Thread: Purgatory: Does humankind have a "sinful nature"? Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I have read people talking about us having a "sinful nature" but that doesn't seem right to me. We have a human nature. But we don't have some second nature called the "sinful nature."

IIRC the NIV translates σαρξ as "sinful nature" but that's the NIV. Another reason not to use it.

So where does this idea of a "sinful nature" come from? Can it be placed in the Scriptures? the Fathers? the Traditions of the Church?

[ 01. December 2012, 10:45: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
I can tell you're not a protestant... or you wouldn't ask this question. [Biased]

IIRC the doctrine of Original sin is generally ascribed to St Francis of Assisi.

The concept of human sinfulness being innate runs through much of scripture.

Off the top of my head:
Psalm 51
Romans 3
Romans 7
Galatians 5
James 1

I'm not saying that it's the only way to understand scripture or even these specific verses, but it's not just a random idea, it's a well developed theology.

AFZ
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I'm not asking if we're sinful. One look at the Romney campaign confirms that. I'm asking if we have a sinful nature.

PS I think "original sin" is ascribed to Augustine.

[ 23. September 2012, 04:45: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
PS I think "original sin" is ascribed to Augustine.

Ooops, yep. Sorry [Hot and Hormonal] [Hot and Hormonal] That's what I meant to say - I knew there was an "A" in there somewhere.

I agree that the sinfulness of humans is self-evident; what I'm saying is that many who read these verses (and many many others) conclude that the bible is stating that we are sinful by nature. I'm not saying that's the only understanding of these scriptures, I'm saying this is where it comes from.

Recently there was another go-round on the Immaculate conception. For most protestants this is a weird argument (but that's coz of a different view of church tradition) and for me Mary was a sinner in need of salvation like the rest of us. Yet clearly a Godly and righteous woman worthy or our respect. Reading that thread, though I noted a strong need by some to see Mary as set-apart and Holy in order that Jesus might be Holy; surely that kind of thinking only makes sense if you believe the human nature is sinful?

AFZ
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I guess I need to distinguish between our having a sinful nature in addition to our human nature -- two natures warring in us -- or our having a human nature which happens to be sinful. I guess when I posed the question I was thinking of the former. Probably because of the way the NIV uses "sinful nature."

You put this two different ways, and I'm not sure if they're equivalent: Are we sinful by nature? Is human nature sinful? But I can't tease them apart this late at night so I'm going to proceed as if they're the same thing.

Well, we were not made sinful. So if our nature is now sinful, that would mean our nature -- the very core of our being -- has changed. And I don't really see the justification for that. We are still image-bearers of the divine Creator. At the core of our being is the image of God. That is our nature. Sin stains us, but it doesn't define us. It isn't who we are at base.

If human nature were sinful at the core, what does it mean to say that Christ became human? That would be impossible, because we know he was without sin. It seems one of two things are possible:

1. It's false to say that human nature is sinful,
or
2. It was sinful, but when Christ took on our nature, he made it no longer sinful.

You can't say he took on all of our nature except the sinful part -- does our nature have constituent parts? That makes no sense.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I would say that our nature at birth is only the potential to become something. Our real nature in its essence is the ability to think and choose, but until we develop these innate abilities and use them, they exist only in potential.

We were created to use them to follow God and accept him making us an actual image and likeness of him, each of us in our unique, individual way. But we as a species have acquired the inclination to abuse those two abilities and use them only for the sake of ourselves. That inclination is counter-balanced in each of us by the influence of God to draw us away from it, but to begin with, we are neither an image and likeness of God nor sinful. Both exist as potential from the start and only become actualities to varying degrees according to our choices.

That's how I see it.

[ 23. September 2012, 06:07: Message edited by: W Hyatt ]
 
Posted by Zacchaeus (# 14454) on :
 
Human beings are made in God’s image as thinking, sentient beings, born with free will.

Sin comes when we try to use that free will for our own wishes and not God’s. Our sinful human nature is that we are incapable of not following our own will and desires, the only human who ever only followed the will of God was Jesus.

Yes he was fully human but he was sinless because his focus was the Father’s will in a way that the rest of us humans are incapable of doing.

Apologies if I don’t make proper sense, I am rushing to reply before going out to church..
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I have read people talking about us having a "sinful nature" but that doesn't seem right to me. We have a human nature. But we don't have some second nature called the "sinful nature."

I agree.

We have a human nature (made by God) that can by occluded by sin.

My Greek New Testament dictionary says σαρξ literally means flesh or body but in Paul's thought is often the "willing instrument of sin".
 
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not asking if we're sinful. One look at the Romney campaign confirms that. I'm asking if we have a sinful nature.

That just went in the quotes file. [Big Grin]


I generally try to avoid this terminology. In my thinking, we're that point where God has drawn forth from nature, via agapastic evolution, a creature capable of bearing God's image.

I like the way my late mentor developed Irenaeus' thought. He argues that innocence is not an ignorance or pristine purity to be lost, but rather a virtue to be gained (epitomized by the Risen Christ who bears scars).

So we're hairless apes that bear the image of God. It's really quite steampunk if you think of it. We, as individuals and as a species learned to do sinful behaviors (many of which furthered our ancestors' and our survival fitness) before we could know right from wrong in a moral sense. While I wouldn't want to reduce the Incarnation to a software patch or a bit of "jiggery-pokery," as the tenth Doctor might say, the Incarnation does wed our nature with the Divine nature so that human nature, and all creation with it, has been drawn into the inner life of the Trinity (! - where's the mind-blown smilie?) in the Person of Christ, and that's the ultimate milieu for the working out of evolutionary love.

The "sinful nature" talk, IMO, is metaphor. I think it tends to get reified too much, and mixed with other similarly reified metaphors. But it's worth keeping in mind that many Christians use the term "fallen nature" synonymously - that is, they would say something like that "sinful" or "fallen" nature refers to the fact that our nature has been damaged or tarnished or something. Like software that's been degraded and so doesn't quite work right. I'll leave it up to them if they want to say that salvation is like a reinstall.

[ 23. September 2012, 08:14: Message edited by: churchgeek ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
I think if you take 'sinful' to work in the same way as 'damaged' then it is an acceptable thing to say. Yes, we have a damaged nature. What we don't have is a nature that is sinful while functioning properly.

I've just been reading a book on Julian of Norwich's theology that argues that for Julian the division of our nature into sinful and pure is how we genuinely experience ourselves as sinners, but is not how things are from a non-sinful point of view.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
I think that it is easy to view the body and its needs as inherently sinful - but only if we follow its promptings instead of vice versa.

That is, if we are driven by, or give free reign to, our physical appetites for food, rest, sex, etc. we will do things that people call sin. Yet these appetites are all normal, necessary and healthy. We would die without them.

So the "sinful nature" is nothing more than our inclination to listen to these voices and let them rule, as opposed to the voice of God.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
I hate the very idea of people being born sinful, and cannot accept that we have a 'sinful nature' in the sense that we're naturally corrupt. Observing the attempts to squeeze this idea into the shape of a humankind made in the image of God is excruciating.

Our human nature is ideal for our adaptation into the environments of the world, and its element of consciousness enables us to adapt into the environment of the Kingdom of God too. We have the best of both worlds, but that doesn't make it easy. Tendencies developed from the former must be set aside for our adaptation into the latter.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Raptor Eye:
Our human nature is ideal for our adaptation into the environments of the world, and its element of consciousness enables us to adapt into the environment of the Kingdom of God too. We have the best of both worlds, but that doesn't make it easy. Tendencies developed from the former must be set aside for our adaptation into the latter.

I don't think that's the right way to think about it at all. It is really quite hard to fall into sin by following the promptings of the body or our adaptation into the environments of the world (assuming that by 'world' you mean what our human nature adapts us for rather than the sinful social structures that the Bible calls the world). If we followed the promptings of the body exclusively we'd perhaps be a bit lazier than we ought, and perhaps a bit more sexually active but I think less so than we're inclined to imagine. Sin is mostly a function of consciousness.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Sin is mostly a function of consciousness.

Oh boy oh boy oh boy.

That jumps out at me.

Makes sense on a first impression basis too - we don't think animals are sinful do we?
 
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on :
 
I would say that human nature is not necessarily sinful - Jesus had/has a human nature and yet was without sin. What we have done is to make human nature sinful. And that is what we need sanctification for - to cleanse the heart of sin.

One day when we see him face to face 'we shall be like him.' Our human nature will no longer be sinful.
 
Posted by Talitha (# 5085) on :
 
BTW, the NIV 2011 has gone back to "flesh" rather than "sinful nature".
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Article IX. Of Original or Birth Sin

quote:
Original sin standeth not in the following of Adam, (as the Pelagians do vainly talk;) but it is the fault and corruption of the Nature of every man, that naturally is engendered of the offspring of Adam; whereby man is:
and therefore in every person born into this world, it deserveth God's wrath and damnation.

And this infection of nature doth remain, yea in them that are regenerated; whereby the lust of the flesh, called in Greek phronema sarkos (which some do expound as:
is not subject to the Law of God.

And although there is no condemnation for them that believe and are baptized; yet the Apostle doth confess, that concupiscence and lust hath of itself the nature of sin.

So, it would seem that the traditional Anglican position is that the flesh or 'sinful nature' is "an infection of nature whereby human beings are 1) very far gone from original righteousness, 2) naturally inclined to evil, and 3) not subject to the Law of God. This infection of nature affects human beings at the level of our 1) thoughts, 2) physical appetites, 3) emotional responses, and 4) will."

The flesh or sinful nature is a way of saying that sin, to some degree, affects every aspect of what it is to be human. Or, to put it another way, the flesh is human nature in which the image of God is in every respect fatally marred and in need of healing.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Talitha:
BTW, the NIV 2011 has gone back to "flesh" rather than "sinful nature".

I think that's a positive move because it requires the preacher to explain clearly, indeed perhaps even 'translate', the concept as he or she preaches.
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by alienfromzog:
IIRC the doctrine of Original sin is generally ascribed to St Francis of Assisi.

Irenaeus? Augustine?
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by alienfromzog:
IIRC the doctrine of Original sin is generally ascribed to St Francis of Assisi.

Irenaeus? Augustine?
See above.... I mean Augustine. Brain-malfunction
[Hot and Hormonal] [Hot and Hormonal] [Hot and Hormonal]

AFZ
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
We are born in to an alienated, lost, broken, ignorant, world. That'll do it. No sin gene necessary. Which would make us all blameless robots.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
We are born in to an alienated, lost, broken, ignorant, world. That'll do it. No sin gene necessary. Which would make us all blameless robots.

That's the Orthodox position as I understand it.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
I think this question starts to move into the areas that biology, psychology and anthropology probably have at least as much to say, i.e., what is the nature of humanity.

It is quite clear that we are by nature selfish, don't postpone immediate needs and desires well, and we compete with each other and the environment. We have a biological nature that drives us into competition, violence and war, and that also makes us altruistic, kind and tender. From this perspective, we can decide because we have brains, to restrain our basic instincts, or not.

This makes me say that we have only possibility to do wrong and to sin, and also the possibility not to. We have to choose, both broadly in terms of a direction for our lives, and in each situation we find ourselves in. Myself, I have been struggling since very young not to let my temper control some of what I do and say. It is within my genes and social learning growing up to have developed this response, and also to have learned that I should try not to.

quote:
Carl Sagan, "Contact"

You're an interesting species. An interesting mix. You're capable of such beautiful dreams, and such horrible nightmares. You feel so lost, so cut off, so alone, only you're not. See, in all our searching, the only thing we've found that makes the emptiness bearable, is each other.”


 
Posted by The Undiscovered Country (# 4811) on :
 
As said in the OP, the NIV uniquely and unhelpfully uses the phrase. 'sinful nature'. The use of t phrase 'the flesh' in some other translations isn't ideal either but it gets closer to the biblical concept.

When we become a Christian we then become a new creation. All our sin, past, present and future is forgiven. We do not have two natures in competition with one another. What we do have is a body that is as subject to the effects of the Fall as everything else in creation. That is why in the New Testament the constant exhortation is to stand firm in what Christ has already done by making right choices even if our body and mind is shouting something else.

However its really important to stress that this doesnot mean that bodies are evil. That i a traditional Greek worldview rather than a biblical one. When God restores everything that will includes new bodies, not spirits floating around on clouds

[ 23. September 2012, 18:58: Message edited by: The Undiscovered Country ]
 
Posted by HCH (# 14313) on :
 
I like this thread.

Human beings are certainly capable of sin, as we have free will. Is sin inevitable for us? Maybe an analogy is that if you attempted to walk on a very narrow mountain path, you would be likely to slip, sooner or later. Some people could manage it for a long time, but most would slip fairly soon. When you do slip, you can try to catch yourself and recover, or you can fall a long way.

There's a difference between "inevitable" and "very likely". Don't simply hope to defy the odds; accept that you are likely to make mistakes and try to detect your mistakes early and then recover.
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not asking if we're sinful. One look at the Romney campaign confirms that. I'm asking if we have a sinful nature.

Is this a question about what it objectively the case, like asking if the blood in us circulates, or is a question about how we want to describe human nature, more like whether we want to call our selves Homo sapiens.

If it's the first sort of question I have no idea how you would answer it. If it's the second sort I want to know what difference the options before us make, that is, what's at stake, what would be do differently in either case?
 
Posted by The Undiscovered Country (# 4811) on :
 
I don't think you can separate it into two questions like that. The issue of whether we have a sinful nature and the issue of how we would describe human nsture surely fundamentally need to flow from the same root answer.

[ 23. September 2012, 19:36: Message edited by: The Undiscovered Country ]
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
Well, if you could discover our 'real' nature you would certainly have to describe it according to what you discovered. I suppose my question reveals my belief that it isn't that sort of a thing, that what we are talking about is agreeing (or not) how we are going to describe human nature. Human nature is what it is, and we're all first-hand experts in it, but how are we going to evaluate it?

If children are believed to be essentially wicked, then you might, as people once seem to have done, try to break their spirit with physical violence. If you think children are essentially good, then you would treat them with respectful guidance rather than punishment.

If we agree that human nature is sinful, then I think we are legitimating a certain sort of society. If we agree that human nature is not sinful, though our behaviour may often be, then we're making the case for a different sort of society.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
I find it astounding that, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary, people still seem to think that human beings are essentially good. I honestly believe that this unwillingness to truly take responsibility for our radical sinfulness is itself strong evidence of that very sinfulness.
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
It is pretty crazy, I agree, but that's faith, in my opinion, it's loving my neighbour, it's seeing Jesus in the prisoner and the beggar, it's John 3:16 and 17.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
I'm not entirely sure that I see any meaningful difference between saying that we have a sinful nature and saying that we are born into a world that is essentially broken, and our response to that is sinful. From some metaphysical height unavailable to mere mortals, there may be a difference. But ISTM that we choose which we wish to embrace based on our ideological predilictions, not on any evidence that would be open to us.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by hatless:
It is pretty crazy, I agree, but that's faith, in my opinion, it's loving my neighbour, it's seeing Jesus in the prisoner and the beggar, it's John 3:16 and 17.

I'm sorry but don't understand what you're getting at. Are you suggesting that God is favourably disposed towards the world because it's not really that bad? Are you suggesting that our command to love our neighbour is rooted in the fact that our neighbour somehow deserves to be loved because they are essentially rather good?

[ 23. September 2012, 20:05: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Sin is mostly a function of consciousness.

Oh boy oh boy oh boy.

That jumps out at me.

Makes sense on a first impression basis too - we don't think animals are sinful do we?

No, we don't - but not because we wouldn't consider their behaviors sinful if they were moral agents.

When a subadult male chimp rapes a female chimp because it's his only way to have sex with anyone (the females being attracted to the alpha male), we don't call them sinners, but one would also hope that this is not God's will for chimpanzees.

When a male lion or barnyard domestic cat kills a female's baby (that isn't his) so she'll be open to mating again (and hopefully mate with him), we don't call it sinful, but again, it can't be God's will for God's creatures.

That's what I was getting at when I said we learned as a species to do sinful acts before we were moral agents. Both the above examples enhance the male's chances of passing on his genes, so to the degree that his behavior is affected by genes, that behavior is also more likely to get passed on (if he's successful). Our ancestors didn't survive and beat out competing species (or individuals within the same species) by being saints.

But the same capacity that makes us moral agents (and therefore sinners) also makes us aware that this is not the way we really want to, or ought to, be - at least if we're socialized correctly and have all our faculties intact.

So is the nature we inherited from our pre-human ancestors a sinful nature?
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I find it astounding that, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary, people still seem to think that human beings are essentially good. I honestly believe that this unwillingness to truly take responsibility for our radical sinfulness is itself strong evidence of that very sinfulness.

I'm back to the Carl Sagan quote I posted above. We're capable of beautiful dreams and terrible nightmares. To further develop this... We must constantly choose between good and evil, and we will 'grow into' either an evil nature or a good nature. The basic 'original sin' idea is at leasr somewhat of a corruption toward considering sin and evil as our nature first. Anyone who has held a newborn must reject this. I think of the basic potentiality that we have is for both. The key bit additionally being that we have not got the capacity to sustain the good, without doing wrong, via independent individual efforts.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I find it astounding that, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary, people still seem to think that human beings are essentially good. I honestly believe that this unwillingness to truly take responsibility for our radical sinfulness is itself strong evidence of that very sinfulness.

I'm back to the Carl Sagan quote I posted above. We're capable of beautiful dreams and terrible nightmares. To further develop this... We must constantly choose between good and evil, and we will 'grow into' either an evil nature or a good nature. The basic 'original sin' idea is at leasr somewhat of a corruption toward considering sin and evil as our nature first. Anyone who has held a newborn must reject this.
I have held three of my own newborn children and quite a few others and I don't feel any imperative to accept the conclusion you reach.

On the contrary, I have never actively chosen to teach my children to be evil and yet - from time to time - I do see the effects of sin emerging in their characters and behaviour. And, tragically, I have to admit that they have seen the same in me as well.

[ 23. September 2012, 20:52: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I'm sorry but don't understand what you're getting at. Are you suggesting that God is favourably disposed towards the world because it's not really that bad? Are you suggesting that our command to love our neighbour is rooted in the fact that our neighbour somehow deserves to be loved because they are essentially rather good?

God is favourably disposed towards the world because He created it, loves it and sustains it. Our command to love our neighbours is irrespective of their worth in human eyes and derives from their worth as creatures of God, who he created, loves and sustains.

quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
we don't think animals are sinful do we?

At some point in the evolution of the human brain, we develpoed imagination. That is the ability to step outside ourselves, and imagine what it's like to be the victim. That is the knowledge of good and evil. daronmedway's quote from Article IX, "
and therefore in every person born into this world, it deserveth God's wrath and damnation " just about encapsulates everything I loathe about this form of Christianity. We are not born deserving wrath and damnation. We are born with choices, in every moment, whether to do right or wrong, which can be discerned, in most cases, by following the golden rule.

Though we don't always live up to that ideal, we can confess our sins privately to God, or sacramentally, and receive the sanctifying power of His Body and Blood in our lives.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Raptor Eye:
Our human nature is ideal for our adaptation into the environments of the world, and its element of consciousness enables us to adapt into the environment of the Kingdom of God too. We have the best of both worlds, but that doesn't make it easy. Tendencies developed from the former must be set aside for our adaptation into the latter.

I don't think that's the right way to think about it at all. It is really quite hard to fall into sin by following the promptings of the body or our adaptation into the environments of the world (assuming that by 'world' you mean what our human nature adapts us for rather than the sinful social structures that the Bible calls the world). If we followed the promptings of the body exclusively we'd perhaps be a bit lazier than we ought, and perhaps a bit more sexually active but I think less so than we're inclined to imagine. Sin is mostly a function of consciousness.
As I have said, consciousness is the essential factor by which we're able to adapt into the Kingdom of God. Without it we wouldn't know sin.

What is sin if not a corruption of those aspects of our human nature there for good reason so that we're able to adapt to the world? We eat to live, but if we overeat we sin. We fight to survive, but if we murder we sin. We have the need to procreate, but if we have sex with everything that moves we sin. We seek comfort, but if we steal to provide it we sin. We desire power, but if we harm others to obtain it we sin....
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:
When a subadult male chimp rapes a female chimp because it's his only way to have sex with anyone (the females being attracted to the alpha male), we don't call them sinners, but one would also hope that this is not God's will for chimpanzees.

The lifecycles of many animals feature what looks like non-moral evil as a component - e.g. the way in which many male mammals exhaust themselves in the rutting season. But many of those features are specific to those animal species' biology and instincts.
For example, chimpanzees and bonobos have huge testicles - their males are highly sexed and they're evolved to pump out large quantities of semen to drown out any other semen that might be in the female's reproductive system. Gorillas on the other hand have much smaller testicles and are not nearly so promiscuous. A gorilla male can be relatively sure that all the children of a female he mated with are his.
Humans, for what it's worth, are somewhere in the middle.

In other words, the biological nature human beings have is not the same as that chimpanzees have. What is natural to chimpanzees is not necessarily natural to humans. One case in point: human eyes have whites. Chimpanzee eyes don't. It's much easier for a chimpanzee to conceal what he or she is looking at from another chimpanzee than it is for a human to do the same. It's in our biological nature to share what we're looking at just by looking at it.

The feminist primatologist and anthropologist Hrdy points out that among chimpanzees a baby left unattended would be killed by a male chimpanzee almost immediately. This is true among most primates, except marmosets and humans. Among marmosets males put in a high amount of childcare - that might indicate that it's natural for human males to do the same.
The one big result evolutionary psychology has achieved is to show that human children are far more likely to be killed by stepparents than by natural parents. Hrdy points out that from the perspective of primatology the stunning feature is that stepparents are mostly not a threat to children's survival.
And this is clearly a feature of our biological nature. Chimpanzee mothers can't put their babies down without the baby being killed by a passing male, but they don't need to carry them in their arms because their babies cling on to their hair. Human mothers have no hair to cling to, so they have to be able to put their babies down. Humans couldn't have largely hairless bodies if our children weren't safe from passing males.
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
I was taught, as an Anglican, that we are sinful by nature. I still, as Orthodox, believe this. We now call it "Ancestral Sin", but it is the same thing.

Two points:
  1. Ancestral Sin is removed at baptism. We still are "sinful by nature", but it is no longer "Ancestral Sin", it is "sin after Baptism."
  2. I don't (and never have) believe in "original guilt" - that is that we are born guilty of our forefathers' sins.

It is interesting that Roman Catholics now teach prettymuch the same thing in their catechism, although it has changed since the dogma of the Immaculate Conception.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I find it astounding that, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary, people still seem to think that human beings are essentially good. I honestly believe that this unwillingness to truly take responsibility for our radical sinfulness is itself strong evidence of that very sinfulness.

I've known people who are, notwithstanding occasional lapses, indeed not essentially good. I've known others who, notwithstanding occasional lapses, pretty much are.

And the vast majority who can amaze you with their kindness one day and be caught with their hands in someone else's pants the next.
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
'Scuse the double post, but there's one more thing I need to add:

If we were not "sinfull by nature", why would it be necessary for Christ to be unique? That is to say, without sin?
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by hatless:
It is pretty crazy, I agree, but that's faith, in my opinion, it's loving my neighbour, it's seeing Jesus in the prisoner and the beggar, it's John 3:16 and 17.

I'm sorry but don't understand what you're getting at. Are you suggesting that God is favourably disposed towards the world because it's not really that bad? Are you suggesting that our command to love our neighbour is rooted in the fact that our neighbour somehow deserves to be loved because they are essentially rather good?
Well, you said

quote:
I find it astounding that, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary, people still seem to think that human beings are essentially good.
You're saying that there is overwhelming and growing evidence that people are far from good, that people are very bad. It's not what I see, but the implication I draw, perhaps wrongly, from your evaluation of human nature is that people are therefore not lovable. Perhaps you are able to love those you think are wicked. I find that hard. I generally find I need to appreciate good things in people in order to love them. Those I find hard to love, I have to get to know better and learn to empathise with in order to love them.

But I'm clear that the gospel does tell me to love my neighbour. Part of this, I think, is finding the good in them.

As it happens I am repeatedly staggered by the actions and lives of loyalty, love, imagination, commitment and courage that I see around me, and I'm heartened that people still find acts of violence hard to come to terms with.
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Undiscovered Country:
As said in the OP, the NIV uniquely and unhelpfully uses the phrase. 'sinful nature'.

Haha, yes I'd forgotten that my Anglican church used the NIV when I did my confirmation classes!
 
Posted by balaam (# 4543) on :
 
If Christ could have human nature and not be sinful then it ain't the nature that's sinful.

Of course this begs the question, "Where did the sin come from?"
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by hatless:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not asking if we're sinful. One look at the Romney campaign confirms that. I'm asking if we have a sinful nature.

Is this a question about what it objectively the case, like asking if the blood in us circulates, or is a question about how we want to describe human nature, more like whether we want to call our selves Homo sapiens.
The former. In specific, if we reify something called a "human nature" -- which theologians sometimes do -- is it a sinful nature? Or alternately do we have two natures, one of which is our "human nature" and one of which our "sinful nature"?

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I find it astounding that, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary, people still seem to think that human beings are essentially good. I honestly believe that this unwillingness to truly take responsibility for our radical sinfulness is itself strong evidence of that very sinfulness.

You could call this the "Life of Brian Paradox." If you say you're the messiah, you're the messiah. If you deny that you're the messiah, you're showing the type of humility that proves you're the messiah. So here, if you deny that we're essentially evil, that proves we're essentially evil. It's a bit on the circular side as arguments go.

Because the truth of the matter is, you can find evidence that will point in either direction. Which is to say, you can find abundant evidence of human evil, and also abundant evidence of human good. I think you have to have an a priori dedication to the "human nature is essentially evil" viewpoint to miss the evidence for human goodness. Neither selection of evidence is "overwhelming" merely due to the existence and scope of the evidence for the other side.

quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
If we were not "sinful by nature", why would it be necessary for Christ to be unique? That is to say, without sin?

Because we were sinful, but not by nature.

It wasn't necessary for Christ to be unique in the sense that God had a checklist of things that Christ needed to be, and that was one of the points on it. Christ is uniquely sinless because he is God-made-Man and God is sinless.

quote:
Originally posted by balaam:
If Christ could have human nature and not be sinful then it ain't the nature that's sinful.

Yes! Exactly my point! Thank you!
 
Posted by HughWillRidmee (# 15614) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Zacchaeus:
Human beings are made in God’s image as thinking, sentient beings, born with free will. Sorry if this is tangental, but do you actually think that your god has, always has, free will?

Sin comes when we try to use that free will for our own wishes and not God’s.
Two points

1 - then why doesn't god make it clear what his wishes are, and

2 - presumably you accept that those who are incapable of knowing god's will are also incapable of sin.

Our sinful human nature is that we are incapable of not following our own will and desires, the only human who ever only followed the will of God was Jesus. So if we
a) don’t know that we are following our own will and
b) don’t know what god’s will for us is

or just follow god's will as we understand it because that's the understanding we have been taught (suicide bombers?)

???

Seems like a rigged deck to me


 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:

So is the nature we inherited from our pre-human ancestors a sinful nature?

Is evolutionary biology sinful?

Is it not God's will that nature operates as it does? If not, why not? Did nature "fall" too like human beings?

I suspect that's the wrong question.

Nature just is. It only isn't if there is choice involved I suppose.

And consciousness provides that choice in humans?

*shrug*.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
If I commit one sinful act I'm defined as a sinner. But if I commit one righteous act, I'm not defined as righteous. Why is that?
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
If we were not "sinful by nature", why would it be necessary for Christ to be unique? That is to say, without sin?

Because we were sinful, but not by nature.
OK mousethief - let me ask you a straightforward Orthodox question - what do we mean by "Ancestral Sin?"
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
I dislike the Protestant expression of Original Sin because it implies everyone is doomed because of something Adam did. Which seems to feed into Calvinism by giving a reason for everyone to be damned.

My view is that people are generally ambivalent. Most people are not particularly bad, not particularly good. Most people have to make a spectacular amount of effort to be really bad or good.

But then I guess I'd say that we're flawed - so our ambivalence is actually a failure, a death-by-a-thousand-cuts, a curve which tends towards bad things.

I don't really believe that it can be shown that our brokenness is all pervasive, in that we are capable of doing amazing things, both individually and corporately. But somehow this greatness is tempered by a rotten core, somehow even in the midst of great accomplishment we fail to live up to our own ideals of humanity.

And another thing whilst I'm here - when we talk about Jesus being perfect, what actually do we mean? Inability to get things wrong is not the same as being sinless.

Imagine the scene: Jesus in a school classroom. His teacher is testing the children on their times tables. He asks Jesus a difficult question - is he able to get it wrong? Or is he unable to because he is perfect?
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by balaam:
If Christ could have human nature and not be sinful then it ain't the nature that's sinful.

I don't think that's right. It suggests to me that humanity is corruptible: it can be sinful, in which case the image of God is marred so that we are very far gone from original righteousness and naturally inclined to evil. Humans no longer operate from a point of moral neutrality. We don't choose either good or evil from a perfect middle point. Imagine a sliding scale with righteousness at one end and wickedness at the other. The natural orientation of sinful humanity is away from righteousness and toward wickedness. This is the basic essence of sin. Sin isn't just about deeds, it's about dispositions, inclinations and proclivities. This is why we often find ourselves contemplating opportunities for sin, rather than our next act of righteousness, when we're alone in the house...

quote:
Of course this begs the question, "Where did the sin come from?"

From the Fall.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Sin isn't just about deeds, it's about dispositions, inclinations and proclivities.

According to your theory, Adam would have been "morally neutral" before he disobeyed God. Correct?

Yet, he disobeyed.

Why?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
If we were not "sinful by nature", why would it be necessary for Christ to be unique? That is to say, without sin?

Because we were sinful, but not by nature.
OK mousethief - let me ask you a straightforward Orthodox question - what do we mean by "Ancestral Sin?"
The Orthodox teach that humankind was made in the image and likeness of God, but as a result of the fall, while we still bear his image, we have lost his likeness. That is, we aren't like God; not in the way our first parents were before the parseltongued apple peddler incident. The image of God is thus obscured, although not blotted out. We are still in his image; that is, the human nature is not changed.

Because we no longer bear his likeness, we fall too easily into committing sins (plural, sinful deeds), and we are subject to death. Once we are fully theosified, this will no longer be the case.

It is strongly stressed that we did not inherit Adam's guilt. We don't have to invent a Limbo for infants to go to if they die unbaptised. What we inherit is the lack of likeness, which translates into proclivity to sin, and death.

But really I've probably mangled this badly; it's after midnight and I'm on pain meds. We need the Scrumpmeister to set it straight.

(To add: This is far from a straightforward question!)

[ 24. September 2012, 08:17: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Sin isn't just about deeds, it's about dispositions, inclinations and proclivities.

According to your theory, Adam would have been "morally neutral" before he disobeyed God. Correct?

Yet, he disobeyed.

Why?

Not morally neutral but in righteous submission to God: positively good. He disobeyed because he, along with his wife, allowed himself to be deceived into a state of unrighteousness rebellion against God: they became positively evil.

[ 24. September 2012, 08:37: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
If I commit one sinful act I'm defined as a sinner. But if I commit one righteous act, I'm not defined as righteous. Why is that?

The way it was explained to me is: if you have a hanky with a dirty spot in the corner, that's a dirty hanky. If you have a hanky that's clean only in one corner, that's still a dirty hanky. Humanity is basically a curate's egg ...
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
If I commit one sinful act I'm defined as a sinner. But if I commit one righteous act, I'm not defined as righteous. Why is that?

The way it was explained to me is: if you have a hanky with a dirty spot in the corner, that's a dirty hanky. If you have a hanky that's clean only in one corner, that's still a dirty hanky. Humanity is basically a curate's egg ...
But people aren't hankies.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
The way it was explained to me is: if you have a hanky with a dirty spot in the corner, that's a dirty hanky. If you have a hanky that's clean only in one corner, that's still a dirty hanky. Humanity is basically a curate's egg ...

How is it a curate's egg? That implies humanity is incapable of doing anything good.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
If I commit one sinful act I'm defined as a sinner. But if I commit one righteous act, I'm not defined as righteous. Why is that?

The way it was explained to me is: if you have a hanky with a dirty spot in the corner, that's a dirty hanky. If you have a hanky that's clean only in one corner, that's still a dirty hanky. Humanity is basically a curate's egg ...
But people aren't hankies.
True. (And welcome back, by the way!)

But there's a fairly long tradition of comparing sin to dirt.

I suppose the key is that, wherever you fall on the scale between sinful and righteous, there is always a moral imperative to head further towards the righteous pole. It is fairly uncontroversial to say "It's better to be 100% righteous than 98% righteous", whatever one's religious convictions and whether or not you believe that's actually feasible. Similarly, it's better for a hanky to be 100% clean than 99% clean.

Contrast (say) the red-yellow spectrum, where if something is a bit orangey, there's no moral imperative to say "ooh, it ought to be more red".

In other words, the sin-righteous spectrum is analogous to the dirty-clean spectrum, rather than the red-yellow spectrum.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the long ranger:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
The way it was explained to me is: if you have a hanky with a dirty spot in the corner, that's a dirty hanky. If you have a hanky that's clean only in one corner, that's still a dirty hanky. Humanity is basically a curate's egg ...

How is it a curate's egg? That implies humanity is incapable of doing anything good.
The curate's egg is 'good in parts'. The point of the joke, though, is that an egg that's good in parts is in fact a bad egg. Similarly, a human who's righteous in parts is in fact sinful.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Sin isn't just about deeds, it's about dispositions, inclinations and proclivities.

According to your theory, Adam would have been "morally neutral" before he disobeyed God. Correct?

Yet, he disobeyed.

Why?

Not morally neutral but in righteous submission to God: positively good. He disobeyed because he, along with his wife, allowed himself to be deceived into a state of unrighteousness rebellion against God: they became positively evil.
Why would he allow himself to be deceived if he was previously in righteous submission to God and positively good?

Would that not indicate a failure or a weakness on the part of his positive goodness and supposed perfect relationship with God?
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
If I commit one sinful act I'm defined as a sinner. But if I commit one righteous act, I'm not defined as righteous. Why is that?

Imagine standing on very high bridge. If you jumped off you would fall all the way down to the ground. Now, imagine that you are standing on the ground looking up at a very high bridge. If you tried to jump up onto the bridge you would only manage a few feet. Righteousness is like being on a high bridge: you can leap from it, but you can't leap to it. You can become a sinner by "falling from grace" but you cannot become a saint by leaping to righteousness.

Now the bone of contention is this: are people born on the bridge or on the ground? Orthodoxy seems to suggest that we are born on the bridge and each fall from grace when we first sin. Protestantism, on the other hand, believed that our first parents "fell" from the bridge and "died" and their children (i.e. humanity) are all born on the ground.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
The curate's egg is 'good in parts'. The point of the joke, though, is that an egg that's good in parts is in fact a bad egg. Similarly, a human who's righteous in parts is in fact sinful.

Yes, I am aware of the term 'curate's egg' and what it means.

I'm asking you how that works with regard to humanity, in that it would appear to suggest that humanity is incapable of doing anything good. It'd be nice if you now answered the question.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Sin isn't just about deeds, it's about dispositions, inclinations and proclivities.

According to your theory, Adam would have been "morally neutral" before he disobeyed God. Correct?

Yet, he disobeyed.

Why?

Not morally neutral but in righteous submission to God: positively good. He disobeyed because he, along with his wife, allowed himself to be deceived into a state of unrighteousness rebellion against God: they became positively evil.
Why would he allow himself to be deceived if he was previously in righteous submission to God and positively good?

Would that not indicate a failure or a weakness on the part of his positive goodness and supposed perfect relationship with God?

Yes, that's right. Our first parents were righteous but not glorified.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the long ranger:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
The curate's egg is 'good in parts'. The point of the joke, though, is that an egg that's good in parts is in fact a bad egg. Similarly, a human who's righteous in parts is in fact sinful.

Yes, I am aware of the term 'curate's egg' and what it means.

I'm asking you how that works with regard to humanity, in that it would appear to suggest that humanity is incapable of doing anything good. It'd be nice if you now answered the question.

I don't understand what you're asking. I thought I had answered your question, which was 'How is humanity a curate's egg'?. Lyda*Rose asked why something that is mostly righteous is still called sinful. I answered that it was an analogous to an egg, which is still bad even when it's mostly good (as it were).

If you tell me how 'good in parts' implies 'incapable of doing anything good', I might be able to answer you.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I don't understand what you're asking. I thought I had answered your question, which was 'How is humanity a curate's egg'?. Lyda*Rose asked why something that is mostly righteous is still called sinful. I answered that it was an analogous to an egg, which is still bad even when it's mostly good (as it were).

If you tell me how 'good in parts' implies 'incapable of doing anything good', I might be able to answer you.

So you are saying that humanity is capable of doing good things whilst at the same time being a rotten (sinful) egg?

I guess I'm thinking of Calvin's Total Depravity in that calling something a bad egg would appear to imply that it is rotten and therefore incapable of doing anything good.

But then that doesn't appear to be what you are saying, which is why I asked the question.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the long ranger:
So you are saying that humanity is capable of doing good things whilst at the same time being a rotten (sinful) egg?

I guess I'm thinking of Calvin's Total Depravity in that calling something a bad egg would appear to imply that it is rotten and therefore incapable of doing anything good.

But then that doesn't appear to be what you are saying, which is why I asked the question.

The good bits of the egg correspond to good deeds, and the bad bits to sinful deeds - in other words, the goodness/badness isn't about potential to do good, but about actual good already done. Sorry, that was a bit confusing.

But to be honest the 'curate's egg' was a throwaway line rather than a deeply considered point - my 'real' analogy was the dirty hanky one.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Most people do not understand the doctrine of Total Depravity. For some this a well meaning misunderstanding. For others it is wilful and ingrained misrepresentation.

Total Depravity does not mean "Completely Evil". It means that sin has, to some extent or another, affected every aspect of our humanity. It is the simple assertion, in positive terms, that there is no inviolate core of essential goodness at the heart of the human condition. It is the belief that sin runs through the whole of who we are like the word Blackpool runs through a stick of seaside rock. A stick of rock is not all "Blackpool" but "Blackpool" is present throughout the stick. A person is not all sin but sin is present throughout the person. This why the term Root Corruption is often used instead of Total Depravity.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Why would he allow himself to be deceived if he was previously in righteous submission to God and positively good?

Would that not indicate a failure or a weakness on the part of his positive goodness and supposed perfect relationship with God?

Yes, that's right. Our first parents were righteous but not glorified.
Adam is righteous, positively good and in perfect accord with God yet still allows himself to sin.

That's obviously a pretty significant design fault.

Therefore the first sin is God's fault.

God made us this way.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Total Depravity does not mean "Completely Evil".

No, but that is a fine distinction because being apart from God means rebellion which means eternal death. Which would be the definition of evil to many.

quote:
It means that sin has, to some extent or another, affected every aspect of our humanity. It is the simple assertion, in positive terms, that there is no inviolate core of essential goodness at the heart of the human condition. It is the belief that sin runs through the whole of who we are like the word Blackpool runs through a stick of seaside rock. A stick of rock is not all "Blackpool" but "Blackpool" is present throughout the stick. A person is not all sin but sin is present throughout the person. This why the term Root Corruption is often used instead of Total Depravity.
That may well be the way you use the term, but is not the way many Calvinists use it. Many imply that original sin means that mankind is incapable of doing anything good outwith of God.

And then when you point out things that mankind has done which are objectively morally neutral or good in themselves, they change the goalposts by saying that ultimately they can't be good because they are rebellion against God.

To me, the issue is to do with levels. There are many good things on one level, but at a deeper level there are few things which have no moral connotations.

For example, creativity in fashion is a good thing. But the fashion industry depends on millions of badly paid workers.

Or you might say that space exploration is a good thing, but then also wonder whether the money could have been spent on relieving human suffering.

And I don't actually think it makes any difference being a Christian, these darker levels are present in almost everything we do. The only novel thing about Christianity seems to have been to offer a way for individuals to wash their hands of the responsibility for these things.

Which in one sense is no bad thing, given that many of these things are intractable problems. On the other hand, it seems to have given many people a license to close their ears to their own impacts on the world and people around them.
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
The dirty hanky analogy worries me because I don't think wrongdoing and virtue are like that. I don't think that what counts is never ever being soiled by even a little bit of sin. There are, after all, many people whose lives give little opportunity for sinning, yet I don't think their restraint counts for much.

What does count, for me, is the actions of, for example, someone deeply involved in a time of war - a soldier, perhaps. They will find themselves in morally ambiguous situations, but choosing this course of action rather than another might have great consequences for good or harm at great personal cost. They could do a fine and shining deed, whilst also being in another sense compromised by the situation they were in. (I'm imagining, for example, that they were called on to join in a raid on a village, but they managed to prevent their squad from indulging in a massacre.) Their hanky is dirty, but morally their stature towers above that of someone whose hanky is clean because they weren't in the war or stayed at home that day.

I think that morality and sin has to be be more about accepting our responsibilities, about being a mature human being, rather than simply not doing a bad thing.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
I guess I also see the influence of some pretty dodgy thinking here - the suggestion being that the Almighty is somehow tied down by human sin to the extent that he is incapable of mixing with the sinful. Which implies that human sinfulness is toxic to God.

I believe the reverse it actually true. I prefer to think of God* as an antiseptic, capable of disinfecting any sin.

*on a good day. currently I'm not sure whether this is just wishful thinking.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
@daronmedway

Yep. Total Depravity does not mean "you are totally depraved". But I think it is a most unfortunate phrase, as misused by many who favour it as those who don't.

I argued recently on another thread here that the language of human imperfection is often very binary, more's the pity. mousethief and I share an admiration for an observation from Solzhenitsyn (Gulag Archipeligo Book 2) in which he speaks graphically about the non-binary nature of evil in human beings - as something the best and worst of us share. I'm sure that's a better way of looking at it. Awareness of good an evil (however we may seek to define those terms) suggests a spectrum of behaviour, rather than neat classifications. Falling short of the mark provokes the inevitable question "by how much?".

Oh, sure, I've heard the sermons about "not grading sin". Which doesn't make any real difference to this central point. A counsel of perfection is itself binary.

Pastorally, I've met far too many victims of "total depravity" teaching (misteaching if you like) to be comfortable about it any more. Folks frightened by their own shadows, immobilised by the fear of error or failure. I know that was never the intention of the reformers, but there it is. It fosters fear so easily, rather than helps to cast it out (as perfect love is designed to do).

[ 24. September 2012, 10:10: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by hatless:
The dirty hanky analogy worries me because I don't think wrongdoing and virtue are like that. I don't think that what counts is never ever being soiled by even a little bit of sin. There are, after all, many people whose lives give little opportunity for sinning, yet I don't think their restraint counts for much.

That is true. But suppose we were to say that the clean hankies got clean by heroic efforts of death-defying laundering and extreme ironing? -- I suppose the problem is that there is then no state of hanky cleanliness that corresponds to moral neutrality.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Why would he allow himself to be deceived if he was previously in righteous submission to God and positively good?

Would that not indicate a failure or a weakness on the part of his positive goodness and supposed perfect relationship with God?

Yes, that's right. Our first parents were righteous but not glorified.
Adam is righteous, positively good and in perfect accord with God yet still allows himself to sin.

That's obviously a pretty significant design fault.

Therefore the first sin is God's fault.

God made us this way.

Some people would call this design fault "free will" and would be inclined to uphold it as a gift of God's grace.

Others do not believe that the concept of "free will" is ultimately a very helpful way of thinking about the issue. What about you?
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Why would he allow himself to be deceived if he was previously in righteous submission to God and positively good?

Would that not indicate a failure or a weakness on the part of his positive goodness and supposed perfect relationship with God?

Yes, that's right. Our first parents were righteous but not glorified.
Adam is righteous, positively good and in perfect accord with God yet still allows himself to sin.

That's obviously a pretty significant design fault.

Therefore the first sin is God's fault.

God made us this way.

Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
What about you?

Cross posted.

But I think I answered this in the last post.

The doctrine of the fall does not adequately explain sin.

It does not answer the "why" question.
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
Sir Jimmy Saville, in his book "God'll Fix It" explained how he saw our state before God as being like a score card. For all our good deeds and all our bad deeds we get a positive or a negative score. Our good deeds can never outwiegh our bad deeds, so our score will always be in the red, so to speak. That's how I understand "sinful nature." That's not the same as Total Depravity of course.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
Sir Jimmy Saville...

Sorry Mark, you lost me at the point where you started quoting Jimmy Saville..
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the long ranger:
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
Sir Jimmy Saville...

Sorry Mark, you lost me at the point where you started quoting Jimmy Saville..
OK, let's try:

Sir Cliff Richard...

These are/were just men who wrote about these things the way they seemed to them. They were not theological intellectuals, that's why it's good to hear things from their side every now and again.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
quote:
Originally posted by the long ranger:
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
Sir Jimmy Saville...

Sorry Mark, you lost me at the point where you started quoting Jimmy Saville..
OK, let's try:

Sir Cliff Richard...

These are/were just men who wrote about these things the way they seemed to them. They were not theological intellectuals, that's why it's good to hear things from their side every now and again.

Why?
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
Why?

It's the work of subversive intellectuals which cause us to have these threads, which invariably end up in Dead Horses, and prevent us growing in Christ. That's why.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
Why?

It's the work of subversive intellectuals which cause us to have these threads, which invariably end up in Dead Horses, and prevent us growing in Christ. That's why.
Well obviously it's much better to look for insights from random "celebrity Christians" who just happen to be in the public eye and therefore their ideas, good, bad or indifferent, have an outlet?
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
Well obviously it's much better to look for insights from random "celebrity Christians" who just happen to be in the public eye and therefore their ideas, good, bad or indifferent, have an outlet?

The problem is when you infer that only intellectuals are worth listening to, which leads to the churches becoming small societies for their intellectual elite, while ordinary lay people have nothing to say that's considered worth hearing. "Celebrity Christians" fit this latter class, but people listen to them because they are celebrities, and because what they say can easily be related to by common people.

So... bring on the celebrity christians - footballers included!
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
Well obviously it's much better to look for insights from random "celebrity Christians" who just happen to be in the public eye and therefore their ideas, good, bad or indifferent, have an outlet?

The problem is when you infer that only intellectuals are worth listening to, which leads to the churches becoming small societies for their intellectual elite, while ordinary lay people have nothing to say that's considered worth hearing. "Celebrity Christians" fit this latter class, but people listen to them because they are celebrities, and because what they say can easily be related to by common people.

So... bring on the celebrity christians - footballers included!

Surely I'm doing the implying here, and you're doing the inferring?

It's not that "celebrity Christians" have nothing worth saying, merely that there's less reason to expect any particular insight out of them more than from, say, mates down the pub, who have the advantage of knowing me and my circumstances already.

Certainly I can't recall ever reading anything from these guys and finding it a majorly positive insight.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mark Betts:
It's the work of subversive intellectuals which cause us to have these threads, which invariably end up in Dead Horses, and prevent us growing in Christ. That's why.

Ah yes, of course it is.

You know you don't have to post here, don't you?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.

Adam had the ability to sin, but that doesn't mean he had the proclivity, which is "A tendency to choose or do something regularly." You can do things you don't have a proclivity to do.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.

Adam had the ability to sin, but that doesn't mean he had the proclivity, which is "A tendency to choose or do something regularly." You can do things you don't have a proclivity to do.
Right. It takes a woman to push you over the edge...

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Snerk.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.

Adam had the ability to sin, but that doesn't mean he had the proclivity, which is "A tendency to choose or do something regularly."
I agree. Am I right in thinking that Orthodoxy teaches that Adam was created as a 'work in progress' in the sense that he was without sin but in some sense not fully perfected? When I say perfected I don't mean morally better, I mean being fully glorified as Jesus, the second Adam, is now glorified?

[ 24. September 2012, 17:04: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.

Adam had the ability to sin, but that doesn't mean he had the proclivity, which is "A tendency to choose or do something regularly."
I agree. Am I right in thinking that Orthodoxy teaches that Adam was created as a 'work in progress' in the sense that he was without sin but in some sense not fully perfected? When I say perfected I don't mean morally better, I mean being fully glorified as Jesus, the second Adam, is now glorified?
That POV makes more sense to me than Original Sin™. If the first humans' moral compass was so open to glitches and tampering that the whole human race would be forfeit because one action had a domino effect, God would seem to be a wussy and inept Creator. If, on the other hand, God intended us to experience the consequences of our own free will, then make himself available to teach us again and again what he intends for us, inviting us to open ourselves in our pain to the Godhead's healing mercies, that is a great and good God.

(Besides, a hankie that always stays spotlessly clean has never been used as a hankie. [Biased] )
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Am I right in thinking that Orthodoxy teaches that Adam was created as a 'work in progress' in the sense that he was without sin but in some sense not fully perfected? When I say perfected I don't mean morally better, I mean being fully glorified as Jesus, the second Adam, is now glorified?

Yes. In fact we teach that even had our first parents not fallen, our Lord would have incarnated to join the human and divine natures in himself, for our glorification and for our theosis. The incarnation is NOT just about appeasing an angry God.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Am I right in thinking that Orthodoxy teaches that Adam was created as a 'work in progress' in the sense that he was without sin but in some sense not fully perfected? When I say perfected I don't mean morally better, I mean being fully glorified as Jesus, the second Adam, is now glorified?

Yes. In fact we teach that even had our first parents not fallen, our Lord would have incarnated to join the human and divine natures in himself, for our glorification and for our theosis.
That sounds appealing, logical and consistent with the nature of God's character but isn't it straying into the realms of speculation a little? Is there any evidence in the bible for it? Do the church fathers teach it? And if so, how do they justify such belief?
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.

Adam had the ability to sin, but that doesn't mean he had the proclivity, which is "A tendency to choose or do something regularly."
OK, but will glorified and deified people have the ability to sin but not the proclivity to sin? Or might Augustine be correct in thinking that the glorified will be incapable of sin, just as Christ (who is the freest being of all) in incapable of sin?

[ 24. September 2012, 19:49: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That sounds appealing, logical and consistent with the nature of God's character but isn't it straying into the realms of speculation a little? Is there any evidence in the bible for it? Do the church fathers teach it? And if so, how do they justify such belief?

That I do not know. I haven't studied it beyond what I said.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
OK, but will glorified and deified people have the ability to sin but not the proclivity to sin? Or might Augustine be correct in thinking that the glorified will be incapable of sin, just as Christ (who is the freest being of all) in incapable of sin?

This also I do not know. Talk about speculation! [Cool]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Or to put it more simply, the doctrine of original sin or "the fall" does not explain our proclivity to sin.

Adam had it before the first sin.

Adam had the ability to sin, but that doesn't mean he had the proclivity, which is "A tendency to choose or do something regularly." You can do things you don't have a proclivity to do.
Fine. Don't use the word proclivity.

The point still stands however.

Adam was in perfect communion with God and he was perfectly good.

For some bizarre reason, he decided he wants to disobey God.

We do not know why Adam "allowed" himself to do this (as daronmedway said).

We explain our own sinfulness by referring to original sin. "We are sinful because of what Adam did and our natures have somehow been changed or corrupted".

But we don't know why Adam sinned, so we do not know why we sin.


<tangent. In terms of biblical evidence for Adam's nature "changing" or "becoming sinful" or an ontological change occurring so that every human being after him was sinful - there is no evidence for that... That is pure Christian conjecture started by Paul.>
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
We explain our own sinfulness by referring to original sin. "We are sinful because of what Adam did and our natures have somehow been changed or corrupted".

Speak for yourself.

quote:
But we don't know why Adam sinned, so we do not know why we sin.
There's some equivocation going on here. If I have always watched my mother do something the same way, and I do it, then I know good and well why I do it. Because my mother taught me to. I don't need to know why SHE did it.

quote:
<tangent. In terms of biblical evidence for Adam's nature "changing" or "becoming sinful" or an ontological change occurring so that every human being after him was sinful - there is no evidence for that... That is pure Christian conjecture started by Paul.>
This isn't a tangent. It's the reason I started the thread.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:


quote:
But we don't know why Adam sinned, so we do not know why we sin.
There's some equivocation going on here. If I have always watched my mother do something the same way, and I do it, then I know good and well why I do it. Because my mother taught me to. I don't need to know why SHE did it.

Speak for yourself.

If you don't know then you just blindly accept and it could quite easily be wrong.

Adam didn't have a mother anyways.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

quote:
<tangent. In terms of biblical evidence for Adam's nature "changing" or "becoming sinful" or an ontological change occurring so that every human being after him was sinful - there is no evidence for that... That is pure Christian conjecture started by Paul.>
This isn't a tangent. It's the reason I started the thread.
According to the Genesis narratives, Adam's sin causes him to be chucked out of an idyllic garden and into a world that was difficult.

That's it. There is no speaking of "Adam's human nature changed".

Paul says all die in Adam in Romans, but what he means by this is not clear.

It can only mean spiritual death (because Adam was not created immortal), but according to the Genesis narrative, I don't see spiritual death - I just see Adam and Eve being put into a world that is more difficult to live in.

I suppose that could mean spiritual death (because suffering and pain can separate us from God) but again, the Old Testament narratives do not talk about things in those terms.
 
Posted by balaam (# 4543) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
OK, but will glorified and deified people have the ability to sin but not the proclivity to sin? Or might Augustine be correct in thinking that the glorified will be incapable of sin, just as Christ (who is the freest being of all) in incapable of sin?

Have to disagree with Augustine here.

If Christ was fully human he had to be capable of sin, though he didn't. How else do you interpret the temptation in the wilderness?
 
Posted by Arminian (# 16607) on :
 
quote:
According to the Genesis narratives, Adam's sin causes him to be chucked out of an idyllic garden and into a world that was difficult.That's it. There is no speaking of "Adam's human nature changed".
I don't think that's the case, although its normally preached that way. The narrative in Genesis doesn't say that.

16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat: 17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

So its the knowledge of good and evil that is the problem identified here not Adam's sin. Adam was told not to obtain that ability. Its interesting to speculate what mankind would be like without it. Probably no different from the animals and without a conscience.

22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever: 23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.

This knowledge of good and evil (the addition of a conscience) makes us more like God, not less ! We had a body that is like the animals with desires that are selfish, but we now have a knowledge of good and evil and can be held responsible for our behavior. God says we can't be allowed to live forever in this state (which is why we're banned from the tree of life).

24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.

Originally our lifespan was much longer, but God got fed up with striving with us and shortened it. 3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.

The original sin view, and Calvin's total depravity doctrine are both incorrect IMO. In fact you could argue that until the law was given there was no penalty for sin - Cain didn't get put to death for murder.

These simplistic and wrong doctrines have tried to put forward the concept that humans are evil and utterly depraved. That's not what the Bible actually says.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
I couldn't agree more Arminian.

I've just found that the straightforward approach gets you nowhere. I try be more sneaky these days. [Big Grin]

The doctrine of original sin is not a biblical doctrine.

However, as an idea and an observation it has merit.

Something rather obviously aint right with the world and in us as human beings. We are far from perfect, nor will we ever be perfect.

Postmodernity unmasks modernity and the Enlightenment using this idea.

Bishop NT Wright has a lovely quote from this video on postmodernity

quote:
“Post-modernity is about announcing the Doctrine of the Fall to arrogant modernity. But the Fall is never the last word.

 
Posted by la vie en rouge (# 10688) on :
 
The explanation I heard of that whole deal in Genesis with the snake and the tree and all that business (which makes a lot of sense to me, at least):

In the surrounding cultures at the time that Genesis was written, the snake represents wisdom acquired independently of God. So he sneaks up to humanity and invites them to bypass God to acquire knowledge (by eating the fruit against his instructions). It doesn't mean that they were never intended to become wise, but that God wanted them to do so by knowing and trusting him - which, if I've understood rightly, seems to me to fit with the Orthodox idea that Adam had not yet achieved glorification. The initial sin of Adam basically amounts to striking out alone and telling God "I don't need you".
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by la vie en rouge:
In the surrounding cultures at the time that Genesis was written, the snake represents wisdom acquired independently of God.

Is there any verification of that? Or is it potentially one of those "eye of the needle" explanations made up out of whole cloth?
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
It could be. The symbolism of snakes is many-faceted.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
Snakes are a bit weird in the Bible.

Moses turned his staff into a snake, which ate the staffs of Pharaoh's court magicians (Exodus 7:8-11).

He also cured snakebites in the desert by telling the Israelites to look at a bronze snake (Numbers 21:4-9). The Israelites called it Nehushtan and offered sacrifices to it until Hezekiah smashed it (2 Kings 18:4).
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Arminian:
[QUOTE]The original sin view, and Calvin's total depravity doctrine are both incorrect IMO. In fact you could argue that until the law was given there was no penalty for sin - Cain didn't get put to death for murder.

These simplistic and wrong doctrines have tried to put forward the concept that humans are evil and utterly depraved. That's not what the Bible actually says.

Arminian, with respect, I really don't think you understand the doctrine of total depravity. I've posted up-thread a simple explanation of the doctrine. As it stands, the doctrine you reject is a theological straw man. Would you please take look at what I said and consider revising your view of what the doctrine of total depravity is actually saying?

Secondly, I think the word "knowledge" in the Genesis narrative is more about "intimate acquaintance with" than it is about head knowledge or the faculty of categorical discrimination. Knowing evil for Adam is about his becoming intimately aquainted with evil, its power, its servants and its effects.

[ 25. September 2012, 11:26: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Secondly, I think the word "knowledge" in the Genesis narrative is more about "intimate acquaintance with" than it is about head knowledge or the faculty of categorical discrimination. Knowing evil for Adam is about his becoming intimately aquainted with evil, its power, its servants and its effects.

If that is your understanding, then Adam would have also become intimately acquainted with good, its power, its servants and its effects.

Far more than the previous "good" he had experienced when he was righteous and in correct relationship with God.

No? The scripture says he knew good and evil.

How then, does this square with the doctrine of original sin and Calvin's total depravity?
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Arminian:
quote:
According to the Genesis narratives, Adam's sin causes him to be chucked out of an idyllic garden and into a world that was difficult.That's it. There is no speaking of "Adam's human nature changed".
I don't think that's the case, although its normally preached that way. The narrative in Genesis doesn't say that.

16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat: 17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

So its the knowledge of good and evil that is the problem identified here not Adam's sin. Adam was told not to obtain that ability. Its interesting to speculate what mankind would be like without it. Probably no different from the animals and without a conscience.

The implausibility of your conclusion seems to disprove your thesis.

As I suggested the post above, I think the concept of 'knowledge' in the Genesis narrative is about much more than head knowledge and categorical discrimination. I think it's about our first parents becoming acquainted with evil, its power, its servants and their schemes in a corrupting way. The fall of our first parents led to humanity being acquainted with both good and evil in a way which brings the inner spiritual dissonance which we call 'the flesh'.

The flesh is the turning from acquaintance with only good towards towards acquaintance with evil and the apparent pleasures of rebellion. It is the quintessential spiritual adultery.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Secondly, I think the word "knowledge" in the Genesis narrative is more about "intimate acquaintance with" than it is about head knowledge or the faculty of categorical discrimination. Knowing evil for Adam is about his becoming intimately aquainted with evil, its power, its servants and its effects.

If that is your understanding, then Adam would have also become intimately acquainted with good, its power, its servants and its effects.

Far more than the previous "good" he had experienced when he was righteous and in correct relationship with God.

No? The scripture says he knew good and evil.

How then, does this square with the doctrine of original sin and Calvin's total depravity?

I think our first parents were already acquainted with good: they knew God and God knew them. The fall was about adding a forbidden acquaintanceship with evil. The original sin was about seeing acquaintanceship with evil, its servants, its power and its effects as desirable.

One way of looking at the doctrine of TD is that our acquaintance with evil has, to one degree or another and in different degrees in different people, affected every aspect of what it is to be human. It doesn't mean that all people are as evil as they can possibly be; it simply means that to some variable extent evil has affected every aspect of who we are as people.

[ 25. September 2012, 15:06: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I think our first parents were already acquainted with good: they knew God and God knew them. The fall was about adding a forbidden acquaintanceship with evil.

That's fine if you believe that. But your belief is not based on scripture.

Genesis 2 and 3 is pretty clear on what the fruit does. It gives knowledge of good AND evil.

quote:
Then the Lord God said, ‘See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil

 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I think our first parents were already acquainted with good: they knew God and God knew them. The fall was about adding a forbidden acquaintanceship with evil.

That's fine if you believe that. But your belief is not based on scripture.

Genesis 2 and 3 is pretty clear on what the fruit does. It gives knowledge of good AND evil.

quote:
Then the Lord God said, ‘See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil

That's a surprisingly literalist hermeneutic for you Evensong!

Are you really suggesting that our first parents had no acquaintance with God and his love prior to eating the fruit? I really can't see that idea supported by Scripture and would therefore respectfully suggest that you rethink your position.

[ 25. September 2012, 15:31: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I think there is an ambiguity there. You could say it gives you knowledge of good AND it gives you knowledge of evil. But you could say it gives you knowledge of good-and-evil, which is different from and additional to knowledge of good.

But, pace daron, you could also say that Adam and Eve were surrounded by, and embraced in, good, but didn't realize it was good per se, and couldn't realize it was good until they knew what evil was. Sort of (but not perfectly) like not realizing you have an accent until you meet people with a different accent.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
But, pace daron, you could also say that Adam and Eve were surrounded by, and embraced in, good, but didn't realize it was good per se, and couldn't realize it was good until they knew what evil was. Sort of (but not perfectly) like not realizing you have an accent until you meet people with a different accent.

Which, if it were the case, would make faith that what God says they are experiencing truly is better than any alternative. Faith not because they have no genuine experience of good, but because they have no experience of evil with which to gauge the verity of God's word. So the righteous do indeed live by faith.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That's a surprisingly literalist hermeneutic for you Evensong!

That's not a literalist hermeneutic daronmedway, that's just looking at what the bible actually says.

To fit your hermeneutic, it would need to say:

Out of the ground the Lord God made to grow every tree that is pleasant to the sight and good for food, the tree of life also in the midst of the garden, and the tree of the knowledge of evil.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Are you really suggesting that our first parents had no acquaintance with God and his love prior to eating the fruit?

Not at all.

The knowledge of good and evil is a different thing than knowledge of God's love.

A different state of affairs has occurred. Adam and Eve have now become more like God.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Evensong:
quote:
The knowledge of good and evil is a different thing than knowledge of God's love.

A different state of affairs has occurred. Adam and Eve have now become more like God.

Albeit a version with lots of bugs and glitches and in need of major patches.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
@ Evensong

I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality. However, there was a time in my childhood when I had no knowledge of my virginity or singleness: and yet I was both of those things.

It is possible that our first parents knew God, who is good and the source of all goodness, before they chose to become acquainted with evil in the same way as a child is a child before they gain knowledge of other ways of being.

And for the record, it's an analogy and I am not suggesting in any way that sexuality or marriage are evil.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
There's quite a lot to be said for the "Adam was a child" view. It does, however, have the unfortunate effect of making God look (to modern eyes) a pretty nasty creator/parent. Eating the apple when told not to looks like "hands in the cookie jar". Ten minutes on the naughty step, no pocket money for a week. Followed by tears, hug, reassurance of love, don't talk to strangers offering sweets etc.

The child analogy kind of breaks down big time at the point.

Oh I know. Major, major anachronisms and cultural assumptions in the picture I paint. But that's my point, really. A plain reading of the story is pretty incomprehensible to modern, unchurched, eyes. Particularly since it has occupied such a central position in our narrative about the nature of God and the nature of human beings.

Come to think of it, it's a sizeable problem for those of us with churched eyes. I've said before that my own view is that the OT books provide us with a developing understanding of the nature of God. Maybe they also provide us with a developing understanding of human nature as well?

In short, I'm not sure that a detailed parsing of this story in isolation provides us with definitive views about God-nature, or human-nature. It does tend to confirm than the human author saw these things rather differently to us.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That's a surprisingly literalist hermeneutic for you Evensong!

That's not a literalist hermeneutic daronmedway, that's just looking at what the bible actually says.
Now, if I'd said that I'd be accused of the most heinous kind of evangelical double-think. [Confused]

[ 26. September 2012, 07:37: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
But, pace daron, you could also say that Adam and Eve were surrounded by, and embraced in, good, but didn't realize it was good per se, and couldn't realize it was good until they knew what evil was. Sort of (but not perfectly) like not realizing you have an accent until you meet people with a different accent.

Which, if it were the case, would make faith that what God says they are experiencing truly is better than any alternative. Faith not because they have no genuine experience of good, but because they have no experience of evil with which to gauge the verity of God's word. So the righteous do indeed live by faith.
That is a very interesting way of looking at it! Sincerely.
 
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I think there is an ambiguity there. You could say it gives you knowledge of good AND it gives you knowledge of evil. But you could say it gives you knowledge of good-and-evil, which is different from and additional to knowledge of good.

But, pace daron, you could also say that Adam and Eve were surrounded by, and embraced in, good, but didn't realize it was good per se, and couldn't realize it was good until they knew what evil was. Sort of (but not perfectly) like not realizing you have an accent until you meet people with a different accent.

Yes, this view has been taken by some psychological interpretations of Adam and Eve, for example, by Jungians. The idea of 'felix culpa' can then be seen in a psychological way, that humans became conscious (and self-conscious), which is a mixed blessing.

Rather reminds me of Paul saying that the law brought him to sin, another interesting paradox about the dawning of consciousness.

I also find the idea that A and E have become more like God very intriguing. It's surprising what happens when one actually reads the text!

[ 26. September 2012, 09:31: Message edited by: quetzalcoatl ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
Evensong:
quote:
The knowledge of good and evil is a different thing than knowledge of God's love.

A different state of affairs has occurred. Adam and Eve have now become more like God.

Albeit a version with lots of bugs and glitches and in need of major patches.
They haven't become God. They've become more like God.

Then the Lord God said, ‘See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil

Sentience is a divine attribute.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
@ Evensong

I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality. However, there was a time in my childhood when I had no knowledge of my virginity or singleness: and yet I was both of those things.

I don't really understand your analogy here daron. You weren't a virgin or single when you were a child because those categories were irrelevant - not on the radar. As knowledge of good and evil were irrelevant to Adam and Eve before their eyes were opened.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

It is possible that our first parents knew God, who is good and the source of all goodness, before they chose to become acquainted with evil in the same way as a child is a child before they gain knowledge of other ways of being.

I think the biblical record testifies to the fact that they did know God. They walked in the garden together - they hung out.

But then something happened. . . . the eyes of both were opened ( and then God cast them out)

I haven't compared the vocabulary in the Greek, but it's awfully similar to the Emmaeus road story.

Luke 24:31 Then their eyes were opened, and they recognized him; and he vanished from their sight.

They acquired a new wisdom, a new understanding. As a child gains new ways of being perhaps?

They grew up.

The mystery is why God was angry.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That's a surprisingly literalist hermeneutic for you Evensong!

That's not a literalist hermeneutic daronmedway, that's just looking at what the bible actually says.
Now, if I'd said that I'd be accused of the most heinous kind of evangelical double-think. [Confused]
I'm not familiar with the term double-think. But wiki says its accepting two mutually contradictory beliefs as correct?

If that's true then you have misunderstood my definitions.

A "literalist hermeneutic" is an interpretation that does not take into account social, historical and canonical context.

What "the bible actually says" is the words on the page - without interpretation.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
OK
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
OK? OK? That's all you got for me?? [Big Grin]

ok
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
Evensong:
quote:
The knowledge of good and evil is a different thing than knowledge of God's love.

A different state of affairs has occurred. Adam and Eve have now become more like God.

Albeit a version with lots of bugs and glitches and in need of major patches.
They haven't become God. They've become more like God.

Then the Lord God said, ‘See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil

Sentience is a divine attribute.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
@ Evensong

I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality. However, there was a time in my childhood when I had no knowledge of my virginity or singleness: and yet I was both of those things.

I don't really understand your analogy here daron. You weren't a virgin or single when you were a child because those categories were irrelevant - not on the radar. As knowledge of good and evil were irrelevant to Adam and Eve before their eyes were opened.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

It is possible that our first parents knew God, who is good and the source of all goodness, before they chose to become acquainted with evil in the same way as a child is a child before they gain knowledge of other ways of being.

I think the biblical record testifies to the fact that they did know God. They walked in the garden together - they hung out.

But then something happened. . . . the eyes of both were opened ( and then God cast them out)

I haven't compared the vocabulary in the Greek, but it's awfully similar to the Emmaeus road story.

Luke 24:31 Then their eyes were opened, and they recognized him; and he vanished from their sight.

They acquired a new wisdom, a new understanding. As a child gains new ways of being perhaps?

They grew up.

The mystery is why God was angry.

I think Adam and Eve were sentient before the fall, Evensong.

I think my analogy is understandable. Barnabas seems to get my point, but it's not above criticism. I grant you that.

Adam and Eve didn't acquire anything new or good by eating the fruit. They certainly didn't become like God in any positive sense. Any reading which suggests that Adam and Eve benefited from becoming acquainted with evil in addition to their acquaintance with God must, I think, be false.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality. However, there was a time in my childhood when I had no knowledge of my virginity or singleness: and yet I was both of those things.

The problem with this analogy is that you knew those things existed. YOu had no experiential knowledge of them, to be sure, but you had intellectual knowledge of them. You knew they existed, and you knew something about them. A&E had no such knowledge of evil.

quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
They grew up.

The mystery is why God was angry.

One explanation I heard is that they weren't yet ready. God intended them to know, to grow up, but not at that time. Thus he gave them a rule -- their only prohibition -- to not eat of that tree.

quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
A "literalist hermeneutic" is an interpretation that does not take into account social, historical and canonical context.

What "the bible actually says" is the words on the page - without interpretation.

This is staggering.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality. However, there was a time in my childhood when I had no knowledge of my virginity or singleness: and yet I was both of those things.

The problem with this analogy is that you knew those things existed. YOu had no experiential knowledge of them, to be sure, but you had intellectual knowledge of them. You knew they existed, and you knew something about them. A&E had no such knowledge of evil.
Yes, the analogy is problematical as Barnabas has already pointed out. It's certainly possible to extend it in a way which makes it say things that I wouldn't wish to say.

And I agree with you with regard to A & E having no knowledge, whether experiential or intellectual, of evil prior to the fall. I also think it is possible, as you suggest, that Adam and Eve existed in the experiential milieu of God's love prior to the fall. However, I think my basic point still stands: it is possible that A & E new good without knowing evil prior to the fall. The task of A & E was to accept by faith God's word that knowing both good and evil would damage them. This would make the original sin, the sin of unbelief.

[ 26. September 2012, 15:45: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I have read people talking about us having a "sinful nature" but that doesn't seem right to me. We have a human nature. But we don't have some second nature called the "sinful nature."

IIRC the NIV translates σαρξ as "sinful nature" but that's the NIV. Another reason not to use it.

So where does this idea of a "sinful nature" come from? Can it be placed in the Scriptures? the Fathers? the Traditions of the Church?

For me, it comes from looking at the spam and phishing in my e-mail inbox, and the need to keep my virus checker and firewall up to date.

Seriously.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
daronmedway

Yes, I got your point and you seem to have taken mine.
 
Posted by Mark Betts (# 17074) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
...However, I think my basic point still stands: it is possible that A & E knew good without knowing evil prior to the fall. The task of A & E was to accept by faith God's word that knowing both good and evil would damage them. This would make the original sin, the sin of unbelief.

Yes, this sounds good to me. [Overused]
 
Posted by Mere Nick (# 11827) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

But, pace daron, you could also say that Adam and Eve were surrounded by, and embraced in, good, but didn't realize it was good per se, and couldn't realize it was good until they knew what evil was. Sort of (but not perfectly) like not realizing you have an accent until you meet people with a different accent.

Likewise, fish don't know they are wet.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:


Adam and Eve didn't acquire anything new or good by eating the fruit. They certainly didn't become like God in any positive sense.

In which case, there must some attributes of God that are bad; knowledge being one of them.

Because the text quite clearly says they became more like God.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I have read people talking about us having a "sinful nature" but that doesn't seem right to me. We have a human nature. But we don't have some second nature called the "sinful nature."

IIRC the NIV translates σαρξ as "sinful nature" but that's the NIV. Another reason not to use it.

So where does this idea of a "sinful nature" come from? Can it be placed in the Scriptures? the Fathers? the Traditions of the Church?

For me, it comes from looking at the spam and phishing in my e-mail inbox, and the need to keep my virus checker and firewall up to date.

Seriously.

Seriously, no. You can think mankind is sinful because of this or that occurrence. But that doesn't dictate the philosophical construct you use to explain or define that sinfulness. You can think we're fucked up without thinking we have a fucked-up nature.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:


Adam and Eve didn't acquire anything new or good by eating the fruit. They certainly didn't become like God in any positive sense.

In which case, there must some attributes of God that are bad; knowledge being one of them.

Because the text quite clearly says they became more like God.

Do you really think God's "knowledge" of evil was something good that he was withholding from Adam and Eve? That was Satan's line, Evensong.

Or do you think there might be some drawbacks to being God?

I don't think that there are any aspects of God that are bad but I do think there are some aspects of being God that are burdensome.

God is grieved by evil, its servants, their works and their effects, but - because he's God - he isn't corrupted by them. Not so with humanity. Hence his desire to protect A & E from acquaintance with evil and its servants.

[ 27. September 2012, 06:41: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I have read people talking about us having a "sinful nature" but that doesn't seem right to me. We have a human nature. But we don't have some second nature called the "sinful nature."

IIRC the NIV translates σαρξ as "sinful nature" but that's the NIV. Another reason not to use it.

So where does this idea of a "sinful nature" come from? Can it be placed in the Scriptures? the Fathers? the Traditions of the Church?

For me, it comes from looking at the spam and phishing in my e-mail inbox, and the need to keep my virus checker and firewall up to date.

Seriously.

You can think we're fucked up without thinking we have a fucked-up nature.
I'm finding it hard to differentiate between the categories that you identify here, mousethief. What's the difference between human beings collectively saying 'we're sinful' and 'we have a sinful nature'? Both seem to be saying 'there is something sinful about us'.

[ 27. September 2012, 09:39: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Do you really think God's "knowledge" of evil was something good that he was withholding from Adam and Eve? That was Satan's line, Evensong.

No it wasn't Satan's line daron. It was the serpents line. Satan comes quite a bit later in the biblical tradition.

And it wasn't the serpent's line. The serpent's line was to reiterate God's directive: the tree gives knowledge of good and evil.

Ten points for your interpretation as I haven't heard it before but as I said previously, it cannot be substantiated by the text of Genesis. It is a tree of knowledge of good and evil, not just evil.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

I don't think that there are any aspects of God that are bad but I do think there are some aspects of being God that are burdensome.

God is grieved by evil, its servants, their works and their effects, but - because he's God - he isn't corrupted by them. Not so with humanity. Hence his desire to protect A & E from acquaintance with evil and its servants.

You are being anachronistic again here.

The story doesn't mention any of that. That is your speculation.

Evil as a being does not exist in the Old Testament until later. Sin in the old testament is disobedience. There is no outside external force exerting pressure upon the people of Israel to disobey their God. They do this purely on their own via disobedience.

And your statement also disagrees with the doctrine of original sin. Sin only enters the world after Adam disobeys. Before this, there is no hint of sin or evil in the garden with God.

Or do you think God created evil just for the hell of it before we disobeyed?

If so, one wonders why God would want or need to create evil at the beginning of the world.

It certainly isn't in the Genesis accounts of creation.
 
Posted by the long ranger (# 17109) on :
 
It's a story. You're all reading far too much into it.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
@ Evensong

I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality.

That's experience, not knowledge.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Do you really think God's "knowledge" of evil was something good that he was withholding from Adam and Eve? That was Satan's line, Evensong.

No it wasn't Satan's line daron. It was the serpents line. Satan comes quite a bit later in the biblical tradition.

And it wasn't the serpent's line. The serpent's line was to reiterate God's directive: the tree gives knowledge of good and evil.

It is a tree of knowledge of good and evil, not just evil.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

I don't think that there are any aspects of God that are bad but I do think there are some aspects of being God that are burdensome.

God is grieved by evil, its servants, their works and their effects, but - because he's God - he isn't corrupted by them. Not so with humanity. Hence his desire to protect A & E from acquaintance with evil and its servants.

You are being anachronistic again here.

The story doesn't mention any of that. That is your speculation.

Evil as a being does not exist in the Old Testament until later. Sin in the old testament is disobedience. There is no outside external force exerting pressure upon the people of Israel to disobey their God. They do this purely on their own via disobedience.

And your statement also disagrees with the doctrine of original sin. Sin only enters the world after Adam disobeys. Before this, there is no hint of sin or evil in the garden with God.

Or do you think God created evil just for the hell of it before we disobeyed?

If so, one wonders why God would want or need to create evil at the beginning of the world.

It certainly isn't in the Genesis accounts of creation.

I'm with John the Revelator who identifies the ancient serpent as the devil or Satan (Revelation 20:2).

So I submit to to you that the serpent/devil/Satan's line was:
quote:
“For God knows that when you eat from it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil.”Genesis 3:5
It always a good idea to look for craftiness in anything the serpent says to A & E because, after all, he described as 'crafty' (Genesis 3:1). I take this description to mean some kind of malicious intent, by the way. What about you?

I've already explained why the "tree of the knowledge of good and evil" does not necessarily mean that A & E had no experience or knowledge of God's goodness prior to eating its fruit. The stress could easily fall on the and. It could be about how unbelief - born of listening to Satan - moved our first parents from a state harmony with their good creator (righteousness by faith) into a state of ontological dichotomy and conflict (the rebellion of unbelief).

I think that scripture does support the idea that evil existed before the fall, yes. I also think (as mentioned) that Apostolic teaching holds that to be the case because the serpent is identified as the devil or Satan who a created angelic being in rebellion against God. Which is evil, don't ya know? [Biased]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
@ Evensong

I don't think that's right. I was single before I married. Now I know singleness and marriage. I was a virgin before I had sexual intercourse for the first time. Now I know virginity and sexuality.

That's experience, not knowledge.
The OT concept of knowledge very much extends into experience (see Genesis 4:1!).
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the long ranger:
It's a story. You're all reading far too much into it.

It's fun. It's called theology. Basically we're using the Genesis narrative test out differing ideas concerning the nature of evil and the human condition. We're enjoying it. Well, at least two of us are anyway.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I'm finding it hard to differentiate between the categories that you identify here, mousethief. What's the difference between human beings collectively saying 'we're sinful' and 'we have a sinful nature'? Both seem to be saying 'there is something sinful about us'.

It has to do with the incarnation, which has already been mentioned on the thread above (which you read, right?). If our very nature is sinful, how can Christ have taken on our nature? Or if he did take it on, he sanctified it, so it is no longer sinful. The issue is human nature not human sinfulness which I think we all agree on -- no Christian Science practitioners here, I don't believe.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
I suppose it depends on whether you hold a traducian or a creationist view of the human soul. The traducian view allows for the soul of Christ to be categorically different to fallen humanity but no less human. The soul of Christ came from heaven. All other human souls - other than those of A & E - are inherited generationally from them via pro-creation.

[ 27. September 2012, 15:35: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Here's what Wiki has to say about Traducianism.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
That seems to have no bearing on the question at all. Determining the origin of each individual soul still doesn't answer the question of whether there is a human nature that is sinful, and the question of Christ uniting the divine and human natures in himself still stands.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
The to my shame I have say that I don't think I fully understand your question! So please bear with me. I'm not deliberately being obtuse. I take the word "nature" simply to mean the "how-we-areness" of humanity. The sinful nature or flesh is simply the "how-we-areness" of sinful humanity. I don't see it as a substance or "part" of what we are, like the body and the spirit are different "parts" of what we are.
 
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Seriously, no. You can think mankind is sinful because of this or that occurrence. But that doesn't dictate the philosophical construct you use to explain or define that sinfulness. You can think we're fucked up without thinking we have a fucked-up nature.

I wish I could agree. True, there are plenty of motives for sinning. In criminal trials, the case for the prosecution usually discusses a motive and is relatively weak if it can't find one on the defendant's part.

In computer viruses etc., we can see offensive, and probably criminal, conduct. But what is difficult to explain is why a well-educated and dazzlingly intelligent total stranger would be go to the trouble of so ingeniously attacking your computer or mine. Where's the payoff?

Hackers (in the authentic good sense) built the Internet, and to some extent our computer software in general, with noble, altruistic intentions and high hopes for its benefit to mankind. But they were rather naive, I daresay because few were Christians. (An old friend of mine, who was justly proud of his hacker honorific and knew the scene well, said that Guy Steele and Donald Knuth were the only two famous hackers in America who were practicing Christians.) They assumed that we were as a species getting better all the time, and that their marvelous project would contribute to this ongoing process. So they didn't build in enough safeguards, and look what happened. Evil began crawling in through the cracks like insect life almost immediately.

A process of elimination leaves me with "nature" as the most viable explanation.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
The to my shame I have say that I don't think I fully understand your question! So please bear with me. I'm not deliberately being obtuse. I take the word "nature" simply to mean the "how-we-areness" of humanity. The sinful nature or flesh is simply the "how-we-areness" of sinful humanity. I don't see it as a substance or "part" of what we are, like the body and the spirit are different "parts" of what we are.

Maybe this is an Orthodox thing that we do not share in common with the West. I thought it was universal; I see now that I was mistaken.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
mousethief, maybe this involves the glorious Trinity of ontology, image and likeness?

We are born in the image of God.

The goal of the Christian life is to seek the likeness of God.

Within protestantism, this distinction (which is I think one of the characteristics of Orthodoxy) is not generally seen. "Image" and "likeness" are generally semantically interchangeable within protestantism. I remember having a most enlightening discussion with you about that a few years ago.

Protestantism will tend to talk about the image of God in human beings as being marred, even obliterated, by sin. I think Orthodoxy sees the image as God-given, unable to be removed no matter what we do. But our behaviour, marred by sin, makes us very unlike God. Image of God is our birthright, God-likeness (theosis) our destiny. Meanwhile there is this behavioural challenge!

I'm hoping not to be talking nonsense hereabouts, but I think that is where you are coming from, and maybe that is what daronmedway is having difficulty with?

Do excuse me if "a little learning" has turned out to be a dangerous thing!
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Everything you say is true, Barnabas, about what the Orthodoxen teach. But what I'm speaking of is an additional thing.

We say that the human nature (φύσις, physis) and the divine nature were united in a single man, the God-man Jesus Christ. Hence the belief that Christ had only one nature, monophysitism, is heresy*.

When we say human φύσις, we mean a thing, something that exists, something we all share or partake of; it's not just a way of speaking of the how-we-are-ness of humanity. It wasn't that Christ was both "how we are" and "how God is."

Further Christ's uniting the human and divine natures, and taking our human nature up into heaven in His ascension, is part of our salvation, our glorification, our theosis -- "that [we] may be partakers of the divine φύσις" (2 Pet 1:4).

The divine φύσις is something we can partake of. It's not just "how God is."

So, yeah, human nature is for us more than "how we are." It's who we are, it's what we share, it's the thing that makes us human, it's the φύσις that Christ assumed in the Incarnation.

_________
*Whether or not the Oriental Orthodox are monophysites being a side question we needn't get into.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Thanks, mousethief, I get that.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We say that the human nature (φύσις, physis) and the divine nature were united in a single man, the God-man Jesus Christ. Hence the belief that Christ had only one nature, monophysitism, is heresy*.

When we say human φύσις, we mean a thing, something that exists, something we all share or partake of; it's not just a way of speaking of the how-we-are-ness of humanity. It wasn't that Christ was both "how we are" and "how God is."

Further Christ's uniting the human and divine natures, and taking our human nature up into heaven in His ascension, is part of our salvation, our glorification, our theosis -- "that [we] may be partakers of the divine φύσις" (2 Pet 1:4).

The divine φύσις is something we can partake of. It's not just "how God is."

So... human nature is for us more than "how we are." It's who we are, it's what we share, it's the thing that makes us human, it's the φύσις that Christ assumed in the Incarnation.

I don't think we're as far apart as you might think. I'm just struggling to express my understanding in a way that both answers your OP and that makes sense to you in Reformed terms. Perhaps that's not possible.

As it stands, I'm referring specifically to sarkos/soma with is translated 'flesh' (ESV & NIV2011) and 'sinful nature (NIV1984) rather than the φύσις that you mention here. I think there's a difference, and I'm fairly sure that Orthodoxy would say that there is too.

[ 28. September 2012, 07:48: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

[H]uman nature is for us more than "how we are." It's who we are, it's what we share, it's the thing that makes us human, it's the φύσις that Christ assumed in the Incarnation.

Would you bear with me on this please, while I try to think it through?

The translation of sarx as sinful nature in the NIV is quite controversial among certain evangelicals. This is probably why the NIV2011 has returned to "flesh".

I do not think that "the flesh", which I take to mean something like "the weakness of human life before and outside of Christ", is a constituent part of "being human". It's not part of our "human nature".

So I think I agree that "the flesh" does not denote a "part" of human nature. I do, however, think that the term "the flesh" refers to the "how-we-areness" of sin-enslaved humanity. I guess my question would be this: what does Paul mean by φύσις in Ephesians 2:3?

quote:
And you were dead in the trespasses and sins 2 in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience— 3 among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature (φύσις) children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.

English Standard Version. 2001 (Eph 2:1–3)


 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We say that the human nature (φύσις, physis) and the divine nature were united in a single man, the God-man Jesus Christ. Hence the belief that Christ had only one nature, monophysitism, is heresy.

Question: is there a difference between human ousia (essence or substance) and human physis? Or are the two terms basically synonymous?
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
The translation of sarx as sinful nature in the NIV is quite controversial among certain evangelicals. This is probably why the NIV2011 has returned to "flesh".

I do not think that "the flesh", which I take to mean something like "the weakness of human life before and outside of Christ", is a constituent part of "being human". It's not part of our "human nature".

So I think I agree that "the flesh" does not denote a "part" of human nature. I do, however, think that the term "the flesh" refers to the "how-we-areness" of sin-enslaved humanity. I guess my question would be this: what does Paul mean by φύσις in Ephesians 2:3?

quote:
And you were dead in the trespasses and sins 2 in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience— 3 among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature (φύσις) children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.

English Standard Version. 2001 (Eph 2:1–3)


Philo of Alexandria was a contemporary of Paul's and one of the greatest Jewish philosophers of all time. Philo was a Platonist, and saw the corruption of God's creation in Platonic terms -- God had a pure idea, but matter was not up to the task of supporting the Divine concept. I wonder whether Paul was aware of Philo's views (which seems rather likely to me), and if so, whether his notion of "flesh" as the corrupting element was influenced by Philo's thought.

--Tom Clune

[ 28. September 2012, 14:19: Message edited by: tclune ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
As it stands, I'm referring specifically to sarkos/soma with is translated 'flesh' (ESV & NIV2011) and 'sinful nature (NIV1984) rather than the φύσις that you mention here. I think there's a difference, and I'm fairly sure that Orthodoxy would say that there is too.

True. σαρξ is not φυσις.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I do not think that "the flesh", which I take to mean something like "the weakness of human life before and outside of Christ", is a constituent part of "being human". It's not part of our "human nature".

So I think I agree that "the flesh" does not denote a "part" of human nature. I do, however, think that the term "the flesh" refers to the "how-we-areness" of sin-enslaved humanity.

I think we're on the same page.

quote:
I guess my question would be this: what does Paul mean by φύσις in Ephesians 2:3?
Paul's use of φύσις is interesting. As somebody here pointed out, he starts Romans by (apparently) referring to Lesbian lust as being "against nature" (παρὰ φύσιν, 1:24); then by chapter 11 verse 24 he is saying that Gentiles becoming Christians is παρὰ φύσιν -- same phrase, same two words. παρὰ φύσιν might just mean "not what you'd expect." It certainly cannot mean "evil" or you and I shouldn't be Christians. It is, to put it mildly, confusing.

φύσις in Romans and also in this quote from Ephesians seems to be used almost as an adjective -- what's "natural." Whereas in the quote I gave earlier it is clearly being used as a noun, when he says we will become partakers of the divine φύσις.

I think it's very possible that the Fathers who created the concept of "one person in two natures" were reifying "nature" along Aristotelian lines, and moving the word away from a more homespun simplicity it has in Paul. But I'm not sure. I think Lamb Chopped would be better equipped to talk on this particular point than I.

quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
Question: is there a difference between human ousia (essence or substance) and human physis? Or are the two terms basically synonymous?

ουσιος is usually translated "substance." If I remember right, each individual person is a human ουσιος, but we all share (in) the human φύσις.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
Question: is there a difference between human ousia (essence or substance) and human physis? Or are the two terms basically synonymous?

ουσιος is usually translated "substance." If I remember right, each individual person is a human ουσιος, but we all share (in) the human φύσις.
My understanding was that ousia refers to 'what something is'. So Jesus is homoousios (of one ousia) with the Father, because they are both the same, um, the same kind of thing*, even though they are not the same individual.

Previously I had thought that ousia had a precise definition but that 'nature' did not. So that although it would be obviously incorrect to say that the human ousia is sinful, if someone says both that Jesus had a human nature and that human nature is sinful, that is not necessarily a contradiction but merely reflects the fact that 'nature' can be used in different senses.

However I had forgotten about the Monophysite controversy, the existence of which suggests that physis / 'nature' does have a precise definition.


* Note to outraged Thomists: I'm familiar with the idea that God is not a thing, but I can't think of any better way to express it.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
Question: is there a difference between human ousia (essence or substance) and human physis? Or are the two terms basically synonymous?

ουσιος is usually translated "substance." If I remember right, each individual person is a human ουσιος, but we all share (in) the human φύσις.
My understanding was that ousia refers to 'what something is'. So Jesus is homoousios (of one ousia) with the Father, because they are both the same, um, the same kind of thing*, even though they are not the same individual.
I think this is wrong. (LAMB CHOPPED WHERE THE HELL ARE YOU?!)

Jesus and the Father are the same substance or thing (God) but two different persons. They are neither of them individuals.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
I meant 'different individuals' only in the sense that Jesus is not the Father. Clumsily expressed again ...
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
one ousia (substance, essence,nature), three hypostases.

Hypostasis and ousia meant the same thing in secular Greek but the Cappadocian fathers changed the meaning.


The oxford reference online defines it thus:

quote:
Hypostasis (Gk.; pl. -ses). A technical term used in Christian formulations of the doctrine of the Trinity and of christology. In secular Gk. its most general meaning is ‘substance’, but it could also mean ‘objective reality’ as opposed to illusion (as in Aristotle), and ‘basis’ or ‘confidence’ (as in Hebrews 3. 14). In Christian writers until the 4th cent. it was also used interchangeably with ousia, ‘being’ or ‘substantial reality’. The term also came to mean ‘individual reality’ hence ‘person’. It was in this sense that it was enshrined, under the influence of the Cappadocian fathers, in the orthodox doctrine of the Trinity as ‘three hypostases in one ousia’.
Here's the whole thing in an amateur diagram.

Not sure about physis and some of the other terms but ousia and hypostasis seem basically correct.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Quite right, "ousion" means "being" and "hypostasis" means "substance" (both literally mean "to stand under"). So you can say each human being is a different being (hard not to!) but we all share the same nature.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
That was kind of the Cappadocian argument.

John, James and Peter are different hypostases but they all share the same human nature (ousia).

Tho they were accused of tritheism by some....
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Human nature is physis not ouisa.
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:

Here's the whole thing in an amateur diagram. [/QUOTE]
I find that diagram quite helpful, whether or not it is 'amateur.' I am going to bookmark it.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Quite right, "ousion" means "being" and "hypostasis" means "substance" (both literally mean "to stand under"). So you can say each human being is a different being (hard not to!) but we all share the same nature.

I'm not sure that is correct - AIUI although substantia is a literal calque of hypostasis, it is used to translate ousia. Hence the Nicene Creed in Latin uses the phrase consubstantialem Patri as a translation of ὁμοούσιον τῷ Πατρί 'of one being with the Father'. Hence also metousiosis as a translation of 'transubstantiation'.

[ 28. September 2012, 16:57: Message edited by: Ricardus ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:Paul's use of φύσις is interesting. As somebody here pointed out, he starts Romans by (apparently) referring to Lesbian lust as being "against nature" (παρὰ φύσιν, 1:24); then by chapter 11 verse 24 he is saying that Gentiles becoming Christians is παρὰ φύσιν -- same phrase, same two words. παρὰ φύσιν might just mean "not what you'd expect." It certainly cannot mean "evil" or you and I shouldn't be Christians. It is, to put it mildly, confusing.
I think he is probably referring to the natural olive branches (Jews) of Romans 11:21 and the 'unnatural' or wild olive branches (Gentile) of Romans 11:24 which both draw sustenance from the Covenant of Abraham: one naturally, the other by ingrafting.

But, as you say, that doesn't explain why Paul says that the whole of humankind Jewish and Gentile are "by nature objects of wrath" in Ephesians 2:3. The Reformed Catholic view of traditional Anglicanism suggests that sin can be likened to an "infection of nature" which makes humanity vulnerable to "the lust of the flesh", thereby creating a circularity of corruption in which, save for the intervention of God, sinful humanity is trapped.

However, Article XV speaking of Christ's sinless incarnation uses the following strange phrase "Christ in the truth of our nature was made like unto us in all things, sin only except, from which he was clearly void, both in his flesh, and in his spirit."

Could it be that this "truth of our nature" somehow expresses your conviction that human nature itself is not evil but that it has somehow been radically corrupted or infected by sin. The nature itself isn't intrinsically evil. Human nature has been corrupted by an alien power so that people experience lusts which are alien to the truth of their nature (original righteousness). The issue I guess is this: is there any part of human nature that remains inviolate, or is our whole nature infected. I think it's the second. An analogy would be to see human nature as a bowl of water into which some ink has been dropped. The ink spreads throughout the water, tainting it with its presence. Sin spreads through the whole nature tainting it with its presence but Christ takes on our nature sanctifying it with his presence.

[ 28. September 2012, 18:59: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I'm not sure that is correct - AIUI although substantia is a literal calque of hypostasis, it is used to translate ousia. Hence the Nicene Creed in Latin uses the phrase consubstantialem Patri as a translation of ὁμοούσιον τῷ Πατρί 'of one being with the Father'. Hence also metousiosis as a translation of 'transubstantiation'.

I will have to bow to your superior knowledge. Question: what, if anything, then, was used to translate metastasis?

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Sin spreads through the whole nature tainting it with its presence but Christ takes on our nature sanctifying it with his presence.

But if Christ has sanctified human nature then it is no longer infected through and through, is it? What God has made clean, etc. This is the whole lynchpin of my argument: Christ in his incarnation, by taking on our human nature, sanctified it. If it ever was "sinful" -- whether it was sinful in and of itself, or merely tainted whether in part or throughout the whole -- it has been sanctified/cleansed through Christ's entering into it.

[ 28. September 2012, 19:06: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Surely the answer is union with Christ? A human being must be mystically united to him in order to participate in his divine nature. In this respect there is still only one intrinsically sinless human being: Jesus Christ, the one to whom we must be united and one by whom we must be filled.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.

That doesn't sound very Monophysitistic to me. It sounds like you are dividing Christ's nature at a soteriological level.
 
Posted by balaam (# 4543) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
The Reformed Catholic view of traditional Anglicanism suggests that sin can be likened to an "infection of nature" which makes humanity vulnerable to "the lust of the flesh", thereby creating a circularity of corruption in which, save for the intervention of God, sinful humanity is trapped.

But is the "infection of nature" because we are born infected, or because we are born into an infected world. The reformers probably meant the former, being influenced by Augustine (via Calvin) but it does not have to be that way. I prefer to look at it the latter way.

Either way we are still vulnerable to "the lust of the flesh", but it is less circular if you remove the originality of sin from the argument.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.

That doesn't sound very Monophysitistic to me. It sounds like you are dividing Christ's nature at a soteriological level.
The two natures were conjoined in Christ without mingling.

You rather have to be able to distinguish between them in some sense to avoid patripassianism, which is a heresy.

ETA: To Balaam: As I understand it, that is the Orthodox view as well.

[ 28. September 2012, 20:25: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by balaam:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
The Reformed Catholic view of traditional Anglicanism suggests that sin can be likened to an "infection of nature" which makes humanity vulnerable to "the lust of the flesh", thereby creating a circularity of corruption in which, save for the intervention of God, sinful humanity is trapped.

But is the "infection of nature" because we are born infected, or because we are born into an infected world?
I think we're born infected. I've never really understood the "born into an infected world" argument because surely "the world" is simply "corporate flesh"? Sin gets into the world by coming out of us; the world is corrupt because people are in it. As Jesus says in Mark 7:
quote:
21 For from within out of the heart of man come evil thoughts, sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery,
22 coveting, wickedness, deceit, sensuality, envy, slander, pride, foolishness. 23 All these evil things come from within, and they defile a person."


 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Human nature is physis not ouisa.

Looking at the Greek in the Chalcedonian creed - you are indeed correct. It's two φύσεων. (ἐκ δύο φύσεων)

Which is curious.

So Jesus has a divine ousia but a human physis?

Wonder how that works. [Paranoid]

I didn't get that bit on the chart either.

quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:

Here's the whole thing in an amateur diagram.
I find that diagram quite helpful, whether or not it is 'amateur.' I am going to bookmark it. [/QUOTE]

I've found it enormously helpful as a visual aid.

I put it in a recent assignment and am waiting to hear back from my systematic theology professor whether it is correct or not.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.

That doesn't sound very Monophysitistic to me. It sounds like you are dividing Christ's nature at a soteriological level.
The two natures were conjoined in Christ without mingling.
I don't really see how the incarnation of God the Son can, in and off itself, effect the universal union of humanity with the sanctified human nature of Christ.

This concerning the incarnation of the Son from the Athanasian Creed:
quote:
32. Perfect God and perfect man, of a reasonable soul and human flesh subsisting.

33. Equal to the Father as touching His Godhead, and inferior to the Father as touching His manhood.

34. Who, although He is God and man, yet He is not two, but one Christ.

35. One, not by conversion of the Godhead into flesh, but by taking of that manhood into God.

Proposition 34 would seem to suggest that there is only one Christ with whom we can be mystically united. To be united to Christ in his Godhood is to be united with Christ in his manhood, and vice versa.

I can't see how we can claim to mystically united to Christ in his Godhead by faith without being similarly united to him in his (Ahem [Hot and Hormonal] ) manhood by the same means in the the same way.

Surely, you're either in the one Lord Jesus Christ or you're not. I don't believe it's possible for a person to particulate in the sanctified humanity of Christ without having been mystically united by faith to him in his Godhood.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I'm not talking about being mystically united to Christ, I'm talking about being born a human being. If you are born a human being, you share in the human nature. By definition.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Surely, you're either in the one Lord Jesus Christ or you're not. I don't believe it's possible for a person to particulate in the sanctified humanity of Christ without having been mystically united by faith to him in his Godhood.

Are you deliberately trying to get a mention on
this thread?

God loves us and accepts us, always will - whatever faith we profess. Do we have a sinful nature? No. But we often do sinful things.

Paul put it well when he spoke of falling short of the mark. It's a failure to become rather than a failure of being or of nature.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Surely, you're either in the one Lord Jesus Christ or you're not. I don't believe it's possible for a person to particulate in the sanctified humanity of Christ without having been mystically united by faith to him in his Godhood.

Are you deliberately trying to get a mention on
this thread?

Well, the claim to have done so already would only lead to accusations of either paranoia or arrogance. [Cool]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not talking about being mystically united to Christ, I'm talking about being born a human being. If you are born a human being, you share in the human nature. By definition.

I know. I don't understand why you think the incarnation of God the Son is supposed to have already changed human nature in a universal sense. How can Christ being a sinless man effect the universal sanctification of human nature? At the moment I can't see how that would work or why you would think that.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.

This is what I don't understand. You seem to be saying that since the incarnation all human beings are united to Christ through participation in Christ's glorified human nature. This can't be true because people still sin.

[ 29. September 2012, 11:07: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not talking about being mystically united to Christ, I'm talking about being born a human being. If you are born a human being, you share in the human nature. By definition.

I know. I don't understand why you think the incarnation of God the Son is supposed to have already changed human nature in a universal sense. How can Christ being a sinless man effect the universal sanctification of human nature? At the moment I can't see how that would work or why you would think that.
The incarnation provides positive proof against gnostic heretics that the flesh is inherently evil.

God affirms the world and her creation by becoming flesh and becoming human.

Humanity and the flesh are not evil. That is the heresy of gnosticism.

God did not create humans evil. God did not create human nature evil.

The biblical tradition tells us something went wrong, but our basic creation and nature is good.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.

This is what I don't understand. You seem to be saying that since the incarnation all human beings are united to Christ through participation in Christ's glorified human nature. This can't be true because people still sin.
Yes they do still sin.

Which is where all very "high" soteriology falls down - be it from the cross or from theosis or from regeneration or from moral example.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not talking about being mystically united to Christ, I'm talking about being born a human being. If you are born a human being, you share in the human nature. By definition.

I know. I don't understand why you think the incarnation of God the Son is supposed to have already changed human nature in a universal sense. How can Christ being a sinless man effect the universal sanctification of human nature? At the moment I can't see how that would work or why you would think that.
Christ being GOD effects the sanctification of human nature because he is holy and sin cannot come up against holiness without being burned away. When the coal touched Isaiah's lips, they were made clean. When Christ touched human nature by becoming incarnate, it was made clean.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
This is what I don't understand. You seem to be saying that since the incarnation all human beings are united to Christ through participation in Christ's glorified human nature. This can't be true because people still sin.

I don't know why I seem to be saying that because I keep saying that I'm not saying that. People are not united to Christ by being born. People become humans by being born. They become partakers of human nature.

Yes they still sin because they are still in this vail of tears, this fallen world where death still dwells. Here Balaam's distinction between sin within and sin without comes into play. Sin is not within us when we are born. Newborns do not sin. And yet we all fall prey. Which is a story for another thread (or two or three).
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not talking about being mystically united to Christ, I'm talking about being born a human being. If you are born a human being, you share in the human nature. By definition.

I know. I don't understand why you think the incarnation of God the Son is supposed to have already changed human nature in a universal sense. How can Christ being a sinless man effect the universal sanctification of human nature? At the moment I can't see how that would work or why you would think that.
The incarnation provides positive proof against gnostic heretics that the flesh is inherently evil.

God affirms the world and her creation by becoming flesh and becoming human.

Humanity and the flesh are not evil. That is the heresy of gnosticism.

God did not create humans evil. God did not create human nature evil.

The biblical tradition tells us something went wrong, but our basic creation and nature is good.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
We must be united to him to participate in his divine nature, true. But we only have to be born to participate in the human nature, which he has sanctified.

This is what I don't understand. You seem to be saying that since the incarnation all human beings are united to Christ through participation in Christ's glorified human nature. This can't be true because people still sin.
Yes they do still sin.

Which is where all very "high" soteriology falls down - be it from the cross or from theosis or from regeneration or from moral example.

Firstly, are you serious? Really? If the incarnation really is an affirmation of human goodness then the crucifixion must be an "affirmation" of human ingenuity!

Secondly, Apostolic teaching holds that the lusts of the flesh (sarx) are evil and stand direct opposition to the Spirit of God. That's why people thought nailing the incarnate Son of God to a piece of wood was a Good Idea™. The fallen human response to the incarnation is, ultimately, always murderous.

Thirdly, Jesus had no "flesh" in the sense in which it is being discussed on this thread. This is because the biblical term flesh (sarx) doesn't generally refer to the physical, material human body. So I think your Gnosticism angle is a red herring.

Finally, no-one on this thread has suggested that God created humans evil or that he created human nature evil.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
daron, I see your Straw Man Generator is in good form today. Where did I say the incarnation is an affirmation of human goodness? Indeed, where have I used the word "affirmation" at all? Point me to the post; I apologize and retract it.

Second I never even mentioned "flesh" in the post you are responding to.

Third, nor did I say God created humans or human nature evil in this or any other post.

Are you sure you posted this to the right thread?
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Sorry mousethief. The post in question is addressed to Evensong, not you, in response to her post here.

[ 29. September 2012, 14:00: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Got it; sorry to misread you. I'm not going to defend Evensong if she's wandered into heresy. Her ways are not my ways.

[ 29. September 2012, 14:04: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not talking about being mystically united to Christ, I'm talking about being born a human being. If you are born a human being, you share in the human nature. By definition.

I know. I don't understand why you think the incarnation of God the Son is supposed to have already changed human nature in a universal sense. How can Christ being a sinless man effect the universal sanctification of human nature? At the moment I can't see how that would work or why you would think that.
Christ being GOD effects the sanctification of human nature because he is holy and sin cannot come up against holiness without being burned away. When the coal touched Isaiah's lips, they were made clean. When Christ touched human nature by becoming incarnate, it was made clean.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
This is what I don't understand. You seem to be saying that since the incarnation all human beings are united to Christ through participation in Christ's glorified human nature. This can't be true because people still sin.

I don't know why I seem to be saying that because I keep saying that I'm not saying that. People are not united to Christ by being born. People become humans by being born. They become partakers of human nature.

Yes they still sin because they are still in this vail of tears, this fallen world where death still dwells. Here Balaam's distinction between sin within and sin without comes into play. Sin is not within us when we are born. Newborns do not sin. And yet we all fall prey. Which is a story for another thread (or two or three).

I can see how the Incarnation of God the Son effected the complete sanctification of the body prepared for him. Jesus brought the "as-we-wereness" of A & E back into creation, if you like. I agree that the man Jesus was sinless, but I just can't see how the holiness of the God-man Jesus, the Christ of God, somehow extrapolates to human nature in general. What exactly do you think has changed in human nature by virtue of the Incarnation? You seem to be saying that the Incarnation did something of universal application and import to human nature. I just can't see what.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Firstly, are you serious? Really? If the incarnation really is an affirmation of human goodness

Where did I say that?

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:


Secondly, Apostolic teaching holds that the lusts of the flesh (sarx) are evil and stand direct opposition to the Spirit of God.

Agreed. But not the flesh itself.

quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:

Thirdly, Jesus had no "flesh" in the sense in which it is being discussed on this thread. This is because the biblical term flesh (sarx) doesn't generally refer to the physical, material human body. So I think your Gnosticism angle is a red herring.

My shorter lexicon of the Greek New Testament suggests otherwise.

Paul's understanding of the flesh as the willing instrument of sin comes very low down on the list of meanings. The standard meaning is just the body or corporeality.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Her ways are not my ways.

Thank the Lord for his small mercies.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Evensong, your idea that the flesh is not evil really doesn't warrant further discussion.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
A close reading Romans 7 & 8 should settle the matter for you.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
A close reading of the New Testament should settle the matter for you daron.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
I recommend a bit of reading into gnosticism daron. And a close reading of the whole New Testament, not just selected parts.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
A close reading of the New Testament should settle the matter for you daron.

"A God without wrath brought men without sin into a kingdom without judgment through the ministrations of a Christ without a cross" (H. Richard Niebuhr, The Kingdom of God in America (New York: Harper and Row, 1959), 193.).
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
Well that's a pretty random quote from nowhere.

Shall I quote you something equally random?

Or perhaps I might refer you to a Greek dictionary and concordance?

quote:
4561 /sárks ("flesh") is not always evil in Scripture. Indeed, it is used positively in relation to sexual intercourse in marriage (Eph 5:31) – as well as for the sinless human body of Jesus (Jn 1:14; 1 Jn 4:2,3). Indeed, flesh (what is physical) is necessary for the body to live out the faith the Lord works in (Gal 2:20).]

 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Well that's a pretty random quote from nowhere.

Shall I quote you something equally random?

Or perhaps I might refer you to a Greek dictionary and concordance?

quote:
4561 /sárks ("flesh") is not always evil in Scripture. Indeed, it is used positively in relation to sexual intercourse in marriage (Eph 5:31) – as well as for the sinless human body of Jesus (Jn 1:14; 1 Jn 4:2,3). Indeed, flesh (what is physical) is necessary for the body to live out the faith the Lord works in (Gal 2:20).]

*sigh* As I said earlier:
quote:
Thirdly, Jesus had no "flesh" in the sense in which it is being discussed on this thread. This is because the biblical term flesh (sarx) doesn't generally refer to the physical, material human body. Emphasis added
Do you see my point? You can tangentially import other usages of the word "flesh" into this thread but it won't add anything of substance to the conversation in question. As I said before, the idea that the flesh in the sense in which it is being discussed on this thread isn't evil doesn't bear further discussion. Is that OK?
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
ok
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
I wonder if it is possible to reconcile the positions of daronmedway and Evensong - and avoid having to multiply definitions of sarx?

My understanding (which I may have made up) is that the sins of the flesh* are urges for things that are not sinful in themselves but which may become sinful if they are followed at the wrong time.

So in the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus' flesh wanted safety. Now safety is a good thing in itself but in this instance the desire for safety was urging Jesus against God's will.

Because Jesus was sinless, he was able to control his bodily appetites and overrule as appropriate the demands of his flesh. Because Paul was fallible, he wasn't.

Therefore, flesh is not in itself sinful, but giving in to it might be.


* As opposed - in accordance with the baptismal service - to the sins of the world and the sins of the Devil.

[ 01. October 2012, 09:17: Message edited by: Ricardus ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
(Actually it's not the baptismal service - it's the litany in the Book of Common Prayer.)
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
No, you were right in the first place. It is in the baptismal liturgy. But the reference isn't to the "sins of the" the world, the flesh and the devil, but to the things themselves. The CW liturgy says something like:

Fight valiantly as a disciple of Christ against sin (flesh in older liturgies), the world and the devil.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
No, you were right in the first place. It is in the baptismal liturgy. But the reference isn't to the "sins of the" the world, the flesh and the devil, but to the things themselves.

Sure, but I'd understood that (possibly incorrectly) as synecdoche for different kinds of sin.

Sins of the world = evils you commit through social pressure.
Sins of the flesh = evils you commit on the promptings of your own appetite.
Sins of the Devil = evil you commit for its own sake.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
I wonder if it is possible to reconcile the positions of daronmedway and Evensong - and avoid having to multiply definitions of sarx?

I got the impression we weren't at odds. He was just talking about those lusts that can arise from the body, not the body itself.

As you said:

quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:

Therefore, flesh is not in itself sinful, but giving in to it might be.


 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
I was thinking more in terms of the flesh as the inner urge to sin with which we are all born.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
But that's not the the body per se. Because the body was created good.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
That's right. We're talking about sarx as the universal sin impulse whereby people are inclined toward using their bodies as instruments of unrighteousness.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That's right. We're talking about sarx as the universal sin impulse whereby people are inclined toward using their bodies as instruments of unrighteousness.

This reminds me of St. Clive's claim that he had led his body into sin far more often than it had led him.

Didn't St. Francis call his body "Brother Ass?" What did he mean by that?
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That's right. We're talking about sarx as the universal sin impulse whereby people are inclined toward using their bodies as instruments of unrighteousness.

This reminds me of St. Clive's claim that he had led his body into sin far more often than it had led him.

Didn't St. Francis call his body "Brother Ass?" What did he mean by that?

Well, I think Clive is closer to the truth than Frank on this one. Francis sounds a touch Gnostic.

Although St Paul does talk about pummeling his body to make it his slave. It's hard to tell how literal he was being in that passage. I tend to think that Paul wasn't greatly into ascetism.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
That's right. We're talking about sarx as the universal sin impulse whereby people are inclined toward using their bodies as instruments of unrighteousness.

I was always taught to spell that "sex".
 
Posted by balaam (# 4543) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Didn't St. Francis call his body "Brother Ass?" What did he mean by that?

No idea. But I can't resist responding to this [Smile]
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
Maybe this thread has run its course and I should quit while I'm ahead but I wonder, mousethief, if you have an answer to my question here? I'm genuinely interested in your answer.

[ 02. October 2012, 17:59: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I can see how the Incarnation of God the Son effected the complete sanctification of the body prepared for him. Jesus brought the "as-we-wereness" of A & E back into creation, if you like. I agree that the man Jesus was sinless, but I just can't see how the holiness of the God-man Jesus, the Christ of God, somehow extrapolates to human nature in general. What exactly do you think has changed in human nature by virtue of the Incarnation? You seem to be saying that the Incarnation did something of universal application and import to human nature. I just can't see what.

Sanctified it. Burned the dross of sin, which could not encounter the divine fire without being burned.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
All true. Of Jesus. Of the body prepared for him.

I can't see how the incaration of Jesus, in and of itself, does anything to you, me or the gate-post and our human nature. Is this some inexplicable Orthodox mystery, or is it just your inexplicable opinion?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I don't see how it's inexplicable. But then again you said you believe "human nature" is just shorthand for "the way we are" so it really doesn't mean anything in that framework.

I'm trying to faithfully reproduce what I have been taught (in this instance anyway; I will admit to being a rank heretic in other areas).
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
I understand your assertion, I think. And I'm prepared to move on the "how-we-areness" idea in favour of a more the holistic understanding of human nature that you present. Not that I think it matters actually.

What I'm looking for is an explanation as to why you think the incarnation of God into a specific, human body at a specific point in history has changed the nature of humanity in toto. When I was at Oxford I attended as series of lectures by Thomas Weinandy called Does God Change?. To my shame I can't remember the vast majority of his thesis but I do remember him encouraging us to wrestle with how to reconcile a timeless, changeless God with the Incarnation of the Second Person of the Trinity. His conclusion was that the Incarnation does not mean that the nature of God changed with the incarnation.

However, I can see how one might consider human nature (i.e. what it is to be human) to have changed with the glorification of the incarnate, risen Son. As yet Jesus is the first (and I'd say only) fully glorified human being. So could it be that since the glorification of the risen Lord Jesus Christ (who is the first-fruits of the resurrection) humanity has had a new ontological potentiality? In other words, the possibility of glorification is now possible, the evidence of which is the glorification of Christ?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
No. I'm saying that the divine nature united with the human nature in the Incarnation of Christ, and that changed the human nature. Being united to the divine is a pretty big deal. I can't see how the human nature could have been united to the divine nature without being changed.

The woman with the 7-year flow of blood touched our Lord. That should have made him unclean. But he can't be unclean, he's God. Instead, he made her clean.

So here, but on a completely different scale.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
No. I'm saying that the divine nature united with the human nature in the Incarnation of Christ, and that changed the human nature. Being united to the divine is a pretty big deal. I can't see how the human nature could have been united to the divine nature without being changed.

I can see how the union of divine and human natures changed human nature in Jesus, the God-man. I can't see how or why the union of divine and human natures changed the human nature of anyone else. The incarnation doesn't get rid of human passions or sins. It was perfectly possible to be given over to passion and sin in the presence of the pre-glorified Christ: his trial before the Sanhedrin being clear evidence of this possibility.

Apostolic teaching seems to be that human beings must be "in Christ" in order to put off the old self and put on the new and not everyone is in Christ.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
No. I'm saying that the divine nature united with the human nature in the Incarnation of Christ, and that changed the human nature. Being united to the divine is a pretty big deal. I can't see how the human nature could have been united to the divine nature without being changed.

I can see how the union of divine and human natures changed human nature in Jesus, the God-man. I can't see how or why the union of divine and human natures changed the human nature of anyone else.
There's only one human nature. We don't each have one.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
OK. There is one human nature: a sort of generic template of who and what we are as human beings. You seem to be saying that the incarnation changed this template in way which has real, felt, ontological ramifications. I don't see how.

Our nature isn't made into divine nature, because our created "I" doesn't become the divine "I"; our "I" is always conscious that it enjoys the blessings of knowing Christ not by its own powers or nature, but by God's grace.

Your position sounds to me like a form of over-realised theosis.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
I never did understand how God becoming man could make man god either.

Just like I don't understand how God killing himself saves us.

Objective atonement of any sort is fraught with the evidence that we are still in sin.

[ 03. October 2012, 14:29: Message edited by: Evensong ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
I never did understand how God becoming man could make man god either.

Just like I don't understand how God killing himself saves us.

Objective atonement of any sort is fraught with the evidence that we are still in sin.

Just which Christianity is it you believe in?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
OK. There is one human nature: a sort of generic template of who and what we are as human beings.

No, not template. The human nature is what all humans share analogously to the divine nature being what the three Persons of the Trinity share. The divine nature is not a template. I'm clearly not explaining this well.

quote:
You seem to be saying that the incarnation changed this template in way which has real, felt, ontological ramifications. I don't see how.
Clearly. I don't know that I can explain it any better. Maybe better to admit we've reached a dead end.

quote:
Our nature isn't made into divine nature, because our created "I" doesn't become the divine "I"; our "I" is always conscious that it enjoys the blessings of knowing Christ not by its own powers or nature, but by God's grace.
None of which have I ever denied. I said that the two natures are joined in Christ, not that they merge. We're not monophysites. Nor has any Christian I have ever known said that our "I" is absorbed into the divine "I" in any way -- that's more akin to certain forms of Buddhism than Christianity. Nor would any Orthodox Christian say that we receive the blessings of salvation on our own power, or by nature.

In short this whole paragraph seems like one big straw man, or at best a non sequitur.
 
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
OK. There is one human nature: a sort of generic template of who and what we are as human beings.

No, not template. The human nature is what all humans share analogously to the divine nature being what the three Persons of the Trinity share. The divine nature is not a template. I'm clearly not explaining this well.

quote:
You seem to be saying that the incarnation changed this template in way which has real, felt, ontological ramifications. I don't see how.
Clearly. I don't know that I can explain it any better. Maybe better to admit we've reached a dead end.

I think you're right. We can't really continue going over the same ground. I don't think you have explained it. You've made an assertion that I really want to understand but you haven't actually expained your assertion.

quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Christ's uniting the human and divine natures, and taking our human nature up into heaven in His ascension, is part of our salvation, our glorification, our theosis -- "that [we] may be partakers of the divine φύσις" (2 Pet 1:4).

So, yeah, human nature is for us more than "how we are." It's who we are, it's what we share, it's the thing that makes us human, it's the φύσις that Christ assumed in the Incarnation.

and here...

quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Sin spreads through the whole nature tainting it with its presence but Christ takes on our nature sanctifying it with his presence.

But if Christ has sanctified human nature then it is no longer infected through and through, is it? What God has made clean, etc. ]This is the whole lynchpin of my argument: Christ in his incarnation, by taking on our human nature, sanctified it. If it ever was "sinful" -- whether it was sinful in and of itself, or merely tainted whether in part or throughout the whole -- it has been sanctified/cleansed through Christ's entering into it.
In what sense is human nature sanctified by virtue of the incarnation, mousethief? Who benefits? What affect does it actually have? What does it actually mean for Joe Bloggs on the street?
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
I never did understand how God becoming man could make man god either.

Just like I don't understand how God killing himself saves us.

Objective atonement of any sort is fraught with the evidence that we are still in sin.

Just which Christianity is it you believe in?
Probably a similar one to you.

I'm just not afraid to admit that the mechanisms like theosis are not explainable in reasonable terms.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
In what sense is human nature sanctified by virtue of the incarnation, mousethief? Who benefits? What affect does it actually have? What does it actually mean for Joe Bloggs on the street?

The main point of the incarnation (as I see it) is contra gnosticism and evidence of revelation.

Contra gnosticism because it affirms the flesh is not evil and creation is not evil and evidence of revelation because God has revealed himself in Christ. God has come among her people to save them. And that was contra the idea that the Roman Emperor was the son of God born to save the world. The Romans used "euangelion" to refer to Augustus. The early Christians used it for Jesus.
 


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