Thread: Purgatory: The Ambiguity of Fornication Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
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Oddly, this OP is a result of some random insults thrown around in a hell thread I just closed. Basically describing a couple living together long term as fornicators.
Which led me to think, what is a marriage in biblical terms ? The marriage service did not spring up fully formed on the occasion of the resurrectoin of Christ. So how would a Christian have married in 100AD ?
If someone is in a committed, monogamous relationship - is this in fact a marriage in the biblical sense, regardless of whether a service has taken place ? If not, why not ?
[ 10. November 2014, 18:50: Message edited by: Belisarius ]
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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In a biblical sense, it probably is marriage. In a Christian sense, it certainly is not.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
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What would need to be different for it to be a marriage in the Christian sense ?
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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In a case where there are no other legal or customary markers of marriage (e.g. vows, license, etc.) I think there would at least have to be the intention of a permanent commitment on both sides. "Let's try this and see how it works out for a while" wouldn't cut it. But for the sake of public honesty (as Luther would put it) the couple intending to be married really ought to go put a legal or churchly signpost on it, minimal though that might be. Otherwise, it causes confusion.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
What would need to be different for it to be a marriage in the Christian sense ?
An understanding that the relationship is a parable of permanence - ordained by God - and (in the context of God's people) modelled on Ephesians 5 and other passages in the New Testament, especially the teaching of Jesus and his Apostles.
Posted by Fuzzipeg (# 10107) on
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It was only after the Council of Trent that marriages required a priest present and about the same time marriage became a civil responsibility. Prior to that marriages were generally arranged purely for secular reasons and often couples would be betrothed shortly after birth.
In England 1753 Lord Hardwick's Formal Marriage Act laid down that a formal ceremony was required in front of an Anglican Priest....so marriage as we know it is a very modern thing and it took a long time for the church to be involved.
I would say, like the caterpillar, that marriage means what you want it to mean.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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Incidentally, before the thread in Hell descended into profanitiy and verbal abuse and dead horse territory (particularly thanks to Marvin) the discussion had been about the status of Prince William and Katherine's pre-marital sexual relationship. I suggested that it was fornication and out-of-order for the a future Defender of the Faith and Supreme Governor of the Church of England.
I also suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin, instead of people like + Richard Chartres sucking up to the Royal Family just because one of his fellow bishop isn't similarly prepared to turn a blind eye to William's obvious commitment issues.
[ 25. November 2010, 18:46: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
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Personally, I think that contemporary usage of the word marriage refers largely to administrative or social constructions. It gets you tax breaks, makes you next of kin, adds society's stamp of approval to your relationship, and so on. I don't think this is remotely close to the concept of marriage used in biblical times. In that (more spiritual) sense, I would say that any two people who meaningfully commit themselves to each other are married: in that sense it's a promise made between two people.
It certainly doesn't lay down rules for who gets to be 'head' over the other.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
Personally, I think that contemporary usage of the word marriage refers largely to administrative or social constructions. It gets you tax breaks, makes you next of kin, adds society's stamp of approval to your relationship, and so on. I don't think this is remotely close to the concept of marriage used in biblical times. In that (more spiritual) sense, I would say that any two people who meaningfully commit themselves to each other are married: in that sense it's a promise made between two people.
It certainly doesn't lay down rules for who gets to be 'head' over the other.
You say 'who gets to be' as if headship is a perk of being male. That's a bit like saying that crucifixion was one of the perks of being Jesus.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
You say 'who gets to be' as if headship is a perk of being male. That's a bit like saying that crucifixion was one of the perks of being Jesus.
Historically, I think it's quite easy to argue that having authority over women was definitely a perk of being male. I understand that your tortuous definitions of headship don't work quite like that, but your interpretation is a minority one.
Posted by Silver Faux (# 8783) on
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Numpty, if you had a look at the marriage registry in the church which I serve (and I certainly would not allow you to!) you would find that out of just over 120 weddings I have conducted, over 100 of the couples had the same address when they applied for the licence.
In other words (gasp!) they were living together before being married.
I did not presume to "rebuke" any of these couples; instead, I performed a marriage for them, rejoicing that I had the privilege of offering the blessings and grace of God on their lives together.
I did not consider them to be fornicators, I considered them to be children of God beloved of God.
Before you attempt to remove the speck from Prince William's eye, might I suggest that you first remove the judgmental log from your own eye.
Just where you shove said log after its removal I will leave to your most fertile imagination.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
You say 'who gets to be' as if headship is a perk of being male. That's a bit like saying that crucifixion was one of the perks of being Jesus.
Historically, I think it's quite easy to argue that having authority over women was definitely a perk of being male.
If you equate 'having authority' as 'being free to exploit and abuse' then, yes, I can see how that could be argued from history. It can't, however, be argued from Apostolic teaching.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If you equate 'having authority' as 'being free to exploit and abuse' then, yes, I can see how that could be argued from history. It can't, however, be argued from Apostolic teaching.
Unfortunately, it frequently was.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
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I have friends who have bought a house together, had a child together, have been together 12 years, and have an exclusive monogamus relationship (as far as I know) - they happen to be atheists. I would still see that relationship as basically a marriage.
I seem to remember someone posting yonks ago about the orthodox accepting such committed relationships as marriage. Aside from the secular and legal arrangements - would other traditions see that as reasonable ?
Many people choose not to go through a formal ceremony of marriage because the trappings of it are so off putting and stressful. But I think it maybe that here in the UK we have a lot of 'silent' marriages - by which I mean committed loving couples who are faithful to each other. Perhaps embedded in the context of a faith tradition, perhaps not.
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
The marriage service did not spring up fully formed on the occasion of the resurrectoin of Christ. So how would a Christian have married in 100AD ?
If someone is in a committed, monogamous relationship - is this in fact a marriage in the biblical sense, regardless of whether a service has taken place ? If not, why not ?
Good question. But isn't there a scene in one of the Gospels where a woman tells Jesus that she has no husband, and then Jesus tells her that she has had five previous husbands, and the man she is currently living with is not her husband?
That alone seems to suggest to me that even in the time of the Gospels, there was a distinction to be made between merely living with someone, and being married to someone. Then again, perhaps I'm reading more into it than is really there.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Silver Faux:
Numpty, if you had a look at the marriage registry in the church which I serve (and I certainly would not allow you to!) you would find that out of just over 120 weddings I have conducted, over 100 of the couples had the same address when they applied for the licence. In other words (gasp!) they were living together before being married.
Yes, the stats are about the same for me, although I haven't conducted that many weddings.
quote:
I did not presume to "rebuke" any of these couples; instead, I performed a marriage for them, rejoicing that I had the privilege of offering the blessings and grace of God on their lives together.
I tend to differentiate between non-Christian couples who co-habit and self-identifying Christians who co-habit. I wouldn't rebuke the former, but I certainly would encourage (exhort, admonish etc) the latter to marry.
quote:
I did not consider them to be fornicators, I considered them to be children of God beloved of God.
On whose authority do you presume not to consider them fornicators?
quote:
Before you attempt to remove the speck from Prince William's eye, might I suggest that you first remove the judgmental log from your own eye.
Lots of people on the Ship, including you, seem to have no idea whatsoever what Jesus means by that particular teaching.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If you equate 'having authority' as 'being free to exploit and abuse' then, yes, I can see how that could be argued from history. It can't, however, be argued from Apostolic teaching.
Unfortunately, it frequently was.
But that's no reason to reject what the Apostolic witness actually does say.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
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That's true. But the fact that Paul was viewing the world through distinct cultural blinders is definitely grounds for reinterpreting what he said.
[Cross-posted. I was replying to CMN's post-before-last.]
Dang - did you just delete a post, CMN, or was I seeing things?
[ 25. November 2010, 19:30: Message edited by: Imaginary Friend ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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There's nothing 'ambiguous' about entering a sexual relationship with someone to whom one is not formally committed in covenantal love. It's fornication. Prince William quite openly admits that he has been, in effect, test driving Kate for that last decade or so. That is unacceptable behaviour for a Christian.
[Sorry, I was trying to be clever]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
That's true. But the fact that Paul was viewing the world through distinct cultural blinders is definitely grounds for reinterpreting what he said.
I'm sorry but I can't and don't accept that view of scripture. I simply do not believe that the Holy Spirit has allowed the Apostolic writings to be culturally skewed in that way.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
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Why is formal committment more important than actual committment ? I don't really want this to be all about the royals - but a decade is a hell of a long test drive. It suggests that a lot more is involved in that relationship - that we should not simply dismiss.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
It's fornication. Prince William quite openly admits that he has been, in effect, test driving Kate for that last decade or so.
Living together in a committed relationship is not 'test driving' of any sort.
The way a woman is spoken of here as if she were a car is, in my view, far worse than any lack of a piece of paper to 'prove' committment.
Most young people live together before they marry these days - and good on 'em I say.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
Why is formal committment more important than actual committment ? I don't really want this to be all about the royals - but a decade is a hell of a long test drive. It suggests that a lot more is involved in that relationship - that we should not simply dismiss.
I suppose the Roman Catholic understanding of marriage as a sacrament is helpful in answering this question. If a sacrament (following the Anglican definition) is a outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace then, yes, it is possible for a couple to be 'married' before any formal ceremony has taken place. My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
It's fornication. Prince William quite openly admits that he has been, in effect, test driving Kate for that last decade or so.
Living together in a committed relationship is not 'test driving' of any sort.
It is if there's any hint of contingency, which there definitely is with the case in question.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
That's true. But the fact that Paul was viewing the world through distinct cultural blinders is definitely grounds for reinterpreting what he said.
I'm sorry but I can't and don't accept that view of scripture. I simply do not believe that the Holy Spirit has allowed the Apostolic writings to be culturally skewed in that way.
Fair enough. I don't want to argue hermeneutics with you so I think we'll have to agree to disagree.
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If a sacrament (following the Anglican definition) is a outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace then, yes, it is possible for a couple to be 'married' before any formal ceremony has taken place. My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
This is a genuine question for my general knowledge: Why?
Posted by Silver Faux (# 8783) on
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Perhaps, Numpty, the origin of the word "fornicate is unclear to you:
From Wilipedia:
Etymology
The origin of the word derives from Latin. The word fornix means "an archway" or "vault" and it became a common euphemism for a brothel as prostitutes could be solicited in the vaults beneath Rome. More directly, fornicatio means "done in the archway"; thus it originally referred to prostitution. The first recorded use of the noun in its modern meaning was in 1303 AD, with the verb fornicate first recorded around 250 years later.
Visiting a prostitute would be an example of fornication, Numpty.
Living together in a loving, committed relationship would not.
The fact that the King James Version of the Bible, in translating, used the word fornicate, which was, at that time, a relatively new word in the English language, does not mean that it was translating a word for couples living together before marriage. It just does not.
IMO.
Posted by Spiffy (# 5267) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
It's fornication. Prince William quite openly admits that he has been, in effect, test driving Kate for that last decade or so.
Living together in a committed relationship is not 'test driving' of any sort.
It is if there's any hint of contingency, which there definitely is with the case in question.
How do you know?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
Excuse me butting in from the Under grace (well, mostly)? thread and being a bit provocative, but isn't this legalism? Where on earth is that in Scripture? (Don't get me wrong. I can see lots of good reasons for marriage as a public ceremony and rejoice in the fact that in France it has long been a civil ceremony, not a religious one, but what is a 'Christian marriage in the fullest sense' unless you think it's a sacrament?)
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
That's true. But the fact that Paul was viewing the world through distinct cultural blinders is definitely grounds for reinterpreting what he said.
I'm sorry but I can't and don't accept that view of scripture. I simply do not believe that the Holy Spirit has allowed the Apostolic writings to be culturally skewed in that way.
Fair enough. I don't want to argue hermeneutics with you so I think we'll have to agree to disagree.
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If a sacrament (following the Anglican definition) is a outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace then, yes, it is possible for a couple to be 'married' before any formal ceremony has taken place. My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
This is a genuine question for my general knowledge: Why?
For the same reason that actual participation in the Eucharist is important for continuation in the faith. You appear to be advocating a sort 'Salvationist' understanding of marriage.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
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Spiffy - I think that William has said he wanted Kate to have the opportunity to see what she would be taking on, given the pressures that were put upon his mother by virtue of her marriage.
Although, that implies to me that the Royal Family and the press were the ones being "test driven".
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Spiffy:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
It's fornication. Prince William quite openly admits that he has been, in effect, test driving Kate for that last decade or so.
Living together in a committed relationship is not 'test driving' of any sort.
It is if there's any hint of contingency, which there definitely is with the case in question.
How do you know?
Because he said so in his television interview.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Spiffy - I think that William has said he wanted Kate to have the opportunity to see what she would be taking on, given the pressures that were put upon his mother by virtue of her marriage.
And what is wrong with that?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
Excuse me butting in from the Under grace (well, mostly)? thread and being a bit provocative, but isn't this legalism?
No, it's obedience. What some on this thread are advocating is anti-nominaism. There's a difference.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Spiffy - I think that William has said he wanted Kate to have the opportunity to see what she would be taking on, given the pressures that were put upon his mother by virtue of her marriage.
And what is wrong with that?
Nothing whatsoever.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
No, it's obedience.
Obedience to what or to whom, precisely?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
No, it's obedience.
Obedience to what or to whom, precisely?
Apostolic teaching as per Acts 2:42 and to Jesus Christ as per Matthew 28:20.
[ 25. November 2010, 20:16: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Augustine the Aleut (# 1472) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Spiffy - I think that William has said he wanted Kate to have the opportunity to see what she would be taking on, given the pressures that were put upon his mother by virtue of her marriage.
Although, that implies to me that the Royal Family and the press were the ones being "test driven".
Perhaps he's a smarter prince than some would give him credit for.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I also suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin, instead of people like + Richard Chartres sucking up to the Royal Family just because one of his fellow bishop isn't similarly prepared to turn a blind eye to William's obvious commitment issues.
You've explained that your actions in a similar situation would be to rebuke and exhort the couple to marry. OK - but would you feel the need to do so publicly?
William and Kate have been public about the fact that they have been waiting to be sure they could have a successful marriage. I am not sure that they have made any public statements about their sexual relationship which would appear to be a more private matter. Why assume that they have not been privately rebuked and exhorted to marry?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
No, it's obedience.
Obedience to what or to whom, precisely?
Apostolic teaching as per Acts 2:42 and to Jesus Christ as per Matthew 28:20.
I don't see marriage as you describe it in either of those verses (or in fact at all). (I do recall some strong advice from some apostle or other about not marrying and I am fond of quoting how the same apostle exhorts believers to publicly hand a wayward church member over to Satan so their body can be destroyed). You're going to have to fill in some gaps for me.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
No, it's obedience.
Obedience to what or to whom, precisely?
Apostolic teaching as per Acts 2:42 and to Jesus Christ as per Matthew 28:20.
You're going to have to fill in some gaps for me.
The Apostles' teaching contains sufficient instruction about marriage as does the teaching of Jesus.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If a sacrament (following the Anglican definition) is a outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace then, yes, it is possible for a couple to be 'married' before any formal ceremony has taken place. My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
This is a genuine question for my general knowledge: Why?
For the same reason that actual participation in the Eucharist is important for continuation in the faith. You appear to be advocating a sort 'Salvationist' understanding of marriage.
Okay, I know what all the words in that reply mean but I don't get your point.
In particular, I don't get the analogy between the Eucharist and marriage. The marriage sacrament is surely a one-time thing. Eucharist (at least in the memorialist sense) is an ongoing thing, isn't it?* If anything I would say that it is you that is speaking in salvationist terms: that it is the ceremony that 'seals the deal' rather than the daily commitment to love and respect your partner. That 'daily marriage' is quite apart from a ceremony or the possession of a marriage certificate.
* I admit that my knowledge of the details of Anglican sacraments is not strong, so please correct me if I've got the wrong end of the stick.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
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Further to SF's post, my understanding of porneia (the word the KJV translates as "fornication") is that it, too, has connotations of prostitution. Again, no hint of the "licit after marriage only" view.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I also suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin, instead of people like + Richard Chartres sucking up to the Royal Family just because one of his fellow bishop isn't similarly prepared to turn a blind eye to William's obvious commitment issues.
You've explained that your actions in a similar situation would be to rebuke and exhort the couple to marry. OK - but would you feel the need to do so publicly?
William and Kate have been public about the fact that they have been waiting to be sure they could have a successful marriage. I am not sure that they have made any public statements about their sexual relationship which would appear to be a more private matter. Why assume that they have not been privately rebuked and exhorted to marry?
Prince Charles came very close, albeit in a tongue in cheek way.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If a sacrament (following the Anglican definition) is a outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace then, yes, it is possible for a couple to be 'married' before any formal ceremony has taken place. My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
This is a genuine question for my general knowledge: Why?
For the same reason that actual participation in the Eucharist is important for continuation in the faith. You appear to be advocating a sort 'Salvationist' understanding of marriage.
Okay, I know what all the words in that reply mean but I don't get your point.
The Salvation Army, AFAICT, advocate a totally spiritualized approach to the dominical sacraments in which the outward and visible signs are seen as unnecessary adjuncts to the gracious spiritual reality. That is what you are suggesting concerning marriage.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
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As a Quaker I do share that view.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
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Ah, Salvationist in that sense. Yes, that is what I'm suggesting. I don't think ceremonies matter one jot: What's said honestly in private between the two individuals (presumably with God looking on) is far more important.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The Apostles' teaching contains sufficient instruction about marriage as does the teaching of Jesus.
Don't tell my church this, but I'm increasingly of the opinion that it's pretty hard to make a case for them (Jesus and the apostles, that is) teaching anything about marriage that is not applicable to long-term commitments by couples living together (ok, talking here about heterosexual couples to avoid this descending straight into DH).
If I was put to it in public to defend marriage I would say things about public commitment and the importance of social clarity and so on, but I would be really hard pushed to quote chapter and verse on either of them.
(If you want to argue that all of the apostles' teaching is a rule book for us to follow in obedience to Christ, then I am dying to find out how you interpret the 'handing-over-wayward-believers-to-Satan' instruction mentioned above in terms of contemporary orthopraxy.)
A christian counsellor friend of mine says, not unseriously, that the contemporary definition of marriage is when people do their laundry in the same wash.
[ 25. November 2010, 20:38: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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Perhaps baptism, rather than Holy Communion, would be a better analogy.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
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Hi Numpty
Are you teasing? Most of your points seem to state that you are fully backed up by something (Bible verse, something said in a TV interview)but without telling us what, why or how.
You don't tell us what it was that William said on TV or why you think that means he was not committed to his relationship with Kate. I donj't suppose that helps Spiffy as I doubt she's seen the show. Might Spiffy not find that rather unconvincing as a response and dismiss your point of view?
You have not told us how you understand the verses you quoted to Eutychus. And I don't know what you mean about Prince Charles either? Do tell!
(Also - and this is not meant to concince anyone but as a light-hearted comment- at the moment when I read your posts it reminds me of Educating Rita when Rita turns in an essay the full text of which is "Do it on the Radio")
Posted by Spiffy (# 5267) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I also suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin, instead of people like + Richard Chartres sucking up to the Royal Family just because one of his fellow bishop isn't similarly prepared to turn a blind eye to William's obvious commitment issues.
You've explained that your actions in a similar situation would be to rebuke and exhort the couple to marry. OK - but would you feel the need to do so publicly?
William and Kate have been public about the fact that they have been waiting to be sure they could have a successful marriage. I am not sure that they have made any public statements about their sexual relationship which would appear to be a more private matter. Why assume that they have not been privately rebuked and exhorted to marry?
Prince Charles came very close, albeit in a tongue in cheek way.
I'm really quite curious, Numpty, why you have such a strong opinion about this. As far as I can tell through the anonymous nature of the Internet, you are not a member of this couple, nor are you their parent or their priest. You were asked upthread for pastoral advice regarding some Biblical citations, and you blew that off.
It makes me wonder whether you're engaging in this discussion across several threads because you enjoy gossiping about famous people's private lives instead of a pastoral provision.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Incidentally, before the thread in Hell descended into profanitiy and verbal abuse and dead horse territory (particularly thanks to Marvin) the discussion had been about the status of Prince William and Katherine's pre-marital sexual relationship. I suggested that it was fornication and out-of-order for the a future Defender of the Faith and Supreme Governor of the Church of England.
I also suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin, instead of people like + Richard Chartres sucking up to the Royal Family just because one of his fellow bishop isn't similarly prepared to turn a blind eye to William's obvious commitment issues.
Call me Numpty
Don't import Hell discussions into Purgatory, by direct quote, summary or critical comment on content. That's a no-no because of the different Board purposes and guidelines.
Barnabas62
Purgatory Host
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
As a Quaker I do share that view.
I almost said Quaker earlier. I'd be very interested to hear about your understanding of marriage.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
Well, I think that a marriage ceremony is a recognition of a relationship that has already come to exist. In my tradition we make promises in the form:
quote:
In the presence of God (OR In the fear of the Lord and in the presence of this assembly), Friends, I take this my friend NAME to be my husband/wife, promising, through divine assistance (OR with God's help), to be unto him/her a loving and faithful wife/husband, so long as we both on earth shall live (OR until it shall please the Lord by death to separate us)
So without a presider - and this is because traditionally we understand marriage as an action of God. In essence I see a marriage ceremony as socially useful - but probably not absolutely necessary.
That said if I end up with a life partner I would probably choose to marry.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
I should add - though this can only be further discussed in Dead Horses - that the form of words is about to be amended, because we find ourselves led to recognise and celebrate same sex marriages.
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I suppose the Roman Catholic understanding of marriage as a sacrament is helpful in answering this question. If a sacrament (following the Anglican definition) is a outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace then, yes, it is possible for a couple to be 'married' before any formal ceremony has taken place. My understanding however, is that such marriages require public solemnization in order to qualify and continue as Christian is the fullest sense.
It certainly wasn't the case until (at least) very late in the middle ages. It was generally accepted by both church and state that all it took to make a marriage was for the couple to make an explicit statement to each other of their intention to be husband and wife (even a witness was not absolutely necessary). The requirements of licenses, banns, and formal solemnization were instituted (and became increasingly mandatory) because of the problems that arose from secret marriages (such as lawsuits). But that was a process that took several centuries.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
If someone is in a committed, monogamous relationship - is this in fact a marriage in the biblical sense, regardless of whether a service has taken place ? If not, why not ?
As I understood it, if you go back more than a few centuries in England most 'commoners' had a 'common law wife' (or husband) and never went through any kind of service. Church marriages were for nobility to whom it was important to distinguish between legitimate heirs and illegitimate ones.
[Edit: beautiful x-post with Timothy]
[ 25. November 2010, 21:19: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
:
Boogie -
quote:
young people live together before they marry these days - and good on 'em I say.
I see......Stuff the Bible and its Author, I have the platform and this is the 21st Century. What does it matter what God's Word may say....
[fixed code and deleted pointless duplicate post]
[ 26. November 2010, 03:20: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Numpty: it would appear from your tone that you would prefer that William and Kate should not get married at all, since they would then be honest fornicators (and would no longer be under sentence of anathema from you, which probably doesn't matter to them anyway)
The alternative would be for each of them to marry someone else with whom they have not fornicated, so they would no longer be doing that particular form of activity. BUT those marriages would not have been "test driven" and we would probably be back to Charles and Diana again.
Neither is a particularly desirable outcome, except that you wouldn't be fulminating in public, an activity which is probably forbidden by some obscure social rule normally applied to bishops.
Is there no scope in whatever church it is you subscribe to for something akin to forgiveness and "don't do that again", which seems to be what Jesus actually said?
Posted by Wisewilliam (# 15474) on
:
I have read through this thread from the beginning. Why do the words "Self-righteous prig" keep coming to my mind. When you think of the way the Royals treated Dianna and their expectations that a 20 year old could understand the pressures of the fishbowl publicity machine, I think Prince William and Kate Middleton are very sensble to let her be exposed to what their life together is bound to be like. Now she understands what it feels like, she is in a position to decide whether or not she can take it.
The church has to keep up with society when it comes to marriage and family anf if there are priggish, oldfashioned people locked in the past, they have to prepare to suffer in silence.
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Is there no scope in whatever church it is you subscribe to for something akin to forgiveness and "don't do that again", which seems to be what Jesus actually said?
And if they need forgiveness then it is no more than the rest of us for being such voyeurs.
Isn't it just the 'human traditions' that are being flouted?
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Wisewilliam:
I have read through this thread from the beginning. Why do the words "Self-righteous prig" keep coming to my mind. When you think of the way the Royals treated Dianna and their expectations that a 20 year old could understand the pressures of the fishbowl publicity machine, I think Prince William and Kate Middleton are very sensble to let her be exposed to what their life together is bound to be like. Now she understands what it feels like, she is in a position to decide whether or not she can take it.
The church has to keep up with society when it comes to marriage and family anf if there are priggish, oldfashioned people locked in the past, they have to prepare to suffer in silence.
People have the right to voice whatever religious belief they want to express. You have a right to ignore them. You do not have a right to silence them. I'm not sure what you mean by Church. I guess you mean the Church of England. Then again, I'm starting to think the Church of England is a big joke that now exists a cautionary tale for Christians about avoiding entanglements with their national government.
Posted by Silver Faux (# 8783) on
:
ByHisBlood, there is a really nice thread here where you can introduce yourself to people on the Ship, should you choose to do so.
You will receive a warm welcome there, and it is a good place to exchange friendly greetings.
If you don't mind a suggestion, though, maybe hold off on the
there!
[ 26. November 2010, 02:56: Message edited by: Silver Faux ]
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Is there no scope in whatever church it is you subscribe to for something akin to forgiveness and "don't do that again", which seems to be what Jesus actually said?
And if they need forgiveness then it is no more than the rest of us for being such voyeurs.
Isn't it just the 'human traditions' that are being flouted?
Well, it depends on if you believe the church is guided by the Holy Spirit or not. If no, then they are only violating human traditions. If yes, then they are violating more than human traditions.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
although I haven't conducted that many weddings.
Now, which of your beliefs would make people decide to find someone else to conduct their wedding? That you'd consider them to be fornicators because they live together already, or that you would expect one of the couple to be like a slave to the other?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
The answer why Prince William and Kate Middleton must be considered fornicators (in the modern sense) for almost a decade, if they had any sex that is, is simply that they seek marriage now. Thereby they declare that they were not married before and I see no reason not to believe them. If they considered themselves to be married, they would instead seek a "simple convalidation" or a "radical sanation" of their invalid marriage.
Now, maybe they are doing that, because it certainly could be so arranged that the "show" for the public looks near indistinguishable. Yet I have not heard anything so far that would indicate that they are aware of any problem with their previous arrangements. Thus that seems rather unlikely.
If one wants to avoid the "fornication label", a more likely story is I that this is not about celebrating marriage before God, but before man. That in a sense is fair enough as far as the couple is concerned, if they indeed married each other earlier (likely invalidly, but perhaps not consciously so) and now just want to get the public on board. The problem then is more why the Church is playing along, given that her obedience is to God primarily, not to man.
As far as they personally are concerned, why are we going on about it? I'm 95% certain that they were/are fornicators. So was I. Now I'm married, and so they will be. Let's hope that it is a start in a better relationship before God for them, and wish them all the best for it. The only problem I see here is that Prince William is likely going to be a "Defender of the Faith" one day. Some show of awareness that there is some problem with pre-marital sex would seem appropriate to that job description...
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
That does presuppose that sexual activity is a concern of the The Faith, with one particular view of what is and is not acceptable something to be Defended.
Posted by Arrietty (# 45) on
:
As someone else pointed out above, the position being taken by Numpty and various others on this thread does depend on a particular interpretation of 'fornication' that many of us would not apply to a couple living together in a committed relationship.
Even if we accept this definition - which I don't - I can't for the life of me think of anything in Jesus' teaching that would imply people living in such a relationship were merely compounding their sin by getting married at some point.
Are we to understand from this that, although Jesus made a point of hanging around with people who were labelled 'sinners' by the religious establishment, he drew the line at not mixing with anyone who had had premarital or extramarital sex? And that his general statements about forgiveness being available to all have the unspoken proviso 'Unless you have had premarital sex'?
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
IngoB, I wasn't really intending to go on about it - I was interested in the wider principle underlying the idea, but at the moment its as if the upcoming royal wedding has a gravitaional effect on threads.
Posted by Gurdur (# 857) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arrietty:
As someone else pointed out above, the position being taken by Numpty and various others .....
Are we to understand from this that, although Jesus made a point of hanging around with people who were labelled 'sinners' by the religious establishment, he drew the line at not mixing with anyone who had had premarital or extramarital sex? ...
Oh, everyone knows Jesus only mixed with those with the proper Calvinist dispensations and Letters Of Credentials, and so many facial pimples that temptation simply wasn't a problem, really. And everyone knows that the Blessed live among us and have full mySQL Query database access to the Divine to determine who's on the Saved list and who not.
You know, Arrietty, what this reminds me of? It reminds me of many Christian men I have see, FINE upstanding, well, at least upper bourgeois if not terribly up to it, Christian men, who would bounce up to a visiting preacher or their mega-pastor and say, breathily, "You know, I believe/think/feel God has given me the Gift of Leadership....."
When I overheard suchlike, and I'm surprised myself at how many I have heard utter those sentiments, I always felt like taking the silly boy to the side and hammering him over the head with a thick telephone direcrtory (old police trick; it leaves no visible bruises. Don't ask), and telling him, look, you silly little boy, it's the situation and good will * that make a leader, not wishful thinking. In any bad situation, simply lead and lead well, and ffs, don't wank on about it.
It's like that with all the ... [for want of a better term] men who want women submitting like so many fainting violets to them. I feel like using the Sydney telephone directory (very thick and heavy) on them, and saying, "Ffs, just be a man, if you can, and shut tf up if you can't, and stop instead demanding some sort of fake manhood conferred on you by women pretending you actually have a visible non-microscopic pair of balls".
Oooo, and then there's the backbiting denuciations like old spiteful women over the house fences gossiping evilly about someone, in such a very voyeuristic fashion (ooo! living together, are they? Bonking every night?), and then the doctrine of salvation by taking that all and elevating it, saving it, gloriously redeeming it, to the Theology of Self-Righteous Damnation. Or in other words some theologies have no need of Peter Mandelson or me with our cynical, cynical, cynical ways and spin-doctoring skills, because frankly, when you get right down to it, those theologies are far more cynical and evil than anything I, Mandelson or Satan himself could come up with. When Pentacost comes to mean being filled with the Spirit of a lowergrade Fred Phelps.
* Interestingly enough, a new sociological/psych study shows narcissists make mediocre to incompetent leaders. They're most often simply not up to the tasks, not fit for purpose. They believe owing to their narcissism they have the entitlement to lead, since they project that so much many others believe them, so they often end up leading, but they're actually not every good at it, not good at the job. It's an interesting study indeed.
[ 26. November 2010, 07:40: Message edited by: Gurdur ]
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
Well, Numpty, if ever head shaving, public denouncements from the pulpit of 'notorious sinners' and branding comes back, I'm sure the authorities know where to go to find the guy who'll do the job.
As it happens, I can respect, while not agreeing with, the view that takes a legalistic, immovable view of what the Bible would classify 'fornication', because I understand where it's coming from. However, I'm bound to say that as with much that is Biblical, my own understanding is, it's the principle essence of what the laws surrounding fornication were designed to achieve that is important, rather than the incidental contexts.
That is, a protection for people, principally women, who were exceptionally vulnerable to being loved and left in an age when that could mean the difference between a settled married life, with bed and board; and being abandoned disgraced, dishonoured and left to fend for oneself, or chained to the family.
There was also, of course, sadly the element of punishment. Presumably for the 'harm' done to an innocent and blameless society by the moral criminality of two consenting adults sharing intimacy
.
As much of our society no longer views a sexually active unmarried person as a pariah; and accepts as normative 'living together', I feel it's hard to argue that legalistic adherence to a Biblical view of fornication is helpful or applicable. Debateably, a strong downside to this might be a devaluation of the uniqueness and specialness of sexual intimacy. But that does seem to be a very subjective thing.
However, I can see how, in societies or cultures where people are still inclined to view consenting and non-abusive extra or pre-marital sex as an occasion for public interest and/or punitive action it is safer to stick to the literal Biblical view. But I can't see that as a good thing, myself.
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
Numpty--
Is what you suggest in the realm of good pastoral care? Seems more like beating them for fun and profit.
As to whether W&K have "commited fornication":
Well, we don't know whether they did or didn't. And a person's father generally isn't a good source of info about his kid's sex life.
If they had sex (which, frankly, is none of our business) and that presents some sort of impediment to being Head of the Church,...I suspect that most past British monarchs have had similar impediments, if not far, far worse.
That kind of "sin" would be between William, Kate, their confessor, and God.
I think it's enormously sensible of William to try to make sure Kate understands what she's gettng into. (Wearing his mom's engagement ring is probably quite a reminder.) No one should have to go through what Diana did. Personally, I hope they either elope or have a very small, private wedding. That would declare definite boundaries from the beginning.
Leave William and Kate alone. Give them space to give their marriage a healthy foundation and start...and to have and to keep some mental health.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The answer why Prince William and Kate Middleton must be considered fornicators (in the modern sense) for almost a decade, if they had any sex that is, is simply that they seek marriage now. Thereby they declare that they were not married before and I see no reason not to believe them. If they considered themselves to be married, they would instead seek a "simple convalidation" or a "radical sanation" of their invalid marriage.
Now, maybe they are doing that, because it certainly could be so arranged that the "show" for the public looks near indistinguishable. Yet I have not heard anything so far that would indicate that they are aware of any problem with their previous arrangements. Thus that seems rather unlikely.
If one wants to avoid the "fornication label", a more likely story is I that this is not about celebrating marriage before God, but before man. That in a sense is fair enough as far as the couple is concerned, if they indeed married each other earlier (likely invalidly, but perhaps not consciously so) and now just want to get the public on board. The problem then is more why the Church is playing along, given that her obedience is to God primarily, not to man.
As far as they personally are concerned, why are we going on about it? I'm 95% certain that they were/are fornicators. So was I. Now I'm married, and so they will be. Let's hope that it is a start in a better relationship before God for them, and wish them all the best for it. The only problem I see here is that Prince William is likely going to be a "Defender of the Faith" one day. Some show of awareness that there is some problem with pre-marital sex would seem appropriate to that job description...
The problem with the first part of your argument is that there IS no process of 'regularising an existing common law marriage' known to either the law or the church. This is because we no longer regard 'common law marriages' AS 'marriages'. The semantics have changed.
One can argue that perhaps there SHOULD be a process. And to be honest I wouldn't be surprised if it was discovered that a few centuries back, there was such a thing. Nor would I be surprised if some concept along those lines existed in countries where civil marriage is totally separate from any religious service (France for example, and I think quite a few other European countries, and China as well).
But one cannot ask a couple to go through a process that doesn't exist.
I would argue that talking about them as a 'couple' is the nearest we can get to it with our current semantic boundaries. They will be going from 'couple' to 'married couple'. If you look at it that way, they are providing a nice adjective.
[ 26. November 2010, 08:23: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I would argue that talking about them as a 'couple' is the nearest we can get to it. They will be going from 'couple' to 'married couple'.
Yes - and if the C of E has a problem with that 'they' certainly aren't saying so as far as I can see.
[ 26. November 2010, 08:24: Message edited by: Boogie ]
Posted by Gurdur (# 857) on
:
It only remains to be said after all of that in the thread that the only genuine ambiguity of fornication that there is is if you were so stoned/drunk the last night you can't remember whether you
1) visited the brothel
2) actually managed to accomplish anything in there.
Posted by Thurible (# 3206) on
:
I'm assuming it might be something to do with the fact that Prince William will, in all likelihood, become the Supreme Governor of the Church of which Numpty is a licenced cleric. We have seen the importance some attach to the oath of alleigance to the monarch with the sorry tale of the Willesden/London debacle.
This is not simply the handsome heir to a fortune marrying a beautiful heiress, nor is it relevant only to readers of Country Life or the Tatler. This is the probable next but one Supreme Governor of the Church of England marrying.
Thurible
Posted by Thurible (# 3206) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Spiffy:
I'm really quite curious, Numpty, why you have such a strong opinion about this. As far as I can tell through the anonymous nature of the Internet, you are not a member of this couple, nor are you their parent or their priest.
Sorry, my post above was in response to this. I'd somehow missed the fact I was only on the first page!
Thurible
Posted by Thurible (# 3206) on
:
An interesting article on marriage in the Prayer Book Society's Faith and Order, pp 40-51. I haven't finished reading it yet so shan't comment at this point.
Thurible
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gurdur:
It only remains to be said after all of that in the thread that the only genuine ambiguity of fornication that there is is if you were so stoned/drunk the last night you can't remember whether you
1) visited the brothel
2) actually managed to accomplish anything in there.
One can accomplish things in brothels?
Posted by sharkshooter (# 1589) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arrietty:
...
Are we to understand from this that, although Jesus made a point of hanging around with people who were labelled 'sinners' by the religious establishment, he drew the line at not mixing with anyone who had had premarital or extramarital sex? And that his general statements about forgiveness being available to all have the unspoken proviso 'Unless you have had premarital sex'?
I think His universal position was "sin no more".
So, an admonition to an unmarried couple might be something like "get married or stop having sex".
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arrietty:
Are we to understand from this that, although Jesus made a point of hanging around with people who were labelled 'sinners' by the religious establishment, he drew the line at not mixing with anyone who had had premarital or extramarital sex? And that his general statements about forgiveness being available to all have the unspoken proviso 'Unless you have had premarital sex'?
Yes, but I;m not sure that Jesus' hanging about with sinners amounted to a carte blanche to sin.
Posted by Anglican_Brat (# 12349) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Thurible:
I'm assuming it might be something to do with the fact that Prince William will, in all likelihood, become the Supreme Governor of the Church of which Numpty is a licenced cleric. We have seen the importance some attach to the oath of alleigance to the monarch with the sorry tale of the Willesden/London debacle.
This is not simply the handsome heir to a fortune marrying a beautiful heiress, nor is it relevant only to readers of Country Life or the Tatler. This is the probable next but one Supreme Governor of the Church of England marrying.
Thurible
The Church of England has not historically seen fit to openly rebuke the Monarch for his personal life. Indeed, the CofE become independent of Rome because of Henry VIII's marital difficulties. I do not recall any cleric demanding the head of Charles II for his innumerable mistresses, or any of the Hanovers, save George III.
The notion of the Monarch being a paragon of civic and moral virtue only emerged with Queen Victoria. As the monarchy lost effective political power, it became seen as an institution for instilling morality.
Considering the history of monarchy, it would be hardpressed if any to say that many of them should be seen as paragons of Christian virtue.
Posted by Arrietty (# 45) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Yes, but I;m not sure that Jesus' hanging about with sinners amounted to a carte blanche to sin.
Do you think Jesus gave people carte blanche to sin?
If you don't, why do you assume that I would give other people carte blanche to sin, since I am clearly talking about following Jesus' example?
Did Jesus give the woman taken in adultery carte blanche to sin? Certainly not. Did he give those who were about to stone her carte blanche to judge her sinfulness to be greater than theirs? No.
So if I am trying to follow Jesus' example, should I go round pointing at people and naming them as fornicators? I think not.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
So, an admonition to an unmarried couple might be something like "get married or stop having sex".
How, exactly, was the sex before the wedding different from the sex after the wedding?
If the couple reamain just as committed - no difference whatsoever imo.
Posted by Arrietty (# 45) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
I;m not sure that Jesus' hanging about with sinners amounted to a carte blanche to sin.
In actual fact, God has given us free will so we are all free to sin. Jesus paid the price of that sin, so that if we truly repent we don't have to.
So if you want to look at it that way, Jesus has given us 'carte blanche to sin.'
'Whatever that means.'
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
It seems pretty clear that views vary depending on what kind of sacramental view you hold. If, somehow, a Christian marriage needs a priest to pronounce with authority "those whom God has joined together ...." then without that sacramental act - and its related acts in the marriage ceremony - perhaps something vital has been excluded from the marrying process.
The old phrase "without benefit of clergy" assumes that a marriage at the very least benefits from the priestly sacramental acts.
Lots of low church people do not have a sacramental view of marriage (or baptism) preferring to think in terms of "outward signs" at best, arguing that what happens in the heart is the heart of the matter. If you think that way, its perfectly possible to argue that a true commitment between a couple is "graced by God" at the point where the couples' hearts are changed towards one another. Similar arguments may be applied to conversion for example.
I tend to see things that way, but I'm conscious that the human capacity for self-deception means that sincerity is not always enough. Pragmatically at least, I think it helps folks to accept the seriousness of what they are doing to make solemn promises in public before witnesses. But if they only do that because its the done thing, are not moved by its seriousness, then I'm not sure what is going on. In those circumstances, I wonder whether they are.
All of which leaves fornication not just ambiguous for me, but rather obscure. I take "ambiguous" to mean "capable of two interpretations only ..."
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arrietty:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Yes, but I;m not sure that Jesus' hanging about with sinners amounted to a carte blanche to sin.
Do you think Jesus gave people carte blanche to sin?
Er... I think I've at least implied that He didn't.
quote:
If you don't, why do you assume that I would give other people carte blanche to sin, since I am clearly talking about following Jesus' example?
Might you not therefore have something to say about such sin, or at least an opinion on it?
quote:
Did Jesus give the woman taken in adultery carte blanche to sin? Certainly not. Did he give those who were about to stone her carte blanche to judge her sinfulness to be greater than theirs? No.
No, but He did have something to say to her. Something to do with her not sinning, wasn't it? At least implied in that instruction was a comment that what she had been doing was a sin.
quote:
So if I am trying to follow Jesus' example, should I go round pointing at people and naming them as fornicators? I think not.
Would you therefor ignore sin, then? What if the sin were, say, exploitation of children in India? Or is it just sexual sins to which one should turn a blind eye?
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Would you therefor ignore sin, then? What if the sin were, say, exploitation of children in India? Or is it just sexual sins to which one should turn a blind eye?
I'd say we should focus our energies on those sins and wrongdoings that negatively affect people other than the sinner.
So no, most sexual sin wouldn't be included in that.
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
St Paul would perhaps disagree with you there
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
:
That's his prerogative.
Posted by Silver Faux (# 8783) on
:
Matt Black and Numpty, which couple would you say commits the greater sin:
The couple who blithely spends $50 to $100 on gasoline to go shopping on Black Friday, while knowning that other families in their neighbourhood have perhaps $40 to feed their family for an entire week?
OR
Their unmarried next door neighbours who stay home today and enjoy frolicking together in bed?
[still can't spell
]
[ 26. November 2010, 15:32: Message edited by: Silver Faux ]
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on
:
I wonder whether much of the difference in views here boils down to how one views sin. ISTM that some folks see sin as something that we do, while others see it more as a state of our being. The first group might point to a passage of scripture that seems to condemn sex out of wedlock, while the other might invoke the parable of the pharisee and the tax collector. I don't doubt that we all are missing the boat, but perhaps we each are trying to catch a different ferry...
--Tom Clune
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
Does it matter whether the sin is 'greater' or 'lesser'? It is right to seek to 'quantify' sin in that way?
[reply to SF]
[ 26. November 2010, 15:51: Message edited by: Matt Black ]
Posted by Snags (# 15351) on
:
This whole thing puts me in mind of a couple of things. One is a blog post pointed out to me recently.
The other is that personally I would have been quite happy getting 'married' to Mrs Snags by going somewhere nice, with a handful of people who meant something to us both, and just stating publicly before them and God that "This is it". That would have meant no more or less to me in terms of commitment and 'rightness' than churching it up, and considerably more than going to the registry office.
However, we currently[1] live in a place and time where 'society', rightly or wrongly, attaches different meanings/values/interpretations to those who live together long term, and those who marry. So getting married in church was, for me, a) a form of public witness on both a faith and a relationship level and b) something of an obedience, rather than a prideful and largely pointless eff you.
[1]Although arguably less pronounced than 15 years ago when it was pertinent to me.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
quote:
And if they need forgiveness then it is no more than the rest of us for being such voyeurs.
Isn't it just the 'human traditions' that are being flouted?
Well, it depends on if you believe the church is guided by the Holy Spirit or not. If no, then they are only violating human traditions. If yes, then they are violating more than human traditions.
Wait ... is this an appeal to ... TRADITION? How that warms an Orthodox heart!
quote:
quote:
And if they need forgiveness then it is no more than the rest of us for being such voyeurs.
Isn't it just the 'human traditions' that are being flouted?
Well, it depends on if you believe the church is guided by the Holy Spirit or not. If no, then they are only violating human traditions. If yes, then they are violating more than human traditions.
One can lose things.
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
I think His universal position was "sin no more".
So, an admonition to an unmarried couple might be something like "get married or stop having sex".
Rather begs the question, doesn't it?
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
That's his prerogative.
![[Killing me]](graemlins/killingme.gif)
[ 26. November 2010, 16:05: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Arrietty (# 45) on
:
@ Matt Black - which bit of Jesus' parable about motes and beams, or his condition that those who are without sin should cast the first stone, are you having trouble with?
Is it all just too simple for someone as highly intelligent as you?
Although I know plenty of Christians who believe they are called to go round pointing out other people's sins, since this will in some way save them, my reading of Jesus' teachings is that we are very definitely to address the totality of sin in the world one person at a time, starting with ourselves.
It's my observation that most people who feel called to denounce sexual sin do not feel quite as strongly about other sins which Jesus felt were dangerous.
Spiritual pride, for example, or a lack of mercy.
[ 26. November 2010, 16:46: Message edited by: Arrietty ]
Posted by MerlintheMad (# 12279) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
... what is a marriage in biblical terms ? The marriage service did not spring up fully formed on the occasion of the resurrectoin of Christ. So how would a Christian have married in 100AD ?
If someone is in a committed, monogamous relationship - is this in fact a marriage in the biblical sense, regardless of whether a service has taken place ? If not, why not ?
Imho, any couple that sincerely vows monogomous fidelity to each other, even without the papers to prove it, they are married and not fornicating....
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
I agree.
It is of particular importance to groups whose social / public recognition of marriage has been denied for long periods - so as a Quaker I am especially aware that for a long time no one accepted our marriages. As a gay woman I am also very aware that for a long time committed partners had no access to a public rite.
For people / groups in this position - the theology of the enaction of marriage is particularly important. Public rites and recognition of marriage are socially useful - but to a religious person the fact of marriage as a sacrament and state of being may be most personally important.
It seems to me that the orthodox church have been most clear in recognising this - but I am not sure if the Roman Catholic church recognises a marriage of this kind.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
although I haven't conducted that many weddings.
Now, which of your beliefs would make people decide to find someone else to conduct their wedding? That you'd consider them to be fornicators because they live together already, or that you would expect one of the couple to be like a slave to the other?
I'll answer you when you present me with something I actually believe.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
Welcome back to the thread. Do any of my unanswered questions to you above pass muster?
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on
:
Well, the marriage service we all know and love so well may be fairly novel in historical terms, but surely in OT times there must have been some sort of rite to distinguish wives from concubines - both of which were OK (-ish?) in the eyes of God.
What went on at Cana before the wine ran out? Did the Steward do the whole business or would there have been a priest or a Rabbi present?
[ETA Apart from You Know Who, I mean] ![[Biased]](wink.gif)
[ 26. November 2010, 17:25: Message edited by: pimple ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arrietty:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Yes, but I;m not sure that Jesus' hanging about with sinners amounted to a carte blanche to sin.
So if I am trying to follow Jesus' example, should I go round pointing at people and naming them as fornicators? I think not.
You could ask them awkward questions as per one famous encounter in Samaria.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
What went on at Cana before the wine ran out? Did the Steward do the whole business or would there have been a priest or a Rabbi present?
You're projecting a wholly modern understanding of the commencement of the wedded state back into first century Jerusalem (or Galilee -- I'm not going to go look it up). Fact is we don't know, at least from the Bible, how Jews wed one another in those days. We have been told (well, I have) that a man could divorce his wife by saying "I divorce you" three times. They don't seem to have been to particular about the same kind of niceties we are today.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Welcome back to the thread. Do any of my unanswered questions to you above pass muster?
It would seem not
Mousethief, as pimple and Jessie Philips point out, there does seem to be a distinction between the wed and the unwed in the NT, though, does there not, even if we're not totally sure what it is?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Mousethief, as pimple and Jessie Philips point out, there does seem to be a distinction between the wed and the unwed in the NT, though, does there not, even if we're not totally sure what it is?
Yes. But how formal it was, we don't know. And it has also been pointed out on the thread that it may be that the rich had formal wedding procedings but the poor just jumped a broom and started shacking up.
In Orthodox Alaska, before modern transportation, people on the islands might get visited once a year by a priest, who heard their confessions and gave them communion. He would also solemnify the ad-hoc marriages that had sprung up over the year, and say prayers over the graves of the departed (presumably a panakhida). The shacker-uppers were taken as read to be married; the priest didn't create their wedded state, only baptised it into the church, so to speak.
Posted by Gurdur (# 857) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
One can accomplish things in brothels?
Uh, yes? I would imagine so? Given their function, anyone who goes to one who manages to complete act has done so then?
And given I am informed most fights are started by johns who are too drunk to actually accomplish mission, then possibly the distinction on accomplishment or lack of it is important.
Although some do have different goals. The only times I have ever been inside a brothel were twice on same day, when a group of Irish staying in youth hostel invited me on their Saturday jaunt. They were really hard up for cash, and country Irish, and they had adopted a novel way of having fun for free on a Saturday night. They went in a group down the Cross, Sydney's redlight district, and went in brothel after brothel. They would sit in the front reception lounge area, and get free drinks, and they would argue with the madam till they got thrown out. This was their idea of a fun time, they did a whole lot of brothels apparently, quite a few free drinks, nary a cent spent.
I went with them once, embarrassed the hell out of me, didn't do it again.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
Ah, Salvationist in that sense. Yes, that is what I'm suggesting. I don't think ceremonies matter one jot
What about coronation ceremonies? Perhaps we should do away with those too.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Silver Faux:
Matt Black and Numpty, which couple would you say commits the greater sin:
The couple who blithely spends $50 to $100 on gasoline to go shopping on Black Friday, while knowning that other families in their neighbourhood have perhaps $40 to feed their family for an entire week?
OR
Their unmarried next door neighbours who stay home today and enjoy frolicking together in bed?
Was John's baptism from heaven or not?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
So, an admonition to an unmarried couple might be something like "get married or stop having sex".
How, exactly, was the sex before the wedding different from the sex after the wedding?.
One is pre-marital sex, the other is marital sex.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Was John's baptism from heaven or not?
That one's already been used, and the guy who delivered the line was in a whole different league to you.
(I'm still noting you choose to ignore my question...)
[ 26. November 2010, 19:12: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Was John's baptism from heaven or not?
That one's already been used, and the guy who delivered the line was in a whole different league to you.
(I'm still noting you choose to ignore my question...)
Could you post a link? I tried to find it, but couldn't.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
Ah, Salvationist in that sense. Yes, that is what I'm suggesting. I don't think ceremonies matter one jot
What about coronation ceremonies? Perhaps we should do away with those too.
As I understand it the Queen became Queen at the moment of her father's death and not at the moment of the Coronation. The King is dead, long live the King etc. I think it may be a rather good analogy for some people on this thread who are arguing that the marriage(coronation) is the outward formalisation of the existing circumstance. At which people usually get dressed up specially and have a party.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
Hi Numpty - I believe asked you why in this particular instance you felt that there needed to be a public rebuke to the couple in question over the presumed sexual relationship.
You have only given a response of a reference to something Prince Charles said which I explained I was not aware of an did not understand. Could you please make your position more clear?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
Ah, Salvationist in that sense. Yes, that is what I'm suggesting. I don't think ceremonies matter one jot
What about coronation ceremonies? Perhaps we should do away with those too.
As I understand it the Queen became Queen at the moment of her father's death and not at the moment of the Coronation.
That's why I suggested the analogy. So what is the point of a Coronation Ceremony? Does it do anything? Does the coronation liturgy suggest that anything actually happens? The Marriage Liturgy certainly does suggest that something happens, and that 'something' is recognised in law.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
That's why I suggested the analogy.
You suggested an analogy specifically because it was disanalagous?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Hi Numpty - I believe asked you why in this particular instance you felt that there needed to be a public rebuke to the couple in question over the presumed sexual relationship.
I didn't say a public rebuke was needed. At least I don't think I did.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
You are quite right- I asked if you felt the rebuke should be public and this was the question about which I complained your answer was not sufficiently clear.
You "suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin" - it is clear from this you assume it has not occured. Why?
[ 26. November 2010, 19:48: Message edited by: Lola ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
That's why I suggested the analogy.
You suggested an analogy specifically because it was disanalagous?
No. I'd like to know if people who believe that marriages do not need to be solemnised in a formal ceremony would also agree that nothing happens at a coronation ceremony. I'd also like to know if Anglican liturgies for both ceremonies suggest that something 'happens' at those ceremonies.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
Could you please tell us what you think about each of these points yourself?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
You are quite right- I asked if you felt the rebuke should be public and this was the question about which I complained your answer was not sufficiently clear.
You "suggested that someone in the episcopate should have had the bottle to rebuke William for such sin" - it is clear from this you assume it has not occured. Why?
You're right. I assume that this has not occurred. I do not, however, think that such a rebuke should have been made public (i.e. brought before the Church) until it had been ignored once in private and a second time with witnesses.
[ 26. November 2010, 19:54: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Could you post a link? I tried to find it, but couldn't.
Well the first one was to ask what Acts 2:42 and Mt 28:20 had to say about marriage. You sort of answered that by implying that they meant we should follow all of the apostles' teachings. So I said
quote:
If you want to argue that all of the apostles' teaching is a rule book for us to follow in obedience to Christ, then I am dying to find out how you interpret the 'handing-over-wayward-believers-to-Satan' instruction mentioned above in terms of contemporary orthopraxy
There's not a question mark, but there is a question, or two, there. If you want a more straightforward one, it would be: isn't your contemporary application of what you see as apostolic teaching selective?
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
Can you confirm that in the case that as you assume William has been having a pre-marital sexual relationship then you suggest that the appropriate steps to take would be
- bishop rebukes William privately
- if ignored bishop rebukes again William in front of witnesses
- if ignored again bishop rebukes William in full public scrutiny?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Could you please tell us what you think about each of these points yourself?
With regard to the official crowning of Kings I don't actually know at the moment because I've never read the coronation liturgy. With regard to the marriage ceremony, I'm pretty sure that the vows constitute the making of a spiritually and legally binding covenant in the sight of almighty God. So, in short, I think (as far as Anglican liturgy is concerned) that something happens during a marriage ceremony. I suspect that the same can be said for the liturgy of the coronation.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
ISTM that some reference to Ruth and Boaz might be apposite.
Did "uncovering his feet" lead to anything in terms of relationship?
Did the "uncovering" happen with the blessing of the priesthood?
And what was the outcome of this sanctified-in-the-Bible relationship? Or was that whole line just a bunch of bastards?
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Imaginary Friend:
Ah, Salvationist in that sense. Yes, that is what I'm suggesting. I don't think ceremonies matter one jot
What about coronation ceremonies? Perhaps we should do away with those too.
As I understand it the Queen became Queen at the moment of her father's death and not at the moment of the Coronation.
That's why I suggested the analogy. So what is the point of a Coronation Ceremony? Does it do anything? Does the coronation liturgy suggest that anything actually happens? The Marriage Liturgy certainly does suggest that something happens, and that 'something' is recognised in law.
My original point was that these specific ceremonies did not exist at Jesus' time or in the early church - so on what basis can they be held to do more then symbolically point toward an act of grace (and no I don't think anything happens at coronation because I do not believe in the divine right of kings, I don't think they are annointed by any one other than the person pouring the oil).
(ETA I don't see how secular law is really relevant here as we are talking about a spiritual state, the law may conincide with the will of the holy spirit or it may not.)
[ 26. November 2010, 20:03: Message edited by: Think˛ ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Can you confirm that in the case that as you assume William has been having a pre-marital sexual relationship then you suggest that the appropriate steps to take would be
- bishop rebukes William privately
- if ignored bishop rebukes again William in front of witnesses
- if ignored again bishop rebukes William in full public scrutiny?
If the Church took the discipline of its communicant members seriously then - in theory - yes. The same applies to Charles's adultery. Although I think the House of Bishops would be more appropriate, rather than 'full public scrutiny'.
[ 26. November 2010, 20:03: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If the Church took the discipline of its communicant members seriously then - in theory - yes. The same applies to Charles's adultery.
Why not go the whole hog and do the Biblical thing - have then stoned?
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
FYI CofE Coronation Liturgy
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Could you post a link? I tried to find it, but couldn't.
Well the first one was to ask what Acts 2:42 and Mt 28:20 had to say about marriage. You sort of answered that by implying that they meant we should follow all of the apostles' teachings. So I said
quote:
If you want to argue that all of the apostles' teaching is a rule book for us to follow in obedience to Christ, then I am dying to find out how you interpret the 'handing-over-wayward-believers-to-Satan' instruction mentioned above in terms of contemporary orthopraxy
There's not a question mark, but there is a question, or two, there. If you want a more straightforward one, it would be: isn't your contemporary application of what you see as apostolic teaching selective?
I'd answer you by saying no it isn't. And the handing over to Satan thing, AFAIK, just means considering the person a non-Christian who is still in need to rescue marked by repentance and faith in Christ. Although, I don't want to go into that particular tangent.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
I like the spellings - Catholick and Apostolick.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
If the Church took the discipline of its communicant members seriously then - in theory - yes. The same applies to Charles's adultery.
Why not go the whole hog and do the Biblical thing - have then stoned?
Because Jesus Christ gave that particular teaching concerning sin in Matthew 18. Nowhere does Jesus teach that stoning is an appropriate means of church discipline.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Can you confirm that in the case that as you assume William has been having a pre-marital sexual relationship then you suggest that the appropriate steps to take would be
- bishop rebukes William privately
- if ignored bishop rebukes again William in front of witnesses
- if ignored again bishop rebukes William in full public scrutiny?
If the Church took the discipline of its communicant members seriously then - in theory - yes. The same applies to Charles's adultery. Although I think the House of Bishops would be more appropriate, rather than 'full public scrutiny'.
I'm not too clued up on the House of Bishops - if infomrmation on such an undertaking were available to enquirers then, given the interest in the royal family, this would equate to full public scrutiny whith attendant News of the World coverage. If not - why are we to suppose it has not occured?
(Interesting tangent as to whether, in an established church, the House of Bishops is under the Freedom of Information Act?)
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
The coronation appears to be a consecration ceremony - for those who don't want to plough through the whole thing, here is an extract:
quote:
Archbishop: Will you to the utmost of your power maintain the Laws of God and the true profession of the Gospel?
Will you to the utmost of your power maintain in the United Kingdom the Protestant Reformed Religion established by law?
Will you maintain and preserve inviolably the settlement of the Church of England, and the doctrine, worship, discipline, and government thereof, as by law established in England?
And will you preserve unto the Bishops and Clergy of England, and to the Churches there committed to their charge, all such rights and privileges, as by law do or shall appertain to them or any of them?
Queen: All this I promise to do.
(Extract of the oath I thought was interesting) *snip*
LET US PRAY
O Lord and heavenly Father,
the exalter of the humble and the strength of thy chosen,
who by anointing with Oil didst of old
make and consecrate kings, priests, and prophets,
to teach and govern thy people Israel:
Bless and sanctify thy chosen servant ELIZABETH,
who by our office and ministry
is now to be anointed with this Oil,
Here the Archbishop is to lay his hand upon the Ampulla.
and consecrated Queen:
Strengthen her, O Lord, with the Holy Ghost the Comforter;
Confirm and stablish her with thy free and princely Spirit,
the Spirit of wisdom and government,
the Spirit of counsel and ghostly strength,
the Spirit of knowledge and true godliness,
and fill her, O Lord, with the Spirit of thy holy fear,
now and for ever;
through Jesus Christ our Lord. Amen.
the Archbishop shall anoint the Queen in the form of a cross:
On the palms of both hands, saying,
Be thy Hands anointed with holy Oil.
On the breast, saying,
Be thy Breast anointed with holy Oil.
On the crown of the head, saying,
Be thy Head anointed with holy Oil:
as kings, priests, and prophets were anointed:
And as Solomon was anointed king
by Zadok the priest and Nathan the prophet,
so be thou anointed, blessed, and consecrated Queen
over the Peoples, whom the Lord thy God
hath given thee to rule and govern,
In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Amen.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Because Jesus Christ gave that particular teaching concerning sin in Matthew 18. Nowhere does Jesus teach that stoning is an appropriate means of church discipline.
Otherwise you would do so?
:laugh:
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Will you to the utmost of your power maintain the Laws of God and the true profession of the Gospel?
Will you to the utmost of your power maintain in the United Kingdom the Protestant Reformed Religion established by law?
I'm liking this... ![[Big Grin]](biggrin.gif)
[ 26. November 2010, 20:16: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Could you post a link? I tried to find it, but couldn't.
Well the first one was to ask what Acts 2:42 and Mt 28:20 had to say about marriage. You sort of answered that by implying that they meant we should follow all of the apostles' teachings. So I said
quote:
If you want to argue that all of the apostles' teaching is a rule book for us to follow in obedience to Christ, then I am dying to find out how you interpret the 'handing-over-wayward-believers-to-Satan' instruction mentioned above in terms of contemporary orthopraxy
There's not a question mark, but there is a question, or two, there. If you want a more straightforward one, it would be: isn't your contemporary application of what you see as apostolic teaching selective?
I'd answer you by saying no it isn't.
Perhaps you could explain why it isn't. Or Eutychus may be tempted to reply "Oh yes it is" (although I don't think they have pantomimes in France).
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
Never mind - i think I get it
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Will you to the utmost of your power maintain the Laws of God and the true profession of the Gospel?
Will you to the utmost of your power maintain in the United Kingdom the Protestant Reformed Religion established by law?
I'm liking this...
I thought you would - that's why included the extract of the oath
However, back at the main discussion - you haven't told me why the ceremonies that exist now are essential when they didn't exist then, if you see what I mean ?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
Can you confirm that in the case that as you assume William has been having a pre-marital sexual relationship then you suggest that the appropriate steps to take would be
- bishop rebukes William privately
- if ignored bishop rebukes again William in front of witnesses
- if ignored again bishop rebukes William in full public scrutiny?
If the Church took the discipline of its communicant members seriously then - in theory - yes. The same applies to Charles's adultery. Although I think the House of Bishops would be more appropriate, rather than 'full public scrutiny'.
I'm not too clued up on the House of Bishops - if infomrmation on such an undertaking were available to enquirers then, given the interest in the royal family, this would equate to full public scrutiny whith attendant News of the World coverage. If not - why are we to suppose it has not occured?
This the Church of England! All of it's secrets appear on the Ship of Fools and every clergy Chapter meeting before even Synod or even the ABC knows about it.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
FYI CofE Coronation Liturgy
The presentation of her as Queen (III) took place BEFORE the oath - as well as almost everything else in the service.
Therefore she was already Queen. It wasn't a case of making the oaths and then having the Archbishop declare "I now pronounce you monarch".
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I'd answer you by saying no it isn't. And the handing over to Satan thing, AFAIK, just means considering the person a non-Christian who is still in need to rescue marked by repentance and faith in Christ.
Lola is right. It strikes me that your approach to this text no less elastic than you claim other posters are being with the apostolic texts on marriage.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
FYI CofE Coronation Liturgy
The presentation of her as Queen (III) took place BEFORE the oath - as well as almost everything else in the service.
Therefore she was already Queen. It wasn't a case of making the oaths and then having the Archbishop declare "I now pronounce you monarch".
I agree. The liturgy definitely says that the Queen enters the Church building. She is Queen before the anointing. However, at the anointing the Archbishop says:
quote:
And as Solomon was anointed king
by Zadok the priest and Nathan the prophet,
so be thou anointed, blessed, and consecrated Queen
over the Peoples, whom the Lord thy God
hath given thee to rule and govern,
In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Amen.
Does 'be thou' suggest that something 'sacramental' is happening? Is an inward, spiritual and ontological grace being signified outwardly in the anointing? What is actually happening at this point?
[ 26. November 2010, 20:45: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
FYI CofE Coronation Liturgy
The presentation of her as Queen (III) took place BEFORE the oath - as well as almost everything else in the service.
Therefore she was already Queen. It wasn't a case of making the oaths and then having the Archbishop declare "I now pronounce you monarch".
I agree. The liturgy definitely says that the Queen enters the Church building. She is Queen before the anointing. However, at the anointing the Archbishop says:
quote:
And as Solomon was anointed king
by Zadok the priest and Nathan the prophet,
so be thou anointed, blessed, and consecrated Queen
over the Peoples, whom the Lord thy God
hath given thee to rule and govern,
In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost. Amen.
Does 'be thou' suggest that something 'sacramental' is happening? Is an inward, spiritual and ontological grace being signified outwardly in the anointing? What is actually happening at this point?
I suppose the best way of looking at it is that the Church is giving God's seal of approval to the monarch. The idea that you were the legitimate, God-appointed ruler was rather important - the divine right of kings and so forth. If the Church withheld blessing it was quite a blow to the legitimacy of your rule.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I'd answer you by saying no it isn't. And the handing over to Satan thing, AFAIK, just means considering the person a non-Christian who is still in need to rescue marked by repentance and faith in Christ.
Lola is right. It strikes me that your approach to this text no less elastic than you claim other posters are being with the apostolic texts on marriage.
I disagree and we could talk about it some other time. It's tangential to this thread though.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
[QUOTE]I suppose the best way of looking at it is that the Church is giving God's seal of approval to the monarch. The idea that you were the legitimate, God-appointed ruler was rather important - the divine right of kings and so forth. If the Church withheld blessing it was quite a blow to the legitimacy of your rule.
I don't think the church is allowed to refuse to marry people on the basis that they are fornicators though.
If I have got this right though, Edward VIII never had a coronation but was still King and had to go through some really complicated hoops to get out of it?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
The question, it seems to me, is about Things Actually Happening&trade at the Coronation Service, and by way of comparison, at the ceremony we call the Solemnization of Marriage.
It seems a bit weird to me to say that nothing happens&trade at all at marriage services and coronations but insist that something really does happen at Baptisms and the Eucharist. Now, my position as an avowed Reformed Protestant, would allow me to suggest that nothing 'sacramental' happens at the coronation or at a marriage, but that doesn't allow me to say that nothing happens at all.
It seems to me that the anointing, blessing and consecration that takes place at the coronation should be understood to do something in real time, not just retrospectively. And I would say the same of the marriage vows said by the bride and groom at the wedding. By the saying of those words the couple are wedded. Or is that wrong?
[ 27. November 2010, 08:06: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
[QUOTE]I suppose the best way of looking at it is that the Church is giving God's seal of approval to the monarch. The idea that you were the legitimate, God-appointed ruler was rather important - the divine right of kings and so forth. If the Church withheld blessing it was quite a blow to the legitimacy of your rule.
I don't think the church is allowed to refuse to marry people on the basis that they are fornicators though.
I agree. Quite the reverse in fact. The church should be actively seeking to marry such people.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
It seems to me that the anointing, blessing and consecration that takes place at the coronation should be understood to do something in real time, not just retrospectively. And I would say the same of the marriage vows said by the bride and groom at the wedding. By the saying of those words the couple are wedded. Or is that wrong?
But as I asked above, how can you need that particularly rite now, when the rite didn't exist in the early church ? People were still existing in married couples at that time. When Jesus preached referred to a specific married person he definitely and without and shadow of a doubt was not referring to anyone who had gone through a CofE marriage service.
ETA I suppose the difference for baptism and eucharist is that those who claim the necessary of this sacramental act argue the exact wording and action is given explicitly and directly in the bible and is handed down from Jesus and/or the holy spirit directly. This can not be claimed for the marriage service.
[ 27. November 2010, 10:23: Message edited by: Think˛ ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
Which is why Protestants hold to two, rather than seven, sacraments. Although, I have some sympathy for the Roman Catholic view.
I see your point regarding the CofE Marriage Service but the same could be said of any liturgical act of worship.
What think is key to this discussion is that the marriage is about God making or - as some suggest - God already having made two people one flesh: something which can be traced back to the lips of Jesus.
The nub I suppose is this: when I - as the presiding minister - pronounce the couple man and wife I believe that I am proclaiming that an act of God has taken place in that ceremony as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made in the sight of almighty God.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
I'm not really jumping into this fight. But... Solemnization of Marriage. Not Creation of Marriage. Doesn't that suggest something?
Just saying.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
I'm not really jumping into this fight. But... Solemnization of Marriage. Not Creation of Marriage. Doesn't that suggest something?
Just saying.
Yes it most certainly does. I'm not sure what yet, but it has implications for sure. I'd like to know precisely what Solemnization means. I have a fairly good idea, but I'm sure someone will have a better one.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The nub I suppose is this: when I - as the presiding minister - pronounce the couple man and wife I believe that I am proclaiming that an act of God has taken place in that ceremony as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made in the sight of almighty God.
Whereas I feel that you are proclaiming that you, and your community, have recognised/noticed that an act of God has taken place - and that now this has been stated publically and the people concerned have acknowledged that it is important, wour community will respect it, support it and honour it.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
I can appreciate the integrity of that position but the Anglican liturgy to which I've given my assent articulates a different understanding of Scripture.
However, there is at least hint in the liturgy that the process of matrimony begins with the consensual intent to marry prior to the solemnization, but the liturgy is clear that the wedding vows effect and affect the union of which Jesus speaks.
[ 27. November 2010, 12:34: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
Do you think it would be possible for an anglican to have the understanding I outline without being in conflict with the core teachings of their church ? As I said above, I think it is an important point because I think there are quite alot couples in the UK in committed relationships, who consider themselves Christian who choose to persue a sexual relationship prior to the solemnisation of marriage for various reasons. It concerns me to see people who are faithfully committed, and sincere in their religious faith having those relationships defined as sinful - when even a literal reading of the bible would struggle to support the interpretation.
Posted by JonahMan (# 12126) on
:
I think it must be possible.
An anglican minister friend of mine got married a few years ago to her long term partner, with their two teenage daughters in attendance.
Presumably she, her bishop and everyone else were happy with this as otherwise I imagine she wouldn't have been ordained whilst 'living in sin'.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
Do you think it would be possible for an Anglican to have the understanding I outline without being in conflict with the core teachings of their church?
I don't think so. The understanding of marriage that you present is in conflict with Anglican doctrine as enshrined in our liturgy.
[ 27. November 2010, 13:17: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by JonahMan:
I think it must be possible.
An anglican minister friend of mine got married a few years ago to her long term partner, with their two teenage daughters in attendance.
Presumably she, her bishop and everyone else were happy with this as otherwise I imagine she wouldn't have been ordained whilst 'living in sin'.
I bet they didn't use the BCP.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
I haven't looked at the evidence but it's been raised several times that through the middle ages and I presume well into the Protestant period of English history (let the reader adapt as required), only the rich would get married in the "with a priest" sense.
If it's true and the Church weren't going crazy to correct the matter (and I haven't seen anybody presenting counter-claims that they were) then I can only see the following options:
1. The Church didn't care about extra-marital sex unless it was also adultery
2. Common law marriages were accepted as valid
3. The Church didn't care about peasants.
Although some would like 1 to be true and 3 might well be jumped on by the green ink brigade I suspect 2 is the truth. One logical way of looking at this is that churches might have viewed common law marriages as valid but not sacramental unless and until they'd been solemnised, as I believe certain branches of the Church today view both civil marriages and those of alternative denominations.
Not saying that's the case, it's just speculation and I haven't even verified the data from which I jumped to a conclusion
. But I'm interested to know what Numpty in particular thinks.
Posted by JonahMan (# 12126) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by JonahMan:
I think it must be possible.
An anglican minister friend of mine got married a few years ago to her long term partner, with their two teenage daughters in attendance.
Presumably she, her bishop and everyone else were happy with this as otherwise I imagine she wouldn't have been ordained whilst 'living in sin'.
I bet they didn't use the BCP.
What difference would that make? I genuinely don't understand the point you're making. I'm not CofE so presumably there's somoe nuance I don't get.
I can't remember if they used the BCP (Book of Common Prayer, yes?) or not.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
These are the words of the Preface from the Book of Common Prayer: quote:
DEARLY beloved, we are gathered together here in the sight of God, and in the face of this congregation, to join together this Man and this Woman in holy Matrimony; which is an honourable estate, instituted of God in the time of man's innocency, signifying unto us the mystical union that is betwixt Christ and his Church; which holy estate Christ adorned and beautified with his presence, and first miracle that he wrought, in Cana of Galilee; and is commended of Saint Paul to be honourable among all men: and therefore is not by any to be enterprised, nor taken in hand, unadvisedly, lightly, or wantonly, to satisfy men's carnal lusts and appetites, like brute beasts that have no understanding; but reverently, discreetly, advisedly, soberly, and in the fear of God; duly considering the causes for which Matrimony was ordained.
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
Secondly, It was ordained for a remedy against sin, and to avoid fornication; that such persons as have not the gift of continency might marry, and keep themselves undefiled members of Christ's body.
Thirdly, It was ordained for the mutual society, help, and comfort, that the one ought to have of the other, both in prosperity and adversity. Into which holy estate these two persons present come now to be joined.
Therefore if any man can shew any just cause, why they may not lawfully be joined together, let him now speak, or else hereafter for ever hold his peace.
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
:
But that's quite explicit that the church has formalized something which has existed since "the time of man's innocency" when (as far as I'm aware) there was no church and there were no priests. As far as I can see, that sentence destroys your point completely because it admits that marriage has always existed outside of the church and was "instituted by God".
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
.
[/QUOTE]
so, in your opinion, if a marriage does not fulfil this 'first' principle, either the marriage is a failure, or simply not a marriage at all?
Posted by Crśsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
What think is key to this discussion is that the marriage is about God making or - as some suggest - God already having made two people one flesh: something which can be traced back to the lips of Jesus.
The nub I suppose is this: when I - as the presiding minister - pronounce the couple man and wife I believe that I am proclaiming that an act of God has taken place in that ceremony as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made in the sight of almighty God.
And if no minister proclaims it then God can't act? This sounds vaguely like a magic spell: commanding a spirit to take actions on your behalf. That must be an awesome amount of power, to be able to thwart the acts of God by simple inaction!
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crśsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
What think is key to this discussion is that the marriage is about God making or - as some suggest - God already having made two people one flesh: something which can be traced back to the lips of Jesus.
The nub I suppose is this: when I - as the presiding minister - pronounce the couple man and wife I believe that I am proclaiming that an act of God has taken place in that ceremony as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made in the sight of almighty God.
And if no minister proclaims it then God can't act? This sounds vaguely like a magic spell: commanding a spirit to take actions on your behalf. That must be an awesome amount of power, to be able to thwart the acts of God by simple inaction!
I think probably the key word in that sentence is "proclaim." I don't think "has taken place" is really at issue.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
There has always been marriage. Sex outside of marriage has always been possible. It certainly was in the Old Testament and was forbidden. We know what constituted a marriage in the Old Testament and early New Testament period.
What constitutes a marriage for Christians has evolved. The Church always had liturgies. They weren't always used. However, for the last 500 years, the church has insisted on a marriage ritual for a valid marriage. Before that, a couple could elope, say marriage vows together, claim they were married, and their parents could do nothing of the sort. You can imagine how many a young maiden was taken advantage of by this lax view of what constitutes marriage. Clandestine marriages are now not allowed by canon law.
My question is why try to look at the practices of the Old Testament and early modern Europe as a way of avoiding what the Church has practiced for at least 500 years. People living together as married without the blessing of the church are doing it because they want to do so. There is no reason for them not to get the blessing of the church on their union unless they don't believe the church is all that important in the first place. Most of the legitimate excuses, and even all of those aren't legitimate, have to do with wanting to avoid civil marriage. At this point, I'm all for the total separation of Christian marriage from civil marriage.
Posted by Crśsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
quote:
Originally posted by Crśsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
What think is key to this discussion is that the marriage is about God making or - as some suggest - God already having made two people one flesh: something which can be traced back to the lips of Jesus.
The nub I suppose is this: when I - as the presiding minister - pronounce the couple man and wife I believe that I am proclaiming that an act of God has taken place in that ceremony as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made in the sight of almighty God.
And if no minister proclaims it then God can't act? This sounds vaguely like a magic spell: commanding a spirit to take actions on your behalf. That must be an awesome amount of power, to be able to thwart the acts of God by simple inaction!
I think probably the key word in that sentence is "proclaim." I don't think "has taken place" is really at issue.
So it's really the couple casting the spell, compelling God to act "as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made"? I guess the minister is on hand, as a God expert, to verify (proclaim) that the spell worked right. Just so long as some mortal agent is bossing God around it all works out, I guess.
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crśsos:
So it's really the couple casting the spell, compelling God to act "as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made"? I guess the minister is on hand, as a God expert, to verify (proclaim) that the spell worked right. Just so long as some mortal agent is bossing God around it all works out, I guess.
I wouldn't think so. In the words of the Prayer Book again, the couple is made up of two people whom "God hath joined together." God is therefore not in any way compelled, but has been the director of the action all along.
Proclamation is something else, too. It's not "verification" but more along the lines of announcement. Proclamation is actually a key religious concept, as far as I can tell, and has been for millennia; it's an announcement of the work of God with the idea that others might hear about it. I would think this is perfectly legitimate.
I think most people in the West involved in religion today are motivated less by concocting "spells" than by their own sense of the sacred.
Anyway, we are fortunate people indeed who have the time and resources to spend time debating such things; many people don't. Religion for them is a lifeline.
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on
:
(Anyway, religion has its psychological uses even for the wealthy in the West; it allows us to get some distance from ourselves and our own lives and problems-of-the-moment.
It gives people the "large view," IOW - always important but maybe even more important these days for the West, where everything is so 10-minutes-ago in relation to the next new, new thing - and where everybody's a consumer to be manipulated, every day in every way.)
Posted by Crśsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
quote:
Originally posted by Crśsos:
So it's really the couple casting the spell, compelling God to act "as a direct result of the vows and covenant that they have made"? I guess the minister is on hand, as a God expert, to verify (proclaim) that the spell worked right. Just so long as some mortal agent is bossing God around it all works out, I guess.
I wouldn't think so. In the words of the Prayer Book again, the couple is made up of two people whom "God hath joined together." God is therefore not in any way compelled, but has been the director of the action all along.
Going back to the original question, doesn't this position imply a certain number of cases where God has joined people without the formal ceremony of a wedding? After all, the only way we can assert He can act without humans nudging Him along in this kind of situation is if He's actually done so. In other words, a certain percentage of those dismissed by the Church as "fornicators" are in fact married.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
That is what Think˛ is saying.
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crśsos:
]Going back to the original question, doesn't this position imply a certain number of cases where God has joined people without the formal ceremony of a wedding? After all, the only way we can assert He can act without humans nudging Him along in this kind of situation is if He's actually done so. In other words, a certain percentage of those dismissed by the Church as "fornicators" are in fact married.
For me, of course. Just as the Churches of Jerusalem, Alexandria, and Antioch, had erred, so also the Church of Today has erred, not only in its living and manner of Ceremonies, but also in matters of Faith.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
and therefore is not by any to be enterprised, nor taken in hand, unadvisedly, lightly, or wantonly, to satisfy men's carnal lusts and appetites, like brute beasts that have no understanding; but reverently, discreetly, advisedly, soberly, and in the fear of God; duly considering the causes for which Matrimony was ordained.
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
Secondly, It was ordained for a remedy against sin, and to avoid fornication; that such persons as have not the gift of continency might marry, and keep themselves undefiled members of Christ's body.
Thirdly, It was ordained for the mutual society, help, and comfort, that the one ought to have of the other, both in prosperity and adversity. Into which holy estate these two persons present come now to be joined.
[/QUOTE]
I don't think the liturgy you cite supports your argument Numpty. Essentially, you are assuming that anybody who is not marrying in a church rite is not fulfilling that first paragraph. I don't think you can reasonably make that assumption. There are many reasons why a proportion of people who consider themselves Christians do not marry first in church; cost of meeting family expectations for the event, alienation from the institutional church for some reason, a wish to allow their relationship to grow in strength before exposing it to public scrutiny, a superstitious fear that the marriage will end in divorce as did their parents' etc etc. Now these reasons may or may not be good, and may or not be well thought out, but they do not in and of themselves preclude the couple having thought carefully about the relationship before deciding to commit to each other - and doing so in the context of their religious faith.
In other words, we can not reasonably assume that couples without solemnised marriages are just in the relationship for the sex. And your own observations of couples must surely affirm this ?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
My question is why try to look at the practices of the Old Testament and early modern Europe as a way of avoiding what the Church has practiced for at least 500 years.
Personally, it's because a lot of people who argue for the status quo on what a marriage is (for example, it's heterosexual - but I don't want to head into DH territory here) present it as "this is the way marriage has always been". When what they are citing is no more than 500 years old and in some respects it's much YOUNGER than that. I can't recall the exact dates, but the period of time when UK law absolutely required a wedding to be conducted in a church didn't start until some time in the 1700s and ended during the 1800s. Which doesn't seem to stop people asserting that weddings absolutely are a church thing, God ordained, and have never been otherwise.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
so, in your opinion, if a marriage does not fulfil this 'first' principle, either the marriage is a failure, or simply not a marriage at all?
I've asked before on the Ship what the Biblical basis is for this claim about the purpose of marriage. I can't say I got any terribly convincing answers.
It also rather smacks of a time when a woman's role was seen very much in terms of producing heirs, and that childlessness was either a failure on her part or an outright curse from God.
It seems to me that the notion that 'marriage is the best environment for children' got changed somewhere into 'children are the reason for marriage'. One sees this even with less religious couples, who live together unmarried but then have a wedding once children have arrived, or are about to arrive.
Posted by Jahlove (# 10290) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
These are the words of the Preface from the Book of Common Prayer: quote:
DEARLY beloved, we are gathered together here in the sight of God, and in the face of this congregation, to join together this Man and this Woman in holy Matrimony; which is an honourable estate, instituted of God in the time of man's innocency, signifying unto us the mystical union that is betwixt Christ and his Church; which holy estate Christ adorned and beautified with his presence, and first miracle that he wrought, in Cana of Galilee; and is commended of Saint Paul to be honourable among all men: and therefore is not by any to be enterprised, nor taken in hand, unadvisedly, lightly, or wantonly, to satisfy men's carnal lusts and appetites, like brute beasts that have no understanding; but reverently, discreetly, advisedly, soberly, and in the fear of God; duly considering the causes for which Matrimony was ordained.
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
Secondly, It was ordained for a remedy against sin, and to avoid fornication; that such persons as have not the gift of continency might marry, and keep themselves undefiled members of Christ's body.
Thirdly, It was ordained for the mutual society, help, and comfort, that the one ought to have of the other, both in prosperity and adversity. Into which holy estate these two persons present come now to be joined.
Therefore if any man can shew any just cause, why they may not lawfully be joined together, let him now speak, or else hereafter for ever hold his peace.
As many nuanced responses demonstrate, *fornication* is really a word that should apply to activities which involve prostitution (either private enterprise or cultic). To get to the nub of why society and/or *the church* disapprove of sex without *marriage*, you probably have to think around the subject a bit: let us consider (from Numpty's post)
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children
... without which, the human race would not continue.This is a *given* - imo, it should say *for the procreation and nurturing of children* i.e. a stable, committed relationship is the best environment in which to raise children
Secondly, It was ordained for a remedy against sin, and to avoid fornication
The *sin* which may be inherent in sexual relations is, istm, that of treating another human being as a means to an end (qv Kant) -this would clearly include *fornication* i.e prostitition = sex for money although one could widen that to include sex for greedy self-satisfaction which would furthermore go on to include the selling of sex for fame & fortune (qv almost any best-selling novel or pop song)
Thirdly, It was ordained for the mutual society, help, and comfort, that the one ought to have of the other, both in prosperity and adversity
Now that's a bit more like it! This should come first, imo.
Myself, I blame them Beatles from Liverpool innit
[ 28. November 2010, 00:05: Message edited by: Jahlove ]
Posted by Louise (# 30) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I can't recall the exact dates, but the period of time when UK law absolutely required a wedding to be conducted in a church didn't start until some time in the 1700s and ended during the 1800s. Which doesn't seem to stop people asserting that weddings absolutely are a church thing, God ordained, and have never been otherwise.
In Scotland this was never the case (that church marriage was required), my great grandparents were married at the beginning of the first world war by declaration before witnesses which was then registered by sheriff's warrant, when my great grandfather had to rush off to join his regiment. This remained legal until 1939, at which point civil registrars were introduced, so as far as I know it's never been compulsory to marry in church in Scotland. The churches frowned upon this, but Scottish law has always recognised marriage as not being the sole preserve of the church. The other non-church ways of marrying were by
quote:
2. A promise of marriage, followed by a sexual relationship, was regarded as a legal marriage - but this had to be backed up by some kind of proof, such as a written promise of marriage, or an oath sworn before witnesses.
3. Marriages 'by habit and repute' were also legal if a couple usually presented themselves in public as husband and wife, even if no formal declaration of marriage was made.
No church ceremony was required, merely the commitment to each other as husband and wife.
L.
[ 28. November 2010, 00:14: Message edited by: Louise ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Apologies for roping in the Scots. I should have remembered that even after it became the UK, Scottish law was often distinct.
I was really just paraphrasing bits of info picked up during the gay marriage debate that has been raging in Australia the last few weeks. Although I have seen some of the material before that as well.
[ 28. November 2010, 00:55: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
I haven't looked at the evidence but it's been raised several times that through the middle ages and I presume well into the Protestant period of English history (let the reader adapt as required), only the rich would get married in the "with a priest" sense.
For most of the middle ages, the procedure was something like this, for the rich: After extensive contractual negotiations over the dowry and other property matters, the documents would be signed. then there would be a party to celebrate, and the couple would be escorted to their bedchamber where the marriage would presumably be consummated (if they could manage it with all the people outside cheering to encourage them). The next day they would go to church, where a priest would bless the marriage. This was usually done on the front steps of the church, not inside at the altar. It was not a performative act that made the marriage valid--the marriage was accomplished by the transfer of the dowry and the consummation.
There were surely local variations, and changes over time, but that's the outline of the church's involvement in weddings until at least the 15th century.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
Here's a question. Why do Evangelicals not cohabit?
Earlier up-thread Boogie proposed a cohabiting couple who then got married but whose life was in most respects the same, and asked why they could have sex after the wedding but not before. Put in those terms the Evangelical position is always going to look arbitrary, but ISTM that from an Evangelical perspective the question is hypothetical, because Evangelicals don't cohabit.
To put it another way: these debates sometimes suggest that, for an Evangelical, the only practical consequence of marriage is that you're allowed to have sex. I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
Do they have a problem with it?
Posted by Imaginary Friend (# 186) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
Do they have a problem with it?
In my experience, it's not that they have a problem with is per se, it's more that they don't really believe it can exist because nobody can resist the temptation.
As an example, I knew a couple who were living together, got engaged, became Christian (in that order) and decided that they would stop having sex until they were married. However, they continued to live under the same roof because practically and financially that was the sensible thing to do. The pastor of their church didn't believe that this was what they were actually doing and treated them like they were living together in the regular way. This included expressing concern that they were involved with youth work and not allowing them to start any more 'ministries' until they had the wedding.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
Here's a question. Why do Evangelicals not cohabit?
Earlier up-thread Boogie proposed a cohabiting couple who then got married but whose life was in most respects the same, and asked why they could have sex after the wedding but not before. Put in those terms the Evangelical position is always going to look arbitrary, but ISTM that from an Evangelical perspective the question is hypothetical, because Evangelicals don't cohabit.
To put it another way: these debates sometimes suggest that, for an Evangelical, the only practical consequence of marriage is that you're allowed to have sex. I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
The reaosn I am currently interested in this si because I am friends with an evangelical couple who are not yet married, do not live together, and are persuing an intimate relationship. HTere ar every good reasons why they are not yet living together nor have yet had a marraige solemnised that I won't go into here. But they are committed to each other and their faith, and I think it is a mistake to see such a relationship as sinful.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
Do they have a problem with it?
In my experience, it's not so much that Evangelicals have a problem with it, as that it just doesn't happen. I'm pretty sure that if you asked an Evangelical "Is chaste cohabitation sinful?" they'd say "No", but Evangelicals don't seem to do it. And my question is why.
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
so, in your opinion, if a marriage does not fulfil this 'first' principle, either the marriage is a failure, or simply not a marriage at all?
I've asked before on the Ship what the Biblical basis is for this claim about the purpose of marriage. I can't say I got any terribly convincing answers.
It also rather smacks of a time when a woman's role was seen very much in terms of producing heirs, and that childlessness was either a failure on her part or an outright curse from God.
It seems to me that the notion that 'marriage is the best environment for children' got changed somewhere into 'children are the reason for marriage'. One sees this even with less religious couples, who live together unmarried but then have a wedding once children have arrived, or are about to arrive.
Pretty much my view. Numpty obviously considers it vital that what the BCP says about marriage is what marriage should really be about; and I was interested in what he thought of a marriage that didn't have as its first principle 'the procreation of children'. He doesn't appear to be interested enough, however, to answer the question.
Posted by TurquoiseTastic (# 8978) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
Do they have a problem with it?
In my experience, it's not so much that Evangelicals have a problem with it, as that it just doesn't happen. I'm pretty sure that if you asked an Evangelical "Is chaste cohabitation sinful?" they'd say "No", but Evangelicals don't seem to do it. And my question is why.
I have had friends in this position whose answer was that it is scandalous in the strict sense - that even if they weren't having sex, everyone would assume that they were, and that this would bring the church into disrepute.
[edited for tenses and spaces]
[ 28. November 2010, 15:09: Message edited by: TurquoiseTastic ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
First, It was ordained for the procreation of children, to be brought up in the fear and nurture of the Lord, and to the praise of his holy Name.
so, in your opinion, if a marriage does not fulfil this 'first' principle, either the marriage is a failure, or simply not a marriage at all?
I've asked before on the Ship what the Biblical basis is for this claim about the purpose of marriage. I can't say I got any terribly convincing answers.
It also rather smacks of a time when a woman's role was seen very much in terms of producing heirs, and that childlessness was either a failure on her part or an outright curse from God.
It seems to me that the notion that 'marriage is the best environment for children' got changed somewhere into 'children are the reason for marriage'. One sees this even with less religious couples, who live together unmarried but then have a wedding once children have arrived, or are about to arrive.
Pretty much my view. Numpty obviously considers it vital that what the BCP says about marriage is what marriage should really be about; and I was interested in what he thought of a marriage that didn't have as its first principle 'the procreation of children'. He doesn't appear to be interested enough, however, to answer the question.
I have no reason to reject what the BCP says about marriage because I'm convinced that it is congruent with what Scripture says about marriage. But I don't think that the principles of marriage outlined in the BCP are to be understood in order of precedence.
I do think that marriage is the institution of voluntary public union of one man and one woman which should be held in honour by all. The chief issue under discussion is the mechanics of how a marriage actually begins. Does the Anglican marriage ceremony (and other formal ceremonies) create and effect the union called marriage or is it simply one among many (both formal and informal) ways of ratifying a pre-existing state of marriage. And if it is the second, what does effect the marriage?
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
Well if you can annul a marriage that hasn't been consummated, that suggested that sexual intercourse is considered fairly key.
It is supposed to be a spiritual union at some level I think - but I doubt that happens instantly. Which I guess is one of the reasons people I think people live together or sleep together before marriage - they are getting to the point of unity. They then choose to have the ceremony when they think they've got there. A folk theology if you like.
Or to put it another way - you don't put an acorn in the ground and declare you have a tree. You might wait till its put a shoot above ground, or you have a sapling. But some people do hold planting ceremonies.
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
:
Posted by "I.F." quote:
The pastor of their church didn't believe that this was what they were actually doing and treated them like they were living together in the regular way. This included expressing concern that they were involved with youth work and not allowing them to start any more 'ministries' until they had the wedding.
Maybe he was aware of God's Word that informs the Christian that they must avoid all 'appearance of evil' as well as evil itself. And before someone says that fornication isn't such a thing, then remember that Jesus used it in the same list as murder, just because 21st Century life has hurtled towards Sodom & Gom' doesn't mean God has to suddenly approve because society now says it is cool with it.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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Ah, abstain from every appearance of evil. I believe that to be one of the most misinterpreted passages in the New Testament. The mistake wouldn't be made by anybody with a Greek New Testament and a rudimentary understanding of Koine Greek. But, Fundies have to find some way to justify their extreme legalism and self righteousness. It usually involves prooftexting.
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on
:
Going back to an earlier point, it's really not that difficult to find out about Jewish marriage in Biblical times (google is your friend!) and by extension what went on at the wedding in Cana.
Ancient Jewish Marriage from My Jewish Learning
Basically, there was a betrothal which involved the legal contract and the paying of the brideprice. The couple were then legally married, but did not cohabit or have sex.
Then there was the wedding, about a year later, which involved a large, noisy and happy procession from the bride's home to the groom's, a loud drunken festive party, and at some point the bride and groom departing to bed to consumate the marriage.
(Oh, and Mousethief? Divorce was much more difficult than saying "I divorce you" three times. And expensive)
Posted by no_prophet (# 15560) on
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In an ideal world, the lion would lie down with the lamb, we'd have beaten our swords into ploughs and pruning hooks long ago, we'd act with charity toward our local and international neighbours etc. But the rich lions of our societies eat the poor helpless lambs, we build very expensive bombs and drop them from very expensive airplanes on people we don't really know and certainly don't love. And we get wrapped up about a young couple who like to sleep together? I'd think the prince's serving in her majesties killing forces is a lot more important than whether he humps his future wife myself. I suspect God is more unhappy with killing than he is with a little non-procreative sex. I know I am.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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Ah, a view of God right out of Bruce Almighty. Jim Carrey isn't God. You aren't like God. Anything less than perfection falls short of the glory of God. We will never be perfect this side of the eschaton. However, arguing that because worse things happen in the world God doesn't care about our personal behavior is a cop out.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
It is supposed to be a spiritual union at some level I think - but I doubt that happens instantly. Which I guess is one of the reasons people I think people live together or sleep together before marriage - they are getting to the point of unity. They then choose to have the ceremony when they think they've got there.
Not commenting one way or the other on pre-marital cohabitation, but picking up on this one point: If they think they have gotten to "the point of unity," the likelihood that they are sorely deluded approaches 1.
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
(Oh, and Mousethief? Divorce was much more difficult than saying "I divorce you" three times. And expensive)
I have simply GOT to stop believing what people tell me. Gets me every time.
[ 29. November 2010, 03:54: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
Well if you can annul a marriage that hasn't been consummated, that suggested that sexual intercourse is considered fairly key.
It is supposed to be a spiritual union at some level I think - but I doubt that happens instantly. Which I guess is one of the reasons people I think people live together or sleep together before marriage - they are getting to the point of unity. They then choose to have the ceremony when they think they've got there.
I've heard the same reasoning from legalistic credo-baptists concerning the right time to allow their children to be baptised.
In other words, this reasoning stop marriage being parabolic of Christ and the church because it makes it look like the Church can test drive Jesus to see if the relationship might work. If we find that we 'reach unity' with him we might then decise to give him a chance to be Lord and Saviour.
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
:
Beeswax quote:
Ah, abstain from every appearance of evil. I believe that to be one of the most misinterpreted passages in the New Testament.
Or should that be earwax? I do incredibly have knowledge of the Greek and a healthy respect for all Biblical text. Liberals rarely share that respect and thereby the "fundie" attempt at a putdown has to suffice due to the lack of argument.
Hence the journey that began with CT Russell and similar. Many millions will follow after it.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
Beeswax quote:
Ah, abstain from every appearance of evil. I believe that to be one of the most misinterpreted passages in the New Testament.
Or should that be earwax?
That remark contravenes two guidelines which apply to posting here.
1. Don't mess around with Shipmate's chosen Ship Names without prior permission. Its a discourtesy to the Shipmate and we regard it as a form of personal abuse (Commandment 3). Use the chosen name (or a straightforward abbreviation).
2. However, the implication of your name game, that Beeswax is deaf to the truth of things, is clearly abusive as well, and more seriously so. It contravenes both C3 and Purgatory Guideline 1. You can find the detailed content of these guidelines by clicking on the 10 Commandments link at the top of this page, then following the link to guidelines for each board.
I remind you, formally, that you agreed to abide by these guidelines when you became a member here. If you weren't an Apprentice, I would be making this a full formal warning.
Please stick to the arguments. Criticism of them is normal and accepted. Taking potshots at Shipmates' abilities or characters is not acceptable on any Board other than Hell. If you continue in this vein, you may well end up getting called there, as well as risking your freedom to post.
Barnabas62
Purgatory Host
[ 29. November 2010, 11:02: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Zoey (# 11152) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I don't think this does justice to the Evangelical concept of marriage, because if that's all there was to it, then Evangelicals would have no problem with chaste cohabitation.
Do they have a problem with it?
In my experience, it's not so much that Evangelicals have a problem with it, as that it just doesn't happen. I'm pretty sure that if you asked an Evangelical "Is chaste cohabitation sinful?" they'd say "No", but Evangelicals don't seem to do it. And my question is why.
I'm in my 20s and have plenty of friends who co-habit as couples (or who did so for a few years and then got married). For that reason, I rarely voice the following opinions offline. However, I personally really don't 'get' the idea of living together for a few years, then getting married - and it is the fact of people living together, rather than any sexual relationship they're having, which particularly perplexes me.
If one half of a couple moves in with the other, giving up their previous home, then the couple are joining together their weekday and weekend routines and habits. Whether or not they maintain separate bank accounts, there must be a significant merging of finances - one lot of rent / mortgage, utility bills, grocery shopping bills, etc between two people - one household for the couple where previously they lived in two separate households. I'd also guess that couples with a level of commitment to each other are also, to a greater or lesser extent, merging their plans for the future by 'living together' - if A and B are a couple and A gets offered the career opportunity of a life-time at the other side of the country / in a different country, I'd guess that B would get more say in what A chooses to do in response if A and B in a relatioship of steady cohabitation than if A and B are in a steady relationship but still living separately.
Given all that, I can't see myself ever cohabiting with a partner. If I'm prepared to merge my life with a partner to that extent and in that many ways, then I want to be commited enough to marry them. If I were evangelical (which I'm not, although I was taken to an evo church as a child and adolescent), then marrying my partner would have the added bonus that I'd be able to have sex with them!
So, I can understand chaste co-habitation / being housemates with a romantic partner for specific practical or financial reasons (e.g. the couple mentioned up thread who were living together, then later became evos, planned to marry, but couldn't afford to live in separate places until the wedding). I can understand co-habitation without ever marrying because one has ideological objections to marriage. However, in my own case, given that I see marriage as a good set-up, if I were to meet somebody I wanted to commit to, why on earth would I cohabit with them rather than just marrying them? If I weren't commited enough to marry them, why would I merge my life with their's in all the ways mentioned above (which seems to me a major undertaking somewhat on a par with marriage but without the vows to permanence, explicit commitment, etc)?
Does that make any sense? I know that I'm at odds with most of my (non-Christian) peers on this (as I said, most of my face-to-face friends don't know that I hold the above opinions), but that's the way I think about the issue. I guess evangelical Christians may work along similar lines, plus if they're commited enough to a partner then they want to get married with them + have sex, not just move in and co-habit chastely (unless there's some compelling practical / financial reason to co-habit chastely before marrying). (As stated above, I spent a long time within evangelical Chrisitanity, but am very much not an evangelical Christian now.)
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
Zoey, the youngsters I know in this situation want time to save up for a posh wedding. They put great store on having a really 'special' day, which (they feel) costs more than they can yet afford.
Posted by Zoey (# 11152) on
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... whereas I think the cost of the bride's frock and the splendour of the reception venue are entirely beside the point.
For me, the point of a wedding day is (roughly speaking) for the bride and groom to make a (public before God and/or human witnesses) commitment to love each other, work at the relationship, etc, for the rest of their lives.
I was going to worry that I must be a 60 year-old crone trapped in a 20-something body, but actually a couple of (Buddhist) friends in my age group got married last year after a few years of cohabiting. Their wedding wasn't bargain-basement, but it was done on a fairly limited budget (reception was held in a local pub, etc). And the bride and I definitely had a conversation once (not on the wedding day, but on a different occasion) about how the point of a wedding is the two people getting married, wanting to be together for the rest of their lives, etc, not the cost of the day. So, there are at least two 20-something old-fashioned traditionalists just in my little corner of the world, who think that a wedding day is not about the money spent on trappings.
(As I said earlier, I try not to inflict my traditionalism / judgementalism in this regard onto my friends generally. The internet is allowing my opinionated traditionalist to argue the case in more abstract, less direct, fashion.)
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
I couldn't agree more Zoey - my own wedding cost Ł300 total. We had the 'do' in the church hall. My MIL made the dresses, my Mum made the cake, my Dad iced it and friends did the flowers and photos.
But this is not the way I'm seeing it done all around me - I can't think of any wedding I've been to in the last 5 years (and I have been to lots) where anything has been home made.
Posted by Yerevan (# 10383) on
:
quote:
As an example, I knew a couple who were living together, got engaged, became Christian (in that order) and decided that they would stop having sex until they were married. However, they continued to live under the same roof because practically and financially that was the sensible thing to do. The pastor of their church didn't believe that this was what they were actually doing and treated them like they were living together in the regular way. This included expressing concern that they were involved with youth work and not allowing them to start any more 'ministries' until they had the wedding.
I know of a similar situation in an (open) evangelical church, except that only one of the couple was Christian and they weren't engaged. The minister told the Christian partner that he trusted her to make up her own mind, which she did. They continued living together, got engaged pretty quickly and are now happily married. I'm sure a few laypeople in the church didn't approve, but the leadership wisely accepted that it wasn't a black and white situation and let them to work through it themselves.
Posted by Lola (# 627) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Zoey, the youngsters I know in this situation want time to save up for a posh wedding. They put great store on having a really 'special' day, which (they feel) costs more than they can yet afford.
In my acquaintance this is really a cover story for the fact that the man hasn't asked her.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lola:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Zoey, the youngsters I know in this situation want time to save up for a posh wedding. They put great store on having a really 'special' day, which (they feel) costs more than they can yet afford.
In my acquaintance this is really a cover story for the fact that the man hasn't asked her.
I honestly don't think this is entirely true.
For a start, the normal progression of a relationship that ends in marriage in the culture I live in seems to be friendship first, then having sex, then a period of "going out together" (which is not quite what the Americans would call "dating" because it oftehn, perhaps usually follows from a sexual relationship, it doesn't precede it), then moving in together, very often then children, then marriage.
Planning and preparing for a slap-up wedding is part of the reason for delaying the wedding, but its not the only one or even the mst important one. I suspect that most of these couples don't think they are delaying anything at all - this is the way things are done, this is what they have been brought up to expect, because this is pretty much the way their parents generation - that is my generation - behaved. Maybe children before the wedding is more common now, but the "going-out" -> "living together" -> "wedding" order of things has been the usual way to progress a sexual relationship for a long time.
Some similar wibble on another thread here) where I said that in my opinion: quote:
There is also a common feeling that marriage somehow binds a woman to unwanted or demeaning obligations (contrary to popular fiction its more often men who want to get married and women who don't, just as within a couple its more often the man who wants more children and the women who doesn't) I've met some women who seem almost to regard marriage as shameful, an admission of inadequacy or defeat.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
What went on at Cana before the wine ran out? Did the Steward do the whole business or would there have been a priest or a Rabbi present?
You're projecting a wholly modern understanding of the commencement of the wedded state back into first century Jerusalem (or Galilee -- I'm not going to go look it up). Fact is we don't know, at least from the Bible, how Jews wed one another in those days. We have been told (well, I have) that a man could divorce his wife by saying "I divorce you" three times. They don't seem to have been to particular about the same kind of niceties we are today.
We do know a bit. Unless they were from the very poorest classes they quite probably had a legally binding written contract. See Some are collected on this website here
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican_Brat:
The notion of the Monarch being a paragon of civic and moral virtue only emerged with Queen Victoria.
Boring bit of pedantry, but actually it started with George III and Queen Charlotte, who were held up in public as models of family life.
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
There has always been marriage. Sex outside of marriage has always been possible. It certainly was in the Old Testament and was forbidden.
Forbidden? We don't know that it was forbidden. It was certainly forbidden for a man to have sex with another man's wife, or with another man's unmarried daughter, or with another man's slave or concubine. But there is no legislation in the Torah about voluntary sexual relations between two adults neither of who was married to anyone else.
Posted by Thurible (# 3206) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
But this is not the way I'm seeing it done all around me - I can't think of any wedding I've been to in the last 5 years (and I have been to lots) where anything has been home made.
Within the last five years, our reception was in church; our three-tier cake was made by us and iced by her; the beer came from the brewery and the food from a combination of M&S, Waitrose and Sainsbury's (and the butcher for a game pie). It was a very fine day.
Thurible
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Thurible:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
But this is not the way I'm seeing it done all around me - I can't think of any wedding I've been to in the last 5 years (and I have been to lots) where anything has been home made.
Within the last five years, our reception was in church; our three-tier cake was made by us and iced by her; the beer came from the brewery and the food from a combination of M&S, Waitrose and Sainsbury's (and the butcher for a game pie). It was a very fine day.
Thurible
Sounds brilliant!
Posted by barrea (# 3211) on
:
To me it seems all wrong to live logether for years, just so that one can save up for a big upmarket wedding. We got married in 1950,after knowing each other for a few months and the wedding cost next to nothing. However we are still together and next week celebrate our Diamond Anniversary.
In our day living together before marriage was almost unknown, it didn't start to creep in until the late 60s. Now it seems to be regarded as normal and even some people who would regard themselves as Christians are condoning it.
I believe it has happened to a large extent because the established church has not spoken out against it, but taken the easy way out by ignoring it. If anyone dares to say anything against it we are classed as biggots. But the Bible dosn't change and just because it is accepted dosn't make it right.
Sadly it is happening in my own family. I am not happy about it but I can't change what people do.
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
I'm largely with Zoey on this (previous page). I really don't see the attraction of living with someone as opposed to marrying them. But that's because in order for me to change my life radically enough in order to live with someone, I would require to give and receive the kind of commitment that would only effectively be covered by the marriage vows!
I accept it's normal now for couples to live together unmarried. And that I'm probably old-fashioned and selfish. But the idea that the man in my life is quite content enough to enjoy all the benefits of living with me, but not 'rich' enough to marry me would, frankly, just ring alarm bells.
But then I've never fantasized about fairy-tale weddings. A quiet weekday morning at church, handful of family and friends, small do in a pub, at home or at most in the church hall. And none of this business of blackmailing friends into subscribing to expensive wedding lists at Debenhams!
I can sort of understand those who put off getting married til they have enough money to have the lavish fairytale day they've always dreamed of. Believe it or not, I love to see what other people do for their big day! But to my mind it's a skewed priority, if you're able to live together under the same roof as a couple, but not 'rich' enough to actually be husband and wife.
For myself, if I felt ready to give up my own lifestyle, my own freedoms and independent home space, to merge with another, I wouldn't do it for anything less than a commitment to lifetime marriage. So living with a partner would not appeal to me in the least. I really would feel that I was giving up a hell of a lot for not very much in return!
None of this touches on pre-marital sex, of course. Many couples who don't live together have sex. For those ministers concerned about the fornicating status of those seeking marriage, how do they check this out for those couples who don't live together?
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Ah, abstain from every appearance of evil. I believe that to be one of the most misinterpreted passages in the New Testament. The mistake wouldn't be made by anybody with a Greek New Testament and a rudimentary understanding of Koine Greek. But, Fundies have to find some way to justify their extreme legalism and self righteousness. It usually involves prooftexting.
Don't be silly. I know its still open season on evangelicals on the ship but that's just a caricature.
Anyway the same principle is upheld in other parts of the Bible. Like St Paul and not leading the weaker brother astray.
And obviously Jesus telling the disciples they are like a city set on a hill, the light not under a bushel, the salt of the earth.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
What do people make of Hebrews 13:4? quote:
4 Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral.
It seems as if the writer wants (1) the institution of marriage to be honoured by all, (2) and sexual element of individual marriages to be kept pure. The writer also seems to suggest that there are two main ways to dishonour marriage sexually: adultery (i.e. sexual sin which directly affects a marriage) and sexual immorality (i.e sexual sin outside of - or without regard for - marriage).
So, regardless of the actual mechanisms by which marriage is understood to occur, it is fair to say that marriage as an institution is dishonoured by adultery and extra-marital sex.
Posted by Zoey (# 11152) on
:
Let's see a quick action replay of that jump in reasoning just employed by CmN:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The writer also seems to suggest that there are two main ways to dishonour marriage sexually: adultery (i.e. sexual sin which directly affects a marriage) and sexual immorality (i.e sexual sin outside of - or without regard for - marriage).
So, regardless of the actual mechanisms by which marriage is understood to occur, it is fair to say that marriage as an institution is dishonoured by adultery and extra-marital sex.
And a closer view available from the other camera:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
sexual immorality (i.e sexual sin outside of - or without regard for - marriage).
Can we zoom in even further to see the offending move?:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
i.e
Shockingly bad play there by Call me Numpty. He surely doesn't think his opponents are going to let that move go by without being challenged?
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
I really don't see the attraction of living with someone as opposed to marrying them. But that's because in order for me to change my life radically enough in order to live with someone, I would require to give and receive the kind of commitment that would only effectively be covered by the marriage vows!
For most people of 'marryin' age,' though, there isn't a major life change. Most have been living alone for short times if ever.
Posted by Zoey (# 11152) on
:
So those in their late 20s to mid 30s aren't of marrying age????
Living with housemates is different to living with a partner, I would think.
I'm in my 20s, have lived over 2 years completely on my own (I'm an introvert with various 'issues' - having my own place is admittedly on the expensive side, but much better for my mental health), have lived many more years than that essentially as an individual (lodger, single person living in student accommodation, etc). I would find living with a partner a huge leap, but I'm surprised to hear that I'm no longer of marrying age before I've even hit 30.
(I can see that couples who meet at uni might never live 'alone' (either as a 1-person-household or with non-romantic housemates), but not every couple meets at uni. (I and many of my friends have been to uni. Not sure how the situation pans out with groups of people who don't generally go to uni.))
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
So, regardless of the actual mechanisms by which marriage is understood to occur, it is fair to say that marriage as an institution is dishonoured by adultery and extra-marital sex.
This is quite circular. Or maybe that's not quite the right term -- anyway it is relying on an understanding of the term "sexual immorality" that includes extra-marital sex. But the very point in question in this thread was whether or not extra-marital sex is immoral. Quoting Paul saying that "sexual immorality" is bad doesn't answer the question, since we don't know if Paul's "sexual immorality" included extra-marital sex or not. Yeah, circular is the right word.
Posted by Zoey (# 11152) on
:
Not sure I've expressed myself very well above ... but go back to my post on previous page about how - to me - 'living together' seems to represent a merging of lives (closer to marriage than to how most people go about just sharing a household with friends / relatives). Whether or not one's ever lived completely alone (1 person-household), having one's partner get offered their dream job across the country is different to having one's long-term flatmate get offered their dream job across the country (at which point I'd assume most people just advertise for a new flatmate), etc, etc, etc,
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Zoey:
So those in their late 20s to mid 30s aren't of marrying age????
Living with housemates is different to living with a partner, I would think.
I'm in my 20s, have lived over 2 years completely on my own (I'm an introvert with various 'issues' - having my own place is admittedly on the expensive side, but much better for my mental health), have lived many more years than that essentially as an individual (lodger, single person living in student accommodation, etc). I would find living with a partner a huge leap, but I'm surprised to hear that I'm no longer of marrying age before I've even hit 30.
(I can see that couples who meet at uni might never live 'alone' (either as a 1-person-household or with non-romantic housemates), but not every couple meets at uni. (I and many of my friends have been to uni. Not sure how the situation pans out with groups of people who don't generally go to uni.))
Note the word 'most.' Being an introvert who is willing to pay significantly more money for the level of privacy you desire probably places you outside of what I was talking about. It certainly places me, an introvert who pays significantly more rent for the level of privacy I desire, outside of that same group.
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by pjkirk:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
I really don't see the attraction of living with someone as opposed to marrying them. But that's because in order for me to change my life radically enough in order to live with someone, I would require to give and receive the kind of commitment that would only effectively be covered by the marriage vows!
For most people of 'marryin' age,' though, there isn't a major life change. Most have been living alone for short times if ever.
Marrying age? As in anyone over the age of 16 - if you live in Britain? The average age for marrying apparently is approx: 32 for guys, 34 for ladies. It was when I was 34, less than ten years ago. And still is now. I hardly think my experience of being single but living in shared accommodation/single accommodation for my adult life to the present is hardly unusual.
I think what I'm outlining - for myself - is my attitude towards cohabitation. Agreeing to live as a permanent partner with another person, where one merges ones existence with someone else's.
If it really isn't a major life change moving from a single independent life to a life spent with a committed life partner (albeit unmarried) I can only imagine that the 'couple' aren't getting the partnership thing quite right!
Posted by TurquoiseTastic (# 8978) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
I think what I'm outlining - for myself - is my attitude towards cohabitation. Agreeing to live as a permanent partner with another person, where one merges ones existence with someone else's.
If it really isn't a major life change moving from a single independent life to a life spent with a committed life partner (albeit unmarried) I can only imagine that the 'couple' aren't getting the partnership thing quite right!
But is that "agreement" actually what happens? In my admittedly limited experience, it seems to be that a couple often move in together without any agreement of permanence. In fact that seems to be one of the "selling points" of co-habitation - a flexible "let's see how it goes" attitude. Then as time goes on, it gradually morphs (without anyone actually saying so) into that permanent commitment you were talking about. And I think that sometimes this is the point at which long-term co-habiting couples then get married - a sort of "well, we're virtually married now anyhow, why not admit it?"
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
Single people sharing a flat with someone or living in a college or hostel or other multiple-occupancy residence is very, very difference from living with someone you have sex with and sleeping in the same bed! I mean really, obviously, it is.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
So, regardless of the actual mechanisms by which marriage is understood to occur, it is fair to say that marriage as an institution is dishonoured by adultery and extra-marital sex.
This is quite circular. Or maybe that's not quite the right term -- anyway it is relying on an understanding of the term "sexual immorality" that includes extra-marital sex. But the very point in question in this thread was whether or not extra-marital sex is immoral. Quoting Paul saying that "sexual immorality" is bad doesn't answer the question, since we don't know if Paul's "sexual immorality" included extra-marital sex or not.
I'm trying to work out why the writer of Hebrews says that adultery (μοιχός) and sexual immorality (πόρνος) pose a danger to (1) the institution of marriage, and (2) the sexual aspects of marriage (i.e. the marriage bed).
I understand adultery (μοιχός) to be extra-marital sex that detrimentally affects marriage and marriages, but what threat does sexual immorality (πόρνος) pose to marriage?
Why would the writer talk about πόρνος as a direct threat to (1) marriage as an institution, and (2) individual marriages? Are you really suggesting that understanding πόρνος to mean - or at least include - pre-marital sex is an illegitimate, perhaps even a dishonest interpretation?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
No I'm suggesting it begs the question.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
Not really. I'd say that the assertion that πόρνος doesn't include pre-marital sex begs the question because such an assertion doesn't have the support of tradition, reason or (in my opinion) scripture. Or personal spiritual experience for that matter.
[ 29. November 2010, 21:51: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Not really. I'd say that the assertion that πόρνος doesn't include pre-marital sex begs the question because such an assertion doesn't have the support of tradition, reason or (in my opinion) scripture. Or personal spiritual experience for that matter.
I'm saying scripture doesn't say either way. The passage you quote from Hebrews does not come out and say that premarital sex is pornos. You're reading that into it. What else you got?
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Not really. I'd say that the assertion that πόρνος doesn't include pre-marital sex begs the question because such an assertion doesn't have the support of tradition, reason or (in my opinion) scripture. Or personal spiritual experience for that matter.
I'm saying scripture doesn't say either way. The passage you quote from Hebrews does not come out and say that premarital sex is pornos. You're reading that into it. What else you got?
Interestingly, the New Jerusalem Bible translates porneia in Matthew 5:32 as "illegitimate marriage", i.e. one that's contrary to the table of kindred and affinity. This seems to be the sense in which the word is used in 1 Corinthians 5:1.
I don't know of any other version that follows that interpretation, though.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Zoey:
I can understand co-habitation without ever marrying because one has ideological objections to marriage. However, in my own case, given that I see marriage as a good set-up, if I were to meet somebody I wanted to commit to, why on earth would I cohabit with them rather than just marrying them? If I weren't commited enough to marry them, why would I merge my life with their's in all the ways mentioned above (which seems to me a major undertaking somewhat on a par with marriage but without the vows to permanence, explicit commitment, etc)?
Does that make any sense?
That makes perfect sense, thank you, and in a lot of ways I agree with you.
To be clear, I don't think the Evangelical position is irrational (I realise you yourself are not Evangelical) - I just think it's not properly discussed, because there's a tendency to focus exclusively on sex.
[ 29. November 2010, 22:47: Message edited by: Ricardus ]
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
What MT said. I'm pretty sure that Paul and his contemporaries in the Church would have thought sex between unmarried adults was a bad thing. But that is from my subjective and culturally-influenced model of what those times were like. Its not actually in the Bible.
Posted by Fuzzipeg (# 10107) on
:
As marriage and children are really property matters and, in addition, ensures the survival of the "group". Anything that endangers property rights and the existence of the group is going to be "sinful".....illegal offspring, for example.
If we take into consideration the contemporary understanding that man carries the seed and woman is merely the flower pot in which it is planted a lot of these prohibitions make more sense. You don't want anyone else's seed in your flower pot as the result could be a claim on your property.
You mustn't waste your seed either by masturbation or by inter male sexual activity because the number of seeds is finite and such activity endangers the group's survival.
Female inter sexual activity is not mentioned and presumably not prohibited because seed is not involved.
We take these prohibitions forward into the 21st century and assume that they are there for purely religious reasons rather than reinforced by religion.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by Zoey:
I can understand co-habitation without ever marrying because one has ideological objections to marriage. However, in my own case, given that I see marriage as a good set-up, if I were to meet somebody I wanted to commit to, why on earth would I cohabit with them rather than just marrying them? If I weren't commited enough to marry them, why would I merge my life with their's in all the ways mentioned above (which seems to me a major undertaking somewhat on a par with marriage but without the vows to permanence, explicit commitment, etc)?
Does that make any sense?
That makes perfect sense, thank you, and in a lot of ways I agree with you.
To be clear, I don't think the Evangelical position is irrational (I realise you yourself are not Evangelical) - I just think it's not properly discussed, because there's a tendency to focus exclusively on sex.
In the case of Hebrews 13:4 the focus on the relationship between marriage (as an institution and individual marriages) and sex is in the text. The word translated bed is κοίτη kŏitē, koy´-tay; means a couch; by extens. cohabitation; by impl. the male sperm:—bed, chambering, conception. The word marriage doesn't appear in conjunction with 'bed' in the text. The word bed (κοίτη) actually means the marital sex life.
Strong, J., S.T.D., LL.D. (2009). A Concise Dictionary of the Words in the Greek Testament and The Hebrew Bible..
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Numpty, it seems to me that there is a certain amount of interpretative faith revealed by saying 'is' (in italics, even) but then tracing the route using 'by extension' and 'by implication'.
Posted by Gill H (# 68) on
:
Barrea, just wanted to say congrats on your forthcoming diamond wedding. That's a real achievement and I'm sure you and your wife will have a lovely celebration.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Addendum: I'm not saying that your conclusion is wrong in that particular instance. I'm just a touch wary, given the nature of the discussion already, that there are risks involved in heading for a definite interpretation while using phrases like 'by implication' and 'by extension'!
[x-post, obviously, trying to follow on from my own post which I was too slow to edit. Sigh.]
[ 30. November 2010, 06:08: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Numpty, it seems to me that there is a certain amount of interpretative faith revealed by saying 'is' (in italics, even) but then tracing the route using 'by extension' and 'by implication'.
I don't think, particularly because other Apostolic teaching positively affirms the place of sex in marriage.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Numpty, it seems to me that there is a certain amount of interpretative faith revealed by saying 'is' (in italics, even) but then tracing the route using 'by extension' and 'by implication'.
I don't think, particularly because other Apostolic teaching positively affirms the place of sex in marriage.
Well what do you mean by the place of sex in marriage? That's a vague phrase.
As far I can see, the particular verse you cited can be read as 'if you have a marriage, don't have sex outside of it'. It doesn't necessarily tell you what to do if you don't have a marriage.
Other verses might, but I thought that was pretty much where the thread got stuck.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Numpty, it seems to me that there is a certain amount of interpretative faith revealed by saying 'is' (in italics, even) but then tracing the route using 'by extension' and 'by implication'.
I don't think, particularly because other Apostolic teaching positively affirms the place of sex in marriage.
Well what do you mean by the place of sex in marriage? That's a vague phrase.
As far I can see, the particular verse you cited can be read as 'if you have a marriage, don't have sex outside of it'. It doesn't necessarily tell you what to do if you don't have a marriage.
The verse says that marriage and the martial sexual life should be honoured by all.
Posted by Think˛ (# 1984) on
:
I suppose I am arguing that if you lived with someone and had a sexual relationship with them - then in biblical times people would define that as marriage anyway. Regardless of the presence or absence of a ceremony. I don't think the concept of living-together-in-a-sexual-relationship existed, excluding concubines.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
I suppose I am arguing that if you lived with someone and had a sexual relationship with them - then in biblical times people would define that as marriage anyway. Regardless of the presence or absence of a ceremony. I don't think the concept of living-together-in-a-sexual-relationship existed, excluding concubines.
How do you square that I idea with Jesus saying that the Samaritan woman's living-partner was not her husband?
[ 30. November 2010, 07:47: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Chorister (# 473) on
:
Perhaps he was someone else's husband already?
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
The writer to the Hebrews says that γάμος (gamos) should be honoured by all. That word can mean marriage and the public ceremonies (i.e. feasts, weddings, wedding banquets) and the places in which those ceremonies take place (i.e. wedding halls). I take that to mean that all Christians, married and unmarried, are called to honour the whole complex of marriage, including the sexual life (κοίτη - from we get coitus) which marks marriage. The question, I think, is how unmarried people should honour marriage.
[ 30. November 2010, 08:04: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
I can think of two ways in which unmarried people are called to honour marriage.- By not committing adultery with a married person (as per Chorister's suggestion)
- By not having sex and remaining virgins (as per the Apostle Paul)
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
The second point above is, I believe, supported by 1 Corinthians 7:8 & 9: quote:
8 Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I do. 9 But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I can think of two ways in which unmarried people are called to honour marriage.- By not committing adultery with a married person (as per Chorister's suggestion)
- By not having sex and remaining virgins (as per the Apostle Paul)
No, three in fact. I can think of three ways in which unmarried people are called to honour marriage.- By not committing adultery with a married person (as per Chorister's suggestion)
- By not having sex and remaining virgins (as per the Apostle Paul
- By getting married and enjoying a passionate sex life
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
Why are we taking Paul's letters to 1st century churches as a minute blueprint for 21st century marriage?
I am sure his letters were very helpful to them - as they are to us.
But to pull apart every word he said in order to decide on our own personal sex lives now?
I don't think so.
If he'd known people would be picking over them 2000 years later I think he may have put in one or two provisos!
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
Because, as an Anglican, I accept the Holy Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments as containing all things necessary for salvation and as being the rule and ultimate standard of faith.
Faith isn't just about belief. Faith is also about how life is lived.
[ 30. November 2010, 08:42: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
No, three in fact.
And have you forgotten about the nice red uniforms?
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
"I didn't expect..."
quote:
Originally posted by Chorister:
Perhaps he was someone else's husband already?
That's a big 'perhaps'.
[ 30. November 2010, 08:55: Message edited by: Matt Black ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The second point above is, I believe, supported by 1 Corinthians 7:8 & 9: quote:
8 Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I do. 9 But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
As I said, it could be supported by other verses. It just wasn't supported by the Hebrews verse originally cited.
Having said that, I think you've just provided me with the source of the crazy idea that gay men should marry a woman and 'control themselves'. Definitely one for Dead Horses, that...
[ 30. November 2010, 08:58: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
I don't think the concept of living-together-in-a-sexual-relationship existed, excluding concubines.
It did exist, it was called πορνεία and ἐγκρατεύομαι (egkrateuomai - to control oneself, to exercise self-control) was (and still is) the solution.
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Because, as an Anglican, I accept the Holy Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments as containing all things necessary for salvation and as being the rule and ultimate standard of faith.
Faith isn't just about belief. Faith is also about how life is lived.
Ahem, if I may point out, that 'all things necessary for salvation are contained in the Holy Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments' does not mean that 'all things contained in the HS of the O&NTs are necessary for salvation'. Nor does 'rule and ultimate standard' require detailed adherence to (our own understanding of) every jot and tittle.
(Whether or not this makes any difference to the substantive point under discussion is not BTW my concern here.)
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
I don't think the concept of living-together-in-a-sexual-relationship existed, excluding concubines.
It did exist, it was called πορνεία and ἐγκρατεύομαι (egkrateuomai - to control oneself, to exercise self-control) was (and still is) the solution.
That is certainly your assertion, but what Paul actually meany by porneia is very much at the heart of this debate. Etymologically, there is a linkage between porneia and prostitution, but, of course, etymology is not meaning. If I had to take a punt on it, I would guess that, from the context, Paul condemned sexual behaviour outside or within marriage which involved prostitution (explicitly cultic, since idolatry seems to have been on his mind, but almost certainly commercial as well), and by extension any sexual conduct that was demeaning or exploitative. But a punt is all it would be. I'm fairly confident, though, that he didn't mean people who were in a long term, committed relationship. There is nothing whatever in the context that suggests that "living together" was what he had in mind.
[ 30. November 2010, 14:59: Message edited by: Jolly Jape ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Albertus:
Ahem, if I may point out, that 'all things necessary for salvation are contained in the Holy Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments' does not mean that 'all things contained in the HS of the O&NTs are necessary for salvation'.
This bears repeating. Daily.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
I suppose I am arguing that if you lived with someone and had a sexual relationship with them - then in biblical times people would define that as marriage anyway. Regardless of the presence or absence of a ceremony. I don't think the concept of living-together-in-a-sexual-relationship existed, excluding concubines.
But we do have such a concept. Even if there are societies in which cohabitation and marriage were indistinguishable, and first century Judea was one such society, it does not follow that there is no moral distinction in a society (like ours) where cohabitation and marriage are clearly not the same.
Similarly, the discussion about what essential formality (if any) is required for marriage might apply where for whatever reason compliance with the currently-existing forms was uncertain (because there is no clear definition) or onerous (MT's Orthodox Alaskans with only an infrequent priestly ministry) or forbidden (gay Christians in countries with no same-sex marriage provision), but it seems to me a complete red herring in situations where society's rules on what counts as married are clear, obvious and not at all difficult. Most straight couples in the UK could marry if they want to - if they neither get married according to society's rules nor call themselves married under some other set of rules, then why should we apply a label to their relationship which they have not chosen for themselves?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
Most straight couples in the UK could marry if they want to - if they neither get married according to society's rules nor call themselves married under some other set of rules, then why should we apply a label to their relationship which they have not chosen for themselves?
None whatever.
But why should they be called sinful fornicators if they choose to live together rather than marry?
A couple who live together and care well for each other and their children should not be condemned by anyone, least of all the Church.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
In my experience, it's not so much that Evangelicals have a problem with it, as that it just doesn't happen. I'm pretty sure that if you asked an Evangelical "Is chaste cohabitation sinful?" they'd say "No", but Evangelicals don't seem to do it. And my question is why.
An evangelical friend of mine bought a house with her husband-to-be a couple of months before their wedding, and they both moved in because they couldn't afford the mortgage AND the rent on one of two flats in which they were living. I'm pretty certain that they lived chastely for those months.
However their vicar was most unhappy about the arrangement and (to my mind bizarrely) counselled them strongly not to live separate but to have a civil wedding immediately. I thought (and said) that this would be ridiculous - if they counted the civil service as effecting a real marriage, then they would be turning their planned church wedding months later into just a nice performance and not the life-changing event that they intended. If they counted the church service as the real deal, then the civil service would give the appearance of (and possibly even be a temptation to) what in my friend's mind would be fornication. Happily, she declined the vicar's advice, and cohabited chastely until the church wedding took place.
There probably were people who assumed that she was having sex - but then there are many people who will assume that any long-term couple has had sex. I think that my friend was right not to arrange her life to accommodate the ill-deemers - but it required some degree of self-confidence to do that in a strongly evangelical culture.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
But why should they be called sinful fornicators if they choose to live together rather than marry?
A couple who live together and care well for each other and their children should not be condemned by anyone, least of all the Church.
You are conflating the very different issues of what the Church should teach and what it should condemn.
I have no interest in calling anyone a sinful fornicator. However the experience and teaching of the Church supports (and has long supported) formal, socially recognised, committed marriage as a mode of Christian discipleship. Someone who is living with a sexual partner, and who earnestly desires to live a holy life, can rightly be counselled to marry, without the need to condemn anyone at all.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
But why should they be called sinful fornicators if they choose to live together rather than marry?
A couple who live together and care well for each other and their children should not be condemned by anyone, least of all the Church.
You are conflating the very different issues of what the Church should teach and what it should condemn.
So do parts of the Church in my experience.
They even refuse office to those who are co-habiting. Is this not condemnation? It certainly isn't acceptance.
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
I think what I'm outlining - for myself - is my attitude towards cohabitation. Agreeing to live as a permanent partner with another person, where one merges ones existence with someone else's.
If it really isn't a major life change moving from a single independent life to a life spent with a committed life partner (albeit unmarried) I can only imagine that the 'couple' aren't getting the partnership thing quite right!
But is that "agreement" actually what happens? In my admittedly limited experience, it seems to be that a couple often move in together without any agreement of permanence. In fact that seems to be one of the "selling points" of co-habitation - a flexible "let's see how it goes" attitude. Then as time goes on, it gradually morphs (without anyone actually saying so) into that permanent commitment you were talking about. And I think that sometimes this is the point at which long-term co-habiting couples then get married - a sort of "well, we're virtually married now anyhow, why not admit it?"
Yes, I think that's what happens a lot of the time. That's why I said I was probably very selfish. I just can't imagine having a 'let's see how it goes' attitude to moving my independence and freedom of living over to a potentially short-lived non-committal arrangement of living with a boyfriend.
For me, personally, I would no more do that as I would ship my life over to a foreign country with a 'let's see how it goes' attitude. The commitment for such a big move in either case would need to be pretty huge. But in many ways, I'm an all or nothing gal, so I wouldn't want to to hold others to my inflexible attitude towards myself in this situation.
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
In my experience, it's not so much that Evangelicals have a problem with it, as that it just doesn't happen. I'm pretty sure that if you asked an Evangelical "Is chaste cohabitation sinful?" they'd say "No", but Evangelicals don't seem to do it. And my question is why.
An evangelical friend of mine bought a house with her husband-to-be a couple of months before their wedding, and they both moved in because they couldn't afford the mortgage AND the rent on one of two flats in which they were living. I'm pretty certain that they lived chastely for those months.
That reminds me of a vicar I knew who was making a big deal about a couple who wished to get married. They had been attending the church as a cohabiting couple for a long time and now wanted to get married. The vicar was trying to figure out what was the way with the most integrity - eg, tell them to get a civil union with a blessing afterwards; recommend they occupy different accommodations til the marriage.
It all came down to the fact, of course, that they were, presumably, sexually active. Ironically, if they had been sexually active but not cohabiting, no-one would've batted an eyelid or instigated an inquisition. I thought he was giving himself more problems than he needed to deal with!
Posted by malik3000 (# 11437) on
:
My brother and his 2nd wife "co-habited" for a while before they got married. Not only co-habited but bought a house together. They were (and are) Roman Catholics. Their problem was not co-habitation but rather the difficulty in getting his first marriage ecclesiastically annulled. (It should have been a slam-dunk since the 1st wedding was practically a shotgun wedding rushed into, but that's another kettle of fish) But the interesting thing is that their (Roman Catholic) pastor who worked with them through the whole annulment attempt process that was going nowhere finally suggested that they get married in the Episcopal church, which they did. An Episcopal priest presided, and the Roman Catholic priest took part in the service as well. I know because I was best man.
But co-habitation wasn't an issue for either priest. And my brother and his wife have been happily married for a quarter century. ![[Smile]](smile.gif)
[ 30. November 2010, 18:49: Message edited by: malik3000 ]
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Zoey, the youngsters I know in this situation want time to save up for a posh wedding. They put great store on having a really 'special' day, which (they feel) costs more than they can yet afford.
Not to mention that any wedding-reception venue worthy of their exacting standards must be booked two or three years in advance. That's the tail that tends to wag the dog hereabouts.
Posted by Chorister (# 473) on
:
It's becoming quite common hereabouts for the couple to only decide to get married when they already have a baby (or decide to delay the marriage ceremony until after the baby has been born). When the couple go up to the altar after the main marriage service is over, the vicar asks for their baby to be brought up to the altar as well, so they can all be blessed together.
Recently, we had a marriage with baptism, so it was all done at once while the guests were already in church, to save them all coming back again for the christening. I did wonder whether they were going to go for a hat-trick and bury Great Uncle Herbert at the same time!
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Think˛:
I don't think the concept of living-together-in-a-sexual-relationship existed, excluding concubines.
It did exist, it was called πορνεία and ἐγκρατεύομαι (egkrateuomai - to control oneself, to exercise self-control) was (and still is) the solution.
That is certainly your assertion, but what Paul actually meany by porneia is very much at the heart of this debate. Etymologically, there is a linkage between porneia and prostitution, but, of course, etymology is not meaning. If I had to take a punt on it, I would guess that, from the context, Paul condemned sexual behaviour outside or within marriage which involved prostitution (explicitly cultic, since idolatry seems to have been on his mind, but almost certainly commercial as well), and by extension any sexual conduct that was demeaning or exploitative. But a punt is all it would be. I'm fairly confident, though, that he didn't mean people who were in a long term, committed relationship. There is nothing whatever in the context that suggests that "living together" was what he had in mind.
Wishful thinking is a very powerful thing JJ. I'm sorry to say it such such theological gymnastics give ethical and moral theology and bad name. I Cor 7:2 πορνεία simply doesn't read in the way that you're suggesting, particularly in the light of Paul's instruction to the unmarried and the widowed in verse 8.
Also, Jesus's use of the word πορνεία in Mark 7 doesn't lend itself at all well to a narrow focus on prostitution. No, πορνεία is a broad umbrella term for sexual sin which (according to 1 Cor. 7:8) includes consenting sex based on mutual attraction outside of marriage.
[ 01. December 2010, 06:47: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
:
quote:
So do parts of the Church in my experience.
They even refuse office to those who are co-habiting. Is this not condemnation? It certainly isn't acceptance.
It's known as something called discernment
[code]
[ 03. December 2010, 01:18: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Numpty, as you recall from my post, I did not restrict porneia only to prostitution. I think it's pretty clear that Paul had a more extended use for the term. But equally, it is not at all demonstrable that he used it as a catch all for all and every kind of sexual activity outside of marriage. The use of "porneia" in I Cor 7:2 is quite compatible with Paul using the word to mean prostitution, or the wider promiscuity, as well as the reading you take. No theological gymnastics there, just the (ok, a) plain reading of the text. Verse 9 does not even mention porneia; the plain meaning of the text there is that sexual fulfilment in marriage is a better than allowing one's life to be controlled by the raging emotions of sexual frustration (with a little bit of bachelor smugness perhaps thrown in
). I remain unconvinced that there was a complete break in Paul's mind between his mental concept of "porneia" and prostitution, though I accept that he used the term more widely. As such, I think it highly unlikely that he would have thought that a long term marriage-like sexual relationship could be categorised as "porneia".
Posted by Zoey (# 11152) on
:
(I am not a theologian or Greek scholar. However, I have been wondering, in the course of this thread recently, whether CmN believes that sexual relations within marriage can ever be harmful or negative?)
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
quote:
So do parts of the Church in my experience.
They even refuse office to those who are co-habiting. Is this not condemnation? It certainly isn't acceptance.
It's known as something called discernment
Nonsense - it's called judgementalism laced with complete confusion over fidelity, sexuality and committment.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Zoey:
(I am not a theologian or Greek scholar. However, I have been wondering, in the course of this thread recently, whether CmN believes that sexual relations within marriage can ever be harmful or negative?)
Certainly.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
quote:
So do parts of the Church in my experience.
They even refuse office to those who are co-habiting. Is this not condemnation? It certainly isn't acceptance.
It's known as something called discernment
Wouldn't "discernment" imply some degree of acute pastoral and spiritual sensitivity to the circumstances of the particular couple, their degree of culpability, and the best way for the Church to cooperate with the Holy Spirit? A "No fornicators welcome" policy at the altar is not "discerning". Even if you think it's right.
Someone who is strongly convinced that sex is for marriage, but nonetheless lives unmarried with a sexual partner in deliberate and knowing disobedience to (what they understand to be) God's commands is in a very different position to someone who believes that their cohabitation is acceptable and pleasing to God as a means of living out their love for their partner. Even from the most conservative point of view, the first is doctrinally correct but a poor disciple, whereas the second is factually mistaken but may well be devoted to God in heart and soul. ‘Discernment' would mean that there is at least the possibility of treating the two cases differently.
Personally, I rather hope that my priest would have the courage to call me to account if he knew that I was living contrary to my clear beliefs about sexual morality - but I would be horrified if he started refusing sacraments to people in our church who are trying to live godly lives and merely disagree with me about what that ought to involve.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
I think it highly unlikely that he would have thought that a long term marriage-like sexual relationship could be categorised as "porneia".
The use of Genesis 2:24 by Jesus and Paul says that "a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh".
The old way of describing this is that a man "leaves" his parents and "cleaves" to his wife. In 1 Corinthians 6:6 Paul argues against the use of prostitutes because such sexual immorality is a mockery of marriage, not a mockery of sexual monogamy. There is no suggestion that it is just married men who should not use prostitutes. The command for for men not to use prostitutes because such behaviour is a mockery of marriage.
In Mark 10 Jesus cites Genesis 2:24 in the context of a discussion concerning divorce, which is the official dissolution of marriage. Jesus, therefore, is of the opinion that God joins people together in [/i]marriage[/i] so that they are one flesh.
The Apostle Paul's teaching in 1 Corinthians 7:8-9 says that marriage is the proper course of action for virgins and widows who find themselves being irresistibly sexually attracted to someone (πυρόομαι - being sexually aroused, to burn with sexual desire).
[ 01. December 2010, 11:41: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
But all you're saying is that the New Testament describes marriage as good and prostitution as bad. It doesn't explicitly say anything about any intermediate point.
Also, the text doesn't say anything about burning with sexual desire for someone. Is there a reason not to suppose it's talking about sexual frustration?
(I believe Galen taught that a lack of sexual activity could cause physical ill health, especially for women, which manifests itself in fainting fits and shortness of breath.)
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
But all you're saying is that the New Testament describes marriage as good and prostitution as bad.
Ah, this must come down to lack of clarity on my part because that's not what I'm saying.
I'm saying that the bible says that prostitution is bad because it mocks marriage. I'll say it again, the bible says that prostitution is bad because it makes a mockery not of sexual monogamy but the joining of two people by God as husband and wife (i.e. marriage).
What you say about 1 Cor 7:8,9 doesn't make any sense at all. The text is Paul's advice to virgins and widows who are experiencing strong sexual desire. His solution? Marriage. Why? In order to avoid πορνεία (porneia) as per verse 2.
[ 01. December 2010, 12:38: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
Why i.e. marriage?
If God joins two people outside marriage then it's just as legitimate a union. The fact that you can't see the union is neither here nor there.
God and the couple are the only ones who can truly know.
There must be some marriages where the sex is simply a physical act with no spiritual union at all - are you going to hang around in their bedrooms to judge them too?
<typo>
[ 01. December 2010, 12:42: Message edited by: Boogie ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why i.e. marriage?
If God joins two people outside marriage then it's just as legitimate a union. The fact that you can't see the union is neither here nor there.
God and the couple are the only ones who can truly know.
I disagree. Here's why. Paul doesn't counsel widows and unmarried people (ἄγαμος) to just have sex and not worry about "burning with passion". He doesn't say, look if you've started having sex with your boyfriend then that's OK. No, he says "get married". He says that ἄγαμος (unmarried) should become (γαμέω) married. How? By having a wedding.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why i.e. marriage?
If God joins two people outside marriage then it's just as legitimate a union. The fact that you can't see the union is neither here nor there.
God and the couple are the only ones who can truly know.
I disagree. Here's why. Paul doesn't counsel widows and unmarried people (ἄγαμος) to just have sex and not worry about "burning with passion". He doesn't say, look if you've started having sex with your boyfriend then that's OK. No, he says "get married". He says that ἄγαμος (unmarried) should become (γαμέω) married. How? By having a wedding.
And that very last bit is where your argument is in trouble. Because, as already shown in this thread, 'having a wedding' was NOT the way that most people became husband and wife for large parts of our history - centuries and centuries during which people became husband and wife without the kind of formal wedding ceremony we now talk about.
And that's Boogie's point in her post: 'married' in God's eyes does NOT necessarily mean 'has gone through earthly wedding ceremony'. A wedding is not a marriage. All those Bible passages you have just been quoted talk about marriage. They do not talk about 'having a wedding'. It does NOT say that if you're single and can't control your passions, it's best that you 'have a wedding'.
[ 01. December 2010, 13:01: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why i.e. marriage?
If God joins two people outside marriage then it's just as legitimate a union. The fact that you can't see the union is neither here nor there.
God and the couple are the only ones who can truly know.
I disagree. Here's why. Paul doesn't counsel widows and unmarried people (ἄγαμος) to just have sex and not worry about "burning with passion". He doesn't say, look if you've started having sex with your boyfriend then that's OK. No, he says "get married". He says that ἄγαμος (unmarried) should become (γαμέω) married. How? By having a wedding.
And that very last bit is where your argument is in trouble. Because, as already shown in this thread, 'having a wedding' was NOT the way that most people became husband and wife for large parts of our history - centuries and centuries during which people became husband and wife without the kind of formal wedding ceremony we now talk about.
And that's Boogie's point in her post: 'married' in God's eyes does NOT necessarily mean 'has gone through earthly wedding ceremony'. A wedding is not a marriage. All those Bible passages you have just been quoted talk about marriage. They do not talk about 'having a wedding'. It does NOT say that if you're single and can't control your passions, it's best that you 'have a wedding'.
The word marriage in Greek is the same word for having a wedding, a wedding banquet, a wedding feast. It is also the name of the wedding venue or hall, so that argument simply doesn't work. You're right a marriage is not a wedding, but a wedding does begin a marriage. That's why it's called getting married.
A marriage at the time of Christ was a public affair involving a banquet as in the wedding at Cana. This, undoubtedly, is what Paul is talking about when he counsels unmarried and widows to marry. He is talking about the whole complex of marriage - the whole shebang, including the life-long shebang of being married.
[ 01. December 2010, 13:40: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
:
Boogie quote:
Nonsense - it's called judgementalism laced with complete confusion over fidelity, sexuality and committment.
So are you accusing Jesus of being confused in His stance concerning fornication?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
Boogie quote:
Nonsense - it's called judgementalism laced with complete confusion over fidelity, sexuality and committment.
So are you accusing Jesus of being confused in His stance concerning fornication?
So you're saying you're as accurate in your judgments as Jesus? If not, this point is irrelevant. If so, you need an egodecomy.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
I'm saying that the bible says that prostitution is bad because it mocks marriage. I'll say it again, the bible says that prostitution is bad because it makes a mockery not of sexual monogamy but the joining of two people by God as husband and wife (i.e. marriage).
OK. So is your position:
a. The New Testament discusses sex exclusively as within porneia (bad) or marriage (good),
b. Therefore any non-marital sex must be porneia and bad.
I think that's a reasonable conclusion, just not the only one. It could be that the New Testament writers haven't left us an opinion on sex that isn't either prostitution or marriage. It could be that such sex wasn't common (though to be honest I doubt this).
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
Boogie quote:
Nonsense - it's called judgementalism laced with complete confusion over fidelity, sexuality and committment.
So are you accusing Jesus of being confused in His stance concerning fornication?
Well, given that St Matthew (5:32) presents Jesus allowing divorce in the case of porneia, whereas St Mark (10: 1-12) has Jesus forbidding divorce in all circumstances whatsoever, it's clear that someone got confused, though I'd be inclined to say it was the Evangelists ...
(The New Jerusalem Bible avoids the contradiction by translating porneia in St Matthew as "illicit marriage", which gets round the problem of inaccuracies in the apostolic witness, but rather destroys the argument that porneia means "all non-marital sexual activity".)
Posted by Thurible (# 3206) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
(The New Jerusalem Bible avoids the contradiction by translating porneia in St Matthew as "illicit marriage", which gets round the problem of inaccuracies in the apostolic witness, but rather destroys the argument that porneia means "all non-marital sexual activity".)
Does it? In some ways, I'd have thought it strengthened the case in that sexual activity achieved marriage but that said marriages could be illicit when without the confines of 'marriage'.
I'm don't think I'm arguing for that position but I think it'd be a reasonable one. (Given that, for example, one can indeed, according to the RCC at least (I'm not sure what my own CofE teaches on this), go through a civil or, indeed, ecclesiastical second marriage and it not be a licit one. Hmmm, that raises a question: if one applies for an annulment in the RCC and it is granted, has one been fornicating for the preceding howeverlong?)
Thurible
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
The New Jerusalem Bible avoids the contradiction by translating porneia in St Matthew as "illicit marriage"...
Do they really?
If so its a clear case of deliberately mistranslating the Bible to fit post-Apostolic developments in doctrine. Bordering on dishonest.
Much more so than the comparitively trivial business of "virgin" vs "young girl" some people seem to think invalidates the NIV. A reason to be wary of using NJB as your main Bible translation.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
The New Jerusalem Bible avoids the contradiction by translating porneia in St Matthew as "illicit marriage"...
Do they really?
If so its a clear case of deliberately mistranslating the Bible to fit post-Apostolic developments in doctrine. Bordering on dishonest.
Much more so than the comparitively trivial business of "virgin" vs "young girl" some people seem to think invalidates the NIV. A reason to be wary of using NJB as your main Bible translation.
There's a rather dubious argument in favour here, from page 12 onwards. But I'm not particularly defending the NJB. My feeling is rather:
a. If porneia is interpreted in a broad sense, then St Matthew and St Luke are in contradiction, which is an argument against using the New Testament to establish absolute moral prohibitions;
b. If porneia is interpreted so narrowly as to keep St Matthew and St Luke reasonably unequivocal, then it can't safely be taken elsewhere in the New Testament to mean "all non-marital sex".
Posted by Augustine the Aleut (# 1472) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Chorister:
It's becoming quite common hereabouts for the couple to only decide to get married when they already have a baby (or decide to delay the marriage ceremony until after the baby has been born). When the couple go up to the altar after the main marriage service is over, the vicar asks for their baby to be brought up to the altar as well, so they can all be blessed together.
Recently, we had a marriage with baptism, so it was all done at once while the guests were already in church, to save them all coming back again for the christening. I did wonder whether they were going to go for a hat-trick and bury Great Uncle Herbert at the same time!
I have been reliably informed that the Church of Iceland's wedding service provides for the baptism of the children at the same event.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The word marriage in Greek is the same word for having a wedding, a wedding banquet, a wedding feast. It is also the name of the wedding venue or hall, so that argument simply doesn't work. You're right a marriage is not a wedding, but a wedding does begin a marriage. That's why it's called getting married.
A marriage at the time of Christ was a public affair involving a banquet as in the wedding at Cana. This, undoubtedly, is what Paul is talking about when he counsels unmarried and widows to marry. He is talking about the whole complex of marriage - the whole shebang, including the life-long shebang of being married.
So what does that mean for all the people down the centuries who didn't have a wedding in order to get married? For example, see Louise's post on page 4 about Scottish law: were all those legally married Scots actually engaged, in your view, in porneia?
Posted by TurquoiseTastic (# 8978) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
Boogie quote:
Nonsense - it's called judgementalism laced with complete confusion over fidelity, sexuality and committment.
So are you accusing Jesus of being confused in His stance concerning fornication?
Well, given that St Matthew (5:32) presents Jesus allowing divorce in the case of porneia, whereas St Mark (10: 1-12) has Jesus forbidding divorce in all circumstances whatsoever, it's clear that someone got confused, though I'd be inclined to say it was the Evangelists ...
(The New Jerusalem Bible avoids the contradiction by translating porneia in St Matthew as "illicit marriage", which gets round the problem of inaccuracies in the apostolic witness, but rather destroys the argument that porneia means "all non-marital sexual activity".)
Well, not destroy perhaps. William Temple claimed that this exception referred to the case where one of the partners was unchaste prior to the marriage and was thus entering into it under false pretences. The marriage would thus be illicit because of the porneia.
I guess it would make sense for Matthew to record this exception for internal consistency, since he also records (and seems to approve of) Joseph planning to set aside Mary for exactly this reason.
A strained interpretation perhaps - but not obviously absurd.
Posted by Sir Pellinore (ret'd) (# 12163) on
:
I would've thought two cohabiting adults getting married (leave aside their 12 children being baptised after as a side issue, please
) would, in the case of these two, prevent further fornication on their part.
Sounds like a clash of Ideals and Reality. 'Let he/she who is perfect ...'
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The word marriage in Greek is the same word for having a wedding, a wedding banquet, a wedding feast. It is also the name of the wedding venue or hall, so that argument simply doesn't work. You're right a marriage is not a wedding, but a wedding does begin a marriage. That's why it's called getting married.
A marriage at the time of Christ was a public affair involving a banquet as in the wedding at Cana. This, undoubtedly, is what Paul is talking about when he counsels unmarried and widows to marry. He is talking about the whole complex of marriage - the whole shebang, including the life-long shebang of being married.
So what does that mean for all the people down the centuries who didn't have a wedding in order to get married? For example, see Louise's post on page 4 about Scottish law: were all those legally married Scots actually engaged, in your view, in porneia?
This is tangential to the main argument, which is about whether cohabitation in the first century Palestine would have been considered sinful. I'm saying it would have been. I'm also saying that such a view - which is the Apostolic view - is objectively correct and bound by culture or time.
Posted by sharkshooter (# 1589) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Thurible:
... Hmmm, that raises a question: if one applies for an annulment in the RCC and it is granted, has one been fornicating for the preceding howeverlong?
Thurible
That would be the logical conclusion, and any children would be illegitimate.
Posted by Thurible (# 3206) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
and any children would be illegitimate.
No, the children would be regarded as legitimate for that's a civil rather than canon thing. See the Diocese of Shrewsbury, for example:
quote:
What about the children? Will annulment mean they become illegitimate?
No. In Canon Law children are legitimate if their parents are married at the time the child’s birth, even if that marriage is later annulled. Obviously the decisions of the Tribunal have no effect on the law of England, and so they are considered legitimate in civil law before the annulment is granted, they will remain so afterwards.
Thurible
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The Salvation Army, AFAICT, advocate a totally spiritualized approach to the dominical sacraments in which the outward and visible signs are seen as unnecessary adjuncts to the gracious spiritual reality. That is what you are suggesting concerning marriage.
Are you under the impression that the outward and visible sign of the sacrament of marriage is the marriage ceremony, or anything in it???
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
This is tangential to the main argument, which is about whether cohabitation in the first century Palestine would have been considered sinful. I'm saying it would have been.
I'm sure it would have been. But, for whatever reason, the Bible doesn't say that it was. We infer it from our models of society in those days which are informed by a lot of other historical and tradtional sources.
And even though I am pretty sure it would have been considered wrong, I am not sure whether or not it came into the range of meaning of the word porneia.
Which does have some relevance to those people who try to be rigorous about applying Scriptural rules to marriage and divorce. I have read Christian writers who believe that the a previous sexual relationship prior to a marriage is sufficient reason to allow a Christian to divorce their spouse, because it is porneia. I have read others who say that only sexual immorality committed during the marriage would be such reason. That might make a real difference to lives.
Posted by malik3000 (# 11437) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Thurible:
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
and any children would be illegitimate.
No, the children would be regarded as legitimate for that's a civil rather than canon thing. See the Diocese of Shrewsbury, for example:
quote:
What about the children? Will annulment mean they become illegitimate?
No. In Canon Law children are legitimate if their parents are married at the time the child’s birth, even if that marriage is later annulled. Obviously the decisions of the Tribunal have no effect on the law of England, and so they are considered legitimate in civil law before the annulment is granted, they will remain so afterwards.
Thurible
The entire concept of a chid being "illegitimate", whether in civil or ecclesiastical terms, is entirely grotesque and vile and should be utterly eradicated as a viable concept. Yes, i feel very strongly about this.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The Salvation Army, AFAICT, advocate a totally spiritualized approach to the dominical sacraments in which the outward and visible signs are seen as unnecessary adjuncts to the gracious spiritual reality. That is what you are suggesting concerning marriage.
Are you under the impression that the outward and visible sign of the sacrament of marriage is the marriage ceremony, or anything in it???
Being a GLE I take perverse pride in not accepting that marriage is a sacrament, so enlighten me. Are you suggesting that the outward and visible sign is sexual intercourse?
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on
:
quote:
Numpty asks:
Are you suggesting that the outward and visible sign is sexual intercourse?
Yes, so I have been taught; and, aside from the risk of pregnancy, this teaching constitutes the best argument against extramarital sex that I can think of.
If you'd like to disabuse me of this scruple, feel free.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
That's certainly how C S Lewis read Paul.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The word marriage in Greek is the same word for having a wedding, a wedding banquet, a wedding feast. It is also the name of the wedding venue or hall, so that argument simply doesn't work. You're right a marriage is not a wedding, but a wedding does begin a marriage. That's why it's called getting married.
A marriage at the time of Christ was a public affair involving a banquet as in the wedding at Cana. This, undoubtedly, is what Paul is talking about when he counsels unmarried and widows to marry. He is talking about the whole complex of marriage - the whole shebang, including the life-long shebang of being married.
So what does that mean for all the people down the centuries who didn't have a wedding in order to get married? For example, see Louise's post on page 4 about Scottish law: were all those legally married Scots actually engaged, in your view, in porneia?
This is tangential to the main argument, which is about whether cohabitation in the first century Palestine would have been considered sinful. I'm saying it would have been. I'm also saying that such a view - which is the Apostolic view - is objectively correct and bound by culture or time.
I would have thought the main argument is whether God considers cohabitation sinful. Frankly, I don't give a shit what a first century Palestinian would have considered sinful, unless it's the same as what God considers sinful.
Now, unless you're going to argue that God's views on these matters change to suit the morals of the time, those Scots aren't 'tangential'.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
quote:
Numpty asks:
Are you suggesting that the outward and visible sign is sexual intercourse?
Yes, so I have been taught; and, aside from the risk of pregnancy, this teaching constitutes the best argument against extramarital sex that I can think of.
If you'd like to disabuse me of this scruple, feel free.
Not at all. I'm happy with it. I'm just not happy with the idea that sexual intercourse constitutes or in any way effects marriage.
Posted by Gurdur (# 857) on
:
Some people would be far better off having a fuck rather than blathering on and on about it.
Let's face it, fornication is pretty small stuff in the great scheme of life. The amount of attention being paid to what others do for fun is way out of proportion to its actual effects.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gurdur:
Some people would be far better off having a fuck rather than blathering on and on about it.
Let's face it, fornication is pretty small stuff in the great scheme of life. The amount of attention being paid to what others do for fun is way out of proportion to its actual effects.
There are other threads to read if this one doesn't suit your fancy. This one happens to be about fornication.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Gurdur:
Some people would be far better off having a fuck rather than blathering on and on about it.
Let's face it, fornication is pretty small stuff in the great scheme of life. The amount of attention being paid to what others do for fun is way out of proportion to its actual effects.
There are other threads to read if this one doesn't suit your fancy. This one happens to be about fornication.
Also, while sex is pleasurable, some of us DO think there's a bit more to it than it being 'fun'.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
The word marriage in Greek is the same word for having a wedding, a wedding banquet, a wedding feast. It is also the name of the wedding venue or hall, so that argument simply doesn't work. You're right a marriage is not a wedding, but a wedding does begin a marriage. That's why it's called getting married.
A marriage at the time of Christ was a public affair involving a banquet as in the wedding at Cana. This, undoubtedly, is what Paul is talking about when he counsels unmarried and widows to marry. He is talking about the whole complex of marriage - the whole shebang, including the life-long shebang of being married.
So what does that mean for all the people down the centuries who didn't have a wedding in order to get married? For example, see Louise's post on page 4 about Scottish law: were all those legally married Scots actually engaged, in your view, in porneia?
This is tangential to the main argument, which is about whether cohabitation in the first century Palestine would have been considered sinful. I'm saying it would have been. I'm also saying that such a view - which is the Apostolic view - is objectively correct and [not]* bound by culture or time.
I would have thought the main argument is whether God considers cohabitation sinful. Frankly, I don't give a shit what a first century Palestinian would have considered sinful, unless it's the same as what God considers sinful.
There verse I've been talking about in this regard is 1 Cor.7:8-9. quote:
8 Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I do. 9 But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
Marriage is advised for those who 'cannot control themselves". Paul is presenting a choice: abstinence or marriage.
The question that we're discussing - and that I'm finding the most challenging - is what precisely constitutes and effect marriage? In other words, how precisely are two people joined (lit. married) in order to become one flesh?
If sexual intercourse is the outward and visible sign of marriage, what effects the inward and spiritual grace? Is it just God? Is the church (the people and/or the institution) involved? All I do know is that the Apostle says, "they should marry". And the context of this advice argues against the idea that "just having committed sex" [/i]is[/i] marriage. On the contrary, it suggests that marriage is the Apostle's solution to "just having sex".
The OP suggests that mutual (and perhaps communal) consent to view the relationship as marriage and consummation is sufficient to effect marriage.
Others suggest that formal and legal notions of 'marriage' as an institution or state are unnecessary and indeed unhelpful and that sex between two consenting adults is sufficient.
I'm suggesting that the Apostolic view is that pre-marital and extra-marital sex were both considered to be porneia and that - according to both Jesus and Paul - marriage was (and is) therefore the only context for sex.
However, this discussion has opened up considerations regarding the means by which people become married. Clearly we do not conduct our marriages in the same way they did in 1st century Palestine: there are variables. So what precisely does a "valid" marriage require? What's the bear minimum, if you like?
*added to correct omission.
[ 03. December 2010, 08:56: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
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Exactly. Which is why I asked about the Scots. Because they were regarded as married without ever having gone through a wedding ceremony.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Marriage is advised for those who 'cannot control themselves".
No it isn't. Paul said it was "better to marry than to burn".
People used to be split on what that meant. Some thought he meant better to marry than to burn in hell for sin. Others that it was better to marry than to burn metaphorically, with emotion with lust, with passion, with regret, whatever.
These days everyone seems to assume he meant the second of those. The translation you quoted assumes that and rather dodgily supplies the phrase "with passion" which rules out a lot of perfectly plausible translations even if we take it as metaphorical.
Either way, Paul says nothing about people who cannot "control themselves" here. And I don't think he would. The lie that there are men who "cannot control themselves" is regularly trotted out as an excuse for rapists and abusers. Its nonsense.
Anyway, what Paul said seems reasonably uncontroversial - is there anyone who thinks it is better to burn than to marry? - but particularly unhelpful for the many millions of single people who would want to be married but don't have anyone to marry - a situation not envisaged by the Bible at all but at the heart of the discussion we are having here.
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on
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Let me suggest that the crucial question to ask is, what happens when nature takes its course and the woman becomes pregnant? If the couple were expecting this to happen and greet it joyfully or at least take it in stride, and the man commits himself to the support of the woman and the child, then I see no reason to regard them as not being married, regardless of external, public ceremony.
It's rather surprising how little attention the matter of what about the kid(s) has received in this thread. It is a terrible thing when a mother and child are abandoned by the father and left without support: terrible for them, and often terrible for their neighbors as well. Sexual morality exists primarily to prevent this situation. Everything else is a minor distraction by comparison.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Marriage is advised for those who 'cannot control themselves".
No it isn't. Paul said it was "better to marry than to burn".
Paul argues; he doesn't just string pearls of wisdom together. The verse says, quote:
But if they cannot exercise self-control, they should marry. For it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
The phrase "exercise self-control" comes from the Greek ἐγκρατεύομαι (egkrateuomai) as is unequivocal. If a person cannot exercise self control, they should marry. The phrase translated as "burn with passion", contrary to what you say is a perfectly good translation. Here's the entry from Swanson, J. (1997). Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Greek (New Testament) (electronic ed.) for each usage in the NT.
πυρόομαι (pyroomai), πυρόω (pyroō): vb.; ≡ Str 4448; TDNT 6.948—1. LN 14.63 (dep.) be on fire (2Pe 3:12; Eph 6:16+); 2. LN 25.229 (dep.) be greatly worried, burn with distress (2Co 11:29+); 3. LN 25.31 (dep.) be sexually aroused, burn inwardly with passion (1Co 7:9+); 4. LN 79.72 make fiery hot (Rev 1:15; 3:18+)
Also, notice that word for in the text? That means that the former clause is the logical ground of the second clause. So the meaning of the text is this: if they [unmarried people & widows] cannot exercise self-control, they should marry. Because it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
Marriage is the appropriate course of action for unmarried people and widows who cannot control their sexual desire. And, if they are able to control their desire then singleness is encouraged.
[ 03. December 2010, 18:00: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
It's rather surprising how little attention the matter of what about the kid(s) has received in this thread. It is a terrible thing when a mother and child are abandoned by the father and left without support: terrible for them, and often terrible for their neighbors as well. Sexual morality exists primarily to prevent this situation. Everything else is a minor distraction by comparison.
The Book of Common Prayer(discussed earlier in the thread) cited procreation as one of the chief purposes of marriage, as does Anglican liturgy today. Could it be that ecclesiastical ministry in terms of the solemnization of marriage performs a primarily didactic function inasmuch as it publicly proclaims and thereby creates a robust and biblical theological understanding of marriage as the context of the making of a vow and covenant between tow people and God?
[ 03. December 2010, 18:08: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by Galloping Granny (# 13814) on
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I should be making cookies for the schoolkids' Walk Through Christmas so I haven't time to read all posts.
So someone's probably said it...
Recently looked at a friend's photos of family/grandchildren. Son and DiL had each been married three times and had children at each stage. What a mess! Give me a faithful partnership any time. It wouldn't do for CallmeNumpty but if they're not 'believers'?
GG
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
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That's a very sad story and I'm sorry to have heard it. However, your Son and Daughter in law's moral failures are no reason to write marriage off in favour of monogamous co-habitation.
Christian marriage, properly understood, is the antidote to infidelity because it is a parable of the permanent relationship between Christ and the Church. The sad truth is that many divorces (not necessarily the ones you mention) can be traced back to an inadequate theology of marriage and, as you rightly point out, an absence of faith. In other words, there is no inward and spiritual grace to which the outward and visible practicalities of marriage can testify.
[ 04. December 2010, 08:36: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
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Anselmina- quote:
But if God only made the original man in his own image, and the Fall, cancelled that image, then what part of the original man was not in God's image which permitted the disobedience in the first place? Or is God an imperfect template for the image, which permits the possibility of disobedience and sin?
Well that's an excellent question(s) and one that I've not seen before in the 40 odd years of my Christian life, so first of all thanks for asking it - although I note there are a cluster of them!
Ok, we know from 1 Thess 5v23 that man is Spirit, Soul and Body. We also know from John 4v24 that "God is Spirit.." so therefore we can conclude that the original man - Adam - was made with a spirit that could interact fully with His Creator (as much as his created mind would allow) and that the parts that were not like God were His soul and body, this make him human in nature and God's attributes make Him Divine by nature.
Now onto your suggested imperfection and the make up of man - man was created with the ability to choose and you'll recall the phrase that "God is Love". You will also know that love involves choice, if the most attractive boy/ girl in our high school were attracted to us, we were extremely fortunate (maybe), yet the reality is that they got to choose too
So God, despite being Almighty, would have not benefited from programming us to love Him, that love would have been as worthless a love as us hypnotizing that attractive schoolmate and forcing them to live the rest of their lives with us.
So God, being a God that not only is love but seeks our GENUINE love too, had to make us as people who could choose. Our first generation made their choice and the rest is history as they say, we all DIED IN ADAM. But God wasn't finished with us 'dead' creatures, and this coming season and plan - predicted as early as Genesis 3v15 - was the start of His loving response to our situation, of course as far as we go and many others, we may not be willing to admit we do need His
Posted by ByHisBlood (# 16018) on
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Sorry, wrong thread and the 34 nano-second edit time beat me too
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Christian marriage, properly understood, is the antidote to infidelity because it is a parable of the permanent relationship between Christ and the Church.
IIRC, the relationship between Christ and the Church is a parable from marriage.
Christ is like the groom, the Church like the bride - so we can understand a spiritual truth from an earthly one. To turn the parable around is bad theology. Not that it stops anyone.
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ByHisBlood:
Sorry, wrong thread and the 34 nano-second edit time beat me too
Never mind! I appreciate the answer which I'll comment on, on the other thread
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
Christian marriage, properly understood, is the antidote to infidelity because it is a parable of the permanent relationship between Christ and the Church.
IIRC, the relationship between Christ and the Church is a parable from marriage.
No, you're wrong. It's t'other way around. Read Ephesians 5.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Call me Numpty:
No, you're wrong. It's t'other way around. Read Ephesians 5.
I have (again). I still think you're wrong.
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on
:
Marriage is a μυστήριον (mystērion) meaning a mystery. Why? Because it reveals eternal truth. Marriage doesn't create the relationship between Christ and the church, neither is it simply a convenient metaphor for the relationship between Christ and the Church. No, marriage is patterned after eternal truth and is, therefore, as mystery, a proclamation of something greater than itself.
Marriage is a momentary parable of eternal permanence designed from eternity by God as a revelation of his plan of salvation. Marriages exists because God planned salvation in the way that God planned salvation, not as an Apostolic stumble-upon.
If Paul was teaching about salvation in Ephesians 5 and simply used marriage as a metaphor, what you are saying might hold water. But he isn't. Ephesians 5 is written to married people about their marriages and Christ and the church is presented to them as the pattern for marriage. Christian marriage should be a certain way precisely because the relationship between Christ and the church really is a certain way.
[ 04. December 2010, 23:42: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
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