Thread: Purgatory: Penal Substitutionary Atonement Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by scuffleball (# 16480) on
:
(Following on from the thread on Methodist Hymnals.)
What is this, in layman's terms - no pun intended?
(No, I don't want to google it as any results I find are likely to be biased and anyway I want to hear all of your opinions on it. Apparently even the Wikipedia article on it is bogie.)
Is PSA bogie? Is it in the ścumenical creeds and if not can we consider it a necessary part of Christianity? Is it in the doctrinal basis? (I am lead to believe it is, and that it is the main objection of non-evangelicals to the same.)
[ 02. December 2011, 09:08: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
There have been umpteen threads about PSA, that have run for pages and pages.
Scroll down the Dead Horses board and you will find them.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
scuffleball will have a fruitless search, leo. PSA is not included in the list of DH topics in the guidelines to be found here.
I've flagged up the location of this thread to the Dead Horses Hosts.
Posted by Poppy (# 2000) on
:
"Penal Substitution: A theory of atonement that interprets Christ's saving death as a substitutionary bearing the punishment that human beings owe for sin. In freely giving himself up to a sacrifical death, Christ bears God's wrath and pays the penalty for sin in humanities death."
From Platinga RJ, Thompson TR and Lundberg MD 'An Introduction to Christian Theology' (2010) which is worth the modest price tag for the extremely good theological glossary at the end of the book!
Posted by TonyK (# 35) on
:
Host Mode <ACTIVATE>
PSA indeed doesn't belong (for which I might add a fervent and sincere 'Thank God'!).
It therefore gives me great pleasure to elevate it to the correct realm - Purgatory.
Host Mode <DE-ACTIVATE>
Yours aye ... TonyK
Host, Dead Horses
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Sorry, Scuffleball, I don't quite understand what you mean by the 'doctrinal basis' ... and that bit about the objection of non-evangelicals.
PSA isn't in any of the Creeds but it's certainly in the constitution of many evangelical churches and is the dominant note in evangelical understandings of the atonement - but even within evangelicalism it may be the main way the atonement is understand but there are other models that come into play. 'Christus Victor' has become increasingly popular in Western churches recently and many evangelical churches appear to have a combination of PSA/Christus Victor to me.
The mileage varies and you'll find some evos who seem to think that you can't possibly be a Christian if you don't accept PSA and others who use and apply it with caution, alongside other models.
PSA is a Western feature and you won't find it among the Orthodox at all.
Posted by tessaB (# 8533) on
:
I know that there are many of this site who are not happy with PSA. Personally I would prefer to have a theory of Christ's death and resurrection that did not involve a wrathful and rather petty sounding God making damn sure that someone paid for all the sins in the world.
However, I cannot quite bring myself to throw it all out particularly bearing in mind
Romans 3:24-26
and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.
Surely that is an explanation of PSA (or am I thicker than I thought?)
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
My contribution to this debate is that the atonement has to actually do sosmething. It needs to effect a change, gain a result for me - or as CW wrote, 'And can it be that I should gain an interest in the Saviour's blood.
I can accept all the modern theories of metaphors of the atonement as illustrations of what Jesus did, or his motivation - demonstration of love, moral example or even victory over evil - but which of them actually changes me, delivers me from my sin or propitiates the Father - i.e. removes the reason for judgment from my soul?
Consider this:
If I was drowning in the sea and a man showed great courage and selflessness by jumping in to rescue me, dying in the process, that would be a tremendous example to theose standing on the shore - but it would be absolutely no use to me, still floundering in the water while my 'hero' disappears below the waves!
If I'm drowing, I want someone who will actually get me out of the water by using his every last ounce of strength, even though it means he dies in my place.
Penal substitutionary atonement - the act where out of love, the Father and Son give and are given unto death for the sins of others, is the only way that my sins can actually be removed in atonement. Barth says that in the cross the judge is also the judged - and Paul says that God was in Christ, reconciling the world to himself.
There is no question at all that a vengeful Father kills his innocent son for sins he didn';t commit: that is NOT what PSA mewans at all! That's the caricature that assumes adoptionism and ignore Christ's own statement about laying down his own life, etc.
Correctly and temperately examined, this doctrine is a beautiful one of total grace and measured judgment that sees the sinner go free and the willing, suffering servant entirely vindicated through resurrection.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
Penal Substitutionary Atonement as a theory of the atonement is defined by two things: it's Penal, and it's Substitutionary.
It's penal because it says that Jesus is punished on the cross, and it's substitutionary because it says that Jesus is substituted for us. We deserve to be punished, but Jesus gets punished instead of us.
That's all there is to it. Anything that invokes other concepts: sacrifice, or satisfaction, or sanctification is no longer pure PSA but a mixed theory.
Defenders of PSA often muddle all sorts of other things in. For example, Mudfrog in the previous post writes that atonement quote:
needs to effect a change
or asks which theory quote:
actually changes me, delivers me from my sin?
PSA does nothing of that. All that PSA says Jesus does on the cross is get punished on my behalf. The cross does nothing to sanctify me, to stop me from committing sins. That is all put down to the work of the Holy Spirit. The cross effects merely a change in legal status, not a real change.
That is, in classical Reformed theology, there are two components to salvation: justification and sanctification. Justification is how we avoid punishment for our sins; sanctification is how we come to cease committing sins in future. PSA addresses justification alone.
The underlying problem that PSA is supposed to solve is how God can justly forgive sins. If nobody gets punished apparently justice is not done.
The chief objection is that quite how punishing an innocent person instead of a guilty person can ever be said to be just is seldom addressed and never answered.(*) Also, this looks like a false problem from non-PSA points of view: sin is acknowledged to be sin when it is forgiven, so there's no need to punish it to acknowledge it as sin.
So: a lot of people can't agree with PSA. It's not in any of the ecumenical creeds, which merely say that Jesus died for us and for our salvation, but don't specify how that happens.
(*) When this question is addressed, it's usual to claim that God can declare anything to be just that God likes. There are two insurmountable flaws to this: the first is that if 'just' means something different applied to God than it does in ordinary life, we'd be better off using a completely made-up word - we could call God 'vuwl' which would have no irrelevant associations with human justice. The second is that if God declared that forgiving sins without punishing was just then God could do that, so the necessity of the argument is cancelled by that.
[ 28. June 2011, 22:02: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
PSA isn't in any of the Creeds but it's certainly in the constitution of many evangelical churches and is the dominant note in evangelical understandings of the atonement... PSA is a Western feature and you won't find it among the Orthodox at all.
I had no idea that there was any way of understanding the atonement other than as a punishment given to Jesus in our place until I read 'The Lost Message of Jesus' by Steve Chalke and Alan Mann. They used the phrase 'cosmic child abuse' to describe PSA and got an awful lot of flak as a result...
I was researching for an essay I had to write and found that some evangelical theologians apparently thought PSA was the only valid theory of the atonement. It seemed they were unaware that PSA has by no means been the main way that Christians through history have understood the atonement and, as Gamaliel said, large chunks of the worldwide church reject it as a theory.
Here are a couple of pro-PSA quotations from well-known evangelical theologians, first John Piper and then Wayne Grudem:
quote:
This is breathtaking coming from a professing Christian... God sent His Son to rescue me from His wrath and make me His child. How did He do it? He did it in the way Steve Chalke slanderously calls "cosmic child abuse".
quote:
He [Chalke] is giving away the heart of the Gospel. I would never agree to give my approval to anyone who denies penal substitutionary atonement to be an elder at a church I attended, or to be a pastor or Bible teacher, or to teach at a theological seminary where I had influence on the appointment.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by South Coast Kevin:
I was researching for an essay I had to write and found that some evangelical theologians apparently thought PSA was the only valid theory of the atonement. It seemed they were unaware that PSA has by no means been the main way that Christians through history have understood the atonement and, as Gamaliel said, large chunks of the worldwide church reject it as a theory.
In my experience of evangelicals, which is extensive, you could just maybe fill a thimble with what your average evangelical-on-the-street knows about the history of the church between the end of Acts and the Reformation.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
I have many, many problems with PSA, but the chief of them is this: there's no point to the resurrection.
Jesus died, for my sins, in my place.
Okay. Now what?
We're Christians because of the resurrection. Any atonement theory that relegates that to an afterthought isn't really a theory I want to hold.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Consider this:
If I was drowning in the sea and a man showed great courage and selflessness by jumping in to rescue me, dying in the process, that would be a tremendous example to theose standing on the shore - but it would be absolutely no use to me, still floundering in the water while my 'hero' disappears below the waves!
If I'm drowing, I want someone who will actually get me out of the water by using his every last ounce of strength, even though it means he dies in my place.
Did you lift this straight from Leon Morris's discuassion of one of Abelard's theories of the atonement in his The Cross Of Jesus, Mudfrog, or is it a case of great (theological) minds thinking alike?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Consider this:
If I'm drowing, I want someone who will actually get me out of the water by using his every last ounce of strength, even though it means he dies in my place.
That seems very selfish to me, to want somebody else to sacrifice himself for you. If somebody did that I would be grateful, but feel a huge weight of Survivor's Guilt for the rest of my life. I'd probably constantly be sending gifts to his family in an effort to assuage my guilt. But the guilt would never go away. I can imagine someone who felt this burden committing suicide because of the guilt and heaviness of it.
As for applying this to Christ, it's really not a very good analogy. It's not as if Christ tried harder and harder and harder and finally it killed him. If PSA is right, it was only going to be his death that worked from the beginning. Death was the aim from the start. Whereas with the lifeguard scenario, the lifeguard dearly hopes to preserve his own life while saving yours. The death of the savior is a sine qua non of PSA, whereas the death of the lifeguard is not the sine qua non of a water rescue.
To me, and I realize this is not what PSA believers have in mind, it looks as if PSA posits a split personality in God. The Father is all angry and vengeful and hung up on justice at any price; whereas the Son is all about mercy and forgiveness and grace. Don't kill them, Dad. I know you're angry and you feel like you gotta kill somebody. Kill me.
Come to think of it, it looks like some views of the God of the OT and the God of the NT.
Finally, as has been noted already, how is it just to kill one person for another person's wrongdoing?
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
As for applying this to Christ, it's really not a very good analogy.
Probably not - and neither is any other analogy, because they're just that: stories or examples that try to illustrate exactly what happened in the reconciling death and resurrection of Jesus.
Having said that no analogy is perfect (i.e. none of them is fit to be a doctrinal explanation) I think that PSA is an evil teaching because it passes on a picture of a vengeful God to those who have neither the time nor the inclination to inquire further. 'Satisfying the wrath of God' forms no part of my faith. I will not teach it and I will not have it taught (or sung) in places where I have oversight.
I may well appreciate that it is just part of a complex forensic analogy of what God was/is up to, but I think I have a responsibility to ensure as little misunderstanding about God's nature as possible.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
The chief objection is that quite how punishing an innocent person instead of a guilty person can ever be said to be just
Well, I don't object. I am grateful.The one volunteers to be punished; and the one who does so is not just a person, he is God incarnate giving himself to restore and redeem a sinful world. It would be very stupid to reject an offer like that. In being a man he identifies with our wakness and sin, in being God, he transcends it
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Consider this:
If I was drowning in the sea and a man showed great courage and selflessness by jumping in to rescue me, dying in the process, that would be a tremendous example to theose standing on the shore - but it would be absolutely no use to me, still floundering in the water while my 'hero' disappears below the waves!
If I'm drowing, I want someone who will actually get me out of the water by using his every last ounce of strength, even though it means he dies in my place.
Did you lift this straight from Leon Morris's discuassion of one of Abelard's theories of the atonement in his The Cross Of Jesus, Mudfrog, or is it a case of great (theological) minds thinking alike?
Indeed. I'm writing a negotiated study essay at the moment on the wrath of God and PSA and, like every 'good student' I found the argument but forgot where I read it!
I found it online and have realised that in my quoting the argument from memory and paraphrasing it heavily I have actually done a disservice to the argument:
Here it is from the great man himself:
quote:
If Christ was not actually doing something by his death, then we are confronted with a piece of showmanship, nothing more. Someone once said that if he were in a rushing river and someone jumped in to save him, and in the process lost his life, he could recognize the love and sacrifice involved. But if he was sitting safely on the land and someone jumped into the torrent to show his love, he could see no point in it and only lament the senseless act. Unless the death of Christ really does something, it is not in fact a demonstration of love.
My argumen t is that the atronement actually has to do something for me, for my sin. PSA turns away judgment, deals with my sin effectively and atones for me.
The judge becomes judged in my place - that's Karl Barth!
The Father suffers along with the Son - that's Jurgen Moltmann
PSA does NOT have a wrathful God abusing his Son.
It's about a loving God dealing with his own wrath, willingly, on our behalf in the person of his life-sacrificing eternal Son.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
The chief objection is that quite how punishing an innocent person instead of a guilty person can ever be said to be just
Well, I don't object. I am grateful.The one volunteers to be punished; and the one who does so is not just a person, he is God incarnate giving himself to restore and redeem a sinful world. It would be very stupid to reject an offer like that. In being a man he identifies with our wakness and sin, in being God, he transcends it
It's not that it isn't a good offer. It's that it's not just.
God could just forgive us, like He taught us to forgive our brother seventy times seven. Or are we expected to be better than God?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Interesting, Doc Tor. What you wrote got me thinking about the phrase "forgiveness of sin." In the creed we're told Christ's incarnation, death, resurrection, ascension, were "for us [men] and for our salvation."
What's said to be "for the forgiveness of sin" is baptism.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
I have many, many problems with PSA, but the chief of them is this: there's no point to the resurrection.
Jesus died, for my sins, in my place.
Okay. Now what?
We're Christians because of the resurrection. Any atonement theory that relegates that to an afterthought isn't really a theory I want to hold.
I have never met an evangelical whom by believing in PSA, doesn't recognise the necessity and the glory of the resurrection!
By the resurrection Jesus was declared to be the Son of God in power! The resurrection is the vindication, the proof of his divinity and of the efficacy of the sacrifice! We even see it in Isaiah 53 v 11.
It's why evangelicals never have crucifixes - Christ is Risen! The tomb and the cross are empty!
Bearing shame and mocking rude
In my place condemned he stood
Sealed my pardon with his blood;
Hallelujah! What a Saviour!
Lifted up was he to die;
It is finished! was his cry;
Now in Heaven, exalted high;
Hallelujah! What a Saviour!
Nom you'll never find an evangelical - certainly not one who believes the classic PSA atonement - who does not glory in the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ!
In fact, we are more likely to believe in the empty tomb than many a non-evangelical liberal ![[Biased]](wink.gif)
[ 29. June 2011, 08:49: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I have never met an evangelical whom by beklieving in PSA, doesn't recognise the necessity and the glory of the resurrection!
By the resurrection Jesus was declared to be the Son of God in power! The resurrection is the vindication, the proof of his divinity and of the efficacy of the sacrofice!
But it doesn't, on your reading, DO anything. Sure it proves he really was who he said he was. But proving that wasn't necessary for the remission of sins under PSA. The resurrection is not part of our Lord's salvific works under PSA.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
Sorry, Mudfrog - the more you try to explain it with the river analogy, the more stupid and wrong it sounds.
The analogy would work, of course, if there was a dammed river, where I lived below the dam, which I subsequently destroyed because of my rebellion and selfishness, and then there was a flood that threatened to drown me and I couldn't reach safe ground. If God then chose to help me when I tried to swim for it (but couldn't make it on my own because the water was too fast) by jumping in and rescuing me but drowning in the process.
You see how much better that is?
Except God is God, and He put the water there in the first place, so it still kind of sucks. I mean, why didn't He use a boat?
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by South Coast Kevin:
I was researching for an essay I had to write and found that some evangelical theologians apparently thought PSA was the only valid theory of the atonement. It seemed they were unaware that PSA has by no means been the main way that Christians through history have understood the atonement and, as Gamaliel said, large chunks of the worldwide church reject it as a theory.
IME practically all evangelical theologians know that PSA is controversial outside (and sometimes within) evangelical circles. Most theologically-informed evangelicals also acknowledge and accept that PSA doesn't exhaust all that the atonement achieves.
Jesus' death and resurrection is also a victory over death and evil, and also an example for us, and also gives us new life, and so on. But that Jesus died in our place for our sins is a central and indispensable element of the Cross.
If Jesus hadn't taken our sins on himself and given us his righteousness, then we would still be guilty and unable to benefit from all the other blessings he won on the Cross. Jesus' victory over evil is only good news to us as sinners if there's a way for us to stop being evil.
So criticising PSA for not explaining everything is missing the point. Those, like me, who believe it think that it's true and important, but don't think that it says everything that could be said.
I think the debate really boils down to whether it's true both that (a) we're objectively guilty and sinful; and (b) if God has to punish sin somehow in order to forgive us. PSA depends on those two beliefs. If you've got a different view of the human condition, and/or a different view of justice and forgiveness, then your theology of the atonement will also be different.
[ 29. June 2011, 08:56: Message edited by: The Revolutionist ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
PSA is very much embedded in my psyche - I've been around the doctrine for all my Christian life and although it's been tempered by other models - and they aren't 'modern' ones, Mudfrog, PSA actually came on the scene later than other models/analogies that could be mentioned.
To be frank, I find it a hard one to shift, thanks, partly to the Romans passage that's been cited and other scriptures that can be taken to uphold this particular understanding. And I do know that there are Orthodox who would say, 'Well yes, I can see an aspect of that, however ...'
For me, though, it falls down (or at least weakens) for the reasons that have been listed here - it is very reductionist for a start and only deals with the juridical aspect - it doesn't take full account of the Resurrection and our ongoing life in Christ - a deficit, as Mudfrog will know, that the Wesleyan tradition tried to rectify.
Again, I'm afraid I'm going to sound awfully Ortho' here, but I do wonder whether it's one of those instances - like transubtantiation - where the West has taken things too far through the application of its cold, juridical logic?
RCs have taken certain things too far, Calvinists (rather than Calvin himself necessarily) have taken other things too far (double predestination anyone?) and so has the Wesleyan tradition on other aspects (conscious sinless perfection etc anyone?).
Could it be that the emphasis on PSA is just another of those Western, hyper-logical traits that effectively reduce everything to a set of propositions and squeeze the mystery out of it all?
All that said, I find it hard to understand how some people come away from the scriptures (and yes, we all read them through the lens of our own tradition) without any sense that there is a substitutionary aspect, and yes, I appreciate that a moderate and sensitive approach to PSA avoids the ghastly and grotesque aspects that accompanies a rather crass presentation of it.
But there's cuddly old Gamaliel taking a middle line again ...
I think there is something in PSA that lends itself to the 'crisis' style conversionism that is an inherent part of the evangelical package - and also explains the sense of release and relief that you often find in evangelical testimonies and conversion literature. That same 'crisis' sense then continues into some understandings of sanctification - witness the Wesleyan/Holiness/Pentecostal strand.
It's also easily easily packaged as a neat and convenient sound-bite to use in evangelism - but with the attendant difficulties that this brings.
Part of me still warms to some of the hymnody associated with it - 'Bearing shame and mocking rude/In my place condemned he stood' and 'In Christ Alone' (although I understand the objections to it).
But for my money, it can also lead to a kind of mawkish sentimentality - and I'm as sentimental and soulful as the next man, believe you me, perhaps more so as a South Walian ... we overdose on sentimentality ...
So it runs the risk of two dangerous extremes - a kind of mawkish sentimentality on the one hand (the holiness strand) and a very cold, clinical, almost brutally juridical sense on the other (the Calvinistic).
Both extremes are to be eschewed. And treading the fine line between them takes some doing.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
The chief objection is that quite how punishing an innocent person instead of a guilty person can ever be said to be just
Well, I don't object. I am grateful.The one volunteers to be punished; and the one who does so is not just a person, he is God incarnate giving himself to restore and redeem a sinful world. It would be very stupid to reject an offer like that. In being a man he identifies with our wakness and sin, in being God, he transcends it
It's not that it isn't a good offer. It's that it's not just.
God could just forgive us, like He taught us to forgive our brother seventy times seven. Or are we expected to be better than God?
And upon what basis could God 'just forgive us'?
I'm sure he could but God is not just 'love'm God is also three times #holy'. What of his holiness, the demands of justice and judgment? What of sion? can God just wink at it and say, ah well, I just forgive you?
we forgive our brother 70 times 7 on the basis that we have first been forgiven by Gpod - we reflect his provision of salvation and grace.
But God's provision of such forgiveness lies not only ion love but in his own satisfaction of the law of justrice.
He judged sin in his Son so that we might be forgiven. There can be no forgiveness without the doing away of sin in a just manner that satisfies God's holiness and hatred of sin.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I have never met an evangelical whom by believing in PSA, doesn't recognise the necessity and the glory of the resurrection!
But it's not necessary.
All that's necessary is that Jesus dies in our place, facing God's wrath. The resurrection in the context of PSA is just a 'tada!" All the efficacy is in the death, none of it in the resurrection.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Sorry, Mudfrog - the more you try to explain it with the river analogy, the more stupid and wrong it sounds.
The analogy would work, of course, if there was a dammed river, where I lived below the dam, which I subsequently destroyed because of my rebellion and selfishness, and then there was a flood that threatened to drown me and I couldn't reach safe ground. If God then chose to help me when I tried to swim for it (but couldn't make it on my own because the water was too fast) by jumping in and rescuing me but drowning in the process.
You see how much better that is?
Except God is God, and He put the water there in the first place, so it still kind of sucks. I mean, why didn't He use a boat?
I think you are reading far too much into the metaphor.
It was simply saying that an example of sacrifice is not enough. The act actually has to rescue the person, not just show a willingness to do so.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Mudfrog, no-one is saying that evangelicals don't believe in the resurrection. Arguably, your tradition rejoices in it to a greater extent that some other evangelical traditions - believe me, I've often heard it tacked on almost as an after thought in some evangelical places.
No, what MT and perhaps others here, are saying is that it is possible to dislocate the Resurrection from the Atonement in some forms of evangelical thinking and presentation. The two go together in Orthodoxy in a more integrated way, perhaps, than they often appear to in the West.
The Resurrection is more than proof of who Jesus is and some kind of 'seal of approval' on the atonement. It's very richly expressed in Orthodox hymnody, as MT can tell us. And I don't think that this understanding is absent in the West, just perhaps not highlighting or appreciated as much. That's my two happ'orth as someone who is pretty familiar with all aspects of evangelicalism and who peeks across the Bosphorus from time to time.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
we forgive our brother 70 times 7 on the basis that we have first been forgiven by Gpod - we reflect his provision of salvation and grace.
But God's provision of such forgiveness lies not only ion love but in his own satisfaction of the law of justrice.
He judged sin in his Son so that we might be forgiven. There can be no forgiveness without the doing away of sin in a just manner that satisfies God's holiness and hatred of sin.
Again, it's not just. If God loves justice, he doesn't punish the innocent. Even once.
This might be a problem with language, but I think it's a problem with the model.
If God demands perfect justice, then punishing the innocent, including Himself in the body of His Son, is wrong. It's simply not justice - it makes a mockery of justice.
Now grace and mercy can also make a mockery of justice, forgiveness that is freely given and not earned likewise...
There's cosmic significance in the death and resurrection of Jesus. I don't think it's what you think it is.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
quote:
Originally posted by South Coast Kevin:
I was researching for an essay I had to write and found that some evangelical theologians apparently thought PSA was the only valid theory of the atonement. It seemed they were unaware that PSA has by no means been the main way that Christians through history have understood the atonement and, as Gamaliel said, large chunks of the worldwide church reject it as a theory.
IME practically all evangelical theologians know that PSA is controversial outside (and sometimes within) evangelical circles. Most theologically-informed evangelicals also acknowledge and accept that PSA doesn't exhaust all that the atonement achieves.
Jesus' death and resurrection is also a victory over death and evil, and also an example for us, and also gives us new life, and so on. But that Jesus died in our place for our sins is a central and indispensable element of the Cross.
If Jesus hadn't taken our sins on himself and given us his righteousness, then we would still be guilty and unable to benefit from all the other blessings he won on the Cross. Jesus' victory over evil is only good news to us as sinners if there's a way for us to stop being evil.
So criticising PSA for not explaining everything is missing the point. Those, like me, who believe it think that it's true and important, but don't think that it says everything that could be said.
I think the debate really boils down to whether it's true both that (a) we're objectively guilty and sinful; and (b) if God has to punish sin somehow in order to forgive us. PSA depends on those two beliefs. If you've got a different view of the human condition, and/or a different view of justice and forgiveness, then your theology of the atonement will also be different.
Quite so.
A cursory look at any evangelical hymnbook will show that the ationement is understood in so many, many ways. All of us 'go weak at the knees', spiritually speaking, when we sing When I survey the Wondrous Cross but there is not one word of PSA in it - it's all moral example. And yet the evangelical community would shoot at dawn any hymn editor that left it out of a hymnal!
I repeat however, that PSA does something that orther theories do not - it removes our sins and propitiates God's wrath.
As Mrs Alender wrote, He died to make us good...saved by his precious blood.
The blood of jesus - his outpoured life - actually effects a change in the soul. We are cleansed by his blood, shed for us.
No moral influence or demonstration of love does that. The blood must be a substitute for our own.
Or, as that great 'evangelical song' from St Bernard of Clairvaux affirms:
Thy grief and thy compassion
Were all for sinners' gain;
Mine, mine was the transgression,
But thine the deadly pain.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
we forgive our brother 70 times 7 on the basis that we have first been forgiven by Gpod - we reflect his provision of salvation and grace.
But God's provision of such forgiveness lies not only ion love but in his own satisfaction of the law of justrice.
He judged sin in his Son so that we might be forgiven. There can be no forgiveness without the doing away of sin in a just manner that satisfies God's holiness and hatred of sin.
Again, it's not just. If God loves justice, he doesn't punish the innocent. Even once.
This might be a problem with language, but I think it's a problem with the model.
If God demands perfect justice, then punishing the innocent, including Himself in the body of His Son, is wrong. It's simply not justice - it makes a mockery of justice.
Now grace and mercy can also make a mockery of justice, forgiveness that is freely given and not earned likewise...
There's cosmic significance in the death and resurrection of Jesus. I don't think it's what you think it is.
Go on then, enlighten us.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Mudfrog, no-one is saying that evangelicals don't believe in the resurrection. Arguably, your tradition rejoices in it to a greater extent that some other evangelical traditions - believe me, I've often heard it tacked on almost as an after thought in some evangelical places.
Anecdotal evidence is valuable to the teller, but not to the hearer. I just do not recognise the analysis of evangelicalism that suggests the resurrection is an afterthought. What doctrinal statements do you know of rather than just what you've heard?
Having said that, I would suggest that many such statements are condensed versions of what we believe for pragmatic purposes. I might play devil's advocate here - and play into your hands too - by revealing that in the Salvation Army's eleven doctrines, there is no statement about the resurrection of Jesus Christ!! The only reference is in the last doctrine that says we believe in 'the immortality of the soul and the resurrection of the body'! And yet our worship is full of resurrection!
We enjoy Easter Sunday as much as anyone - even the Orthodox!
I think the reason it's not in, is that it wasn't an issue that needed to be defended when TSA started out - a bit like the classic creeds are defenses against heresy.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I have never met an evangelical whom by believing in PSA, doesn't recognise the necessity and the glory of the resurrection!
But it's not necessary.
All that's necessary is that Jesus dies in our place, facing God's wrath. The resurrection in the context of PSA is just a 'tada!" All the efficacy is in the death, none of it in the resurrection.
This would be true if evangelicals believed the only problem we face is God's wrath. We don't. Therefore, whilst PSA is central to us, "just" (not that I would ever put it that way!)saving us from God's wrath is not the totality of salvation.
In short, this is a straw man.
Anyway, I'm really not sure if I can do PSA, the thread that wouldn't die, again!
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
I....Will...Resist!!!
Seriously, Scuffleball, the aformentioned thread, all sixty-odd pages of it, can be found here . Confusingly, it is entitled with the name of one of the other prominent atonement theories, but there should be plenty to keep you going for a very long time!
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Sorry, my post reads as if it were a reply to Lep, with whom I cross-posted, and whose views, though they differ from mine, I regard with great respect. Apologies for any confusion.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
originally posted by tessaB
Personally I would prefer to have a theory of Christ's death and resurrection that did not involve a wrathful and rather petty sounding God making damn sure that someone paid for all the sins in the world.
However, I cannot quite bring myself to throw it all out particularly bearing in mind
Romans 3:24-26
I think it's quite illuminating that you see that passage as supportive of PSA, whereas I see it is an important text in refuting the idea that PSA is a Scriptural doctrine. Surely, the point that Paul is making is that the death of Christ confounds human ideas of justice, subverting them away from punishment towards restoration. The Christ Event (His life, death, resurrection and ascension) reveals God's attitude to justice as being restorative and not retributive.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
we forgive our brother 70 times 7 on the basis that we have first been forgiven by Gpod - we reflect his provision of salvation and grace.
But God's provision of such forgiveness lies not only ion love but in his own satisfaction of the law of justrice.
He judged sin in his Son so that we might be forgiven. There can be no forgiveness without the doing away of sin in a just manner that satisfies God's holiness and hatred of sin.
Again, it's not just. If God loves justice, he doesn't punish the innocent. Even once.
This might be a problem with language, but I think it's a problem with the model.
If God demands perfect justice, then punishing the innocent, including Himself in the body of His Son, is wrong. It's simply not justice - it makes a mockery of justice.
Now grace and mercy can also make a mockery of justice, forgiveness that is freely given and not earned likewise...
This. And you do not condemn anyone you love to eternal torture. It is the platonic ideal of the opposite of love. It is also the platonic ideal of the opposite of justice.
As for punishing his son that we might be forgiven, if I beat up my cat that my aunt might be forgiven that wouldn't be anything to do with justice. It would also be grounds for calling the RSPCA.
As for God's holiness, you and others like you keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means. If we look at the life of Jesus of Nazareth, arguably the holiest man to have ever existed, we don't find a man who denounced prostitutes and tax collectors. We find one who made them and other de facto sinners his friends and got pissed off at those supposed to be holy (Rabbis, Pharisees). Unless you wish to call Jesus unholy that (going to those considered unclean and seeking to bring them into the light rather than Smiting The Ungodly) is the model of holiness. I consider the sort of 'holiness' that recoils from sinners and to be weak and insecure and reveal a fundamental weakness in the so-called holy. And the sort of 'holiness' that demands punishment rather than seeks to nurture into the light to be a perversion of actual holiness.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
originally posted by tessaB
Personally I would prefer to have a theory of Christ's death and resurrection that did not involve a wrathful and rather petty sounding God making damn sure that someone paid for all the sins in the world.
However, I cannot quite bring myself to throw it all out particularly bearing in mind
Romans 3:24-26
I think it's quite illuminating that you see that passage as supportive of PSA, whereas I see it is an important text in refuting the idea that PSA is a Scriptural doctrine. Surely, the point that Paul is making is that the death of Christ confounds human ideas of justice, subverting them away from punishment towards restoration. The Christ Event (His life, death, resurrection and ascension) reveals God's attitude to justice as being restorative and not retributive.
I would see it as being restorative as well - but using PSA.
People have a huge problem with the wrath of God. I don't. The reason being that God's wrath is 'slow' - slow to anger and swift to bless, etc.
The wrath of God against our sin is held back, not meted out - the Psalmist declared (with relief?) that 'he doesn't treat us as our sins deserve.'. Therefore God is NOT the vengeful, wrathful God that people who hate PSA charicature him to be.
His wrath was reserved for one moment in time - Calvary - and for one person - his Son. It is measured, restrained and proportionate and on the cross, the wrath of God, the curse, was levelled at Jesus who took upon himself the sin of the world. The very incarnation was God being made in the likeness of sinful flesh; Jesus was made sin for us so that the wrath of God would onece and for all be expressed against that sin, so that whosoever believes shall not perish but have everlasting life.
Is that self-sacrifice of Jesus, that satisfies justice, removes sin, gains a victory of death and evil, not the most wonderful act and example of love there has ever been? Is the fact that God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself not too wonderful for words? Is the fact that sin is done away with, the price is paid and the wrath of God is propitiated not such good news that all we can do is worship Him?
Penal Substitutionary Atonement might make us feel a little queasy - and maybe it should - because grace does dlo things that are a bit over the top and, like so much, it's a mystery of faith; not least that it's a mystery that God did it at all:
Amazing love! How can it be that thou my God shouldst die for me?
The truth is this:
- We cannot fathom the love of God.
- No one theory can explain the atonement.
- Every theory has its limit before it is 'stretched'.
- No one theory alone is sufficient.
- Every theory finds a particular resonance with some and not with others.
- Some people just can't 'see' the value of particular theories.
- I might say that it doesn't matter! If moral influence brings you to the cross, then wonderful! If Christus Victor floats your spiritual boat and brings affirmation of salvation, then rejouce in it.
If ransom is the one that brings you to God, then glory in it. If PSA is the one that is precious to you and your need for forgiveness, then it's what you need to claim!
- The truth is it's the cross that saves you - however it works! and not the theories we use to make it understandable.
- and finally, in all these debates we need to remember that actually no-one truly understands and while we all preach Christ crucified (and totall risen again!), the cross is a scandal and it is utter foolishness to those who do not believe but it's the power of God for us!
Yes, it might offend the sense of justice.
Yes it might upset our ideas of what love is.
Yes, the idea of the innocent suffering might be a scandal.
Yes, the thought that God can indeed suffer might be a stumbling block, but hey, Paul had to cope with that and Jesus himself was crucified because religious people thought they know more about God than God himself!
When you kneel for the Eucharist next time does it really matter what theory you have in mid? What is important is that you trust him to save you and keep you in eternal life.
As for me, I like them all!
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It's about a loving God dealing with his own wrath, willingly, on our behalf in the person of his life-sacrificing eternal Son.
...and that's the God you can keep.
BTW, when argued about on a thread like this, it might well look like a straw man, but it's when working with people who have been damaged by the angry God concept or who have lost faith because of it that I could easily despair.
He's a God of LOVE not of wrath, and the PSA analogy only works in the rarefied sphere of those who know what analogies really are. For the rest, a angry God is just about as much a distortion as a fluffy God!
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
I'm with Leo and Lep in not being bothered to discuss the content of PSA again.
Scuffleball - there is a very long thread with the title CV you could check out if you want to find out more.
quote:
Originally posted by scuffleball:
Is PSA bogie? Is it in the ścumenical creeds and if not can we consider it a necessary part of Christianity?
I will comment on the attitude to PSA on the ship though.
You will not find PSA in any of the ecumenical creeds because you will not find any atonement models enshrined there.
This leads to a common passive-aggressive reaction to PSA on the ship sometimes. On the one hand a frequent complaint is against 'PSA only' types who (it is alleged) say you can't be a Christian unless you believe in PSA. "But it's not in the ecumenical creeds" is the chant. On the other hand, the same people will attack PSA and say that they don't think it should be a Christian model of the atonement...
Saucy PSA, goosey CV and gander moral exemplar.
If we are going to bang on about "it's not in the creeds" then I think we've only got two options:
1. Accept all atonement models as having being embraced by the church for centuries. And so whenever PSA is mentioned we equally embrace it alongside all other models - since the creeds do not nail down which model.
2. Argue about which models we think fit best scripture and tradition.
If we go for no. 2 then let's be honest about it and stop all this "it's only the nasty evangelicals who want to say what people believe is not the real (TM) gospel."
Some people try for a third option which is to say that all models are pictures that they accept ..."I just happen never to use PSA". That is simply a cop out. If you never actually use a model then have the guts to be clear about option 2 - you've ruled it out as not being accord with scripture or tradition.
If PSA, as has often been described, is sub-Christian then anyone who says that it is the centre of their gospel clearly believes a different gospel. I think the following two positions are equally exclusive:
- "You're not a Christian if you don't believe in PSA."
- "You're gospel is sub-Christian if you do believe in PSA."
[PS - I've just finished reading Rob Bell's book - Love Wins. One of the interesting things that struck me was his chapter on the cross. He went for the 'lots of different images' routine. But I noticed that he studiously avoided to use substitutionary language, never mind penal. Fair enough if you reject PSA. But come clean and say so. Have the balls to say that you think PSA is a false gospel.]
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on
:
For more discussion of PSA on recent previous threads see here and here
That is if you still have the will to live after you have read the 60+ pages of the Christus victor thread...
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
That is if you still have the will to live after you have read the 60+ pages of the Christus victor thread...
I really enjoyed that thread.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I won't say that PSA is a false Gospel, Johnny S, not because I lack the cajones but because I don't see bad fruit in everyone who espouses it - and it served me pretty well as a model for a long time. Not that you can argue from personal experience purely, of course, as Mudfrog has reminded us.
Incidentally, Mudfrog, your waxing lyrical reminded me of a good day in my GLE days ... and, yes, I can still go weak at the knees at all of that. I'm not sure I've rejected PSA so much as modified it a bit ... I agree with Johnny S that there are entrenched positions and binariness on both (all) sides of this one.
I would agree that if we accept the wrath and justice of God premise, then PSA does deal with that in a way that Christus Victor and some of the other atonement models don't. But taken on its own, I'd suggest that PSA doesn't adequately deal with the other aspects of the atonement that the other models convey.
For my money, I think John Stott is the best on this one in his 'The Cross of Christ' which does defend the classic PSA position whilst giving due weight to the other models and handling it in such a way as to avoid the grotesque aspects that often creep in to PSA language.
That said, PSA only 'works' as a model if you accept a Western juridical view of sin and salvation - it's something of a non-issue to the Orthodox because their whole anthropology and soteriology is expressed differently - the whole Original Sin thing is different - ancestral sin rather than original sin in the Augustinian sense.
I suspect that if one were to adopt the Orthodox line then PSA becomes a non-issue and a very bewildering concept. Just as, to those of us accustomed to the Western view, their way of handling these things appears unsettlingly different and peculiar.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by AberVicar:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
It's about a loving God dealing with his own wrath, willingly, on our behalf in the person of his life-sacrificing eternal Son.
...and that's the God you can keep.
BTW, when argued about on a thread like this, it might well look like a straw man, but it's when working with people who have been damaged by the angry God concept or who have lost faith because of it that I could easily despair.
He's a God of LOVE not of wrath, and the PSA analogy only works in the rarefied sphere of those who know what analogies really are. For the rest, a angry God is just about as much a distortion as a fluffy God!
In which case you have to make sure you define wrath properly.
This from NT Wright's sermon 'The Word of the Cross' (hardly an American fundamentalist):
quote:
"The first challenge comes...in the temptation to water down the message of the cross so that it becomes less offensive, more palatable to the ordinary sensible mind..."
He talks about caricatures, including the one of "an angry God and a loving Jesus, a loving God who demands blood and doesn't much mind whose it is along as it's innocent...But once we have got rid of the caricature, we are ready to face the reality...of the cross."
"Face it, to deny God's wrath is, at bottom, to deny God's love. When God sees human beings enslaved, if God doesn't hate it, he is not a loving God. When God sees innocent people being bombed because of someone's political agenda, if God doesn't hate it, he isn't a loving God. When God sees people lying and cheating and abusing one another, exploiting and grafting and preying on one another, if God were to say 'never mind, I love you all anyway', he is neither good nor loving. The Bible does not speak of a God of generalized benevolence. It speaks of the God who made the world and loves it so passionately that he must and does hate everything that distorts and defaces the world...
...The Bible tells the story about the creator God...finally stepping onto the stage to play the solo part (where) he would come and take upon himself, in the person of his Son, the pain and shame, yes the horror and darkness, yes, but also in Matthew, Mark, Luke and John, in Paul and cts and Hebrews and I Peter and Revelation, in Ignatuis, Irenaeus and Augustine and Aquinas, in Luther and Calvin, and cranmer and Hooker, in Herbert and Donne and Wesley and Watts - that he would take upon himself the condemnation which, precisely because he loves us to the uttermost, he must pronounce over that deadly disease we call sin. To deny thism as some would do today as they have for hundreds of years, is to deny the depth and weight of sin and the deeper depth and heavier weight of God's redeeming love. The word of the cross is folly to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God."
I believe that outside academia, people do want a God who is angry at injustice, sin, filth and despair. They also want a God who has done something about it.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I won't say that PSA is a false Gospel, Johnny S, not because I lack the cajones but because I don't see bad fruit in everyone who espouses it - and it served me pretty well as a model for a long time. Not that you can argue from personal experience purely, of course, as Mudfrog has reminded us.
Incidentally, Mudfrog, your waxing lyrical reminded me of a good day in my GLE days ... and, yes, I can still go weak at the knees at all of that. I'm not sure I've rejected PSA so much as modified it a bit ... I agree with Johnny S that there are entrenched positions and binariness on both (all) sides of this one.
I would agree that if we accept the wrath and justice of God premise, then PSA does deal with that in a way that Christus Victor and some of the other atonement models don't. But taken on its own, I'd suggest that PSA doesn't adequately deal with the other aspects of the atonement that the other models convey.
For my money, I think John Stott is the best on this one in his 'The Cross of Christ' which does defend the classic PSA position whilst giving due weight to the other models and handling it in such a way as to avoid the grotesque aspects that often creep in to PSA language.
That said, PSA only 'works' as a model if you accept a Western juridical view of sin and salvation - it's something of a non-issue to the Orthodox because their whole anthropology and soteriology is expressed differently - the whole Original Sin thing is different - ancestral sin rather than original sin in the Augustinian sense.
I suspect that if one were to adopt the Orthodox line then PSA becomes a non-issue and a very bewildering concept. Just as, to those of us accustomed to the Western view, their way of handling these things appears unsettlingly different and peculiar.
Thanks Gamaliel.
Are there any groups that say ONLY PSA is a valid atonement theory? Surely not! If there is any strong support of the theory then I giuess it's a defensive position and that people highhlight it because of those people say 'any theory EXCEPT PSA'.
My psoiution - and tbh, the position of most people I've come across, is that all are good but that none of them stand up on their own - not even PSA.
Having said that, most evangelicals would say that substitution (penal or otherwise) is the central one around which all the others are equally valuable.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Mudfrog, I'm not trying to trip you up or trying to play you into my hands ... and yes, you are right that there are no evangelical statements of faith that don't deal with the Resurrection. And, yes, with the Sally Army's non-mention of the Resurrection in the statements of faith you're referring to, I would agree with your analysis and wouldn't take it as evidence that because it's not listed then the SA mustn't believe in the Resurrection.
No, you misunderstand me. What I have SEEN and HEARD, and I made it clear I was going on anecdotal evidence, is quite definitely an overplaying of the Cross and a downplaying of the Resurrection in SOME (but by no means all) evangelical prayers, in sermons and in conversation.
It's not that the resurrection isn't there, but it is sometimes weakened.
I've often heard, 'he was delivered over to death for our sins' without the rest of the verse (Romans 4:25) 'he was raised to life for our justification.'
Listening to some (not all) evangelicals you could get the impression that it ended at the Cross and the Resurrection was an afterthought.
Of course, this is the result of sloppiness rather than deliberate policy. In the same way that people's Trinitarian language is often pretty sloppy. I attended an Orthodox conference last week an twice during some feed-back sessions Fr Gregory had to correct speakers who had referred to God the Holy Spirit as 'it' rather than 'he'. "'He,' brother, 'he' if you would, God is always personal. I will try not interrupt anyone speaking again but only if they do not use a personal pronoun ..."
If you'd been there you'd have heard me mutter an 'Amen'.
That's all I was saying.
I recently attended an Orthodox service where they venerated the Cross at the end. I can't remember the words of the hymnody used to accompany this - Mousethief can enlighten us - but it struck me that it combined the Cross AND Resurrection in a very beautiful way. One which would have made you go weak at the knees, I'm sure, just as it did with me.
Whichever side of the Schism we are, it's not either/or but both.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
For my money, I think John Stott is the best on this one in his 'The Cross of Christ' which does defend the classic PSA position whilst giving due weight to the other models and handling it in such a way as to avoid the grotesque aspects that often creep in to PSA language.
Interesting. John Stott says that if you ditch PSA (or has he handily renames it, "self substitution for self satisfaction)you CANNOT have any of the other atonement models - they only "work" if PSA is central. He uses the image of the hub and spokes of a bicycle. Is that your position Gamaliel?
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I believe that outside academia, people do want a God who is angry at injustice, sin, filth and despair. They also want a God who has done something about it.
I'd sign up to that.
I'm just not sure that PSA deals with it - if anything, it colludes with it.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Sure - sorry, we cross-posted Mudfrog.
Yes, the substitutionary aspect is emphasised strongly in the evangelical traditions - and doesn't appear to be there to the same extent (if at all?
) in the Orthodox take on these things. Could it be that they have gone to the other extreme? Or maybe it just isn't an issue with me nor something that they feel the need to thrash out necessarily.
MT can enlighten us, but from what I can gather it's more a case of 'on behalf of' rather than 'instead of'. God didn't kill Christ, it was wicked men. Yet it was God's set purpose and foreknowledge. All these things are mysteries before which it is wise, ultimately, to remain silent.
That's not to say that we shouldn't debate though, and I agree with Johnny S that some anti-PSA people are so intemperate in their views that rational debate becomes difficult. Illiberal liberals and all that ...
But it's all beyond me ...
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I wonder if some evangelicals are so 'hot' on getting people saved and forgiven, that the cross is the BIG issue ands the resurrection is, well, that after-thought you spoke of. They are wrong of course!
I get annoyed when I hear people quoting verses like 'The wages of sin is death.' But then they don't say, 'but the free gift of God is eternal,life through Christ our Lord.'
why do people shout the bad stuff but never celebrate the good stuff!
'The end is nigh' - but about celebrating the wonderful and beautiful coming Kingdom?
It's true then, there are people who take the message and only highlight one part - which is, of course, how cults begin.
I also hate it when the holy Spirit is referred to as an 'it'
... and a 'she'.
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
In which case you have to make sure you define wrath properly.
snip
I believe that outside academia, people do want a God who is angry at injustice, sin, filth and despair. They also want a God who has done something about it.
In the context of this discussion, I agree that the definition can be negotiated. People may also want to see anger at the way the world is, though it is in us that the anger should be.
BUT the combination of a God who is angry at them, and a God who does bugger all about e.g. the mining disater we commemorated yesterday, or the suffering their spouse went through when dying of cancer, or the little girl who died in a car accident - I do find that angry God very strongly in people's perception, and that isn't the reconciling God at the heart of Paul's teaching, nor is it the God who actually gives me the impulse to do something about it all.
BTW, I also think that this angry God is one of the main reasons why the churches in our area that taught PSA so persistently are either empty or closed...
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
... most evangelicals would say that substitution (penal or otherwise) is the central one around which all the others are equally valuable.
Substitution, yes, but not necessarily penal. There's an argument that all the atonement models are substitutionary; Jesus dying for us, in our place. But to accept that substitution is at the heart of what was going on with Jesus' death and resurrection says nothing about whether punishment was involved in anyway.
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
What I have SEEN and HEARD, and I made it clear I was going on anecdotal evidence, is quite definitely an overplaying of the Cross and a downplaying of the Resurrection in SOME (but by no means all) evangelical prayers, in sermons and in conversation.
This is my anecdotal experience, too, and I think it is inextricably bound up with the PSA understanding of the atonement. Jesus died for our sins, so it goes, but then what of the resurrection? A final 'ta-da' indeed...
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well yes, that was certainly John Stott's position, Leprechaun but it's a long time since I read the book.
Is it mine? Well I honestly don't know. I honestly don't know what my position is on this issue than I know what it is on how the Eucharist 'works' or how grace, faith and works all hang together or how Christ can be God and man at the same time ... or any other mystery you might care to mention.
That's not a cop-out, just a statement of where I'm 'at'.
At one time I'd have pronounced John Stott's book as the last word on the matter. Now I'm not so sure ... much as I admire him and admire the book.
Want to make something of it?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Oh ... many evangelicals being in a hurry to see people 'saved and forgiven.' Tell me about it, Mudfrog ...
Hence the altar calls, frog-marching people 'down the front', the mood music and the peer pressure ... it's no wonder that people like AberVicar have to pick up the pieces afterwards ...
Your otherwise estimable organisation with its mercy-seats and what-have-you and its very militant approach (in the early days) went in for that big time ... as do contemporary Pentecostal evangelistic crusades and the like. 'Yes, I see that hand!'
Don't get me started. You can get a parrot to repeat the sinner's prayer. People will do anything under the right pressure and the right cues.
That isn't to say that people don't come to faith through these means - of course they do - but any 'crisis' type model is going to involve a lot of fall-out it seems to me ... and huge reserves of pastoral wisdom to deal with the consequences.
Of course, other models, such as the slow, gradual marination approach favoured by the Orthodox (and the RCs?) - salvation by Liturgy anyone?
have attendant difficulties too ... nominalism, cultural Christianity etc.
But any tradition that's in so desperate a hurry that it elides or overlooks some pretty crucial aspects is bound to cause problems for itself ...
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I believe that outside academia, people do want a God who is angry at injustice, sin, filth and despair. They also want a God who has done something about it.
Once upon a time, there was a small town in the West. There were many small farmers in that town. And there was a rich cattle baron, and the rich cattle baron wanted to pull down that town to make way for his cattle. So he sent in his thugs, and they beat up some of the farmers, and burnt down the houses of the others, and killed some. The town preacher was the baron's elder brother. Yet he organised a meeting to protest against the baron's violence and he led the farmers to the sheriff. The sheriff said to the preacher, 'would you forgive your brother if you could?' and the preacher said, 'Yes, I would. But these farmers' homes and crops are destroyed and the farmers beaten and killed, and something must be done about my brother's crimes so that the farmers are not cast out of their town.' And the sheriff took the preacher and whipped him, saying, 'this is the punishment due to the baron for all the farmers he beat up,' and burned down his house and his church saying, 'this is the punishment for the property destroyed,' and then he took the preacher and hanged him until he died, saying, 'and this is the punishment for killing those men'. And then the sherriff went to the farmers and said, 'all the cattle baron's crimes have now been punished. Justice has been done.'
And so the cattle baron lived a long life and became rich, and the farmers had to leave that place.
Do we all agree that the sheriff has dealt with the cattle baron's crimes by punishing the preacher?
[ 29. June 2011, 12:22: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
The sort of god (small g intended) portrayed in PSA is a monster who behaves in a worse, stricter manner than even the strictest of Edwadrian fathers.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Oh ... many evangelicals being in a hurry to see people 'saved and forgiven.' Tell me about it, Mudfrog ...
Hence the altar calls, frog-marching people 'down the front', the mood music and the peer pressure ... it's no wonder that people like AberVicar have to pick up the pieces afterwards ...
Your otherwise estimable organisation with its mercy-seats and what-have-you and its very militant approach (in the early days) went in for that big time ... as do contemporary Pentecostal evangelistic crusades and the like. 'Yes, I see that hand!'
Don't get me started. You can get a parrot to repeat the sinner's prayer. People will do anything under the right pressure and the right cues.
That isn't to say that people don't come to faith through these means - of course they do - but any 'crisis' type model is going to involve a lot of fall-out it seems to me ... and huge reserves of pastoral wisdom to deal with the consequences.
Of course, other models, such as the slow, gradual marination approach favoured by the Orthodox (and the RCs?) - salvation by Liturgy anyone?
have attendant difficulties too ... nominalism, cultural Christianity etc.
But any tradition that's in so desperate a hurry that it elides or overlooks some pretty crucial aspects is bound to cause problems for itself ...
If it's any consolation to you Mr Gamaliel, we salvationists with our Mercy Seats are equally as opposed to mood music, peer pressure and emotional responses as you.
The Mercy Seat approach has always had its critics but there is something sacramental about kneeling in response to the word or under the conviction of the Holy Spirit. As with all things it can be abused or treated lightly, but there is tremendous power and symbolism there. even the use of the word 'Mercy Seat' conveys a sense of Biblical awe.
I was speaking to a RC priest once who said, "I just love your Seat of Mercy".
That was great affirmation, to me, of the value of this great gift to the Army. It trule is a means of grace.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The sort of god (small g intended) portrayed in PSA is a monster who behaves in a worse, stricter manner than even the strictest of Edwadrian fathers.
I suggest that the god you describe is only seen in the caricatures of PSA written by those who refuse to believe it. I believe in SA and I do not recognise in it the god that is often described.
Do you really believe that I would subscribe to belief in a cruel and capricious god? I would suggest that to be fair and even-handed in this debate, you really need to look at what theologians such as Stott and Morris and others are actualy saying. You also need to ask, 'what god does Mudfrog and his evangelical friends worship?' You will see that I worship a God of abundant love, a God of tremendous compassion and indescribeable grace, forgiveness, mercy and gentleness. But in that love there is holiness that rejects sin outright, is burdened by its pain, is angry at its promotion and its effects. He is a God who, in perfect love, has acted to remove the stain and pollution of sin from his people by the giving of himself in Christ and has taken into himself the wrath that is the just response to sin.
It truly is amazing love and amazing grace that has taught us to fear and then removed that same fear.
There is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus, because our sins were laid on Him.
I truly cannot see why this work of atonement, so precious to millions is rejected - I can only think that it's because of a caricatured god who doesn't actually exist.
[ 29. June 2011, 12:41: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by Moo (# 107) on
:
The question of why Jesus had to die puzzled me for years. Finally one day I prayed, "God, please give me one reason that I can understand why Jesus had to die." A few days later, I found this idea in my head.
If Jesus had stayed in Heaven, he could have overruled death, but he could not have overcome it. You can overcome something only if it has happened to you. Jesus was born, lived, and died so that we might follow him all the way.
There is much more to it than that, of course. However, if it were to be explained to me in complete detail, I probably wouldn't understand it. I asked for one reason that I could understand, and I got it.
Moo
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Do you really believe that I would subscribe to belief in a cruel and capricious god?
I not only believe you would, I believe that if what you post is anything to go by that you do.
I further believe you do not realise this because you focus on the "glory of the salvation story contained from Genesis to Revelation" without ever bothering to take the half step back to ask what we are being saved from.
This is not what you intend to preach. It is not what you are worshipping. But it is a necessary consequence of what you are preaching. And you prefer a "simple and vibrant faith" because it means you never need to confront what you are actually worshipping.
As for God's wrath, God is quite capable of working miracles. Why doesn't he rescue trapped miners or protect his flock directly?
quote:
I would suggest that to be fair and even-handed in this debate, you really need to look at what theologians such as Stott and Morris and others are actualy saying.
And when I do I find the premises don't hold. They are self-consistent until you examine the premises, but those premises would have holiness as hiding behind the desk so as not to see sin rather than a light which shines in the darkness that the darkness comprehends not.
quote:
You will see that I worship a God of abundant love,
For those not in hell.
quote:
a God of tremendous compassion
If that were truly the case, one single person in hell would be more than he could bear.
quote:
and indescribeable grace,
If that were the case, hell would not exist.
quote:
forgiveness,
For his chosen, yes. Not to the damned.
quote:
mercy
Demonstrably false while one single person is in hell.
quote:
and gentleness.
Only in the sense that he only gratuitously tortures a few.
quote:
But in that love there is holiness that rejects sin outright, is burdened by its pain, is angry at its promotion and its effects.
And uses this as an excuse to torture those who in no way deserve it. Rather than to love all until sin is washed away. This is the classic Hard Man doing Hard Things pattern. Such people are not good people.
quote:
It truly is amazing love and amazing grace that has taught us to fear and then removed that same fear.
Perfect love casts out perfect fear. Fear is bad - and God taught us the badness. From him the evil flows, and casting out the fear is just restitution.
quote:
There is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus, because our sins were laid on Him.
What about the greatest sins of all? The creation of hell and the damnation of beings to eternal torment. There is no possible greater sin. But that sin was all due to the system God created.
quote:
I truly cannot see why this work of atonement, so precious to millions is rejected - I can only think that it's because of a caricatured god who doesn't actually exist.
The only way the atonement can possibly co-exist with the characteristics you describe is if you have the atonement backwards. The atonement isn't on behalf of mankind. It's God's atonement to Man for creating the most perfect evil imaginable and condemning people to that fate. The Atonement was about God apologising for his wrath going too far and realising that in facing into the abyss he had become worse than that which he opposed and undoing the evil he had wrought at cost to himself.
[ 29. June 2011, 21:04: Message edited by: John Holding ]
Posted by jrrt01 (# 11264) on
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quote:
This is not what you intend to preach. It is not what you are worshipping. But it is a necessary consequence of what you are preaching.
Just because something is a logical or necessary consequence doesn't mean that the person believes it. None of us is logical all the time...
...PSA is great in one area. It provides a great narrative of how much Jesus loves you. You're the guilty one, but he takes the rap. This is a powerful and effective picture. It's weakness is what it does to the Father (who becomes a judge bound by law) and the Spirit (who tends to get forgotten).
But all models of the atonement suffer if taken to logical consequences. Christus victor... great in telling of Christ's victory over sin and death. Strong on the resurrection. But weaker in dealing with what this has to do with righteousness/justice.
Take any model on its own to its full logical conclusion, and you end up with heresy.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
But that Jesus died in our place for our sins is a central and indispensable element of the Cross.
Nope. It clearly isn't, since it was a latecomer to the discussion about the atonement.
quote:
If Jesus hadn't taken our sins on himself and given us his righteousness, then we would still be guilty and unable to benefit from all the other blessings he won on the Cross. Jesus' victory over evil is only good news to us as sinners if there's a way for us to stop being evil.
Yup. But neither of those require PSA.
quote:
I think the debate really boils down to whether it's true both that (a) we're objectively guilty and sinful; and (b) if God has to punish sin somehow in order to forgive us. PSA depends on those two beliefs. If you've got a different view of the human condition, and/or a different view of justice and forgiveness, then your theology of the atonement will also be different.
Yep. (A) I have no problem with, nor does the Orthodox Church. We both reject (B).
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Nope. It clearly isn't, since it was a latecomer to the discussion about the atonement.
Can you point me to the ecumenical council where that was agreed?
Hey, can you point me to any council where that was agreed?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I suspect MT is thinking of Anselm's 'Cur Deus Homo', Johnny S, which was written in the 11th century and so later than the Ecumenical Councils (if we're only going to include the Seven Councils that the Orthodox accept, of course).
If we are saying that the sort of ideas that Anselm promulgated there (which later developed to the PSA understanding as it now stands) are earlier then the onus is on us to prove that. There may well have been earlier echoes or foretastes among some of the Fathers, but by and large, as I understand it, they were primarily concerned with Christology and Trinitarian debates rather than establishing a particular view of the atonement.
The 'classic' or 'ransom theory' seems to have been the dominant model in the early centuries and this has problems too - and can be pretty grotesque as well, God setting Christ as 'bait' to hook and hoodwink the Devil etc.
Mudfrog - like your RC friend, I wouldn't want to deny the Salvation Army its mercy seat ... but you are beginning to sound pretty sacramental about it ...
In the same way that Baptists can get all dewy-eyed about the 'church meeting' and their congregational form of church government (other than when it's proving to be a pain in the neck and causing them problems that is
).
I'd sure the Mercy Seat can act as a means of grace if approached with faith and in the right attitude - just as the sacraments can be in the more sacramental settings. 'Holy things for those who are holy.' Or who are pursuing holiness.
But you know what I'm getting at.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well Moo ... that's an interesting insight and one you could have got simply by reading the scriptures or mugging up on mainstream Christian theology. It's called the Incarnation.
If you want a Bible verse that supports what you're saying:
'But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.'
Hebrews 2:9 (NIV translation)
There's an old Patristic saying, 'that which he did not assume cannot be healed.' Christ took up our humanity, shared our life and suffered death - he 'assumed' all these things and through him we can be 'assumed' too into his resurrection life.
Mousethief - I do wonder, though, how the Orthodox handle this verse?:
'Since we have now been justified by his blood, how much more shall we be saved from God's wrath through him!'
Romans 5:9 (NIV)
Or as the old King James Version puts it: 'Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.'
I know the Orthodox don't like the idea of a wrathful God, but it's not as if the concept has no NT warrant.
Explanation?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Nope. It clearly isn't, since it was a latecomer to the discussion about the atonement.
Can you point me to the ecumenical council where that was agreed?
Hey, can you point me to any council where that was agreed?
I don't believe ecumenical councils make pronouncements on the dating of heresies.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Mousethief - I do wonder, though, how the Orthodox handle this verse?:
'Since we have now been justified by his blood, how much more shall we be saved from God's wrath through him!' Romans 5:9 (NIV)
I'm not sure how the Fathers parse this. It certainly is in keeping with the Orthodox idea that God's wrath is directed toward sin (hate the sin, love the sinner applies to God also), and we only feel the brunt of that wrath if we fail to let go of our sins. Like holding onto a metal pole in a lightning storm.
But this quote says nothing about substitution. "Through him" does not imply "by his taking our place." Nor does it mention any penalty. This verse cannot be used as evidence of PSA.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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I am surprised that yet another thread on PSA is already on its second page. However, given the number of conservative Evangelicals who for various reasons no longer participate on Ship of Fools, this may be the last one. I'll never understand why this issue is so important to either side. I'll just suggest a few thoughts at random.
Scripture makes clear that people killed Jesus. Peter and Paul hammer this point home in Acts. You people remember Jesus? That guy you killed? On Pentecsot, Peter tells the crowd, "Repent, and be baptized for the remission of sins." Put it all together and this suggest that all people sin and are responsible for the death of Christ.
One view of the atonement holds that in His life Jesus showed humanity how to live and they killed him for it. Thus, we are called to repent of our own actions which would have contributed to the death of Jesus and then live the way Jesus instructed us to live. From the standpoint of scripture, this is problematic because the apostles focus on the death and resurrection of Christ when proclaiming the gospel. If how Christ lived His life was the most important part of the salvific event, then the apostles clearly missed the boat by emphasizing rather minor points instead of focusing on the importance of Jesus life. Jesus life is important in that He lived without sin. Jesus living without sin doesn't really help the rest of us. So, the life of Jesus provides a new set of commandments by which we should live. What in Jesus life makes it any easier for the average person to follow the new law instead of the old?
Another concept in the NT I believe to be pertinent to the conversation is the idea of redemption. Humanity owed a debt that we couldn't pay. As kinsman redeemer, Jesus paid that debt. To whom did we owe a debt? God? Devil? Of course, from this comes the various ransom theories.
The idea held by the earliest church fathers proposes the Devil. And, yet, scripture is also clear that Jesus offered Himself as a sacrifice to the Father. Given that, it makes no sense to then say the sacrifice was made to the Devil.
A grand unified theory of the atonement has to take all of the above in consideration. I see Christ's death on the cross as establishing a new covenant. Humanity's sin caused God's wrath. However, wrath means more of an estrangement that unbridled anger. Under the old covenant, sin leads to death. Jesus accepted the consequences of humanity's sin and died. At the same time, Jesus death served as a sacrifice to God that established a new covenant. From the new covenant, the world receives grace. Grace that allows us to become more and more like Jesus. Grace that allows us to receive forgiveness of our sins.
I'm done rambling.
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
But that Jesus died in our place for our sins is a central and indispensable element of the Cross.
Nope. It clearly isn't, since it was a latecomer to the discussion about the atonement.
Yeah, Paul and Isaiah were really late getting into the discussion.
Just because a doctrine wasn't formally articulated by theologians in a particular way doesn't mean it's new. Different issues become important at different times, so some beliefs have taken longer to define theologically than others.
I'd include the trinity, penal substitutionary atonement, and the infallibility of the Bible as examples of doctrines that are true and have historically been believed by Christians, but have not always articulated in those terms. Doctrines usually get nailed down theologically precisely at the point when they're under dispute, because when people start arguing about something is the point at which you need to define terms.
But do we really want to do this whole discussion again? The basic choice is between "Vengeance is bad" or "'Vengeance is mine', says the Lord", between sin being forgiven without cost by God, or by sin being forgiven by God paying the cost.
If anyone needs to wade through dozens and dozens of pages of discussion to decide which one they think is more fair and loving, well, people have already posted the links to the old threads...
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Paul and Isaiah do contribute to the discussion, The Revolutionist, if they are read in a particular way. There are other ways of reading them.
That said, one can certainly build a structure and doctrinal system on the passages you mention, particularly if other passages are brought in to lend support and interpreted in a particular way.
I've been tempted to start a new thread on the 'blood' aspect ... I can remember lots of PSA/anti-PSA threads but don't recall one specifically about the 'blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sin' and so on.
Cue all the old revivalist songs - 'Are you washed in the blood?/In the soul-cleansing blood of the Lamb?/Are you sins forgiven, are they white as snow?/Are you washed in the blood of the Lamb?'
Someone will direct me to a DH thread if there is one specifically on this subject.
Beeswax Altar ... the reason there are still threads on this subject is probably because there are still evangelicals around who passionately believe in PSA and find it very helpful - such as Mudfrog specifically - but it's also there with Johnny S and the Revolutionist to name but two.
Even though very conservative evangelicals are thin on the ground on these boards the influence of evangelicalism is still acute. I've broadened out from evangelicalism and am trying to get to grips with various views, but for the life of me PSA and propitiation and so on is so ingrained in my psyche that I find it very difficult to envisage Christianity without it - although I am aware that there are plenty of Christians who do manage without it, thank you very much.
So as long as there full-on PSA supporters and those whose world-view and inner life have been shaped by it (for better or for worse) then there'll be threads about PSA on these boards.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Gamaliel:
Cue all the old revivalist songs - 'Are you washed in the blood?/In the soul-cleansing blood of the Lamb?/Are you sins forgiven, are they white as snow?/Are you washed in the blood of the Lamb?'
Marion Hatchett told a story that I've repeated on Ship of Fools that bears repeating.
Hatchett was at a church in Charleston. During the distribution, a woman came up the altar rail, took the chalice, dumped it on her head, and said, "Whoo!, I've been washed in the blood of the lamb." Then, she ran out of the church. I tell this story frequently because I'm convinced that disturbed woman was a theological genius.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
But that Jesus died in our place for our sins is a central and indispensable element of the Cross.
Nope. It clearly isn't, since it was a latecomer to the discussion about the atonement.
Yeah, Paul and Isaiah were really late getting into the discussion.
Paul's 'sin offering' is not substitutionary - that is not how the OT sacrificialsystem worked.
Isaiah's Servant has been mistranslated so as to apply to PSA - a better translation (from my blog which quotes on this): 'But he was wounded from (NOTE: not “for”) our transgressions, he was crushed from (AGAIN: not “for”) our iniquities." Whereas the Gentile nations had thought the Servant (Israel) was undergoing Divine retribution for its sins (53:4), they now realize that the Servant's sufferings stemmed from their OWN actions and sinfulness against the nation. This theme is further developed throughout the Jewish Scriptures - see, e.g., Jer. 50:7; Jer. 10:25.' this
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The sort of god (small g intended) portrayed in PSA is a monster who behaves in a worse, stricter manner than even the strictest of Edwadrian fathers.
That's a bit generous to PSA.
I'd suppose that the strictest Edwardian fathers understood that if you punish the innocent child for the wrongdoing of the guilty child you've made the situation more unjust. The ones who only cared about the semblance of authority might not have understood that.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Paul and Isaiah do contribute to the I've been tempted to start a new thread on the 'blood' aspect ... I can remember lots of PSA/anti-PSA threads but don't recall one specifically about the 'blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sin' and so on.
We have discussed this. "Blood" in Scripture is often a clear metaphor for the truth that Christ teaches. We are cleansed by the blood of Christ because we are cleansed spiritually by the truth that He teaches.
This is why we are to drink His blood and eat His flesh at communion. This means to receive into ourselves His truth and His love. According to this compartison, wine is truth and bread is love. Jesus said:
quote:
John 6:56 He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood abides in Me, and I in him.
Understood literally this sounds awful, but Jesus explains it Himself when He makes it clear what it means to "abide in Him":
quote:
John 15:10 If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love, just as I have kept My Father’s commandments and abide in His love.
Keeping the commandments is the same as eating Christ's flesh and drinking His blood because it is to hear and do what He teaches.
The message is similar in John's epistle:
quote:
1 John 2:24 Therefore let that abide in you which you heard from the beginning. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, you also will abide in the Son and in the Father.
2 John 1:9 Whoever transgresses and does not abide in the doctrine of Christ does not have God. He who abides in the doctrine of Christ has both the Father and the Son.
This is the significance of the "blood of Christ." Many passages make it clear that this is the biblical formula for "being washed."
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
But that Jesus died in our place for our sins is a central and indispensable element of the Cross.
Nope. It clearly isn't, since it was a latecomer to the discussion about the atonement.
Yeah, Paul and Isaiah were really late getting into the discussion.
Paul's 'sin offering' is not substitutionary - that is not how the OT sacrificialsystem worked.
Isaiah's Servant has been mistranslated so as to apply to PSA - a better translation (from my blog which quotes on this): 'But he was wounded from (NOTE: not “for”) our transgressions, he was crushed from (AGAIN: not “for”) our iniquities." Whereas the Gentile nations had thought the Servant (Israel) was undergoing Divine retribution for its sins (53:4), they now realize that the Servant's sufferings stemmed from their OWN actions and sinfulness against the nation. This theme is further developed throughout the Jewish Scriptures - see, e.g., Jer. 50:7; Jer. 10:25.' this
Checking various Hebrew translation and the Septuagint, the best translation would be "because of". The NT writers who saw Jesus as the Suffering Servant believed he suffered on the cross because of our sins and iniquities. With respect to PSA, it is inconclusive.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
Indeed - but which Hebrew translations did you consult?
And how many of them were Jewish, as opposed to Christian?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
With respect to PSA, it is inconclusive.
As is every other scripture trotted out to support it. If you believe it, you can find scriptures to support it by the practice of eisegesis.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
Can I say what a breath of fresh air this thread's been for me? I'm a bit reluctant to wade back into the fray but it's been great to be reminded of why I don't believe PSA to be true. Worshipping in the CofE it can creep its way into the back of your mind in spite of the current exemplarist ascendancy outside the Halls of Evangelicalia unless you actually look at the source, logic and consequences of the doctrine from time to time. Maybe it's time to investigate the Bosphorus ferry times.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Indeed - but which Hebrew translations did you consult?
And how many of them were Jewish, as opposed to Christian?
Leo, don't link to a clearly biased source then accuse others of being biased.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Indeed - but which Hebrew translations did you consult?
And how many of them were Jewish, as opposed to Christian?
Just a suggestion - Might Jewish translators and commentators have as much a bias as Xtians ones on disputed translations albeit in a differant direction?
The various NT citations of the Isa texts don't seem to bare the interpretation you are putting on them (and they are citations by 2nd Temple era Jews ..)
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
With respect to PSA, it is inconclusive.
As is every other scripture trotted out to support it. If you believe it, you can find scriptures to support it by the practice of eisegesis.
And that is true of every single view of the atonement.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
Sorry for X post - great minds and all that
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
I'm still trying to work out if I'm correct that the extract from Tom Wright posted earlier by Mudfrog, means he (+Tom, not Muddy) thinks I'm not a Christian, outside the Church, and perishing. He didn't mention it when he confirmed me.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
With respect to PSA, it is inconclusive.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
As is every other scripture trotted out to support it. If you believe it, you can find scriptures to support it by the practice of eisegesis
Eisegesis is fine if we've got a tradition to suppoprt it surely?
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
While I believe in PSA because most of the NT’s comments on the soteriological significance of the Passion only make sense in the light of it, there are undoubtedly problems with it, many of which have been discussed here and on previous threads.
There is the existence of alternative interpretations, all with at least some scriptural warrant, such as Irenaeus’s recapitulationism, Athanasius’s theosis model, and the two Cappadocian Gregs’ (slightly differing ) ransom theories.
There is the logical/moral problem of whether it is meaningful in any sense to speaking of someone taking on another person’s guilt and punishment.
There is the lack of any full-blown credal or other formulation of it (probably Augustine and Anselm came closest) prior to the Reformation.
(There is also the problem, for anyone with prostate difficulties, that PSA also stands for Prostate Specific Antigen, which is seared into the memory by the accompanying gross indignities practised upon the sufferer by doctors who are continually talking about it and measuring it).
The biggest problem for an evangelical, however, which I don’t think has arisen so far on this thread, is that PSA and justification by faith are barely, if ever, mentioned in the Synoptics.
This is a problem for non-evangelicals as well, of course, because the soteriology of the Christ of the Synoptics is pretty savage and demanding (eg sheep and goats in Matt. 25).
The prospect of having to accomplish our own salvation by “works” is alarming enough to drive anyone, if not to PSA, then at least to some sort of strongly grace and atonement based soteriology.
As the late Jesuit and Roman Catholic priest Richard John Neuhaus wrote: “When I come before the judgment throne, I will plead the promise of God in the shed blood of Jesus Christ”.
Then, after explicitly repudiating any dependence on Mary, the saints, works, or church, he concludes: “…in seeking entry to that heavenly kingdom, I will plead Christ and Christ alone. 'Just as I am, without one plea/But that thy blood was shed for me/And that Thou bidd’st me come to Thee,/O Lamb of God, I come, I come.'”
It is a hymn which I grew to loathe when young, but coming from a Romish cleric it is quite moving.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
Good points Kaplan. Thank God for fresh blood on this topic.
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
The biggest problem for an evangelical, however, which I don’t think has arisen so far on this thread, is that PSA and justification by faith are barely, if ever, mentioned in the Synoptics.
This is very true.
The only one that comes to mind as often mentioned to me is:
For the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life a ransom for many. Mark 10
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
This is a problem for non-evangelicals as well, of course, because the soteriology of the Christ of the Synoptics is pretty savage and demanding (eg sheep and goats in Matt. 25).
You think the soteriology of the synoptics is hard? Interesting. I always thought it was the easiest.
‘Ask, and it will be given to you; search, and you will find; knock, and the door will be opened for you. For everyone who asks receives, and everyone who searches finds, and for everyone who knocks, the door will be opened. Is there anyone among you who, if your child asks for bread, will give a stone? Or if the child asks for a fish, will give a snake? If you then, who are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give good things to those who ask him!
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
A grand unified theory of the atonement has to take all of the above in consideration. I see Christ's death on the cross as establishing a new covenant. Humanity's sin caused God's wrath. However, wrath means more of an estrangement that unbridled anger. Under the old covenant, sin leads to death. Jesus accepted the consequences of humanity's sin and died. At the same time, Jesus death served as a sacrifice to God that established a new covenant. From the new covenant, the world receives grace. Grace that allows us to become more and more like Jesus. Grace that allows us to receive forgiveness of our sins.
So the grace of God was not present before Jesus' death?
You mean, he didn't really save the Israelites from slavery in Egypt through grace?
You mean, he didn't really keep loving and aiding the Israelites when they kept screwing up?
You mean, because we now have grace and they didn't, we don't sin but the Jews still do?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I don't believe ecumenical councils make pronouncements on the dating of heresies.
Right.
So you can't actually point to any council that declares PSA a heresy but you are convinced it is.
Any time you want to stop digging is fine by me.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I don't believe ecumenical councils make pronouncements on the dating of heresies.
Right.
So you can't actually point to any council that declares PSA a heresy but you are convinced it is.
Any time you want to stop digging is fine by me.
Erm.
The point surely is that the councils couldn't pronounce on the heresy of PSA if the heresy of PSA hadn't been thought up by the time the council sat.
Unless the ecumenical councils had a Pre-crime division staffed by Philip K Dick and a bunch of pre-cogs...
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
It is tempting to go over well dug ground here, but there is an issue with PSA that I've pointed out in previous threads which I think is worth repeating and PSA proponents need to come to terms with, work through.
Calvin's Institutes, Book 3, Chapter 14.
In particular, this passage (scroll down to the long para 11)
quote:
Moreover, the message of free reconciliation with God is not promulgated for one or two days, but is declared to be perpetual in the Church (2 Cor. 5:18, 19). Hence believers have not even to the end of life any other righteousness than that which is there described. Christ ever remains a Mediator to reconcile the Father to us, and there is a perpetual efficacy in his death—viz. ablution, satisfaction, expiation; (boldening by B62)
As a matter of scriptural reading, that's not right. This is what 2 Cor 5:18-19 says.
quote:
18 All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. (boldening by B62)
Calvin simply got the direction of reconciliation wrong. In so far as PSA (popular or considered version) sees God as needing to be reconciled to people made in His image, it is in error.
Let me make it clear; I think it is quite proper to see substitution as both scriptural and traditional as a part of our understanding of the death of Christ (Chrysostom is very good on that as well). We need to heave an amazing amount of both scripture and tradition into the lumber yard to remove the element of vicarious sacrifice.
But the Penal element can be very misleading. In so far as there is, or may be, wrath in God, it is against sin, not sinners.
It's perfectly proper to proclaim as a guide to living that in order for evil to triumph, all that is necessary is for good people to do nothing. That in itself says very little about how evildoers are to be treated, simply that the evil they do is to be confronted. If that is seen as a human good, I can see no real objection to seeing it as a good in the heart of God.
[ 30. June 2011, 09:24: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Thanks, Barnabas, that's an excellent point.
Also, we ought to be very careful of our understanding of the word which we translate as "wrath". In English, wrath is an entirely congruent synonym for anger. However, the greek "orge" is a much more nuanced word. A more accurate picture of the idea represented bu "orge" would be "indignation". This carries in to English something of the concept that "here is something which is dis-ordered, outrageous, intolerable, which compels me, as the "owner" of the "orge" to act.".
What we believe that action will be depends to a large extent on how we understand the broader counsel of Scripture, but the word itself gives us no clue.
To go back to Muddy's analogy, it would make little sense to say that the lifeguard is moved to act by anger, but the concepts included in the word "orge" might, indeed, be descriptive of his or her motivation.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
18 All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. (boldening by B62)
Calvin simply got the direction of reconciliation wrong. In so far as PSA (popular or considered version) sees God as needing to be reconciled to people made in His image, it is in error.
I'm sorry I don't understand. It says God was reconciling the world to himself. Which means God and the world did need reconciling? Yes indeed, it says God did the reconciling himself, but not that God did not need reconciling to the world.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I'm sorry I don't understand. It says God was reconciling the world to himself. Which means God and the world did need reconciling? Yes indeed, it says God did the reconciling himself, but not that God did not need reconciling to the world.
The point is that it is about making people better, and so changing the condition of people on earth. It's not about changing God.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I'm sorry I don't understand. It says God was reconciling the world to himself. Which means God and the world did need reconciling? Yes indeed, it says God did the reconciling himself, but not that God did not need reconciling to the world.
The point is that it is about making people better, and so changing the condition of people on earth. It's not about changing God.
Which it doesn't explicitly say. But even if that is what this passage means, and Calvin got it wrong, people being changed by the atonement is not at all ruled out by having PSA in the mix.
Posted by TurquoiseTastic (# 8978) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
There's an old Patristic saying, 'that which he did not assume cannot be healed.' Christ took up our humanity, shared our life and suffered death - he 'assumed' all these things and through him we can be 'assumed' too into his resurrection life.
Well, what about 'assuming' our sin then? Which is one of the main points of PSA as far as I can see?
The taking on of our sin is the culmination of the Incarnation.
It also addresses DocTor's point about injustice. It is not unjust because Jesus really has taken on our sin. If we are united with him, it is not unjust.
Partial analogy. The closer you are to someone, the less unreasonable it is for you to take on responsibility for their actions. It is totally unjust to punish a random stranger for someone's actions. But it is less unjust for a parent to "take responsibility" for their child's behaviour. If we are to be one with Christ he too can "take responsibility" for our sins without it being unjust.
[ 30. June 2011, 11:06: Message edited by: TurquoiseTastic ]
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Kaplan Cordray:
The biggest problem for an evangelical, however, which I don’t think has arisen so far on this thread, is that PSA and justification by faith are barely, if ever, mentioned in the Synoptics.
Actually, that is only a problem for a particular subset of liberal Protestant. Not so much a problem for the rest of us. This is one reason issues like PSA get discussed over and over again. We don't all agree on what counts as good evidence.
quote:
originally posted by Evensong:
So the grace of God was not present before Jesus' death?
Grace was not present before the death of Jesus like it was after the death of Jesus.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
There's an old Patristic saying, 'that which he did not assume cannot be healed.' Christ took up our humanity, shared our life and suffered death - he 'assumed' all these things and through him we can be 'assumed' too into his resurrection life.
Well, what about 'assuming' our sin then? Which is one of the main points of PSA as far as I can see?
The taking on of our sin is the culmination of the Incarnation.
It also addresses DocTor's point about injustice. It is not unjust because Jesus really has taken on our sin. If we are united with him, it is not unjust.
Partial analogy. The closer you are to someone, the less unreasonable it is for you to take on responsibility for their actions. It is totally unjust to punish a random stranger for someone's actions. But it is less unjust for a parent to "take responsibility" for their child's behaviour. If we are to be one with Christ he too can "take responsibility" for our sins without it being unjust.
Analogy fail.
A parent takes responsibility for a child's actions when the child has harmed another. In this case, you seem to be saying Jesus is the parent and humankind are the children. So where does this leave God the father?
Miles away. Out of the godhead for a start.
That's one of the serious problems with PSA as someone said earlier. It pits God against God. So it makes out that God doesn't really love you. Or at the very least, only one bit of her does. And lord only knows where the third bit is (the HS).
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
originally posted by Evensong:
So the grace of God was not present before Jesus' death?
Grace was not present before the death of Jesus like it was after the death of Jesus.
How do you think it is different?
Please don't give me new covenant Jeremiah (written on their hearts). Surely there is no evidence in real life (fruits of the spirit) for that. Or is there? Are we better than the Jews?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
originally posted by Evensong:
So the grace of God was not present before Jesus' death?
Grace was not present before the death of Jesus like it was after the death of Jesus.
I would offer the thought that grace was indeed present in the Old Testament but that, though it was grace from the same source, it was conveyed differently.
To be clear:
1. Jesus is the Lamb slain from the foundation of ther world. There is therefore eternal sacrifice in the heart of the Godhead - as in the hymn, Christ is Alive, which has the words "....and lives, though ever crucified.'
2. The sacrificial system in the OT was effectual/effective (i.e. it did what it said on the tin) because of the eternal sacrifice in the heart of God.
3. The sacrifice of Jesus, the Lamb of God, was the perfect sacrifice and brought to an end the Mosaic system. Jesus lived under the law and died under the law satisfying the demands of the law in regard to atonement sacrifice. Jesus was sacrificed under the mosaic system. His sacrifice validates the OT system and is the perfect sacrament of the eternal sacrifice in the heart of God.
4. The sacrificial system under Moses was given by the grace of God - it was YHWH who gave them this system whereby they could be atoned. It's all grace because it points forward to Calvary and upowards to the heart of God.
5. Grace in the Old Testament and grace in the New comes from the same source - the love of God and the atoning sacrifice of Christ. In the Old testament, that one grace is conveyed through the sacrificial system, from the resurrection inwards, this grace is appropriated through repentance and through faith in Jesus Christ whose blood saves us from sin.
Romans 3 v 23 - 25:
"for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood."
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
Is it worth pointing out that atonement in the sense of the mechanics of how God deals with human sin, is a small section of a much larger soteriology (most older divines preferred to use the term Satisfaction to cover more ground), which again is a sub section of theology? Many of the objections and strawmen that perennially appear when this subject is discussed don't seem quite so huge in this light.
PSA turns the Son against the Father - no, evangelicals believe in the Trinity as much (if not more) than other Xtians. (God was in Christ reconciling)
What about the resurrection and continuing ministry of Christ? - These come more into the areas of Regeneration and Sanctification as well as Gods vindication of the work of the cross.
Again it's important to highlight that Evangelical theologians do accept and affirm the insights that the other models of the atonement offer and acknowledge the limits of any model.
The areas where more fruitful discussion could take place (IMHO) would be issues such as: Our modern, western squeamishness regarding the wrath of God; What does all that sacrificial language in both testaments mean if the Evo's are wrong? (and why do some Sacramental Xtians borrow it to talk about the Lords Supper if they don't apply it to the cross?); and the ethics of substitution and imputation.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
The point is that it is about making people better, and so changing the condition of people on earth. It's not about changing God.
Which it doesn't explicitly say.
But which hundreds of other passages do say. So it should be understood to be implicit in this passage. The biblical injunction that people should stop sinning and obey God is so pervasive that a so-called formula for salvation that imagines some other kind of reconciliation is to me a non-sequiter.
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
But even if that is what this passage means, and Calvin got it wrong, people being changed by the atonement is not at all ruled out by having PSA in the mix.
Yes it is because PSA denies that ceasing to do evil and learning to do well in obedience to God is what salvation is all about.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
originally posted by Evensong:
So the grace of God was not present before Jesus' death?
Grace was not present before the death of Jesus like it was after the death of Jesus.
How do you think it is different?
Please don't give me new covenant Jeremiah (written on their hearts). Surely there is no evidence in real life (fruits of the spirit) for that. Or is there? Are we better than the Jews?
The Holy Spirit is now among us. The Holy Spirit guides and empowers the Church. The Church administers the sacraments. Sanctifying grace is offered through the sacraments. Because God became human, humans can become like God.
Are we better than the Jews? No
Is Christianity better than Judaism? I think so. If I didn't, I would be a Jew and not a Christian. In my opinion, you can't claim Jesus is God incarnate and also believe all religions are equally valid. Jews would answer differently. That's fine.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Yes it is because PSA denies that ceasing to do evil and learning to do well in obedience to God is what salvation is all about.
PSA deals with one issue and one issue alone - how God can forgive sin. Which is one half of Justification - how we can stand in good relationship with God (the other half is by crediting Christ's righteousness to us). God never Justifies with out Regenerating (giving us a new heart and putting his Spirit in us). Which is why the Westminster divines could say words to the effect that "Faith is the Alone instrument of Justification but the Faith that Justifies is never alone but is always accompanied by good works"
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
The Holy Spirit is now among us.
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Are we better than the Jews? No
If the Holy Spirit is now among us and it wasn't among the Jews, why aren't we better than them?
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
The Holy Spirit is now among us.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Are we better than the Jews? No
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If the Holy Spirit is now among us and it wasn't among the Jews, why aren't we better than them?
If we said that we were then the Holy Spirit would then have to convict us of the sins of lieing and boasting
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
What do you mean by better? They were sinners. We are sinners. So...we are all equal.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
PSA deals with one issue and one issue alone - how God can forgive sin. Which is one half of Justification - how we can stand in good relationship with God (the other half is by crediting Christ's righteousness to us).
It deals poorly with this issue. The Bible's answer is that God forgives sin when people repent and stop sinning. Clearly people have the freedom and the power, from God, to do this.
PSA and the imputation of Christ's righteousness are far from this biblical formula and are usually understood as denying it.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Erm.
The point surely is that the councils couldn't pronounce on the heresy of PSA if the heresy of PSA hadn't been thought up by the time the council sat.
This is the other furphy that regularly pops up on any PSA thread.
PSA is an atonement model. All atonement models are trying to best explain how the death and resurrection of Jesus fits into the gospel of the early church.
Your point is a bit like saying that gravity didn't exist before Newton (and therefore earlier models are a better description of reality.)
Strictly speaking CV, as a united atonement model, is the most recent since it only gained common currency with Aulen. Of course, most scholars will recognise (rightly IMO) that CV was present in the Fathers - but the point is that exactly when the model gained popularity as a coherent model is not the deciding factor on how faithful it is to the gospel of the early church.
The tradition I come from tends to emphasise PSA but far more than that it is expositional. I have never heard anyone try to articulate PSA without basing it on at least one text from the NT. Now, it is quite possible that they are misreading the NT. It is also quite possible that there assumptions are incorrect. But their sincere tradition is that they are doing their best to be faithful to the early church.
All this 'my Dad's older than your Dad' is completely meaningless - unless it can be demonstrated that one of the models was (in some way or sense) repudiated by an ecumenical council. Of course the modern notion of PSA was not addressed but if some key plank to it can be seen to have been rejected by the church then it would fall.
[ 30. June 2011, 13:55: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Clearly people have the freedom and the power, from God, to do this.
Pity about Romans 7 then
Why does Paul talk about people being slaves to sin and dead in sin if it's so easy-peasey to get right with God? Or Why would Jesus say that we must be born again? Or that it's nearly impossible for a rich man to enter the Kingdom?
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Yes it is because PSA denies that ceasing to do evil and learning to do well in obedience to God is what salvation is all about.
Really it doesn't. That God will act to save his people and that people should stop sinning and obey him are both pretty significant Biblical themes. Having PSA as central doesn't stop you believing either.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
The taking on of our sin is the culmination of the Incarnation.
Surely its culmination is the taking of our human nature into the Godhead at the Ascension.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Indeed - but which Hebrew translations did you consult?
And how many of them were Jewish, as opposed to Christian?
Leo, don't link to a clearly biased source then accuse others of being biased.
Fair point, though you haven't answered my first question.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
Clearly people have the freedom and the power, from God, to do this.
Pity about Romans 7 then
One midunderstood passage cannot overcome hundreds of statements about the necessity of obedience to God if one is to be saved.
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Why does Paul talk about people being slaves to sin and dead in sin if it's so easy-peasey to get right with God? Or Why would Jesus say that we must be born again? Or that it's nearly impossible for a rich man to enter the Kingdom?
Yes, all these places indicate that it is not easy. That doesn't mean that our spiritual lives do not depend on trying. God helps us.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The sort of god (small g intended) portrayed in PSA is a monster who behaves in a worse, stricter manner than even the strictest of Edwadrian fathers.
That's a bit generous to PSA.
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
The thing I find frustrating on these threads is that PSA is changed every time somebody challenges it. PSA is not satisfaction theory. It is not Christus victor. It is not ransom theory. It is not exemplarism. It is PSA. If you don't believe Christ suffered and died to satisfy the legal demands of God's justice which means he can't forgive unless somebody is punished, please admit you don't believe PSA.
Can I ask the estimable resident Ship's defence team if they would consider atonement to have been achieved in the following alternative scenarios to what actually happened?
1. Christ was tortured and murdered in private by a gang of kidnappers/fundamentalists and nobody ever heard of it
2. Christ was crucified as it actually happened but never rose from the dead, just went directly back to Heaven sans Resurrection
3. Christ was taken by the Romans and crucified before he began his public ministry
4. Somebody other than the Son of God was crucified for our sins?
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Can I ask the estimable resident Ship's defence team if they would consider atonement to have been achieved in the following alternative scenarios to what actually happened?
1. Christ was tortured and murdered in private by a gang of kidnappers/fundamentalists and nobody ever heard of it
2. Christ was crucified as it actually happened but never rose from the dead, just went directly back to Heaven sans Resurrection
3. Christ was taken by the Romans and crucified before he began his public ministry
4. Somebody other than the Son of God was crucified for our sins?
No.
1) I think an important aspect of the atonement is that God's justice is publically demonstrated - as per Romans 3.
2) Christ was raised to life for our justification. So no.
3) No, because I think his ministry is largely about his perfect lawkeeping on our behalf.
4) No. See Twangist's point about union with Christ.
Of course, theological what ifs are an unusually bad way to make doctrine. Were these trick questions?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Don't forget that there are two sides to Christian experience:
There is forgiveness, justification, etc. This is where the sins of the past are covered, wiped away, the debt is paid, etc.
Then there is sanctification where the daily growth in grace and holiness is worked out in the heart, mind and life of the believer.
These are two distinct works but are opposite sides of the coin of salvation and atonement.
You can't say that PSA isn't valid because it doesn't sanctify! PSA deals with reconciliation and this then enables the deeper and further work of sanctification, which is the work of the Holy Spirit.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
PSA turns the Son against the Father - no, evangelicals believe in the Trinity as much (if not more) than other Xtians. (God was in Christ reconciling)
The question isn't what evangelicals believe about the Trinity. The question is what PSA implies about the Trinity. Most evangelicals would be outraged and indignant if a judge intentionally killed an innocent man and called it justice in any other circumstances.
quote:
Again it's important to highlight that Evangelical theologians do accept and affirm the insights that the other models of the atonement offer and acknowledge the limits of any model.
Indeed. The thing is that many evangelicals will defend or describe PSA by confusing it with elements of different models.
quote:
What does all that sacrificial language in both testaments mean if the Evo's are wrong? (and why do some Sacramental Xtians borrow it to talk about the Lords Supper if they don't apply it to the cross?)
Sacramental Christians do apply the word sacrifice to the cross because they think that the cross was a sacrifice. Many of them don't think that the cross was penal substitution, because penal substitution is not sacrifice.
Evangelical Christians apply the word 'sacrifice' to the cross because sacrifice is one of those other models. Sacrifice is no part of the understanding of PSA and penal substitution is no part of the Biblical understanding of sacrifice.
(Animals killed as part of a sacrifice are not being punished. A fortiori, they are not being punished instead of anyone else.)
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
PSA deals with one issue and one issue alone - how God can forgive sin. Which is one half of Justification - how we can stand in good relationship with God (the other half is by crediting Christ's righteousness to us).
It deals poorly with this issue. The Bible's answer is that God forgives sin when people repent and stop sinning.
Yes but God doesn't forgive people because they repent. The Bible suggests that people repent because they have been forgiven. You are conflating causation with timing. The Bible does suggest that forgiveness and repentance occur simultaneously but it does not support the model of causation which is implied in your argument.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
[QUOTE]The question isn't what evangelicals believe about the Trinity. The question is what PSA implies about the Trinity. Most evangelicals would be outraged and indignant if a judge intentionally killed an innocent man and called it justice in any other circumstances.
The court room analogy is interesting Let me portray it this way:
"Humanity is in the dock. God the father is the judge. Jesus Christ advocates on behalf of humanity and pleads with the judge for leniency and reminds the judge that love should characterise his judgments. Satan, prosecuting, argues that if love really characterised God's judgments he would punish humanity for all of the cruel things that they have done to each other. Satan would argue that the lack of love manifested in humanity justifies the harshest punishment. Jesus, on behalf of humanity, concedes that the harshest punishment is merited but informs the judge that he loves humanity so much that he would willingly bear such a punishment on it's behalf, unless there is any other way, and that in any event such Grace may persuade humanity to repent. The judge reasons that the demands of justice would be met in either scenario but prefers the submissions made by Jesus on the basis that he shares his love of humanity and agrees that repentance may be the outcome."
It seems to me that such a scenario is so far removed from any other circumstances that any comparisons are made redundant. Particularly as in no other circumstances is the judge capable of begetting a son for the purposes of carrying out such a gracious judgment.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
What do you mean by better? They were sinners. We are sinners. So...we are all equal.
So what is the effect of the Holy Spirit or this "extra grace"? Nothing?
If it's nothing, how can you tell it's real and is indeed a new thing that Christianity introduces? If it's nothing, why does it matter?
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
PSA deals with one issue and one issue alone - how God can forgive sin. Which is one half of Justification - how we can stand in good relationship with God (the other half is by crediting Christ's righteousness to us).
It deals poorly with this issue. The Bible's answer is that God forgives sin when people repent and stop sinning.
Yes but God doesn't forgive people because they repent. The Bible suggests that people repent because they have been forgiven.
Got some biblical quotes for that? That's not a majority position in the bible IMO.
I think these are the standard:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 2.38:
Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ so that your sins may be forgiven; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
Acts of the Apostles 8.22:
Repent therefore of this wickedness of yours, and pray to the Lord that, if possible, the intent of your heart may be forgiven you.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
Christians aren't in a contest with Jews or the adherents of any religion over who is better. We are measured against God and anything less than perfection is not good enough. Through the work of the Holy Spirit, orthodox Christians believe we are being made more and more like Christ.
I can't speak for Jews. I'm not sure if or how the Holy Spirit works in Judaism or any other religion. I'm sure it would be insulting to say they are being made more and more like Jesus. So, I won't.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
18 All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. (boldening by B62)
Calvin simply got the direction of reconciliation wrong. In so far as PSA (popular or considered version) sees God as needing to be reconciled to people made in His image, it is in error.
I'm sorry I don't understand. It says God was reconciling the world to himself. Which means God and the world did need reconciling? Yes indeed, it says God did the reconciling himself, but not that God did not need reconciling to the world.
I don't understand your not understanding!
Calvin: (commenting on 2 Cor 5:18-19)Christ ever remains a Mediator to reconcile the Father to us
Paul: 2 Cor 5:18: All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ.
Christ does not reconcile the Father to us. Through him, we are reconciled to the Father. Calvin has the ministry of reconciliation exactly back to front. It's exegesis 101, isn't it?
And this is the central and clearest passage re substitutionary atonement in the whole of the NT, since it contains 2 Cor 5:21 viz;
quote:
21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
The very Orthodox St John Chrysostom, in his homily on this verse in scripture, argues clearly that this is vicarious sacrifice. Here is a link. Within which is this pithy and accurate observation by the commentator.
quote:
Chrysostom shows by his comments his acceptance not only of the vicarious atonement, but also of the gratuitous justification, as set forth concisely yet distinctly in this pregnant utterance.
But, unlike Calvin, Chrysostom shows a proper understanding of v18-19. Here is the beautiful quote re v19.
quote:
Seest thou love surpassing all expression, all conception? Who was the aggrieved one? Himself. Who first sought the reconciliation? Himself.
I believe Chrysostom sees accurately what Calvin does not see, that in the ministry of reconciliation, the heart of God we see is the heart of father Jesus shows us in the story of the prodigal; the aggrieved and sorely troubled father who nevertheless holds onto the love of his son and when he sees him afar off, runs towards him and embraces him even before that son says a repentant word.
So the direction of reconciliation is vital to a proper understanding of who is being reconciled (human beings) and who is the initiator of reconciliation (God). The vicarious atonement in 2 Cor 5:21 is an expiation, not a propitiation. Yes it's SA here. No, it's not PSA here.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
But God's provision of such forgiveness lies not only ion love but in his own satisfaction of the law of justice.
Which makes God sound beholden to something outside of God -- this "Law of Justice." He can't just forgive, because of this Law of Justice he has to kowtow to. But if he made this Law, he can choose to lay it aside.
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Again, it's not just. If God loves justice, he doesn't punish the innocent. Even once.
This might be a problem with language, but I think it's a problem with the model.
If God demands perfect justice, then punishing the innocent, including Himself in the body of His Son, is wrong. It's simply not justice - it makes a mockery of justice.
Ayup.
quote:
Originally quoted by Mudfrog:
I repeat however, that PSA does something that orther theories do not - it removes our sins and propitiates God's wrath.
You need to learn more about other theories, I think.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
We enjoy Easter Sunday as much as anyone - even the Orthodox!
Of which I am glad. But it's not the question. What does the Resurrection *DO* in your soteriology?
quote:
I believe that outside academia, people do want a God who is angry at injustice, sin, filth and despair.
But that's not all PSA gives us, is it? It also gives us a God who is angry at people, whose wrath is against particular humans -- so wrathful, indeed, that he will send them to Hell. I want God to hate sin. Sure. But I don't have a lot of time for a God who hates people. That's not the God of Jesus.
quote:
Are there any groups that say ONLY PSA is a valid atonement theory? ... Having said that, most evangelicals would say that substitution (penal or otherwise) is the central one around which all the others are equally valuable.
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I recently attended an Orthodox service where they venerated the Cross at the end. I can't remember the words of the hymnody used to accompany this - Mousethief can enlighten us
"Before thy cross we bow down in worship, O Master, and thy holy resurrection we glorify."
quote:
Leprechaun said:
John Stott says that if you ditch PSA (or has he handily renames it, "self substitution for self satisfaction)you CANNOT have any of the other atonement models - they only "work" if PSA is central.
Unless nobody anywhere agrees with John Stott on this, there's your answer, Mudfrog. If he doesn't say ONLY psa, he at least says NOT WITHOUT psa. I don't see a difference that makes a difference there.
quote:
Doc Tor said:
I'm just not sure that PSA deals with it - if anything, it colludes with it
Not sure what you mean by that.
quote:
per Gamaliel:
MT can enlighten us, but from what I can gather it's more a case of 'on behalf of' rather than 'instead of'.
Well, yes, "not instead of" is the same thing as "not substitutionary." With the possible exception of one verse in Isaiah, none of the passages trotted out to support substitutionary atonement actually does so. All could just as well support "on behalf of but not in the place of."
quote:
per South Coast Kevin:
There's an argument that all the atonement models are substitutionary; Jesus dying for us, in our place.
Those are not the same thing.
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
The point surely is that the councils couldn't pronounce on the heresy of PSA if the heresy of PSA hadn't been thought up by the time the council sat.
Bingo. I would have thought this was so obvious as to not need saying. Clearly I was wrong. Johnny was reacting to a post of mine in which I said PSA was suspect because it's young. His response was, what ecumenical council said so? Which is inane.
quote:
Barnabus62 said:
We need to heave an amazing amount of both scripture and tradition into the lumber yard to remove the element of vicarious sacrifice.
Not a bit of it.
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
originally posted by Kaplan Cordray:
The biggest problem for an evangelical, however, which I don’t think has arisen so far on this thread, is that PSA and justification by faith are barely, if ever, mentioned in the Synoptics.
Actually, that is only a problem for a particular subset of liberal Protestant. Not so much a problem for the rest of us. This is one reason issues like PSA get discussed over and over again. We don't all agree on what counts as good evidence.
Paul is good evidence. Jesus is not. Actually I've seen this at work a lot in evangelical theology. It's the only possible way you can get "sola fides".
quote:
Mudfrog said:
2. The sacrificial system in the OT was effectual/effective (i.e. it did what it said on the tin) because of the eternal sacrifice in the heart of God.
Hebrews says quite plainly it did NOT do what it said on the tin.
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
The taking on of our sin is the culmination of the Incarnation.
Surely its culmination is the taking of our human nature into the Godhead at the Ascension.
Geeze, I so rarely agree with leo, but this is spot-on.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Christians aren't in a contest with Jews or the adherents of any religion over who is better. We are measured against God and anything less than perfection is not good enough. Through the work of the Holy Spirit, orthodox Christians believe we are being made more and more like Christ.
I can't speak for Jews. I'm not sure if or how the Holy Spirit works in Judaism or any other religion. I'm sure it would be insulting to say they are being made more and more like Jesus. So, I won't.
I'm just trying to figure out your original statement BA:
Grace was not present before the death of Jesus like it was after the death of Jesus.
You seem to link Grace with the coming of the Holy Spirit.
Which goes back to my original question. Did the Jews not have the Holy Spirit?
Is this what is "new" about the "new" covenant IYO?
Just curious because I have not yet found a satisfactory answer to that question.
It seems pretty obvious to me that in the Old Testament there is both Grace and the Holy Spirit present in the lives of people before Christ.
We can argue that may be true but that in the "new" covenant there is more Grace as you imply but going about verifying that is impossible and also a little weird.
Why would God add more Grace to the equation after a certain point in time and not before?
The only reason I can come up with is perhaps because we needed more help at that point in time.
And that came in the form of Christ.
*shrug*
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Yes but God doesn't forgive people because they repent. The Bible suggests that people repent because they have been forgiven. You are conflating causation with timing.
God forgives everyone always. He never changes. He loves everyone.
But people don't receive that forgiveness and love if they don't repent.
So in practical terms people receive God's forgiveness only after they repent.
The simple message is:
quote:
Ezekiel 18:21 “But if a wicked man turns from all his sins which he has committed, keeps all My statutes, and does what is lawful and right, he shall surely live."
PSA contradicts this, claiming that a person is justified while still a sinner.
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
I find the linkage between repentance and forgiveness somewhat confusing because it seems to me that the NT has (at least?) two contradictory strands.
1. In Peter’s sermon at Pentecost, as Evensong’s earlier post indicates, forgiveness is conditional on repentance: his hearers are horrified to learn they are implicated in the murder of the Messiah, they ask what they must do to avoid God’s displeasure, and Peter says they must turn away from their sins and be baptised, (Acts 2:38). Evensong cites additional examples.
2. God forgives unconditionally because that is his nature, and is not dependent on repentance. For example, when Jesus was being crucified he forgave his executioners unconditionally because they were doing what they did in ignorance. In 2 Corinthians 5: 18, Paul argues that God does not keep a charge sheet (record of wrongs), and that the Corinthians were to preach a gospel of reconciliation. As Barnabs62 indicates, in the parable of the Two Sons, the father’s forgiveness of the prodigal implicitly precedes the latter’s return, but the consequences can only be fully realised when the son seeks reconciliation.
My personal preference is for the second model because I find it helpful to draw a distinction between forgiveness, which does not require action by the two or more parties concerned, and reconciliation, which does.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Bingo. I would have thought this was so obvious as to not need saying. Clearly I was wrong. Johnny was reacting to a post of mine in which I said PSA was suspect because it's young. His response was, what ecumenical council said so? Which is inane.
It's really quite simple MT.
You called PSA a heresy.
I asked you for evidence that PSA has in anyway been declared a heresy by the church.
You have provided none.
But you still keep digging.
The only way you can possibly call PSA a heresy is in a 'well, this is my personal opinion and I'm an individual Protestant Pope' way that you love to accuse Protestants of doing.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Bingo. I would have thought this was so obvious as to not need saying. Clearly I was wrong. Johnny was reacting to a post of mine in which I said PSA was suspect because it's young. His response was, what ecumenical council said so? Which is inane.
It's really quite simple MT.
You called PSA a heresy.
I asked you for evidence that PSA has in anyway been declared a heresy by the church.
You have provided none.
But you still keep digging.
The only way you can possibly call PSA a heresy is in a 'well, this is my personal opinion and I'm an individual Protestant Pope' way that you love to accuse Protestants of doing.
Either call me to hell or get off my leg, Johnny.
Posted by TurquoiseTastic (# 8978) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
The taking on of our sin is the culmination of the Incarnation.
Surely its culmination is the taking of our human nature into the Godhead at the Ascension.
Actually, yes, you are completely correct! Sorry.
Would it be reasonable to say that the taking on of our sin is "an essential part of the Incarnation" then? Not only to identify with humanity but with sinful humanity?
[ 01. July 2011, 06:54: Message edited by: TurquoiseTastic ]
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
Not only to identify with humanity but with sinful humanity?
That is the anti-Chalcedonian heresy of which Edward irving was allegedly guilty, and for which he was excommunicated by the Presbyterians in 1830.
On the subject of heresy, obviously no church council could declare PSA a heresy before it had been formulated, and no council recognized by the Eastern churches met after Lateran V (1512-17), but it is noteworthy that Trent, despite its detailed rejection of solifidianism, made no reference to PSA, let alone declared it a heresy.
[ 01. July 2011, 07:23: Message edited by: Kaplan Corday ]
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
So the direction of reconciliation is vital to a proper understanding of who is being reconciled (human beings) and who is the initiator of reconciliation (God). The vicarious atonement in 2 Cor 5:21 is an expiation, not a propitiation. Yes it's SA here. No, it's not PSA here.
I think you are making more of this passage than you can really. Where reconciliation is needed, its because there is a broken relationship. Where I, for example, have an argument with my wife, and she takes the initiative in the reconciliation, that still means she is being reconciled to me as I respond to her intiative, as well as me being reconciled to her. It does not mean that there is no reconciliation to take place from her point of view, merely that she is being the generous, aggrieved one, taking the initiative in reconciliation.
As Chrystosom says, in the Gospel, it is the aggrieved one who takes the initiative. This is exactly what Calvin is saying - that the Father (the aggrieved one) reconciles himself to us. (and, as you say, us to himself)It's exactly what PSA (if you believe in a Trinitarian God) is saying.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I wouldn't see the Council of Trent as a council that has any bearing on a huge swathe of Christendom. It's the deliberations of the RC Church alone and has no relevence to Orthodox, Anglican, Methodist, Baptist, Reformed, Salvationist, Pentecostal churches, etc, etc, etc.
Just because Trent disagreed with the doctrine of justification by faith, doesn't actually make it a heresy!
Just because a doctrine has been formally outlined within the last 500 years doesn't mean it's not Scriptural. Don't forget Christus Victor was only made popular in the 1930s(?) That doesn't mean it's not Scripturally based.
PSA is entirely scriptural, as are all the other theories.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Leprechaun said:
John Stott says that if you ditch PSA (or has he handily renames it, "self substitution for self satisfaction)you CANNOT have any of the other atonement models - they only "work" if PSA is central.
Unless nobody anywhere agrees with John Stott on this, there's your answer, Mudfrog. If he doesn't say ONLY psa, he at least says NOT WITHOUT psa. I don't see a difference that makes a difference there.
Let me enlighten you as to the difference. It means people can't use the argument "PSA doesn't deal with the cross's effect on us" against it. We are aware of that. We think it can be PSA as a gateway, a hub for lots of other achievements.
As people on this very thread have been using that very argument, it is an important difference.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Hmm, Leprechaun. This is becoming a re-run of large chunks of Christus Victor! I think what you say is right about reconciliation between humans. The offered olive branch needs to be grasped. And I do understand the argument, from Trinitarian considerations, that God took it upon himself. But I maintain that the direction of reconciliation is of vital importance because of what it tells is about the Father heart of God. And I don't think PSA makes that at all clear. On which point we may have to agree to differ.
So let me try a bit of reconciling! Here's a pregnant quote from mousethief
quote:
But that's not all PSA gives us, is it? It also gives us a God who is angry at people, whose wrath is against particular humans -- so wrathful, indeed, that he will send them to Hell. I want God to hate sin. Sure. But I don't have a lot of time for a God who hates people. That's not the God of Jesus.
That gives rise to two questions.
1. mousethief's characterisation of PSA giving us a God who is angry with people is a common conception of PSA. Is it a misconception and if so how?
2. Do you agree with mousethief that a God who hates people because they sin is not the God of Jesus? That seems to me to be central to the whole controversy.
And a point for mousethief as another possible olive branch. Here from the link to Chrysostom's Homily X1 re 2 Corinthians 5, is a direct quote re 2 Cor 5:21
quote:
And that thou mayest learn what a thing it is, consider this which I say. If one that was himself a king, beholding a robber and malefactor under punishment, gave his well-beloved son, his only-begotten and true, to be slain; and transferred the death and the guilt as well, from him to his son, (who was himself of no such character,) that he might both save the condemned man and clear him from his evil reputation ..
How is Chrysostom not arguing that there is some element of vicarious, substitutionary, sacrifice in Christ being made sin for us? Of course you may argue that he is wrong, but I just can't see how you could say that he isn't arguing just that; as the commentator observes in the footnote.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I'm in a quandary here - or at least in a similar position to Barnabas. I'm something of an Orthophile, as you all well know, but equally I'm very, very puzzled by their position in that I find it very hard (perhaps because of Western and more specifically, Protestant, conditioning, to see some of the scriptural passages in question in anything other than vicarious or substitutionary terms).
As Kaplan has said, there are difficulties (such as the apparent lack of support from the Gospels) but with the best will in the world I find it hard to make sense of the passages we've considered without there being some substitutionary, vicarious aspect. As comes out in the passage from St John Chrysostom.
Contra Mudfrog, I'd suggest that there ain't a great deal of evidence for a PSA type approach in the Fathers (although arguably you can see more Christus Victor there, as well as the older 'ransom' theory) ... and would suggest that as far as Trent was concerned justification by faith was the main Reformation issue they were contending with at that time rather than PSA itself ... I rather suspect that by the time of Trent the various Protestant churches hadn't formulated any particular dominant atonement theory any more than they had a common viewpoint on the sacraments of the 'real presence' in the Lord's Supper etc.
So PSA wouldn't have been an issue that the RCs were contending with at Trent.
It strikes me that PSA developed from Reformed (and particularly Calvinistic) thought and was then given an added impetus during the Evangelical Awakenings and pietistic movements of the 18th century where it could form a convenient 'short-hand' if you like for open air preaching and the like. PSA lends itself to crisis conversions and high-octane revivalist preaching - hence the cryings out for mercy, the groanings and the fallings and innovations such as the altar-call and the mercy seat, the enquirers room and so on and so forth.
I ain't saying these things are wrong, just charting a development.
I did read once in a book by Frederica Matthews-Green, a Protestant convert to Orthodoxy, how when she and her husband explained PSA to an Orthodox bishop (who hadn't heard the more evangelical Protestant approach explained before) he was non-plussed. 'Do they really believe that?'
He didn't condemn it as a heresy, unlike MT here, but thought for a moment and said, 'Well, I can see that there is an element of that there and how they might get an idea of that kind ... however ...'
Cuddly old Gamaliel is going for the middle ground again. Could it not be that there is certainly an element of NT support for such a view - and even some hints in Tradition (such as Chrysostom) but it is insufficient to bear the weight of the edifice that has subsequently been built upon it. Could it not be, contra Stott, that PSA is one of the spokes rather than the hub itself?
The hub, surely, is the Incarnation and Christ assuming our humanity. How the rest of it works out, in terms of how the atonement actualises this, as it were, is up for grabs ...
Just a thought.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I did read once in a book by Frederica Matthews-Green, a Protestant convert to Orthodoxy, how when she and her husband explained PSA to an Orthodox bishop (who hadn't heard the more evangelical Protestant approach explained before) he was non-plussed. 'Do they really believe that?'
He didn't condemn it as a heresy, unlike MT here, but thought for a moment and said, 'Well, I can see that there is an element of that there and how they might get an idea of that kind ... however ...'
Cuddly old Gamaliel is going for the middle ground again. Could it not be that there is certainly an element of NT support for such a view - and even some hints in Tradition (such as Chrysostom) but it is insufficient to bear the weight of the edifice that has subsequently been built upon it. Could it not be, contra Stott, that PSA is one of the spokes rather than the hub itself?
I've heard Timothy Ware talk on this matter; he was pretty much in the same position as the other Orthodox bishop you quote, except that he was in favour of striking the "P" from "PSA". From memory he observed that substitution was biblical and also referenced as a proper understanding by some of the Fathers. [I remember (it's buried somewhere in Christus Victor) finding a quote by St Cyril I think from his commentary on the gospel of Luke which was similarly "protestant"! The link seems to have vanished online now.]
I quite like this wheel and spokes simile. It might make us less exclusive if we recognise that there are different ways Christians can go about understanding how the wheel may be made up. We are all inheritors of differing interpretations of diverse elements of the Christian story. So we may prefer seeing the wheel made up one way, rather than another. I think that explains a lot of what we do, and often fight hard over doing.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Let me enlighten you as to the difference. It means people can't use the argument "PSA doesn't deal with the cross's effect on us" against it.
People haven't been using that as an argument against it. What we've been saying is that isn't an argument for it.
People have been reacting to Mudfrog's claim that PSA does deal with the cross's effect on us:
quote:
My contribution to this debate is that the atonement has to actually do sosmething. It needs to effect a change, gain a result for me
As you correctly observe, if a believer in PSA believes that the atonement effects a change, they believe that because of their theory of sanctification, not because of PSA. PSA is not doing the work here. Were Mudfrog to abandon his belief in PSA, all things being equal he would still believe that the atonement gained a result for him.
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
[QB] he was in favour of striking the "P" from "PSA". From memory he observed that substitution was biblical and also referenced as a proper understanding by some of the Fathers. [I remember (it's buried somewhere in Christus Victor) /QB]
As an aside, there is an element of substitution involved in many of the alternative theories of the atonement. Even in Christus Victor, Christ wins the victory on our behalf.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Jesus, on behalf of humanity, concedes that the harshest punishment is merited but informs the judge that he loves humanity so much that he would willingly bear such a punishment on it's behalf, unless there is any other way, and that in any event such Grace may persuade humanity to repent. The judge reasons that the demands of justice would be met in either scenario but prefers the submissions made by Jesus on the basis that he shares his love of humanity and agrees that repentance may be the outcome.
It seems to me that such a scenario is so far removed from any other circumstances that any comparisons are made redundant.
If comparisons are made redundant then so are words like justice and love, since if the scenario is so far removed from any other circumstances then we simply wouldn't know how to apply the words.
Whatever else the judgement is, it isn't just in any way that we use or understand the word. It doesn't matter whether Jesus volunteers; one person cannot be justly be punished on another person's behalf. If punishment is merited, then it is precisely punishment of the guilty that is merited. Making an innocent person suffer the penalty assigned cannot change that.
I can think of one instance of justified vicarious punishment: If someone who has no legal responsibility commits a crime and the person responsible for them has been negligent in their duty to oversee them then the person who has responsibility may be punished. But that's not the case in PSA, since humanity is held legally accountable and Jesus is not supposed to have been negligent.
Anselm's satisfaction view is slightly different. Jesus isn't punished as a substitute for humanity. Jesus is a human being, and so on that view of justice he is a perfectly proper object of retaliation. That's because Anselm has a feudal view of justice in which a family is collectively responsible for offering satisfaction to the offended party should one of its members offend. On this feudal view of justice, if my nephew kills a neighbour's child then the whole family is accountable to the neighbour for this. But we don't believe justice works like that any more: we don't think families are collective entities.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Either call me to hell or get off my leg, Johnny.
There is a third option of you explaining on what grounds you think PSA is heresy.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I wouldn't see the Council of Trent as a council that has any bearing on a huge swathe of Christendom. It's the deliberations of the RC Church alone and has no relevence to Orthodox, Anglican, Methodist, Baptist, Reformed, Salvationist, Pentecostal churches, etc, etc, etc.
Just because Trent disagreed with the doctrine of justification by faith, doesn't actually make it a heresy!
Just because a doctrine has been formally outlined within the last 500 years doesn't mean it's not Scriptural. Don't forget Christus Victor was only made popular in the 1930s(?) That doesn't mean it's not Scripturally based.
PSA is entirely scriptural, as are all the other theories.
I'm with you Mudfrog in believing that PSA is scriptural.
Though I understand there are problems and loose ends with it, some of which I conceded earlier, overall it is far and away the best explanation of the NT data.
Like you (and, famously, Luther) I also feel no need to automatically endorse the decisions of church councils either, though unlike some evangelicals, I am very grateful for what I consider to be the providentially directed work and decisions of the first four ecumenical councils in particular.
The point about Trent's completely wrongheaded rejection of solifidianism as a "heresy" is that by the end of Trent in 1563, PSA was also around in at least inchoate form, but was not anathematized, and therefore those such as MT who seem to regard PSA as a heresy do not have any conciliar or credal reason for so designating it.
[ 01. July 2011, 12:17: Message edited by: Kaplan Corday ]
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
What do you mean by better? They were sinners. We are sinners. So...we are all equal.
So St Francis of Assisi was equal to Adolf Hitler. Check.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Either call me to hell or get off my leg, Johnny.
There is a third option of you explaining on what grounds you think PSA is heresy.
At a guess that it is fundamentally incompatable with the nature of God as understood by the Orthodoxen. I doubt that anyone has bothered to formally declare that the claim that Jesus and Pontius Pilate were the same person to be a heresy because it's so far outside the normal understandings that it doesn't require that. But if someone were to claim that then it would be a heresy.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
What do you mean by better? They were sinners. We are sinners. So...we are all equal.
So St Francis of Assisi was equal to Adolf Hitler. Check.
Good point. Good point. Check.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
Hitler .. St Francis - Is there a strawman smilie??? - Stroll on is that the best you can do?
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Sacramental Christians do apply the word sacrifice to the cross because they think that the cross was a sacrifice. Many of them don't think that the cross was penal substitution, because penal substitution is not sacrifice.
Evangelical Christians apply the word 'sacrifice' to the cross because sacrifice is one of those other models. Sacrifice is no part of the understanding of PSA and penal substitution is no part of the Biblical understanding of sacrifice.
(Animals killed as part of a sacrifice are not being punished. A fortiori, they are not being punished instead of anyone else.)
The OT Law is full of sin offerings and guilt offerings (not to mention the Day of Atonement and the scapegoat) which seem to involve a symbolic transfer of guilt. It's pretty clear that sacrifice is set up as a method to deal with sin (Hebrews in the NT takes this as read). How if there is not a transfer of guilt does this operate? Outside of a PSA typology it seems like a very bad form of bribery (apple for the teacher?)
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on
:
I've not really been contributing to this thread, only following it: I've rehearsed my own (mostly hostile) thoughts about PSA here often enough. But can I ask for one clarification? When people claim that PSA is "scriptural", do you mean -
(a) selected passages of scripture can be adduced to support the theory of PSA, or
(b) PSA represents the entire consistent witness of scripture on the subject of atonement, in both spirit and letter?
I think it's a very important distinction: (a) would mean that PSA is only ever going to be at best a part of the story, whereas (b) would means that there is no other possible theory of atonement.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
If punishment is merited, then it is precisely punishment of the guilty that is merited. Making an innocent person suffer the penalty assigned cannot change that.
Ever paid for anything for someone else? was that unjust or simply kind?
quote:
Anselm's satisfaction view is slightly different. Jesus isn't punished as a substitute for humanity. Jesus is a human being, and so on that view of justice he is a perfectly proper object of retaliation. That's because Anselm has a feudal view of justice in which a family is collectively responsible for offering satisfaction to the offended party should one of its members offend. On this feudal view of justice, if my nephew kills a neighbour's child then the whole family is accountable to the neighbour for this. But we don't believe justice works like that any more: we don't think families are collective entities.
Pity Jesus and Paul had a fairly feudal view of things too.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
(a) selected passages of scripture can be adduced to support the theory of PSA, or
(b) PSA represents the entire consistent witness of scripture on the subject of atonement, in both spirit and letter?
Most Evo theologians would say (b) but very importantly remove the word "entire" and suggest that there is truth in other models - I think this has been said before.
Trying not to sound pretentious here is the Evo theological method TM - Us Evo's try to ask what the whole of Scripture says about a particular subject and build our doctrines primarily from the raw data of Scripture - this is what we mean when we talk about Scripture interpreting Scripture eg 1John says that "God is Love", well who is "God" according to the Bible? and what is "Love" according to the Bible?
We then use the lenses of Tradition, Reason and Experince to focus our understanding.
I've missed out all the stuff about praying, repenting, believing, worshipping and (very importantly) depending on the Holy Spirit which are also at the heart of "doing theology" - for clarity's sake.
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Posted by Twangist
Ever paid for anything for someone else? was that unjust or simply kind?
The real problem is the fact that guilt cannot be transferred.
No amount of Christ "paying the penalty" can alter the fact that the guilt lies with the sinner even when the penalty is paid..
Guilt can only be forgiven. Which God alone does. And He did it countless times long before Christ died.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Hitler .. St Francis - Is there a strawman smilie??? - Stroll on is that the best you can do?
If we are all equal because we are all sinners then that isn't a strawman. It's an exact representation of the claim.
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Ever paid for anything for someone else? was that unjust or simply kind?
Oh, I don't think anyone has much problem with Jesus' actions under PSA. The problem is the behaviour of God the Father. Not God the Son. God the Father's behaviour makes the worst loan shark look fundamentally benevolent. That God the Son is paying off the debts to God the Father doesn't change the fact that God the Father was charging interest rates that would make any gangster, drug dealer, or pimp blush.
And the more meaningful the Substitutionary part of the atonement, the viler God the Father becomes for setting up the system. The higher the interest payments that needed paying off, the worse the ursurious bastard who set them up in the first place.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
The real problem is the fact that guilt cannot be transferred.
If I get a parking ticket anyone who wants to can pay it in my place.
How then did the guilt and sin offerings of the OT "work"? What of the multiple NT texts which speak of Christ bareing sin? - some kind of vicarious transfer is happening.
Would contribute more but RL is calling - must go to work!!
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Hitler .. St Francis - Is there a strawman smilie??? - Stroll on is that the best you can do?
That's not a strawman.
It's popular in Pauline terms to call us all sinners (we have all sinned and fallen short of the glory of god)
But it's popular in other texts to distinguish the righteous from the sinners. Which rather indicates there is a distinction.
quote:
Matthew 13.49:
So it will be at the end of the age. The angels will come out and separate the evil from the righteous
Luke 15.7:
Just so, I tell you, there will be more joy in heaven over one sinner who repents than over ninety-nine righteous people who need no repentance.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Justinian:
If we are all equal because we are all sinners then that isn't a strawman. It's an exact representation of the claim.
You missed the subsequent post where I said Christians aren't in competition with Jews. St. Francis isn't in competition with Hitler. The measure of goodness is God. None of us are as good as God. Both needed the grace of God. St. Francis received the grace of God. Hitler did not.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
At a guess that it is fundamentally incompatable with the nature of God as understood by the Orthodoxen. I doubt that anyone has bothered to formally declare that the claim that Jesus and Pontius Pilate were the same person to be a heresy because it's so far outside the normal understandings that it doesn't require that. But if someone were to claim that then it would be a heresy.
I hope that wouldn't be a response.
That would be like telling me that cycling is illegal and then when I ask when the government passed such a law you replying, "Well they haven't actually passed any legislation but if they did I'm sure they would make it illegal."
How can you possibly call something a heresy if no recognised ecclesiastical body has ever made that call?
You are quite right about Jesus and Pilate - which is why I'd never call it a heresy. That would be a category error (as well as factually incorrect!)
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
St. Francis received the grace of God. Hitler did not.
So those that receive the grace of God (or the HS) are better than those that haven't.
You said Christians receive more grace (or have the potential to?) so taking this to its logical conclusion, surely Christians are better.
You really are being coy here BA and I'm not sure why.
Why all this political correctness all of a sudden?
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
The real problem is the fact that guilt cannot be transferred.
No amount of Christ "paying the penalty" can alter the fact that the guilt lies with the sinner even when the penalty is paid..
Guilt can only be forgiven. Which God alone does. And He did it countless times long before Christ died.
A very good point. There are only a handful of classic reasons for punishment. And one person being able to pay for another undermines the moral standing of most of them. The reasons are:
- Rehabilitation - so the people will learn to be productive members of society
- Incapacitation / societal protection - keep them locked up so they can't do it again.
- Deterrence / prevention - a warning to others
- Restoration - paying back the damages
- Retribution - classical punishment
- Education - the Germans separate teaching people what societal norms are from rehabilitation. I don't see how/why.
- Denunciation / condemnation - expressing that something is wrong
Taking them each in turn.
Rehabilitation. The concept of substitutionary rehabilitation is absurd. Lindsey Lohan goes into rehab but I try to take her place?
Incapacitation. Harold Shipman goes to jail so I offer to take his place and leave him free. This is as absurd as rehabilitation.
Deterrence. Perhaps. Someone needs to be punished is the attitude here. But this has nothing to do with the crimes of the criminal and is always fundamentally unjust. It can, however, be pragmatic. On the other hand, Hell isn't something we can see or touch. It's not a very good deterrant. And PSA undermines that rationale. "He paid for all your sins" is the opposite of deterrance.
Restoration. This is the time when substitution makes sense. You smash a car but can't afford to replace it. I can afford it so pay on your behalf - this works. But this means that God in some way feeds off the suffering of the Damned and takes pleasure in their torture. For this to have worked, God would have to have profited from the torture of his Son - an act of divine child abuse indeed.
Retribution. That someone else can take it makes a mockery of it being just.
Education. Do I even need to spell out how absurd this would be?
Denunciation. Hell fails as denunciation because we can not know who is in hell.
As for how guilt and sin offerings work, they are essentially intended to be a mix. But the important part of the offering is that the person offers up something of value of their own free will and that they will remember. It's fundamentally rehabilitative/educative - you need to learn enough to be sorry and truly repent. And sorry enough to offer something of value to yourself. You can make a sacrificial offering especially as a sign on behalf of yourself - this is a world apart from making one on behalf of someone else.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
St. Francis received the grace of God. Hitler did not.
So those that receive the grace of God (or the HS) are better than those that haven't.
You said Christians receive more grace (or have the potential to?) so taking this to its logical conclusion, surely Christians are better.
You really are being coy here BA and I'm not sure why.
Why all this political correctness all of a sudden?
I'm not the ultimate judge of who is better. God is the judge. For most Christians, grace is received primarily through the sacraments. Through the power of the Holy Spirit, grace could be offered through other means. I can't say that it is or it isn't.
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
If I get a parking ticket anyone who wants to can pay it in my place.
This is precisely one of the reasons PSA doesn't work! Usually, PSA relies on the fact that God's justice must somehow be satisfied. But if someone pays your parking ticket for you - no matter how altruistically - then justice has not been satisfied, because you, the wrongdoer, have gone unpunished! Your analogy works only if the parking ticket is not a fine (which includes the idea of punishment), but a charge. And there are at least two problems with this. First, while the idea of the payment of a charge or price sits well within Roman law, it's not at all obvious that it relates to Jewish law. Secondly, the whole thing begs the question, to whom is the charge being paid? Not to God, surely, because Jesus himself in his parables gives us a picture of God as one who writes off debts, not reassigns them. (The thought that PSA relies on interpreting the atonement in the light of Roman law is also suggested by the historic fact that PSA is largely a Western phenomenon.)
I would also dispute your assertion that PSA is the only model of atonement possible from the consideration of the witness of scripture. It certainly doesn't sit very easily with the image of Jesus as the Passover sacrifice, precisely because the Passover wasn't a sin-offering. The chief (though not only) purpose of the Passover was to mark out those who were of God's household so that the Angel of Death would not come near them. This seems to suggest that John and Paul (on his good days) thought of the atonement in terms of the conquest or subjugation of Death - much closer to a Christus Victor model than to PSA.
[Cross-posted with ... ooh, lots of people!]
[ 01. July 2011, 14:48: Message edited by: Adeodatus ]
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
The measure of goodness is God.
And here is the root of the disagreement. To you, if God were to take a baby and bugger them with [url= http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cleopatra's_Needle]Cleopatra's Needle[/url] for three days straight, keeping them conscious and alive throughout this torture then to do so would be good because it is God doing it. Good to you has no other meaning than that it is God. To me that would be evil because it is buggering a baby with Cleopatra's Needle. Good and evil have actual meanings rather than just what the biggest being around claims.
quote:
None of us are as good as God.
And if Adolf Hitler is suffering eternal torment in hell, none of us are as evil and graceless as God. None of us have been confronted by eternal suffering and chosen to turn our backs when to rescue them would be trivial.
For the record, hell is worse torment than buggering someone with Cleopatra's Needle.
[ 01. July 2011, 14:54: Message edited by: Justinian ]
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Tangwist didnt get my point.
He still argues
"If I get a parking ticket anyone who wants to can pay it in my place."
True. But as far as the police are concerned the driver is still guilty. Nor can the driver convince himself otherwise.
Christ paying the penalty for our sins doesnt make any difference to the guilt.
I repeat the self-evident fact. Guilt cannot be transferred, it can only be forgiven.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
Not sure "guilt" is the right word in this context. Wrongdoing? Sin?
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Of course, theological what ifs are an unusually bad way to make doctrine. Were these trick questions?
Trick questions? No, definitely not.
I guess the point I was trying to make is that... how can I put this diplomatically? To the more theologically literate defenders of PSA, the doctrine itself is poorly represented by the direct courtroom analogy you encounter in the tracts and from the guy with the loudspeaker on the street corner. When we scratch the surface of it on these threads I sometimes come away with the impression that what you're defending isn't all that close to what we're attacking.
Take an example - you seem to be saying, and +Wright seems to be saying, that what's going on on the Cross is God demonstrating his hatred of sin in the most emphatic way possible (well, other than obliterating the world I suppose). We could have a discussion about that. But in my head it has little resemblance to the tract version - our sins deserve eternal torment according to the heavenly law code, Christ suffers torment and death instead and that's penal justice satisfied (except as most of us except the tractists are agreed, it's stretched the analogy to breaking point).
I sometimes wonder if this is a kind of party-political thing. You can't come out and criticise the tract version because that would be taken to be a denial of your Evangelicalism, even though the tract version isn't what you believe. Is there any truth in that?
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
I sometimes wonder if this is a kind of party-political thing. You can't come out and criticise the tract version because that would be taken to be a denial of your Evangelicalism, even though the tract version isn't what you believe. Is there any truth in that?
That's pretty much what Steve Chalke discovered. He criticised the one taught (and believed) by many evangelicals, and lo, got a good shoe-ing.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Oh yes indeed. PSA is such an entrenched evangelical shibboleth that to abandon - or even to modify it - is, to many evangelicals (and not just the tractists) to abandon the Gospel itself. It has a firm hold.
I can't shake it off, for instance, and were I ever to do so I'm sure I'd suffer intense guilt and painful soul-searching. I'm not exaggerating, but to many evangelicals it'd almost feel like abandoning a cardinal doctrine such as the Trinity or the deity of Christ. It is THAT central to evangelical thinking.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Yes but God doesn't forgive people because they repent. The Bible suggests that people repent because they have been forgiven. You are conflating causation with timing.
God forgives everyone always. He never changes. He loves everyone.
But people don't receive that forgiveness and love if they don't repent.
So in practical terms people receive God's forgiveness only after they repent.
I disagree. The reason that people don't receive that love and forgiveness if they haven't repented is that accepting God's gift of forgiveness is itself an act of repentance. It would be absurd to acknowledge that you have sinned and thank God for his forgiveness and then to continue to behave the same way. When you accept God's forgiveness you turn away from sin at the same time. If you've been made clean then you want to stay clean and trust God to help you remain clean. I don't think that forgiveness is conditional upon repentance, I believe that it is the inevitable consequence of forgiveness.
Of course the acceptance of forgiveness and the act of repentance can be summed up in one word - faith. It is because faith is such a big concept that we break it down.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
PSA deals with one issue and one issue alone - how God can forgive sin. Which is one half of Justification - how we can stand in good relationship with God (the other half is by crediting Christ's righteousness to us).
It deals poorly with this issue. The Bible's answer is that God forgives sin when people repent and stop sinning.
Yes but God doesn't forgive people because they repent. The Bible suggests that people repent because they have been forgiven.
Got some biblical quotes for that? That's not a majority position in the bible IMO.
I think these are the standard:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 2.38:
Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ so that your sins may be forgiven; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
Acts of the Apostles 8.22:
Repent therefore of this wickedness of yours, and pray to the Lord that, if possible, the intent of your heart may be forgiven you.
I don't think these verses show that repentance causes forgiveness it simply shows that the two occur simultaneously. The verses say repent AND be forgiven. They do not say repent so that you may be forgiven.
If forgiveness was conditional upon repentance then forgiveness would have been achieved by works and it is clear that forgiveness is a free act of grace. Forgiveness and repentance are the two inseparable twin children of the two lovers faith and humility.
Here's some more verses:
Eph 2 v 8 'for it is by grace that you have been saved, through faith- and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God- not by works so that no-one can boast'.
Romans 3 v 23-24 'for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace'.
John 8: 10-11 'Jesus straightened up and asked her, “Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?”
No one, sir,” she said.
“Then neither do I condemn you,” Jesus declared. “Go now and leave your life of sin.”
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I can't shake it off, for instance, and were I ever to do so I'm sure I'd suffer intense guilt and painful soul-searching. I'm not exaggerating, but to many evangelicals it'd almost feel like abandoning a cardinal doctrine such as the Trinity or the deity of Christ. It is THAT central to evangelical thinking.
Come over to the dark side. We have cookies.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Makepiece said:
The verses say repent AND be forgiven. They do not say repent so that you may be forgiven.
Did you read them? Here's one of them:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
You're just flat-out wrong on this one. They say explicitly and directly what you say they do not. In almost the same words!
[ 01. July 2011, 18:51: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Tangwist didnt get my point.
He still argues
"If I get a parking ticket anyone who wants to can pay it in my place."
True. But as far as the police are concerned the driver is still guilty. Nor can the driver convince himself otherwise.
Christ paying the penalty for our sins doesnt make any difference to the guilt.
I repeat the self-evident fact. Guilt cannot be transferred, it can only be forgiven.
Shamwari didn't get my point
To be a bit OCD the police don't prosecute parking tickets but that's bye the bye.
If someone else pays the penalty for me then I can't be taken to court by the council or the company they employ to be the Traffic Taliban - in effect the conviction is spent. Forensically and Penally I am Justified.
PSA is one part of a fuller doctrine - that of satisfaction. How the individual, personally, receives the forgiveness of sin flows from an understanding that sin has been dealt with.
As Evensong pointed out Guilt may be the wrong word.
Repeating that something is a self-evident fact doesn't make it one. Scripture and Tradition point very strongly to what happened at the cross involving a transference or a price being paid. Standing with your fingers in your ears and saying "I can't hear you la la la" won't change that.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Repeating that something is a self-evident fact doesn't make it one. Scripture and Tradition point very strongly to what happened at the cross involving a transference or a price being paid. Standing with your fingers in your ears and saying "I can't hear you la la la" won't change that.
"A price being paid" is not of necessity either penal or substitutionary. If I buy my daughter a birthday present, a price has been paid but it is not substitutionary. If I pay her rent, it is not penal.
But still it all depends on this "satisfaction" thing which is part of the Roman legal system but not perforce part of Jewish thought.
[ 01. July 2011, 19:29: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Twangist:
Hitler .. St Francis - Is there a strawman smilie??? - Stroll on is that the best you can do?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
That's not a strawman.
It's popular in Pauline terms to call us all sinners (we have all sinned and fallen short of the glory of god)
But it's popular in other texts to distinguish the righteous from the sinners. Which rather indicates there is a distinction.
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Matthew 13.49:
So it will be at the end of the age. The angels will come out and separate the evil from the righteous
Luke 15.7:
Just so, I tell you, there will be more joy in heaven over one sinner who repents than over ninety-nine righteous people who need no repentance.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Did you note Jesus use of irony? - I can only think of one rightous man who didn't need to repent still waiting for a list of the other 98.
Hitler, St Francis and the Holiness of God.
One meter looks much bigger than a millimeter but both look tiny compared to a light year.
All humans (bar a certian God-Man) are sinners in need of redemption. SO it is a strawman.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
I would also dispute your assertion that PSA is the only model of atonement possible from the consideration of the witness of scripture
Which post did I make that assertion on???
I've consistently said, in line with the Evangelical consensus, that other models are available and helpful.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
But still it all depends on this "satisfaction" thing which is part of the Roman legal system but not perforce part of Jewish thought.
Romans 3 is where many of these ideas are derived from and thus they do indeed come from a Jewish perspective last time we checked Paul's ethnicity and education.
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
I would also dispute your assertion that PSA is the only model of atonement possible from the consideration of the witness of scripture
Which post did I make that assertion on???
I've consistently said, in line with the Evangelical consensus, that other models are available and helpful.
Sorry, reading back to the previous page I see you weren't saying this at all. The question I thought I was asking would have implied this if it had been answered "yes", but now I see I didn't quite ask what I meant to ask, and you didn't quite answer "yes".
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
There are only a handful of classic reasons for punishment. And one person being able to pay for another undermines the moral standing of most of them. The reasons are:
Rehabilitation - so the people will learn to be productive members of society
Incapacitation / societal protection - keep them locked up so they can't do it again.
Deterrence / prevention - a warning to others
Restoration - paying back the damages
Retribution - classical punishment
Education - the Germans separate teaching people what societal norms are from rehabilitation. I don't see how/why.
Denunciation / condemnation - expressing that something is wrong
How would you like God to deal with sin?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
One meter looks much bigger than a millimeter but both look tiny compared to a light year.
All humans (bar a certian God-Man) are sinners in need of redemption. SO it is a strawman.
But the claim wasn't that they both look small compared to a light year, or that they weren't both sinners in need of redemption. The claim was that they were the same. So not a strawman.
Posted by otyetsfoma (# 12898) on
:
My objection to PSA is the implication that there is a law that God must obey and therefore must precede and take precedence over God: in which case God isnot God, but this eternal law is!
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
Polemic hat off
quote:
Just curious because I have not yet found a satisfactory answer to that question.
It seems pretty obvious to me that in the Old Testament there is both Grace and the Holy Spirit present in the lives of people before Christ.
We can argue that may be true but that in the "new" covenant there is more Grace as you imply but going about verifying that is impossible and also a little weird.
Why would God add more Grace to the equation after a certain point in time and not before?
The only reason I can come up with is perhaps because we needed more help at that point in time.
And that came in the form of Christ.
*shrug*
YMMV but my take is that the NT talks of the OT as foreshadowing Christ and so the Christ Event (deliberately not defined - just look at the thread we're on) works backwards in history to the OT Saints who trusted in the types, shadows and promises that were available to them.
To be honest I'm a bit more sketchy on the Holy Spirit part but the NT (Peter in Acts 2) seems to suggest He is working more fully "in these last days".
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
But the claim wasn't that they both look small compared to a light year, or that they weren't both sinners in need of redemption. The claim was that they were the same. So not a strawman.
If the ball's over the line it's over the line. (except at Old Trafford for any fellow Spurs fans).
I'll settle for a dumb, predictable category error rather than a strawman - sheesh.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
My objection to PSA is the implication that there is a law that God must obey and therefore must precede and take precedence over God: in which case God isnot God, but this eternal law is!
And who's perfect righteouness and justice does the law express???
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
But the claim wasn't that they both look small compared to a light year, or that they weren't both sinners in need of redemption. The claim was that they were the same. So not a strawman.
If the ball's over the line it's over the line. (except at Old Trafford for any fellow Spurs fans).
I'll settle for a dumb, predictable category error rather than a strawman - sheesh.
The question wasn't whether the ball was over the line. You're not listening. You are shifting the goalposts.
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
My objection to PSA is the implication that there is a law that God must obey and therefore must precede and take precedence over God: in which case God isnot God, but this eternal law is!
And who's perfect righteouness and justice does the law express???
Then you've played right into the Schizophrenic God.
[ 01. July 2011, 20:10: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
The question wasn't whether the ball was over the line. You're not listening. You are shifting the goalposts.
Pot Kettle?
Have you read BA and Justinians original exchange? (it's on P3)
quote:
Then you've played right into the Schizophrenic God.
What this one?
quote:
the compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in love and faithfulness, maintaining love to thousands, and forgiving wickedness, rebellion and sin. Yet he does not leave the guilty unpunished;
Silly old me and Mo'
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Oh yes indeed. PSA is such an entrenched evangelical shibboleth that to abandon - or even to modify it - is, to many evangelicals (and not just the tractists) to abandon the Gospel itself. It has a firm hold.
I can't shake it off, for instance, and were I ever to do so I'm sure I'd suffer intense guilt and painful soul-searching. I'm not exaggerating, but to many evangelicals it'd almost feel like abandoning a cardinal doctrine such as the Trinity or the deity of Christ. It is THAT central to evangelical thinking.
Don't you think the paradoxes of the Cross need to be lived out, not resolved? As an issue of contemplation, it becomes pretty obvious when one reflects on it how upsetting the Cross is, what a maelstrom of emotions surround the story. We see human sadism, betrayal, fickleness, abandonment, political and religious expediency, courage, cowardice, faithful loyalty, desperate personal hurt and self discovery.
Entering into all of that is profoundly disturbing; atonement models represent in totality various human attempts to come to terms with all of that. But the event does not allow neat, detached, balanced explanations. They all convey something but they also all come apart in the hand, being inadequate to encompass all that is going on.
Not sure this helps you, my friend. I feel you may be able to see it as a stepping stone on the way to a deeper understanding i.e. that there are historical and spiritual mysteries associated with this event we are not going to get to the bottom us.
Strangely, (or maybe it isn't strange), as I've got older I've got more accepting of the paradoxes of the gospel, recognising that contemplative awareness is sharpened much more by not resolving. I think we tend to believe we will get peace of mind by resolving paradoxes, but that's probably a myth. Peace of mind in the journey of faith is a gift to be embraced in the middle of all sorts of chaos and incompleteness.
[According to a friend of mine, there's a lot in this vein in the writings of Thomas Merton. I haven't got round to him just yet; the above is half-cooked B62. Half-baked if you like]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Twangist, I can trot out all the same verses and references as you can but for some reason I don't feel a 'rise' or a warmth towards this as I once did ... well, I do in parts.
Why is that, d'you think? Have I come over all backslidden and everything?
I agree with you that sin has to be dealt with - and it has been dealt with - on the cross. What I'm less certain about is whether we need such a juridical model - although I do accept that there are elements of that in Romans 3. But the Apostle Paul is trying to work out some way of explaining to his hearers how God had, apparently, moved the goal-posts and included the Gentiles in a New Covenant - and at the same time maintaining continuity with the Old Covenant.
That's the context. Sure, it doesn't neatly explain away the juridical aspects ... when you're dealing with the Jewish Law then there is going to be a juridical aspect by definition. I suppose my squeamishness lies at what can be an over-emphasis on this and less of an emphasis on other aspects of the Pauline testimony ...
Believe you me, I love a good bit of Reformed doctrine but for some reason or other I find it less, 'Ah Bisto!' than I used to. Perhaps I've been sniffing too many kebabs rather than roast beef and Yorkshire pudding ...
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
How would you like God to deal with sin?
I realise this wasn't directed at me personally but my answer is by destroying it (in any way that can be done without destroying the sinner), by defeating it (that is, by healing the damage it does), by forgiving it (restoring our relationship with Him) but not by punishing someone who is sinless for it.
I keep harping on about the tract version of PSA but I think it's important to get this point out of the way - the tract version of PSA5 does not deal with sin. Through a legal fiction - a fiction, I emphasise - it makes it possible for sinners to be treated by God as though we had not sinned. Tract-PSA, contrary to a recurring argument in its favour, does not treat sin seriously enough.
But the nuanced version of it has a lot to say. It's just that what it's saying is not PSA as such. It's something else - mostly I think it's satisfaction/merit coupled with other things.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
How would you like God to deal with sin?
I realise this wasn't directed at me personally but my answer is by destroying it (in any way that can be done without destroying the sinner), by defeating it (that is, by healing the damage it does), by forgiving it (restoring our relationship with Him) but not by punishing someone who is sinless for it.
Hear, hear. It depends on whether you think of sin in legal terms or other terms. In Orthodoxy we more think of it in terms of sickness. Thus God hates sin, not because he's an egoist and can't stand his will thwarted, or because he's a sheriff who can't stand to have the law broken, but because he loves us and loves the world he made, and it mars his good creation, and the people he loves.
Punishing for sin doesn't make it go away. If I break your window and you thrash me with a cane, that doesn't fix your window; it's still broken. God needs to destroy the power of sin and death. Which he did through Christ's death and resurrection.
When we sing about the cross we don't call it wrath-satisfying, but life-giving. By his stripes we are healed.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
It depends on whether you think of sin in legal terms or other terms. In Orthodoxy we more think of it in terms of sickness. Thus God hates sin, not because he's an egoist and can't stand his will thwarted, or because he's a sheriff who can't stand to have the law broken, but because he loves us and loves the world he made, and it mars his good creation, and the people he loves.
Punishing for sin doesn't make it go away. If I break your window and you thrash me with a cane, that doesn't fix your window; it's still broken. God needs to destroy the power of sin and death. Which he did through Christ's death and resurrection.
When we sing about the cross we don't call it wrath-satisfying, but life-giving. By his stripes we are healed.
Yes. I'm pretty much on that page. It seems properly merciful in human terms (and Merciful in Divine terms) to use the touchstone of sickness.
I don't think it covers all the bases, but it does seem to cover most of them. The domain of human justice is imperfect, but it contains much that is good, well intentioned. The requirement to act justly still applies to us, as well as the requirement to love mercy.
One of the best insights I've gained from the Orthodox through Ship membership is that we err greatly if we understand God's Justice in human justice terms. So in general I'm less convinced by the kind of forensic arguments often used in exploring the meaning of atonement.
When I think about that, much of the paraphenalia of human justice is because we cannot truly know mens rea (guilty mind, evil intent). But the Lord looks on the heart, which is why final judgment contains this understanding that the secrets of all human hearts are disclosed. We do live, all the time, with illusions about ourselves and others. Sometimes I wonder if we could live communally at all if that were not so. And we talk about disillusionment as a bad thing. Whereas the loss of illusion seems to be a very important part of being led into all Truth. We just can't take it all at once, any of us.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Jesus, on behalf of humanity, concedes that the harshest punishment is merited but informs the judge that he loves humanity so much that he would willingly bear such a punishment on it's behalf, unless there is any other way, and that in any event such Grace may persuade humanity to repent. The judge reasons that the demands of justice would be met in either scenario but prefers the submissions made by Jesus on the basis that he shares his love of humanity and agrees that repentance may be the outcome.
It seems to me that such a scenario is so far removed from any other circumstances that any comparisons are made redundant.
If comparisons are made redundant then so are words like justice and love, since if the scenario is so far removed from any other circumstances then we simply wouldn't know how to apply the words.
No, it simply means that there is a distinctive biblical conception of justice. The reason that we know how to apply the word in this context is that God has gradually revealed this through his relationship with his people leading to a full and complete revelation in his son. Had Jesus appeared in a vacuum you would be correct but he didn't he appeared as part of God's chosen people.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Makepiece said:
The verses say repent AND be forgiven. They do not say repent so that you may be forgiven.
Did you read them? Here's one of them:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
You're just flat-out wrong on this one. They say explicitly and directly what you say they do not. In almost the same words!
??? Did you deliberately miss out the words be 'baptized in the name of Jesus Christ'? I understand baptism to be symbolic of both repentance and forgiveness. Baptism is symbolic of being made new- made new having been made clean (forgiven) and made new having repented. This seems to me to be consistent with the verses which inform us that grace is free and not conditional upon anything but faith. Of course faith itself is an act of repentance and acceptance of forgiveness.
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
It depends on whether you think of sin in legal terms or other terms. In Orthodoxy we more think of it in terms of sickness. Thus God hates sin, not because he's an egoist and can't stand his will thwarted, or because he's a sheriff who can't stand to have the law broken, but because he loves us and loves the world he made, and it mars his good creation, and the people he loves.
Punishing for sin doesn't make it go away. If I break your window and you thrash me with a cane, that doesn't fix your window; it's still broken. God needs to destroy the power of sin and death. Which he did through Christ's death and resurrection.
When we sing about the cross we don't call it wrath-satisfying, but life-giving. By his stripes we are healed.
Where do I sign up?
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
[ 02. July 2011, 09:04: Message edited by: Makepiece ]
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
No, it simply means that there is a distinctive biblical conception of justice. The reason that we know how to apply the word in this context is that God has gradually revealed this through his relationship with his people leading to a full and complete revelation in his son. Had Jesus appeared in a vacuum you would be correct but he didn't he appeared as part of God's chosen people.
You can't escape from human ways of forming and using concepts just by saying that the concepts in question are distinctive Biblical concepts. The Biblical conception of justice is a reconception of worldly conceptions of justice: we're supposed to apply the Biblical conception to our ordinary life. The fact that it uses the same words as the pre-revelation pagan words is because it's supposed to be recognisable as a redeemed version of the pre-revelation concepts.
Saying that we're talking about the 'distinctive Biblical conception of justice' can't mean that the conception can only be applied to one distinct event within revelation.
You said that the situation in PSA wasn't comparable to any other situation, and I said that if so, the words we use to describe it are merely nonsense syllables. If the Bible concept of justice gets its meaning from the whole of revelation, then any situation where it's used within revelation must be at least comparable to the other situations depicted within revelation.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
The real problem is the fact that guilt cannot be transferred.
If I get a parking ticket anyone who wants to can pay it in my place.
The reason's that's not considered an abuse is that it's to be supposed that the person who paid your parking ticket in your place might well have given you that same money for some other purpose. It was available to you before and now it no longer is.
Also, monetary fines are reserved for less serious misdeeds. Somebody can pay a fine for you in your place, but nobody can legally go to prison for you in your place. More serious crimes require the actual culprit to take the punishment.
If a gang boss persuades one of his lieutenants to pretend to be him and serve his time in prison, the law doesn't take it that justice has been done when it discovers the deception. Both the gang boss and the lieutenant would be charged additionally with perverting the course of justice.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
The OT Law is full of sin offerings and guilt offerings (not to mention the Day of Atonement and the scapegoat) which seem to involve a symbolic transfer of guilt. It's pretty clear that sacrifice is set up as a method to deal with sin (Hebrews in the NT takes this as read). How if there is not a transfer of guilt does this operate? Outside of a PSA typology it seems like a very bad form of bribery (apple for the teacher?)
The scapegoat seems a symbolic transfer of sin or guilt to me, but the scapegoat is not ritually killed but chased out into the wilderness.
In the case of the sin offering and guilt offering, if it were mere substitution why doesn't the form of sacrifice more resemble an execution? Why is it important that the blood is splashed around? Why are parts of the animal burnt? In many cases, parts of the animal are eaten by the priests or in some cases by the whole people?
An understanding of sacrifice should probably cover things such as the grain offering (Lev 6:14-18). I don't think that the grain is ritually substituted.
Sacrifice is a sharing of fellowship with God. There are sacrifices in which the entire offering is burnt, but the basic pattern is that some of the offering goes to God and some of the offering goes to the people. It's a sign that the people recognise that they need to renew their relationship to God by sharing a meal with God. Even where the whole offering goes to God, the offering comes from the flocks and herds of Israel - there's no intention in the Biblical texts of setting aside a special herd that is only used for sacrifices.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
Indeed Dayd.
Sacrifice in the OT is quite different from how we understand it now.
I don't believe guilt is even in the equation of OT sacrifices. Alot of it is ritual impurity. Which has little to do with moral guilt.
If you want to take Hebrews as the way to go, you have to look much closer at the true reasons for sacrifice in the OT.
Otherwise it just ends up as human sacrifice to appease an angry God (apples anyone?)
Which makes God look rather silly.
[ 02. July 2011, 14:31: Message edited by: Evensong ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Makepiece said:
The verses say repent AND be forgiven. They do not say repent so that you may be forgiven.
Did you read them? Here's one of them:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
You're just flat-out wrong on this one. They say explicitly and directly what you say they do not. In almost the same words!
??? Did you deliberately miss out the words be 'baptized in the name of Jesus Christ'? I understand baptism to be symbolic of both repentance and forgiveness. Baptism is symbolic of being made new- made new having been made clean (forgiven) and made new having repented.
According to Paul baptism is symbolic of death.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Makepiece said:
The verses say repent AND be forgiven. They do not say repent so that you may be forgiven.
Did you read them? Here's one of them:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
You're just flat-out wrong on this one. They say explicitly and directly what you say they do not. In almost the same words!
Thank you MT! This goes deep into the whole misunderstanding engendered by PSA.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Makepiece said:
The verses say repent AND be forgiven. They do not say repent so that you may be forgiven.
Did you read them? Here's one of them:
quote:
Acts of the Apostles 3.19:
Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out,
You're just flat-out wrong on this one. They say explicitly and directly what you say they do not. In almost the same words!
??? Did you deliberately miss out the words be 'baptized in the name of Jesus Christ'? I understand baptism to be symbolic of both repentance and forgiveness. Baptism is symbolic of being made new- made new having been made clean (forgiven) and made new having repented.
According to Paul baptism is symbolic of death.
Quite so, you are referring of course to Romans 6 where baptism is said to be specifically symbolic of Christ's death. Romans 5 v 18 states 'the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men' and v 21 states 'just as sin reigned in death, so also grace might reign through righteousness'.
Romans 6 begins as a rebuttal of the people who criticise the life of grace- 'What shall we say then? Shall we go on sinning, so that grace may increase?'. When Paul describes baptism as dying with Christ then he means that when we received grace (forgiveness!) through his crucifixion we left our old lives behind and turned to new lives. It is not the case then that repentance is a condition for receiving forgiveness. It means that accepting forgiveness is repentance. IMO the reference to baptism in Acts 2 is important then but I do not think the author is explaining causation in Acts 2 I think he is simply placing the two together as they naturally should be. In contrast Romans 5-6 goes into much more detail and ends with the words 'the wages of sin is death but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord'.
[ 02. July 2011, 19:11: Message edited by: Makepiece ]
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
I don't believe guilt is even in the equation of OT sacrifices. Alot of it is ritual impurity. Which has little to do with moral guilt.
What a lovely theory.
Let's examine the evidence: The Book of Leviticus contains much of the OT cultus. The first six chapters make frequent use of the following formula - "If anyone sins (or if a person sins) in a particular way .... he/she must do certain things (confession, restitution) and bring an offering to the priest (sometimes the phrase - that is to the LORD is added). In this way the priest will make atonement for him before the LORD and he will be forgiven of these things he did that made him guilty"
The rest of Chapters 6 and 7 explain how to do the various offerings which include the SIN offering and the GUILT offering.
Yes, clearly, guilt isn't even in the equation of OT sacrifices.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Sorry, reading back to the previous page I see you weren't saying this at all. The
Thank you
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Twangist, I can trot out all the same verses and references as you can but for some reason I don't feel a 'rise' or a warmth towards this as I once did ... well, I do in parts.
Why is that, d'you think? Have I come over all backslidden and everything?
G, I'm sure you are much wiser and holier than me so that must be a rhetorical question.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Romans 6 begins as a rebuttal of the people who criticise the life of grace- 'What shall we say then? Shall we go on sinning, so that grace may increase?'. When Paul describes baptism as dying with Christ then he means that when we received grace (forgiveness!) through his crucifixion we left our old lives behind and turned to new lives. It is not the case then that repentance is a condition for receiving forgiveness. It means that accepting forgiveness is repentance.
It may mean that to you, but it certainly doesn't SAY that.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
The reason's that's not considered an abuse is that it's to be supposed that the person who paid your parking ticket in your place might well have given you that same money for some other purpose. It was available to you before and now it no longer is.
Also, monetary fines are reserved for less serious misdeeds. Somebody can pay a fine for you in your place, but nobody can legally go to prison for you in your place. More serious crimes require the actual culprit to take the punishment.
It is an analogy. All analogies of things that God has revealed about himself don't tend to fit that well especially at the edges (Ice, Water, Steam anyone?
)- just happens to be one that the Bible uses...
quote:
If a gang boss persuades one of his lieutenants to pretend to be him and serve his time in prison, the law doesn't take it that justice has been done when it discovers the deception. Both the gang boss and the lieutenant would be charged additionally with perverting the course of justice.
Jesus wasn't pretending to be a man last time I checked the creeds ........ although as Charles Gore said "The Nestorian Christ is the fitting Saviour of the Pelagian man" or maybe its just a deliberately poor analogy?
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Romans 6 begins as a rebuttal of the people who criticise the life of grace- 'What shall we say then? Shall we go on sinning, so that grace may increase?'. When Paul describes baptism as dying with Christ then he means that when we received grace (forgiveness!) through his crucifixion we left our old lives behind and turned to new lives. It is not the case then that repentance is a condition for receiving forgiveness. It means that accepting forgiveness is repentance.
It may mean that to you, but it certainly doesn't SAY that.
The quote referred is from the Good News version. The words 'so that' do not appear in any other translation I can see. Why are they used in this version? In the NKJ there is a comma after repent and forigveness is clearly linked with baptism not repentance. In NIV is says 'for' and not 'so that'.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
It depends on whether you think of sin in legal terms or other terms. In Orthodoxy we more think of it in terms of sickness. Thus God hates sin, not because he's an egoist and can't stand his will thwarted, or because he's a sheriff who can't stand to have the law broken, but because he loves us and loves the world he made, and it mars his good creation, and the people he loves.
Is it really either/or? Or is that a projection of bad human authority figures onto God (the Sheriff and the Egoist)?
Evo's see all those aspect's in the Bible - even the Prosperity nutters know that "Sozo" means healing as well as salvation in a purely spiritual sense. We do see sin, however as being in essence moral and thus as an affront to a holy God who's character is the very template of morality. The Bible does describe us sinners as unclean, objects of wrath, at enmity with God, enslaved and blinded by sin etc. not just a bit poorly. If Scripture and Tradition use legal terms to describe sin and salvation then it seems churlish to refuse to ourselves. Again, may I reiterate, it's not the whole picture but it is a significant part of the picture.
quote:
Punishing for sin doesn't make it go away. If I break your window and you thrash me with a cane, that doesn't fix your window; it's still broken.
God in the scripture that I quoted from Exodus, in reply to you sometime ago, you may recall, when he showed his glory to Moses declares that he is loving, compassionate, forgives sins and also punishes it. Punishment for sin is in the Scripture and (perhaps excessively graphically) in Tradition - Sorry.
I find Tim Keller's idea that forgiveness involves absorption of cost quite helpful in this regard, YMMV.
quote:
God needs to destroy the power of sin and death. Which he did through Christ's death and resurrection.
And evos would reply PSA explains HOW.
CV, for example, on the other hand as a narrative raises more questions than it answers - it needs a vast doctrinal substructure including the concept of the ius diaboli and some dodgy morality of it's own with God being made some kind of trickster.
PSA is part of satisfaction. Even on Alpha the ideas of reconciliation, redemption and justification are used alongside atonement to try to explain the cross.
The one note samba is only being played on the “tract level” (whatever that is).
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
Punishing for sin doesn't make it go away. If I break your window and you thrash me with a cane, that doesn't fix your window; it's still broken.
God in the scripture that I quoted from Exodus, in reply to you sometime ago, you may recall, when he showed his glory to Moses declares that he is loving, compassionate, forgives sins and also punishes it. Punishment for sin is in the Scripture and (perhaps excessively graphically) in Tradition - Sorry.
True. But that doesn't imply (let alone prove) that what Christ did on the cross was be punished in our stead.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Twangist, I am neither wise nor holy ... but for whatever reason, I am loosening in my adherence to a PSA viewpoint ... it's still there, though, for many of the reasons you outline.
It would be nice to think that most of those who uphold the PSA position are as nuanced and measured as your good self, but that hasn't been my experience. Although I'm sure you're right that it doesn't only operate at the 'tract level'. And, equally, as you state, the old 'ransom theory' is fraught with moral difficulties too - God as a cosmic trickster and so on.
It'd also be nice to think that many of the Orthodox (or any other Christian tradition) were nuanced and theologically-literate too ... but that patently isn't the case either.
I suspect what all of us are up against are pop/soundbite versions of some of this stuff. PSA often comes off worst when it comes to that as it is so easily reduced to a sound-bite - with the tired old courtroom analogy trotted out time and again ...
I suspect that if those who hold to a substitutionary (rather than penal substitutionary) atonement, a moral influence theory or a Christus Victor model were equally as evangelistic - in the more militant sense - as evos and charismatic evos, then we'd see sound-bite versions of those in circulation too.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
You said punishment doesn't make sin go away (and by implication God doesn't punish sin - that would make Him schizophrenic (which you did also say) as He also forgives it).
I said God sez he does punish sin.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
suspect that if those who hold to a substitutionary (rather than penal substitutionary) atonement, a moral influence theory or a Christus Victor model were equally as evangelistic - in the more militant sense - as evos and charismatic evos, then we'd see sound-bite versions of those in circulation too.
That would make a great thread - bad tract writing in the style of ....
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
[QUOTE]
You said that the situation in PSA wasn't comparable to any other situation, and I said that if so, the words we use to describe it are merely nonsense syllables. If the Bible concept of justice gets its meaning from the whole of revelation, then any situation where it's used within revelation must be at least comparable to the other situations depicted within revelation.
I said it wasn't comparable I did not say it was beyond comprehension. The court room analogy I used shows that I believe the situation can be comprehended even using a purely secular conception of justice. I believe it is incomparable because I do not believe that an advocate like Jesus would exist in a human court room and I do not believe that a judge like God would either. Do you believe that the demands of justice are fully met in human court rooms? How does anyone know whether 'justice' is anything more than a lofty ideal that few aspire to and even fewer attain?
Having said that I do agree of course that there are limitations to any model due to human fallibility. One of those limitations is bound to include the restrictions that language places on us and our limited experience. This is why we debate.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Now that's a great idea, Twangist!
If I weren't so tired and needing my bed, I might be tempted to start one.
How about this for a starter?
'God loves you and has a wonderful plan for your life ...'
Hey, where have I heard that before?
Now, let's see, how would it proceed in a classic, 'ransom theory' sound-bite way?
'And so God tricked the devil into having Jesus crucified. But because Jesus was completely innocent, he was God-made-man and completely innocent, God the Father raised him from the dead and ...'
Well, it could be done but you'd have to start explaining the Trinity and so on as well. Ta-da! Now there's another flaw with the tract approach ...
We really must have a go at this. But now I need to sleep.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
You said punishment doesn't make sin go away (and by implication God doesn't punish sin - that would make Him schizophrenic (which you did also say) as He also forgives it).
I said God sez he does punish sin.
But that doesn't make it go away.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
You said punishment doesn't make sin go away (and by implication God doesn't punish sin - that would make Him schizophrenic (which you did also say) as He also forgives it).
I said God sez he does punish sin.
But that doesn't make it go away.
Lots of things about Salvation and how it works don't make sense.
From an earthly point of view, the Cross didn't do a durned thing. It didn't conquer death- we still die. It didn't conquer sin- we still sin. The conquest of death and sin are only evident through the eyes of faith as a matter of hope in God's economy.
To me, CV makes at least some sense in that God takes the initiative to repair the condition of humankind in its separation from him by taking death into himself and remaking it into life. People can't do it. And the renewal of life opens the way to being what the Godhead wants us to be.
(Most?) people can't chose never to sin. It is not in their capability. Punishment may get some people to repent just as some people go to prison and come out determined to turn their lives around. But there is quite a bit of recidivism.
And what is the point of punishing an innocent man/God? Sin is not punished in such an action. In fact even a non-divine person being being punished for sin is not the same as sin being punished. A person is being punished. A person who besides being a sinner has also been moved by Provident grace to be kind and loving on many or few occasions. So the Grace God shared with his people is also being punished along with the sin.
So I am left to trust that Christ has me in his hand and that it's a good place to be. And that the suffering he went through seemed well worth it to him.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Of course, theological what ifs are an unusually bad way to make doctrine. Were these trick questions?
Trick questions? No, definitely not.
I guess the point I was trying to make is that... how can I put this diplomatically? To the more theologically literate defenders of PSA, the doctrine itself is poorly represented by the direct courtroom analogy you encounter in the tracts and from the guy with the loudspeaker on the street corner. When we scratch the surface of it on these threads I sometimes come away with the impression that what you're defending isn't all that close to what we're attacking.
Yes. I quite agree. The tract version is basically misleading by itself. In it's defence, that's true of nearly any short version of an atonement model by itself - eg. the healing of a sickness, which by itself implies no sense of moral culpability for sin.
quote:
Take an example - you seem to be saying, and +Wright seems to be saying, that what's going on on the Cross is God demonstrating his hatred of sin in the most emphatic way possible (well, other than obliterating the world I suppose). We could have a discussion about that. But in my head it has little resemblance to the tract version - our sins deserve eternal torment according to the heavenly law code, Christ suffers torment and death instead and that's penal justice satisfied (except as most of us except the tractists are agreed, it's stretched the analogy to breaking point).
I couldn't agree more. To be "penal substitution" only makes sense if the law itself is an emanation of God's character which is then vindicated by Jesus death.
quote:
I sometimes wonder if this is a kind of party-political thing. You can't come out and criticise the tract version because that would be taken to be a denial of your Evangelicalism, even though the tract version isn't what you believe. Is there any truth in that?
Maybe. I guess for me IRL it's more of a pastoral thing. You have to be very gentle with people who have come to faith through faulty understandings of anything. Evangelical churches are full of people who saw God's penal justice at the cross, were terrified and put their trust in Jesus to rescue them. It's an incomplete, possible even misleading understanding, yet I believe these people are God's saints. Making money and a name for yourself by dropping in references to "cosmic child abuse" in order to wake people up to the parts of their understanding that are wrong - well it's bound to provoke the reaction that it did.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
How about this for a starter?
'God loves you and has a wonderful plan for your life ...'
Hey, where have I heard that before?
Now, let's see, how would it proceed in a classic, 'ransom theory' sound-bite way?
'And so God tricked the devil into having Jesus crucified. But because Jesus was completely innocent, he was God-made-man and completely innocent, God the Father raised him from the dead and ...'
How about
The Devil has captured you, he doesn't love you and has a rather nasty plan for your life ..
Or Hypercalvinist
God might love you (we can't be sure of His eternal decree) and has inscrutible plans for your life
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Actually, Leprechaun, I'm not convinced that many contemporary evangelicals are 'terrified' into their conversion in the way that their forebears may have been. And that's something that very strict capital E Evangelicals are concerned about - I've seen articles suggesting that Graham Kendrick, for instance, isn't truly 'saved' because his written accounts don't put sufficient emphasis on the horror of sin and his recoiling from it in repentance ...
I do wonder, backing up the thread a bit, that the reason why the chapels around AberVicar which have emptied or are closing down isn't so much because of their emphasis on PSA but because it was applied in a highly judgemental, arid and unremittingly grim fashion.
Whereas, with Mudfrog's Salvationists and other more 'lively' forms of evangelicalism the emphasis on PSA and sin etc is tempered by a more upbeat approach to the results/benefits (as it were) of salvation.
In my experience of charismatic evangelicalism, it's the lively music and the informality that initially attracts and draws people in. To the extent that I've often wondered whether these churches would get the same results and the same level of following even if they ditched PSA for another model. I'm sure some of them would.
My experience of conservative evangelicalism has been that there isn't a great deal of conviction of sin, wailing and gnashing of teeth their either - people tend to grasp the propositions intellectually through the preaching and teaching and conform to it as a consequence - and their hearts are often 'strangely warmed' in the same way that the charismatics' or the livelier bunches' are - only in a less demonstrative way.
So whilst I do see PSA as a central plank in all of these churches, I do wonder, to all practical intents and purposes, how much it really contributes to people's experience and understanding. That might seem to contradict what I've said further upthread about PSA being so ingrained that it's hard to envisage evangelicalism without it ... but this somewhat provocative thought has just occurred to me.
I'm not saying, Leprechaun, that you don't come across people who have had that sense of a 'fear of the Lord' or a dread at sin, or that kind of old-fashioned conviction of sin so rendolent of revivalist literature, or the kind of struggles that you get in Bunyan's writings - but this does seem pretty rare to me - across the broad spectrum of evangelicalism as a whole.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Hehe, I'll do a moral influence model sound-bite / tract:
"God has a plan for your life! (Compulsory cheesy start)
Many people live in ways that are harmful and hurt others, leading to much of the pain and suffering that are in the world. This falls short of God's ideal for how humanity should live. God wants to see people and communities love and care for each other. He sent many prophets, and finally sent his Son, to teach us his will for their lives. Through the Church Jesus founded, the lives of millions of people have been transformed. This is your chance to join his movement and change your life, and to help make a positive difference to the lives of those around you.
Be the change! (Compulsory cheesy end)"
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
PSA is very much embedded in my psyche - I've been around the doctrine for all my Christian life...
All that said, I find it hard to understand how some people come away from the scriptures (and yes, we all read them through the lens of our own tradition) without any sense that there is a substitutionary aspect
What you and a few others said here and elsewhere on the thread really resonated with my experience. For a long time after I had become dissatisfied with penal substitionary theory and was beginning to doubt it was biblical, I could still not break the habit of reading it into every passage. Whenever I read my Bible and saw a word like "cross" or "sin" I would think immediately of penal substitution and have to quite consciously challenge myself to disassociate the two.
It seems to me that us humans, when we are really really familiar with a particular doctrine, we really do seem to be inclined to interpret almost anything as a reference to that. I can easily believe that a zealous evangelical when reading their Bible might well see a reference to penal substitution as much once per chapter on average, while an Eastern Orthodox believer who hasn't been exposed to the doctrine of penal substitution might simply never think of it even once when they read their Bible cover to cover. Our psyche and familiarity with doctrines seems to have a truly massive impact on how often those ideas trigger as we read the Bible. We read with the glasses of our mind, and our minds can be tinted.
I think the biggest thing that helps with this is knowledge of alternative views. Then when we hit a trigger-term, instead of our minds leaping straight to the only idea we're familiar with which fits that trigger-term, instead we get a diversity of possibilities brought to mind.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Interesting point, Starlight. We can each look at the same passages and come away with completely different views.
That said, I still think there are some verses about 'wrath' and so on that I find it difficult, if not well nigh impossible, to see in anything other than the standard evangelical way. I've not got time now, but I'll dig them out ...
Meanwhile, I liked your stab at a moral influence sound-bite tract.
Is it just me, but the sound-bite alternative theories we've had so far don't sound anywhere near as sound-bite-y as the standard PSA ones. Which may or may not tell us something ...
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
I don't believe guilt is even in the equation of OT sacrifices. Alot of it is ritual impurity. Which has little to do with moral guilt.
What a lovely theory.
Let's examine the evidence: The Book of Leviticus contains much of the OT cultus. The first six chapters make frequent use of the following formula - "If anyone sins (or if a person sins) in a particular way .... he/she must do certain things (confession, restitution) and bring an offering to the priest (sometimes the phrase - that is to the LORD is added). In this way the priest will make atonement for him before the LORD and he will be forgiven of these things he did that made him guilty"
The rest of Chapters 6 and 7 explain how to do the various offerings which include the SIN offering and the GUILT offering.
Yes, clearly, guilt isn't even in the equation of OT sacrifices.
My point was that guilt in Leviticus has different connotations to guilt today because Leviticus was often concerned with the pure and impure.
You're right the word appears, but the meaning is different.
e.g.
quote:
Leviticus 5.2:
Or when any of you touch any unclean thing—whether the carcass of an unclean beast or the carcass of unclean livestock or the carcass of an unclean swarming thing—and are unaware of it, you have become unclean, and are guilty.
Leviticus 5.3:
Or when you touch human uncleanness—any uncleanness by which one can become unclean—and are unaware of it, when you come to know it, you shall be guilty.
We don't do pure and impure today.
Regardless. I fail to see the connection with punishment.
And I fail to see to the connection with human sacrifice.
The only OT text that might have bearing on punishment is the Isaiah one and that only makes sense if it's the expected messiah and not Israel being spoken of.
Which is of course, hard to prove.
Historical critical scholarship pits the suffering servant as Israel, not Jesus.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
You said punishment doesn't make sin go away (and by implication God doesn't punish sin - that would make Him schizophrenic (which you did also say) as He also forgives it).
I said God sez he does punish sin.
But that doesn't make it go away.
Lots of things about Salvation and how it works don't make sense.
From an earthly point of view, the Cross didn't do a durned thing. It didn't conquer death- we still die. It didn't conquer sin- we still sin. The conquest of death and sin are only evident through the eyes of faith as a matter of hope in God's economy.
It did conquer death in that we still die but we have life in the next world.
It didn't conquer sin tho. Unless we change our lives to reflect the example of Jesus. Then we get further along the path to conquering sin. Theoretically.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Let's examine the evidence: The Book of Leviticus contains much of the OT cultus. The first six chapters make frequent use of the following formula - "If anyone sins (or if a person sins) in a particular way .... he/she must do certain things (confession, restitution) and bring an offering to the priest (sometimes the phrase - that is to the LORD is added). In this way the priest will make atonement for him before the LORD and he will be forgiven of these things he did that made him guilty"
The rest of Chapters 6 and 7 explain how to do the various offerings which include the SIN offering and the GUILT offering.
Ancient sacrificial systems can be difficult for modern readers to understand. English translations of ancient Hebrew terms and concepts do not always do them justice. So be careful of naively reading Leviticus and assuming you've got the right understanding of it. I feel your post indicates significant errors in understanding. In light of that, I have a book recommendation for you: Milgrom's Commentary on Leviticus.
Jacob Milgrom is the world-renowned authority on Leviticus, and the above commentary is a fairly easy to read single volume abridged version of his famous 3-volume 2500+ page commentary on Leviticus. It will bring you up to speed on the different types of sacrifice and how the Israelites understood them. (Or you could read my own book which has a drive-by summary of the Old Testament sacrificial system in the wider context of New Testament atonement thought. But let me be the first to admit that Milgrom knows far more about Leviticus than I do.)
[ 03. July 2011, 11:52: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
We can each look at the same passages and come away with completely different views.
Yes, this phenomena has always fascinated me. I was amused to see it recently displayed on another board where a Catholic poster saw sacraments being referred to in Rom 3:25 because of the references to the "blood" of Christ (Eucharist) and "remission of sins" (Baptism).
quote:
That said, I still think there are some verses about 'wrath' and so on that I find it difficult, if not well nigh impossible, to see in anything other than the standard evangelical way. I've not got time now, but I'll dig them out ...
Sure they'd be interesting to look at. I am always fascinated by how passages can be understood in different ways.
I assume the verses about wrath you are referring to are Rom 5:9 and 1 Thes 5:9, because those are about the only references where wrath is associated with Christian salvation. More usually "salvation" in the NT letters is associated with rescue from sinful ways of living rather than rescue from God's wrath.
quote:
Is it just me, but the sound-bite alternative theories we've had so far don't sound anywhere near as sound-bite-y as the standard PSA ones. Which may or may not tell us something ...
I think PSA is a lot easier to pin-down than any of the other theories. It's very clear and straight-forward about what happened and how it happened. There's only a very limited number of possible variations on it. Whereas if you look at the other views, they are all much more flexible and prone to variation:
In the moral influence view, Christ'a teachings, his example, martyrdom, resurrection, the Church, the Holy Spirit etc all have complex and overlapping roles to play.
In the ransom view, there are many possible scenarios regarding the Devil and Jesus and their interactions which have been held by different advocates.
The 'Christus Victor' view spans a huge spectrum of possible sub-views from moral influence through to ransom.
etc.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Indeed - but which Hebrew translations did you consult?
And how many of them were Jewish, as opposed to Christian?
Leo, don't link to a clearly biased source then accuse others of being biased.
Fair point, though you haven't answered my first question.
Interesting that this is still not answered. Rashi sees the servant as Israel, suffering because of the transgressions of other nations i.e. they transgressed by persecuting Israel.
So does Sanhedrin 98b in the Babylonian Talmud.
The Jerusalem Talmud (Shekalim 5:1) says it's Rabbi Akiva.
Midrash Tana Devei Eliyahu says it's the righteous of Israel.
The Revised Standard Version Oxford Study Edition Bible says it's Israel.
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Interesting that this is still not answered. Rashi sees the servant as Israel, suffering because of the transgressions of other nations i.e. they transgressed by persecuting Israel.
So does Sanhedrin 98b in the Babylonian Talmud.
The Jerusalem Talmud (Shekalim 5:1) says it's Rabbi Akiva.
Midrash Tana Devei Eliyahu says it's the righteous of Israel.
Do you have any citations that take the group view from sources dating before the current era?
On their own it is impossible to say whether or not these particular sources take the view that they do as a form of Jewish apologetic against the views Christianity held of the same passage (which date from fairly early on).
Even within sources from the current era, the earlier sources are more likely to claim a particular individual as subject of this passage.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well, I might be naive but I've tended to see the Suffering Servant of Isaiah 53 as referring to Israel, but legitimately applied by the Christian Church to Christ in a similar way that other OT typology is applied to Christ.
I don't take as woodenly literal a view of 1 Peter 1:10-12 as I might have done at one time, but even so ... there are mysteries here. 'Even angels long to look into these things'.
Could it not be either/or but both/and?
Coming back to the wrath thing - yes, those verses in Romans and Thessalonians were among those I had in mind.
So how do we deal with Ephesians 2:3 which apparently tells us that we 'were by nature objects of wrath' - presumably that means that we were objects of God's wrath whilst we remained in our unregenerate state. That's how it reads to me - and, admittedly, I'm reading it through Western and particularly evangelical (somewhat post-evangelical) lenses.
What do we make of that passage?
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Actually, Leprechaun, I'm not convinced that many contemporary evangelicals are 'terrified' into their conversion in the way that their forebears may have been.
[...]
My experience of conservative evangelicalism has been that there isn't a great deal of conviction of sin, wailing and gnashing of teeth their either - people tend to grasp the propositions intellectually through the preaching and teaching and conform to it as a consequence - and their hearts are often 'strangely warmed' in the same way that the charismatics' or the livelier bunches' are - only in a less demonstrative way.
I was reading some accounts of 19th century Anglicans the other day, and over a hundred years ago many evangelicals seemed to think of excessive dwelling on sin and suffering and the Blood of Christ as a Roman Catholic failing. The supposed Protestant approach was more to recognise that God forgives and saves us and get on with life.
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Well, I might be naive but I've tended to see the Suffering Servant of Isaiah 53 as referring to Israel, but legitimately applied by the Christian Church to Christ in a similar way that other OT typology is applied to Christ.
Applied by Philip when he met the Ethiopian under the direct inspiration of the Holy Spirit, and included in the canon of the New Testament. That sort of makes it official.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Interesting that this is still not answered. Rashi sees the servant as Israel, suffering because of the transgressions of other nations i.e. they transgressed by persecuting Israel.
So does Sanhedrin 98b in the Babylonian Talmud.
The Jerusalem Talmud (Shekalim 5:1) says it's Rabbi Akiva.
Midrash Tana Devei Eliyahu says it's the righteous of Israel.
Do you have any citations that take the group view from sources dating before the current era?
On their own it is impossible to say whether or not these particular sources take the view that they do as a form of Jewish apologetic against the views Christianity held of the same passage (which date from fairly early on).
Even within sources from the current era, the earlier sources are more likely to claim a particular individual as subject of this passage.
How about Ecclesiasticus/Sirach 49:10 written in 180-190 BCE, wwhere the Servant is identified as Elijah, who will return to “restore the tribes of Jacob” (quoting Isa 49:6)?
Or 1 Enoch 71:14-17, just on the cusp of BCE/CE where Enoch is the Servant?
Then again, the Dead Sea Scrolls show the Qum'ran community itself as the Servant.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well, yes, Ken. It's clear that the Early Church adopted that understanding very early on and your Acts passage demonstrates that. But that doesn't mean that the Isaiah 53 passage doesn't also refer to Israel as the Suffering Servant ... I think Tom Wright is good on this sort of thing ... Christ as a kind of representative 'Israel' as it were ...
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Sorry Ken, I didn't acknowledge your reference to 19th century evangelicals ... yes, that certainly rings true from what I've heard. I daresay, High Tory though he was, someone like Lord Shaftesbury was a paradigm example ... he had very little time for the Salvation Army for instance and was suspicious of 'enthusiasm'.
And although he was a True Blue Tory and by no means radical in any way, his reforms to working conditions etc were among the most beneficial and far-reaching ever to have been introduced in this country.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
The reason's that's not considered an abuse is that it's to be supposed that the person who paid your parking ticket in your place might well have given you that same money for some other purpose.
It is an analogy. All analogies of things that God has revealed about himself don't tend to fit that well especially at the edges
If penal substitutionary atonement is an analogy, not only doesn't it fit especially well around the edges, it's completely the wrong shape at the centre.
quote:
quote:
If a gang boss persuades one of his lieutenants to pretend to be him and serve his time in prison, the law doesn't take it that justice has been done when it discovers the deception.
Jesus wasn't pretending to be a man last time I checked the creeds .
Nor, once the law discovers the deception, is the lieutenant pretending to be the gang boss. If the lieutenant offered to take the boss' place without any deception he wouldn't even get a hearing.
Jesus' humanity is strictly irrelevant to PSA. PSA requires that Jesus be an acceptable substitute, not that Jesus be an acceptable representative. That's why it's not PRA, for penal representative atonement. If the analogy was for example that Jesus was the head of the firm who took responsibility and resigned when the firm collectively does something culpable then the analogy could get going. The head of the firm is a proper representative of the firm. But even then, the head of the firm can't (justly) go to prison let alone be executed in place of the subordinates.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
So how do we deal with Ephesians 2:3 which apparently tells us that we 'were by nature objects of wrath' - presumably that means that we were objects of God's wrath whilst we remained in our unregenerate state. That's how it reads to me - and, admittedly, I'm reading it through Western and particularly evangelical (somewhat post-evangelical) lenses.
What do we make of that passage?
The New Century commentary by Mitton says that 'anger/wrath' is improperly applied to God and that 'children of wrath' is a Hebrew idiom like 'children of disobedience' meaning 'people whose lives are marked by disobedience. 'So children of wrath means people in whose lives you can see the effect of wrath...a process of retribution that God has built into the structure of the universe.'
He suggests that this is the way Paul regards 'moral deterioration'.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
The court room analogy I used shows that I believe the situation can be comprehended even using a purely secular conception of justice.
According to a purely secular conception of justice, your court room analogy is unjust. In the purely secular conception of justice the advocate is foolish and the judge is corrupt. As the analogy is supposed to show that God is not corrupt, it's clear that the analogy cannot be comprehended using any purely secular conception of justice. And no attempt to explain any other genuine conception is forthcoming.
quote:
I believe it is incomparable because I do not believe that an advocate like Jesus would exist in a human court room and I do not believe that a judge like God would either.
You might find a judge like that in the analogy in North Korea or some similar country where they might seriously think about locking up any lawyer who seriously tries to defend political prisoners.
quote:
Do you believe that the demands of justice are fully met in human court rooms? How does anyone know whether 'justice' is anything more than a lofty ideal that few aspire to and even fewer attain?
There may well be no such thing as pure white, but should someone say that according to the divine standards of whiteness only crude oil is really white then they would be talking nonsense.
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
How about Ecclesiasticus/Sirach 49:10 written in 180-190 BCE, wwhere the Servant is identified as Elijah, who will return to “restore the tribes of Jacob” (quoting Isa 49:6)?
Or 1 Enoch 71:14-17, just on the cusp of BCE/CE where Enoch is the Servant?
Then again, the Dead Sea Scrolls show the Qum'ran community itself as the Servant.
The first two show that before the current era the majority interpretation was to identify Isaiah 53 with a single person (which was what I was contending) rather than a group.
What's your citation for the last example?
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Posted by Twangist
Ever paid for anything for someone else? was that unjust or simply kind?
The real problem is the fact that guilt cannot be transferred.
No amount of Christ "paying the penalty" can alter the fact that the guilt lies with the sinner even when the penalty is paid..
Guilt can only be forgiven. Which God alone does. And He did it countless times long before Christ died.
This is a very important question - how is it fair for Christ to die in my place, and for me to be forgiven as a result? How does Jesus' death do anything about my guilt? How does it connect?
I agree that it's not fair to punish one person for something some other unconnected person has done, and let the other person go free.
But I think the Bible answers this question clearly. Jesus is not a separate party, disconnected to us. In Romans 6, Paul talks about Christians being united with Jesus in his death and resurrection.
This is one of the reasons why the Incarnation is so important - he became one of us, so we can become one with him. As such, he can represent us as our priest and sacrifice - see Hebrews, especially chapter 2:17.
Paul also talks about this in 2 Corinthians 5 when he said "We implore you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God. For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God". Luther called this "the Great Exchange" but in another sense nothing is exchanged because exchange implies distance or separation when in fact we become one with Christ.
PSA only makes sense with a strong theology of the Incarnation. Jesus can only take our sins and give us his righteousness if he is fully human, if we can be united to him. And if Jesus is fully God, then PSA isn't "cosmic child abuse", but Jesus' death is an act of loving, willing self-sacrifice.
Evangelicals can sometimes be guilty of treating PSA in isolation and having a distorted theology as a result, but that doesn't necessarily invalidate it. PSA isn't a complete explanation - it interlocks with the rest of Christian theology, with incarnation, trinity and all the rest - but I still believe it's a true, important and useful explanation when within the framework of Christian orthodoxy.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I know I often sound like I'm vacillating - 'how long must you waver between two opinions?' - but the way The Revolutionist puts it does make a lot more sense to me than the way Makepiece does (sorry Makepiece) and fits with John Stott's approach in 'The Cross of Christ' - where he is quite scathing of crude analogies like the commonly used court-room one. I was instinctively never very happy with that one even before I started reading around the subject and trying to make more sense of these matters.
PSA does make sense in the way The Revolutionist has described it here if, and it's a big IF, we take a Western rather than an Eastern view of original sin. Whatever the case, I do like The Revolutionist's emphasis on our union with Christ - as that is something that can get overlooked in some evangelical presentations of these issues. Some, but by no means all.
I dunno where that leaves me though...
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
PSA does make sense in the way The Revolutionist has described it here if, and it's a big IF, we take a Western rather than an Eastern view of original sin. Whatever the case, I do like The Revolutionist's emphasis on our union with Christ - as that is something that can get overlooked in some evangelical presentations of these issues. Some, but by no means all.
I dunno where that leaves me though...
Me neither.
But, I do think the classic evangelical approach has been to start with PSA and then when questioned on "how can one person take the punishment of another?", follow it with union. (Or actually, not follow it with union, but just say "God says it works so it does"
)
I often wonder and consider what it would mean to start with union - you can be part of God's trinitarian life - and follow with PSA as a means.
If we did that more maybe all the anti-PSAers on this thread would be less hopping mad about it!
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
I think the reason evangelicals often begin with (and sometimes don't go any further than) a basic explanation of PSA is because the question that they're trying to answer is "how can I be forgiven?" But as Tim Keller pointed out - himself an evangelical - that's not the question most people in our culture are asking.
Maybe a generation or two ago, a Christian sense of morality was more widely accepted. Being a moral, upstanding person was one of people's deepest values and concerns
But today, people are less likely to think that way. For most people, their happiness, freedom and autonomy is much more important than objective notions of morality. So evangelical Christians spend a lot of time trying to convince people of objective morality. They try to get people to ask "how can I be forgiven?" so they can give PSA as the answer.
While getting people to recognise objective morality is important in the long run, it's a rather round-about way of doing things. Why not focus in on those aspects of the Atonement that speak to the questions and concerns of the present generation, not that of 50 years ago?
For a culture that places a high value on freedom and autonomy, it's more relevant but no less Biblically faithful to explain sin in terms of slavery. Rather than focusing on sin as law-breaking, explain how sin enslaves and controls us. Rather starting with PSA as a model, focus on the Exodus, and how Jesus is our Passover lamb who brings us out of slavery, for example. True freedom is found in knowing and trusting Jesus.
The best way to explain the Cross will vary according to situation, to culture and to individual. We need the full palette of metaphors and images, to find out what people value most, and show how the Gospel both subverts and fulfils that desire.
And evangelicals do understand this need for different models: Mark Driscoll of Mars Hill Church, Seattle, another prominent evangelical, wrote a book called "Death By Love", which has 12 chapters on different aspects of the Cross applied to different real life situations. It begins with Substitutionary Atonement, and covers Christus Victor, Redemption, Sacrifice, Ransom, Revelation and several more. So even among conservative evangelical writers and preachers, there's an acceptance of the importance of multiple metaphors.
I think that sooner or later any explanation of the Gospel has to tackle our own personal sin and guilt, and that PSA is a true and helpful way of explaining that dimension of it. PSA is helpful, but isn't always the place to start.
Posted by Makepiece (# 10454) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I know I often sound like I'm vacillating - 'how long must you waver between two opinions?' - but the way The Revolutionist puts it does make a lot more sense to me than the way Makepiece does (sorry Makepiece) and fits with John Stott's approach in 'The Cross of Christ' - where he is quite scathing of crude analogies like the commonly used court-room one. I was instinctively never very happy with that one even before I started reading around the subject and trying to make more sense of these matters.
Just to clarify I wasn't putting the forward the court room analogy as a way of promoting PSA I was just criticising Dafyd's original statement that evangelicals are being hypocritical because they would not see that as justice in any other context. Personally I think PSA can be perceived as just in spite of the unique scenario it applies to but I think me and Dafyd will have to agree to disagree about that.
In relation to PSA itself I'm sitting on the fence but the really angry people seem to be against PSA and that is making me more inclined emotionally to agree with it.
Posted by Patdys (# 9397) on
:
The atonement is our way of describing the significance of Christ and the cross.
We consider the atonement in terms and ideas we can comprehend and relate to. It is often described in terms of our government or legal system- as we (think we) can understand that.
All our descriptions are wrong and incomplete. PSA is just one more.
Jesus wept.
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Seems to me that we have got ourselves into a quandary.
PSA implies that sin must be punished and a penalty paid.
That punishment is dished out by God.
But what if we query the whole idea that we are punished for our sins with the consequent argument that Christ was punished "for our sins"?
What if we argue that we are punished BY our sins?
The punishment we bring upon ourselves being separation from God.
What then of an atonement doctrine?
[ 03. July 2011, 21:03: Message edited by: shamwari ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well I can understand that, Makepiece, it's partly a tribal thing and partly because some of the anti-PSA-ers can be pretty darn smug about their opposition to it ...
I'm like you, if people attack something I'll often rally to its defence, even though it might be a position I'm not that comfortable with myself.
I don't have the visceral, appalled reaction to PSA that some of its opponents have - perhaps because I've been marinated in it for so long myself. Or perhaps because, psychologically, the sin/guilt thing does resonate with me ... I do have a tendency to beat myself up and to suffer from evangelical guilt - which can be just as debilitating as Catholic guilt ...
But then, the atonement is meant to free us from all that - the guilt and the shame.
I think The Revolutionist is onto something in terms of starting from a different place. A lot of evangelical preaching seems to me to be trying to catch people out on very minor technicalities - 'You might not have murdered anyone but you might have stolen a paper clip from work - that's just as bad in God's book ...'
Well, no it isn't. One of the daftest things anyone ever said to me was when someone I still greatly respect, told me that God had shown him that being into steam engines and being something of a steam enthusiast and geek was just as bad as being into pornography. Well, no it isn't ... it isn't anything like it at all.
Ok, so I can see that extreme steam geekery could be harmful but it's nowhere near the same thing as being into hard-core porn. There's no comparison.
Ok, so I know what he meant and where he was coming from, but his observation revealed what I now take to be a fundamental flaw in the evangelical approach. It doesn't take creation and God's good gifts seriously enough (very often) and becomes binary and dualistic. However you cut it, that remains the case.
The mileage varies, of course, and there have been many notable evangelical hobbyists, stamp collectors and so on ...
But c'mon ...
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Ok, so I know what he meant and where he was coming from, but his observation revealed what I now take to be a fundamental flaw in the evangelical approach. It doesn't take creation and God's good gifts seriously enough (very often) and becomes binary and dualistic. However you cut it, that remains the case.
Okay if I steal that for my Greenbelt talk this year?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Go ahead, Doc Tor, as long as you credit me. Use my Ship name if necessary ...
But money would be better. Is there a market for conference speakers on this subject?
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
there have been many notable evangelical stamp collectors
Was it all that mounting which they particularly enjoyed?
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Well, I might be naive but I've tended to see the Suffering Servant of Isaiah 53 as referring to Israel, but legitimately applied by the Christian Church to Christ in a similar way that other OT typology is applied to Christ.
The reading of the Servant of Isaiah 53 which I've come to favour, sees it as originally about the Jews going into exile in Babylon.
The idea is that some Israelites were sinning, and so God punished the nation with exile. Those Jews who were righteous ended up in exile along with those Jews who had sinned, due to the sins of the sinful Jews. While in exile, the righteous Jews were subjected to ridicule, but they remained faithful and took the opportunity to demonstrate their faithfulness. God responded to their faithfulness with mercy and Israel returned from exile. Here the sinful Jews benefited along with the righteous ones due to the faithfulness of the righteous.
Isaiah 53 itself is quite terse and doesn't spell this out in full detail. But the latter Jewish writings of Maccabees make this logic a lot clearer, with Israel first suffering because of sinful Israelites and then receiving blessings due to the faithfulness of the Maccabean Martyrs. The notions of corporate blessings/punishment for Israel and that God alternatively responds to sin by punishing it and then to faithfulness by blessing it, are quite common themes throughout the Old Testament.
Given the original context, I think it makes good sense to apply the suffering servant passages to anyone who is righteous and suffers. The passage is about a certain type of person in a certain type of situation and is saying that God responds positively to that. Thus though Isaiah may have been thinking specifically of Jews in exile in Babylon, the motif applies equally to others.
Thus I think the Jewish interpretations of the Servant as Israel, as Enoch, as Rabbi Akiva, as the Macccabean Martyrs, as the Qumran community are all right, as are the Christian interpretations of the Servant as Christ and as the various Christian martyrs (this passage was cited with reference to the early Christian martyrs in some of the ancient martyrdom accounts). Both Jews and the early Christians seem to have regarded the passage as a motif of righteous suffering that could be correctly applied to any such individual or group.
quote:
Coming back to the wrath thing - yes, those verses in Romans and Thessalonians were among those I had in mind.
So how do we deal with Ephesians 2:3 which apparently tells us that we 'were by nature objects of wrath' - presumably that means that we were objects of God's wrath whilst we remained in our unregenerate state. That's how it reads to me - and, admittedly, I'm reading it through Western and particularly evangelical (somewhat post-evangelical) lenses.
What do we make of that passage?
I've come to understand the idea of God punishing the wicked and rewarding the righteous as the key to the wrath terminology. The notion that God rewards good and punishes evil is a massive theme in both the Old Testament, but is no less so in the New Testament, with the notion of a final judgment according to one's works being repeatedly spoken of. In Jewish thought, the way to avoid God's negative judgment was to repent and stop doing wicked things and do good things instead. In my reading of the New Testament I see that concept hugely present. Through obeying Christ's commands, people can turn from wrong ways of living which lead to wrath, to right ways of living which lead to a positive judgment. So Ephesians 2 begins by pointing out that the recipients used to live badly doing evil things and so were deserving of wrath. But God out of grace sent Jesus to change their lives, and now they do good.
This is where I think PSA particularly misses its focus. For PSA is overly concerned at atoning for the guilt of sin. Whereas the Bible seems more interested in behaviour and achieving a positive change in that behaviour. God doesn't seem particularly interested in guilt, and numerous passages speak of free forgiveness conditional only on repentance (ie a change in behaviour). But God does seem very interested in people changing their behaviour.
[ 03. July 2011, 23:34: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Gamaliel said:
I don't have the visceral, appalled reaction to PSA that some of its opponents have - perhaps because I've been marinated in it for so long myself.
That can't be the whole explanation. I was not born Orthodox nor did I spend my first years as a Christian steeping in Orthodox soteriology.
---------------
More generally: We baptised a baby today and one of the prayers during the service reminded me of this thread. It was, forgive him all his sins, known and unknown, committed in knowledge or in ignorance.
On a juridical understanding of sin, this is nonsense. You can't be held accountable for something you didn't do intentionally. So "sin" on that view is seen as actively choosing to disobey God. Whereas on the Orthodox view it is seen more in terms of stepping outside of God's will, whether intentionally or accidentally. And so the whole wrath-and-punishment model falls short of the mark. Yes, I am guilty of intentional transgress when I choose to sin. But I am not guilty of intentional transgress when I sin unintentionally. And yet that sin still needs to be dealt with and removed and healed. But not punished for.
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
Mousethief quote:
On a juridical understanding of sin, this is nonsense. You can't be held accountable for something you didn't do intentionally.
I thought that "ignorance of the law is no defence".
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
Mousethief quote:
On a juridical understanding of sin, this is nonsense. You can't be held accountable for something you didn't do intentionally.
I thought that "ignorance of the law is no defence".
I dunno. That looks good in print. I've never had a western Christian admit there could be such a thing as involuntary sins, and the reason given was always that sin was knowingly disobeying God. I have a feeling we're about to find out what people think about this subject.
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
quote:
I've never had a western Christian admit there could be such a thing as involuntary sins, and the reason given was always that sin was knowingly disobeying God. I have a feeling we're about to find out what people think about this subject.
I'm not so sure you are correct.
Two questions:
1. Doesn't the notion of "original sin" imply that even a newborn baby is congenitally sinful?
2. How do you interpret Romans 1: 18-32 which implies that there is a general knowledge of God's law even amongst the gentiles, so that they do not sin in ignorance?
In asking these questions I'm not implying that I subscribe to the their suppositions.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
You miss my point. I am trying to pass along what others have said. It is up to them to explain it.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
PSA certainly involves difficulties, in particular the concept of the transferability of guilt, which on the face of it doesn’t make sense.
However on the other hand, several key statements in the NT, and a number in the OT, such as the scapegoat ( or as our friend’s small son once complained, “Why am I always the skateboard?”) don’t make any sense without the assumption of the possibility of the transfer of guilt.
Only the most casuistical exegetical contortions can get around the PSA in verses such as II Cor. 5:21 (“made him…to be sin for us”) and I Pet. 2:24 (“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree”).
The choices, then, are rejecting PSA because it is logically and morally meaningless even though the Bible teaches it; pretending that it is not in the Bible at all; or accepting it because it has prima facie scriptural attestation.
Evangelicals go with the last of these, in the same way that they accept other unconceptualisable doctrines such as the Trinity.
One of the most interesting aspects of this discussion has been the way in which it has (once again) exposed all the latent anti-evangelicalism on the Ship.
There has certainly been some rigorous theological analysis of PSA on the thread, but there is also an obvious anti-evangelical subtext which is as much about aesthetics and style as it is about doctrine.
In other words, evangelicalism in general, and PSA in particular, are regarded by aspirational religious consumers as belonging strictly to the K-Mart section of the great denominational shopping mall.
Down-market, cringe-inducing multi-purpose church halls on council estates with the Lord’s Supper being celebrated under basketball rings, snappy choruses sung to guitar accompaniment, and seeker-friendly sermons, can’t compete with incense, icons, vestments, stained-glass, chants and liturgy – especially if you have an evangelical background yourself which you are desperately trying to escape!
The gospel tract encapsulates evangelicalism’s alleged absence of theological sophistication, and certainly by its very nature the tract suffers from many limitations, but let it not be forgotten that James Hudson Taylor, second only to William Carey as the most influential figure in modern missiology, was converted through a tract in 1849 .
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Kaplan Corday cannot be allowed to get away with his rant.
I do not see an anti-evangelicalism on the Ship. What I do see is an antipathy towards the anti-intellectualism expressed by such remarks.
Best illustrated by the remark that it is OK to believe in something logically and morally meaningless if it is attested in the scriptures.
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on
:
quote:
Only the most casuistical exegetical contortions can get around the PSA in verses such as II Cor. 5:21 (“made him…to be sin for us”) and I Pet. 2:24 (“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree”).
The choices, then, are rejecting PSA because it is logically and morally meaningless even though the Bible teaches it; pretending that it is not in the Bible at all; or accepting it because it has prima facie scriptural attestation.[/QB]
Have you read any theologians' efforts to get around the PSA in those verses that you cited? Try this one if you like, especially the section 'Jesus Substitutionary Death'.
To emphasise, many of the non-PSA explanations of the atonement fully acknowledge that Christ died in our place, i.e. his death was substitutionary. But there are ways of explaining Jesus' death as our substitute and then his resurrection without any sense of it being as a punishment.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
Well, you certainly pack in a lot of straw men and false assumptions there, Kaplan.
PSA is held as a core doctrine only by certain flavours of evangelical, and remembering what the word 'evangelical' actually ought to mean - it doesn't have an alternative catholicity or magisterium - other interpretations of scripture are available, without either ignoring scripture or denying it.
That there is an element of substitution within the atonement is widely recognised. To go a step further and say "if you deny PSA you deny any substitutionary element" is simply wrong. It might you feel more comfortable thinking that, but you're deluding yourself.
quote:
The choices, then, are rejecting PSA because it is logically and morally meaningless even though the Bible teaches it; pretending that it is not in the Bible at all; or accepting it because it has prima facie scriptural attestation.
is a nice trilemma, but it just doesn't wash. You've had plenty of good, honest theology and good honest wrestling with scripture here to show that some us, at least, don't believe PSA because it contradicts scripture, tradition and reason.
If you don't have an argument other than "ooh, these facile Christian consumers and ex-evangelicals hate us because we're right", then maybe, just maybe, you need to go back to your books again.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
The gospel tract encapsulates evangelicalism’s alleged absence of theological sophistication, and certainly by its very nature the tract suffers from many limitations, but let it not be forgotten that James Hudson Taylor, second only to William Carey as the most influential figure in modern missiology, was converted through a tract in 1849
Shhh ... we were trying to keep the Baptist plan to take over the world on the down low. Otherwise people may work out what all those swimming pools are really for. (Of course this means that revival is very unlikely in northern Europe.)
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
Mousethief quote:
On a juridical understanding of sin, this is nonsense. You can't be held accountable for something you didn't do intentionally.
I thought that "ignorance of the law is no defence".
I dunno. That looks good in print. I've never had a western Christian admit there could be such a thing as involuntary sins, and the reason given was always that sin was knowingly disobeying God. I have a feeling we're about to find out what people think about this subject.
Really? I've no problem with the idea of involuntary sins. Calvinism, which is roughly where I find myself theologically, doesn't have any problem with the concept.
Leviticus has a whole set of sacrifices for unintentional sins, so the concept is clearly Biblical. And a well-rounded understanding of sin includes not just acts of disobedience, but the corruption of our mind, will and affections.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
This is where I think PSA particularly misses its focus. For PSA is overly concerned at atoning for the guilt of sin. Whereas the Bible seems more interested in behaviour and achieving a positive change in that behaviour. God doesn't seem particularly interested in guilt, and numerous passages speak of free forgiveness conditional only on repentance (ie a change in behaviour). But God does seem very interested in people changing their behaviour.
The reasons evangelicals see PSA as important isn't usually that they see salvation solely as "getting forgiveness". Rather, forgiveness is the basic qualification that allows us to receive all the rest of God's gifts - new life, transformation by the Holy Spirit, union with God and so on. Sinners cannot be united to a holy God without first being forgiven of their guilt.
I agree that the Bible presents forgiveness as being conditional on repentance - Acts 2:38, for example. But I disagree with your definition of repentance as "a change in behaviour". It goes deeper than simply changed behaviour or increased moral effort; it is a complete change of allegiance, placing one's faith and loyalty in Jesus as king and saviour. We don't just need to repent of our sins; we also need to repent of our self-righteousness and receive Jesus' gift-righteousness by grace - which consequently changes our behaviour far more fundamentally.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
Sinners cannot be united to a holy God without first being forgiven of their guilt.
What does 'United to a Holy God' actually mean? In my evangelical days I believed I was 'United to a Holy God' but these days I have exactly the same experience when I'm at peace with what I know of God, the world and myself. No atonement required imo.
I need to love and forgive - and be loved and forgiven. And that's it.
I don't think good people of other faiths or none are 'sinners' any more than Christians are. If we do the best to love and live good lives with what we know - neither friend priest nor God can ask any more imo.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
Only the most casuistical exegetical contortions can get around the PSA in verses such as II Cor. 5:21 (“made him…to be sin for us”) and I Pet. 2:24 (“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree”).
Even the most dedicated attempt to get PSA out of those verses would have to explain them as figures of speech. 'He made him to be sin' simply does not literally mean 'He made him suffer the punishment for our sins'. Likewise, 'he himself bore our sins' does not literally mean 'he himself bore the punishment for our sins'.
1 Peter talks about how this enables us to live righteously free of sin, so it seems to me that the problem being dealt with is not so much, 'I am about to be punished for my sin,' but, 'I do not do what I want, but the evil that I do not want that is what I do'. 2 Cor 5:21 is one of Paul's more compressed statements, but again I think the emphasis is on us acting on behalf of God rather than any forensic status.
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
There is a world of difference between saying that Christ was our substitute and saying that his death was vicarious. (i.e.. representative and on our behalf. PSA says " instead of")
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Mousethief, I think you'll find that there are plenty of Western Christians who have a concept of involuntary sin - and indeed, there are plenty of 'who can discern his errors? forgive oh Lord, my hidden faults' type theology in various liturgical prayers.
The RCs have the concept of sins of omission as well as commission. And the idea you express of our stepping outside the will of God without realising it is certainly common currency within those Western Christian circles I'm aware of.
You've been an Episcopalian. You'll be familiar with some of the Anglican prayers of confession that deal with this sort of thing. 'We have left undone that which we ought to have done ...' etc.
There are also general prayers for forgiveness and absolution in the Western churches in a similar way to those you describe at the Orthodox baptism service.
I really don't see how your critique applies to Western Christianity at this point.
Kaplan - well yes, but I for one aren't snobbishly opposed to churches on council estates with basketball rings on the floor. I think you've got the wrong end of the stick when it comes to those who favour icons and incense - many RC churches, for instance, are far more working class than Protestant ones. And worldwide, Orthodoxy is quite a working class phenomena. Like Pentecostalism, both the RCs and the Orthodox have elements of folk-religion in some places.
Within the CofE it's often the case that the 'Highest' churches are in inner city areas. I know of one not a million miles from here where a nose-bleed High Anglican priest is doing a sterling work with so-called 'under class' and working class people that other churches wouldn't touch with a barge-pole.
If anything, it's the HTB type charismatics who're fairly well heeled. As for the Brethren and the Baptists in the UK - they do tend to be reasonably middle class these days. The Pentecostals are more working class but even there they're becoming more suited, booted and established.
So that particular criticism of yours is a value judgement and doesn't wash. Aesthetics and 'taste' comes into it - but it ain't the whole story. I've been to Russian Orthodox services that are pretty 'raw' and visceral as well as highly aesthetically pleasing.
As I've said several times on this thread, I do find it hard to abandon aspects of PSA - but I am trying to get to grips with the theology and not just going with things because they look pretty or are less offensive to my aesthetic sensibilities.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
And another thing ... no-one is saying that the gospel tract is without value. But I'd imagine the one that Hudson Taylor read, marked and inwardly digested wasn't quite what some contributors here have in mind.
Just because some people have difficulties with the style or theology, doesn't mean that we're 'writing off' people like Taylor or William Carey - no, I think those two would be generally accepted as outstanding missiologists by most sectors of Christendom. I've heard Orthodox priests cite them both, in fact.
How often will you get evangelical commentators returning the favour and citing St Hermann of Alaska or St Nicholas of Japan as good examples of cross-cultural mission?
It strikes me that there are specks and planks on both sides of this debate.
MT is finding it hard to recognise aspects which are thoroughly 'orthodox' (small 'o' and possibly Big O) on the Western side at times and the pro-PSA brigade are trying to dismiss any challenge or critique by resorting to accusations of consumerism and fey aestheticism ...
Neither of which give due weight to the actual position on these things.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
Your irenicism and ingenuousness are a rebuke to us all, Gamaliel.
Seriously.
[ 04. July 2011, 09:40: Message edited by: Kaplan Corday ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
There are only a handful of classic reasons for punishment. And one person being able to pay for another undermines the moral standing of most of them. The reasons are:
Rehabilitation - so the people will learn to be productive members of society
Incapacitation / societal protection - keep them locked up so they can't do it again.
Deterrence / prevention - a warning to others
Restoration - paying back the damages
Retribution - classical punishment
Education - the Germans separate teaching people what societal norms are from rehabilitation. I don't see how/why.
Denunciation / condemnation - expressing that something is wrong
How would you like God to deal with sin?
First by looking hard in a mirror and realising that repaying evil with greater evil is itself evil.
Then by changing from an abstract pass/fail approach with random loads of so-called grace lumped in so he can actually pass some people from his ridiculous test to an education/rehabilitation model. One in which no one ultimately ends up in hell; everyone spends the amount of time in purgatory it takes them to learn and repair what they need to.
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
How about
The Devil has captured you, he doesn't love you and has a rather nasty plan for your life ..
As far as I am aware the devil is neither omnipotent nor the judge who decides where people end up. In both cases the problem isn't capture by the devil, it's that God is evil and then likes to wash his hands of it.
quote:
Or Hypercalvinist
God might love you (we can't be sure of His eternal decree) and has inscrutible plans for your life
And here I can't tell God from Cthulu.
Posted by TurquoiseTastic (# 8978) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
Not only to identify with humanity but with sinful humanity?
That is the anti-Chalcedonian heresy of which Edward irving was allegedly guilty, and for which he was excommunicated by the Presbyterians in 1830.
No, Irving was saying (if I understand correctly) that Jesus's own nature was capable of sin (though he chose not to sin). The Presbyterians of the time thoroughly disagreed with this.
This is different - this is Jesus taking on *our* sin - "he who had no sin became sin". Taking on not just the punishment for sin but the sin itself.
If we are really to be one with him, then this is not unjust. It would be unjust if it were a transfer to an unconnected, innocent person.
Is this idea heretical? (This is a genuine question, I am sure I am a fount of heretial ideas). But what's the alternative - what, in your view, does "he who had no sin became sin" really mean?
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
However on the other hand, several key statements in the NT, and a number in the OT, such as the scapegoat ( or as our friend’s small son once complained, “Why am I always the skateboard?”) don’t make any sense without the assumption of the possibility of the transfer of guilt.
The scapegoat was the only cultic ritual in which the Israelites understood a transfer taking place. Yet this was primarily seen as a transfer of magical curses - most ancient societies had similar magical rituals to transfer curses (most famously the Greek Pharmakos). It seems highly doubtful the Israelites thought guilt was transferred to the scapegoat though.
Interestingly New Testament writers show no interest in applying scapegoat imagery to Jesus. Not a single time in the NT is Jesus unambiguously compared to the scapegoat.
quote:
Only the most casuistical exegetical contortions can get around the PSA in verses such as II Cor. 5:21 (“made him…to be sin for us”)
Well like a huge number of commentators, I really struggle with 2 Cor 5:21 because it is so brief and unclear. I am really unsure what it means, there are so many different things it could mean and no obvious way to determine which one Paul was meaning. I find the idea of claiming it for PSA amusing - it could mean PSA, but it could just as easily not mean it, so it hardly 'proves' PSA.
quote:
and I Pet. 2:24 (“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree”).
I believe that this is by far and away the best passage in the Bible in PSA's favour. A PSA reading of it seems straightforwardly intuitive. There are about four alternative interpretations I can think of for this passage, but I'm not convinced as to which is right. I would be really interested to hear the non-PSAers here explain in detail how they read this verse. Unfortunately 1 Peter isn't usually considered important enough to attract many heavy-duty academic scholarly commentators, so there aren't as many in-depth analyses of 1 Pet 2:24 out there as I would prefer.
Probably, my most-preferred reading would be that Peter's saying "our sinfulness died with Christ" metaphorically, in the sense that through following Christ's teachings we have put to death the old man and it's sinful desires and they (in a non-literal sense) can be said to have died with Christ.
quote:
One of the most interesting aspects of this discussion has been the way in which it has (once again) exposed all the latent anti-evangelicalism on the Ship.
Ironically I was thinking of writing a comment to the opposite effect. I have been truly amazed at the consistent excellence of this thread. In any other Christian forum on the 'net that I have visited, a discussion on PSA would have not had anything near the diversity of intelligent views, the tolerance, and excellent sharing of thoughts that this thread has shown. On any other forum the thread would have gone done quickly in flames of "you're a heretic and not a Christian" on page 1. I think it's because the people here are a bit more intellectual and thoughtful and less fundamentalist that this hasn't happened.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Shhh ... we were trying to keep the Baptist plan to take over the world on the down low. Otherwise people may work out what all those swimming pools are really for. (Of course this means that revival is very unlikely in northern Europe.)
Amusingly/sadly, some years ago my city's head planner stated that the city's new swimming pool would be great for the forthcoming mass baptisms. A few people were a little concerned he was building pools with ratepayer monies for his imaginary future mass baptisms rather than for swimming. Of course the recent earthquakes demolished the biggest pool complex (and also plenty of Churches, it might be added), so I suppose his mass-baptism revival plan has taken a step backwards due to that 'act of God'.
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
Rather, forgiveness is the basic qualification that allows us to receive all the rest of God's gifts - new life, transformation by the Holy Spirit, union with God and so on. Sinners cannot be united to a holy God without first being forgiven of their guilt.
Er, interesting beliefs.
The thing that gets me is that the Bible nowhere indicates forgiveness is hard or a problem for God. Forgiveness is repeatedly indicated as being free. It freely flows from a loving and gracious God, who is always prepared to forgive. He is depicted as not wanting to have to punish people and preferring that they instead repent and be forgiven. eg:
“21 But if a wicked person turns away from all the sins they have committed and keeps all my decrees and does what is just and right, that person will surely live; they will not die. 22 None of the offenses they have committed will be remembered against them. Because of the righteous things they have done, they will live. 23 Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?" (Ezekiel 18)
Jonah gets upset with God for forgiving Ninevah rather than punishing them when they repented. For he says he knew God was the kind of God who would rather forgive than punish. Jesus pronounces to many people in the gospels that God has forgiven their sin. The notion of forgiveness being free was so ingrained in Judaism that they used the idiom "repentance and forgiveness" to refer to the simple fact that all a person needed to do to gain God's free forgiveness was repent. This phrase is used approvingly several times by the gospels, and implicitly referenced by Paul approvingly in Romans 2.
In short, there is never any suggestion in the New Testament or the Old Testament that forgiveness is anything except free. God likes forgiving, and does forgive. There is no quandary depicted... God never says "well I would really like to forgive you but my justice demands punishment". There is no "we have a big problem of forgiveness that needs a solution, who will solve it for us?" There is no "woe is me, for I don't know of any way to gain forgiveness!" For the Jews knew perfectly well how to gain free forgiveness, there was no shortage of it. It was only centuries later, when the Church had forgotten the doctrine of free forgiveness and added a whole edifice of teachings on penance, that Luther could wrestle with the perceived difficulties of gaining forgiveness. But it was a problem that just didn't exist in the first century. And that is my single biggest difficulty with PSA: It's unnecessary - God's free forgiveness is available already so there's no need for PSA.
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
And here I can't tell God from Cthulu.
The difference lies in the tentacles.
[ 04. July 2011, 12:11: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by TurquoiseTastic:
Not only to identify with humanity but with sinful humanity?
That is the anti-Chalcedonian heresy of which Edward irving was allegedly guilty, and for which he was excommunicated by the Presbyterians in 1830.
No, Irving was saying (if I understand correctly) that Jesus's own nature was capable of sin (though he chose not to sin). The Presbyterians of the time thoroughly disagreed with this.
This is different - this is Jesus taking on *our* sin - "he who had no sin became sin". Taking on not just the punishment for sin but the sin itself.
If we are really to be one with him, then this is not unjust. It would be unjust if it were a transfer to an unconnected, innocent person.
Is this idea heretical? (This is a genuine question, I am sure I am a fount of heretial ideas). But what's the alternative - what, in your view, does "he who had no sin became sin" really mean?
Not at all! This is perfectly OK. I'm just in the middle of a 4000 word essay on this subject! I found this:
quote:
‘it is sometimes objected that God is thus shown to be unjust in that he allows the innocent to suffer for the guilty, this is not a valid objection to the theory as stated by the Reformation divines’
(St) Paul, in saying that the sinless Christ
‘was made to be sin for us’ (2 Corinthians 5:21), did not hesitate to assert that Christ so completely identified himself with mankind that he was also identified with sin: Christ is a sinner himself.’
Thus Luther says: "This saw all the great prophets, that Christ was to be of all men the greatest robber, murderer, thief, profaner, blasphemer and so on...who bears in his own body all the sins of men - not in tha he committed them, but in that he took upon his own body the things committed by us, to make satisfaction for them with his own blood."
from Creeds in the making, Alan Richardson (former Dean of York and Professor of Christian Theology in the University of Nottingham)
Christ was indeed made in the likeness of sinful flesh, was made to be sin for us, took upon himself the curse because he had also taken on our sin. He wasn't an Innocent murdered by a vengeful Father. He gave himself up for us, knowing what the wrath of God - his own wrath indeed - would do.
[ 04. July 2011, 12:39: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Makepiece:
Just to clarify I wasn't putting the forward the court room analogy as a way of promoting PSA I was just criticising Dafyd's original statement that evangelicals are being hypocritical because they would not see that as justice in any other context.
That's not really what hypocritical means. I certainly don't think it's hypocritical of evangelicals to apply morality better in practice than their theory suggests that they should. What I think is that PSA is inconsistent with any other understanding of justice. What would be hypocritical would be if I condoned a judge in real life sentencing an innocent man to death after denouncing it here. No, I'm not saying evangelicals are hypocritical, whether or not they believe in PSA.
[ 04. July 2011, 13:06: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Not at all! This is perfectly OK. I'm just in the middle of a 4000 word essay on this subject! I found this:
quote:
‘it is sometimes objected that God is thus shown to be unjust in that he allows the innocent to suffer for the guilty, this is not a valid objection to the theory as stated by the Reformation divines’
(St) Paul, in saying that the sinless Christ
‘was made to be sin for us’ (2 Corinthians 5:21), did not hesitate to assert that Christ so completely identified himself with mankind that he was also identified with sin: Christ is a sinner himself.’
Thus Luther says: "This saw all the great prophets, that Christ was to be of all men the greatest robber, murderer, thief, profaner, blasphemer and so on...who bears in his own body all the sins of men - not in tha he committed them, but in that he took upon his own body the things committed by us, to make satisfaction for them with his own blood."
from Creeds in the making, Alan Richardson (former Dean of York and Professor of Christian Theology in the University of Nottingham)
Christ was indeed made in the likeness of sinful flesh, was made to be sin for us, took upon himself the curse because he had also taken on our sin. He wasn't an Innocent murdered by a vengeful Father. He gave himself up for us, knowing what the wrath of God - his own wrath indeed - would do.
Except that Jesus Christ was not a robber. He was not a murderer (at least not in any gospel I'm familiar with). He was a robber who never stole, a murderer who healed and never killed (other than a fig tree). He was the sort of evil villain who did not so much steal candy from babies as encouraged them to come unto him and fed the hungry.
As Jesus Christ was not a particularly great sinner himself, he must have taken the effects of sin on himself in the way someone would deflect a black magic curse. Far from demonstrating the justice of God and of Hell, this further demonstrates the unjustice. The unjustice of the black curse created by God. And if Jesus was born to cancel out God's curse, this doesn't make God the fount of all goodness. It makes God an evil magician who burned his books, repented of his wickedness, and lifted the curse in the best way possible.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Let's look at this another way.
Had God chosen an Abraham, a Moses, a John the Baptist and allowed him to be killed for the sins of ther world, I think we would all agree that an dreadful injustice and cruelty would have been done.
Had Jesus of Nazareth been the adopted Son of God; had he been Jesus the man but separate from the Christ, then surely his death by the will of God would be 'abuse'.
But he was not a chosen man, a prophet; he is not adopted to be the Messiah and neother is he a mere man indwelt temporarily by 'the Christ'.
God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself. The divine and human natures are united in Jesus, not in conflict, not one being in control then the other. here was a man, God incarnate, who was fully integrated within himself as The Incarnation who was also fully united with Father & Spirit.
The Son did not suffer unwillingly at the hands of the Father; neither did the father look on impassively as the Son suffered alone. The Father and the Son together suffered the wrath of God.
The son suffered death, the Father lost his Son in the awefulness of sin.
The Judge became the Judged.
No innocent man was abused
TThe sinner that is set free - you and me - was set free on the merits of a man who suffered justly thw earyh of god for sins committed - not that he committed them, but that he willingly and really and actually took the blame because he had taken upon himself the very human nature that was deserving of death.
This was not an innocent man taking the blame for something that was not his experience. He became sin, he knew sin, the sin within him was judged and the sin within us was judged.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
First by looking hard in a mirror and realising that repaying evil with greater evil is itself evil.
You do realise that idea is in scripture don't you?
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
Then by changing from an abstract pass/fail approach with random loads of so-called grace lumped in so he can actually pass some people from his ridiculous test to an education/rehabilitation model.
As is that idea.
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
One in which no one ultimately ends up in hell; everyone spends the amount of time in purgatory it takes them to learn and repair what they need to.
That idea isn't tho. That's Catholic theology.
I've come to the conclusion you aren't a Justinian at all. You're just a hard core left wing Christian.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
sorry for dreadful spelling
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
‘it is sometimes objected that God is thus shown to be unjust in that he allows the innocent to suffer for the guilty, this is not a valid objection to the theory as stated by the Reformation divines’
(St) Paul, in saying that the sinless Christ
‘was made to be sin for us’ (2 Corinthians 5:21), did not hesitate to assert that Christ so completely identified himself with mankind that he was also identified with sin: Christ is a sinner himself.’
Thus Luther says: "This saw all the great prophets, that Christ was to be of all men the greatest robber, murderer, thief, profaner, blasphemer and so on
That contradicts the creed of the council of Chalcedon.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
‘it is sometimes objected that God is thus shown to be unjust in that he allows the innocent to suffer for the guilty, this is not a valid objection to the theory as stated by the Reformation divines’
(St) Paul, in saying that the sinless Christ
‘was made to be sin for us’ (2 Corinthians 5:21), did not hesitate to assert that Christ so completely identified himself with mankind that he was also identified with sin: Christ is a sinner himself.’
Thus Luther says: "This saw all the great prophets, that Christ was to be of all men the greatest robber, murderer, thief, profaner, blasphemer and so on
That contradicts the creed of the council of Chalcedon.
What, the bit that says he was 'without sin'?
Well that's true - what the above is saying is that his sinless nature took on the sins of ther world - he assumed it; it wasn't his essential being. he was 'made to be sin for us'. Scripture says 'For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh...'
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
So he became sinful?
Kind of kills the lamb without blemish analogy doesn't it?
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
No. Don't answer that. I'm not interested. Just being contrary.
All that theology is rubbish IMO.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
I do not see an anti-evangelicalism on the Ship.
In what paralel universe is this?
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
The parallel universe in which the whole post is read, not just an excerpt.
I said the anti-intellectualism of evangelicalism was attacked. Insofar as the evangelicals identify with this then there is antipathy toward their position.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
No, there is a default consensus hereabouts that a sort of theologically-liberal "Catholic Lite" is the standard norm of Christianity. And a lot of very nice people here say very nasty things about Protestants, Calvinists, Evangelicals, Fundamentalists (especially American ones) and suchlike that they would never dream of saying about any ethnic group or about a non-Christian religion or about gays. Though a few of them manage to be quite nasty to women as well - it seems that liberal solidarity overwhelms feminism sometimes.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
No, there is a default consensus hereabouts that a sort of theologically-liberal "Catholic Lite" is the standard norm of Christianity. And a lot of very nice people here say very nasty things about Protestants, Calvinists, Evangelicals, Fundamentalists (especially American ones) and suchlike that they would never dream of saying about any ethnic group or about a non-Christian religion or about gays. Though a few of them manage to be quite nasty to women as well - it seems that liberal solidarity overwhelms feminism sometimes.
It's true
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
Ken is right. There is a bias against Evangelicals. I can see it and I'm not Evangelical, Calvinist, or Fundamentalist. I don't even identify much with Protestantism.
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
No, there is a default consensus hereabouts that a sort of theologically-liberal "Catholic Lite" is the standard norm of Christianity. And a lot of very nice people here say very nasty things about Protestants, Calvinists, Evangelicals, Fundamentalists (especially American ones) and suchlike that they would never dream of saying about any ethnic group or about a non-Christian religion or about gays. Though a few of them manage to be quite nasty to women as well - it seems that liberal solidarity overwhelms feminism sometimes.
It's true
Well yes. But those of us with evangelical convictions know what we're getting if we hang around for more than 5 minutes. The reason I'm posting here rather than fundyweb is so that I can engage with views different from mine.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I would tend to agree, although I am partial myself to some of the sniping at evangelicals and fundamentalists - particularly those of the US variety. But c'mon ... loosen up ... some people deserve a kick up the butt.
I wouldn't generally quote P J O'Rourke but do agree with him when he said that taking the rise out of fundamentalists was rather like shooting cows in a field with a .22 rifle ... they're too easy a target.
And I am dealing with 'issues' from my own more evangelical past.
That said, I don't like it when there is flagrant misrepresentation of evangelical positions or evangelicals themselves. The liberal catholic-lite vicar near here was very surprised to find that there were evangelical charismatics around who read The Guardian, for instance. He was even more surprised when I told him that I'd been in a mildly charismatic, evangelical/post-evangelical Baptist church with some emerging tendencies where not reading The Guardian would almost have been an excommunicable offence.
I agree with Mudfrog that liberals can often be very illiberal indeed.
But then, I do try to be even handed ...
. I don't always succeed.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Okay, point taken about involuntary sins. I'm not sure where that idea crept in, but I've sent it crawling back out again.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Kaplan Corday cannot be allowed to get away with his rant.
I do not see an anti-evangelicalism on the Ship. What I do see is an antipathy towards the anti-intellectualism expressed by such remarks.
Best illustrated by the remark that it is OK to believe in something logically and morally meaningless if it is attested in the scriptures.
Well, you prove his point.
Let's accept for the sake of argument that scripture teaches PSA and nothing else. Evangelicals, or any other Protestant embracing sola scriptura, would certainly believe it. You are prepared to reject it just because you think it is morally and logically meaningless. This is an example of you being more intellectual than evangelicals. This is an example of you being arrogant.
Nothing in scripture suggests the actions of God must make sense to humans. Scripture establishes that God can impose rules on humans and punish them when they are broken. Rejecting that premise means rejecting whole portions of scripture. So, if instead of punishing sinful humanity, God becomes human and accepts the punishment of those sins in the place of sinful humanity that is God's prerogative. Being as how God has chosen to offer grace instead of instant destruction of humanity, the proper response would be to accept the offer of forgiveness. Furthermore, regardless of the rules imposed by God, humanity time and time again proves incapable of following them. Why would God keep expecting humanity to be able to follow any new ones? The new covenant allows for humanities imperfections and provides a means for humanity to be made more like Christ. All seems perfectly reasonable to me.
You may not believe PSA. More often than not, I use the language of CV when preaching on the atonement. However, those who do aren't anti-intellectual. The definition of anti-intellectualism is not disagreement with shamwari. Sorry, if everybody else doesn't hold your opinion in the same high esteem as you seem to do.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well said, Beeswax Altar. There can certainly be an anti-intellectual note in contemporary evangelicalism - something many evangelicals are aware of themselves. Mark Noll's book 'The Scandal of the Evangelical Mind' went some way to redressing this imbalance.
"The scandal of the evangelical mind is that there is not much of an evangelical mind," he wrote in the tones of a "wounded lover".
Evangelicalism is essentially a populist movement and therefore you're bound to find a certain amount of anti-intellectualism there ... but I certainly don't find that here with The Revolutionist, Ken and Leprechaun ...
On occasion Mudfrog will come close to it, in my not so humble opinion, but that's part and parcel of having an activist faith which borrows heavily from militarist imagery ...
But he is certainly not frightened of robust debate and is currently studying for a BA. It would seem churlish to accuse him of abandoning his brain when he takes up his tambourine. And he generally isn't as snarky about other traditions as some posters are about his.
Ok, so there's a kind of Wesleyan pietism run riot there at times ... but I can think of a lot worse things.
Sorry Mudfrog ... but I am rallying to your defence, although it might not sound like it!
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Sorry, I inadvertently left Kaplan out. An oversight ...
I don't always agree with Kaplan and I think he over-eggs things at times to make a point. But he isn't the only one who does that. We all do it at times. But again, whilst he sometimes misses the mark (in my not so humble opinion) in his critiques of other traditions and viewpoints, he is generally less snarky about them than Shamwari is when he's discussing evangelicalism.
Like Ken and some of the other evangelical posters, I sometimes get the impression that with some Liberals you can be anything the heck you like ... a wife beater and a child batterer - just as long as you aren't an evangelical.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I sometimes get the impression that with some Liberals you can be anything the heck you like ... a wife beater and a child batterer - just as long as you aren't an evangelical.
Get off my turf, Gamaliel.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
The difference lies in the tentacles.
I'm glad you checked your spelling
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I don't believe guilt is even in the equation of OT sacrifices. Alot of it is ritual impurity. Which has little to do with moral guilt.
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What a lovely theory.
Let's examine the evidence: The Book of Leviticus contains much of the OT cultus. The first six chapters make frequent use of the following formula - "If anyone sins (or if a person sins) in a particular way .... he/she must do certain things (confession, restitution) and bring an offering to the priest (sometimes the phrase - that is to the LORD is added). In this way the priest will make atonement for him before the LORD and he will be forgiven of these things he did that made him guilty"
The rest of Chapters 6 and 7 explain how to do the various offerings which include the SIN offering and the GUILT offering.
Yes, clearly, guilt isn't even in the equation of OT sacrifices.
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My point was that guilt in Leviticus has different connotations to guilt today because Leviticus was often concerned with the pure and impure.
You're right the word appears, but the meaning is different.
e.g.
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Leviticus 5.2:
Or when any of you touch any unclean thing—whether the carcass of an unclean beast or the carcass of unclean livestock or the carcass of an unclean swarming thing—and are unaware of it, you have become unclean, and are guilty.
Leviticus 5.3:
Or when you touch human uncleanness—any uncleanness by which one can become unclean—and are unaware of it, when you come to know it, you shall be guilty.
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We don't do pure and impure today.
Obviously a lot of OT cultus is about the issue of ritual purity which is about who's "in" and who's "out" and who therefore can be a part of the worshipping community and have access to God. A lot of Jesus' healings served to remove ritual impurity and restore outcast's to being fully part of the people of God. We might not use the language of "pure and impure" but if the Gospel doesn't grant access to God and restore outcasts we've got something deeply wrong.
Without meaning to be patronising have you read the verses either side of the two you quote?
I'm sure that not giving evidence when required to and making rash oaths are moral rather than ritual issues.
The definition of sin used 5 times in chapters 4-6 is "doing what is forbidden in any of the LORD's commands". The LORDs commands aren't simply petty rules about ritual niceties. What did Moses carry down the mountain?
Chap 6 gets very specific (Vs2-7)
quote:
“If anyone sins and is unfaithful to the LORD by deceiving a neighbor about something entrusted to them or left in their care or about something stolen, or if they cheat their neighbor, 3 or if they find lost property and lie about it, or if they swear falsely about any such sin that people may commit— 4 when they sin in any of these ways and realize their guilt, they must return what they have stolen or taken by extortion, or what was entrusted to them, or the lost property they found, 5 or whatever it was they swore falsely about. They must make restitution in full, add a fifth of the value to it and give it all to the owner on the day they present their guilt offering. 6 And as a penalty they must bring to the priest, that is, to the LORD, their guilt offering, a ram from the flock, one without defect and of the proper value. 7 In this way the priest will make atonement for them before the LORD, and they will be forgiven for any of the things they did that made them guilty.
Oh and look what v7 says - "what they did (sin) .. made them guilty".
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Obviously a lot of OT cultus is about the issue of ritual purity which is about who's "in" and who's "out" and who therefore can be a part of the worshipping community and have access to God. A lot of Jesus' healings served to remove ritual impurity and restore outcast's to being fully part of the people of God. s - "what they did (sin) .. made them guilty".
Are you sure about that? Contacting ritual impurity was simply part of life for Jews in the ancient world… E. P. Sanders observes that ‘All the Jews, including Pharisees, were impure more or less all the time….“all the holy scriptures render the hands unclean. The rabbis certainly did not refrain from contact with the Scriptures for fear of getting their hands dirty. … Christian interpreters do not need of ritual purity laws to avoid Using them superiority. We do need to remember that these laws, which seem to us strange and archaic, were not uncommon in the ancient world. It is anachronistic to suppose that Jesus dismissed them as irrelevant. Undoubtedly there was diversity with respect to attention to observance, some were more meticulous than others, and certainly there differences in Diaspora customs.’ Preaching without Contempt: Overcoming Unintended Anti-Judaism – M. Salmon (Fortress 2006) pp. 100-101
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
Ancient sacrificial systems can be difficult for modern readers to understand. English translations of ancient Hebrew terms and concepts do not always do them justice. So be careful of naively reading Leviticus and assuming you've got the right understanding of it. I feel your post indicates significant errors in understanding. In light of that, I have a book recommendation for you: Milgrom's Commentary on Leviticus.
Thank you for you kind and avuncular reply.
Let me get this straight ... I quoted a repeated formula directly from the text regarding "sin and guilt" and then said that this showed that the text is concerned with .. well .."sin and guilt". I don't recall specifying how or even defining the concepts. Oh what a naive fool I must be.
Darn, there goes my adherence to any concept of the perspicuity of Scripture. Oh, those naughty Reformers encouraging us to read, mark and inwardly digest Gods Word for ourselves. Oh, those deceptive Bible translators using words we think we understand in ways we clearly don't....
Oh and I do realise there is a whole bunch more to OT law and cultus than morality, but moral guilt is the point that was being debated and hence addressed in isolation.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Twangist:
Obviously a lot of OT cultus is about the issue of ritual purity which is about who's "in" and who's "out" and who therefore can be a part of the worshipping community and have access to God. A lot of Jesus' healings served to remove ritual impurity and restore outcast's to being fully part of the people of God. s - "what they did (sin) .. made them guilty".
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Are you sure about that? Contacting ritual impurity was simply part of life for Jews in the ancient world… E. P. Sanders observes that ‘All the Jews, including Pharisees, were impure more or less all the time….“all the holy scriptures render the hands unclean. The rabbis certainly did not refrain from contact with the Scriptures for fear of getting their hands dirty. … Christian interpreters do not need of ritual purity laws to avoid Using them superiority. We do need to remember that these laws, which seem to us strange and archaic, were not uncommon in the ancient world. It is anachronistic to suppose that Jesus dismissed them as irrelevant. Undoubtedly there was diversity with respect to attention to observance, some were more meticulous than others, and certainly there differences in Diaspora customs.’ Preaching without Contempt: Overcoming Unintended Anti-Judaism – M. Salmon (Fortress 2006) pp. 100-101
Sorry Leo, I'm not sure which bit's of my post you are addressing?
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
The thing that gets me is that the Bible nowhere indicates forgiveness is hard or a problem for God. Forgiveness is repeatedly indicated as being free. It freely flows from a loving and gracious God, who is always prepared to forgive. He is depicted as not wanting to have to punish people and preferring that they instead repent and be forgiven. eg:
“21 But if a wicked person turns away from all the sins they have committed and keeps all my decrees and does what is just and right, that person will surely live; they will not die. 22 None of the offenses they have committed will be remembered against them. Because of the righteous things they have done, they will live. 23 Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?" (Ezekiel 18)
Jonah gets upset with God for forgiving Ninevah rather than punishing them when they repented. For he says he knew God was the kind of God who would rather forgive than punish. Jesus pronounces to many people in the gospels that God has forgiven their sin. The notion of forgiveness being free was so ingrained in Judaism that they used the idiom "repentance and forgiveness" to refer to the simple fact that all a person needed to do to gain God's free forgiveness was repent. This phrase is used approvingly several times by the gospels, and implicitly referenced by Paul approvingly in Romans 2.
In short, there is never any suggestion in the New Testament or the Old Testament that forgiveness is anything except free. God likes forgiving, and does forgive. There is no quandary depicted... God never says "well I would really like to forgive you but my justice demands punishment". There is no "we have a big problem of forgiveness that needs a solution, who will solve it for us?" There is no "woe is me, for I don't know of any way to gain forgiveness!" For the Jews knew perfectly well how to gain free forgiveness, there was no shortage of it. It was only centuries later, when the Church had forgotten the doctrine of free forgiveness and added a whole edifice of teachings on penance, that Luther could wrestle with the perceived difficulties of gaining forgiveness. But it was a problem that just didn't exist in the first century. And that is my single biggest difficulty with PSA: It's unnecessary - God's free forgiveness is available already so there's no need for PSA.
Thanks for your thoughts Starlight. I agree that God does forgive freely, and is eager to forgive freely.
But I think the question of "how can God forgive and be just?" is thoroughly Biblical - Paul answers that question in Romans 3:25-26:
quote:
God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished — he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.
When it says "God justifies those who have faith in Jesus", I understand justify to mean declaring righteous, announcing that they are forgiven. God forgives us freely not because there is no price to be paid, but because he has paid it for us already.
(This is my beef with Girard, by the way. As I understand it, he claims that the Cross exposes and ends the system of sacrifice and scapegoating as violent and unnecessary. I think there's a lot in what he says, except that it's Jesus' perfect sacrifice that exposes the futility of all our human efforts to remove sin by sacrifice and scapegoating. Sacrifice is unnecessary because the price has been paid by the only one who could pay it, not because it was never demanded in the first place.)
Why do you think God said to Moses, "Do not come near. Take off your sandals, for you are standing on holy ground?" What was the purpose of the sin offerings, if forgiveness carries no cost?
It seems to me that the whole sacrificial system was precisely to illustrate that as sinful human beings, we cannot simply come before a holy God. Forgiveness - purification for our sins - involves sacrifice, the shedding of blood. Hebrews 9:22 says that "without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness of sins". Both Old and New Testament are very clear that unforgiven sin is a barrier to us coming to God, and that forgiveness, while freely offered to us, does not come without a cost. Sin can't just be ignored.
You mention the medieval belief in penance. The reason Luther was so passionate about the "great exchange", about the imputation of our sins to Christ and of his righteousness to us, was precisely because it means that forgiveness is an unearned, free gift. We don't have to agonise and work and labour to achieve forgiveness - that's liberating! Forgiveness is free not because there's no price to pay, but because Christ paid the price for us.
A lot of people find PSA "nasty", but I find it wonderful and a source of joy and worship. God is both just and merciful; he doesn't ignore sin, but instead of rightly and fairly punishing us, he lovingly absorbs the pain and cost of reconciliation himself through self-sacrifice. That makes me want to praise and worship God.
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
Revolutionist quote:
But I think the question of "how can God forgive and be just?" is thoroughly Biblical - Paul answers that question in Romans 3:25-26:
At the risk of returning to a hobby horse: Can I remind us that Jesus unconditionally forgave those who nailed him to the cross. There is no evidence that the soldiers repented or accepted any need for the proferred forgiveness. Forgiveness was unmerited and free. In the parable of the Father and Two Sons, the father's response to the prodigal on his return indicates there is a presumed forgiveness ever before he asks for it.
St Paul in 2 Corinthians 5 argues that God does not keep a record of wrongs: a charge sheet of crimes or sins to be judicially satisfied. What he does say is that people are to be reconciled to God: to make a conscious decision to respond to God's love demonstrated by Christ's death and resurrection.
The essence of atonement is not forgiveness but reconciliation.
For me the atonement is best expressed by Isaac Watts great hymn "When I survey the wonderous cross", and the crucial couplet of reconciliation "Love so amazing so divine/Demands my soul, my life, my all". So I guess I line up with Abelard!
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Oh, those deceptive Bible translators using words we think we understand in ways we clearly don't....
This. Oh so annoyingly, frustratingly often: this.
quote:
Oh, those naughty Reformers encouraging us to read, mark and inwardly digest Gods Word for ourselves.
I highly approve of Bible study. But I also highly approve of accuracy. Hence I approve of extensive in depth scholarly analysis and research into the original languages in their original contexts, and thoughtful and careful comparisons of the merits of different translations and interpretations.
Hence I don't approve of the naive assumption that a person can grab a random Bible translation off the shelf and read a sentence or two and assume whatever interpretation they happen to think of first is the correct one.
quote:
Let me get this straight ... I quoted a repeated formula directly from the text regarding "sin and guilt" and then said that this showed that the text is concerned with .. well .."sin and guilt". I don't recall specifying how or even defining the concepts. Oh what a naive fool I must be.
Yup. Here's a link to Milgrom on why any translation that uses the word 'sin' here is wrong: Why it should be translated "purification" offering.
quote:
Darn, there goes my adherence to any concept of the perspicuity of Scripture.
I certainly hope so. A document written in a foreign language, in a foreign culture, two or three thousand years ago needs a lot of careful study and expert knowledge to determine the original meaning.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
The reason I'm posting here rather than fundyweb is so that I can engage with views different from mine.
Where is this cool site of which you speak, that I've been missing all these years?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Actually, I've found it.
Fundyweb is a website about the Fundy National Park in Canada.
Strange but true.
Back to RL.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
and I Pet. 2:24 (“He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree”).
I believe that this is by far and away the best passage in the Bible in PSA's favour. A PSA reading of it seems straightforwardly intuitive. There are about four alternative interpretations I can think of for this passage, but I'm not convinced as to which is right. I would be really interested to hear the non-PSAers here explain in detail how they read this verse.
As I said above, this is hardly a literal statement of PSA. A sin is not the same as its punishment; if Jesus bears our sins that's not the same as Jesus bearing the punishment of our sins. It's true that 'sin' is a possible metonymy for 'punishment', but it doesn't seem to me that you'd get that from the context. There are other things that 'sin' could refer to by metonymy: consequences of sin, root causes of sin, etc.
Indeed, the context seems entirely wrong.
quote:
When he was abused, he did not return abuse; when he suffered he did not threated; but he entrusted himself to the one who judges justly.
The natural reading of that is that Jesus' innocence is vindicated by God. That is very much not the same as Jesus being punished for the guilt of other people.
quote:
He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross, so that, free from sins, we might live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed.
The problems are apparently that sin is constraining us so that we can't live righteously, and that we're wounded or damaged in some way. If you think of sin as a mental compulsion or illness - a conception not unattested in the NT (Romans 7 being the locus classicus) - the material following 'so that' seems straightforward. The PSA reading has to gloss 'free from sins' as 'free from punishment for past sins' or 'free from the fear of punishment for past sins' neither of which seem strictly to prevent us from being righteous now. 'By his wounds you have been healed' is figurative on any reading, but on the PSA the figure is contorted: 'because he was wounded we will never be wounded at all'? - not satisfactory. Mind you, I can't imagine how to begin getting a moral influence view out of it. This despite the fact that the passage starts out as an explicit injunction to imitate Jesus.
The idea that we want to live for righteousness and find that we can't is explicit in Romans - that's quite the most explicit statement of any problem facing humanity in the NT.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
But I think the question of "how can God forgive and be just?" is thoroughly Biblical
Er, it is? As I read your sentence I tried to think of a single instance of the Bible dealing with this concept and couldn't. I would have said that question is not at all biblical and one the Bible shows little/no interest in at all.
I see you cited a single passage in support... does one contentious passage make an idea 'thoroughly Biblical?'
quote:
Paul answers that question in Romans 3:25-26:
"God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished — he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus."
When it says "God justifies those who have faith in Jesus", I understand justify to mean declaring righteous, announcing that they are forgiven. God forgives us freely not because there is no price to be paid, but because he has paid it for us already.
This passage is one of the most infamously difficult to translate and interpret in the entire New Testament, because it is unclear how the different phrases flow and what the meanings of certain key words are. This flexibility has long enabled interpreters to translate and organise the passage in such a way as to agree with their own beliefs. Having looked at the various issues surrounding the interpretation of the passage, I would say that while the contrast between God's justice and forgiveness is a possible reading of the passage, it is not the reading I think is most likely to be Paul's original intended meaning.
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What was the purpose of the sin offerings, if forgiveness carries no cost?
The generally accepted answer to that one is to purify the Temple.
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It seems to me that the whole sacrificial system was precisely to illustrate that as sinful human beings, we cannot simply come before a holy God.
Er, only a small part of the sacrificial system deals with purification and holiness. Much of it deals with more mundane matters like killing an animal in order to eat its meat, or giving gifts to God.
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Both Old and New Testament are very clear that unforgiven sin is a barrier to us coming to God, and that forgiveness, while freely offered to us, does not come without a cost. Sin can't just be ignored.
I feel that in making this statement you're ignoring my previous post which pointed out that in both Testaments, sin is regularly ignored.
quote:
You mention the medieval belief in penance. The reason Luther was so passionate about the "great exchange", about the imputation of our sins to Christ and of his righteousness to us, was precisely because it means that forgiveness is an unearned, free gift. We don't have to agonise and work and labour to achieve forgiveness - that's liberating! Forgiveness is free not because there's no price to pay, but because Christ paid the price for us.
I think this is where Luther made a mistake. He had been indoctrinated by the Catholic doctrine of penance into believing forgiveness was not free and required a hefty price. That was an incorrect teaching and in fact forgiveness is free and requires no price. But Luther took the other route, and suggested that Christ had paid the price for forgiveness. In other words, Luther bought into the false assumption that forgiveness was not free. But if forgiveness is free the concept of Christ paying our price for it makes no sense. This is why penal substitution wasn't taught in the early centuries of the church, because it took a while for the church to lose its belief that forgiveness was free and to develop the penance scheme which would in turn lead Luther to assume that forgiveness wasn't free.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
You do realise that idea is in scripture don't you?
Yes.
quote:
As is that idea.
I know. Such a pity that the doctrines I object to ignore the parts of scripture about moral systems other than Might Makes Right.
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That idea isn't tho. That's Catholic theology.
I may intensely dislike the Magesterium but that doesn't mean that they don't come up with some good ideas. I'm not sure Purgatory is necessary - but it's the only model of punishment possible.
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I've come to the conclusion you aren't a Justinian at all. You're just a hard core left wing Christian.
Justinian was the self-mocking name I picked in Orthodox Week, sending up my arrogance. And I vary between hard line atheist, rejecting the Calvinist Anglo-Catholicism of my father (and yes, he is all of that) and going with the ultra-liberal Quakerism of my mother. I'd not call myself a Christian, but a lot of strands of Christianity have shaped my beliefs and I often do end up near the ultra-liberal end.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Like Ken and some of the other evangelical posters, I sometimes get the impression that with some Liberals you can be anything the heck you like ... a wife beater and a child batterer - just as long as you aren't an evangelical.
This is true.
Nasty Bagginses. We hates Bagginses. They makes Smeagol looks stupid.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
A sin is not the same as its punishment; if Jesus bears our sins that's not the same as Jesus bearing the punishment of our sins.
Agreed, but PSA advocates tend to be a little flexible on precisely this matter. They often imply they believe our actual sins were transferred to Christ while he was on the cross. (eg see the other discussion ongoing in this thread about Christ becoming a murderer, a robber etc)
quote:
It's true that 'sin' is a possible metonymy for 'punishment', but it doesn't seem to me that you'd get that from the context. There are other things that 'sin' could refer to by metonymy: consequences of sin, root causes of sin, etc.
Agreed. But PSA advocates are in the habit of using sin as a metonymy for guilt and punishment, and so when people familiar with PSA read this passage it naturally triggers in our minds as an apparent reference to PSA.
quote:
Indeed, the context seems entirely wrong.
Agreed. The context is very very wrong for PSA. But the passage itself is oh-so-easily read as a ringing endorsement of it.
quote:
When he was abused, he did not return abuse; when he suffered he did not threated; but he entrusted himself to the one who judges justly.
The natural reading of that is that Jesus' innocence is vindicated by God. That is very much not the same as Jesus being punished for the guilt of other people.
Agreed.
Given that is the previous verse, I'm strongly inclined to then read "He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross" as "He himself endured abuse and suffered at our hands when we nailed his body to the cross". Because the previous verse about Jesus passively enduring our abuse makes this reading seem so plausible. And yet, the word "bore", while it can mean "endured" and "suffered" in English, does not seem so ambiguous in Greek where it means "carried [away]". If not for that, I would be convinced this was the correct reading - I get frustrated at translators every time I read the passage as their use of the ambiguous English translation of "bore" leaves me wanting to read it as "endured" and know I shouldn't.
quote:
He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross, so that, free from sins, we might live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed.
The problems are apparently that sin is constraining us so that we can't live righteously, and that we're wounded or damaged in some way. If you think of sin as a mental compulsion or illness - a conception not unattested in the NT (Romans 7 being the locus classicus) - the material following 'so that' seems straightforward.
Agreed. If one reads literally and carefully the "so that, free from sins, we might live for righteousness" part, it appears that whatever the sin-bearing was precisely, what it accomplished was that we can now live righteously where previously the power of sins prevented us from doing so. I agree this is very much Romans 7 stuff - sin as a power which controls and dominates and which we need to be 'freed' from.
There is a half-excellent book by Anderson that examines nicely how the metaphors one uses concerning sin affect how atonement is conceived in different ways. Unfortunately the half-unexcellent part is that he doesn't deal with the crucial metaphor of sin as a power! (And also he doesn't recognise the difference between sin conceived of as past guilt and sin conceived of as present behaviour)
quote:
The PSA reading has to gloss 'free from sins' as 'free from punishment for past sins' or 'free from the fear of punishment for past sins' neither of which seem strictly to prevent us from being righteous now.
Yeah, it tends to gloss it as 'free from guilt' I think, which is pretty straightforward since it normally tends to read 'sin' as if it said 'guilt' anyway in the Bible. But in a PSA mindset, guilt does prevent us from being righteous now, because righteousness is conceived of as a legal standing with regard to guilt and not as behaviour. Admittedly the phrase "live for righteousness" is a bit nonsensical in the PSA paradigm, and needs a bit of glossing to fix.
quote:
'By his wounds you have been healed' is figurative on any reading, but on the PSA the figure is contorted: 'because he was wounded we will never be wounded at all'? - not satisfactory.
I think it's easier than that to get PSA out of this phrase. You just need to gloss 'wounds' as 'punishment' and 'healed' as 'released from guilt' and you're there.
quote:
Mind you, I can't imagine how to begin getting a moral influence view out of it. This despite the fact that the passage starts out as an explicit injunction to imitate Jesus.
Well the context both before and after is some of the most full-blown moral influence passages in the NT. So the core passage seems to be surrounded by moral influence - marinaded in it if you will. Furthermore the core passage certainly seems to be about moral change - we can now "live for righteousness" whereas we couldn't before because of the power of sin. How to spin the glosses on "he bore our sins in his body on the cross" in order to get moral influence is something I am undecided about as there seem quite a few options, none of which are strikingly more correct than any other.
quote:
The idea that we want to live for righteousness and find that we can't is explicit in Romans - that's quite the most explicit statement of any problem facing humanity in the NT.
I agreed (with a few minor reservations). Whereas the PSA crowd would have you believe that the NT teaches the need to purchase (an already-free) forgiveness, and that the NT teaches this (apparently I and they read different NT's cos I can't find that teaching, and I've looked).
[ 05. July 2011, 01:07: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
Justinian was the self-mocking name I picked in Orthodox Week, sending up my arrogance. And I vary between hard line atheist, rejecting the Calvinist Anglo-Catholicism of my father (and yes, he is all of that) and going with the ultra-liberal Quakerism of my mother. I'd not call myself a Christian, but a lot of strands of Christianity have shaped my beliefs and I often do end up near the ultra-liberal end.
A most excellent combination.
Liberal Christianity is of course, the way, the truth and the life and when we get to heaven we get "very quiet while passing the rooms of conservative Christians, so as not to wreck the conservatives' fantasy that they're the only ones who got in, and the extra bonus fantasy that liberal Christians (and everyone else) are off writhing in the pain of hell's eternal torture. By staying quiet the liberal Christians ensure the conservative Christians can keep their divine punishment hardons raging for all eternity."
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I've never had a western Christian admit there could be such a thing as involuntary sins, and the reason given was always that sin was knowingly disobeying God.
John Wesley famously declared that sin consists of a voluntary transgression of a known, divine law.
In his A Plain Account Of Christian Perfection, and his Christian Perfection (in Forty-Four Sermons) he turns himself inside out attempting to show that involuntary sin is impossible.
The Roman Catholic and Reformed theologies of Original Sin, though different, both necessitate a belief in "accidental" sin.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Kaplan - well yes, but I for one aren't snobbishly opposed to churches on council estates with basketball rings on the floor. I think you've got the wrong end of the stick when it comes to those who favour icons and incense - many RC churches, for instance, are far more working class than Protestant ones. And worldwide, Orthodoxy is quite a working class phenomena. Like Pentecostalism, both the RCs and the Orthodox have elements of folk-religion in some places.
Within the CofE it's often the case that the 'Highest' churches are in inner city areas. I know of one not a million miles from here where a nose-bleed High Anglican priest is doing a sterling work with so-called 'under class' and working class people that other churches wouldn't touch with a barge-pole.
If anything, it's the HTB type charismatics who're fairly well heeled. As for the Brethren and the Baptists in the UK - they do tend to be reasonably middle class these days. The Pentecostals are more working class but even there they're becoming more suited, booted and established.
Yes I'm quite aware of the Anglo-Catholic "slum priest" tradition that flowed out of the Oxford Movement / Tractarianism, and of elaborate RC churches supported by the sacrificial giving of their working-class congrgations.
I wasn't thinking of money so much as taste, a situation analogous to the contrast between someone who lives in a cheap, dilapidated, interesting 'period' house so they can look down their nose at the person who lives in an expensive, glitzy (perhaps kitschy) "contemporary" McMansion.
And actually, I have a certain sympathy for that position, in that I would rather listen to a doctrinally dodgy (if there is such a thing) piece of Gregorian chant than a doctrinally sound (if there is such a thing) Hillsong ditty, while au fond realizing that it is the doctrine that counts in the end.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Darn, there goes my adherence to any concept of the perspicuity of Scripture.
I certainly hope so. A document written in a foreign language, in a foreign culture, two or three thousand years ago needs a lot of careful study and expert knowledge to determine the original meaning.
This is a tangent so I'll start a new thread on this.
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
Revolutionist quote:
But I think the question of "how can God forgive and be just?" is thoroughly Biblical - Paul answers that question in Romans 3:25-26:
At the risk of returning to a hobby horse: Can I remind us that Jesus unconditionally forgave those who nailed him to the cross. There is no evidence that the soldiers repented or accepted any need for the proferred forgiveness. Forgiveness was unmerited and free. In the parable of the Father and Two Sons, the father's response to the prodigal on his return indicates there is a presumed forgiveness ever before he asks for it.
St Paul in 2 Corinthians 5 argues that God does not keep a record of wrongs: a charge sheet of crimes or sins to be judicially satisfied. What he does say is that people are to be reconciled to God: to make a conscious decision to respond to God's love demonstrated by Christ's death and resurrection.
The essence of atonement is not forgiveness but reconciliation.
For me the atonement is best expressed by Isaac Watts great hymn "When I survey the wonderous cross", and the crucial couplet of reconciliation "Love so amazing so divine/Demands my soul, my life, my all". So I guess I line up with Abelard!
Just a quick response...
It's not a question of whether God forgives freely, but how God forgives freely. God forgave before the Cross and God forgives after the Cross because rather than punishing our sins, Christ self-sacrificially gave himself to die on the Cross.
Similarly, it's not an either/or between forgiveness and reconciliation. Rather, forgiveness is a necessary part of reconciliation.
I'll try to reply to what Starlight and others said when I've got time to read and respond properly.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Kaplan Corday wrote:
'... I would rather listen to a doctrinally dodgy (if there is such a thing) piece of Gregorian chant than a doctrinally sound (if there is such a thing) Hillsong ditty, while au fond realizing that it is the doctrine that counts in the end.'
Get off my turf, Kaplan.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Indeed, one also needs to take into account the grounds for forgiveness.
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
Is it arbitrarily, out of his great love? He smply says, 'Oh I love you and so I'll just forgive you anyway?'
If that is the case, what of holiness? What of justice? Indeed, what of wrath? The kind of wrath that has God's heart burning at the sin, the injustice, the brutality, the murder, the rape, the jealousy and immorality of this world?
If God has no reaction to these things, no sense of judgment upon them and those who perpetrate even the least act of hatred, then what sort of weak, shallow, pale kind of 'love' does he possess?
I would strongly suggest that the ONLY basis for God's forgiveness is that out of his eternal love he gave his Son to suffer the curse of his wrath, in substitution for us, that the record of our sins might be wiped out.
The cross is where both love and justice meet - where mercy and wrath are revealed. It is the place where forgiveness is made possible because our sins are nailed there, the penalty is paid, Satan is defeated and the love of God is shown to be supreme.
If God could simply forgive, with no thought for his holiness or justice and righteousness, then there was no need for the brutal charade of the cross.
quote:
He died that we might be forgiven,
He died to make us good,
That we might go at last to heaven,
Saved by his precious blood.
That's not evangelicalism.
That's Christianity
[ 05. July 2011, 08:39: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
On the basis of repentance.
quote:
If that is the case, what of holiness? What of justice? Indeed, what of wrath? The kind of wrath that has God's heart burning at the sin, the injustice, the brutality, the murder, the rape, the jealousy and immorality of this world?
Well if the person remains an evil person then they are doubtless deserving of punishment. But if they change and become a good person, what gain is there from punishing them then? There's a great passage in Origen's writings on this matter:
quote:
Origen's Commentary on Romans 2.1.2-3:
“By common acknowledgement a good man ought not be punished, nor should an evil one obtain good things. Therefore, if, for instance, someone has done evil at some time, it is certain that he was evil at that time when he was doing evil things. However, suppose he, repenting of his past deeds, reforms his mind toward good things, behaves well, speaks well, thinks well, and turns his will toward the good. Is it not clear to you that he who does these things is a good man who deserves to receive good things? In like manner if someone should convert from good to evil, he shall no longer be judged as the good man he was and is no longer, but as the evil man that he is. You see, deeds pass away, whether good or evil... Accordingly it shall be unjust to punish a good mind for evils committed or to reward an evil mind for good deeds..... How will it be just to condemn a pious soul for ungodliness, or a just soul for injustice, or a soul practising moderation for excess?”
Thus a person who remains evil can be justly punished. But a person who repents should be forgiven. There's a very clear passage in Ezekiel on this subject:
quote:
Ezekiel 18:
21 “But if a wicked person turns away from all the sins they have committed and keeps all my decrees and does what is just and right, that person will surely live; they will not die. 22 None of the offenses they have committed will be remembered against them. Because of the righteous things they have done, they will live. 23 Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?
24 “But if a righteous person turns from their righteousness and commits sin and does the same detestable things the wicked person does, will they live? None of the righteous things that person has done will be remembered. Because of the unfaithfulness they are guilty of and because of the sins they have committed, they will die.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
If God has no reaction to these things, no sense of judgment upon them and those who perpetrate even the least act of hatred, then what sort of weak, shallow, pale kind of 'love' does he possess?
Read carefully the part I've bolded. Either you punish the guilty people or you don't. I agree it makes sense for God to punish the guilty people who don't repent, that's just. But in PSA justice is not done - the perpetrators aren't punished: They're let off, and an innocent person is punished instead. It just makes no sense.
quote:
If God could simply forgive, with no thought for his holiness or justice and righteousness, then there was no need for the brutal charade of the cross.
Are you familiar with any atonement theories other than PSA? PSA can be false and there can be other purposes for the cross!
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
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Reading through the complexity of arguments offered in this thread, I am having problems understanding why offence/punishment continues to be seen as a major paradigm for redemption/atonement.
Surely the whole thrust of NT teaching is moving us away from that paradigm towards one of reconciliation, where the original paradigm of punishment for sin is completely overcome?
For example, I would tend to read 2Cor 5.19 as suggesting that God doesn't deal with trespasses rather than implicating God in a scheme to deal with the trespasses without implicating us in the consequences.
I have for some time preached that the reconciling love of God overcomes all earthly ideas of justice and that the suffering of the cross because it is borne for love alone is thereby, as Paul says, our reconciliation to one another and to God.
Of course, we can choose not to be reconciled, and then we face the consequence of sin, not imposed on us by God, but simply because that's the way it is in a fallen world where God's way is not ours.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Starlight, Mudfrog can speak for himself, but upthread he has already outlined that he is aware of alternative (or supplementary or complementary, call them what you will) theories to PSA.
I will admit that he seems a bit hazy on the chronology, though, and seems to believe that PSA antedates the others and that they only developed later. Well, I'd agree that Abelard's moral influence theory was a later development than the seeds of PSA but whilst PSA does derive from Anselm's approach (with the backing of some Augustinian emphases and particular understandings of the Pauline and Petrine canons), I think it's fair to say that PSA as we know it now is a gradual and later development compared to the earlier Patristic theories. That doesn't mean that this makes it wrong, any more than the antiquity of the 'ransom theory', in and of itself, necessarily makes those right ...
Where, I suspect, Mudfrog might fall down (if indeed he does fall down) is his somewhat sound-bite-y, reductionist approach.
'That's not evangelicalism, that's Christianity!' he trumpets.
Well, at one time I'd have blown the same bugle, but the fact that there are millions of Christians out there who don't see it that exact same way gives me pause. Either Mudfrog is saying that Christians who don't hold to a PSA approach are somehow defective in their faith, or he needs to appreciate that oranges are not the only fruit and there are ways of looking at things other than his own.
It's the 'penal' bit that people seem to be finding a problem with. I will go along with Mudfrog that it is difficult to read the scriptures (I won't say objectively, we none of us read them objectively) without noticing that there's a lot about wrath and judgement. Only this morning the Anglican Lectionary readings for Morning Prayer contained Romans 9:19-end - a favourite passage for Calvinists - which contains references to people as 'objects of his wrath' rather than sin as a concept or a vague, disembodied sense of wrong-doing.
Ok - we need to interpret these verses, debate them, discuss them ... but we still have to deal with the fact that they appear to indicate that God's wrath can be directed at people.
All that said, and trying to work out where I stand, I would certainly agree, along with Mudfrog and others, that the cross does deal with sin and judgement in some way - but it shouldn't be taken in isolation from the whole 'Christ-event' - the life(and teachings), death and glorious resurrection of our Lord and Saviour, Jesus Christ.
I know Mudfrog isn't isolating the atonement aspect from any other ... but it does strike me that his somewhat strident form of activist evangelical Christianity does highlight or over-emphasise this aspect in a way that potentially distorts the balance of the whole.
Conversely, of course, an over-reliance on CV or the moral influence theory or any other model or analogy does the same.
Mudfrog's clarion call sounds great if you're bugling away on the street and issuing a challenge and a proclamation - and there's certainly room and need for that. But surely there's a bigger picture here? As well as profound mysteries.
The bit from John Stott's 'The Cross of Christ' that still resonates with me is where he touches on the 'judger judged' aspect and God's complete and total identification with fallen humanity in and through the person and work of Christ. He uses some very solemn Jewish observations about Auchswitz to make this point.
There are matters before which we are wise to remain silent.
But you can still have the idea of God's self-substitution through Christ (I'm struggling to find the right words here) without necessarily invoking a penal aspect. It doesn't mean that God winks at sin and turns a blind-eye to issues of justice ... far from it.
As sin is part of the human condition and Jesus Christ is fully God and fully man, then, by entering into our humanity, Christ assumes everything about it - apart from sinning. How this works out in practice - I don't know. How the cross and resurrection 'works', I don't know. But however it does 'work' then I suspect it both encompasses and transcends any atonement model or theory we may care to throw at it.
Evangelical sound-bites and Cecil Frances Alexander hymns may take us so far - but there're not the last word on the matter.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Well, I'd agree that Abelard's moral influence theory was a later development than the seeds of PSA
Er, moral influence is actually among the oldest of the atonement theories, and was pretty dominant during the second and third centuries AD. Abelard contributed nothing new on the subject and was mostly regurgitating Augustine's teachings on the subject (a practice rather common in medieval theology).
[ 05. July 2011, 12:02: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Either Mudfrog is saying that Christians who don't hold to a PSA approach are somehow defective in their faith, or he needs to appreciate that oranges are not the only fruit and there are ways of looking at things other than his own.
Quite so. More fruit. Less nuts.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
On the basis of repentance.
Ask, seek, knock. Repent and believe in the gospel.....
It's pretty old..... in the synoptics especially....
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
How the cross and resurrection 'works', I don't know. But however it does 'work' then I suspect it both encompasses and transcends any atonement model or theory we may care to throw at it.
True.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Oh dear, Evensong agrees with me. I really must have backslidden ...
Actually, I don't agree with the analysis on Evensong's Liberal Christianity uncyclopaedia link ... I thought that the only people Liberal Christians thought of as going to Hell were evangelicals ...
Evensong's Liberal Christianity can't really be the real thing, because in her version everyone gets to go to heaven - including the evangelicals ...
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Evensong's Liberal Christianity can't really be the real thing, because in her version everyone gets to go to heaven - including the evangelicals ...
That does suck.
But apparently in my father's house there are many rooms that have been prepared.
We can avoid each other.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Originally posted by Dafyd: quote:
'By his wounds you have been healed' is figurative on any reading, but on the PSA the figure is contorted: 'because he was wounded we will never be wounded at all'? - not satisfactory.
I think it's easier than that to get PSA out of this phrase. You just need to gloss 'wounds' as 'punishment' and 'healed' as 'released from guilt' and you're there.
No doubt if you can gloss any word as any other word you like you can get any passage to mean PSA. If you want to respect the imagery, it's harder.
quote:
Well the context both before and after is some of the most full-blown moral influence passages in the NT. So the core passage seems to be surrounded by moral influence - marinaded in it if you will.
There's nothing about moral influence that I can see. There's a lot about the imitation of Jesus, and that is certainly a component of the moral influence theory of the atonement. But the presence of a component of a theory doesn't mean the theory is present. That's committing the same mistake as Mudfrog makes when he says that no PSA means no cross. A bracelet reading WWJD is not a sign that the wearer holds a moral influence view of the atonement - indeed I suspect somewhat the reverse.
Despite the impression given by some revivalist preachers, Christianity is not all about the atonement, and just because a passage is talking about the imitation of Christ does not mean it's doing so as a discussion of the atonement.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
On the basis of repentance.
Ask, seek, knock. Repent and believe in the gospel.....
It's pretty old..... in the synoptics especially....
Yes, it's repeated many times, not only in the gospels but also throughout the Old Testament.
The simplest picture of Christ's salvation is that He came to tell us how to stop sinning. To the extent that we can then turn from sinning, to the same extent we are saved and live a joyful life.
The dramatic imagery surrounding death and life, including the crucifixion, are all connected with the basic idea that our own will must die, or be subordinated, and we need to follow God's will.
All from a loving God who wishes nothing more than to help us freely choose to live a joyful life.
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
Mudfrog: quote:
He died that we might be forgiven,
He died to make us good,
That we might go at last to heaven,
Saved by his precious blood.
That's not evangelicalism.
That's Christianity
At the risk of starting another hare, I'd like to make three observations.
1. Jesus was in the forgiveness business before the cross. I'm not convinced, therefore, that the cross was necessary for God to forgive.
2. I would suggest that he died to make us 'loving' rather than 'good'.
3. What exactly is meant by 'saved by his precious blood'?
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Twangist:
Obviously a lot of OT cultus is about the issue of ritual purity which is about who's "in" and who's "out" and who therefore can be a part of the worshipping community and have access to God. A lot of Jesus' healings served to remove ritual impurity and restore outcast's to being fully part of the people of God. s - "what they did (sin) .. made them guilty".
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Are you sure about that? Contacting ritual impurity was simply part of life for Jews in the ancient world… E. P. Sanders observes that ‘All the Jews, including Pharisees, were impure more or less all the time….“all the holy scriptures render the hands unclean. The rabbis certainly did not refrain from contact with the Scriptures for fear of getting their hands dirty. … Christian interpreters do not need of ritual purity laws to avoid Using them superiority. We do need to remember that these laws, which seem to us strange and archaic, were not uncommon in the ancient world. It is anachronistic to suppose that Jesus dismissed them as irrelevant. Undoubtedly there was diversity with respect to attention to observance, some were more meticulous than others, and certainly there differences in Diaspora customs.’ Preaching without Contempt: Overcoming Unintended Anti-Judaism – M. Salmon (Fortress 2006) pp. 100-101
Sorry Leo, I'm not sure which bit's of my post you are addressing?
That Jesus's healings weren't primarily about impurity.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Where, I suspect, Mudfrog might fall down (if indeed he does fall down) is his somewhat sound-bite-y, reductionist approach.
'That's not evangelicalism, that's Christianity!' he trumpets...
Evangelical sound-bites and Cecil Frances Alexander hymns may take us so far - but there're not the last word on the matter.
What I meant was that Mrs Alexander's hymn is not speaking only in evangelical terms - she was Church of Ireland for goodness' sake. The doctrine she was espousing is common right across the Church scene, not just evangelicalism.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
That's committing the same mistake as Mudfrog makes when he says that no PSA means no cross.
I was not aware I had said this.
I really do think you should take off your 'we know what evangelicals believe' glasses when you read my posts: there's is a lot of preconcepotion going on and you are reading into what I say.
I do not hold that PSA is the only view. I do not believe there is no atonement without it. What I do say, along with Gamaliel, is that it is hard to read Scripture and NOT see it, but that so many other 'theories' or mataphors are also there.
I don't think you'll find a salvationist anywhere who does not appreciate all the different models.
Can I also ask to be removed from the stereotype of the military image, the bugler, the trumpeter, etc. Our dotrines (entirely Methodist)were formed far earlier than our military imagery and nothing of our doctrine is inspired by or dependent upon it. Neither might I say, is the way we evangelise. Brass bands and uniforms, yes, but there are no 'manic street preachers' in TSA. We are not aggressive or militaristic.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Indeed, one also needs to take into account the grounds for forgiveness.
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
Is it arbitrarily, out of his great love? He smply says, 'Oh I love you and so I'll just forgive you anyway?'
On the grounds that your simplistic theology gives God two choices. To forgive, or to commit a greater evil than the one he is objecting to. Your theology ties God into only two options and one of those options is to commit the greatest evil it is possible for any being to commit. Your God is too small and too constrained to have any choice other than unconditional forgiveness or being more brutal, more unjust, and more evil than that which he objects to. If he is good and just then when he comes to judge he must always judge in favour of heaven - to do otherwise makes him unjust and evil.
quote:
If that is the case, what of holiness?
You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means. Specifically, holiness allows people to walk through the swamp without being infected.
quote:
What of justice?
Any idea of justice was destroyed when you turned God's choices into a simple choice between heaven and hell. Hell is always an evil choice, and the platonic ideal of evil injustice. Which leaves heaven for everyone.
quote:
Indeed, what of wrath? The kind of wrath that has God's heart burning at the sin, the injustice, the brutality, the murder, the rape, the jealousy and immorality of this world?
You have created a God whose wrath multiplies beyond measure the injustice and brutality of this world. Your God is a significant part of the problem. And his injustice is that of a tyrant who hangs people for stealing a loaf of bread and has them tortured for doing what he does.
quote:
If God has no reaction to these things, no sense of judgment upon them and those who perpetrate even the least act of hatred, then what sort of weak, shallow, pale kind of 'love' does he possess?
If God's reaction is to torture people eternally in the fires of hell, then he is far, far worse than that which he is reacting to.
quote:
I would strongly suggest that the ONLY basis for God's forgiveness is that out of his eternal love he gave his Son to suffer the curse of his wrath, in substitution for us, that the record of our sins might be wiped out.
I would strongly suggest that your God is an inhuman monster, one who returns evil beyond measure for evil. And is therefore evil. His morality is that of a petty tyrant. And the incarnation allows God to set his own rules because he is too stiff-necked to admit that they are completely wrong.
quote:
If God could simply forgive, with no thought for his holiness or justice and righteousness, then there was no need for the brutal charade of the cross.
Absolutely. Such a pity that your God is so limited, so lacking in goodness and holiness that he needs to create such a brutal charade in order to display any grace.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Yeahm you keep on saying all this stuff and it strikes me that you have a huge preconception about God that basically prevents you from believing what any Creed-believing Christian would affirm.
Is there a point in discussing these things or are you just going to rant?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
You ought to know me well enough by now that my gentle ribbing about bugles and military imagery is just that - gentle ribbing. But as a trope it does tell us something about the Salvation Army. The clue is in the name.
Yes, I know that the Salvation Army doesn't go in for manic street preaching and aggressive evangelism - far from it - but it is very activist (to its credit) and what I am suggesting is the kind of sloganeering, somewhat sound-bite-y approach lends itself to that form of activism. Other traditions do it too, of course, the Orthodox do whenever they become activist - their tone can become quite aggressive on such occasions (in the wrong way rather than in a more positively activist sense).
I'm well aware that Cecil Frances Alexander was Church of Ireland - which was very Protestant at that time in contradistinction to the prevailing Catholicism of the bulk of the population.
You can't make 'There is a green hill ...' speak for Christendom as a whole. I doubt that the Orthodox would sign up for it for a start. Whilst they would probably recognise aspects of it as congruent with aspects of Orthodoxy, other parts would be wide of the mark as far as they were concerned.
Incidentally, an Orthodox friend once told me that they didn't have a problem with 'When I survey the wondrous cross', for instance, other than it was a tad on the sentimental side. But then, you get sentimentality over the Bosphorus too, particularly among the Russians.
All I was saying was that you can't pin all this stuff down to a single set of sound-bites or propositions - which I know you're trying to say as well. The difference 'twixt thee and me, I suspect, would simply be on the emphasis we place on individual aspects or models.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
Starlight –
Milgrom – unfortunately Google books only let you view p1 which seems to say “Everyone else in history has translated this word as “sin offering” but I think “purification offering” would be more accurate because of the root of the word” – is this a fair reading?
Not being a Hebrew scholar I can’t comment on the veracity of this – Although he seems to be influential and respected.
I’m personally always a bit wary of the ”everyone else in history has got this wrong but now I understand it” approach to theology. I’m sure a bit of Google-fu or a visit to a theological library would reveal other viable approaches too. I note that for example this random book (The IVP Bible background commentary: Old Testament By John H. Walton, Victor Harold Matthews, Mark William Chavalas p122) - acknowledges Milgrom but takes a both/and approach to moral and ritual purification.
Leviciticus as cited in my previous post does deal extensively and specifically with moral shortcomings, so even if the sin and guilt offering phraseology was entirely revised the text would still read in such a way that strongly suggests that the cultus was concerned with dealing with moral pollution and guilt as well as ritual pollution. Which was my original point to Evensong.
Where the NT refers to the OT cultus it does seem to be with moral cleansing (transformation even?) much more in mind than ritual. Often this imagery is used in conjunction with the forensic courtroom terminology of Justification further emphasising the moral aspect of what is being discussed (Rom 3 being a classic example).
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
On the basis of repentance.
Surely this is making repentance a meritous work? (admittedly much of Pop-Evodom does this with the “sinners prayer”)
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
That Jesus's healings weren't primarily about impurity.
Again, where did I say that? I wouldn't dare to say I knew what they were primarily about.
I said that Jesus's healing had the effect in many cases of removing ritual impurity,e.g. - the woman with the issue of blood, the Gaderene Demoniac, the various lepers (whom he also told to offer the sacrifice commanded by Moses).
Some of the consequences of this for those thus healed would be: Reintegration into society and fuller participation in the worshipping life of Israel (and by implication access to God)
I then speculated that this might provide an insight into a way in which the concepts of "pure and impure" might still be relevant to how we live out the Gospel.
Jesus's healings did a whole raft of other stuff too especially in Johns Gospel but that is a tangent.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
[qb] That's committing the same mistake as Mudfrog makes when he says that no PSA means no cross.
I was not aware I had said this.
What you said was:
quote:
If God could simply forgive, with no thought for his holiness or justice and righteousness, then there was no need for the brutal charade of the cross.
Strictly speaking that's the contrapositive. Nevertheless, it's logically equivalent to 'if the cross was needed, then God couldn't simply forgive'.
You may very well be aware that there are other models of the atonement. But it's hard to see any sign of that from the post I quoted the above from.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
To be fair to Muddy - most of the other models do seem to require the cross.
It's the God can just forgive anyway model that he's not too happy with. Which if taken to it's logical conclucion would imply that the incarnation, life and continued life of Christ are pretty unnessescary - it was for "us men (sic) and salvation" that all that happened.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
You can't make 'There is a green hill ...' speak for Christendom as a whole. I doubt that the Orthodox would sign up for it for a start.
Personally, I'm fine with singing There is a green hill far away. It's a song: the PSA elements are acceptable as expressions of emotion in a way that they're not when considered as sober reason. I don't think hills near Jerusalem are often green either.
[ 05. July 2011, 19:53: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Twangist:
Milgrom – unfortunately Google books only let you view p1 which seems to say “Everyone else in history has translated this word as “sin offering” but I think “purification offering” would be more accurate because of the root of the word” – is this a fair reading?
Not being a Hebrew scholar I can’t comment on the veracity of this – Although he seems to be influential and respected.
Exactly
Every translation of scripture is a commentary of sorts. Milgrom wrote the book in question in 1983. Since 1983, both Jews and Christians have produced new translations. You wanna guess how many of these translations translate it the way Milgrom says it should be translated? I can't say for sure. But, the next one I see will be the first. Scholarship does not mean coming up with a novel opinion and then looking for outdated, obscure, or controversial sources to support the opinion. Don't know if that practice has a name. It isn't scholarship.
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on
:
Kwesi, as usual, was spot on.
The Cross was not necessary for God to forgive.
But it was inevitable.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Surely this is making repentance a meritous work? (admittedly much of Pop-Evodom does this with the “sinners prayer”)
I don't think that's the case (although I think you're right about Starlight's particular theories).
There isn't a step in between repenting and forgiving in which God decides that their repentance is sufficient to deserve forgiveness. Rather, repentance and forgiveness set all questions of desert and merit aside. It's not as if the prodigal son deserved the fatted calf for coming home. His father wasn't waiting around saying that if he comes home he'll get the fatted calf, but if he stops in the next village that's not good enough. The father would have sent the fatted calf to his son had he known his son was hungry and had he known how to get it to him, repentance or no repentance. It's just that if we don't repent God's forgiveness is no good to us.
There's then a separate question of how easy it is for us to repent. Thinking that sitting around with the pigs is bad for us and wishing we hadn't treated our father so badly is no good if it doesn't lead to us getting up and coming home. That's the bit that's missing from the parable. Our elder brother isn't sitting around congratulating himself on how dutiful he is:
Father of all, we give you thanks and praise,
That when we were still far off you met us in your son and brought us home.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Yeahm you keep on saying all this stuff and it strikes me that you have a huge preconception about God that basically prevents you from believing what any Creed-believing Christian would affirm.
Is there a point in discussing these things or are you just going to rant?
It depends. I hope that you can come up with something that distinguishes your God from soemone who arbitrarily tortures everyone but his favourites, and perverts humans into calling that good. Such a being is a far scarier devil to me than any red skinned guy with a trident.
And my only preconception about God as far as I know is that people should be judged by their actions rather than their PR.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
I don't think Mudfrog is a supralapsarian Calvinist who believes God and Satan are one in the same. I could be wrong. My knowledge of actual Salvation Army theology is admittedly limited.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Milgrom – unfortunately Google books only let you view p1
Maybe you need to be signed in?
quote:
which seems to say “Everyone else in history has translated this word as “sin offering” but I think “purification offering” would be more accurate because of the root of the word” – is this a fair reading?
Pretty much. Milgrom singlehandedly revolutionised the study of Leviticus, showing how so much of what Christians had previously assumed about it was wrong.
quote:
he seems to be influential and respected.
Yup. He's considered the scholar on Leviticus. He is now the baseline from which modern analysis of Leviticus is done. Not everyone agrees completely with all his theories, but I think it's fair to say that 90% agree 90% with his views.
quote:
Where the NT refers to the OT cultus it does seem to be with moral cleansing (transformation even?) much more in mind than ritual.
Yep, the NT takes the language from the ancient purification rituals and moralizes it to talk about cleansing the heart of moral impurities rather than cleansing the altar of ritual impurities.
quote:
Often this imagery is used in conjunction with the forensic courtroom terminology of Justification
I don't accept that justification is a forensic term. It became one in Latin, which I think is what primarily led the Reformers to make the mistake of thinking it was a forensic term. It's a moral term in Greek - dikaiosune means "morality".
quote:
On what grounds, on what basis does God forgive?
On the basis of repentance.
Surely this is making repentance a meritorious work?
I have no idea, cos I don't know what your terminology here means. I looked up a dictionary for meritorious and it said "deserving of praise". I would certainly praise an act of repentance. But somehow I doubt you mean something as a simple as a dictionary definition, and suspect we are straying into the minefield of Loaded Theological Terms (TM). Perhaps you could explain what a "meritorious work" is or isn't and why it would be a good/bad thing for repentance to be one? My general view would be that repentance is what it is regardless of what weird categories are applied millennia later to it...
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
Dafyd quote:
There's then a separate question of how easy it is for us to repent. Thinking that sitting around with the pigs is bad for us and wishing we hadn't treated our father so badly is no good if it doesn't lead to us getting up and coming home. That's the bit that's missing from the parable.
I disagree. Isn't the point that the prodigal is so desperate that he goes home because it is a choice between starvation and survival. His need for reconciliation with the father on whatever terms the old man dictates is a no-brainer.
For Jesus, however, the problem is not the prodigal but the righteous elder brother, who puts the demands of justice above joy at the former's return.
Salvation by Grace cannot be frustrated by the laws' demands.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I think it's easier than that to get PSA out of this phrase. You just need to gloss 'wounds' as 'punishment' and 'healed' as 'released from guilt' and you're there.
No doubt if you can gloss any word as any other word you like you can get any passage to mean PSA.
Exactly, this is exactly why PSA advocates are capable of finding PSA in any passage. I have seen it argued in a pro-PSA book that the word "cup" in a passage implied PSA. In 1 Pet 2:24 it is particularly easy for PSA people to gloss the passage to get something that looks very much like a core part of PSA.
I think you reject the PSA glosses here too easily. It makes a lot of sense from a PSA mindset to think of the spiritual 'wounds' Jesus suffered on the cross as being the punishment he vicariously suffered, and us be spiritually 'healed' can quite easily be thought of as referring to our relationship with God being healed through PSA.
quote:
There's nothing about moral influence that I can see. There's a lot about the imitation of Jesus, and that is certainly a component of the moral influence theory of the atonement.
I see a certain amount of conflict between those two statements!
quote:
But the presence of a component of a theory doesn't mean the theory is present. That's committing the same mistake as Mudfrog makes when he says that no PSA means no cross.
They're not quite the same, but I understand the point you're trying to make.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
I don't think Mudfrog is a supralapsarian Calvinist who believes God and Satan are one in the same. I could be wrong. My knowledge of actual Salvation Army theology is admittedly limited.
Think Methodist and you've basically got our theology.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Evensong's Liberal Christianity can't really be the real thing, because in her version everyone gets to go to heaven - including the evangelicals ...
That does suck.
But apparently in my father's house there are many rooms that have been prepared.
We can avoid each other.
It is, indeed, a big house. The evangelicals can have the whole right wing.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Yeahm you keep on saying all this stuff and it strikes me that you have a huge preconception about God that basically prevents you from believing what any Creed-believing Christian would affirm.
Again this idea that real Christians (this time it's "Creed-believing") must perforce believe PSA.
quote:
Per Gamaliel:
But then, you get sentimentality over the Bosphorus too, particularly among the Russians.
And schmalz. Nobody does schmalz like the Russians do schmalz.
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
To be fair to Muddy - most of the other models do seem to require the cross.
But not for the same purpose.
quote:
It's the God can just forgive anyway model that he's not too happy with. Which if taken to it's logical conclucion would imply that the incarnation, life and continued life of Christ are pretty unnessescary - it was for "us men (sic) and salvation" that all that happened.
Nope. Only if you think forgiving was the only purpose of the incarnation.
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Surely this is making repentance a meritous work? (admittedly much of Pop-Evodom does this with the “sinners prayer”)
The Orthodox can live with this, since we're not solo fides (or however that's spelled). We've even been called semi-Pelagian, and many Orthodox thinkers will cop to that.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
dikaiosune means "morality".
What's your source for this?
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Starlight:
Pretty much. Milgrom singlehandedly revolutionised the study of Leviticus, showing how so much of what Christians had previously assumed about it was wrong.
So, who other than you believes his work was that significant? I'd settle for a few tenured faculty members at major universities and seminaries. Like I said earlier, both Jews and Christians have translated Leviticus since 1983. You should be able to point to one translation of Leviticus that makes the change. Twangist already offered you one source that doesn't think Milogram's work means what it think it means.
[ 05. July 2011, 23:51: Message edited by: Beeswax Altar ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
So, who other than you believes his work was that significant?
~sigh~ Are you always like this? Clearly you're not familiar with the field at all. So why such absurd levels of doubt when I say that one scholar is particularly famous in the field? Try reading some of the reviews of his commentaries on Amazon if you doubt my word alone. Or perhaps you could do your own google search rather than demanding I do one, just to satisfy your absurd levels of skepticism? Anyway, a quick google books search yielded this (hmm, looks like a good book itself, I may have to buy it).
quote:
Like I said earlier, both Jews and Christians have translated Leviticus since 1983. You should be able to point to one translation of Leviticus that makes the change.
I agree, and that reflects very poorly on Bible translators. But from my past experiences and frustrations with the absurdities and stupidities of Bible translations I really have no confidence whatsoever in translators and am not at all surprised if they have failed yet again. Admittedly, they have a little bit of defence in this case as presumably the whole scholarly community wasn't convinced in an instant by Milgrom's case and it has taken years/decades for his opinions to become widely accepted.
[ 06. July 2011, 00:28: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
Oh...so your answer is no.
If you are such an expert in the field, why don't you give us a CV?
If your so familiar with the field, you wouldn't need to do a Google search to find respectable scholars who agree with you.
If you were a scholar of any sort, you wouldn't consider reviews on Amazon and Google hits indicators of how influential a scholar's opinion on something is to the rest of the field.
Oh...and did you even read the entire section on Jacob Milgrom in your link?
Does anybody else remember former Nobel Prize Laureate and friend of the Queen, The Sue?
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
dikaiosune means "morality".
What's your source for this?
Lots of research on the subject. Which is to say, I'm not saying it cos one or two authoritative sources I happen to have read say it, but because on balance of a ton of things I've read that it seems that's the way the evidence points. The most straightfoward way to convince yourself it's right is to make a list of all the occurrences of dikaiosune in the LXX and NT and read through them all (in English translation would be fine), and see that moral virtue / morality / virtue is the obvious meaning for the word.
To give a specific authoritative example, the single biggest ancient work on 'dikaiosune' is Plato's Republic, which runs for over 300 pages on the subject. Probably the most experienced current translator of it is Robin Waterfield who has translated more than 20 classical Greek philosophical works mostly for Oxford University Press. In his translation of the Republic, he explains he has decided to use a single English term throughout to translate dikaisune rather than switch between different English words for it, and he feels the best such term is "morality".
There is a really good little historical analysis of usage of Dikaiosune by Havelock here. He comments that Dikaiosune "is the most convenient Greek noun by which to index the notion of morality as an ethical principle". ie He's saying if a Greek person was going to talk about morality, this is the word they'd use for it. Later he comments it's about "the notion of morality as an attribute of a person". He concludes that in comparison with other Greek ethical terms, dikaiosune indicates "a more ambitious, generous, and ultimately inward looking conception which we can conveniently identify as "morality" in the largest sense".
I recall in one classics course at university, the lecturer was commenting on the word arete and said "oh, we [Classicists] used to translate this as 'virtue' and dikaiosune as 'justice', but that was a bit inaccurate really because arete is not restricted to moral virtue but rather encompassed the whole concept of excellence in general, whereas dikaiosune is more the word for virtue in the area of morality. So now you'll find arete gets translated as 'excellent' and dikaiosune as 'virtue' in a moral sense." I found that comment fascinating at the time, because I was just starting to get interested in the question of what the Bible meant by 'righteousness'.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Oh...so your answer is no.
If you are such an expert in the field, why don't you give us a CV?
If your so familiar with the field, you wouldn't need to do a Google search to find respectable scholars who agree with you.
If you were a scholar of any sort, you wouldn't consider reviews on Amazon and Google hits indicators of how influential a scholar's opinion on something is to the rest of the field.
Oh...and did you even read the entire section on Jacob Milgrom in your link?
Does anybody else remember former Nobel Prize Laureate and friend of the Queen, The Sue?
You're amusing. Anyway, if you're interested in the question of atonement you should read my book on the subject. I think you'd enjoy skeptically questioning every page. And it has over 1500 references for you to follow up and skeptically question.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
The one you self published?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Plato is 400 years before the NT. Words can change meaning over time.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Plato is 400 years before the NT. Words can change meaning over time.
Sure. Although Dikaiosune in the LXX is ~150BC which provides a bit of a continuum, as NT usage is presumably pretty heavily dependent on LXX usage.
There's two major methodological problems with looking at dikaiosune in the NT era. (1) Most relevant Jewish texts from that time aren't in Greek. It's difficult to study a Greek word by looking at writings in another language, though it can be done with care. (ie looking at what words were translated into Greek as 'dikaiosune' looking at how those concepts were understood) (2) Looking in Paul's writings for the meaning of dikaiosune quickly leads to viciously circular and theologically biased conclusions.
By far the best credible job of this is done by Przybylski in Righteousness in Matthew and His World of Thought which looks at the LXX, the Gospel of Matthew, and Jewish writings from the time (DSS and Rabbis etc), and studiously avoids stepping into the Paul quagmire. It's an excellent and careful analysis which I highly recommend. He concludes "Righteousness is seen as God's demand upon man. Righteousness refers to proper conduct before God." (99). He suggests there are certain strands of a shift in meaning occurring towards a meaning of "loving kindness / mercy" and further strands of shift toward meaning "almsgiving", and thus that many statements about 'doing' righteousness are probably thinking specifically of performing alms. Most interestingly he explores the Jewish usage of the phrase "righteousness of God" and finds various examples that show clearly it meaning "the kind of human behaviour which God regards as righteous" and it is contrasted in one text to the "righteousness of Satan" which is meaning "the kind of human behaviour which Satan regards as righteous". Such a meaning makes a lot of sense in both Matthew and James' use of the phrase (and of course Paul's, but we can't talk of Paul). France says there is a "growing consensus" with regard to Przybylski's correctness.
Methodologically what I think would be ideal, but haven't seen done, is a study of Greek usage of dikaiosune around the NT period. There seem to be enough usages of the term by Greek philosophers and writers from this period to warrant a fair study.
[ 06. July 2011, 03:33: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
For Jesus, however, the problem is not the prodigal but the righteous elder brother, who puts the demands of justice above joy at the former's return.
Salvation by Grace cannot be frustrated by the laws' demands.
Yes!
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Evensong's Liberal Christianity can't really be the real thing, because in her version everyone gets to go to heaven - including the evangelicals ...
That does suck.
But apparently in my father's house there are many rooms that have been prepared.
We can avoid each other.
It is, indeed, a big house. The evangelicals can have the whole right wing.
Quotes file.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Starlight
Just a couple of thoughts on the fascinating translation issues - and my thanks for bringing them into the discussion.
What is the opposite of "morality"?
What do you make of the arguments that I've seen advanced by the Orthodox here, that when we use words like just, or love, in connection with the mind and heart of God, we should capitalise them as a reminder that when speaking of the mind and heart of God we do so by analogy?. It's an apophatic viewpoint I think. The need to be precise in language is proper, and teaches us much. However, precision in language needs also to be weighed against our awareness of knowing God "in part". Essence and attributes at work. There will be aspects of God's Justice - or His Righteousness - or His Morality - which we cannot fully comprehend, which puzzle us, cause us to wonder.
I think also that we may close in better on what the NT authors were trying to say by recognising that morality, understood in human terms, requires both ethical principle and codification in order to be understood. We can speak, perfectly properly, of different moral codes, whether or not they are based on identical principles. ISTM that morality is learned in the context of right and wrong behaviour as well as principle - so there need to be some standards in mind. Moral codes will undoubtedly contain much common ground; the overlap will exceed the differences. But there will be differences.
My understanding of the NT understanding is that the principle of agape embraces and trumps all the others. All Christian morality - including concepts of justice and righteousness and morality, whether we apply them to ourselves or our undertsanding of God - flow from that. But this overarching belief will come as no surprise to those who read the stuff I write here.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Before I forget again, I also think Vanlandingham is pretty good on the subject of justification.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
What is the opposite of "morality"?
Immorality? Wrong conduct? Ungodliness? Wickedness? Pick one, I suppose.
quote:
What do you make of the arguments that I've seen advanced by the Orthodox here, that when we use words like just, or love, in connection with the mind and heart of God, we should capitalise them as a reminder that when speaking of the mind and heart of God we do so by analogy?. It's an apophatic viewpoint I think. The need to be precise in language is proper, and teaches us much. However, precision in language needs also to be weighed against our awareness of knowing God "in part". Essence and attributes at work. There will be aspects of God's Justice - or His Righteousness - or His Morality - which we cannot fully comprehend, which puzzle us, cause us to wonder.
Sure, if we were talking about God's own righteousness as a personal attribute, I wouldn't be opposed to that practice. However, as I said above, the "righteousness of God" appears to refer in Jewish idiom not to God's own personal righteousness but to a standard of human behaviour which God considers moral. Thus the "righteousness of God" is not a mysterious quality in God himself which might need a bit of apophatic thinking applied, but his revealed will for how humans should live.
quote:
I think also that we may close in better on what the NT authors were trying to say by recognising that morality, understood in human terms, requires both ethical principle and codification in order to be understood. We can speak, perfectly properly, of different moral codes, whether or not they are based on identical principles.
Absolutely, yes. For this reason, a lot of scholars like to use the phrase "correct conduct according to a norm" to refer to the meaning of dikaiosune. I fully agree with this and it appropriately emphasizes that the norm may vary. But I think "morality" captures this concept well in English because we are familiar with the possibility of different moral codes. The ancient Greeks were quite aware of the possibility of different moral codes and argued over them just as we do. The first part of Plato's discussion of dikaiosune in his Republic is to look at the issue of whether 'might makes right'... a discussion that hasn't gone away in the millennia since.
quote:
ISTM that morality is learned in the context of right and wrong behaviour as well as principle - so there need to be some standards in mind. Moral codes will undoubtedly contain much common ground; the overlap will exceed the differences. But there will be differences.
Except when one compares "morality according to Satan" with "morality according to God" as the amusing Jewish document Pryzyblski cites does... there isn't much overlap there! IIRC, the things Satan regards as moral are listed as things like murder, defiling temples etc.
Part of the excitement of the NT Christians lies in the fact that God has provided them with a moral standard through Jesus. Through resurrecting Jesus to glory, God demonstrated that Jesus' teachings and life met with substantial approval on his part. Others (such as Paul) thus saw that if they too were to live in such a way, God would likewise approve of them and they could achieve a resurrection to glory (eg see Phil 3). The belief that God had appointed Jesus the judge of the living and the dead likewise told Christians what the standard of judgment was. Jesus was self-evidently going to reward the things he had taught were good and punish things he had taught were bad. Therefore, one could achieve a positive judgment by following the teachings of Jesus.
But this kind of thinking (and understanding of dikaiosune) leads to a very different reading of Romans 3:21-26. My loose paraphrase:
"But now, separately from the Jewish customs, what God considers moral behaviour has been made known - although the Jewish customs and prophets do bear witness to it. What God considers moral behaviour has been revealed through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ and can be emulated by any who are faithful. For there is no difference among those of different customs, for all nations err at times and fall short of receiving praise from God. They are now freely brought to live morally through the gift of Jesus Christ sent for their redemption, a gift given to reconcile them through his faithfulness and martyrdom. It was to demonstrate the conduct that God considers moral, for he had previously ignored sinful conduct in his forbearance. It was to demonstrate at the present time the conduct that God considers moral in order that God should be Moral and should lead to morality those who share the faithfulness of Jesus."
quote:
My understanding of the NT understanding is that the principle of agape embraces and trumps all the others. All Christian morality - including concepts of justice and righteousness and morality, whether we apply them to ourselves or our undertsanding of God - flow from that. But this overarching belief will come as no surprise to those who read the stuff I write here.
Absolutely. It is made clear time and again in the NT that love for others is the most important thing. It is the "royal law", it is the greatest of the 'three things that abide forever', and it is how Jesus summarizes the entire law and prophets.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
So why such absurd levels of doubt when I say that one scholar is particularly famous in the field?
You did introduce him by describing him as:
quote:
Jacob Milgrom is the world-renowned authority on Leviticus
In ordinary English 'the world-renowned authority' means the same as 'a crank who agrees with me'. It's a title used to describe people like David Rohl or Ayn Rand or Baigent and Leigh or people who think Oxford wrote Hamlet. Of course, you may be speaking some idiolect in which it means 'scholar widely cited in peer-reviewed literature', but you can't expect people to just pick that up.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Starlight
Thanks for the comprehensive reply. We seem to have a pretty close understanding of these things. And you are right to point to the notion of "revealed righteousness" in terms of a standard for humans. I enjoyed your reminder about the "morality of Satan"!
I think your "loose translation" is an interesting mixture of good scholarship over the words plus "Starlight conclusions" on their meaning! But then we all do that, to a greater of lesser extent, most of the time. And you did say "loose"!
The old nostrum about "hidden in the Old, revealed in the New" is very interesting in the context of revelations re human morality as God sees it. Being relatively comfortable with the notion of growing or progressive revelation, I think where I get to on this, when all is said and done, is that we see Jesus as the revelation, and agape as the summary of how to follow him.
"Follow the way of agape" says Paul, after the hymn-like exposition of what it is. That seems to me also to both embrace and trump all atonement models and theories as well.
"Even if I can fathom all such mysteries and all such knowledge, without such love I am nothing." From where I'm at now, PSA strikes me as a problematic picture of atonement, but that wasn't always the case. Maybe it helped me on my way? Something worth working through to get to somewhere a bit clearer? At least that seems to have been true for me, but I don't propose it as a general rule. I think that would be a moral shortcoming!
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
In ordinary English 'the world-renowned authority' means the same as 'a crank who agrees with me'.
Lol! I'll bear that in mind next time. I thought I spoke English, but probably I really speak colonial. Clearly my usage of 'the world-renowned authority' to mean 'the world-renowned authority' was misguided.
And to be fair I don't know I'd say Milgrom 'agrees with me' because on the subject of so much of what he wrote I am not informed enough to even pretend to have an opinion. I thought I was objecting to a naive reading of scripture with a "Careful, I know there are interpretive lions in that there scriptural grass, here's a reasonable place to begin learning more about this topic" response, but apparently I was peddling my own thesis (?!) and pretending a crack-pot was a scholar...
We better all mount a search for those multiple statements from tenured professors, otherwise the world shall continue to regard Jacob Milgrom as a crackpot!
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I think your "loose translation" is an interesting mixture of good scholarship over the words plus "Starlight conclusions" on their meaning!
Well, yes. "Righteousness" is not the only word in Paul that I think benefits from a more careful look at what recent scholars are saying about the actual Greek meaning. Particularly 'pistis', 'charis', and 'hilasterion' I think benefit from re-evaluation. Of course this doesn't usually meet with approval from the "if Luther/Calvin didn't think of it / write it in a creed, it can't be true" brigade.
I plead guilty of course to using my overall understanding of Paul's theology / NT theology influence the general direction of my understanding of this passage. Of course, this is the passage par excellence to do that in because it is so flexible and there are so many translation options, and hence everyone does it particularly much in this passage. And, of course, what English Bible translation doesn't have a general disclaimer in the preface that essentially means "where we weren't sure, made something up that sounded good to us theologically (and where we lacked imagination we copied the previous guy's translation)"? I always enjoy reading the prefaces to see if they've had the guts to admit to that one.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
In ordinary English 'the world-renowned authority' means the same as 'a crank who agrees with me'.
Lol! I'll bear that in mind next time. I thought I spoke English, but probably I really speak colonial. Clearly my usage of 'the world-renowned authority' to mean 'the world-renowned authority' was misguided.
There are a few genuine world renowned authorities. Stephen Hawking springs to mind on physics. Possibly the late Stephen Jay Gould on biology (even if a lot of biologists have disagreements with him). Names that ordinary people with almost no interest in the field would have heard of. (You might be able to claim it for Nobel Prizewinners (ignoring the Peace Prize)). If average laymen haven't heard of them then they aren't world renowned. And round here we are not exactly ordinary laymen; most of us have some interest in theology. If a lot of us haven't heard of him then he is quite demonstrably not world-renowned. He might be renowned within his field but that's a far smaller pool.
And the thing about genuinely world-renowned experts is that no one needs to call them such. If they are that renowned then the name is enough - they have the renown to back the claim. So needing to say they are is pointless. If they aren't then claiming they are undermines your position.
quote:
We better all mount a search for those multiple statements from tenured professors, otherwise the world shall continue to regard Jacob Milgrom as a crackpot!
And you win an award for missing or ducking the point there. Crackpots can and often do use recognized sources (often taken out of context). Einstein was no crackpot but every second physics crank cites Einstein and Relativity. None of us are accusing Milgrom of being a crackpot or anything really. The claim is that the person who bestows the title of "world-renowned" on someone who is demonstrably not with the effect of lending spurious legitimacy to his claims is using a crackpot tactic.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
I don't think Mudfrog is a supralapsarian Calvinist who believes God and Satan are one in the same. I could be wrong. My knowledge of actual Salvation Army theology is admittedly limited.
Oh, I don't believe that's what he believes he believes. I simply believe that he has not faced up to the fact that the acts he claims "God's justice" requires mean that God is neither good nor just nor merciful. He doesn't believe they are the same, but in his theology Satan is a servant of God and carrying out His will.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
I don't think Mudfrog is a supralapsarian Calvinist who believes God and Satan are one in the same. I could be wrong. My knowledge of actual Salvation Army theology is admittedly limited.
Oh, I don't believe that's what he believes he believes. I simply believe that he has not faced up to the fact that the acts he claims "God's justice" requires mean that God is neither good nor just nor merciful. He doesn't believe they are the same, but in his theology Satan is a servant of God and carrying out His will.
No I don't.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
You can't make 'There is a green hill ...' speak for Christendom as a whole. I doubt that the Orthodox would sign up for it for a start.
Personally, I'm fine with singing There is a green hill far away. It's a song: the PSA elements are acceptable as expressions of emotion in a way that they're not when considered as sober reason. I don't think hills near Jerusalem are often green either.
I'm not - as I choose the hymns at our place, I ensure that it is never on the list because it poisons the minds of children (for whom it was written).
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Starlight:
Lol! I'll bear that in mind next time. I thought I spoke English, but probably I really speak colonial. Clearly my usage of 'the world-renowned authority' to mean 'the world-renowned authority' was misguided.
I didn't say Jacob Milgrom wasn't a respected scholar. Milgrom wrote a comprehensive commentary of Leviticus used by Jews and Christians alike. However, does it being respected mean that Christians and Jews alike agree with every last word of it. No. Does it mean Christians and Jews have completely changed their interpretation of Leviticus based on the commentary? No. Do we have the word of anybody but you that his commentary has anything to do with the Christian view of the atonement? Yes, I know you wrote a book on the atonement and even published it yourself. I'd like the opinion of a person who say can get their work published by a university press. You posted a link to Google Books. In my opinion, after reading that link, Milgrom's thought could be just as easily used as support for PSA.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
You can't make 'There is a green hill ...' speak for Christendom as a whole. I doubt that the Orthodox would sign up for it for a start.
Personally, I'm fine with singing There is a green hill far away. It's a song: the PSA elements are acceptable as expressions of emotion in a way that they're not when considered as sober reason. I don't think hills near Jerusalem are often green either.
I'm not - as I choose the hymns at our place, I ensure that it is never on the list because it poisons the minds of children (for whom it was written).
Forgive me, but is that not slightly arrogant, controlling, and presuming a position over the worship of your congregation that you don't actually have?
If a hymn is on your hymnal should you not choose it for the sake of the broader needs of your congregation regardless of your own particular personal hangups?
We could all say, 'O I don't like that one' but what about the 10 people who would really appreciate singing it next Good Friday? Is it your job to actually control what the congregation sings or is it rather to facilitate a well-rounded experience of worship that fits the lectionary and/or the occasion?
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Yes, I know you wrote a book on the atonement and even published it yourself. I'd like the opinion of a person who say can get their work published by a university press.
Hostly Hat ON
This is a personal attack and is not allowed in Purgatory. Do not do it again. Attack the argument, not the person.
--Tom Clune, Purgaory Host
Hostly Hat OFF
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Come now, Mudfrog, you must have realised by now that with his penchant for all things OT, Leo would ensure that this is included in all services where he gets the say on what songs or music are included:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BFtv5qe5o3c
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
You can't make 'There is a green hill ...' speak for Christendom as a whole. I doubt that the Orthodox would sign up for it for a start.
Personally, I'm fine with singing There is a green hill far away. It's a song: the PSA elements are acceptable as expressions of emotion in a way that they're not when considered as sober reason. I don't think hills near Jerusalem are often green either.
I'm not - as I choose the hymns at our place, I ensure that it is never on the list because it poisons the minds of children (for whom it was written).
Forgive me, but is that not slightly arrogant, controlling, and presuming a position over the worship of your congregation that you don't actually have?
If a hymn is on your hymnal should you not choose it for the sake of the broader needs of your congregation regardless of your own particular personal hangups?
We could all say, 'O I don't like that one' but what about the 10 people who would really appreciate singing it next Good Friday? Is it your job to actually control what the congregation sings or is it rather to facilitate a well-rounded experience of worship that fits the lectionary and/or the occasion?
It was a position I was given?
Also, I believe that part of my role is to combat heresy.
It isn't about what I like or dislike.
I any case, C. F. Alexander's hymn does not fit the Lectionary very well when it comes to the Good Friday Liturgy - which is about the triumph of the cross, not about some subChristian deal doing on within the Godhead.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
I think I will add to the above.
Although I was asked, 3 years ago, during an interregnum, to be 'in charge' of hymn-choosing, I quickly decided to form a committee with wider expertise so it consisted of the organ scholar, a retired professor of music and two 'ordinary people in the pews'. In addition to the wide expertise in terms of music, theology and liturgy, we had a fairly wide spectrum of churchpersonship.
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
Hostly Hat ON
This is a personal attack and is not allowed in Purgatory. Do not do it again. Attack the argument, not the person.
--Tom Clune, Purgaory Host
Hostly Hat OFF
As a relative newcomer, and not knowing all the characters contributing and their histories, I am having quite a lot of trouble sifting out what is pure argument and what is personal from much of this thread...
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Wow! I can't believe that 'There is a Green Hill Faraway' is now considered heretical!
What next?
Alas and did my Saviour bleed? (Isaac Watts)
And can it be that I should gain an interest in my Saviour's blood? (Wesley)
O sacred Head once wounded? (Mine, mine was the transgression but thine the deadly pain)? (Gerhardt)
O come and look awhile on him whom we have pierced, who for us died? (Faber)
I find it incredible that a small group of people can sit in judgment over a hymn that is undoubtedly in your hymnal, along with every other in Western Christendom I'll wager, and declare it to be heretical!
Do you omit heretical Christmas carols as well?
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Also, I believe that part of my role is to combat heresy.
It isn't about what I like or dislike.
Excpet the two are utterly conflated here.
quote:
I any case, C. F. Alexander's hymn does not fit the Lectionary very well when it comes to the Good Friday Liturgy - which is about the triumph of the cross, not about some subChristian deal doing on within the Godhead.
Bollocks again!
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well, I'm surprised it's considered heretical ... but not at all surprised that it isn't popular in some quarters.
I once heard a Methodist high-up say that some people believed that 'There is a green hill ...' contains all the theology you need.
He didn't see it that way himself but felt it wasn't a bad place to start.
Leo obviously does.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Oh, and while I'm at it, I've also come across some evangelicals who didn't like the line, 'and try his works to do' as they felt it was too works-orientated and also it isn't 'our' works but Christ working through us to do his work ...
Now their point of view I'd take to be more heretical than anything in the Cecil Frances Alexander hymn ...
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I find it incredible that a small group of people can sit in judgment over a hymn that is undoubtedly in your hymnal, along with every other in Western Christendom I'll wager, and declare it to be heretical!
Do you omit heretical Christmas carols as well?
Well, we have debated 'veiled in flesh the Godhead see....'
In any church, it is either the vicar or a 'small group of people'. Or should we have a general congregational meeting every quarter to choose hymns?
Actually, I doubt if any in our congregation would want to sing the green hill song if they thought about it.
It is the case that in most congregations people enjoy as hymn with a good tune. However, when you ask them if they really meant what they sang, people tend to ask, 'What?' And you point out some of the words an they say, Oh, no. I didn't realise that.'
Hymns that we have successfully despatched to oblivion have included those old missionary hymns which talk of black people as 'vile' and the Armistice 'O Valiant hearts' whose theology of martyrdom owes more to Islam than to Christianity.
The compilers of the English Hymnal were adamant that church people deserved so much better than doggerel and subChristian theology.
[ 06. July 2011, 17:58: Message edited by: leo ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
I any case, C. F. Alexander's hymn does not fit the Lectionary very well when it comes to the Good Friday Liturgy - which is about the triumph of the cross, not about some subChristian deal doing on within the Godhead.
Bollocks again!
Which part of the Good Friday Liturgy endorses PSA, then?
It is a complex rite but I reckon that it is 75% Christus Victor e.g. the singing of the Pange lingua at the end of the solemn Reproaches.
And 25% sacrificial when it comes to the readings, especially the Hebrews lection.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Also, I believe that part of my role is to combat heresy.
It isn't about what I like or dislike.
Excpet the two are utterly conflated here.
Well, that is what happens when you have an episcopally-led church. Bishops are charged with defending the faith. They cannot be everywhere so they ordain and license people.
Much as I don't like hierarchies, that is the way we run.
As someone who has been doing/studying/teaching theology for over 40 years, the lot has fallen to me, amongst others. Maybe the bishops are desperately short staffed and have to use rubbish people?
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
Mudfrog:
quote:
He died that we might be forgiven,
He died to make us good,
That we might go at last to heaven,
Saved by his precious blood.
That's not evangelicalism.
That's Christianity
As the one who originally commented on Mudfrog's quotation from "There is a green hill far away...", might I suggest that this discussion has got out of hand?
My objection to the hymn was not that it should be regarded as heretical but that it should not be accepted as uncontestable. That's all. The same could be said of most hymns. Heresy is one thing, difference of opinion within the framework of core beliefs are another.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
He died that we might be forgiven,
He died to make us good,
That we might go at last to heaven,
Saved by his precious blood.
That's not evangelicalism.
That's Christianity
No it isn't. The Church, in her wisdom, has never defined a particular model of atonement as being dogma, unlike the incarnation, over which gallons of in, and blood, were spilt.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
quote:
There's then a separate question of how easy it is for us to repent. Thinking that sitting around with the pigs is bad for us and wishing we hadn't treated our father so badly is no good if it doesn't lead to us getting up and coming home. That's the bit that's missing from the parable.
I disagree. Isn't the point that the prodigal is so desperate that he goes home because it is a choice between starvation and survival. His need for reconciliation with the father on whatever terms the old man dictates is a no-brainer.
For Jesus, however, the problem is not the prodigal but the righteous elder brother, who puts the demands of justice above joy at the former's return.
Salvation by Grace cannot be frustrated by the laws' demands.
I'm not sure what we're disagreeing about? I suppose when I say that there's a bit missing from the parable I risk implying that the parable's substandard unless it corresponds point by point to an orthodox view of salvation by grace, and, yes, that is a silly way to read parables. I should have been more careful in my phrasing.
I would hesitate to say that there's such a thing as the problem in the parable.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
I believe the death of Christ provides a death into which sinners can be mystically united. Sinners need a death in which to kill their sin. Jesus provides that death. It is now possible for sinners to mystically die because there is now a successful death into which they can be immersed.
The death that has been provided by Jesus becomes the mystical locus of spiritual suicide: we die to sin through mystical union with him. We don't avoid death as the penalty for sin, we embrace death as the penalty by experiencing a mystical death in Christ rather than a lonely death in our own strength.
This death is penal in that it provides a place in which we safely accept the just penalty for our sin through our mystical union with the death Jesus graciously provided. The resurrection is essential because mystical suicide does not give spiritual life: only union with the risen Jesus gives spiritual life.
This death is substitutionary inasmuch as Jesus - in his state of sinless perfection - provides the death that we need to die. But it's not a substitutionary death that is effectual by spectation; it is a substitutionary death that becomes effectual by mystical union.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
What Ken said.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by AberVicar:
As a relative newcomer, and not knowing all the characters contributing and their histories, I am having quite a lot of trouble sifting out what is pure argument and what is personal from much of this thread...
There is no such thing as pure argument without the personal AberVicar.
Welcome to the ship.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Plato is 400 years before the NT. Words can change meaning over time.
Sure. Although Dikaiosune in the LXX is ~150BC which provides a bit of a continuum, as NT usage is presumably pretty heavily dependent on LXX usage.
Although the LXX from all accounts was made in Alexandria, and language use in the provinces doesn't always match that in the homeland. (I know we're going round and round on this but I think this deserves being pointed out.)
Posted by The Silent Acolyte (# 1158) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Anyway, if you're interested in the question of atonement you should read my book on the subject.
Since signatures are transient, here are the details on Starlight's book:
A.J. Wallace and R. D. Rusk. Moral Transformation: The Original Christian Paradigm of Salvation. (New Zealand: Bridgehead Publishing, 2011).
This is the Amazon.com link.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Hymns that we have successfully despatched to oblivion have included those old missionary hymns which talk of black people as 'vile'
Presumably you are referring to "Though every prospect pleases / And only man is vile" from Reginald Heber's "From Greenland's icy mountains".
Heber's line had nothing to do with skin colour (which you gratuitously introduce), and everything to do with the universality of human sinfulness.
He would no doubt have applied it just as readily to his own ancestors' druidical human sacrifice, or worship of Woden and Thor.
He might not have had the benefit of your forty years of theological study, but as a bishop, he would at least have had an inkling of the Fall, a dogma common to all Christian traditions.
You might like to consider restoring a pontifical nihil obstat to Heber's hymn, and taking him off your Index.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Although the LXX from all accounts was made in Alexandria, and language use in the provinces doesn't always match that in the homeland. (I know we're going round and round on this but I think this deserves being pointed out.)
Yeah, I agree this sort of thing is really important to think about. Certainly there is a well-recognised transition from the Greek of ~350BC Greece of Plato into the 'Common' Greek of the wider Mediterranean post-Alexander the Great. So it is well worth checking, rather than simply assuming, whether the LXX maintains the same meaning as Plato, for example. However, I am not aware of anyone who particularly believes that the word dikaiosune went through a change of meaning across this period. Do you know of anyone who claims this, or are you simply speculating on hypothetical possibilities?
The treatments I have read do generally seem to find that dikaiosune maintained its classical meanings into the New Testament period. However, as I say, I am unaware of any studies on the term as it occurs in Greek non-Christian non-Jewish texts of this period. Where I have seen suggestions that dikaiosune underwent a minor change in meaning towards meaning 'loving-kindness' / 'almsgiving' in Jewish literature (eg Przybylski) that has been due to changes in Aramaic being retrojected into the Greek translation of the Aramaic terms, not actual changes in the Greek word as understood by the average Greek speaker.
But I think the most important mistake that is commonly made about this word is the assumption that it is 'forensic' in meaning. This can be pretty straightforwardly seen as wrong when one checks either the LXX or Plato. Both have hundreds of instances of the word, and in very few of those instances is a law court of any sort under discussion. At a guess, maybe around 99% of the time when dikaiosune is used, no law court is present. I think there were several factors that led the Reformers to mistaken see this terminology as 'forensic': (1) That they were on the whole more familiar with Latin rather than Greek, (2) That many of them were educated in Law (taught in Latin), which at their time was the highest university qualification available at most universities, (3) That the millennium-old standard Latin Vulgate translation used various terms in Paul's writings which were used as legal terms in the 16th century, (4) The the LXX was not at all widely used, and the Hebrew and Latin versions of the OT were preferred. Ever since, the mistaken assumption that dikaiosune in a 'forensic' term has been extremely widespread in Protestant writings. This is one of those times when I am very thankful for the fact that the Greek Orthodox churches unbrokenly used the LXX and the Greek New Testament right through to today, because we can observe that they have never developed any belief that dikaiosune was a forensic term.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
leo
I really think you are OTT over "There is a green hill". Kwesi had it right. The New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia is worth reading on the subject here.
Here's the quote from the Council of Trent.
quote:
The Catholic doctrine on this subject is set forth in the sixth Session of the Council of Trent, chapter ii. Having shown the insufficiency of Nature, and of Mosaic Law the Council continues:
Whence it came to pass, that the Heavenly Father, the Father of mercies and the God of all comfort (2 Corinthians 1, 3), when that blessed fullness of the time was come (Galatians 4:4) sent unto men Jesus Christ, His own Son who had been, both before the Law and during the time of the Law, to many of the holy fathers announced and promised, that He might both redeem the Jews, who were under the Law and that the Gentiles who followed not after justice might attain to justice and that all men might receive the adoption of sons. Him God had proposed as a propitiator, through faith in His blood (Romans 3:25), for our sins, and not for our sins only, but also for those of the whole world (I John ii, 2).
"There is a Green Hill" is compatible with substitution without a "P". There is no hint in the words of the hymn of the wrath of God requiring the punishment of Christ - not even "to pay the price of sin". Personally I think it is quite compatible with the Satisfaction scheme and the declaration of the Council of Trent, though I see some room for argument there. But it doesn't really matter what I think; the compilers of a well known Catholic hymn book don't seem to share your qualms.
Here is a link to the Catholic Hymn Book. Scroll down to hymns beginning with "T". At the very least, all English-speaking Catholics appear to have the freedom to sing this.
You appear on this subject to be less generous than the Catholics.
[ 07. July 2011, 05:51: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Interesting, Barnabus ... I'd not read the piece from Trent nor from the Catholic Encyclopedia on the atonement before - and I think I'd concur with you from that quick skim read that 'There is a green hill ...' is compatible (just about?) with RC theology.
It's still Western theology, though, and I doubt whether the Orthodox would include it in any of their liturgical material anytime soon ...
Mind you, have they ever included anything written after around 1000 AD anyway?
If a healing of the rift between East and West were ever to take place, then they'd have a heck of a back-catalogue to catch-up on in terms of hymnody ...
Either that, or else we'd have to ditch our hymnals and either pulp or recycle them or keep them in glass cases as memorials of the horrors of Schism ...
Mind you, there are a number of hymns/choruses etc I'd like to see pulped. I'm not sure I'd want to have Leo in charge of what went into Room 101, though, or as the CEO of the Thought Police in a new, reunited Christendom ...
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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Yes, it is Western theology. I thought the New Advent link was interesting in a number of ways. The journey from Augustine to Anselm, from mousetrap to satisfaction, is neatly described. As are the dangers of taking any of the figurative descriptions too literally. The summary of the Reformed position on atonement was also stimulating
quote:
In their general conception on the atonement the Reformers and their followers happily preserved the Catholic doctrine, at least in its main lines. And in their explanation of the merit of Christ's sufferings and death we may see the influence of St. Thomas and the other great Schoolmen. But, as might be expected from the isolation of the doctrine and the loss of other portions of Catholic teaching, the truth thus preserved was sometimes insensibly obscured or distorted.
Whatever you make of the last sentence, Catholicism doesn't see anything particularly heretical in the Reformed position on atonement. At least, not more heretical than anything else!
And this was worth noting too.
quote:
It will be enough to note here the presence of two mistaken tendencies.
* The first is (the way) in which the Atonement is specially connected with the thought of the wrath of God. It is true of course that sin incurs the anger of the Just Judge, and that this is averted when the debt due to Divine Justice is paid by satisfaction. But it must not be thought that God is only moved to mercy and reconciled to us as a result of this satisfaction. This false conception of the Reconciliation is expressly rejected by St. Augustine (In Joannem, Tract. cx, section 6). God's merciful love is the cause, not the result of that satisfaction.
* The second mistake is the tendency to treat the Passion of Christ as being literally a case of vicarious punishment. This is at best a distorted view of the truth that His Atoning Sacrifice took the place of our punishment, and that He took upon Himself the sufferings and death that were due to our sins.
"He died that we might be forgiven" looks pretty much OK by reference to this argument. But what do I know? I'm just pretty careful not to throw accusations of heresy about when talking about diversity of Christian understanding, particularly when considering mysteries.
So far as the Orthodox go, my recollection of Timothy Ware re Satisfaction was that he thought it was OK-ish. I think he was pretty much Christus Victor, but it sounded like an updated version of CV to me. The audio recordings were available on line and well worth listening to. I'll see if I can find a link.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well, I think the New Advent entry on the atonement does give a neat summary of the Orthodox position too (insofar as it's possible to pin them down!
).
I'd be interested to hear what Mudfrog and any other Orthodox posters make of the New Advent treatment of the 'Greek' position (ooh-er, Matron ...) ie. that it is very wise, scholarly, gives full weight to the Incarnational and the 'assumption'/identification aspects but without losing sight of the sacrificial or substitutionary dimension.
However, the New Advent encyclopaedia does see the Orthodox approach as glosses over some aspects that are more apparent in the Anselmic/Scholastic system ...
I'd also be interested in what some of our more Reformed friends would make of the New Advent description of the Protestant position (ooh-err .. missus).
It seems quite balanced and generous to me. But have I missed something?
Is there some disingenuity and casuistry going on ... such as will always be associated with Rome ...
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I'd be interested to hear what Mudfrog and any other Orthodox posters make of the New Advent treatment of the 'Greek' position (ooh-er, Matron ...) ie. that it is very wise, scholarly, gives full weight to the Incarnational and the 'assumption'/identification aspects but without losing sight of the sacrificial or substitutionary dimension.
Tell me what it is and I'll comment on it
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
A bit of a disappointment re the audio links, Gamaliel. I trawled through 20 pages of the world-record Christus Victor thread, found the links eventually and discovered they were no longer available.
[ 07. July 2011, 11:26: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
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Some thoughts on dike/dikaios. It's true that it doesn't correspond exactly to any single word that we have. (Saying that 'morality' is a translation isn't much more accurate than justice.)
Plato's definition in the Republic is idiosyncratic to say the least. However, the kinds of the problems he's dealing with in the first book are at least within the remit of our word justice. And they're specifically contrasted with questions of restraining or indulging our desires, which our word morality covers. (Sometimes it appears that it's all the tabloids think it covers.)
Aristotle recognises that the words cover several meanings. His wider meaning is perhaps 'conduct enjoined by a good law', and one of his narrower meanings is that attribute displayed by a judge who punishes wrong-doing. Note that 'dike' for Aristotle does not cover generosity where a good law would not reasonably enjoin that on citizens. I'd note that 'dike/dikaios' has a connection with law that 'morality/moral' doesn't. Aristotle aims to stay closer to contemporary usage than Plato does; I think he's a better guide.
I don't know enough to talk about koine or about Jewish concepts. 'Dikaios' is the word you'd use for a judge who judges according to right. (It's the word translated 'justly' in the 1 Peter passage.) I don't think that there's any more specific word.
Posted by moonlitdoor (# 11707) on
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When I was a student there were some Calvinist types in the college who refused to sing "There is a green hill far away" because of the line "Who died to save us all". No, they said, he only died to save the elect.
More seriously though, Barnabas62 said quote:
"He died that we might be forgiven" looks pretty much OK by reference to this argument.
This is my blood of the new covenant which is shed for you and for many for the forgiveness of sins. Surely any church which uses these words or similar in its eucharist could not object to "He died that we might be forgiven" as it says the same thing. Neither has to mean that was the only reason.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by moonlitdoor:
When I was a student there were some Calvinist types in the college who refused to sing "There is a green hill far away" because of the line "Who died to save us all". No, they said, he only died to save the elect.
More seriously though, Barnabas62 said quote:
"He died that we might be forgiven" looks pretty much OK by reference to this argument.
This is my blood of the new covenant which is shed for you and for many for the forgiveness of sins. Surely any church which uses these words or similar in its eucharist could not object to "He died that we might be forgiven" as it says the same thing. Neither has to mean that was the only reason.
Yes - but that reinforces the 'sacrificial model' and is OK.
The bit that isn't OK is about paying 'the price of sin', which seems to be PSA.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Oh, and while I'm at it, I've also come across some evangelicals who didn't like the line, 'and try his works to do' as they felt it was too works-orientated and also it isn't 'our' works but Christ working through us to do his work ...
Now their point of view I'd take to be more heretical than anything in the Cecil Frances Alexander hymn ...
I hadn't thought about that - then again i have not sung the hymn for about 40 years.
I suspect that is part of the social control of children, like her words in the carol about children being 'mild, obedient, good as he.'
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The bit that isn't OK is about paying 'the price of sin', which seems to be PSA.
... or Satisfaction?
Posted by Jonm (# 1246) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Oh, and while I'm at it, I've also come across some evangelicals who didn't like the line, 'and try his works to do' as they felt it was too works-orientated and also it isn't 'our' works but Christ working through us to do his work ...
Now their point of view I'd take to be more heretical than anything in the Cecil Frances Alexander hymn ...
I hadn't thought about that - then again i have not sung the hymn for about 40 years.
I suspect that is part of the social control of children, like her words in the carol about children being 'mild, obedient, good as he.'
what would you like us to tell children to be? raging, disobedient, bad?
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Some thoughts on dike/dikaios.
Careful here... dike and dikaiosune are not the same word. In Havelock's analysis of the history of these words which I linked to before, he argues they should be understood significantly differently to each other. Indeed, other sources I have read tend to concur on that. The circles of meaning of dike and dikaiosune seem to be generally regarded as slightly overlapping, but with dike generally focused on law and with dikaiosune generally focused on morality.
quote:
Plato's definition in the Republic is idiosyncratic to say the least.
Yeah, I'd say it's preferable in general to pay attention to how ancient writers actually use words rather than naively believing claims they make about what the words mean - such claims are usually made by them for rhetorical purposes. In Plato's case, his several hundred page work that repeatedly uses the word is rather more useful in terms of its volume of usages than for any definitional claims Plato makes for the word.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Mudfrog - Barnabas62 included the relevant sections of the New Advent encyclopaedia entry in his thread - I could copy and paste it here if you like but if you scroll back up the page you'll see them.
I'd be interested in Mousethief's take on the New Advent representation of the Orthodox position, too, as well as the views of those with a Reformed theology on the way it represents the Protestant position.
My guess would be ... in advance ... that Mudfrog wouldn't have a great deal of objection to the New Advent verdict - but would add a few caveats - whereas someone like Ken - with his Calvinistic bent - would find some aspects more objectionable.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I looked up a dictionary for meritorious and it said "deserving of praise". I would certainly praise an act of repentance.
But does an act of repentance deserve praise?
If an act of repentance deserves praise, does it deserve more or less praise than someone who doesn't sin and therefore doesn't need to repent at all?
Saying that the person who doesn't sin deserves more praise seems at odds with the general drift of many of Jesus' parables. Saying that the act of repentance deserves more praise is both at odds with common sense and Biblically speaking Paul's remarks about anti-nomianism, and also leads to Rasputin-theology: if you deserve more praise for repenting, then you should get in a few more sins in order to have the more to repent.
Either branch of the dilemma leads to a conclusion we don't want to accept.
Conclusion: merit and desert are irrelevant to God's attitude to us.
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Interesting, Barnabus ... I'd not read the piece from Trent nor from the Catholic Encyclopedia on the atonement before - and I think I'd concur with you from that quick skim read that 'There is a green hill ...' is compatible (just about?) with RC theology.
Well, we used to sing the bloody thing at our (Catholic) primary school...
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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Perzackerly, Matt. Mind you, it took a leo-ism to provoke a look at Catholic understandings of atonement.
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
There is no such thing as pure argument without the personal AberVicar.
Welcome to the ship.
Thanks for the welcome Evensong. Sorry your comment looks double spherical to me. A little humble seeking after truth might yield better results and it would certainly be easier to follow!
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The bit that isn't OK is about paying 'the price of sin', which seems to be PSA.
... or Satisfaction?
Is it not redemption, as in paying the price to redeem a slave?
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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Mudfrog
I meant the atonement scheme, primarily from Anselm, known by shorthand as Satisfaction. Here again is the link to the Catholic understanding of the doctrine of atonement. If you missed the link in the earlier post, you must have wondered what I was going on about!
Here's the summary re Satisfaction, which I think represents the mainstream Catholic view of atonement. (Perhaps an FCB or Trisagion is kibbitzing?)
quote:
But on the hypothesis that God has chosen to restore mankind, and at the same time, to require full satisfaction as a condition of pardon and deliverance, nothing less than the Atonement made by one who was God as well as man could suffice as satisfaction for the offense against the Divine Majesty. And in this case Anselm's argument will hold good. Mankind cannot be restored unless God becomes man to save them.
A short version of which is "there was no other good enough to pay the price of sin".
I think that leo, seeking to protect his flock from "naughty PSA" ideas in a hymn, may be, inadvertently, excluding well-established Catholic ideas as well - what's more, ideas that many protestants would sign up to without a murmur.
Hope that clears up where I'm coming from, at least?
[ 07. July 2011, 15:17: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The bit that isn't OK is about paying 'the price of sin', which seems to be PSA.
... or Satisfaction?
Is it not redemption, as in paying the price to redeem a slave?
Biblically, redemption doesn't imply payment - Lutron = the payment to an owner for a slave’s freedom or a captive’s ransom and is not used in the Bible for anything like vicarious satisfaction or vicarious atonement to God for sin.
Lutron was a payment to an owner for a slave’s freedom and is never used of vicarious atonement. A typical usage is of Cyrus, the C6th Persian emperor who, after conquering Babylon, freed those Jews who had been exiled there. He not only freed them, he did not demand any ransom in return.
[Code fixed, B62]
[ 07. July 2011, 16:33: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
The Price of Sin
In my limited understanding of these things ISTM that the "price of sin" could refer to
1. The ransom paid to the devil for the release of humankind in his thrall. (Christ the Redeemer)
2. The sentence passed by God on sinful humankind, but served by Christ. (PSA)
The parameters allowed by Mrs Alexander were certainly generous.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well, we've done the tracts according to the various atonement models, thing, how about rewriting Mrs Alexander's hymn to reflect different perspectives?
There is a green hill far away,
As far as you'd expect,
Where our dear Lord was crucified,
He died for the Elect.
Or
There was no other good enough
To pay the price of sin ... whether understood in either a ransom way or PSA way or, because we don't like either, a completely different way altogether ...
He only could unlike the gate
Of heaven and let us in.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Indeed, and this business about 'he only could unlock the gate of heaven and let us in'?
What atonement theory is that then?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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All of them at once, I think, Mudfrog ...
Or at least, the part that all the various models have in common is that Christ unlocks the way to heaven for us - even if the precise manner of how that happens is open to debate.
I s'pose we could have an uber-liberal version that goes something like:
There was no need for anyone
To pay the price of sin,
We only have to approach the gate
Of heaven and we'll get in.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
All of them at once, I think, Mudfrog ...
Or at least, the part that all the various models have in common is that Christ unlocks the way to heaven for us - even if the precise manner of how that happens is open to debate.
I s'pose we could have an uber-liberal version that goes something like:
There was no need for anyone
To pay the price of sin,
We only have to approach the gate
Of heaven and we'll get in.
Of an ultra-ultra liberal version that would question the need for a gate...
...or a 1970s hippy version that asks us to imagine there's no heaven at all!
LOL
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Or even ...
It's metaphorical anyway
This talk of guilt and sin,
So all you wierd atonement freaks,
Better take that on the chin.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Imagine there's no heaven, Mudfrog?
It's easy if you try.
Actually, it's a lot easier. I can't imagine heaven at all. Which isn't to say I don't believe in it.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
All of them at once, I think, Mudfrog ...
Or at least, the part that all the various models have in common is that Christ unlocks the way to heaven for us - even if the precise manner of how that happens is open to debate.
I s'pose we could have an uber-liberal version that goes something like:
There was no need for anyone
To pay the price of sin,
We only have to approach the gate
Of heaven and we'll get in.
I love it - would like to paste it into hymnals at the same time as tearing Matt Redman out.
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on
:
quote:
There was no need for anyone
To pay the price of sin,
We only have to approach the gate
Of heaven and we'll get in.
I think that was the complaint of the elder brother in the parable of the Father and Two Sons!
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by moonlitdoor:
Surely any church which uses these words or similar in its eucharist could not object to "He died that we might be forgiven" as it says the same thing. Neither has to mean that was the only reason.
More to the point, neither means either penal or substitutionary.
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The bit that isn't OK is about paying 'the price of sin', which seems to be PSA.
Actually "paying the price" is more redemption model than PSA.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Indeed, and this business about 'he only could unlock the gate of heaven and let us in'?
What atonement theory is that then?
All of them?
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Biblically, redemption doesn't imply payment - Lutron = the payment to an owner for a slave’s freedom or a captive’s ransom ...
I assume you mean something else for the word I have in bold, because you usually don't post things that are so prima facie self-contradictory.
quote:
and is never used of vicarious atonement.
I don't see that anybody here has claimed that. Redemption is a different way of looking at it from a vicarious/substitutionary model.
Gamaliel, concerning the two passages Barnabas62 quoted:
quote:
In their general conception <etc>
This one is inscrutable because "the Catholic doctrine" has no antecedent. I don't know what that is from this quote. It might as well be a pronoun.
quote:
God's merciful love is the cause, not the result of that satisfaction.
This seems perfectly Orthodox. Although I'm not entirely sure what "that satisfaction" is referring to. The passage seems to draw some kind of connection between "the anger of the just Judge" and "the debt due to Divine Justice," but it doesn't say what that connection is. That they aren't identical is clear from the fact that wrath is a predicate of God, and debt cannot be.
quote:
The second mistake <etc>
I've tried to say just this repeatedly on threads such as this one. I may have Orthodox atonementology wrong; but if I have it right, this is correct, as far as I understand it.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
mousethief
I think the argument re satisfaction turns (or is overthrown) on the issue of necessity. Here's a key bit of the summary in the New Advent argument.
quote:
Anselm's answer to the question is simply the need of satisfaction of sin. No sin, as he views the matter, can be forgiven without satisfaction. A debt to Divine justice has been incurred; and that debt must needs be paid. But man could not make this satisfaction for himself; the debt is something far greater than he can pay; and, moreover, all the service that he can offer to God is already due on other titles. The suggestion that some innocent man, or angel, might possibly pay the debt incurred by sinners is rejected, on the ground that in any case this would put the sinner under obligation to his deliverer, and he would thus become the servant of a mere creature. The only way in which the satisfaction could be made, and men could be set free from sin, was by the coming of a Redeemer who is both God and man.
The question is "what is the question?"! And the answer to that is in the title of St Anselm's book "Cur Deus Homo?" Why did God become man? In short, Anselm asserts that at least one of the reasons God became Man was because of the need for satisfaction of sin.
Why does he assert this? Well, here's a thing. You can read it for yourself here. The key dialogue between Anselm and Boso is I think to be found in Chapters X1 ff, but it's not a very long read to read it all for context.
[ 08. July 2011, 00:30: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Indeed, and this business about 'he only could unlock the gate of heaven and let us in'?
What atonement theory is that then?
It's the one where the Father wasn't expecting visitors and has looked the gate and gone to bed. So when the Son comes home with his friends after a late night's partying they find the gate locked. The Son has a spare key of course, so he's the only one that can unlock the gate and let his friends in. Isn't that obvious from the song?
On the subject of making up atonement theories, I came up the other day with a semi-serious new one I thought was really cool. Something someone said in a forum made it seem a really obvious theory, but I've never seen anyone suggest it before. So here it is:
============================
It all begins with a discussion in heaven:
Satan (the Accuser): Mankind is sooo evil. You need to punish and smite them!
God the Father: I am Love. I will forgive their sins.
Satan: No, no, don't do that! Their evil is so terrible it must be punished. You don't understand the seriousness of sin.
God the Father: What? But I'm omniscient, of course I understand the seriousness of sin!
Satan: Ah, you understand it intellectually. But you've never been a human and experienced it for yourself. You don't understand the true reality of experiential evil. Knowing intellectually and knowing experientially are different. If you did fully understand the seriousness of sin, you'd think it needed severe punishment and shouldn't just be forgiven.
God the Son: Hmm. He may have a point Dad. I'll go check it out. I'll go live as a human and see what's what.
Satan (with false sympathy): Are you sure? I mean, to get a good understanding you'd have to experience the fullness of human evil. That wouldn't be pleasant (smiles and rubs hands in glee).
God the Son: I understand that. When I'm in the flesh, you'll have to tempt me to evil. You'll also have to incite humans to do evil against me, lead them to inflict a brutal and unjust death upon me so that I can fully experience evil and know how it should be judged.
Satan (pretending reluctance): Well, I suuuppose I could do that. If you reeeeally wanted me to.
God the Father: Wooah, sounds a bit over the top. Are you sure about this?
God the Son: If I'm going to do this, I want to do it right.
God the Father: Okay, well if you're sure. It does sound like a good plan. Make it happen. After you're back, I'll appoint you Judge at my final judgment of humanity, and you can use your experiential knowledge to judge rightly. Good luck, and may the force be with you.
And so it didst happen that Jesus was born upon the world into the flesh of humanity. He was tempted, and suffered, and was eventually brutally punished unjustly and crucified. And on the cross, as he suffered fully the brunt of human evil, he mulled over what he had learned in his mind, and finally reached his judgment. Announcing his all-important decision, he spoke: "Father, forgive them, for they know not what they do" (Luke 23:34). Having thus paid the price and died for the forgiveness of sins (Col 1:14), Jesus was appointed the judge of the living and dead (Acts 17:31). Now Jesus acts as mediator for us to the Father (1 Tim 2:5) and is able to sympathize with our weaknesses, having been tempted in every way that we are (Heb 4:15).
[ 08. July 2011, 00:05: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Indeed, and this business about 'he only could unlock the gate of heaven and let us in'?
What atonement theory is that then?
The one where God is sovereign, we can only be saved by the unmerited grace of almighty God, and Jesus is God?
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo in Dead Horses:
quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
Once I accepted the Mass as a Sacrifice for the living and the dead, the Real Presence of Christ in the elements of Bread and Wine, the intercessions of the saints and praying for the repose of the souls of the departed, it became a logical step to become Catholic
I accept all those things. I would go further and accept Petrine ministry if wasn't so centralised.
But I remain an Anglican.
Many of my friends have joined the ordinariate - what amuses me is that they are, by their own admission' less 'catholic' than me.
leo, I must say you've been a bit coy about responding directly to my posts re the Catholic understanding of Atonement and the compatibility of that understanding with this simply-worded hymn which you see as heretical.
In view of the above comment in PaulTH's thread in Dead Horses, do you have reservations about Catholic teaching re Atonement? It's fine by me if you do but it would be interesting to know what they are. Given "Cur Deus Homo" by St Anselm and this further rather fine comment from the New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia article linked by me earlier, it seems perfectly sensible to use - and sing - the phrase "pay the price of sin" if one recognises that we speak - or sing - to some extent in figures when trying to understand the Cross. To recognise in fairness that there is at least something there in the scriptures and tradition to support these various figures seems a very reasonable and decent ecumenical approach to our obvious differences. Here's the quote.
quote:
That great doctrine has been faintly set forth in figures taken from man's laws and customs. It is represented as the payment of a price, or a ransom, or as the offering of satisfaction for a debt. But we can never rest in these material figures as though they were literal and adequate.
That view has much to commend it. So I reckon you can look at all of the Atonement models as figures, speaking figuratively in the context of a deeper underlying reality. And again the article has something sensible and sensitive to say about that. Here.
quote:
As both Abelard and Bernard remind us, the Atonement is the work of love.
If we can agree on the last statement, then it is surely possible for us to agree also about the figurative nature of the various atonement models and the ultimate mystery of God's love in action.
That puts PSA in a context within which we can discuss our differences without using labels such as heretic - or getting too shocked about well-known and well-loved hymns.
[ 08. July 2011, 05:59: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jonm:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
I hadn't thought about that - then again i have not sung the hymn for about 40 years.
I suspect that is part of the social control of children, like her words in the carol about children being 'mild, obedient, good as he.'
what would you like us to tell children to be? raging, disobedient, bad?
I for one would like them to be set human standards. And not told "You will measure up to someone inhuman or else."
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
The bit that isn't OK is about paying 'the price of sin', which seems to be PSA.
... or Satisfaction?
Is it not redemption, as in paying the price to redeem a slave?
According to you under God's "justice" slavery happens and should be treated as moral. Once more I hae to say that I'm very glad I don't worship the God you do or I'd become a satanist on the grounds that that was the lesser evil.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jonm:
what would you like us to tell children to be? raging, disobedient, bad?
I suspect that the objection is that its rather an abuse of the faith to appropriate its claims to assert our own authority. It might be right that my children obey me, and it might even be God's will that they do, but its wrong to use the faith as an instrument of personal authority. A statement can be true, and its use for domestic propaganda still wrong.
The daily Bible readings I do with my kids quite often link to a "God wants you to do what your mums and dads say" verse. I always supplement this with a verse aimed at parents - because otherwise it's simply not fair.
(My son calls me on it, too - "You are not making it easy for me to be good, Daddy, and the Bible says you should").
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
So far as the Orthodox go, my recollection of Timothy Ware re Satisfaction was that he thought it was OK-ish. I think he was pretty much Christus Victor, but it sounded like an updated version of CV to me.
From The Orthodox Way:
"God incarnate enters into all our experience...Totally, unreservedly, he identifies himself with all man's anguish and alienation. He assumed it into himself, and by assuming it he healed it."
and
"The Christian message of salvation can best be summarised in terms of sharing, of solidarity and identification".
With which (as a protestant) I firmly agree.
I wouldn't be without PSA, though. Because when something I've done (and something that's been done to me) seems particularly wrong and inexcuseable, and it feels very much justice that someone ought to have some grief coming to them as a result, the cross is a final answer to that barrier to receiving grace or showing forgiveness. It doesn't satisfy me intellectually that Jesus can be punished instead of me (or my enemy), but intellectually isn't all that counts. PSA, it seems to me, addresses a real need, a need for us to see that every claim that sin has on us has been paid for at a real cost to God. I wouldn't make it a central doctrine. I wouldn't confuse it with the gospel. But I wouldn't want to do without it.
[ 08. July 2011, 14:28: Message edited by: Eliab ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jonm:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Oh, and while I'm at it, I've also come across some evangelicals who didn't like the line, 'and try his works to do' as they felt it was too works-orientated and also it isn't 'our' works but Christ working through us to do his work ...
Now their point of view I'd take to be more heretical than anything in the Cecil Frances Alexander hymn ...
I hadn't thought about that - then again i have not sung the hymn for about 40 years.
I suspect that is part of the social control of children, like her words in the carol about children being 'mild, obedient, good as he.'
what would you like us to tell children to be? raging, disobedient, bad?
Most children don't need any telling on that score. Especially teenagers.
[ 08. July 2011, 15:57: Message edited by: leo ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
leo, I must say you've been a bit coy about responding directly to my posts re the Catholic understanding of Atonement and the compatibility of that understanding with this simply-worded hymn which you see as heretical. [/QB][/QUOTE]
RC atonement teaching is closes to the Christus Victor and Sacrificial models.
Anselm is not PSA but Sacrificial.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Biblically, redemption doesn't imply payment - Lutron = the payment to an owner for a slave’s freedom or a captive’s ransom ...
I assume you mean something else for the word I have in bold, because you usually don't post things that are so prima facie self-contradictory.
Yup - posting in a hurry. I did a talk to the students about why PSA was 'wrong' but couldn't find my notes so did a search of my hard drive for 'lutron' and found two documents and copied/pasted bits from each. The contradiction lies in their being notes, not full sentences. What I means was that while many see 'lutron' as involving payment, in the bible there is no payment.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
leo, I must say you've been a bit coy about responding directly to my posts re the Catholic understanding of Atonement and the compatibility of that understanding with this simply-worded hymn which you see as heretical.
RC atonement teaching is closes to the Christus Victor and Sacrificial models.
Anselm is not PSA but Sacrificial.
I didn't say Anselm was PSA, leo. You seem to be missing the point.
My argument was that the language of "paying the price of sin", (which you characterise as PSA in the old hymn) isn't necessarily PSA at all. Catholics sing the hymn, which is no surprise at all to me. The words are compatible with Anselm's Satisfaction scheme and compatible with the summary of the Atonement doctrine in the New Catholic Encyclopedia. Which I will repeat here.
quote:
That great doctrine has been faintly set forth in figures taken from man's laws and customs. It is represented as the payment of a price, or a ransom, or as the offering of satisfaction for a debt. But we can never rest in these material figures as though they were literal and adequate.
<snip>
As both Abelard and Bernard remind us, the Atonement is the work of love.
Censoring the hymn for the reasons you give is not necessary. The language of price paying is in both scripture and Catholic tradition.
If you like, what I'm trying to explain to you is that in refusing to use the old hymn on the doctrinal grounds you give you are being a good deal more proscriptive than either Catholic practice (it's in a well used Catholic Hymn book) or Catholic doctrine would regard as necessary. Since you regard yourself as "catholic", it seems a reasonable point to make.
I didn't think I was being that obscure in my explanation, but hopefully this clears things up.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
I still wouldn't use it since many would think that it DID endorse PSA.
It is also pastorally insensitive in my context since quite a few in our congregation have come to us to 'escape' from their former evangelicalism.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
So do you still think it endorses PSA, leo?
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
Regardless of what I think, that's how it is perceived in the popular mind.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Here's an interesting-looking PDF that landed on my desk over on Facebook. It argues that attempts to read penal substitution into the early Fathers are anachronistic. I haven't finished reading it yet.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Looks good, mousethief. Mind you I would say that, since I've been banging the drum they bang on atonement threads here for a couple of years or so. Here's the quote from the summary which I ticked.
quote:
The majority of the church fathers – if not all of them – do indeed embrace some form of substitutionary atonement. They do not however teach penal substitution. Substitutionary atonement is not the sole domain of advocates of penal substitution. The two terms are not synonymous.
This leads us to a second conclusion: substitutionary atonement is the common denominator in the church father’s various understandings of the atonement. It is the functional mechanism through which the atonement works, the ‘lynch-pin’ of God’s saving action in Christ. However, as we have seen, the majority of the church fathers understood this within the conceptual narrative framework of restorative justice on an individual (restoring us to new life), and systemic level (restoring God’s kingdom order).
Yeah, verily. I spent an unconscionably long time seeking to demonstrate this conclusion to andreas (Andrew, El Greco) on "Christus Victor" and felt at the end of the process that my brain had been pulped in a food mixer! Nice to know I have company in that view.
Anyway, I hope the above becomes a view which "the popular mind" can perceive and embrace. I'm no expert on this stuff, but the conclusion certainly fits lots of stuff I've read, both in scripture and patristic writings.
And thinking of "the popular mind", leo, is your guide to decisions over what is proper in worship your perception of the perceptions of the popular mind, rather than a desire to proclaim and defend with love what is true?
I can see the pastoral argument and, heck, I know a fair number of folks recovering from various hurts experienced in various denominations up and down the candle. Giving grief to church members is not the exclusive province of conservative evangelicals. But IME the sufferers are helped by being given space to tell their stories; they are emphatically not helped by colluding with misconceptions - whether popular or not. But I can see that YMMV.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
Thank you for the link Mousethief.Given that Christ died a substitutionary death as acknowledged by all the fathers according to Flood's article, the issue for him devolves into restorative rather than retributive.
The concept of redemption surely implies both. To separate them is a false dichotomy posed by those with a natural antipathy to reformed theology. IOW your agenda, whatever it is, dictates your theology of atonement.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The concept of redemption surely implies both. To separate them is a false dichotomy posed by those with a natural antipathy to reformed theology. IOW your agenda, whatever it is, dictates your theology of atonement.
You think far too highly of your religious milieu. I don't define my beliefs in antipathy to "reformed theology" nor did the Fathers who existed hundreds upon hundreds of years before the Reformation. It's not all about you.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
substitutionary atonement is the common denominator in the church father’s various understandings of the atonement. [Quoting Derek Flood]
I've always regarded the category of 'substitutionary' as unhelpful since I feel it is very unclear. It doesn't seem to helpfully denote any single category or thought-pattern. Rather, everyone uses the word slightly differently. I have seen people apply the word substitutionary to such a huge variety of atonement models that it no longer seems to me to have any meaning. Often people seem to push it to the limit where anything and everything is 'substitutionary'. If all atonement models are 'substitutionary', then certainly the Church Fathers taught 'substitutionary' atonement, and everyone agrees they were right to do so!
Personally I would have said Derek Flood's own atonement model should not be termed 'substitutionary'! Likewise I would have said that the main thrust of the thought of the Church Fathers on the atonement is not 'substitutionary', although many of them did hold some substitutionary ideas as part of their multifaceted views. I would argue that of the four major models that appear frequently in the Church Fathers of the first millennia (moral influence, ransom from Satan, Christus Victor, mystical union with Christ) only the ransom from Satan model is 'substitutionary'.
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Anselm is not PSA but Sacrificial.
Perhaps those here who are enthusiastic about Anselm and Catholic thinking on the atonement could help clarify something I've long struggled with. I've read Anselm's work more than once, and the way I understand his logic is this:
1) God is obliged to punish us for sin (dishonouring him), unless we make recompense (a gift of 'satisfaction').
2) We could not make such recompense so Christ came and did so.
3) Christ did this by living his life faithfully in obedience to God, essentially gifting his entire life to God.
Strictly speaking, in this logic, Christ's death has no effect. The faithfulness he displays when dying merely serves to highlight his obedience and devotion to God, but his death in and of itself is not what accomplishes atonement. It is his life of faithfulness which he gifts to God, and that faithfulness makes up for our unfaithfulness and thus God no longer needs to punish sin for satisfaction has been made. 'Satisfaction', it needs to be remembered, in Anselm's social context, was a gift given to appease an offended party in order that the offended party did not retaliate. Anselm repeatedly states that you either have satisfaction or punishment.
BUT... and this is the part I don't understand. I often see Catholic theologians (including Thomas Aquinas et al) saying things that don't follow that logic and do appear to put some meaning and effectiveness into Christ's death. eg His death 'pays the price' or 'atones' etc. I've always been inclined to see them as mixing PSA and Satisfaction without them quite realizing it, or just straight-out teaching PSA when they claim to be teaching Satisfaction. For this reason I have generally been inclined to regard Thomas Aquinas as the inventor of PSA. But perhaps I am misunderstanding something here. Can you have a version of Satisfaction where the cross is effective in causing atonement without it becoming PSA?
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Starlight: Strictly speaking, in this logic, Christ's death has no effect.
Using only what you have quoted (I haven't read Anselm or Acquinas,)the issue you mention resolves into the definition of the word 'gift'.
If it was used in the Biblical context of 'gift' as 'sacrifice', then the logic makes perfect sense. Christ's life before his death is a living sacrifice dedicated to the Father's purpose and his death is also a gift, a voluntary laying down of his self life at the Father's request.
And Mousethief, I'd appreciate it if you would explain what melieu you are on about. Your response just seems to prove the point I was trying to make. We all have agendas and we all try to make a case to justify them.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Starlight
On the issue which puzzles you.
In the article, I liked the argument Flood made re Gregory of Nanzanius over what was replaced. (EQ p151 in the article).
You're quite right that there is an intellectual problem with the word "substitute" in this context. I'm inclined to see that as coming from the baggage associated with the word "penal" - the "P" has somehow got welded on to the "S", affecting the understanding of both. I find it hard to separate the linguistic problems from the logical problems!
A late afterthought re Catholic understandings of atonement. I brought that up because I thought the irenic language of the Catholic Encyclopedia article might give the "catholic" leo some pause for thought re his (to me) strange proscription of a well-known hymn.
My reading of that article is that it shows a development from Augustine (mousetrap) through Anselm (Satisfaction) to a present understanding which points to the centrality of Divine love and the metaphorical nature of much of the language. There is a point at which all the metaphors, or figures, or models, seem to collapse. They all say something, but they don't seem quite to capture the essence. I'm happy myself to apply that reservation to the substitutionary and satisfaction models.
[ 09. July 2011, 07:17: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Jamat, read my lips. I do not define myself in contradistinction to "reform" anything. Nor did the ancient Fathers. Period.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Here's an interesting-looking PDF that landed on my desk over on Facebook. It argues that attempts to read penal substitution into the early Fathers are anachronistic. I haven't finished reading it yet.
Thanks for the very helpful link. It confirms, in a systematic way, what I have picked up piecemeal over several years.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
And thinking of "the popular mind", leo, is your guide to decisions over what is proper in worship your perception of the perceptions of the popular mind, rather than a desire to proclaim and defend with love what is true?
I believe we have a responsibility to enable congregations to express true belief and not to give them children's hymns (and there are rarely any children at the Good Friday liturgy).
I remember one year when a new curate decided to include the green hill hymn and one of the congregation, a retired prof., took him to task over it for about half an hour (despite the request to leave in silence after such a liturgy and despite the fact that presiding at such is one of the most draining services of the liturgical year).
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Maybe the retired prof was at fault, not the curate? Looks like it, on the basis of your account.
[BTW "There is a green hill" is not in the children's hymn section of the Catholic Hymn Book. Childlikeness (which is to sought in adulthood) is not the same as childishness (from which we need to grow up.)]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Jamat, read my lips. I do not define myself in contradistinction to "reform" anything. Nor did the ancient Fathers. Period.
And I suppose you don't have an agenda either?
Stop taking things personally.
That was actually a great article by Flood. An excellent discussion and synopsis. However,I got the feeling that his conclusion was more about his need to refute PSA than a real objective look at the evidence which was so ably set out.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Jamat, read my lips. I do not define myself in contradistinction to "reform" anything. Nor did the ancient Fathers. Period.
And I suppose you don't have an agenda either?
Stop taking things personally.
1. I never said I don't have an agenda; that is completely irrelevant to the point we are discussing.
2. I'm not taking it personally, I'm engaging with the points you were making. Which you seem spectacularly unable to do.
Posted by PD (# 12436) on
:
If this has been mentioned, my apologies.
It might be helpful to remember that C F Alexander was strongly associated with the Tractarians. It might be worth considering that although part of the hymn suggests PSA that cannot have been the sum total of her theology concerning the atonement.
PD
Posted by Chesterbelloc (# 3128) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
I remember one year when a new curate decided to include the green hill hymn and one of the congregation, a retired prof., took him to task over it for about half an hour (despite the request to leave in silence after such a liturgy and despite the fact that presiding at such is one of the most draining services of the liturgical year).
Strikes me as shockingly rude, inappropriate and hectoring to me. How would you feel if after a similar request some pushy prof put you lengthily in your place about something you'd preached?
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
But, Chesterbelloc riding a personal hobby horse is much more important than the Good Friday liturgy or being respectful.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
BUT... and this is the part I don't understand. I often see Catholic theologians (including Thomas Aquinas et al) saying things that don't follow that logic and do appear to put some meaning and effectiveness into Christ's death. eg His death 'pays the price' or 'atones' etc. I've always been inclined to see them as mixing PSA and Satisfaction without them quite realizing it, or just straight-out teaching PSA when they claim to be teaching Satisfaction. For this reason I have generally been inclined to regard Thomas Aquinas as the inventor of PSA. But perhaps I am misunderstanding something here. Can you have a version of Satisfaction where the cross is effective in causing atonement without it becoming PSA?
If you stretch PSA that far, the inventors of PSA would be those writing about the OT righteous martyrs. As you've described the theory, when the people are punished for their sins, the righteous suffer alongside them and since they suffer unjustly they gain the right to plead to God to forgive the sins of the rest of the people. That seems to me to share much of the logic of PSA - it would be even closer if the suffering of the martyrs and the consequent forgiveness of the people were seen as intended by God.
Aquinas is apparently out to justify every explanation of the crucifixion and atonement that is available to him. But it seems to me that when he uses satisfaction language he refers to the great love exhibited by Jesus in dying rather than to Jesus' death as such; the death itself happens as a sacrifice. Three of his five explanations for why the crucifixion was a more fitting way of saving us than not fall under some version of moral influence; of the other two one is Christus Victor and the other is that Jesus earns merit by suffering unjustly, which merit accrues to Christians as members of Jesus' body. (III 46.3)
Aquinas explicitly rejects the idea that God could not have forgiven humanity if Jesus had not died. (III 46.2 reply obj 3)
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Here's an interesting-looking PDF that landed on my desk over on Facebook. It argues that attempts to read penal substitution into the early Fathers are anachronistic. I haven't finished reading it yet.
This is new (since the last thread) and an interesting development to the debate.
I think Flood's analysis is thorough but serves to illustrate what a slippery fish an atonement model is. Having (probably rightly) taken Jeffrey, Ovey & Sach to task for their rather fluid definitions of what constitutes PSA he suffers from the same fatal flaw.
I think his article is fair enough in questioning the PSA treatment of the Fathers - i.e. raising a question mark over the presence of PSA in their writings - but, almost by definition, he cannot make the conclusions he claims. We are talking about models here, if he raises doubts about what the Father's meant by using certain terms and allusions he then must rule in as much as he rules out.
Rather than taking each of the Fathers one by one I'll pick on Athanasius as this illustrates, ISTM the key issues:
quote:
Being separated from the source of Life, we die. This ‘corruption’ and resulting ‘death’ is not understood by Athanasius in terms of a punishment externally inflicted, but as the inevitable consequence of sin, ‘Inevitably, therefore when they lost the knowledge of God, they lost existence with it’ (ch 4).
Inevitably? But wouldn't Athanasius have seen this corruption as the action of God in the first place?
This is certainly how the biblical writers viewed these things. In Romans 8 (v 20) Paul states that it is God himself who has subjected the world to this corruption.
And when we come to the atonement the same background worldview operates for Paul. In Galatians 3 (v 13) Paul talks of the cross in terms of Christ 'becoming a curse' for us. This is referring to Deuteronomy 21 (v 23) where God is the active subject of the verb.
All this may be the inevitable consequence of sin but, according to the biblical writers, this consequence is the active judgment of God. Hiding behind the passive tense or words like 'inevitable' is merely sweeping the issue under the carpet or putting our head in the sand.
In order to prove his point Flood would have to show clear evidence that Athanasius has changed from the position of the NT and that he no longer thinks that the 'sick and dying humanity' is sick and dying because of God's active judgment.
This all feeds into Flood's conclusion where he tries to distinguish heavily between PSA and SA. I think most of what he says about SA is fair enough. But it doesn't mean what he thinks it means. I'm very happy with the medical model for the atonement and it's substitutionary outworking. I just don't see what difference it makes.
So Jesus gets killed in order to heal us - that is a monstrous injustice exactly the same as PSA is accused of. The only difference between Flood's atonement model and PSA is that the inner-workings that we find distasteful are hidden from sight. Just don't look under the bonnet. It is still very clearly SA and it still dodges the question of the biblical view that we are sick as part of God's judgment.
As I keep saying, I welcome papers like this in the way they refine our understanding of the atonement. His reading of the Fathers and model of the atonement sounds very similar to mine. But if he (or anyone else) thinks this is some kind of fatal blow for PSA then they are gravely mistaken. You can't build an argument casting doubt that X does not necessarily mean Y and then finish by concluding that it definitely does mean something else. The uncertainty cuts both ways.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Inevitably? But wouldn't Athanasius have seen this corruption as the action of God in the first place?
No. In Athanasius' neo-Platonic theology, God is Life, Existence and Incorruption in a Platonic universal sense. Thus, all humanity and all creation which exists participates (in a Platonic sense) in the universals. ie Creation's own existence and incorruption is derived secondarily from God's through a metaphysical connection to God. Athanasius argues that sin separates creation from God and therefore breaks the metaphysical fuel pump which is continually pumping existence and incorruption from God into creation. Creation is thus subject to corruption and decay into non-existence as a logically necessary consequence of sin. According to Athanasius, God's problem is now that creation is spiralling into decay and non-existence and a rescue can only be achieved by metaphysically reuniting creation with God. This is done by the incarnate Word who combines both divinity and humanity in himself, thereby reuniting God and the created order in the body of Christ. While Athanasius also believes in the possibility and reality of God's active judgement, that is not the primary cause of creation's problems.
quote:
All this may be the inevitable consequence of sin but, according to the biblical writers, this consequence is the active judgment of God. Hiding behind the passive tense or words like 'inevitable' is merely sweeping the issue under the carpet or putting our head in the sand.
In order to prove his point Flood would have to show clear evidence that Athanasius has changed from the position of the NT and that he no longer thinks that the 'sick and dying humanity' is sick and dying because of God's active judgment.
LOL. Okay, so YOUR theology is 'what the Bible says', and therefore if Flood wants to say Athanasius disagrees with your theology he'll need lots of evidence because he'd really be claiming Athanasius disagreed with the Bible?!?
In general, Johnny, the Greek Fathers focus on Satan and human sinfulness as the primary causes of problems in the world. The active judgement of God tends to take a very tertiary role in their writings, where it is even present at all.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
LOL. Okay, so YOUR theology is 'what the Bible says',
This attitude is one of the reasons it's so hard to talk with Evangelicals about theology of any sort.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
LOL. Okay, so YOUR theology is 'what the Bible says', and therefore if Flood wants to say Athanasius disagrees with your theology he'll need lots of evidence because he'd really be claiming Athanasius disagreed with the Bible?!?
In general, Johnny, the Greek Fathers focus on Satan and human sinfulness as the primary causes of problems in the world. The active judgement of God tends to take a very tertiary role in their writings, where it is even present at all.
Yes, the same Athanasius who wrote:
quote:
"The Holy Scriptures given by inspiration of God are of themselves sufficient to the discovery of truth".
from the Oration Against the Gentiles
I'm not disputing that he was influenced heavily by Greek philosophy. However, as this quote ably demonstrates, he would not be seeking to repudiate the teaching of Paul.
I repeat my question - it is not enough to show that Athanasius was influenced by platonic thinking, one must also show that he took it to the extent where God is removed altogether as an active agent of judgment against humanity.
In general, Starlight, I'm very influenced by contemporary thinking. In no way does this prove anything about my views concerning the atonement.
I'm not claiming that Pierced for our transgressions is without fault but Flood is not playing fair. They were trying to draw trajectories from the NT through church history to the present day. This, as Flood is right in highlighting, is fraught with danger and false assumptions. Nevertheless, at least they are attempting to do the right thing.
For a discussion of atonement models to be fruitful (and, I'd argue, to be truly Christian) we must view the issues diachronically as well as synchronically. In effect, Flood (by no fault of his own) is emphasising the synchronics. This is an iterative process - we look at the Fathers to see how they understood the NT, and we look at the NT to see what the Fathers were trying to unpack.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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Right, I've managed to find a spare hour to skim through Contra Gentes. As you do.
I found plenty of neo-platonic influences but I didn't find anything to suggest that he would disagree with Paul in attributing active judgment to God.
Here are a couple of quotes as examples:
quote:
We repeat then what we said before, that just as men denied God, and worship things without soul, so also in thinking they have not a rational soul, they receive at once the punishment of their folly, namely, to be reckoned among irrational creatures: and so, since as though from lack of a soul of their own they superstitiously worship soulless gods, they are worthy of pity and guidance.
Talk of punishment could, in theory at least, be taken in an impersonal sense. Although I'd argue that his diatribe against dualism counts strongly against that - i.e. Athanasius is talking about natural consequences here (I agree) but he also goes out of his way to make it clear that everything that happens occurs as a result of God's direct will and providence. Likewise I'm not arguing that God stands behind disaster and evil in a primary sense but that Christians have traditionally believed that in some sense he stands behind all that happens.
quote:
For by a nod and by the power of the Divine Word of the Father that governs and presides over all, the heaven revolves, the stars move, the sun shines, the moon goes her circuit, and the air receives the sun’s light and the ether his heat, and the winds blow: the mountains are reared on high, the sea is rough with waves, and the living things in it grow the earth abides fixed, and bears fruit, and man is formed and lives and dies again…
Athanasius thinks that everything that happens, including our corrupted forms and the resulting death, comes about directly from the power of the divine word of the Father.
In short, this is only a local flood.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Right, I've managed to find a spare hour to skim through Contra Gentes.
Er, why that work? Athanasius' main work on the atonement is On the Incarnation (De Incarnatione Verbi Dei).
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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Hey, give me a chance. I'm coming to that now. It seems a bit rich to speak generally of Athansius' thought and then to complain when one of his other works is cited. If you are trying to build up a case of his general world view then it needs to fit with his whole corpus. Unfortunately Flood's thesis doesn't.
I'm now halfway through De Incarnatione. And, as you say, it is much easier to build a case for PSA from this.
Here's a couple more quotes that I've gleaned so far ...
quote:
Thus, then, God has made man, and willed that he should abide in incorruption; but men, having despised and rejected the contemplation of God, and devised and contrived evil for themselves (as was said in the former treatise), received the condemnation of death with which they had been threatened; and from thenceforth no longer remained as they were made, but were being corrupted according to their devices; and death had the mastery over them as king.
Notice the clear causal relationship between God personally threatening condemnation and mankind experiencing it.
quote:
And thus much in reply to those without who pile up arguments for themselves. But if any of our own people also inquire, not from love of debate, but from love of learning, why He suffered death in none other way save on the Cross, let him also be told that no other way than this was good for us, and that it was well that the Lord suffered this for our sakes. 2. For if He came Himself to bear the curse laid upon us, how else could He have “become a curse,” unless He received the death set for a curse? And that is the Cross. For this is exactly what is written: “Cursed is he that hangs on a tree.” 3. Again, if the Lord's death is the ransom of all, and by His death “the middle wall of partition” is broken down, and the calling of the nations is brought about, how would He have called us to Him, had He not been crucified?
Note here the way Athanasius affirms and repeats Paul's link from Deuteronomy 21 to Galatians 3 and the way in which Jesus' death is a ransom, and that ransom price involves bearing the curse which is God's curse.
I think Flood is right to draw our attention to the theme of restoration in Athanasius. Restoration is his dominant metaphor. But nothing he writes excludes PSA.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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Originally posted by Chesterbelloc:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
I remember one year when a new curate decided to include the green hill hymn and one of the congregation, a retired prof., took him to task over it for about half an hour (despite the request to leave in silence after such a liturgy and despite the fact that presiding at such is one of the most draining services of the liturgical year).
Strikes me as shockingly rude, inappropriate and hectoring to me. How would you feel if after a similar request some pushy prof put you lengthily in your place about something you'd preached?
Indeed it was - took the said curate a considerable time and many pints of beer with me offloading it.
As a university church, we are used to feedback beyond the 'nice sermon, thank you' variety.
Fortunately, i have never been subjected to such criticism (except on The Ship!)
Posted by Chesterbelloc (# 3128) on
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quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Fortunately, i have never been subjected to such criticism (except on The Ship!)
Self-inflicted then, innit?
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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Or maybe this site has more than its fair share of difficult people
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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There is none so blind as he who will not see.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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Johnny S, just because you've come across nothing in Athanasius yet that is contrary to a PSA understanding doesn't necessarily imply that this is what he had in mind ...
I'm something of a novice as far as the Fathers are concerned, but when I first read any sub-apostolic and Patristic material I was struck by how 'Catholic' it all sounded - and there was me, as a GLE, hoping to mine them for views that substantiated my own. And of course, I found the opposite.
I'm sure the seeds of what later became PSA as we know understand do go back a long way, in a similar way that 'justification by faith' didn't just suddenly 'happen' at the Reformation but was built on earlier Scholastic antecedents.
But I would be wary of reading too much back into the NT and the Fathers from our own perspectives ... we used to do that all the time in the house-churches. We imagined that the churches in Ephesus and Corinth were some kind of restorationist house-churches in togas ...
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
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quote:
quote:
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Originally posted by Starlight:
LOL. Okay, so YOUR theology is 'what the Bible says',
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This attitude is one of the reasons it's so hard to talk with Evangelicals about theology of any sort.
Swap the word Bible for tradition or whatever other source of authority you want and swap the word Evangelical for any grouping and you can play this name calling game with anyone you want - yawn.
You'll accusing people of taking their religious mileu too seriously soon!
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
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I have some sympathy toward Leo regarding the poison chalice which is hymn choosing. It's daft to sing stuff which you don't agree with - but we can all be a bit over picky on that front.
However as far as the "common mind" (nice turn of phrase) goes I would imagine that many folks would read the Good Friday liturgy and indeed the scriptures in a PSA way. Perhaps you may find it helpful to proscribe those as well?
I would imagine if the strength of UCCF etc is accurately reported then there are many "University Churches" where PSA is strongly preached and believed.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
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quote:
But I would be wary of reading too much back into the NT and the Fathers from our own perspectives ... we used to do that all the time in the house-churches. We imagined that the churches in Ephesus and Corinth were some kind of restorationist house-churches in togas ...
You're not referring to a certain Arthur Wallis passage are you?
You'll be trying to get me to burn my copy of the Pilgrim Church next
!
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
Swap the word Bible for tradition or whatever other source of authority you want and swap the word Evangelical for any grouping and you can play this name calling game with anyone you want
Nope. Because we don't argue with Evangelicals on the proper interpretation of our Tradition. Nice try though.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Johnny S, just because you've come across nothing in Athanasius yet that is contrary to a PSA understanding doesn't necessarily imply that this is what he had in mind ...
But I would be wary of reading too much back into the NT and the Fathers from our own perspectives ... we used to do that all the time in the house-churches. We imagined that the churches in Ephesus and Corinth were some kind of restorationist house-churches in togas ...
But I didn't say that.
Athanasius did not use PSA to explain the atonement. My guess is that he probably would not recognise it as a gospel metaphor if you were to explain it to him. Flood is correct in saying that his dominant image is that of restoration.
However, whether he used PSA and whether he would deny PSA are two entirely different questions. I've not encountered anyone on the ship (on this thread or any other) who is advocating a PSA Only position. If they were then there would be a need to demonstrate that people like Athanasius et al taught such a thing.
Yet, ISTM, this thread has turned to an entirely different question - not PSA only but everything but PSA. Several shipmates have argued that PSA is sub-Christian and should not be allowed at all as a Christian model of the atonement.
For them to prove their case it is not enough to claim that (for example) the Fathers did not teach PSA (I, for one, am certainly not claiming that they did). Rather they need to demonstrate that PSA is incompatible with what they taught.
Having re-read Athanasius I think that if I were to discuss the gospel with him over a glass of Ouzo and I mentioned PSA his response would be something like, "Well, I would never have put it that way, but I have no theological objection to any of the key parts." His model is probably much closer to modern CV than PSA but he does not jettison the PSA elements that some shipmates find so offensive.
When discussing a DH like evolution shipmates are quite content to quote Augustine and a whole host of Christians who predated the theory of evolution by millennia. No one expects the ECF to engage with evolution directly (which would be an anachronism) but they can still be relevant to the discussion. The same is true here. It is anachronistic to expect the Fathers to use fully developed CV or PSA models in their explanations of the gospel. But we can look for the strands in their thinking.
And I repeat, AFAICT, none of those strands contradict PSA.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
"The Holy Scriptures given by inspiration of God are of themselves sufficient to the discovery of truth".from the Oration Against the Gentiles
I'm not disputing that he was influenced heavily by Greek philosophy. However, as this quote ably demonstrates, he would not be seeking to repudiate the teaching of Paul.
Johnny,
Many many Christians in history have attempted to carefully determine their beliefs and theology from scripture. Yet they have come up with many, very different, beliefs as a result. The same words in scripture can be interpreted different ways by different people. You and I both base our theologies on scripture, and yet we hold some very different beliefs about what it teaches. So the fact that Athanasius thought his beliefs were scriptural doesn't itself indicate the content of those beliefs. It doesn't tell us his theology, or how he interpreted the words in scripture.
quote:
I repeat my question - it is not enough to show that Athanasius was influenced by platonic thinking, one must also show that he took it to the extent where God is removed altogether as an active agent of judgment against humanity.
Consider Origen. He wrote a ton of Bible commentaries that deal in detail with the Biblical text. He was easily the foremost studier of scripture among the Church Fathers prior to Nicea. Yet he is quite famous for attempting to sustain the thesis that God is not an active agent of retributive judgment against humanity. Just because someone attempts to base their beliefs on scripture is not indicative of what they think scripture teaches.
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I'm now halfway through De Incarnatione. And, as you say, it is much easier to build a case for PSA from this.
Yeah, Athanasius' work On the Incarnation is probably the closest to PSA that the Fathers in the first millennia get. It's not really PSA as we know it today, but it has certain strands of similarity.
What I find really bizarre about Athanasius' argument is his treatment of God's warning in Genesis about sin leading to death. Initially he seems to read this as God giving a helpful warning to the humans that sin has bad natural consequences involving death (eternal death). But then, after the sin has happened, he depicts God thinking "well, I really don't want humanity to die so I'd like to use my powers to stop the natural consequences and fix up this mess. But when warning those humans I said that the natural consequences of sin is death (eternal death). So if I use my powers to stop those natural consequences from happening I'd make my helpful warning to them false and thus I'd be retrospectively a liar! [Which is obviously not true, and seems bizarre logic on Athanasius' part]" To solve this 'dilemma' where God doesn't want to see humans die (eternally) but is committed to it happening due to a regrettable verbal mis-statement on God's part, Athanasius has God send Christ to destroy death. Note that Athanasius doesn't depict Christ suffering eternal death instead of us, but rather Christ destroys it by trying to suffer it but failing to successfully do so. (So it's the "Christ tried for PSA, but failed at it in a way that broke it" theory?) It's worth noting that by the internal logic of Athanasius' own work his solution actually fails, since because of what Christ did humans thus don't die (eternally) and thus God is a liar when he said they would (given Athanasius' bizarre theory about God's statement on that subject).
quote:
I think Flood is right to draw our attention to the theme of restoration in Athanasius. Restoration is his dominant metaphor. But nothing he writes excludes PSA.
Well it depends on your definition of PSA. Athanasius obviously doesn't teach the PSA we are familiar with today, and hence in a sense it's quite fair to say his writings "exclude PSA" in the sense that he makes various statements that taken in the strict sense are inconsistent with PSA as we know it today. But looked at another way, you could say "he teaches PSA". It really depends how far you want to stretch your definition of PSA. Personally, I think it's more helpful to categorise what Athanasius teaches as not-PSA, and I agree with your statement:
"Athanasius did not use PSA to explain the atonement. My guess is that he probably would not recognise it as a gospel metaphor if you were to explain it to him."
quote:
Rather they need to demonstrate that PSA is incompatible with what they taught.
Having re-read Athanasius I think that if I were to discuss the gospel with him over a glass of Ouzo and I mentioned PSA his response would be something like, "Well, I would never have put it that way, but I have no theological objection to any of the key parts."
I am not confident Athanasius would respond that way. I am not certain how he would respond - it is possible he would accept it and possible he would reject it - I can see about an equal balance of arguments both ways given his writings. The notion that God is good and loving is very dear to Athanasius and is something he cares about a lot more than he cares about the idea that God is just. In On the Incarnation the reason PSA-like ideas appear is not because God has any interest in justice, but because God is concerned about the truthfulness of his past careless statements. The notion of God's necessary justice as a core attribute which necessitates PSA is pretty foreign to Athanasius and you might well earn his opposition on that front - he would argue that God is loving and prepared to forgive human sin without recompense.
But I would say that out of the Fathers of the first millennia, Athanasius and Augustine are probably the two most likely to respond positively to PSA. But the vast majority of the Fathers would not respond positively precisely because they saw God as willing to forgive and not demanding absolute justice. One of the fundamentals of PSA is that God shouldn't or can't "just forgive". But the Bible is very clear that God can and does just forgive out of love, conditional only on repentance. This is part of a biblical paradigm that God is really only interested in a person's current moral character (and hence has no particular interest in their historical actions and any wrongdoing they did in the distant past). The first millennia Fathers tend to reflect this biblical focus and interest in present sinfulness not in past guilt, and hence see God as extremely willing to forgive people's past wrongs. Hence PSA is simply untenable in their theology because there is no need for punishment where God is willing to forgive.
quote:
And I repeat, AFAICT, none of those strands contradict PSA.
I think the strand of free forgiveness absolutely does contradict PSA and is antithetical to it. It is interesting that Athanasius and Anselm and Luther all mount deliberate arguments against the possibility of free forgiveness when they espouse PSA or something close to it - they can see that if free forgiveness is allowed their whole edifice will collapse.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Johnny,
Many many Christians in history have attempted to carefully determine their beliefs and theology from scripture. Yet they have come up with many, very different, beliefs as a result. The same words in scripture can be interpreted different ways by different people. You and I both base our theologies on scripture, and yet we hold some very different beliefs about what it teaches. So the fact that Athanasius thought his beliefs were scriptural doesn't itself indicate the content of those beliefs. It doesn't tell us his theology, or how he interpreted the words in scripture.
Last I heard, the Pope was still a Catholic.
You keep moving the goal-posts.
All I was doing was what I said earlier:
quote:
This is an iterative process - we look at the Fathers to see how they understood the NT, and we look at the NT to see what the Fathers were trying to unpack.
What else can we do? One minute you laugh saying:
quote:
originally posted by Starlight:
LOL. Okay, so YOUR theology is 'what the Bible says', and therefore if Flood wants to say Athanasius disagrees with your theology he'll need lots of evidence because he'd really be claiming Athanasius disagreed with the Bible?!?
And then when I engage with what Athanasius actually said you then say that this tells us nothing of how he interpreted scripture.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Consider Origen. He wrote a ton of Bible commentaries that deal in detail with the Biblical text. He was easily the foremost studier of scripture among the Church Fathers prior to Nicea. Yet he is quite famous for attempting to sustain the thesis that God is not an active agent of retributive judgment against humanity. Just because someone attempts to base their beliefs on scripture is not indicative of what they think scripture teaches.
Of course.
Which is why I described the process as iterative and also why I spoke of trying to plot a trajectory from scripture through the Fathers to the present day.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Yeah, Athanasius' work On the Incarnation is probably the closest to PSA that the Fathers in the first millennia get. It's not really PSA as we know it today, but it has certain strands of similarity.
What I find really bizarre about Athanasius' argument is his treatment of God's warning in Genesis about sin leading to death. Initially he seems to read this as God giving a helpful warning to the humans that sin has bad natural consequences involving death (eternal death). But then, after the sin has happened, he depicts God thinking "well, I really don't want humanity to die so I'd like to use my powers to stop the natural consequences and fix up this mess. But when warning those humans I said that the natural consequences of sin is death (eternal death). So if I use my powers to stop those natural consequences from happening I'd make my helpful warning to them false and thus I'd be retrospectively a liar! [Which is obviously not true, and seems bizarre logic on Athanasius' part]" To solve this 'dilemma' where God doesn't want to see humans die (eternally) but is committed to it happening due to a regrettable verbal mis-statement on God's part, Athanasius has God send Christ to destroy death. Note that Athanasius doesn't depict Christ suffering eternal death instead of us, but rather Christ destroys it by trying to suffer it but failing to successfully do so. (So it's the "Christ tried for PSA, but failed at it in a way that broke it" theory?) It's worth noting that by the internal logic of Athanasius' own work his solution actually fails, since because of what Christ did humans thus don't die (eternally) and thus God is a liar when he said they would (given Athanasius' bizarre theory about God's statement on that subject).
Again, I'm not saying that I agree with Athanasius. I was trying to re-create something of his Christian worldview. Seeing what questions and problems he thought the atonement addressed; looking for what scriptures and logical thought processes particularly influenced him.
And, as I've said repeatedly, there is no fatal wound for PSA here.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Well it depends on your definition of PSA. Athanasius obviously doesn't teach the PSA we are familiar with today, and hence in a sense it's quite fair to say his writings "exclude PSA" in the sense that he makes various statements that taken in the strict sense are inconsistent with PSA as we know it today.
Is there a 'not' missing from that sentence?
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I am not confident Athanasius would respond that way. I am not certain how he would respond - it is possible he would accept it and possible he would reject it - I can see about an equal balance of arguments both ways given his writings. The notion that God is good and loving is very dear to Athanasius and is something he cares about a lot more than he cares about the idea that God is just. In On the Incarnation the reason PSA-like ideas appear is not because God has any interest in justice, but because God is concerned about the truthfulness of his past careless statements. The notion of God's necessary justice as a core attribute which necessitates PSA is pretty foreign to Athanasius and you might well earn his opposition on that front - he would argue that God is loving and prepared to forgive human sin without recompense.
We can argue over your degree of certainty if you want to but surely any lack of confidence seriously undermines a call to reject PSA.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
But I would say that out of the Fathers of the first millennia, Athanasius and Augustine are probably the two most likely to respond positively to PSA. But the vast majority of the Fathers would not respond positively precisely because they saw God as willing to forgive and not demanding absolute justice. One of the fundamentals of PSA is that God shouldn't or can't "just forgive". But the Bible is very clear that God can and does just forgive out of love, conditional only on repentance. This is part of a biblical paradigm that God is really only interested in a person's current moral character (and hence has no particular interest in their historical actions and any wrongdoing they did in the distant past). The first millennia Fathers tend to reflect this biblical focus and interest in present sinfulness not in past guilt, and hence see God as extremely willing to forgive people's past wrongs. Hence PSA is simply untenable in their theology because there is no need for punishment where God is willing to forgive.
Woah! Hold your horses!
There are quite a few big steps there.
Who says that your scriptural proof texts trump all the ones heralded by supporters of PSA?
And more significantly for our current discussion can you give some examples of ECFs who do this? You don't have to list them all but please give me what you consider to be 2 or 3 key examples. (And also your reasons for why you think they are more representative of early church thought than, say, Athanasius.)
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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Having now found time to read back over last week's posts while I was away - Leo manages to sum things up nicely with two of his posts on the very same page:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Also, I believe that part of my role is to combat heresy.
It isn't about what I like or dislike.
just a few posts apart from ...
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
He died that we might be forgiven,
He died to make us good,
That we might go at last to heaven,
Saved by his precious blood.
That's not evangelicalism.
That's Christianity
No it isn't. The Church, in her wisdom, has never defined a particular model of atonement as being dogma, unlike the incarnation, over which gallons of ink, and blood, were spilt.
The direct contradiction is what confuses me on this thread.
Leo wants to say both that PSA is a heresy and that the Church has never been dogmatic about the atonement.
How can both possibly be true?
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
I would imagine that many folks would read the Good Friday liturgy and indeed the scriptures in a PSA way. Perhaps you may find it helpful to proscribe those as well?
Indeed, there have been several suggestions, some of which have been acted upon. The most obvious is the prayer for 'Jews, Turks and Infidels.' Both the RCC and the C of E have altered it.
Then there's the Reproaches, which seem to blame the Jews for the death of Jesus. The C of E had interpolated 'Oh my church' after 'Oh my people.'
The clincher is the suffering servant reading from Isaiah. My blog links to a website by a RC who has done a lot of work on anti-semitism and PSA and he suggests alternative readings. I followed these this year (since the other church did the full liturgy from the book while we are allowed to do experimental liturgy).
However, the official liturgy focusses on Christian Victor anyway.
[ 11. July 2011, 13:06: Message edited by: leo ]
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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Forgot to add that the doctrine implied by the service can be supplied by extra-liturgical dressings such as hymns. Then again, there is only space for two (unaccompanied, therefore to easy tunes) hymns (after the solemn prayers and after the veneration of the cross - I suppose there could be a third hymn if there is large number of communicants.)
The rest is prolonged silence, appropriately.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Leo wants to say both that PSA is a heresy and that the Church has never been dogmatic about the atonement.
How can both possibly be true?
I suppose I was using the term 'heresy' lightly and would return to an earlier term that I used = 'subChristian'.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Leo wants to say both that PSA is a heresy and that the Church has never been dogmatic about the atonement.
How can both possibly be true?
You have misrepresented him. The bit you quote doesn't say the church hasn't been dogmatic about it, but only that they haven't dogmatically selected one. Big difference.
You can say what something isn't without saying what it is. Consider: "Let him be anathema who says the socks I'm wearing today are red." That doesn't tell you what color they are, only what color they are not. Thus, saying I have red socks is a heresy, but I haven't made a dogmatic assertion about what color they actually are.
If the church said, "PSA is definitely wrong" that doesn't tell you which atonement model they think is right.
Thus what leo said is not contradictory.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If the church said, "PSA is definitely wrong" that doesn't tell you which atonement model they think is right.
Thanks for bringing this up again.
I distinctly remember asking you where the church has said this about PSA, and you still haven't answered.
(Of course, if the church has said no such thing then my point about Leo's contradictory position still stands - subChristian is just as dogmatic as heresy.)
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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Fair points, Johnny S ... but some fair points from Mousethief too.
'Dizzy, my head is spinning ...'
But good arguments on both sides here. Close match.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
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quote:
quote:
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Originally posted by Twangist:
Swap the word Bible for tradition or whatever other source of authority you want and swap the word Evangelical for any grouping and you can play this name calling game with anyone you want
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Nope. Because we don't argue with Evangelicals on the proper interpretation of our Tradition. Nice try though.
Could you remind me who posted the link to Flood's article which did argue with Evangelicals over the proper interpretarion of our (Ecumenical) Tradition then?
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
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quote:
subChristian is just as dogmatic as heresy
Both seem fairly inflamatory to be honest.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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What Mousethief said. Also, what is wrong with being inflammatory, given the fundamentalist view that we are all going to Hell if we don't believe in PSA? That is, almost literally, inflammatory.
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on
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quote:
Originally posted by leo:
[QUOTE]I suppose I was using the term 'heresy' lightly
As you do - along with terms such as paedophilia, wife-beating and coprophilia.
Heresy is a serious concept, and rescuing it from the trivialization into which it has fallen is not helped by tinpot Torquemadas banning innocuous, doctrinally unexceptionable children's hymns on petty ecclesiastical party grounds.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Also, what is wrong with being inflammatory, given the fundamentalist view that we are all going to Hell if we don't believe in PSA?
My problem was not that you were inflammatory but that you were inconsistent. (Although I'm puzzled as to why you'd bring this view up since I've not read anyone on this thread, or indeed anywhere on the ship, make this claim about PSA.)
In order to be dogmatic about something one must first have some dogma. I hardly think this is controversial.
Although I may disagree with them I have no problem with Protestants questioning the validity of PSA. People like B62 have raised good questions about key scriptures. I think they are wrong but they are still being entirely consistent.
I took issue with the way you with one breath told us that the church was not dogmatic on the atonement and then with the next proceeded to be dogmatic.
And if this is inconsistent for an Anglo-Catholic like yourself then it is far more so for the Orthodox. Where is the dogma on the atonement that allows you (those who look to the teaching of the Church as the final arbiter) to condemn PSA so completely?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
'Dizzy, my head is spinning ...'
Wonderful stuff.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
I've already said all I'm going to say about PSA and church councils. You are free to scroll back up and read it again, if you ever read it the first time.
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
[QUOTE]I suppose I was using the term 'heresy' lightly
As you do - along with terms such as paedophilia, wife-beating and coprophilia.
Heresy is a serious concept, and rescuing it from the trivialization into which it has fallen is not helped by tinpot Torquemadas banning innocuous, doctrinally unexceptionable children's hymns on petty ecclesiastical party grounds.
May I humbly suggest that no part of this discussion is aided by deliberately venomous personal attacks...
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
A reminder that Hell (the Ship version) is the proper place to explore pissed-offness with any particular Shipmate. There's been some sidling up to the Commandment 3 line on personal attack in recent posts. We don't mind heat in argument; have a care not to cross the line into personal attack.
Barnabas62
Purgatory Host
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Starlight: One of the fundamentals of PSA is that God shouldn't or can't "just forgive". But the Bible is very clear that God can and does just forgive out of love, conditional only on repentance.
The huge assumption taken for granted here is the basis of his forgiveness. There is no justice or genuine absolution possible unless there is a reason or basis.
If the reason is repentance, then this needs to be defined. If it is defined as fundamental change, then on what basis is that change possible; what power drives it?
Repentance is always responsive. It is contrition or sorrow for wrong. It is regret to the point where one is prepared to humble oneself. It is preparedness to act in a way that is foreign to past actions. Normally, this is not possible. leopards do not change spots.
The only possible Christian view of repentance is as a gift granted to the believer. On what basis is it granted? If you say God's love, all agree. But there is a further question. The love required an atoning death to operate. That is Christianity 101. So what was the power resident in that death? The power of conquest over sin/evil.
But wait there is a further question. Why was the death efficacious in the defeat of evil?
There is no atonement model that actually answers these issue but PSA. Evil was defeated because Christ bore it as so concisely stated by Peter in 1Peter 2:24."He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by his wounds you were healed.
Perhaps the reason that Athanasius does not definitively come out and state PSA, yet not exclude it either, is that it was so absoutely fundamental to early Christian belief systems as to be totally assumed by all of the early theologians.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Now here is an argument from silence if ever there was one:
'Perhaps the reason that Athanasius does not definitively come out and state PSA, yet not exclude it either, is that it was so absoutely fundamental to early Christian belief systems as to be totally assumed by all of the early theologians.'
Ok, Jamat, I did see the
.
The reality, of course, is that the early theologians were all too busy trying to thrash out the Trinity and the Deity of Christ etc and so didn't trouble themselves over much on how the atonement 'works' as it were.
It's certainly anachronistic to read heavy-duty PSA in the way you describe and embrace it back into the Patristic period, though. I think everyone would agree on that, apart from those with about as much historical perspective as a Chick Tract or a Hillsongs DVD.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Perhaps the reason that Athanasius does not definitively come out and state PSA, yet not exclude it either, is that it was so absoutely fundamental to early Christian belief systems as to be totally assumed by all of the early theologians.
I wonder if the following evidence will give you pause for thought? Funnily enough, I was thinking of quoting it anyway and this comment spurred me into action.
I remembered being struck particularly by an observation by St John Chrysostom re the circumstances surrounding the death of Christ, as recorded somewhat mysteriously in Matthew's gospel. Here is a link to Homily 88 on Matthew.
Commenting on the darkened sky, the earthquake and the emergence of the dead from tombs, Chrysostom provides this truly vivid insight.
quote:
And besides, those things were a type of this. For that this might be believed, therefore is that all done. And they are not merely raised, but also rocks are rent, and the earth shaken, that they might learn, that He was able to strike themselves blind, and to rend them in pieces. For He that cleft rocks asunder, and darkened the world, much more could have done these things to them, had it been His will. But He would not, but having discharged His wrath upon the elements, them it was His will to save by clemency.
Chrysostom observes, in a vivid phrase, that what he sees as God's wrath is "discharged upon the elements". He does not see it being discharged on Jesus as well. The picture has anthropomorphic elements of course (as do all our imaginings on this) but the picture is of God being wrathful about the sin which drove human beings to crucify Jesus; the cruelty, the sadism, the injustice, etc. Yet even in the heat of the moment, the discharging of this wrath is seen in what happens in Creation. Sure we can see God metaphorically smashing dishes rather than punishing children for wicked behaviour, and sure we can see that as a metaphor. But isn't that helpful in this debate over penalty? There seems to me to be an underlying reality there. And this is what it is.
"It was His will to save by clemency"? Even in the heat of the horror. He could have done otherwise, He had the power to do otherwise. But He didn't.
You see, I think all the Christians who have written on this thread will agree that it is God's will to save by clemency, since clemency is by its very nature a key aspect of grace. Fathers seek not just to teach truth to their children, but to model it. PSA runs the ever-present danger of modelling a wrathful God satisfying His wrath on His Son. Yes, I know that John Stott has changed things by pointing out that essentially God takes it on Himself to resolve Justice and Mercy. And yes, I know that can indeed be argued.
But in fairness, having been critical of leo's partial (and IMO rather silly) view of an old hymn, we should take note of his evidence that there are people around (and I've met more than a few myself) who have definitely not heard the proclamation of PSA as endorsing that, even in the worst possible circumstances of human sinfulness which invoke His wrath, nevertheless His will is for clemency. You may argue that is the fault of the proclaimers, not the doctrine, and you may be right. But I do think it important to see the inherent risks.
The gospel is, first and foremost, good news. Must it be prefaced by bad news? "God loves us so much that he will cause us to suffer eternal punishment if we do not obey him and we cannot so we must throw ourselves on His mercy, or we will undoubtedly burn in Hell". There can be a certain schizophrenia in that.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
The reality, of course, is that the early theologians were all too busy trying to thrash out the Trinity and the Deity of Christ etc and so didn't trouble themselves over much on how the atonement 'works' as it were.
I disagree. There is plenty of discussion of the atonement in the Fathers. Prior to Nicea, the things you mention weren't an issue. And post Nicea, there were such a huge volume of theological texts written/surviving that even things that aren't the primary issue of the day received extensive attention.
Also, when considering the debates over the deity of Christ, you've got to always keep in mind that the whole debate was tied to the atonement! In Egypt, certain strands of thought in Irenaeus' work were developed and emphasized in the light of Neo-Platonic ideas. This resulted in Athanasius' view I outlined earlier, which teaches that Christ united the human and divine natures in his incarnate body thereby rescuing humanity from non-existence. If this logic is to work, there are a number of logically necessary things that must be true about Christ's human and divine natures and their relationship. For a couple of centuries, Egypt attempted to promulgate its atonement model and the views of Christ's divinity and humanity which went with it. Its success at this was mixed, with Athanasius achieving victory at Nicea, Cyril winning at Ephesus, but Dioscorus losing at Chalcedon, leading to the separation of Egypt and its allies from the Church. Athanasius' determination to see Christ declared fully divine should be understood as flowing from his novel view on the atonement. In a very real sense, all the various council declarations about Christ's divinity and humanity were based largely on a view of the atonement which few people today find credible. We have, somewhat ironically, inherited the Christology which was designed in defence of a Soteriology we now reject!
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The huge assumption taken for granted here is the basis of his forgiveness. There is no justice or genuine absolution possible unless there is a reason or basis.
The basis is that God is only interested in people's current moral character, he doesn't particularly care what they used to be like. This is a major biblical assumption, which is foreign to many modern Christians as it was lost from Western Christianity around the time of Anselm due to the rise of Satisfaction/PSA. Have a read of Ezekiel 18 for a clear biblical explanation of this. Origen explains it beautifully, in one of my favourite passages of his:
quote:
Origen's Commentary on Romans 2.1.2-3
By common acknowledgement a good man ought not be punished, nor should an evil one obtain good things. Therefore, if, for instance, someone has done evil at some time, it is certain that he was evil at that time when he was doing evil things. However, suppose he, repenting of his past deeds, reforms his mind toward good things, behaves well, speaks well, thinks well, and turns his will toward the good. Is it not clear to you that he who does these things is a good man who deserves to receive good things? In like manner if someone should convert from good to evil, he shall no longer be judged as the good man he was and is no longer, but as the evil man that he is. You see, deeds pass away, whether good or evil... Accordingly it shall be unjust to punish a good mind for evils committed or to reward an evil mind for good deeds..... How will it be just to condemn a pious soul for ungodliness, or a just soul for injustice, or a soul practising moderation for excess?
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The only possible Christian view of repentance is as a gift granted to the believer.
Wow. Did you know there are other Christians who have different views of repentance? I, for example, read the Bible and understand repentance to be something a person chooses to do. Sure, God may sometimes deliberately act to bring about circumstances favourable to a person making such a decision. eg in the gospels Jesus talks to Zacchaeus, and convinces him to change his behaviour.
quote:
If the reason is repentance, then this needs to be defined. If it is defined as fundamental change, then on what basis is that change possible; what power drives it?
Repentance is always responsive. It is contrition or sorrow for wrong. It is regret to the point where one is prepared to humble oneself. It is preparedness to act in a way that is foreign to past actions. Normally, this is not possible. leopards do not change spots.
I really struggle to believe that even you believe what you're saying here. Surely you must know people can change their behaviours? To give one simple example, surely you have met someone who has given up smoking? What causes people to change their behaviours? Well a psychologist could give you a more technical answer than I could, I can only observe that it happens regularly.
quote:
Perhaps the reason that Athanasius does not definitively come out and state PSA, yet not exclude it either, is that it was so absoutely fundamental to early Christian belief systems as to be totally assumed by all of the early theologians.
Yeah, PSA was so core to their beliefs they left it out of their lists of core Christian beliefs and their statements of faith and their tens of thousands of pages of writings. They just so took it for granted that everyone would supernaturally know it by God's grace that they never need mention it at all.
It is a pity that modern PSA advocates don't have their level of confidence in God and feel the need to talk about PSA all the time.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Why was the death efficacious in the defeat of evil?
There is no atonement model that actually answers these issue but PSA. Evil was defeated because Christ bore it as so concisely stated by Peter in 1Peter 2:24.
Can you unpack that a little? It seems to me that Jesus bearing 'evil' is no necessary part of PSA, which only requires him to bear our punishment.
I accept that you can believe that Jesus was punished in our place AND that the cross was the climax of a cosmic struggle against every evil from which Jesus emerged triumphant, but it seems to me that they are distinct ideas. You could argue for one without needing to establish the other. The fact (if it is a fact) that Jesus was punished in our place doesn't prove that he also defeated evil. You need to go beyond strict PSA to show that.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The huge assumption taken for granted here is the basis of his forgiveness. There is no justice or genuine absolution possible unless there is a reason or basis.
The basis is that God is only interested in people's current moral character, he doesn't particularly care what they used to be like. This is a major biblical assumption, which is foreign to many modern Christians as it was lost from Western Christianity around the time of Anselm due to the rise of Satisfaction/PSA.
Great observation Starlight! It is so easy to demonstrate, and yet is so opposite to PSA thinking - which depends on God's supposed need for the satisfaction of past sins.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Why was the death efficacious in the defeat of evil?
There is no atonement model that actually answers these issue but PSA. Evil was defeated because Christ bore it as so concisely stated by Peter in 1Peter 2:24."He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by his wounds you were healed."
I think that there are other atonement models that offer better explanations of why death was efficacious.
Jesus repeatedly talked about the need for death in finding salvation:
quote:
Matthew 10:39 He who finds his life will lose it, and he who loses his life for My sake will find it.
Matthew 16:25 For whoever desires to save his life will lose it, but whoever loses his life for My sake will find it.
John 12:25 He who loves his life will lose it, and he who hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal life.
What is it that lives? What is it that dies?
Most readers easily see that Jesus is saying that people should prefer heavenly things to worldly ones. This is what Peter means in saying that we will "die to sin and live to righteousness."
This is clarified in these passages:
quote:
Matthew 6:19 “Do not lay up for yourselves treasures on earth, where moth and rust destroy and where thieves break in and steal; 20 but lay up for yourselves treasures in heaven, where neither moth nor rust destroys and where thieves do not break in and steal. 21 For where your treasure is, there your heart will be also.
Matthew 16:26 For what profit is it to a man if he gains the whole world, and loses his own soul? Or what will a man give in exchange for his soul?
To “give up one’s life” means to give up worldly desires even to the point of being willing to die for God’s sake. This would be the ultimate sacrifice:
quote:
John 15:13 Greater love has no one than this, than to lay down one’s life for his friends.
It is in this context that Jesus speaks of His own willingness to give up His life. He is saying that the love of worldly things is overcome by being willing to lay down one’s very life for the things of heaven, which are love and faith.
quote:
John 10:17 “Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.”
By His death Jesus subordinated the things of this world to the things of heaven. He overcame the world. He chose the things of heaven over the things of this world.
The secret to all of this is that in making these choices Jesus was doing battle with hell itself, and overcoming it. When He lay down His life He was opposing and overcoming the will of Satan, who would never lay down his life for anyone. There was a battle going on within Jesus, and in that battle He overcame the power of darkness. This is what He means by overcoming the world:
quote:
John 16:33 These things I have spoken to you, that in Me you may have peace. In the world you will have tribulation; but be of good cheer, I have overcome the world.”
The point is that in doing this Jesus made it possible for every person to prefer heavenly treasure to worldly treasure, by faith in and obedience to Him:
quote:
1 John 5:4 For whatever is born of God overcomes the world. And this is the victory that has overcome the world—our faith.
Revelation 2:26 And he who overcomes, and keeps My works until the end, to him I will give power over the nations.
This model is a more satisfactory explanation of how Jesus' death overcame the power of evil, and how a similar process in each person can have the same effect, calling on Jesus' power.
Jesus did not ever die. He merely subordinated what was purely physical and worldly to what was heavenly and divine in Himself. So these things in one sense "died". In a more real sense, however, His physical body did not die but was lifted up because it became perfectly aligned with His divinity.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I remembered being struck particularly by an observation by St John Chrysostom re the circumstances surrounding the death of Christ, as recorded somewhat mysteriously in Matthew's gospel. Here is a link to Homily 88 on Matthew.
Commenting on the darkened sky, the earthquake and the emergence of the dead from tombs, Chrysostom provides this truly vivid insight.
quote:
And besides, those things were a type of this. For that this might be believed, therefore is that all done. And they are not merely raised, but also rocks are rent, and the earth shaken, that they might learn, that He was able to strike themselves blind, and to rend them in pieces. For He that cleft rocks asunder, and darkened the world, much more could have done these things to them, had it been His will. But He would not, but having discharged His wrath upon the elements, them it was His will to save by clemency.
Chrysostom observes, in a vivid phrase, that what he sees as God's wrath is "discharged upon the elements". He does not see it being discharged on Jesus as well. The picture has anthropomorphic elements of course (as do all our imaginings on this) but the picture is of God being wrathful about the sin which drove human beings to crucify Jesus; the cruelty, the sadism, the injustice, etc. Yet even in the heat of the moment, the discharging of this wrath is seen in what happens in Creation. Sure we can see God metaphorically smashing dishes rather than punishing children for wicked behaviour, and sure we can see that as a metaphor. But isn't that helpful in this debate over penalty? There seems to me to be an underlying reality there. And this is what it is.
"It was His will to save by clemency"? Even in the heat of the horror. He could have done otherwise, He had the power to do otherwise. But He didn't.
Interesting quote from Chrysostom B62.
I'm not so sure that you can say, "He does not see it being discharged on Jesus as well " though. As you point out he is using anthropomorphic language here.
I find it interesting that he sees all the natural events that surround the crucifixion as being symbolic of God's wrath. I agree that there is nothing in what he writes to show that he thinks that wrath is being poured out on Jesus but surely the symbolism is saying that the cross represents, in some sense, God's anger at sin.
Now I realise that in what sense is what we are arguing about (so I'm not saying this proves anything about PSA) - but I'm just pointing out the irony that you were drawn to a passage where he expresses the need for God to 'discharge his wrath' while Christ was being crucified.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
The gospel is, first and foremost, good news. Must it be prefaced by bad news? "God loves us so much that he will cause us to suffer eternal punishment if we do not obey him and we cannot so we must throw ourselves on His mercy, or we will undoubtedly burn in Hell". There can be a certain schizophrenia in that.
I think the answer that the ECFs would give to your question is - yes, it must be prefaced by bad news in order to avoid dualism. I realise that we are straying into other issues here but (e.g. Athanasius) the ECFs bent over backwards to avoid any sense that evil and suffering (and all the bad consequences of sin in general) were an equal opposition to God.
To put it crudely the bad news is necessary for us to know that God has the power to save us no matter what, that his clemency cannot be thwarted.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Jesus did not ever die. He merely subordinated what was purely physical and worldly to what was heavenly and divine in Himself. So these things in one sense "died". In a more real sense, however, His physical body did not die but was lifted up because it became perfectly aligned with His divinity.
What odd theology? The 'physical' is the very stuff of divinity because of the incarnation.
Jesus really died - and descended into Hell - that's why the Creed is so important, to define what is orthodox and what, therefore, isn't.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Interesting quote from Chrysostom B62.
I'm not so sure that you can say, "He does not see it being discharged on Jesus as well " though. As you point out he is using anthropomorphic language here.
I find it interesting that he sees all the natural events that surround the crucifixion as being symbolic of God's wrath.
Perhaps we can agree, up to this point, that Chrysostom says nothing at all about God's wrath being poured out on His Son? I'm not seeking to argue from silence, nor do I think you are. The plain meaning of this description of God's wrath (and I mean this reverently) is that Chrysostom sees God as totally pissed off with the sin of the perpetrators and the treatment His Son is receiving as a consequence.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I agree that there is nothing in what he writes to show that he thinks that wrath is being poured out on Jesus but surely the symbolism is saying that the cross represents, in some sense, God's anger at sin.
I'm not sure we can say that. The Cross does not so much represent God's anger against sin as it does the cruel consequences of human sin. It does not represent God's anger at sin; rather it demonstrates why it is righteous for God to be angry about sin. That may seem to be a small difference, but I think a lot flows from it - if I am right of course.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Now I realise that in what sense is what we are arguing about (so I'm not saying this proves anything about PSA) - but I'm just pointing out the irony that you were drawn to a passage where he expresses the need for God to 'discharge his wrath' while Christ was being crucified.
Perhaps you can now see why I see no irony here? I'm not arguing, as other Shipmates do argue, that there is no wrath in God. I agree with an observation by mousethief that he "wanted" God to hate sin i.e. he is comfortable a belief that God hates sin - I think he would be uncomfortable with a God who didn't. Yet, even in this moment, as Chrysostom sees clearly, and I think correctly, God does not hate sinners. His will is for clemency.
[ 12. July 2011, 17:21: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Jesus did not ever die. He merely subordinated what was purely physical and worldly to what was heavenly and divine in Himself. So these things in one sense "died". In a more real sense, however, His physical body did not die but was lifted up because it became perfectly aligned with His divinity.
What odd theology? The 'physical' is the very stuff of divinity because of the incarnation.
Which part is odd? Is it odd that the physical would be subordinated to the spiritual? Or is it odd that His physical body was lifted up?
I thought that these were orthodox concepts. Surely no one thinks that the body is still around.
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Jesus really died - and descended into Hell - that's why the Creed is so important, to define what is orthodox and what, therefore, isn't.
No question that Jesus died on the cross, descended into hell, rescued the just who were trapped there, carried them into heaven, and was resurrected.
I'm just saying that in a higher sense Jesus never really died at all. Or am I misunderstanding your meaning?
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Jesus did not ever die. He merely subordinated what was purely physical and worldly to what was heavenly and divine in Himself. So these things in one sense "died". In a more real sense, however, His physical body did not die but was lifted up because it became perfectly aligned with His divinity.
What odd theology? The 'physical' is the very stuff of divinity because of the incarnation.
Jesus really died - and descended into Hell - that's why the Creed is so important, to define what is orthodox and what, therefore, isn't.
For once I have to agree with Leo. Freddy's post is an entirely unorthodox view of Jesus - its exactly the kind of thing that all those councils and creeds were fighting against back in the 4th & 5th centuries.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I'm just saying that in a higher sense Jesus never really died at all. Or am I misunderstanding your meaning?
I'm sure you are not misunderstanding. "...in a higher sense Jesus never really died at all" is not historical Christian teaching. Its like the Gnostic heresies that were condemned back in the early days of the Church. Many Muslims teach it (Other Muslims teach that Jesus did not die on the cross but lived on normally and died later), and I think maybe Mormons do as well. But its not remotely mainstream Christianity.
Christian teaching is that Jesus was a man, and also that Jesus was God incarnate. On earth, Jesus coudl suffer pain, hunger, thirst. He had the physical limitations of human beings - as a man he was neither omniscient nor omnipotent, there were things he did not knowo and things he could not do. He could be hurt and wounded, and he was killed. His dead body was a piece of meat like any other dead body. Just as dead as any other human. Then he was miraculously resurrected. But its all real. He wasn't some superman or angelic being.
[ 12. July 2011, 16:48: Message edited by: ken ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
"...in a higher sense Jesus never really died at all" is not historical Christian teaching. Its like the Gnostic heresies that were condemned back in the early days of the Church.
You misunderstand me. I agree that Jesus died on the cross. His resurrection on the third day was a real resurrection - I don't think that He was alive all that time.
What I'm saying is that it's also true that in the meantime He descended to hell and rescued the captives. His real self was not snuffed out.
That isn't Gnostic, it's in the Creed.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
On Holy Friday we pray (in one translation):
In the grave with the body but in Hades with the soul as God; in paradise with the thief, and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit wast Thou, O Christ, filling all things, Thyself uncircumscribed.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
On Holy Friday we pray (in one translation):
In the grave with the body but in Hades with the soul as God; in paradise with the thief, and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit wast Thou, O Christ, filling all things, Thyself uncircumscribed.
Should the ; after God not be between 'soul' and 'as'?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
I don't think so.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Perhaps we can agree, up to this point, that Chrysostom says nothing at all about God's wrath being poured out on His Son? I'm not seeking to argue from silence, nor do I think you are. The plain meaning of this description of God's wrath (and I mean this reverently) is that Chrysostom sees God as totally pissed off with the sin of the perpetrators and the treatment His Son is receiving as a consequence.
Yep, we can agree on this - I don't think either of us are trying to argue from silence.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I'm not sure we can say that. The Cross does not so much represent God's anger against sin as it does the cruel consequences of human sin. It does not represent God's anger at sin; rather it demonstrates why it is righteous for God to be angry about sin. That may seem to be a small difference, but I think a lot flows from it - if I am right of course.
That is a big 'if' though, isn't it? I'm not denying your reading of Mr golden-tongue himself, but what is not clear is whether he rules out what you claim he does.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Perhaps you can now see why I see no irony here? I'm not arguing, as other Shipmates do argue, that there is no wrath in God. I agree with an observation by mousethief that he "wanted" God to hate sin i.e. he is comfortable a belief that God hates sin - I think he would be uncomfortable with a God who didn't. Yet, even in this moment, as Chrysostom sees clearly, and I think correctly, God does not hate sinners. His will is for clemency.
Apologies I was addressing a generic position at the same time as replying to you.
The irony I was talking about (which I know is a position that you don't hold) is that probably the most common objection to PSA on the ship is that God does not need to have his wrath satisfied (or 'discharged' to use Chrysostom's language) in order to forgive. And yet you have quoted a passage which specifically states " having discharged His wrath upon the elements, them it was His will to save by clemency."
Agreed this is not PSA - his wrath is displayed not on Jesus but on the elements. Also agreed that he is employing anthropomorphism so we must be careful not to take any of this too literally.
Nevertheless he uses language which suggests a temporal order - having first discharged his wrath, [then] he seeks to save by clemency. We can argue whether this represents him fairly or not but I think you can see what I'm saying.
I'm sure you have heard as many Good Friday sermons as I have which pretty much say exactly what Chrysostom says about the darkness etc. representing God's anger and then move from that to PSA.
I agree with you that Chrysostom does not do that, but I think that PSA is the atonement model that moves on from what he says without crunching the gears.
Why does he say 'discharged'? Is it just anthropomorphism?
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
So Jesus gets killed in order to heal us - that is a monstrous injustice exactly the same as PSA is accused of. The only difference between Flood's atonement model and PSA is that the inner-workings that we find distasteful are hidden from sight. Just don't look under the bonnet. It is still very clearly SA and it still dodges the question of the biblical view that we are sick as part of God's judgment.
This completely ducks the sheer perversion that underlies PSA.
Under SA, God says "Do not touch that fence." There is a reason for this - the "fence" is in fact a power cable which has been left uninsulated. In SA, Jesus touches the fence and earths the thing. Which allows anyone near Jesus to cross the fence because he's earthing that section.
Under PSA, God says "Do not touch this fence." And then straps anyone into an electric chair who touches the fence. The 20,000 volt result is the same - but there's a huge difference between people dying from an electric fence and an electric chair for touching a fence. And then Jesus sits in the electric chair which mysteriously means that others don't have to.
Under SA, the creator created a harsh universe and the Incarnation was trying to correct at least some of this. Any justice involved is natural justice - putting your head in a wild lion's mouth isn't a capital offence for moral reasons. It's the <em>Penal</em> element that makes God so unjust that the system is a perversion of the very notion of both justice and mercy. SA simply makes God the sort of idiot who forgets electrical insulation, hand rails, and all the other useful safety measures. And then his son comes in to fix things. But it doesn't create a morally perverted God who straps almost everyone into the electric chair and calls it both just and merciful.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
There is a reason for this - the "fence" is in fact a power cable which has been left uninsulated.
Silly old God for leaving it uninsulated, can you imagine the law suits he is going to get over this?
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
All you are doing is pushing back the question of where God's responsibility lies.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
SA simply makes God the sort of idiot who forgets electrical insulation, hand rails, and all the other useful safety measures. And then his son comes in to fix things. But it doesn't create a morally perverted God who straps almost everyone into the electric chair and calls it both just and merciful.
A bit bizarrely put, but containing a point I do not personally contest; I say that the world in which I find myself strikes me as both beautiful and dangerous, and life is a struggle within it. But I wouldn't characterise the gift of life in this beautiful and dangerous place as without meaning or worth. "Why is the world the way it is" is a question considered by Christian existentialists. One of them, Nikolai Berdyaev (whose writings I came across via Fr Alexander Men) gave an answer which I interpreted as "because it is!"
The term "idiot" is evocative for an interesting reason. Shakespeare used the term "idiot" in the words of Macbeth to signal an ultimate despair. Here's the full quote.
quote:
To-morrow, and to-morrow, and to-morrow,
Creeps in this petty pace from day to day
To the last syllable of recorded time,
And all our yesterdays have lighted fools
The way to dusty death. Out, out, brief candle!
Life's but a walking shadow, a poor player
That struts and frets his hour upon the stage
And then is heard no more: it is a tale
Told by an idiot, full of sound and fury,
Signifying nothing.
But he was referring to life. A picture which makes some sense if there is no giver of life. No Creator.
Why is this need to find meaning and dispute meaning within us? Perhaps one can be satisfied by reductionist answers e.g. life is what you make it, meaning is a social construct etc. But not me. I think they fall under the Macbeth judgment as well. Brief candles. I find hope elsewhere. The paradoxes of Christianity represent a vulnerable candle flame which nevertheless resist all attempts to blow them out. Christianity is not a "brief candle".
You might find this interesting. The circumstances were poignant. Fr Alexander Men was murdered very shortly after delivering this talk. He touches on some of this stuff.
[ 13. July 2011, 07:21: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by AberVicar (# 16451) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
This brings in the question of free will. If we are free to reject God, then the cross makes sense; if not, then it's a cruel charade, as are the attempts to justify it.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Eliab: I accept that you can believe that Jesus was punished in our place AND that the cross was the climax of a cosmic struggle against every evil from which Jesus emerged triumphant, but it seems to me that they are distinct ideas.
Certainly separate but co relative. Without going into the view of someone like Ken Copeland, (whom I disagree with on many points incidentally,) He nevertheless links the two accurately, in my view, by saying that The devil's claim on man was because of a covenant made between himself and man at the disobedient act of Eden. In fracturing his sonship with God, Adam forged a diabolical covenant with Satan that was then inherited by Adam's offspring.
Christ as a sinless human could not be subject to that as every other man was. Hence in Christ evil's power is broken. Romans goes further when Paul argues that the believer in Christ walks potentially in a similar freedom. In Christ is freedom from sin and freedom from law, (a different discussion,)but this reasoning does serve to establish how Christ overcomes evil.
However, the fundamental issue of PSA is that evil was also laid upon Christ yet it was not his own evil. He voluntarily accepted the weight of the world's sin while remaining sinless. Hence, the Devil's defeat. He thought that Christ could be his on that basis, but in fact, death over sin vicariously submitted to could be also voluntarily taken back.
Yet even then Christ did not take back his life but the father raised him up having justified him in this act before the prince of evil. The real victory is therefore ours, since God has done for us in Christ what we could not do for ourselves.
He has broken us free from the covenant we had with evil and he has defeated evil on its own terms. The double whammy if you like.
I can now find a place of grace before God through my faith in Christ. As Hebrews states it "let us come boldly to the throne of grace." This is indeed the heart of the gospel. As the song says "death could not hold him down."
The author of death had to let him go in his deity and as he rose he also took his humanity out of death's clutches.In taking his own humanity from the power of hell, he potentially took yours and mine as well.
We see than that Christ being sinless became yet an offering for sin and in doing so puchased the manumission of humanity. Part of this process was that of accepting the judgement of death although in his intrinsic goodness also defeating it. hence he rose..hence we also rise. I live because he is risen.
You may see then how the two ideas work together?
[ 13. July 2011, 10:04: Message edited by: Jamat ]
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
You may see then how the two ideas work together?
Yes - and I also see that you've introduced an element of Ransom theory: Jesus paying the price to get us out of our indenture to Satan.
They can work together, but the composite theory is not simply PSA. It's PSA-plus... I've no objection to that, because a composite theory including PSA is pretty much what I believe, but you seem to be treating your composite as being necessarily deried from PSA. You are, in my view, just plain wrong to say that only PSA explains the defeat of evil, or the termination of a Satanic covenant, because it is specifically not the PSA element in your composite theory which does this - it is the CV and Ransom elements which you hold (rightly) to be consistent with PSA. And millions of Christians have CV or Ransom elements in their composite theories, but not PSA.
PSA explains why we don't need to be punished, and (which is just as important for me) why we can forgive others in spite of our feeling that they really ought to be punished. That's great. It's really, really, good news! And it is consistent with other atonement theories which explain other elements. You do, though, seem to be taking anything with is consistent with PSA as if it were part of PSA, and it isn't.
[ 13. July 2011, 10:29: Message edited by: Eliab ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I can see that, Jamat, but recoil at any mention, however tangential, of Kenneth Copeland ...
Mind you, I've met a former Health/Wealth Hagin/Copeland type who has become an Orthodox priest so he's obviously been able to handle a transition from this stuff to a more orthodox (small o) as well as Big O position.
What Hagin, Copeland and others seem to be putting about is an extreme form of ransom theory with all manner of extraneous gubbings thrown in for good measure. It doesn't only have Christ taking his sins upon himself in the classic PSA model, it goes further and has him suffering our diseases and so on ...
It is very, very peculiar. Very peculiar indeed.
So peculiar that it made me recoil from the rest of your post - which may contain some sense, for all I know. But I'm sorry, mention Copeland et al and I head for the hills. Sharpish.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
No they don't.
What has been restored?
Certainly not everything.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
What I don't understand is why it isn't better to view God as love itself and forgiveness itself, who is unchanging and merciful to all?
It's never that God doesn't forgive. The fault always lies with us in that we are unwilling to receive His forgiveneness. That's what the cross achieves.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
Is is necessary to believe that God "can't just forgive and restore everything without the cross"?
The cross is how he chose to do it, sure, but I thought the general view was that it was love, and not necessity, which drove that choice. God could have just let us off, but chose to identify himself with us in the Incarnation because despite our sin he loves us much more than just letting us off could ever convey.
The importance of the cross should never be denied, but I'd be very suspicious of an atonement theory which implies that God had no other options. Of course he did - he's omnipotent.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
There is a reason for this - the "fence" is in fact a power cable which has been left uninsulated.
Silly old God for leaving it uninsulated, can you imagine the law suits he is going to get over this?
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
All you are doing is pushing back the question of where God's responsibility lies.
Not all that's changing. There's a huge difference between fucking up (SA) and being a sadistic monster who intentionally tortures and then perverts the very notion of justice (PSA).
Anyone who knows anything about human nature knows that if you put a big red button marked "Do not push" somewhere then it's almost inevitable humans are going to push it to see what it does. So why put the tree there? Under PSA, it gives God an excuse. He knows what will happen. He is, after all, omniscient. But it gives him the excuse he wants to torture humans and a figleaf to hide behind so he can call it just. Under a more benevolent Omniscient God he knows all that is but not all that will be. He puts it there because that's where it will grow best. And makes a mistake.
One thing to remember from the bible: Jesus weeps and God explicitely changes his mind. An eternal unchanging God who can not learn is not only lessening God, it is both denying the incarnation and denying the plain text of the bible itself (see Jonah, or see God allowing himself to be bargained with). With the incarnation, despite being God, Jesus is moved to tears by the death of one of his friends. Being God had not prepared him for that. He did not feel the death as his friend being gathered into the arms of God. He felt is as the loss. He was discovering a part of being human whatever he knew about the afterlife. You are not moved to tears by what you already know and feel. You are moved to tears by something that moves you.
And honestly, the answer I come up with as to why God can't forgive without the Cross is that the Cross is God's pennance. Descending into Hell for three days to experience the suffering he has willfully inflicted on others. Demonstrating that God is with us, not just a joker in a burning bush who hardens rulers hearts to give him another excuse to torture and kill humans.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
And honestly, the answer I come up with as to why God can't forgive without the Cross is that the Cross is God's pennance.
It's not that God can't forgive without the cross. It's that the cross is part of God's victory over the power of darkness, enabling humans to learn to stop sinning and receive the forgiveness that was there all along.
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
Descending into Hell for three days to experience the suffering he has willfully inflicted on others.
He didn't descend into hell to experience suffering, He went to rescue the just.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
One thing to remember from the bible: Jesus weeps and God explicitely changes his mind. An eternal unchanging God who can not learn is not only lessening God, it is both denying the incarnation and denying the plain text of the bible itself (see Jonah, or see God allowing himself to be bargained with).
God behaves the way that He does in the Old Testament because He adapts Himself to people's expectations.
It is impossible to believe that the God of the universe would bargain with Abraham and Moses the way that He is portrayed as doing. But this was the kind of God that they expected, and so this is how the stories come down to us.
It in no way lessens God to see Him as eternal and unchanging. He doesn't learn, because He is omniscient, omnipresent, and omnipotent. He does not improve, because He is already perfect.
This doesn't deny the plain text of the Bible. The plain text frequently contradicts itself because it is written in accordance with the understanding of those who received it. Instead it contains over-arching themes and teachings that must be understood in order to account for any particular saying or statement.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
This doesn't deny the plain text of the Bible. The plain text frequently contradicts itself because it is written in accordance with the understanding of those who received it.
That comment about the plain text of the bible wasn't addressed to you. Normally that's a cop-out. But you have no problem with ignoring the plain meaning of the bible and going for overall themes. JohhnyS and a lot of evangelicals do or at least claim they do. Which means that their God must follow the attributes in the plain text of the bible - which includes learning and changing their mind.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
And honestly, the answer I come up with as to why God can't forgive without the Cross is that the Cross is God's pennance.
It's not that God can't forgive without the cross. It's that the cross is part of God's victory over the power of darkness, enabling humans to learn to stop sinning and receive the forgiveness that was there all along.
You guys have a lot of Orthodoxy beliefs.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
[QUOTE]He didn't descend into hell to experience suffering, He went to rescue the just.
Also perfectly Orthodox.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
You guys have a lot of Orthodoxy beliefs.
You would think a merciful God would be common to all forms of Christianity.
I don't understand why a vengeful, punishing God is seen as so necessary to combat sin, when the concept of sin as inherently self-punishing (in the same sense that all the laws of nature are) fits so much better.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
The plain meaning of this description of God's wrath (and I mean this reverently) is that Chrysostom sees God as totally pissed off with the sin of the perpetrators and the treatment His Son is receiving as a consequence.
I'm not surprised that you missed it with everything else on this thread but I'm still interested in what you think Chrysostom meant by God 'discharging' his wrath on the elements.
ISTM that your reading of Chrysostom paints God as a hormonal teenager who, when faced with injustice, is powerless to do anything about it and so storms off to his bedroom to kick the cat, play slash metal at full volume ... and some thunder and lightening to boot. Maybe you've been talking to Jessie Philips but it sounds a lot like Greek mythology to me.
I thought, in our discussions of the atonement, we were trying to move away from a petulant God who has uncontrollable outbursts of rage? And if so, then something else must be going on here.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by AberVicar:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
This brings in the question of free will. If we are free to reject God, then the cross makes sense; if not, then it's a cruel charade, as are the attempts to justify it.
This is indeed another question. Relevant to the discussion but applies to all atonement models and so I'm not sure makes much difference here.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
The importance of the cross should never be denied, but I'd be very suspicious of an atonement theory which implies that God had no other options. Of course he did - he's omnipotent.
Fair point. 'Necessary' may not be the right word.
Rather like your comment about omnipotence. I agree with you (FWIW) but most of this debate revolves around people saying, "God is X therefore Y must be true."
[ 14. July 2011, 01:06: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Actually, it's been RL pastoral stuff which kind of got in the way. It's late here in the UK but I'm still awake, so let me tackle your interest, Johnny.
1. I think we agree the picture contains anthropomorphism.
2. But from that anthropomorphism we both see a biblical truth; namely that God's wrath is against sin.
3. I think we agree the picture shows His wrath being discharged upon the elements. So the issue is probably what does "discharge upon" mean in this context.
4. Where we may not agree is that you see his clemency coming to fore after that discharge against the elements. I read Chrysostom as saying that his clemency towards humanity, even when behaving outrageously, is a constant feature of His nature. Where I think you see a sequence, I see parallels. It's that word "having" that does it for you. In short, I think you see that God needs somehow (and this is anthropomorphism again) to get the wrath out of His system before he can show clemency. I guess the text can support that view but it doesn't have to.
5. I think the deeper thing which is going on here which may give us some clues about discharge is the way Chrysostom looks at God as Lord of Creation. The darkened sky and the earthquake are signs of that there is wrath in God about what is going on. Creation "speaks" through these signs. God as Lord of creation is expressing His wrath through these signs. Specifically, therefore, God is "shouting" His anger through the Creation he made, by using darkness and the shaking ground at the time of the outrage being perpetrated against His son. I think discharge means something like express emphatically. Creation bears the weight of His wrath in the process.
6. Where does the wrath "go"? I guess Chrystostom might say that it doesn't go anywhere. God's wrath against sin is as much an eternal feature of His nature as His love of human beings created in His image. Neither changes. Creation has just shown that wrath is there; the survival of the perpetrators shows that clemency is there. Both at the same time.
7. How this ties up with sinbearing or being made sin is not clear from his interpretation here. It may be better to look at the homily on 2 Cor 5:21 to see that point.
Hope that is clear, whether you agree or not!
[ 14. July 2011, 01:11: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
While you are all asleep in the UK do I get some kind of award for managing to make 4 posts in a row!?
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
There's a huge difference between fucking up (SA) and being a sadistic monster who intentionally tortures and then perverts the very notion of justice (PSA).
I'm not sure you are playing fair with the way in which people use analogies and models.
For example, the electrocution analogy you have just used for SA I have heard someone use (pretty much exactly) in order to explain PSA.
Analogies are useful in explaining things, but only up to a point. It feels to me as if you are coming up with your own analogies for PSA and then attacking them.
As has been stated frequently on the ship before by several shipmates - you are only going to make progress in an argument when your opponents recognise their own arguments in the way you talk about them.
It's no use saying, "but that is what you really believe!" If I don't recognise it as PSA any discussion is pointless.
[ETA - arrg ... X-posted with B62 who thwarted my 4 post attempt]
[ 14. July 2011, 01:13: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Thanks B62, that is really helpful and I think it summarises well where we've got to.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
4. Where we may not agree is that you see his clemency coming to fore after that discharge against the elements. I read Chrysostom as saying that his clemency towards humanity, even when behaving outrageously, is a constant feature of His nature. Where I think you see a sequence, I see parallels. It's that word "having" that does it for you. In short, I think you see that God needs somehow (and this is anthropomorphism again) to get the wrath out of His system before he can show clemency. I guess the text can support that view but it doesn't have to.
Actually I'm going to back track on what I said earlier. I did refer to a temporal aspect to his writing - hence your comments about sequence above. But, on reflection, that is not quite what I meant. I did not read Chrysostom as saying that God has to get his wrath out of his system before he can show clemency, but I did read him as saying that the two are inextricably linked.
God can show clemency any time he likes, but Chrysostom seems to link it with him showing his wrath somehow.
As you say, exactly how I'll need to think about more. Perhaps I'll read his homily on 2 Cor. 5 this afternoon.
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
The importance of the cross should never be denied, but I'd be very suspicious of an atonement theory which implies that God had no other options. Of course he did - he's omnipotent.
You're right, of course, but I think it's just as true to say that God actually did have only one option, namely the very best option, whatever that was (which only he could determine, naturally). It just doesn't make sense to me to talk about God choosing any option other than the one that was best, all things considered. Saying that God had to do X could just be another way of saying that X was God's best option and therefore the only one he would choose.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
It's not that God can't forgive without the cross. It's that the cross is part of God's victory over the power of darkness, enabling humans to learn to stop sinning and receive the forgiveness that was there all along.
You guys have a lot of Orthodoxy beliefs.
Learning about our common beliefs is one of the things I've enjoyed the most about the ship.
[ 14. July 2011, 02:26: Message edited by: W Hyatt ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I can see that, Jamat, but recoil at any mention, however tangential, of Kenneth Copeland ...
Mind you, I've met a former Health/Wealth Hagin/Copeland type who has become an Orthodox priest so he's obviously been able to handle a transition from this stuff to a more orthodox (small o) as well as Big O position.
What Hagin, Copeland and others seem to be putting about is an extreme form of ransom theory with all manner of extraneous gubbings thrown in for good measure. It doesn't only have Christ taking his sins upon himself in the classic PSA model, it goes further and has him suffering our diseases and so on ...
It is very, very peculiar. Very peculiar indeed.
So peculiar that it made me recoil from the rest of your post - which may contain some sense, for all I know. But I'm sorry, mention Copeland et al and I head for the hills. Sharpish.
Chew the meat spit out the bones.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Actually I'm going to back track on what I said earlier. I did refer to a temporal aspect to his writing - hence your comments about sequence above. But, on reflection, that is not quite what I meant. I did not read Chrysostom as saying that God has to get his wrath out of his system before he can show clemency, but I did read him as saying that the two are inextricably linked.
Yes. I think it is more faithful to both scripture and tradition (both Reformed and Ortho/Catholic) to acknowledge that inextricable linking than to argue that scripture and tradition do not point to such a linking. I think Luther quoted Psalm 85:10 in this context as a summary of the intertwinings.
quote:
Mercy and truth are met together; righteousness and peace have kissed each other
What we argue about is the meaning of that inextricable linking; probably because there is no way that we can ever resolve it. Recently I heard some teaching by Trevor Miller, one of the leaders of the Northumbria Community, who argued that we need to hold such equal and opposite paradoxical truths in tension and live them out. Seeking to resolve them damages, diminishes, both truths. I thought that was extraordinarily wise.
I also think it may be Orthodox! A kind of apophatic/kataphatic thing?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
What we argue about is the meaning of that inextricable linking; probably because there is no way that we can ever resolve it. Recently I heard some teaching by Trevor Miller, one of the leaders of the Northumbria Community, who argued that we need to hold such equal and opposite paradoxical truths in tension and live them out. Seeking to resolve them damages, diminishes, both truths. I thought that was extraordinarily wise.
Makes sense to me.
God's sovereignty vs. human freewill.
God's love vs. God's justice.
They are all true. Completely. Comprehensively. Universally.
BTW I've had time to re-read Chrysostom on 2 Corinthians 5, as you suggested, and was struck again by how much he talks of punishment. If you were seeking to remove the P from PSA I think he is the wrong man to go to.
This quote in particular caught my attention:
quote:
If one that was himself a king, beholding a robber and malefactor under punishment, gave his well-beloved son, his only-begotten and true, to be slain; and transferred the death and the guilt as well, from him to his son, (who was himself of no such character,) that he might both save the condemned man and clear him from his evil reputation...
In what way is that not PSA?
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Here is a link to the Homily.
I'm in danger of repeating myself here, Johnny. But maybe a summary is helpful?
I see the exposition as confirming that Chrysostom's writing, in common with many of the Fathers, shows affirmation of vicarious atonement, but not PSA. PSA implies (following Calvin in the Institutes) that something is required to reconcile God to us. Whereas Chrysostom makes it clear that God is reconciled to us already. His will is for clemency.
Leprechaun has argued that reconciliation involves both parties. That's true, but the ministry of reconciliation is God holding out the olive branch and us acting as ambassadors on His behalf. He is the initiator of reconciliation. Here is the key quote in the exposition of v19
quote:
Seest thou love surpassing all expression, all conception? Who was the aggrieved one? Himself. Who first sought the reconciliation? Himself. ‘And yet,’ saith one, ‘He sent the Son, He did not come Himself.’ The Son indeed it was He sent; still not He alone besought, but both with Him and by Him the Father; wherefore he said, that, “God was reconciling the world unto Himself in Christ:” that is, by Christ
It is in that context that Chrysostom's legal metaphor (and it is a metaphor) needs to be read. I think PSA pushes the retributive aspect too far, particularly in this case since the whole context (as Derek Flood would say) is restorative. That's why I say it is SA which is being illustrated by the metaphor, but not PSA. You are right to say that the metaphor has penal aspects, but to say it confirms something akin to PSA in the mind of the commentator is at best stretching a point to the detriment of the overall restorative context.
Of course YMMV; there is room for that. But Flood's restorative v retributive point is IMO very well made, and this exposition illustrates its significance. Chrysostom is weighing scripture with scripture and it's important to see the overall picture.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
What meat, Jamat? There is no meat with Copeland and Hagin. It's all bones and gristle and carcinogenic fast-food Big Mac Christianity.
I will have none of it.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I'm in danger of repeating myself here, Johnny. But maybe a summary is helpful?
Sorry, I didn't mean to make you repeat what you said before about this particular homily - I remember our discussion back then well.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I see the exposition as confirming that Chrysostom's writing, in common with many of the Fathers, shows affirmation of vicarious atonement, but not PSA. PSA implies (following Calvin in the Institutes) that something is required to reconcile God to us. Whereas Chrysostom makes it clear that God is reconciled to us already. His will is for clemency.
I know that Calvin argues that way but (considering your last post about holding both in tension) I was asking on what grounds you think Chrysostom ruled out PSA.
I can see how you are using this passage to argue that God's will is always for clemency but I don't see why that is a fatal blow for PSA. It may undermine Calvin's reasoning but I don't see how it necessarily impacts PSA.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
It is in that context that Chrysostom's legal metaphor (and it is a metaphor) needs to be read. I think PSA pushes the retributive aspect too far, particularly in this case since the whole context (as Derek Flood would say) is restorative. That's why I say it is SA which is being illustrated by the metaphor, but not PSA. You are right to say that the metaphor has penal aspects, but to say it confirms something akin to PSA in the mind of the commentator is at best stretching a point to the detriment of the overall restorative context.
Whereas in the passage I quoted his metaphor is both penal and substitutionary. I am puzzled why an explanation of the atonement which is both penal and substitutionary cannot be PSA.
ISTM that you are saying that it swims like a duck and that it quacks like a duck but you are more comfortable calling it an elephant.
I agree wholeheartedly with your comments earlier about holding these apparently contradictory aspects in tension. Yet again I think your argument is telling (indeed a fatal blow) for anyone trying to give a PSA only explanation of the atonement but what I don't understand is how Chrysostom can be used to deny PSA altogether - especially since he is both penal and substitutionary.
B62 protests too much me thinks.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
What meat, Jamat? There is no meat with Copeland and Hagin. It's all bones and gristle and carcinogenic fast-food Big Mac Christianity.
I will have none of it.
I'm sorry Jamat.
I'm with Gamaliel on this one.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Johnny
You make a fair point. I'm still not comfortable with it. My gut may be telling me something different to my brain!
I think I would be happy if all those who have thrown mud at the evangelical Christians who have questioned the model as the sine qua non of evangelical Christianity were prepared to acknowledge as much as you do. Some good people have been "demonised" by that process. I never thought that was fair.
My general thesis re holding in tension the different truths mediated to us via scripture and tradition does allow for PSA having something to say to us. I've got a feeling I read a comment from N T Wright re his tutor, who said pretty much that.
Most of my resistance to the model may relate far more to the arrogant way in which it has been used to dismiss other understandings. And another part of that resistance is the scared casualties I've met on the road, for whom the model, far from helping them to be reconciled to God, has wounded and frightened them.
I'm probably reacting and resisting an oversell, maybe a hard sell as well. A classic nonconformist, me. The gut reaction to a lot of these presentations has been"I don't like the smell of that, that feels like a manipulative attempt to scare people into the kingdom. I'm not buying into that". That co-exists with a strong sense of something else. When I hear (from Messiah) the moving end to "All we like sheep", where the choral singing moves ever more slowly and quietly through "And the Lord hath laid on him ... the iniquity ... of us all .." an ancient and wondrous truth has become alive for me again. When I survey the wondrous cross on which the King of glory died ... A place of humility and wonder. And thankfulness. Not sure I want to go beyond that in explaining why. In the end, for me at least, the impact is enough.
[ 14. July 2011, 17:40: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
What meat, Jamat? There is no meat with Copeland and Hagin. It's all bones and gristle and carcinogenic fast-food Big Mac Christianity.
I will have none of it.
I'm sorry Jamat.
I'm with Gamaliel on this one.
Ideas are ideas, personalities shouldn't affect your assessment of them.
I like the concept of covenant but I don't buy into the "God is my sock-puppet if only I've got enough faith" stuff
[ 14. July 2011, 19:19: Message edited by: Jamat ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Barnabus: A place of humility and wonder. And thankfulness. Not sure I want to go beyond that in explaining why.
Totally.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I see the exposition as confirming that Chrysostom's writing, in common with many of the Fathers, shows affirmation of vicarious atonement, but not PSA.
I think it's worth saying that even if somebody says 'we deserved to be punished, but Jesus, although innocent, was punished instead,' that doesn't mean they're advocating PSA. The thief on the cross isn't arguing for PSA in Luke 23:41, since he hasn't escaped punishment. But the equivalent sentiment could be expressed by someone who has escaped punishment.
The distinguishing feature of PSA is that Jesus' punishment is not presented as an injustice, but as satisfying justice. If someone says that Jesus suffered unjustly they're denying PSA.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Most of my resistance to the model may relate far more to the arrogant way in which it has been used to dismiss other understandings. And another part of that resistance is the scared casualties I've met on the road, for whom the model, far from helping them to be reconciled to God, has wounded and frightened them.
I think we are even closer than you realise.
I remember one of the exam questions on my Atonement paper (20 years ago ... !) was about models. Even back then I argued that our use of models must cut both against and with the grain. There are certainly those who have been damaged by a judgemental background who need to simply hear, over and over again, that God loves them no matter what. Equally there is a generation growing up who thinks that if there is a God then he owes them a favour. The gospel needs to speak to everyone.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
When I survey the wondrous cross on which the King of glory died ... A place of humility and wonder. And thankfulness. Not sure I want to go beyond that in explaining why. In the end, for me at least, the impact is enough.
Amen, and Amen.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
The distinguishing feature of PSA is that Jesus' punishment is not presented as an injustice, but as satisfying justice. If someone says that Jesus suffered unjustly they're denying PSA.
Are they?
I've lived my entire life in churches that teach PSA and I've heard countless sermons on how Jesus suffered unjustly from the gospels, and of course most of all from 1 Peter 2.
Either all these people were just too stoooopid to realise or maybe they understand that Jesus was innocent of all charges but that, in Christ, humanity was guilty.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
The distinguishing feature of PSA is that Jesus' punishment is not presented as an injustice, but as satisfying justice. If someone says that Jesus suffered unjustly they're denying PSA.
Are they?
I've lived my entire life in churches that teach PSA and I've heard countless sermons on how Jesus suffered unjustly from the gospels, and of course most of all from 1 Peter 2.
Either all these people were just too stoooopid to realise or maybe they understand that Jesus was innocent of all charges but that, in Christ, humanity was guilty.
That's dodging the question of whether God the Father was unjust. I think that's the injustice Dafyd is referring to.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Covenant isn't a Copeland idea, Jamat. He's just taken and distorted it the same as he's distorted other examples of otherwise unexceptionable Christian teaching.
My objection isn't about personality. It's about heresy. I have no compunction about using the H-word in connection with both Copeland and Hagin and the whole sorry school they represent.
Hinn, Copeland and Hagin are all charlatans and heretics.
I want nothing to do with them.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
I'm fairly Wimber-ish in terms of spitting out bones from anything with some kind of genuine spiritual life in it.
However .... Copeland et al on the atonement is very much undigested CV/Ransom theory on acid and then some, and deserves all the labels and then some that PSA has been given on this thread!Check here and here for documentation.
There isn't a bargepole long enough .....
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
There isn't a bargepole long enough .....
We agree upon something at last!
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
I'm fairly Wimber-ish in terms of spitting out bones from anything with some kind of genuine spiritual life in it.
However .... Copeland et al on the atonement is very much undigested CV/Ransom theory on acid and then some, and deserves all the labels and then some that PSA has been given on this thread!Check here and here for documentation.
There isn't a bargepole long enough .....
Twangist
I see both links are tinyurl, which is fine normally, but gives no clue as to source.
The first one works for me, leads a study book available from Amazon. The second one doesn't. Maybe you can post the address direct (hopefully without busting the scroll lock) or give a doc title available through say a Google search?
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
the books are Hank Hanegraff "Christianity in Crisis" and Smail, Wright, Walker "Charismatic Renewal"
On a Styxy note - I've tinyurling since a hostly admonishment on Eccles (I think) for a longish link - what's the best criteria?
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by Twangist:
There isn't a bargepole long enough .....
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
We agree upon something at last!
Lets break out the Champers!!!
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I'll join you, Twangist. Hanegraaf ain't my favourite dude but he was on the money in that book. As for the Holy Trinity (
) of Smail, Walker and Wright, they can do no wrong as far as I'm concerned. That 'Charismatic Renewal' book of theirs was the one that kept me sane and showed me that there was a way out of the looney-tunes hyper-spirituality that was engulfing vast swathes of the charismatic evangelical scene in the mid to late '90s.
If anyone deserves a medal, it's those three. It's just a shame that more people weren't listening.
I don't think all is lost out there in that scene, though ... Ian Stackhouse always struck me as a sane sort of bloke. I'm not sure about New Wine ... they still seem very gullible to me when it comes to the Bethels and so on of this world ... but there should be some ballast there ...
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
On a Styxy note - I've tinyurling since a hostly admonishment on Eccles (I think) for a longish link - what's the best criteria?
<tangent>
I tend to use it for Wikipedia links since they often have characters which seem to mess up the URL button. Otherwise, I only use tinyurl exceptionally if I find that the original address doesn't work. [After a clanger, I always use Preview Post to check that links are working.]
Someone more clued-in than me probably knows by heart the characters in links which muck up the URL button - I don't. So I play it by ear.
</tangent>
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
thanks B62
G - Hank does seem a bit up tight and odd these days v helpfull book tho'
re the "Presby Otho Baptist" trinity, kinda had the opposite effect for me in that it enabled me to engage with the Charismatic with my eyes open.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
That's dodging the question of whether God the Father was unjust. I think that's the injustice Dafyd is referring to.
We went round and round this merry-go-round on the CV thread.
God was entirely just to punish humanity in Christ.
To look at only one aspect of a model is to miss the point. A similar question would be to ask if God is unjust in showing grace to those who don't deserve it.
The cross is God's answer to an unjust world - it is not a zero sum.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
A similar question would be to ask if God is unjust in showing grace to those who don't deserve it.
Are there those who do?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
That's dodging the question of whether God the Father was unjust. I think that's the injustice Dafyd is referring to.
We went round and round this merry-go-round on the CV thread.
God was entirely just to punish humanity in Christ.
Yes we did go round and round on it. I was just pointing out that this was what Dafyd was asking.
And of course my point is that this version of God is unjust. Only a monster would "punish humanity in Christ." PSA describes an unjust God that no reasonable person would love or worship.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
That's dodging the question of whether God the Father was unjust. I think that's the injustice Dafyd is referring to.
We went round and round this merry-go-round on the CV thread.
God was entirely just to punish humanity in Christ.
Yes we did go round and round on it. I was just pointing out that this was what Dafyd was asking.
And of course my point is that this version of God is unjust. Only a monster would "punish humanity in Christ." PSA describes an unjust God that no reasonable person would love or worship.
Are you just being perverse Freddy or do you really not get thast PSA is not about God judging Christ. If he judged him why did he raise him?
No, the thing judged in Christ by God is the sin of humanity IMNSHO. God always had to judge sin some way. Christ voluntarily took the sin of humanity on himself. Hence,"while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us."
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
And of course my point is that this version of God is unjust. Only a monster would "punish humanity in Christ." PSA describes an unjust God that no reasonable person would love or worship.
Are you just being perverse Freddy or do you really not get thast PSA is not about God judging Christ. If he judged him why did he raise him?
No, the thing judged in Christ by God is the sin of humanity IMNSHO. God always had to judge sin some way. Christ voluntarily took the sin of humanity on himself. Hence,"while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us."
It's not that I don't get that PSA is not about God judging Christ. I understand that according to PSA Christ voluntarily took the punishment.
What I'm saying is unjust is the idea that God would demand this kind of punishment or payment, or that He could be "satisfied" by this "death." This is wrong.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
If we agree that sinful people will be judged by God then we would have to agree that by virtue of his mystical union with certain sinful people Christ must experience God's judgement with them.
The question, I think, must be when does/did Jesus experience that judgement? I think it's when he takes/took those who are mystically united with him into death, for death is the consequence of guilty verdict. The means, therefore, by which Jesus carries guilty people into death is the cross.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
...and the means by which sinful people are taken into life is the resurrection.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
If we agree that sinful people will be judged by God then we would have to agree that by virtue of his mystical union with certain sinful people Christ must experience God's judgement with them.
No we wouldn't have to agree to that.
Yes, people are certainly judged. But a God who becomes satisfied by punishing people, and even more by allowing His Son to be murdered, is a twisted and unacceptable version of God and the way judgment works.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
If we agree that sinful people will be judged by God then we would have to agree that by virtue of his mystical union with certain sinful people Christ must experience God's judgement with them.
No we wouldn't have to agree to that.
Seconded. Indeed you beat me to it; before I read your post I was going to say much the same thing.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Yes, people are certainly judged. But a God who becomes satisfied by punishing people, and even more by allowing His Son to be murdered, is a twisted and unacceptable version of God and the way judgment works.
How does Divine judgment work within Swedenborgian understanding? [Sorry if I've missed it or forgotten it, Freddy. A link will do].
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Yes, people are certainly judged. But a God who becomes satisfied by punishing people, and even more by allowing His Son to be murdered, is a twisted and unacceptable version of God and the way judgment works.
How does Divine judgment work within Swedenborgian understanding?
God does not judge or punish. Rather, joy or the lack of it are inherent in good and evil themselves. God loves everyone, whether good or evil, but the evil cut themselves off from His love.
In the spiritual realm good and evil are punished or rewarded according to spiritual law in very much the same way that physical actions are rewarded or punished in the physical world according to natural laws.
For example, no one thinks that God punishes people who take poison by killing them. Rather it is the poison that kills them. No one thinks that God punishes those who fail to find food by causing them to starve to death. Rather, it is the lack of food that causes them to starve.
Similarly, in spiritual terms self-centered desires and actions deprive a person of happiness just like the inability to find food deprives a person's physical body of nourishment. God does not punish this, it is simply how spiritual life works.
Unfortunately this organic connection is not immediately obvious to people, because it is obscured by physical desires. It is much easier, therefore, to speak in terms of divine punishment, judgment and retribution. Ancient people, and most people today, would struggle with these ideas unless they are put in these simplistic terms.
This is why the Bible describes God in this way, a way that makes sense to children and many people, but which is inconsistent with a fuller idea of God.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Yes, people are certainly judged. But a God who becomes satisfied by punishing people, and even more by allowing His Son to be murdered, is a twisted and unacceptable version of God and the way judgment works.
How does Divine judgment work within Swedenborgian understanding?
God does not judge or punish.
That's not what credal Christianity or the Bible presents as truth.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
If we agree that sinful people will be judged by God then we would have to agree that by virtue of his mystical union with certain sinful people Christ must experience God's judgement with them.
No we wouldn't have to agree to that.
Seconded. Indeed you beat me to it; before I read your post I was going to say much the same thing.
Will God in Christ judge the quick and the dead, or not? Will the dead in Christ rise, or not? Have certain people been mystically united with Christ, or not? Is death the result of God's judgement, or not? Have those people died with Christ, or not? Is mystical union with the death of Christ the way those who are united to him die to sin, or not?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Will God in Christ judge the quick and the dead, or not?
Yes and no. Yes, the Bible speaks of God judging and people are judged. But, no, that judgment doesn't happen in the way that people imagine.
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Will the dead in Christ rise, or not?
Everyone rises into the spiritual world after death. Those who love and obey Christ enter heaven.
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Have certain people been mystically united with Christ, or not?
Those who believe in Him and love and obey Him are united with Him.
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Is death the result of God's judgement, or not?
No.
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Have those people died with Christ, or not?
No.
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Is mystical union with the death of Christ the way those who are united to him die to sin, or not?
Yes.
[ 19. July 2011, 01:25: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
Your notion of judgement sounds a bit gnostic to me: a sort of higher knowledge based on an 'advanced' understanding of scripture that children and theologically naive people can't grasp.
ISTM that the NT epistles speak of death to sin through mystical union with Christ a fair bit.
The wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus. Jesus was sinless; he had not 'earned' death. And yet he did die. Why? So that those whose sins had earned death could indeed die through union with him. Death is the penalty for sin. Jesus endured that penalty so that the guilty - through union with him - might undergo that just penalty through union with him. He himself became a shelter in which the guilty might hide themselves in order to die. Substitution by union.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
The wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus.
The "death" that results from sin is not physical death but spiritual death - the harming of a person's soul which results in a loss of the happiness of heaven. This penalty is inherent in sin itself, it is not visited by God on sinners. Evil is harmful, and so it should be avoided.
Eternal life is the free gift of God and it is possible because Jesus Christ overcame the power of hell and set humanity free. Those who believe in Him and obey Him are free indeed and receive eternal life.
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Death is the penalty for sin. Jesus endured that penalty so that the guilty - through union with him - might undergo that just penalty through union with him.
This is the mistake. It describes a God who is cruel not loving. Jesus did not endure a penalty to satisfy the price of sin. Rather He endured the suffering involved in the battle against the power of the hells, a battle in which He was victorious. This is what the gospels teach.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
God the Father is not an abuser of God the Son. He freely chose to give eternal approval to the Son's desire to provide the death through which sinners may die to sin. He gave his Son to us.
God the Son is not God the Father's victim. The Son freely chose to provide the death through which sinners may die to sin. He gave himself for us.
God the Spirit is not complicit in act of divine child abuse. He presented the Son's sacrifice - through which sinners may die to sin - to the Father in an act of divine service to the Son. He gave the Son to the Father.
quote:
How much more, then, will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself unblemished to God, cleanse our consciences from acts that lead to death, so that we may serve the living God!
Hebrews 9:14
[ 19. July 2011, 13:02: Message edited by: Daron ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
The scriptures say the wages of sin is death. Is this a mistranslation?
All die (except Enoch and Elijah and that crowd). So Christ did not take away the wages of sin.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
The scriptures say the wages of sin is death. Is this a mistranslation?
No, it's not a mistranslation. It was a clumsy interpolation of a different biblical concept. Not particularly helpful in the case, because it's such an unpopular one. Let me reword what I said to see if still makes sense using the concept of payment rather than penalty.
quote:
Death is the wages of sin. Jesus recieved that wage so that those who had really earned it might - through union with him - safely receive that just payment by virtue of their mystical union with him.
You say that. "Christ did not take away the wages of sins". Perhaps not, but he did become the living locus in which sinners who had earned death might mystically receive that payment without suffering eternal destruction, and rise with him fully justified having been taken into death with him.
[ 19. July 2011, 16:27: Message edited by: Daron ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
But it doesn't say the wages of sin is eternal destruction, does it? The wages is death, and when I die I will have been paid the wages.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
But it doesn't say the wages of sin is eternal destruction, does it? The wages is death, and when I die I will have been paid the wages.
That reading requires a rather limited and one dimensional understanding of death as presented in the Scriptures.
The Apostle Paul talks about death more broadly I think. He says that he has died to sin (past tense). He says that he dies daily (present tense) as well. John the Revelator speaks of the "second death". I think death in the bible refers to more than the simple cessation of physical, organic life.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
God the Father is not an abuser of God the Son. He freely chose to give eternal approval to the Son's desire to provide the death through which sinners may die to sin. He gave his Son to us.
God the Son is not God the Father's victim. The Son freely chose to provide the death through which sinners may die to sin. He gave himself for us.
God the Spirit is not complicit in act of divine child abuse. He presented the Son's sacrifice - through which sinners may die to sin - to the Father in an act of divine service to the Son. He gave the Son to the Father.
The abuse comes into it when we say that punishment satisfies the Father. It is abuse when we say that Christ's death satisfies God's requirement for blood.
What kind of God would require blood? What kind of God would be satisfied by the death of His Son? It is pure evil to understand the Bible to be saying that.
The quote about the blood of bulls and rams is referring to Christ's self-sacrifice in the battle to overcome sin. It is the same concept as when anyone gives great efforts for a cause, even to the point of death. It is wrong to understand this as a kind of blood-payment.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
John the Revelator speaks of the "second death". I think death in the bible refers to more than the simple cessation of physical, organic life.
The "second death" referred to in Revelation is the spiritual death that is life in hell.
It is a "second" death because it occurs after a person has undergone the "first death", which is when he physically dies.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
Precisely. The saints are victorious over the second death despite their sinfulness because they are mystically united with Christ in his death and have therefore died to sin.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Johnny S
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
Actually, I'm not sure that this is all that useful a question. We cannot know what God can or cannot do; indeed, it may be that he can do anything He likes. A better question would maybe be "What, on the best but necessarily incomplete evidence available to us (the whole counsel of the Scriptures, the witness of the saints through the ages, the Tradition of the church, our reason, etc etc) does God chose to do? If you like, which story of Salvation harmonises most closely with the character of God; which way is He more likely to act, based on the most complete revelation of Him that we have, that is, the person of Jesus?
Now, whatever philosophical or theological rationale might be put forward for seeing an identity of nature between forgiveness and restoration, I think that most people would see a difference in kind between forgiveness, as a moral issue, and restoration, which is far more (and I hesitate to use the word) pragmatic.
To me, as I'm sure you are aware, the cross was absolutely necessary for the pragmatic reasons to which Daron and others have drawn attention, (namely our mystic union with Christ) but it seems to me as an outworking, a demonstration of a pre-existing forgiveness. The cross is not an enabling of forgiveness, but (amongst other, cosmic significances) it is the instrument by which it is delivered to us. It is, in the words of one of the best modern worship songs, "the power with which it impacts me". In that respect, from our subjective point of view, the ground of our forgiveness, or at least our appreciation of our forgiveness, is in the cross. But it is an appreciation of an eternal verity graven deep into creation and written indeliably in the Father's heart.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Makes sense to me.
God's sovereignty vs. human freewill.
God's love vs. God's justice.
They are all true. Completely. Comprehensively. Universally.
The problem here is that second dichotomy. Any being that would condemn another to hell is as far from loving them as it is possible to get. Any being that would sentence another to hell is as far from just as it is possible to get. Hell is utterly incompatable with either. It is not even a tension - it is a flat out negation.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
While you are all asleep in the UK do I get some kind of award for managing to make 4 posts in a row!?
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
There's a huge difference between fucking up (SA) and being a sadistic monster who intentionally tortures and then perverts the very notion of justice (PSA).
I'm not sure you are playing fair with the way in which people use analogies and models.
For example, the electrocution analogy you have just used for SA I have heard someone use (pretty much exactly) in order to explain PSA.
In what sense is it Penal. Penal implies an active judgement. There is a code of laws rather than simple consequences that lead to the actions.
quote:
Analogies are useful in explaining things, but only up to a point. It feels to me as if you are coming up with your own analogies for PSA and then attacking them.
Then possibly you would care to fix the analogy? Instead of just criticising me for trying to use them, point out how they are wrong. Apparently you accept the electric fence for SA - but in what sense is it penal?
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Precisely. The saints are victorious over the second death despite their sinfulness because they are mystically united with Christ in his death and have therefore died to sin.
That's the mystical reality of the cross. The death of Jesus was subsitutionary in the sense that he freely chose to receive what he had not earned (death) so that sinners might hide themselves in him and insodoing receive what they had earned, which is both the first and the second death.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
My assertion that PSA is subChristian is borne out by something I have just read in Diarmaid MacCulloch's latest book - that it is essentially Marcionite - God the Son comes to reveal the God of unconditional love but dies to placate the demiurgue, the judgmental god who is not God.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
... Diarmaid MacCulloch's latest book - that it is essentially Marcionite - God the Son comes to reveal the God of unconditional love but dies to placate the demiurgue, the judgmental god who is not God.
Thanks! That's another book I don't need to read now. What would be the point if he can miss the point so widely as that?
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
... Diarmaid MacCulloch's latest book - that it is essentially Marcionite - God the Son comes to reveal the God of unconditional love but dies to placate the demiurgue, the judgmental god who is not God.
Thanks! That's another book I don't need to read now. What would be the point if he can miss the point so widely as that?
Maybe YOU have missed the point!
As did Fr. Hunwicke on a monor point that he misquoted.
Diarmaid is a/the leading church historian - are you more knowledgeable? Have you done some rersearch?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Diarmaid doesn't get everything right, Leo. He has his pet fads and theories. That clip on the TV series where he showed an apparently early Christian church complete with icon in China can be explained away quite easily. I know Orthodox guys who'd refute the over-egged claims he made on that one, even though one might think that they'd stand to gain by such a claim being proven.
The smear on the wall that 'could' have been an icon is more easily and readily explained as a Buddhist fresco - and it's pretty impossible to make out any of the detail anyway.
That isn't to say that the Nestorians and other Christian groups - whether heterodox or orthodox - didn't reach China but that particular example, championed by Diarmid, was highly questionable.
I'm not saying he's right or wrong about PSA, but what I am saying is that he isn't infallible.
Posted by ken (# 2460) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Diarmaid is a/the leading church historian - are you more knowledgeable?
If what you said was true then it would seem I am.
On the question of whether evangelicals who use PSA language are closet Gnostics, anyway.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
... Diarmaid MacCulloch's latest book - that it is essentially Marcionite - God the Son comes to reveal the God of unconditional love but dies to placate the demiurgue, the judgmental god who is not God.
Thanks! That's another book I don't need to read now. What would be the point if he can miss the point so widely as that?
I assume leo is referring to this passage in History of Western Christianity, which is expounding Marcion:
quote:
He (Marcion) saw the Creator God of the Jews as a God of judgement, rather than the God of love whom he saw perfectly revealed in Christ. Christ had died to satisfy the Creator God. Paperback edition, p.126
MacCulloch does mention 'curious resemblances' between Marcion and Luther, which is far from saying that they're identical. (And PSA isn't one of the ones that he mentions.) He's more explicit about the interest in Marcion of Adolf von Harnack, the great liberal Church historian.
Leo's interpretation is eisegesis. I wouldn't consider MacCulloch culpable. Sorry if that means you have to read the book again.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Oh no, I had said that I wouldn't rejoin the discussion over content.
Help, I'm being sucked back in.
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
originally posted by Johnny S
Both SA and PSA have to answer the question - why can't God just forgive and restore everything without the cross?
Actually, I'm not sure that this is all that useful a question. We cannot know what God can or cannot do; indeed, it may be that he can do anything He likes. A better question would maybe be "What, on the best but necessarily incomplete evidence available to us (the whole counsel of the Scriptures, the witness of the saints through the ages, the Tradition of the church, our reason, etc etc) does God chose to do? If you like, which story of Salvation harmonises most closely with the character of God; which way is He more likely to act, based on the most complete revelation of Him that we have, that is, the person of Jesus?
Actually you are probably right about this JJ - I certainly agree with your better question.
The context of my statement that you quote was trying to treat PSA and SA equally rather than laying stress on that particular question as being very helpful in this debate.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
The problem here is that second dichotomy. Any being that would condemn another to hell is as far from loving them as it is possible to get. Any being that would sentence another to hell is as far from just as it is possible to get. Hell is utterly incompatable with either. It is not even a tension - it is a flat out negation.
It is a negation ... according to your definition of condemn, your definition of hell and your definition of loving.
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
In what sense is it Penal. Penal implies an active judgement. There is a code of laws rather than simple consequences that lead to the actions.
...
Then possibly you would care to fix the analogy? Instead of just criticising me for trying to use them, point out how they are wrong. Apparently you accept the electric fence for SA - but in what sense is it penal?
Laws that have consequences are active judgement when you are the person who made the rules in the first place.
When my kids were younger I remember frequently saying something along the lines of, "I know you don't like this punishment but you have brought it on yourself by disobeying when you knew what the consequences were." (Although not quite with those words!)
However, even at the time, I knew that wasn't quite true. I was the one who had set the punishment in the first place and so I was the one responsible for punishing them.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Marcion's doctrine according to the Catholic Encyclopedia. I can't square that summary (which summarised quite accurately my understanding of Marcion's beliefs, including e.g that they contained some ideas found in Valentinian Gnosticism but were not the same) with leo's conclusions re PSA.
In fact, leo seemed to me to have got it the wrong way round; belief in PSA sees both wrath and love co-existing in God, and does not see the reported wrath of God in the OT as some indicator that the OT should not be regarded as proper to the Canon of scripture. Marcion did believe that. Distrust of the OT is not a feature one finds amongst evangelicals; a somewhat puzzled acceptance is about as questioning as it normally gets. "What is hidden in the Old is revealed in the New" is quite different from "The Old is not to be trusted".
Thanks, Dafyd. If you're right about which book it is (which seems very likely) Rowan Williams seems to think it's worth reading. So I guess this is leo giving us his own (and apparently idiosyncratic) take on an opinion in the book.
Seems there is no need to be put off the book.
[ 21. July 2011, 06:31: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
The main question with PSA for me is "why?"
Why would God create creatures who are prone to sin but couldn't be forgiven for any of it for millions of years until Jesus died?
Why did Jesus tell the prodical son story? No PSA there.
Why can't non-christians be forgiven? If they truly repent of wrong doing then why not forgive them? Do they really need to say a 'sinners prayer' affirming Jesus as God first?
Why would a God of love require death in order to forgive?
Why would a God of love call lack of belief 'sin'?
and more ,,, but I'd better stop there!
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
In fact, leo seemed to me to have got it the wrong way round; belief in PSA sees both wrath and love co-existing in God, and does not see the reported wrath of God in the OT as some indicator that the OT should not be regarded as proper to the Canon of scripture.
Quite.
If anything the charge is usually the other way round. At a popular level I have heard PSA being rejected as "we don't believe in the wrathful God of the OT but the loving God of the NT". Now that, arguably, is Marcion.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I think would want to suggest quite strongly that actually wrath is an essential part of God's being and nature; it is evidence of his love and compassion for the creation that is dear to his heart.
Here is a loving Creator and Father who 'each day' witnesses the wholesale slaughter of innocents, looks at the selfishness of men and women who stand by as millions starve, the corrupt people who preside over poverty, disease and injustice.
He watches while ordinary people commit adultery, abuse their children, cheat on their bosses as far as time is concerned, drive whilst drunk, steal, bully, lie, act selfishly, cruelly, and who live according to lowest common denominator.
Here is a God whose heart is broken because of the actions of humans.
Is it right that this God will say, 'Oh it doesn't matter, I love you anyway, forget it all?' How can a God of justice just 'wink at sin' as if it is of no consequence? At the very least, what about the cries for justice from the untold millions who have suffered the consequences of another man's sin. Is there no justice for those who cry out 'how long, O Lord?'
Is it not true that in Christ, the Judge has become the Judged (Barth) and that in him all the sins of the world have been judged, and that Jesus actually 'became' all that sin, became a curse and cancelled it all out?
Does God the righteous judge not have the right to judge the sins we commit and is it not the most wonderful thing that God didn't judge us but instead poured out his wrath, that he feels when he sees the filth of this world, upon his own Son so that there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus?
In the cross we don't see a vengeful Father smiting his innocent Son. We see a 'God event' where the Godhead is united in suffering the sins of the world. The Father suffers the death of the Son; the Son suffers the loss of his Father.
I see, at the heart of the hatred of PSA a faulty kind of adoptionism where somehow God chooses a lesser being to assualt on our behalf. That is not true. If Jesus were adopted by God in order to be a sacrifice, then of course! What an injustice - cosmic child abuse indeed!
But that totally denies the fact that
- God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself.
- Jesus laid down his own life.
- All the fulness of God was in Christ - even on the cross.
- Jesus the Son is not 'God's kid'. I accuse Chalke and the feminist theologians he stole his dissenting views from, of being clumsily anthropomorphic in this. Christ is God Almighty in the flesh and his sacrifice is entirely appropriate and shows infinite love in the face of deserved wrath at the overwhelming sins of the world - sin that cannot be just excused but must be dealt with.
Our sins were indeed dealt with. Thanks be to God.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I haven't completely abandoned PSA, Mudfrog, but I have diluted/modified it in my own thinking to some extent. I think you're in danger of over-egging the charge of adoptionism against opponents of PSA though.
I agree that God does have wrath towards sin and injustice and that in some mysterious way the Trinity is engaged in the whole Christ-event - the life, death and glorious resurrection of our Lord and Saviour, Jesus Christ. And yes, that if there is any 'judging' going on then God Himself, Father, Son and Holy Spirit is involved with that in some mysterious way.
Beyond that, I'm reluctant to tread anything but lightly.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
The main question with PSA for me is "why?"
Why would God create creatures who are prone to sin but couldn't be forgiven for any of it for millions of years until Jesus died?
That's right. It makes no sense. This isn't how it works.
Rather, human sin is nothing more than something self-destructive. What has taken so much time is persuading people to stop sinning by getting them to understand its true nature. This is what the Incarnation is about, and it takes time because it is essential for it to happen in accordance with human free will.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why did Jesus tell the prodical son story? No PSA there.
That's right. PSA is bogus.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why can't non-christians be forgiven? If they truly repent of wrong doing then why not forgive them? Do they really need to say a 'sinners prayer' affirming Jesus as God first?
Anyone can be forgiven, Christian or not. Anyone who repents of evil and does what is right is saved.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why would a God of love require death in order to forgive?
No. That is an absurd idea. The "death" that is mentioned in the Bible is about doing away with our sinful nature and becoming better people, just as if we died and were re-born.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Why would a God of love call lack of belief 'sin'?
God loves everyone. Belief in Him is essential to becoming a better and happier person. He loves people whether they believe or not, and neither punishes or judges. Nevertheless, belief is an important part of the process of improvement.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Boogie: Why can't non-christians be forgiven? If they truly repent of wrong doing then why not forgive them? Do they really need to say a 'sinners prayer' affirming Jesus as God first?
They can. Peter's sermon in Acts. Repent and be baptised and you shall receive.."
In his audience were some who probably called out "crucify him!"
But what does the concept of forgive imply to us? The whole issue of fogiveness is impossible unless you realise that it is naturally impossible and so needs to be supernatural.
Ask an abused wife or child how easy it is to fogive? or someone who made a deal in good faith and was betrayed and lost a lot of money? Or someone whose job was suddenly restructured and they found they were demoted or fired?
Forgiveness is just a word until you are confronted with deep hurt and wrong.
If we humans find it impossible, then God, in whose image we are, certainly doesn't take it so lightly as to say.."Well hey, I'm God, I'll just forgive .."
This definitition of forgive is about 'overlooking' not about 'forgiving'. which has to be about dealing with the issues involved in wrong or hurt.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Is it right that this God will say, 'Oh it doesn't matter, I love you anyway, forget it all?' How can a God of justice just 'wink at sin' as if it is of no consequence?
Are those the only two choices then? Wink at sin, or wrath? Nothing in between, or on a completely different axis? Only winking and wrath?
quote:
The Father suffers the death of the Son; <snip>
Isn't this the heresy of patripassianism?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Is it right that this God will say, 'Oh it doesn't matter, I love you anyway, forget it all?' How can a God of justice just 'wink at sin' as if it is of no consequence?
Are those the only two choices then? Wink at sin, or wrath? Nothing in between, or on a completely different axis? Only winking and wrath?
quote:
The Father suffers the death of the Son; <snip>
Isn't this the heresy of patripassianism?
No, because the Father didn't die on the cross. I said that the Father suffered the death of his Son.
quote:
To understand what happened between Jesus and his God and Father on the cross, it is necessary to talk in Trinitarian terms. The Son suffers dying, the Father suffers the death of his Son. The grief of the Father here is just as important as the death of the Son. The Fatherlessness of the Son is matched by the Sonlessness of the father, and if God has constituted himself as the Father of Jesus Christ, then he also suffers the death of his Fatherhood in the death of the Son.
J. Moltmann, 1974, The Crucified God, London, SCM p243
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Forgiveness is just a word until you are confronted with deep hurt and wrong.
I know that.
But it is still possible - yes, it is incredibly hard and needs working through. But there is nothing supernatural about it.
You don't need to be a Christian in order to truly forgive those who hurt and harm you.
Forgiveness was around long before Jesus died. He forgave sin himself before He died.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Jamat
Forgiveness is just a word until you are confronted with deep hurt and wrong.
If we humans find it impossible, then God, in whose image we are, certainly doesn't take it so lightly as to say.."Well hey, I'm God, I'll just forgive .."
This definitition of forgive is about 'overlooking' not about 'forgiving'. which has to be about dealing with the issues involved in wrong or hurt.
What Boogie said, plus:
I'm amazed you don't see the cognitive dissonance here. At one moment, you are saying, quite rightly, how difficult and costly forgiveness is, the next you are saying that for God to deal with sin by forgiveness would mean that He didn't take it seriously. So which of these contradictory positions is it to be? Surely forgiveness is the divinely appointed mechanism by which we come to terms with issues of wrong and hurt. "Father, forgive.." was not the glib prayer that your logic here would make it.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Mudfrog
I accuse Chalke and the feminist theologians he stole his dissenting views from...
I'm surprised you've escaped a hell call on this, Mudfrog. Quite apart from the use of "Feminist" as an implied term of abuse, it seems to me to be totally wrong to accuse a fellow minister of the Gospel in those sort of terms. Did you "steal" your views from John Wesley?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
originally posted by Mudfrog
I accuse Chalke and the feminist theologians he stole his dissenting views from...
I'm surprised you've escaped a hell call on this, Mudfrog. Quite apart from the use of "Feminist" as an implied term of abuse, it seems to me to be totally wrong to accuse a fellow minister of the Gospel in those sort of terms. Did you "steal" your views from John Wesley?
Firstly, the reference to feminist theologians was not an implied term of abuse, though you have evidently inferred it. The truth is that there are indeed feminist theologians who have written against PSA because they believe it glorifies violence and has, allegedly, led to the justification of the abuse of others. These feminist and womanist theologians would rather say that Christ suffers in solidarity with the marginalised rather than suffers violence at the hand of an 'angry God.' This, they say, would be akin to cosmic child abuse.
As far as stealing dissenting views from them, I stand by my accusation because in his chapter 'The Redemption of the Cross' (2008) in Tidball, et al. eds. The Atonement Debate, he doesn't reference them nor credit any feminist theologians for his view, or for the phrase 'cosmic child abuse.'
The implication, because he merely quotes his own offending paragraph in his other book, is that the phrase is original to him; which it is not.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
I'm amazed you don't see the cognitive dissonance here. At one moment, you are saying, quite rightly, how difficult and costly forgiveness is, the next you are saying that for God to deal with sin by forgiveness would mean that He didn't take it seriously. So which of these contradictory positions is it to be? Surely forgiveness is the divinely appointed mechanism by which we come to terms with issues of wrong and hurt. "Father, forgive.." was not the glib prayer that your logic here would make it.
I think that what is being addressed here is that there is "forgiveness" and "forgiveness".
Once someone did something unpleasant to someone I care deeply about, they later said "sorry" but that was as far as it went. We forgave them (and bare them no ill will), but the relationship was never the same. Despite best intentions, forgiveness in this case was sadly more a sweeping of things under the carpet.
On other occasions we've experienced the opposite, which is much more positive. But even in these cases forgiveness does involve absorption of the cost of wrongdoing: To forgive a thief I have to write off what they stole; To forgive an attack on my family I have to absorb the emotional cost of hurt, shock and grief etc.
The way that this terminates on PSA is that I don't think we Evo's want to deny that God sweeps sin and evil under the carpet, which would make him truly monstrous, and that we affirm that in Christ he has absorbed the cost of forgiving sinners, which makes Him truly gracious.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
On other occasions we've experienced the opposite, which is much more positive. But even in these cases forgiveness does involve absorption of the cost of wrongdoing: To forgive a thief I have to write off what they stole; To forgive an attack on my family I have to absorb the emotional cost of hurt, shock and grief etc.
Which is exactly what Jesus did on the cross. He didn't retaliate, He said 'Father forgive'. He absorbed the incredible, unthinkable hurt, pain and humiliation and forgave the perpetrators.
What better example of all he'd been teaching?
It's the subsequent 'supernaturalising' of it which I don't buy into.
We create Hell - Jesus didn't 'decsend into' any place or do anything there. Hell is real and here on this Earth. He lived in it and with it - just as we do.
Hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation - not by anyone's death imo.
Posted by Janine (# 3337) on
:
*Sigh*
Every time I see this thread title, I have to un-read the "Penile" that always appears first in my head.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
So what do you use as a penile substitute down there in the boondocks of Louisiana, Janine?
Mudfrog - so if Chalke is influenced by feminist, anti-PSA theologians, what are the Orthodox and other non-PSA Christians influenced by?
They all had pretty hairy beards the last time I looked. Not a great deal of feminist influence there.
Chalke was only clumsily articulating what was already current in non-evangelical, non-PSA circles. Oranges are not the only fruit.
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
I've got a lovely bunch of coconuts ...
Above it should have read "The way that this terminates on PSA is that I think we Evo's want to deny etc" no "don't"
It helps if you read your post in preview .....
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation - not by anyone's death imo.
Yes, hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation. This is precisely the nature of the battle as Jesus describes it.
When faced with an implacable and aggressive foe, however, forgiveness and attempts at reconciliation result in death. In human terms this makes the foe the victor. In spiritual terms, however, it works differently.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
It is a negation ... according to your definition of condemn, your definition of hell and your definition of loving.
My definition of hell involves eternal torment. My definition of loving is incompatable with eternally tormenting someone you claim to love. Which part is anything other than trivial?
quote:
Laws that have consequences are active judgement when you are the person who made the rules in the first place.
When my kids were younger I remember frequently saying something along the lines of, "I know you don't like this punishment but you have brought it on yourself by disobeying when you knew what the consequences were." (Although not quite with those words!)
However, even at the time, I knew that wasn't quite true. I was the one who had set the punishment in the first place and so I was the one responsible for punishing them.
Absolutely. And this is why God under PSA is directly and personally responsible for all the suffering of Hell. Under SA, instead of scalding the child as a punishment he left a pan full of boiling water on the stove and the kid reached up and pulled it over onto himself (with Jesus doing a flying leap to push the kid out of the way). Doesn't speak well of God's parenting skills that he left the pan there. But at least he isn't himself pouring boiling water over the kid and then claiming it to be the kid that made God do it.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation - not by anyone's death imo.
Yes, hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation. This is precisely the nature of the battle as Jesus describes it.
Orthodox teaching is that Hell is defeated by Christ's resurrection. As we sing a bazillion times on Pascha (Easter) and in the ensuing weeks:
Christ is risen from the dead, trampling down death by death, and upon those in the tombs bestowing life.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Janine:
*Sigh*
Every time I see this thread title, I have to un-read the "Penile" that always appears first in my head.
Well, I think it is a load of c*ck.
Posted by Daron (# 16507) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation - not by anyone's death imo.
Yes, hell is defeated by forgiveness and reconciliation. This is precisely the nature of the battle as Jesus describes it.
Orthodox teaching is that Hell is defeated by Christ's resurrection. As we sing a bazillion times on Pascha (Easter) and in the ensuing weeks:
Christ is risen from the dead, trampling down death by death, and upon those in the tombs bestowing life.
Yes, I agree with this wholeheartedly as did the Puritan John Owen who titled his major work on Penal Substitutionary Atonement The Death of Death in the Death of Christ. The two perspectives are by no means mutually exclusive.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Daron:
Yes, I agree with this wholeheartedly as did the Puritan John Owen who titled his major work on Penal Substitutionary Atonement The Death of Death in the Death of Christ. The two perspectives are by no means mutually exclusive.
I was specifically responding to Boogie's and Freddy's claim that death didn't defeat Hell (hence my quoting them), not PSA.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I was specifically responding to Boogie's and Freddy's claim that death didn't defeat Hell (hence my quoting them), not PSA.
I said that death DOES defeat hell:
quote:
When faced with an implacable and aggressive foe, however, forgiveness and attempts at reconciliation result in death. In human terms this makes the foe the victor. In spiritual terms, however, it works differently.
By "it works differently" I meant that the foe in that case isn't the victor.
Christ was willing to give up His life for the truth, and in so doing defeated the spiritual forces that value physical life above everything.
He also defeated them by saying "Father forgive them" rather than raging against them.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
I'm sorry if I misunderstood what you were saying. Boogie had said hell was not conquered by death, and you seemed to be agreeing.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
quote:
originally posted by Gameliel
Chalke was only clumsily articulating what was already current in non-evangelical, non-PSA circles.
Or even evangelical, non-PSA circles.
I'm not sure who would be categorised in Mudfrog's group of "feminist theologians" but I'm pretty sure I haven't read any of them. In spite of this, Chalke's comments, when they were made, were pretty reflective of my beliefs, and the beliefs of a great many of my open-evo associates. I seriously think that Chalke's views were drawn more from (in order) The Bible, (big O)Orthodoxy and Rene Girard, than from any feminist theologians. It was certainly the route which I took.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Joanne Carlson Brown, Rebecca Parker, Rita Nagashima Brock, all 1989.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Nope, probably remiss of me, but I haven't read them. I doubt they were the inspiration for Chalke either.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Nope, probably remiss of me, but I haven't read them. I doubt they were the inspiration for Chalke either.
remiss of you for not having read them, therefore...?
Should they be dismissed just because you haven't read them. There is no evidence that Chalke didn't read them. It is strange that he uses their emotive and rather offensive term.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
I'm not dismissing them, for all I know they're probably very learned. I'm just saying that I haven't read them, and that I had come to the same conclusions as SC without their benefit. Therefore, it seems not unreasonable to conclude that SC might have trodden a similar path. It seems to me that if you are accusing a fellow Christian of stealing someone's ideas, then it behoves you to have more evidence than "you don't have any proof that he didn't get his ideas from them." Indeed I don't, and neither have you that he did, and so in the absense of such evidence, the gracious thing might be to refrain from making such accusations.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm sorry if I misunderstood what you were saying. Boogie had said hell was not conquered by death, and you seemed to be agreeing.
Re-reading it I see you are right. It was hard to agree with one part of Boogie's statement and not the other.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Mudfrog, the 'cosmic child abuse' comment was pretty naff of Chalke ... but then, these things tend to descend into polemical debate and he was rather clumsily trying to draw attention to a particular Sacred Cow and challenge (or even kill?) it.
I'm sure Chalke meant well but he didn't go about things in the right way and played right into the hands of the self-appointed heresy hunters. I have to say, that even when I agree with them, I find the rather strident usual-suspects evangelical heresy hunters rather hard to take.
That's not to let Chalke off the hook, he knew what he was doing and went into it with his eyes open.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
My definition of hell involves eternal torment. My definition of loving is incompatable with eternally tormenting someone you claim to love. Which part is anything other than trivial?
In which case it is your definition of hell that is faulty. I've been arguing that it is God's responsibility that we are sent to hell. I never read (as far as I am aware) any post on the ship arguing that hell is a place where God personally tortures people.
Rather 2 Thessalonians 1: 9 is the usual proof-text for hell - a consequence of being shut out from God's presence.
As I keep saying I'm happy to see punishment as a consequence but I still that God is responsible since he set those consequences in the first place.
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
Absolutely. And this is why God under PSA is directly and personally responsible for all the suffering of Hell. Under SA, instead of scalding the child as a punishment he left a pan full of boiling water on the stove and the kid reached up and pulled it over onto himself (with Jesus doing a flying leap to push the kid out of the way). Doesn't speak well of God's parenting skills that he left the pan there. But at least he isn't himself pouring boiling water over the kid and then claiming it to be the kid that made God do it.
I don't get your analogy. You seem to be writing hell off as a divine accident ... oops!. As I said before I'm happy to leave somethings as mysteries but this analogy seems to have travelled into 'ignoring a problem and hoping it will go away' territory.
[ 24. July 2011, 06:48: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
I'm pretty sure Steve Chalke did know what he was doing. However any of us may see his tactics, I think it is necessary for evangelicals to see the way the polemical presentation of PSA impacts our our deeply expressed beliefs that God is Good and God is Love.
It's particularly an issue where the conundrum of faith has moved from "why do people continue to sin" to "why do people suffer through no fault of their own".
The first time I ever saw the question raised was in the beginning of C S Lewis's first book "The Pilgrim's Regress", in which his hero, John (an autobiographical fiction), as a child, is puzzled by hearing a priest (allegorised as a Steward) speak in the following terms (from memory).
"He began to say, rather in sing-song terms that the Landlord (the allegory for God) was 'terribly, terribly good' and would apparently torture them all for ever for the slightest infraction of his rules. The rules puzzled John, for they seemed to contain things he had never heard of and didn't understand, mixed up with other things that he and everyone else did all the time."
I remember laughing our loud when I first read this passage - then going "hmmm". Don't think we can blame folks for picking up confused understandings.
Steve Chalke is many things; a considerable social activist via Faithworks, a popular apologist, a major fundraiser (some Ł5 million through marathon running alone). I've heard him speak many times. At his core, I think he is an evangelist who got disturbed by some of the responses to his proclamations of good news, which asked questions about what his message said about God. Hence his book.
It doesn't arise as a result of academic reflection, much more out of his serious, committed engagement to seeking the kingdom and preaching the gospel. He's not an academic; he is an "out there" practitioner who has done much good. All this seems to get lost, forgotten, in the heresy hunting.
[ 24. July 2011, 07:33: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Jolly Jape : you are saying that for God to deal with sin by forgiveness would mean that He didn't take it seriously.
Not so. I think that I said that to forgive, in popular definition, means to overlook; but in reality, it means confronting your hurts and resentments.
God certainly takes it seriously, for him to forgive required a huge giving of himself in the person of his son, but it also requires me to see the offence I've caused.
On a human level Boogie, to forgive is pretty impossible for the likes of me without divine help and even with it sometimes!
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Jolly Jape : you are saying that for God to deal with sin by forgiveness would mean that He didn't take it seriously.
Not so. I think that I said that to forgive, in popular definition, means to overlook; but in reality, it means confronting your hurts and resentments.
Actually there's a good case to be made for "overlook" and "cover over" from the Scriptures.
"How blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, Whose sin is covered!" -- Ps 32
You forgave the iniquity of Your people; You covered all their sin. --Ps 85
Hatred stirs up strife, But love covers all transgressions. -- Pr 10
"Above all, keep fervent in your love for one another, because love covers a multitude of sins." -- 1 Peter
Remember your servants Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Overlook the stubbornness of this people, their wickedness and their sin. -- Deut 9
It is to one’s glory to overlook an offense. -- Pr 19
Hide Your face from my sins, and blot out all my iniquities. - Ps 51
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
So where does it say overlooking is forgiving?
'Covering' is more like it but a text without a context is a pretext.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
And don't forget that when God covers our sin it is with the blood of the sacrificial animal that is sprinkled on the mercy seat.
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
Jesus was killed as a Mosaic sacrifice.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
So what does this actually mean?
In pre-Jewish times was there no forgiveness?
That someone today who's not a Christian believer can't forgive another person?
What about vegans who are strong believers in not shedding blood of any kind?
I believe anyone can forgive the hurt and harm done to them - and that real forgiveness is incredibly hard and costly. But it's not supernatural in any way - it's a thing humans need. If we don't forgive we live in the past and in bitterness.
<typo>
[ 25. July 2011, 07:14: Message edited by: Boogie ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
And don't forget that when God covers our sin it is with the blood of the sacrificial animal that is sprinkled on the mercy seat.
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
Jesus was killed as a Mosaic sacrifice.
Think of what you're saying here. There is no substitutionary Mosaic sacrifice except the Scapegoat, and it's not killed.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
Jesus was killed as a Mosaic sacrifice.
Think of what you're saying here. There is no substitutionary Mosaic sacrifice except the Scapegoat, and it's not killed.
Nor is there any blood.
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Think of what you're saying here. There is no substitutionary Mosaic sacrifice except the Scapegoat, and it's not killed.
vs24 and 30-34 of Leviticus 16 seem to imply that it is the whole ceremony that atones for sins, and not the scapegoat ritual in isolation.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
And don't forget that when God covers our sin it is with the blood of the sacrificial animal that is sprinkled on the mercy seat.
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
Jesus was killed as a Mosaic sacrifice.
Think of what you're saying here. There is no substitutionary Mosaic sacrifice except the Scapegoat, and it's not killed.
Well indeed, but I was only referring to the covering, not to the substitution.
I accept as valid all the metaphors of the atonement.
Covering, blotting out, purging is not PSA - but it does involve sacrificial blood.
Posted by Keromaru (# 15757) on
:
The Hebrew word for atonement actually does literally mean "to cover." According to my lexicon, it's also the root of the word for the mercy seat of the Ark of the Covenant.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Think of what you're saying here. There is no substitutionary Mosaic sacrifice except the Scapegoat, and it's not killed.
vs24 and 30-34 of Leviticus 16 seem to imply that it is the whole ceremony that atones for sins, and not the scapegoat ritual in isolation.
...or even
16:15
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
I found it interesting when I studied the sacrificial imagery the New Testament uses in reference to Jesus. I had expected to find that the New Testament used every type of sacrificial imagery approximately equally and pretty much at random depending on the particular usage. So I was somewhat surprised to find that almost all the sacrificial imagery used in conjunction with Jesus refers to the purification rituals (where blood and other special substances were applied to surfaces and people in order to clean them spiritually). None of the imagery the New Testament uses to talk about Jesus refers to the scapegoat!*
Also almost entirely absent are the concepts of Jesus as a gift-sacrifice/burnt offering and as a meal-sacrifice. The Lord's Supper is the outstanding exception in terms of meal-sacrifice, and yet somewhat surprisingly apart from the basic facts of Jesus instituting this practice in the Gospels, the New Testament shows no inclination whatsoever to refer to Jesus' death in terms of a meal-sacrifice. Given that the New Testament writers were presumably celebrating communion regularly, I find it really quite surprising that they made no use of this metaphor in the New Testament when referencing Jesus' death. I think it demonstrates how fixated they were on the concept of Jesus as a purification sacrifice, that even the constant practice of communion wasn't enough to dislodge the idea that Jesus brought purification.
I have encountered a lot of Christians who think of Jesus and the Scapegoat as very similar means of atonement and who I think would be surprised to realise that the New Testament doesn't connect the two. I also get the impression that quite a few of them are somewhat disappointed Jesus died at Passover (associated with purification rituals and political independence) and think it would have been much more symbolic if it had been on Yom Kippur (associated with atonement and the scapegoat).
* There are a very small number of ambiguous verses that clearly refer to some part of the sacrificial system but which are not specific enough to determine which part, and naturally it is possible to interpret these as references to the scapegoat, but there is no good reason to do so. I think it is far better to resolve the ambiguity toward the numerously attested purification references than toward the unattested scapegoat references.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Keromaru:
The Hebrew word for atonement actually does literally mean "to cover." According to my lexicon, it's also the root of the word for the mercy seat of the Ark of the Covenant.
Indeed, and it is upon the mercy seat that the priest sprinkles sacrificial blood.
Atonement in the OT is always secured by the death of a substitute victim.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
Jesus is, of course, referred to as the 'mercy seat' and also that it was his blood that was spironkled on the mercy seat.
There is a direct link to Leviticus - the blood of the goat sprinkled on the mercy seat as a sin offering for the people, and Hebrews 9.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Atonement in the OT is always secured by the death of a substitute victim.
Er, no.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Atonement in the OT is always secured by the death of a substitute victim.
Er, no.
er, yes
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
There is no substitutionary Mosaic sacrifice except the Scapegoat, and it's not killed.
What about the Passover? Paul calls Jesus the Passover Lamb.
According to Exodus 12 ...
v 3 - It was a lamb for each household.
vs. 12-13 - it is substitutionary - every household in Egypt will have a death (either the firstborn - representative of the household) or a lamb (representative of the household).
v 27 - it is called a sacrifice.
The main NT picture for Jesus = Passover = substitutionary.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Leo wants to say both that PSA is a heresy and that the Church has never been dogmatic about the atonement.
How can both possibly be true?
I suppose I was using the term 'heresy' lightly and would return to an earlier term that I used = 'subChristian'.
as in “the notion of propitiation as the placating by man of an angry God is definitely unchristian”. Church of England Doctrine Commission 1938
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Jesus is, of course, referred to as the 'mercy seat' and also that it was his blood that was spironkled on the mercy seat.
There is a direct link to Leviticus - the blood of the goat sprinkled on the mercy seat as a sin offering for the people, and Hebrews 9.
a closer link is to martyrdon on behalf of Israel's remnante.
Hilasterion in Romans 3:25 whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement (wrongly translated ‘propitiation’ – ‘expiation’ is better) by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed;
Cf. 4 Macc 17:21-22 talking about martyrs: "they having become, as it were, a ransom for the sin of our nation. And through the blood of those devout ones and the hilasterion of their death, divine Providence preserved Israel that previously had been mistreated.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
What about the Passover?
it is substitutionary
No it isn't. As can be demonstrated from the fact that there is nothing to prevent the Passover lamb (or kid) being itself a 'first-born', and therefore liable to the same death as any other first-born.
The text simply doesn't present a clear theological account of how the sacrifice 'works'. It just isn't there. For my money, it's about obedience to God, an acknowledgement of his power, preparation for the tasks to which he is calling his people, and a public identification of one's household as part of his people in an actually and symbolically costly way, but I'm reading that into the description - the text does not compel that belief.
What it definitely isn't is a simple substitution of innocent victim for condemned sinner, because it was quite in order to select as a victim an animal which would have died anyway, along with every other first-born, had the Passover not been kept.
[ 25. July 2011, 13:29: Message edited by: Eliab ]
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I think would want to suggest quite strongly that actually wrath is an essential part of God's being and nature; it is evidence of his love and compassion for the creation that is dear to his heart.
Here is a loving Creator and Father who 'each day' witnesses the wholesale slaughter of innocents, looks at the selfishness of men and women who stand by as millions starve, the corrupt people who preside over poverty, disease and injustice.
He watches while ordinary people commit adultery, abuse their children, cheat on their bosses as far as time is concerned, drive whilst drunk, steal, bully, lie, act selfishly, cruelly, and who live according to lowest common denominator.
Here is a God whose heart is broken because of the actions of humans.
Is it right that this God will say, 'Oh it doesn't matter, I love you anyway, forget it all?' How can a God of justice just 'wink at sin' as if it is of no consequence? At the very least, what about the cries for justice from the untold millions who have suffered the consequences of another man's sin. Is there no justice for those who cry out 'how long, O Lord?'
Mudfrog sets out beautifully why I could not give up some sort of PSA.
It seems to me that the sentiment that truly horrible wickedness requires some sort of pay-back - whether you call that retribution, or satisfaction, or condemnation or something else - is a very natural one. I certainly feel it. When presented, say, with the idea of some great atrocity commited against someone else, or a very moderate wrong done to myself, I see very clearly that justice demands an unequivocal repudiation of that evil - that something costly must be done to make things right.
If you want to take PSA out of the equation, I think you have to say, in effect, that this sentiment is simply wrong, that it is a purely carnal and fallen instinct that must be put away before we can enter the kingdom. That's a reasonable position to take, of course, but then you need some practical way to communicate the gospel to people who have not yet stopped feeling that some sort of penalty is inherently required.
And I'm not convinced that the sentiment is wholly a sin. I can see enough instances of purely retributive punishment - punishment with no obvious remedial value - in both Old and New Testaments to be persuaded that it cannot be wholly ungodly. To say (as some do) that God does not judge or punish at all is to imply that huge chunks of inspired Scripture just do not mean what they say, except in an allegory so obscure that no one could have any confidence that they had properly understood anything in God's word. I'm comfortable with the idea that God's love will go far beyond the crime-and-punishment model of justice, but it seems to me that one would have to deny a awful lot of scripture to maintain that this basic justice is something bad, rather than something which is good, and Godly, but transcended.
I think it is more humane to recognise that salvation is universal - it is meant both for those who see sin as crying out for vengeance and those who see any revenge at all as monstrous. One of the things that the cross does is answer the sentiment that Mudfrog expresses in the quote above. It answers it, not by telling him that his ideas of love and justice are wrong, but by pointing to the cross and saying "Whatever price you think is required, for what you have done and for what has been done to you - is that enough?" And, of course, it is. God himself died for the sins of his creatures. That is enough to silence all demands for vengeance, and it's hard to imagine anything else which could do that.
If some of the non-PSAers are right, and my instinct for justice is an error, it is part of God's grace that the gospel makes allowance for that error. Because the cross satisfies all the claims of sin and death and judgement - whether those claims are legitimate or not. It removes all barriers to God's love - the ones we put up out of a sense of justice as much as those we put up through sin.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
It seems to me that the sentiment that truly horrible wickedness requires some sort of pay-back - whether you call that retribution, or satisfaction, or condemnation or something else - is a very natural one. I certainly feel it. When presented, say, with the idea of some great atrocity commited against someone else, or a very moderate wrong done to myself, I see very clearly that justice demands an unequivocal repudiation of that evil - that something costly must be done to make things right.
I can certainly feel that sentiment. What I cannot see is how PSA is supposed to satisfy the sentiment. I don't want someone else to suffer or someone else to say how wrong it is. And if that someone else pays the price for the wrongdoing then I want that to be taken into account as well when the final reckoning is added up.
What the sentiment wants is for sufferer to feel the wrongdoing. What I really want, when I imagine what would satisfy the sentiment, is for the wrongdoer to realise how wrong it was and to acknowledge the pain that they've caused. No substitutes accepted.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
What about the Passover?
The Passover was a purification ritual.
In the original Passover, the Israelites applied blood and hyssop to their doorframe. In the Israelite system, and others from the Ancient Near East, the purpose of applying blood to surfaces was to purify them. The use of hyssop is also indicative, as it is one of a number of ingredients the Israelites used for purification rituals. The application of purifying agents to a doorframe has good parallels in other Ancient Near Eastern ritual systems, and its purpose is to imbue purity-power in the door in order to prevent impure/evil spirits from crossing the threshold. ie it is a ward against the entry of unwanted spirits. This is consistent with the Passover, where the purpose is to prevent the entry of the Angel of Death.
Accounts from later in Israel's history (from the Bible and the Rabbis) about Israelite annual observance of the Passover, indicate it was seen as about purification. Numerous purification sacrifices were performed and it was seen as the time of year of maximum ritual purity for the nation.
I don't think purification rituals / purification sacrifices can be regarded as similar to PSA in any meaningful or accurate sense. There is no punishment involved, and no substitute. There is sometimes a death involved - if blood is being used as one of the components of the ritual the blood normally has an animal source - but the death of the animal is purely as a source of ingredients (ie blood) and has no actual relevance to the rituals. There is sometimes "atonement" involved, in a sense, as sometimes the purification agents (think "magical detergent") get used to wipe away impurity (think "magical dirt"). eg a person who comes into contact with a human corpse is then 'impure' and needs to be purified by washing them with a mixture of ashes, wood, hyssop, thread, and water.
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I think would want to suggest quite strongly that actually wrath is an essential part of God's being and nature; it is evidence of his love and compassion for the creation that is dear to his heart.
Here is a loving Creator and Father who 'each day' witnesses the wholesale slaughter of innocents, looks at the selfishness of men and women who stand by as millions starve, the corrupt people who preside over poverty, disease and injustice.
He watches while ordinary people commit adultery, abuse their children, cheat on their bosses as far as time is concerned, drive whilst drunk, steal, bully, lie, act selfishly, cruelly, and who live according to lowest common denominator.
Here is a God whose heart is broken because of the actions of humans.
Is it right that this God will say, 'Oh it doesn't matter, I love you anyway, forget it all?' How can a God of justice just 'wink at sin' as if it is of no consequence? At the very least, what about the cries for justice from the untold millions who have suffered the consequences of another man's sin. Is there no justice for those who cry out 'how long, O Lord?'
Mudfrog sets out beautifully why I could not give up some sort of PSA.
It seems to me that the sentiment that truly horrible wickedness requires some sort of pay-back - whether you call that retribution, or satisfaction, or condemnation or something else - is a very natural one. I certainly feel it. When presented, say, with the idea of some great atrocity commited against someone else, or a very moderate wrong done to myself, I see very clearly that justice demands an unequivocal repudiation of that evil - that something costly must be done to make things right.
If you want to take PSA out of the equation, I think you have to say, in effect, that this sentiment is simply wrong, that it is a purely carnal and fallen instinct that must be put away before we can enter the kingdom.
On the contrary. I agree with the sentiment, but PSA doesn't!
Evildoers should be punished, yes. Evildoers, and not innocents! The innocents suffer at the hands of the evildoers, and rightly should be avenged by a caring God. But for him to then transfer the punishment of the evildoers to those innocents undermines the very point of the whole punishment. In PSA the evildoers avoid the punishment and the innocent receive it instead.
In my reading of the Bible, God's wrath is against those who do evil. Thus the only way to avoid God's wrath is to repent and cease being an evildoer. Evildoers don't get a free pass through God inflicting additional suffering on innocents to make up for the suffering the evildoers have inflicted on the innocent (aka PSA). Rather, evildoers actually have to die to their old selves, kill off their evil nature before God does it for them, and become people who don't do evil.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
What it definitely isn't is a simple substitution of innocent victim for condemned sinner, because it was quite in order to select as a victim an animal which would have died anyway, along with every other first-born, had the Passover not been kept.
I never said that it was an example of an innocent victim substituted for a condemned sinner. All I said was that it is an example of substitution.
I think you are confused about what a model is. Atonement models try to do justice (
) to all the scriptural themes and also to the many ways in which the early church understood Christ's death and resurrection. Trying to come up with just one model is bound to fail because it will always over-emphasise certain aspects and deny those of the other models. I don't think any supporter of PSA would claim that you have to see all of PSA in every sacrifice in the bible. Rather that it draws together some of the biblical themes about sacrifice.
My argument was that the Passover is an example of a sacrifice which was substitutionary. That is all I'm claiming for it. And I don't see how else we can read it from the text.
In Exodus 12 the emphasis is on one lamb per household as against the firstborn deaths of Egyptian households. In what way is the death of the lamb not instead of the death of the firstborn of the Israelites?
I'd argue that this was pretty clear from Exodus 12 but I think it becomes conclusive when you read on in Exodus to see how the firstborn was viewed:
quote:
19 “The first offspring of every womb belongs to me, including all the firstborn males of your livestock, whether from herd or flock. 20 Redeem the firstborn donkey with a lamb, but if you do not redeem it, break its neck. Redeem all your firstborn sons.
Exodus 34: 19-20
Notice the lamb again? The blood of the lamb is the ransom price for the firstborn. And then the logic of that is made explicit in the book of Numbers:
quote:
11 The LORD also said to Moses, 12 “I have taken the Levites from among the Israelites in place of the first male offspring of every Israelite woman. The Levites are mine, 13 for all the firstborn are mine. When I struck down all the firstborn in Egypt, I set apart for myself every firstborn in Israel, whether man or animal. They are to be mine. I am the LORD.”
Numbers 3: 11-13
This explains the Passover for us. Yes, the lamb is not an innocent dying for the guilty, but substitution is clearly intended. The blood of the Lamb at the Passover is a ransom price for the firstborn of Israel. How is that not substitution?
[ 25. July 2011, 23:24: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Johnny S,
I don't think it's very appropriate to use the word "substitute" unless the substituted item has the same function and purpose. I could, for example drink tea, or I could substitute coffee to drink. But if my options are to drink tea, or to go and play cricket, then one is not really a "substitute" for the other, they are just two options I happen to have.
In the case of the Passover, for true substitution, it would be the angel of death killing a human or instead killing a lamb as a substitute. But the angel of death doesn't kill the lambs. Rather, if the humans take a set of complicated actions (lamb, doorframe, group meal) then the angel of death doesn't kill the firstborn. It's like my tea or cricket option - they are alternatives rather than substitutes.
There is hyssop used in the Passover ritual. Does the plant also die a substitutionary death? The passage seems to depict the group meal as also quite important - in what sense do you see the meal as substitutionary? I also see that multiple households can join together and share the same lamb... so one lamb apparently "substitutes" for multiple firstborn.
It seems to me that you are selectively fixating on the death of the lamb here when a whole lot of other stuff is involved too (hyssop, doorframe painting, joint meal etc), and making a somewhat strange choice to view it as 'substitutionary' when in fact it is not a true substitution because the angel of death doesn't kill one or the other in its place.
The traditional redemption of the firstborn is a lot closer to reasonably being called "substitutionary". The point of that is that God owns the firstborn as part of the "first fruits" thinking - ie given God provides everything it is appropriate to give back to God the first piece of what he provides. The idea is that there are sometimes things you don't want to give back to God and so you can purchase them off him. Modern societies would use money for this, but in ancient societies coinage was uncommon and livestock often acted as currency. Thus the buy-back price is set at one lamb. Money is fairly "substitutionary" in function, so there's a fair amount of legitimacy in regarding the redemption practices as substitutionary.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Starlight: you are selectively fixating on the death of the lamb
Jesus made the association of himself as the passover lamb by dying in the midst of the Passover feast. The Baptist also called him the lamb and whatever connotation you put on that there is the concept of substitute and sacrifice at the bottom of all such references in scripture.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Jesus made the association of himself as the passover lamb by dying in the midst of the Passover feast.
Yes, there as elsewhere in the New Testament, Jesus is repeatedly associated with purification sacrifices and purification language.
quote:
The Baptist also called him the lamb and whatever connotation you put on that there is the concept of substitute and sacrifice at the bottom of all such references in scripture.
No. As I've been saying, Hebrew sacrifices generally were not substitutionary. The only Hebrew sacrifices that could accurately be described as 'substitutionary' were those where the animal is acting as money, and then it's substitutionary in the same sense that money is and for basically the same reason.
Worldwide, very very few sacrificial cultures use the idea of sacrifices as life-for-life substitutes. Life-for-life substitution is a modern Western idea of how Western individuals who don't practice sacrifice imagine it might work. However, the vast majority of cultures worldwide who do practice sacrifices see them as meals to be eaten, or as gifts to demons or gods to bribe, feed, thank, repay or appease them.
The Israelite purification rituals fall into a somewhat less globally-common third category where blood is used ritually, and the animal thus provides a source of blood. Notably in none of those three types of sacrifice (which constitute Israel's three primary forms of sacrifice) is the death of the animal at all relevant to the primary purpose of the sacrifice. "In ancient Jewish and ancient Mediterranean animal sacrifices and in the rites of numerous other cultures the death of the animal was an incidental prelude to the ritual. Strange as it may seem to people steeped in the legacy of Christianity; these sacrificing cultures attach no special significance to the death of the animal itself." (Stowers A Rereading of Romans, 207)
In short, you shouldn't equate sacrifices with the idea of substitution.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
The traditional redemption of the firstborn is a lot closer to reasonably being called "substitutionary". The point of that is that God owns the firstborn as part of the "first fruits" thinking - ie given God provides everything it is appropriate to give back to God the first piece of what he provides. The idea is that there are sometimes things you don't want to give back to God and so you can purchase them off him. Modern societies would use money for this, but in ancient societies coinage was uncommon and livestock often acted as currency. Thus the buy-back price is set at one lamb. Money is fairly "substitutionary" in function, so there's a fair amount of legitimacy in regarding the redemption practices as substitutionary.
You've lost me here Starlight.
Did you read Numbers 3?
There the link is from the Passover to the practice you've just outlined here. The evidence you cite agrees with me - the Passover is meant to be seen as substitutionary.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
The passover lamb was a ritual enacted to protect the Israelites from judgement on all the gods of Egypt (Ex 12:12). The blood was a sign on the lintels was a sign. (verse 13).
This is the beginning of the "election" of the people of Israel.
A sign like circumcision.
A sign of protection.
This is the imagery that carries over into the NT IMO.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Originally posted by Starlight:
The traditional redemption of the firstborn is a lot closer to reasonably being called "substitutionary". The point of that is that God owns the firstborn as part of the "first fruits" thinking - ie given God provides everything it is appropriate to give back to God the first piece of what he provides. The idea is that there are sometimes things you don't want to give back to God and so you can purchase them off him. Modern societies would use money for this, but in ancient societies coinage was uncommon and livestock often acted as currency. Thus the buy-back price is set at one lamb. Money is fairly "substitutionary" in function, so there's a fair amount of legitimacy in regarding the redemption practices as substitutionary.
You've lost me here Starlight.
Did you read Numbers 3?
Numbers 3 explicitly uses money rather than lambs for the first-born buy-back process, hence reinforcing my point that they first-born redemption process is money oriented not death oriented.
quote:
There the link is from the Passover to the practice you've just outlined here. The evidence you cite agrees with me - the Passover is meant to be seen as substitutionary.
I don't understand how you are connecting things here. I don't see anything in Numbers 3 to make me think that the Passover is substitutionary. The only thing Numbers 3 says about the Passover is that God considers the firstborn to be rightfully his, and that he wants the Levite tribe to substitute in for the firstborn of the tribes of Israel. Yes, that's substitution, it's Levite-tribemember-for-firstborn substitution. But I don't understand how you are making any connection to the Passover with this.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
Well I disagree with the assertion that Jewish sacrifices were not substitutionary.
If someone brings an animal or an offering to the priest as demanded by Mosaic law and the priest offers it for his sins or issues or to make reparation for an infringement as an act of submission or worship, then that person is seeking God's approval by in effect saying "Here is something valuable that I control, I'm offering it to you so that you might forgive me or accept my prayers."
An animal sacrifice had to die in this exchange in order to satisfy that bargain. In effect, the death of the animal substituted for the death of the worshiper whose need for reparation required in fact, his own life.. but the animal's substituted for this and provided a temporary cleansing.
Hebrews 9 and 10 certainly reinforce that this was the view of sacrifice Jews had. To put any other spin on, for instance, Heb 9:13, "The blood of bulls and goats...sanctify for the cleansing of the flesh." would be rather artificial I think.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
So what does this actually mean?
In pre-Jewish times was there no forgiveness?
That someone today who's not a Christian believer can't forgive another person?
What about vegans who are strong believers in not shedding blood of any kind?
I believe anyone can forgive the hurt and harm done to them - and that real forgiveness is incredibly hard and costly. But it's not supernatural in any way - it's a thing humans need. If we don't forgive we live in the past and in bitterness.
<typo>
What it means Boogie is that our lives were so valuable to God that he had to find a way of retrieving them for himself. he therefore allowed his own incarnation to pay the price for our redemption, by shedding his own blood which was actually to give up his own life.
That is what the apostles believed.. Peter's semon in Acts says it all. Acts 2:24 Godless men put him to death and God raised him..putting an end to the agony of death."
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood.
So what does this actually mean?
In pre-Jewish times was there no forgiveness?
That someone today who's not a Christian believer can't forgive another person?
What about vegans who are strong believers in not shedding blood of any kind?
I believe anyone can forgive the hurt and harm done to them - and that real forgiveness is incredibly hard and costly. But it's not supernatural in any way - it's a thing humans need. If we don't forgive we live in the past and in bitterness.
<typo>
What it means Boogie is that our lives were so valuable to God that he had to find a way of retrieving them for himself. he therefore allowed his own incarnation to pay the price for our redemption, by shedding his own blood which was actually to give up his own life.
If Jesus was God he'd know he wasn't giving up his life and that he was simply going back to his pre-existant state.
But I don't believe Jesus was God so this discussion is not likely to get anywhere.
(I believe Jesus was full of the Spirit of God)
I reckon, personally, that PSA should be a Dead Horse. It's a 'no resolution' topic if ever there was one.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Okay, I'll take it step by step and you tell me where you think I go wrong.
Numbers 3 - the redemption price is money for the firstborn in Israel. This is a substitutionary image. (Vs. 40-50).
Numbers 3 also explains the origin of the concept that the firstborn belong to God - When I struck down all the firstborn in Egypt, I set apart for myself every firstborn in Israel, whether man or animal."
Hence the Passover is an etiological myth for the basis of both the firstborn belonging to God and for the need to redeem the firstborn. In some sense any subsequent redemption is meant to be seen as derivative of the Passover. Any understanding of redemption price must come from the Passover itself.
Now, what was it about the Passover that means that all the firstborn Israelites needed to be redeemed? The only answer Exodus 12 supplies is that their freedom from Egypt was bought at the price of a lamb. And so any subsequent firstborn also needs to be redeemed in order to for them to be 'free'.
And so what is interesting is that different redemption prices are fixed throughout the Mosaic code. And at times money and animal sacrifice seem to be equivalent.
e.g.
quote:
15 The first offspring of every womb, both man and animal, that is offered to the LORD is yours. But you must redeem every firstborn son and every firstborn male of unclean animals. 16 When they are a month old, you must redeem them at the redemption price set at five shekels of silver, according to the sanctuary shekel, which weighs twenty gerahs.
Numbers 18: 15-16
Notice that a financial price is set for both humans and unclean animals alike here. Then compare that to the verses I quoted from Exodus 34 earlier ...
quote:
19 “The first offspring of every womb belongs to me, including all the firstborn males of your livestock, whether from herd or flock. 20 Redeem the firstborn donkey with a lamb, but if you do not redeem it, break its neck. Redeem all your firstborn sons.
Exodus 34: 19-20
There, in Exodus, an unclean animal (a donkey) is to be redeemed by a lamb.
It seems that there is some sense of equivalence - i.e. that the lamb was seen to be equivalent to a set amount of money. The most likely explanation of this is that as the Israelite society became more developed the redemption process moved from animals and property towards hard cash. Perhaps Leviticus was written much later than Exodus.
Anyway, I think that what is pretty clear from Exodus is this:
- The Passover is seen as the origin of the redemption of the firstborn.
- redemption is, at its heart, substitutionary.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
If someone brings an animal or an offering to the priest as demanded by Mosaic law and the priest offers it for his sins or issues or to make reparation for an infringement as an act of submission or worship, then that person is seeking God's approval by in effect saying "Here is something valuable that I control, I'm offering it to you so that you might forgive me or accept my prayers."
Yeah, in essence the system worked like a monetary fine for minor offences: Do something wrong, and lose a valuable animal. It's basically little different to our modern day justice system fining people for illegal behaviour. But, again, I struggle to see "substitution" in this.
quote:
An animal sacrifice had to die in this exchange in order to satisfy that bargain.
Not always: For poor people the 'fines' were lessened to grain. The interest was purely in the monetary value of the item which was being destroyed. If the amount being fined was not an animal then obviously no animal would die.
quote:
In effect, the death of the animal substituted for the death of the worshiper whose need for reparation required in fact, his own life..
Except that fines were only applicable for minor offences that didn't warrant death. Major offences that did warrant death were not commutable to a fine. Hence, the fine couldn't be a substitute for the death penalty, and hence the deaths of the animals (where such occurred) weren't substitutes for the death penalty. The person sacrificing wasn't thinking "that animal/grain is dying instead of me" but thinking "I'm losing something of monetary value to me".
quote:
Hebrews 9 and 10 certainly reinforce that this was the view of sacrifice Jews had. To put any other spin on, for instance, Heb 9:13, "The blood of bulls and goats...sanctify for the cleansing of the flesh." would be rather artificial I think.
I do not understand what you are claiming here. What are you saying Heb 9:13 means?
quote:
Hebrews 9:13-14:
13 The blood of goats and bulls and the ashes of a heifer sprinkled on those who are ceremonially unclean sanctify them so that they are outwardly clean. 14 How much more, then, will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself unblemished to God, cleanse our ethics from dead works, so that we may serve the living God!
It seems to me to be, as usual, applying language from the purification rituals to Jesus. The referenced rituals regarding ceremonial cleanness are the various purification rituals for removing uncleanliness (eg after contact with a corpse in the case of the heifer mentioned), it's not talking about the fines.
And, like the rest of the New Testament, it has modified the purification language it is using in a crucial way, shifting it from referring to ritual purity to talking about moral purity: Jesus "purifies" us by changing our hearts/behaviour rather than removing ritual uncleanliness from us.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Johnny S,
I'll agree with you on the following:
A) One of the texts about redemption (as you point out there are many), cites the Passover as earlier support for the idea that God has some sort of ownership of the firstborn.
B) Redemption is 'substitutionary' in the sense that it is a financial transaction in which money/something of monetary value is exchanged for something else.
Where I'm struggling is to get from there to "the Passover is substitutionary" - which I understand to mean "a correct understanding of the Passover sees it as being primarily about a substitution taking place". (If all you mean is "one of the things connected with the Passover is sort of a bit substitutionary", then I already agree) Such a conclusion simply doesn't follow from the premises.
In the Passover there was something going on with God and the firstborn, yes. But you can't then read later laws about redemption backward in time into the Passover. I'm also concerned that you seem to be focusing on a small facet of the Passover at the expense of the wider diversity of things that the Passover was about. If a minor facet of the Passover was substitutionary, it doesn't make the Passover itself about substitution.
If the Passover read: "The angel of death visited each house and killed either the firstborn son or a lamb in its place", then I would say "substitution". But instead, the Israelites are depicted performing a spiritual/magical purification ritual on the door to block the entry of the angel of death, using the spiritual/magical power of the blood and hyssop, and to make themselves ritually pure by eating a meal with pure ingredients. These are not "substitution" at all! In the biblical account, the fact that the lambs are killed to fulfil these functions is brushed over in a few words, while the lengthy descriptions of the purification rituals take up a large paragraph. Your focus on the death of the animal seems to completely miss the point. As I mentioned earlier: In almost no sacrificial systems in the world is the actual death of the animal seen as important - the focus is entirely on the monetary value of the animals and the things their meat and blood can be used for.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
spiritual/magical purification ritual??
Where on earth do you get this??
The blood of the lamb was a sign, not a charm. The lamb was slain and the blood was put on the door as a sign that the lamb was slain for the household within. It was a sign that the lambs blood had been given for the occupants.
The Passover lamb was not a purification, it was a redemption, a way of satisfying the wrath of God who was to kill, in judgment, the first born of egypt. The lamb was killed in place of the Hebrew first born.
There was no purification. It was escape and proptection from judgment.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Where on earth do you get this??
Books and articles written by scholars who have studied in detail sacrificial systems from around the world both ancient and modern, and who have studied the Israelite system in detail. There's a long list of such works here.
I highly recommend that anyone who is deeply interested in this begin with:
Milgrom's abridged commentary on Leviticus.
If you prefer a Cliff-notes version, try:
Problems with Atonement by Finlan
quote:
The Passover lamb was not a purification, it was a redemption, a way of satisfying the wrath of God who was to kill, in judgment, the first born of egypt. The lamb was killed in place of the Hebrew first born.
There was no purification. It was escape and proptection from judgment.
Are you implying God was intending to kill the Hebrew firstborn in judgment? For what sin?
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
spiritual/magical purification ritual??
Where on earth do you get this??
The blood of the lamb was a sign, not a charm. The lamb was slain and the blood was put on the door as a sign that the lamb was slain for the household within. It was a sign that the lambs blood had been given for the occupants.
Genesis 9 is probably germane here - in that the blood of an animal was taken to be it's life.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:If Jesus was God he'd know he wasn't giving up his life and that he was simply going back to his pre-existant state.But I don't believe Jesus was God so this discussion is not likely to get anywhere.
[ [/qb]
An interesting novel psychologically on this is Anne Rice's 'Christ The Lord, The Road to Cana.' It presents Jesus as ist person narrator.
It is clear both that he knew who he was from John, "Before Abraham was..I AM." However, I think that the incarnation was absolute. He couldn't gnostically zip between man/god avatars. I don't know if he knew when he died that he would be resurrected.
Regarding whether he was God, CS Lewis ably points out that Jesus doesn't give us many options about this. He is either God incarnate as he claimed or delusional.
[ 26. July 2011, 09:37: Message edited by: Jamat ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Regarding whether he was God, CS Lewis ably points out that Jesus doesn't give us many options about this. He is either God incarnate as he claimed or delusional.
Is there not some question as to whether John added his own theological leanings to Jesus' 'words'?
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Starlight:What are you saying Heb 9:13 means?
That the words sanctify and cleanse clearly suggest substitution.
Sacnctifying the flesh is referring to a dedication ritual. The sacrifice made this possible because it made the offerer's flesh acceptable, ie it gave him access to God and the way it did this was by ritually cleansing the offerer because it was a life in lieu of his.
The burnt offering and sin offerings detailed in Leviticus are necessarily substututionary because a life was demanded so God could accept the offerer's worship.It was certainly the animal's life in exchange for the offerer's guilt that was the whole rationale for blood sacrifice.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The burnt offering and sin offerings detailed in Leviticus are necessarily substututionary because a life was demanded so God could accept the offerer's worship. It was certainly the animal's life in exchange for the offerer's guilt that was the whole rationale for blood sacrifice.
Not at all.
The sacrifieces and burnt offerings were symbolic of what an individual does when he or she worships and reforms.
The sacrifices depict the fact that a person gives up what they love and hold precious in favor of following God's teachings.
The burnt offerings depict the love that an individual offers to God in worship.
The blood itself is God's teaching, the Word of the Lord, that is poured out for our salvation.
These are symbolic rituals. They are substitutionary in the sense that they are not the real thing - they are not actually love offered to God, or the giving up of what is our own. But they did not actually constitute a payment of life for life. What kind of God would demand that?
As long as you have a God, or a system of "justice", that requires blood in exchange for sin you have a God who is far from godly.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I can certainly feel that sentiment. What I cannot see is how PSA is supposed to satisfy the sentiment. I don't want someone else to suffer or someone else to say how wrong it is. And if that someone else pays the price for the wrongdoing then I want that to be taken into account as well when the final reckoning is added up.
What the sentiment wants is for sufferer to feel the wrongdoing. What I really want, when I imagine what would satisfy the sentiment, is for the wrongdoer to realise how wrong it was and to acknowledge the pain that they've caused. No substitutes accepted.
OK, so PSA doesn't work for you.
That's fine. PSA isn't the Gospel. It's one model. There are quite a few others to choose from.
Ransom theory doesn't particularly work for me. I don't see how the Devil is supposed to have rights over us, or why Jesus dying means that he would have to give those up. But I'm not about to say that it can't be supported from scripture (it can) or that those people for whom it does work are wrong to think about their salvation in those terms. I'll happily accept that whatever redemption price that was needed to free us from Satan was fully paid on the cross.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
On the contrary. I agree with the sentiment, but PSA doesn't!
Evildoers should be punished, yes. Evildoers, and not innocents! The innocents suffer at the hands of the evildoers, and rightly should be avenged by a caring God. But for him to then transfer the punishment of the evildoers to those innocents undermines the very point of the whole punishment. In PSA the evildoers avoid the punishment and the innocent receive it instead.
The essential point is that the ‘innocent' is God, identifying himself with his creation. That matters, because that's what satisfies. Not that "someone must pay" and we don't care who, but that the person who made the world, who loves both victim and criminal, volunteers to settle personally whatever debts his children may have incurred between each other. PSA doesn't work if you think of it as the punishment of some stranger to the original offence, but God isn't uninvolved. He has absolute authority to pardon and forgive every sin, but out of pure grace he decides that not only is he going to reconcile the world, he will also pay the last farthing on every single account, take any punishment that might be due, so that even before we are made perfect we can know that there are no barriers to his love.
It's not a "free pass" for evildoers, either. I agree with what you say on that point, and a theory of PSA-alone which removed any motivation to repent would be subChristian. It's not what I believe.
When my kids argue, I can simply step in, tell them to stop, order both to apologise and warn them of dire consequences if I hear another word to continue the dispute. I'm their father, and that is (by my lights) quite firmly within the scope of my authority. BUT, because I love them, and want to make it easy for them to be reconciled, I can also draw on my own resources to make up the quarrel: fix breakages, kiss bruises, repudiate insults, absorb anger. It helps.
PSA's like that. It's God getting involved to fix things, a concession to our weakness. On your model, I simply have to accept that someone who has grievously wronged me, if they repent, will be forgiven with no punishment. Now I fully agree that God has every right to do that, and to require me to accept it. But it's easier if God also accepts the punishment himself: he can show me the cross and say to me, "If you think that punishment was due, this is it. I did this to forgive that sinner, and because I did, I'm asking you to forgive him, too." It helps. Or, at least, it helps me. If something else works for you, then great, but why argue against another Christian's means of grace?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Johnny S,
I'll agree with you on the following:
A) One of the texts about redemption (as you point out there are many), cites the Passover as earlier support for the idea that God has some sort of ownership of the firstborn.
B) Redemption is 'substitutionary' in the sense that it is a financial transaction in which money/something of monetary value is exchanged for something else.
Agreed - that was pretty much all I was saying.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
In the Passover there was something going on with God and the firstborn, yes. But you can't then read later laws about redemption backward in time into the Passover.
I can and Numbers 3 specifically tells me to do so. There redemption is said to have its origin in the Passover.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I'm also concerned that you seem to be focusing on a small facet of the Passover at the expense of the wider diversity of things that the Passover was about. If a minor facet of the Passover was substitutionary, it doesn't make the Passover itself about substitution.
I'm not saying that the Passover is only about substitution, but I am saying it is there.
You seem to be using 'minor' as a weasel word here. All I'm saying is that one aspect of Passover is substitution. And since the Passover is one of the OT images applied to Christ is must be entirely appropriate to include substitution in our atonement models.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
If the Passover read: "The angel of death visited each house and killed either the firstborn son or a lamb in its place", then I would say "substitution".
I don't see why the destroyer had to kill the lambs for the image to be substitutionary? (Supporters of PSA are quite content to say that we humans killed Jesus.)
But having just re-read Exodus 12 I'm struggling to see how the text could say any more clearly that at midnight every household had either a dead firstborn or a dead lamb.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
As I mentioned earlier: In almost no sacrificial systems in the world is the actual death of the animal seen as important - the focus is entirely on the monetary value of the animals and the things their meat and blood can be used for.
And yet Leviticus (16) states that it is the blood=life that is the important issue for the worship of YHWH.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
In Exodus 12 the emphasis is on one lamb per household as against the firstborn deaths of Egyptian households. In what way is the death of the lamb not instead of the death of the firstborn of the Israelites?
Because the lamb is (or at least, could be) one of the first-born itself.
"Substitution" for me means that someone that is not going to die being swapped for someone who is. Just like "substitution" in football means someone who is off the field coming on in place of someone on it. Picking one player on the field as the team's symbolic representative, say, when it comes to taking a penalty (pun intended) isn't "substitution".
If the lamb was for the chop anyway, as it might have been, using it's blood as a sign and a symbol of belonging isn't substituting one victim for another. It's picking and identifying with a representative, but not substituting one.
The later Passover redemptions were substitutionary: one thing being offered in place of the thing over which God asserted rights. The original Passover was not, because the sacrifice might have been part of the condemned group in the first place and is not being swapped into, but nominated out of, that group.
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Here is a loving Creator and Father who 'each day' witnesses the wholesale slaughter of innocents, looks at the selfishness of men and women who stand by as millions starve, the corrupt people who preside over poverty, disease and injustice.
Let me put this into context. Here is the Allmighty and Omnipotent God who presides from his throne in Heaven and watches each day as people starve, the corrupt preside over poverty, disease, and injustice. And does nothing directly about it while getting angry that those with less power do nothing about it.
quote:
He watches while ordinary people commit adultery, abuse their children, cheat on their bosses as far as time is concerned, drive whilst drunk, steal, bully, lie, act selfishly, cruelly, and who live according to lowest common denominator.
He watches, and he inflicts far far greater suffering on many of those people than any do on any other people. Whereas humans abuse each other for a finite time, he condemns humans to eternal torment. Whereas humans bully but it is possible to overthrow them, he bullies from a position so far above humans that it is impossible to take out that bully.
quote:
Here is a God whose heart is broken because of the actions of humans.
Here is a God whose heart is broken because humans are imitating his behaviour. But none of us have even seriously tried to wipe the world out by flood. Few of us literally override someone's free will to give us an excuse to torture them and others.
Here is a God who is afraid of mirrors.
quote:
Is it right that this God will say, 'Oh it doesn't matter, I love you anyway, forget it all?'
Your God is too small. You condemn God to only two choices. The spineless (the one you outline above) and the utterly irredeemably evil (condemning someone to eternal torture). Of thsoe two choices, the one you outline is the morally right one.
quote:
How can a God of justice just 'wink at sin' as if it is of no consequence? At the very least, what about the cries for justice from the untold millions who have suffered the consequences of another man's sin. Is there no justice for those who cry out 'how long, O Lord?'
HELL IS NOT JUSTICE. Hell is retribution. Calling hell Justice is like kidnapping someone who spits at you, chaining them in a dungeon for the next year, and raping them with a six inch augur drill just. Hell is retribution so far beyond justice that it is worse than the disease.
So if your theology has only heaven and hell, then no there is not justice. That is because you have imposed limitations on God that make it impossible for him to be just.
quote:
Does God the righteous judge
Any who could condemn another to hell for any action in this finite world is not Righteous.
quote:
is it not the most wonderful thing that God didn't judge us but instead poured out his wrath, that he feels when he sees the filth of this world, upon his own Son so that there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus?
No. That's just silly. If another can take the punishment, then it is categorical proof that the punishment is not one of justice. It's one about petty revenge.
Your God is far more evil than anything he rails against. And indeed all the sins he's objecting to are ones he's demonstrating.
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
But what does the concept of forgive imply to us? The whole issue of fogiveness is impossible unless you realise that it is naturally impossible and so needs to be supernatural.
Ask an abused wife or child how easy it is to fogive? or someone who made a deal in good faith and was betrayed and lost a lot of money? Or someone whose job was suddenly restructured and they found they were demoted or fired?
I don't think anyone is saying that forgiveness is easy for humans. But until you have forgiven there is no way you can ever be free of the trigger. And people have forgiven - to claim that humans are incapable of genuine forgiveness without supernatural help is to lessen us. Forgiveness is a necessary part of the healing process and the easier it is to forgive the greater someone is. Denying God something good that is possible to humans just makes God less than a human.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
In which case it is your definition of hell that is faulty. I've been arguing that it is God's responsibility that we are sent to hell. I never read (as far as I am aware) any post on the ship arguing that hell is a place where God personally tortures people.
He doesn't personally do it. He decides that it will be inflicted. And knows that it happens. And the Omniscient watches the eternal torment, compassionless or at best unwilling to free people. Just because it isn't His hands on the torture implements doesn't make Him less than responsible.
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
It seems to me that the sentiment that truly horrible wickedness requires some sort of pay-back
And you're ducking the continual point. I don't think anyone has denied "some sort of pay-back" being possible. The moral problem is the eternal nature of Hell. A version of Purgatory in which someone is made to suffer every wound they ever inflicted in life before they are purified for heaven would not suffer this problem. Sentencing someone to an eternal hell is far greater wickedness than any mortal human is capable of. (See my analogy with spitting above).
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The blood of the lamb was a sign, not a charm.
That's right
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
The lamb was slain and the blood was put on the door as a sign that the lamb was slain for the household within. It was a sign that the lambs blood had been given for the occupants.
No. It was a sign that the people within were God's chosen people.
So the Angel of the Lord should pass by.
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Are you implying God was intending to kill the Hebrew firstborn in judgment? For what sin?
Quite so.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
But having just re-read Exodus 12 I'm struggling to see how the text could say any more clearly that at midnight every household had either a dead firstborn or a dead lamb.
Dead lamb is your problem. Ain't the dead lamb that's the big deal.
You've conflated two images that are not explicitly conflated in the text.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
And you're ducking the continual point. I don't think anyone has denied "some sort of pay-back" being possible. The moral problem is the eternal nature of Hell. A version of Purgatory in which someone is made to suffer every wound they ever inflicted in life before they are purified for heaven would not suffer this problem. Sentencing someone to an eternal hell is far greater wickedness than any mortal human is capable of. (See my analogy with spitting above).
If we are discussing atonement theories at all, I think the assumption has to be that human beings generally need to be saved. Something bad, and permanent, will happen to us if God does not rescue us.
If you don't believe that is at least a possibility, then PSA doesn't make a lot of sense, but nor does any other atonement theory. An atonement theory is a model of how salvation works. If we don't need saving, we certainly don't need a model.
I don't know what Hell is like. I doubt very much that it works like a sentence: God fixing "eternity" as the term when he could have commuted it to, say, a billion years. I see it more that so long as we are sinful, we can't enter into the life God has prepared for us. On that model, if I wrong you, the real problem for you and I being saved is not the injury so much as the emnity it creates. You need to forgive, I need to know that I am forgiven. I don't "deserve" an eternity of torment for kicking your cat, but the discord which I create by kicking your cat will be eternal unless and until the two of us (and God, and possibly, the cat) are reconciled. The feeling that there is a need for punishment is one obstacle to reconciliation. My contention is that this sentiment cannot simply be repudiated because (1) I can't; and (2) it isn't wholly bad - it contains real justice.
PSA gets some of that out of the way. It helps me to forgive and to know that I am forgiven. It moves my thinking about God outside the law-court and sentencing model, because I know that if there are forensic or judicial aspects to salvation or perdition, they've been dealt with, finally, conclusively, and unanswerably, on the cross.
I'm sorry if it feels like I'm ducking the issue, but the fact is, I'm not at all sure whether 'perdition' is anything like the picture you offer of Hell, and I don't think that being persuaded one way or the other would change what I thought of PSA. If anything, I suspect that my take on PSA fits more comfortably with a more liberal line on Hell than the one you are attacking.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Justinian: If another can take the punishment, then it is categorical proof that the punishment is not one of justice. It's one about petty revenge.
The problem with this thinking is that justice is confused with consequence.
You do not have to morally impugn God if you realise that Man's choice has led him down a continuing path of negative consequence called sinfulness.
Now we HAVE to accept God's assessment of this consequence. "In the day you eat of it you will surely die."
God having outlined the problem has given us a way out. As Man sinned so a man must die for sin as a representative of our race. This was Jesus.
This is where justice is truly satisfied since mankind sinned in Adam and mankind died for sin in Christ.
This is Paul's argument in Romans and it is Christianity 101.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
But it says "on the day you eat of it, you will surely die." Not "on the day that you eat of it, some man will surely die." There is no indication in the original statement that the death is transferrable.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
Paul obviously does not see it that way. "In Adam, all die, in Christ all are made alive."
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
God says "you will die." You say this means Christ will die. Then you quote St. Paul saying all men die. St Paul is clearly saying something completely different from what you were saying.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
Because the lamb is (or at least, could be) one of the first-born itself.
"Substitution" for me means that someone that is not going to die being swapped for someone who is. Just like "substitution" in football means someone who is off the field coming on in place of someone on it. Picking one player on the field as the team's symbolic representative, say, when it comes to taking a penalty (pun intended) isn't "substitution".
Doesn't that illustrate how careful we must be when using analogies? If we say that an analogy has to correlate on every single point then it ceases to be an analogy - i.e. it has no explaining power to move from the known to the unknown.
Christians have always had this problem when thinking about Jesus. The Desert Fathers wrestled with it when considering, 'only that which is assumed can be saved'. There is a sense (using this analogy) in that substitution only works if Jesus is one who was not going to die but equally how can we say that Jesus was really human if he didn't have a mortal body?
In sport a substitution is never a completely straight swap or there would be no point in doing it! In a sense for substitution to work as a concept the two parties have to be the same, but different. The have to be from the same team but they have to be different (position, fitness level, stamina etc.).
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
The later Passover redemptions were substitutionary: one thing being offered in place of the thing over which God asserted rights. The original Passover was not, because the sacrifice might have been part of the condemned group in the first place and is not being swapped into, but nominated out of, that group.
Following on from above I still don't understand this. Isn't it harder to speak of substitution when the two parties are from different groups? Then it is less a substitution and more a replacement.
You seem to be saying that you can't call it a substitution unless you bring on a hockey player for a footballer.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
He doesn't personally do it. He decides that it will be inflicted. And knows that it happens. And the Omniscient watches the eternal torment, compassionless or at best unwilling to free people. Just because it isn't His hands on the torture implements doesn't make Him less than responsible.
We're going in circles here - I've already pointed out that this equally applies to the analogy you used about electricity illustrating SA.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
God says "you will die." You say this means Christ will die. Then you quote St. Paul saying all men die. St Paul is clearly saying something completely different from what you were saying.
God says in the day you eat you die.
Paul says says in Adam all died and in Christ all are made alive.
The logic is totally clear.
Paul is using Adam as a representative of man implying the death he died was a spiritual death.
Jesus is also a representative man. He reversed the process.
If you want to argue don't do it with me; do it with Paul.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Regarding whether he was God, CS Lewis ably points out that Jesus doesn't give us many options about this. He is either God incarnate as he claimed or delusional.
Is there not some question as to whether John added his own theological leanings to Jesus' 'words'?
Yes that is a whole other discussion. I guess it comes down to your view of scripture. I tend to think of the gospel as 'gospel', what ever gospel it is and certainly some would say that is naive.
If something is in the Bible that Jesus is supposed to have said, then you have to make up your own mind if he said it Boogie but the bit I quoted is not inconsistent with 'God' claims he makes in the other gospels.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
God says "you will die." You say this means Christ will die. Then you quote St. Paul saying all men die. St Paul is clearly saying something completely different from what you were saying.
Adam brought sin into the world. It afflicts everyone. Christ brought it under control.
Sin is spiritual death. The more you sin, the more you die in spiritual terms. This is the life or death choice that Moses gave Israel in Deuteronomy:
quote:
Deauteronomy 30:15 “See, I have set before you today life and good, death and evil, 16 in that I command you today to love the LORD your God, to walk in His ways, and to keep His commandments, His statutes, and His judgments, that you may live and multiply; and the LORD your God will bless you in the land which you go to possess.
17 But if your heart turns away so that you do not hear, and are drawn away, and worship other gods and serve them, 18 I announce to you today that you shall surely perish; you shall not prolong your days in the land which you cross over the Jordan to go in and possess.
19 I call heaven and earth as witnesses today against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing; therefore choose life, that both you and your descendants may live; 20 that you may love the LORD your God, that you may obey His voice, and that you may cling to Him, for He is your life."
It's about good and evil, blessing and cursing. Literal life and death is not the central meaning.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
If you want to argue don't do it with me; do it with Paul.
Which is equivalent to "my reading of Paul is the right one and all others deficient."
I do not argue with St. Paul. I argue with your reading of St. Paul. But more, with the inconsistencies in your argument.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Adam brought sin into the world. It afflicts everyone. Christ brought it under control.
Sin is spiritual death. The more you sin, the more you die in spiritual terms.
No argument. If only Jamat had said that.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
If you want to argue don't do it with me; do it with Paul.
Which is equivalent to "my reading of Paul is the right one and all others deficient."
I do not argue with St. Paul. I argue with your reading of St. Paul. But more, with the inconsistencies in your argument.
Only yours
Posted by Twangist (# 16208) on
:
quote:
The more you sin, the more you die in spiritual terms.
Eh? Are there degrees of death?
Can one ex-parrot be pining for the Fjords more than another?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
The more you sin, the more you die in spiritual terms.
Eh? Are there degrees of death?
Can one ex-parrot be pining for the Fjords more than another?
According to Scripture, those without Christ are 'dead in trespasses and sins'.
You can't get any deader than that
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Twangist:
quote:
The more you sin, the more you die in spiritual terms.
Eh? Are there degrees of death?
In physical terms something is either alive or dead. But the spiritual life that the Bible speaks of comes in degrees. There are degrees of both life and death.
Jesus said:
quote:
John 10:10 I have come that they may have life, and that they may have it more abundantly.
If you can have life more abundantly, you can have it less abundantly - even to the point of barely having it at all.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I'm not sure that's what it means.
Life is life - and Jesus is initially talking about life in this world - what he is talking about is a greater experience, a greater satisfaction in the life we already have! He's not saying that we will have more existence. It's a figure of speech for a life that is more aware of God and more aware of love, joy and peace, etc. We don't receive more 'life' as it were; otherwise we'd be getting super powers or an extra 30 years on everyone else, etc.
He's also speaking about life in the age to come. Life more abundant in that context is resurrection life. We will remain alive but our life will be transformed by resurrection.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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That's it, Mudfrog. So if you can have more you can have less.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Following on from above I still don't understand this. Isn't it harder to speak of substitution when the two parties are from different groups? Then it is less a substitution and more a replacement.
You seem to be saying that you can't call it a substitution unless you bring on a hockey player for a footballer.
I'm not sure what's so hard to get about my assertion - which had nothing to do with differences or similarities between the subsituted parties.
The point is that to be a substitution, the original thing, whatever it is, has a certain position, or role, or destiny, and the other thing, the substitute, does not. Then, in respect of that one particular position, role or destiny, they are swapped over. That's what makes it a substitution. One thing is taking the place formerly belonging to another. The similarity (or not) between the two things is immaterial. The important thing is the swap.
The passover lamb doesn't have to be a substitute (and therefore the sacrifice isn't inherently substitutionary), because the victim can be selected from amongst the first-born, rather than being swapped in to take their place. That seems to me to be obvious. In the original passover sacrifice, there didn't need to be a swap.
That's not an argument against PSA - which I hold to be a perfectly legitimate model. But I think the Passover is more about the redemptive effect of belonging to God's people and obeying him than it is about animals being killed in our place.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
That's not an argument against PSA - which I hold to be a perfectly legitimate model.
Sure. So I'm happy to let this drop if you want to. We don't seem to understand each other here.
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
The passover lamb doesn't have to be a substitute (and therefore the sacrifice isn't inherently substitutionary), because the victim can be selected from amongst the first-born, rather than being swapped in to take their place. That seems to me to be obvious. In the original passover sacrifice, there didn't need to be a swap.
That's right. Any Israelite household could have just waited until the morning and buried their first born son instead.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
That's right. Any Israelite household could have just waited until the morning and buried their first born son instead.
Not 'instead'.
Consider two Israelite households.
Household one has a lamb that is the firstborn son of its mother and a firstborn human son. If they don't kill the lamb both die. If they do, only one dies. The lamb isn't a substitute. It dies whatever happens.
Household two has only daughters, and no male lambs. If they don't kill a lamb, nothing dies.
They kill a lamb anyway. The lamb isn't a substitute, because if it wasn't killed noone and nothing would have died.
Posted by irish_lord99 (# 16250) on
:
I've more or less avoided this whole conversation up to this point, but having skimmed back over the thread I have a question (more intended for Mousetheif, but anyone who is "in the know" can obviously answer). Mind you, I don't wish to argue or debate, I'm asking purely to learn.
In my reading of the patristic fathers I've come across several mention of "the economy" when discussing Christ and his incarnation. St. Cyril of Alexandria uses it frequently in his dissertation "On the Unity of Christ." I had always assumed that was the Orthodox way of describing the substitution of Christ for ourselves, or Christ "paying the price" etc. It seems I was looking through Western colored lenses though, as Mousetheif's position in this thread would indicate that the Orthodox take a different perspective.
I have yet to find anything actually describing in detail what "the economy" is and how it differs from PSA or traditional legally-minded thought.
Or did I really misunderstand and it's just a totally non-related idea? If it's related to the topic at hand, could someone please describe what it mean?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
As I understand it, "the economy of salvation" means all those things that God has done for our salvation.
Posted by irish_lord99 (# 16250) on
:
And this is not limited to Jesus' death on the cross? What else does it include?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by irish_lord99:
And this is not limited to Jesus' death on the cross? What else does it include?
The very short version:
Driving Adam and Eve from the garden (thus preventing them obtaining eternal life while in a sinful state). Grooming the nation of Israel for the birth of the Savior (which itself has many components of course). Grooming the Theotokos to be throne of heaven, that is, the one in whom the God-man becomes incarnate. The Incarnation, which unites the divine and human natures. Christ's death AND RESURRECTION which defeat sin and death. The Church as the Body of Christ, which safeguards and proclaims the truth. Christ's ascension which elevates human nature into heaven. Christ's coming again, the judgment, and the general resurrection (not nec. in that order).
I've probably left some things out but that's the short version as near as I can remember it at this time.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Another use of the word, often left in the Greek as "ekonomia", refers to the power of the priest, and the exercise of that power, to moderate and apply the ordinary practices and rules of the church. Knowing when to apply the practices of the Church, in the case of a given individual, either strictly or loosely, or whatever is deemed best for that individual's salvation.
On "the economy of salvation" (previous post), Josephine reminds me of the sacraments, the teachings and example of the saints, the institutions of marriage and monasticism, icons, and that our Lord's teachings and other deeds while here on earth in the flesh.
At some point one is moving from the short version to the long version.
Posted by irish_lord99 (# 16250) on
:
Very interesting! Thanks for that, gives me food for thought. Is there anywhere I can read/learn the "long version"?
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
To me, Jesus has lived for my salvation as well as died for it. Having lived a created life, died, ans ascended, he draws creation into the Godhead.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
To me, Jesus has lived for my salvation as well as died for it. Having lived a created life, died, ans ascended, he draws creation into the Godhead.
No argument.
quote:
Originally posted by irish_lord99:
Very interesting! Thanks for that, gives me food for thought. Is there anywhere I can read/learn the "long version"?
I'm not sure. Some of it I have picked up through reading, some through my catechesis (or as it's translated into 21st century English, "inquirer's class"), and some from the services of the church and the hymns.
J also pointed out the micro version, said by the priest at every Divine Liturgy: "the cross, the tomb, the resurrection on the third day, the ascension into heaven, the sitting at the right hand of the Father, and the second and glorious coming."
(Sadly our wretched translation (from the Slavonic) which I believe is used at every OCA parish except on explicit permission of the (applicable) bishop, refers to the "second and glorious coming again." Auugh!)
[ 29. July 2011, 15:36: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by irish_lord99 (# 16250) on
:
Okey doke.. thanks again.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
We don't seem to understand each other here.
Seems not.
Dafyd's response to your post is pretty much what I'm trying to get across.
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by irish_lord99:
In my reading of the patristic fathers I've come across several mention of "the economy" when discussing Christ and his incarnation. St. Cyril of Alexandria uses it frequently in his dissertation "On the Unity of Christ." I had always assumed that was the Orthodox way of describing the substitution of Christ for ourselves, or Christ "paying the price" etc. It seems I was looking through Western colored lenses though, as Mousetheif's position in this thread would indicate that the Orthodox take a different perspective.
I have yet to find anything actually describing in detail what "the economy" is and how it differs from PSA or traditional legally-minded thought.
Or did I really misunderstand and it's just a totally non-related idea? If it's related to the topic at hand, could someone please describe what it mean?
Apparently, Oikonomia means these things in Greek:
quote:
1. The management of a household or of household affairs:
a. specifically, the management, oversight, administration, of other's property
b. the office of a manager or overseer, stewardship
c. administration, dispensation
And the third meaning is the one I've seen and heard used. We are "under a new economy," somebody told me once, in relation to the Incarnation: "Under new management," IOW. We're in a new era, and under a "new administration."
I was really interested in this when I heard it, so I'm repeating it for you. But, I'm not sure whether that makes sense in the context of what you were reading specifically.....
[ 29. July 2011, 15:57: Message edited by: TubaMirum ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
That's right. Any Israelite household could have just waited until the morning and buried their first born son instead.
Not 'instead'.
Consider two Israelite households.
Household one has a lamb that is the firstborn son of its mother and a firstborn human son. If they don't kill the lamb both die. If they do, only one dies. The lamb isn't a substitute. It dies whatever happens.
That is just semantics.
It is not a direct substitute (as you point out). But then no atonement theory argues that it is anyway. For example, the way that one man (Jesus) dies on behalf of the human race is not a direct substitute either.
However, there is an element of substitution in the Passover. If the lamb is sacrificed then the first born son lives, if the lamb is not sacrificed then he dies. The lamb dies instead of the son (and any other first born, human or animal). The lamb would have died anyway but that does not remove the idea of substitution altogether.
As I have said before, I don't think that the Passover is primarily about substitution, but I do think it is an element that is present.
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Household two has only daughters, and no male lambs. If they don't kill a lamb, nothing dies.
They kill a lamb anyway. The lamb isn't a substitute, because if it wasn't killed noone and nothing would have died.
That is irrelevant to our discussion here since the first born son was the representative of the family. We may find it bizarre but in their patriarchal society it is simply how it was. That is why Paul can speak of men and women becoming 'sons' in Christ - because the first born son received the full inheritance and was the representative of the household.
And anyway, according to verse 30 of Exodus 12, "... in Egypt, there was not a house without someone dead." Are you suggesting that 100% of Egyptian households had sons? Even if Exodus 12 is an example of hyperbole it is hyperbole to make a point - no sacrificed lamb = dead person in the morning.
Therefore 'instead' is entirely apt.
[ 30. July 2011, 06:00: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
It is not a direct substitute (as you point out). But then no atonement theory argues that it is anyway. For example, the way that one man (Jesus) dies on behalf of the human race is not a direct substitute either.
I don't get this. How is it not direct? Please explain.
Posted by Divine Outlaw Dwarf (# 2252) on
:
This blogpost is well worth a read on theological questions around atonement.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
Good link - yes, McCabe is sound, yes, 'Jesus died of being human.'
Posted by Divine Outlaw Dwarf (# 2252) on
:
The point can never be stressed enough in the face of the intra-Trinitarian child abuse model of atonement.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
It is not a direct substitute (as you point out). But then no atonement theory argues that it is anyway. For example, the way that one man (Jesus) dies on behalf of the human race is not a direct substitute either.
I don't get this. How is it not direct? Please explain.
One person cannot be a substitute for lots of people.
E.g. in a sporting context it could be theoretically possible to take the entire team off and only bring one player on, but technically he/she would still only be substituting one of the players who came off.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
You appear to be confusing "direct" with "one-to-one". Indirect would mean there is some intermediary.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Possibly. Indirect was meant to modify the analogy rather than (directly
) the word substitution.
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on
:
quote:
Mousethief:I argue with your reading of St. Paul. But more, with the inconsistencies in your argument.
How is it inconsistent to say Paul regarded Adam as a representative man and Christ as a representative man when he actually says this clearly?(1Cor 15:22)
ISTM dishonest to deny this.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Forget it, Jamat. Clearly I am not going to be able to explain it in a manner that you are going to understand.
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