Thread: Purgatory: "He descended into Hell" Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
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Over on the future of evangelicalism thread a tangent has developed regarding evangelical issues with the line in the Apostles Creed that Christ descended into Hell. I'm bringing the discussion to a seperate thread where it would be appropriate to discuss not just the issues of evangelicals but also the views of other traditions regarding this line in the Apostles Creed.
Some quotes from the discussion that has already started:
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Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
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Originally posted by Eutychus:
...
"He descended into Hell (or Sheol)" is trickier, to be honest.
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Interestingly enough, Grudem has a problem with that line too.
And so do I. When taking part in a service which includes a recitation of the Apostles' Creed (and I'm very wide-ranging in the kinds of services I join in) I omit that phrase. I do take care to think about the words that I'm led into saying during liturgical services.
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Of all the lines in either Nicene or Apostles, that's the one that's hardest for evangelicals. Because, it's only tenuously supported by Scripture, and some of those supporting verses are among the most difficult to interpret. Even worse, it's a line that relates to an understanding of death most evangelicals don't share. Generally evangelicals will believe either that on death we are judged or we are unconscious and unaware until awakened for judgement at the Second Coming, and from there to Heaven or Hell with Hell being either a place of eternal torment in punishment for sins or oblivion. A Sheol where the dead wait around for judgement is something alien, with shades of that Purgatory nonsense that we Protestants rid ourselves of at the Reformation.
The times I've been at churches using the Apostles Creed generally the phrase has been translated to "he descended to the dead", which most can say as just a poetic statement "he was really, truly, totally dead". But, it is a phrase that many would read as saying something much more than that. I don't even know the circumstances of what was going on in the Church that caused that phrase to be included, what heresy were people falling into that needed a statement that Christ descended to Sheol to counter?
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
He certainly descended in to Hell. The grave. He certainly didn't harrow it. That's an absurdly entity proliferating misinterpretation. And not in the Nicene or Constantinopolitan creeds. Nor is any wild, mandatory extrapolation of the church beyond militant and metaphoric.
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I'd see myself as moderately evangelical in the English and CofE sense of the word rather than the American one, but I have to admit I'm puzzled by this questioning of the descent into hell. I haven't really picked this one up before.
Is it because there isn't enough mention of it in scripture (one, I think, but a fairly clear one) so that people feel it's a more optional belief, rather than one to be insisted upon, even if the vast majority of us do actually accept it? Or is there a significant constituency who think it's actually wrong?
It strikes me as fairly obvious that when Jesus died, as Son of Man, he went where we all go when we die, but as Son of God, the grave could not hold him. He harrowed hell, rose from the dead and led captivity captive. When light came into the ultimate place of darkness, the darkness could not 'comprehend' (in it's literal sense) it. What's the problem?
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
He told the thief on the cross that thy would be together in paradise that very day.
Oh, and is seems to suggest that Jesus' saving work began before his resurrection thus driving a wedge between the cross and the resurrection and, implicitly, downplaying the soteriological significance of the resurrection.
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
The resurrection, though, is the breaking of the power of death and hell. It is the moment of triumph, it is not the battle.
Using Christ's words to the thief to argue against the harrowing of hell implies that Jesus went for a quick jaunt to heaven between the crucifixion and resurrection which is a... pretty bizarre take.
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I'm not necessarily advocating the position. I'm just stating it out of interest in the conversation. It may be that Christ proclaimed his victory in hell "that day" and entered paradise. I don't think it's at all weird to think that Jesus went to heaven between his death and resurrection.
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Eh? God the Son's saving work began before creation. That's as evangelical a doctrine as you like. Fully biblical.
Jesus's saving work on earth, (insofar as we can think of Jesus apart from God the Son, being good Chalcedonians) begins at his conception and birth. "For unto you is born this day a saviour, which is Christ the Lord". The baby Jesus was a worthy object of worship, before he had done anything yet. The angels sang it, so it must be true
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I'd have thought that a good Calvinist like your good self, daronmedway, would emphasise that Christ's soteriological work started way before the crucifixion, way before the Incarnation even ... 'the lamb slain before the foundation of the earth.'
It's all there in eternity, before Abraham was I am and so on ... before anything that has been made was made ...
I agree with you and the other reformed, Reformed and evangelical or Evangelical posters on this thread that the cross should be central ... but it's not the cross in isolation.
The 'Christ event' encompasses the whole thing, as I'm sure we'd all agree - his pre-existence as the eternal Word, his glorious Incarnation, his life, ministry, teachings, his passion, death and resurrection, his ascension and seating at the right-hand of God the Father, his coming again in glory ...
It doesn't do to fillet out any of these things from the whole, whether the crucifixion, resurrection, the moral teachings or anything else - it's all of a piece.
But you knew that already.
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Originally posted by Barnabas62:
My take on "descended to the dead" may be unorthodox! The harrowing of Hell understanding, however "true" or "mythological" it might be, may point to a significant truth. The love of God which is seen in Christ Jesus our Lord and demonstrated on the cross, transcends both time and the flow of time.
I think folks may have been wrestling with the eternal fate of those born before the crucifixion, before the proclamation of the gospel in post-resurrection time. The BC dimension, if you like. The notion of a rescue mission may fit in with that. The light shone not just on those who walked in darkness but were imprisoned in it.
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
That was also my first thought when thinking about this topic a few years ago.
Plus - if you want to build a theology around edge cases - take this together with the parable on Lazarus, and you get the idea that everyone is in Sheol at the moment, with some in the good bit (Paradise) and some in the other bit.
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
As I have explained many times here, the harrowing of hell is just bad hermeneutics based on Peter's arcane style.
[ 02. April 2014, 19:16: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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Thanks, Alan. It is a fascinating topic, to me at least, and I would be interested to hear from different traditions as well.
Also, I'm not quite sure how descended to the dead got into the Apostles' creed and how that superseded the old Roman Creed. The phrase is not in the Nicene Creed either, nor is the Apostles' Creed used by the Eastern traditions. There's some history there that I'm not fully aware of.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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I've always liked the traditional understanding of this, especially in the iconography of the Church. We see the devil being bound and Christ leading Adam and Eve out of Hades. He defeated death and opened the gates to heaven which no man had entered until then.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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I can see the 'problems' with it but I'm with Ad Orientem - I love the Orthodox iconography on this one. I once attended an Orthodox service when they had the icon of the Harrowing of Hell out prominently - perhaps it was some liturgical season that celebrates that.
It's a fascinating icon. It'll do for me. The rest of you can say what you like.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Oh, and it seems to suggest that Jesus' saving work began before his resurrection thus driving a wedge between the cross and the resurrection and, implicitly, downplaying the soteriological significance of the resurrection.
Eh? God the Son's saving work began before creation. That's as evangelical a doctrine as you like. Fully biblical.
Jesus's saving work on earth, (insofar as we can think of Jesus apart from God the Son, being good Chalcedonians) begins at his conception and birth. "For unto you is born this day a saviour, which is Christ the Lord". The baby Jesus was a worthy object of worship, before he had done anything yet. The angels sang it, so it must be true
Quite. Let me rephrase. I should have said: it seems to suggest that the temporal completion Jesus' saving work was achieved before his resurrection thus driving a wedge between the cross and the resurrection and, implicitly, downplaying the soteriological significance of the resurrection.
Anyway, I wasn't stating my view in any case. I was just finking' aloud about an interesting tangent. I shall now join the conversation on the other thread.
[ 21. December 2013, 15:41: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Happy for the symbolism we create from what wasn't there in the first place, so I'm afraid I'm with you and Ad Orientem too Gamaliel.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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I guess what I'm trying to get at is that our justification - and therefore our ability to stand faultless before the throne of the almighty - is explicitly linked by the Apostle Paul to the resurrection, and Abraham's presumptive faith in that resurrection. As Paul says in Romans 4: quote:
22 That is why his faith was “counted to him as righteousness”. 23 But the words “it was counted to him” were not written for his sake alone, 24 but for ours also. It will be counted to us who believe in him who raised from the dead Jesus our Lord, 25 who was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification.
In this sense, ISTM, that the objective reality of atonement for sin and justification by faith require a crucified and risen Lord Jesus Christ. This seems to cast a question mark over the harrowing of hell, unless I'm missing something of course.
[ 21. December 2013, 15:53: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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Only if you read the Pauline and Abrahamic material you've referred to with Reformed spectacles on. Not everyone would read these verses in the same way as you have done.
People wearing different spectacles would read them differently.
None of us have 20/20 vision. We all wear specs when we approach the scriptures. You have Reformed specs on. Others have RC specs on, others Orthodox, others Wesleyan, Lutheran ...
quote:
In this sense, ISTM, that the objective reality of atonement for sin and justification by faith require a crucified and risen Lord Jesus Christ. This seems to cast a question mark over the harrowing of hell, unless I'm missing something of course.
I don't see why it should, necessarily. I don't pretend to understand the more medieval ideas of the 'harrowing of Hell' but it seems to me that the way the iconography - of both East and West - has it, those who are retrospectively redeemed - as it were - by Christ's passion and resurrection - are waiting to be let out of prison at the appointed time.
I saw some terrific frescoes in Florence on this theme back in the summer. The OT saints and Patriarchs were gleefully streaming out of their underground prisons whilst the demons cowered behind rocks and pillars with their hands over their mouths, shocked.
Then there's the wonderful Fr Angelico depiction in San Marco where Christ appears to burst through the prison door and a demon lies squashed beneath it ...
It's the symbolism of the whole thing ... I don't exercised about the 'literalness' of it. I don't imagine real underground chambers and dungeons, real doors any more than you do.
http://members.bib-arch.org/publication.asp?PubID=BSBR&Volume=19&Issue=3&ArticleID=16
[code hell]
[ 21. December 2013, 17:14: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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And, of course, in the traditional view of the 'harrowing of hell', Christ descends to the grave/sheol/hell etc in between his death and resurrection ... it's his resurrection that makes the whole thing possible just as it does in any other handling/understanding of the Christ event.
I don't see the problem.
Christ didn't descend into Hell and remain there.
It seems to be that there's no disconnection between Christ's death on the cross and the resurrection in the traditional understanding of the Harrowing of Hell at all. They are two sides of the same coin.
I don't see the problem.
Unless I'm missing something of course ...
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
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quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
ISTM, that the objective reality of atonement for sin and justification by faith require a crucified and risen Lord Jesus Christ. This seems to cast a question mark over the harrowing of hell, unless I'm missing something of course.
With the same caveat (I may be missing something too) my read of it is that resurrection is the moment that the power of death and hell is broken. I think of the harrowing as being Christ bringing the good news to the dead, rallying the troops so to speak, before leading them out into life. Are you taking it to mean that Christ is getting people out of Sheol during those 3 days and hence is opening a box with the crowbar that is inside it?
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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I'm suggesting that before the resurrection of Christ no-one could stand justified in the presence of almighty God, so I can't see how the Lord Jesus could have harrowed hell until after he had ascended to the right hand of the Father.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
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My view is that there is death in the heart of God and that the event on Calvary was a sacrament of the eternal sacrifice of Christ 'ever-crucified'.
When Jesus died he descended, IMO, into the place of the dead which has two 'sides'.
One side is called Paradise (which the thief also saw) and here the righteous dead went - these were specifically, though not exclusively of course, the parade of the faithful listed in Hebrews 11. These people were in Paradise - or the Bosom of Abraham - on account of the sacrificial death of Christ which was effectual for them because of this eternal principle of sacrificial atonement perfectly seen at Calvary. This place called Paradise is not Heaven.
The other side of Sheol, Hades or 'Death' was called Torment and was the place where the unrighteous dead went. This was a place of shadow and pain and was divided from Paradise.
When Jesus ascended he 'led captivity captive' and the righteous dead ascended with him into Heaven. From now on everyone who dies in the faith of Christ goes to 'be with Christ, which is far better.'
Paradise is now empty.
Sometime at the parousia, the dead (bodies) in Christ shall rise and the redeemed will be whole again, resurrected body, soul and spirit. They will return with Christ to the earth.
However, at present, the other side of Sheol - Torment - is still being populated and here the unrighteous dead wait for the Judgment.
According to John's vision of Judgment Day 'Death and Hades delivered up the dead who were in them.' (Rev 20 v 13)
These, now resurrected to everlasting contempt and then judged at the throne of God, will enter Hell - a place entirely unoccupied until the day of Judgment and never intended for humans. Jesus said that the fire was prepared for the devil and his angels; the tragedy is that humans will follow them there.
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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My suspicion is that we are seeing this through our temporal spectacles. Outside time, the crucifixion and resurrection are all part of one process. Certainly, it's my suspicion that once Jesus was crucified, the resurrection was inevitable - death would be unable to hold him.
I saw a nice take in this in a Mystery play earlier this year. A typical, rather luridly villainous Satan is manipulating everything to kill Jesus. He's exultant when he gets the chief priests, Pilate etc all lined up and the process past the point of no return. At that moment, when it's too late to stop the process, to his horror, one of the junior devils points out to him something that in his excitement, he has missed. This is that if Jesus is dead, 'he will come here' i.e. hell, split the place apart and destroy everything they have been trying to do.
The resurrection is soteriologically essential. I'd go further and say that an explanation of the atonement that does not recognise this, is lacking something.
I heard it put once, that if Jesus had simply died for our sins, and not risen, we could die forgiven, but that is all that could happen. We might be cleansed, but we would still be dead.
Here should be a google selection of ikons and other pictures from east and west of the harrowing.
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
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Sheol is quite different to Hell. The Sheol or 'the grave' that the Israelites believed in was not a place of pain and torment, but silence and sleep. Everybody went there, righteous and unrighteous - we know from the OT that David goes there when he dies. When I read 'He descended to the dead' in the Creed, this is where I think Christ went, and after His resurrection no longer exists. I do not believe in a Hell.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
Sheol is quite different to Hell. The Sheol or 'the grave' that the Israelites believed in was not a place of pain and torment, but silence and sleep. Everybody went there, righteous and unrighteous - we know from the OT that David goes there when he dies. When I read 'He descended to the dead' in the Creed, this is where I think Christ went, and after His resurrection no longer exists. I do not believe in a Hell.
Yes, well that was all David knew. Jesus spoke a little clearer and revealed much more than they knew 1200 years beforehand. You have to do a lot of filleting of the New Testament to get rid of hell.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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What Enoch said.
I can understand daronmedway's temporal objections but can't see the problem ... if the Lamb of God was slain from before the foundation of the earth and God is somehow 'outside' of time then what's the problem?
I don't see the difficulty.
I'm going with the iconography even if it upsets the iconoclasts.
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
Sheol is quite different to Hell. The Sheol or 'the grave' that the Israelites believed in was not a place of pain and torment, but silence and sleep. Everybody went there, righteous and unrighteous - we know from the OT that David goes there when he dies. When I read 'He descended to the dead' in the Creed, this is where I think Christ went, and after His resurrection no longer exists. I do not believe in a Hell.
Yes, well that was all David knew. Jesus spoke a little clearer and revealed much more than they knew 1200 years beforehand. You have to do a lot of filleting of the New Testament to get rid of hell.
Except that the NT doesn't speak of eternal torment. Some torment yes, but not a permanent Hell. I do believe in Purgatory but not Hell.
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
Except that the NT doesn't speak of eternal torment. Some torment yes, but not a permanent Hell. I do believe in Purgatory but not Hell.
Are you sure of that? We'd all like to persuade ourselves of that, but I'm not convinced I can. For a start, what about the lake of fire?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
quote:
You have to do a lot of filleting of the New Testament to get rid of hell.
Except that the NT doesn't speak of eternal torment. Some torment yes, but not a permanent Hell. I do believe in Purgatory but not Hell.
You drove me to it because it seems you've already filleted your New Testament:
Matthew 25:41 ESV
“Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels.
2 Thessalonians 1:9 ESV
They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might.
Matthew 25:46 ESV
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
Mark 9:48 ESV
‘where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched.’
[fixed start of confusing code hell]
[ 22. December 2013, 06:11: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
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quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I guess what I'm trying to get at is that our justification - and therefore our ability to stand faultless before the throne of the almighty - is explicitly linked by the Apostle Paul to the resurrection, and Abraham's presumptive faith in that resurrection. As Paul says in Romans 4: quote:
22 That is why his faith was “counted to him as righteousness”. 23 But the words “it was counted to him” were not written for his sake alone, 24 but for ours also. It will be counted to us who believe in him who raised from the dead Jesus our Lord, 25 who was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification.
In this sense, ISTM, that the objective reality of atonement for sin and justification by faith require a crucified and risen Lord Jesus Christ. This seems to cast a question mark over the harrowing of hell, unless I'm missing something of course.
I've always been intrigued by the observation that one of Jesus's last sayings on the cross was 'It is finished' (John 19:30) – ‘tetelestai’ of which a literal rendition is: ‘It has been finished’ – a cry of triumph and achievement: ‘I’ve done it!’ This has always suggested to me that at least some if not all of Jesus’s redemptive work was completed before he died and rose again. After all, if resurrection had been an essential part of his work, how could he say ‘finished’ if it hadn’t been? BTW, daron, I’m not seeking to contradict the quotation you gave from Romans 4, just add extra evidence that needs to be taken into account. (Having been thinking even as I write, perhaps one could say that as it was God the Father who raised Jesus from the dead, it wasn’t something that Jesus did himself, so he could rightly say that his work was finished, even if the whole ‘process’ wasn’t finalised yet.)
I’ll try to find the time to post more about the main theme of the thread, and explain why I don’t say this line of the Apostles’ Creed. What I’ve posted here is closely relevant to that topic as well, so it isn’t a tangent.
Angus
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
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I've always found it interesting that at least some Portuguese (Brazilian) versions of the Apostle's Creed say "He descended into the world of the dead" (Desceu ao mundo dos mortos.)
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog: quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
[ You have to do a lot of filleting of the New Testament to get rid of hell.
Except that the NT doesn't speak of eternal torment. Some torment yes, but not a permanent Hell. I do believe in Purgatory but not Hell.
You drove me to it because it seems you've already filleted your New Testament:
Matthew 25:41 ESV
“Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels.
2 Thessalonians 1:9 ESV
They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might.
Matthew 25:46 ESV
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
Mark 9:48 ESV
‘where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched.’
Well that is from the Evangelical Standard Version Of course it's going to promote a belief in Hell since it benefits evangelicals.
Sorry, I believe in a loving and all-powerful God, which means a permanent Hell is impossible.
[descended into confusing code hell]
[ 22. December 2013, 06:08: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
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And before I get criticised for 'picking and choosing', everyone does this. I may as well pick and choose the acceptable bits, if I didn't discard some parts of the Bible I'd have to agree with rape victims being executed for not crying out loud enough.
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
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To the best of my knowledge, the creedal phrase under discussion is derived from 1 Pet.3:19-20. (Link gives fuller context.) If any shipmate knows of any other biblical source(s) I’d be glad to know of it.
I gained an understanding of this passage from an model exegesis by R T France published as part of chapter XIV of the book New Testament Interpretation : Essays on Principles and Methods / edited by I Howard Marshall. Paternoster, 1977, pp 264-278. All that I have time to say is that France puts a very good case for understanding this passage as referring to an action of Jesus that after his resurrection he didn’t go to the abode of the dead, but went to the prison of the fallen angels (who are also referred to in 2Pet 2:4 and Jude 6) to announce that through his death and resurrection he had been victorious over all spiritual powers, and that their judgement was assured. France refutes the doctrine of Christ ‘descending to hell’ – the place of people who have died (Sheol)- by pointing out that the dead are never referred to in the Bible as just ‘spirits’, and that hell or Sheol is never elsewhere referred to as ‘prison’ (phulakē). France also points out that the extra-biblical Book of Enoch says a good deal about the ‘imprisoned fallen angels’ and this would have been part of the background presuppositions of the NT writers and readers.
And while I'm passing...
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
And before I get criticised for 'picking and choosing', everyone does this.
...
No, I don’t. Filletting out what one doesn’t like from what God wants to communicate seems to me to be a futile act of self-delusion. But the subject of the existence or otherwise of hell is a major tangent that has been gone over extensively on previous threads, so it would seem good to me not to divert down that route again.
Angus
[edit for typo]
[ 21. December 2013, 21:50: Message edited by: A.Pilgrim ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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So, how do you know that you don't pick and choose, Angus?
You might not fillet over this particular issue, but how can you be so confident that you don't over other issues?
I wish I can be as confident, but I can't be.
Nor, I suggest, can anyone else.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
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quote:
Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
To the best of my knowledge, the creedal phrase under discussion is derived from 1 Pet.3:19-20. (Link gives fuller context.) If any shipmate knows of any other biblical source(s) I’d be glad to know of it.
That's my understanding too. At least, the 1 Peter passage is the section of Scripture that best supports the phrase, I'm sure there's plenty in other early Christian writings that is also relevant.
In relation to 1 Peter 3:19-20, I find it a very difficult passage in many ways. It's quite a strange thing for Peter to write. The context is clearly about suffering for righteousness, with the example of Christ who suffered as the Righteous one placed in front of his readers with a "Christ suffered, don't be surprised that you suffer" message. Peter also makes a reference to Noah being saved through water (baptism) with the obvious message that if God save Noah he can save you too, and baptism is a sign of that.
But mixed in with that relatively straight forward message is a load of stuff about preaching to spirits in prison - which spirits, which prison, what message? And, if it's the spirits of the dead, why (apparently) only to those who died in the Flood?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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Yes, and there are similarly strange passages in Jude etc ... explicable with reference to the Book of Enoch etc.
All of which suggests that the canon was pretty fluid or that the NT writers weren't at all squeamish about using sources that Protestants often shy away from.
The NT writers weren't Protestants, of course.
Funny that ...
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
The NT writers weren't Protestants, of course.
Funny that ...
That sentence really stood out for me!
I think that sometimes when we read the New Testament - the whole Bible as well - we forget to take into consideration the context in which they were written. We can be very good at bringing in the historical context to individual verses in order to explain a detail or a specific meaning, but what about the general world view or wider society?
The NT writers were not Protestants - indeed! Neither were they Christians - they were Jews! Neither were they facing the world that developed after the destruction of the Temple and especially the Second Century. Seems a bit obvious really!
What I am saying is that they wrote within their mid 1st century worldview that had not yet had to contend with Roman persecution, heresy, mystery religions, etc, etc.
An example of this is Luke's writings that were in response to a particular person's attitude to the Christians where he lived - Theophilus.
So the idea that the first Christians were 'not Protestants' is an important one; Protestants are the result of reaction to a situation.
The canon was a necessary reaction to an ongoing situation that developed.
The creeds were necessary reactions to situations that developed.
And they therefore reflect a wider context that we don't have anymore, they are summaries of what their compilers/composers thought necessary to write down in order to react to the prevailing situation.
If the creeds and the canon are seen as corrective rather than informative that will show why, as Gamaliel has said, the NT church may have been a little more fluid in the sources they used. The canon wasn't so important because they weren't being attacked on certain issues that they would be in 2 or 3 hundreds years hence.
The first Christians didn't need creeds. They didn't need a canon.
Creeds are not statements of belief, they are reactions to heresy; they are lines in the sand, they are fences around orthodoxy so that the faithful knew where they stood in the face of so many new ideas.
It seems to me that every single line of the creeds might be introduced with a phrase: 'People might say to you, but we believe that...'
Therefore 'he descended into hell' isn't just a neutral summary for information purposes, it's there because some people were teaching other that this and it needed to be written that contrary to what some were teaching, Christ did indeed descend to the place of the dead before he ascended to the right hand of the Father. I don't know what heresy , what controversy that was addressing, but the writer of the creed evidently found it necessary to write those 4 words to counteract what was being falsely taught.
All this reminds me that we should often take away the accretions of 2000 years of church tradition, philosophy,and teaching and reflect on why what we see in the letters and Gospels is actually there. If we can, on occasion, read without 'reading back' our ecclesiastical, Western Christian viewpoints into the texts we might understand more of what was written.
[ 22. December 2013, 05:37: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
I've always found it interesting that at least some Portuguese (Brazilian) versions of the Apostle's Creed say "He descended into the world of the dead" (Desceu ao mundo dos mortos.)
Yes, the French ones say aux enfers (literally "hells", usually understood as "the place of the dead").
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Therefore 'he descended into hell' isn't just a neutral summary for information purposes, it's there because some people were teaching other that this and it needed to be written that contrary to what some were teaching, Christ did indeed descend to the place of the dead before he ascended to the right hand of the Father. I don't know what heresy , what controversy that was addressing, but the writer of the creed evidently found it necessary to write those 4 words to counteract what was being falsely taught.
I've been spending a bit of time trying to answer the question "what heresy does this phrase guard against?".
Historical background at creeds.net isn't very extensive or useful on this point quote:
In Gaul, in the fifth century, the phrase "he descended into hell" came into the creed.
I found a quote attributed to Dr. Douglas Mar on a couple of sites (without full citation) quote:
Without older versions to trace the historical development of the Creed, to determine whether there was an error of transmission or translation, the addition of this phrase to the Creed will continue to be a mystery
That seems to be a fair summary of my internet research!
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Therefore 'he descended into hell' isn't just a neutral summary for information purposes, it's there because some people were teaching other that this and it needed to be written that contrary to what some were teaching, Christ did indeed descend to the place of the dead before he ascended to the right hand of the Father. I don't know what heresy , what controversy that was addressing, but the writer of the creed evidently found it necessary to write those 4 words to counteract what was being falsely taught.
I've been spending a bit of time trying to answer the question "what heresy does this phrase guard against?".
Historical background at creeds.net isn't very extensive or useful on this point quote:
In Gaul, in the fifth century, the phrase "he descended into hell" came into the creed.
I found a quote attributed to Dr. Douglas Mar on a couple of sites (without full citation) quote:
Without older versions to trace the historical development of the Creed, to determine whether there was an error of transmission or translation, the addition of this phrase to the Creed will continue to be a mystery
That seems to be a fair summary of my internet research!
I've just had a very brief skim through the relevant chapter in William Barclay's The Plain Man Looks at the Apostles' Creed' and I have 30 seconds in which to say that he feels that t simply means 'dead and buried' - a flowery way of saying that he was truly dead! It was a way of confirming and reiterating the phrase 'was crucified, dead and buried'.
I wonder therefore, because it is a later addition into the creeds that it was a phrase, echoing the Scripture, that in the face of some new teaching was simply placed there to show that Jesus died a fully human death and experienced what we all experience - we go to the place of the dead; that Jesus though the Son of God, was not exempt from the 'final' destiny of all human beings, that he too descended into the place of the dead like us.
Maybe there were those who said that he rather slept for the three days before his resurrection and didn't actually experience the realm of the dead like us 'mere mortals'.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
I've always found it interesting that at least some Portuguese (Brazilian) versions of the Apostle's Creed say "He descended into the world of the dead" (Desceu ao mundo dos mortos.)
Yes, the French ones say aux enfers (literally "hells", usually understood as "the place of the dead").
AIUI, the Latin word inferi, which is the derivation of enfers, has the sense of 'Underworld', and has the same root as 'inferior'.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I've just had a very brief skim through the relevant chapter in William Barclay's The Plain Man Looks at the Apostles' Creed' and I have 30 seconds in which to say that he feels that t simply means 'dead and buried' - a flowery way of saying that he was truly dead! It was a way of confirming and reiterating the phrase 'was crucified, dead and buried'.
Certainly I've never been concerned over that understanding, and when I recite the Creed that's what I have in mind at that point and so can say it without feeling it's compromising my faith.
I'd expect that all though many people might want it to say more, at the very least we can probably all agree that it means that.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Maybe there were those who said that he rather slept for the three days before his resurrection and didn't actually experience the realm of the dead like us 'mere mortals'.
Or who claim that he went to heaven during that time, as daronmedway has done.
[ 22. December 2013, 08:21: Message edited by: Arethosemyfeet ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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What is (or was) Sheol or Gehenna, and do either of those words equate to the traditional Christian understanding of Hell?
I think the earliest available form of the Apostles' Creed is in Latin and the term used "ad inferos" has been, somewhat loosely, translated as "Hell", rather than "the place of the dead". The Greek of 1 Peter 3 looks as though it means that after his death Jesus preached to "the spirits in prison".
As best I understand it, Catholic understandings of Limbo, Purgatory, Heaven and Hell are a development of some of these basic ideas.
Catholic Catechism
A particular Catholic view.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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@Mudfrog ... yep, completely agree with you on that one.
In fact, I may start a new thread on that topic as it's one that intrigues me. We all tend to 'read back' our own ecclesial/theological settings into the pages of the NT it seems to me ... and that's inevitable as you can find support for each and everyone of them there to a greater or lesser extent.
My own take on this particular issue, for what it's worth, is that 'he descended to the place of the dead' - however we understand that - is more of a poetic and theological statement rather than a literal one in the sense of underground dungeons, bars and cages and so on as we find in medieval iconography. Which doesn't 'invalidate' medieval iconography as it depicts a wonderful truth - that Death and Hell have been plundered and despoiled by Christ's life, death and glorious resurrection and ascension ... and his coming again in glory. The whole thing.
Christ 'tasted death' for everyone - with all that this implies.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
What is (or was) Sheol or Gehenna, and do either of those words equate to the traditional Christian understanding of Hell?
I think the earliest available form of the Apostles' Creed is in Latin and the term used "ad inferos" has been, somewhat loosely, translated as "Hell", rather than "the place of the dead". The Greek of 1 Peter 3 looks as though it means that after his death Jesus preached to "the spirits in prison".
As best I understand it, Catholic understandings of Limbo, Purgatory, Heaven and Hell are a development of some of these basic ideas.
Catholic Catechism
A particular Catholic view.
Do you in fact mean the incorrect traditional understanding of Hell?
It seems to mew that the Church - especially the mediaeval Church has a lot to answer for when it comes to popular understanding about the Devil, Heaven, hell.
That Dante bloke must have been on something hallucinagenic to come up with his rubbish.
If only people would stick to the unadorned Scriptural imagery we would have a more accurate Gospel message and a more understandable way of salvation.
I for one do not believe in fiery flames, even though I do believe in a place called hell. The Bible is quite clear that no pone is there until the Judgment Day and it is NOT a place where Satan dwells and torments human souls - it's the place of his punishment and torment as well.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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You are far too literal, Mudfrog. Some scholars suggest that Dante himself probably didn't understand these things in as literal a sense as you've taken them here.
Dante's Inferno is a poem, in case you hadn't noticed. Are we saying that Milton was being literal when he had the Fallen Angels constructing cannon for their battle with the Unfallen Angels?
I take your point about medieval depictions and having climbed into the dome of the Duomo this summer and seen all the grotesque depictions of Hell at close quarters I can understand where you're coming from.
Dante, of course, was fascinated by the depictions of heaven and hell etc in the Baptistery just across the way ... and understandably so, they are terrific. Of course, the 'popular' medieval mind would have taken these things at face value but there's no evidence to suggest that Dante took them as literally as you suggest.
If anything, from my reading of Dante's Inferno this summer I came away with the impression that he had a highly developed and very refined and insightful approach to the problem of evil and the nature of it as some kind of negative 'anti-matter' type force rather than a positive or substantial attribute of some kind.
There's also a lot of humour in there.
So, sorry Mudfrog, do not Pass Go, do not collect your £200.
But then, what should I expect from someone who considers those competent but conventional SA lyrics as 'stunning poetry' ...
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
To the best of my knowledge, the creedal phrase under discussion is derived from 1 Pet.3:19-20. (Link gives fuller context.) If any shipmate knows of any other biblical source(s) I’d be glad to know of it.
...
But mixed in with that relatively straight forward message is a load of stuff about preaching to spirits in prison - which spirits, which prison, what message? And, if it's the spirits of the dead, why (apparently) only to those who died in the Flood?
The answer to those questions can be found on pp.269-270 of the book I referred to (and I know that's fat use if you can't get hold of a copy ). I might find the time to summarise the information, or perhaps the quickest solution would be to copy the passage. Would a 400 word attributed quotation (or perhaps I could edit it down to 300) be acceptable to the Hosts under the fair use provisions of the Copyright Act?
Angus
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
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quote:
Gamaliel: Dante's Inferno is a poem, in case you hadn't noticed.
Sometimes I also have the suspicion that it was his way to settle some gripes he had with a bunch of people in Florence.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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I wonder if Matthew 16:4 has something to say regarding the descent of Jesus to the dead?
quote:
"An evil and adulterous generation seeks for a sign, but no sign will be given to it except the sign of Jonah.” So he left them and departed.
This would suggest that there are typological parallels between the Jonah "belly of the fish" narrative and the descent of Jesus to Sheol or the realm of the dead.
[ 22. December 2013, 13:21: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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Oops, I meant Matthew 12:40.
quote:
For just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Yes, there are typological links and the NT makes it explicit that there are ...
@Gorpo, indeed, that too.
I'm not sure Mudfrog was suggesting that Dante 'invented' the more lurid medieval imagery. He wasn't. It was already there in the Baptistery at Florence which was built and decorated centuries before his time.
What he was doing, as you've identified, was to take cultural motifs that he and his readers would have been familiar with and went jiving off with them in terza-rima.
Milton did the same in Paradise Lost, only in blank verse of course. I, for one, wouldn't say that the speculation about similarities/parallels between Cromwell and Satan were that far-fetched and that Blake wasn't onto something when he said that 'Milton was of the Devil's party without knowing it.'
But it's easy to take all these things too far ...
As for Mudfrog's comment about the plain, unadorned meaning of scripture in this instance. There's no such thing.
As he recognises himself, the scriptures are using metaphors and figurative language at this point too ... all this talk of worms not dying and fire not being quenched ...
Would we say that Jesus must have been imbibing hallucinogenic substances in order to come up with that?
Of course not, he was utilising metaphor and figurative language too.
Which isn't to suggest that Hell isn't 'real' - but whatever it is and however we understand it I don't think any of us are imaginings some kind of Dantesque vision.
For my money, the most chilling description of Hell isn't in the cartoonish and knock-about Inferno but the terrifying sermon that Stephan Dedalus is subjected to in Joyce's 'A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man.'
Not even Jonathan Edwards's 'Sinners in the hands of a angry God' comes close to that for terror ...
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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1 Peter 3:18-20 (NIV)
18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit.
19 After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits—
20 to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built.
well that's ONE way of translating it. Especially verse 19.
Here's another:
1 Peter 3:18-20
Young's Literal Translation (YLT)
18 because also Christ once for sin did suffer -- righteous for unrighteous -- that he might lead us to God, having been put to death indeed, in the flesh, and having been made alive in the spirit,
19 in which also to the spirits in prison having gone he did preach,
20 who sometime disbelieved, when once the long-suffering of God did wait, in days of Noah -- an ark being preparing -- in which few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water;
the first works fine once you've made your mind up that's what He did. And to whom He did it.
The second has a more Occamic interpretation.
1 Peter 3:18-20
Revised Standard Version (RSV - a more neutral interpretation)
18 For Christ also died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit;
.......... 19 in which he went and preached to the spirits in prison,
............ (Who? Peter answers this in the identical context in his next epistle. Funny that. That nobody ever sees that. But me?! (a))
.................... 20 who formerly did not obey,
............ when God’s patience waited in the days of Noah, during the building of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were saved through water.
My indents take us back, further back and forward in time.
(a) 2 Peter 2:4-5 (YLT)
4 For if God messengers who sinned did not spare, but with chains of thick gloom, having cast [them] down to Tartarus, did deliver [them] to judgment, having been reserved,
5 and the old world did not spare, but the eighth person, Noah, of righteousness a preacher, did keep, a flood on the world of the impious having brought,
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
You are far too literal, Mudfrog. Some scholars suggest that Dante himself probably didn't understand these things in as literal a sense as you've taken them here.
Dante's Inferno is a poem, in case you hadn't noticed. Are we saying that Milton was being literal when he had the Fallen Angels constructing cannon for their battle with the Unfallen Angels?
yourself re: the poetry
Anyway, the point I was making was not whether I, Sante or the scholars take his visions of hell literally, but that the 'Christian' culture has taken on these medieval visions and pictures and has made them the template for what we popularly believe about hell - so we have red devils with pitchforks and Satan welcoming the damned people to his realm where he can torment them as if he were God's very own high executioner, doing His work for Him.
Similarly, those who deserve to go there - i.e. the young, the friendly and our grandmothers - are welcomed into a nice bright white-cloud Heaven with bewinged cherubs flitting around while we all play harps wearing hospital gowns and coathanger halos.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Do you in fact mean the incorrect traditional understanding of Hell?
When it comes to discussions of Hell, I'm not sure whether any of the views of its characteristics and purposes can really penetrate its mystery.
TBH, these days I think the issue of the quality of our lives before death is more important than after-life speculation . Whatever good news the gospel may be for the dead, is it good news for the living?
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
You are far too literal, Mudfrog. Some scholars suggest that Dante himself probably didn't understand these things in as literal a sense as you've taken them here.
Dante's Inferno is a poem, in case you hadn't noticed. Are we saying that Milton was being literal when he had the Fallen Angels constructing cannon for their battle with the Unfallen Angels?
yourself re: the poetry
Anyway, the point I was making was not whether I, Sante or the scholars take his visions of hell literally, but that the 'Christian' culture has taken on these medieval visions and pictures and has made them the template for what we popularly believe about hell - so we have red devils with pitchforks and Satan welcoming the damned people to his realm where he can torment them as if he were God's very own high executioner, doing His work for Him.
Similarly, those who deserve to go there - i.e. the young, the friendly and our grandmothers - are welcomed into a nice bright white-cloud Heaven with bewinged cherubs flitting around while we all play harps wearing hospital gowns and coathanger halos.
Dante was influenced by medieval visions of Hell, not the other way around. Much of medieval folk-religion was influenced by local pagan religion, and sometimes even classical paganism. Non-Hell example - the fruit in the Garden of Eden is shown as an apple because it was an attribute of Aphrodite/Venus (you know, the golden apples of the Hesperides that started the Trojan War). Medieval depictions of Satan are famously based on Pan (I am surprised you didn't know that!). The earliest depictions of Satan by Christians show him as a human, most famously the mosaic of the Sheep and Goats at Ravenna.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
Would a 400 word attributed quotation (or perhaps I could edit it down to 300) be acceptable to the Hosts under the fair use provisions of the Copyright Act?
Angus
hosting/
Thanks for asking first
The issue is not in fact whether a quotation's use complies with a specific law, but whether the hosts and admins feel comfortable with it being fair use. To me 300 words sounds too long - in fact, much too long. You could try looking on Google Books and adding a link, alternatively write a summary in your own words - which will doubtless be read more closely by more here.
/hosting
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
...
.......... 19 in which he went and preached to the spirits in prison,
............ (Who? Peter answers this in the identical context in his next epistle. Funny that. That nobody ever sees that. But me?! (a))
...
Martin, sorry to puncture your hopes of originality, but in my earlier post I referred to chapter 2 of Peter's second letter as follows:
quote:
Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
... Jesus ... went to the prison of the fallen angels (who are also referred to in 2Pet 2:4 and Jude 6) to announce that through his death and resurrection he had been victorious over all spiritual powers, and that their judgement was assured. ...
Angus
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Thank GOD Angus! I've been saying it for years here to no response whatsoever. May be the time is right. You can have ALL the glory mate.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
Satan welcoming the damned people to his realm where he can torment them as if he were God's very own high executioner, doing His work for Him.
I'm not going to claim the image is correct, in fact I'd agree that it's fanciful and unhelpful in understanding the nature of Judgement and the Demonic. But, it would be consistent with some parts of Scripture. How many times do the prophets declare that God has annointed the king of a foreign nation (Assyria, Babylon, Persia) as his instrument of judgement over Israel and Judah ... His "own executioner, doing His work for Him". Which, didn't mean that they didn't subsequently face the Judgement of God themselves. And, in Job we have Satan portrayed as part of the Heavenly Court, acting as chief prosecutor and commissioned by God the test Job.
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
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Interestingly, in a number of Bible verses, Satan and the demons are the ones being tortured in the eternal fire. They're the tortuees, not the torturers.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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And it's something I brought from my darkest cult days. Something else they got right.
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
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I have been reading the blog of a Quaker in the US. This post is very good at explaining some of my own struggles with a literal view of Scripture, but also that I do believe in Divine inspiration behind it.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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I'm watching The Bible on Channel 5. Christ on the cross. Darkness at noon ... It is finished ... Father in to thy hand ...
All I could say just now was thank you.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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Apropos of nothing, this prayer is spoken during the Great Entrance on Holy Saturday:
quote:
In the tomb with the body and in hell with the soul, in Paradise with the thief and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit, wast Thou, O boundless Christ, filling all things.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Apropos of nothing, this prayer is spoken during the Great Entrance on Holy Saturday:
quote:
In the tomb with the body and in hell with the soul, in Paradise with the thief and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit, wast Thou, O boundless Christ, filling all things.
Nice. But how can an unrisen, unascended Christ do that?
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Interestingly, in a number of Bible verses, Satan and the demons are the ones being tortured in the eternal fire. They're the tortuees, not the torturers.
Not just interesting; absolutely essential.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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How can God be one in substance but three unconfused persons? How can God be transcendent yet also imminent? It might seem like a cop out but I would say, try not to think how, just wonder. Trouble begins when we start to think too linear.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
How can God be one in substance but three unconfused persons? How can God be transcendent yet also imminent? It might seem like a cop out but I would say, try not to think how, just wonder. Trouble begins when we start to think too linear.
I don't see thinking and wondering as mutually exclusive. In fact, in my tradition they are inextricably linked. If I wasn't able to think about the incarnation, for example, I wouldn't be able to wonder at it as much as I do. The verse of scripture that has filled me with most wonder this year is Luke 1:43 where Elizabeth asks Mary the Mother of Jesus, "And why is this granted to me that the mother of my Lord should come to me?" I find the implications of this verse absolutely wonderful because they are so deeply thought provoking.
I put great stock on the unparalleled authority of the risen, ascended Lord Jesus Christ. This is why I asked Mousethief that question. I'm not trying to diminish the wonder, I'm trying to maximise it.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
How can God be one in substance but three unconfused persons? How can God be transcendent yet also imminent? It might seem like a cop out but I would say, try not to think how, just wonder. Trouble begins when we start to think too linear.
He's not in one substance, the three are of one substance. Also God is also imminent through the incarnation and subsequently through the Holy Spirit.
I can't see your problem.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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Because the gospel is the power of God to those who believe? "He who believes in me, even though he were dead. yet shall he live"
Interesting translators' puzzle there in John 11:25, of course. More modern translations make it "even if he dies", but from my limited Greek understanding, there's a minor difference between the Textus Receptus (KJV) and the revised Greek text on this point. A small difference that makes all the difference!
More appropriate for Keryg, probably. The interesting theological issue is whether our classic protestant understanding actually limits the power and scope of the gospel of salvation. Only in this life. A statement or a question?
[ 23. December 2013, 08:18: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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The dead can hear the gospel and be saved by its power. Particularly if proclaimed by the One who is to be believed in.
I'm suggesting those are questions which Protestantism normally answers with "only while we live". We take dead to mean dead in our sins but alive in our bodies. Whereas Catholics and Orthodox, I think, believe that the saving power of the gospel may transcend physical death.
I'm speculating, daron. Why should not the gospel of salvation have power in the mouth of the One in whom we believe, whether risen or not? The imagery is of the 'spirits in prison' whatever that may mean following Jesus. We believe and follow, don't we?
[ 23. December 2013, 09:07: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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Let me try to ask the question another way. Did the mighty resurrection and glorious ascension of the Son of God actually change anything, or was it just a mop up operation with objective soteriological effect? I ask because it seems to me that we're suggesting a sort of over-realised soteriology which doesn't actually require the real, historical, time-bound resurrection and ascension of Christ for the gospel to be effectual.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
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Correction: "with no objective soteriological effect"...
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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Why divide them and try to pinpoint as specific moment in time? It seems to me an all too linear way of thinking about the cross, resurrection, ascension and our salvation, and I'd even go so far as to say that it is positively unhelpful.
[ 23. December 2013, 09:43: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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Sorry, daronmedway, but I don't see how this follows at all from what anyone has said here, be they Protestant, Catholic or Orthodox.
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Let me try to ask the question another way. Did the mighty resurrection and glorious ascension of the Son of God actually change anything, or was it just a mop up operation with objective soteriological effect? I ask because it seems to me that we're suggesting a sort of over-realised soteriology which doesn't actually require the real, historical, time-bound resurrection and ascension of Christ for the gospel to be effectual.
You show me any mainstream Christian tradition that doesn't emphasise the necessity for a real, historical, time-bound resurrection and ascension of Christ for the Gospel to be effectual.
We are dealing with Mysteries here. The scriptures don't give us an itemised railway timetable for what happened between the crucifixion and the resurrection.
If you're asking me whether I believe that Christ literally went into a dungeon sometime between his burial and his resurrection and kicked the door down as in this Fra Angelico fresco then obviously I don't.
http://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Fra_Angelico_024.jpg
But if you're asking me whether the fresco depicts a tremendous Gospel truth, then yes, I do believe it does ...
I don't need an itemised 'list' ... and I don't mean to be flippant or irreverent with the following ...
2.10am, crept out of tomb, entered elevator (lift) and pressed button for Hell.
2.12am, arrive in Hell. Knock on the door. It doesn't open.
2.13am, break down door. It tumbles in on top of one of the guards. He's an ugly effort with bat wings and horns.
2.15am begin sermon, Abraham and Adam are most attentive. I tell Adam that he needs to explain it to his wife at home afterwards ...
2.45am, I end sermon with an altar-call. The Old Testament saints respond and 'come forward' ...
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I'm with Ad Orientem, and if I were cheeky I'd suggest it was a particular 'linear' and Scholastic approach that some of our more Reformed friends have imbibed from late medieval Catholicism.
It betokens a rather mechanistic frame of mind. Spiritual Meccano.
It can be fun to play with Meccano but you can't build real buildings with it. Or, if you need, you'd need to work pretty hard at it ...
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
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I don't think so, daron. Jesus was, is, and always shall be the resurrection and the life. We hear from John's gospel that extraordinary self-proclamation during His earthly life. His resurrection from the dead proclaims that to us, and to the 'principalities and powers'. The resurrection is the victory, the outworking on earth which flows from the essence of Who Jesus was, is and ever shall be.
There is always a puzzle over kenosis. Our God contracted to a span, incomprehensibly made man, as the old hymn puts it. But I'm loth to put any theoretical restrictions on what He was capable of doing in this strange 'waiting period', as we see it. I'm not sure we have any clear NT basis for doing that, regardless of how sceptical we may be about Traditional takes on the few scriptures that might provide a clue or two.
Xposted
[ 23. December 2013, 09:59: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
2.15am begin sermon, ...
2.45am, I end sermon
That can't possibly be right. Half an hour for a sermon? That's barely long enough to start warming up to the first point!
OK, that's also flippant.
But, on your "time table" I have a more serious question. Why knock on the door to the place of the dead, find it locked and then kick it in?
I've always been more inclined in my limited thought on the subject to have a view that is more like:
1) Jesus died. Really, truly, totally dead. And, he then experiences the same as everyone else who is totally dead. For people who consider the spirit or soul to be seperable from the body, a way to illustrate that is to say that his soul/spirit went to the place of the dead with all the other souls/spirits of the dead.
2) Jesus (or his soul/spirit) is then already inside the place of the dead. No need to knock down a door to get in, the nails knocked into his wrists were knocking enough.
3) Jesus bursts open the door from the inside providing a means for returning to the place of the living. It is the Ressurection that breaks that door. In so doing, he opens the way for others to follow him; he is the first born from the dead.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Why divide them and try to pinpoint as specific moment in time? It seems to me an all too linear way of thinking about the cross, resurrection, ascension and our salvation, and I'd even go so far as to say that it is positively unhelpful.
Well, IME, time is linear and my life seems to be inexorably panning out in a linear manner. YMMV. However, the gospel texts themselves testify to that reality: they start with the incarnation and birth of Christ and they move on through time to his death and resurrection and then finish with ascension. In fact, the whole bible seems to take time quite seriously One can only assume that this is because the order of events in time somehow matters.
I guess we can try to cut the gospel free from all constrain of time and history thereby creating some kind of mystical religion in which actual historical events are subsumed into something more akin to hinduism. But it wouldn't be Christianity.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
2.15am begin sermon, ...
2.45am, I end sermon
That can't possibly be right. Half an hour for a sermon? That's barely long enough to start warming up to the first point!
OK, that's also flippant.
But, on your "time table" I have a more serious question. Why knock on the door to the place of the dead, find it locked and then kick it in?
I've always been more inclined in my limited thought on the subject to have a view that is more like:
1) Jesus died. Really, truly, totally dead. And, he then experiences the same as everyone else who is totally dead. For people who consider the spirit or soul to be seperable from the body, a way to illustrate that is to say that his soul/spirit went to the place of the dead with all the other souls/spirits of the dead.
2) Jesus (or his soul/spirit) is then already inside the place of the dead. No need to knock down a door to get in, the nails knocked into his wrists were knocking enough.
3) Jesus bursts open the door from the inside providing a means for returning to the place of the living. It is the Ressurection that breaks that door. In so doing, he opens the way for others to follow him; he is the first born from the dead.
This is very, very helpful Alan. Thank you.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Why divide them and try to pinpoint as specific moment in time? It seems to me an all too linear way of thinking about the cross, resurrection, ascension and our salvation, and I'd even go so far as to say that it is positively unhelpful.
Well, IME, time is linear and my life seems to be inexorably panning out in a linear manner. YMMV. However, the gospel texts themselves testify to that reality: they start with the incarnation and birth of Christ and they move on through time to his death and resurrection and then finish with ascension. In fact, the whole bible seems to take time quite seriously One can only assume that this is because the order of events in time somehow matters.
I guess we can try to cut the gospel free from all constrain of time and history thereby creating some kind of mystical religion in which actual historical events are subsumed into something more akin to hinduism. But it wouldn't be Christianity.
You end with a false dichotomy, I'm afraid. No one is denying the historicity of the cross, resurrection and ascension, least of all I, yet they all transcend time, hence St. John in the Apocalypse tells us that Christ is the lamb slain before the foundation of the world.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Excerpt from the mythical sermon
"This place can't hold me anyway. And if you follow me, neither can it hold you! Well, are you coming or aren't you?"
Leaving "flippant" behind, we can be confident that it was impossible for the grave to hold Him, because of who He was. peter is recorded as saying that in Acts 2.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
Now who's being over-literalistic? Yes, there was a death sentence over the Christ from before the creation of the world: in this respect he was slain from before the foundation of tye world. It's equally true that he was resurrected and ascended before the foundation of world too. But that doesn't obviate the necessity for the fulfilment of those verities in time and history in accordance with the principles of time and history.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
I don't think anyone is saying that, daron. The only difference between us is that I don't see that the fulfilment argument excludes some kind of proclamation to the dead, or to fallen angels.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I don't think anyone is saying that, daron. The only difference between us is that I don't see that the fulfilment argument excludes some kind of proclamation to the dead, or to fallen angels.
The proclamation of what Barnabas?
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
The Gospel. Though I would say that he didn't preach to the fallen angels because our Lord says that they are already condemned.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
And yet it's the Orthodox who accuse Evangelicals of preaching a gospel based on the sufficiency of the cross while leaving out salvific necessity of the resurrection. In. ter. est. ing.
[ 23. December 2013, 11:27: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Whose proclaiming the cross without the resurrection? Will not those whom Christ preached to in Hades be raised up on the last day too? Adam and Eve, Abraham, Moses etc? The resurrection has everything to do with Christ descending into Hades and preaching to the spirits there.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
Christ hadn't risen or entered into glory during the episode we are discussing. He had no body. He could not be glorified. He had not yet been declared Son of God in power.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
What do you think Christ did between his death and resurrection? Where are the old testament saints? He preached to them, he said, look not even death can hold me for I will rise from the dead and neither will death hold you if you have faith. The same gospel he preached on earth. He lifted the veil which was still over the old testament saints, showed them he was the one they had been waiting for and opened up the way to heaven for them. They now reign with Christ in heaven.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
So, the proclamation was prospective and anticipative of the resurrection? Where did this incomplete gospel get its saving power?
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on
:
It's interesting how much of this discussion turns on our views of the dimension of time and whether or not we conceive it as truly linear. By the same token, the issue of what is meant by "eternity" or "outside time" is wrapped up with the question of the reality or unreality of temporal linearity.
Now certainly in traditional Christian understanding we have the idea that Christ eternally offers himself to the Father (and that the Mass temporally reveals and takes part in this eternal sacrificial self-offering), but to what extent are our contemporary notions of Time/Eternaity peculiarly reflective of the cosmology that has developed in the past century, from Einstein onward? IOW, are we viewing and speaking in an idiom that the Church and her theologians would generally not have shared prior to the turn of the 20th Century?
And if this is the case, does such a lack of "fit" of world views matter?
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
So, the proclamation was prospective and anticipative of the resurrection? Where did this incomplete gospel get its saving power?
How do you know it was incomplete? Or are we looking at some kind of dispensational view here? That Jesus preached the gospel of the kingdom and the church preached the gospel of salvation?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Apropos of nothing, this prayer is spoken during the Great Entrance on Holy Saturday:
quote:
In the tomb with the body and in hell with the soul, in Paradise with the thief and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit, wast Thou, O boundless Christ, filling all things.
Nice. But how can an unrisen, unascended Christ do that?
What makes you think He can't?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
This might sound ad hominem and please forgive me (in advance, in advance of linear time ... if it is) ...
Daronmedway seems so 'hell-bent' - as it were - of finding fault with anything that isn't as Reformed as he is that he is erecting more strawmen than The Strawman and Scarecrow Appreciation Society's Annual Strawman Convention.
Nobody - not the Orthodox, not the RCs, not other forms of Protestant to strictly Reformed ones - are postulating a mystical and non-material outworking of salvation history. I don't see anyone here proclaiming that there wasn't a real crucifixion, that there wasn't a real burial, that there wasn't a real resurrection.
What am I missing that daronmedway seems so able to see that the rest of us can't?
I'm tempted to accuse him of join-the-dots Christianity, an almost mechanical and mechanistic approach.
That probably wouldn't be fair but he does seem to be painting himself into a corner with this one.
Meanwhile ... @Alan ... of course I'm not thinking of a real door and real chambers and dungeons. I'm not even thinking of a 'real' sermon in terms of some kind of event that took place in Hades in space and time ... as it were.
It's more that Christ's death and resurrection 'proclaimed' that ... it was a sermon in itself. It proclaimed who he is.
Hence my rather flippant caricature with the lift (elevator).
As for the sermon, I'm surprised that some of the more Reformed types didn't take me to task for including an 'altar-call' at the end ...
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
This might sound ad hominem and please forgive me (in advance, in advance of linear time ... if it is) ...
hosting/
Yes it does sound ad hominem, and you admit that before you even post it. Asking forgiveness in advance does not help. If you must get personal, take it to Hell. Them's the rules.
/hosting
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I was jiving with the idea of linear time and so that's come up here - asking forgiveness in advance for a sin I was about to commit - so there was a tongue-in-cheek element here but I take your point Eutychus.
I won't call anyone to Hell just before Christmas and nor do I think anyone here deserves such a call besides myself.
Hell has been harrowed and I hope to keep it that way ...
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Apropos of nothing, this prayer is spoken during the Great Entrance on Holy Saturday:
quote:
In the tomb with the body and in hell with the soul, in Paradise with the thief and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit, wast Thou, O boundless Christ, filling all things.
Nice. But how can an unrisen, unascended Christ do that?
What makes you think He can't?
I guess the fact the the Apostle Paul said that unrisen, unascended, unglorified Christ would make Christians the most pitiable people on earth. That suggests to me that the bodily, historical resurrection achieved something concrete and objective that is crucial to the faith.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
What am I missing that daronmedway seems so able to see that the rest of us can't?
Gamaliel, I'm not necessarily trying to get anyone to see something. I'm asking people to help me see what they see. I'm asking questions on the basis of my understanding of the bodily resurrection of Christ on the third day as vital for the benefits of Christ's passion to be effectual. I can't see how Christ can visit hell savingly before he is raised in power. It kind of steals the thunder of Easter Day for me.
[ 23. December 2013, 20:30: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
:
Count me in as another one who can't square "God could only beat death through Christ's Resurrection" with the idea of an Omnipotent God.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Apropos of nothing, this prayer is spoken during the Great Entrance on Holy Saturday:
quote:
In the tomb with the body and in hell with the soul, in Paradise with the thief and on the throne with the Father and the Spirit, wast Thou, O boundless Christ, filling all things.
Nice. But how can an unrisen, unascended Christ do that?
What makes you think He can't?
I want to know why you think he can. Maybe you could convince me.
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
:
quote:
daronmedway: I want to know why you think he can. Maybe you could convince me.
He's Almighty. Duh.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
daronmedway: I want to know why you think he can. Maybe you could convince me.
He's Almighty. Duh.
That's an answer that is too easy. It begs a whole load of questions: If he's Almighty, why couldn't He just forgive us our sins? Why did Christ need to die and rise? What did it achieve? The NT authors in inummerable places state clearly that the death and resurrection of Christ (and incarnation, ascension etc) achieved something that could not have been achieved any other way. Why wasn't there another way?
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
:
quote:
Alan Cresswell: That's an answer that is too easy. It begs a whole load of questions: If he's Almighty, why couldn't He just forgive us our sins? Why did Christ need to die and rise? What did it achieve? The NT authors in inummerable places state clearly that the death and resurrection of Christ (and incarnation, ascension etc) achieved something that could not have been achieved any other way. Why wasn't there another way?
I think those are good questions. Why can't He?
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Thank GOD Angus! I've been saying it for years here to no response whatsoever. May be the time is right. You can have ALL the glory mate.
I don’t think I deserve any glory – R T France can have all the credit as far as I’m concerned.
Having taken Hostly advice, I don’t think I’d better quote from the book I referred to as extensively as I’d like to. This is a pity, as France writes very logically and lucidly, and re-phrasing in my own words will only produce a less elegant version. However, here goes:
We need to be aware of the whole world of Jewish mythology which is foreign to 21st century minds, and Jewish apocalyptic writings often refer to the passage in Gen.6:1-4. According to such writings, these ‘sons of God’ were thrown out of heaven because of their sin, and imprisoned to await their punishment at the last judgement. Until then, they – or their offspring – were believed to be the source of evil on earth. In the passage in 2 Peter referring to the fallen angels they are linked to Noah and the flood, which is recounted in the subsequent verses of Gen 6. The extra-biblical books Testament of Naphthali (3:5) and Jubilees (10:5) also make this link (with the former stating that the flood came because of the sin of the fallen angels.)
However, it is the Book of Enoch that gives most detail about the sin, imprisonment, and punishment of these angels, which is covered in many passages in that book. There are several parallels between these passages and 1Pet.3:19-20, notably in Enoch chapter 12 where Enoch is given a commission to go and proclaim the impending punishment to the imprisoned angels. This is a remarkable parallel to the mission that Christ performed, as recorded in 1Peter.
France concludes this discussion with: “The evidence is more than sufficient to indicate that [in 1Pet3:19] ta en phulakē pneumata* must be the fallen angels who, according to tradition, sinned at the time of Noah, and are in custody awaiting their final punishment. To us the reference is obscure; to a church which knew and prized the Book of Enoch (as the author of Jude so evidently did too) it would need no explanation.” (New Testament Interpretation ed. I Howard Marshall. Paternoster, 1977 p.270)
On the subject (as debated in several posts above from Barnabas62, daronmedway, and Ad Orientem) of whether what was preached was the gospel, I don’t think that it was. The verb used is kērusso which means ‘to announce in a formal or official manner by means of a herald’** not euangelizō ‘to communicate good news concerning something (in the NT a particular reference to the gospel message about Jesus)'** The confusion on this is probably caused by older versions (KJV, RV, RSV) translating both of these verbs as ‘preach’, obscuring the difference between them. (cf. ESV which translates as ‘proclaimed’).
As for when this mission was performed by Jesus, there is nothing in 1Peter that indicates that it was in between his death and resurrection. Thus there is no conflict with Matt.12:40 as referenced earlier by daronmedway. I trust that shipmates can now appreciate why I refrain from saying the phrase of the creed under discussion.
A final comment on my approach to this sort of subject, for Evensong’s benefit if he or she is reading this as prompted by my post on another thread. Theologically I probably fit best into the ‘conservative evangelical’ category in regarding the Bible as the primary and definitive source for belief and practice. But in order to understand firstly what that primary and definitive source meant in its original context, I will use every scholarly resource – linguistic, literary, socio-cultural, etc. – that I can get my hands on.
Angus
* Original Greek script transliterated to Latin script
** Definitions from: Louw & Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament based on Semantic Domains
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I want to know why you think he can. Maybe you could convince me.
I don't see that "Christ could do X" requires explanation. He's God. You must have some reason for thinking he couldn't. You keep using the word "pre-resurrection" as if that made some kind of change in His abilities. Why do you think that? Don't dodge the question. You think something fundamentally changed. What changed? Why? How?
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I guess the fact the the Apostle Paul said that unrisen, unascended, unglorified Christ would make Christians the most pitiable people on earth. That suggests to me that the bodily, historical resurrection achieved something concrete and objective that is crucial to the faith.
Is anyone actually disagreeing with that statement?
Curiously, it's those who maintain resolutely that substiutionary atonement is the one, true and only explanation of the events of Holy Week, who are the ones who get accused (sometimes with good reason) of giving the impression that the resurrection is just a sort of afterthought, tagged on at the end but of little significance in comparison with the cross.
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell
That's an answer that is too easy. It begs a whole load of questions: If he's Almighty, why couldn't He just forgive us our sins? Why did Christ need to die and rise? What did it achieve? The NT authors in inummerable places state clearly that the death and resurrection of Christ (and incarnation, ascension etc) achieved something that could not have been achieved any other way. Why wasn't there another way?
Perhaps he could. Perhaps there might have been. But sometimes we have to accept that God knows better than we do, and that is how things have to be in the Universe he happens to have created, that somehow, this is his nature.
We might well think that if we were God, we would have done it all differently, but we aren't, and he is the one who is almighty and all-knowing, not us.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I guess the fact the the Apostle Paul said that unrisen, unascended, unglorified Christ would make Christians the most pitiable people on earth. That suggests to me that the bodily, historical resurrection achieved something concrete and objective that is crucial to the faith.
I have always taken that to mean, if he didn't really rise, then Christianity is a sham, and we who proclaim his resurrection have been duped. Not "His ability to do something changed between Friday and Monday." Our religion is anchored in the resurrection. Jesus' abilities are not.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
I'm not sure about that. The apostle Paul says that Jesus was "declared to be the Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead". I take that phrase "the Son of God in power" to be a reference to the resurrected Jesus. But surely, before he was raised Jesus was "the Son of God in weakness". Isn't that what this whole kenosis thing is about?
[ 23. December 2013, 22:09: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I would say that the cross was what Jesus did and through that sacrifice we are saved/redeemed/ransomed etc.
The resurrection, OTOH, was what the Father did for Jesus. It is not an atoning action it is a vindicating action that declares Jesus to be Lord and proves that his death was not merely a martyr's death. He was made (revealed) to be Lord and Christ by virtue of the resurrection. His being raised ratified his sacrifice.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
Hmm. And yet in Romans 4:25 the Apostle Paul says that Jesus was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification. The whole package is necessary. The resurrection isn't just a vindication; it somehow achieves our justification.
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I'm not sure that we can say that the resurrection has atoning power - there is not any efficacy in the resurrection for dealing with sins. We are justified by the death of Jesus BUT without the resurrection we could not actually be justified because resurrection guarantees the work of the cross and the worthiness of Christ to atone for sin.
We are justified by the resurrection in that its absence would nullify that justification and if Christ is not raised we are still in our trespasses and sins.
[ 23. December 2013, 22:30: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
So, were there any justified sinners before the resurrection?
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
So, were there any justified sinners before the resurrection?
To answer that I would simply say that when Jesus went to Paradise with the message 'It is finished', he told the righteous dead that they were justified and, to prove it and 'apply' it to them, he led them out of Death as he was raised.
Had Jesus not been raised I guess he would still be in Sheol and so would they. To have the completed work of salvation made effective there needed to be a resurrection.
[ 23. December 2013, 23:00: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
:
I think maybe you're being way too timebound about this. We're talking about the "Lamb slain before the foundation of the world," right? Trying to determine the exact moment when the benefits of the Cross kick in is probably something like asking how heavy is yellow. The angels are going to shake their ears and go "Wha-a-a-a' ?"
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
I think maybe you're being way too timebound about this. We're talking about the "Lamb slain before the foundation of the world," right? Trying to determine the exact moment when the benefits of the Cross kick in is probably something like asking how heavy is yellow. The angels are going to shake their ears and go "Wha-a-a-a' ?"
Oh I agree - but there has to be a time and space event to make it relevant and 'actual' for us. If it were enough that Christ was the lamb slain from the foundation of the world - which is not an event but a 'situation' then why bother becoming incarnate? We could just have the benefit of it all because it's how God 'is'.
It's a bit like 'justice must not only be done it must be seen to be done.'
[ 23. December 2013, 23:21: Message edited by: Mudfrog ]
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
:
There certainly IS a time/space event, and no, you can't avoid having it. But some of you folks are presupposing that effects always come after causes. It may not work that way from God's perspective.
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on
:
Why must there be all this kergymaniac proof texting? What a load of codswollop -- all you are doing is speculating over the speculations of Paul and those who wrote in his name. Get over this fucking bibliolatry.
[ 24. December 2013, 00:11: Message edited by: Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras ]
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Why must there be all this kergymaniac proof texting? What a load of codswollop -- all you are doing is speculating over the speculations of Paul and those who wrote in his name. Get over this fucking bibliolatry.
I get it that you are pissed off. Hell is for the pissed off. On reflection, I am sure you'll see this was a Hellish post. No more here.
Barnabas42
Purgatory Host
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
I guess the fact the the Apostle Paul said that unrisen, unascended, unglorified Christ would make Christians the most pitiable people on earth. That suggests to me that the bodily, historical resurrection achieved something concrete and objective that is crucial to the faith.
I have always taken that to mean, if he didn't really rise, then Christianity is a sham, and we who proclaim his resurrection have been duped. Not "His ability to do something changed between Friday and Monday." Our religion is anchored in the resurrection. Jesus' abilities are not.
Thanks, mousethief. I turned in last night thinking about how to respond and your post gets to the heart of the issue. What Jesus could do, indeed what He may have done in the realms of the dead (whatever they may have been and whoever was to be found there) flows from who he was, is and ever shall be. The Apostles' Creed is very brief on that; the Nicene is not.
daron, you can argue, quite reasonably as others including me have done, that there is pretty scant evidence in the New Testament documents for some of the meanings and stories attributed to the credal statement that he descended into Hell. What I read you to be doing is going further than that. You seem to be saying that until Jesus was raised from the dead there are some things he could not have done.
Based on scripture, tradition, and deep inner conviction, I believe that Jesus was indeed fully human and fully divine in His earthly ministry. His kenosis, his "incomprehensible contraction to a span" is something we puzzle about, but the scriptural and credal statements are at one over this. He was fully God and he was really made a real man. I think you believe this too.
One of Jesus' acts from the cross was to speak to a man beside him, who showed faith that Jesus would come into his kingdom, and asked humbly that he be remembered. That man was assured that he would be in Paradise. Did not Jesus have the authority to declare that? How do you think that man was justified? And, more importantly, does that matter? He heard a forgiveness and a promise of welcome into the heavenly realms despite his sins.
I do not mean this irreverently. He got that 'from the horse's mouth', from the crucified and not yet resurrected Jesus. From the one who above all others who have ever lived here had the authority to make that promise and know it was not empty words. That is what I believe and of course that affects the way I look at this strange part of the tradition concerning the 'spirits in prison'. Jesus is Lord. Who I am I to say what he can and cannot do?
[ 24. December 2013, 06:14: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
Still not convinced about my being overly time-bound. The problem, ISTM, is where to draw the line on this approach. Was Jesus fully man before his incarnation? Clearly not. So that's time-bound. Was Jesus pierced for our transgressions before the crucifixion? No.
However, I must say that I'm just about sold on Alan Cresswell's interpretation because it centres so strongly on the resurrection as the key moment. Christ is raised, the gates of death are burst open from the inside, Jesus becomes the gateway to glory and proclaims, "Follow me" taking captives in his train (choo choo) like the best scene that never happened from Harry Potter.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Still not convinced about my being overly time-bound. The problem, ISTM, is where to draw the line on this approach. Was Jesus fully man before his incarnation? Clearly not. So that's time-bound. Was Jesus pierced for our transgressions before the crucifixion? No.
And yet he was slain before the foundation of the world.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Still not convinced about my being overly time-bound. The problem, ISTM, is where to draw the line on this approach. Was Jesus fully man before his incarnation? Clearly not. So that's time-bound. Was Jesus pierced for our transgressions before the crucifixion? No.
And yet he was slain before the foundation of the world.
Jesus was slain in the sense that there was a sentence of death over him from eternity but the fulfilment of that decree required the incarnation: the eternal God becoming subject to chronological time in the person of his Son.
When someone points a finger in anger and says, "You're dead" it means "I'm gong to kill you". It's a prophecy. Jesus was slain before the foundation of the world. He was dead.
[ 24. December 2013, 07:31: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on
:
I believe that the experience of death is an essential part of the being and essence of God. When God told Adam that he must not eat of the tree because he will die, he also said 'the man has become like one of us, to know good and evil.'
It seems therefore that 'to die' is to have a knowledge of good and evil - 'knowledge' meaning 'to have an intimate experience of.'
So, being like God means to have an intimate experience of death.
I believe that this experience of death was not brought to God by Jesus' physical demise on the cross - it's not that Jesus had to die for God to know what death was like. Rather, in my view, the cross is an outward, physical expression of what God already experiences within himself; a sacrament in space and time, of God's eternal knowledge of death.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
However, I must say that I'm just about sold on Alan Cresswell's interpretation because it centres so strongly on the resurrection as the key moment. Christ is raised, the gates of death are burst open from the inside, Jesus becomes the gateway to glory and proclaims, "Follow me" taking captives in his train (choo choo) like the best scene that never happened from Harry Potter.
Good, innit! I liked that too.
On time and eternity and the "places of the shades" I'm pretty taken by the C S Lewis Narnia observation that "time works differently here". I guess we can agree on some kind of eternal sequencing while acknowledging we're likely to be pretty stupid about how that works.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
@Daronmedway, yes, I can see where you're coming from and like you I consider the resurrection to be part of the whole package - 'raised to life for our justification' and would part company with Mudfrog on that point.
However, on the time-bound thing ... how do we square a linear approach with Christ's breathing on his disciples prior to Pentecost and saying, 'Receive the Holy Spirit'?
John 20:22
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jn++20:22
Ok, this was after the resurrection but it was before the Ascension and the descent of God the Holy Spirit at Pentecost ...
I'm sure there are some neat, cut-and-dried explanations that people have come up with over the years, but whatever else it suggests it suggests to me that whereas these things happen in a linear and progressive way from our perspective, it might not appear necessarily that way from God's ... if we can even put it that way.
Time and eternity intersect in all manner of mind-boggling ways throughout the scriptures ... take Moses and Elijah on the Mount of Transfiguration ...
There's all manner of strange interweavings and intersections going on.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
There's all manner of strange interweavings and intersections going on.
I agree, and that's one of the reasons why I get pretty tentative in these kinds of discussions. He has made everything appropriate in its time. He has set eternity in our hearts, yet in such a way that we can't figure it all out. (Loose translation of Ecc 3:11)
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Thank GOD Angus! I've been saying it for years here to no response whatsoever. May be the time is right. You can have ALL the glory mate.
I don’t think I deserve any glory – R T France can have all the credit as far as I’m concerned.
Having taken Hostly advice, I don’t think I’d better quote from the book I referred to as extensively as I’d like to. This is a pity, as France writes very logically and lucidly, and re-phrasing in my own words will only produce a less elegant version.
French is a very clear communicator. I have some of his books, and I also have a book on the Apostles Creed. Having recently moved to a flat with insufficient space for the bookshelves I need they were in a box, I hoped that the AC book I had was by French ... it wasn't, and it skipped over the "descended into Hades" clause without a mention. Of course, that book it sitting on the arm of the chair where I dumped it in disgust this morning, I'm at work and I can't remember the author. One of those evangelicals avoiding the difficult bits! B'ah!
quote:
We need to be aware of the whole world of Jewish mythology which is foreign to 21st century minds
Once again, evangelicals get stung by avoiding anything not in the Protestant canon of Scripture. I admit, I'm as bad as the rest of us. Thanks for summarising French on filling in those blanks.
quote:
On the subject (as debated in several posts above from Barnabas62, daronmedway, and Ad Orientem) of whether what was preached was the gospel, I don’t think that it was. The verb used is kērusso which means ‘to announce in a formal or official manner by means of a herald’ not euangelizō ‘to communicate good news concerning something (in the NT a particular reference to the gospel message about Jesus)' The confusion on this is probably caused by older versions (KJV, RV, RSV) translating both of these verbs as ‘preach’, obscuring the difference between them. (cf. ESV which translates as ‘proclaimed’).
I would add that, IMO, it's possible to "proclaim" something by actions as well as words. And, that would be quite consistent with the ministry of Jesus where he spends a lot of time demonstrating that God is bringing salvation, wholeness, justice by healing, by welcoming the outcast, by calling the sinners ... ultimately by hanging on a cross. Of course, there's a lot of teaching in the ministry of Jesus too (especially as recorded by John). But his resurrection proclaims clearly that death has been defeated.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Alan, I admire both your principled evangelicalism and openness to other insights.
I would tend towards the view that the 'proclamation' in this instance was by deed - as it were - rather than by word - I don't imagine a literal sermon in a literal dungeon somewhere.
However we see it, the great truth of it all is that Death and Hell have been overcome.
Praise Him!
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Quick view on 'gospel' . There is this nice short verse in Mark, 1:14 where Jesus is described as "preaching (or proclaiming) the gospel of God." The Greek is kerusso evangelion theos.
The only point I was making is that to limit the meaning of gospel to post resurrection proclamations doesn't really strike me as consistent with New Testament usage.
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Quick view on 'gospel' . There is this nice short verse in Mark, 1:14 where Jesus is described as "preaching (or proclaiming) the gospel of God." The Greek is kerusso evangelion theos.
The only point I was making is that to limit the meaning of gospel to post resurrection proclamations doesn't really strike me as consistent with New Testament usage.
Absolutely not. Indeed, there seems little evidence for what modern evos call "the gospel" prior to Paul developing it (or something like it) decades after Jesus' earthly ministry. Where's it in the Sermon on the Mount? You can just about read it in to Peter's speech at Pentecost if you try hard enough, but nor does it appear to be the message preached by Jesus' disciples during his ministry either.
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Once again, evangelicals get stung by avoiding anything not in the Protestant canon of Scripture. I admit, I'm as bad as the rest of us. Thanks for summarising French on filling in those blanks.
Alan, I'm pleased you've found my post helpful; it was in response to your earlier query about the 'imprisoned spirits/angels' that I wrote it, but forgot to quote your enquiry.
I first read this book decades ago, and this piece of exegesis was a major influence in making me realise that - contrary to what I'd been taught in my conevo church - the Bible wasn't 'all that you needed in order to understand the Bible'.
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Quick view on 'gospel' . There is this nice short verse in Mark, 1:14 where Jesus is described as "preaching (or proclaiming) the gospel of God." The Greek is kerusso evangelion theos.
I did wonder whether, as I hadn't been able to carry out a systematic study of the NT to find all occurrences of kērusso to check the context, someone would find an instance of its use in connection with the gospel. However, I think it has a wider range of use than just the gospel, so while it can be used in conjunction with evangelion it can also be used for other messages as well, so the use of kērusso does not necessarily mean that what is being proclaimed is the gospel.
Angus
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Absolutely agreed. A certain amount of cross-purposes at work in that part of the thread, but no matter.
Merry Christmas, Angus, to you and all contributors.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me to preach good news (εὐαγγελίζεσθαι) to the poor.... Today this scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing. (Luke 4:18, 21)
Jesus was preaching the gospel before the resurrection.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
Alan Cresswell: That's an answer that is too easy. It begs a whole load of questions: If he's Almighty, why couldn't He just forgive us our sins? Why did Christ need to die and rise? What did it achieve? The NT authors in inummerable places state clearly that the death and resurrection of Christ (and incarnation, ascension etc) achieved something that could not have been achieved any other way. Why wasn't there another way?
I think those are good questions. Why can't He?
Yes, those are good questions. A lot rests on their answers.
There are plenty of possible answers, but to my mind the key idea is that this is not about God's cosmic struggle with evil.
Rather it is about the growth and development of the human race on this planet. Therefore it is about our own struggles with thoughts, desires, and behaviors that have the potential to destroy us - or at least make our lives miserable.
So He came "in the fullness of time" and did things that would mitigate those struggles, without removing the essential freedom of humanity to do what it wished to do.
All of the things He did had to with changing human behavior.
The central change is depicted as the outer person dying so that the inner person can live. That is, we need to prioritize God-centered and other-centered actions, and subordinate self-centered and worldly goals, if we are to be happy.
The crucifixion and resurrection acted this re-orientation out in a way that would have miraculous long-term effects.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
mousethief, you're preaching to the converted in my case. I think "the gospel" in evo terms is based on the Pauline statement that it is of first importance that Jesus died for our sins in accordance with the scriptures, and tbh a fair number don't get as far as "he was raised" and without that "we are to be pitied". All in 1 Cor 15 of course. And if preaching does not include why Jesus died and was raised, it ain't the real deal, or complete. That I think is where daronmedway is coming from.
But that is not "the gospel" according to the gospels, or what the church later summarised as the fourfold gospel. The way I see it, gospel has kingdom and salvation themes interwoven in such a way that any artificial partition between those themes takes away from its meaning and purpose. Since it is probably not possible to do justice to the sweep of that in one sermon, every particular preach is likely to be incomplete from that POV.
And as you and I agree, it seems very strange to limit Jesus' capabilities in speech and action on the basis of any understanding of how the church should preach the gospel.
Freddy, I've missed seeing you around!
[ 26. December 2013, 09:45: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Aye, it's an Izzard tale, involving all of the above and more. Hence mine own so very 'umble thread .
As I said there, I said, He came at the perfect time in history to shock us in to transcendent humanism which we're only just hearing in the market place.
Without Him we'd have developed secular humanism still, it's in the Greeks, the Romans, Buddha, Confucius, but without the transcendent, eternal hope of our individual, continuous existence.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
As I said there, I said, He came at the perfect time in history to shock us in to transcendent humanism which we're only just hearing in the market place.
Yes, that's it.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
He came at the perfect time in history to shock us in to transcendent humanism which we're only just hearing in the market place.
I do think that the timing here is why we have this teaching about His descent into hell.
Jesus came at just the right time. A few hundred years earlier and there would have been more barriers to the hearing, recording, and spread of His message. A few hundred years later and, well, who knows?
Jesus' rescue of those in hell remediates the injustice of His late arrival. He descended there to set free those who did not belong there. They were not wicked, but they had been trapped there since ancient times by the prevailing darkness and spiritual confusion that grew after the Fall.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Ay up Freddy. Nice story. But it ain't in the text. Peter was obviously, Occamianly, talking about demons. Which is all the more intriguing. Why bother if their fate is worse than death?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Ay up Freddy. Nice story. But it ain't in the text.
Yes it is in the text. It's just that there are numerous texts, they are fairly obscure, and are therefore open to interpretation.
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Peter was obviously, Occamianly, talking about demons. Which is all the more intriguing. Why bother if their fate is worse than death?
Peter is not obviously talking about demons. He says:
quote:
I Peter 3.18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us[e] to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit, 19 by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison, 20 who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water.
While it is not at all clear who he is talking about, it is more clear in the next chapter: quote:
I Peter 4:5 They will give an account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead. 6 For this reason the gospel was preached also to those who are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
It is not demons that He preached to, but merely the dead.
This is clarified further in Ephesians:
quote:
Ephesians 4:8 Therefore He says:
“When He ascended on high,
He led captivity captive,
And gave gifts to men.”(Psalms 68:18)
9 (Now this, “He ascended”—what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth? 10 He who descended is also the One who ascended far above all the heavens, that He might fill all things.)
Christ descended into "the lower parts of the earth", called Sheol or Hell, to free the dead who were held captive there.
This theme of freeing the captives is repeated many times and can be read many different ways:
quote:
Isaiah 61:1 "The Spirit of the Lord GOD [is] upon Me, Because the LORD has anointed Me to proclaim liberty to the captives, And the opening of the prison to [those who are] bound;
Isaiah 42:4 He will not fail nor be discouraged, Till He has established justice in the earth; …7 To open blind eyes, To bring out prisoners from the prison, Those who sit in darkness from the prison house.
Zechariah 9.11 "As for you also, Because of the blood of your covenant, I will set your prisoners free from the waterless pit.
Psalm 68.6 “God brings out those which are bound with fetters.”
Psalm 79.11 “Let the groaning of the bound come before you. ”
Psalm 102.20 “To hear the groaning of the bound, to open to the sons of death.”
Psalm 146.7 “Jehovah who looses the bound.”
Ezekiel 26.20 “When I cause you to go down with those going down to the pit, to the people of old, and I cause you to dwell in the land of the lower ones, in the desolations from of old, so that you do not dwell with those going down to the pit, I will give beauty in the land of the living.”
Acts 2.24 Jesus of Nazareth, whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it. 25 For David says concerning Him: “For You will not leave my soul in Hades, Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption” ( Psalm 16.10). …He would raise up the Christ to sit on his throne, 31 he, foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His soul was not left in Hades, nor did His flesh see corruption.
These do not need to be understood as applying to the harrowing of hell, but it is a legitimate interpretation.
Christ freed those who were captive in hell, who did not belong there but had become bound by the spreading darkness. Christ came to dissipate the darkness and set them free:
quote:
Isaiah 60:2 For behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, And deep darkness the people; But the Lord will arise over you, And His glory will be seen upon you.
Matthew 4:13 He came and dwelt in Capernaum, which is by the sea, in the regions of Zebulun and Naphtali, 14 that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Isaiah the prophet, saying:
15 “The land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali,
By the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan,
Galilee of the Gentiles:
16 The people who sat in darkness have seen a great light,
And upon those who sat in the region and shadow of death Light has dawned.”
17 From that time Jesus began to preach and to say, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”
The darkness had been spreading since ancient times, and Christ came as a light to that darkness.
I think that this is right there in the texts.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I think that this is right there in the texts.
Quite. What a pity you guys aren't Orthodox.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
A.Pilgrim put a different view together re the Peter texts. What I'm clear about is that the texts Freddy quotes are those used certainly in Catholic understandings and it appears also in Orthodox understandings.
The discussion has helped me to understand the significance of "descended to the dead" in the Apostles' Creed. Thanks to contributors.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Completely obvious, again:
1 Peter 3:18-20 (NIV)
18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit.
19 After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits—
20 to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built.
well that's ONE way of translating it. Especially verse 19.
Here's another:
1 Peter 3:18-20
Young's Literal Translation (YLT)
18 because also Christ once for sin did suffer -- righteous for unrighteous -- that he might lead us to God, having been put to death indeed, in the flesh, and having been made alive in the spirit,
19 in which also to the spirits in prison having gone he did preach,
20 who sometime disbelieved, when once the long-suffering of God did wait, in days of Noah -- an ark being preparing -- in which few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water;
the first works fine once you've made your mind up that's what He did. And to whom He did it.
The second has a more Occamic interpretation.
1 Peter 3:18-20
Revised Standard Version (RSV - a more neutral interpretation)
18 For Christ also died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit;
.......... 19 in which he went and preached to the spirits in prison,
............ (Who? Peter answers this in the identical context in his next epistle. Funny that. That nobody ever sees that. But me?! (a))
.................... 20 who formerly did not obey,
............ when God’s patience waited in the days of Noah, during the building of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were saved through water.
My indents take us back, further back and forward in time.
(a) 2 Peter 2:4-5 (YLT)
4 For if God messengers who sinned did not spare, but with chains of thick gloom, having cast [them] down to Tartarus, did deliver [them] to judgment, having been reserved,
5 and the old world did not spare, but the eighth person, Noah, of righteousness a preacher, did keep, a flood on the world of the impious having brought,
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Who died and put Occam in charge of scriptural interpretation?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Reason.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Minimally Peter got the bizarre idea that at the time of Noah, itself a myth with no scientific basis and in fact the utter opposite and therefore nothing to do with history but about something else, Jesus went and preached to fallen angels who were banged up in prison like the outlaws in Superman II. Again, it's not history, it's a figure of speech. He's making a totally different point, not based on any weird esoteric knowledge, even if he thought he knew any. In fact the way in which these people's minds worked fact, fiction, myth, figure of speech are all one thing. They were not being used to reveal anything about the afterlife about which they, and of course incarnate Jesus, knew nothing.
OK let's make Peter's fantasy fantastically more woodenly convoluted. During His death Jesus was transcendently alive and went to visit those who died before the Flood - for which there is only evidence that it didn't happen - thousands of years before. Human beings who had spent several lifetimes for the Methuselahs among them and tens and hundreds and thousands of lifetimes for the rest in chains and darkness. Where God the Son in his omnipotence, but not having been accepted back to fullest divinity by the Father, only in some second class state, went and preached just to them and not anyone who died in (by the million at His hand) and after the Flood. Or are they 'symbolic' of everyone?
Is that better?
Making all of this mandatory, making God out to be an ineffable cosmocidal killer outside the aberrant incarnation and somehow sanitizing it all in that?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Minimally Peter got the bizarre idea that at the time of Noah, itself a myth with no scientific basis and in fact the utter opposite and therefore nothing to do with history but about something else, Jesus went and preached to fallen angels who were banged up in prison like the outlaws in Superman II....
I don't think that it's necessary to believe in the literal Flood story to take Peter's point. The wicked people of that story simply represent a dark time that was somehow ended, followed by a reawakening of goodness represented by Noah and his family.
But no, I don't think that Peter is saying that Jesus went to people in the time of Noah.
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
OK let's make Peter's fantasy fantastically more woodenly convoluted. During His death Jesus was transcendently alive and went to visit those who died before the Flood - for which there is only evidence that it didn't happen - thousands of years before. Human beings who had spent several lifetimes for the Methuselahs among them and tens and hundreds and thousands of lifetimes for the rest in chains and darkness.
Yes, this is more like it. Jesus went to people who were trapped in hell, or the "lower earth", and even who had been in prison there since the time meant by the "Flood."
The reference to Noah is a reference to a spiritual epoch, which is a common biblical idea. The idea of a Golden Age, followed by a Silver Age, followed by other ages is easily seen in the Bible. The story of Nebuchadnezzar's dream in Daniel is an example.
Jesus compares the end of the age to what happened with the Flood:
quote:
Matthew 24:37 But as the days of Noah were, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be. 38 For as in the days before the flood, they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, 39 and did not know until the flood came and took them all away, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be.
Luke 17:26 And as it was in the days of Noah, so it will be also in the days of the Son of Man: 27 They ate, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, and the flood came and destroyed them all.
This is clearly what Peter has in mind as well, because elsewhere he says:
quote:
2 Peter 2:4 For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but cast them down to hell and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved for judgment; 5 and did not spare the ancient world, but saved Noah, one of eight people, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood on the world of the ungodly..
The point is that the Flood was a time of judgment like the one that Jesus is bringing. The end of one era and the beginning of another.
So Jesus' descent into hell to rescue the righteous who were imprisoned there is His reaching back to those of previous spiritual ages.
Another point is that what He did there was to "preach." This is because the purpose of His coming was to "bear witness to the truth" (John 18:37). This is the light that dissipates the darkness - effecting slow and invisible changes in this world, but rapid and miraculous ones in the spiritual world.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Reason.
Bah. Reason does not demand Occam. Occam sometimes serves Reason. Not always.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Of course it doesn't. As a rule of thumb it's a fine defense against wooden literalism and the distracting, irrelevant and toxic weirdness that entails. Sometimes reality is more complex than one can ever dream. The metaphors of Peter aren't any form of reality. Why one would want to defend them as literal 'gospel' when they serve no such intent is beyond me. Let alone defend even more bizarre wooden wroughtings of them.
Take a wooden interpretation, make it worse and build dogma on it that perpetuates God the Killer.
Why?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Of course it doesn't. As a rule of thumb it's a fine defense against wooden literalism and the distracting, irrelevant and toxic weirdness that entails. Sometimes reality is more complex than one can ever dream. The metaphors of Peter aren't any form of reality. Why one would want to defend them as literal 'gospel' when they serve no such intent is beyond me. Let alone defend even more bizarre wooden wroughtings of them.
Take a wooden interpretation, make it worse and build dogma on it that perpetuates God the Killer.
Why?
So in other words, when one doesn't like an interpretation, out comes Occam's razor. When the interpretation is to one's liking, the razor stays in its sheath. Gotcha.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
No dear. They don't deconstruct or abstract to the same logical constructs at all as you well know. Unless you can't do the logic? And you are avoiding the kindergarten postmodernism entirely in favour of 'tradition', which is fine if you have to do that. Stay with that. And say nothing, which is what you're saying, in response to blood simple repentance on offer.
Parsimony can be shattered by reality, as in the absurd plethora of subatomic particles versus theoretical physics.
Peter didn't run a particle accelerator. He, a peasant fisherman, lived on the edge of a wave that had been refining weird stories for three thousand years with input from The Consciousness. And a hundred times that. And hundreds more.
He couldn't not say the weird stuff that he said. Even though he'd spent a thousand days and more with The Consciousness made flesh.
If you have to believe a weird 'interpretation', of a weird myth, that creates more problems than it solves and use trivial rhetorical devices to defend that, OK. That's all right.
Progressive revelation is a challenging concept. Luckily I'm too dumb to resist it more than for about 50 years.
And don't worry, you'll win here, you are the post champion after all, I'll give up. Done, in fact, unless you've actually got something antithetical to say?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Take a wooden interpretation, make it worse and build dogma on it that perpetuates God the Killer.
Why?
It doesn't need to perpetuate God the killer. I'm not sure that I understand the connection between Christ's rescue of those trapped in hell and a killer God.
The "why" of it all is apparent to me: - It explains how Christ's salvation was retroactive.
- It suggests how Christ's salvation worked - through preaching that dissipated the darkness of ignorance and confusion.
- It suggests a natural progression over long periods of time, and why Christ appeared at the time that He did.
In the end it is about God's mercy. Leaving us to do as we wish, yet providing the tools to find happiness if we wish.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
And say nothing, which is what you're saying, in response to blood simple repentance on offer.
Are you offering me repentance? Where?
[code]
[ 28. December 2013, 06:58: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Metanoia of your hermeneutic.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
And Freddy, I'm glad that all works for you. Just as mine works for me. And never the twain can meet.
"So Jesus' descent into hell to rescue the righteous who were imprisoned there is His reaching back to those of previous spiritual ages."
I don't know where to start with the premises here and throughout, so I won't.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Metanoia of your hermeneutic.
I need to repent of thinking something you disagree with? Ooooookaaaaaayyyyyyyy.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
I don't know where to start with the premises here and throughout, so I won't.
I completely understand.
Do you accept the premise that human civilization changes over time, that it passes through eras, and that these eras include spiritual peaks and valleys?
I think that this is the basic premise on which Jesus' descent into hell is based.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Interesting rhetorical technique mousethief. I don't disagree with layers of ancient and medieval thinking. I just can't do them. How could I? Neither can you of course. You have NEVER justified God the Killer whereas I have up until a moment ago.
Freddy. You old charmer you. You appear to run away with the fairies and then you throw me a faithful postmodern lifeline of progressive revelation, that includes the Bronze and Iron ages that Peter could only have known, given a kick in to transcendence by Jesus, that I can't not grab.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
So now you're NOT asking me to repent?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
If you're wedded to an even more twisted wooden misinterpretation of a text that is weird enough when correctly deconstructed in its own terms, for reasons of denominational tradition, be happy.
I realise with you I may be missing something (Brit. understatement), but what it is I haven't the faintest idea. Either you believe in the literal harrowing of hell, or you don't.
Hell is OUR narrative. We're in it. Now. Nowhere and nowhen else.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
I'm wedded to Josephine. I'm not wedded to any interpretations. And certainly I'm not wedded to the need to insult people who don't share my interpretations.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Ah go on. You love it. Look, you're a sensitive flower I can see. But you do NOT believe any of that stuff. How can you? You just can't mousethief. Not really. So what's this about?
I mean you cannot possibly believe that frail, feeble, fecklessly innocent human beings have been languishing in hell for the past million years. Or had been even for a mere couple of thousand. That Peter was speaking gospel truth, divine dogmatic doctrine, that like Marlon in the bath in The Missouri Breaks, isn't even there.
So what are we disagreeing over? So agreeably?
The fact that I'm so nasty and mocking about it? Is that your defense of a distortion of a metaphor oddly - to our post Enlightenment ear - used to make a point which I'm singularly failing to go with even though it's staring me in the face.
Which is all too human of us I realise. Never mind the blatantly, bleedin' obvious, starting eleven verses before, let's go off on some weird, wooden, positively nasty tangent predicated on a sick, fearful, bloody Bronze-Iron ages deity that a peasant fisherman from before the age of reason was rudely hypnopompically awakening from.
Do what it says eleven verses earlier will you mousethief? For me. I can't. I'm trapped in reacting to the reactionary.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
And certainly I'm not wedded to the need to insult people who don't share my interpretations.
Sure, why limit yourself?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
I mean you cannot possibly believe that frail, feeble, fecklessly innocent human beings have been languishing in hell for the past million years. Or had been even for a mere couple of thousand.
Well, if you put it that way, yes, who would believe it?
But that's not how it was.
I would say that the spiritual realm is a single, dynamic, changing environment. Its so-called division into heaven and hell is not absolute, but is rather a product of the way that similarities attract in that world. Heaven and hell are just the results of that attraction.
So it is not that the good were mistakenly sent to hell by a puzzled God. Rather, the environment deteriorated over long periods of time, due to the negative changes in this world. People increasingly entered the spiritual world with new and confusing false ideas.
Only Jesus was able to clear this up.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
Freddy + Martin: where winsomely wrong meets wrongly winsome. Honestly, reading you guys is like eavesdropping on conversation between Origen and Marcion.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
:
I suspect that's fully enough of the snide comments at each other.
[ 29. December 2013, 20:46: Message edited by: Gwai ]
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
It's my fault, sorry.
Damn this is depressing.
80%+ of tens of billions of Christians believe that God was afflicting their ancestors for thousands of years? Based on the musings of an ignorant Iron Age fisherman still blinking in the light of three and a half years of revelation incarnate?
And we 'modernize' that by extending it to millions of years to fit in with the facts of evolution?
Whilst entirely ignoring the point?
This is SO depressing.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Freddy, please make your mind up. The dead hadn't been ... living ... in hell worse than their brief lives or they had? Hell was fine and then it got hellish until Jesus made it nice again? What?
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
No need for it to be depressing, Martin.
Less of the rationalisation and more of the iconography.
I don't know how anyone can look at this and not be cheered:
http://members.bib-arch.org/publication.asp?PubID=BSBR&Volume=19&Issue=3&ArticleID=16
Nor these:
http://roughplacesplain.tumblr.com/post/20674399369/the-harrowing-of-hell
Of those, the Orthodox ones are my favourite.
Enjoy.
daronmedway might like to look at them too. He might learn something ...
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Reading daronmedway and Zach82 is like eavesdropping on a conversation between Calvin and Beza ...
Only nowhere near as interesting ...
Seriously, leave off the speculations, guys and enjoy the pictures.
I don't pretend to have the foggiest idea what those verses mean that are used as the basis for the idea of the Harrowing of Hell but I chuckle when I see the squashed demon in the Fra Angelico fresco and I rejoice when I see Adam and Eve and the others yanked out of the underworld by the Risen Christ in the Orthodox depictions.
They'll do for me.
That doesn't stop me getting all wound up and cerebral over other issues though.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
The problem as I see it, Martin, is that you are conflating a lot of different ideas into the word "Hell." The Hebrew "Sheol" does not refer to a place of everlasting torment; the Greek "Hades" doesn't either. Gahenna, the burning garbage dump, does, but we don't believe Christ harrowed the garbage dump, or Dante's Inferno, but the "grave," in Greek Hades. "O Death, where is thy victory? O Grave, where is thy sting?" This parallel couplet makes no sense if we treat "Grave" to mean "Place of eternal burning torment."
We Orthodoxen sing, "Christ is risen from the dead, trampling down Death by death and upon those in the tombs bestowing life." Not upon those in eternal torment, but in the tombs. Death, not Dante's Inferno. Somebody upstream made this distinction, but it kinda got overlooked.
Thus it's error to read a flaming, Gahenna, Dante's Inferno meaning of Hades into the Harrowing of Hell. Very often if you try to map a definition from one system of thought onto the same word in a different system, you end up with something that neither side recognizes as the truth.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Thanks Gamaliel. I LOVE the iconography, the poetry, the symbolism, for all the right and wrong reasons: the gothic horror of it all, of our pathetic broken projection.
Jesus truly has descended down here to our hells and brought us up from those foul depths where we were lost.
Allelujah!
Jesus saves.
Praise God.
What's depressing, discouraging is that we justify projecting our diseased madness as God's benevolence, like the Greeks did the Erinyes as the Eumenides.
We proclaim that gospel.
But I DO love the unknown Russian artist. Dürer can do no wrong. And the Cezanne made me think of Pope Francis.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
mousethief. Eirene. Good night.
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
It's my fault, sorry.
Damn this is depressing.
80%+ of tens of billions of Christians believe that God was afflicting their ancestors for thousands of years? Based on the musings of an ignorant Iron Age fisherman still blinking in the light of three and a half years of revelation incarnate?
And we 'modernize' that by extending it to millions of years to fit in with the facts of evolution?
Whilst entirely ignoring the point?
This is SO depressing.
I don't think there have been tens of billions of Christians thinking this (i.e., I don't think there have been that many Christians who have reached the age of thinking about this yet). And most that have reached that age probably try not to think too hard (or become somewhat universalistic).
Admire the pictures and consider whether in your theology Jesus forgave Judas in Luke 23:34.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by daronmedway:
Freddy + Martin: where winsomely wrong meets wrongly winsome. Honestly, reading you guys is like eavesdropping on conversation between Origen and Marcion.
I love it!
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Freddy, please make your mind up. The dead hadn't been ... living ... in hell worse than their brief lives or they had? Hell was fine and then it got hellish until Jesus made it nice again? What?
Hell isn't a place. It is a state of mind. So it's not that anyone was cast into hell. Rather it is that the newcomers increasingly made life in parts of the spiritual world hellish.
Until the Incarnation.
Just like Lord of the Rings. This is what Tolkien had in mind, I believe.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Gamaliel (and you are a towering giant for me, I can barely see up to let alone past as you well know)
I ain't speculatin' nuthin. I'm not pretending to have the foggiest idea. I have a clear idea what those verses mean: What Peter meant by them (secondary) and why he used them (primary). Where he got the idea from IS intriguing, but that is tertiary - in importance. The primary importance is the context, which utterly trivializes Peter's use of verses that demon-strably minimally refer to God the Son preaching to fallen angels in prison leading up to the Flood that never happened. Take out all that weird, Cabbalistic, mythical, esoteric stuff and what are we left with? Something far simpler. Peter has previous on making stuff up to make a point. That's fine. They all did. Paul too. As did their Master. What's the point? Not of them doing that, but of what they were illustrating with these quaint stories.
mousethief.
Not a problem. I am completely conversant with all the hells thank you. You are missing one. The one Peter is referring to. Tartaroo. And GEhenna was not a burning garbage dump. There was no garbage. Apart from broken pottery. Whence archaeology. The first reference to fires in the Valley of Hinnom after the exceptions in the Old Testament and Josephus (for the same cause, war) is by the C12-13th rabbi David Kimhi. You've been watching too much Star Wars. GAhenna is a modified Confederacy of Independent Systems Lucrehulk-class core ship. I could not possibly confuse Hades with Gehenna and neither of them with Tartaroo (no, NOT Tatooine). Neither did Peter. Nor did I overlook anything anadromous.
I like what the Orthodoxen sing.
If you're saying it's all symbolic and the dead are oblivious and Jesus in His full humanity shared that, amen, hurrah!
Net Spinster
I agree, of the easily twenty billion Christians who have lived, hardly any have been able to give this any real thought. My theology has always included Jesus' forgiveness of Judas, thank you SO much.
Freddy
There are no conscious newcomers in Tartaroo or Hades. Gehenna is yet to come. Or we're in it.
[ 30. December 2013, 21:49: Message edited by: Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
I like what the Orthodoxen sing.
You just don't believe it.
quote:
If you're saying it's all symbolic and the dead are oblivious and Jesus in His full humanity shared that, amen, hurrah!
Nope, that's not what we mean. We mean what the words mean when we use those words. More honest that way.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
MT, you know that argument won't work here on the Ship - the seat of relativistic subjectivism. It's pure fancy to think that certain words mean what they were meant to mean when they were written.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Wrong again mousethief. How can you be so wrong?
I believe those words exactly and as honestly and as fully and as deeply and as meaningfully as written, as its possible to do, at least as much as you do if not more. In fact more!
I certainly don't believe for one moment that dead human beings languished fully conscious for thousands and hundreds of thousands of years after their nasty, brutish and short lives until Jesus popped down to turn the fairy lights on and make the grave as pretty as the church (schism of course) yard across the road.
Neither do you. But you win I'm sure. You always do, whether you do or not. Be happy! You're right after all.
Iterate.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
And daronmedway, please tell us do where we ALL go wrong except you.
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
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Martin, I can (usually) read you for understanding, but, as someone who largely agrees with you, on this one I'm not seeing why you are so opposed to, particularly, Mousethief's understanding of the HOH. Sure, for all sorts of very good reasons, you have a visceral dislike of the popular conception of "Hell"; it's a dislike I share. But it's not that understanding of which Peter is speaking. It's the grave, death, however you want to phrase it, which Jesus harrows. I have no idea of the precise mechanism of which Peter speaks, but I do believe that in the inseperable Paschal event, an event both inside and outside of time, temporal and eternal, Jesus broke forever the power of death, and the "harrowing" of the grave was and is the inevitable consequence. I do think Peter understood that.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Jolly Jape. I'm wrong even when I'm right I know. And that's not me being facetious. My form eclipses my content. And I'm right. There is no way Peter is talking of Hades. He's talking of Tartaroo.
But let's make it so. Seriously. He's talking Hades. To make that work, which I will, in the interest of embracing all from the emergent metanarrative, then it IS entirely metaphorical.
mousethief is saying otherwise as far as I can see, that the dead are conscious in Hades. daronmedway almost certainly is.
I could be wrong.
But making it work as Hades and reconciling that with God not being the Czar of Siberia where the dead are exiled for aeons, then it is entirely symbolic.
The oblivious dead of a million years experienced no change in their non-experience. OR the death of Christ a million years in the future was applied as soon as they died and they all went to heaven in a little row boat. after a nominal dose of Hades-Purgatory AKA Judgement.
OK? So I've talked my way round. Happy ?
Posted by Jolly Jape (# 3296) on
:
Happy? You always "make my day", Martin
Seriously though, we know very little of what happens after death, and the Bible does not have any single voice here.
I think that the important part of the Petrine verses is not so much where people who have died are, but that those who, from our point of view, have died before the Christ event, were not free. This may be because they are "asleep", or because their sinful nature in some way still holds them. There is no suggestion in Peter that they are the subject of conscious torment, just that they were, in some way, unfree, and they are now free, as the inevitable consequence of the events of Easter. They were dead, and are now alive.
Posted by daronmedway (# 3012) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
mousethief is saying otherwise as far as I can see, that the dead are conscious in Hades. daronmedway almost certainly is.
I could be wrong.
It is a distinct possibility. I'm not sure I've said anything on this thread about what I think the texts in question mean. I've been intentionally agnostic on the issue because I don't actually have a firm opinion on this one. However, I have asked a number of questions in order to help in my understanding of what others think, despite the inscrutable weirdness of some contributions.
[ 01. January 2014, 17:49: Message edited by: daronmedway ]
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Well, I descended to making this thread Hell that's for sure, particularly for mousethief and also daronmedway by an order of magnitude or so less, but still hellish. I hope you are as thick skinned as you appear daronmedway.
Been a bit of a road to Damascus this. Thank you. Every one.
It goes without saying, therefore must be said: I'm sorry. To everyone, the Hosts, the community.
As Kelly Alves said in another house, I've just been squabbling on the internet. 'Warrior' no more AT ALL.
I prayed for pruning. My prayers were answered through you all.
To the thread:
daronmedway: "...the Ship - the seat of relativistic subjectivism. It's pure fancy to think that certain words mean what they were meant to mean when they were written."
You were being ironic I know, which is fine, especially compared with my flesh-tearing. The Harrowing of Hell, to me, is, amongst other things, a non parsimonious interpretation of an insert in 1st Peter. To me my use of Young's Literal Translation is parsimonious, minimal. It brings no assumptions to the texts: the text that informed Peter in his. I'd appreciate a critique of my method. What's wrong with it? What's - dangerous territory but I'm asking - faithless about it in your - anyone's - faith. It's faithful in mine.
Jolly Jape, you complement the traditional Harrowing camp, or rather you are a complement to it, as I see. Extending, 'spiritualizing' its traditional, literal interpretation, as does Freddy and not necessarily denying the literal.
Which mousethief almost certainly does too.
For me there is no reason to extend it past its elastic limit at all in the first place. Appear to make it fit a preconceived idea, an ancient mistranslation.
Minimally for me it's about God the Son preaching to demons, which is intriguing enough, at the time of the building of the ark, not its voyage on a depopulated Earth, which is even more intriguing.
Where did this story, regardless of meaning, come from? Why did Peter use it in his first epistle? The style of which is typical of the day: nothing like ours. Like the nearly two thousand year old Jewish culture of two thousand years ago.
What do all these concentric narratives mean?
[ 03. January 2014, 17:32: Message edited by: Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
As for parsimony, it's not in the Bible or in the Creed. Really it seems to me part of the Protestant experiment of "What's the least we can believe in and still call ourselves Christians?" which results in, or is the result of, the attempt to toss overboard as much of the Church's tradition as possible to get back to some imagined bare-bones "biblical" Christianity, as if the New Testament existed in a churchless vacuum and the Church sprang from its temple like Venus from Zeus.
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
mousethief is saying otherwise as far as I can see, that the dead are conscious in Hades.
Actually it's not necessary to be conscious to be raised. Ask any parent of a 2-year-old. It may be that Christ woke up sleeping souls and then collected and rescued them from Hades. I'd want to balance this against the appearance of Moses and Elijah at the Transfiguration, however.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Where did this story, regardless of meaning, come from? Why did Peter use it in his first epistle?
Are you thinking that Peter is the only source for the idea that Christ descended into hell, preached to those there, and freed those who were bound there?
Didn't we show that there are several other passages about it, both in Old Testament prophecy and in the Epistles?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
mousethief: As for parsimony, it's not in the Bible or in the Creed.
... Martin: It's in discourse. Therefore it is in both and it is in the metanarrative including the deconstruction of both.
mousethief: Really it seems to me part of the Protestant experiment of "What's the least we can believe in and still call ourselves Christians?" which results in, or is the result of, the attempt to toss overboard as much of the Church's tradition as possible to get back to some imagined bare-bones "biblical" Christianity, as if the New Testament existed in a churchless vacuum and the Church sprang from its temple like Venus from Zeus.
... Martin: I'm post-Protestant so it doesn't apply to me. I'm not trying to get back to some mythical golden age. I completely embrace all traditions. Talking of myths it was Minerva-Athena-Wisdom not Venus-Aphrodite-Love.
mousethief: Actually it's not necessary to be conscious to be raised. Ask any parent of a 2-year-old. It may be that Christ woke up sleeping souls and then collected and rescued them from Hades. I'd want to balance this against the appearance of Moses and Elijah at the Transfiguration, however.
... Martin: I remember being two. I can't make that analogy work. It may be. It may be that the Transfiguration was an entirely symbolic theophany, a vision. The symbolism is obvious after all: the Law and the Prophets. I'm glad that in your after life beliefs the dead may not be conscious. It's a very complex if not problematic story nonetheless isn't it? It's not morally problematic if God is not the Jailer of the dead for hundreds of thousands of years, which is good.
Freddy: Are you thinking that Peter is the only source for the idea that Christ descended into hell, preached to those there, and freed those who were bound there?
... Martin: Yes.
Freddy: Didn't we show that there are several other passages about it, both in Old Testament prophecy and in the Epistles?
... Martin: No. Confirmation bias yes.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Freddy: Are you thinking that Peter is the only source for the idea that Christ descended into hell, preached to those there, and freed those who were bound there?
... Martin: Yes.
Freddy: Didn't we show that there are several other passages about it, both in Old Testament prophecy and in the Epistles?
... Martin: No. Confirmation bias yes.
I can see that confirmation bias is almost always at play when looking at Old Testament prophecy. The passages I quoted about the Messiah liberating the captives are good examples. The same is true of the quote from Ezekiel:
quote:
Ezekiel 26.20 “When I cause you to go down with those going down to the pit, to the people of old, and I cause you to dwell in the land of the lower ones, in the desolations from of old, so that you do not dwell with those going down to the pit, I will give beauty in the land of the living.”
The New Testament is more specific, though. They take the Old Testament prophecies and read into them things about Christ. For example:
quote:
Acts 2.24 Jesus of Nazareth, whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it. 25 For David says concerning Him: “For You will not leave my soul in Hades, Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption” ( Psalm 16.10). …He would raise up the Christ to sit on his throne, 31 he, foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His soul was not left in Hades, nor did His flesh see corruption.
What is this saying? Maybe nothing more than that Christ would be raised up. But raised up from where? Is this saying that He initially went to Hades, or that He would not be allowed to go to Hades?
Other passages are even more direct in their interpretation of the prophecies:
quote:
Ephesians 4:8 Therefore He says:
“When He ascended on high,
He led captivity captive (or led captives in His train)
And gave gifts to men.”(Psalms 68:18)
9 (Now this, “He ascended”—what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth? 10 He who descended is also the One who ascended far above all the heavens, that He might fill all things.)
What does it mean that "He also descended to the lower parts of the earth"? Is this speaking about the literal earth or about "Hades"? It sounds as though Christ descended after His crucifixion into these lower parts and freed people.
Peter is only reflecting these other passages when he writes:
quote:
I Peter 3.18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us[e] to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit, 19 by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison, 20 who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water.
The main point, shared by all of the passages, is that He went somewhere (the lower parts of the earth, Hades, to the captives) and did something (preached, set them free).
Peter reiterates the idea that the Gospel was preached to the dead, presumably in Hades, in the next chapter:
quote:
I Peter 4:5 They will give an account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead. 6 For this reason the gospel was preached also to those who are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
Is this confirmation bias? Surely confirming a pre-existing idea plays a role. Without a theory as to what the passage mean they mean nothing.
I don't think that the traditional conclusion is an unreasonable one.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Aye, He's talking only about demons.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Oh and He didn't free anybody at the time of the Flood.
He freed everyone when He was crucified.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Oh and He didn't free anybody at the time of the Flood.
He freed everyone when He was crucified.
"Freeing" is a relative concept.
He freed Noah and his family at the time of the Flood, but their freedom was not as complete as the freedom Christ would provide. Nor is that freedom as complete as that offered in the Second Coming.
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Aye, He's talking only about demons.
So who was Jesus talking about in John 5:25? - quote:
Very truly I tell you, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who hear will live.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
v 24
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
And what has that got to do with a parsimonious interpretation of 1 Peter 3:18-20?
And if we accept it as literal, which virtually nothing Jesus said was, and/or 'straightforward', it opens up the same can of worms again about God the Jailer of a Million Years.
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
v 24
What do you mean v24?
Martin - parsimony is a tool to distinguish probability of truth between potential narratives. Its practical application requires the consideration of necessity. Untrammelled parsimony is another name for reductionism, a project that can only lead to monism and the destruction of meaning. If any of us are to engage with you on that, we need to know what entities you consider are done away with by your "parsimonious" explanation. And you will need to identify what you consider to be the constraints of necessity so we can be convinced you have not accidentally violated them and thereby the constraints that guard against the misuse of parsimony. I can't see any evidence you have mentioned them at all so it's not going to be possible even to engage with that aspect until what appears to be a private consideration is made more public. But let me know and I'll try to engage with it.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
I have way upstream Ron. But I'll do it again.
And v 24 shows who the dead are. Jesus' audience. Or were. On receiving Him, accepting Him, they passed in to life. As it says.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Or verse 28 says who the dead are. Verse 28 clearly looks back at the preceding verses, because it starts, "Do not be amazed at this, for..."
This is a complex passage and it is a little too facile to say that verse 25 must perforce be referring to the spiritually-dead-but-physically-alive because it comes after verse 24. The context is much larger than those 2 verses.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Or v 28 says that the physically dead will yet benefit just as the spiritually dead of v 24 did in v 25.
A facility born of context. Context is all for sure. And the context of the context. Especially Jesus' almost completely figurative way of speaking. A constraint of ancient Aramaic apparently.
If Jesus knew what the literal dead were up to literally, He never literally, unambiguously, unequivocally, progressively, dialectically, antithetically, abrogationally said.
It wasn't important to Him even if He knew (and how human was He?).
So for me there is no tradition I've lost or can go back or on to recapture. I value input from all traditions more than ever and want more. I've been freed to do so from the tradition of fundamentalism by neo-orthodoxy and inclusive postmodernism. All add to the richness. Including the tradition of the Harrowing of Hell.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
But! I have difficulty, which I've laid at the foot of the Cross, with the implication of the Harrowing of Hell of God the Prison Governor, the Camp Commandant, the Punisher, the Damner, the Executioner, the Killer.
Even with the modern gloss that the dead are alive but comatose, unfeeling. They might as well be ... dead.
How linear of me!
And in focussing on the insert of Jesus descending unto Hell we also misdirect ourselves from the substance of what Peter was saying.
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on
:
As ever, the demands of RL have prevented me from taking part in a discussion when it has been active. However, I’d still like to make the following observations.
I don’t think that there is any validity in linking together, as Freddy did, 1Peter 3:18-20 and 1Peter 4:5-6. In the first passage Christ is the one performing the action of proclamation, the gospel is not mentioned here, and the proclamation was to ‘imprisoned spirits’. Nowhere else in the Bible are the dead referred to as ‘imprisoned spirits’ (en phulakē pneumasin), so I think it is incorrect to do so here.
In the second passage, there is no mention of who is doing the preaching of the gospel – it could be human messengers, not Christ. The context is in view of future judgement ‘they will have to give account to him who is ready to judge the living and the dead’ (v.5) – that is those who will, by the time of that judgement have died, but who had the gospel preached to them while they were still alive. To adopt this understanding here then harmonises with other biblical passages such as Hebrews 9:27-28 and Luke 16:19-31 that state or imply that after death comes judgement, and there is no opportunity then to hear the gospel and ‘live according to God in the spirit’ (v.6) as there had been before death.
The passage in Eph 4:8-10 talks about Jesus’s ascension, and comments that before he ascended, he had to descend to earth (at the incarnation). The phrase ‘katōtera merē tēs gēs' can be identified as a genitive of quality – ‘the earthly lower parts’ rather than ‘lower parts of the earth’, and this makes more sense in the context. Even if this second phrase is adopted as the translation (as in Freddy’s quotation) I’m not convinced by proposing a connection between any supposed ‘lower parts of the earth’ and the location of the ‘imprisoned spirits’ of 1Peter 3:18-20 in the gloomy dungeon of Tartarus (2Pet.2:4).
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There is still an outstanding subject that this thread has touched on – namely what did happen between Jesus’s death and resurrection? There appear to be two contradicting pieces of evidence. On one hand we have Jesus’s words to the dying thief: ‘Truly I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise’ (Luke 23:43, ESV) and Matt.12:40 ‘... so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth’ (ESV) So where was Jesus? In the earth, or in Paradise?
The most satisfactory explanation that I can come up with is as follows. For those three days Jesus was dead in the tomb – at least in his human nature – in accordance with Matt.12:40. What happened to his divine nature is, I guess, a mystery not revealed to us. And as I mentioned in a previous post, there is nothing in the text of Peter’s letters to indicate that the proclamation to the imprisoned spirits happened in between Jesus’s death and resurrection.
So what of the words to the dying thief? The way that I see those words is as telling the thief what he will experience from his own perception – that as far as he is aware, the time spent from his death to his re-awakening at the general resurrection of the dead, will pass without his knowing anything about it, and will appear to happen the same day. In the circumstances of being tortured to death on a cross, Jesus can, I think, be excused for giving assurance to the repentant thief while making a simplification of what will happen, rather than going into an extended theological exposition of the state of being of the dead in between death and resurrection.
With this understanding, all the human experiences of death and resurrection are the same – for Jesus (in his human nature), for the dying thief, and for all the rest of us. Death; imperceptible passage of time (which would fit in with the concept of Sheol as outlined by Jade Constable); for Jesus resurrection after three days as the firstfruits of the resurrection, for the rest of us resurrection at the general resurrection to judgement and the life of the world to come (as appropriate ).
Angus
[ 16. January 2014, 13:29: Message edited by: A.Pilgrim ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by A.Pilgrim:
I don’t think that there is any validity in linking together, as Freddy did, 1Peter 3:18-20 and 1Peter 4:5-6.
...I’m not convinced by proposing a connection between any supposed ‘lower parts of the earth’ and the location of the ‘imprisoned spirits’ of 1Peter 3:18-20 in the gloomy dungeon of Tartarus (2Pet.2:4).
Interesting comments. Let me think about them.
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