pagan religions portray divine beings as a lot more capricious and unpredictable than Judaism and Christianity portray their God. But even in spite of that unpredictability, it seems that there's still a point in making sacrifices. Am I missing something? Thanks.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
the way you've explained it makes it sound to me that the difference between "Satisfaction" and "Penal substitution" isn't that minor or subtle at all.
I deliberately emphasized the differences in order to explain.
I find in practice that there is a continuum of belief with Satisfaction at one end, and a 'strong' version of PSA (with double-imputation etc) at the other. Various people who hold 'PSA' fall in different places along the continuum. Steve Chalke for example, famously rejected a 'strong' version of PSA, but I think he would endorse a 'weaker' (ie Satisfaction end of the continuum) version (I wouldn't).
quote:
You say that Christ's death is not logically necessary in Satisfaction, and that it merely represents the culmination of obedience - but I dare say that many people may have regarded "martyrdom" in the same way.
Yes. I think martyrdom is the main biblical conception of Christ's death.
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
The core foundational change introduced by Anselm that PSA inherits is the belief that God can't "just forgive" sin. Christians throughout the first millennia AD believed that God could freely forgive repentant sinners out of his love and grace.
Are you sure about that?
A particularly prominent doctrine in Judaism was "repentance and forgiveness". Jews believed that if a person sincerely repented, God would freely forgive their sins, remembering them no more. This is spelled out explicitly in the OT a few times, eg Ezek 18:21-23, and the book of Jonah.
Jewish belief was that God was interested in a person's current moral character. If that person changed their character, God's attitude to them likewise changed. Ezekiel chapters 18 and 33 spell this out in detail. God is only interested in the person's present state, their past is irrelevant in determining righteousness. Therefore if a person makes a real change, sincere repentence, their past sins are forgotten/forgiven.
Within Judaism this idea came to be referred to by the phrase "repentance and forgiveness". The various recent ('New Perspective') flurry of scholarly studies of ancient Judaism have all pointed out how prominent this idea was in the Judaism of Jesus' time. Also, of course, the gospels mention repentance and forgiveness approvingly several times in passing.
More than a few scholars have asked the question: "Given repentance and forgiveness was such a prominent salvation doctrine in Judaism, why doesn't it get dealt with in Paul's letters?" (It gets mentioned affirmatively in Romans 2 briefly) Because if Paul is teaching PSA, as some people think, then he would first need to show that free forgiveness through repentance was not an option... thus his silence on the issue has confused many scholars who believe Paul teaches PSA.
The idea of free forgiveness conditional only on repentance continues into the Christian fathers. The Christian writers in the first millennium consistently taught that free forgiveness was attainable conditional only on repentance. This was tied to their belief that God was interested in the current moral character of a person. Origen gives a particularly clear explanation:
quote:
Origen, Commentary on Romans 2.1.2-3:
“By common acknowledgement a good man ought not be punished, nor should an evil one obtain good things. Therefore, if, for instance, someone has done evil at some time, it is certain that he was evil at that time when he was doing evil things. However, suppose he, repenting of his past deeds, reforms his mind toward good things, behaves well, speaks well, thinks well, and turns his will toward the good. Is it not clear to you that he who does these things is a good man who deserves to receive good things? In like manner if someone should convert from good to evil, he shall no longer be judged as the good man he was and is no longer, but as the evil man that he is. You see, deeds pass away, whether good or evil... Accordingly it shall be unjust to punish a good mind for evils committed or to reward an evil mind for good deeds..... How will it be just to condemn a pious soul for ungodliness, or a just soul for injustice, or a soul practising moderation for excess?”
Anselm had to deliberately formulate arguments against the existing doctrine of repentance and forgiveness. In his dialogue he lays out a number of alleged reasons why it would violate the customs of his day for God to freely forgive.
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips
Because if that's true, then how did anyone ever come to think that it was necessary to make a sacrifice to God in the first place?
Surely the whole point of atoning sacrifices, in both the Old Testament and in Homer, is to placate a wrathful divine being? Or to derive some sort of advantage from the divine being that said being would not have otherwise given?
The most widespread form of sacrifices among different world religions is gifts. A gift could make a person/god who was angry with you less angry. Or a gift could please a person/god who was neutral to begin with, inclining them to deal favorably toward you - especially if you had a request you wanted to make of them.
Greek sacrifices were gifts (as is mentioned in Euthyphro 14C-D "sacrificing is making gifts to the gods"). It was also a very common form of Israelite sacrifice (called a 'burnt offering'). Also, before coinage was invented in the ancient world, compulsory gifts served the same purpose as fines in the legal system. ie do something wrong and the penalty is to lose some crops or an animal.
The other extremely common form of sacrifice around the world (including Israel again) was simply to kill meat for food. Apparently in most sacrificial cultures the word 'butcher' and the word 'sacrifice' are the same word. In the ancient world there was few preservatives and no refrigeration, so a large number of people were required to consume all the meat from a killed animal. There was also less animals than in modern mass-farming, making the killing of animals much rarer. Thus the killing of an animal became naturally tied up with the idea of a big group celebration. It was considered only fair to invite the god(s) to the meal to join in the celebration, and thus choice bits of the animal were often dedicated to the god(s). The act of taking the animal's life would also become ritualized over time, and seen as sacred and performed by priests.
Israel (and various neighboring countries) also had a third type of sacrifice called a purification ritual. Blood (from the dead animal), along with many other 'pure' ingredients (water, ashes, coals, hyssop etc) were used ritualistically to 'cleanse' (think detergent) surfaces or people believed to have been magically contaminated through contact with corpses, skin disease, or evil spirits. The Temple needed to be regularly 'cleaned' with purifying substances to stop the build up of evil spirits within it.
So to answer your question directly: If a person believed in free forgiveness conditional on repentence, then why sacrifice? (1) They would still want to eat, so would still sacrifice for food. (2) They would still want ritual purification so would use blood in purification rites. (3) They would still want to obey the Law, and so would pay fines with the compulsory gift of crops or an animal. (4) They would still want God to answer their prayers so would gift him crops or an animal to bribe him / make him owe them a favour.
[ 28. June 2010, 14:29: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
I don't deny that ancient pagan religions portray divine beings as a lot more capricious and unpredictable than Judaism and Christianity portray their God. But even in spite of that unpredictability, it seems that there's still a point in making sacrifices. Am I missing something? Thanks.
Maybe the thing that you are missing is that, from even the ealiest times, the Bible rejects the pagan notion that God needs to be placated by being bribed with offerings. That may be the basis of pagan sacrifice, but it is not the basis of OT practice. Rather, the point of OT sacrifice is to call to mind the covenant based soley on Divine election. Sacrificial offerings are intended to affirm and renew the efficacy of that covenant, which had originally been established and sealed by sacrifice. Think of them as a bit like the forerunner of the Catholic doctrine of the mass.
OT Hebrews did not sacrifice to placate God, they sacrificed to invoke the benefits of God's promise, the covenant.
[ 28. June 2010, 15:41: Message edited by: Jolly Jape ]
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
starlight - You are a fountain of knowledge! Thanks for that.
quote:
A particularly prominent doctrine in Judaism was "repentance and forgiveness". Jews believed that if a person sincerely repented, God would freely forgive their sins, remembering them no more. This is spelled out explicitly in the OT a few times, eg Ezek 18:21-23, and the book of Jonah.
Agreed. What surprises me, though, is the idea that those who believe in PSA think that repentance is of no consequence. I suppose that would make sense if you took PSA to its extreme - but I'm wary of expressing spectra of belief as entirely one-dimensional.
quote:
Jewish belief was that God was interested in a person's current moral character. If that person changed their character, God's attitude to them likewise changed. Ezekiel chapters 18 and 33 spell this out in detail. God is only interested in the person's present state, their past is irrelevant in determining righteousness. Therefore if a person makes a real change, sincere repentence, their past sins are forgotten/forgiven.
Indeed. The idea that a person has a continuous "character", seems to underpin the concept of "repentance". Once you reject the idea that people have continuous characters, and instead adopt the idea that there can be no meaningful character-defining pattern in the things that people do, then the whole idea of "repentance" becomes absurd.
I guess the concept of "character" must exist within the context of a system of honour and shame - but that doesn't necessarily mean that it's ever possible to appraise characters accurately.
quote:
Anselm had to deliberately formulate arguments against the existing doctrine of repentance and forgiveness. In his dialogue he lays out a number of alleged reasons why it would violate the customs of his day for God to freely forgive.
Well stone me. It never occurred to me that repentance/forgiveness and PSA were at odds with each other. Whenever I've heard PSA explained, sometimes it's with the caveat that you're "saved" if you "believe it", but not saved if you don't. And I've always assumed that when PSA-adherents speak of "turning to Jesus", what they're actually talking about is "repentance". Have I got that wrong then?
Indeed - if a person really believes in PSA, can it make sense for them to believe that it's possible to "turn to Jesus", or that the question of whether you do or don't turn to Jesus makes any difference?
quote:
Thus the killing of an animal became naturally tied up with the idea of a big group celebration. It was considered only fair to invite the god(s) to the meal to join in the celebration, and thus choice bits of the animal were often dedicated to the god(s). The act of taking the animal's life would also become ritualized over time, and seen as sacred and performed by priests.
That's a very good point, thanks for that. Whilst I agree with you that sacrifices were ritualised, I'm sure you'd also agree that some ancient text betray a remarkably casual attitude to sacrifice, not much different to how you and I might think of popping out to the grocery store. Certainly not like you or I might think of a religious ceremony.
You'd have to give me a little while to fish out examples of what I mean by that, though. Sorry.
quote:
If a person believed in free forgiveness conditional on repentence, then why sacrifice? (1) They would still want to eat, so would still sacrifice for food. (2) They would still want ritual purification so would use blood in purification rites. (3) They would still want to obey the Law, and so would pay fines with the compulsory gift of crops or an animal. (4) They would still want God to answer their prayers so would gift him crops or an animal to bribe him / make him owe them a favour.
Thanks. That does make sense.
So perhaps I have overestimated the importance of the idea of sacrifice in Christian thought.
Sacrifice does seem to be a fairly central theme in the letter to the Hebrews. But admittedly, the theme of sacrifice is much more peripheral in the rest of the New Testament.
But in the Martyrdom of Polycarp, the deaths of both Jesus and Polycarp are spoken of as "sacrifices".
And there's the thing Paul says about being living sacrifices in Romans 12:1 - although I grant that this might not be seen as so relevant to the death of Jesus, though.
It just seems to me that the medieval Arthurian legend of the Holy Grail, and the woodcuts of Albrecht Durer that portray angels holding cups up to Jesus on the cross so as to catch the blood from his wounds, all seems to hint at the blood of Jesus being poured out in sacrifice. But perhaps I just imagined all that. I guess I was also taken in by the idea that there were parallels between the story of the sacrifice of Jesus on the cross, and the story of the sacrifice of Agamemnon's daughter Iphigenia to Artemis in the prelude to the Trojan War - and this made me imagine that sacrifice is more important in the understanding of the death of Jesus than it actually is.
But wait a minute - how can it be an "atonement" if there isn't a "sacrifice"? Doesn't the definition of the word atonement itself imply sacrifice? And what's the point of the Eucharist? Doesn't the eating of the body and drinking the blood of Jesus imply a sort of sacrifice too?
Thanks for the well-informed response.
![[Smile]](smile.gif)
[ 28. June 2010, 15:48: Message edited by: Jessie Phillips ]
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
While singing the song on Sunday morning it occured to me that the contention in the OP is unfair to Stuart Townend, or at least to his song
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
...'"In Christ alone" the wrath of God ' about the Stewart Townend hymn. A lot of tangential debate seemed to swirl there around PSA.
The specific relevance of all this to that thread was the worry that, since Townend seems to be explicit in his intention to make all or most of his hymns refer to Penal Substitutionary Atonement, this rendered it difficult or impossible for people with other views of the atonement to sing it wholeheartedly.
Look at the words, all or them. The song quite explicitly avoids making PSA the only and absolute description of the Atonement. In fact it almost bends over backwards to namecheck half a dozen other descriptions.
If anything it spends rather more words on the Christus Victor approach than the PSA one.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
But wait a minute - how can it be an "atonement" if there isn't a "sacrifice"? Doesn't the definition of the word atonement itself imply sacrifice?
Not in theological jargon it ought not to. It means making mankind be "at one" with God. It didn't exist in English before it was invented as a specific reference to the redeeming work of God in Jesus Christ. Probably a loan-translation from the Greek enosis. So notions of unity, oneness, unification, reconciliation, agreement, declarations of peace.
PSA is merely one of many possible ways of describing it. In popular usage it might have got mostly associated with penal substitution, or with thinking of Jesus as the sacrificial victim (which is a very different idea from penal substitution of course, though lots of people, including popular hymns, get them mixed up because they both have lots of blood in them) but they are theories (or narratives, or models, or speculations) about how the atonement works, not the thing itself.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Jessie Phillips,
Sorry, I totally forgot about one of the common reasons for gift sacrifices: Giving thanks to the god(s) for some benefit they had performed for you. A person who felt they had been done a favour by the god(s) felt obliged to repay that favour with a gift. Eg a 'first fruits' offering was where part of the harvest was gifted to God by Israelites as thanks for the entirety of the harvest. Thus, added to my list in my previous post should be: (5) A person who believed in free forgiveness would still want to give gift sacrifices in thanks for benefits received.
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
What surprises me, though, is the idea that those who believe in PSA think that repentance is of no consequence. I suppose that would make sense if you took PSA to its extreme - but I'm wary of expressing spectra of belief as entirely one-dimensional.
...
It never occurred to me that repentance/forgiveness and PSA were at odds with each other. Whenever I've heard PSA explained, sometimes it's with the caveat that you're "saved" if you "believe it", but not saved if you don't. And I've always assumed that when PSA-adherents speak of "turning to Jesus", what they're actually talking about is "repentance". Have I got that wrong then?
You're not wrong. What PSA does is initially denies the possibility of repentance leading to God's free forgiveness. Once that statement is accepted, then it is established that achieving forgiveness is a theological problem requiring a solution. That solution is said to be Jesus' penal substitutionary death on the cross. Once that is accepted, the upshot is that forgiveness is now freely available conditional only on faith.
Whether this 'faith' can really be called 'repentance' is debatable... It's not normal repentance in the sense of commitment to change your character and never do that bad thing again. That's what traditional 'repentance' is, and PSA specifically rejects that this sort of repentance has any atoning merit. PSA has a special type of 'repentance' it requires, which unpacks into something like 'you must accept that nothing you can do can atone for your sins, and instead place your trust fully on the finished work of Christ performed on your behalf'. The word 'repentance' in PSA is thus used identically to the word 'conversion'. It refers to a once in a lifetime act to adopt PSA beliefs and place one's trust in Christ. In PSA it no longer has the normal meaning of referring to the thought process following particular moral wrongs that sincerely resolves to never repeat the offense.
quote:
So perhaps I have overestimated the importance of the idea of sacrifice in Christian thought.
Sacrifice does seem to be a fairly central theme in the letter to the Hebrews. But admittedly, the theme of sacrifice is much more peripheral in the rest of the New Testament.
But in the Martyrdom of Polycarp, the deaths of both Jesus and Polycarp are spoken of as "sacrifices".
There seems to be a pattern of thought-change that sacrificial cultures often move through over time. The following seems to be a common pattern around the world, including for Israel:
A) Initially no connection is made between morality and ritual. Sacrifices are thought of only for ritual and magical purification, not moral reasons.
B) Over time, morality is believed to be also relevant. Immorality is believed to be a source of ritual/magic impurity. As a result, sacrifices are no longer given solely for ritual purification, but are also given for moral offenses.
C) Morality becomes seen as more important than sacrifices. Sacrifices are said to be ineffective if morality is lacking. Morality is said to be more important to the deity than sacrifices. Sacrificial language is used metaphorically at times to speak of moral character. eg "the sacrifice acceptable to God is a contrite heart"
D) Morality becomes seen as all important. The validity and desirability of actual sacrifice is rejected entirely. The god(s) are said to neither want nor need sacrifices. All sacrificial language is used as moral metaphors to speak of moral character only. Obsolete ritual purity language is used to speak of moral purity and moral purification.
The key to understanding NT sacrificial language is to note that the NT is firmly at D on the above scale. The value of actual sacrifice is rejected. Sacrificial language is employed to speak of moral purity. Believers become the 'priests' whose hearts are a 'temple' and they are 'sanctified' and are 'living sacrifices'. The word 'sanctification' itself is a dead give-away, it was the word for ritual purification and in Christian theology it becomes the word for moral transformation.
Even the letter to the Hebrews, which the casual reader might assume takes sacrifices very seriously, is actually firmly at the D end of the spectrum. The following passage is particularly enlightening:
quote:
Hebrews 10:5-9:
when Christ came into the world, he said, "Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired, but a body you have prepared for me; in burnt offerings and sin offerings you have taken no pleasure. Then I said, "See, God, I have come to do your will, O God' (in the scroll of the book it is written of me)." When he said above, "You have neither desired nor taken pleasure in sacrifices and offerings and burnt offerings and sin offerings" (these are offered according to the law), then he added, "See, I have come to do your will." He abolishes the first in order to establish the second.
That quote explicitly states that the doing of God's will in human lives has replaced sacrifices. In fact the purpose throughout the letter to the Hebrews is to demonstrate that Morality has systematically replaced, and is superior to, the sacrificial system.
New Testament sacrificial language is thorough-goingly at stage D: The gospels, Paul, Peter, Hebrews, Revelation - all are at the stage of using sacrificial purity language to refer to morality not the slaughter of animals.
The NT sacrificial language used to speak of Jesus' death is almost exclusively that of purification rituals. There is virtually zero gift-sacrifice or meal-sacrifice references (aside from the obvious biggee of the Eucharist, which after being stated in the gospels is then largely ignore). Whenever sacrificial language is applied to his death, it is this moralized purification language that is used. Its meaning is thus always that of moral transformation. In basically every example of such language used in reference to Jesus, you can look to the previous or next sentence to see a moral reinterpretation of the sacrificial language given.
Basically, ritual purification language is one of six main metaphors/phrases used by the NT writers to speak of moral transformation. They likewise use talk of 'new life', coming 'out of darkness into light', 'salvation', defeat of the devil, and 'freedom from slavery/captivity', to speak of moral transformation.
quote:
I guess I was also taken in by the idea that there were parallels between the story of the sacrifice of Jesus on the cross, and the story of the sacrifice of Agamemnon's daughter Iphigenia to Artemis in the prelude to the Trojan War - and this made me imagine that sacrifice is more important in the understanding of the death of Jesus than it actually is.
More than one scholar has sought to use this story as a means of interpreting Jesus' death. However it has failed to gain widespread acceptance as relevant parallel. I side with the majority on this one.
quote:
But wait a minute - how can it be an "atonement" if there isn't a "sacrifice"? Doesn't the definition of the word atonement itself imply sacrifice?
~shrug~ The English word "atonement"s first biblical use was the bible translation of Tyndale in 1526. He used the (then new) English word at-one-ment for a translation of the Latin word reconciliatio. Recent English translations ditch the word "atonement" (quite possibly because it has developed sacrificial overtones in English) and use "reconciliation" instead.
quote:
And what's the point of the Eucharist? Doesn't the eating of the body and drinking the blood of Jesus imply a sort of sacrifice too?
This is getting quite far afield, and I'm no expert on the theology of the Eucharist... but I would say the Eucharist was a ritual group meal commemorative of Jesus' martyrdom.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Missed edit window.
Calvin says, for example: "If he had not come to reconcile God, the honour of his priesthood would fall" or "he declared the cause of his advent to be, that by appeasing God he might bring us from death to life".
"In fine, the only end which the Scripture uniformly assigns for the Son of God voluntarily assuming our nature ....is that he might propitiate God the Father to us by becoming a victim."
Which sounds rather like what Psyduck has been saying actually!
Yes. Calvin only seems to see one adequate description based on what he asserts as the "uniform assignation of scripture". Which does pretty much confirm Psyduck's main assertion.
But I think Calvin is demonstrably inaccurate in his assertion. Returning to my early argument, I think Calvin overlooks the directions of reconciliation in 2 Cor 5. Even if you are right in your view of that passage (and there is an element of both directions) the quotation from Calvin is still inaccurate, since it only mentions God being propitiated as the "uniform assignation". Whereas the 2 Cor 5 passage about the ministry of reconciliation (including the very significant 2 Cor 5:21 verse, with all it infers for substitution) shows at the very least that God being propitiated is not the only direction of reconciliation.
To nail the point down, all that is necessary to confirm Calvin's inaccuracy is for the phrase "We implore you on Christ's behalf: Be reconciled to God." to be taken at face value. We are the ones who are alienated. (And then of course there is Ephesians 2 again which speaks to the same theme). So scripture is not at all uniform re propitiating God.
BTW, I'm not sure I can see any clear indication of both directions - as you can and as you argued re 2 Cor 5 - but I'm happy to accept that my theological "specs" may be causing that. I'm comfortable wearing them of course, but you know that already.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Starlight – I’m responding here only to your long post of earlier. I do think, though, that your account to Jessie Phillips of how PSA thinking modifies the structures of the Christian faith pretty much confirms my contention, that it subordinates and restructures the elements of the Christian faith.
I notice that the word “exclusive” – which doesn’t occur in the OP – has come to be used in place of “exhaustive” which does. I do use the word “exclusive”, as far as I can see consistently, of PSA to mean “theory which abstracts selectively from Scripture and constructs an exclusive rationale for the crucifixion” That doesn’t mean that I don’t believe that PSA advocates can consistently hold elements of other perspectives on the atonement, but that I do believe that PSA will always organize these as subordinate themes or illustrations.
Hence, when you say:
quote:
... a trap I think you're falling into is over-defining the exclusivity of PSA. I think you're in danger of saying "PSA refers to a complete system of theology which affirms A, B, C etc and denies the truth or relevance of all other possible theological statements".
absolutely I'm not. The italicized words are an imputation, and I don’t believe that at all. What I have said, repeatedly, is that it’s a complete doctrine of the atonement. Calvin says so – see Leprechaun’s post above. I am happy to concede that people who hold PSA believe other things about God. They would have to, because PSA is not a complete theology. I never said it was.
quote:
It's that last bit that concerns me - you're defining PSA as exclusive.
No, I’m not. I’m asking whether it is, and I’m saying that I think it is, and I’m giving my reasons. And I’m inviting people to tell me how they can specify their belief in PSA and tell me that they can completely integrate other perspectives on the Atonement into it. Nobody’s done that yet. That’s not defining, that’s arguing, and there is a huge difference.
quote:
When really, the definition of PSA is only a series of affirmative statements.
That’s just wrong. PSA is a theory in which propositions are linked to articulate a mechanism.
Man sins against God. This breaks the Law. God cannot overlook this. Sin demands a sacrifice and lawbreaking demands a punishment. Man cannot atone for sin. Yet man must atone for sin. So God becomes man in order to work the atonement. Christ dies to pay the penalty for sin, and as the atoning sacrifice, in the one act. That’s how this atonement is penal and substitutionary. Once the atonement is wrought in this way, its benefits are applied to the saved by faith. Etc. etc. This is in no way only a series of affirmative statements. This is a theory of interlocking propositions with their particular consequences. That’s what PSA is.
quote:
PSA does not include, as part of its definition, that all other theories of the atonement are wrong, nor does it assert as part of its definition that nothing else meaningful can be said theologically apart from PSA.
Irrelevant. The point is that PSA postulates a scenario – that humanity is guilty of an offence against God, which cannot be overlooked by God, and demands punishment. That is the problem.
And it postulates a divine action which places an innocent man, who is the incarnate Son of God, on the cross, and it defines this as both a sacrifice – which explains its effectuality over sin, because sin demands blood – and a punishment – which explains how it satisfies the Law, because the Law demands the punishment of death. That is the solution.
The fact – which many PSA advocates affirm as loudly as anyone – that this is put forward as an expression of the love of God doesn’t mean that the “moral influence” of what Jesus does makes humanity be “at one” with God. The “at-one-ment” has already been wrought by the time anyone feels its moral influence. It isn’t why Jesus Christ was crucified. Moral influence is delimited as a secondary effect by the specification that the primary effect of atonement is the removal of our objective guilt. This creates the conditions for saving faith. The cross comes first, and it does what PSA says on the tin. It’s only then that it’s available for people to be moved by. Moral influence is in no way part of how God effects the atonement. At best it’s part of the conditions by which people move to saving faith in the already-accomplished atonement.
Likewise the scenario which CV postulates, of a world enslaved by sin, or the closely-related patristic scenario of a Devil who acquires rights over humanity, are both actually ruled out, because they postulate not just a different, but an actually incompatible, starting scenario for their accounts of atonement.
Both CV and the Devil’s lure accounts postulate something deeply wrong with the world that people live in and experience day by day. They start with a world that isn’t as it should be, a fallen world.
PSA defines a completely different problem – an offended God. And you can’t just put them together, because the offended God will always come first. If that wasn’t the case, then God could just be gracious, and forgive, and set the world free, through Christ. Which, you rightly assert, was what the Fathers taught, and the Orthodox still do. When PSA came along, that had to take a back seat. Now, (since Ansem, as you say) the offended God has first to find a way to overcome the offense that he can’t overlook.
PSA – if you hold it - is inevitably a more basic understanding of the atonement than CV . These things are prioritized and rank-ordered by the internal logic of PSA. God can’t set the world free until he has dealt with his own issues. Which on a supralapsarian Calvinist reading has to happen before the world began. First things first...
You assert:
quote:
A person holding the PSA theological system, could, really and truly add to that system the beliefs that (i) Satan had power over humans in the afterlife,
I’ve never denied that. But it’s irrelevant. The point would then not be that the Devil had acquired rights over humanity that would lead to this outcome if God didn’t intervene. It would be that the relationship between man and God is broken, and if God doesn’t intervene, then there is no possibility that any of humanity will escape being cast into eternal punishment decreed by God – an eternal punishment in which the Devil is an extra detail, not the problem.
quote:
(ii) After Jesus died on the cross as the penal substitute for humanity (PSA) Jesus went to Satan in the afterlife and offered himself in exchange for humanity,
But on a PSA understanding, that’s beside the point. If his propitiatory sacrifice on the cross was efficacious, what would be left over to do? The people going to hell for not accepting the grace of God through faith are to be punished for ever, in hell, and yes, maybe, by Satan. They don’t need liberated. They need forgiven. Or am I missing something? Whereas in CV, the power of Hell and its worldly empire of evil is broken. It’s the people who refuse to believe that, who go there. They give their allegiance to the losing side, and that's where they wind up. You can’t square that with PSA.
quote:
(iii) God resurrected Jesus out of Satan's grasp. (Or equivalent beliefs, pick your preferred Mousetrap model)
But how is Jesus ever in “Satan’s grasp”? Jesus is made sin in our place, on a PSA understanding, and God, in that expression of Townend’s “turns his face away” – but as soon as Jesus is dead on the cross, that’s everything done, accomplished, tetelesthai. Why, beyond that point, would you need to have a “resurrection from Satan’s grasp”? What’s the difference, in PSA theory, between that and resurrection pure and simple? Christ dies. The debt is paid. Christ rises from the dead.
However, even if you are a PSA advocate, you still need to account for the Biblical three days’ rest in the tomb, and the Creed’s "descent into hell," because they are there in the NT and Creeds, and you can’t just ignore them. But it’s obvious that they are stuck on as afterthoughts to a PSA that works perfectly well without them.
Either that, or you are postulating a PSA that holds that Jesus makes an incomplete penal sacrifice on the cross, which needs supplementing by dealing with other stuff, such as the Devil’s rights. Do you really think that’s what Calvin means? Especially when Leprechaun has already quoted Calvin above, saying what he does mean?
quote:
What is to stop a PSA believer also believing evil is an imprisoning reality of oppressive structures in the world?
Nothing, but it’s not the point. Though actually, an awful lot (though not all, I’ll grant you) of PSA thought goes out of its way to assert that it’s people whose world is sunny and happy, and apparently free and good, who don’t realize that their relationship with God is broken, who are most in danger. An "imprisoning reality" etc. etc. is a symptom, not the problem.
quote:
What is to stop a PSA believer also speaking of the Church as a resistance cell, struggling to be obedient to the forces of good?
Again, nothing. I’m sure many do. But what would that mean? If the problem is an angry God, how can the problem be the enslaving power of sin over us? And the fate of moral influence is even more precarious, because the Swiss-watch machinery of PSA reduces the total impact of the incarnation on a loveless world to a sort of mise-en-scene for the historical bit of the drama, when the plan of redemption, worked out before the world began, starts to be put into effect. Sure, the Gospel is a beautiful story, but behind it is a theory, and the theory, not the story, is what it’s all about.
quote:
The core foundational change introduced by Anselm that PSA inherits is the belief that God can't "just forgive" sin. Christians throughout the first millennia AD believed that God could freely forgive repentant sinners out of his love and grace.
So why can't we just go back to the NT and the Fathers?
And isn’t the answer to that that PSA says we can’t, because the Fathers give an inadequate account, and, by the way, the Bible, too, though it's the source of the inspired propositions out of which PSA is constructed, needs to be spelt out, made explicit, in terms of PSA? In other words, in terms of the history and evolution of doctrine, PSA presents itself as gathering together and explaining things that were previously inadequately expressed, or inadequately apprehended in Scripture. Just as Anselm saw himself supplying a lack by answering the question Cur Deus Homo in the way he did, drawing together Biblical propositions and C12 sociology. I simply don’t know how you can deny, with your considerable knowledge of the field, that PSA implicitly claims to be a definitive statement of why the incarnation took place, and how the atonement works.
Of course PSA advocates believe other things about God and Jesus. But you simply haven’t convinced me that there are any grounds for rejecting the postulate of the OP, that if you hold PSA, it will inevitably subordinate and organize as subsidiary themes every other way of looking at what God was/is doing in Jesus Christ. It becomes what everything is about.
Which, by the way, is the answer to Ken’s post about Townend’s hymn.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
Sacrifice does seem to be a fairly central theme in the letter to the Hebrews. But admittedly, the theme of sacrifice is much more peripheral in the rest of the New Testament.
But in the Martyrdom of Polycarp, the deaths of both Jesus and Polycarp are spoken of as "sacrifices".
The problem is that we don't understand sacrifice at all. So we tend to read our own theologies into it.
Offering one's life as a sacrifice is not the same as submitting to punishment nor is it the same as martyrdom. To confuse things further, all three can be offered as handles with which to get hold of the others.
Jesus is not presented in the passion narratives as a hero to be admired, but as a victim to be pitied. Nor does Paul use martyrdom tropes or language. Nor does Hebrews.
Hebrews obviously views the passion as a self-offering with Jesus as both priest and victim. The attempts by PSA-advocates - or Starlight above - to read sacrifice-language as actually about something else strike me as examples of what I hereby call 'tenorism': the belief that the meaning of a passage taken as metaphorical is unchanged by substituting for the vehicle a literal statement of the supposed tenor.
I think there is sacrifice imagery behind the Gospels as well, but it's much displaced and it certainly isn't understood in the kind of way that Hebrews does. And Paul does his own thing again, since he seems to think that in an unanalyzed way what happens to Jesus happens to us.
I think in the death of Polycarp and in say Ignatius of Antioch Jesus' death is being offered as a way of understanding or enhancing the value of martyrdom rather than the other way around. That may make it no clearer, but at least it's not wrong.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Whereas the 2 Cor 5 passage about the ministry of reconciliation (including the very significant 2 Cor 5:21 verse, with all it infers for substitution) shows at the very least that God being propitiated is not the only direction of reconciliation.
To nail the point down, all that is necessary to confirm Calvin's inaccuracy is for the phrase "We implore you on Christ's behalf: Be reconciled to God." to be taken at face value. We are the ones who are alienated.
I've never, ever, come across any advocate of PSA who claims that the task of reconciliation is only one way. I've no idea if any do, but it is certainly not my experience in lots of conevo churches across several continents. That quote from Calvin not withstanding, I've always seen reconciliation as being a a two-way thing.
So, I'm very happy to see 2 Cor. 5 as speaking of both sides of reconciliation, and stressing in particular the need for the Corinthians to be reconciled to God. What else would we expect Paul to say to the Corinthians? Unfortunately there no extant letters from the Apostle to God.
Surely (to use the analogy of human relationships) the most natural reading of reconciliation is that two parties are alienated from each other and that both need to be reconciled to one another?
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
(And then of course there is Ephesians 2 again which speaks to the same theme). So scripture is not at all uniform re propitiating God.
Ephesians 2, ISTM, is hard evidence that the reconciliation is needed (in some sense) in both ways.
Markus Barth makes the interesting observation that Ephesians 2: 16 "outstanding among the parallel Pauline texts in as much as the Messiah rather than God is denoted as the one who reconciles". Talk of God as the one who reconciles humanity to himself leans towards your understanding B62, but introducing Christ as a mediator between God and mankind leans the other way.
Andrew Lincoln likewise would read Ephesians 2: 16 in the light of Ephesians 2: 3 (that the Ephesians were under God's wrath.)
These are not wacky American fundamentalists but mainstream scholars.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
I think most of the confusion is coming because psyduck is confusing models with reality. I haven't got time to quote all the various posts but this is my summary of what I think is going on:
All models are, by necessity, merely analogies attempting to explain a reality. Therefore while they emphasise a helpful aspect they almost always (unintentionally) undermine another truth elsewhere. That is precisely why we need several models when trying explain complex truths.
My understanding of the gospel needs all three of the following models to give a balanced view:
1. Christus Victor - is a really useful model pointing to the victory Christ has own for us / the healing power of his work. It is great in stressing it the objective nature of the Christ event but does not pay enough heed to the subjective side and also gives no human responsibility.
Can someone hold CV and still believe in responsibility and the need for a subjective response? Of course they can. I'm not saying that CV is incompatible with such things just that the model inherently points away from them.
2. Moral exemplar - is also really helpful in stressing the subjective nature of the gospel and it also stresses our responsibility. The NT clearly expects the gospel to change how we live. However, it's great weakness as a model is that ignores any objective aspect to the Christ event - something that the NT is at pains to emphasise.
3. PSA - is helpful in that it deliberately tries to marry the subjective and objective sides together. In this regard psyduck has a point in that PSA is different to the others in that it is more of a hybrid. But I think psyduck is mistaken about its need to be the only controlling one. It's weakness is that, like CV, it leans more towards the objective explanation.
I doubt if there will ever be a model that could adequately explain the Christ event. Therefore we need all three (and maybe more) to hold in tension the many issues that the gospel speaks about.
[ 29. June 2010, 02:10: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Psyduck,
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Both CV and the Devil’s lure accounts postulate something deeply wrong with the world that people live in and experience day by day. They start with a world that isn’t as it should be, a fallen world.
PSA defines a completely different problem – an offended God. And you can’t just put them together, because the offended God will always come first.
...
PSA – if you hold it - is inevitably a more basic understanding of the atonement than CV . These things are prioritized and rank-ordered by the internal logic of PSA. God can’t set the world free until he has dealt with his own issues. Which on a supralapsarian Calvinist reading has to happen before the world began. First things first
Okay, so if PSA is combined with other atonement views, then PSA's offended God needs solving first, before God can move on to any other atonement solutions.
I agree.
An analogy that comes to my mind is that at work you have an issue with a coworker, and also an issue with your boss. Your boss is not going to help you solve the issue with your coworker until the issue between you and your boss is dealt with. One logically needs to be resolved first, before you can gain your boss' good-will and assistance in resolving the other.
Now, can you agree that in this situation there are two problems, both of them real and both in need of solutions? Yes, their solutions must occur in a certain order. But logically, this is not the same situation where there is only one problem requiring only one solution.
So, perhaps then, we can agree that a person holding PSA can hold other theories of the atonement too, really and truly hold them, but that PSA's human-God issue must be solved first before God will then work to solve humanity's other issues?
Personally, I don't regard that as PSA subordinating the other atonement theories, I just see it as implying a natural logical order for their resolution. But I can understand your view that it is a subordination.
quote:
Either that, or you are postulating a PSA that holds that Jesus makes an incomplete penal sacrifice on the cross, which needs supplementing by dealing with other stuff, such as the Devil’s rights.
That is basically what I am saying, although I think the word 'incomplete' is a bit unfair - it would be a complete penal substitution covering all human sin. Christ would then turn his attention to the problem of the devil's rights - ie one problem down, one still to go.
quote:
If the problem is an angry God, how can the problem be the enslaving power of sin over us?
I don't understand your resistance to the idea of both-and here. Regularly in life people have more than one problem at once, each requiring a different solution, and sometimes those solutions need to occur in a certain order. I don't see any logical reason why it might not be the case that humanity has two or more big theological problems looming over us that require two different solutions by God, possibly in a particular order.
quote:
And the fate of moral influence is even more precarious
I agree that the moral influence theory is fundamentally irreconcilable with PSA. It is somewhat unique in that regard, however.
Dayfd,
quote:
Originally posted by Dayfd:
Nor does Paul use martyrdom tropes or language.
I don't understand how you can make this claim. I would consider it blatantly false.
I have been planning to start a thread on Paul's conception of Jesus' death as a martyr. The book I'm currently reading identifies 18 scholars who think that Martyr Theology formed the background to Paul's understanding of Jesus' death (in addition to the scholar writing the book). And cites a further 16 who concede that it is 'possible' that it did. So it isn't just me who sees the martyr language there...
quote:
The attempts by PSA-advocates - or Starlight above - to read sacrifice-language as actually about something else strike me as examples of what I hereby call 'tenorism': the belief that the meaning of a passage taken as metaphorical is unchanged by substituting for the vehicle a literal statement of the supposed tenor.
Me no understand.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
This is from 2 Cor 5.
quote:
16. So from now on we regard no one from a worldly point of view. Though we once regarded Christ in this way, we do so no longer. 17. Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; the old has gone, the new has come! 18. All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19. that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men's sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. 20. We are therefore Christ's ambassadors, as though God were making his appeal through us. We implore you on Christ's behalf: Be reconciled to God. 21. God made him who had no sin to be sin[a] for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
I've quoted the whole of the context, but want to look at verse 19 in particular. Others have observed this point so I know it is not a personal interpretation. It is clear that God was the reconciler, not the one to be reconciled. Yet I see PSA as arguing that God needed to be reconciled to human beings because we sin. The process of sinbearing, according to PSA, is somehow necessary for God in order that he be reconciled to us. Yet the central problem is that we are alienated from Him. We are the ones who need to be reconciled.
It is indeed the God represented in the story of the lost son who we see here.
So my question is this. Does PSA really require God to be reconciled to us by the punishment of Jesus? Does He need to be satisfied in order to be reconciled? For if so, I can make no sense of the above passage. As I argued earlier, using John Chrysostom's exposition as an example, I do see 2 Cor 5:21 as clear evidence that substitution is scriptural and witnessed to by the Fathers. But the punishment comes from the unjust acts of people. He became sin for us, God made him to be sin for us, not to change God's heart, but rather that our hearts might be changed.
Actually, on reflection, I think 2 Corinthians 5 makes the case just as strongly.
1. According to the parallelism of v 19 reconciliation is the same as 'not counting men's sins against them.' Something that the Psalmist tells us is a blessing not an automatic right. Therefore something has happened so that our sins are not counted against us, and that must happen first for reconciliation.
2. Leaving aside the complex pastoral questions as to why Christians in Corinth need to be reconciled to God the thrust of the passage points in the opposite direction to what you suggest - namely Paul speaks about the ministry of God reconciling the world to himself through Christ in the past tense first before exhorting the Corinthians to 'be reconciled to God.'
If the ministry of Christ was only the one sided sense of reconciling mankind to God Paul's exhortation doesn't make sense - why do they need to be reconciled if he has just said that Christ has already reconciled them?
Whatever our understanding of the atonement surely the most natural reading of 2 Corinthians 5 is that, in some sense, in Christ God has made reconciliation possible. And from that I'd argue that the most natural reading of the text therefore implies that reconciliation is, in some sense, a two-way thing.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Thanks for the posts, Johnny. Given the differences which exist between people of goodwill, I had a relatively modest aim in all of this, which was to reinforce the argument that PSA is not the sole message of scripture re the cross of Jesus. The discovery that Calvin seems to have overstated the scriptural case was news to me, but I think it explains a lot. The differences between the doctrine and the use to which it is put probably have much to answer for, whether or not one sees it as one of the pictures from scripture. I remember reading a comment by Tom Wright re one of his lecturers, who observed that, regardless of its acknowledged problems as a declared doctrine, without PSA the picture from scripture would not be complete. Something to that effect anyway. Now to some personal thoughts.
Personally, I cannot reconcile the Love of God and the Wrath of God except by separating sin from sinner (pace for a moment!). As one sees in the story of the Prodigal. The picture of a good God waiting for sinners to return to arms which are already open to receive conveys the love of the Father which we celebrate. Is this Father grieved by his son's desertion. Of course He is. Does that grief turn into alienation and wrath? Not with this Father of the prodigal. Are we right to impute such alienation and wrath to our Father? In human parenting, yes, wrath and alienation do occur. But that seems to me to be a human fault, though often a very understandable one.
I suppose I see the punishing images as a kind of affirmation that the experience of, and the practice of, human fathering (particularly of the stern, "withholding of approval" type,) has had a profound affect on the way folks have understood the Father heart of God. In pastoral work and counselling, it is very well known that for some folks, even the reference to God as Father can be a huge problem for those who have had bad human fathers.
I'm not sure whether it is helpful to bring these pastoral complexities into this discussion, but perhaps you can read my heart better as a result of them. I don't mind if, on this issue, my heart is ruling my head. Of course, good fathers correct. If they are wise they do in some way which confirms the steadfast love which is there despite the need for correction.
As I'm writing this, I can hear my dad's advice about nurturing children. "No matter what they do, and even if they go away, always leave the door open. And, whatever else you do, make sure they know that is the case." Those words stood me in a very good stead through some extremely difficult times.
[ 29. June 2010, 07:43: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S. This is helpful. Thanks. quote:
I think most of the confusion is coming because psyduck is confusing models with reality.
Honestly, I'm not. You could say that CV presents what happens on the cross as the surrendering of the Son of God to the evil powers who exert control over us in our world. The cross/resurrection can be seen as a great victory over these powers, in which we participate by faith, because "our side" has won the decisive victory. This is a perspective on the atonement which lets us talk about a huge Christian truth, that God in Christ has set us free from all that enslaves us. The sacrificial themes in Paul present Christ's death on the cross as the sacrifice which takes away our sins, and causes the wrath of God (which, as C H Dodd points out, functions quasi-automatically and quasi-impersonally against sin in Paul) to abate. Moral influence - with powerful resonances in John - gives us a perspective on what happens when the whole love of God takes flesh and comes into a crucifying world, and gets crucified (Herbert McCabe) - and the love is still there, stronger than death.
Etc. etc.
But PSA is different. Starting with its antecedents in Anselm, PSA doesn't say "You could look at it like this" or "this perspective will give you another part of the truth." PSA says "This is what happens. This is the problem. This is what any solution to it would need to tackle. This is God's solution. This is how it works. Christ on the cross isn't a model. It's what God actually does to meet the detailed specification of the situation man is in. Cur Deus homo? This is why... Calvin is absolutely explicit about this.
My problem is that I don't see how you can take PSA and turn it into one perspective among others. And, pace Starlight, I don't see how you can say that this is just dealing with problems in order. You start by dealing with the one problem that really matters. The others then basically solve themselves. And CV, for example, is then just that - a lesser problem solving itself.
All the other perspectives - CV, moral influence - profoundly Christian, great for preaching on, but not atonement. Atonement's already been done.
quote:
All models are, by necessity, merely analogies attempting to explain a reality. Therefore while they emphasise a helpful aspect they almost always (unintentionally) undermine another truth elsewhere. That is precisely why we need several models when trying explain complex truths.
Indeed. But PSA is still self-standing. At least, Calvin says it is. And, again, pace Starlight, is any advocate of PSA really prepared to step up to the plate and say that Christ's sacrifice on the cross didn't do everything that was necessary?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Thanks for sharing something of yourself B62.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I had a relatively modest aim in all of this, which was to reinforce the argument that PSA is not the sole message of scripture re the cross of Jesus.
And I'm sure I don't have to point out the irony that the only person on this thread who doesn't agree with you does not accept PSA.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I cannot reconcile the Love of God and the Wrath of God except by separating sin from sinner (pace for a moment!). As one sees in the story of the Prodigal. The picture of a good God waiting for sinners to return to arms which are already open to receive conveys the love of the Father which we celebrate. Is this Father grieved by his son's desertion. Of course He is. Does that grief turn into alienation and wrath? In human parenting, yes, sometimes it does. But that seems to me to be a human fault, though often a very understandable one.
The parable of the Prodigal is one of my favourites and I've even been to the Hermitage in Leningrad to look Rembrandt's wondrous painting.
However, I'm sure that you'd admit that anyone is on dodgy ground if they are trying to read a whole systematic theology of the atonement from one parable.
Indeed I'm interested that this parable has been frequently referred to on the ship when this subject turns up and yet seldom is Christ's treatment of the merchants in the temple mentioned. Even though the former is a parable and yet the latter is (allegedly) a description of the behaviour of the incarnate Word in the flesh. Of course we must learn the character of God from Luke 15 but if anything (and I know we are not forced to choose) one would think that the report of Christ's actual behaviour would be the clearer depiction of God's character, rather than just an analogy.
I repeat, I'm not saying that all the lessons you draw from Luke 15 are not legitimate. I'm just saying that if any advocate of PSA used scripture like this there would a thousand cries of "proof-texting".
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I suppose I see the punishing images as a kind of affirmation that the experience of, and the practice of, human fathering (particularly of the stern, "withholding of approval" type,) has had a profound affect on the way folks have understood the Father heart of God. In pastoral work and counselling, it is very well known that for some folks, even the reference to God as Father can be a huge problem for those who have had bad human fathers.
I'm well aware of the pastoral impact of this. Indeed I really struggle calling God 'Father' to some people who, sadly, have such a poor image of fatherhood because of what they have experienced.
Nevertheless both your negative comments here, and your positive comments about your own father, are all from your own personal experience (either directly or mediated). Personally I'd be very wary of extrapolating too far from my own experience.
Your argument seems to flounder on projection - namely that you are taking your own personal definition of what a good father should be and projecting it on to God, assuming that a perfect God can iron out the blemishes of imperfect human love. The problem with this is that you are assuming what it will look like ironed out. I agree with your method up to the point that you start commenting on which parts of human parenting are fallen. We can certainly use scripture and reason to make some good guesses, but more than that? How do we know what a truly divine father will look like?
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
My problem is that I don't see how you can take PSA and turn it into one perspective among others.
Oh, I think you can. Off the top of my head, out of convictions, folks may hold to positions like these.
PSA is the only correct perspective.
PSA is the primary perspective, but clearly there are other perspectives in scripture and tradition.
PSA is just one perspective amongst many and each has its merits and demerits in coming to terms with the meaning and mystery of the cross.
PSA is a perspective based on a misunderstanding of scripture and tradition.
PSA is an irredeemable distortion of Christian truth and needs to be confronted by any and all means to hand.
etc.
Only the first and the last of these rule out the possibility of useful dialogue.
Maybe I don't understand you? But, for example, I've taken great heart from Leprechaun's and Johnny S's contributions to this thread. We can still reason together with goodwill, can't we?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Johnny S. This is helpful. Thanks. quote:
I think most of the confusion is coming because psyduck is confusing models with reality.
Honestly, I'm not.
You say you aren't but I've not seen any evidence to the contrary ...
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
You could say that CV presents what happens on the cross as the surrendering of the Son of God to the evil powers who exert control over us in our world. The cross/resurrection can be seen as a great victory over these powers, in which we participate by faith, because "our side" has won the decisive victory. This is a perspective on the atonement which lets us talk about a huge Christian truth, that God in Christ has set us free from all that enslaves us.
Etc. etc.
Read the Church Fathers. (e.g. I was just reading Gregory of Nyssa). They often speak of CV in the same This is what actually happens way that you claim PSA does.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
PSA is still self-standing. At least, Calvin says it is.
I'm not sure Calvin does say that. Calvin is saying that the gospel is no less than PSA, but he is not saying that it is no more than PSA.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
and, again, pace Starlight, is any advocate of PSA really prepared to step up to the plate and say that Christ's sacrifice on the cross didn't do everything that was necessary?
You give the game away here - it isn't even a particularly PSA statement to talk about 'Christ's sacrifice on the cross'.
It depends a lot of what you mean by that phrase and how you use it - frequently evangelicals use that phrase as a summary of the Christ event. Maybe this is what is bothering you? (i.e. why sum up Christ's life, ministry, death and resurrection by just referring to his death?)
The reason is that (most) PSA advocates see the death of Christ as being the one aspect of the gospel most likely and tempting to drop or play down. Therefore the summary deliberately cuts the other way. Nevertheless, I've never come across anyone who would seriously try to divorce the death from everything else.
Again, this is the reason why PSA needs the other two models, to correct this perceived imbalance.
There is a frequent mismatch in perception in our discussion here on the ship - non-PSAers seem to think that PSAers are on a mission to make PSA the only atonement model allowed while PSAers seem to think that everyone else is out to remove PSA entirely as a model. Don't read all the PSA rhetoric as an attempt to go for PSA only, rather see it as a defense of using PSA at all.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Thanks for sharing something of yourself B62.
Nevertheless both your negative comments here, and your positive comments about your own father, are all from your own personal experience (either directly or mediated). Personally I'd be very wary of extrapolating too far from my own experience.
Your argument seems to flounder on projection - namely that you are taking your own personal definition of what a good father should be and projecting it on to God, assuming that a perfect God can iron out the blemishes of imperfect human love. The problem with this is that you are assuming what it will look like ironed out. I agree with your method up to the point that you start commenting on which parts of human parenting are fallen. We can certainly use scripture and reason to make some good guesses, but more than that? How do we know what a truly divine father will look like?
Well, we can hope! I think much depends on whether our admittedly imperfect understandings (and subjective experiences) of goodness may nevertheless provide pointers in the right direction.
And of course my theology is a thing of threads and patches and, no doubt, unresolved confusions. Isn't everyone's? I've pulled your leg before about Steve Gaukroger's comments re Baptist ministers.
"I am a Baptist minister. I don't like mess".
Basically, I'm OK with a fair amount of messiness when it comes to working through this stuff. God forbid that we should get too tidy or think we've got too much of this stuff worked out - I think that way lies pride. Such revelation as we have is properly regarded as sufficient, but not complete.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S. quote:
Calvin is saying that the gospel is no less than PSA, but he is not saying that it is no more than PSA.
Well, no. Absolutely. But we're not talking about the Gospel, we're talking about the atonement. And my contention isn't that PSA talks about nothing but the penal-substitutionary sacrifice, but that it organizes everything around it.
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
and, again, pace Starlight, is any advocate of PSA really prepared to step up to the plate and say that Christ's sacrifice on the cross didn't do everything that was necessary?
You give the game away here - it isn't even a particularly PSA statement to talk about 'Christ's sacrifice on the cross'.
I'm not trying to replicate PSA language. I'm summarizing in my own.
quote:
It depends a lot of what you mean by that phrase and how you use it - frequently evangelicals use that phrase as a summary of the Christ event. Maybe this is what is bothering you? (i.e. why sum up Christ's life, ministry, death and resurrection by just referring to his death?)
Well, it certainly sounds like a summary of what's bothering me!
quote:
The reason is that (most) PSA advocates see the death of Christ as being the one aspect of the gospel most likely and tempting to drop or play down.
What - in CV? I don't see how you could do CV without an emphasis on Christ's death. Or moral influence. The only way in which you could elaborate an atonement that didn't emphasize Christ's death was to model Jesus as The Great Teacher, whose death was a terrible mistake put right by the Resurrection. Now that might have been a staple of C19 capital-l Liberalism, but that's a minority report and a half, in C21 Christianity!
Would a Patristic stress on his incarnate life really amount to a downgrading of his death?
Would a stress on the Resurrection? Well, yes, actually, I think it is possible to produce a distorted theology by stressing Easter Sunday over Good Friday - and some evangelicals are some of the worst offenders! "Through cross to crown!" But these are unsystematic distortions.
I will accept at face value your assertion that PSA advocates are worried about the downgrading of Christ's death - but I have to say, with due caution, that in my discussions with PSA advocates, it's precisely the PSA interpretation that they fear is being marginalized. See my "chat" with Dinghy Sailor, above!
quote:
Therefore the summary deliberately cuts the other way. Nevertheless, I've never come across anyone who would seriously try to divorce the death from everything else.
I have! But from the other side, de-stressing the death. So I'm not without sympathy - but I really, honestly wonder whether this is all that's going on, especially when - Dinghy Sailor again - some evangelicals seem to take any critique of PSA as a direct and personal assault on their faith.
quote:
Again, this is the reason why PSA needs the other two models, to correct this perceived imbalance
Amazingly - I disagree! My beef with PSA isn't that it isn't a self-sufficient account, but that it is! I still for the life of me can't but see a straight alternative - PSA and everything else deriving from it, or no PSA and everything that Scripture says equally in play, and on the same footing.
OK - let's try this. My own approach to the atonement doesn't countenance PSA for that reason. I believe that you can - and have to -understand Christ's incarnation, death and resurrection in terms of sacrifice (Paul, Hebrews, the OT) Adam-Christ typology (Paul)
Christus Victor (Genesis, Colossians and elsewhere) Moral Influence (John, Hebrews, Paul, the Pastoral Epistles and elsewhere) Messiahship (Matthew, Luke) the transcendence of the messianic expectation in Jesus (Mark) Substitution (Isaiah 53) etc. etc.
What I specifically reject is the notion that you can abstract from this a "kernel" of law, sacrifice, punishment and substitution, etc. and turn that into a separate account of the atonement, called PSA, and then reintegrate that in among all the other themes without distorting and/or subordinating them.
So, given that that's what I mean when I say I reject PSA - what's wrong with my theology? And specifically - what am I failing to cover? What am I missing?
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Hi Johnny,
Sorry I haven't been able to keep up with this thread.
There are a few points I would like to pursue, some of which is brief recapitulation of what I had already posted on the CV threadathon, and some of which deal with your analysis here on this thread.
I think the most interesting, and to me, most surprising theme that you have developed here is your incredulity at the idea of separating the ontological state of humanity as being sinners, and the actual sins we, as sinners, commit.
Leaving aside the excellent and, to my mind, wholly authentic arguments of B62, with whom I both agree and, as a father of 3, identify, I just do not see the interchageability of the terms in scripture, certainly not in the NT. If, as you argue, we are (as humans) subject to God's wrath, we are subject to it because of what we do, not because of what we are. If we were "non-sinning sinners" (imagining for a moment this were possible) then we would not be subject to judgement, for, even to those who see God's primary disposition to be that of a judge, He is, at the very least, a just judge, and does not condemn the innocent.
But, of course, regardless of whether we sin or not, we are still subject to the law of sin and death which, ontologically, ties us in to decay and death. We would still have needed Christ to die and rise again, not because our sins needed forgiving, but because our human nature, decaying and stricken as it is, needs ontological transformation to become like His nature, so that, with Him, we can inherit eternal life.
That the cross speaks powerfully of forgiveness, that it demonstrates forgiveness in the most powerful way possible, is without doubt. But that is a side effect, albeit a profound and glorious one. The cross (and resurrection) enables the renewing of the whole created order - that is its purpose (at least according to Paul, who is the writer with the most to say on the subject), but it demonstrates, rather than enables, forgiveness.
Secondly, your argument from 1 Cor 5 depends of a non-natural reading of v19. Surely the point Paul is making is that not even the sins of human beings can obstruct God's reconciling nature. There is no suggestion here that the cross was necessary for God not to count those sins against humanity, merely that His "decision" was not to do so. Your discussion of whether we have a right to expect forgiveness (sorry, can't find the exact quote atm) is beside the point. Of course we do not have a right to forgiveness, but that doesn't prevent God, in His grace, bestowing it anyway.
quote:
Nevertheless both your negative comments here, and your positive comments about your own father, are all from your own personal experience (either directly or mediated). Personally I'd be very wary of extrapolating too far from my own experience.
Your argument seems to flounder on projection - namely that you are taking your own personal definition of what a good father should be and projecting it on to God, assuming that a perfect God can iron out the blemishes of imperfect human love. The problem with this is that you are assuming what it will look like ironed out. I agree with your method up to the point that you start commenting on which parts of human parenting are fallen. We can certainly use scripture and reason to make some good guesses, but more than that? How do we know what a truly divine father will look like?
Apply that argument in its fullness, and we deprive ourselves of any ability to use language to describe transcendant truth at all! How do you understand (incompletely) what is the nature of God the Father. You do so from, presumably, Jesus saying "He who has seen me has seen the Father", and from stories like the Prodigal Son (which does seem, to me, to be given pride of place (along with the parable of the sower) in Jesus teaching, so I do think it is right to take it very seriously).
Now I am quite at ease with any parent, human or Divine, disciplining their children - even if it causes some disruption to their money-making scams in the temple courtyard. But disciplining, or correcting, if you wll, is not the same as punishment. Discipline is redemptive, and therefore about the child, punishment is all about the parent, the desire to hurt someone to make ourselves feel better.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
That's interesting Psyduck. Clearly you see PSA not just as an explanation of atonement but a doctrine which by its very nature must draw all other doctrines into itself, therefore distorting the whole. A kind of doctrinal magnet which rearranges all of the iron filings around itself in a distinctive pattern.
Up to now, I've thought that biblical inerrancy tends to do that - but not PSA. No doubt there are correlations there - and risks - but I don't think it is inevitable. No, I'd go further. In my experiences of dialogue with many Christians throughout the rainbow of beliefs, I haven't found it to be so.
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Johnny S. quote:
Calvin is saying that the gospel is no less than PSA, but he is not saying that it is no more than PSA.
Well, no. Absolutely. But we're not talking about the Gospel, we're talking about the atonement. And my contention isn't that PSA talks about nothing but the penal-substitutionary sacrifice, but that it organizes everything around it.
Which is why you sometimes have to stop operating in PSA mode and switch to the CV/MI/whatever mode to continue. PSA is a model, an incomplete and imperfect description of the atonement. Use it for as far as it goes, as far as it's useful, then switch to a different model when it reaches the edges of its effectiveness and starts giving you silly results. This is what I tried to say earlier and what I believe Johnny S has more recently said more clearly - thanks Johnny.
quote:
Oriinally posted by Psyduck:
I will accept at face value your assertion that PSA advocates are worried about the downgrading of Christ's death - but I have to say, with due caution, that in my discussions with PSA advocates, it's precisely the PSA interpretation that they fear is being marginalized. See my "chat" with Dinghy Sailor, above!
Sorry, what have I done to earn this insult? I was trying to explain to you how a certain subset of people think ... or are you referring back to earlier in the thread where you started off by assuming I was one of the PSA-only crowd?
quote:
I have! But from the other side, de-stressing the death. So I'm not without sympathy - but I really, honestly wonder whether this is all that's going on, especially when - Dinghy Sailor again - some evangelicals seem to take any critique of PSA as a direct and personal assault on their faith.
1)No I didn't.
2)Let's try to keep this civil shall we?
3)What exactly are you trying to say here?
quote:
What I specifically reject is the notion that you can abstract from this a "kernel" of law, sacrifice, punishment and substitution, etc. and turn that into a separate account of the atonement, called PSA, and then reintegrate that in among all the other themes without distorting and/or subordinating them.
Which is why you use different models to do different things. When I'm doing a job by running Modeling Program A, it doesn't admit the presence of Modeling Program B. B is however an equally valid way to solve the problem, so when I'm done with A I switch to B because I want to find out more. Neither of them has to say anything about the other or be "integrated" into each other, I just use both.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
In all these things, simplification does not add to understanding: complexity is actually our friend here.
Barnabus - I think the doctrine of salvation suffers the greatest warp from PSA. I come from a background of 20 years in a ConEvo church where PSA-prime was preached, but it often turned into PSA-only. That 'God punished Jesus on the cross for Man's sin' was axiomatic, and only by believing that interpretation could you be saved.
Because I (and some others) put my emphasis on the resurrection as the climax to the Gospel narrative, rather than the crucifixion, it made for some awkward Bible study moments.
A nuanced, comprehensive doctrine of PSA is not necessarily a terrible thing, but its pop-theology equivalent - and probably the one which is most widely understood by its adherents - is that self-same bar magnet in a bath of iron filings.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
"I am a Baptist minister. I don't like mess".
1. You've never seen my study.
2. Gaukroger lives much nearer to the floor than most of us and so it is hardly surprising that he doesn't like mess.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
A nuanced, comprehensive doctrine of PSA is not necessarily a terrible thing, but its pop-theology equivalent - and probably the one which is most widely understood by its adherents - is that self-same bar magnet in a bath of iron filings.
Well said. I've certainly heard plenty of the "pop-theology" equivalent. It tends to sit in well with the kinds of churches where everything is forbidden unless it is compulsory. As a child of the pioneer nonconformists, I've always had an instinctive aversion to all such re-chaining approaches to Christian faith.
As I've said earlier, I'm happy with SA, not PSA. Perhaps I mean the "pop-theology" version? Not sure - that's a new thought this morning thanks to you. But SA isn't the only explanation which speaks to me.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
I'm not trying to replicate PSA language. I'm summarizing in my own.
I think that might be part of the problem. Most people are naturally wary of someone who is arguing against their position at the same time as telling them what their position is.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
OK - let's try this. My own approach to the atonement doesn't countenance PSA for that reason. I believe that you can - and have to -understand Christ's incarnation, death and resurrection in terms of sacrifice (Paul, Hebrews, the OT) Adam-Christ typology (Paul)
Christus Victor (Genesis, Colossians and elsewhere) Moral Influence (John, Hebrews, Paul, the Pastoral Epistles and elsewhere) Messiahship (Matthew, Luke) the transcendence of the messianic expectation in Jesus (Mark) Substitution (Isaiah 53) etc. etc.
What I specifically reject is the notion that you can abstract from this a "kernel" of law, sacrifice, punishment and substitution, etc. and turn that into a separate account of the atonement, called PSA, and then reintegrate that in among all the other themes without distorting and/or subordinating them.
So, given that that's what I mean when I say I reject PSA - what's wrong with my theology? And specifically - what am I failing to cover? What am I missing?
This is a more complex issue than just atonement models. ISTM you are asking about how biblical theology relates to systematic theology.
I'm happy to explore this further but for now ...
I think there is a danger if either side is stressed over the other. You seem to be reacting against systematic theology with its abstract philosophical descriptions. Yes there is a danger with systematics that we truncate the narrative of the bible to fit our neat little system.
However, I think there is a danger the other way too. I like (and agree with) the way you are building a description of Christ from the biblical categories of scripture. I would do the same. It is a particularly pomo thing to just leave it there though. I agree with B62 that we should be willing to tolerate a bit of mess. Just as long as it isn't an excuse for refusing to face the hard questions of putting these images together. If I just leave it as a collage of different pictures I think the 21st centuryite loves to grab the snapshot that they like. Nothing wrong with that per se, but we also need to show how these images fit together.
For example, when B62 talks about mess he means that he works hard at these tough questions but is prepared to live with some blurred edges. I respect that. However, I do frequently encounter some who mean by mess that we just don't have to face the tough questions.
In all of this there is also a sense of where our culture is going. I suspect (respectfully) that B62 is typical of a previous generation.
I think the other view of messy is increasingly predominating.
[ 29. June 2010, 10:13: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Hi JJ,
Good to hear from you again. What is it about this topic that still has us going several years later?
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
If, as you argue, we are (as humans) subject to God's wrath, we are subject to it because of what we do, not because of what we are. If we were "non-sinning sinners" (imagining for a moment this were possible) then we would not be subject to judgement, for, even to those who see God's primary disposition to be that of a judge, He is, at the very least, a just judge, and does not condemn the innocent.
But, of course, regardless of whether we sin or not, we are still subject to the law of sin and death which, ontologically, ties us in to decay and death. We would still have needed Christ to die and rise again, not because our sins needed forgiving, but because our human nature, decaying and stricken as it is, needs ontological transformation to become like His nature, so that, with Him, we can inherit eternal life.
I don't follow this. Or rather this is a speculation too far for me. Christ had a sinful nature but did not sin, but no one else has done so. You seem to be asking an impossible hypothetical here.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
the cross speaks powerfully of forgiveness, that it demonstrates forgiveness in the most powerful way possible, is without doubt. But that is a side effect, albeit a profound and glorious one. The cross (and resurrection) enables the renewing of the whole created order - that is its purpose (at least according to Paul, who is the writer with the most to say on the subject), but it demonstrates, rather than enables, forgiveness.
Sorry, I don't follow how this fits into the discussion either.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
secondly, your argument from 2 Cor 5 depends on a non-natural reading of v19. Surely the point Paul is making is that not even the sins of human beings can obstruct God's reconciling nature. There is no suggestion here that the cross was necessary for God not to count those sins against humanity, merely that His "decision" was not to do so. Your discussion of whether we have a right to expect forgiveness (sorry, can't find the exact quote atm) is beside the point. Of course we do not have a right to forgiveness, but that doesn't prevent God, in His grace, bestowing it anyway.
Fair point about Paul not mentioning the cross but I don't think the rest stands. The reconciliation is possible through Christ - presumably there was no hope of reconciliation beforehand? Likewise you haven't engaged with Paul's argument that God did this in Christ first (in the past) before the call to the Corinthians to 'be reconciled to God'.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Apply that argument in its fullness, and we deprive ourselves of any ability to use language to describe transcendant truth at all! How do you understand (incompletely) what is the nature of God the Father. You do so from, presumably, Jesus saying "He who has seen me has seen the Father", and from stories like the Prodigal Son (which does seem, to me, to be given pride of place (along with the parable of the sower) in Jesus teaching, so I do think it is right to take it very seriously).
Now I am quite at ease with any parent, human or Divine, disciplining their children - even if it causes some disruption to their money-making scams in the temple courtyard. But disciplining, or correcting, if you wll, is not the same as punishment. Discipline is redemptive, and therefore about the child, punishment is all about the parent, the desire to hurt someone to make ourselves feel better.
I wasn't so much as saying that we don't listen to parables more that we should read them as parables and not systematic theologies of the atonement or of the doctrine of God.
Again you are reading your view of punishment back into the term and then foisting that upon PSA.
(BTW Who says that Jesus' actions in the temple were discipline and not punishment? The cursing of the fig-tree (pointing to the destruction of the temple) seems to suggest the latter.)
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Dinghy Sailor: You seem bent on taking as gratuitous offence what seems to me to be just a restatement or expansion of the OP, as though any questioning of PSA is an attack on the people who hold it. It isn't.
quote:
Psyduck: I welcome the obvious corollary of that, that you feel able to work with other models of atonement.
DS: which implies that you thought I was some sort of exclusivist fundie beforehand, no?
No. It means what it says. But seriously, re-reading them, do these posts not strike you as an overreaction full of wild imputations, misrepresentations, and complete distortions?
quote:
I feel like I've been guilty until proven innocent, especially since I've never said anything to imply I'm an exclusivist, since I'm not
quote:
Be very careful of interpreting people's words in the least charitable fashion. That way lie reds under the beds. I'm afraid all this is part of my little Mickey Mouse psych model that Seeker rubished other the other thread - you see PSA exclusivism everywhere because you want to see it and because it gets talked up.
And this I reject utterly:
quote:
No, you're stereotyping me (and Lep, and The Rev ...) as a woolly liberal half-believer. According to you, anyone who believes in PSA is an exclusivist pig and anyone who isn't exclusivist, isn't a proper believer in PSA.
I refer you to the Purg. Guidelines about only posting if you don’t mind being challenged.
You say:
quote:
...you use different models to do different things. When I'm doing a job by running Modeling Program A, it doesn't admit the presence of Modeling Program B. B is however an equally valid way to solve the problem, so when I'm done with A I switch to B because I want to find out more. Neither of them has to say anything about the other or be "integrated" into each other, I just use both.
Faior enough. And I am arguing that, in your own terms, PSA is a theory, not a model.
quote:
Theory: A proposed explanation of a mechanism functions. Once explained and proven/accepted, no further explanation is necessary.
Model: A simplified explanation of a phenomenon, describing one aspect of how it works…
So, which is it to be? Is PSA a complete description, a theory, in which case all the other theories are also complete descriptions with no room for manoeuvre ?
See what you did there? The italicized words just don’t follow. PSA may be a "theory" and the others "models" in your terminology.
quote:
________________________________________
Oriinally posted by Psyduck:
I will accept at face value your assertion that PSA advocates are worried about the downgrading of Christ's death - but I have to say, with due caution, that in my discussions with PSA advocates, it's precisely the PSA interpretation that they fear is being marginalized. See my "chat" with Dinghy Sailor, above!
________________________________________
Sorry, what have I done to earn this insult? I was trying to explain to you how a certain subset of people think ... or are you referring back to earlier in the thread where you started off by assuming I was one of the PSA-only crowd?
What insult. I was responding to a harangue, which, by the by, effectively made my point for me! I highlight the relevant part below.
If someone believes in PSA then of course it's part of their faith. How could it not be? This was precisely my point: the average PSA believer (in whose mouth I put those words, in case you didn't notice) is very protective about all parts of their doctrine, it's nothing special about the particular doctrine they hold that is PSA…
For someone who is mindful of these passages then of course it's really important if a person dispenses with PSA. Dispensing with parts of the faith is something that you simply don't do. Jesus calls us to follow him and leave our nets on the shore, not to keep looking back like Lot's wife looking at Sodom. Truth is God's truth, doctrine is God's doctrine and to be fiercely protected. Doctrinal error is a very serious matter. If you've had the experience you describe with a PSA believer, try going back to the same person and telling them that you're a universalist or that you pray to the saints because you don't think God wants to hear your prayers, or that you believe our good works save us or that the trinity is bunkum, or any other doctrinal error that they'll recognise. You'll get the same response as you did with PSA.
You are saying that dispensing with PSA is dispensing with an indispensable part of the faith.
OK, I’ll restate my question, referring you to the fuller form in which I put it above. Given everything else I’m happy to say about the atonement, I reject PSA. What is deficient in my theology?
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
You are saying that dispensing with PSA is dispensing with an indispensable part of the faith.
The point I was making then and will make again now is that for many PSA believers, virtually everything is an "indispensable" (your word) part of the faith, it's nothing special about PSA.
quote:
quote:
Psyduck: I welcome the obvious corollary of that, that you feel able to work with other models of atonement.
DS: which implies that you thought I was some sort of exclusivist fundie beforehand, no?
No. It means what it says.
It has an air of relief, as if it seems to start from an assumption that I wasn't "able to work with other models of atonement" - otherwise it wouldn't need saying. Since you never recanted or apologised, I believe I was right. Tell me I was wrong.
quote:
And this I reject utterly:
quote:
No, you're stereotyping me (and Lep, and The Rev ...) as a woolly liberal half-believer. According to you, anyone who believes in PSA is an exclusivist pig and anyone who isn't exclusivist, isn't a proper believer in PSA.
I refer you to the Purg. Guidelines about only posting if you don’t mind being challenged.
What are you saying now? I've never "minded being challenged" which is why I'm still here. Please stop using ad hominems as a substitute for points!
quote:
You say:
quote:
...you use different models to do different things. When I'm doing a job by running Modeling Program A, it doesn't admit the presence of Modeling Program B. B is however an equally valid way to solve the problem, so when I'm done with A I switch to B because I want to find out more. Neither of them has to say anything about the other or be "integrated" into each other, I just use both.
Faior enough. And I am arguing that, in your own terms, PSA is a theory, not a model.
My point is that each model looks like a theory from the inside. There's nothing in my Model A to tell me that Model B exists so while I'm using Model A, A is all that matters and could well be a complete description of reality. This doesn't prevent the existence of Model B, but I'll be using that tomorrow and then it'll look like Model B is the complete description - they dont' have to mention each other for me to use both. Similarly, PSA doesn't have to explicitly mention other models while you're working inside it, you just have to go in with the expectation of stepping out again.
Most other people are treating it as a model, you're arguing against their position at the same time as telling them what their position is (to cite Johnny S) which is bound to get people's backs up.
quote:
Given everything else I’m happy to say about the atonement, I reject PSA. What is deficient in my theology?
So whoever said it first was correct to surmise that this "PSA is exclusive" thread was actually a "I want to exclude PSA" thread in disguise?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Imputation, imputation, imputation. I'm sorry, Dinghy Sailor, but if you keep twisting everything I say, then for the sake of this thread, I'm not going to post on it any more. You're the only one who has systematically distorted my posts and read all manner of things into them that simply aren't there. I've said what I have to say,a nd I do respect all those other posters I nevertheless disagree with.
My problems with PSA as an understanding of the atonement are a separate issue that I've tried to keep out of my posts. All I wanted to say here is that, with all the good will in the world, when people say that they hold PSA in a way that allows them full access to all the other Christian perspectives on the atonement, I absolutely accept their good faith but they haven't demonstrated to me that they are actually able to do it.
But your personalized attacks on me as being disingenuous, and having a secret agenda, are only going to bring a hostly intervention, either for something you say, or for something I post in the heat of the moment.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
This is a really interesting thread.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
What I have said, repeatedly, is that it's a complete doctrine of the atonement. Calvin says so – see Leprechaun's post above. I am happy to concede that people who hold PSA believe other things about God. They would have to, because PSA is not a complete theology. I never said it was.
[...] I'm inviting people to tell me how they can specify their belief in PSA and tell me that they can completely integrate other perspectives on the Atonement into it. Nobody's done that yet.
I think I've always had some sort of PSA built in to the way I think about the atonement, but I don't think I've ever thought it was a complete account of what was going on, or that, on it's own, it's particularly satisfying. So I'll try to meet that challenge with an analogy to (following Barnabas62's lead) human parenting. It's not perfect but I'll tell it the way it actually happened, rather than improve the facts to make the point.
A couple of weekends ago, I was making bows and arrows with my kids. I'd bought a 3m long wooden dowelling rod for the arrows. I went to get my measuring tape and hacksaw to cut it into the right lengths, telling my son (5 y.o.) to leave it until I got back. He wants to make the arrows right now, of course, so while I'm gone he tries to snap the rod into right-sized bits. Naturally it splits unevenly along the grain and most of it is ruined.
I chide him for disobedience, and explain that I had to buy the rod that he's now spoiled, that money comes from working, and we can't now make the arrows unless he pays for it. I assess the replacement cost at £5. So he will have to do some work to earn that money. We go the river and I explain that we will need some feathers for our arrows, and I will pay 50 pence for every good straight goose's wing feather that he can find. There aren't many, and finding them takes some hard searching. Having scoured the bank for twenty minutes and found half a dozen or so, we eventually see a bunch more, but these are right at the water's edge, rather mucky, with a muddy puddle to get through and a patch of stinging nettles nearby. My son baulks at the idea of collecting them, but my daughter (3) has no worries, and toddles off to get them, braving the nettles and the mud, to bring us above quota. The feathers are duly cleaned, assessed, priced and paid for, the final reckoning being enough to cover the cost of the damaged wood, and also stretch to a bar of chocolate for each of the kids. Everyone is happy. (The arrows fly pretty well, too).
Right - I'm God, obviously. My son is Adam, or humanity. My daughter is Christ. What's going on?
I really was angry and offended at my son for disobeying me. I would not have been satisfied with simply telling him it was OK without some sort of punishment for the offence. My son wasn't able to take on the whole of that punishment, but my daughter, who was entirely innocent of the rod-breaking, took his place and I was happy with that.
That's PSA. And it's a true description of what happened. All the elements are there - a penalty, a substitution, a reconciliation. Justice was satisfied by the willing acceptance of punishment by an innocent.
But it doesn't exclude other models. It would be possible to describe it as analogous to ransom theory - my daughter's work paying the price to buy back something that my son had lost. Or a moral influence theory - because I certainly hope that her work for him provided both a good example and the moral resources needed to think considerately in the future. Or a sharing in the merits of Christ (represented in this analogy by the chocolate) account. Or something not unlike Christus Victor - from my children's point of view, what had happened was that they had been set a challenge had triumphantly overcome it, my daughter emerging as the hero. And a full description needs some analogy to the incarnation (or Second Adam) - I would not have allowed anyone but my daughter to do the task, because only she is sufficiently closely related to and associated with him that he would feel involved in her actions, rather than simply thinking that he was being let off.
The point is that all of those ways of describing what went on are true, and, if you wanted to try to understand my family, any of them might be helpful to focus on. You couldn't neglect PSA if you wanted to get at the meat of what was going on. I really was very cross at the start and delighted by the end, and if you miss out the idea of a punishment imposed being accepted by a substitute for the offender you won't have a full account of how I got from the one to the other. But neither is PSA good as an exclusive account - it's true, but there are other ways of seeing the facts, and more going on with those facts than strict PSA describes.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
Instead of pointing out differences with the views expressed, I’ll just lay out an outline of my view.
Moral exemplar for me is a misnomer. Adam’s infraction wasn’t a “moral” issue: no stealing, no damaging, no adultery, nada. So what antithesis was Jesus showcasing for us to emulate?
Fulfilling the Law by faith, IOW, depending on God.
Consider, when Jesus says that it was not him doing the miraculous, but God doing it though Him, he was talking about a sequence:
1. God presenting a problem: a blind man (a result of Adam’s sin)
2. Jesus loving God (thinking well about Him,having confidence in Hi ability to overcome)
3. Jesus loving man (stepping out in faith to alleviate the problem_that oppressed its target)
4. God making a cure for the problem with material ingredients (mud and spittle)
5. God curing the problem (blindness vanquished)
This is eternal life, working with God, sharing in His method, a Way that existed in the Garden in seed form (Adam named the animals, like children putting candied flecks on a cake made by Mom… before moving on up the creative process: baking, making the flour, planting the wheat). This is what we experience when we are IN Christ, and a foretaste of the future life,
In this scenario, the resurrection is a result of Jesus faith, an instantiation of the outworkings of sin defeated, a victory in a battle, one of many in a war.
God’s efforts over six days puts into place a mechanism that penalizes dependence on self and rewards dependence on God. He then takes His hands off, on the seventh day. He puts Himself under the limitations of that system, which is impersonal and impartial, as any good system of justice should be.
An infraction creates a debit entry, a good work credit. Natural drives being what they are, the debits must surely show up on the bottom line.
Justice will be meted out either in this life or the hereafter, and is normally slow. God is slow to anger, gracious and merciful and quick to forgive: His system (dispensing wrath and mercy) reflects the same attributes. It responds to self centred-ness by hardening and estrangement, to faith, by sensitizing and drawing close.
When we say that a person is acceptable in God’s sight because of moral action, I find it problematic because the original infraction wasn’t moral in nature. In both OT and NT, a dependence on God for direction and empowerment is stressed:
14“The LORD will fight for you while you keep silent.” Exodus 14
5So then, does He who provides you with the Spirit and works miracles among you, do it by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith? Galatians 3
It is as we depend on God that the visible results are the Go(o)d works which cause men to acknowledge God’s existence and His rewarding of faith. These are the rudder-like actions that turn the Rahabs and the Gibeonites to God. See the instances of increase in numbers in the Book of Acts and see its connection to God’s acting in both blessing and judgment in the Church.
Point 2
Judaism which shares the same Old Testament with Christianity has no teachings about Satan. Even seemingly direct references in the English versions appear translated as “adversary” in Jewish Bibles and they are describing spiritual agents in GOD’S employ. The account of Jesus’ struggle with the adversary is not clear if he is fighting spiritual oppression or dealing with the power trip that the infilling of the Holy Spirit has brought on: they could be internal struggles. So Christ’s victory over Hell should strictly be seen as a resolution or cure to the problem of spiritual death, as opposed to physical death. And since ransom can either be in the form of a redemption charge or a prisoner exchange, and since we share in Christ’s affliction (Col 1:24) it’s possible that the redemption is still an ongoing event.
Point 3
Tyndale realized that the High Priest in carrying out his religious duties was indeed reconnectiong the people with God (re-lig-are=reconnect) but he tried to convey what THAT involved: the mercy seat, the covering over by blood leading to cleansing(!!!) , propitiation, expiation, mediation, federal representation, etc.
Etymology
The word atonement gained widespread use in the sixteenth century after William Tyndale recognized that there was no direct translation of the concept into English. In order to explain the doctrine of Christ's sacrifice, which accomplished both the remission of sin and reconciliation of man to God, Tyndale invented a word that would encompass both actions. He wanted to overcome the inherent limitations of the word "reconciliation" while incorporating the aspects of "propitiation" and forgiveness. It is interesting to note that while Tyndale labored to translate the 1526 English Bible, his proposed word is comprised of two parts, 'at' and 'onement,' which also means reconciliation, but combines it with something more. Although one thinks of the Jewish Fast of Yom Kippur (Day of Atonement), the Hebrew word is ‘kaper' ing ‘a covering', so one can see that ‘reconciliation' doesn't precisely contain all the necessary components of the word atonement. Expiation means "to atone for." Reconciliation comes from Latin roots re, meaning "again"; con, meaning "with"; and sella, meaning "seat." Reconciliation, therefore, literally means "to sit again with." While this meaning may appear sufficient, Tyndale thought that if translated as "reconciliation," there would be a pervasive misunderstanding of the word's deeper significance to not just reconcile, but "to cover," so the word was invented.
http://www.associatepublisher.com/e/a/at/atonement.htm
Of course since the word hilasterion can mean both expiation and propitiation in the Greek (nice blog entries, Tercel!) we don’t know what is being stressed and focused on in NT.
Point 4
The purpose of all the miraculous resolutions seem to be to vindicate/confirm the veracity of Jesus' message: depend on God. Over and over he tells the crowd that it is not his work but God working through him, honouring his faith. He encourages faith, even faith as small as a mustard seed, on their part, on the BASIS of the record of past responses from God.
Point 5
In PSA, individual forgiveness and redemption is not in view here. It is the reinstatement of Israel’s role as the first Sons of God and their election as the means of blessings to the world, vessels of noble use. The Jews expect not only vindication, but also special treatment at the judgment, for observing (fulfilling) the Law, which would usher in God’s Kingdom. The Atonement will deal with the sin that led to Exile, and the Return will be real and complete. The world is saved as a result of the at-onement of Israel. So, Christ as the Obedient sOn wins acceptability not only for the Nation, but also for himself. He is not only the victim, he is also the one rewarded (with many children, among other things).
Point 6
David repents of adultery, but he still sows what he reaped. God may forgive based on a current acknowledgment of His right to judge and repentance, but judgment is not averted. David still loses his child. Deeds may pass away, but the payback/debit remains.
Point 7
God gives the sacrifice, as Abraham prophesied. Man holds out the raw material (manifestation of faith), but it is God who transforms it into a solution to the problem, be it hunger, sickness or sin. The guilt offering took away guilt, not by ignoring it (although grace is manifested as an overlooking of faults) but an actual prophylaxis for the condition of guilt. This is what the offering (sacrifice) is in Christianity.
Point 8
The Eucharist is a commemoration of Jesus placing Himself on the altar and also a confession (one minded agreement) of the belief in his promise to be included (have a part ) in him through belief, expressed through eating of his flesh.
Point 9
I’m not sure how God needs to be reconciled to us, given that He has not been in infraction, although some explain it by condending that alienation is a result of fault from both sides.
Point 10
Most people like the image of God as that of the father in the tale of the Lost Son and I see anti PSA adherents fighting to present a favourable picture of God and His work, to present Him in a winsome and lovable way to the world. But justice was also added to the mix there: the unavoidable bearing down of the ton of bricks on the rake was also a mechanism devised by God, and as you can see, it need not be all vindictive: it brought the lad back to his senses. And the redemptive sacrificial action is present for all to see. The mental picture of a dignified and senior patriarch throwing all restraint and trappings of rank and status to the wind, and galloping uninhibitedly with open show of affection to his treasure, lost and now refound, well, that is a picture that ought to mellow any previously held view we have of His workings and provisioning, if nothing else. Aided by an understanding that the workings are what God set up, set apart and declared as good.
Ooops, I really meant that to be a bare sketch.
[ 29. June 2010, 12:11: Message edited by: footwasher ]
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
That's all very well, but at the core of PSA there is a fundamental problem about the very nature of God, in that it both explicitly and implicitly teaches that God is not free to act. God is in some way bound to structures and tiers of universal justice and is made subject to them in order to act in the interests of humanity. This presents a not insignificant problem of God not really being God, but rather a type of demi-god.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
That's all very well, but at the core of PSA there is a fundamental problem about the very nature of God, in that it both explicitly and implicitly teaches that God is not free to act. God is in some way bound to structures and tiers of universal justice and is made subject to them in order to act in the interests of humanity. This presents a not insignificant problem of God not really being God, but rather a type of demi-god.
It seems that God is willing to put Himself under obligation in order to obtain that which cannot be bought: Love
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
so why try to pay a ransom for it?
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
It's the cure, the logical out working of the faith shown by Christ, the victory winning resolution.
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
yes, but what I was pointing out above was that this idea contains a fundamental flaw about the nature of God
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
1 John 4:19?
We love, because He first loved us.
And john 3:16?
Was that your question?
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
No, I think we are at cross purposes here.
What I was trying to say is that PSA involves ideas about the nature of God that are fundamentally flawed. It's not that God does not love us, but that within the PSA model, God is subject to a higher concept of justice ( 'subject to' being the operative words in this case). If that were so, God wouldn't really be God, because God would be unable to act freely (ie. love us freely and without condition) without first paying tribute to this 'higher justice' to which he is subject.
Does that explain it better, or does it just make things worse?
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
Fletcher, God is subject to his own nature which doesn't change, but that doesn't make him bound by it. I have the perfect freedom to hit the person sitting next to me right now but I'm not going to, because gratuitous violence is against my nature. As fallible humans we all sometimes go against our natures and do things that we regret but God isn't like that - it's not that he's less free than us but that he's stronger than us.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
[/qb][/QUOTE] quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
No, I think we are at cross purposes here.
What I was trying to say is that PSA involves ideas about the nature of God that are fundamentally flawed. It's not that God does not love us, but that within the PSA model, God is subject to a higher concept of justice ( 'subject to' being the operative words in this case). If that were so, God wouldn't really be God, because God would be unable to act freely (ie. love us freely and without condition) without first paying tribute to this 'higher justice' to which he is subject.
Does that explain it better, or does it just make things worse?
I think this is a new point. Ransom has a connotation of buying love. But as I tried to explain, the ransom is not of a separate entity or property but of self.
Now we are talking of omnipotence when we say subject to a code. But don't we admire people who practice what they preach? Are impartial? And Scripture actually brings up the extent God is willing to go in the spirit of that principle. Kenosis? Google "Weak Theology" for an exposition.
[ 29. June 2010, 13:07: Message edited by: footwasher ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
No, I think we are at cross purposes here.
Ah, that makes it all worthwhile.
I'm off to bed.
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
quote:
I have the perfect freedom to hit the person sitting next to me right now but I'm not going to, because gratuitous violence is against my nature.
This comes very close to the point I am trying to make.
Inherent in PSA is the idea that even though it is in God's nature to love us, he is still bound by something else outside of his control and is therefore not truly God and has no perfect freedom.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
Inherent in PSA is the idea that even though it is in God's nature to love us, he is still bound by something else outside of his control and is therefore not truly God and has no perfect freedom.
Isn't the point that for God to act unjustly* would be inappropriate and unworthy of him, so he doesn't? Not that he tries to act unjustly and finds that he can't?
The problem of God either doing something because it is right (and thus being subject to a moral law) or something being right because God does it (and thus 'right' being a matter of arbitrary whim) is hardly unique to PSA.
*begging the question that to remit a penalty is unjust, of course.
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
Ah, but love is not the only aspect of God's character. Justice is another, which is why he can't simply let sin exist without dealing with it.
[x post]
[ 29. June 2010, 13:50: Message edited by: Dinghy Sailor ]
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
Yes, you can understand it in these terms, but it leaves a slight problem with previous understandings of God's freely given forgiveness before Christ. Of course, you could also jump through hoops and start to create a theology that works backwards by suggesting that what Christ does stands for all time (literally past, present and future). But then we enter into concepts of justice and what justice is and if it actually requires punishment in order to make retribution. You could also read your statement as suggesting that God is bound by the power of sin.
At the end of the day, I think it's fair to say that most Christians believe that God's nature is revealed in Jesus Christ, and when we start to compare this to the ideas in PSA we see something quite different. Concepts of sacrifice in order to appease God even begin to be disapproved of and challenged by the prophets in the Old Testament (before Jesus). Sacrifice begins there to be understood as a sacrifice of thanksgiving and of the personal will in dedication to God. The Psalms even begin to question it with repeated phrases (like 'I desire mercy, not sacrifice') in differing forms. Some would say there is a very noticeable development from the Old Testament that is carried through into the New Testament that puts the final nail in the coffin of the ideas of having to appease an angry god with sacrifices in order to make him a happy god and play nice.
When we look at the life of Jesus it is not about keeping alive the old ideas that God might be constantly angry and wrathful because of a high sense of justice and order, but quite the opposite - that because of a high sense of justice and order, God is full of loving compassion, is merciful and accepts the contrite heart and the cross is an example of how far that love will go for us (of course it's more, but that would spin this thread off into a tangent)
The other issue with PSA in this regard is that it paints a picture of a god who only deals in violence. Jesus demonstrates the opposite; even when the mocking and the violence is at its very worst - he offers words of forgiveness. Jesus turns a symbol of torture and violence into a symbol of supreme love. Through weakness he is strong, overturning all our 'human' perceptions of strength and power. God enters in Jesus into our world to face the temptation of returning violence for violence, but instead shows us a way of living that subverts all normal expectation (on our part) and truly changes our world and how we think.
This is why I feel so strongly aggrieved by PSA, for to my mind it does actually subvert the Gospel in perpetuating a system of violence, but also one that doesn't match up to the life and example of Jesus and bangs on about old concepts and fears about the nature of God that were overturned in Jesus
........ I think I can hear the sound of someone lighting coals......
[ 29. June 2010, 14:15: Message edited by: fletcher christian ]
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Hi Johnny,
Not sure how to respond to your posts without excessive and tedious (for the reader) quoting, so I'm just going to refer to paragraphs, if that's all right.
Para 1 Perhaps because you're a "2" (?maybe 3?)whilst I'm a "4" on B62's scale
Para 2 The point I was making was that I can readily see a way in which we can separate the sinner from the sin, something that you find problematic. Basically our sinful nature is dealt with by the atonement, whilst our sins are dealt with by forgiveness, which is always, has always been, and will always be (up their demise at the eschaton) dealt with by forgiveness. I agree the hypothetical has no practical realisation, but it is, I think, useful in clarifying the what and the how of the atonement. In treating the two aspects separately, we can see the issues with greater clarity, rather than conflating them. If you cry "foul" then my defence would be that this is just the sort of argument Paul used, in that he has far more to say about our sinful nature than about our sins.
Para 3 Yes, OK, I guess I did miss out a couple of steps in the argument. I guess the background I needed to fill in a bit was that my perception is that you see the Atonement as essentially a moral act, whereas I am quite happy to see it as a practical solution to a specific problem - how can mortal creatures come to share in the eternal fellowship of the Trinity, and to deal with the moral issues by unconditional forgiveness. Thus this little snip was a reinforcement of what I had written above. Any clearer?
Para 4 My point was not that Paul doesn't mention the cross here, but rather that he explicitly states that human sinfulness is not a block to God's redeeming nature. He dies for us in spite of, rather than because of, our sinfulness (to overstate for emphasis). With regard to reconciliation, surely Paul is saying "because you are reconciled (objective reality) so be reconciled (ie live out that reality practically in your lives). In other words, walk the talk.
Para 5 Well, of course, you aren't doing anything like that, are you
:
Seriously, of course we bring our preconceptions with us to some extent. But I don't think that I've strayed beyond a reasonable and straightforward interpretation of what the scriptures say. What reason do you have for suggesting that the cleansing of the Temple or the cursing of the fig-tree are examples of punishment. In the first case, I suppose you could argue that Jesus' actions were tantamount to a fine, but they hardly amounted to fire from heaven, and the fact that He explained His actions to the money changers is a reasonable indication that he had in mind that they ammend their lives. In the second case, if, as you say, the fig-tree was an analogy for the system of Temple-worship (and I agree it was), then in what sense could we speak of a philosophy or a theological position being "punished"? Destroyed, certainly, even as sin and death will one day be destroyed, but you can only punish moral agents, personalities, if you will, not impersonal systems. Once we start treating systems as if they were personalities, ISTM we are getting close to idolatry.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dinghy Sailor:
Ah, but love is not the only aspect of God's character. Justice is another, which is why he can't simply let sin exist without dealing with it.
[x post]
But He does deal with it. He deals with it by forgiving it. What other way is there to deal with it (and I mean truely deal with it, not just inflict on the perpetrator a worse fate than he inflicted on you)? Justice isn't a transaction. Punishing a perpetrator does absolutely nothing to sin (though society might find it expedient to limit the damage caused by sin through, for example, imprisoning the guilty). After all, we know how effective retribution is in righting wrongs!
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Dayfd:
Nor does Paul use martyrdom tropes or language.
I don't understand how you can make this claim. I would consider it blatantly false.
I have been planning to start a thread on Paul's conception of Jesus' death as a martyr. The book I'm currently reading identifies 18 scholars who think that Martyr Theology formed the background to Paul's understanding of Jesus' death (in addition to the scholar writing the book). And cites a further 16 who concede that it is 'possible' that it did. So it isn't just me who sees the martyr language there...
You at least concede that there are sixteen scholars who think it not certain that there's martyr language there. So not blatantly false.
I would wager that if you go looking you can find more than eighteen scholars straight off who think some different approach, one that you consider ludicrous, is the right approach to Paul. That's how scholarship in the humanities works. Martyrdom is an obvious category for scholars to try to apply, even when there's nothing very much in the text to encourage it specifically.
It's not enough to say Jesus was righteous and is killed by the unrighteous. Abel is righteous and is killed but is not a martyr (in Genesis, although he may have been so understood in secondary writings). If Paul is presenting Jesus as a martyr on the model of the Maccabees, then that is a pattern and a set of moves he would be making - and I just don't find him making any of those moves. (See Romans 5:19, which talks about Jesus' obedience. That could form part of a martyrdom discourse, but Paul doesn't develop it in that direction.)
Let me illustrate the contrast from Peter 2:20b-1.
quote:
But if you endure when you do right and suffer for it, you have God's approval. For to this you have been called, because Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example to follow in his steps.
This would be a good time for 'Peter' to present Christ's death as a martyrdom. He comes close. But the difference is that while the Christian suffers for 'doing right' (and that is a basic form of martyrdom language), Jesus suffers for 'you' - which is not martyrdom. It's not the language the Maccabees account use.
I haven't yet found any use of phraseology such as 'died for the laws of God' or 'died for doing what is right' etc applied to Jesus in Paul.
quote:
quote:
The attempts by PSA-advocates - or Starlight above - to read sacrifice-language as actually about something else strike me as examples of what I hereby call 'tenorism': the belief that the meaning of a passage taken as metaphorical is unchanged by substituting for the vehicle a literal statement of the supposed tenor.
Me no understand.
You understand what a vehicle and tenor are? In the standard analysis of metaphor or metonymy or synechdoche, there is the tenor - the thing signified - and then the vehicle - the language used to signify. Thus in a standard example such as 'my lawyer is an old shark': the tenor is a man lacking principles, while the vehicle is a kind of sea fish. The presentation of the vehicle alters the way in which the tenor is taken. It doesn't mean the same as 'my lawyer is an old unprincipled man': we're given a specific handle - our thoughts about a predatory sea-fish - as a handle to take hold of the idea of being unprincipled.
In the same way, language of sacrifice as applied to morality (or indeed, PSA) doesn't just convey thoughts that could be conveyed with less confusion without that language. The image of the animal on the altar is being offered as the right handle to get hold of what acting morally is. It's wrong to see it as just that sacrifice language is being moralised, if you don't recognise also that morality is being sacralised.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
"I am a Baptist minister. I don't like mess".
1. You've never seen my study.
2. Gaukroger lives much nearer to the floor than most of us and so it is hardly surprising that he doesn't like mess.
Tut Tut! Your PC slip is showing.
My study is probably like yours - a perfect reflection of how comfortable I am with mess. There's hope for you yet!
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
You understand what a vehicle and tenor are?
On rereading I think this might have come out a bit patronising. I hope it wasn't. And I apologise if it was.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
:
Dafyd says
quote:
You at least concede that there are sixteen scholars who think it not certain that there's martyr language there. So not blatantly false.
Must say I'm a bit confused. Starlight flags up a work about Maccabean martyr theology in Paul's understanding of Jesus - a work which I haven't read but which I was previously aware of the existence of - and yet for me, it was an attempt to spot patterns across multiple martyrdom narratives (Jesus, Polycarp, 2 & 4 Maccabees and Socrates) that led me to the idea that the sacrifice of Iphigenia might be a model for the understanding of Jesus in the first place.
The question I originally posed was "where did the idea of martyrdom come from in the first place?" - and "What precedents are there for it?" As with martyrdom, so too with sacrifice.
Thanks to Starlight's explanations - but I'm still sceptical of the idea that the concept of sacrifice was of only minor importance in the early Christian understanding of the death of Jesus - mind you, this might be partly because I'm conflating "sacrifice" with "martyrdom" to some extent. So a good next question would be - "how do we understand martyrdom?"
There are several ways to understand martyrdom. The one which is most obvious to me is as a form of heroism. But it can also be thought of as a type of sacrifice as well. Heroism and sacrifice aren't mutually exclusive in the understanding of a martyrdom; the legendary Iphigenia is both a sacrifice and a hero at the same time. She's made a hero by the fact she goes all patriotic when the people around her are dithering over the sacrifice - and, of course, her subsequent ascension to heaven, which I guess is intended to imply an apotheosis of some sort.
Point is, I think we need to distinguish between the ideas that have pre-Christian precedents, and those that don't. The idea that humans can be reconciled to a divine being through a sacrifice has got clear precedents. The idea that people who stand up for what they teach to the point of death can be considered heroes also has a precedent.
Tangent: I don't entirely agree with Dafyd on the following point:
quote:
Jesus is not presented in the passion narratives as a hero to be admired, but as a victim to be pitied.
In Mark 14:48, Jesus makes the point that he hasn't been the shy retiring type in the immediate prelude to his arrest. The Last Supper legend suggests he knew his arrest was coming. And in the passages before that, Jesus does get into arguments with religious leaders and makes a stand now and then.
The Gospels really don't make it sound as though Jesus was a bloke who had absolutely no control whatsoever on whether he got captured and slaughtered or not. So I can't see how it can be argued that his passion more of a form of victimhood than of heroism. But maybe I'm reading a different translation.
Back from tangent:
My point is, the idea that the punishment of one innocent person can have the effect of reconciling wrongdoers to an angry divine being, is not something that seems to have a pre-Christian precedent - either in the Old Testament, Greek mythology, Greek philosophy or Egyptian religion - unless someone's aware of a precedent that I hadn't noticed.
And my view is that a theology which has no pre-Christian precedent is a theology that the earliest Christians are unlikely to have applied to Jesus. And I believe that PSA falls into that category. Someone, somewhere, would have had to have thought it up first - and the idea that the Christian religion could have grown as large as it did over the first 300 years without anyone having any idea what the death of Christ on the cross actually meant, is absurd.
That doesn't necessarily mean that PSA is "wrong". But what it does mean is that PSA is not a good candidate for theories of the early propagation of the Christian faith. And the phenomenon of Christians today believing that PSA is central to their faith, is a fairly modern one.
None of this means that people are wrong to believe in PSA; like other atonement models, PSA has got its plusses and minuses. But I'm of the opinion that if people think it's the only legitimate model, then they're quite likely to misunderstand a lot of early Christian teaching.
Having said all that - I'm staring to question how important theories of atonement are anyway. In my opinion, one of the most significant early spurs to propagation of Christianity was messianic expectation. But I also think the same thing is true of Arthurian legend. There's no atonement theology in Arthurian legend, so maybe early Christianity didn't have any atonement theology either. Perhaps Jesus was simply seen as a legendary hero who people hoped would come back one day to put the world to rights - and the idea that his death constitutes a reconciliation between man and God was only added later. I don't know.
Then again - what about the letter to the Hebrews?
Thanks for the posts.
Posted by FooloftheShip (# 15579) on
:
PSA belongs in the profoundest pits of hell. It has been a millstone around so many people's necks, and nearly drove me away from God's love. Just in case you think I'm ascribing myself multiple personality disorder, I am not the only person of my acquaintance in that position.
Think about it in trinitarian terms. One person, one state of God becomes so angry with one part of himself, the creative aspect, that he forces it to suffer to satisfy that anger. The psychopathology, in my opinion, says far more about the adherents of PSA, particularly their corporate expression, than it does about God.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
and yet for me, it was an attempt to spot patterns across multiple martyrdom narratives (Jesus, Polycarp, 2 & 4 Maccabees and Socrates) that led me to the idea that the sacrifice of Iphigenia might be a model for the understanding of Jesus in the first place.
At a suitable level of generality Napoleon's career has the same pattern. The thing is I think martyrdom diverges from whatever it is happens in the Gospels at a higher level of generality than defines martyrdom. Jesus' death doesn't have the features that Maccabees, Polycarp and Socrates share.
quote:
The question I originally posed was "where did the idea of martyrdom come from in the first place?" - and "What precedents are there for it?" As with martyrdom, so too with sacrifice.
The obvious question about where martyrdom comes from is that people get killed for their beliefs and this is then seen as an encouragement to those who share those beliefs.
So martyrdom narratives are shaped two concerns: first, to encourage those who share those beliefs and;
second, to impress those who don't share those beliefs or who are doubting those beliefs.
quote:
Tangent: I don't entirely agree with Dafyd on the following point:
quote:
Jesus is not presented in the passion narratives as a hero to be admired, but as a victim to be pitied.
In Mark 14:48, Jesus makes the point that he hasn't been the shy retiring type in the immediate prelude to his arrest. The Last Supper legend suggests he knew his arrest was coming. And in the passages before that, Jesus does get into arguments with religious leaders and makes a stand now and then.
The point Jesus is making in 14:48 isn't his own bravery; it's the cowardice of the priests in arresting him when the people aren't aware of it. (Which incidentally makes the point that Jesus and his core disciples don't have anywhere (human) to turn to for support at the arrest.)
Before the passion narratives - say up to the Last Supper - Jesus is presented as a heroic figure. So the shift in gear (*) is noticeable.
Also, it's true that where the Gospels touch on the martyrdom of Jesus' followers it is true that they give the theme added significance from viewing it in the light of Jesus' death. But that doesn't mean that the significance of Jesus' death itself is that he's a martyr.
quote:
And my view is that a theology which has no pre-Christian precedent is a theology that the earliest Christians are unlikely to have applied to Jesus. And I believe that PSA falls into that category.
I would agree. (As noted, it's sometime after Anselm.) I suspect Calvin is the first thinker who proposed it as a theory in the sense of theory defined in this thread.
(It might be briefly present as one of many metaphors in Isaiah 53. But it certainly never reaches the level of a model.)
(*) See Vanstone, The Stature of Waiting.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Dafyd,
I'll deal with Paul's view of Christ as martyr sometime soon in a new thread (as previously intended), and not sidetrack this one.
quote:
You understand what a vehicle and tenor are? In the standard analysis of metaphor or metonymy or synechdoche, there is the tenor - the thing signified - and then the vehicle - the language used to signify. Thus in a standard example such as 'my lawyer is an old shark': the tenor is a man lacking principles, while the vehicle is a kind of sea fish. The presentation of the vehicle alters the way in which the tenor is taken. It doesn't mean the same as 'my lawyer is an old unprincipled man': we're given a specific handle - our thoughts about a predatory sea-fish - as a handle to take hold of the idea of being unprincipled.
In the same way, language of sacrifice as applied to morality (or indeed, PSA) doesn't just convey thoughts that could be conveyed with less confusion without that language. The image of the animal on the altar is being offered as the right handle to get hold of what acting morally is. It's wrong to see it as just that sacrifice language is being moralised, if you don't recognise also that morality is being sacralised.
Thank you for that clear explanation. I didn't know what vehicle and tenor were, having no background in that area. A clarifying question... When you say that a 'shark' and an 'unprincipled old man' are not the same meaning, are you meaning (1) this is because the difference is that now we have two images in our head - a picture of a shark as well as that of the unprincipled man; or (2) this is because we might take more from the shark metaphor than just 'unprincipled old man', eg I might take the idea of 'sharpness' also, and see the sharp teeth of the shark as a metaphor for the sharpness of mind of the old man and see you as saying that he's not merely unprincipled but sharp too.
I don't mind the implication that morality is being religiousised. As I pointed out earlier to Jessie, the type of sacrificial language almost exclusively used in the NT is purification language (not an 'animal on an altar' per se). Thus it covers things as diverse as talk of 'yeast' (1 Cor 5:7), 'sanctification', 'water' (Eph 5:26) etc and of course 'blood', all substituting in for 'morality'.
Yes I think the early Christians did sacralise and religiousise morality, imbuing it with religious and ritual sacredness. Earlier this week I was reading this work by Irenaeus, and the first line is "Knowing, my beloved Marcianus, your desire to walk in godliness, which alone leads man to life eternal...". I thought that the word 'godliness' well represented what the early Christians did with morality - if the word 'ethics' could be said to be the secular version of the word morality, 'godliness' could be said to be the religious version of it. Early Christianity, being a religion, naturally when it adopted the concept of morality as its core concept, it make it religious and sacred, it made it into 'godliness'. So with that thought in mind, I am with you 100% in agreeing that the religious and sacred nature of the ancient purification rites was being pushed into the concept of morality by the NT and other early Christians who used that ritual language to speak of moral realities.
Jessie Phillips,
quote:
Starlight flags up a work about Maccabean martyr theology in Paul's understanding of Jesus - a work which I haven't read but which I was previously aware of the existence of
As it happens, I wouldn't recommend that particular book, I just happened to be currently reading it and it happened to start with the history of scholarship on Jesus as martyr in Paul's theology.
As I mentioned earlier, I do think Paul's primary category for understanding Jesus' death was martyrdom. I also definitely agree with you (and against Dayfd) that the gospels do also see Jesus as a heroic martyr. Dafyd and I have had this little argument through before though. Personally, I have difficulty seeing how the phrase "take up your cross and follow me", repeated over and over in the gospels, can be interpreted as anything other than a call to martyrdom. FYI, surviving writings about Christian martyrs in the period 100-313AD make it very very clear that they saw Jesus as a martyr and the gospel accounts as martyrdom accounts. They call Christ the supreme martyr, the archetype of martyrdom whom all desire to follow. They express amazement at how the Maccabean Martyrs could have managed to achieve martyrdom without having the inspiring and empowering example of Christ's martyrdom before their eyes to copy.
You are right that sacrifice and heroism can be very messily intertwined with the concept of martyrdom. A martyr is a hero, and a martyrdom is a self-sacrifice and thus warrants description with sacrificial language. Of course, once that sacrificial language is there, it confuses people: People then wonder if the martyr's death not only had the normal psychological effect on those around them (ie how martyrdoms normally work), but perhaps achieved something mystical and magic in the sacred realms like a sacrifice could. ie What started off as purely descriptive and poetic self-sacrificial language ends up mistaken for cosmic explanations of how the martyr's death was really a sacrifice with magical effects.
Origen is a particularly good example of someone who starts barking up this sacrificial-magic tree to no avail. Origen recognizes the basic reality of Jesus as a martyr. But he then goes looking for sacrificial-magical explanations of Jesus' martyrdom. He brings up every parallel he can find from ancient stories of human deaths having mystical effects, looking for a common mechanism, to understand how they worked, and wants apply that to Jesus. But he can find no common mechanism at all, all we get in his writings as a result are totally contradictory examples of Jesus compared to various different mystical-sacrifices. This inability to provide a 'mechanism' is, to my mind, just another good reason for thinking that the mystic-sacrificial language about Jesus was really meaning nothing more than morality and martyrdom. Jesus' self-sacrificial martyrdom could be described using flowery sacrificial language, but was not meant to be understood as working like a sacrifice.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
You are right that sacrifice and heroism can be very messily intertwined with the concept of martyrdom. A martyr is a hero, and a martyrdom is a self-sacrifice and thus warrants description with sacrificial language.
'Sacrifice' in the sense you're using it here is a post-Reformation innovation. (The earliest use the OED records in English is 1706. Yes, English isn't Latin or Greek, but usages from medieval Latin feed through fairly quickly.) It's anachronistic to think that martyrdom is self-sacrifice in any sense that doesn't call for further explanation.
Martyrdom is a self-sacrifice because it already warrants description in sacrificial language. Not the other way around.
[ 30. June 2010, 11:10: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Para 2 The point I was making was that I can readily see a way in which we can separate the sinner from the sin, something that you find problematic. Basically our sinful nature is dealt with by the atonement, whilst our sins are dealt with by forgiveness, which is always, has always been, and will always be (up their demise at the eschaton) dealt with by forgiveness. I agree the hypothetical has no practical realisation, but it is, I think, useful in clarifying the what and the how of the atonement. In treating the two aspects separately, we can see the issues with greater clarity, rather than conflating them. If you cry "foul" then my defence would be that this is just the sort of argument Paul used, in that he has far more to say about our sinful nature than about our sins.
But Paul just doesn't make this distinction. Read something like Romans 5 - there death came to all not because all were sinners but because all sinned.
You have to create this distinction in the mind of Paul for your reading to work. Indeed for your reading you have to show that throughout his thinking he systematically makes this neat division between function and ontology. He just doesn't. Just as B62 would love it, it is far more messy than that.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
para 3 Yes, OK, I guess I did miss out a couple of steps in the argument. I guess the background I needed to fill in a bit was that my perception is that you see the Atonement as essentially a moral act, whereas I am quite happy to see it as a practical solution to a specific problem - how can mortal creatures come to share in the eternal fellowship of the Trinity, and to deal with the moral issues by unconditional forgiveness. Thus this little snip was a reinforcement of what I had written above. Any clearer?
Yes - clearer thanks.
Again a passage like Romans 5 inextricably links the problem of death with the problem of sins as well as sinful nature.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Para 4 My point was not that Paul doesn't mention the cross here, but rather that he explicitly states that human sinfulness is not a block to God's redeeming nature. He dies for us in spite of, rather than because of, our sinfulness (to overstate for emphasis). With regard to reconciliation, surely Paul is saying "because you are reconciled (objective reality) so be reconciled (ie live out that reality practically in your lives). In other words, walk the talk.
I completely agree that most of Paul's ethics hinge around 'be what you are' (in Christ).
However, I think your argument is a case of 'bait and switch' when you apply that general ethic to 2 Corinthians 5. Where as it makes perfect sense to tell someone who has been forgiven to act as if they have been forgiven, it does not make sense to tell someone who has been reconciled to 'be reconciled'. Not if you are using reconciliation in the sense you are.
It makes far more sense, and is a much more natural reading of the text, if Jesus has reconciled God to the Corinthians already and now Paul commands them to be reconciled to God.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Para 5 Well, of course, you aren't doing anything like that, are you
:
Moi?
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Seriously, of course we bring our preconceptions with us to some extent. But I don't think that I've strayed beyond a reasonable and straightforward interpretation of what the scriptures say. What reason do you have for suggesting that the cleansing of the Temple or the cursing of the fig-tree are examples of punishment. In the first case, I suppose you could argue that Jesus' actions were tantamount to a fine, but they hardly amounted to fire from heaven, and the fact that He explained His actions to the money changers is a reasonable indication that he had in mind that they ammend their lives. In the second case, if, as you say, the fig-tree was an analogy for the system of Temple-worship (and I agree it was), then in what sense could we speak of a philosophy or a theological position being "punished"? Destroyed, certainly, even as sin and death will one day be destroyed, but you can only punish moral agents, personalities, if you will, not impersonal systems. Once we start treating systems as if they were personalities, ISTM we are getting close to idolatry.
When the temple was sacked in 70AD it had people in it.
[ 30. June 2010, 14:00: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I suspect Calvin is the first thinker who proposed it as a theory in the sense of theory defined in this thread.
(It might be briefly present as one of many metaphors in Isaiah 53. But it certainly never reaches the level of a model.)
This is the kind of slight of hand that marks out a truly great theologian.
Isaiah 53 does contain both substitutionary and penal elements. Isaiah 53 is directly quoted numerous times in the NT in order to explain the good news of the gospel.... but no, it never reaches the level of a model?
A lucrative career in politics awaits.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Thank you for that clear explanation. I didn't know what vehicle and tenor were, having no background in that area. A clarifying question... When you say that a 'shark' and an 'unprincipled old man' are not the same meaning, are you meaning (1) this is because the difference is that now we have two images in our head - a picture of a shark as well as that of the unprincipled man; or (2) this is because we might take more from the shark metaphor than just 'unprincipled old man', eg I might take the idea of 'sharpness' also, and see the sharp teeth of the shark as a metaphor for the sharpness of mind of the old man and see you as saying that he's not merely unprincipled but sharp too.
The second, pretty much. (Sharp teeth might not correspond to sharpness of mind, but the shark's speed and streamlining might correspond to sharpness of mind.) The metaphor is presenting the lawyer's lack of principles as something that belongs to him by virtue of being of a certain type, predatory, alien, and on its own terms graceful and admirable.
The metaphor presents a way of understanding what is happening. It picks out from the complex set of ideas that we might have about the subject matter a particular set. It then presents that set as the handle with which to take hold of the whole bundle, the ones around which the bundle can be organised.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
(It might be briefly present as one of many metaphors in Isaiah 53. But it certainly never reaches the level of a model.)
This is the kind of slight of hand that marks out a truly great theologian.
Slight: thin.
Sleight: cunning, or nimbleness.
quote:
Isaiah 53 does contain both substitutionary and penal elements. Isaiah 53 is directly quoted numerous times in the NT in order to explain the good news of the gospel.... but no, it never reaches the level of a model?
Isaiah 53 never settles down on any single image long enough for it to become a model. It doesn't stop to dwell on any image; it doesn't elaborate any image. It's not a model.
And saying that it's quoted "to explain" the good news of the gospel is a little tendentious. You'd have to show that it is quoted to explain, rather than quoted to illustrate, or quoted to show an OT precedent to show that the life of Jesus explains it (as with the eunuch in Acts).
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
When the temple was sacked in 70AD it had people in it.
That's what you get for hacking off the Romans, as Jesus repeatedly warned them.
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Without question Isaiah 53 is concerned with punishment.
The theme is there from the first of his writing ( Isa 40)
But is the punishment substitutionary or vicarious?
All the evidence points to vicarious.
Therefore not PSA
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I don't mind the implication that morality is being religiousised. As I pointed out earlier to Jessie, the type of sacrificial language almost exclusively used in the NT is purification language (not an 'animal on an altar' per se). Thus it covers things as diverse as talk of 'yeast' (1 Cor 5:7), 'sanctification', 'water' (Eph 5:26) etc and of course 'blood', all substituting in for 'morality'.
I would disagre. The yeast in 1 Cor 5 is a reaction to a sacrifice, not part of the sacrifice itself. Morality is here just a part of the whole narrative. The yeast of malice and wickedness or the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth are not being used to understand the paschal lamb that has been sacrificed for us. Just because two ideas appear in the same passage doesn't mean that they are to be identified.
quote:
Personally, I have difficulty seeing how the phrase "take up your cross and follow me", repeated over and over in the gospels, can be interpreted as anything other than a call to martyrdom.
As I said, Jesus' death is obviously and frequently invoked in the context of martyrdom.
As you say later, getting it in my view backwards, the language of offering oneself as a sacrifice can be used in the context of martyrdom. But that doesn't show that the martyrdom language is the original way of understanding it. It seems historically unlikely. For a considerable period during the development of the Gospels and during Paul's ministry Christians were not in much danger of martyrdom. Informal persecution and hostility from conservative Jewish groups was a threat, but there's not a lot of martyrs in that period. I'd say that the language of sacrifice in, say, Ignatius is specifically a way of identifying Ignatius' death with Jesus' death so that Christian martyrdom becomes more than just martyrdom.
quote:
This inability to provide a 'mechanism' is, to my mind, just another good reason for thinking that the mystic-sacrificial language about Jesus was really meaning nothing more than morality and martyrdom.
'Mechanism' is very much a post-medieval way of thinking about the world. It's rather anachronistic to expect a classical thinker to go looking for a mechanism.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Isaiah 53 never settles down on any single image long enough for it to become a model. It doesn't stop to dwell on any image; it doesn't elaborate any image. It's not a model.
Just seems like another academic attempt to to excuse refusing to deal with the text.
Of course it is written in classic Hebrew poetry - with all its parallelism. No one is claiming that it is a doctrine textbook. Nevertheless it is a fairly lengthy passage with themes that occur and re-occur.
I'm not reading anything from you other than your attempt to dismiss it because it doesn't fit with your a priori assumptions.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
And saying that it's quoted "to explain" the good news of the gospel is a little tendentious. You'd have to show that it is quoted to explain, rather than quoted to illustrate, or quoted to show an OT precedent to show that the life of Jesus explains it (as with the eunuch in Acts).
Well, you did ask for it ...
quote:
Then Philip began with that very passage of Scripture and told him the good news about Jesus.
Acts 8: 35
Philip did not pick up the conversation at Isaiah 53 and quickly move on. Beginning with Isaiah 53 Philip told him the good news about Jesus. Clearly Philip thought that Isaiah 53 --> Jesus.
Now that doesn't prove that Philip used Isaiah 53 to explain a PSA version of the gospel but it what it very clearly demonstrates is that Isaiah 53 was key to the early church's understanding of the gospel. And hence your attempts to sweep Isaiah 53 under the carpet need to be seen in that light.
Any attempt to explain the gospel which ignores Isaiah 53 fails the most basic tests of catholicity.
quote:
To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps. "He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth." When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly. He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed. For you were like sheep going astray, but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls.
1 Peter 2: 21-25
What is fascinating about this passage is that the context is Moral Exemplar. Peter is talking about following the example of Jesus. And yet in the context of example Peter, rather unnecessarily it seems, draws out other things from Isaiah 53 ... other than the example of being silent when unjustly treated:
1. The context is punishment, not just discipline (pace JJ). It makes no sense to talk about unjust discipline.
2. He bizarrely also quotes 'by his stripes we are healed'. What on earth has that got to do with Moral Exemplar? Or indeed what has it got to do with his argument in that section at all?
I could go on ... Paul quotes from Isaiah 53 too (not to do with the atonement but it shows that it was a passage quoted by almost all NT writers.)
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
When the temple was sacked in 70AD it had people in it.
That's what you get for hacking off the Romans, as Jesus repeatedly warned them.
The one teeny-weeny problem with that JJ is that if you read, for example, Mark 11-13, the number of times that Jesus explains that the coming judgment is because of annoying the Romans is nil, zero, zip.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Without question Isaiah 53 is concerned with punishment.
The theme is there from the first of his writing ( Isa 40)
But is the punishment substitutionary or vicarious?
All the evidence points to vicarious.
Therefore not PSA
What translation are you using?
"he took up our infirmities" ... "the LORD has laid on him the iniquity of us all" etc.
The thing is that the Great Isaiah scroll from Qumran means that we can be pretty sure about the Masoretic text.
It does exactly what it says on the tin.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
I think Isaiah 53 is another example of what I call the "faithful remnant" model, exemplified primarily by the Maccabean Martyrs. If anyone can come up with a better name for it, I am all ears. It is very close to the "Satisfaction" model, but I am hesitant to label it that.
It's a pattern centered around honour/shame concepts. What happens is this:
(1) Some large proportion (eg majority) of a group (eg Israel) is unfaithful to God and offends God publicly by their actions, dishonoring him.
(2) God is socially obligated to act in public retribution to restore his lost honor through punishing the offenders. This is called "wrath". Emotional anger is optional.
(3) God punishes the offenders. The entire group suffers his punishment, including the proportion of the group who did not act to offend God.
(4) This punishment provides an opportunity for those in the group faithful to God to publicly demonstrate their faithfulness. Their steadfast obedience and loyalty during this time of suffering and testing becomes a public demonstration of their faithfulness and honors God.
(5)(a) God is socially obligated to respond to the faithfulness of his servants with public favour toward them and the group they are part of.
(b) He is socially obligated also to respond favourably to any request they make (eg that the time of punishment cease).
(c) Also the public honour that these faithful do to him balances the dishonour previously done, removing his previous obligation to be wrathful.
(d) The example set by these faithful inspires repentence within the remainder of the group, and they turn again to God. God is obligated to respond favourably to this, with a cessation of wrath.
(6) God responds favourably, bringing the time of punishment to an end.
That is pretty clearly the pattern followed in the Maccabean Martyr accounts. I believe it is also the pattern followed in Isaiah 53. I think Isaiah 53 is set in the Exile in Babylon. The Exile is seen as a punishment on Israel as a result of many in Israel sinning. The Exile gives the faithful remnant (the true 'Servant' few within the supposed "Servant" Israel) a chance to demonstrate their faithfulness. People around them laugh, thinking their faithfulness foolish, since their 'God' has abandoned them to exile in a foreign land. But in fact it is their faithfulness that brings to an end God's wrath against Israel. God then acts to restore Israel's fortunes.
Thus to sum up: The guilty sin. The innocent faithful remnant suffer the punishment of the guilty along with the guilty. Though this they are able to demonstrate their faithfulness. That faithfulness brings to an end the punishment and restores God's favour toward the group. That seems to me to be clearly the logic behind the Maccabean Martyr accounts, and seems to me likely the logic behind Isa 53. One of the few disagreements I have with Brondos's excellent work is that I don't think this theology is applicable to Jesus.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
(3) God punishes the offenders. The entire group suffers his punishment, including the proportion of the group who did not act to offend God.
Where does it say that in Isaiah 53?
If you are going to interpret the Servant as a 'group' (which is entirely possibly since it is often used in Isaiah to stand for the nation of Israel) you still end up tying yourselves up in knots working out the us/him and we/them of the passage.
Modern Jews try to get around this by saying that it is the Gentile nations speaking here. Of course the rather major problem is that there is absolutely no textual evidence to suggest it.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Starlight: Jesus' self-sacrificial martyrdom could be described using flowery sacrificial language, but was not meant to be understood as working like a sacrifice.
So what do you do with verses from Paul such as 1Cor 5:7?
"Purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, as you are unleavened. For even Christ, our passover is sacrificed for us."
The images of leaven suggests, as always, sin and guess what cures it? Christ's sacrificial death of which Paul clearly sees the passover as a type.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The images of leaven suggests, as always, sin
Another parable spake he unto them; The kingdom of heaven is like unto leaven, which a woman took, and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
So what do you do with verses from Paul such as 1Cor 5:7?
"Purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, as you are unleavened. For even Christ, our passover is sacrificed for us."
The images of leaven suggests, as always, sin and guess what cures it? Christ's sacrificial death of which Paul clearly sees the passover as a type.
Mousethief is right, of course, but even with regard to the 1 Cor passage, what Paul seems to be talking about is an approach to participating in the Passover- sacrifice and all - preceded by a throwing out of the old leaven by us. As far as I'm aware, unleavened bread isn't made by starting with leavened, and sacrificing lambs!
And isn't the dominant typology here Exodus?
I know. I said I wouldn't post on this thread any more. I lied. Does that make me a bad person?
And yet ![[Hot and Hormonal]](icon_redface.gif)
[ 01. July 2010, 07:41: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
And hence your attempts to sweep Isaiah 53 under the carpet need to be seen in that light.
Who was the first person in this thread to mention Isaiah? Funny way of sweeping something under the carpet, that.
quote:
Now that doesn't prove that Philip used Isaiah 53 to explain a PSA version of the gospel
quote:
Paul quotes from Isaiah 53 too (not to do with the atonement but it shows that it was a passage quoted by almost all NT writers.)
So the NT writers don't use the passage to explain a PSA version of the Gospel, and this proves that they understood the passage as promoting a PSA version of the Gospel?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
So the NT writers don't use the passage to explain a PSA version of the Gospel, and this proves that they understood the passage as promoting a PSA version of the Gospel?
Did you read what I said?
1. A passage like Acts 8 doesn't tell you anything about how Isaiah 53 was used. But it does tell you that it was foundational to their understanding of the gospel. Hence you've got to look carefully at Isaiah 53 to see what it says. I notice with interest that all the rather lame and half-hearted attempts to make Isaiah 53 say what it plainly doesn't have rather quickly run out of puff.
2. 1 Peter 2 does very clearly read PSA into Isaiah 53. That fact that Peter talks about Christ's stripes healing us in a passage about example only serves to highlight and strengthen it. Clearly Christ's death has achieved something objective out of which this behaviour flows.
3. If you want me to I'm very happy to go through all the other times the NT directly quotes Isaiah 53 ... and then I can move on to all the times it is alluded to.
[ 01. July 2010, 22:57: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Clearly Christ's death has achieved something objective out of which this behaviour flows.
This is necessary for PSA but not sufficient. Other atonement models believe this but aren't PSA. Hergo, this passage does not read PSA in Isa 53.
"We have to look at what Isaiah 53 says" rather implies a lot of unspoken assumptions. Like, we can determine what Isaiah 53 says independent of the NT witness. There is only one thing Isaiah 53 says, and it is easily determinable and universally agreed-upon. And so forth. None of which are true.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I notice with interest that all the rather lame and half-hearted attempts to make Isaiah 53 say what it plainly doesn't have rather quickly run out of puff.
Alright Johnny, if you want to go there, let's go there.
There is a lot of scholarly debate about what Isaiah 53 was meant to mean by the original author. The major troubles seem to be that the identity of the Servant is not clear, and the precise logic of what happened to the servant is not very unambiguously spelled out.
(1) Of the various interpretations I have seen suggested of the original meaning of Isa 53 I would rank the following top four in order of most to least likely:
(i) It refers to the faithful remnant during the Exile in Babylon, as described in detail in my earlier post.
(ii) It refers to Israel as God's Servant among the nations, suffering for doing God's will.
(iii) It speaks of a particular prophet whose ministry involves a lot of suffering as he works to do God's will.
(iv) It speaks of PSA.
All of these views have their pros and cons. As you point out, even for what I consider the most likely interpretation there are pieces of logic that the author doesn't spell out clearly. However it has the advantage of being a known Jewish paradigm spelled out clearly in the Maccabean Martyr accounts.
(2) As has been discussed on this thread already (or one of the recent PSA threads) the Greek version of Isa 53 lends itself to a PSA interpretation way less than the Hebrew version does.
(a) This suggests that the LXX translators did not understanding it to be speaking of PSA. This implies that a PSA interpretation was not the standard reading among Jews at that time.
(b) The NT writers and later Christians used the LXX as their bible. Hence they used a version of Isa 53 which did not lend itself well to a PSA interpretation, suggesting they would not have seen PSA in it.
(3) The New Testament totally fails to use Isaiah 53 that implies the writers saw it teaching PSA. In no way do they expand on or use the text in a way that implies PSA. The idea that the Servant "took away our sinfulness" (aka "bore our sins") is used in the gospels to refer to Jesus' healings of diseases. The most PSA-like part of Isa 53 is only quoted once in the entire NT, and as you have already pointed out that it is in a section all about Moral Examplar - with moral examples before it and moral examples after it. Hardly a stunning demonstration that Peter saw Isa 53 as PSA! This usage far more implies that he saw it as talking about a moral example.
(4) According to Markshies article in this book, the most common use of Isa 53 in the first couple of centuries of post-biblical Christianity was in Martyr texts to speak of martyrdom. Since the early Christian martyrs were not seen as a penal substitutionary atonement, the primary use of Isa 53 to refer to them implies an widespread belief that Isa 53 talked about martyrdom not PSA.
In summary, I find the argument that Isa 53 teaches PSA and therefore Jesus was a penal substitute to be entirely lacking in merit.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The images of leaven suggests, as always, sin
Another parable spake he unto them; The kingdom of heaven is like unto leaven, which a woman took, and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened.
Certainly, an interesting image. Leaven is not directly a type of sin here as it is in most other scripture.
The parables of the kingdom are fascinating on many fronts but seem to be more intelligible when read all together. maybe this is more a Kerg topic but ISTM they are founded on the parable of the sower and seem to suggest a kind of eschatological progression in which the kingdom, itself an ambivalent term, becomes a mixture, corrupted as it were. So one sees things like the tares and wheat and of couse leaven. Seen this way the leaven is possibly still an indicator of undesirable mixture.
Probably a tangent for this thread.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Jamat: quote:
So what do you do with verses from Paul such as 1Cor 5:7?
"Purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, as you are unleavened. For even Christ, our passover is sacrificed for us."
The images of leaven suggests, as always, sin and guess what cures it? Christ's sacrificial death of which Paul clearly sees the passover as a type.
Mousethief is right, of course, but even with regard to the 1 Cor passage, what Paul seems to be talking about is an approach to participating in the Passover- sacrifice and all - preceded by a throwing out of the old leaven by us. As far as I'm aware, unleavened bread isn't made by starting with leavened, and sacrificing lambs!
And isn't the dominant typology here Exodus?
I know. I said I wouldn't post on this thread any more. I lied. Does that make me a bad person?
And yet
Translation: This text doesn't say what it should so let's force it to do so.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Translation: This text doesn't say what it should so let's force it to do so.
How ironic! That's just what your bizarre exegesis of the parable of the leaven made me think! The scripture clearly says, the kingdom of heaven is like leaven. Not the kingdom of heaven is like a lump of dough into which leaven has been introduced. The kingdom of heaven is like the leaven that is worked into the dough. It's not the parable of the tares, and can't be made to resemble it without grave damage to the text. It just doesn't say what you want it to.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Starlight:There is a lot of scholarly debate about what Isaiah 53 was meant to mean by the original author. The major troubles seem to be that the identity of the Servant is not clear, and the precise logic of what happened to the servant is not very unambiguously spelled out.
(1) Of the various interpretations I have seen suggested of the original meaning of Isa 53 I would rank the following top four in order of most to least likely:
(i) It refers to the faithful remnant during the Exile in Babylon, as described in detail in my earlier post.
(ii) It refers to Israel as God's Servant among the nations, suffering for doing God's will.
(iii) It speaks of a particular prophet whose ministry involves a lot of suffering as he works to do God's will.
(iv) It speaks of PSA.
The fact that the servant is spoken of in the singular rather precludes the Rabbis'view that the servant was Israel. They have rather a large vested interest in eliminating Christ as the one referred to.
The fact that the servant was a man, was God's appointed one, was rejected by men, was esteemed smitten by God, was said to bare the iniquities of all, was seen as a sacrificial lamb,was buried in a rich man's tomb while being killed with wicked men,was scourged,was pierced, willingly submitted to his ordeal and is promised a future position of greatness, would suggest that you are totally misguided in your conclusion.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Translation: This text doesn't say what it should so let's force it to do so.
How ironic! That's just what your bizarre exegesis of the parable of the leaven made me think! The scripture clearly says, the kingdom of heaven is like leaven. Not the kingdom of heaven is like a lump of dough into which leaven has been introduced. The kingdom of heaven is like the leaven that is worked into the dough. It's not the parable of the tares, and can't be made to resemble it without grave damage to the text. It just doesn't say what you want it to.
Fine, dear chap, I have always tended to see those parables as working together as all. To me there is little question of the general typological significance of leaven in the Bible.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Eisegesis has a long and well-attested history. No need to be ashamed.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The fact that the servant is spoken of in the singular rather precludes the Rabbis' view that the servant was Israel. They have rather a large vested interest in eliminating Christ as the one referred to.
I didn't discuss post-Christian Jewish exegesis of the passage because, like you, I think that post-Christian Jewish exegesis has too much at stake to be unbiased.
However, the Servant is repeatedly identified as Israel explicitly throughout Isaiah. Referring to Israel in the singular as the Servant is done repeatedly throughout Isaiah, so the fact that Isaiah 53 speaks of the servant in the singular means nothing against it being Israel. It is not a long-shot to say Israel is the Servant, because Isaiah repeatedly says Israel is the servant. However in the lead up to Isa 53 there is a somewhat confusing passage which seems to indicate the identity of the servant under discussion has changed. That is about the only good reason to think that the Servant isn't Israel. My best interpretation of it is that the 'Servant' under discussion has moved from 'faithful Israel' to the 'core faithful remnant within Israel'.
quote:
The fact that the servant was a man, was God's appointed one, was rejected by men, was esteemed smitten by God, was said to bare the iniquities of all, was seen as a sacrificial lamb,was buried in a rich man's tomb while being killed with wicked men,was scourged,was pierced, willingly submitted to his ordeal and is promised a future position of greatness, would suggest that you are totally misguided in your conclusion.
You are cherry-picking, and twisting what is said in the passage, and resolving ambiguities in a way convenient to you, all in order to make Isa 53 have a more-obvious identification with Jesus than it really has. It is not manifestly obvious that the writer meant it as a prophesy of a particular single future individual. Christian usage of the passage in Martyrdom texts suggests they saw it as depicting a martyr-pattern rather than referring solely to Jesus. If they saw it as a specific prophesy of Jesus alone they would not have applied it to Christian martyrs.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The fact that the servant is spoken of in the singular rather precludes the Rabbis' view that the servant was Israel. They have rather a large vested interest in eliminating Christ as the one referred to.
I didn't discuss post-Christian Jewish exegesis of the passage because, like you, I think that post-Christian Jewish exegesis has too much at stake to be unbiased.
However, the Servant is repeatedly identified as Israel explicitly throughout Isaiah. Referring to Israel in the singular as the Servant is done repeatedly throughout Isaiah, so the fact that Isaiah 53 speaks of the servant in the singular means nothing against it being Israel. It is not a long-shot to say Israel is the Servant, because Isaiah repeatedly says Israel is the servant. However in the lead up to Isa 53 there is a somewhat confusing passage which seems to indicate the identity of the servant under discussion has changed. That is about the only good reason to think that the Servant isn't Israel. My best interpretation of it is that the 'Servant' under discussion has moved from 'faithful Israel' to the 'core faithful remnant within Israel'.
quote:
The fact that the servant was a man, was God's appointed one, was rejected by men, was esteemed smitten by God, was said to bare the iniquities of all, was seen as a sacrificial lamb,was buried in a rich man's tomb while being killed with wicked men,was scourged,was pierced, willingly submitted to his ordeal and is promised a future position of greatness, would suggest that you are totally misguided in your conclusion.
You are cherry-picking, and twisting what is said in the passage, and resolving ambiguities in a way convenient to you, all in order to make Isa 53 have a more-obvious identification with Jesus than it really has. It is not manifestly obvious that the writer meant it as a prophesy of a particular single future individual. Christian usage of the passage in Martyrdom texts suggests they saw it as depicting a martyr-pattern rather than referring solely to Jesus. If they saw it as a specific prophesy of Jesus alone they would not have applied it to Christian martyrs.
Correct me please but ISTM no serious Christian Bible scholar doubts this prophecy refers to Christ.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
Correct me please but ISTM no serious Christian Bible scholar doubts this prophecy refers to Christ.
I don't see how any competent post C19 Biblical scholar, Christian or otherwise, could assert that, in straightforward terms.
[ 02. July 2010, 05:10: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
"We have to look at what Isaiah 53 says" rather implies a lot of unspoken assumptions. Like, we can determine what Isaiah 53 says independent of the NT witness.
I never said that we can determine the message of Isaiah 53 independent of the NT. What I said is that, in passages like Acts 8 where Isaiah is quoted as being a prophecy about Jesus, it is not explained how it points to Jesus and so we need to back to look at Isaiah 53.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
There is only one thing Isaiah 53 says, and it is easily determinable and universally agreed-upon. And so forth. None of which are true.
I never said that either. Rather I was referring to that lazy type of scholarship, which is extremely prevalent, that says 'this passage says lots of things and therefore it doesn't say X'.
You do realise that saying that Isaiah 53 contains PSA is not the same as saying that Isaiah 53 only contains PSA don't you?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S:
quote:
I was referring to that lazy type of scholarship, which is extremely prevalent, that says 'this passage says lots of things and therefore it doesn't say X'.
I think I'd ask about the sense in which you are using "says" here.
When I preach on Isaiah 53, I certainly want to allow it to illuminate the Christian understanding of Christ, in which clearly it is asignificant component. When I taught it as a Hebrew, or an Englist OT, text, in a university context, that whole area was just a part of the background - historical exegesis and reception. If I had taught Acts 8, which I never did, I would certainly have raised issues of early Christian exegesis, the historical exegesis issues would have been quite different, and I'd certainly have approached the Septuagint (hi there, Mousethief! See what I did there?) with a different sort of emphasis, not necessarily primarily as a witness to the text.
And it's different again when I listen to a performance of the Messiah at home. And different again when it's performed at our church.
I think the difficulty arises from the preconception that the meaning is "in" the text, and that the text "says" one thing. The operation of Scripture in Church is much richer than that. Calvin talks about the "testimonium internum Spiritu Sancti" as a vital component in Christian hearing of the Scriptures.
Context is hugely important.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I notice with interest that all the rather lame and half-hearted attempts to make Isaiah 53 say what it plainly doesn't have rather quickly run out of puff.
Alright Johnny, if you want to go there, let's go there.
As an aside I'm sometimes pulled up on the ship for my abrasive and argumentative style. However, in my defence, I have learnt that it is often the only way to get people to answer in a multiple way conversation. When I simply ask questions they are often ignored, but when I appeal to people's vanity by gently mocking their answers people almost always reply. This is not a comment about you - just a sudden moment of self-realisation on my behalf.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
There is a lot of scholarly debate about what Isaiah 53 was meant to mean by the original author. The major troubles seem to be that the identity of the Servant is not clear, and the precise logic of what happened to the servant is not very unambiguously spelled out.
(1) Of the various interpretations I have seen suggested of the original meaning of Isa 53 I would rank the following top four in order of most to least likely:
(i) It refers to the faithful remnant during the Exile in Babylon, as described in detail in my earlier post.
(ii) It refers to Israel as God's Servant among the nations, suffering for doing God's will.
(iii) It speaks of a particular prophet whose ministry involves a lot of suffering as he works to do God's will.
(iv) It speaks of PSA.
Why can't it be a combination of those answers? I'd say it was all of the last three. I fail to see who demonstrating, for example, that Isaiah meant (i) changes the discussion over atonement models to any significant degree. The fact of the matter is that the NT church applied this category of suffering servant to Jesus.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
(2) As has been discussed on this thread already (or one of the recent PSA threads) the Greek version of Isa 53 lends itself to a PSA interpretation way less than the Hebrew version does.
(a) This suggests that the LXX translators did not understanding it to be speaking of PSA. This implies that a PSA interpretation was not the standard reading among Jews at that time.
(b) The NT writers and later Christians used the LXX as their bible. Hence they used a version of Isa 53 which did not lend itself well to a PSA interpretation, suggesting they would not have seen PSA in it.
As it happens I had to preach on the servant passage from Isaiah 52-53 a few weeks ago. Knowing all the controversy over it I spent a considerable amount of time comparing:
1. The MT (not mousethief btw, there was one before him)
2. The Great Isaiah scroll from Qumran.
3. The LXX.
Of course I'm biased and no doubt when looking for PSA but even I was surprised by how little evidence there is for what you have suggested above.
First of all the LXX - yes the LXX is different to the MT. However, way less evidence for PSA is simply not true. Arguably less but I'd be very happy to preach PSA from the LXX. We are not talking about one verse here that can be wiped out by a variant reading. The LXX certainly does not remove all of PSA from the chapter.
Secondly, and very significantly there is the Great Isaiah scroll. An entire scroll of Isaiah so it is very useful to compare with the MT. And remember this has been dated to at least a century before Christ. Do you now how many differences there are? Apart from a few variant spellings the only difference is the addition of 'light [of life]' in Isaiah 53: 11.
That's it.
Your argument simply does not stack up.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
(3) The New Testament totally fails to use Isaiah 53 that implies the writers saw it teaching PSA. In no way do they expand on or use the text in a way that implies PSA. The idea that the Servant "took away our sinfulness" (aka "bore our sins") is used in the gospels to refer to Jesus' healings of diseases. The most PSA-like part of Isa 53 is only quoted once in the entire NT, and as you have already pointed out that it is in a section all about Moral Examplar - with moral examples before it and moral examples after it. Hardly a stunning demonstration that Peter saw Isa 53 as PSA! This usage far more implies that he saw it as talking about a moral example.
You are not being fair to 1 Peter 2 here. Although, as I have said already, the main application of the passage is about using Jesus as an example, that is not what Peter actually says. 2000 years of Christian tradition has blinded us to what Peter actually says.
He doesn't just say 'copy Jesus'. Nor does he just say 'copy the suffering servant of Isaiah'.
No. He says 'copy Jesus who is the suffering servant of Isaiah' - i.e. he is assuming that Jesus fulfils the pattern of Isaiah 53. In which case it is really bizarre to say to these early Christians 'follow the example of Jesus because we know that his 'wounds' produced healing. Are you seriously suggesting that Peter's point is that if suffer silently that we will be able to miraculously heal people like Jesus did?
Instead the Greek word for 'heal' has much wider connotations. (In fact its synonym 'sozo' can mean save or heal). Jesus himself used physical healing as a metaphor for religious / spiritual conversion (e.g. Mark 2: 17).
1 Peter 2 is about moral example but it does terrible violence to the text if you claim that is all Peter saw in Isaiah 53.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
(4) According to Markshies article in this book, the most common use of Isa 53 in the first couple of centuries of post-biblical Christianity was in Martyr texts to speak of martyrdom. Since the early Christian martyrs were not seen as a penal substitutionary atonement, the primary use of Isa 53 to refer to them implies an widespread belief that Isa 53 talked about martyrdom not PSA.
This argument only works if it is only possible to have only one atonement model.
It's rather like saying that analogies only work if they are exactly the same in every degree. Of course if they really were then there'd be no need for analogies!
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
So the NT writers don't use the passage to explain a PSA version of the Gospel, and this proves that they understood the passage as promoting a PSA version of the Gospel?
Did you read what I said?
I did. I feel that is a courtesy you haven't yet extended me.
quote:
1. A passage like Acts 8 doesn't tell you anything about how Isaiah 53 was used. But it does tell you that it was foundational to their understanding of the gospel.
I have not yet suggested it wasn't central to the NT understanding of the Gospel. Perhaps you should start reading my posts?
The question is, why are you trying so hard to argue something nobody is disagreeing with?
quote:
Hence you've got to look carefully at Isaiah 53 to see what it says. I notice with interest that all the rather lame and half-hearted attempts to make Isaiah 53 say what it plainly doesn't have rather quickly run out of puff.
If you want to resort to insult and insinuation in lieu of argument there is a board on which you can do that.
Let's have a look at Isaiah 53:4-12;
quote:
4: surely he has borne our infirmities and carried our diseases; yet we accounted him stricken, struck down by God, and afflicted.
Bearing someone's disease is not a penal metaphor at all. The suggestion that it is punishment from God is the false assumption of the speaker.
quote:
5: But he was wounded for our transgressions, crushed for our iniquities; upon him was the punishment that made us whole, and by his bruises are we healed.
The first half of this verse is in isolation a fairly good statement of PSA. However, then it starts talking about the punishment 'making us whole' and the bruises 'healing'. Healing and making whole are not penal metaphors: we've gone back to the health and disease frame of verse 4.
quote:
6: All we like sheep have gone astray; we have all turned to our own way, and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.
A sheep might get killed because it's gone astray, but that's not punishment. The second half of the verse is probably a metonymy for 'the punishment due the iniquity', but could also be 'the consequences following on from the iniquity'. If someone commits a crime against me, I suffered their iniquity in a straightforward sense.
quote:
7:
Nothing about substitution or punishment in this verse. It's obviously of considerable importance to the way the passion narratives are written in the gospels. But a lamb led to the slaughter is not being punished.
quote:
8: By a perversion of justice he was taken away. Who could have imagined his future? For he was cut off from the land of the living, stricken for the transgression of my people.
Saying he was 'stricken for the transgression of my people' is susceptible to a PSA reading. On the other hand, it's described as a 'perversion of justice' - which may be how detractors of PSA think of it, but isn't a description that would be accepted by PSA's advocates. There's nothing to rule out the entire people being punished alongside the servant in this verse.
quote:
9:
No punishment or substitution here. If anything, substitution is actively denied. The wicked and the rich have been killed along with the servant.
quote:
10: Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him with pain. When you make his life an offering for sin, he shall see his offspring and prolong his days; through him the will of the Lord shall prosper.
This is sacrifice imagery, not punishment imagery. The animal that is killed in a sin offering is not punished.
quote:
11: Out of his anguish he shall see light: he shall find satisfaction through his knowledge. The righteous one, my servant, shall make many righteous, and he shall bear their iniquities.
This is about sanctification not justification, or so it would appear.
quote:
12: Therefore I will allot him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he poured out himself to death, and was numbered with the transgressors; yet he bore the sins of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
This seems to imply the satisfaction or similar model that Starlight has been talking about. The servant seems to have earned the right to make intercession by his undeserved suffering. There is no suggestion that works by substitution.
So the first time PSA type imagery is introduced it is immediately converted to healing/wounds imagery. And it isn't developed to any greater extent in any of the following verses. There's no grounds in the passage for picking out only the PSA imagery, rather than the sacrifice imagery or the health-healing imagery or the intercession imagery, and turning it into a worked out model.
quote:
2. 1 Peter 2 does very clearly read PSA into Isaiah 53. That fact that Peter talks about Christ's stripes healing us in a passage about example only serves to highlight and strengthen it. Clearly Christ's death has achieved something objective out of which this behaviour flows.
This use of 'very clearly' to mean 'not' is something I was not previously familiar with. Talking about Christ's stripes healing us has no place in PSA. PSA means penal substitutionary atonement; not healing atonement.
The passage seems to me clearly about sanctification not justification. Jesus bore our sins - not the punishment due our sins - and we are freed from our sins to live for righteousness - not freed from the punishment due our sins. The passage leading up to this has been about us receiving undeserved punishment. It's not about us being spared punishment.
So to conclude:
1. You say I'm denying that Isaiah 53 is relevant to the NT.
I have said nothing of the sort.
2. You say Isaiah 53 is consistently about PSA.
It isn't.
3. You say 1 Peter 2 is about justification not substitition.
It isn't.
4. You say 1 Peter 2 is about being spared deserved punishment, not about suffering undeserved punishment.
It isn't.
And if in your reply you find yourself using weasel phrases - such as 'slight of hand'(sic) or 'lame and half-hearted' or 'academic attempt to excuse refusing to deal with the text' or 'attempt to dismiss it' or 'attempts to sweep Isaiah 53 under the carpet' - please take them to a board in which I can respond to them as they deserve.
[ 02. July 2010, 14:45: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
(hi there, Mousethief! See what I did there?)
Mentioned the LXX?
I'm sure I deserve your jeering sarcasm, but can't see exactly how, in this instance.
[ 02. July 2010, 16:40: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Eisegesis has a long and well-attested history. No need to be ashamed.
So, how do you see the leaven concept in scripture?
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Jamat: quote:
Correct me please but ISTM no serious Christian Bible scholar doubts this prophecy refers to Christ.
I don't see how any competent post C19 Biblical scholar, Christian or otherwise, could assert that, in straightforward terms.
Perhaps I should add the word 'evangelical' to the the 'Christian Bible Scholar'.
I find it hard to see how you can reject Christ's death as God's 'just' way of dealing with human sin.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Eisegesis has a long and well-attested history. No need to be ashamed.
So, how do you see the leaven concept in scripture?
I don't see it as a single concept. Sometimes it's used as a metaphor for one thing, sometimes for another.
In the Seder meal, and throughout the season of Passover, leaven is not given up because it's evil. It's given up as a symbol of the haste with which the Israelites left Egypt. (You don't give up and then take back up things that are evil -- you give them up for good!)
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
4: surely he has borne our infirmities and carried our diseases; yet we accounted him stricken, struck down by God, and afflicted.
Bearing someone's disease is not a penal metaphor at all. The suggestion that it is punishment from God is the false assumption of the speaker.
What on earth is that?
If you think the writer is mistaken about God's action that is fine by me, but it is an entirely different matter. How has saying 'the speaker got it wrong here' got anything to do with whether PSA is in the text or not?
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
5: But he was wounded for our transgressions, crushed for our iniquities; upon him was the punishment that made us whole, and by his bruises are we healed.
The first half of this verse is in isolation a fairly good statement of PSA. However, then it starts talking about the punishment 'making us whole' and the bruises 'healing'. Healing and making whole are not penal metaphors: we've gone back to the health and disease frame of verse 4.
When was the last time you went to your GP and instead of offering drugs he/she suggested hitting you to make it better? Of course it is a metaphor of healing but it is inextricably linked to punishment in the writers' mind. I don't see how this can be disputed.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
6: All we like sheep have gone astray; we have all turned to our own way, and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.
A sheep might get killed because it's gone astray, but that's not punishment. The second half of the verse is probably a metonymy for 'the punishment due the iniquity', but could also be 'the consequences following on from the iniquity'. If someone commits a crime against me, I suffered their iniquity in a straightforward sense.
I agree that both readings are possible from the text but your reading leaves you with greater problems. If your reading is correct then it stresses even more that it is the LORD punishing him (and not us). And again it is a huge cop out to simply say that the writer was mistaken - he may or may not be mistaken but we are discussing what he is saying, not what he should have said.
The whole we/him language really does cause much, much more problems with your reading.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
7:
Nothing about substitution or punishment in this verse. It's obviously of considerable importance to the way the passion narratives are written in the gospels. But a lamb led to the slaughter is not being punished.
How can an Israelite not read substitution in a lamb being lead to slaughter? Maybe not punishment but this verse surely has sacrificial undertones?
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
8: By a perversion of justice he was taken away. Who could have imagined his future? For he was cut off from the land of the living, stricken for the transgression of my people.
Saying he was 'stricken for the transgression of my people' is susceptible to a PSA reading. On the other hand, it's described as a 'perversion of justice' - which may be how detractors of PSA think of it, but isn't a description that would be accepted by PSA's advocates. There's nothing to rule out the entire people being punished alongside the servant in this verse.
Come on, this is special pleading. 'Susceptible to a PSA reading' sounds a lot like it is a natural reading but you don't have to read it that way. Which hardly adds anything to the debate.
(BTW The fact that Jesus was innocent (and human justice was perverted is a fundamental plank to PSA and so causes no problems here.)
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
10: Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him with pain. When you make his life an offering for sin, he shall see his offspring and prolong his days; through him the will of the Lord shall prosper.
This is sacrifice imagery, not punishment imagery. The animal that is killed in a sin offering is not punished.
And? It is clearly substitution imagery. Don't forget that Starlight (and others) are attacking the S as well as the P. Therefore how you view this verse will depend on how you understand Leviticus 16 and the sacrificial system.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
12: Therefore I will allot him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he poured out himself to death, and was numbered with the transgressors; yet he bore the sins of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
This seems to imply the satisfaction or similar model that Starlight has been talking about. The servant seems to have earned the right to make intercession by his undeserved suffering. There is no suggestion that works by substitution.
Why should there be? This verse could be taken in all sorts of ways. 'Bearing the sins of many' certainly does suggest substitution. I agree that it doesn't have to mean that, but that is not the same as saying that it means something else.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
So the first time PSA type imagery is introduced it is immediately converted to healing/wounds imagery. And it isn't developed to any greater extent in any of the following verses. There's no grounds in the passage for picking out only the PSA imagery, rather than the sacrifice imagery or the health-healing imagery or the intercession imagery, and turning it into a worked out model.
I am amazed that you cannot see the irony of this paragraph. This thread is about whether or not PSA claims to be the only atonement model. And here you are saying that in Isaiah 53 one analogy has trump all others and squeeze everything into one model.
I've never claimed that PSA is all that is in Isaiah 53. All I'm claiming is that it clearly is in there. I've no idea why health-healing imagery has to absorb punishment imagery. Surely the text has all sorts of images and we need to listen to all of them?
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
2. 1 Peter 2 does very clearly read PSA into Isaiah 53. That fact that Peter talks about Christ's stripes healing us in a passage about example only serves to highlight and strengthen it. Clearly Christ's death has achieved something objective out of which this behaviour flows.
This use of 'very clearly' to mean 'not' is something I was not previously familiar with. Talking about Christ's stripes healing us has no place in PSA. PSA means penal substitutionary atonement; not healing atonement.
The passage seems to me clearly about sanctification not justification. Jesus bore our sins - not the punishment due our sins - and we are freed from our sins to live for righteousness - not freed from the punishment due our sins. The passage leading up to this has been about us receiving undeserved punishment. It's not about us being spared punishment.
You are doing the same to 1 Peter 2 that you did to Isaiah 53 - since when did physical healing come about through the punishment of an innocent man? You have conceded that the context is all about being punished (either justly or unjustly) and Peter quotes Jesus as an example of a just man suffering unjust punishment - but then quotes Isaiah 53 not just to focus on the way he endured the punishment but also that healing came about as a result of that.
Indeed the way Peter quotes Isaiah 53 even strengthens it. In his version it is not 'stripes', instead Peter uses the singular ... "by the wounding / beating of whom you have been healed'. The singular only serving to strengthen the sense that it was the punishment of Christ that brought our healing.
The fact that healing language is used makes no difference to the fact that it comes about through punishment.
To conclude: I have never claimed PSA, however both Isaiah 53 and 1 Peter 2 do very clearly have PSA elements in them. No one (yet) has been able to provide any clear evidence to the contrary.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
To conclude: I have never claimed PSA, however both Isaiah 53 and 1 Peter 2 do very clearly have PSA elements in them. No one (yet) has been able to provide any clear evidence to the contrary.
Oops, that should be '... never claimed PSA only.' ![[Hot and Hormonal]](icon_redface.gif)
[ 03. July 2010, 04:40: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
I find it hard to see how you can reject Christ's death as God's 'just' way of dealing with human sin.
Well, this is the nub of the whole thread, isn't it? Who said I do?
I just reject PSA as a simplifying, over-neat, synthetic, unnecessary, unjustifiable, distorting, unbiblical, time-conditioned, and, in its own terms "human" construct, linking texts abstracted from Scripture on a selective basis, then turned into a procrustean bed onto which Scripture is forced, with everything inconvenient being either distorted to fit or sawn off.
quote:
Perhaps I should add the word 'evangelical' to the the 'Christian Bible Scholar'.
As long as you keep the quotation marks, so that "evangelical" Bibkle scholars are acknowledged to be there in order to read doctrine back into the Bible. In terms of your posts, ISTM that that's what "evangelical" biblical scholarship is there to do. That's perfectly compatible, BTW, with the existence of an evangelical biblical scholarship which doesn't work that way - but it seems axiomatic to me that biblical scholarship should start with the Bible.
I think it would be nice if theology did too, of course.
Posted by Anglican_Brat (# 12349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The fact that the servant is spoken of in the singular rather precludes the Rabbis' view that the servant was Israel. They have rather a large vested interest in eliminating Christ as the one referred to.
I didn't discuss post-Christian Jewish exegesis of the passage because, like you, I think that post-Christian Jewish exegesis has too much at stake to be unbiased.
However, the Servant is repeatedly identified as Israel explicitly throughout Isaiah. Referring to Israel in the singular as the Servant is done repeatedly throughout Isaiah, so the fact that Isaiah 53 speaks of the servant in the singular means nothing against it being Israel. It is not a long-shot to say Israel is the Servant, because Isaiah repeatedly says Israel is the servant. However in the lead up to Isa 53 there is a somewhat confusing passage which seems to indicate the identity of the servant under discussion has changed. That is about the only good reason to think that the Servant isn't Israel. My best interpretation of it is that the 'Servant' under discussion has moved from 'faithful Israel' to the 'core faithful remnant within Israel'.
quote:
The fact that the servant was a man, was God's appointed one, was rejected by men, was esteemed smitten by God, was said to bare the iniquities of all, was seen as a sacrificial lamb,was buried in a rich man's tomb while being killed with wicked men,was scourged,was pierced, willingly submitted to his ordeal and is promised a future position of greatness, would suggest that you are totally misguided in your conclusion.
You are cherry-picking, and twisting what is said in the passage, and resolving ambiguities in a way convenient to you, all in order to make Isa 53 have a more-obvious identification with Jesus than it really has. It is not manifestly obvious that the writer meant it as a prophesy of a particular single future individual. Christian usage of the passage in Martyrdom texts suggests they saw it as depicting a martyr-pattern rather than referring solely to Jesus. If they saw it as a specific prophesy of Jesus alone they would not have applied it to Christian martyrs.
Correct me please but ISTM no serious Christian Bible scholar doubts this prophecy refers to Christ.
I think many Hebrew Bible scholars would say that the original writer of Isaiah identified the Servant with Israel. From what I read, Isaiah was not referring to the future when writing the Servant Songs. Rather, it was referring specifically to Israel in exile as an explanation for why the nation was suffering if it was chosen by God. First Isaiah would assert that Israel was punished for its iniquities, Second Isaiah would argue that Israel was suffering as an example for the world.
Later Christians would reinterpret the Servant Songs to apply it to the person of Jesus. IMHO, what later Christians did is entirely legitimite, and has to do with reinterpreting the Scriptures in light of their contemporary situation. It has less to do with Isaiah looking through a crystal ball and seeing a crucifixion and more about Christians reading the Scriptures in light of their experience of the crucified and risen Jesus.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican_Brat:
I think many Hebrew Bible scholars would say that the original writer of Isaiah identified the Servant with Israel. From what I read, Isaiah was not referring to the future when writing the Servant Songs. Rather, it was referring specifically to Israel in exile as an explanation for why the nation was suffering if it was chosen by God. First Isaiah would assert that Israel was punished for its iniquities, Second Isaiah would argue that Israel was suffering as an example for the world.
Later Christians would reinterpret the Servant Songs to apply it to the person of Jesus. IMHO, what later Christians did is entirely legitimite, and has to do with reinterpreting the Scriptures in light of their contemporary situation. It has less to do with Isaiah looking through a crystal ball and seeing a crucifixion and more about Christians reading the Scriptures in light of their experience of the crucified and risen Jesus.
While I might quibble a little over exactly what First and Second Isaiah say I completely agree with the thrust of what you are saying here.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
Me neither.
Regarding the eisegetical accusation Psyduck refers to, ie that evangelicals read doctrinal axioms back into the text, I think there is really a pot/kettle situation here. We live in a post modern environment that encourages the questioning of scriptural interpretation. The flip side though is as Johnny s rightly says, an approach that lets us off the hook entirely in that we can always find reasons to debunk a non preferred reading. The text is deprived of authority entirely.
Mousethief and myself for instance, are each thinking that the parable of the leaven in Matthew's gospel in totally different terms. He appears to think that the 'leaven' is actually a metaphor for the kingdom. My own view is that the parable is part of a eschatological schema that shows a corruption entering the kingdom of God. He considers my view bizarre; I don't find his any more convincing. The good thing I guess is that one is encouraged to go back to the text and reconsider. However, ISTM that pretty well all interpretations are as eisegetical as each other. One holds a conviction and one seeks to justify same. To fling the term around as a rebuttal is to wear the mud one flings IMV.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Bearing someone's disease is not a penal metaphor at all. The suggestion that it is punishment from God is the false assumption of the speaker.
What on earth is that?
If you think the writer is mistaken about God's action that is fine by me, but it is an entirely different matter. How has saying 'the speaker got it wrong here' got anything to do with whether PSA is in the text or not?
I think you have managed to misunderstand me.
'Yet we accounted him stricken, struck down by God' - my emphasis - is in the past tense. It is a past judgement of the speaker's people, which the speaker now realises was wrong. The sense of the passage is:
we used to think he was struck down by God (and, as in Isaiah 53:3 we despised him for it);
we were wrong to think this - he was not struck down by God - while we were despising him the irony is that he was bearing our diseases;
we now see that we were wrong to despise him.
This reading I think is obvious.
quote:
quote:
The first half of this verse is in isolation a fairly good statement of PSA. However, then it starts talking about the punishment 'making us whole' and the bruises 'healing'. Healing and making whole are not penal metaphors: we've gone back to the health and disease frame of verse 4.
When was the last time you went to your GP and instead of offering drugs he/she suggested hitting you to make it better? Of course it is a metaphor of healing but it is inextricably linked to punishment in the writers' mind. I don't see how this can be disputed.
And I don't see how you can't see it. And, if you want to play the [a priori] card, one of us isn't committed to a predefined doctrinal position.
If you object to the GP hitting someone else to make you better model of the atonement on the grounds that it doesn't work physically you must equally allow the objection to PSA on the grounds that it doesn't work morally.
quote:
quote:
A sheep might get killed because it's gone astray, but that's not punishment. The second half of the verse is probably a metonymy for 'the punishment due the iniquity', but could also be 'the consequences following on from the iniquity'. If someone commits a crime against me, I suffered their iniquity in a straightforward sense.
I agree that both readings are possible from the text but your reading leaves you with greater problems. If your reading is correct then it stresses even more that it is the LORD punishing him (and not us). And again it is a huge cop out to simply say that the writer was mistaken - he may or may not be mistaken but we are discussing what he is saying, not what he should have said.
I don't know what part of my post you're responding to here. Where in my response to verse 7 do I say that the writer is mistaken? And how does the alternative reading stress that the Lord is punishing the person? If Nero burns a Christian at the stake, that Christian suffers Nero's iniquity. If anyone is punishing the Christian, it's Nero (and not the Lord). How do you get the reverse?
quote:
quote:
But a lamb led to the slaughter is not being punished.
How can an Israelite not read substitution in a lamb being lead to slaughter? Maybe not punishment but this verse surely has sacrificial undertones?
Sacrifice is not punishment. Even sin offerings, scapegoats, offerings to redeem the firstborn, etc can only be called substitution in the most abstract sense and with considerable imprecision. Compare Genesis 22: the ram is substituted for Isaac. The sacrifice proceeds exactly as before except that the ram is taking Isaac's role.
There is no suggestion that the appropriate punishment for sin is the sacrifice of the sinner. Sacrifice is not substitution.
quote:
quote:
Saying he was 'stricken for the transgression of my people' is susceptible to a PSA reading. On the other hand, it's described as a 'perversion of justice' - which may be how detractors of PSA think of it, but isn't a description that would be accepted by PSA's advocates. There's nothing to rule out the entire people being punished alongside the servant in this verse.
Come on, this is special pleading. 'Susceptible to a PSA reading' sounds a lot like it is a natural reading but you don't have to read it that way. Which hardly adds anything to the debate.
(BTW The fact that Jesus was innocent (and human justice was perverted is a fundamental plank to PSA and so causes no problems here.)
The problem with that reading is we have to flip perspectives between clauses - we have to say this part of the verse considers it as the perverted justice of humans and that part considers it as the just punishment of God - and we have to say that this is a natural unforced reading out of the text - even though the text gives no cues saying when to flip.
I don't think that reading works well enough.
quote:
quote:
quote:
10: Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him with pain. When you make his life an offering for sin, he shall see his offspring and prolong his days; through him the will of the Lord shall prosper.
This is sacrifice imagery, not punishment imagery. The animal that is killed in a sin offering is not punished.
And? It is clearly substitution imagery. Don't forget that Starlight (and others) are attacking the S as well as the P. Therefore how you view this verse will depend on how you understand Leviticus 16 and the sacrificial system.
As you say, it is only substitution imagery if you read Leviticus 16 in a particular way. And I do not think there is any textual warrant in Leviticus 16 to justify reading it in that way.
quote:
quote:
So the first time PSA type imagery is introduced it is immediately converted to healing/wounds imagery. And it isn't developed to any greater extent in any of the following verses. There's no grounds in the passage for picking out only the PSA imagery, rather than the sacrifice imagery or the health-healing imagery or the intercession imagery, and turning it into a worked out model.
I am amazed that you cannot see the irony of this paragraph. This thread is about whether or not PSA claims to be the only atonement model. And here you are saying that in Isaiah 53 one analogy has trump all others and squeeze everything into one model.
I am presupposing the metaphor to model distinction laid out earlier in the thread by Dinghy Sailor. A model is a simplified explanation. In order for something to be an explanation, it has to be laid out and dwelt on long enough to explain. The point I believe and want to argue is that while the passage uses metaphors that could in a different context be built up into a PSA model the passage does not in fact put them together in such a way as to build up a model. The passage does not build up any model.
And no, that is not equivalent to saying that one analogy has to trump all others.
quote:
quote:
2. 1 Peter 2 does very clearly read PSA into Isaiah 53. That fact that Peter talks about Christ's stripes healing us in a passage about example only serves to highlight and strengthen it. Clearly Christ's death has achieved something objective out of which this behaviour flows.
This use of 'very clearly' to mean 'not' is something I was not previously familiar with. Talking about Christ's stripes healing us has no place in PSA. PSA means penal substitutionary atonement; not healing atonement.
The passage seems to me clearly about sanctification not justification. Jesus bore our sins - not the punishment due our sins - and we are freed from our sins to live for righteousness - not freed from the punishment due our sins. The passage leading up to this has been about us receiving undeserved punishment. It's not about us being spared punishment.
You are doing the same to 1 Peter 2 that you did to Isaiah 53 - since when did physical healing come about through the punishment of an innocent man? You have conceded that the context is all about being punished (either justly or unjustly) and Peter quotes Jesus as an example of a just man suffering unjust punishment - but then quotes Isaiah 53 not just to focus on the way he endured the punishment but also that healing came about as a result of that. [/QB][/QUOTE]
Since when was justice served by the punishment of an innocent man?
I did not concede that the context was all about being punished. Quite the reverse. The healing of injury/disease is the context for the punishment metaphors.
Let's see what we can agree on.
Isaiah 53 and 1 Peter both contain punishment metaphors and healing metaphors.
So if the punishment metaphors amount to the PSA model, then the healing metaphors equally amount to a GP model. That is, Jesus' death is like when a GP stabs one patient to cure another patient of a knife-wound or cures one patient of plague by giving the plague to another patient.
GP is of exactly the same status in Scripture as PSA.
If Christians are required to accept PSA as a model by the text then they are equally required to accept GP.
If Christians are not required to use GP as a model by the text neither are they required to use PSA.
If Christians can dismiss GP as nonsensical or monstrous on the grounds that medicine does not work that way they can equally dismiss PSA.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I think you have managed to misunderstand me.
'Yet we accounted him stricken, struck down by God' - my emphasis - is in the past tense. It is a past judgement of the speaker's people, which the speaker now realises was wrong. The sense of the passage is:
we used to think he was struck down by God (and, as in Isaiah 53:3 we despised him for it);
we were wrong to think this - he was not struck down by God - while we were despising him the irony is that he was bearing our diseases;
we now see that we were wrong to despise him.
This reading I think is obvious.
Apologies, you are right - I misunderstood what you are saying.
And you are also right it is possible to read that verse like that.
However, when faced with two possible readings of the text one always looks to the context. And the rest of the passage, e.g. verse 10, does say that it was the Lord's will to crush him.
I'm not aware of any other discipline of literature that would seriously read a verse like this so clearly out of of its context.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
And I don't see how you can't see it. And, if you want to play the [a priori] card, one of us isn't committed to a predefined doctrinal position.
There is, humanly speaking, no view from nowhere. I hope you are not claiming to be the only person on the planet who doesn't come to scripture with preconceived ideas.
I'm quite upfront about the fact that I'm reading the passage from my position. That doesn't make me wrong though - you need to prove it so.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
If you object to the GP hitting someone else to make you better model of the atonement on the grounds that it doesn't work physically you must equally allow the objection to PSA on the grounds that it doesn't work morally.
Now it is your turn to misunderstand me.
While it is bad form to mix one's metaphors in English it is quite normal in Hebrew. I'm not objecting to models here at all. I'm very happy for it to be a healing metaphor here, however the text says that the picture is one of healing through punishment. I'm fine with that - my point is that the writer is clearly using penal metaphors here.
You seem to think that because a medical analogy is used that this somehow 'trumps' or discounts the many references to punishment. It doesn't. The writer uses both pictures and we must be faithful to both.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
And how does the alternative reading stress that the Lord is punishing the person? If Nero burns a Christian at the stake, that Christian suffers Nero's iniquity. If anyone is punishing the Christian, it's Nero (and not the Lord). How do you get the reverse?
Because that is what the text says! "The LORD has laid on him the iniquity of us all".
The writer of Isaiah goes out of his way to ascribe this action to God.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Even sin offerings, scapegoats, offerings to redeem the firstborn, etc can only be called substitution in the most abstract sense and with considerable imprecision... Sacrifice is not substitution.
... As you say, it is only substitution imagery if you read Leviticus 16 in a particular way. And I do not think there is any textual warrant in Leviticus 16 to justify reading it in that way.
Fine, so we can discuss Leviticus 16 if you want to - especially the substitutionary place of a scapegoat.
For the sake of this discussion though all you are saying is that you like your presuppositions more than you like mine.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I am presupposing the metaphor to model distinction laid out earlier in the thread by Dinghy Sailor. A model is a simplified explanation. In order for something to be an explanation, it has to be laid out and dwelt on long enough to explain. The point I believe and want to argue is that while the passage uses metaphors that could in a different context be built up into a PSA model the passage does not in fact put them together in such a way as to build up a model. The passage does not build up any model.
And no, that is not equivalent to saying that one analogy has to trump all others.
Can you demonstrate this last sentence? Simply stating it doesn't really help the discussion at all.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Isaiah 53 and 1 Peter both contain punishment metaphors and healing metaphors.
So if the punishment metaphors amount to the PSA model, then the healing metaphors equally amount to a GP model. That is, Jesus' death is like when a GP stabs one patient to cure another patient of a knife-wound or cures one patient of plague by giving the plague to another patient.
GP is of exactly the same status in Scripture as PSA.
If Christians are required to accept PSA as a model by the text then they are equally required to accept GP.
If Christians are not required to use GP as a model by the text neither are they required to use PSA.
If Christians can dismiss GP as nonsensical or monstrous on the grounds that medicine does not work that way they can equally dismiss PSA.
None of this 'logic' follows at all. You are deliberately setting up false dichotomies. The scriptures are literature not scientific textbooks containing formula from which we derive mathematical models.
I'd love to see you apply this kind of logic to a poem by Tennyson or Wordsworth.
A far more normal approach (to literature) would simply say that the writer uses both penal and medical metaphors and therefore both should be incorporated into any overall model.
I'm away for a few days but will be keen to return to the fray when I get back.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Dafyd:
[qb]If Christians are required to accept PSA as a model by the text then they are equally required to accept GP.
If Christians are not required to use GP as a model by the text neither are they required to use PSA.
None of this 'logic' follows at all. You are deliberately setting up false dichotomies. The scriptures are literature not scientific textbooks containing formula from which we derive mathematical models.
(snip)
quote:
I'm away for a few days but will be keen to return to the fray when I get back.
I'm not sure what you mean by a false dichotomy, but I'm pretty sure that's not what I'm doing.
You might be keen to return to the fray, but I think we're arguing past each other and I don't think either of us is going to get anywhere like this.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S: quote:
The scriptures are literature not scientific textbooks containing formula from which we derive mathematical models.
I agree with this completely. But I'm pretty clear that, in intention, PSA was originally advanced as an early modern theological attempt to treat Scripture as equivalent to a "scientific textbook containing formulae from which we derive mathematical[ly precise] models" - or indeed theories.
ISTM incontrovertible that the classical articulations of PSA assume inerrancy and non-contradiction in Scripture. ISTM that this assumption guarantees for its holder that it is possible:
1)to abstract from Scripture a number of statements, legitimately disregard their immediate context to a significant degree, (because Scripture itself provides as larger unifying context)
2)to assemble them outside Scripture into a dogmatic formulation (PSA) and then
3)reintroduce this into Scripture as an exegetical principle, in the light of which you now read the whole Bible.
Oddly enough, ISTM that the same procedure that guarantees to one side of the argument that PSA is genuinely Biblical is precisely what guarantees to the other that it isn't.
It's also what creates the "optical illusion" that PSA is another strand of Biblical understanding of the Atonement. When you press people on what this is, they will usually say "It's the indispensable emphasis on sacrifice" or "sin" or "God's justice" etc. "that has to be given its due place, and isn't adequately dealt with without PSA."
But it isn't. I've seen nothing in all these recent PSA threads to shift my opinion that PSA really isn't a biblical theme, or poetry, or literature. ISTM that it does claim to be a mathematically precise description of the core of the salvation event, to which everything else is either subsidiary or ultimately irrelevant.
It's the component themes of PSA - the Biblical themes - which you rightly say are the poetic-literary expressions of truth.
And BTW, I would certainly class them as truth - that's why I'm a Christian.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
So, Psyduck A Christian:
Has been forgiven..but how do they know they have?
Is in relationship with God..but how does she/he know it?
You see, I believe that there is an experiential component to our faith. Witness the descent of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2. There is also the powerful separation of the early church from society so that people feared to be part of what was happening.
What made these people so unique and how is that uniqueness evident in believers today?
More to the point; what assures you that you are a Christian as you state above?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
Has been forgiven..but how do they know they have?
Is in relationship with God..but how does she/he know it?
You see, I believe that there is an experiential component to our faith.
They go to church, and they are told it. In Jesus' name. On the basis of the Scriptures' testimony to God's will and intention in Jesus. And then they believe it.
quote:
You see, I believe that there is an experiential component to our faith. Witness the descent of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2. There is also the powerful separation of the early church from society so that people feared to be part of what was happening.
I don't see the relevance of this.
quote:
What made these people so unique and how is that uniqueness evident in believers today?
You're not asking there about experiential Christianity. You're asking about turning faith into a work in which people may boast.
quote:
More to the point; what assures you that you are a Christian as you state above?
Jesus does. And I believe him. For the relationship between faith and its manifestation, see the healing of the paralytic in Mark 2. EVen had the man not got up and walked - even had there been nothing to see at all - his sins would still have been forgiven. That's the whole point of the story.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Psyduck: Jesus does. And I believe him.
Ah but Nicodemus thought he had all the categories sussed as well I recall.
BTW, experience isn't something to necessarily boast about.. what an extraordinary conclusion to jump to.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
What the hell are you talking about?
In Christian love... ![[Axe murder]](graemlins/lovedrops.gif)
[ 07. July 2010, 20:03: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Psyduck, I think Jamat and your good self are talking past each other ...
He's trying to establish whether you are truly 'saved' - which essentially means whether you are a truly a Christian by his definition of the term.
At least, that's how I read it.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I suspect Jamat it talking about 'assurance of salvation' as the experiential element.
John Wesley seems to have had that at times. But not at others. Like most evangelicals, I would imagine. I was always taught that we shouldn't go by 'feelings'. And this in a fairly experiential outfit.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Gamaliel: quote:
Psyduck, I think Jamat and your good self are talking past each other ...
He's trying to establish whether you are truly 'saved' - which essentially means whether you are a truly a Christian by his definition of the term.
At least, that's how I read it.
Thank you, Gamaliel. I'm pretty sure you are right. Sadly, this means that while perhaps I was talking past Gamaliel - or perhaps he has temporarily "stepped aside" (I Kings 18:27*) - he wasn't talking past me. I was pretty sure that someone had straightforwardly challenged someone else's claim to self-identify as a Christian, in Purgatory.
Nice.
If he wishes to pursue this line of thought, I suggest we do it elsewhere.
However, it is perhaps germane to this thread that an equation is assumed here between "Christian" and "saved". It might be worth developing that. Or not.
*The expression here seems to mean "gone to the loo."
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Strangely enough, to develop the point in Gamaliel's second post there, the Office NT reading this morning was Romans 9. ISTM that in this passage, if one substitutes "respectability" for "righteousness" one has - from Paul - precisely the objection that I was making to Jamat's remarks, ostensibly about an "experiential" component of saving faith, but actually about the distinctive behaviour of early Christians.
quote:
Jamat quote:
You see, I believe that there is an experiential component to our faith. Witness the descent of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2. There is also the powerful separation of the early church from society so that people feared to be part of what was happening. What made these people so unique and how is that uniqueness evident in believers today?
You're not asking there about experiential Christianity. You're asking about turning faith into a work in which people may boast.
Paul says:
quote:
30 What then are we to say? Gentiles, who did not strive for righteousness, have attained it, that is, righteousness through faith; 31 but Israel, who did strive for the righteousness that is based on the law, did not succeed in fulfilling that law. 32 Why not? Because they did not strive for it on the basis of faith, but as if it were based on works.
As I say, for "righteousness" read "respectability" and what you have is clearly not what Paul means, but what ISTM Jamat did.
In the light of that, the "lifestyle" of the early Christians, with their "powerful separation... from society" is clearly not the way in which Paul understands salvation to be assimilated. It's a symptom of faith, but not faith itself. Righteousness in Paul, as Bultmann surely established, is our right relationship with God. We are "rightwised" with him.
ISTM that Jamat is turning manifestations of belief into the substance of faith, and thereby turning faith into a work. We aren't saved by what God does in Christ, not even what God does in Christ on the Cross in PSA, and not even by trusting in PSA atonement. We are saved at least in part by becoming - i.e. behaving like - the kind of people Christians are, who believe that PSA is true.
That just isn't how it works, in Paul. The clincher is I Cor 3: quote:
[11] For no other foundation can any one lay than that which is laid, which is Jesus Christ.
[12] Now if any one builds on the foundation with gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, straw [13] each man's work will become manifest; for the Day will disclose it, because it will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test what sort of work each one has done.
[14] If the work which any man has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward.
[15] If any man's work is burned up, he will suffer loss, though he himself will be saved, but only as through fire.
That's one of the reasons why Paul is so surprisingly compatible, even on a close reading, with universalism.
[ 08. July 2010, 05:03: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I'm not sure what you mean by a false dichotomy, but I'm pretty sure that's not what I'm doing.
This is what I mean ...
quote:
originally by me
A far more normal approach (to literature) would simply say that the writer uses both penal and medical metaphors and therefore both should be incorporated into any overall model.
You seem to be saying that the model can't be both medical and penal. I'm disagreeing. Literature doesn't work like that. Metaphors can be mixed.
If the writer is using penal metaphors to describe something that the early Christians applied to the death of Jesus then I'm lost as to why we should seek to incorporate them into our model of atonement.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
I agree with this completely. But I'm pretty clear that, in intention, PSA was originally advanced as an early modern theological attempt to treat Scripture as equivalent to a "scientific textbook containing formulae from which we derive mathematical[ly precise] models" - or indeed theories.
<snip>
I've seen nothing in all these recent PSA threads to shift my opinion that PSA really isn't a biblical theme, or poetry, or literature. ISTM that it does claim to be a mathematically precise description of the core of the salvation event, to which everything else is either subsidiary or ultimately irrelevant.
It's the component themes of PSA - the Biblical themes - which you rightly say are the poetic-literary expressions of truth.
The point is that a model is a model -nothing less and nothing more.
You seem to be complaining when some try to make PSA more than a model. Fair point. However, in so doing you seem to want to make it less than a model. You can't have it both ways.
Using Isaiah 53 as an example no one has demonstrated that there is not any penal language being used. And if so it is entirely appropriate for that language to be included in our atonement models.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S.: quote:
Using Isaiah 53 as an example no one has demonstrated that there is not any penal language being used. And if so it is entirely appropriate for that language to be included in our atonement models.
Of course it is. I use it in my understanding and exposition of the atonement.
But however much you guys try to wiggle out of it - or genuinely think the contrary - PSA is a theory.
It says (does it not?):
1) God intended human beings for eternal existence, and that some of them should exist forever in heaven to glorify him.
2) It is consistent with this intention that he should create some human beings in whom this purpose should not be fulfilled, but who should be condemned to an everlasting existence of deserved punishment. This does not represent a failure of God's purpose as expressed in (1) above.
Note that ISTM that you have to believe both those things whether you are a Calvinist or an Arminian. They just "look" Calvinist - but to make them explicitly Calvinist you have to add predestination. I accpet that it is possible to construct PSA without a doctrine of predestination. (It's also possible to modify this so that those who "miss" eternal life in heaven cease to exist, either after a finite period in hell or under certain other circumstances to be specified. Didn't N T Wright promulgate something like this?) This doesn't change the basic shape, just the details of what Jesus saves us from.
3) Humanity sinned in its first member, and is corporately guilty.
4) Being fallen and corrupt on this account, each member of the human race inevitably sins individually, and individually appropriates the collective guilt of humanity as his own, individual guilt.
5) God, being holy, cannot look upon sin, and cannot overlook it.
6) God provided for his people in the OT a sacrificial mechanism for dealing with sin as it occurred in the life of the community and of individuals, so that both could be maintained in the context of a relationship with him.
7) God provided a law for his people which prescribed his will for them.
8) The law is not capable of dealing with the root effects of the original situation of humanity, nor, therefore, with the consequences in terms of ultimate destiny of individual human sin. Likewise, sacrifice in the OT does not deal with the root cause of human estrangement from God. Both, however, foreshadow the historical execution of the way God has decided to overcome sin and save humanity.
9) The situation demands a punishment and a sacrifice, borne voluntarily/obediently (note that complex fusion, in passing) by a sinless, guiltless victim.
10) God himself provides the sinless victim. In a broadly trinitarian understanding,(note that relaxed terminology, in passing) the Son takes flesh, and voluntarily bears the punishment and pays the penalty of human sin.
11) This satisfies the demands of the situation - whether this is construed as the will, or the exigencies created by the unchangeable nature, of the holy God, and creates the grounds for forgiveness. That is to say, because God/justice are satisfied (note again a complex taken-for-granted fusion) God may now justly remit the punishment of sin.
12) Irrespective of whether God could, on the basis of Christ's sacrifice, forgive all humanity both for its Adamic solidarity in sin and for all sins actually committed individually by all human beings (as Grotius, in governmental atonement, seems at points to suggest) - and it's hard to see why not - God chooses to apply forgiveness on the basis of faith, to individuals.
Have I left anything out?
More importantly - what can you leave out, before this ceases to be PSA?
And if the answer is either "not much" or "nothing at all" then doesn't that confirm my argument that PSA
a) is a self-contained theory, which subordinates everything else in Scripture to itself, and
b) is a theological construct, assembled outside the Bible, out of selected Biblical bits, then reimported so that everything in the Bible is interpreted in terms of it?
And once again - no PSA advocate has remotely addressed this.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
But however much you guys try to wiggle out of it - or genuinely think the contrary - PSA is a theory.
It says (does it not?):
1. PSA is a theory / model. No one has said otherwise... apart from you that is.
2. No it does not say this. You seem determined to squeeze PSA into a strict doctrinal statement of faith. As I keep saying, it is an atonement model, no more no less.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
a) is a self-contained theory, which subordinates everything else in Scripture to itself, and
well that is what is debated about all models - to what degree the above is true. I don't see how this is particularly relevant to PSA... it's up to you to prove that it is the case for PSA but you haven't done so - you've just assumed it.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
b) is a theological construct, assembled outside the Bible, out of selected Biblical bits, then reimported so that everything in the Bible is interpreted in terms of it?
And once again - no PSA advocate has remotely addressed this.
All you've done is defined a model here. I'm beginning to wonder if you are using the term differently to how everyone else uses it?
Having studied Chemistry and then taught it I'm used to dealing with models as attempts to explain data. Once a model is adopted the whole point is to 'reimport it in order to explain the data' - that is what a model is for and how it works. However, if the model repeatedly does not 'work' then it needs to be either refined or replaced with a better model.
If you have problems with PSA you need to show how it fails to 'fit' the biblical data. But you have not done that. All you have done is claimed outrage that PSA is a model... yep, all atonement models are, well, models.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S. :
Me the only one calling it a theory? Actually, not. Not even on these threads, but certainly not in the big wide world. Just a first few googles, and not venturing into the study:
quote:
Penal substitution is a theory of the atonement within Christian theology (Wikipedia)
quote:
The Penal-Substitution Theory of the atonement... (Theopedia, An Encyclopedia of Biblical Theology)
quote:
The Penal-Substitution Theory of the atonement maintains that Christ died on the cross as a substitute for sinners.(Wikia.com,[ who add “Remember, this is a Christian site, and as such, all articles must reflect a Christian Point of View. Thank you for cooperating.”])
Incidentally, and so as to rebut the charge that I’m ignoring counter-arguments, here’s a piece from J I Packer, which ISTM is both the source of a lot of this creative ground-shifting between theory and model, and a good exemplar of the concomitant confusion – which is in part tactical obfuscation. It’s a thoughtful and humane enough piece, which I have no intention of dissing, and it will convince those whom it convinces, but ISTM that it’s basically “When is a theory not a theory? When the details, pressed too hard and logically, embarrass you...”
Packer Atonement Lecture
The point I’d want to make is just this. A model is not a theory whose details are not pressed.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Johnny S. :
Me the only one calling it a theory? Actually, not.
I said that no one was disputing that PSA is a theory.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Sorry, so you did.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
So, for clarification, you are equating theory and model? I'm maybe conforming more to Dinghy Sailor's classification for the purposes of this thread,and making a distinction.
Just to reiterate, my position is that, whatever terminology is used, PSA can't be reduced [much if at all] beyond the components-list I offered a few posts ago without turning into something else (which I would perhaps think of as a model.
If PSA has to be stated as fully as I claim, then I argue that it is a self-contained and exhaustive selective abstraction from Scripture.
Regarding models in Scripture, I think you could argue that Scripture itself offers a number of these. But the point would be that they would not be exhaustive in the way in which, I still argue, PSA has to be.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Psyduck, I think Jamat and your good self are talking past each other ...
He's trying to establish whether you are truly 'saved' - which essentially means whether you are a truly a Christian by his definition of the term.
At least, that's how I read it.
The question is what defines you as a Christian..for you.
For me it was a conversion experience. It was subjective, powerful and undeniable. The cerebral theological categories while interesting came later.
The question for me is actually about experience. The verse that sums it up is from Song of Solomon.
"He brought me into his banqueting house and his banner over me is love."
The relevance to the discussion is really to make one stop and think of whether the discussion about PSA is of any import. One's life changes, moves towards a spiritual dimension; the question is why. Having read the first 10 chapters of Hebrews lately, it seems inescapable that Christ offered himself as a sacrifice for sins and that's the basis of the transaction.
But can one be assured one is connected to the infinite on the basis, Psyduck, of what you state above, that you simply chose to believe what somepone told you? (Sorry if I'm oversimplifying what you said.)
BTW, I couldn't give a toss whether you are truly saved..none of my beeswax.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
But can one be assured one is connected to the infinite on the basis, Psyduck, of what you state above, that you simply chose to believe what somepone told you? (Sorry if I'm oversimplifying what you said.)
1. Why does "being assured one is connected to the infinite" matter?
2. Isn't that how we all become Christians? Or at least find out about Christianity? Some claim to have direct experience of God that drove them into the circle; blessed are those of us who have not seen, yet still believe.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
The question is what defines you as a Christian..for you.
And my answer, for me and for everyone, is a professed discipleship of Jesus Christ. BTW - just to be clear - by "Christian" do you mean someone who self-defines/is defined in terms of Jesus? Or do you mean someone whom God defines as a Christian in a particular way? Because...
quote:
For me it was a conversion experience. It was subjective, powerful and undeniable. The cerebral theological categories while interesting came later.
And I would never diss such an experience, or seek to diminish it.
Yet this does invite the question - why the obvious personal investment in PSA evidenced in your previous posts? And why the thought generated by this one, that PSA seems to be a defence for the form your faith takes. I don't want to be inappropriately personal, but many of the PSA posts on these threads seem to hold that PSA somehow defines a core article of belief, and that that seems to be something to do with guarantees and certainty. "How do we know... if not...?" That's the only relevance I can see in the reference to Hebrews in your post just there.
quote:
The question for me is actually about experience. QUOTE] Experience - not trust?
[QUOTE] The verse that sums it up is from Song of Solomon.[/"He brought me into his banqueting house and his banner over me is love."
quote:
The relevance to the discussion is really to make one stop and think of whether the discussion about PSA is of any import.
Well, if you think that PSA is deeply distorted theology, functions as a shibboleth with some people, and hinders the witness to the Gospel, yes it is of import. quote:
One's life changes, moves towards a spiritual dimension; the question is why.
Sorry, but I don't get the import of this in the present discussion.
quote:
Having read the first 10 chapters of Hebrews lately, it seems inescapable that Christ offered himself as a sacrifice for sins and that's the basis of the transaction.
I'm lost now. Are you saying that this is PSA? Because I do note the word "transaction." Are you saying that PSA is to do with the guarantee that Christians, God and Jesus are all talking about the same thing - the meaning of the sacrifice on Calvary?
quote:
But can one be assured one is connected to the infinite on the basis, Psyduck, of what you state above, that you simply chose to believe what somepone told you? (Sorry if I'm oversimplifying what you said.)
Well, it worked for Abram in Genesis 12. And it worked for the disciples in Mark 1. And it worked for the paralysed man in Mark 2. And it worked for Levi in Matthew 9. And it worked for Zaccheus, and it worked for Saul/Paul...
quote:
BTW, I couldn't give a toss whether you are truly saved..none of my beeswax.
Passive aggression. Nice.
OK - another misconception that I must now junk. I thought evangelicals placed a premium on evangelization...
And BTW I do care in that way about the person I presume is behind your posts. Never having met you, it seems incoherent to go further than that, but that I will say.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Jamat, I've had a similar conversion experience ... in fact I've had all the experiences that evangelicals and charismatics are supposed to have and then some.
But that's not the basis of my salvation. Subjective experiences can be misguided.
The Fathers recognised this, the Puritans recognised this. Whilst I'm not saying it was wrong for the pietists and the Wesleys to add experience to the equation - or formalise it as such, more accurately - I'm just saying that we have to be careful not to put too much weight on our own experiences for they are subjective and misleading.
Particularly if we use our own experiences as a yardstick with which to judge everyone else and to determine whether they are 'in' or 'out' according to our own subjective judgements.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
BTW, I couldn't give a toss whether you are truly saved..none of my beeswax.
That's not really a very nice thing to say. "I don't give a shit about whether or not you are going to roast in excruciating, eternal pain in the fires of Hell. Sux2BU." Why would you say something like this?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
It's the smilie I don't understand.
Maybe Jamat is role-playing the PSA God...
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
So, for clarification, you are equating theory and model?
Not exactly, although there is overlap.
While I appreciate the need for definitions to clarify the parameters of a discussion I'm also wary of definitions that are set up to tip the playing field in one direction.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
just to reiterate, my position is that, whatever terminology is used, PSA can't be reduced [much if at all] beyond the components-list I offered a few posts ago without turning into something else (which I would perhaps think of as a model.
Yes it can - Jesus suffered the just punishment of God in our stead in order to reconcile us to God.
There one sentence. No need for a lengthy list of statements.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
If PSA has to be stated as fully as I claim, then I argue that it is a self-contained and exhaustive selective abstraction from Scripture.
Your claims are wrong - you need to revise them.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
models in Scripture, I think you could argue that Scripture itself offers a number of these. But the point would be that they would not be exhaustive in the way in which, I still argue, PSA has to be.
You're still arguing it.
And you've still not demonstrated it.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Jesus suffered the just punishment of God in our stead in order to reconcile us to God.
This says nothing about why God should need to punish those s/he loves. It says nothing about why s/he would need to be reconciled to those s/he loves.
If a Father loves his children he loves them whatever they do - and welcomes them with open arms whenever they come into the house. He doesn't question their actions or morality - he just loves them and gives of himself to them. He forgives them when they wrong him personally and guides them when they wrong others.
If a human father can do this, surely it's not beyond God?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Jesus suffered the just punishment of God in our stead in order to reconcile us to God.
This says nothing about why God should need to punish those s/he loves. It says nothing about why s/he would need to be reconciled to those s/he loves.
That's because it is an atonement model, not a systematic theology ... despite what psyduck keeps saying.
Penal Substitutionary Atonement - it does what it says on the tin, no more, no less.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
If a Father loves his children he loves them whatever they do - and welcomes them with open arms whenever they come into the house. He doesn't question their actions or morality - he just loves them and gives of himself to them. He forgives them when they wrong him personally and guides them when they wrong others.
If a human father can do this, surely it's not beyond God?
Because he's God and not a human being.
What if the child killed his father? What then?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
God can't love unconditionally, forgive and guide because s/he's God?
eh?
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
BTW, I couldn't give a toss whether you are truly saved..none of my beeswax.
That's not really a very nice thing to say. "I don't give a shit about whether or not you are going to roast in excruciating, eternal pain in the fires of Hell. Sux2BU." Why would you say something like this?
(to MT)Oh please! Context!Read what Gamaliel posted.
(To Psyduck)Regarding Hebrews, I think it is very difficult to look at chs 1-9 and deny that the writer believes certain tenets about Christ's person and function.
I don't want to start proof texting but the message is actually that his unique function of combining incarnation, and sacrificial death and priesthood creates for believers in him, an access into the heavenly throne room since he has gone there first with a blood sacrifice.
Why don't you read it as a narrative and see what you think?
BTW 'I don't care about your salvation' is nothing personal, I just don't see it as my business.
You do seem very cerebral though Psyduck and that is what prompted the question about experience. To me theological models have to have lifestyle consequences. I was curious about your story. But feel free to ignore.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
But can one be assured one is connected to the infinite on the basis, Psyduck, of what you state above, that you simply chose to believe what somepone told you? (Sorry if I'm oversimplifying what you said.)
1. Why does "being assured one is connected to the infinite" matter?
2. Isn't that how we all become Christians? Or at least find out about Christianity? Some claim to have direct experience of God that drove them into the circle; blessed are those of us who have not seen, yet still believe.
I honestly don't know except that God speaks into our lives individually. However, being assured is how one is sure. To me that is important but perhaps not for you?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: (To Psyduck) quote:
Regarding Hebrews, I think it is very difficult to look at chs 1-9 and deny that the writer believes certain tenets about Christ's person and function.
I don't want to start proof texting but the message is actually that his unique function of combining incarnation, and sacrificial death and priesthood creates for believers in him, an access into the heavenly throne room since he has gone there first with a blood sacrifice.
Why don't you read it as a narrative and see what you think?
I did Hebrews as a Greek text at university thirty-two years ago.
Best Greek in the New Testament - and if Harnack is right, written by a woman!
I don't dispute the accuracy of your summary. But it's not PSA. It's sacrifice. And it's the supersession of the Jewish sacrifices in Christ and the New Testament.
This is really one of the points I've been making throughout. Hebrews is Hebrews and Isaiah 53 is Isaiah 53. And the Passover Lamb is John - and one strand of Paul.
Isaiah 53, Hebrews, John and Paul aren't PSA - even if PSA is a fusion of elements drawn from Isaiah 53, Hebrews, John (though where in John I wouldn't know) and Paul, and other stuff. PSA is a synthesis.
quote:
BTW 'I don't care about your salvation' is nothing personal, I just don't see it as my business.
Fair enough.
quote:
You do seem very cerebral though Psyduck and that is what prompted the question about experience. To me theological models have to have lifestyle consequences. I was curious about your story. But feel free to ignore.
Appropriate question, maybe an appropriate theme elsewhere, and I'm not being coy. After all, I did voice the suspicion, in general terms, that PSA is one way in which Christians in certain traditions undergird a certain type of conversion experience which is very precious to them.
But in general terms, I agree with Gamaliel. Emotion must have its place. But its place needs to be carefully defined, for everyone's protection.
I remember a prayer meeting - and in Welsh nonconformism, prayer meetings are traditionally much more than just meetings for prayer, offering opportunities for very in-depth exploration and discussion of Biblical themes - at which a minister was holding forth on the huge spiritual earthquakes which had marked his pilgrimage.
And one man - as it happens, one of the saintliest people I know - said, in obvious distress, "Well, yes, of course - but what about those of us who have never had such experiences?"
What strikes me in retrospect is that that was a moment of shattering and unconstructive vulnerability, both for the minister, himself a saintly character, and the man he was talking to. I wish I could tell you that I remember a marvellous resolution to that moment, in which each was affirmed in his particular experience of Christian life. But it wasn't. It was a collision between two sets of understandings of what constitutes real Christianity, and it hurt both.
We're talking here about the faith of the Church, before we're talking about the faith of individuals. Here, too, ISTM there is an enormous danger that PSA sets the conditions by which an individual may be saved, rather than the event by which God has saved the world.
One of the things that deeply worries me about conservative Calvinism is that ISTM that it specifies that God doesn't "so love the world" - only those who respond in faith. But maybe that derives from the nature of PSA too, because as I see it, it's as big a liability of PSA Arminianism. God always, at some point, turns away from some. (I don't think "governmental" atonement has that liability, but I'm still thinking that out. I'm also wondering whether Barth's "classical election" is actually a paraCalvinist version of Grotius.)
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
God can't love unconditionally, forgive and guide because s/he's God?
eh?
When it's put that way it does sound ugly.
This then, must appear to come across in the same vein:
10For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings. Hebrews 2
Note that it is God perfecting the Son.
Instead of MAKING (bad God) him suffer and die, He couldn't arm Jesus with body armour and an assault rifle, and let him waste all those bad demons?
14Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that [b]through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, 15and might free those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives.Hebrews 2
Isn't this morally reprehensible of God to do this too, requiring Christ to suffer, (setting aside the "penal" aspect)? Of course Job earned mediator status for his friends, by suffering at God's hands as well, if that helps to clarify thinking:
17Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. Hebrews 2
The brethren would be the preceding prophets, I suppose...
Seems like you can't make omelettes without breaking eggs. Christus Victor requires God to use the Romans to do bad things to Christ so that he is empowered to liberate His People, by defeating the Adversary, so that they could build temples for the Holy Spirit, to bring forgiveness to the world.
Just as He used the Babylonians to do bad things to the faithful remnant, so that they were enabled to liberate Israel, by defeating the forces that held them captive, so that they could return to Jerusalem, rebuild the Temple and bring forgiveness to the world.
Job, the remnant, Jesus, all cast from the same mould...dangerous radicals with a dangerous motto: we take the good readily from the Lord, should we not take evil? No wonder the Comforters, the Exiles and the Pharisees were worried. It could catch...and it could cause trouble, threaten the existing world order.
Ooops, I tried to hold back, but that one got loose and set off a whole chain of thought.
[ 10. July 2010, 17:40: Message edited by: footwasher ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
footwasher: quote:
When it's put that way it does sound ugly.
This then, must appear to come across in the same vein:
10For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings. Hebrews 2
Note that it is God perfecting the Son.
You are treating Hebrews as though it's equivalent to PSA. It isn't. This is totally irrelevant.
quote:
Instead of MAKING (bad God) him suffer and die,
Well, that's more than a bit disingenuous! I thought PSAers were the ones always saying that God doesn't make Jesus go to the cross, that he does it out of his own free, loving will. "Fitting" doesn't imply compulsion, in English or in Greek. You let your polemical urge get the better of you there!
quote:
He couldn't arm Jesus with body armour and an assault rifle, and let him waste all those bad demons?
What sort of a mindset is that?!? And of course, unless you are accusing non-PSAers of that mindset, it's another redundancy.
14Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, 15and might free those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives.Hebrews 2
quote:
Isn't this morally reprehensible of God to do this too, requiring Christ to suffer,
Well, since the subject of all the verbs is Jesus, I think that's also totally missing the point, too, isn't it.
quote:
(setting aside the "penal" aspect)?
I'm sorry - you cite a passage that actually speaks of Christ's death as liberating his people from the power of the Devil with the clear implication that it's an example of PSA?!?!? Do the words Christus Victor mean nothing to you?
quote:
Of course Job earned mediator status for his friends, by suffering at God's hands as well, if that helps to clarify thinking:
Not at all, actually. But by now, I wasn't holding my breath for any clarification.
17Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. Hebrews 2
Which translation are you using there? The RSV has "[17] Therefore he had to be made like his brethren in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, [B]to make expiation for the sins of the people." The Greek has hilaskesthai, which makes the RSV a correct translation. Expiation is that which is done with respect to the sins - their covering or removal. Propitiation is that which is done with respect to an angry God.
For the record, the AV is "Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people."
quote:
The brethren would be the preceding prophets, I suppose...
quote:
Seems like you can't make omelettes without breaking eggs. Christus Victor requires God to use the Romans to do bad things to Christ so that he is empowered to liberate His People, by defeating the Adversary, so that they could build temples for the Holy Spirit, to bring forgiveness to the world.
And your point would be...
quote:
Just as He used the Babylonians to do bad things to the faithful remnant, so that they were enabled to liberate Israel, by defeating the forces that held them captive, so that they could return to Jerusalem, rebuild the Temple and bring forgiveness to the world.
...ah, I see a pattern beginning to form... quote:
Job, the remnant, Jesus, all cast from the same mould...dangerous radicals with a dangerous motto: we take the good readily from the Lord, should we not take evil? No wonder the Comforters, the Exiles and the Pharisees were worried. It could catch...and it could cause trouble, threaten the existing world order.
Ah yes, it's that tired old calumny that liberals (AKA people who have big problems with PSA)
can't cope with nasty things, and can't cope with harsh reality, and can't cope with a realistic picture of God which has to be harsh and nasty because there are nasty bits in the Bible, especially the OT, and we fluffy bunnies can't cope with that sort of thing because we are fluffy bunnies.
Well, here's one for you. PSA is a mind-state of denial about the God it depicts. It reduces Christianity to a bubble of happy salvation in a world of horror and pain which is itself just the antipasti of a hell which is literally infinitely worse.
Do I actually believe that about all PSAers? No, of course I don't. And indeed there are fluffy bunny liberals. But tarring people with the same brush is always a demeaning and dismissive thing to do. It isn't nice, and that's not a fluffy bunny speaking.
Stop it.
And on that subject:
quote:
Ooops, I tried to hold back, but that one got loose and set off a whole chain of thought.
Shame you couldn't stop that, too, Because it got us precisely nowhere.
[ 10. July 2010, 19:01: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
That was a combative post. I've re-read yours, and I suspect you might not have intended it as combatively as it comes over. I apologize for adding unneccessary heat to the debate.
Nonetheless, whether you meant it or not, there was an element of parody and serious misrepresentation in what you said. Yoru line of thought did run away with you. As perhaps did my response with me.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
I meant that I found it strange that Boogie found it upsetting that God needed to punish, but not that He needed for Jesus to undergo suffering.
Couldn't a more civilised way have been found?
The other material materialised when I read the relevant passages.
Shalom...
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
I don't believe that God did need Jesus to undergo suffering - Jesus suffered (imo) at the hands of men, not the hands of God.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I don't believe that God did need Jesus to undergo suffering - Jesus suffered (imo) at the hands of men, not the hands of God.
I respectfully submit that this would require us to chuck out a large chunk of Hebrews.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
That's OK by me - if you feel the need
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Jesus needed to die to harrow Hell. That's the way you get there.
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
care to explain what you mean MT?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
footwasher: quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I don't believe that God did need Jesus to undergo suffering - Jesus suffered (imo) at the hands of men, not the hands of God.
I respectfully submit that this would require us to chuck out a large chunk of Hebrews.
I don't honestly think it would require us to chuck out any of Hebrews.
Jesus is the utterance of God (rhema is the Greek word, not logos, but the scope of Hebrews 1 is very similar to that of John 1) pre-existing with God. He takes human flesh, and learns human obedience - this is Hebrews' contribution to what will become the doctrine of the incarnation.
His obedience is manifest in his entering the world, and his learning of the human condition from within, as it were.
quote:
In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears, to him who was able to save him from death, and he was heard for his godly fear.
Although he was a Son, he learned obedience through what he suffered; and being made perfect he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him, being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchiz'edek.
This is one of the wellsprings of the patristic docrine that Christ saves us by assuming our human nature, purifying it by his obedience and offering it back to the Father. There is no trace of PSA here.
Neither is there any trace of the idea that Jesus is put to suffering by God. He obediently comes into the world and assumes human existence, is perfected in obedience by his life and sufferings in it, and returns this human perfection to God as the high-priestly offering.
quote:
Those who formerly became priests took their office without an oath, but this one was addressed with an oath, "The Lord has sworn
and will not change his mind, `Thou art a priest for ever.'" [22] This makes Jesus the surety of a better covenant. [23] The former priests were many in number, because they were prevented by death from continuing in office; [24] but he holds his priesthood permanently, because he continues for ever. [25] Consequently he is able for all time to save those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them. [26] For it was fitting that we should have such a high priest, holy, blameless, unstained, separated from sinners, exalted above the heavens. [27] He has no need, like those high priests, to offer sacrifices daily, first for his own sins and then for those of the people; he did this once for all when he offered up himself.
[28] Indeed, the law appoints men in their weakness as high priests, but the word of the oath, which came later than the law, appoints a Son who has been made perfect for ever.
He is dealing with what is lacking and in need of remedy in us, not with sin that God can't look at. Nowhere does Hebrews go beyond this.
In fact, this clinches it:
quote:
Heb 6: [4] For it is impossible to restore again to repentance those who have once been enlightened, who have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit,
[5] and have tasted the goodness of the word of God and the powers of the age to come,
[6] if they then commit apostasy, since they crucify the Son of God on their own account and hold him up to contempt.
Once our sin has been dealt with by Christ's sacrifice, any further falling-away is permanent and irrevocable. This is clearly related to the development of the "single plank in a storm" understanding of baptism in the early Church, by which apostasy was irremediable. This just isn't the thought-world of PSA at all. This isn't God providing a means to deal with his inability to deal with our offence against him. This is Christ providing a means whereby our sins can be dealt with, and put behind us. What is on offer is a means for us to overcome our alienation from God, not for God to overcome his alienation from us. And there is a big difference.
Biggest difference of all - despite the thorough exploration of the themes and typologies - and the complex and high Christology - he deploys, the author of Hebrews doesn't produce a closed theological system like - I'll say it again - PSA. It's an interpretation and a set of perspectives, which not only are capable of being coordinated with other interpretations and perspectives; you can actually trace it happening in patristic thought.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
One of the things Jesus came to Earth to do was destroy the reign of hell and death. He did this by entering into Hell and Death, and destroying them from within with his resurrection. This is preached to us every Pascha in the homily of St John Chrysostom, which is read then in every Orthodox church:
Let no one fear death, for the Saviour's death has set us free.
He that was taken by death has annihilated it!
He descended into Hades and took Hades captive!
He embittered it when it tasted his flesh! And anticipating this Isaiah exclaimed: "Hades was embittered when it encountered thee in the lower regions".
It was embittered, for it was abolished!
It was embittered, for it was mocked!
It was embittered, for it was purged!
It was embittered, for it was despoiled!
It was embittered, for it was bound in chains!
It took a body and came upon God!
It took earth and encountered heaven!
It took what it saw but crumbled before what it had not seen!
O death, where is thy sting? O Hades, where is thy victory?
Christ is risen, and you are overthrown!
Christ is risen, and the demons are fallen!
Christ is risen, and the angels rejoice!
Christ is risen, and life reigns!
Christ is risen, and not one dead remains in a tomb!
For Christ, being raised from the dead, has become the first-fruits of them that slept.
Posted by Dinghy Sailor (# 8507) on
:
Shamwari, for the source of the doctrine of the harrowing of hell, take a look at 1 Peter 3:19
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Psyduck:But it's not PSA. It's sacrifice.
Duh? Sacrifice separate? this makes no sense.
Heb 9;28 "..he has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself"
28 "..Christ also having been offered once to bear the sins of many.."
Hebrews also links Christ's offering of himself with forgiveness.
10;18 "..where there is forgiveness there is no longer any offering for sin.."
To separate the concept of judgement of sin from sacrifice, you have to make a very big mental stretch re the text.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
One of the things Jesus came to Earth to do was destroy the reign of hell and death. He did this by entering into Hell and Death, and destroying them from within with his resurrection. This is preached to us every Pascha in the homily of St John Chrysostom, which is read then in every Orthodox church:
Let no one fear death, for the Saviour's death has set us free.
He that was taken by death has annihilated it!
He descended into Hades and took Hades captive!
He embittered it when it tasted his flesh! And anticipating this Isaiah exclaimed: "Hades was embittered when it encountered thee in the lower regions".
It was embittered, for it was abolished!
It was embittered, for it was mocked!
It was embittered, for it was purged!
It was embittered, for it was despoiled!
It was embittered, for it was bound in chains!
It took a body and came upon God!
It took earth and encountered heaven!
It took what it saw but crumbled before what it had not seen!
O death, where is thy sting? O Hades, where is thy victory?
Christ is risen, and you are overthrown!
Christ is risen, and the demons are fallen!
Christ is risen, and the angels rejoice!
Christ is risen, and life reigns!
Christ is risen, and not one dead remains in a tomb!
For Christ, being raised from the dead, has become the first-fruits of them that slept.
Love that! Thank you!
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
That's only the second half, but it's the part that is relevant to the point being made. You can find the whole thing on wikipedia.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
just to reiterate, my position is that, whatever terminology is used, PSA can't be reduced [much if at all] beyond the components-list I offered a few posts ago without turning into something else (which I would perhaps think of as a model.
Yes it can - Jesus suffered the just punishment of God in our stead in order to reconcile us to God.
There one sentence. No need for a lengthy list of statements.
Psyduck - there is something strange going on here and I can't work out whether you just keep missing things or whether it is deliberate.
Why won't you respond to my short summary statement of PSA which undercuts your entire theory?
I'm genuinely confused - you keep saying that no one has responded to you but then you seem to miss it when they do. I have been putting it down to innocent mistakes but as time goes on I'm finding that harder to accept.
Can you help me out here?
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
To separate the concept of judgement of sin from sacrifice, you have to make a very big mental stretch re the text.
Actually, no. The problem here is the basically automatic assumption that when you say judgment you also mean punishment. Mousethief said it a couple of times, back in the nineteeth century, or whenever I started these threads. Sacrificial victims aren't being [judicially] punished. Sacrifice is not a judicial way of dealing with sin. It's a religious, cultic way. Except in PSA. You wouldn't say that someone stoned to death for blasphemy was being sacrificed, would you? And you wouldn't say that the Passover Lamb was being punished? The scapegoat, which carries off the sin of the people, very specifically isn't punished, or sacrificed. It's PSA that fuses sacrifice and punishment, and it does so in terms of an extended rationale, without which none of the bits make sense. You are importing PSA into Hebrews.
And this, by the way, isn't that rationale.
Johnny S. quote:
Jesus suffered the just punishment of God in our stead in order to reconcile us to God.
There one sentence. No need for a lengthy list of statements.
You're not seriously telling me that that's a full, adequate statement of Penal Substitutionary Atonement, are you? That's just a concise definition of penal substitution.
But here's what's interesting. Even this bald, partial statement assumes that there is some shared understanding of what the offence is for which we should be punished, why we should be punished, to what extent, and how it is - in what framework - that Jesus can justly substitute for us.
Even that concise statement implies everything that I have said PSA necessarily has to be.
It invokes a scenario. Necessarily. Even if you choose to stop before you join the dots.
But I am beginning to see what happens. If you take the theory of PSA and reduce it to a shorthand statement like that, it can look as though PSA is one simple perspective on the atonement which can be added to all the others. The necessity with which that "simple" statement invokes all the rest of PSA, basically automatically, can be suspended.
Take a Christian standing, looking at the cross. Invoke a time-machine, if that helps. Thinking in terms of CV, she reflects "The world is held captive by the sorts of huge, satanic forces that starve children, exploit millions, despoil the planet and make us all complicit in this wickedness. And God takes flesh, and that's what this world does to him. And I'm complicit in that, too. I'm guilty."
He doesn't mean guilty in a forensic, legal sense. He didn't want Jesus crucified, but he recognizes again his complicity in the situation that put Christ on the cross.
Oddly enough, when he thinks of Easter Sunday (which, being a Christian who has time-travelled back, he knows, even on Good Friday is going to happen) she feels the full joy of liberation.She knows that God's is the side that won - and will win. And God has, through faith, aligned her with the side of good. Faith in Christ does that.
But the world is still in the grip of these awful forces, and she still compromises, collaborates, and feels guilt. The decisive battle has still been won, but she is still in occupied country, and she is still often weak, and sometimes effectively a collaborator, despite her allegiance.
She is, as Martin Luther (that paragon of CV atonement) says "simul justus et peccator" justified and a sinner at the same time.
So she looks at the cross, and he knows that his guilt is dealt with because here, by faith, he can choose God's side, and however much he may stumble, he is now on God's side, and will take what this fallen world can throw at him for that.
So she looks at the cross, and says "My guilt is dealt with." And she can look on Jesus as THE sacrifice, in the sense of Hebrews. And can understand, too, that the consequences of what he did to make the world the place it is, and shouldn't be fall on Jesus, and this is illuminated for her by passages such as Isaiah 53.
Then she shifts to thinking about moral influence, and, without dropping any of that train of thought, she is profoundly moved by what the humanity of Jesus means for her as the human being she is - totally loved and accepted in her fallen humanity - and as she should be and isn't. And she is equally moved by the love that God has, to do this, that is, at this revelation of God's character, a fulness of revelation that didn't exist before the incarnation.
And she reflects that God coming into the world like this to show his love highlights the lovelessness of her own life, and of a world that crucifies the one who came into the world and was crucified. And from this angle, too, she will think that in a sense, Christ on the cross is taking a punishment - suffering consequences - which really bear on her.
But you will probably be saying to yourself "Yes, but none of this is the same as "Jesus suffered the just punishment of God in our stead in order to reconcile us to God."
And I would agree with you.
So our time-travelling Christian looks at the cross, and quite possibly just thinks "This is Jesus suffering the just punishment of God in our stead, to reconcile us to God." And is warmed by the love of Jesus which that thought momentarily frames.
And that, it seems to me, is the point people on this thread reach when they say that PSA is one component among many in a Biblical Christianity.
But as soon as she begins to look inquiringly at this proposition, see what happens.
She has to ask - and answer - some very specific questions in a very specific way. And I listed some of those at the top of this post: but basically, every question you ask needs to be answered in precise terms, because you have set it in the context of law and punishment.
And I submit to you that it's basically impossible, then, for someone to ask these questions without looking at the cross and also asking "How exactly does this fit the bill?"
And once you do that, you are asking - and answering the question "What is this really about?" And as soon as you ask that, you have to say that this is a transaction - and PSA advocates use this word very frequently, and almost without thinking - in a formal legal setting, which specifies exactly what goes on.
Beyond that point, describing Christ on the Cross as the death-conquering hero who liberates us, and whom satanic forces can't withstand, is like describing a famous defending QC as a "paladin of justice." It's metaphor. The reality is that he's a lawyer. Or a courageous defendant who is sentenced for a brave stand against injustice as "a shining moral example" or even a "sacrificial victim of the demands of law in a corrupt situation." Again, metaphor. He's a defendant who is convicted to fulfil the demands of law.
You might say that "Jesus suffering the just punishment of God in our stead, to reconcile us to God" is a metaphor - and really, honestly believe it. But it isn't. That's not a metaphorical statement. It's a specification of a scenario.
[ 11. July 2010, 07:21: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Psyduck: To separate the concept of judgement of sin from sacrifice, you have to make a very big mental stretch re the text.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Actually, no. The problem here is the basically automatic assumption that when you say judgment you also mean punishment. Mousethief said it a couple of times, back in the nineteeth century, or whenever I started these threads. Sacrificial victims aren't being [judicially] punished. Sacrifice is not a judicial way of dealing with sin. It's a religious, cultic way. Except in PSA. You wouldn't say that someone stoned to death for blasphemy was being sacrificed, would you? And you wouldn't say that the Passover Lamb was being punished? The scapegoat, which carries off the sin of the people, very specifically isn't punished, or sacrificed. It's PSA that fuses sacrifice and punishment, and it does so in terms of an extended rationale, without which none of the bits make sense. You are importing PSA into Hebrews.
Actually yes. You are not dealing straightforwardly with the verses by deciding you know what sacrifice means and it doesn't include blah blah.
The atonement model central to my view is actually about God's honesty in what he says in scripture. The verses I quoted above from Hebrews associate forgiveness and sacrifice. I don't believe I mentioned punishment nor am I making automatic assumptons about it. However, the issue could be seen as penal in the sense that sin is seen as being punished in Christ. This is the red button neh? But why use that word. Christ 'expunged' sin at the cross. the word the translators coined for the effect was propitiation wasn't it? Now that is good news. The scriptures clearly show us this from many angles. Consequently it is possible for a believer to live free from sin's penalty or wages..death.
Regarding sacrifice and forgiveness, what the Hebrews writer does in these verses actually associates the two..much, perhaps, to your theological inconvenience.
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on
:
Boogie wrote:
quote:
That's OK by me - if you feel the need
So bottomline, you believe that God will act lovingly no matter what one does or believes? And Scripture is irrelevant? Maybe even the Golden Rule? If so, the posts are too? Where does that land us? IOW, why discuss? Maybe you've already explained your view elsewhere? Coherently?
5 "For many will come in My name, saying, 'I am the Christ,' and will mislead many. Matthew 24
24"Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins." John 8
Psyduck wrote:
quote:
Neither is there any trace of the idea that Jesus is put to suffering by God.
God seems to do that here, directly:
10For it became him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the author of their salvation perfect through sufferings. Hebrews 2
And even indirectly, as when Jesus claims God is responsible for all he does
28 So Jesus said, "When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and I do nothing on My own initiative, but I speak these things as the Father taught Me. John 8
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Take a Christian standing, looking at the cross. Invoke a time-machine, if that helps. Thinking in terms of CV, she reflects "The world is held captive by the sorts of huge, satanic forces that starve children, exploit millions, despoil the planet and make us all complicit in this wickedness. And God takes flesh, and that's what this world does to him. And I'm complicit in that, too. I'm guilty."
That highlights perfectly the problem with CV and your attempt to turn it into the 'big paradigm' that you claim PSA is.
You have added that last sentence to appease me, but it is definitely not implied by the CV model. If the world is held captive by Satanic forces how can we be complicit in this wickedness? The model pushes us to opposite conclusions.
Does this mean the model is wrong? Not at all, it is just insufficient. Other models, like PSA, have a much stronger emphasis on personal responsibility.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
You're not seriously telling me that that's a full, adequate statement of Penal Substitutionary Atonement, are you? That's just a concise definition of penal substitution.
No, it is a definition of penal substitutionary atonement - what does 'reconciled with God' mean other than atonement?
Of course you don't like it because it shoots your theory out of the water.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Johnny S. quote:
You have added that last sentence to appease me, but it is definitely not implied by the CV model. If the world is held captive by Satanic forces how can we be complicit in this wickedness? The model pushes us to opposite conclusions.
Yeah, well, ask Martin Luther about that. Again, the problem - as I've maintained all along - is you can't see one of the components of PSA lying about doing something else, without conscripting it into PSA duty. And here you are denying that any other atonement perspective has anything to say about guilt. Do you really think that guilt isn't an issue in moral influence thinking? You are making my point for me. quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Psyduck:
You're not seriously telling me that that's a full, adequate statement of Penal Substitutionary Atonement, are you? That's just a concise definition of penal substitution.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
No, it is a definition of penal substitutionary atonement - what does 'reconciled with God' mean other than atonement?
Of course you don't like it because it shoots your theory out of the water.
FOr whatever reason, you comprehensively miss the point which I made very carefully above, as to why this is not adequate to its purpose. It doesn't "shoot my theory out of the water." It misses by a country mile. I refer you to my previous post on the subject.
footwasher: quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Neither is there any trace of the idea that Jesus is put to suffering by God.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
God seems to do that here, directly:
10For it became him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the author of their salvation perfect through sufferings. Hebrews 2
And even indirectly, as when Jesus claims God is responsible for all he does
28 So Jesus said, "When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and I do nothing on My own initiative, but I speak these things as the Father taught Me. John 8
Neither of these passages say what you want them to say, or do what you want them to do. If you weren't wearing PSA spectacles, you wouldn't ever imagine they did.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Boogie:I don't believe that God did need Jesus to undergo suffering - Jesus suffered (imo) at the hands of men, not the hands of God.
I agree with this.
But isn't it important for us that he underwent it rather than for God?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
And here you are denying that any other atonement perspective has anything to say about guilt. Do you really think that guilt isn't an issue in moral influence thinking? You are making my point for me.
Where did I say that guilt is not an issue in moral influence? I said it wasn't in CV. Where do you get this other stuff from?
I find it hard enough keeping up with one or two threads on the ship - the fact that you persistently fail to read what I actually say is making something hard become virtually impossible.
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
For whatever reason, you comprehensively miss the point which I made very carefully above, as to why this is not adequate to its purpose. It doesn't "shoot my theory out of the water." It misses by a country mile. I refer you to my previous post on the subject.
So my definition of PSA is not correct because you say so?
Can you not see how pointless your line of arguing is? Your argument repeatedly comes across like a Jack Chick tract trying to convert Roman Catholics by telling them what they believe and why it is wrong.
Why not try interacting with what I believe rather than what you keep telling me I believe?
[ 11. July 2010, 11:50: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
Actually yes. You are not dealing straightforwardly with the verses by deciding you know what sacrifice means and it doesn't include blah blah.
For pity's sake. Me, and the guys who wrote the commentaries I read, and the actual text - but no, it has to mean PSA. Why? Because everything in the Bible does in some way or another.What I said all along.
quote:
The atonement model central to my view is actually about God's honesty in what he says in scripture.
You mean that it derives - or am I wrong? - from a particular understanding of Biblical authority and inspiration, in which the Bible is full of "trustworthy", i.e, infallibly true statements which you can just take out, rearrange into a doctrine and read back into the Bib... hang on! Haven't I heard this somewhere before? Oh yeah! That was me talking about how PSA abstracts atomic truths from the Bible, assembles them into a molecular model, and reads it back into Scripture as an interpretation of everything. And lookee here! Here's you 'fessing up to that!
See, the atonement model central to my thinking is Jesus Christ, incarnate Son, Immanu-el. Nothing less. Now, tell me what's wrong with that!
But you might want to tell me in some other way than just repeating the PSA master-narrative, because you know I'm just going to come right back at you and say that that's PSA rewriting the DNA of Scripture, right?
And what may well hack you off this time may be a dawning suspicion that I'm on to something here.
quote:
The verses I quoted above from Hebrews associate forgiveness and sacrifice.
OK
quote:
I don't believe I mentioned punishment nor am I making automatic assumptons about it.
Well if you didn't, then it isn't about Penal Substitutionary Atonement. But I think you may be about to... yes... quote:
However, the issue could be seen as penal in the sense that sin is seen as being punished in Christ.
quote:
This is the red button neh? But why use that word.
Well, if it is, then Hebrews is the desk of the President of a non-nuclear state... Cos ity ain't there.
quote:
Christ 'expunged' sin at the cross. the word the translators coined for the effect was propitiation wasn't it?
Have you no interest in what the Greek text of the NT says? But this is a mindset we've encountered before, isn't it. "Don't bother with the original. Let's see how we can spin the translation. After all, PSA must be in there somewhere... Mustn't it...? Please..."
quote:
Now that is good news. The scriptures clearly show us this from many angles. Consequently it is possible for a believer to live free from sin's penalty or wages..death.
But propoitiation isn't about that. It's about the sinner living free of the consequences of God's attitude to sin. It's about propitiation of God, not expiation of sin. And that's not what you have here. It just isn't.
quote:
Regarding sacrifice and forgiveness, what the Hebrews writer does in these verses actually associates the two..much, perhaps, to your theological inconvenience.
I would be at a loss to respond to my own satisfaction to that, were it not for this:
and may I add, this:
and furthermore, this:
And finally - You wish!
Once again, you make my point for me. This is a tour de force of reading-in of PSA where it just isn't.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Psyduck;But propitiation isn't about that. It's about the sinner living free of the consequences of God's attitude to sin. It's about propitiation of God, not expiation of sin.
Well, I don't know Greek so can't argue from original language. Perhaps I might PM Nigel about propitiation.
My understanding though is that it is a Greek term for a Jewish idea and that idea was 'mercy seat' or the covering of Moses' ark of the covenant.
My understading has always been that Paul used the concept in Romans 3 as a signifier of 'covering' in the sense that Christ covered, or shielded us from the effects of sin.
However it seems you are being captious to say 'propitiation of God rather than expiation of sin'. Why can it not be reasonably seen as a 'both and' rather than an 'either or'?
Incidentally, do watch your blood pressure. ![[Biased]](wink.gif)
[ 11. July 2010, 21:55: Message edited by: Jamat ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Psyduck:For pity's sake. Me, and the guys who wrote the commentaries I read, and the actual text - but no, it has to mean PSA
Ok, so you are saying you and your commentaries know what the Bible says while I and my ilk are poor misguided Biblically illiterate cretins all because we/they read in the NT that Jeus died for their sins and they think 'Wow! Jesus died for my sins!'
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
Ok, so you are saying you and your commentaries know what the Bible says while I and my ilk are poor misguided Biblically illiterate cretins all because we/they read in the NT that Jeus died for their sins and they think 'Wow! Jesus died for my sins!'
Oh, not the "poor, persecuted evangelicals who are only trying, in our simple, pure, unassuming way to stand up for Biblical faith as God gives us, in our humility, to see it, against these proud, bullying liberals who run the world and make life hell for us!" card again?
First off, this is me and you, and you by no means speak for evangelicals as a class.
Secondly, this is about your exposition of these themes against mine, and there are plenty of commentaries about that reinforce your POV should you choose to have recourse to them. And as you well know, this is just passive-aggressive speak for "These liberals will do anything they can to distort and obfuscate the plain sense of Scripture to water down or erase things they don't like but which are as plain as a pikestaff!"
This is Purgatory. So why don't we just man up and discuss some ideas, shall we?
You say: quote:
we/they read in the NT that Jeus died for their sins and they think 'Wow! Jesus died for my sins!'
I say you - and you aren't alone because PSA does that; it functions as an article of faith, and that in itself isn't indefensible (cf. the Trinity) - read in the NT that Jesus died for our sins, or that Jesus' death can be understood in terms of sacrifice, or passover, or a situation in which we're complicit, or a number of other things, and you think:
quote:
1) God intended human beings for eternal existence, and that some of them should exist forever in heaven to glorify him.
2) It is consistent with this intention that he should create some human beings in whom this purpose should not be fulfilled, but who should be condemned to an everlasting existence of deserved punishment. This does not represent a failure of God's purpose as expressed in (1) above.
3) Humanity sinned in its first member, and is corporately guilty.
4) Being fallen and corrupt on this account, each member of the human race inevitably sins individually, and individually appropriates the collective guilt of humanity as his own, individual guilt.
5) God, being holy, cannot look upon sin, and cannot overlook it.
6) God provided for his people in the OT a sacrificial mechanism for dealing with sin as it occurred in the life of the community and of individuals, so that both could be maintained in the context of a relationship with him.
7) God provided a law for his people which prescribed his will for them.
8) The law is not capable of dealing with the root effects of the original situation of humanity, nor, therefore, with the consequences in terms of ultimate destiny of individual human sin. Likewise, sacrifice in the OT does not deal with the root cause of human estrangement from God. Both, however, foreshadow the historical execution of the way God has decided to overcome sin and save humanity.
9) The situation demands a punishment and a sacrifice, borne voluntarily/obediently by a sinless, guiltless victim.
10) God himself provides the sinless victim. In a broadly trinitarian understanding, the Son takes flesh, and voluntarily bears the punishment and pays the penalty of human sin.
11) This satisfies the demands of the situation - whether this is construed as the will, or the exigencies created by the unchangeable nature, of the holy God, and creates the grounds for forgiveness. That is to say, because God/justice are satisfied, God may now justly remit the punishment of sin.
12) Irrespective of whether God could, on the basis of Christ's sacrifice, forgive all humanity both for its Adamic solidarity in sin and for all sins actually committed individually by all human beings, God chooses to apply forgiveness on the basis of faith, to individuals.
What I'm saying is that every time you see any one of these terms, or even a context that suggests them, or in general approach the Scriptures, this is what you find. Any one tiny part, in a gigantic out-of-control process of synecdoche, suggests at the least all the above. Because when you say "Jesus died for my sins!" all of that is what you mean.
Or, as I have said repeatedly, show me which bits can be left out.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
Are you some kind of mind reader Psyduck? I just can't believe you have everyone else so sorted.
So 'Jesus died for my sins' is something the Bible doesn't say? and something that hasn't actually changed my life for over 30 years?
Write your book and good luck with it but please stop poking out your tongue at me or I'll tell your Mum.
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on
:
Jamat: quote:
Are you some kind of mind reader Psyduck? I just can't believe you have everyone else so sorted.
Well, if you won't give straight answers, mind-reading is almost all that's left. But not quite all. I think you'll find that I'm actually also relying on inference, which I'm courteous enough to invite you to comment on.
Time after time on these threads, PSA advocates are quoting snippets of Scripture as clearly implying the whole of PSA.
I've been asking repeatedly what "the whole of PSA" is, and, being quite open about my contention that it's basically a complete scheme (i.e. basically what the historic advocates of PSA right back to Calvin) say it is. Back from the advocates of PSA comes "That's not so, PSA isn't a complete scheme, it's just one perspective, perfectly capable of allowing other Scriptural perspectives their proper place."
So I say "I don't think so, but convince me! Show me what you say PSA is, and how it fits in with the rest of the Christian faith without distorting it."
What I get back is a mixture:
- of disconnected snippets and verses that refer to things that PSA uses as components, like sacrifice, or the punishment of sin, with the triumphal cry of "See! PSA in Scripture!"
- of assertions that CV, Moral Influence et al. have their proper place, sometimes followed with an exposition that makes it clear that you can only see the cross as a victory or as possessing moral appeal after you've already tied up its definition as a penal-substitutionary sacrifice
- of howls that I'm pressing PSA too far, and that to press its details is an unfair reductio ad absurdum
- and sometimes downright misrepresentation, as in the following:
quote:
So 'Jesus died for my sins' is something the Bible doesn't say? and something that hasn't actually changed my life for over 30 years?
I've repeatedly stated that I have no difficulty asserting this in my own case, and illuminating it from a variety of perspectives founded in Scripture.
But then - to continue to repeat ad
- if, for you, "Jesus died for my sins" implies the whole of PSA as I have outlined it above, then my way of saying "Jesus died for my sins" is an inferior, decaffeinated, liberal and meaningless playing with words, while your way of saying it while assuming the whole of PSA as specified above, is what "real Christianity" is all about.
Which, once again, makes my point for me. You can't co-ordinate PSA with other perspectives on the atonement. PSA is all-or-nothing. It's either the meat of the Gospel, or an illegitimate, partial and exclusive doctrine masquerading as the whole of the Gospel story.
quote:
Write your book and good luck with it but please stop poking out your tongue at me or I'll tell your Mum.
I could, of course, say catty things here about attention-spans, but I'll just remind you that it's apparently Starlight who is writing a book on this. It's not me - though if I were, I would be happy to send you a complimentary copy.
That, like my continued participation in this thread, would be a triumph of hope over expectation. ![[brick wall]](graemlins/brick_wall.gif)
[ 12. July 2010, 06:03: Message edited by: Psyduck ]
© Ship of Fools 2016
UBB.classicTM
6.5.0