Thread: Purgatory: Substitutionary Atonement.. why was Christ crucified? Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by Sir George Grey (# 2643) on :
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory on this thread:

quote:
As a side dish ... penal subsitution makes of God a monster in satisfying a blood lust masquerading as legal satisfaction. Whatever happened on the Cross it wasn't the simple and dreadful banalities of "I deserved to die but God killed his Son in my place."
[Projectile]

This is something also that I've been taught consistently in my own church background. It was taught more in the sense of God sacrificing himself rather than a vengeful father sacrificing his son. This, of course, gives rise to the issue of whether God is more important than His 'law' - when this law demands a high blood price it seems not to be so.

All the same, I was suprised at the the projectable nature of Fr. Gregory's disgust. After all it is the only 'reason' for the Crucifixion I have been taught, coming from my evo, latterly veering to AC/liberal Anglicanism.

So - why was Christ crucified?

[ 08. January 2006, 22:01: Message edited by: Erin ]
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
I can't cope with the idea of substitutionary atonement. I've never found a way in which it can actually make sense - all the business of the 'ransom' being 'paid' by whom, to whom, and for what? Can't cope, I'm afraid.

What makes a lot more sense is what I understand to be a more Orthodox position, the 'Christus Victor' tradition, in which Christ ascends the cross to do battle with Death. In his death, descent into hell, and resurrection, Christ defeats death and breaks its power over the world, so that 'death has no more dominion over us'. Christ's death and resurrection then becomes the pattern for our own death and resurrection; death is no longer the end of life, but the seedbed of eternal life (cf 1Cor 15).

Now that I can believe in.
 
Posted by Sir George Grey (# 2643) on :
 
Hi Adeodatus,

Unpalatable as it may seem the standard Evo position appears to hang together better as a complete package ie:

1) God Creates World and Establishes Law.
2) Humanity Lives in Harmony.
3) Humanity Sins
4) God makes New Peace Plans but Humanity keeps Stuffing Up (keeping a lot of butchers in business in the process).
5) Fed up with all the bulls and Fatted Calves, God sends His Son Instead to Pay Price..
6) Return to 2).

Now, the neatness of all this is that the Law is kept. By contrast, some loose threads seem to hang from the position you've adopted. From whence comes the power of death? Through man's rebelliousness? Why does Death have this power? Does it proceed from the results of creation being spoiled because of the Fall?
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
well.....I believe in substitutionary atonement [Eek!]

quote:
As a side dish ... penal subsitution makes of God a monster in satisfying a blood lust masquerading as legal satisfaction. Whatever happened on the Cross it wasn't the simple and dreadful banalities of "I deserved to die but God killed his Son in my place."
Well, I'm quite happy with it working like that, but how about we try a different model: Entering into God's presence is costly, it requires the offering up of something perfect, now we had nothing perfect to offer, being corrupted by sin. Christ became that offering for us.

I think that substitution still works perfectly well; the law has been broken, and God needs to express the worth/cost of that having happened to remain perfectly righteous and consistent, and also for the good of us.
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
There's a bery fine book on the Atonement by John Knox - no, not that John Knox! The Episcopalian theologian! (Mind you, the Scots original was an episcopalian, not a presbyterian, too.. - called "The Death of Christ", in which he surveys the traditional approaches to the Atonement, and suggests that they are all broadly findable in Scripture, that none of them can be taken to be the doctrine of Scripture, and that they are actually all related to psychological needs (which are no less actual for all that they are psychological!) that we have arising out of our perceptions of out relationship with God, how it's broken, and how it needs to be fixed.

I don't think we can repeat to ourselves often enough that the word atonement isn't Greek, Hebrew, or Latin. It's English - literally "at-one-ment".

The pervasive sense of being out of control of our own lives, of being held captive by a power that isn't amenable to our wishes to be good, of being caught up in a world that's ensnared by evil - that, it seems to me, is at the heart of "Christus Victor" atonement - whether it's Patristic-period Eastern Christians understanding their faith as liberation from the control of the Devil, or the 'rights' that the Devil has earned over them, or twenty-first century Christians seeing our collective captivity to a world-order that directs us to spend vast sums at Christmas while millions starve and die - and seeking and finding in the Christian faith the liberation from this and the starting point for a spiritual war of resistance against it.

To the extent that we sense that we are captive, abnd helpless, and compromised - or that our captivity, helplessness and complicity are overturned in Christ, setting us free - then Christus Victor is the atonement-story we tell.

But we are also people racked by guilt. Unsure of our personal acceptability to God - because we have big problems loving and accepting ourselves. That's why penal-substitutionary atonement in its criminal-civil law form has held sway for so long in the West. We are individuals - that's what moderenity has done to us - who have no idea how we fit in, no idea what others think of us - or God - and what we need is the objective assurance that we are accepted. Yes, and loved. Because love is in there somewhere, in all the distortions and debasements of the Gospel which penal-substitutionary atonement has brought about. But it's a cold, arbritrary, formal love, just marginally better than nothing. The proof, by the way, that it is better than nothing is that it fills a humn need. People believe it in this way because they need to.

It's important to notice that penal substitutionary atonement was really first formulated by Anselm, in the context of European feudalism, where the question that 'sin' suggested was "How have I fallen out of the networks and hierarchies of social relation that is God's (feudal) world. The question was, given we had affronted God's dignity and honour by 'rebelling' against him (and the 'rebellion' in much conservative atonement-speak is still clearly feudal rather than Scriptural!) how do we fix these broken relations? The answer is - we can't. We don't carry enough clout in the system to put things right. But Jesus does. The King's son... And he voluntarily and willingly... etc. etc.

It's only in early modernity (yes, Calvin! [Hot and Hormonal] ) that the feudal court is replaced by the criminal/civil court, and all the distortions of the man in the dock being released by the just judge who accepts the willingness of another to die for him (er... how just is that?) and the wedge between the loving Christ and the judging, vengeful God, emerges as a reflection of the modern European soul.

Is penal substitutionary atonement completely clapped out? That's a good question for this thread! I suspect that the answer is that while we feel guilt and uncertainty in the face of God's love, we will need some way of addressing its removal - and Christus Victor isn't about this.

So - am I Christus Victor, or am I penal substitutionary? Well, more both than neither.

But I'm actually personally more indebted to someone who hasn't been mentioned yet. Peter Abelard...

I've said enough for now. Any other Abelard fans out there want to take this one and run with it?
 
Posted by Aldamir (# 2762) on :
 
How does Christus Victor cope with the idea of Christ as a sacrifice?
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Sir George Carey

The best I can say about your list is that it can be written into a tract more easily, (and this generation thinks that it invented sound bytes!)

Yes, Adeodatus ... you have it, we believe, that is the Orthodox Christian faith. I can go with Psyduck as well in so far as "sacrifice" is a key Christian term ... it's just the substitutionary / legal / acquittal / satisafaction thing that has been overplayed into distortion in the west since Anselm.

There is a huge old thread of SubAt somewhere. Can anyone find it? Maybe it should go into Dead Horses? It is a very important thread. I hope it hasn't been lost. (I sure groan at the prospect of going constructing that debate all over again!) [Frown]
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Aldamir

C.S. Lewis made an excellent synthesis in the Lion, the Witch and the Wardrobe. The sacrifice of Christ was the necessary (and, from a human point of view ... paradoxical), 'coup de grace' in God's victory over sin, suffering, evil and death. You submit to something with a power it doesn't comprehend to defeat it. Star Wars is quite good as well ... Skywalker in battle with Vader ... also in LOTR ... Gandalf resurrected after falling into Gehenna with the Balrog.

Early Saxon Christianity resonated very strongly with these themes ... Christ as the young warrior mounting the cross as a stallion of Love to do battle with Hell.

Go here for the Dream of the Rood ... a Saxonm (and, therefore, Orthodox [Biased] ) Christian poem.

Bearing in mind the popularity of such themes in secular culture; I am surprised that evangelicals haven't followed up on Aulen's seminal work: "Christus Victor." He was a Lutheran of course. Much of Luther's work in this area was very Orthodox. Unfortunately he was loaded with Augustinian Latin juridical baggage as well ... so it didn't all come out consistently Orthodox.

[ 29. November 2003, 10:55: Message edited by: Fr. Gregory ]
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Oh ... and there's Neo in Matrix 3 as well ... blinded, defeated, broken, voluntarily entering, arms outstretched, the Matrix to unstitch Smith.

I think that the block to the west getting a hold of this Orthodox intuition in the popular culture is its deep seated moralism (and moralising). Twas ever thus with the children of Rome [Ultra confused] ... well, even more so in the second Millenium. Can't we shake it off for good in the Third? PLEASE! [brick wall]

[ 29. November 2003, 11:01: Message edited by: Fr. Gregory ]
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
There's nothing in the 'Christus Victor' model that doesn't fit in with a perfectly Biblical view of salvation history. (Let's stick with the Genesis myth of the Fall as a convenient shorthand way of looking at it.)
(1) Humanity is created to be God's stewards of the world.
(2) Humanity discovers the choice between good and evil and inevitably chooses evil.
(3) Therefore the world is separated from God because its (human) stewards have separated themselves from God.
(4) The power of Death (rather than death itself) is a necessary consequence of this, rather being an imposed 'punishment'. (Note that in Genesis, God says only, 'you shall die', not 'I will inflict death on you'.)
(5) God establishes the Law in his chosen people as a temporary 'fix' to prepare the world for the coming of Christ. (In Paul, especially in Romans, the Law only ever holds sway until the coming of Christ.)
(6) At the right time, the right place, Christ enters the world 'under the Law'. (The only time and place Christ could enter the world.)
(7) Christ becomes all that is human, thus redeeming all that is human: finally taking on the power of Death and defeating it.
(8) Death becomes the seedbed of eternal life preparatory to the final restoration of all things in Christ.

Even the idea of 'sacrifice' fits in with this, if we read sacrifice as an act of celebration rather than an act of guilt. This is in fact what sacrifices were - the act of killing was always followed by a party. In this view, sacrifice is a sacrament, rather than a judicial act. (See, e.g., Ed Sanders's account on Jewish practices around the time of Jesus in his book of which I seem to have forgotten the title. Sorry.)

The 'guilt' that so many Western Christians feel, and which has led to some of the more bloodthirsty formulations of substitutionary atonement, is in my view a false and pathological guilt. It arises from a failure to realise (make real for ourselves) the fact that the victory over Death has been definitively and objectively won, once and for all.
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Er - so you're saying, Adeodatus, that there is only one approved Biblical model of atonement - and that's Christus Victor? I suppose that's marghinally better than saying that theres's only one Biblical model, and it;s penal substitution...

If I had to choose... but hang on! I don't! That's not the way the Bible presents the atonement! Why should there be only one way of talking about it?

The atonement is event, and the doctrine a struggle to articulate that event - not to exhaust it!
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
I hope I didn't suggest, psyduck, that 'Christus Victor' is the only way of looking at things. In saying it's a Biblical view I was countering the idea (unstated in this thread, but widely taught in some Protestant churches) that substitutionary atonement is the only thorough-going Biblical view.

My own position is that I can't see logically how substitutionary atonement works, because I have (I think) unanswered problems with the idea of 'ransom' or 'debt'. I also think it's based on an erroneous view of sacrifice and that it often leads to unnecessary guilt in Christians. For these reasons, I believe 'Christus Victor' is a better model, but not the only one.
 
Posted by Nicodemia (# 4756) on :
 
Think I can follow these arguments! This thread is overlapping with the next one where I asked about atonement!

Why is death an enemy? Why does it have to be overcome? I have spoken to many who would welcome it. If one is afraid of what happens after death, then we are onto the Hell and being unsaved bit, aren't we?

Nic (determined to get this thing straight!)
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:
If I had to choose... but hang on! I don't! That's not the way the Bible presents the atonement! Why should there be only one way of talking about it?

Are you sure?

I think that Christ's victory over death and hell is by far the most prominent way that the Bible presents it. He constantly refers to "overcoming" the powers of darkness, to being the "light", to turning away from evil, to establishing justice. The Old Testament context is a protracted war between Israel and her enemies. The end of Revelation can only be seen as the peace that comes when the enemies of peace are defeated.

On the other hand, the few references to such things as "giving His life a ransom for many" and "bearing the sins of the world" can easily be fit into the "victor" theme. Everyone knows that sacrifice is necessary to overcome evil. Your own will must be submitted to the cause, and the love of worldly things must be given up to gain heavenly ones.

The ONLY biblical perspective is that good is to triumph over evil. This is therefore the only interpretation of the Incarnation that ultimately makes sense.

SA theology undermines this perspective by recasting the Incarnation as the clever solution to a conundrum caused by the unfortunate contradiction of original sin and divine justice. At stake is human salvation - not goodness itself. Therefore the focus of SA theology is not service to God and the neighbor, or doing the will of God, or avoiding evil, but only on salvation and the solution to this ancient conundrum. Goodness is thought to flow from salvation, and the idea that the reverse may be the case is dismissed as "merit." Yet virtually all of Jesus' teaching is that salvation is the result doing God's will and turning away from sin, avoiding the idea of merit by attributing everything to God.

It is strange that the vicarious atonement is so often presented as the only explanation for Christ's death on the cross. While it has a logic to it, and does fit several biblical teachings, the overall message runs counter to any sensible way of seeing the biblical message.

Christ's death was the final act of His victory, as He willingly gave up the most precious of earthly things - life itself - in favor of the divine purpose of His coming. In doing this He broke the power of hell, which places self and the world above all other goals.

Christ therefore restored human freedom to follow Him or not as we choose, giving us an alternative to the crushing dominance of selfish and wordly ends.

This is the way the Bible presents it, as I understand it.
 
Posted by Faithful Sheepdog (# 2305) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Fr. Gregory:
Bearing in mind the popularity of such themes in secular culture; I am surprised that evangelicals haven't followed up on Aulen's seminal work: "Christus Victor."

I am currently reading an interesting book called “Evangelicalism and the Orthodox Church”, published by the Evangelical Alliance in the UK. This book had both evangelical and Orthodox input. When discussing the evangelical understanding of atonement, it takes the interesting methodological approach of looking at evangelical hymnody, and comments as follows on page 59:

quote:
…evangelical hymnody as a whole displays a definite preference for the substitutionary model of the atonement. However, other models are also used (the “Christus Victor” model, which interprets the death and resurrection of Christ as conquering the powers of evil, has been particularly popular in modern charismatic songs), and such items as the hymns above (“Let earth and heaven combine” and “Here is love, vast as the ocean”) also assign saving significance to the incarnation. Indeed, it could even be said that popular evangelicalism has been shaped in part by patristic thought, through the medium of Charles Wesley’s hymns…
For a comprehensive evangelical presentation of the theology of the cross, I can highly recommend John Stott’s book “The Cross of Christ”. His scholarly presentation of the substitutionary model takes issue with some of the cruder formulations to be found in the evangelical world.

Stott takes care to connect his presentation of a substitutionary atonement into both incarnational and trinitarian theology. His book also engages comprehensively and positively with the Aulen (“Christus Victor”) model and the Abelard (“revelation of love”) model.

Neil
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Freddy:
quote:
Are you sure?
Yes!

quote:
I think that Christ's victory over death and hell is by far the most prominent way that the Bible presents it. He constantly refers to "overcoming" the powers of darkness..
I don't doubt it! I'm simply saying it's not the only way.


quote:
to being the "light", to turning away from evil, to establishing justice.
And there's another three right there!!

quote:
The Old Testament context is a protracted war between Israel and her enemies.
There's a huge amount of the OT that's replete with all sorts of sacrificial imagery that plays in all sorts of ways on the New Testament. The OT also supplies the categories of the go'el (redeemer,) and ga'al (redemption) which are richly used and spectacularly misused in Christian tradition.

quote:
The end of Revelation can only be seen as the peace that comes when the enemies of peace are defeated
Only? I honestly don't think 'only'. Several people have pointed out that Athanasius, for one, manages to give a very creditable account of he incarnation without bringing the Devil into it at all.

quote:
On the other hand, the few references to such things as "giving His life a ransom for many" and "bearing the sins of the world" can easily be fit into the "victor" theme.
Only on the learner-driver-on-the-gears principle of 'Grind 'em till they fit!" An advocate of penal substitution would have no trouble in 'fitting in' all the references to the Victorious Christ to their particular procrustean bed either! My question is - why do it? Why make anything fit anything else at all? Why not glory in the richness of the ways that the Bible has of articulating the unsearchable riches of Christ?

I remember being pulled up short by that profound work of sprituality The Shorter Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church when I read that "there is no orthodox doctrine of the atonement". How could there be? In order to construct one, you'd have to bin more than half of what scripture says!
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:
quote:

Originally posted by Freddy: I think that Christ's victory over death and hell is by far the most prominent way that the Bible presents it. He constantly refers to "overcoming" the powers of darkness..

I don't doubt it! I'm simply saying it's not the only way.
OK. I guess you're right. The accounts are presented with a beautiful variety, and do lend themselves to a variety of interpretations.

I do think, however, that some interpretations have serious shortcomings - leading me to agree with Fr. Gregory's projectile response. [Disappointed]

[Edited for UBB.]

[ 29. November 2003, 15:22: Message edited by: Tortuf ]
 
Posted by Nightlamp (# 266) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:

It's important to notice that penal substitutionary atonement was really first formulated by Anselm, in the context of European feudalism,

I believe this to be incorrect anselm formulated subsitutionary atonement. Penal subsitutionary atonement was formulated by calvin they are related but quite different.

The principle issue with Abelard's view of atonement is that Jesus did not have to die. If i remeber correctly Bernard of clairvaux's mystical view of atonement has some merit.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Fr Gregory, I think evangelicals ARE trying to engage with 'Christus Victor' and, indeed, overtly Patristic insights ... even on a popular level. Maybe it's work in progress and hasn't seen the light of day in any evangelical text-book as such yet.

Nigel Wright, a former president of the Baptist Union and a big pal of Andrew Walker the Orthodox academic sociologist, touches on the various theories in 'The Radical Evangelical' and, perhaps through sleight of hand, manages to preserve an element of penal substitutionary atonement in a modified form:

'The Son of God enters into and identifies himself fully with fallen humanity to such an extent that he is able to represent humankind before God. This involves standing with us under judgement. In doing so, he bears the 'intrinsic' punishment whereby sin produces alienation from God, becoming vulnerable to our self-inflicted judgement. By bearing this, Christ acknowledges the justice of the Father's judgement and says Amen to it in such a way, on our behalf, that he renounces and puts an end to the old, sinful humanity and replaces it with a new, obedient humanity. The human situation is thus transformed and the possibility of a renewal of covenant with God is opened up for all.

'In this way we may conceive of Christ's work being both substitutionary, in that it is done in our place and on our behalf, and penal in that it involves the bearing of an 'intrinsic' punishment, but not as 'penal substitution', with its implication of the Father personally punishing the Son. So the God who brings forgiveness does so in a way that fully acknowledges the reality of sin, does not pass over it, but judges it,yet judges it so as to open the way to transformation.'

Wright goes on to argue that redemption does not abrogate the creation but is in itself a further manifestation of the divine power to create and renew.

I'm not explaining myself very well here, but I suppose what I am saying is that much classic and contemporary evangelical thought on the issue isn't as crude as is so often portrayed in sermons and tracts. Even in very pro-penal substitutionary and evangelically popular works like TC Hammond and DF Wright's 'In Understanding Be Men' the cruder portrayals of SA are questioned and denounced.

We are talking divine self-substitution here ... and the court-room analogies we've all heard fall far short.

Anyway ... perhaps because it's the tradition I'm most familiar with, I'm reluctant to ditch penal substitutionary atonement completely. I will, like Wright, be happy to modify it and, indeed, to embrace 'Christus Victor' too ... which in fact is already embedded in much charismatic evangelical theology and spirituality as has been noted.

Why should it be either, or, why can't it be both?

Gamaliel
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
FGreg, I seem to remember looking for that thread a while back and being unable to find it.

quote:

(2) Humanity discovers the choice between good and evil and inevitably chooses evil.

hmmm? inevitably?
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Gamaliel:
quote:
I think evangelicals ARE trying to engage with 'Christus Victor' and, indeed, overtly Patristic insights ...
I would by no means equate evangelicals with 'conservative Protestants'. I'm not an evangelical, but I am very aware of the breadth and openness that characterize many who do call themselves evangelical.

Nightlamp: I did run on from Anselm to Calvin, though I really intended 'penal substitutionary' to do duty for a whole category that 'substitutionary' on its own doesn't cover. The point is that the death of Christ does restitution for a punishable wrong that he is innocent of. Substitutionary indicates no more than that Christ dies in our place. Penal, you might well argue, doesn't really do justice to the feudal structure of thought in which Anselm's doctrine is embedded, but the point is that a lawfully-established system of relationships privileging God's rights and honour (Anselm) or God's law (Calvin) has been infringed, and the infringement cannot be overlooked.

(A friend of mine once astonished me with a sermon illustration 'that I could use', about a Church of England clergyman who was an absentee (if I remember rightly) landlord in Ireland. The story was that at a time of great hardship, the tenants indicated that they couldn't pay their rent, and begged that it should be remitted. The story was that the clergyman sent a letter back saying that this was impossible, that the law had to be respected, and also hsi rights as a property-owner - and enclosing his own cheque for the full amount of the rent, so that this could be done. My reaction was astonishment that my friend couldn't see what was wrong with that! In case anyone here is in any doubt, isn't the point that the guy did this very generous thing to uphold a system which stank, and stank in his favour??? [Eek!] )

I suppose that it's a forgiveable limitation on Anselm (whose brain was probably fried after producing the Ontological Argument, if that's the sequence - can't be bothered to look it up as its nearly teatime!) that he thought that the whole universe had the same feudal structure his own society did. I think you can make the same point about Calvin personally, given his personality structure and driving anxieties. Where the thing approaches the unpardonable is when you have people promoting themselves to teaching ministries in conservative Protestant churches who haven't the theologicl education - just the arrogance - to undertake the task of telling people what Christianity is, and then keep their hard-pressed and deeply anxious and vulnerable flocks ignorant that the Bible says a great deal more about the work of Christ than they will ever let them hear. Doctrine as a tool of the power-mad!

I'm in large part an Abelardian because the cross as the demonstration of the love of God is both the truth about ourselves, and the assurance that the truth about ourselves, which we are so reluctant and unable to face (understandably!) is both mirrored and totally accepted in the cross. This is how much God loves us - yes (that's where the understanding of Abelard as an appeal to our 'higher feelings' stops; no wonder it misleadingly parodies Abelard as a 'subjective' doctrine of the Atonement) but it's also what we do to God and to each other, and to ourselves in the crucifying world we create, willy-nilly. And still God loves us. The atonement understood in an Abelardian way post Freud is the assurance that God loves the bits of us that we suppress.

And yes, of course, there's still a deficiency in Abelard's view. But the point is that all 'doctrines' of the Atonement are in some degree or other deficient. And on the other hand, there is something of important conserved in every doctrine of the atonement. Even the penal-substitutionary. For me what's conserved there is the insight that there is absolutely nothing in the relationship between us and God that hasn't been dealt with and put right. But how you separate this from all the extra-Biblical dross that's sedimented over it is another queston.
 
Posted by Freehand (# 144) on :
 
Fr. Gregory, would you agree with psyduck in the following statement?

quote:
psyduck wrote:
I suspect that the answer is that while we feel guilt and uncertainty in the face of God's love, we will need some way of addressing its removal - and Christus Victor isn't about this.

With respect to Christus Victor, I would tack on the concept that Christ enters into us (and vice versa) and defeats sin within our own being. The defeat of sin in our life still requires sacrifice. Sin is not defeated by brute force but through submission to the consequences of sin.

Our role in our own salvation does more to provide guilt therapy than the belief that God sacrificed everything to provide a free gift (sorry if I'm over-simplified here). Substitutionary atonement did not help to alleviate and treat guilt in my life. Rather, it ballooned the guilt to cosmic proportions and exacerbated my sense of lostness. Substitutionary atonement claims a magical solution that amplifies the guilt when the transformation is not forthcoming. Christus Victor, for me, brought together faith and works into one holistic process of oneness with God. I am still on this journey irregardless of my state of unbelief. This is a great comfort in my agnosticism.

Freehand [Smile]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:
I suppose that it's a forgiveable limitation on Anselm (whose brain was probably fried after producing the Ontological Argument, if that's the sequence - can't be bothered to look it up as its nearly teatime!

I fully understood, or thought I fully understood, the Ontological Argument once.

When I say "once" I mean on one occasion only, about 25 years ago, one afternoon in a house full of theoretical physicists and philosophers near the Wear in Durham. (I, a mere biologist, was reading some of their books)

Understood properly, it seemed so obviously true as to be undeniable. "Why didn't I think of that before?!"

Others present on that occasion think that my apparent understanding, which was not readily communicable to anyone else present, may have had something to with certain chemicals ingested over the previous few days. Or whatever it was that I put in the hummus.
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
quote:
With respect to Christus Victor, I would tack on the concept that Christ enters into us (and vice versa) and defeats sin within our own being.
Sorry to leap in when you're waiting for Fr. G. I couldn't agree more; I'm just not sure that this is covered by Christus Victor. In fact part of what I'm trying to say is that there's no doctrine that covers all the bases on its own. What we have is a sprawling Christian language of what God was doing in Christ. A story, in fact, made up of many fused stories.

To my mind, the real affront isn't the idea of penal substitution as its elevation into the doctrine of the Atonement. I can see why people would need to say "It's like when you have a debt, and you've no idea how you're going to pay it - and you find that someone has already paid it for you out of sheer goodness!" I can see why someone would want - need - to say "All those things that have gone wrong in my life, all those things I've done wrong, all the hurt I've caused, everything I have become - I felt that constantly coming between me and God. And somehow, it's all been taken away!"

Of course, what happens doctrinally, to put us all in the same boat, is that the work of Christ is tied to a formal concept of Original Sin that is the same for all of us. In that sense, the line back to Augustine is clear.

My understanding of Original Sin is empirical though. We don't theorize it from a theological description of our relationship with God, or from our exegesis of a story about a couple in agarden with a snake and a daud of fruit. We start with a world out of joint, with skewed and hurtful relations, and we understand these in the light of the stories and the theology. Original Sin's to do with what's wrong in the world and in our relation to it. (I actually have problems seeing how you can theologize environmental concerns without an understanding of Original Sin.) But it seems to me that Original Sin is something which in the first place alienates us from God, and creates a fallen world of fallen relationships in which we are powerless. It seems to me that Christus Victor is to do with the overcoming of those things out there and therefore in me which hold me fast and alienate me from God.

It seems to me too that the act which creates the grounds of our acceptance by God in love - the authoritative declaration that this is how, and how much, God loves us (Abelard) is the redemption/justification which destroys the old legal framework, and opens the door to the process of Sanctification (God's liberation of us from all that holds us fast) which follows. It's less like God acquitting us, than it is like God the judge standing up in court, taking off his wig and robes (let our transatlantic brethren understand...) and saying "Actually, we're not going to do it this way..."

In other words, I can't see that the defeat of sin in our own being can be rigorously distinguished from its eradication from all our relationships. And the prelude to God's transforming us and our relationships is God's unconditional loving acceptance of us as we are - which is the only atonement that ultimately really makes sense. Because that's the atonement that's present everywhere in the New Testament, wherever Jesus Christ is, in Jesus' ministry as well as in the cross. In the end, Jesus Christ is the Christian Doctrine of the Atonement. End of story. (But not of thread, I bet!!)
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Ken:
quote:
I fully understood, or thought I fully understood, the Ontological Argument once.
I've never been able to afford enough Laphroaig... [Yipee] [Confused] [Yipee] [Ultra confused]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:
I suppose that it's a forgiveable limitation on Anselm (whose brain was probably fried after producing the Ontological Argument, if that's the sequence - can't be bothered to look it up as its nearly teatime!

I fully understood, or thought I fully understood, the Ontological Argument once.

When I say "once" I mean on one occasion only, about 25 years ago, one afternoon in a house full of theoretical physicists and philosophers near the Wear in Durham. (I, a mere biologist, was reading some of their books)

Understood properly, it seemed so obviously true as to be undeniable. "Why didn't I think of that before?!"

Others present on that occasion think that my apparent understanding, which was not readily communicable to anyone else present, may have had something to with certain chemicals ingested over the previous few days. Or whatever it was that I put in the hummus.
 
Posted by Nightlamp (# 266) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:


Nightlamp: I did run on from Anselm to Calvin, though I really intended 'penal substitutionary' to do duty for a whole category that 'substitutionary' on its own doesn't cover. The point is that the death of Christ does restitution for a punishable wrong that he is innocent of. Substitutionary indicates no more than that Christ dies in our place. Penal, you might well argue, doesn't really do justice to the feudal structure of thought in which Anselm's doctrine is embedded, but the point is that a lawfully-established system of relationships privileging God's rights and honour (Anselm) or God's law (Calvin) has been infringed, and the infringement cannot be overlooked.


The crucial difference between Calvin (Penal substitution) and Anselm (substitution) is Calvin held that Jesus died in our place whilst anslem held that jesus releases us from punishment through satisfaction.

Still with Ablelard you have to ask why did jesus need to die?
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
(Mark ... I don't think that quote was from me .. it's not something I would say).

Freehand .... there is a diference between guilt and shame. Guilt must relate to what I do (or envisage) .. not a generic inheritance, (as against a western understanding or original sin of course ... and the shame that goes with it .... sex ... oh dear, neuroses here we come).

Shame is what I feel about what I do or envision. Guilt cannot exist authentically without some reliable moral compass. Guilt dissolves into shame when this moral compass is not available. Shame is only reliable once guilt is anchored.

In our quicksand age, guilt is not anchored at all. Hence in a post Freudian context, guilt is always the enemy. No wonder ... if it's not reliable. This is why modern psychiatry is so popular, lucrative .... and ineffective .... wrong diagnosis .... wrong cure.

In atonement terms we have to start from somewhere else other than guilt. Orthodox start with death and alienation (booted out of Eden for our own good) not guilt. Repentance is not a gut wrenching morbid turmoil kind of thing ... it's coming home. NOT coming home is a feeling of unease ... dis-ease. We are not where we should be. "I shall arise and say to my Father ..."

Dear Psyduck

I wish I could be democtratic on atonement but I cannot. I need a framework that will include all atonement themes and, moreover, integrate the death and resurrection of Christ in one co-equal divine movement. Christus Victor is the only framework that manages to achieve this. For example, in substitutionary atonement, (penal or otherwise Gamaliel), the resurrection is hardly necessary. Once one is right with God ... that's it ... end of story. When I have spoken to SubAt types on this they simply say that the resurrection vindicates the sacrifice of Christ and offers hope "beyond the grave." There is no SALVIFIC significance in the resurrection itself here at all. Only Christus Victor embraces all the other elements. It is not called the "Classic" theory for nothing. Luther seemed quite attached to it, (notwithstanding the pull of St. Augustine).
 
Posted by JimT (# 142) on :
 
My latest brush with this topic occurred at a lecture given by Marcus Borg. He said that he didn't believe in a conscious life after death, so I surmised that he did not see the death of Christ as providing for nor paving the way to conscious life after death. He also said that he believed the message of Christ to be principally about the locus of authority over one's soul or self. If I understood him, he seemed to say that Christ asserted his own right to govern his own soul in prayerful and contemplative connection with the image of God inside him. He attempted to explain to others that they had the same right and should assert it against religious and secular authorities should they sense any attempt to usurp this right by force.

Listening to this, I put together a picture that Jesus vainly tried to assure the religious authorities that although he thought that some of them had completely lost sight of the purpose of the law, he was not arguing for its abolition nor for his own elevation as supreme religious authority. He failed in this cause and convinced the religious rulers that he represented enough of a threat to their authority and established traditions to merit death. Once they convinced the Romans, who were merciless in their requirement of submission to their own absolute authority in every province of life, that he represented at least a brash challenge to their asserted unlimited authority, death became inevitable and Jesus submitted to it in a loving act of spiritual defiance with the faith that it would plant a seed that would eventually blossom into his vision of a kingdom of heaven rather than a kingdom of Jewish and Roman rulers.

It makes some kind of sense to me and I can weave a post modern interpretation of Jesus as fulfiller of law, the first and original Son of God, victor over death in that death could not be used to intimidate him, and the one who died in our place so that religious and secular authorities eventually allowed the protection of individual rights that give us the priviledge of speaking our hearts and minds here. And more. In terms of Jesus' more apocalyptic prophesies, I am not sure as to where they came from nor what they really mean.
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
So, Borg is about self determination. How West Coast! No wonder he finds it difficult to fit Easter into TA theology. I'm OK, you're OK, Jesus says so, screw the screwing authorities. I think that this is a gross trivialisation of the Christian gospel.
 
Posted by lanky_badger (# 3514) on :
 
I'm not sure I can follow these arguments, as I'm only a simple lad (well, I am a Christian, after all).

I don't understand why atonement - as our sin absolved by Jesus' death - would 'trivialise' Christianity?

I do not mean to suggest the any of the ideas that have been put forward are incorrect, merely that i don't understand them (although, by nature somebody's gotta be wrong if anyone's right).

a little help?

[ 29. November 2003, 19:52: Message edited by: lanky_badger ]
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Lanky Badger

I didn't say that being absolved by Christ's death trivialised Christianity ... I said that Borg's minimalist theology of protest trivialised Christianity. It's just another rehash of Jesus the vindicated revolutionary. Being absolved by Christ's death is a much deeper and richer concept.

[ 29. November 2003, 20:19: Message edited by: Fr. Gregory ]
 
Posted by JimT (# 142) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Fr. Gregory:
So, Borg is about self determination. How West Coast! No wonder he finds it difficult to fit Easter into TA theology. I'm OK, you're OK, Jesus says so, screw the screwing authorities. I think that this is a gross trivialisation of the Christian gospel.

I should not be taken as a gospel authority on Borg and the comments he made were in connection to a specific question from the audience on what "Son of God" means. I'll leave it to others to debate how much Borg has trivilized the gospel, but as one who was properly diagnosed, treated, and at least functionally cured by psychotherapy I can say that this is a gross trivialization of the effectiveness of psychotherapy:

quote:
Originally posted by Fr. Gregory:
This is why modern psychiatry is so popular, lucrative .... and ineffective .... wrong diagnosis .... wrong cure.

As proof of my cure, I offer this: I only smiled when I saw it and felt a warm liking of the fervency it displays rather than a need to confront, discredit, and rage against it.
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
quote:
(Mark ... I don't think that quote was from me .. it's not something I would say)
no, sorry....I should have made that clear in my post
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Fr Gregory, I too, have heard SA proponents explain the resurrection like that and tag it on almost as an afterthought. I wouldn't say that was typical of all SA types though, only those that major on the penal aspect almost to the detriment of everything else. As Psyduck says, the big issue isn't SA itself but the implication that SA is the only allowable 'take' on the matter.

You know more about this than I do. So does Psyduck and many others on this thread. You've studied theology formally. I haven't. Yet my gut-instinct inclines me to be more democratic than you are in trying to absorb and reconcile the various theories. I don't see why they should be mutually exclusive. Some people tell me I'm no longer an evangelical, for instance, and that I'm only clinging onto it because I'm nervous about moving on. I can't see why I can't be an evangelical still and yet embrace insights from other traditions - your own and Psyduck's for instance, and indeed many more besides.

Equally, I don't see why we have to weld ourselves unremittingly to any one particular atonement theory. Sure, the 'classic' theory is fantastic - but surely there are other insights that might not be so all-embracing and so important but which it can, in turn, absorb and be illuminated by? Or am I being naive?

Correct me if I'm wrong, but Orthodox theology emphasises that we are saved by Christ's life, classic evangelical theology that we are saved by his atoning death. The two aren't mutually exclusive. We are saved by his life, death and glorious resurrection - and of course his continuing intercession. We are saved by Christ. Period.

I'll admit that many evo's are weak on all of this. That's why we need the Orthodox, among others, to help us out. We all need each other.

Gamaliel
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Nightlamp:
quote:
Still with Ablelard you have to ask why did jesus need to die?

I think there's a hidden logic in Abelard. Jesus needed to die because they crucified him. That's the sort of world this is. That's what happens when love in its self-giving purity is incarnated in a world like this. As Fr. Herbert McCabe says, this is a crucifying world. If you love in a world like this, you'll get hurt. If you love enough, you'll get crucified. Something rather similar is said by Leander Keck, who argues (I hope I'm reproducing this accurately; it's years since I read it) in A Future for the Historical Jesus? that the crucifixion is the inevitable upshot of the life that Jesus lives. And the resurrection is God's validation of this life in the face of the world's rejection of it - this is the valid life which Christians must themselves strive to live. That's an avowedly liberal Protestant construal, but I think it has considerable power.

As to your accusation that I was very sloppy in conscripting Aneselm under the banner of penal-substitutionary atonement, you'r quite right. Hey, it was Saturday afternoon... (But no excuse.) What I meant was that this line of thought, in which a price which must be paid is paid on our behalf by Jesus, begna to be formulated with Anselm, which is why the three bog-standard alternatives in the field are usually Anselm and descendants, Abelard and Christus Victor (which is usually allowed to subsume a considerable variety of Orthodox views as well as Martin Luther.) However, I'm not sure that your own terminology is correct: substitutionary atonement certainly is the view that Christ dies in our place - he is where we should be. Anselm's point, however, is that Christ dies on our behalf.

Now here's a thought. Let's go back to this original grouping of 'Anselmian' viewpoints. Let's understand them as entailing that the problem of atonement is a mess that we've made, or have been implicated in, or are complicit in. This is what God must deal with. Let's separate them into "in our place" (penal substitutionary in the strict sense) views, and "for our sake" views.

I think it's actually possible to group at least some "Abelardian" perspectives under the "for our sake" heading. The world is a murderous mess, in which, to get by without being hurt, we put up screens, and defences, and we 'get our retaliation in first'. Love verges on the impossible, because wherever it appears, it is wounded and trashed. What God does in Christ is to enter the world, open and vulnerable, and live out the fulness of committed love. And the inevitable happens. The cross. But the cross and the resurrection together are the ultimate, radical validation of love. Sure, it may be risky, sure, you'll get hurt living like this, sure it may seem like the ultimate 'mugs' game' - but all of a sudden, in Jesus Christ, it can be seen as God's game too.

Am I saying that it's only the entry of Christ into the world that allows us to love? Of course not. But it's only this story that makes sacrificial love of another seem anything other than meaningless, irrational and at best an impossibly, stupidly noble and beautiful raging against the dark.

Now this makes something else possible as well. It makes it possible to see acts of sheer, selfless love, even perpetrated in ignorance, atheism or despair, as being a covert faith in the way the universe really is. It gets us off that dreadful hook of having to believe that only people who are paid-up, signed on the dotted line menbers of the One True Church, AKA my church, have any sort of relationship with God. To love is to know God. That's Biblical enough, isn't it?

And God, in Christ does this for our sakes. He does it to get us out of the loveless mess that our world has become, and in which we are complicit. He loves with the love that we should have.

And yes, of course I'm blurring the distinctions among all these doctrines. Because the taxonomy is important if you want to understand how the atonement has been understood. But if you want the fulness of the atonement, you have to understand that all these understandings of it are complementary.

In other words, Nightlamp, I don't think all of this is in Abelard. But I do think that you can generate an understanding like this if you connect Abelard up to all the other understandings that Scripture has generated, and, far more importantly, keep going back to Scripture itself.
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
markporter - it was me what said that line about 'inevitably' choosing evil. Perhaps 'inevitably' was the wrong word. 'Universally and invariably, as soon as the choice presents itself as a real choice' was the idea I was looking for. Hence St Paul: 'All have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God'.

It's interesting to see on this thread a number of Protestant and evangelical contributors saying that SA theory isn't the only way of looking at things. I had always thought that conservative evangelical groups demanded adherence to SA theory of their members - Reform and the Church Society being but two. Can anyone tell me how I might have erroneously acquired this impression?

psyduck - the reason there is no single Orthodox 'doctrine' of the atonement is that, unlike the impression I seem to have wrongly acquired of conservative evangelical teaching, orthodox Christians have never sought to pin down the atonement to a monolithic doctrine. They have always acknowledged that it can be seen in a number of ways, and have stenuously preserved this idea by not 'crystallising' it.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
It's interesting to see on this thread a number of Protestant and evangelical contributors saying that SA theory isn't the only way of looking at things. I had always thought that conservative evangelical groups demanded adherence to SA theory of their members - Reform and the Church Society being but two. Can anyone tell me how I might have erroneously acquired this impression?

One way might have been a 1999 document, published by Christianity Today, titled "A Call to Evangelical Unity."

quote:
8. We affirm that the atonement of Christ by which, in his obedience, he offered a perfect sacrifice, propitiating the Father by paying for our sins and satisfying divine justice on our behalf according to God’s eternal plan, is an essential element of the Gospel.
We deny that any view of the Atonement that rejects the substitutionary satisfaction of divine justice, accomplished vicariously for believers, is compatible with the teaching of the Gospel.

11. We affirm that the biblical doctrine of justification by faith alone in Christ alone is essential to the Gospel (Rom. 3:28; 4:5; Gal. 2:16).
We deny that any person can believe the biblical Gospel and at the same time reject the apostolic teaching of justification by faith alone in Christ alone. We also deny that there is more than one true Gospel (Gal. 1:6–9).

12. We affirm that the doctrine of the imputation (reckoning or counting) both of our sins to Christ and of his righteousness to us, whereby our sins are fully forgiven and we are fully accepted, is essential to the biblical Gospel (2 Cor. 5:19–21).
We deny that we are justified by the righteousness of Christ infused into us or by any righteousness that is thought to inhere within us.

13. We affirm that the righteousness of Christ by which we are justified is properly his own, which he achieved apart from us, in and by his perfect obedience. This righteousness is counted, reckoned, or imputed to us by the forensic (that is, legal) declaration of God, as the sole ground of our justification.
We deny that any works we perform at any stage of our existence add to the merit of Christ or earn for us any merit that contributes in any way to the ground of our justification (Gal. 2:16; Eph. 2:8–9; Titus 3:5).

14. We affirm that, while all believers are indwelt by the Holy Spirit and are in the process of being made holy and conformed to the image of Christ, those consequences of justification are not its ground. God declares us just, remits our sins, and adopts us as his children, by his grace alone, and through faith alone, because of Christ alone, while we are still sinners (Rom. 4:5).
We deny that believers must be inherently righteous by virtue of their cooperation with God’s life-transforming grace before God will declare them justified in Christ. We are justified while we are still sinners.

This document makes my hair stand on end, especially the part about faith alone and being justified while we are still sinners, our cooperation being meaningless.

In any case, it does seem that, according to this document, conservative evangelical groups demand adherence to SA theory of their members.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
It's interesting to see on this thread a number of Protestant and evangelical contributors saying that SA theory isn't the only way of looking at things. I had always thought that conservative evangelical groups demanded adherence to SA theory of their members - Reform and the Church Society being but two. Can anyone tell me how I might have erroneously acquired this impression?

SA is a shibboleth. It is not seen by anyone (or at least hardly anyone!) as the only way to understand the work of Christ, but as a fundamentally important facet of understanding the work of Christ - particularly in the context of distinguishing themselves from liberal theology.

It's like T.U.L.I.P. - which (contrary to popular opinion) doesn't summarise the teaching of Calvinism, it only highlight it's differences with Arminianism.

But with the passing of time - in some circles, the point of difference becomes the point of emphasis.
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
Fr G,
quote:
For example, in substitutionary atonement, (penal or otherwise Gamaliel), the resurrection is hardly necessary. Once one is right with God ... that's it ... end of story. When I have spoken to SubAt types on this they simply say that the resurrection vindicates the sacrifice of Christ and offers hope "beyond the grave." There is no SALVIFIC significance in the resurrection itself here at all.
Well, they must be being very simplistic and trying to convert you [Biased] ...

I've never heard of the crucifixion being separated from the resurrection apart from those bits of the church who emphasise Good Friday. The two should go together, inextricably married. SAs (I keep reading that as S&M [Big Grin] ) that I've heard emphasise our identification with Christ's death and resurrection. Galatians:"I have been crucified with Christ, nevertheless I live and the life I now live, I live by faith in the Son of God who loved me and gave himself for me" Romans:"So you must consider yourselves dead to sin and alive to God in Christ Jesus."

Any that don't have that identification, or only think of it to do with life after death are not being very bright. [Roll Eyes]
 
Posted by lanky_badger (# 3514) on :
 
hey! that's not fair. you're quoting the bible! [Biased]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I think it is fair to say that conservative evangelicals do demand an adherence to substitutionary atonement. This doesn't mean that they are completely closed to other understandings - simply that the propiatory aspect has to be part of any understanding of the atonement if the Gospel is really going to be the Gospel.

I can understand why this causes people to shudder. I don't have a big beef about SA - provided one doesn't understand it in a crude court-room drama way. I do think Dr Martyn Lloyd Jones went too far, though, when he doubted whether CS Lewis was 'saved' just because Lewis was squeamish about SA.

Ok, ok, so I've imbibed Augustinian and Calvinistic theology. But I do think it's fair to say that many people in evangelical circles - both conservative and charismatic - are open to some form of Christus Victor approach and that the Resurrection isn't entirely missing from the evangelical landscape - 'how much more shall we be saved by his life ...', 'by the power of an indestructible life' etc...

Evangelicals do tend to be pretty big on Hebrews as well as Romans. We can be overly juridical but we're big on the 'if Christ be not raised your faith is futile, you are still in your sins' bit.

I'm not saying that evangelicals have the only correct 'take' on this - although I'm often tempted to argue that evangelicalism does preserve elements of the Gospel often down-played or even overlooked in other traditions. Just as other traditions emphasise aspects overlooked or down-played within evangelicalism.

I used to be a real git with SA ... on a bad day I could almost relish the blood and gore and punishment etc. [Hot and Hormonal]

I'm not proud of this and I've broadened and balanced out considerably. I'd have brow-beaten and proof-texted Fr Gregory and Freddy mercilessly at one time but now I bow to their insight and judgement ... [Overused] yet still reserve the right to hold to a modified SA view. Why? Not because I'm bolshie, awkward or a complete git - although these may be true - but because what I've read of SA in works like John Stott's 'The Cross of Christ' do appear, to me at least, to make sense of the Biblical data. What bugs me about Fr Gregory's approach (and I'm a big fan of his nevertheless [Biased] ) is that it doesn't appear to allow any room whatsoever for even the tiniest smidgen of a hint of SA. If elements of SA couldn't be seen in scripture then the whole Augustinian/Anselmic/Reformation tradition wouldn't have developed it. Am I missing something?

I'm getting confused. Someone put me out of my misery. Am I that far off the mark? [Ultra confused]

Gamaliel
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
As is also outlined in my forthcoming
book " Even more arguments against substitutionary atonement Volume 14 " I propose another obvious problem with the notion of vicarious and substitutionary atonement:

How can it be justice for one person to die for the sins of another? If the argument is that God's justice is satisfied by someone else excepting my punishment, how is that right? Surely we should only suffer for our own sins and not anyone elses. If someone pays the debt then we have simply transferred our debt to a different creditor. If someone is punished for us, then haven't we unjustly been allowed to "get away with it" while there has also been a terrible miscarriage of justice upon the innocent whether they volunteered to suffer our penalty or not?

You see, I do understand the idea of justice needing to be "satisfied". God can't just let us off/forgive us if we have done bad things, as surely this would mean the collapse of the whole moral order of the universe. Moral values are only upheld if there is a strict requirement to make amends or at least change our ways. (some may recognise this as a version of the old Moral Government theory, but it makes huge sense to me)

While criticising SA, I note the need to satisfy the demands of justice does not seem to be provided for by other theories of the atonement. Indeed while I carry little favour for evangelical religion, the liberal christian's God seems a trifle too indulgent, and indeed immoral.
My solution is that we each have to pay for our sins either on earth or in some kind of future purgatory. Whatever theory is used, the problem remains: no one else can really atone for our sins, only we can. period.
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
quote:
If someone pays the debt then we have simply transferred our debt to a different creditor. If someone is punished for us, then haven't we unjustly been allowed to "get away with it" while there has also been a terrible miscarriage of justice upon the innocent whether they volunteered to suffer our penalty or not?
it depends upon what you believe the primary purpose of justice to be.
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
There can be an enjoyment of the grisly, bloody idea of punishment too. When we're furious with someone who's hurt us, or we're gasping for justice because of the horrors some people or other have carried out, the idea that there is dire punishment in the offing for them can be pleasurable. And then it can feel unfair that they get their punishment taken over by Jesus...
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
There was a very informative and helpful post from a guy on another forum, that it might help to quote some of here

quote:

In summation, Lewis argues here that the moral value of retributive punishment lies in its revelatory function. Punishment reveals to the one punished the existential horror of his or her evil. The moral value of punishment consists of its not allowing its recipient to continue in the illusion that his or her evil finds no opposition in the universe. In this way, punishment functions as a means of exposure . It revels the true ugliness of evil, and as such, divine punishment reveals truth about the goodness of God and GodŐs holy opposition to evil.

(the full post is at post if it helps anyone)

[Edited for link.]

[ 30. November 2003, 21:57: Message edited by: Tortuf ]
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
fatprophet,
it's not just someone or other "paying" for us, it's God taking the responsibility and paying for us.

And having God as the one we owe everything to is the reason that SA people say we dedicate ourselves wholly to God.
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
another concept that I feel like adding is that God cannot totally righteously pour out his blessings on anything that is less than perfect.....us not being perfect presents a bit of a problem, and so he comes down to live with us and make himself the perfect offering/sacrifice which allows God to pour out upon us the blessings which he want to do so.
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
So Mark, you consider, with Lewis, that the primary purpose of punishment is revelatory? I am reminded of Lewis' objection to the idea of punishment as deterrence; I recall he noted that deterrence could be equally served by some innocent person getting punished for the wrongs of another, and that for Lewis this among other reasons is why the idea of punishment as deterrence is inadequate.
So you are suggesting perhaps that punishing an innocent person would be as good as punishing a bad person because it at least reveals moral government and righteous outrage?
Im afraid I really do believe that some people "deserve" punishment. Though my attachment to a theory of deserts (spelling=puddings?) is not for sheer sadistic enjoyment as opponents of retributive justice (which I won't swing for - pardon the pun) like Daisymay might suggest!
Rather the idea of personally deserved punishment makes sense because we are only truly morally responsible - and only truly free - when we "own" the consequences of our actions including the bad results. Furthermore the notion of desert and making of personal amends recongises that evil must not simply be recognised, it must also be "reversed". You see justice properly understood, involves the rebalancing that must be carried out to actually stop and cancel evil, and restrain the power of the strong over the weak, which would otherwise dominate in society.

Penal justice takes from the wrongdoer something equivalent to that which he has stolen from/ deprived his victim of. Otherwise the wrongdoer will have "gained" from evil which cannot be so - the gain may be tangible property, but more likely it will be an abuse of freedom, the seizing of 'will to power', domination over the victim and society. The restraint of the wrongdoer by justice reverses this: his making amends or humbling means that evil has been counterbalanced and thus cancelled (if you like -justice aims thus:
-1 (the sin) +1 (the amends)= 0(justice)
Yes I note view that the idea of desert embodies the desire for revenge (when maybe the converse is the case) and this view is used to write off the whole notion of individual desert. However when we do some work, don't we feel we "deserve" to get paid for it? When someone does something nasty to us without provocation, don't we feel that we didn't "deserve" that? When we revenge, are we not (at the best) trying to equalise that which has been taken from us, so they recognise how we feel and don't gain advantage with their wrongdoing? Our very language, not to mention our system of law embodies the notion of deserts. Indeed it is so ingrained that we also think the punishment should fit the crime - the milder the offence, the lesser the punishment (though punishment as prevention or rehabilitation needs no link between length of punishment and gravity of offence) Only the notion of deserts explains the way we think about justice in everyday terms.

I do know there is value in the argument that justice is revelatory but, to my mind, we cannot have an idea of justice that breaks the link between the perpetrator and the person suffering the punishment. Vicarious atonement does just that: the sinner gets off with a "get out of jail and get into heaven card" and Jesus takes the rap. Thankyou Jesus. But if divine justice was based on a legal fiction to appear to uphold moral government, but didn't actually uphold it then what would be the value in that?? Perhaps God knows.
 
Posted by markporter (# 4276) on :
 
you seem to be taking the punishment more as taking from him who committed the crime, I think that perhaps it has more to do with the giving to him who was offended against.

I hope you don't mind me quoting another article, this time from tekton, about the was justice works in our society:

quote:
Punishment/restitution. This can mean a fine, a return of property, or even a prison sentence, the latter being conceived as a way of "paying" society for the crime committed.

Rehabilitation. I.e., taking steps to ensure that the person does not do the crime again.

Protection of the innocent. Until #2 above is done, this is the way to keep people from being victimized further.

The other point is that, Jesus having payed for our crimes, we now have an obligation toward him for having done that. It's not that he pays and that has no effect on us.
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
fatprophet,
it's not just someone or other "paying" for us, it's God taking the responsibility and paying for us.

And having God as the one we owe everything to is the reason that SA people say we dedicate ourselves wholly to God.

I'm not sure I understand the difference between someone else paying and God paying. Whatever, we are still avoiding paying ourselves and I thought God had to uphold justice? Can God really let people off for nothing, without any effort on their part. I know its basic Christianity but does it make sense really?

Perhaps you mean that since God is the one who we "owe" the debt too, then God's paying himself does not offend justice as there is no "higher" justice than God himself anyway. This might well make more sense.

You have made me pause for thought Daisymay. Thanks.

And stop for some sleep. nitey nite!
 
Posted by Grits (# 4169) on :
 
As usual, I am seeing plenty of names, book titles, terminology and philosophy batted about. And while I admire the obvious study and knowledge presented by this, I can never understand why no one wants to go to the Book.

Christ's last words on the cross were, "It is finished." In the original text this is a one word phrase which means, "Paid in full." It is the word that was stamped on papers of credit when the last payment of the debt was made.

From the cross, Christ cried out -- to the Father, to the world, and to us -- "It is paid in full."

How can that be so hard to understand?
 
Posted by RuthW (# 13) on :
 
If that's true, Grits, then why is the line never translated that way? And what's your source for that assertion?
 
Posted by Grits (# 4169) on :
 
It is the Greek word tetelestai. When a debt was fully paid, this word would be written on a loan document, will, or letter. It was also used on tax receipts. In the first century, when people had paid their debt in full, they would shout out the word tetelestai. It was a shout of triumph or victory, if you will. I don't know why both the King James and the New International Versions of the Bible translate tetelestai as, "It is finished."

So, in essence, it was a cry of victory as much as a pronouncement of atonement, wouldn't you think? It seems the melding of the two lines of thought on this is a pretty reasonable interpretation.
 
Posted by Freehand (# 144) on :
 
Psyduck, despite your exceeding eloquence, I still cannot fathom how substitutionary atonement addresses the problem of guilt. As I see it, substitutionary atonement places the problem within God. We are not acceptable to God because we have violated justice and God must balance the scale. Jesus satisfies God's justice and makes God able to accept us. To me, substitutionary atonement explains more about God coming to terms with sin than it does about our condition.

I don't think that God has any problems loving us under any conditions. I find any lesser view of God to be irreconcilable with a God of love, even from a purely logical perspective. The problem is not about God's enmity against sin but about our internal self-alienation that prevents us from accepting God's love. It is not that God cannot tolerate sin but that we have been captured in a net of self-hatred. God's love is omnipresent whether we perceive it or not.

As such, I don't see the cross as God balancing the scale. Like you said, it's more like the judge taking off his wig and stepping out of the rigid justice structure. Love cannot be legislated by a law of justice. After all, love does not flow out of obedience to a system of punitive justice. Rather, true justice flows out of a heart of love. How this looks in real life is obviously much messier and this is a great problem for our conceptualizations.

I don't see the cross as necessary. I think that God can love and forgive us with or without such a dramatic expression of love. Perhaps part of the problem is the attempt to look for some sort of philosophical necessity to drive God to go through such pain. I suppose that this pushes me towards the view of Abelard but, really, I go much further. I don't believe that there is a life after this life. I don't believe in making a distinction between the spiritual realm and the physical realm. I don't even believe in making a distinction between God and the "creation". I see God as the very substance of the universe and myself as one interactive piece of it all. (Maybe I am talking out my ass. What is the difference between thinking this way and not believing in God at all? I don't know.) I guess that my fundamental assumption is that at-one-ment is the very nature of things and that it is our confusion that fragments the world into conflict. (How very optimistic of me. [Biased] )

I have had my share of troubles, like anyone else, and there have been times when I have reached points of high crisis. At these points, I released my problems to God and I found some sort of transcendent acceptance and peace. It had nothing to do with repentance (though, by God, I have done a hell of a lot of it). It was more to do with releasing control and finding, to my great surprise, that the world is not exclusively shit. If anything, this experience is closer to Taoism than anything that I have found within Christianity.

So, what do I see in the cross? I see the dynamic of Jesus relinquishing control over evil around him, even submitting to it, trusting his welfare to the Father. I see love and weakness transcending evil and strength. Ultimately, I don't even believe that it is a true story. I don't believe the afterlife or that Jesus rose again. I don't believe that Jesus was God. However, I do see the story as a true dynamic of humanity and of my own life. At my skeptical times, I see it as a feeble hope but ultimately I have been staking my life on it. [Votive]

Freehand [Smile]
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
Grits - going to the Book is precisely what knocks out the idea that SA is the only way of looking at things. There are plenty of Biblical passages that suggest the whole thing is partly about a battle to the death with the power of Death. (I don't like proof texting, but I could.)

SA may well be one (among several) ways of looking at things. But as several people on this thread have pointed out, it has its problems:
(1) The whole idea of paying a debt: by whom, to whom, and for what? In particular, how can God be said to 'owe' anyone anything?
(2) Some formulations of SA require God to be subjected to an idea (our idea?) of Justice (the debt is paid so the 'God's Justice', rather than God Himself, can be 'satisfied') - but surely God can't be subjected to anything?
(3) Far from dealing with feelings of guilt, SA can actually increase them - whenever I look at Jesus on the cross, SA tells me it's me who 'should' be there.

It's point (3) that says to me that SA is the wrong viewpoint for our time. The huge increase in the market for psychoanalysis and various kinds of counselling shows clearly that we modern westerners are pathologically guilt-ridden people. Why are people going to listen to a version of a 'gospel' that actually adds to their feelings of guilt? To put it bluntly, when your mother, your partner and your boss are heaping guilt on you, who wants a God who'll only join in with them?
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
I think, Adeodatus, that some of the getting rid of guilt business is what freehand was saying - the "letting go" experience.

If a church keeps going on about how full of guilt and shame we are, they are preventing us doing that. The CofS ethos I grew up in somehow emphasised that (and it was the local culture too) to the extent that it was regarded as arrogance for anyone to say, "I am a Christian" rather than "I hope I am a Christian." Nowadays, I never say the prayer that says how unworthy we are to even gather up the crumbs under the table. I haven't yet managed to let go of the anger I feel about it being included in services. [Biased]

Any place that is teaching about SA should also be teaching about the idea that the guilt has gone. Visualisations like dumping our bags of rubbish at the foot of the cross and not picking them up again. Identification of dying with Christ and rising with Christ. Being clothed in robes of righteousness. If they are only banging on about justification and not sanctification, they are not looking at or teaching anything like the whole picture.

Grit's picture of the stamp is a useful one not only for the "finish" but for the "new start".
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
Missed something and edit was too slow.

There's that story of the guilt-racked person asking God to forgive them for something they had already asked forgiveness for the previous day. God looks round and says, "I can't see anything. It's already disappeared." It's what you're saying - we are so full of toxic guilt and shame that the church needs to find ways to help us leave them behind and go forward into [Yipee] life.
 
Posted by Dr Phizz (# 4770) on :
 
Radio 4 had an interesting program on this here . If you've got half an hour it's worth a listen. There's another program on the Orthodox/Catholic schism as well.

Anyway one of the contributors made an interesting remark which has started me thinking on a new version of the story. Can someone classify/repudiate this please.

Jesus is the ultimate scapegoat. OK I know this is pretty orthodox but I mean scapegoat in the ordinary English sense of the word. Jesus dies to point out how stupid our sense of justice is. To point out how limited our understanding of access to God is.

The Human condition is a cycle of scapegoating of one group by another followed by recrimination at the injustice of the scapegoating. Think about
the second world war and the middle east. Cycles of violence perpetuated by our sense of injustice.

What's the first big consequence of "original sin". Abel gets the blame for Cain feeling seperate from God. I used to feel sorry for Cain. I mean how was he supposed to know that God only liked meat? It's seems so arbritrary. Cain's sin is to be ready to kill to restore his understanding of Good and Evil rather than accept he can learn about God from his brother.

So God dies break the consequeces of our faulty judgements.

Appeals to me but then I got a P/j rating of 100%/0% on that psychological profile thingy [Biased]
 
Posted by testbear (# 4602) on :
 
Can I try something, purely to see if it works? Oh, go on, humour me...

If we start from God being holy ( - not just appearing to be holy, but actually setting out what holieness is just by his existence, defining it, being both the source and the reality of everything that can ever be described in any way as "good" or "goodness" - ) then where does that leave any ideas of sinfulness? Surely, if you say God = good and only God = good, then anything that is seperated from God, anything which is different from God in any way is bad? Or, perhaps more to the point, is not good, because it is not God? Is that unreasonable?

It's always been my understanding that from the moment at which Eve decided to bring a course of action which involved "not-God" into the way things were going to happen, then there was an element of "not-God" (and hence "not-good") in the consequences of that choice...? (As for the debates about what the choice actually was, and if there had to be an element of "not-God" for there to be a choice in the first place, etc, well, those are other topics for other days.)

So.

Can God (who is, let's remember, holy - who is the one thing, nevermind person, which can ever be said to bear even the slightest resemblence to "good" (I understate this purely as a literary technique, you understand)) and "not-God" co-exist? No, runs the arguement, because if God ever came into contact with "not-God", either God would have a part of "not-God" in him, and hence not be God ( remember = 100% totally the definition of holiness and goodness, nothing more, nothing less), or the "not-God" would have a part of God in it. (But God is a total thing, not just little bits of holiness - it's all or nothing at all, so to speak). By definition (hopefully, for this arguement's sake) God and "not-God" are like black and white, on and off, top and bottom - no shades of grey, no sliding scale, no halfway point. Holiness has to be holiness-and-only-holiness, anything less is not-holy, not-good, not-God.

Yea? Nay?

So, from the initial point at which everything was God/good/holy we've now (in our arguement) come to the point at which there is this inconsistency, this not-good/not-holy in a universe which began as totally good/holy, right? The Fall has happened, there is now an element of not-God in the universe. And, since both "God" and "not-God" are 100% opposite ideas/states, then there's no such thing as a universe which is "a little bit not-God" - if it's even a teeeny tiny litttle bit seperated from God, then it's simply not God, is it? It might look pretty darn close to being God, it may well have you fooled, but it's just not God.

Which poses a problem. There's God, but with an entire world that he made which is now his opposite, his antithesis, something in which, by definition, he can never fully be himself in. He's God, it's not-God. He's good, it's no-good. He's holy, it's not-holy. And, likewise, every little bit of that world will be seperated from God, by definition totally unable to be God/good/holy, for the same reasons.

So where does that leave us? And where does that leave God? And, more to the point, where does that leave substitutionary atonement and its conterparts?

If God is going to come into contact with anything which is not-God, first of all the not-God needs to have its not-Godness taken away from it - if you take away what's not-God, all you're left with is God, right?

How do you get a stain out of a jumper? You soak it in water (and relevant chemicals, but let's not overwork ourselves here), let the water take all the bits of the stain into itself (becoming dirty water in the process), and then (most importantly) you make sure that the dirty water and the clean jumper become permanently seperated, and stay permanently seperated. By transferring the dirt into something else, the jumper is clean and the water is dirty, and it's the water which is now disposed of, instead of the jumper.

Does this have any bearing on God's situation? (Ha, my linguistic approach to this is rapidly becoming more amusing as I go on. ) Well...

What if (a dangerous phrase, I know) God could find a way of getting rid of everything that was not-God in the world? That would mean that the Godness would be all that's left, right? "Hmmm" I hear you murmur, "this indicates that the not-God part of the world is somehow linked with the God part of it, so that you can have them both making up the world and yet be able to seperate the two - and you've just said that the two can't exist together, haven't you?" Well, it's not that they're existing together - there's still a seperation between them. They're not the same thing, they're two very seperate and opposed parts of what makes up the whole thing. We, as the good book itself says, were made "in the image of God", but yet "all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God". God is still "in" the world, but we can't say he is the world - the world is not God/good/holy, the world is "not-God"/"not-good"/"not-holy".

So, if God could take all that is not-God/not-good/not-holy, and place it somewhere where it is seperate from him, this would mean that what is left would be God/good/holy, and so would not be seperate from him, right? This place where the not-God goes, let's call it Hell for arguements sake, has to exist if not-God has been brought into the equation, yes? Some would say this is the state of the world at the moment, but I say (as above) that the world is not-God sitting next to, but seperate from, God. Hell would have to be a place entirely without God at all - purely, wholly, 100% not-God. Oui? Non?

So how can God set this up? Well, I suppose this rests on another characteristic, another synonym for "God" which we can bring into the equation - "life". In the beginning, God was what created and sustained life as we understand it, and if we can say that before the Fall, the whole world was God/good/holy, let us add to this that we can say that this was what we mean by "life" - a state of existence which is the way God started it all off. Anything which is not-God/not-good/not-holy becomes not-life also, or what we would call Death. (Or just death, no capital? A small quibble, I think, but not something I'm 100% sure about the difference.)

So the world is sitting in this dual state - God next to but seperate from not-God, life sitting side by side with death. We can see both elements in our existence - we have life, but just as surely as we have life, there will be not-life.

If God can take something which is God (/good/holy/life) and seperate it from himself, then it becomes not-God (/not-good/not-holy/not-life). More to the point, if God can take something which is life, and place it in a state of death, then that state of death is defined as what is seperate from God. By taking all the not-God, and placing it in this state, this position, this place, then what remains will be God, yes? Now, all that this would take is for something which isn't just not-God sitting next to (but seperate from) God, but instead something which is simultaneously God and not-God, which has every single part of it holy/good/life, but at the same time is entirely not-good/not-holy/not-life. If you have this thing, and proceed to seperate it from God, then it's not-Godness would be seperate from God (as previously defined), but its Godness couldn't be seperated from God, since they're the same thing. Does that make sense?

To be honest, I've run out of time or energy to continue this tonight. I've saved this, and will most likely come back to it, but any comments on this would be much appreciated. I feel I've worked my way into a logical grammmatical corner, but I can't see it, and can't look for it. Thank you.
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
I like your train of thought, testbear, but I've spotted something that doesn't ring true for me.

I think you're thinking about the wrong God! You seem in most of your argument to be treting God as a thing or a concept (all that stuff about God and not-God not being able to be involved with each other). I think the argument would follow a different course if you took the classical Christian concept of God as person - or more accurately as Persons. Clearly a person can be closely involved and in contact with something that is not that person.

The supreme example of this, of course, is Christ, who in a manner of speaking is God and not-God at the same time, in one person!
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
I am not sure what you are getting at testbear, but it may be profound.

The two realms metaphor is useful in that it can express and explain the atonement as the result of God longing to unite with us, but that unification of God and Man inevitably costing God because God must, in a sense, descend into our realm to bring us to heaven on what was is in a sense a suicidal rescue mission.

I liken the incarnation and crucifixition to other analogies of rescue. Think of any situation where one must enter a dangerous place to rescue someone who is stranded and in mortal danger: a soldier caught in no-mans land, where someone must brave the cross fire to get to him; or a drowning man only rescued by the rescuer entering the dark, deep and cold waters himself; a person giving a blood transfusion to a dying man or a person running into a burning house, possibly sacrificing his life to save his family. Is Christ's death not like that to?


This is what I understand by the phrase that Christ "bears our sins/punishment". This is not the case of punishment of Jesus for our sins, but Jesus experiencing the conseqences of our sins (our punishment) simply and inevitably as a result of being in our world and uniting with our dark souls.

Lets put in testbear speak perhaps:

Atonement = God + NotGod, a positive minus its negation but God is infinite positive and so there is infinite remainder: God 'suffers' the subtraction, an emptying of himself into nothingness (incarnation, death on the cross), yet remains,(victory, resurrection)
 
Posted by Liber Usualis (# 5193) on :
 
This is all very well but it seems to me that one point that has not been looked at is the

quote:
It was taught more in the sense of God sacrificing himself
Surely this is the hieracy of Patripassianism or Sabellianism? God did not die on the cross – his Son did. God sent his Son to die and so sacrifice was an important factor but God did not sacrifice himself.

“ My God, my God, why hast though forsaken me?” surely highlights this fact with the obvious question: “If God suffered Christ’s pain, why did he send his Son?” It vital to make this difference know…

Liber.
 
Posted by Nightlamp (# 266) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Liber Usualis:
Surely this is the hieracy of Patripassianism or Sabellianism? God did not die on the cross – his Son did. God sent his Son to die and so sacrifice was an important factor but God did not sacrifice himself.


Are you denying the divinity of christ? that is arianism.
 
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on :
 
quote:
by Dr. Phizz: The Human condition is a cycle of scapegoating of one group by another followed by recrimination at the injustice of the scapegoating.
Doc, I haven't listened to the program yet, but the things you mention sound very much like Rene Girard to me. He talks a lot about scapegoating and mimetic violence. I believe he descibes the idea of Sa in terms of mimetic violence, and he rejects this view of sacrifice done in order to appease God. I think what he says is that Christ was in fact the ultimate scapegoat and gave himself for the life of the world, and in doing so he debunked all of the previous myths of sacrifice and patterns imitative rivalry that form our world.
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Nightlamp

With apologies to Liber Usualis for not addressing you directly first.

Strictly speaking I think that it's neo-Nestorianism ... what happened to the human nature (death) was completely separate from the divine nature .... almost to the point of there being two persons ... the human Jesus who died and the divine Christ who did not. However, I agree that the use of the word "Son" could indicate a "not-fully-God" version of Jesus which would be Arian. I have encountered this many many times. "Do you believe Jesus is God?" ... "No, but he is the Son of God." Which person acted here ... "Jesus or God?" etc. etc.

Dear Liber Usualis

You are of course spot on that God did not die or experience death on the Cross. I think that the source of Islam's take on Jesus, (being, essentially a gross Christian heresy), is that God cannot die .... therefore Jesus did not die on the cross but was carted off to the Kashmir .... OR that Jesus DID die .... and, therefore, cannot be God. (You see can hear faint echoes of this primitive and unresolved tension between Nestorianism and Monophysitism in Islam in the belief that Jesus was born of a Virgin and yet was nothing more than a prophet).

Islam resolved itself toward the hyper-Nestorian solution and lost contact with the Godhead except as to the inspirational / prophetic dimension, (which is hardly surprising since it was Nestorian Christianity with which Mohammed had the most contact).

The Orthodox resolution of this seeming paradox is that when Jesus died the human nature experienced death in the separation of the only and fully human soul and the only and fully human body ... the body being incorrupt and lying in the tomb (on account of union of the divine and human natures; that is an incorruptible body and a perfect humanity) ... the soul, fully energised by the divine nature and still in one personhood descending to Hades and imparting resurrection life to the righteous who had lived before the Incarnation, (which of course is the Orthodox icon of the resurrection).

At the resurrection of Christ the soul of Christ (human) was embodied afresh in a new creation body, taking the physical seed of its resurrection from the old incorrupt body but totally transformed. (I am limiting myself to Pauline language from 1 Corinthians 15).

Finally let me return to the death of Christ itself. When the human body and soul separated at death, ("Father into thy hands I commit my spirit") what was happening to the divine nature. Of course it was not compromised in any way and did not suffer in the sense that the humanity of Christ suffered. However, that is NOT to say that the divine nature had no communication of or experience of the pain suffered by the human nature ... physical, emotional, psychic, spiritual. More especially it is vital to keep in mind that there was a rent in the heart of God as Christ died. Just in as much as Christ experienced abandonment ... so also the Father experienced INEFFABLY the WILLING sacrifice of His Son ... for such is Love. The divine nature shared equally by the hypostases is cruciform in its aspect of Infinite Sacrificial Love ... an aspect which is eternal anyway in the trinitarian relations.

We must, therefore, avoid both the heresy of Patripassianism (the Father suffered) and all those heresies reflected in the decisions of the 2nd and 4th Ecumenical Councils that would too radically separate the human or the divine in Christ or occlude one in favour of the other.
 
Posted by Liber Usualis (# 5193) on :
 
Fr Gregory,

Thank you for your message. I seem to to be agreeing with you on almost everything that you have said here and I think that it was purely my wording that threw people off what I was saying. Indeed, I was not denying the divinity of Christ but merely stating that, and I think we agree, the Father did not suffer with the Son.
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
The Father did not suffer in exactly the same way as the Son, but they each suffered horribly and, I imagine, equally.

Isn't there a painting somewhere showing Christ being crucified, with the Father behind Him (where Jesus could not see) sheltering Him and the Holy Spirit overshadowing the whole image of pain?
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Daisymay

Any depiction of the Father is entirely wrong ... this includes such depictions on degraded "Orthodox" (heterodox actually) "icons" of the Trinity ... condemned by a Council of the Russian Church.

Nothing possessed of by the single divine nature ALONE, (in this case, the Father and the Spirit) can suffer in the direct sense. Only the human nature of Christ (assumed by the Logos / Word) can suffer. The effects of that suffering do however impinge on the Father in so far as he is not unmoved by the suffering of either the creation or His Son in His human nature.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
Isn't there a painting somewhere showing Christ being crucified, with the Father behind Him (where Jesus could not see) sheltering Him and the Holy Spirit overshadowing the whole image of pain?

The very odd sculptured altarpiece of the Joys of Mary currenlty on show int the Gothic exhibition at the V&A has that.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Fr. Gregory:
Any depiction of the Father is entirely wrong

Including the God the Father's self-description in the incarnate Jesus, or in the inspired scriptures?
 
Posted by Jerry Boam (# 4551) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Fr. Gregory:
Nothing possessed of by the single divine nature ALONE, (in this case, the Father and the Spirit) can suffer in the direct sense. Only the human nature of Christ (assumed by the Logos / Word) can suffer. The effects of that suffering do however impinge on the Father in so far as he is not unmoved by the suffering of either the creation or His Son in His human nature.

This strikes me as a very odd formulation...

My immediate reaction is that this seems like a kind of sophistry--that the church is making palusible and coherent statements about things it cannot psossibly know and seem unlikely to be true. It also seems to hang on some weird technical definition of suffering... God is "not unmoved" by the suffering of creation or the Son, but it would be wrong to characterise the way that he is moved as suffering? In what way is God moved then?

Then I think about the nature of empathy and how much I suffer when I see my own son or daughter suffering--How distressing it is to see any suffering and how I sometimes can't bring myself to watch the news when I am tired because I know that seeing all that suffering will be more than I can take. These thoughts lead me to consider stories that I read in the Science Times and New Scientist over the last couple of years about the physical basis of empathy and the way that observing pain in others triggers electrochemical responses in the observer that are similar (though less intense) than those that would be seen if the observer were directly experiencing the pain.

Then I think about the idea that we are made "in the image of god" and what this might mean about God's emotional nature...

The idea that God is incable of suffering also seems like an arbitrary limit on God (what if God chooses to suffer?) and it seems to make God into a monster in order to keep a semblance of coherence in human doctrines about him.
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Ken

By "depiction" I mean direct iconic representation of the subject.

Dear Jerry Boam

I accept the force of what you are saying but only on the grounds that we are not being sufficiently precise about the variant forms of suffering in terms of a divine subjective experience ... about which we may only be tentative anyway. "Not being unmoved" is not, for God, the same as, say, physical suffering or moral affliction.
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
C'm on, Fr G,

if God can rest on the seventh day, and feel satisfied and happy about the creation, God is capable of emotion. And I don't think that's merely happy emotion. God can suffer.

One of the ways we are made in God's image is being able to experience emotions.

Or are we following that English Franciscan William bloke who reckoned Jesus had no sense of humour because He was God?

I prefer Ibn Arabi who believes the creation came out of God's longing for us. If that is so, then that longing also caused God to rescue us when we needed it so God could have us back as His lovers.
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
As I said Daisymay ... it just depends what you mean by "suffer." I offered two examples of suffering that wouldn't apply.
 
Posted by golden key (# 1468) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
I prefer Ibn Arabi who believes the creation came out of God's longing for us. If that is so, then that longing also caused God to rescue us when we needed it so God could have us back as His lovers.

Some people think God created because of being lonely.

In James Weldon Johnson's poem "The Creation", God says "I'm lonely--I think I'll make me a world!" Then God proceeds to make everything by hand, right down in the dirt.

There was a little book called "In The Kingdom of the Lonely God", written by the chaplain at Notre Dame University.

And in one of Fr. Andrew Greeley's novels, Fr. Blackie imagines God as a teenage girl who wants friends to hang out with. [Smile]
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
Of course, you have hit the nail on the head. How can it be said that God physically suffers or dies? However perhaps we should consider that divine suffering as empathy, an empathy beyond anything humans can experience, that is tele- and omni-pathic.

As noted above I see the incarnation and death and ressurection of Christ as are all part of the same atonement "process". Atonement is the uniting of God and Man spiritually, but this is a process of two drawn out acts: God crossing over to us and entering into empathic experience of our psychic hells; Man being raised to God's heaven united to God through Christ and his Spirit.
Presumably its common ground that our uniting to God is not simply the product of our own righteousness, we are not "holy" before we unite with God. Where then does all sin and darkness go when we unite with God? God "bears" it and overcomes it. How does God bear it? As infinite empathy and super-conscious-awareness of the human condition which is distinct (surely?) from simple omniscient knowlege of our condition.
However, to my mind, the pain of God does not "pay" for salvation, for atonement, rather it is the inevitable consequence of God's uniting with us sinners, and of course His uniting with us is the only way we can be saved.
 
Posted by Fr. Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Fatprophet,

[Overused] I like that!
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Ok, I've been thinking quite a bit about this recently, so I thought I'd bump this thread with another thought.

Did Christ actually serve our punishment for us? Isn't the result of our sins either an eternity of tourment (worst case) or an eternity of nothing (best case) - and with either, didn't Christ circumvent that punishment? If our punishment was just //physical// death, then aren't we still going to serve that punishment?

AB
 
Posted by Neil Robbie (# 652) on :
 
fatprophet
quote:
However, to my mind, the pain of God does not "pay" for salvation, for atonement, rather it is the inevitable consequence of God's uniting with us sinners, and of course His uniting with us is the only way we can be saved.
The latter half of your statement - spot on. Can we call it FAITH-UNION?

2 Cor 5:17-21 contains the essence of this FAITH-UNION. Christians are no longer 'individuals' in the sort of sense that they are 'in Christ' (v17), that is that they are in some form of union with Christ. It is in the participation language and the imputation language (v21) of 2 Cor 5:17-21 that we find Christ became sin and Christians become righteous. The sinner's guilt is transferred to Christ and Christ's righteousness to Christians in participatory FAITH-UNION.

I do not agree with your dismissal of the penal aspect of atonement. There is a penalty of sin, which is death. In FAITH-UNION, Christians die with Christ before they are raised with him (Rom 6:4ff).

And as for the guilt. It is not subjective remorse for moral shortcoming but our human status before the holy and righteous God. In FAITH-UNION our status as guilty is removed and replaced with a status of righteousness (2 Cor 5:21). Christians can say with confidence "we are not worthy so much as to gather up the crumbs from under your table", Daisymay, because it places the Christian alongside the Syrophoenician Woman (Mark 7:24-30) who, as an unclean, demon contaminated, Gentile, woman, as far from the people of God as can be imagined by first century standards, enters FAITH-UNION with Christ by her words.

Neil

[ 09. January 2004, 19:44: Message edited by: Neil Robbie ]
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Golden Key
quote:
Some people think God created because of being lonely.
But that wouldn't be the trinitarian God! The trinitarian God, who is love, creates out of love, not out of need or lack.

Fatprophet
quote:
How can it be said that God physically suffers or dies? However perhaps we should consider that divine suffering as empathy, an empathy beyond anything humans can experience, that is tele- and omni-pathic.

My understanding is that without confusion or separation the divine and human natures of the one Christ participate in the unity of his being in such a way that what you can say of the one nature you can say of the other. (The Lutherans, in particular, if I understand correctly, make a great deal of this communicatio idiomatum.) That's why we can speak of God crucified, and God dying for us. I don't have any difficulty in understanding the human experiences of Jesus as taken deeply and entirely into the inmost being of God - and of constituting something that, maybe, on one level God had known before, by empathy, whether tele- or omni-pathic, or maybe by sheer omnipotence - but in another sense is known by God for the first time directly and by experience in the Incarnation. To say that only the humanity of Christ 'experiences' these things seems to me to pull the unity of the being of Jesus Christ apart. It also misses the opportunity of saying something which is utterly necessary to be heard. There are times, as the Scottish theologian Ronald Gregor Smith said, when "Only a suffering God can help..."

This also touches on the Christian teaching that Christ is our representative not 'just' on the Cross, but in the Incarnation. There is a sense in which God in Christ takes upon himself not the humanity of a man, but the humanity of us all. (Racism is blasphemy because it denies this.) God in Christ assumes our humanity in order to heal it. 'What is not assumed is not healed'. This is yet another perspective on the Atonement, alongside PS, Christus Victor and Abelard.

Maybe in considering the Atonement we need to remember that distinctions have to be made between 'substitutionary' and 'representative'.
 
Posted by The Bede's American Successor (# 5042) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by psyduck:
So - am I Christus Victor, or am I penal substitutionary? Well, more both than neither.

But I'm actually personally more indebted to someone who hasn't been mentioned yet. Peter Abelard...

I've said enough for now. Any other Abelard fans out there want to take this one and run with it?

Well, I'm not exactly a fan of Abelard. I do find his idea of Christ's death being more of an offering to us interesting, but somehow missing the point. Let me explain.

As some of you may have picked up an occasional reference I have made to a recent cancer operation and my current radiation therapy. A part of this experience has been my partner's part through all this.

He has been there every step of the way for me. I could not have asked for any more from any person. This has created a stronger sense of love in me for him than I had before.

I do not think that my partner's care for me was done to make me love him more. A result may be a my love for him deepening, but his actions were done out of his love for me.

So, returning to why was Christ Crucified, Abelard puts forth the idea that the crucifixion was done by Him to draw us to Him out from love. If this is true, it would be the same if my partner had cared for me through this in order to make me love him more.

Christ's death does inspire love in me from him. I don't think Christ did it to inspire me to love him. It is confusing one of many results with the reason why the event happened.

Of course, why should humans be able to find "the" reason for the crucifixion? Should we be able to comprehend what God comprehends?

I find it interesting that you find the crucifixion explained in terms that are meaningful to the people of that era. You get Christus Victor in Dream of the Rood. You get Penal Substition as European society became a society bound by law. Peter Abelard was probably responding to what we now call the courtly love tradition.

So, what works today?

Of course, this is a personal question. Some people work with Christus Victor or Penal Substitution without a problem. It leaves others cold.

All the different analogies describe a part of the Truth; none describe the whole of the Truth.
 
Posted by psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
BAS:
quote:
All the different analogies describe a part of the Truth; none describe the whole of the Truth.
This seems to be the overarching truth that most of us are signing up to!

quote:
I do not think that my partner's care for me was done to make me love him more. A result may be a my love for him deepening, but his actions were done out of his love for me.

No, I'm sure that's so. But I'm not entirely sure that this is the most illuminating analogy for the achieving of at-one-ment by the love of Christ on an Abelardian model. It seems clear to me from the way that you speak it that your partner's love was there as the supportive framework from the very beginning of these things. I can only imagine (I don't suppose you could know the extent of this without going through it) that your understanding of your partner's love must have deepened profoundly through all of this - but it is a deepening understanding of what's already there.

I think we need to understand Abelardian atonement in terms of western gloom and pessimism about the depth of human estrangement from God. Abelard is talking about an act of God which is essentially creative or at least re-creative of a loving relationship.

I also note that what you say suggests that you are repulsed by the sense of a goal-oriented demonstration of love. Again, in the context of the story you are narrating, that's entirely understandable. But with regard to atonement, and its possible analogies, I'd want to say this:

1) Is it necessary to assume that Christ's love is calculating and goal-oriented? One of the striking things about Jesus of Nazareth as a human being is the warmth and immediacy of his response to people. I'm thinking - to go no further afield than Mark - of the leper in ch. 1 who says that he can be healed if Jesus is willing [kerygmania-type tangent - I much prefer the reading that Jesus stretches out his hand in anger, sc. that anyone should be suffering like this], or of his response to the Syrophoenician woman, which goes so quickly (and for a Jew, recklessly) from cold to intensely warm. Is it necessary to assume that the human Jesus during his earthly life ever calculated a loving act, rather than just doing and living the love that was in him?

2)(And I know this sounds like a flat contradiction!) Sometimes it is necessary for love to be calculating. Sometimes it is necessary for love to be blatant. I'm thinking of the love that has to meet the need of someone who thinks himself utterly unloved and unloveable, and thinks, acts and exists accordingly. We're all big people here, and can supply our own examples. Sometimes it is necessary for love to say, in effect, "Of course you are loved, you stupid [insert expletive of choice]!!" And it is necessary for love to assert its presence almost violently, so as to provide an archimedean fixed point from which change in a life can be levered.

3) I think that unthinking and calculating love can come together in searing human demonstrations of love, where everything is simultaneously calculated and unthinking. And I think that these instances mirror the nature of God's love. (I'd say that the theological basis for that is that God's love in Christ in redemption is not different to God's love in Christ in creation; and that both involve the same risk. The risk is of pain and estrangement, sin, suffering and death, and is a terifying, agonizing risk for God even if, ultimately, he is able to master all the 'fallout' and bring all things back to himself - if in terms of love the system is 'closed'. How much more so if it is 'open' - and permanent loss is possible...) So that crucified love is the ultimate and only responsible loving ground for creation. It's only the cross that makes it possible to preach God, and that's because the cross forces us to preach God as love in terms that are at least to some degree Abelardian.

4) The cross doesn't just disclose God's love. It discloses what inevitably happens to love in a fallen world. And it shows a God who picks up the tab for loving like this. Calculating or not, God's love would have to be spectacular to those who have eyes to see, in a world like this. Pour an infinity of love into a near-infinity of lostness, and you get the crucifixion of God. And omnipotent or not, you get the irrational and philosophically inexplicable) sense that even for God it was a "damn close-run thing".

5) "What else" is disclosed is the reality of sin. An Abelardian approach pressed to its limits actually makes far more sense of western pessimism than a PS approach, which has God as the grumpy magistrate. This is omnipotence revealed in self-emptying. (It leaves open the possibility of omnipotence revealed elsewhere as judgement, and doesn't preclude the other approaches to atonement.) This is sin revealed by the spotlight of love - a very Johannine theme. I think I've posted the story of Mervyn Stockwoood's cat before. When he was a curate, +Mervyn had a cat of very regular habits. One night it didn't appear on schedule, and he went out to look for it, and as he turned a corner he came on a gang of boys - just teenage if I remember - stoning the animal. They ran off, and he saw at once that the cat was beyond help. He was just about to deliver the coup de grace, when he realized that, as he put it if I remember rightly, there was one last thing that the cat could do for these boys. He knew them all - so he rounded them up, and brought them back to see what they had done. To confront them with a truth about themselves.

I'm not comfortable with that story, but it does suggest to me that even on a 'subjective' level, that the cross reveals truth about who I am and what I'm complicit in, is important. This is a crucifying world, and I contribute to its character. But co-ordinate that with the insight that despite this, I am loved and accepted by a love that sometimes I treat like this, and I think that the cultural and psychological power of an Abelardian approach begins to be clear. It isn't pleasant or easy, but it is about human truth. And the way in which God intersects with this.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Neil Robbie,

(apologies for the long post!)

A few further objections to subject to your reasoning, which so far, has been excellent. Let me start, though, with:

#1 Forgiveness:
Doesn't PSA remove the virtue of forgiveness from God? If forgiveness can be considered "the free discharge of one's debts", then can we consider receiving satisfaction for sin (and thus payment of debt) to be virtuous?

Indeed, is it actually merciful? Isn't being merciful letting someone off what is rightfully owed? Again, if God receives payment for what is rightfully owed is this actually merciful?

To illustrate a point, two stories and a parable:

Hugh owes Gordon Ł10 pounds, which Gordon rightfully is owed. Hugh can't pay Gordon, so Jeff steps in and pays Gordon on Hugh's behalf. Now, quick question. Has Gordon actually forgiven Hugh and let him off? No, of course not, Gordon has been paid in full. Is that virtuous?

Or, Hugh owes Gordon Ł10 pounds, and Gordon gives Hugh Ł10 to settle the debt. Aside from being a ridiculous exercise on the point of Gordon - one should ask, well, why didn't Gordon just let Hugh off? To demonstrate the worth of his debt, one might argue... well, let us ponder on this parable:

quote:
Matt 18:23-35
"Therefore, the kingdom of heaven is like a king who wanted to settle accounts with his servants. As he began the settlement, a man who owed him ten thousand talents was brought to him. Since he was not able to pay, the master ordered that he and his wife and his children and all that he had be sold to repay the debt.
"The servant fell on his knees before him. 'Be patient with me,' he begged, 'and I will pay back everything.' The servant's master took pity on him, canceled the debt and let him go.
"But when that servant went out, he found one of his fellow servants who owed him a hundred denarii. He grabbed him and began to choke him. 'Pay back what you owe me!' he demanded.
"His fellow servant fell to his knees and begged him, 'Be patient with me, and I will pay you back.'
"But he refused. Instead, he went off and had the man thrown into prison until he could pay the debt. When the other servants saw what had happened, they were greatly distressed and went and told their master everything that had happened.
"Then the master called the servant in. 'You wicked servant,' he said, 'I canceled all that debt of yours because you begged me to. Shouldn't you have had mercy on your fellow servant just as I had on you?' In anger his master turned him over to the jailers to be tortured, until he should pay back all he owed.
"This is how my heavenly Father will treat each of you unless you forgive your brother from your heart."

Did the King (God), recieve satisfaction for his servant's debt? No, and indeed - it seems requiring it was considered, as the name of parable suggests, unmerciful. Indeed, the servant begged for patience, that he may repay his debt, thus the servant offered satisfaction; though the King, perhaps in anticipation that that could never be achieved, simply cancels the debt. No transfer of cash, he just cancels it.

The servant, who was perfectly justified in requiring a debt to be paid by his slave, then tries to receive satisfaction, only to be considered 'unmerciful'. He may well have been trying to receive his dues to pay back his master, so his motives need not have been blighted by greed. And yet, his actions are considered unmerciful. Legalistically, it was his right to claim back that which is owed, irrespective of the bigger debt from which he was released, and perhaps his moral duty to uphold the seriousness of debt. And yet, and yet, he was considered by Jesus to be unmerciful. Indeed, we are told that we have an obligation to forgive, as we have been forgiven.

But does PSA remove true forgiveness, and thus the virtue?

AB
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
//bump

Anyone want to have a go at the above? I'm genuinely looking for an answer.

One idea was that God had forgiveness as his plan all along, but that Justice had to be served, etc... Does this still hold with the above?

AB
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
AB

I believe you have put your finger on one of the main reasons why I find PSA theory to be a totally inadequate way of looking at the atonement, namely, that when you set it against Jesus' life, actions and teaching, it just doesn't seem to rhyme. It's not so much that PSA has logical flaws in it, (though I believe it has), it's more that it's difficult to believe that Jesus would have any time whatsoever for a religious system which puts limits upon the mercy of His Father.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
#1 Forgiveness:
Doesn't PSA remove the virtue of forgiveness from God? If forgiveness can be considered "the free discharge of one's debts", then can we consider receiving satisfaction for sin (and thus payment of debt) to be virtuous?

Indeed, is it actually merciful? Isn't being merciful letting someone off what is rightfully owed? Again, if God receives payment for what is rightfully owed is this actually merciful?

To illustrate ...

Hugh owes Gordon Ł10 pounds, which Gordon rightfully is owed. Hugh can't pay Gordon, so Jeff steps in and pays Gordon on Hugh's behalf. Now, quick question. Has Gordon actually forgiven Hugh and let him off? No, of course not, Gordon has been paid in full. Is that virtuous?

...

does PSA remove true forgiveness, and thus the virtue?

No.
Your reasoning only applies as a critique of PSA if you are an arian.

In your example; for Gordon to forgive Hugh the debt, he has to accept the cost of that debt for himself.
If a person hurts you, to forgive them you have to 'absorb' the pain into yourself - rather that seek to satisfy it by exacting 'justice' from them.

In the life, death and resurrection of Jesus, do we not see the trinitarian God 'absorbing' the 'cost' of our sin?
 
Posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
Then the Cross becomes a charade, as God gives Himself a tenner. Ultimately, resolving the conflict this way results in the cross being purely demonstrative, as far as I can see - God could just as easily balance the books by not giving Himself the tenner - He still ends up with the same amount.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Fatprophet says it in the way that, to me, makes the most sense of the Biblical data.

Going back to the earlier idea, raised I think by Psyduck, of the scapegoat: the thing is, the Jewish religious system did use a scapegoat (that's where the concept came from!), and never, but never, is Jesus identified with the scapegoat. He is always identified with the temple sacrifice. But the scapegoat is the only sacrifice in the ancient Jewish system that is in any sense "substitutionary."

Grits: what other uses did the word we translate "it is finished" have in 1st century Greek? Until we know those it's a little thin assuming that it has all the same resonance as the one use you cite, and no others.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider:
Then the Cross becomes a charade, as God gives Himself a tenner. Ultimately, resolving the conflict this way results in the cross being purely demonstrative, as far as I can see - God could just as easily balance the books by not giving Himself the tenner - He still ends up with the same amount.

Not a charade, but God demonstrating his (just) character in the method he uses to forgive us. That doesn't mean it is purely demonstrative, as it also has the effect of us being reconciled to God. I think the problem is that God demonstrating his justice, makes the cross less about us, and so we don't like it so much. But the weight of Biblical material does seem to make God demonstrating his justice as important as him granting us mercy or defeating death.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
If a person hurts you, to forgive them you have to 'absorb' the pain into yourself - rather that seek to satisfy it by exacting 'justice' from them.

In the life, death and resurrection of Jesus, do we not see the trinitarian God 'absorbing' the 'cost' of our sin?

Anselm,

Thanks for critiquing my critique (as it were) but I'm not sure I agree. First off we have the problem of translating sin into a 'cost' situation, especially as the cost (as it is often described to us) isn't the cost that Jesus paid, for he isn't eternally dead, not eternally banished from the Father's side.

Secondly, the Gordon/Hugh metaphor wasn't intended to be all emcompassing on the subject of forgiveness, but instead was focussing on debt.

If someone harmed a loved-one to me, say, any forgiveness on my part would not be 'absorbing' their sin by suffering their debt to me, but rather a choice to freely give up demanding retribution, when it's patently obvious that none satisfying can be given. It simply doesn't fit with a transactional metaphor.

So, my question for PSA still stands. Is forgiveness a virtue with it?

AB
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Not a charade, but God demonstrating his (just) character in the method he uses to forgive us.

Leprechaun,

See my issue with the parable of the unmerciful servant above. The King is unjust by forgiving a debt, the servant just by requiring it. Yet the King (God) is merciful and thus virtuous, and the servant (the unforgiving one) is not.

I just can't see how it fits with PSA...

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
AB,

Anselm has already answered this above. God demonstrates his justice (by punishing sin) but also his mercy as dealing with it himself rather than punishing the actual culprits (us).

The problem I have in processing this (and I'm being honest here, rather than just standing up for PSA for the sake of discussion!) is not that it shows lack of mercy (because I think it does show amazing mercy) but that it seems not to be just as the guilty one doesn't get punished. While I do accept PSA (because I'm pretty textually convinced about it) for me this would be the intellectual problem - not lack of mercy but lack of justice. If you are going to attack it, I think that's a much better line.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Leprechaun, you wrote :
quote:
I think the problem is that God demonstrating his justice, makes the cross less about us, and so we don't like it so much. But the weight of Biblical material does seem to make God demonstrating his justice as important as him granting us mercy or defeating death.
I think that I would profoundly disagree with the first sentence, and question the second.


 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Can we just clarify the playing field a bit?
There seems to me, very crudely speaking, four basic positions that people have seemed to be holding and arguing against.
  1. PSA is the only way to biblically describe the work of Christ.
  2. PSA is one of the ways the Bible describes the work of Christ (though some might say the most useful).
  3. PSA, while not biblical, was a legitimate and useful way of describing the work of Christ to a particular culture (say medieval Europe). It is (probably) no longer useful.
  4. PSA is an unbiblical and heretical way of describing the work of Christ.
ISTM that 'most' people are at different parts of the spectrum of position 2.
I don't think anyone actually holds position 1 but alot of people are arguing against it.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
ISTM that 'most' people are at different parts of the spectrum of position 2.
I don't think anyone actually holds position 1 but alot of people are arguing against it.

That may be. I think, however, that a lot of the antagonism towards PSA is not just about it being an exclusive position, but about objections to its implications.

That is, it makes God the Father appear angry, and it is inexplicable why the death of His Son would satisfy His demand for justice. It also implies that Jesus' own words about how salvation is obtained are wrong or misconstrued. So it impacts many aspects of religion, and does not fit in well as one among a number of interpretations of Christ's work of salvation. In a sense it demands an exclusive place.

On the other hand, simple statements such as that Christ gave His life for us, or that His life was like a ransom paid for us, or that "by His stripes we are healed" - without their classic PSA interpretation - provide atonement imagery that is perfectly consistent with a number of ways of describing the work of Christ, including that He overcame the power of darkness. That is, anyone involved in a struggle does this kind of thing, making sacrifices for the sake of others.

If that is what is meant by positions 2 and 3 then I am all for them. But I doubt that many see it that way. If the ransom paid is actually a price paid to the Father to satisfy His justice, this obviates all other aspects of the struggle as it is described in the gospels. The implications are huge!

So I think that positions 2 and 3 are difficult to hold, and are inherently contradictory. I think that this is why so many gravitate either to positions 1 or 4.
 
Posted by Autobailer (# 5357) on :
 
Warning: Heresy ahead. If someone can tell me why it's wrong, I'd be greatful.

Firstly, Adeodatus, you stated earlier that "(2) Humanity discovers the choice between good and evil and inevitably chooses evil."

With a strict reading of genesis, it's the other way round. Man chooses evil (eats the apple) then discovers the choice (eats the fruit of the tree of knowledge between good and evil). I would, however say that you are right that the choice was an inevitable consequence of free will. Free will as granted by God.

Secondly, and on topic, the belief I am leaning towards is Christus Victor with a strong helping of Abelard. The incarnation was both a symbol to man (c.f. Abelard) and God finally realising that directives and the Law are not the best way to get results from humans, and hence trying to work out what would work better- and in order to have a true understanding of Man, he needed to become one. Having done that and had the mistake confirmed, he decided to use the near-necessary death to force Death to bite off more than it could chew and hence to choke as it could not cope with God. (I don't see anything wrong with more than one motivation for an action nor one of a God who makes a virtue out of a necessity). The attonement was again God realising the ruleset he had established was wrong for dealing with humanity to its best potential and hence breaking it by giving it more than it could cope with. (As for why he couldn't have just destroyed them externally, I suspect firstly that it doesn't work that way and secondly the symbolism was necessary (c.f. Abelard) to show man it had been done).

As a corollary, any entity that is eternally unchanging, able to neither learn nor grow is not worthy of worship being essentially dead and of no higher standing than a rock. One of the definitions of insanity is doing the same thing the same way and expecting different results. I may worship such an entity out of fear but that does not mean that such is worthy of my worship. I therefore do not see unchanging as any aspect of a God I can even respect.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Autobailer:
As a corollary, any entity that is eternally unchanging, able to neither learn nor grow is not worthy of worship being essentially dead and of no higher standing than a rock.

I'm not sure if this is a heresy or just a startling demonstration of lack of imagination. Or perhaps just another example of needing to create a god in one's own image?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
I'm not sure if this is a heresy or just a startling demonstration of lack of imagination. Or perhaps just another example of needing to create a god in one's own image?

Me too. [Disappointed]

Besides, the sending of Jesus demonstrates that, even if God does not Himself change, He certainly changes with regard to His creation - revealing Himself more completely over time as humanity is able to grasp what He wishes to show us. The Incarnation is no small thing, showing that God responds to our changing states.
 
Posted by Autobailer (# 5357) on :
 
Go back and re-read what I wrote. I can not and do not worship static entities and think that the incarnation is proof that God is not static.

Quite what changed is another issue.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
This may be another thread, but I cannot accept either based on the textual evidence, or on the character of God as he reveals himself, that the law was " a mistake" and God, realising it decided to send his Son to die instead. But I believe there is at least one thread on the role of the law elsewhere...

I also find Autobailer's description of "giving death more than it can swallow" completely unfathomable - can you please explain it again? [Confused]

Isn't the issue with Christus Victor, not that anyone is saying that Christ conquering death is not a central achievement of his atoning work, but rather HOW did he defeat death?
An understanding of the cross that holds PSA as the central model holds that by taking the punishment we deserve (death and (debated) Hell), in our place, Jesus defeats death, by dealing with that punishment. How else does it work? In words of one syllable please as I haven't followed any of the explanations of this so far on this thread!
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Leprechaun,

The trouble with the "he took our punishment" idea is that Jesus didn't seem to take our punishment. If our punishment is physical death then we still have that coming - or if it is spiritual death, and hell or nothingness* then Jesus' resurrection and place on the right of the Father is proof that he didn't serve that either.

I guess this is one of my principle arguments against PSA.

AB

* delete according to flavour of faith™
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
Leprechaun,

The trouble with the "he took our punishment" idea is that Jesus didn't seem to take our punishment. If our punishment is physical death then we still have that coming - or if it is spiritual death, and hell or nothingness* then Jesus' resurrection and place on the right of the Father is proof that he didn't serve that either.

I guess this is one of my principle arguments against PSA.

I've always understood this to be somewhat the point. Jesus does die, and is separated from God (and face God's anger, that we deserve, I know many peeps have objections to this but...whatever)which is Hell. However, the fact that he is raised again shows that the punishment is completely dealt with, absolutely taken, in the same way that if someone goes to prison and is freed again, it shows their punishment has been served. The resurrection thus assures as that death is defeated, and that our punishment has been taken at the same time.

As for the physical death issue - Paul's point in 1 Cor is that death is defeated - its sting is removed, even though we still face it itself.

That's how I see PSA and Christus Victor fitting together...complementary rather than mutually exclusive....

[fixed UBB for quote]

[ 03. February 2004, 18:44: Message edited by: Alan Cresswell ]
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
Here's a thought...

For those of you who don't accept PSA but do accept the authority and veracity of the OT, how do you explain how the problem of God's anger (which is evdiently the main problem between God and his people throughout OT history) is dealt with, so that God can accept us?
If its not Jesus bearing God's anger in our place, then what changes between then and now?

Please note: This is not a question about OT critical scholarship, as I know there are those aboard who don't take the same view of OT as me, and that is a discussion for elsewhere, but for those who want to deal with it as inpsired and an accurate account of God's dealing with his people, how do you deal with the anger issue?

[ 03. February 2004, 17:36: Message edited by: Leprechaun ]
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
However, the fact that he is raised again shows that the punishment is completely dealt with, absolutely taken, in the same way that if someone goes to prison and is freed again, it shows their punishment has been served.

But this doesn't seem to be following the same line of justice that is behind the whole idea of PSA, vis that God cannot act softly on sin, he has to be just. Letting someone off early may well be merciful and indeed virtuous, but it is not necessarily justice.

AB
 
Posted by Autobailer (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I also find Autobailer's description of "giving death more than it can swallow" completely unfathomable - can you please explain it again? [Confused]

Isn't the issue with Christus Victor, not that anyone is saying that Christ conquering death is not a central achievement of his atoning work, but rather HOW did he defeat death?

God can not die. Jesus of Nazareth died. Death came to Jesus. Jesus was also God. By taking Jesus, death tried to take God. Because God can not die, death failed and because it is death, it either would or could not give up trying until it was broken (or God was dead).

Had God simply remade the universe to break death, he would have robbed the universe of some of its meaning or possibly entered into conflict with himself- a situation that is either impossible or simply too dangerous for the universe.

quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Here's a thought...

For those of you who don't accept PSA but do accept the authority and veracity of the OT, how do you explain how the problem of God's anger (which is evdiently the main problem between God and his people throughout OT history) is dealt with, so that God can accept us?
If its not Jesus bearing God's anger in our place, then what changes between then and now?

A change in approach, possibly caused by a change in the mind of God, possibly (and more likely) a change in the maturity of Man, so God could change from being a disciplinarian of a parent of a rebellious child to treating Man as an adult who could make his own choices.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
Isn't the issue with Christus Victor, not that anyone is saying that Christ conquering death is not a central achievement of his atoning work, but rather HOW did he defeat death?
An understanding of the cross that holds PSA as the central model holds that by taking the punishment we deserve (death and (debated) Hell), in our place, Jesus defeats death, by dealing with that punishment. How else does it work? In words of one syllable please as I haven't followed any of the explanations of this so far on this thread!

It's an extremely simple concept. He didn't defeat natural death but spiritual death, which is hell or evil. He did it by teaching the truth so that we could use it to become better people - and not go to hell. It's the most obvious interpretation of what Jesus did.

At the same, He did something somewhat more mysterious, which is that He fought spiritual battles against the hells themselves. They were able to attack Him as a human (but not as God) - just as hell attacks each one of us. He overcame them in these battles, depicted especially as the tamptations in the wilderness, and as the internal struggles of Jesus at Gethsemene and on the cross.

quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
For those of you who don't accept PSA but do accept the authority and veracity of the OT, how do you explain how the problem of God's anger (which is evdiently the main problem between God and his people throughout OT history) is dealt with, so that God can accept us?
If its not Jesus bearing God's anger in our place, then what changes between then and now?

I accept the authority and veracity of the OT, but also believe that depictions of Jehovah there are not always literal but are accommodated to the understanding of the people of that time.

It is just too hard to believe that Jehovah would really have been sorry that He ever made mankind (Genesis 6) or that He would have destroyed Israel if Moses had not talked Him out of it by saying "What would the Egyptians think?" (Exodus 32). What kind of God is that? It's much easier for me to believe that God never gets angry, but has a complete love and understanding of the human race - and that descriptions of His anger are merely accommodations to our limited understanding.

The purpose of the appearance of anger is to lead us to see that evil is harmful and has negative consequences. The whole point is to lead us away from evil and hatred, and towards living a good life, and therefore towards happiness.

What has changed between then and now is that if the human race is able to heed the words of Jesus, then there can be love and peace in the world. Also, since He defeated the power of hell at His coming, we are free to choose between good and evil and are not enslaved by its power.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
For those of you who don't accept PSA but do accept the authority and veracity of the OT, how do you explain how the problem of God's anger (which is evdiently the main problem between God and his people throughout OT history) is dealt with, so that God can accept us?

Actually, I rather thought the main problem was his people's disobedience and spiritual harlotry. God's anger seems to me more of an effort on his part to get them back in line, rather than the fundamental point at issue. Further I don't believe God doesn't accept us, and God's accepting us isn't the issue with salvation, rather our ability or inability to accept, and ultimately become like, God.

"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who kill the prophets and stone those sent to you, how often I have longed to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not willing."

The problem is not God's attitude towards us, but our attitude towards God.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
It's an extremely simple concept. He didn't defeat natural death but spiritual death, which is hell or evil. He did it by teaching the truth so that we could use it to become better people - and not go to hell. It's the most obvious interpretation of what Jesus did.

There are issues in your post about the nature of OT revelation that will mean we won't agree about some things, but they are issues for somewhere else I imagine.
I think the interpretation you put forward for Jesus actions - that he came so we could follow his teaching to become better people and so save ourselves is far from the most obvious interpretation, it certainly seems to be far from the interpretation of the apostles in any of their letters, who saw Jesus death and resurrection as the key actions that made a difference between us and God, by their atoning nature. No matter what theory of the atonement we take, it is a huge step away from the Biblical material to say that it is us following Jesus moral teaching that atones for our own sin.

quote:
Mousethief wrote:
Actually, I rather thought the main problem was his people's disobedience and spiritual harlotry. God's anger seems to me more of an effort on his part to get them back in line, rather than the fundamental point at issue. Further I don't believe God doesn't accept us, and God's accepting us isn't the issue with salvation, rather our ability or inability to accept, and ultimately become like, God.

There are two issues here:
1) Was God's anger just an attempt to get people back in line our a real characteristic of God - an outworking of his holiness in reaction to sin? (and therefore a problem that needs dealth with) I would say, as you can imagine, that from the very beginning it was the latter - Adam and Eve were not thrown out of the garden in attempt to bring them to self reformation, but because the right result of their sin was punishment and separation from God. It is this punishment that Jesus death deals with (by, I would submit, taking it in our place)
2) Is the problem with God accepting us or us accepting God? I think the root of the problem is that God will not accept us while we continue to rebel against him because it would be a compromise of his character, and so "gives us over" (in Romans terms) to a state of mind that will not accept him. As such, both are problems that need to be solved - God needs to be propitiated, have his anger dealt with, and we need to be expiated - have our sin and rebellious nature against God taken away. The cross does both - but only because Jesus takes God's anger and our sin on himself.

P.S., sorry I can't work out the UBB thing with quotes , so it doesn't all look very neat!

[fixed UBB for quote]

[ 04. February 2004, 12:32: Message edited by: Alan Cresswell ]
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Leprechaun, you posted
quote:
I think the root of the problem is that God will not accept us while we continue to rebel against him because it would be a compromise of his character,...
But if you look at Jesus life, this is exactly what Jesus did not do. In fact, he seems to have been far more comfortable with the "sinners" than he was with religious types. Far from compromising his character (as the Son of God) he was sufficiently relaxed about these things to allow others to criticise Him for His laxity. I find all this talk about God's righteous anger against sin deeply unconvincing in the light of Jesus' life. If you believe in progressive revelation (how else are we to understand Hebrews 1:1
quote:
"In the past God spoke to our forefathers ...but in these last days He has spoken to us through His Son
then we should surely interpret the Old Testament teaching of God's anger in the light of Jesus' teaching of God'd unconditional love. Sin seperates us from God's love, to be sure, but the separation is all on our side.
quote:
and so (He)"gives us over" (in Romans terms) to a state of mind that will not accept him.
This passage is sometimes interpreted in this way, it is true, but is not what Paul says merely a restatement of God's gift of free will, coupled with the "reap what you sow" (ie actions have consequences) principle.

You are right in saying that there is a problem inherent in the thinking which you espouse, but it is a problem which is nothing more than the result of the logical inconsistency which underlies this thinking, that is, that God has anger that must be dealt with and propitiated. I have to say that, on my part, I find this view deeply offensive, as it portrays my Heavenly Father as some kind of cosmic ogre, who goes around kicking things with which he doesn't agree.

Once you look at Jesus, I believe that you can see the true nature of the Father, and once you do that, the need to produce convoluted and self contradicting theories like PSA evaporates.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I think the interpretation you put forward for Jesus actions - that he came so we could follow his teaching to become better people and so save ourselves is far from the most obvious interpretation, it certainly seems to be far from the interpretation of the apostles in any of their letters, who saw Jesus death and resurrection as the key actions that made a difference between us and God, by their atoning nature. No matter what theory of the atonement we take, it is a huge step away from the Biblical material to say that it is us following Jesus moral teaching that atones for our own sin.

"Following Jesus' moral teachings" is not the way I would put it at all. I would call it obedience to God. Nor do we atone for our own sin. To atone is to change, and it is God who changes us, not we ourselves, when we obey His Word.

As for this not being true to what Jesus taught, or how the apostles understood Him, I think that virtually every statement Jesus made was about doing good and turning away from evil. The same is by far the central message of the letters. Proof texts aren't even necessary, but I will supply them if you wish. In fact I doubt that you can find a single chapter in any of the gospels where this is not the main emphasis.

Not that Jesus' death and resurrection are not also central, but they make a one since they represent His final victory over the power of evil, enabling people to obey Him. The disciples were sent out to "make disciples of all the nations...teaching them to observe all the things that I have commanded you" (Matthew 28.20). It seems to me that this is the most obvious interpretation - although it is certainly not the fullest or most nuanced one. [Angel]
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
JJ,

I have to go, so just a couple of quick replies

1) Your view does more than "reinterpret" the OT, it writes off nearly all it reveals from about the character of God from beginning to end. Maybe you are happy to do this, I am not. The question is not just "How do we understand Jesus mission from the Gospels?" but "how do we understand it in the light of the whole Biblical revelation?" God's anger is a major issue to be dealt with here (as paul also obviously thought in Romans 1)
Neither cv alone, or any other atonement model deals with it.

2) I think your point about Jesus being the friend of sinners is exactly the key one. If Jesus was the Holy God of the OT walking among us how could he befriend sinners? What knowledge about a solution for sin did he have that meant he was not distant and unapproachable? (Indeed how was God sometimes unapproachable in holiness in OT, and yet so certain that he could also have a close personal relationship with his people) The answer, I think is PSA.

3) You may find the anger of God offensive. But we must be careful not to be "making God in our own image" - even if we do find it offensive, there is a huge weight of Biblical material portraying him this way. We have to accept it.

There's lot more on this, and I can't deal with it all as I have to go back to my actual job now! Please bear with me as I am the only one defending PSA here (self inflicted I know!), and I can't reply to all of these comprehensively at the mo'!
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep,

Sorry to drag you away from your work [Snigger] My job for today has been cancelled [Cool] !!

I'll just reply to your points whilst I have the time. You can respoond when you have a moment.

1) I relise that I probably don't share the same view of the Scripture as you. Just to summarise, without going into the realms of deceased equines, I do believe the Bible to be God inspired, but I don't believe it of be inerrant in the way in which that phrase is commonly used. I do believe the claims that the Bible makes for itself, namely that its purpose is the revelation of God to those who would seek Him. I also believe that it is God-breathed (note the present tense). Belief in those two truths in no way precludes the view that the God of the Old Testament is progressively revealed from someone barely different from a tribal war-god, to someone recognisibly the Father of out Lord, Jesus Christ. It isn't that God has changed, but, if you like, that His people got to know him better, and therefore could better hear what He was saying. But of course, it isn't until Jesus that we can really see what He is like. Of course, if you take the view that every word of the scriptures is literally true, then we are faced with the conundrum of a God who is both wholly loving, and who also directs us to stone adulterers, or for that matter to eliminate a whole race of people. It's worth noting that Jesus didn't seem to hold to the literalist position, and was delightfully free with his use of Scripture.

In any case, I believe it to be rather an overstatement that to question the idea of God's anger is to "write() off nearly all it (the OT) reveals from about the character of God from beginning to end." There is actually far more about God longing for His people to come to Him, to "act justly, and love mercy, and walk humbly with their God".

2) Or, alternatively, God doesn't have any problem in associating with sinners, (though sinners may have problems in associating with Him! [Biased] )


3)My fault for not expressing myself clearly enough. I was aware as I wrote that it would be possible to construe my comments in the way in which you have. It is not so much that I find the comments offensive to myself, more that PSA casts God in a role that is deeply dishonouring to Him. It makes Him out to be so much less than He is. I feel it is insulting to Him. It's not that one recasts God in ones own image, but that one should view him in His own image, that of Jesus. WRT the last sentence of para 3, see point 1.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
God's anger is a major issue to be dealt with here (as paul also obviously thought in Romans 1)Neither cv alone, or any other atonement model deals with it.

CV deals beautifully with God's anger. God is extremely zealous to eradicate evil. This zeal takes the form of anger in many places as it is expressed in the OT, and even the NT. But it is merely the ardent desire that evil, hatred, sin, etc. not be. Once evil is overcome, and the sinner stops sinning, the zeal has achieved its purpose and abates, for there is more joy in heaven over one sinner who repents than over a hundred who did not need repentence.

quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
2) I think your point about Jesus being the friend of sinners is exactly the key one. If Jesus was the Holy God of the OT walking among us how could he befriend sinners?

Jesus didn't befriend sinners because they were sinners, but because they showed the capacity to hear Him and change their ways. This is what the Holy God of the OT wanted all along - mercy and repentance, not sacrifices. On the other hand Jesus showed unremitting hostility to the real sinners, the chief priests, scribes and pharisees, who would neither hear Him nor change their ways.

quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
3) You may find the anger of God offensive. But we must be careful not to be "making God in our own image" - even if we do find it offensive, there is a huge weight of Biblical material portraying him this way. We have to accept it.

Objecting to an angry God is not "making God in our own image." The idea that God is not angry but merciful, and indeed mercy itself, is from the Scriptures themselves. You can always resort to the idea that "His ways are not our ways" and pass it off as an irresolvable paradox, but I just don't think that this is the best way to go. There are much more accessible resolutions to this problem. The obvious one is simply that God is opposed to evil, and that this opposition is expressed in many forms in Scripture.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
JJ,
A bit more time, but not much! Here's my replies:

1) Hmm, deceased equine territory indeed. The things you describe as conundrums I do not find to be so, largely because I think they are solved by God's demonstration of his character (holy and loving) through a PSA understanding of Jesus death. Nether do i agree about Jesus use of Scripture...Oh well.
I have to say though that a large proportion of Jesus' teaching and treatment of people displayed (righteous) anger at their attitude to God. He does announce the destruction that befell Sodom on Capernaum for instance. This is consistent with the God of the OT as I understand him. The unsolvable paradox that Freddy mentions rears its head - how both unconditonally loving, and yet angry. PSA I think is the answer (and hence the paradox is solvable)! This discussion is getting circular though, I apologise.

2) The God of the OT clearly has problems associating with sinners as the whole religious system set up by Him emphasises his distance from them. God clearly longs to bring them to Him, but their sin (and more problematic, his hatred of it, and anger at it) stops Him. Interestingly this was dealt with, in the short term, by a sacrificial system.
Something changes that distance at the moment of Jesus death (hence the curtain in the Temple ripping) PSA explains this, CV does not.

3) Its good to know that we have the same motivation! I feel that taking away PSA from understanding the cross makes God less than he is, because it means that God is not concerned to demonstrate his immense purity and holiness as well as his amazing love. It is the removal of his righteous anger, IMO, that makes him seem like a wet God who is so desperate for our approval that he had to send poor Jesus to die to get us to notice him. Also as I have said, I don't think the revelation of God in Jesus refutes the character of God as angry with sin, and so one does not have to dumb down the revelation of God in Jesus to make sense of the OT material.

Freddy, again I am not sure I understand you. Better not proof text though, apparently that is frowned on round here. [Roll Eyes]
If you are saying that God in rescuing us, enables us to live in obedience to Him I agree. My question is what is it about Jesus life, death and res that allows God to come to us and change us in a way he could or would not do for his OT people? I think PSA provides the answer here - his anger, and our sin are dealt with once and for all at the cross.
If you are saying that our obedience to Jesus' teaching saves us I do not agree - as clearly in the OT people could not be saved by obeying God's teaching (or rather they could have done but they never did) and clearly I cannot be saved this way, as I would love to obey Jesus but never do. Perhaps this is just me.

Just to clarify my position, I am not opposed to a model of the atonement that says Jesus defeated death (or principalities or powers)(more brackets - an "objective model") or one that says Jesus death moves us to turn to God (a "subjective model")but rather that either of these can only be achieved if the problem of sin and God's reaction to it are dealt with - a "substitution model".

Let's not be reactionary - just because this the classic evangelical position does not mean that it is de facto wrong.
[Big Grin]
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Take, for example, the way He yells at the woman caught in adultery. Or the way the father of the prodigal son tears his head off when he comes home. [Roll Eyes]
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Just a couple of brief points before I hit the hay.

1) I don't necessarily agree that PSA is the classic evangelical position, though it is certainly dominant amongst certain groups. In terms of the history of the church, though, it's a real "johnny come lately" compared with CV. And of course I don't believe it is wrong on those grounds, despite my sig. Rather it is, as I see it, a weakness in evangelicalism that, as a movement, it has espoused this ( as I believe unscriptural) doctine so intimately.

2) The concept of God being angry with sin is fine. It's when you talk about Him being angry with sinners that the alarm bells start to ring. Of course God is angry with sin, in the same way in which an oncologist is angry with cancer. It is a big leap from that position to one of God punishing Jesus by death for our sin, because someone must be punished for it. There is no necessary link between God being angry at sin, and God having to punish someone in order to satisfy that anger, a character trait that we would find repellant even by the debased standards of the human race.

3) You wrote:
quote:
It is the removal of his righteous anger, IMO, that makes him seem like a wet God who is so desperate for our approval that he had to send poor Jesus to die to get us to notice him.
I suggest that this is not an adequate summary of the CV position [Snigger] , but to reiterate, I believe absolutely that Christ died for us and that his death and resurrection was necessary to win our salvation. What I do not believe is that this death was in any way involved with God's anger, or with satisfying some external constraint on the Father's action. IMO, Jesus is our champion, not our substitute.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Leprechaun,

It's refreshing to see someone on these boards who is genuinely passionate for PSA, I think that has been missing from this thread and others recently, so I thank you for your input.

However, I still have some genuine questions about it, and the one that just won't go away is the concept of Jesus taking our punishment. The classic PSA argument is that God is 100% holy and just and therefore cannot go lightly on sin. Its debt must be paid, and it is paid by God Himself in Jesus. Yet the resurrection and subsequent ascension show that Jesus hasn't actually paid the full price that we are told we have coming to us. This is not consistent with a God who is perfectly just and needs to transfer the debt to someone/anyone. If he could go 'soft' on Jesus and let him off, could he not also have gone 'soft' on us and let us off?

Unfortunately while unresolved questions like this remain floating around in my head, I'll never be able to sit comfortably with PSA.

[Smile]

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
Take, for example, the way He yells at the woman caught in adultery. Or the way the father of the prodigal son tears his head off when he comes home. [Roll Eyes]

Or indeed the way he gently went into the temple and asked the traders to quietly remove their stalls. [Razz]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
the resurrection and subsequent ascension show that Jesus hasn't actually paid the full price that we are told we have coming to us.

Could you expand on this?
Are you saying that our punishment is eternal death, but Jesus only died for three days, so he got off lightly?
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
There is no necessary link between God being angry at sin, and God having to punish someone in order to satisfy that anger, a character trait that we would find repellant even by the debased standards of the human race.


Is anger/justice not getting a tad too much of a bad press here?

When you see on TV the mother of a child murdered by terrorists wanting someone to pay, to be punished, is that really something that is repellent and wrong? When the politicians later promise that the perpetrators will be 'brought to justice', are they only mouthing meaningless phrases? There's something about the very fabric of the universe that demands payment for wrongdoing. Lewis' example was that when he, as a small child, drew a line on his brother's picture, the matter was settled by having an equivalent line drawn on his. Payback doesn't need to be taught, it's intuited - and I think that our human desire for justice, though it's fallen, preserves something of the image of God.

Imagine that one of your friends has been badly treated in a way that caused them distress: lied to or about, stolen from, abused in some way. Is your immediate reaction, almost before your concern, not to be morally indignant? 'How dare the *******; I wish I could get my hands on them....'

Now that is not a Christian reaction - or, at least, not the whole of a Christian reaction. It is, however, a natural, appropriate and just reaction - because the action was wrong, it was despicable, and it was deserving of punishment. If it were not for Jesus, it would be the only appropriate reaction. If, given the situation, you were not at all indignant, would you see that as a positive character trait?

Of course, as Christians, we should forgive, just as we have been forgiven. But the anger must come first. I sometimes think we've learnt so much about Mercy that we've forgotten about Justice. If sin does not deserve punishment, forgiveness makes no sense whatsoever. And if sin does deserve punishment, God cannot let it go unpunished without acting contrary to his nature/distorting the moral fabric of the universe - which is very close to something which Autobailer said:
quote:
Had God simply remade the universe to break death, he would have robbed the universe of some of its meaning or possibly entered into conflict with himself.
Insert 'remove sin' for 'break death' (which in Biblical terms is pretty close), and that, for me, is why God couldn't 'just let us off'.

I think SA is very difficult to understand if you reject the OT, not only because of the sacrificial system, but because the anger/justice/payback theme is so firmly embedded across the OT. Read through the Psalms, and see how many times the Psalmists cry for justice and retribution against the adversary, e.g. Ps 69 If God is to be the Righteous Judge, he can't just let people off horrible crimes when their victims are baying for blood - there must be payment.

How exactly the whole 'justice' metaphor works when applied to punishing Jesus for our sin, I don't fully understand - but I don't think we can expect to fully understand the atonement. My take on it is tied up with the Incarnation: in becoming Man, Jesus takes on our identity, and so Man can be punished for Man's sin - and in exchange, humans can receive the righteousness of the only righteous Human. In one sense, it is not substitution, but identification.

(in passing, my take on SA is 'necessary but not sufficient')

One last point: SA is not, for me, a dry theological doctrine, but it's tied up with my practical Christian living. The reason I can forgive those who hurt me and those I care about is that I know the price has already been paid; if I carry on demanding payback, I am demanding the repayment of a debt that has already been repaid. That goes for forgiving myself too. I am all too aware that I am deserving of judgement - only in knowing that that judgement has been expiated can I be free of guilt. I'm very surprised at other posters saying that SA has been a way to inflict guilt on them - for me it's always been a way to be liberated from guilt.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Are you saying that our punishment is eternal death, but Jesus only died for three days, so he got off lightly?

Isn't that what we're told? Our punishment will be eternal separation from God. Hell, I could probably stand a 3-day separation from God. Jesus got off lightly, according to the rubrics of PSA.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Are you saying that our punishment is eternal death, but Jesus only died for three days, so he got off lightly?

Isn't that what we're told? Our punishment will be eternal separation from God. Hell, I could probably stand a 3-day separation from God. Jesus got off lightly, according to the rubrics of PSA.
Death is the sentence, not the amount of time dead.

You don't keep mass murderers in the electric chair for length of a time in proportion to the number of people they've killed - they are just sentenced to death (at least in some states of the good ol' USA).

In PSA terms, the debt was paid when Jesus was completely dead on the cross on Friday Afternoon (thus, just before he dies, "It is finished"), not sometime on Sunday morning.

Eternal death is not a prison term in proportion to the crime, it a sentence with no hope beyond.
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
AB and Mousethief:

The 'three days' thing is where SA and CV meet: the full rigours of sin were placed upon Jesus, but He who was Life couldn't stay dead - and in his rising defeated sin and death for eternity. Not remaining dead is part of the point: sin and the consequences of sin were eternally split at the Resurrection. (I have a primarily SA understanding of the Cross and a CV understanding of the Resurrection - anyone else out there?)

I don't know whether it's meaningful to talk about periods of time in Hell, when dead and not raised - do disembodied souls have a perception of time? If Heaven is eternal, is Hell not also? I don't know - but I think it's a bit glib to talk as if we can easily understand the metaphysics of either.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Hmmmm, I like your answers Anselm and Theophilus, though something just doesn't "feel right" with them. I guess this is just as much a weekness of Abelard as it is of PSA, but it seems like Jesus is not bearing the specific punishment that we, apparantly have awaiting us (universal).

Frankly, it would just feel more like 'justice' if Jesus willingly gave Himself up to a punishment that could hold Him, to an eternity without the Father, for our behalf. Maybe one can play His divinity too far here, but He knew He'd be back after 3 days, therefore He knew that his punishment was not eternal, nor without hope.

Thus PSA just doesn't have the kind of emotional tug for me that perhaps it should have in traditional evangelical circles. But, as alluded to earlier, perhaps this is as much a weakness with Abelard too.

[Frown]

Crikey.

AB
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
One mustn't forget the fact that Jesus suffered in a way that none of us have, or could have suffered: being separated from the Father having been in perfect communion with him from eternity.'My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?' is the centre of SA, both emotively and theologically.

Leaving aside the difficult question of whether the Son and the Father were actually separated on the Cross, the fact that Jesus experienced separation from his Father, with whom he was One, is pretty staggering. For the unity of the Godhead - the Godhead that is defined by the unity of Love - to be divided, has to rank as a greater suffering than anything we can imagine. That's why I don't really buy the 'not enough punishment' argument.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Leprechaun, you wrote:
quote:
Originally posted by leprechaun
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
Take, for example, the way He yells at the woman caught in adultery. Or the way the father of the prodigal son tears his head off when he comes home.

Or indeed the way he gently went into the temple and asked the traders to quietly remove their stalls.
There is no suggestion that he was punishing the traders for their sin, merely driving them out of the temple. The comparison would be with Eden, not with the Cross.

Theophilus, you wrote:
quote:
When you see on TV the mother of a child murdered by terrorists wanting someone to pay, to be punished, is that really something that is repellent and wrong?
Of course, it is an understandable human reaction, but Jesus seemed to think that it is better to forgive. When Gordon(?) Wilson's daughter Maire died at the Enniskillen bombing, he was able to forgive the perpetrators, in the absense of any repentance, because he, rightly IMO, believed that it was what God wanted him to do.

quote:
I think that our human desire for justice, though it's fallen, preserves something of the image of God.

I think, rather, that it is projecting we, who, with our fallen nature, are not at all forgiving, onto God, who is.

quote:
Imagine that one of your friends has been badly treated in a way that caused them distress: lied to or about, stolen from, abused in some way. Is your immediate reaction, almost before your concern, not to be morally indignant? 'How dare the *******; I wish I could get my hands on them....'
And would that reaction be stronger, in general, with someone who has never known God's forgiveness, or with someone who has, for years, walked faithfully with the Master? And who would be more likely to act on those reactions.

quote:
If, given the situation, you were not at all indignant, would you see that as a positive character trait?
We're not talking about indignation here, but about punishment or forgiveness. I think the positive character trait, hard as it is, is to say "forgive them, for they know not what they do."

quote:
if sin does deserve punishment, God cannot let it go unpunished without acting contrary to his nature/distorting the moral fabric of the universe
How do you come to this conclusion? Because human beings, as you put it, bay for blood, does that mean God commends this. As someone once put it, an eye for an eye leads, not to justice, but to a world of blind people. God is not primarily concerned with satisfying our sense of justice, but with reconciling all things to himself. This gets to the centre of my objections to PSA. It makes God subject to the same human weaknesses that we have; anger, the desire for retribution, the notion of "payback". It is us remaking God in our own image. If we look at the life of Jesus, we find that, no, he does not pay back, he doesen't demand his just rights, he doesn't bring retribution down on those who oppose him ... and he chastises those who, for all the best human reasons, suggest that he should. "The Father is not like that," He tells us. "He is like me!"

[Just a little UBB beautification]

[ 07. February 2004, 09:31: Message edited by: Duo Seraphim ]
 
Posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
[AOLUserMode]

What Jolly Jape Said

[/AOLUserMode]
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
But can God simply forgive all and sundry? If so there would hardly be any need for a gospel at all. Everyone accepts that restored relationship and reconcilliation does have to involve some making amends, change of orientation, some cost to be bourne by the wrong doer. Those Christians and others who forgive those who have done terrible evils to their families are undoubtedly relieving themselves of bitterness but are those criminals then to go without any punishment or at least some repentance or restitution? Our natural desire for 'amends' and 'justice' is God given if somewhat distorted by our human minds.
I think that there can be no reconcilliation until the prodigal decides to return home, and wills to stop doing wrong and dedicates himself to restore what he has taken from the wronged person.


The whole concept of atonement is predicated on the idea that there is something, a problem, that prevents us being at one with God, a gulf to be bridged, a change to be made. The concept of atonement at the very least states "something must be done to bring Man back to peace with God" What is that something? To my mind Christianity teaches that the "something" required for atonement is difficult and costly.

PSA is a sterile doctrine because it concentrates on the notion of punishment when Christ's death on the cross is biblically regarded first and foremost as sacrificial act in the tradition of jewish (and perhaps pagan) sacrifices. Sacrifice is not about punishment but about an act of dedication and obedience to the will of God, and the transition from the profane to the sacred. Sacrifice is not just 'one' way of understanding the atonement, it is the primary, biblical way despite the difficulty for modern people in getting their heads round the concept.

Jesus's death is clearly seen as an atonement sacrifice in the bible. He is the "lamb of God who takes away the sin of the World". The lamb imagery refers to sacrifice. Atonement sacrifice is a special kind of sacrificial act where the individual offers his life to God that he may be at peace with God and the covenant with God renewed - I don't think this is to satisfy God's anger or to make amends as such, rather it is the symbolic surrender of the sinner to the true path and complete rejection of his old egoistical ways which is a precondition of full reconcilliation Virtually every world religion has a concept of sacrifice sometimes externalised in ritual, sometimes internalised as an inner battle or mental discipline to overcome the ego.


Jesus in the bible is portrayed as making that sacrifce of atonement on behalf of all people. The real logical difficulties about all theories of the atonement is how the act of one person, be they God and/or Man can be effective to all people? (Why can't we offer our own individual sacrifices? Why do we need a mediator?)
There seems to no logical answer to this problem accept we note the Christian sacraments are based on the idea of our participating intimately in Christ and his sacrifice through the Eucharist.
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
Jolly Jape:

Maybe I didn't make myself clear. Let me start out by saying that to react with forgiveness to a wrong is the best way to react - indeed, for a Christian, bearing in mind the parable of the Unmerciful Servant and the Lord's Prayer ('forgive us our sins as we forgive those who sin against us') it's the only way we are allowed to react. To forgive is infinitely better than to seek revenge: vengeance destroys the world, but forgiveness redeems it. In forgiving his enemies, Jesus showed us how we should forgive ours. In sending his Son to earth so that we might be forgiven, the Father demonstrated that forgiveness is at the heart of his nature.

quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
Imagine that one of your friends has been badly treated in a way that caused them distress: lied to or about, stolen from, abused in some way. Is your immediate reaction, almost before your concern, not to be morally indignant? 'How dare the *******; I wish I could get my hands on them....'
And would that reaction be stronger, in general, with someone who has never known God's forgiveness, or with someone who has, for years, walked faithfully with the Master? And who would be more likely to act on those reactions.
Acting on these reactions, we can agree, is completely verboten. Even dwelling on them in the mind is almost certainly wrong (working off the lust = adultery principle). However, I don't think that the absence of moral indignation indicates a holy, forgiving person any more than the absence of fear indicates courage. Forgiveness is putting aside a wrong, not failing to feel it in the first place.

Moral indignation differs from being hurt. Let us suppose that I suffer severe emotional distress from seeing green earrings, and someone walks into the room wearing green earrings. Let us also suppose that they didn't know I disliked them, and that there was no way that they could reasonably have found out the fact. Can I say that I forgive that person for wearing green earrings without speaking nonsense? I think not: they have not done anything wrong and they are not deserving of vengeance. I am still hurt, but I have no moral right against them.

For me, the word 'forgiveness' only makes sense when there is a wrong that has been committed. By a wrong, I mean something that breaks an objective moral order, rather than something which distresses one. I understand forgiveness as giving up the moral right to vengeance, and instead seeking reconciliation, rather than not having any reaction to vengeance at all - for if so, what would there be to forgive? To forgive is to give people not what they deserve, but what they need - but in order for you to forgive them, you must recognise that they deserve vengeance. Forgiveness needs to be reclaimed as a radical, unreasonable reaction to a wrong. It is not possible to deserve forgiveness; it can only be given by grace.

We see forgiveness in a different context: you say we shouldn't pay back because God doesn't; I say we shouldn't because God does and has, summed up neatly by Paul:
quote:
Do not take revenge, my friends, but leave room for God's wrath, for it is written: "It is mine to avenge; I will repay," says the Lord. (Rom 12:9)
Granted, the thrust of this is in encouraging us not to avenge wrongs - but the justification is clear. We are not to take vengeance because God does. On the cross of Christ all vengeances are satisfied, so that all can be reconciled to God.
 
Posted by Belle (# 4792) on :
 
Forgive me if this is too simplistic, but it seems to me there are other components than simply forgiveness and wrongdoing.

Humans may have problems with forgiveness, but I don't believe God does.

I think we are and always have been forgiven. That's God's part. If he didn't forgive us for our brokenness and want to restore us, there would be no reason to try to reconcile us to him. Our part is to accept the forgiveness. That involves repentance and reconciliation - not a blithe assumption that we can do anything and get away with it - isn't that where the cross comes in?
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
I'm afraid I've got a bit left behind in this discussion, but I agree with Theophilus.

In some senses (although not all) I agree with the PSA naysayers, because I think evangelicals have sometime over emphasised the penal rather than the subsitution, and I think Theophilus has dealt well with that issue.
I think what I want to say is that substitution is the central model of the cross, but penal substution is one aspect of this. So Jesus taking the punishment in our place is one of (the main perhaps?) thing he did on the cross, but he also did many other things instead of me, eg take on death and win. In this sense even cv essentially a substitutionary model, because Jesus takes on and conquers death instead of us, so we don't have to - this is still a subsitutionary concept.

Anyway, rambling. Just a couple of things on people's specific posts:
AB - it is clear that while temporally Jesus and God were not separated forever as we will be from God if we rebel against Him, Jesus does bear the marks of this separation into eternity - their relationship is somehow effected even from (if we believe Revelation) the beginning of time. This raises lots of difficult questions about where God stands in relation to our mortal coil, but does I think showm that it wasn't just - oh well its all right to kill Jesus because I can have him back in 3 days. There's other stuff..maybe later. What you said really made me think this through though, and made me realise that I have oversimplified the cross both in my explanation and understanding, without appreciating or plumbing the depths of the mystery.
Thank you.

JJ - temple traders, cheap shot, only meant to show that to say "The God of the OT was all angry, but Jesus was all love" is a crass oversimplification, and actually Jesus' anger at people's sin does manifest itself in anger towards them. What is absolutely clear is that Jesus treated sinners (like me) with compassion, you are right to remind me of that, as sometimes I forget. I would say that Jesus was able to do this, without compromising his perfect pure holiness, because he knew that he, in himself, had the ultimate solution to their sin, and to God's revulsion at it.
Others have suggested that he was able to associate with these people because of their repentance, and there is definitely mileage in this, it was the repentant he associated with, but IMO there must be something more than that, or else we are left with a works based salvation.

It does upset me to see PSA described as cold and clinical. For me it is the very mainstay of my Christianity because it is the lifespring of my assurance that the God who is ultimately burning in holiness is yet ready and able to forgive. While this discussion is occasionally a little tiresome, I have so appreciated the oppotunity to dwell on the achievements of the cross. Now I am going to spend some time lost in wonder love and praise.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Gosh, busy on this thread today.

Theophilus, I think I agree with almost all your last post, but it is no argument for PSA. I just find it very difficult to believe that, as a moral imperative, God would require of us to forgive without seeking a response, if He could or would not do it Himself.

Leprechaun, I agree that CV is a substitutionary model, if by that you mean that Christ wins the victory for us that we could never win ourselves. The problem I have is with the "Penal" bit. Its not so much that PSA is, of itself, a cold, clinical doctrine, though it seems so to me, but that it reqires us to believe in a God who is constrained to act in a ruthless, vengeful manner, in short, a God so unlike Jesus. I see nothing in the scripture (with the possible exception of one verse in Isaiah 53) that suggests that Jesus was being punished on the cross, and many verses to suggest he was reconciling, not only sinners but the whole of (morally neutral) creation to Himself. I dont think that the abandonment of PSA in any way lessens the assurance of which you so movingly and lovingly speak in your last paragraph. Or at least, it didn't with me.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Gosh, busy on this thread today.

Leprechaun, I agree that CV is a substitutionary model, if by that you mean that Christ wins the victory for us that we could never win ourselves. The problem I have is with the "Penal" bit.

Gosh you've sort of blindsided me there. You do believe in SA, just not PSA? Maybe this is just playing with words, but if you believe death to be the punishment for sin, and Jesus faces death and defeats it in our place - aren't you left with an atonement that is both substitutionary and penal?
Is it actually propitiation that is the issue people don't like here - God's anger being dealt with (which has often gone along with PSA but isn't necessarily part of it)? It is the activity of God as active punisher in a "traditional" PSA thinking? I think more and more this discussion has boiled down to that - what is God the father's activity in the atonement rather than Jesus' actvity?

Before you contribute thoughts on that, can you tell me whether you think I am right, that this is at least one of the issues here?

[ 07. February 2004, 15:58: Message edited by: Leprechaun ]
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
I think that to describe Christ's victory over death as substitutionary is rather misleading.

PSA, at its bare minimum, states that Christ took punishment (penal) instead of us (substitution). It is substitution, because without Christ we would be punished ourselves. Christ takes our place.

However, as to defeating death, we were never going to defeat death ourselves. Where's the substitution? When a substitute comes on in a game of sport, he replaces the player already on the pitch; he takes their place instead of them. The place that Jesus takes when he defeats death is not one that we ever held, or were going to hold. He defeats death for us, not instead of us.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
Well, this is off the point but I don't agree. A subsitute acts on behalf of, or in the place of another.
Jesus took on death and defeated it on our behalf, in our place - conquering death so we need not face it. If we then say that death is the punishment for sin...well then you are almost at PSA aren't you? Maybe I've gone mad.

The reason I labour this, is because the more I have thought about it, there are just so few steps from CV to PSA, that I'm not sure why those who see CV as the central (or only) model of the atonement get in such a lather about it.

My feeling is that, after this discussion, it is the issue of the character of God the father that is raising hackles - people don't like the way traditional explanation of PSA makes God the father look. I stand by it, I think it makes God look like he shows himself to be in the Bible, but I'm just trying to clarify the issues. Anyhoo, didn't want to mess things up, and certainly didn't want to stop agreeing with you Theophilus!
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep

Sorry if I've confused you. I was responding to your suggestion that CV could be considered a substitutionary model, and I agreed that, in some senses, it could. To the extent that I think that CV is the model of atonement truest to the scriptures, I am not against SA, though I would not use that term, as the term is most commonly used as a shorthand for PSA, my views on which you will have gathered.

I would actually agree with you that principal difference between us is how we see the Father operating. My understanding of your position is that the Father is constrained in his actions by the necessity of satisfying either His sense of justice, or His anger. He wants to forgive, but cannot without a "sacpegoat". Enter Jesus.

I, on the other hand, do not accept that He is so constrained. The analogy, (which, like all analogies, is somewhat flawed, but I do feel gives a flavour of what is happening), is that God sees us as afflicted by the disease of sin. This is not a moral, but a practical problem for Him. He can deal with our moral culpability by forgiveness, but how does he bring about our healing, essentially our restoration. He must provide the divine medicine. That "medicine" is Jesus. When He dies, he effectively "consumes" death. He draws its' sting. As John says, the Light (Jesus) shines in the darkness and the darkness cannot overcome it. Our human nature is melded with the divine in his incarnation, and he brings it through death to the resurrection.

BTW, as I understand the Old Testament idea of the scapegoat, it is not that the scapegoat is punished for the sins of the people. It is not killed, merely driven into the wilderness, so that it can bear away the people's sin. So I don't think that PSA follows on by analogy from OT sacrifice-based atonement.
 
Posted by Grey Face (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
The reason I labour this, is because the more I have thought about it, there are just so few steps from CV to PSA, that I'm not sure why those who see CV as the central (or only) model of the atonement get in such a lather about it.

I agree that they're very close. They are, after all, attempts to explain the same thing.

quote:
and L went on...
My feeling is that, after this discussion, it is the issue of the character of God the father that is raising hackles - people don't like the way traditional explanation of PSA makes God the father look. I stand by it, I think it makes God look like he shows himself to be in the Bible, but I'm just trying to clarify the issues.

I agree again that it's that issue that's at stake.

PSA is seen by many, including me I suppose, as suffering from the following:
1. It makes the Father seem incapable of forgiving, unless someone's been punished
2. It makes Jesus, the Son, who appears perfectly (and I say that intentionally) capable of forgiving, of significantly different character to the Father
This contradicts Jesus' words. If you've seen Me, you've seen the Father, etc. The more I read threads like these the more plausible I find The River of Fire (aaargh! VVO!). PSA does, ultimately make God seem to be the enemy, not our infinitely loving Creator and Father.

I've heard from more than one atheist friend that "they want nothing to do with a God who puts us in an impossible situation, sets eternal death as the penalty for any transgression however slight, and then lets us off by killing someone else."

The Trinitarian counter-attack to this cuts no ice with the atheist either. "So, God put us in an (etc), then lets us off by killing Himself, which doesn't work because He's God? Sounds lacking in logic."

The appealing aspect of CV (am I still in CV strictly, or has the OrthodoxVirus™ got me finally?) for me is that God, and I don't mean one person of the Trinity alone, is infinitely forgiving, infinitely loving, and prepared to do anything to rescue us from our sin - anything but remove our free will, which would be a Horribly Bad Thing (sorry psyduck).

If this doesn't work for you, and you can see the loving nature of God more in PSA, well I'm all for it, because when it comes down to it we don't know exactly how the Atonement works in detail. Maybe what gets people's backs up so much about it is that it's presented as the Biblical Position these days.

Hmmmm. On re-reading, maybe the key point is that death is viewed as a punishment for sin, however slight the sin is? Well, maybe that's just - I'm not the judge who has to say - but the idea that death has been allowed to happen to us by God to prevent our sin being locked into us for eternity, effectively turning us into demons, has helped me, i.e. it's a necessary consequence of sin because of God's loving nature rather than his demand for punishment. With this in place, SA (dropped the P) and CV seem even closer and of course, the way through we've been offered is no different.

[Cross-posted with JJ]

[ 07. February 2004, 21:42: Message edited by: Grey Face ]
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
What Grey Face said [Overused]

BTW i'e had a few spots and aches and pains over the last week,
quote:
has the OrthodoxVirus™ got me finally?
so now I'm seriously worried!!! [Eek!]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
ISTM that the Bible tend to express that there are two aspects to our involvement (as humans) with sin; we are perpetrators of sin and yet also victims of sin.

The rest of Creation is purely a victim of sin - suffering the consequences, in bondage. Whereas someone like Satan is purely a perpetrator of evil.

Thus the work of Christ in destroying Evil has two aspects in connection to humanity - dealing with our guilt as agents of sin, but also dealing with our bondage as slaves to sin.
Rather that being in competition, CV and PSA actually go together in explaining this dual work of Christ.
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
[Overused] Anselm
 
Posted by Sir George Grey (# 2643) on :
 
Some questions which people might like to get their teeth into.

This thread has, for one made me aware of what to me seems a serious problem with SA. Is God more important than His Law? Can an omnipotent God not override his Law? (not dissimilar perhaps to asking the question of whether an omnipotent God can create a rock He can't lift), quite apart from the oft-repeated problem that SA entails that divine goodness includes blood punishment which divine love cannot override (as an aside to Freddy - I never thought that goodness itself was at stake in - only the salvation of humanity, surely a much smaller thing- I think advocates of SA would cheerfully concede that point).


Nevertheless, I have problems understanding Christus Victor. I submit a couple of examples of what it seems to be about to me:

A heavy smoker decides to quit. For two or three months, he suffers before finally being able to free himself of the cravings for nicotene. He has suffered a 'mini-death' in order to gain a life free of a sort of slavery.

here's another example from recent times:
Nelson Mandela involved himself in the anti-apartheid movement in South Africa. For this he was locked up on Robben Island for many years. His suffering and example, and his presidency of South Africa after his eventual release helped bring a peaceful end to apartheid, and to help restore a division between communities (not complete but definately getting there).


Perhaps I'm being overly juristic, but I have not yet been able to understand the background to 'victory over death'. To me, this sounds like itself an appeal to some sort of law, in this case a natural law from which we discover that Death is the result of separation from God, and suffering is the atonement. Suffering seems to be a requirement - and if I have understood the place of suffering in Christus Victor correctly the idea itself does come very close to SA at this point, the difference being that the state of guilt is seen more distinctly as a broken relationship than a more abstract state.
 
Posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
May I venture to suggest (liberal side of the LB here) that if PSA causes Lep to be lost in wonder, love and praise, then PSA is a damned good model for Lep to use as primary understanding of atonement.

If, on the other hand, it causes K-LB to question the reality of the forgiveness and mercy of God, then it is a damned bad model for K-LB to use.

In other words - is it not best to say that none of these models is particularly accurate, in that the truth of the matter is probably beyond human understanding, or at least beyond human description. And in the same way it makes sense for the physicist studying refraction to think of light as a wave, and for the physicist studying the photoelectric effect to think of it as a stream of particles, whilst recognising that actually it is both, or neither, it makes sense for each of us to understand atonement in the manner that is most helpful for us.
 
Posted by Sir George Grey (# 2643) on :
 
quote:
the truth of the matter is probably beyond human understanding, or at least beyond human description
And yet surely we have to see it as a sign - which means God trying to communicate to us - therefore it must be understood some way, even if in a multiplicity of ways. But to say it's beyond understanding surely can't be right.
 
Posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
Why not? Plenty of things of God are claimed to be beyond understanding.
 
Posted by Sir George Grey (# 2643) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider:
Why not? Plenty of things of God are claimed to be beyond understanding.

Hmm. shuffles feet reluctantly

It seems to me that we should be able to make sense of Christ's death on the Cross in one way or another because it was a public spectacle. Leaving aside SA questions of whether it was absolutely necessary to make atonement it's an act of very heavy symbolism. What's the point in it then if it doesn't communicate something? Even engaging in endless discussions and headscratching seems better than simply giving up on it.
 
Posted by Theophilus (# 2311) on :
 
Karl, I agree with you to some extent. It is perfectly legitimate to concentrate on the atonement metaphor that most clearly represents the true nature of God to you.

However, I think there are two problems with the 'it works for you' mentality. Firstly, your theology is impoverished, because any single model of the atonement necessarily leaves out many facets of it. Secondly, and more seriously, it makes you a much less effective teacher and/or evangelist if you are only able to explain the atonement in a single way.

Although I myself use PSA as my primary atonement model, I have listened to sermons expounding the atonement that have made me shudder with the horrible emphasis on God's wrath, even though I would not actually disagree with anything that the speaker said. If it made me shudder, I imagine it would make some of you, who already dislike PSA, puke.

The same reaction is possible with other theories of the atonement, however, not just PSA. I used to feel a similar way about Abelard that some people here do about PSA (and I'm still not particularly keen on it, though SoF has definitely made me re-examine it.) If Abelard was presented to me as the only single valid model of the atonement, I would probably conclude that the atonement, and therefore the whole salvation story, ultimately made no sense.

I think the best solution is to find as many different ways of seeing the atonement as possible - and trying very hard not to write off models that we are initially repelled by.
 
Posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
Which would be what I said. PSA is for me, at this time, a bad model. That does not mean I forget about it, but it means I do not currently use it to understanding the atonement.

This is the strength of the "if it works for you" approach. It can cope with PSA working for Lep and not for me, whereas the "this is actually the truth of the matter" approach does not.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
The possible weakness with the "I believe only what works for me" approach is that if it isn't dynamic, then it could create an image of God that doesn't reflect reality.
Like a policeman who tries to catch a criminal, yet refuses to look at the photograph of the criminal and instead attempts to work only with a silhouette. He may end up grabbing the wrong person.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
Gosh, this discussion keeps leaving me behind - where do you all find the time?

Just a couple of thoughts

1) I agree with Anselm - we must see ourselves as both perpetrators and victims of sin. There is a problem in some explanations of PSA that it seems to concentrate only on the former. That is a mistake of presentation, but I still don't agree with JJ that it is totally about our healing - I think because PSA - and that the cross demonstrates God's justice - is true, it allows God to come to us and heal us of our sin while still maintaining his righteous character.
2) I don't go for the - if it works for you model, again because I don't see other models being able to work if PSA is removed from the equation, and definitely not if substitution is rejected. I do think the "S" of PSA is the heart of all models of the atonement including CV as I have said.
3) It was interesting to see K-LB say it is fine to say there are things about God we don't understand - I think that was the problem with (the original)Anselm, he was trying to over logicalise everything. That's why I think he's great, but I'm not 100% with him. (which I'm sure he's be upset about.... not)
In saying that, a lot of the objections to PSA on this thread have been on the basis that "I can't understand and therefore don't accept how God can be essentially forgiving and yet angry with sin". I have to be honest I don't really understand this either, but I do accept it because this is the way God is seen to be in the Bible. This has really stuck me recently especially in the minor prophets which I have been studying - the most horrific descriptions of God's wrath right beside the most heartfelt revealing of his passion for sinners. I don't understand this, yet I believe PSA explained properly represents and partially resolves this paradox.

[ 09. February 2004, 15:14: Message edited by: Leprechaun ]
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
Oh, I just thought of something else.

I too, like JJ find the thought of God being constrained by the law wrong.
IMO God is only constrained by it in the sense that the law revealed his perfect character in the first place. It is only his own perfect holiness that he is "constrained" by, although I don't really see that as a constraint, I'm rather glad for one that God is in reality like that and always acts that way!
It wasn't that God thought "I've got to obey the rules" but rather acting in line with the rules was merely acting in line with his own character shown when he laid down the rules in the first place.
So in a sense God could have ignored the law, he was powerful enough to do it, but it would have been out of step with his character, revealed in the law to do so.

My head is about to explode.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Ok, diversion.

What about that pesky verse that talks about our forgiveness being reliant on the resurrection.

quote:
1 Corinthians 15:17
And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile; you are still in your sins.

How does that match up with PSA and Abelard - it seems to be fairly decent pointer to CV.

(BTW, I'm much more Abelard, myself!)

AB
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep, you wrote:

quote:
In saying that, a lot of the objections to PSA on this thread have been on the basis that "I can't understand and therefore don't accept how God can be essentially forgiving and yet angry with sin".
Well, not really. More that "I can't understand and therefore don't accept how God can be essentially forgiving and yet be constrained (by his character or whatever) to punish sin." And if not constrained, then He must desire to punish sin, which is even less like the character of God as displayed in Jesus.

I don't accept that the one follows from the other. If God were true constrained by justice, as PSA claims, then Jesus death would have been in vain, for in what sense is it just to condemn and punish one man for sins in which he had no part. Whatever PSA is, it isn't just. To try to pass it off as such seems more like legalistic sophistry. Thank goodness that God is not, in that sense, just. We need mercy, not justice. But Jesus teaches that there is an even higher way than that of mercy (ie I don't get what I deserve). It is that of grace (ie, I get what I don't deserve).

I think that from the basis of an abstact philosophical discussion, we would all really agree that a God who behaved in the way that I have described (perfectly loving, perfectly forgiveing, perfectly restoring) would be more worthy of worship than one who must exact vengeance from (or on behalf of) transgressors. After all, we value those characteristics more highly in humans. But of course, this is not abstract discussion. If PSA were true, then it would not matter, in a sense, what we think of it. It would be true, full stop. I sense that this is the attitude of many of the proponents of PSA. Who are we to argue. Whenever I feel like that, I look at Jesus. If he truely is, as I believe, the image of the Father, then I would argue, this means that the Father is far more transcendant, far more "other", far more powerful than our theology typically allows for. God is let out of the "box" of our understanding, in which we have confined him. The outrageousness of His love is released. I think it was Karl Barth who once responded to the question "What do you think of the love of God?" with the words, "It's a scandal!"
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:


And if not constrained, then He must desire to punish sin, which is even less like the character of God as displayed in Jesus.

If I comment on this I am just saying what I have said before, but here it is - I don't think the character of Jesus is inconsistent with the character of God of OT, Jesus reveals perfectly both a God who longs to forgive and will offer forgiveness to those who seek it, and yet is rightly angry with those who are rebellious against him.
quote:

I don't accept that the one follows from the other. If God were true constrained by justice, as PSA claims, then Jesus death would have been in vain, for in what sense is it just to condemn and punish one man for sins in which he had no part.

I don't know what "PSA" claims but I think I would say to this that God is not constrained by some higher value of "justice" but is constrained by his own character (which is just). Thus, in Romans three it is his justice that is satisfied by the cross. I don't entirely understand this, as I said, but if God is satisfied to "look on him and pardon me" as the hymn says, well..fine.
quote:
I think that from the basis of an abstact philosophical discussion, we would all really agree that a God who behaved in the way that I have described (perfectly loving, perfectly forgiveing, perfectly restoring) would be more worthy of worship than one who must exact vengeance from (or on behalf of) transgressors. After all, we value those characteristics more highly in humans.
I am so not agreeing with this. At all. I do not value people who allow terrible miscarriages of justice to go bypassed more than those who insist that justice be served. The Christian is to be forgiving because we believe that God eventually will avenge, Theophilus dealt with this excellently IMO in a previous post.

However, your post really clarified the issues for me - you are right. There are 2 issues here, a logical issue and a textual issue. I think we won't agree on the textual issue because we have different views of the text - I think that the OT, and its NT interpretation lead us inexorably to a PSA view - you do not, because of the different relative weights we are affording to different parts of the text.
On the logical issue, you again seem to be saying that PSA is inconsistent with the outrageous and scandalous love of God. I don't think it is. Er...so there.

So while I am very much enjoying the discussion, and the friendly tone in which it is taking place, I'm not really sure about how to take it forward.
I'll think about AB's point and maybe post something later.
 
Posted by Karl - Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
But if the person we forgive is another Christian, then God will not avenge, will He?

So in that case, do we have to take revenge ourselves?

Perhaps there's an impasse here - I do value forgiveness (regardless of an expectation of God's vengeance) over justice, every time. That from a legal viewpoint punishment is necessary both for prevention and deterrance of crime, I find desire to see vengeance and the hatred that seems to accompany it completely anathematic to my understand of Jesus.

Moreover, where do Jesus' words concerning His crucifiers fit in here - He asks His Father to forgive them - He is clearly asking that there be no punishment for this sin from anyone upon anyone - if He is our model, I can't see how "I forgive you because God'll get you later" fits in at all.
 
Posted by Grey Face (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I am so not agreeing with this. At all. I do not value people who allow terrible miscarriages of justice to go bypassed more than those who insist that justice be served. The Christian is to be forgiving because we believe that God eventually will avenge

That's not my hope. If one of my kids decides to give me a black eye while they're playing Toy Story games, I don't forgive them because I'm looking forward to God paying them back for it.

When I see a murderer get sentenced to death over in the US, I don't think "Good, the bastard deserves death. Oh, and I'm glad he'll roast in hell for eternity," I think, "Good, the bastard won't be able to do it again." On my better days, I hope that the bastard can be cured. No offence to any bastards out there, I don't mean it in the literal sense.

But this may be just a character defect. If you value the payback more than me, I can see why you don't have a problem with PSA.

And the true point of contact is this - neither (in fact, bring in Abelard here - none) of the theories give you a get-out-of-jail-free card. Without repentance we're still in the ultimate trouble, but I prefer to believe that that's so because of God's love - eternity without repentance would be hell - rather than because he wants to punish us. I can believe that within CV, Abelard, SA but not very easily within PSA.

I'm aware of what I just said. I believe... etc. I could be wrong. But so could you.

[Edited for quote UBB.]

[ 10. February 2004, 12:21: Message edited by: Tortuf ]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
Ok, diversion.

I think we can all agree on this [Biased]

quote:
What about that pesky verse that talks about our forgiveness being reliant on the resurrection.

quote:
1 Corinthians 15:17
And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile; you are still in your sins.

How does that match up with PSA and Abelard - it seems to be fairly decent pointer to CV.

Hmm, what about that pesky verse from Isaiah 53:6?

No one is actually denying CV as a legitimate description of the work of Christ.
Further, I don't see how this 'refutes' PSA. The resurrection functions in the PSA metaphor as a vindication of the complete satisfaction of 'the debt' being paid. It is the fountain gushing out of the BBQ as vindication that the fire has been quenched. It is the change handed back at the end of a payment...

...it is, it is ... a bad day for metaphors [Disappointed]
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I don't think the character of Jesus is inconsistent with the character of God of OT, Jesus reveals perfectly both a God who longs to forgive and will offer forgiveness to those who seek it, and yet is rightly angry with those who are rebellious against him.

Erm, I think if we have a look where Jesus' righteous anger lies, it is in the direction of the religious few corrupting the redemptive work of God. The hypocritical, the false teachers, those who weigh down the new converts with rules and regulations (those who corrupt the 'image' of God?)

But let us consider how he dealt with sinners - and I would indeed consider it a scandal - he treats them with compassion and pronounces their sins forgiven. With the samaritan woman by the well, he doesn't even tell her to "go sin no more". I would suggest that God's "righteous wrath" towards sinners is strikingly missing from Jesus' approach.

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grey Face:
I believe... etc. I could be wrong. But so could you.

Oh I am quite sure I am wrong on many things, that's why I participate in discussions like this!

Eg, my throwaway comment about justice in my last post if not wrong was certainly misleading, and may have sent us all down a wild goose chase.

I think the issue here comes back to some of the trinitarian stuff that was discussed earlier in the thread.
So, as I understand it, people's non-accpetance of PSA has something to do with the fact that they believe it takes away from God's "scandalous" mercy and forgiveness if his justice is seen to be served on Jesus.
Now I agree, if God's justice being served was of cost to US, so that in some sense we had to pay so that he could be more forgiving, then of course it would mean he is not as gracious as Jesus seems to reveal him to be.
But the amazing thing is about the mechanism he used to demonstrate his just anger at sin was that it was of great cost to himself.
(Necessary)Proof text alert...
"God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself..." God's justice is satisfied (and again I say I think this is partly mystery) and we are welcomed and forgiven entirely at God's expense, not ours.
So, far from undermining, or being in contrast to God's grace, PSA underlines and highlights it - it was of such importance to Him that his holiness and our sin didn't stop us relating to each other that he dealt with it in himself.

Scandalous love indeed.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep, you wrote:
quote:
I do not value people who allow terrible miscarriages of justice to go bypassed more than those who insist that justice be served. The Christian is to be forgiving because we believe that God eventually will avenge
Actually, IIRC, a christian is to be forgiving because he is forgiven. Surely that is the point of the parable of the unforgiving servant.

With respect to the question of miscarriages of justice, we commonly regard this as a shorthand for someone being wrongly convicted of an offence. In those circumstances, of course we should devote every effort to ensuring the vindication of the one so wronged. This is not at all the same as someone who has been "sinned against" choosing freely to renounce their just clam on the perpetrator. For example, if someone were to steal from me, I would like to think that I would not respond by desiring that they be punished. I might well want them to restore the property, I would certainly want them to reform. If the offence were sufficiently heinous, I might well want them locked away such that they would not be a menace to others, but I should not want them punished per se. What other attitude could I hold, in view of Jesus teaching in the sermon on the mount about turning cheeks and giving cloaks.

Now, I readily accept that I would probably fall short of this ideal (literally, sin), but the point is that Jesus did not. He really did all this stuff. Did he believe it? I like to think he did. And if he did believe it, and if he really did say, "I and the Father are one" then, surely, we should take teaching like this very seriously, and reasses the implications of the concept of justice. Despite all that you say about Jesus knowing that he was going to pay the penalty for sin, I cannot reconcile The Jesus of the Gospels with the, as I believe, construct of PSA, which seems to me to make the Father so utterly unlike the Son.

I agree that, whilst I am finding this discussion fascinating and enjoyable, we are probably only reissuing well worn arguments, and I guess in the end we all have to bow before the mystery of God.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Erm, I think if we have a look where Jesus' righteous anger lies, it is in the direction of the religious few corrupting the redemptive work of God. The hypocritical, the false teachers, those who weigh down the new converts with rules and regulations (those who corrupt the 'image' of God?)

But let us consider how he dealt with sinners - and I would indeed consider it a scandal - he treats them with compassion and pronounces their sins forgiven. With the samaritan woman by the well, he doesn't even tell her to "go sin no more". I would suggest that God's "righteous wrath" towards sinners is strikingly missing from Jesus' approach.
AB

So Jesus forgives those who repent but is angry with those who are arrogant and will not accept God's grace. (In fact it is far more than with a religious few, so on occasion Jesus calls down the judgement that befell Sodom onto whole towns.) This is exactly the character of the God of the OT (which is the point I was making), and perfectly consistent with PSA. No one is denying that God/Jesus are/is compassionate, I am merely offering PSA as an explanation of how a Holy God CAN ALSO behave in a compassionate way towards sinners.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
Gosh. Cross-post city.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep, I hope you don't think that I was in any way suggesting that God's action in reconciling us to him was not costly to him, nor was I suggesting that it is not a work which was perfectly accomplished through the death and resurrection of Jesus. I think we are both at one about this.

Part of the problem my be our understanding of reconciliation. You might argue, "If God can forgive us anyway, why did Jesus have to die?" (I hope I'm not putting words into your mouth) My reply would be that reconciliation is more than the forgiveness of sins. We can be forgiven, but still not be reconciled. If we are still bound by our sins, we are crippled in our relationship with God, not because he wants to be disassociated from us, but because we cannot receive what He wants us to have.

In this understanding, Jesus dies to break the power of sin in our lives, to liberate us from our disease, if you like. God, indeed was reconciling the world to himself on the cross, but I don't see that as necessarily bound up with the idea of sastisfaction a la Anselm (not the shipmate)
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Excellent post, Jape. Agree 100%. Salvation isn't just about forgiveness, it's also about becoming like God, which wasn't possible until Jesus broke the power of sin and death, and united the divine and human natures in himself.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
JJ, we are agreed on that. I think you were saying however,(please correct me if I am wrong) that the stress on God's justice being satisfied in PSA means that forgiveness is not an act of mercy on God's part if PSA is true. It was that I was disagreeing with.
quote:

Part of the problem my be our understanding of reconciliation. You might argue, "If God can forgive us anyway, why did Jesus have to die?" (I hope I'm not putting words into your mouth) My reply would be that reconciliation is more than the forgiveness of sins. We can be forgiven, but still not be reconciled.

Thus far I agree in principle, although I would want to say that in fact both happen at the same time. I am not saying that reconciliation is just forgiveness, but that forgiveness is necessary for reconciliation. PSA allows the former so that the latter can happen.
quote:

If we are still bound by our sins, we are crippled in our relationship with God, not because he wants to be disassociated from us, but because we cannot receive what He wants us to have.

This is where I disagree. In the same way that you see God constrained by the law (and I would say this is only the constraint of his own character) your view means he is constrained by us. PSA says Jesus death completely solves our problem because God satisifes himself. Your view says God was stuck for a way to influence us and so sent Jesus. I cannot accept that. That's what I meant in an earlier post when I said that I think taking PSA out of our understanding of the cross makes God less than he is.

quote:

In this understanding, Jesus dies to break the power of sin in our lives, to liberate us from our disease, if you like. God, indeed was reconciling the world to himself on the cross, but I don't see that as necessarily bound up with the idea of sastisfaction a la Anselm (not the shipmate)

I agree with all of this except the last sentence. I think the results for us that you mention can be achieved without PSA (although I think they depend on SA being true) but the PSA comes in to solve the Godward end of the problem, which needs solving if we are even to get to the effects of the atonement on us.
You see, I think sin is more than a problem that messes up our lives, it is an offence to God. It seems to me (and again correct me if I am wrong) that you don't accept God by hs nature has any problem forgiving our sin, and the cross is therefore something that had only subjective effects for us.
I think without his justice being satisfied, he does have this problem forgiving sin - because it would compromise his character.
This does not make him less gracious, because what PSA does is to explain how God the just arranged everything so that he could forgive, and his justice would be demonstrated, at great cost to himself. This is grace.
Its that same old character of God issue I mentioned before.
So I agree with all you said about the effects of the atonement for our reconciliation and healing, but think that God's anger being dealt with, and justice being demonstrated precluded his coming to help and heal us. The cross does achieve IMHO all you said it achieved, but dealing with the relational problem between God and us was the central thing that happened, and it is from this that the other benefits flow.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep

Ah.. Now I think I understand where you are coming from, and why you don't think the ideas that I have propounded meet with the objections that you have raise (at least in part.)

I think you have misunderstood me in part, the blame for which lies soley with the poor quality of my explanation.

I don't believe that PSA lessens the mercy of God. Whether Jesus died in or place of us, or for our sakes doesn't make much odds, from that POV. What I do believe is that PSA makes God seem less than He is.

Of course, when you say that I believe God is constrained by us, in some senses, that is true, and in some senses I expect that you would agree. Certainly, the proponents of PSA commonly stress the need for a response if we are to appropriate the benefits of the salvation which we are all agreed he desires for us to experience, so in that sense we have common ground. However, I think you have misunderstood me. You wrote
quote:
Your view says God was stuck for a way to influence us and so sent Jesus.
This is absolutely not what I believe. The cross (and resurrection) was, I believe, an objective, cosmic, salvific act. It remains that no matter what our attitude to it is, something fundamental happened to the make up of the world that first Easter weekend. God was not influencing us, he was recreating us, or at least he was initiating the process and making it possible. I do indeed believe that God has no problem whatsoever in forgiving sin. It does not follow from this belief that the cross is purely subjective. On the contrary, because we were bonded to our sinful nature, no matter how many times over God would willingly forgive us, that in and of itself would not liberate us to receive His love. The cross was necessary to break that bondage.

You wrote
quote:
dealing with the relational problem between God and us was the central thing that happened
I would, to a point, agree with this, though I think there was a cosmic significance as well, but the relational problem, I believe, was, and is, all on our side.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
JJ,
You are very gracious, I'm sure the fault lies in my befuddled mind, mixing this discussion as I am with funding appraisals.

I'm still not sure I get it, so again correct me if I'm wrong.

The "cosmic" thing that happens IYO, is that God separates/heals us from our sinful nature. A couple of issues with this
1) This is still subjective - ie it still means the cross is essentially about us (which you may be happy with, I am not)
and 2) (linked) What is it about the cross that "allows" God to come to us and heal us and change us in a way he did or could not before?
Something before the cross limited or stopped God simply dealing with or healing sin? In my view, it was his immense holiness, and justice - the only "constraint" was his own awesome character.
In your view, God is somehow so limited by our sin that his only option is to send Jesus to die.
I still find that it is this view, rather than PSA that makes God less than he is.

But again, I'm still not sure I've got you completely! If I'm arguing with a straw man, then please illuminate...
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Leprechaun,

Perhaps it is not our sin that is the barrier between us and God, but perhaps our nature. Perhaps it is not our past, but rather our now that stops us from being reconciled to God. The cross may well be an objective method of dealing with that.

or

Perhaps the cross was about God experiencing the death and suffering of his creation, first hand, to understand and draw closer to us.

Can the cross only be objective if described by PSA?

Just some random thoughts, you may now continue with the regularly scheduled debating... [Smile]

AB
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep:
How I hate appraisals!!!! [Mad]

No, the cosmic thing that happens is that God breaks the power of evil in the universe on the cross. My understanding is that evil pre-exists the fall of man. That certainly seems to be the view of the Genisis author. Whether or not you want to call that evil "Satan", and how you understand that evil will depend on your view of the OT. As a matter of fact, I haven't any problem with the traditional language, but others might like to think of these things in terms of chaos, or even entropy. The healing of our sinful nature is a consequence of that cosmic, salvific act. Paul seems to tie these two strands together in his teaching in Colossians 1
quote:
16For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. 17He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy. 19For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, 20and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross.
21Once you were alienated from God and were enemies in your minds because of[6] your evil behavior. 22But now he has reconciled you by Christ's physical body through death to present you holy in his sight, without blemish and free from accusation

Thus I see the atonement as dealing with issues beyond that of our salvation (that is, the salvation of humankind). I accept that saying that "PSA is not the whole story" which you could infer from the above, is not the same as saying "PSA is not true". However, I think that CV does account for both the personal (rather than subjective - it's not really about our perception, but an objective change which He brings about) and the cosmic.

As to what actually happened on th cross, it is, of course, a mystery (in both CV and PSA). But I believe that Jesus did battle with evil, however you want to define that, and he did it in the context of a human life, a part of the created order. That He won is evidenced by the resurrection. A very imperfect analogy, again from healing, is that of a victim of, say, smallpox. If they survive, they carry in their blood antibodies which can be extracted, and used to bolster the immunity of others. They have conquered the disease. Of course, I'm not saying that's what happened literally, but I think it brings some insight.
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Sorry AB, cross posted with you.

Just like to say how much I agree with this!!
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Ooops wrong button!

That post should have read:

AB, just wanted to say how much I agree with this:
quote:
Perhaps it is not our sin that is the barrier between us and God, but perhaps our nature. Perhaps it is not our past, but rather our now that stops us from being reconciled to God. The cross may well be an objective method of dealing with that.

[Overused] [Overused]
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
I am beginning to get this a little more now. But not fully I think.

And to be honest, I agree with all the positive points you are making - that Christ died to defeat evil, it was a cosmic spiritual event doing that, and as such it accomplishes more than our salvation. Don't fully understand the smallpox thing, but am happy to run with it.

My problem with it just being about that is that it really is exceedingly dualistic. God and evil having a battle over the centuries and God winning.
Any view like this one, sees the cross as only a victory over death, or evil, rather than God's expression of his own character makes God smaller than he is. The only thing that could stop God achieving what he wants is ...God. Not evil, not death. In fact God introduces death in Genesis, so why not just take it away again?
No, the problem must be one to do with God himself, rather than just a fault in the universe he is sovereign over, or else he could have just fixed it. The cross on a PSA model shows how he did fix it in a way that is consistent with his character.


Its not that I disagree with you per se, merely that I cannot see how any of the outcomes of the cross you talk about can have happened without subistitution, and that it leaves the character of God as Holy out of the equation, which brings about the need for PSA. I agree it achieves all you say it does, but cannot see why it had to be the cross as a solution unless PSA is at the heart.

AB, I didn't really get the first comment you made - I agree our nature needs changing, and that the cross brings about that change - an expiation of our sin. My question remains for any other model how a Holy God CAN come and live in and change our nature, when the effect of someone knowing God in that way in the OT was instant death. Answer - anger dealt with at cross.

Your second point - I agree with, it is an amazing truth that God identifies with us in Jesus death, Hebrews makes a big deal of that, but it is just so much more than that. That way of thinking alone brings us to the "Something was lacking in God's experience so that he couldn't reach us" that really does make God less than he is. The results become merely to do with our attitude to God (which our of course effected by the the cross) rather than any objective achievement for or by God.
I realise you are probably happy with this. For the reasons above I am not.

I didn't say any of that very clearly, but I might try again later. [Ultra confused]
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Leprechaun,

quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
My question remains for any other model how a Holy God CAN come and live in and change our nature, when the effect of someone knowing God in that way in the OT was instant death. Answer - anger dealt with at cross.

I can see that that's where your thinking is leading at the moment - but I would suggest that you are interpretting the OT in light of PSA. There are plenty of imperfect sinners who had a very intimate relationship with Yawheh in the OT. Not least David & Solomon, who were held in high esteem by God, inspite of their sin.

And maybe that's the key. Perhaps it is not their weaknesses in sin that defined their relationship with God, but rather their hearts.

Ok, second diversion for you. Is "diminshed responsibility" a just plea in a court of law? Or should the full force of the law always come down on one who knows no better?

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:


I can see that that's where your thinking is leading at the moment - but I would suggest that you are interpretting the OT in light of PSA.

I do try to interpret the OT in light of the new, you are quite right. [Razz]

quote:
There are plenty of imperfect sinners who had a very intimate relationship with Yawheh in the OT. Not least David & Solomon, who were held in high esteem by God, inspite of their sin.

Well, we are about to get into deep theological waters here, but I would suggest that their faith in the OT covenant was tantamount to faith in the cross so it was ultimately PSA that allowed their relationship as it was.
In saying this, their whole system of religion emphasised God's distance from them rather than his closeness, no matter what the reality of their relationship. The whole OT points to a solution to this problem. Something that will allow God to come close, right into their hearts and change them. I think PSA is this solution.

2) Diminished responsibility means that you are regarded as guilty of a lesser offence but still guilty (as it only operates in commuting murder to manslaughter) I would think off the top of my head that with God it operates a similar way - people who know are more guilty, but we are all essentially guilty.

I am glad you can see where my thinking is going.
[Ultra confused]
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
I do try to interpret the OT in light of the new, you are quite right. [Razz]

Interpretting the OT to fit PSA is not reading the OT in light of the new. It's reading it in light of a model that's been prevalent for some 400 years. It assumes that PSA is true, and reads the OT to keep that system intact. It's fairly circular reasoning. Isn't it a more honest method to try and figure out what the OT was trying to say, and interpret the atonement in light of that?

For example, there are many verses in the OT that suggest that the OT sacrificial Law wasn't necessarily what God desired - but rather repentance, love, mercy and to walk humbly with Him. However, with PSA, we see a model of the cross in the model of sacrificial atonement and allow that to support our existing assumptions, rather than to challenge them.

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Interpretting the OT to fit PSA is not reading the OT in light of the new. It's reading it in light of a model that's been prevalent for some 400 years.
I myself would say the PSA model has been around a lot longer than 400 years. Even if you agree with your interpretation of the OT and the Gospels (and I don't, so I will come to that in a second) Romans was written nearly 2000 years ago.
quote:
For example, there are many verses in the OT that suggest that the OT sacrificial Law wasn't necessarily what God desired - but rather repentance, love, mercy and to walk humbly with Him. However, with PSA, we see a model of the cross in the model of sacrificial atonement and allow that to support our existing assumptions, rather than to challenge them.

AB, I think, again, that this is exactly the point. If God was really interested in knowing us, walking with us, us repenting and knowing him, why was the sacrifical system there at all. Why were sacrifices required?
Its not the sacrifice that God wants from us, he wants to relate to us, but the sacrificial system emphasises the problem of our sin in this relationship, and the need of a solution.

Of course God's ultimate aim for us is that we repent, turn to him and walk humbly, PSA is about the means for that route to be open.
To be honest I think it is Abelard's view that supports our existing humnaistic assumptions, that all that is really wrong with us is that we need to be emotionally moved to love God.
The problem is much more serious than that, according to both the old and New Testaments, and the reason I think Abelard is so popular is that it makes us look better than we are.
I think that's also the reason that CV appeals -because we are removed from the equation as the problem, and it is death or the devil instead.
Easier to accept, but, I am afraid, not true.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Leprechaun,

Let me just say, once again, how pleasing it is to have someone on the thread who is passionately supportive of PSA. It really is a breath of fresh air, and I always find your posts gracious and informative! [Smile]

Back to business though [Devil]

Well, PSA may well have it's roots in Romans (again, we are in danger that we only read Romans in the light of PSA) and possibly in the writings of Augustine too, but it was only really a recognised model of the church in feudal form with Anselm in the 12th century, and in its forensic form with the reformers. Before that CV and variants were the model de facto for the church. Romans too is not straightforwardly advocating PSA. Romans 3:25 still contains a great deal of controversy surrounding propitiation/expiation - but it's really not that important!

I'm glad you mentioned Abelard, as I think it's been under represented in this discussion recently, and I do think it's a much richer model than a quick scratch of the surface reveals. For example, where it scores over PSA, in my opinion is that it focusses more on goodness, than solving the conundrum of salvation.

In PSA goodness is said to flow from salvation, but combine PSA with justification by faith alone and it's easy to see why modern "christendom" is awash was luke-warm christians, secure in their salvation but unmoved to perform 'good works'. (I know this isn't PSA's fault alone, but I do think other models are better at encouraging 'good works').

With Abelard though, love is put firmly on the agenda. The incarnation is the ultimate expression of love, the cross the result of a hostile world rejecting its creator and the ultimate act of submissive love, the resurrection a validation of God's love for His children who love in this crucifying world.

Christ can be said to be bearing our sins, by triumphing where we are weak. In rebelling against the heirarchies of sin, he breaks the power that our pride has over us and clears a path back to our Lord. He bears our sins away from us, in the way that he bore sickness away from those who he healed.

It's all good.

[Smile]

AB
 
Posted by The Cake Detective (# 4578) on :
 
Hello! I've been trying to keep up with this discussion, all very interesting, no doubt I've misunderstood, forgotten or skimmed over lots of stuff I'd be better off remembering, but I'll take the chance to dive in anyway...

The way I see it, it's very artificial to seperate the forgiveness of sins and defeat of death. Death is the result of sin - sin seperates us from God, spiritual death, and then we die physically. So in forgiving sin, death was also defeated, and the defeat of death was also the defeat of sin.

quote:
Well, we are about to get into deep theological waters here, but I would suggest that their faith in the OT covenant was tantamount to faith in the cross so it was ultimately PSA that allowed their relationship as it was.
In saying this, their whole system of religion emphasised God's distance from them rather than his closeness, no matter what the reality of their relationship. The whole OT points to a solution to this problem. Something that will allow God to come close, right into their hearts and change them. I think PSA is this solution.

This is also my understanding... the Old Testament covenant was to point forward to Christ until it was time for him to come into the world. In repentance and faith expressed through the sacrifical system, which points forward to Jesus, and in trusting in the promises of the coming messiah, Jesus again, the Old Testament believers were trusting in Jesus, his death and resurrection, without knowing the full details.

Ok, a very interesting thread... will hopefully come back to it soon!

The Cake Detective
 
Posted by egg (# 3982) on :
 
I have come rather late into this thread. I agree with Jolly Jape's general approach:
quote:
I do believe the Bible to be God inspired, but I don't believe it of be inerrant in the way in which that phrase is commonly used. I do believe the claims that the Bible makes for itself, namely that its purpose is the revelation of God to those who would seek Him. I also believe that it is God-breathed (note the present tense). Belief in those two truths in no way precludes the view that the God of the Old Testament is progressively revealed from someone barely different from a tribal war-god, to someone recognisibly the Father of out Lord, Jesus Christ. It isn't that God has changed, but, if you like, that His people got to know him better, and therefore could better hear what He was saying. But of course, it isn't until Jesus that we can really see what He is like. Of course, if you take the view that every word of the scriptures is literally true, then we are faced with the conundrum of a God who is both wholly loving, and who also directs us to stone adulterers, or for that matter to eliminate a whole race of people. It's worth noting that Jesus didn't seem to hold to the literalist position, and was delightfully free with his use of Scripture.
I have for a long time wondered whether the concentration on the 1st century theories of atonement isn't somewhat misplaced. One has to remember that the idea of the efficacy of sacrifice was deeply embedded in the thinking of 1st century Jews (and indeed those of other religions). One example, which doesn't appear in the Bible, was the development from at least the 2nd century BC of the rabbinical thinking about the sacrifice of Isaac. In Gen.22 the usual view is that Isaac was a boy of perhaps 12 or thereabouts; but by the 1st century AD the rabbis had developed a theory that Isaac was a fully grown adult, and that he voluntarily offered to submit to the sacrifice demanded by God. In centuries following the events of Gen.22, when God was displeased with the Jews they would plead "Lord, remember the sacrifice of Isaac"; i.e. the sacrifice voluntarily offered by Isaac was held to be a satisfaction to God for subsequent failings of His people, and was effective to avert God's anger.

One can readily see that Jesus himself may have had this in mind when he voluntarily submitted to arrest and execution; and that Paul may have drawn on it for his theories of the efficacy of the sacrifice of Jesus. Together with this, the daily sacrifices offered in the Temple were regarded by many as ensuring the good favour of God for the Jewish people, and averting his wrath at their shortcomings; and the idea of the scapegoat bearing the sins of the people into the desert carries something of the same thinking.

Against this background, what Paul is saying is that you don't need repeated sacrifices in the Temple. The sacrifice of Jesus, the willing victim (like Isaac in the rabbinical version), is a once for all act that does not need to be repeated. It secures the goodwill of God, averts the possibility of His anger, and reconciles Him to our sinful state for all generations to come.

One can see how this fits in with 1st century thinking. I am less clear that it fits with the way in which 21st century Christians think (or should think), let alone 21st century non-Christians who are seeking for an explanation of what Christianity stands for. One can carry Jolly Jape's point further: just as people got to know God better as time progressed, so they can continue to get to know Him better to-day. OT ideas of sacrifice are no longer in vogue, and I seriously question whether they are attractive to non-Christians. The best guide to God's nature, as Jolly Jape says, is the character and teaching of Jesus. His central message, for me, is in Mt.6.33: "Seek ye first the kingdom of God and his righteousness ..." ("kingdom" here meaning, of course, the sovereignty of God, i.e. make the love of God central to your life, in accordance with the first and greatest commandment, from which all the others flow). And his conduct in persevering in his chosen way, when he knew that it was likely to lead to his death and when he could have escaped this fate even as late as from the Garden of Gethsemane, is a pattern for us all to follow. It was, of course, vindicated by the Resurrection, which was central to Paul's teaching, but which has not figured nearly as largely in the Western church as the Crucifixion (mistakenly, in my view - the Orthodox Church's emphasis on the Resurrection and on the risen Christ, Christus Pantocrator, is more attractive and more true to the NT).
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
AB,

Thanks you for your affable comments. Avatars are funny aren't they - I'd always imagined you as being a Jesus lookalike, and now I've just been very disturbed by viewing your profile. [Eek!]

I am aware of the Romans controversy - expiation, propitiation, and all of that. I think even if you do go for expiation as a translation (sic), that in itself certainly requires SA, if not PSA to be true.

I still find Abelard thoroughly unconvincing, as it takes no account of
1) The character of God, neither his holiness nor his immense power. Abelard's view completely fails to take our sin and are sinful coniditon seriously, and makes the cross a bit of a pathetic wave for help from God's point of view. As such, I think the reason it appeals, as I said in my last post, is because it makes us seem nicer and more important than we actually are. While your explanation of it makes sense, and I don't disagree with any of it as a secondary effect of the cross in moving us to repentance, it means nothing if the objective problem of our sin and God's holiness is not solved.
2) That, as I have said before, PSA does not require love to be removed from the equation, as in sending Jesus to die in our place God perfectly expresses his love for us in a just way. Anslem (theologian not shipmate) was, I agree far to clinical and feudal in his description, but PSA not only allows for the love of God but perfectly encapsulates it.

Luke warmness in the church is not because of PSA, but rather, I think because its effects are inadequately explained.
I am most uncomfortable with the (admittedly inaccurate) mutation of Abelard that floats around today that says "Jesus did this for you, what will you do for Him - do you love Him as much as he loved you...?" While this may evoke a response, it is not a Gospel response, just a works based one.
This is just emotional blackmail, and is rightly counter acted by an stress on the objective achievement of the cross, that justifies us, and makes us God's children. Only possible, as I have said before, because Jesus death deals with our sin and God's holy wrath at it.
Once we grasp that, we really will change, not by having our arms twisted, or emotionally balckmailed, which is commonly how the Abelard model is used to "move us to good works." but by becoming what we are, what God has made us.

Soz. Much as your explanation was deeply moving, I don't think its "all good". All bad, in fact, as it makes God less than he is, feeds my pride by telling me I'm better than I am, and seeks to emotionally manipulate me into obedience.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Lep,

I do think we are rapidly reaching an empass where we will simply become to tired to thrash it out anymore! Nevertheless I will try and point out what I think are the key issues here.

#1 God's character
PSA "bigs up" God's character by stressing that he is wholy other than us. He cannot go soft on sin, his wrath is just, PSA is the only way he can solve the condundrum of sin.

I would, however, look at the incarnation as a model to a). God's character and also b). The importance God places on it. In the incarnation God becomes weak to save us, becomes poor, becomes frail, becomes mocked, tortured, killed.

This is consistent with the parables that show God as a shepherd willing to leave the flock, to the running father, willing to shame himself to great his returning son, to the merciful king who forgives his slave's debt.

I wonder whether our understanding, and thus protection, of God's character is really at the forefront of God's salvation plan.

#2 Sin
PSA sees it as a barrier between us and God. A list of wrongdoings that God cannot let off, unless their debt has been paid.

I would, however, see it as a symptom of our sickness. We sin because we are sinful. It is our desire to sin that keeps the distance between us and God, and at any time we can return like the son, to the running father, waiting for us to come back.

#3 Justice
PSA would see it as enforcement of God's character. I would see it as serving redemption. In the story of the prodigal son, the father does not ask for repayment, for he is back, and that is all that matters.

I think these key differences are why you find PSA to be the best model for you, and why I find Abelard to be the best for me. But since they both help us understand the atonement in methods useful for us - doesn't that make them both equally valid as models?

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:

I do think we are rapidly reaching an empass where we will simply become to tired to thrash it out anymore!

Indeed. Also, I'm not sure I want to get into a protracted discussion with someone who has such psychotic eyes. [Help]
quote:

#1 God's character
PSA "bigs up" God's character by stressing that he is wholy other than us. He cannot go soft on sin, his wrath is just, PSA is the only way he can solve the condundrum of sin.

I would, however, look at the incarnation as a model to a). God's character and also b). The importance God places on it. In the incarnation God becomes weak to save us, becomes poor, becomes frail, becomes mocked, tortured, killed.

This is consistent with the parables that show God as a shepherd willing to leave the flock, to the running father, willing to shame himself to great his returning son, to the merciful king who forgives his slave's debt.

You say this as if I will disagree with it. You also say it as if this aspect of God's character and his ultimate holiness and glory are incompatible.The whole point of PSA is that it shows God as both. God's glory is revealed judgement and mercy, not just the latter.

quote:

#2 Sin
PSA sees it as a barrier between us and God. A list of wrongdoings that God cannot let off, unless their debt has been paid.

I would, however, see it as a symptom of our sickness. We sin because we are sinful. It is our desire to sin that keeps the distance between us and God, and at any time we can return like the son, to the running father, waiting for us to come back.

Again, in essence I do not disagree, but want to say that this is a one-dimensional us-centric view of things. What you say is true for usbut pays no attention to the effect sin has on God or our relationship with Him. This seems to me to be the Bible's main emphasis on sin throughout.
quote:

#3 Justice
PSA would see it as enforcement of God's character. I would see it as serving redemption. In the story of the prodigal son, the father does not ask for repayment, for he is back, and that is all that matters.

AB, one could take any parable and impose it as a framework on the rest of the Bible, suffice to say, as I have already said several times, it does not make the Father less merciful or eager to bring his children home that he chooses this method which also vindicates his character at great cost to himself. There's also some discussion about whether the substitution motif is there in the Prodigal Son - it certainly can be seen that way if one want to view it in the context of the whole NT (rather than viewing the whole rest of the NT in the context of that parable)
quote:

I think these key differences are why you find PSA to be the best model for you, and why I find Abelard to be the best for me. But since they both help us understand the atonement in methods useful for us - doesn't that make them both equally valid as models?

Well, in one sense. I believe that if you are trusting Jesus to get you to heaven you will get there, no matter which model of the atonement you hold to be central. However, ultimately I believe that it is only because PSA is true and the central model of the atonement that any of us will get there.
 
Posted by Talitha (# 5085) on :
 
Can I just say how good it is to have both sides of this argued so coherently, so that undecided people (e.g. me) can work out what we think. [Smile]

My conclusions so far:

1. I disagree with the claim that CV diminishes the character of God. He is necessarily constrained by something: either by Justice (PSA) or by us (CV). I think it's actually better for God's dignity, and more compatible with other Christian theology, to say he is constrained not by some greater abstraction outside himself, but by us. It doesn't preclude his omnipotence, because he has chosen all along to delegate some of his power to us.

Firstly in the general matter of free will and never forcing anyone to come to him, even if he suffers thereby.

"He cannot ravish, he can only woo." Screwtape.

"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who kill the prophets and stone those sent to you, how often I have longed to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not willing!" Luke 13:34, italics mine. It doesn't say "but I didn't want to because you were too sinful and I couldn't stand the sight of you."

And secondly in the matter of achieving the purposes of his kingdom largely through human agents. He has chosen, in his power, to be subject to us in some things. I think that makes him look greater, not less.

2. I also disagree with the idea that CV makes us look better than we are (sorry, Leprechaun!) With PSA, the problem is all on God's side, and as soon as he gets over his grudge against our sin, we gleefully come running back into his arms. Unfortunately, we're worse than that. Not only do we sin, but we're reluctant to be reconciled, even after we're forgiven. God has to change something in us, as well as (or perhaps instead of) something in himself - because we're the ones with the problem. CV gives more credit to God and less to us.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
(Sighs wearily)
Much as I am enjoying this debate, I do feel now that I am simply repeating the same things over and over again, as I am about to do with Talitha's post. So I am going to answer her, and then not post again on this issue unless I really really have anything different/more interesting to say.

quote:

1. I disagree with the claim that CV diminishes the character of God. He is necessarily constrained by something: either by Justice (PSA) or by us (CV). I think it's actually better for God's dignity, and more compatible with other Christian theology, to say he is constrained not by some greater abstraction outside himself, but by us. It doesn't preclude his omnipotence, because he has chosen all along to delegate some of his power to us.

As I said in an earlier post, in reply to JJ, PSA does not require God to be constrained by an abstract notion of justice. It is his own character of compassion for the sinner, and just wrath at sin that "constrains" him. Something "constrained" God to send Jesus to die. If it was us, fine, but then God is at our mercy. If it was death, fine, but then God and death are equals or near enough, rather than, as the Bible sees it, death being something that God introduces and controls. PSA does not, repeat does not require God to be pulled up to an external standard of justice,(contra Anselm) rather it is God's self expression, merciful and just. He only needs to satisfy the law inasmuch as it was an expression of his own character anyway.
This, I think magnifies the immense mercy of God, he was not constrained to send Jesus for us because it was his last option to correct the universe going awry, he could have solved the whole problem by justly getting rid of us all. But he chose for his just character to be expressed in a way that also brings us to Him.
quote:

2. I also disagree with the idea that CV makes us look better than we are (sorry, Leprechaun!) With PSA, the problem is all on God's side, and as soon as he gets over his grudge against our sin, we gleefully come running back into his arms. Unfortunately, we're worse than that. Not only do we sin, but we're reluctant to be reconciled, even after we're forgiven. God has to change something in us, as well as (or perhaps instead of) something in himself - because we're the ones with the problem. CV gives more credit to God and less to us.

This comment rests on the assumption that I think that ONLY PSA is a true model of the atonement, which I have emphatically stated I do not. PSA asserts that the main or central thing that needed satisfaction was God, SO THAT God could come and know us change us where we could not change ourselves, without us being burned up by his immense holiness. PSA does not assert that it is only God who has the problem, but rather that God's holiness is the main problem that needs solving to allow the others to be solved. Thus I do believe that both CV and Abelard are true, but they depend on PSA having happened.
I agree absolutely wholeheartedly that God has to change something in us too, but he is only able to do that in a way that is consistent with his character because of PSA.
It is the other models, CV and Abelard if viewed without PSA that make the cross ALL about God merely doing something to us or for us, and hence shift the focus from God's character to our benefit. In fact both, especially Abelard, rest on the cross being about God enabling us to do something, rather than God objectively dealing with a problem. This goes back to my first point, was God constrained to send Jesus to die merely to move something in us, or by his own great character? PSA says the only thing that can constrain God to act is God himself.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Lep,

I share your weariness, I do. Often it seems that although we communicate our ideas well, we are simply speaking different languages. Thus all I can do is repeat my assertions, and you yours.

I have been, however, interested by your recent assertions that CV and Abelard alone suffer because they are about God doing something to or for us - whereas PSA is about something objective. I'm just intrigued, why is a subjective result of the cross a bad thing? If one doesn't see the condundrum of sin something to be solved (as I don't) - then a subjective effect of the cross is sufficient, no?

I'm just trying to get to the crux of our differences...

AB
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
I'm just intrigued, why is a subjective result of the cross a bad thing? If one doesn't see the condundrum of sin something to be solved (as I don't) - then a subjective effect of the cross is sufficient, no?

AB,
I think you hit the nail on the head. IF, there is no problem with sin between us and God, then a subjective effect is enough. This is almost anathema to me though!
This is sort of what I was trying to get at what now feels like eons ago, when I said I thought the real issue was a disagreement about the character of God (and his attitude to sin) than models of the atonement.

I do think, as with so many of these things, the difference boils down to a different understanding of the nature of the Bible. I'm not trying to sound self righteous here, honestly I'm not, but this character of God issue, has on this thread seemed at an even lower level to be an authority/understanding of the OT issue and how that reflects in our understanding of the NT material.

While I hope I will still remain on internet friendly terms, with you and JJ and other protagonists this is a point on which I am not going to compromise! Soz.

[ 13. February 2004, 13:13: Message edited by: Leprechaun ]
 
Posted by fatprophet (# 3636) on :
 
So, lets see then. We have one person saying that forgiveness is unconditional, no doubt because we are used to thinking divine love is unconditional love; and another person saying that forgiveness is not unconditional, but depends on justice being satisfied whatever that means.

Lets just consider the question of whether forgiveness is conditional or unconditional. In our culture the word forgiveness means unconditional. If we forgive we don't need to punish, its an alternative to justice being satisfied (e.g forgiving a debt) not dependant on it. So it seem the unconditional forgiveness lobby win hands down, therefore the atonement is not about 'something' happening to allow God to forgive us as this is a contradiction in terms.

Seems simple. But, my reading of the bible suggests that forgiveness was not considered unconditional in certain instances. The good old PSA proof text, whatever else it means, shows that forgiveness is conditional: Somewhere in the epistle to the Hebrews it says "without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins". Whatever "shedding of blood" is about then clearly to me forgiveness depends on something.
Even in the Lord's Prayer forgiveness seems conditional : "Forgive us our trespasses as we forgive the trespasses of others". I know some people think that what is implied is that we don't get forgiven ourselves unless we forgive others.
My impression is that sometimes in the bible 'forgiveness' is conditional, but the modern meaning of forgiveness is unconditional. Though even moderns might stretch the point to say forgiveness is conditional upon repentance and turning away from sin, or that we have to be 'open' or willing to receive it.
Indeed why does God not simply just say "everyone is forgiven" if forgiveness is unconditional whether we are willing or not? . Perhaps he does, in which case the atonement is not about forgiveness of sin because thats guaranteed anyway.

I don't like the PSA talk about God's anger and punishing either, but I do believe that 'forgivenss' costs something, is conditional and requires some effort on our part (or perhaps on our behalf) but no one word in english covers what the condition for forgiveness is: human reorientation, a making of a covenant or agreement,dedication, amends making, restitution, repentance, submission, obedience, committment (and similar type words) to God. Certainly this is what OT worshippers sometimes thought they were doing when they sacrificed to obtain 'Gods forgiveness'. I really do think they thought 'No sacrifice then no forgiveness'or at least no 'covenant' with God.

Jump into Pauline thought in the New Testament and Jesus' death is at least partly seen as a sacrifice that makes us acceptable/righteous to God which in turn sounds like forgiveness. Again then Jesus's death, viewed as a sacrifice appears to be necessary, a condition, for forgiveness.

What we don't have is any 'mechanics' or full explanation in the bible as to how Jesus' dying, sacrifice and forgiveness are causally connected. Hence we get all these theories like PSA to fill the 'gap'. My best guess is that the bible does not have a coherent or consistent theory of the atonement, and the connection between forgivenss, Jesus and Old Testament sacrifice is not made by logical analysis but basically by analogical and above all, mythological thinking.

Ultimately the proponents of PSA and apparently some of the biblical writers were motivated by that strong human instinct that says we can't be 'forgiven' in the crudest sense of being let off a crime or sin until we do something to at least make amends, restitution or indeed otherwise accept that punishment was deserved.

Justice must be done or the law is not upheld the PSA lobby say. Is this instinct from God or an atavistic urge? Certainly there is a conflict between letting someone off for a crime and the aim to preserve law and order. If law was never enforced in human society then it would be ignored, so on that basis no one can be forgiven (human justice systems don't provide for forgiveness)
We are loath to ascribe earthy, political and legalistic concerns to God. However it is difficult to see how even for God he can logically demand law and at the same time let everyone off who breaks the divine law. However those who don't subscribe to the PSA view probably don't see God as cosmic cop 'law giver' at all so don't understand the need for 'justice to be done' in the punitive sense.

In conclusion -
Contrasting Basic Assumptions aka why we can't agree on PSA.

PSA - Forgiveness is conditional, we need to make amends for wrongdoing, evil 'deserves' punishment, God is law giver and is concerned about maintaing cosmic law & order (cosmic cop) which requires crimes be punished. Justice is about what one deserves. PSA delivers punishment and forgiveness at the same time.


Non PSA - forgiveness is unconditional, God is not concerned with law and rules but with our having a good relationship with him and removing obstacles to that relationship. Justice is about equality and not about what one 'deserves'. The atonement then is about something else, e.g. matyrdom, triumph over ego, and death, God entering into our human nature including our pain etc.

See how the philosophical basic assumptions are quite different for PSA and non PSA people? There is no possibility of these two people agreeing. They probably have really quite different religious worldviews that 'appear' to be the same religion! Not surprisingly the non-psa types tend to be religious and/or political liberals. Certainly I find political conservatives are drawn to the PSA position as they value law and order and PSA theology is about the moral government of the universe.

Other predictions - PSA believers are likely to be law enforcement officers, accountants, auditors, physical scientists, corporate lawyers, directors of multinational companies, and vote Republican, Conservative; they support the death penalty.

Non PSA believers are social workers, teachers, clinicians, artists, marketing managers, human rights lawyers, public officials, vote for liberal parties, and were opposed to the death penalty.

The bible was written by people who could not agree, read by people who would not agree and argued about by people who eventually realised they would never agree.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by fatprophet:
Not surprisingly the non-psa types tend to be religious and/or political liberals.

I was with you until this point. Orthodox are non-psa types but you can hardly say we're religious liberals, and most of the Orthodox in the US seem to be political conservatives as well (alas).

We believe in the usefulness of law and order in preserving human society, even if it doesn't apply to our relationship with God. To paraphrase Josephine, "justice" is a stopgap until we learn the real underlying principle which is love. Where love is perfect, justice has no raison d'etre. Or to put it another way around, "God's justice" is an incomplete way of looking at God's love. Human justice is an attempt to make things "fair" but ultimately what matters is not what's fair but what is godly and what is loving.
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
fatprophet,

[Overused]

Yup, I'd say that's the crux of the issue for me. I think forgiveness is and should be unconditional, but I think I'll start another thread for that one!

[Smile]

AB
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
FWIW I'm an electronics engineer, so I have a science background, I'm well to the libertarian left politically, would be anti death penalty if it were an issue in the UK. I'm not an inerrantist, but would regard myself as moderately conservative theologically, (ie, quite happy with miracles, physical resurrection, virgin birth etc.)

Having said that, although it's not a 100% match, I think I agree with the thrust of Fatprophet's post.
 
Posted by Leprechaun (# 5408) on :
 
quote:

In conclusion -
Contrasting Basic Assumptions aka why we can't agree on PSA.

PSA - Forgiveness is conditional, we need to make amends for wrongdoing, evil 'deserves' punishment, God is law giver and is concerned about maintaing cosmic law & order (cosmic cop) which requires crimes be punished. Justice is about what one deserves. PSA delivers punishment and forgiveness at the same time.


Non PSA - forgiveness is unconditional, God is not concerned with law and rules but with our having a good relationship with him and removing obstacles to that relationship. Justice is about equality and not about what one 'deserves'. The atonement then is about something else, e.g. matyrdom, triumph over ego, and death, God entering into our human nature including our pain etc.


Thank you so much for your two descriptions of the two positions which obviously aren't biased at all by your own point of view. Hmm, I wonder which one you think is morally superior. [Disappointed]

I have to say I have had just about enough of the way my view and has been portrayed in this discussion despite my continued attempts to calmly and rationally explain it when, to be honest, most people who hold my view would have written the whole thing off as an authority of the Bible issue long ago.

So (once again) it is true to say that PSA says that forgiveness is conditional on something. To say that it rests on us "offering something to God" is, as I have said many times, a misrepresentation. The whole point of the model is that God in Himself meets "the condition" In that sense while forgiveness remains philosophically conditional, it is in no sense conditional from our point of view. Forgiveness is an unconditional gift to us, because God himself meets the condition. This is the essence of the "scandalous love of God" as JJ rightly called it in an earlier post.
quote:

Other predictions - PSA believers are likely to be law enforcement officers, accountants, auditors, physical scientists, corporate lawyers, directors of multinational companies, and vote Republican, Conservative; they support the death penalty.

Non PSA believers are social workers, teachers, clinicians, artists, marketing managers, human rights lawyers, public officials, vote for liberal parties, and were opposed to the death penalty.

Ah yes, this discussion has nothing to do with wanting to find the truth and submit to it at all, but is merely a reflection of the lifestyle choices I have already made. [Projectile]
Thanks so much for your charitable and intelligent view of this whole debate.
It gives me great pleasure to inform you that out of all the people I know who believe in PSA hardly any of them fit your prejudiced stereotyping ignorant models.
quote:

The bible was written by people who could not agree, read by people who would not agree and argued about by people who eventually realised they would never agree.

Oh rubbish.

I tried to back out of this discussion, but the crass ignorance of FP's last post moved me to contribute again. But now I really do want out of it, if it just boils down to the same old "all you are doing is imposing yourself on the text" dogma that no one on this site ever seems to want to question. [Snore]
 
Posted by Talitha (# 5085) on :
 
Leprechaun, I for one am impressed by your calm and rational explanations. I love this thread for its balanced and cogent presentation of both sides, which is really helpful.

Fatprophet, your generalisations were pretty extreme and biased. Isn't it against the rules to make generalisations like that, not about the theologies themselves, but the kind of people who believe them?
Slight tangent: Imagine how much flak you would have got if you'd written (for example) "evangelical" and "liberal" instead of "PSA" and "non-PSA".

I'm leaning more to the non-PSA side, but even I can see that the God of PSA is also highly concerned with "our having a good relationship with him and removing obstacles to that relationship."
 
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on :
 
Lep:

I would be sorry if you left this thread thinking that you have been patronised or your vews traduced. I, for one, am very grateful that you have been willing, in a polite, erudite manner, to dicuss these matters. Though we are probably no nearer agreement than when we started, I do feel that I have refined my views during the course of the discussion. Indeed, I have had to, in the light of your penetrative questioning. It is obvious from the things that you have written, that you have a lively, passionate faith, and you won't get any criticism about that from this direction. I really don't think that FatProphet's post was intended as patronising, though I suppose it could be thought of as something of a generalisation. Anyway, you have nothing but respect from this poster;

Pax

Jeremy [Smile]
 
Posted by AB (# 4060) on :
 
Ok, just had another thought about this.

When we sin, do we sin against God? As in, does he feel it a wrong done to him, or does he consider it a wrong done to others or even self. Is the Law there for our benefit, or for God's?

And if it isn't a wrong done to God, is it right that justice be served when we are in effect serving a consequence of our actions already?

Hmmm, maybe one for another thread...

AB
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
When King David slept with Bathsheba and had Uriah killed, he seemed to have thought he'd sinned against God.

Psalm 51:1-4
 


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