Thread: Purgatory: Slavery reparations from European nations Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
link

Should countries be on the hook for slavery from 150 years ago and before?

quote:
The Caribbean Community (Caricom) approved a 10-point plan for reparations at a two-day meeting in St Vincent and the Grenadines that was due to wrap up on Tuesday, said Martyn Day, a UK-based lawyer at Leigh Day, who is working on the case.

The Caribbean countries said that European governments in addition to being responsible for conducting slavery and genocide, also imposed 100 years of racial apartheid and suffering on freed slaves and the survivors of genocide.

Having just gone through the Residential Schools 'Truth and Reconcilliation Commission' in Canada, there is merit I think if something more than money is required.

[ 28. June 2014, 09:47: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
Haiti in particular has a pretty strong case for reparations. After the revolution it was forced to pay the former slave owners 150 million gold francs. They didn't finish paying till 1947 and the debt severely damaged the country.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
In the specific case of Haiti, I can see grounds for seeking repayment of the indemnity the rebellious slaves were forced to pay to the French government. Long story short, a large French fleet demanded the payment of 150,000,000 francs in 1825 (roughly equivalent to a present day sum of US$21,000,000,000) as damages for property lost in the 1804 slave revolt that led to Haitian independence. Said "property", incidentally, included the monetary value of the rebellious slaves themselves. Through usurious interest and other shady practices, France was still extracting payments until 1947. That's a lot of "post-slavery" time to be bleeding a country dry for having the temerity to stage a successful slave revolt.

This is an interesting case because, unlike a lot of calls for generalized "reparations", it involves a definite sum extracted by a still-existing entity (the French government).
 
Posted by Augustine the Aleut (# 1472) on :
 
The Haitian debt to France is particularly egregious (a big word for shameful), and this financial imposition can be fairly said to be a principal cause of the weakness of the Haitian state ever since. Legally, it has the clear advantage of a link between one existing entity to another, as noted by Croesos.

Other claims encounter challenges of figuring out who the recipients might be, questions of state succession and obligation among debtors, and sums involved-- offhand I don't see the debtors involved in wanting to even discuss the claims in a serious way, and the recipient states don't have that much influence to obtain acceptance of the charges involved or even an admission of the principle.
 
Posted by The Scrumpmeister (# 5638) on :
 
The Caricom countries might have had more credibility were it not for the shocking human rights record of most of them, lasting and delighted in even in the present day.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
I didn't think they were doing to badly in comparison with the rest of the world? And not badly at all in comparison with slavery.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
What's the value of the set off?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
You mean one might be owed 100 billion USD to recompense the wrongs of slavery, but have to give 1 billion back for maintaining the death penalty for longer than Europe and another few billion for promoting homophobia?
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
Europe made a lot of money out of slavery and the slave trade, so in that sense then reparations might be justified. Germany paid reparation to the state of Israel, which didn't even exist during World War II, for the Holocaust and the theft of Jewish people's wealth.

A lot of the reaction against this seems to come from not wanting to be accused of racism or human rights abuses. If you think of slavery as an unfair economic system, then the concept of compensating countries whose local indigenous populations were killed off by settlers and had their natural resources extracted and sold at huge prices abroad - then reparations don't seem to unreasonable.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
You mean one might be owed 100 billion USD to recompense the wrongs of slavery, but have to give 1 billion back for maintaining the death penalty for longer than Europe and another few billion for promoting homophobia?

I was thinking that if one accepts that money is owed for the supposed misdeeds of colonialism, then shouldn't deductions be made for its benefits?

Caribbean countries were presumably free to abolish the death penalty and decriminialise homosexual acts at any time after indepedence? (In fact, I think bust ups over the death penalty is one of the reasons why former British colonies no longer want to send appeal cases to the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in London.)
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I was thinking that if one accepts that money is owed for the supposed misdeeds of colonialism, then shouldn't deductions be made for its benefits?

Presumably you mean it's supposed benefits - if we are going to be sceptical about everything.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
I suppose so.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
Perhaps they could try to get some money out of the West African and Arab countries, the ancestors of whose present inhabitants rounded up the slaves and sold them to the European traders.

Good luck with that.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
Perhaps they could try to get some money out of the West African and Arab countries, the ancestors of whose present inhabitants rounded up the slaves and sold them to the European traders.

Good luck with that.

So you think that poor countries in Africa should be expected to pay up, and the rich countries in Europe that demonstrably made a lot of money from plantations and the slave trade should just sit back and watch.

What Africans and Arabs did does not negate what Europeans did in the slightest. For all you know the next CARICOM priority will be your idea. But for now, starting with Europe given that they, you know, have money, makes a lot more sense.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
If slavery is a bad thing for the victim, does it matter whether the oppressor or oppressors made money out of it or how much? The act of oppression is the bad thing, isn't it?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
If slavery is a bad thing for the victim, does it matter whether the oppressor or oppressors made money out of it or how much? The act of oppression is the bad thing, isn't it?

At the very least it would give a rough measure of culpability. Return of stolen goods is usually considered the bare minimum required for justice in most cases not involving states. Plus it seems unjust for the oppressor to retain "all the wealth piled by the bondsman's . . . years of unrequited toil".
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
The Caricom countries might have had more credibility were it not for the shocking human rights record of most of them, lasting and delighted in even in the present day.

Which countries are you thinking of? The island nations have done far better than the Latin countries surrounding the Caribbean Sea; I'm wondering if you've mixed up who are the member countries.

This is the listing of member nations:
Antigua and Barbuda
Bahamas
Barbados
Belize
Dominica
Grenada
Guyana
Haiti
Jamaica
Montserrat
St Kitts & Nevis
Saint Lucia
St Vincent & Grenadines
Suriname
Trinidad and Tobago
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
If slavery is a bad thing for the victim, does it matter whether the oppressor or oppressors made money out of it or how much? The act of oppression is the bad thing, isn't it?

Large scale oppression usually occurs because someone has something to gain from it. The one who gains the most surely has the most to answer for; and it's been said that Africa lost far more than it gained in the Transatlantic slave trade.

However, it's untrue to say that coastal African nations have been let off the hook. They've often been heavily criticised by African Americans and African Caribbeans for their historical complicity in the Transatlantic trade. The relationship between these three groups can be quite tense as a result of that history. However, there have been some attempts towards rapprochement, and some apologies from the African side. There have been attempts to encourage members of the diaspora to 'come home' and help Africa. More could be done, no doubt.

I've noticed that 'repatriation' is one of the topics included in CARICOM's agenda. I don't know what exactly they mean by this, but it suggests that there is an African angle to the proceedings.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
I've noticed that 'repatriation' is one of the topics included in CARICOM's agenda. I don't know what exactly they mean by this, but it suggests that there is an African angle to the proceedings.

I came across it in another article - it's about the Rastafarians essentially. Apparently many of them have struggled to get citizenship in the African countries they believe to be their origin - Ghana in particular - and they want a means for slave descendants to get a route to citizenship so that they can move "back" to Africa.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
The first large British repatriation to Africa project was started in 1792. By the Church Missionary Society. Taken over officially by the government in 1808.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
But for now, starting with Europe given that they, you know, have money, makes a lot more sense.

You mean that the Arab states don't have money?!

Also, what money are you talking about from Europe? Money extracted from innocent taxpayers? Money earmarked for basic services, the lack of which will result in great hardship?

Or don't the needs of innocent Europeans matter in this equation?

Furthermore, if the money is ever paid (which, thank God, it won't be), then in whose pockets will it go? Let me guess now...

(Anyway, we are too busy pursuing our claim for damages from France and Italy for the brutality of the Norman Conquest and the Roman invasion respectively, so this will have to wait...)
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I suppose so.

Do you really need to suppose?
 
Posted by Liopleurodon (# 4836) on :
 
There is a massive difference between the effects of the transatlantic slave trade and the Norman conquest, and this should be obvious. The slave trade set up societies where one (visible) group was systematically privileged over a different (visible) group. The ramifications of this haven't ended yet - when you drop that kind of weight of racism into a society the ripples spread out for a very long time. Privilege begets privilege and it takes a great deal of work for it to be ironed out. The original slaves and masters are long gone, of course, but the effects of what happened are still felt in a way that other historical events aren't necessarily. A better comparison would be with Britain and former colonies - to this day many countries can trace problems back to European colonialism. We took over countries, we bled them dry, we left and now we blame them for being poor. I think it's both unwise and unjust to deny this.

That said, I'm not sure that financial reparations are the answer - or if they are, it would be very difficult to set this up in a sensible and fair way. People have tried to put into monetary terms what the cost of being born African American is, compared with being white, in terms of missed opportunities due to racism. It's a really difficult thing to put a value on. Largely this is because the effects which we're still feeling now are general trends based on average outcomes, but any kind of benefit would have to be on the individual level. So while it may be the case that A's ancestors screwed over B's ancestor's, in a way that causes lesser negative ramifications for B today, there is no way to make that up from A's purse without causing all manner of counterproductive resentment.

We're not responsible for what our ancestors did; we may be responsible for trying to dismantle any benefits that we still get now for what they did, but trying to institutionalise that is very difficult indeed.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
But for now, starting with Europe given that they, you know, have money, makes a lot more sense.

Also, what money are you talking about from Europe? Money extracted from innocent taxpayers? Money earmarked for basic services, the lack of which will result in great hardship?

Or don't the needs of innocent Europeans matter in this equation?

You are quite right re: the difficulties inherent to the process-- a logistical nightmare as one attempts to parse out what trans-generational justice looks like.

In the broadest terms, though, the point is that everyone in Europe (and America) has benefitted economically from the legacy of slavery, just as everyone in Africa has been harmed by it. So while we all may be "innocent" in the sense of not personally responsible for the tragic sins of our forefathers (and in many cases, not genetically related to those who committed those sins) we all have in essence been the recipients of "stolen goods". Our economies are built on the ruins of an unjust system.

But, as you suggest, parsing that out is going to be messy-- probably irretrievably so. It gets more complicated as one ponders, for example, contemporary African-Americans descendants of slaves who may be both the victims and beneficiaries of slavery for the reasons noted above. What does even rough justice look like there? How do you factor in the cost/benefit analysis of that-- as well as the cost/(no real benefit) of Jim Crow-- vs. the cost to an African?

Sin is messy. The answers are not simple.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
Let's be honest here: no one's going to get any 'reparations money'. It's all posturing. Western governments are happy to give aid, but it's pretty obvious by now that anything called 'reparations' is a no-no. I don't see any sign that this is likely to change.

It's an interesting topic for discussion, but I hope that CARICOM has a more realistic hidden political agenda behind the public one.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I was thinking that if one accepts that money is owed for the supposed misdeeds of colonialism, then shouldn't deductions be made for its benefits?

So, Germany is owed some money back because the Jews got a homeland out of the deal? Ooh, and even more because by reducing the population, they fit in it more easily.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I was thinking that if one accepts that money is owed for the supposed misdeeds of colonialism, then shouldn't deductions be made for its benefits?

So, Germany is owed some money back because the Jews got a homeland out of the deal? Ooh, and even more because by reducing the population, they fit in it more easily.
So far as I'm aware, Germany played no formal role in the establishment of the state of Israel. The Israelis did it.

[ 12. March 2014, 16:46: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
Let's be honest here: no one's going to get any 'reparations money'.

Exactly. And most people campaigning for reparations know that and don't expect it. It is a device to negotiate aid budgets, funding for projects, to make a point, to express anger at racism and many other things.

There are many reactions to such claims that might be helpful but derision isn't one of them.
 
Posted by deano (# 12063) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
Let's be honest here: no one's going to get any 'reparations money'.

Exactly. And most people campaigning for reparations know that and don't expect it. It is a device to negotiate aid budgets, funding for projects, to make a point, to express anger at racism and many other things.

There are many reactions to such claims that might be helpful but derision isn't one of them.

And yet it is a very popular one, arguably the majority reaction I would say.

Funny that. I wonder why that would be. Why would the overwhelming response to such demands be derision?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
So far as I'm aware, Germany played no formal role in the establishment of the state of Israel. The Israelis did it.

A bit disingenuous an argument perhaps? Do you honestly think Isreal would have been established when it was, and as easily, if the Holocaust had not happened?
Alright, perhaps that illustration does not work for you.

How about a child killer getting a reduced sentence because the victim's family were poor? Fewer children, easier to care for.
Ludicrous? Yes. As is the "benefit of colonialism" tripe.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by deano:
I wonder why that would be. Why would the overwhelming response to such demands be derision?

Tell me why it's an unhelpful reaction and I'll entertain you with my account of the motivations of those doing the deriding.

[ 12. March 2014, 17:11: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by deano:

Funny that. I wonder why that would be. Why would the overwhelming response to such demands be derision?

Ignorance, selfishness and defensiveness.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller
In the broadest terms, though, the point is that everyone in Europe (and America) has benefitted economically from the legacy of slavery, just as everyone in Africa has been harmed by it.

...everyone.... everyone...???

That simply is not true. There is immense wealth enjoyed by some in Africa, and the ancestors of millions in Europe were enslaved as wage slaves in the Industrial Revolution. Have you read about the conditions of urban slums in the nineteenth century? Hell on earth.

So presumably the descendants of those who endured this "hell on earth" are now economically suffering, and deserve compensation?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
So far as I'm aware, Germany played no formal role in the establishment of the state of Israel.

So this never happened?
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
Some people always get defensive when Transatlantic slavery is under discussion. Maybe they feel threatened by the subject, as if they themselves are being accused of being slave traders or owners. Maybe it's an unacknowledged sense of guilt about colonial history and its consequences. Maybe there's an anxiety about the increasing instability of previously accepted cultural and imperial norms.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Hell on earth.

Better than slavery though. Which was still going on in the nineteenth century.

But of course some in Africa did benefit from selling slaves. This was a minority though, and overall the continent has suffered economically from the loss of labour, and suffered psychologically much more with the bereavement of the disappeared and then the knowledge of what happened to them and all the associated implications of racial inferiority.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
There is immense wealth enjoyed by some in Africa, and the ancestors of millions in Europe were enslaved as wage slaves in the Industrial Revolution. Have you read about the conditions of urban slums in the nineteenth century? Hell on earth.


Noone is saying that Europeans didn't oppress each other in the slums of Europe. (Actually, though, the argument could be made that Transatlantic slavery made conditions for working class Europeans worse, in certain respects. The Marxists probably have some theories about that.)

BTW, how are you connecting the wealth of individuals in modern Africa and the Transatlantic slave trade? Are you saying that individual Africans are now wealthy as a result of that? It's an interesting thought. Do you have any refs?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Many of the currently wealthy families in Kenya obtained their advantage with an ancestor profiting at the expense of his/her (but mainly his) peers through collaboration with colonialism. That happened after slavery ended, of course, but I guess it's possible a similar dynamic exists from the days of slavery in West Africa.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
So far as I'm aware, Germany played no formal role in the establishment of the state of Israel.

So this never happened?
I'm not saying it didn't. But I don't see what that has got to do with the establishment of the state of Israel itself.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2
BTW, how are you connecting the wealth of individuals in modern Africa and the Transatlantic slave trade? Are you saying that individual Africans are now wealthy as a result of that? It's an interesting thought. Do you have any refs?

I'm not and I don't.

I was countering the idea that everyone in Africa has been harmed by the slave trade.

However, I believe it's true that some Africans cooperated with the Transatlantic Slave Trade and personally benefited from it. There's a site here about it. Whether that benefit has flowed down to their descendants is not for me to say, but if it hasn't then the same argument can be put for the benefit of the slave trade to us Europeans. What's good for the goose..., as they say.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Whether that benefit has flowed down to their descendants is not for me to say, but if it hasn't then the same argument can be put for the benefit of the slave trade to us Europeans. What's good for the goose..., as they say.

Same argument with the addition of continued colonialism for a long time after and the stripping of assets to this day.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Whether that benefit has flowed down to their descendants is not for me to say, but if it hasn't then the same argument can be put for the benefit of the slave trade to us Europeans. What's good for the goose..., as they say.

I don't think whether a relatively modest cash benefit that might flow across generations to a minority within a nation could at all be equated with an enormous plundering of wealth and labour by one nation on another. There are cities in the UK that were built on the proceeds of slavery. There will be some large houses in West Africa that were built on their share of the proceeds. The scale is different.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon
I don't think whether a relatively modest cash benefit that might flow across generations to a minority within a nation could at all be equated with an enormous plundering of wealth and labour by one nation on another. There are cities in the UK that were built on the proceeds of slavery. There will be some large houses in West Africa that were built on their share of the proceeds. The scale is different.

Well, you seem to know a lot about the benefit to local slave traders in Africa, hence the phrase "relatively modest cash benefit". Do you actually know what that benefit would have been? For all you know, the slave trade could have aggrandised certain ethnic groups to the detriment of others, with appalling consequences right down to the present day.

As for the benefit to the UK, well it is undoubtedly true that certain cities grew and prospered because of the slave trade, but it doesn't follow that that prosperity was distributed equitably. In fact, it could be argued that such wealth actually created poverty for millions by strengthening the hand of elites, able to influence social policy.

But now the descendants of those who were impoverished are expected to pay up.

Would anybody here, arguing in favour of reparations, wish to starve and be made homeless in order to finance the vast compensation being demanded?

[ 12. March 2014, 18:23: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Mr Beamish (# 17991) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
Perhaps they could try to get some money out of the West African and Arab countries, the ancestors of whose present inhabitants rounded up the slaves and sold them to the European traders.

Good luck with that.

Whilst we're at it, I think there are quite a few countries that will be demanding compensation from Italy for their slave-taking ways... in the decades leading up to 1 AD, at least.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:


I was countering the idea that everyone in Africa has been harmed by the slave trade.


The issue is one of societal impacts, not of individuals. Equally, the Transatlantic slave trade has had long-term malign consequences for black people and even for white people - not in terms of the odd individual here and there, but in terms of the wider society.

Of course individual Africans benefited from the slave trade - it was a trade! There are buyers and sellers. A slick seller with a ready supply and an eager market will always do well, whether he's selling people or widgets. No one can deny that.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Whilst we're at it, I think there are quite a few countries that will be demanding compensation from Italy for their slave-taking ways... in the decades leading up to 1 AD, at least.

Except that it's not at all clear that modern Italy is the successor state of the Roman Empire. That's a distinction not at work when discussing, for example, France*. Today's Fifth Republic maintains (and is largely recognized by others) as the legitimate successor of earlier French regimes, including the ones that (as discussed earlier) established the slave colony of Saint-Domingue and extorted the Haitian indemnity. If "continuity of government" works as an explanation for why the current French government holds sovereignty over Martinique (for example) and could legitimately keep extracting the Haitian indemnity until 1947, then consistency requires it applies in other less convenient areas as well.


--------------------
*Feel free to insert your own favorite former colonial power with a still-extant successor government, if you prefer.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
You mean one might be owed 100 billion USD to recompense the wrongs of slavery, but have to give 1 billion back for maintaining the death penalty for longer than Europe and another few billion for promoting homophobia?

I was thinking that if one accepts that money is owed for the supposed misdeeds of colonialism, then shouldn't deductions be made for its benefits?

Caribbean countries were presumably free to abolish the death penalty and decriminialise homosexual acts at any time after indepedence? (In fact, I think bust ups over the death penalty is one of the reasons why former British colonies no longer want to send appeal cases to the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in London.)

The JCPC's reticence over hanging is a large factor in its unpopularity in CARICOM. To which end the JCPC has decided to sit in the Caribbean from time to time, to increase its 'cred' as it were.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Whilst we're at it, I think there are quite a few countries that will be demanding compensation from Italy for their slave-taking ways... in the decades leading up to 1 AD, at least.

I find this a curious argument. It suggests that the Transatlantic slave trade caused no lasting harm. It also ignores the fact that we're only talking about a few generations. Yet in the case of the USA, there were people still alive in the mid-20th century who were actually born into American slavery. The last transported slave apparently died there in the 1930s!

The British Slavery Abolition act was passed in 1833; forced apprenticeships were abolished at the end of the decade. So there would have been people alive in the 20th c. who had experienced or witnessed it.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
There are cities in the UK that were built on the proceeds of slavery. There will be some large houses in West Africa that were built on their share of the proceeds. The scale is different.

The scale is different, but not as different as you suggest. We're not talking about a handful of traders in West Africa who grew personally wealthy and lived in fortified splendour from their collaboration with the wicked colonial slavers. A number of substantial kingdoms in West Africa flourished for centuries with slaving as a primary enterprise before, during and after the period of the Atlantic slave trade. They certainly sold as many slaves to North Africa and the Gulf (and for a far longer period of time) as they did to the Europeans, and sold rather more than that to each other.

The number of African slaves transported across the Middle Passage is broadly comparable to the number of European slaves taken by the Ottoman Empire and other North African traders, mainly from what is now Algeria.

But I'm puzzled by this:

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Exactly. And most people campaigning for reparations know that and don't expect it. It is a device to negotiate aid budgets, funding for projects, to make a point, to express anger at racism and many other things.

There are many reactions to such claims that might be helpful but derision isn't one of them.

I accept what you say. But I don't understand the logic of it. Isn't it insincere (at least) for these people to campaign for reparations if they know that it is simply not feasible that they will ever be paid? If they already appreciate that the practical objections are overwhelming and insuperable, even if a plausible case could be made out for modern countries to pay compensation for something that was done centuries ago, then what are they really asking for? Do the people in whose name they are claiming reparations know that they don't really mean it?

If what they really hope to achieve is something else (presumably something more tangible than expressions of sorrow) isn't it counterproductive to have begun by demonstrating such a capacity for insincerity?
 
Posted by Mr Beamish (# 17991) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Whilst we're at it, I think there are quite a few countries that will be demanding compensation from Italy for their slave-taking ways... in the decades leading up to 1 AD, at least.

I find this a curious argument. It suggests that the Transatlantic slave trade caused no lasting harm. It also ignores the fact that we're only talking about a few generations. Yet in the case of the USA, there were people still alive in the mid-20th century who were actually born into American slavery. The last transported slave apparently died there in the 1930s!

The British Slavery Abolition act was passed in 1833; forced apprenticeships were abolished at the end of the decade. So there would have been people alive in the 20th c. who had experienced or witnessed it.

Mmm, that's a fair enough point. But surely it suggests the counterpart: is there anyone alive guilty of the crime of perpetrating the Atlantic Slave Trade? And if so, are they specifically being charged?

Edit: Croesus also makes a fair point, although it does reinforce the notion that as time passes and culture shifts, a given geographical area or set of cultures disassociates from those societies that have gone before. The point, I suppose, being, where is the cut-off point for reparations? Is there a quantifiable or qualifiable upper limit of time, or procedure by which we can ascertain that a culture has moved on sufficiently? The examples of France and Rome are probably at opposite ends of any such scale. Where is the UK?

[ 12. March 2014, 19:27: Message edited by: Mr Beamish ]
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
If what they really hope to achieve is something else (presumably something more tangible than expressions of sorrow) isn't it counterproductive to have begun by demonstrating such a capacity for insincerity?

Isn't that the way all kinds of negotiations are done? I have never engaged in barter or any other negotiation where the goods in question do not have a set price, but I gather that the seller asks for significantly more than they think they can probably get, and the buyer suggests a price notably too low. Are they dishonest too?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Is there a quantifiable or qualifiable upper limit of time, or procedure by which we can ascertain that a culture has moved on sufficiently? The examples of France and Rome are probably at opposite ends of any such scale. Where is the UK?

Questions of "culture" are a bit squishy. Questions of statehood and sovereignty are less so, though still not absolute. (This thread is theoretically about reparations between nations, not individuals.) For the U.K. specifically, given the government's very strong feelings that an arrangement established in the eighteenth century was still fully applicable in the twentieth, the upper limit seems to be "at least two centuries".
 
Posted by Stetson (# 9597) on :
 
quote:
If what they really hope to achieve is something else (presumably something more tangible than expressions of sorrow) isn't it counterproductive to have begun by demonstrating such a capacity for insincerity?
Actually, Charles Krauthammer, an right-winger, penned an essay sincerely arguing for slavery reparations in 1990, even laying out how it could be financed.

Of course, being a right-winger, I think his long-term agenda was getting rid of things like Affirmative Action, which would supposedly become unneccessry after people had been compensated for the economic shackles imposed by slavery. Nevertheless, Krauthammer does seem to have been quite serious, not just "asking for the moon" in order to make a point.

[ 12. March 2014, 19:53: Message edited by: Stetson ]
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
Isn't that the way all kinds of negotiations are done? I have never engaged in barter or any other negotiation where the goods in question do not have a set price, but I gather that the seller asks for significantly more than they think they can probably get, and the buyer suggests a price notably too low. Are they dishonest too?

I called them insincere rather than dishonest. Although they don't believe the reparations they are claiming are ever going to be paid, they presumably hope to be entrusted with a lot of money and allowed to administer it for the benefit of millions of other people. Does it strengthen their case for being entrusted with that responsibility if the main thing we know about them so far is that what they say is not necessarily what they mean?
 
Posted by Mr Beamish (# 17991) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Is there a quantifiable or qualifiable upper limit of time, or procedure by which we can ascertain that a culture has moved on sufficiently? The examples of France and Rome are probably at opposite ends of any such scale. Where is the UK?

Questions of "culture" are a bit squishy. Questions of statehood and sovereignty are less so, though still not absolute. (This thread is theoretically about reparations between nations, not individuals.) For the U.K. specifically, given the government's very strong feelings that an arrangement established in the eighteenth century was still fully applicable in the twentieth, the upper limit seems to be "at least two centuries".
Mm, well that leaves us with two (well, possibly more, but two leap into my mind) possibilities. Either the request for reparations should be granted, or we should return the Falklands.

I get the impression that neither is considered especially likely.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
What 'arrangements' are we talking about here, specifically? The Falklands War had nothing to do with slavery.

[ 12. March 2014, 20:01: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
What 'arrangements' are we talking about here, specifically? The Falklands War had nothing to do with slavery.

The arrangement of UK territorial sovereignty over that particular patch of dirt. And yes, it has nothing to do with slavery specifically, it's just an example to illustrate that states will usually consider themselves to be the same entities as states that existed several centuries ago. In this case that "the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland" that exists today is the same entity as "the United Kingdom of Great Britain" that first established a settlement on the Falklands in the eighteenth century, despite the fact that none of the citizens alive then are alive today. (The U.K. was specifically asked after by Mr Beamish, which is why I used the example I did.)

quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Mm, well that leaves us with two (well, possibly more, but two leap into my mind) possibilities. Either the request for reparations should be granted, or we should return the Falklands.

Not necessarily. The other variable at play is that states will usually draw distinctions between actions by the state and actions undertaken by its citizens on their own initiative. States will often (and rightly) be held accountable for the former (e.g. charters establishing slave colonies) but typically not the latter (e.g. slave raids undertaken by private citizens).
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Mr Beamish:
Is there a quantifiable or qualifiable upper limit of time, or procedure by which we can ascertain that a culture has moved on sufficiently? The examples of France and Rome are probably at opposite ends of any such scale. Where is the UK?

Questions of "culture" are a bit squishy. Questions of statehood and sovereignty are less so, though still not absolute.
I don't think it's possible to ignore culture, in the sense of culture creating society. The argument for reparations in the Caribbean (and African American) context is frequently predicated upon the cultural and consequently the societal damage that Transatlantic slavery caused.

Transportation followed by the brutalities of the plantation system resulted in the loss of languages, religions and societal structures. It deprived disparate peoples of a knowledge of their history and hence of a sense of identity, thus creating what Bob Marley called 'mental slavery'. Enforced family break-up and fragility served the purposes of Transatlantic slave societies, and left a damaging legacy thereafter because strong families aren't created by magic or by diktat but via the guidance and example of previous generations.

Moreoever, it's been claimed that the Transatlantic slave trade created - or at least contributed to - anti-black racism (structural, personal and global) as we've understood it ever since.

The question as to when all these problems will disappear and we can all stop talking about reparations (in their spiritual and moral dimensions as well as their financial ones) is an understandable one. I suggest that since we're nowhere near that point of healing it's not going to be any time soon. I.e. there's a lot of work to do.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
Is there something to simply being wealthy and having the ability to pay? The African and Arab entities don't have the money. European countries do.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
Arab countries don't have the money?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
The scale is different, but not as different as you suggest. We're not talking about a handful of traders in West Africa who grew personally wealthy and lived in fortified splendour from their collaboration with the wicked colonial slavers.

The Average citizen of the UK, France or America benefited more than the average citizen of those African countries.

quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:

The number of African slaves transported across the Middle Passage is broadly comparable to the number of European slaves taken by the Ottoman Empire and other North African traders, mainly from what is now Algeria.

Numbers are far from the only consideration.
White European descendants of slaves are hardly faced with the same issues as the descendants of African slaves. It is because the problems continue that the issue is still raised.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Arab countries don't have the money?

Some do, but they are set up mostly to enrich a small group of elites and screw the rest of the population. It's hard to hold Saudi Arabia responsible. Can slavery to the Caribbean be traced to them, or Algeria, Libya, Nigeria. Or maybe some chocolate or diamond money? Same as the countries that are targetted for reparations, except at a larger scale. Screwy also is the cabal between the elites all countries.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Arab countries don't have the money?

Some do, but they are set up mostly to enrich a small group of elites and screw the rest of the population. It's hard to hold Saudi Arabia responsible. Can slavery to the Caribbean be traced to them, or Algeria, Libya, Nigeria. Or maybe some chocolate or diamond money? Same as the countries that are targetted for reparations, except at a larger scale. Screwy also is the cabal between the elites all countries.
I don't get this logic. So Britain (for example) should get saddled with a bill because it's a parliamentary democracy but other supposedly culpable nations get off because they're totalitarian states?
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I don't get this logic. So Britain (for example) should get saddled with a bill because it's a parliamentary democracy but other supposedly culpable nations get off because they're totalitarian states?

Not quite - and that post you were responding to takes us down a bit of a rat-hole in my opinion. It mostly comes down to this:

"Questions of statehood and sovereignty are less so, though still not absolute."

There are important ways in which the British state of today is a continuation of the state which pre abolition profited from slavery whereas Saudi Arabia under the Al-Sauds isn't.

We already recognise this on many levels - including financially - in terms of various debt instruments for example.

[N.B. In fact the financial markets are generally very much in favour of states seeing themselves as a continuation of previous states and taking on the obligations of previous regimes - so much so that there is a entire segment of the industry dedicated to this process]

[ 12. March 2014, 22:36: Message edited by: chris stiles ]
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So presumably the descendants of those who endured this "hell on earth" are now economically suffering, and deserve compensation? [/QB]

Sounds good, when did you become a socialist [Smile]

Other threads aside, however there has been some leakage here, and shifted that the affect is much more diluted.
Once we started getting a decent wage and employee rights we still had the ships.
And the people who'd made money of various forms of stuff were (are) still spending it here, and not pissing in their back yard quite as much.
The trickle down theory isn't total nonsense, it just is countered by various trickle ups that apply abroad.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Arab countries don't have the money?

Some do, but they are set up mostly to enrich a small group of elites and screw the rest of the population. It's hard to hold Saudi Arabia responsible. Can slavery to the Caribbean be traced to them, or Algeria, Libya, Nigeria.
The Transatlantic slave trade and the Arab (i.e. North African) slave trade are two different trades, so the Arabs weren't 'responsible' for the European trade in black Africans to the Americas. The Arabs traded black Africans (in huge numbers) from East Africa, and the Europeans from West Africa. However, some say that southern Europeans first became accustomed to black slavery due to seeing it practiced by Arabs around the Mediterranean and in the Middle East. As we know, the Portuguese and the Spaniards got involved in the business first, then other Europeans followed.

I've read that at one point, Arab slavers and black middlemen serving the Transatlantic trade started to meet in the middle of the continent. What this means is that the demand for slaves was so high from both sides that the coastal areas had become depopulated. This required slavers to go further and further inland to find the slaves the market required. This really brings home the devastation that was being wreaked in Africa.

Yet the reason why we hear few demands for 'reparations' from the descendants of the Arab trade in slaves is because it didn't give rise to black communities, languages and cultures. The women were used mostly for sexual and domestic services, and the men either became eunuchs or soldiers. Babies born to the female sex workers were frequently put to death, or else they simply merged into the surrounding society. The slave plantations of the New World, in contrast, housed male and female slaves together, and the owners often encouraged them to 'breed' with each other.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller
In the broadest terms, though, the point is that everyone in Europe (and America) has benefitted economically from the legacy of slavery, just as everyone in Africa has been harmed by it.

...everyone.... everyone...???

That simply is not true. There is immense wealth enjoyed by some in Africa, and the ancestors of millions in Europe were enslaved as wage slaves in the Industrial Revolution. Have you read about the conditions of urban slums in the nineteenth century? Hell on earth.

So presumably the descendants of those who endured this "hell on earth" are now economically suffering, and deserve compensation?

You snipped off the line where I explained that. I'm talking about the economies as a whole that those individuals are living in. That the European and American economies are built on "stolen goods" and the African economy is similarly impacted the loss of those stolen goods. In the part you snipped I specifically pointed out that that is true even though often the people you are talking about are not the genetic descendants of the perpetrators, and in some cases stand on both sides-- i.e. African Americans.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by deano:
Why would the overwhelming response to such demands be derision?

Because they represent a piece of transparently unrealistic, opportunistic, moralistic grandstanding which the participating governments hope will distract their people's attention from a lack of genuine, helpful but boring and difficult policies for progress?

My ancestors came from Wales, so excuse me now while I go off and prepare a submission which will call on the British parliament to vote compensation to all people of Welsh descent because our forebears suffered under Edward I and Henry IV.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I'm talking about the economies as a whole that those individuals are living in. That the European and American economies are built on "stolen goods" and the African economy is similarly impacted the loss of those stolen goods.

So is your case that present day Caribbean and/or African economies are worse off than they would have been had Europeans never set foot in those places?

Because if you're not, you're just cherry-picking the evil stuff, and I have a claim about the damage suffered by my family as a result of industrialization in the Victorian era...
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I'm talking about the economies as a whole that those individuals are living in. That the European and American economies are built on "stolen goods" and the African economy is similarly impacted the loss of those stolen goods.

So is your case that present day Caribbean and/or African economies are worse off than they would have been had Europeans never set foot in those places?

Because if you're not, you're just cherry-picking the evil stuff, and I have a claim about the damage suffered by my family as a result of industrialization in the Victorian era...

Again, the part that was quoted (and then I responded to) is really taken out of a broader and much more nuanced context. I'm not in any position to make the kind of determination you're asking, nor was I attempting to in my post which had (before it snipped) acknowledged many of the complexities of trans-generational reparations, which of course include the very point you're making. That got clipped by the respondent, making my point look different than what it actually was.

My point was simply that there were economic benefits to slavery that continue to accrue to Western nations, and economic liabilities that continue to be impact African nations. Everyone living in those countries, then, experiences to some degree that legacy of costs & benefits, even though many of those people are not descendants of the original slaves or slaveowners, and (as I mentioned before) some lie on both sides of the equation (e.g. some African Americans who are both the descendants of slaves and living in Western economies).

As I mentioned in my post, obviously there are all sorts of other factors at play. Which is why this question is so complicated-- hence the debate.

[ 13. March 2014, 03:56: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
My ancestors came from Wales, so excuse me now while I go off and prepare a submission which will call on the British parliament to vote compensation to all people of Welsh descent because our forebears suffered under Edward I and Henry IV.

Well, the current discussion is about reparations between nation-states, not private individuals (check out the thread title), so maybe the British head-of-state can work something out with whoever holds the equivalent post for Wales.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
I called them insincere rather than dishonest. Although they don't believe the reparations they are claiming are ever going to be paid, they presumably hope to be entrusted with a lot of money and allowed to administer it for the benefit of millions of other people. Does it strengthen their case for being entrusted with that responsibility if the main thing we know about them so far is that what they say is not necessarily what they mean?

There are probably a mix of motives and I can't of course speak for them all. Many people are angry though. Angry about the colossal scale of a historic racist injustice, about the degree of denial among the present day beneficiaries of an exponential increase in wealth from the days of slavery, and angry about the ongoing inequality that continues to the present.

It is perfectly logical to demand a redress, even if in one's heart one knows it won't be given. It is not that people make a claim for reparations that they know is really an unjust but a useful bargaining position, they believe the claim to be completely just, but know practically it is very unlikely to come about. But nevertheless is an expression of how they see the situation and might be a route to something useful coming about.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
My ancestors came from Wales, so excuse me now while I go off and prepare a submission which will call on the British parliament to vote compensation to all people of Welsh descent because our forebears suffered under Edward I and Henry IV.

But surely no-one would really think that the current discontent and ongoing sense of hurt that Africans and black people feel over the recent past of slavery and its current legacy is equivalent to what Welsh descendents might feel over Edward I?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:

My ancestors came from Wales, so excuse me now while I go off and prepare a submission which will call on the British parliament to vote compensation to all people of Welsh descent because our forebears suffered under Edward I and Henry IV.

Unless you tell someone, they would never know. That's one difference.
And you are an American, yes? Most Americans don't know where Wales is* much less continue the injustice. Not the same for Black people.

*Not an Anti-American slur, just a statement of reality.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by deano:
Why would the overwhelming response to such demands be derision?

Because they represent a piece of transparently unrealistic, opportunistic, moralistic grandstanding which the participating governments hope will distract their people's attention from a lack of genuine, helpful but boring and difficult policies for progress?

My ancestors came from Wales, so excuse me now while I go off and prepare a submission which will call on the British parliament to vote compensation to all people of Welsh descent because our forebears suffered under Edward I and Henry IV.

I didn't realize you were such an expert on the governments of the CARICOM countries and their motivations here.

The attitude that underlies this comment is part of the reason they are asking for reparations in the first place. Whenever Africans and Afro-descendants dare say that slavery and colonialism had a negative impact on us, the immediate reaction from the countries that perpetrated these things is "Oh get over it, give it a rest."

Germany has an ongoing reparations program for the Holocaust, and pays gay people, Roma, Jewish people, and other affected groups. Does hearing that make you compare such a situation to Wales under Edward I? Or is it only ridiculous when Caribbeans and Africans ask for something similar?


NY Times - 60th Year of German Reparations

[ 13. March 2014, 06:23: Message edited by: seekingsister ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I didn't realize you were such an expert on the governments of the CARICOM countries and their motivations here.

Out of interest, are you?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
The attitude that underlies this comment is part of the reason they are asking for reparations in the first place. Whenever Africans and Afro-descendants dare say that slavery and colonialism had a negative impact on us, the immediate reaction from the countries that perpetrated these things is "Oh get over it, give it a rest."

So African nations are saying that? And Arab nations?

Because they perpetrated the slave trade as much as the "nasty evil eternally racist" European nations (which are actually now multi-racial anyway).
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I didn't realize you were such an expert on the governments of the CARICOM countries and their motivations here.

Out of interest, are you?
Certainly not, but I haven't made any comments regarding their motivations here.

If someone is going to accuse the Caribbean governments of "transparently unrealistic, opportunistic, moralistic grandstanding" then I expect them to have a reason for doing so.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So African nations are saying that? And Arab nations?

Because they perpetrated the slave trade as much as the "nasty evil eternally racist" European nations (which are actually now multi-racial anyway).

The current nations in West Africa, where many of the slaves originated, did not exist in the time of the slave trade.

If you wish to hold the government of, say, Ghana, which is a nation state that was created out of a British colony, there's still a straight line back to Britain. It didn't exist prior to British colonial rule.

I suppose someone could make a claim against an indigenous community or ethnic group directly. But the governments - sorry that just doesn't make any sense in the slightest.

The obsession with African traders and their role in slavery again reads as an indication of a very nasty view on African people. As if, if we weren't so greedy as to sell off our fellow people, none of this would have happened.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
Certainly not, but I haven't made any comments regarding their motivations here.

I may have misunderstood you, but weren't you commenting on motivation when you wrote this?

quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
The attitude that underlies this comment is part of the reason they are asking for reparations in the first place. Whenever Africans and Afro-descendants dare say that slavery and colonialism had a negative impact on us, the immediate reaction from the countries that perpetrated these things is "Oh get over it, give it a rest."


 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
And as a BTW, to reiterate about Svitlana made earlier, within the black community the role of Africans in the slave trade is a major issue of contention. In fact when I was in university, there was an all-out shouting match at a black student event because an African-American accused African immigrant students of benefitting from the blood shed by the former slaves, as they now come to a US that is more racially tolerant.

If anyone outside of this community thinks they are being clever by raising the point, trust me you are far behind the dialogue that happens in our community groups and family dinners.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
.... Yet the reason why we hear few demands for 'reparations' from the descendants of the Arab trade in slaves is because it didn't give rise to black communities, languages and cultures. The women were used mostly for sexual and domestic services, and the men either became eunuchs or soldiers. Babies born to the female sex workers were frequently put to death, or else they simply merged into the surrounding society. The slave plantations of the New World, in contrast, housed male and female slaves together, and the owners often encouraged them to 'breed' with each other.

I've from time to time speculated about this. As far as I know there aren't significant black or partially black communities of people descended from slaves in the Gulf or anywhere else in the Middle East, where one might expect to find them. One explanation I've heard is that there wasn't an Indian Ocean middle passage and a lot of their slaves ended up working on plantations run by Arabs on the East African coast.

Svetlana, if your explanation is right, are you suggesting this means that the Arab slavers were better or worse than Transatlantic ones? Being castrated as an adult isn't something I'd like to experience. It also carries quite a high risk of killing the asset. But then, I'm a bloke.

[ 13. March 2014, 08:51: Message edited by: Enoch ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
The obsession with African traders and their role in slavery again reads as an indication of a very nasty view on African people.

That accusation is appalling and I consider it libellous. If this was the hell board I would say something else about it.

You know nothing about me and my long involvement with Africa, including having a considerable knowledge of an African language and having been involved with an African translation project. I could dig up something from that language to demonstrate something about the indigenous slave trade of what is now Uganda, but I doubt it would make much difference.

You really ought to apologise.

Up to you.

It's patently obvious that this whole reparations nonsense is just yet another cynical act of opportunism to perpetuate the myth of "white people hate black people", and the sheer injustice of ignoring the role of Africans and Arabs in this heinous trade supports this interpretation. If we are going to have justice, then it demands that the guilt of all parties is considered. Selective justice is not justice. But, of course, if we are not selective, then we can't play the race card, can we? Which is really what this is all about!
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
Yet the reason why we hear few demands for 'reparations' from the descendants of the Arab trade in slaves is because it didn't give rise to black communities, languages and cultures. The women were used mostly for sexual and domestic services, and the men either became eunuchs or soldiers. Babies born to the female sex workers were frequently put to death, or else they simply merged into the surrounding society. The slave plantations of the New World, in contrast, housed male and female slaves together, and the owners often encouraged them to 'breed' with each other.

This is the only difference, I think, between the two wrongs. Arab slaving was certainly no less ruthless and brutal than the Atlantic slave trade (on the contrary, I think). And Arab slaving lasted far longer and had many times more victims. But (in part because it was SO ruthless and brutal) it hasn't left potential claimants. For that you need there to be identifiable groups who can claim some connection to those who were originally taken into slavery and who can make out an argument that their current relative poverty is (at least to some unquantifiable degree) attributable to what happened to their ancestors centuries ago.

That's when it gets difficult of course. There are so many questions. Who is entitled to redress, why, how much, who is liable to pay it? In 1946 it was (relatively) easy to answer those questions in relation to the Holocaust. Not so now, in relation to wrongs committed two or three hundred years in the past (though the Haiti example may bridge the gap).
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
That accusation is appalling and I consider it libellous. If this was the hell board I would say something else about it.

You know nothing about me and my long involvement with Africa, including having a considerable knowledge of an African language and having been involved with an African translation project. I could dig up something from that language to demonstrate something about the indigenous slave trade of what is now Uganda, but I doubt it would make much difference.

You really ought to apologise.

Up to you.


You have said that you think African and Arab traders (I don't even get what the Arabs have to do with the Caribbean, but anyway) are, in your own words, as culpable as Britain, France, the United States, and other wealthy, supposedly enlightened nations who built cities and palaces off the backs of slave labor.

Given that statement, I cannot apologize. Your perspective is very offensive.

No one would ever dare suggest that a German who gave up a Jewish neighbor to the Nazis out of fear for their families, was as culpable as the Nazis who put those neighbors into the gas chamber.

Why these African traders - who by the way no one who ever brings this up knows the faintest thing about - need to be brought up as being as responsible as the freaking Earl of whoever whose second country home in Somerset was built from his sugar earnings in Jamaica - I honestly cannot understand.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
Why these African traders - who by the way no one who ever brings this up knows the faintest thing about - need to be brought up as being as responsible as the freaking Earl of whoever whose second country home in Somerset was built from his sugar earnings in Jamaica - I honestly cannot understand.

Then seek reparations from "the freaking Earl of whoever" then, if he's the one at fault!!

But no, millions of totally innocent Europeans are to be bled dry, because apparently they are guilty, even though they are not!

To say that I have a nasty view of Africans is just an incredibly ignorant thing to say.

I remember when I was in Ghana and my host took me to visit a prison where slaves were held before being shipped. It was truly appalling. But not once did I detect from my Ghanaian host any accusation against me or my country - or any other European country. It was just a sad aspect of history, and we all recognised that. Every country has blood on its hands, and we generally don't go round with a chip on our shoulders towards later generations. It's like those who think that the current generation of, say, young people in Germany are somehow secret Nazis. It's a completely different country now, and it is a very misguided person indeed who imposes a country's historical evil on later innocent generations.

By the way... have you ever been to Africa?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
No one would ever dare suggest that a German who gave up a Jewish neighbor to the Nazis out of fear for their families, was as culpable as the Nazis who put those neighbors into the gas chamber.

Perhaps not, but for that equivalence to work you have to argue that any African traders were doing their trading out of fear, not for the sake of profit. Is that what you're claiming? In effect, that 'trader' isn't even the correct term?

If selling human beings is a bad thing, then it's worth remembering that a transaction requires a seller as well as a buyer. Anyone who didn't actually capture a slave themselves purchased that slave from someone. Without going into the vexed question of which nation-states of the 21st century are capable of being traced back to the wrongdoings of previous centuries, in terms of individuals I can't see any inherent reason why an African who sells Africans is in a morally better position than a Caucasian who sells Africans, unless the sale is done under some kind of duress. So what duress are you claiming they were all under?

[ 13. March 2014, 09:37: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Then seek reparations from "the freaking Earl of whoever" then, if he's the one at fault!![/i]

I hope they will. But the city of Liverpool was basically built from the slave trade, so it wasn't just individuals who profited. The states also benefitted directly.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But no, millions of totally innocent Europeans are to be bled dry, because apparently they are guilty, even though they are not!

This is the problem I raised in my first post on this thread. If you can't separate "financially and morally responsible" from "all Europeans are racists" then that's a personal problem. No one is accusing current European individuals of anything.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I remember when I was in Ghana and my host took me to visit a prison where slaves were held before being shipped. It was truly appalling. But not once did I detect from my Ghanaian host any accusation against me or my country - or any other European country. It was just a sad aspect of history, and we all recognised that. Every country has blood on its hands, and we generally don't go round with a chip on our shoulders towards later generations. It's like those who think that the current generation of, say, young people in Germany are somehow secret Nazis. It's a completely different country now, and it is a very misguided person indeed who imposes a country's historical evil on later innocent generations.

By the way... have you ever been to Africa?

Half my family lives in Africa, I have citizenship of an African country, and I was last on the continent in January.

I've also been to the Cape Coast and presume you are talking about Elmina Castle. Maybe you had a different tour than I did, because when I went they did a short skit in which Europeans left bottles of liquor around, the Ghanaians got drunk off of it, and then were kidnapped into slavery - which struck me as being wildly inaccurate. Shortly afterwards the tour guide told us a room we were standing in was where the Europeans, inflamed with lust for our African sisters, repeatedly raped them. There was a family with a white husband/black wife and children, I felt extremely uncomfortable for them.

It was a complicated situation and many people have blame, but it's appalling to argue that the Africans who sold rival ethnic groups or prisoners of war to Europeans

A) are equally responsible for everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to and;

B) could have possibly imagined what the people they sold were going to endure
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
It was a complicated situation and many people have blame, but it's appalling to argue that the Africans who sold rival ethnic groups or prisoners of war to Europeans

A) are equally responsible for everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to and;

B) could have possibly imagined what the people they sold were going to endure

I will accept point A to some extent (ie responsibility would not be equal), but again I'm going to challenge you to back up point B and ask for the basis of it.

Why couldn't they have imagined it? Are you suggesting that they didn't know what 'slavery' was when actually selling slaves? Are you suggesting that slaves in Africa were actually treated quite nicely and no-one had much of a problem with being a slave? How is any of that consistent with the usual means of acquiring slaves, by force?

[ 13. March 2014, 09:45: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
African and Arab traders (I don't even get what the Arabs have to do with the Caribbean,


Why these African traders

You obviously know very little about this subject.

Do you seriously imagine that the European slave traders went scouring the African interior (where no-one had ever heard of slavery before they arrived)and collected the slaves for themselves?
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
It's like those who think that the current generation of, say, young people in Germany are somehow secret Nazis. It's a completely different country now, and it is a very misguided person indeed who imposes a country's historical evil on later innocent generations.

The line hasn't been that they are secret Nazis but that they indirectly benefited in some way from the actions of the Nazi regime. That's the line of thought behind such actions as this:
Reparations between Israel and West Germany, Further claims in 2009

[Edited to fix scroll lock -Gwai]

[ 13. March 2014, 12:22: Message edited by: Gwai ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
These new claims appear to relate to Holocaust survivors. There's no equivalent when it comes to slavery.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I didn't realize you were such an expert on the governments of the CARICOM countries and their motivations here.


I just wasn't born yesterday.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
These new claims appear to relate to Holocaust survivors. There's no equivalent when it comes to slavery.

The descendants of victims of the Turkish genocide against the Armenians got $20m in a lawsuit against insurance companies in 2004, nearly 100 years after they were killed.

LA Times

There is a precedent of compensating descendants.

However CARICOM is asking for a suite of development programs to be funded out of the money pursued, not for individual cash payments for slave descendants.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
How about this for a deal: we'll pay reparations if they will formally agree that that's the end of the matter, that any debt - real or percieved - is paid in full, and to bloody well shut up about the whole thing from now on.

It would be expensive, but if it would put a stop to the endless cycle of assertions that Europeans are directly responsible for every bad thing that has ever happened anywhere else in the world then it would almost be worth paying up.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
These new claims appear to relate to Holocaust survivors. There's no equivalent when it comes to slavery.

I think what this touches on is that there are difficulties not just with arguing that a national government represents the perpetrators of a wrong, there are even greater difficulties with arguing that a national government actually represents the victims.

I know that Israel tends to take the position that all Jews 'belong' to them, but it makes no sense to me that the Israeli government should get a discount on a German product, as if it's doing that on behalf of Holocaust survivors. What about the Holocaust survivors that live in other countries?

Similarly, even if the United Kingdom government is a natural successor to previous governments that endorsed and encourage slavery, it's far from clear that the governments of Caribbean countries are the natural successors of individuals and families that suffered, or are even still suffering, as a result of slavery.

I would think that Haiti and France is a different case because, as people have pointed out, it was the nation of Haiti that suffered some specific consequences, as a nation not as individuals that live on Haiti.

Assuming for the sake of argument that it can still be demonstrated that individuals in a Caribbean nation, even a large proportion of individuals in a given nation, suffered from slavery, it doesn't follow in my opinion that the nation as a whole is best placed to get compensation for those wrongs. Why should white Caribbeans benefit?

I'm inherently suspicious about equating ANY nation with its predominant racial group as if the two are interchangeable. (Hence, to bring it back to Israel again, my frustration with treating any criticism of the Israeli government as 'anti-Jewish').
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
These new claims appear to relate to Holocaust survivors. There's no equivalent when it comes to slavery.

The descendants of victims of the Turkish genocide against the Armenians got $20m in a lawsuit against insurance companies in 2004, nearly 100 years after they were killed.

LA Times

There is a precedent of compensating descendants.

However CARICOM is asking for a suite of development programs to be funded out of the money pursued, not for individual cash payments for slave descendants.

And while I was composing my last post, you've pretty much hit on the same point. Compensating descendants I'm fine with, assuming the evidentiary issues are sorted as to who is entitled. Paying governments as if they are descendants, I see as problematic.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I didn't realize you were such an expert on the governments of the CARICOM countries and their motivations here.


I just wasn't born yesterday.
Neither was I.

If you actually read anything related to the story you'd know that the Prime Minister of St Vincent and the Grenadines, which is one of the smaller and poorer Caribbean nations, is the one who has led the charge on reparations for several years. I know a bit about this country (and have visited it) and it is not known to have a particular reputation for "unrealistic grandstanding."

According to Transparency International St Vincent has a better score on corruption perception than Israel (which has received reparations from Germany) and Kenya (which has received reparations from Britain).

Transparency International

So maybe you can explain why CARICOM is being so unrealistic in thinking they have a chance at getting financial redress, given who else has gotten it.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
That accusation is appalling and I consider it libellous. If this was the hell board I would say something else about it.

You don't need anyone's permission to start a Hell call. If you are offended by a post and want make a personal issue of it, that's where you do it. Not on this thread, please.

Making accusations of libel is, as I'm sure you know, not permitted on the Ship. Stop doing that immediately, and do not do it again.

Eliab
Purgatory Host

[ 13. March 2014, 10:22: Message edited by: Eliab ]
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
It was a complicated situation and many people have blame, but it's appalling to argue that the Africans who sold rival ethnic groups or prisoners of war to Europeans

A) are equally responsible for everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to and;

B) could have possibly imagined what the people they sold were going to endure

Actually, that's not necessarily true. According to professor Dick Harrison (article in Swedish at Lund University, citing Inikori (1976), Lovejoy (1983), Curtin 1969 as well as "a hypothetical example, based on witness reports from the time", 25 out of 100 slaves captured in Central Africa die even before reaching major African slave markets, before meeting Afro-Portuguese representatives. Once they reach Loanda or Benguela, taken there by Portuguese as well as by many native tribes that participated, 36 are supposed to have died - "even before the Atlantic Ocean has been spotted". Harrison finally states that after a 3-4 year period in the colonies, 70-72 will have died.

However, my point is that the suffering in the European colonies was indeed terrible, hands down, but there was immense suffering also within Africa at the time. As many died getting to the shore as those from the trip and arrival. Also, the Afro-Portuguese Pombeiros who ran and profited from the slave trade in Congo were of mixed descent. You cannot say that Africans were not consciously involved in the suffering of the trans-Atlantic slave trade. The prisons in Loanda were as dark, narrow and infested as those in America, and the slave drivers along the Congo river as brutal if not worse.

There are also cases such as that of Yuuba Jalo, a young African slave trader, who in 1731 was captured along the Gambia river, taken to Maryland, but after he sent a letter in Arabic to his father which by a fluke ended up in London in 1734, he was freed and taken to London where he was hired by the Royal African Company as a slave trader/diplomatic representative in the market wars between the French and the British. After a brief period as a French prisoner, he was freed and continued to buy and sell slaves. Yes, an individual case, but knowledge of American conditions did not stop African slave trade. It's possible and possibly even likely that the conditions in America were better than those before getting on board the ships. It takes two to tango, but a whole cluster of crooks to create a slave market.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I hope they will. But the city of Liverpool was basically built from the slave trade, so it wasn't just individuals who profited. The states also benefitted directly.

The slave trade from the UK was dominated by the biggest ports facing in the right direction, Liverpool and Bristol most of all. Liverpool benefited more than any other port in the UK. For a time, from the 1750s onwards nearly half its trade was in some way connected to the Atlantic slave trade. Many personal fortunes were made there, as they were in ports in other European countries.

The last slave ship sailed from Liverpool in 1807 though. It's extremely challenging to identify people or groups in Liverpool, or in the wider UK who now enjoy benefits derived from personal fortunes made and spent many generations ago.

To what extent would it be reasonable to hold people in Liverpool who were making their fortune 200+ years ago responsible for (as you put it in relation to the African traders) "everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to" to great great grandchildren of those slaves.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:

To what extent would it be reasonable to hold people in Liverpool who were making their fortune 200+ years ago responsible for (as you put it in relation to the African traders) "everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to" to great great grandchildren of those slaves.

Do you feel that all British people personally had blame placed on them and money taken out of their pocket in relation to the Kenyan Mau Mau settlement? I suspect not.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JFH:
However, my point is that the suffering in the European colonies was indeed terrible, hands down, but there was immense suffering also within Africa at the time. As many died getting to the shore as those from the trip and arrival. Also, the Afro-Portuguese Pombeiros who ran and profited from the slave trade in Congo were of mixed descent. You cannot say that Africans were not consciously involved in the suffering of the trans-Atlantic slave trade. The prisons in Loanda were as dark, narrow and infested as those in America, and the slave drivers along the Congo river as brutal if not worse.

I don't like the sound of "well it was just as bad or worse over there" to mitigate wrongdoing.

But to addres the rest, look at the history of African nation states post-independence and you will see plenty of historical ethnic conflicts and rivalries played out in the long line of coups and dictatorships that have happened.

The Americo-Liberians oppressed the rest of the country and we all know what happened to them as a result in the 1990s. I'm not sure that it can be successfully argued, that the groups in Africa who were also involved in oppression, forced labor, and violence in the 18-20th centuries, have not received any retribution for those actions within a local context.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Wait, so now it's possible to replace money with... karma??
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
There's a much simpler position here which is to say that none of us are magically entitled to more of the world's goods than others. So to the extent that some of us have had very good luck in being born into comparative wealth, we should share with those who have had very bad luck in being born into comparative (or absolute) poverty. You don't need to make a case for moral culpability to hold the view that the inequities in the way the world's wealth is currently disposed are unjust, and doing what we can to change this would be the pursuit of justice.

Isn't it possible that the attempt to turn global inequity into an issue of moral culpability will reduce people's willingness to do what common humanity requires of us - to share with each other?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
About fifteen years ago, some statisticians and sociologists did a detailed study of the records of slave ships that sailed from five ports in west Africa. These ports accounted for most of the slave trade to the New World.

An issue of The William and Mary Quarterly was devoted to articles on many different aspects of this data. I have read the journal; unfortunately I cannot remember the exact date; it was around 2001.

One point the study showed was that very few slaves were kidnapped. Some of them had been born into slavery in Africa; others were convicted criminals or prisoners of war; still others were political enemies of a local ruler.

Another interesting point was that only one of the five ports embarked large numbers of female slaves. The other four embarked almost exclusively men. A modern African sociologist explained this by saying that in the regions served by those four ports, agriculture was carried out entirely by women. In the area served by the one port, men were far more important in food production.

It is also interesting that the female slaves went almost exclusively to 'British North America'; e. g. what is now the U. S. and Canada. Since the child of a slave woman was a slave, but the child of a slave man and a free woman was not, the U.S. was the only place where large numbers of children were born into slavery generation after generation.

The estimated numbers are also interesting.
Approximately 450,000 went to 'British North America'
Approximately 2,000,000 went to North Africa.
Approximately 3,000,000 went to the Caribbean.
Approximately 7,000,000 went to Brazil.

I would like to locate a copy of that journal so I could re-read it.

Moo
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
To what extent would it be reasonable to hold people in Liverpool who were making their fortune 200+ years ago responsible for (as you put it in relation to the African traders) "everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to" to great great grandchildren of those slaves.

Except that we're not talking about actions by descendants or ancestors. One of the conceits of nations is that they're the same entity across time. It seems a little disingenuous to maintain that (to pick one example) the modern UK has an ironclad claim to Gibraltar because of a treaty signed in 1713 while also claiming that the slave-trading concession in the same treaty was granted to a completely different UK than the modern state that owns Gibraltar.

[ 13. March 2014, 12:24: Message edited by: Crœsos ]
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:

To what extent would it be reasonable to hold people in Liverpool who were making their fortune 200+ years ago responsible for (as you put it in relation to the African traders) "everything that happened after that point, in countries they'd never heard of or been to" to great great grandchildren of those slaves.

Do you feel that all British people personally had blame placed on them and money taken out of their pocket in relation to the Kenyan Mau Mau settlement? I suspect not.
I'm not entirely sure how the question follows from the part of my post you've quoted.

But to answer the question, I think that it was right and proper for the UK Government (representing the UK as a whole) to acknowledge that employees and contractors of the UK Government had acted culpably and shamefully in the 1950s, and to pay compensation to the actual victims of that action for their actual loss and suffering.

That does seem different to expecting the UK Government (representing the UK as a whole) to pay compensation to the current governments of countries where some of the great* grandchildren of people who were victims of slavery live, in relation to the loss and suffering of their long dead ancestors, suffered centuries ago at the hands of private individuals also long dead, some of whom were British nationals though acting entirely personally and for their private benefit.

If the true aim of this campaign is the laudable one of convincing those of us in the world who are relatively affluent to share more fairly with those who are not, I question the benfit of beginning the process in the way they have.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
That does seem different to expecting the UK Government (representing the UK as a whole) to pay compensation to the current governments of countries where some of the great* grandchildren of people who were victims of slavery live, in relation to the loss and suffering of their long dead ancestors, suffered centuries ago at the hands of private individuals also long dead, some of whom were British nationals though acting entirely personally and for their private benefit.

That's the other half of the equation. Were the governments requesting reparations themselves harmed by the actions of the slave-holding or slave-trading government, or are they at least a reasonable proxy for those who were? Given that governments are exactly the kind of social tools we use to solve collective action problems like the aftermath of slavery, it's at least a plausible argument that they are.

There are, of course, gradations of where this analysis is applicable. At one end of the scale we've got Haiti, where the government was formed directly as a result of a slave revolt. (One of the very few historical instances where this has occurred. Few slave revolts are successful, and for those which are "success" usually comes in the form of escaping the territory of the enslaver, not kicking out the enslaver and setting up a government.) In that sense the Haitian government seems like a pretty good proxy for the formerly enslaved. Plus there's the matter of the previously mentioned indemnity, which was extracted by the government of France directly from the government of Haiti.

At the other end of the scale are nations where the post-independence government continued the policies of enslavement, such as the United States or Brazil. (Not Caribbean nations, but they're the most obvious examples that come to mind.) These governments would seem like particularly poor proxies for those hurt by slavery.

On another note, I question whether things like using government troops to crush slave revolts really qualify as "private individuals . . . acting entirely personally and for their private benefit".
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
While we're on the subject of money, and treating slavery as a phenomenon, does the UK get a rebate for the amount of money spent on the Royal Navy squadrons that spent time cracking down on slavery after its abolition in the Empire?
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
I'm not entirely sure how the question follows from the part of my post you've quoted.


It was because of your reference to the "people of Liverpool." No, the people in Liverpool today are obviously not responsible for what was done in their city 200 years ago. Restitution for wrongdoing on behalf of a state or government is not the same as blaming individuals born many years after the events.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
But it's the individuals who will have to pay.
 
Posted by Stetson (# 9597) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
While we're on the subject of money, and treating slavery as a phenomenon, does the UK get a rebate for the amount of money spent on the Royal Navy squadrons that spent time cracking down on slavery after its abolition in the Empire?

Well, perhaps if the British had been forced to do that against their will, and if it had imposed a majorly debilitating effect on their economy, you could make the case.

Otherwise, your implied argument strikes me as like saying "Why should I pay compensation to the women I maimed for life as a result of my drunk driving last year? Nobody compensated me for the day I took off work to help an accident victim get to the hospital last week."
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
Part of the problem surely is that money doesn't come from nowhere. If for example the UK government were to make a significant financial settlement to the countries requesting it, presumably the people of the UK as a whole, and based on current policies probably the more vulnerable in society in particular, would be the ones to feel some of the effects of that money not being available to spend elsewhere on public services or whatever. Not saying that this is a reason not to do it, I don't know enough about the subject to have a clear opinion on that. But clearly the government of a country making a large payout is bound to have some kind of effect on the individuals within that country in some way or another.

[ 13. March 2014, 13:21: Message edited by: Lucia ]
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Wait, so now it's possible to replace money with... karma??

Not at all.

But it's also not possible to claim "Africans got rich from slavery too and no one wants to get justice for it" when one doesn't have a clue about African politics, history, or demographics.

How about this:
African chiefs urged to apologise for slave trade

quote:
The Civil Rights Congress of Nigeria has written to tribal chiefs saying: "We cannot continue to blame the white men, as Africans, particularly the traditional rulers, are not blameless."
Which is what I've been saying all thread - Africans KNOW that they were involved in the slave trade. That has absolutely nothing to do with what Europeans did. And to assume that no one has sought justice or restitution against the people who perpetrated it, without making the barest minimum of effort to actually confirm it, is at best lazy and at worse indication of a pre-existing bias that some people feel does not require evidence to support.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
Part of the problem surely is that money doesn't come from nowhere. If for example the UK government were to make a significant financial settlement to the countries requesting it, presumably the people of the UK as a whole, and based on current policies probably the more vulnerable in society in particular, would be the ones to feel some of the effects of that money not being available to spend elsewhere on public services or whatever.

It would almost certainly come right out of the Department for International Development's aid budget, probably reallocated from some other countries. The likelihood of British people facing a higher tax bill as a result of this is extremely unlikely, given that there is already a set amount of funding put aside for foreign aid.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
So which aid projects do you think should be cancelled to pay for this claim?
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
On another note, I question whether things like using government troops to crush slave revolts really qualify as "private individuals . . . acting entirely personally and for their private benefit".

That is a fair point, though I feel that a much stronger argument is the immense compensation paid out by the Crown to British subjects deprived of their "investments" in slaves when owning those slaves was made illegal. That's the argument that I think plays most strongly for the "reparations lobby" (if you pardon the expression, I don't mean it to be offensive). However I don't think it overcomes the huge practical difficulties in actually assessing what reparations might reasonably be due (if any) to the very remote descendants of slaves to compensate them for the harm inflicted on ancestors centuries ago.
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
But then that would presumably lead to a cut in aid to other places, so taking from one set of people in need to give to another set of people in need. How do we make decisions about who's need is greatest? What if other countries have greater development needs, should they in effect be deprived of the aid they would have received through no fault of their own because of this? Again I don't have an answer, I just think it is very complicated!

(Reply to Seekingsister )

[ 13. March 2014, 13:27: Message edited by: Lucia ]
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
I'm not entirely sure how the question follows from the part of my post you've quoted.


It was because of your reference to the "people of Liverpool." No, the people in Liverpool today are obviously not responsible for what was done in their city 200 years ago. Restitution for wrongdoing on behalf of a state or government is not the same as blaming individuals born many years after the events.
Then I think perhaps you had selected the wrong paragraph from my post for your quote. But thank you for explaining.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
Part of the problem surely is that money doesn't come from nowhere. If for example the UK government were to make a significant financial settlement to the countries requesting it, presumably the people of the UK as a whole, and based on current policies probably the more vulnerable in society in particular, would be the ones to feel some of the effects of that money not being available to spend elsewhere on public services or whatever.

This is, of course, part of the argument as to why reparations are justified in the first place: that a large chunk of the productive capacity of various nations was forcibly and criminally extracted and ended up in the coffers of the governments of various slave-holding and slave-trading nations. In other words, one of the reasons for the poverty of many Caribbean nations is that for so many years their productive capacity was being used to pay for "public services or whatever" in Spain, France, Portugal, etc.
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
But that money is not simply freely available to be handed back if it has been spent? And spent a long time ago at that. (I'm really thinking about the practicalities here rather than the question of whether it should be done or not.)

[ 13. March 2014, 13:32: Message edited by: Lucia ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
But that money is not simply freely available to be handed back if it has been spent?

Maybe we should just give them Liverpool and Bristol.
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
Do you think they'd want them?! [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
But that money is not simply freely available to be handed back if it has been spent? And spent a long time ago at that. (I'm really thinking about the practicalities here rather than the question of whether it should be done or not.)

As the Haitian Indemnity demonstrates, a series of payments (with interest accruing) is the usual way governments handle such things when they don't have cash on hand.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
So which aid projects do you think should be cancelled to pay for this claim?

This post signifies a fundamental lack of understanding about how the aid budget works.

Most of the money "spent" on aid is actually allocated and disbursed over many years. A reclassification of aid already set aside for Caribbean nations in the future would have no impact on any current development projects.

[ 13. March 2014, 13:46: Message edited by: seekingsister ]
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
That's interesting, could you explain a bit more?

Oh, you just did! So it would simply be a case of the same money that they would have received being given a different label?

In which case is this more about the acknowledgement of responsibility than the actual money? But how does that make any practical difference to the lives of those in living in the Caribbean now?

[ 13. March 2014, 13:49: Message edited by: Lucia ]
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
Not completely comparable, but let me tell the story of the Diocese of Cariboo (Anglican). It was created in British Columbia in 1914 and went bankrupt in 2001. The bankruptcy was due to paying for the settlement and legal costs for the Indian Residential School within the diocese.

None of the parishioners as far as I know actually had ever worked at the schools, the school had long closed. Many parishioners were people who'd come from other places long after the school closed. Yet, the reparations and settlement was paid.

Why not a parallel for countries? Part of the equation is the ability to pay after all. What's the biblical, the seventh generation? Rough calculation could put that in the 200 year range couldn't it?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Canada exist from the theft of native resources. It benefits now, why should recompense be given a time limit?
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
Interesting. How did the parishioners feel about the situation? Did they resent that they were in effect paying for someone else's mistakes in the past or did they feel a sense of responsibility by virtue of now living in the area where this had happened?

I think that many people in the UK today would feel very little connection with what was done in the past or recognise the long term effects in all the countries that were involved, both as beneficiaries of the trade, or those whose people were taken and those where they ended up. Maybe that is due to some failure in our teaching of history?

[ 13. March 2014, 13:59: Message edited by: Lucia ]
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:

I think that many people in the UK today would feel very little connection with what was done in the past or recognise the long term effects in all the countries that were involved, both as beneficiaries of the trade, or those whose people were taken and those where they ended up. Maybe that is due to some failure in our teaching of history?

Speaking only for the US, I think this is definitely the issue. Americans have this myth of "pulling yourself up by your bootstraps" which is, of course, precisely that-- a myth. But a pervasive one that plays itself out in a common narrative, particularly among the wealthy, that whatever they have achieved/ acquired is a result solely of their own hard work, as well as the reverse assumption that the poor are poor only due to their own moral failings. This despite the fact that Lincoln tried (in vain) with great eloquence to demonstrate, for example, how the North had benefitted economically from slavery just as much as the South had. As we have seen here, any discussion of trans-generational reparations is going to have to confront that assumption that our current prosperity has nothing to do with the actions of our ancestors (whether biological or simply geographical).
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
So which aid projects do you think should be cancelled to pay for this claim?

This post signifies a fundamental lack of understanding about how the aid budget works.

Most of the money "spent" on aid is actually allocated and disbursed over many years. A reclassification of aid already set aside for Caribbean nations in the future would have no impact on any current development projects.

I'm not sure why 'spent' was put in inverted commas, but anyway...

If money has already been allocated to the Caribbean, then what is the point of the exercise? It would mean that money that was due to be spent in, say, St Lucia ends up being spent in St Lucia, surely?

Either that, or extra resources are allocated to pay for this claim. If the DFID budget remains static that means that projects elsewhere that would have been funded no longer receive that funding.
 
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

As we have seen here, any discussion of trans-generational reparations is going to have to confront that assumption that our current prosperity has nothing to do with the actions of our ancestors (whether biological or simply geographical).

And as long as people see no connection there is unlikely to be the political will to do it. Politicians in my experience are unlikely to choose a route which will cost the country money for no perceived good reason or benefit in the eyes of those whom they hope will vote for them.

[ 13. March 2014, 14:45: Message edited by: Lucia ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You know nothing about me and my long involvement with Africa, including having a considerable knowledge of an African language and having been involved with an African translation project.

Fascinating. Which African language? Which translation project?
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
Do you think they'd want them?! [Big Grin]

Give them some Bristolians as slaves.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
right and proper for the UK Government (representing the UK as a whole) to acknowledge that employees and contractors of the UK Government had acted culpably and shamefully in the 1950s, and to pay compensation to the actual victims of that action for their actual loss and suffering.

That does seem different to expecting the UK Government (representing the UK as a whole) to pay compensation to the current governments of countries where some of the great* grandchildren of people who were victims of slavery

What if you could show that lasting harm had been done to those countries which still affected the great grandchildren?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

As we have seen here, any discussion of trans-generational reparations is going to have to confront that assumption that our current prosperity has nothing to do with the actions of our ancestors (whether biological or simply geographical).

And as long as people see no connection there is unlikely to be the political will to do it. Politicians in my experience are unlikely to choose a route which will cost the country money for no perceived good reason or benefit in the eyes of those whom they hope will vote for them.
Yes. Which is why it's so important to confront that ingrained assumption that our prosperity is all our own as a first step (at least in US. I don't know to what degree this is a factor in Europe). Again, one of those known complexities that I alluded to in my original post.

When we talk about trans-generational reparations, there's several aspects of the discussion, all of which are getting moshed together here:

1. The moral aspect of it-- is there a debt that is owed? What does justice require?
2. The pragmatic aspect of it-- how difficult will it be to enact these reparations on a practical level?
3. The political aspect of it-- is there the political will to do this? What are the implications of giving a large sum of money to a (potentially untrustworthy) govt? Will it reach the people most affected by the original crime?

These are all inevitably intertwined, so it's hard to talk about one w/o talking about the others. And yet moshing them together tends to obscure the discussion-- the practical difficulties (which are HUGE) or political issues (equally challenging) don't really alter the moral obligation. But any discussion of #1 tends to inevitably slide into #2 or #3. We are "fixers"-- we can't even begin to think about a moral obligation w/o trying to think about how we will "fix" it. Then when we begin to sense that it may be "unfixable" we want to use that to argue against the moral obligation. But that is a false logic.

[ 13. March 2014, 15:30: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
That's a very clear explanation cliffdweller, thanks. I expect that sort of intertwining often occurs with various decisions and we ought to be more alert to it.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I'm not sure why 'spent' was put in inverted commas, but anyway...

Because what DFID says it "spends" in a given year is really "money allocated for the local country office that may be drawn down if we approve the future requests for funding." Actual cash out the door is a fraction of the headline figure each year.

quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
If money has already been allocated to the Caribbean, then what is the point of the exercise? It would mean that money that was due to be spent in, say, St Lucia ends up being spent in St Lucia, surely?

Either that, or extra resources are allocated to pay for this claim. If the DFID budget remains static that means that projects elsewhere that would have been funded no longer receive that funding.

It's pretty obvious that the likelihood of CARICOM getting any sizable payment in regards to this claim is extremely slim. So this is all very hypothetical.

I just raised the point so that people understand the mechanics of aid. There is already a system in place, the government would not have to charge taxpayers more to pay a settlement like this. They'd use their accountants to reallocate funds that were already approved for future spending so as to avoid it.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
It's pretty obvious that the likelihood of CARICOM getting any sizable payment in regards to this claim is extremely slim. So this is all very hypothetical.

Yes, which is why I incline to the view that it's unpleasant gesture politics.

quote:
[QB] I just raised the point so that people understand the mechanics of aid. There is already a system in place, the government would not have to charge taxpayers more to pay a settlement like this. They'd use their accountants to reallocate funds that were already approved for future spending so as to avoid it.

But you accept that, were this to happen, someone somewhere would lose out?
 
Posted by Doublethink (# 1984) on :
 
I have always thought, that if a nation is primarily secular, the wrong done by that country in the past is the justification for being involved in a long term aid programme.

What I wish, is that that justification was more widely stated, when as soon as we have some sort of challenge at home: e.g. floods; and people start to suggest we cut the aid budget.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
[qb] It's pretty obvious that the likelihood of CARICOM getting any sizable payment in regards to this claim is extremely slim. So this is all very hypothetical.

Yes, which is why I incline to the view that it's unpleasant gesture politics.
People's reactions seem to point to it being unpleasant largely because it is something they'd rather not be reminded about.

It appears to me that some people get offended at the very thought that there may be structural inequalities as the result of various historical actions - inequalities that they may well have benefited from.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lucia:
Interesting. How did the parishioners feel about the situation? Did they resent that they were in effect paying for someone else's mistakes in the past or did they feel a sense of responsibility by virtue of now living in the area where this had happened?

I think that many people in the UK today would feel very little connection with what was done in the past or recognise the long term effects in all the countries that were involved, both as beneficiaries of the trade, or those whose people were taken and those where they ended up. Maybe that is due to some failure in our teaching of history?

The situation as I recall it (wasn't in this diocese, though know people who were), is that it started out with denial that there was really anything bad to compensate for, followed by 'okay things happened but had nothing to do with us', to 'the lawyers and gov't say we have to pay', to 'we have a cultural and spiritual connection through our tradition, so we have to stand up and do it'. In amongst this, the Anglican Church officially apologized nationally (as did the RC and United*).

*United Church of Canada: formed in 1925 from most Canadian Presbyterian, Methodist and Congregationalist churches, but not all.

I think the situation is one of denial and not even accepting there's an issue worthy of discussing compensation for. Time will tell if discussion and education about it will move it forward. It may take formal court processes, and maybe some seizure of assets.

Here's a link about church involvement and ownership in slavery The Anglican Church and Its Slavery Past as the USPG celebrates 310th Anniversary: Is an Apology Enough?

Maybe Anglicans should consider their responsibility like they did in Cariboo?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But you accept that, were this to happen, someone somewhere would lose out?

By that logic criminals with young children would have a good defense against paying fines.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
What if you could show that lasting harm had been done to those countries which still affected the great grandchildren?

The more intervening generations there have been, the harder in practice it must become to show that quantifiable aspects of hardship and poverty being suffered by an individual in 2014 in a Caribbean country are attributable to a wrong done to an unknown ancestor some time between 1640 and 1807. I think that for all practical purposes that is an insuperable hurdle and that is why the campaign has seemed to me to be flawed. It can't achieve its stated aim because that is impossible, and knowing that to be the case I think those leading the campaign would do better to state what their real intention is and to campaign honestly for that.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
The more intervening generations there have been, the harder in practice it must become to show that quantifiable aspects of hardship and poverty being suffered by an individual in 2014 in a Caribbean country are attributable to a wrong done to an unknown ancestor some time between 1640 and 1807.

But it's relatively easy to quantify things like the tax revenue that flowed into government coffers from slave-based Caribbean enterprises, as are tariffs levied on the importation of slaves themselves, if it's the lack of hard-quantity numbers that you see as the primary obstacle. Governments are usually very meticulous about keeping tax records. The question becomes whether such slave-generated revenue was rightfully derived, or if it just makes the state a co-conspirator.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
From the link I posted above, could the Diocese of Exeter pay back £13,000 they received for over 660 slaves in today's money when they were compesated for the freeing of their slaves in 1833? This site pegs it at £1,235,000.

Of course that 1.2 million doesn't take into account that the slaves themselves didn't get any money themselves. But it is a start.

If Barbadoes had 83,000 slaves at emancipation in 1833, I think we could consider that the compensation to owners is the floor, or lowest level. Would 1 million per slave be too little? I am thinking this is how they might start their discussions.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
.... Yet the reason why we hear few demands for 'reparations' from the descendants of the Arab trade in slaves is because it didn't give rise to black communities, languages and cultures. The women were used mostly for sexual and domestic services, and the men either became eunuchs or soldiers. Babies born to the female sex workers were frequently put to death, or else they simply merged into the surrounding society. The slave plantations of the New World, in contrast, housed male and female slaves together, and the owners often encouraged them to 'breed' with each other.

I've from time to time speculated about this. As far as I know there aren't significant black or partially black communities of people descended from slaves in the Gulf or anywhere else in the Middle East, where one might expect to find them. One explanation I've heard is that there wasn't an Indian Ocean middle passage and a lot of their slaves ended up working on plantations run by Arabs on the East African coast.

Yes, some would have been used for plantation work, although this was just a small minority or them. But I've read that some East African slaves even reached as far as India, and there's speculation that one community of dark skinned Indians with distinctive cultural habits might be descended from some of those slaves. But on the whole, the intention wasn't to create slave societies.

quote:


Svetlana, if your explanation is right, are you suggesting this means that the Arab slavers were better or worse than Transatlantic ones? Being castrated as an adult isn't something I'd like to experience. It also carries quite a high risk of killing the asset. But then, I'm a bloke.

The castrations were carried out on boys of around 10 years old. The death rate was extremely high, so I've read.

It wasn't my intention to establish which one of these slave trades was 'worse' than the other. I think that would be somewhat tasteless and morally questionable. I merely wanted to correct the assumption that the North African trade in black slaves was somehow part of the Transatlantic trade.

It would obviously be very good to see the North African countries begin to face up to this aspect of their history, and some scholars are working on this.
 
Posted by aunt jane (# 10139) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
The obsession with African traders and their role in slavery again reads as an indication of a very nasty view on African people.

That accusation is appalling and I consider it libellous. If this was the hell board I would say something else about it.

You know nothing about me and my long involvement with Africa, including having a considerable knowledge of an African language and having been involved with an African translation project. I could dig up something from that language to demonstrate something about the indigenous slave trade of what is now Uganda, but I doubt it would make much difference.

You really ought to apologise.

Up to you.

It's patently obvious that this whole reparations nonsense is just yet another cynical act of opportunism to perpetuate the myth of "white people hate black people", and the sheer injustice of ignoring the role of Africans and Arabs in this heinous trade supports this interpretation. If we are going to have justice, then it demands that the guilt of all parties is considered. Selective justice is not justice. But, of course, if we are not selective, then we can't play the race card, can we? Which is really what this is all about!

This is a very demanding view of human justice. I'm sure most justice administered is to some extent selective, if only because it's only perpetrators who are actually caught who ever suffer anything.
I'm not sure what "race card" is supposed to be being played here in your opinion. Slavery has always existed and alas continues today, not always accompanied by any noticeable racial issues at all. The salient features of the transatlantic slave trade from Africa to the Caribbean, conducted by Europeans, were its sheer scale and the fact that at least one European nation continued to have the temerity to demand money from Haiti until relatively recently.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
The more intervening generations there have been, the harder in practice it must become to show that quantifiable aspects of hardship and poverty being suffered by an individual in 2014 in a Caribbean country are attributable to a wrong done to an unknown ancestor some time between 1640 and 1807. I

Actually this - along with the reasons Creosos lays out above, make a very compelling argument that it should be the state that seeks and receives compensation.
 
Posted by The Scrumpmeister (# 5638) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
The Caricom countries might have had more credibility were it not for the shocking human rights record of most of them, lasting and delighted in even in the present day.

Which countries are you thinking of? The island nations have done far better than the Latin countries surrounding the Caribbean Sea; I'm wondering if you've mixed up who are the member countries.

This is the listing of member nations:
Antigua and Barbuda
Bahamas
Barbados
Belize
Dominica
Grenada
Guyana
Haiti
Jamaica
Montserrat
St Kitts & Nevis
Saint Lucia
St Vincent & Grenadines
Suriname
Trinidad and Tobago

I'm quite well acquainted with the constitution of Caricom. I don't think that "They're not as bad as some others" negates what I said. The others aren't the ones demanding recompense for wrongs done to them while they're gleefully doing wrongs to others.
 
Posted by aunt jane (# 10139) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
The Caricom countries might have had more credibility were it not for the shocking human rights record of most of them, lasting and delighted in even in the present day.

Which countries are you thinking of? The island nations have done far better than the Latin countries surrounding the Caribbean Sea; I'm wondering if you've mixed up who are the member countries.

This is the listing of member nations:
Antigua and Barbuda
Bahamas
Barbados
Belize
Dominica
Grenada
Guyana
Haiti
Jamaica
Montserrat
St Kitts & Nevis
Saint Lucia
St Vincent & Grenadines
Suriname
Trinidad and Tobago

I'm quite well acquainted with the constitution of Caricom. I don't think that "They're not as bad as some others" negates what I said. The others aren't the ones demanding recompense for wrongs done to them while they're gleefully doing wrongs to others.
When you write "doing wrongs to others", do you mean "other nations"? If so can you think of some recent relevant examples? I don't recall any of the above Caribbean nations mass-enslaving any peoples lately.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink:
I have always thought, that if a nation is primarily secular, the wrong done by that country in the past is the justification for being involved in a long term aid programme.

Whereas I would prefer Erroneous Monk's justification further up the page: that if someone has less than us, we should be doing something about fixing that and not worrying about whose 'fault' it is.

I'd also argue that one can have an aid program from sheer self-interest. Don't want to worry about instability and floods of refugees from a country? Make that country a better place to live. Don't want an influx of economic migrants either? Again, make where they are now a better place to live.

It's somewhat reminiscent of the article I recently read about an American city (I think it might have been Salt Lake City), which has discovered that giving homeless people homes actually ends up being a great deal cheaper than 'dealing' with homeless people on the streets.

[ 13. March 2014, 20:58: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Governments are usually very meticulous about keeping tax records.

A brief pause to give Crœsos a slightly quizzical look in response to this assertion, and then we shall move on.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
The more intervening generations there have been, the harder in practice it must become to show that quantifiable aspects of hardship and poverty being suffered by an individual in 2014 in a Caribbean country are attributable to a wrong done to an unknown ancestor some time between 1640 and 1807.

But it's relatively easy to quantify things like the tax revenue that flowed into government coffers from slave-based Caribbean enterprises, as are tariffs levied on the importation of slaves themselves, if it's the lack of hard-quantity numbers that you see as the primary obstacle. Governments are usually very meticulous about keeping tax records. The question becomes whether such slave-generated revenue was rightfully derived, or if it just makes the state a co-conspirator.
That isn't really my point. The basis of a reparations claim isn't that the UK government received tax income in (say) 1789 or 1806 that derived from the slave trade. It is that identifiable individuals alive now in 2014 are suffering hardship that could be alleviated by a reparations payment and can be attributed to a wrong that was done to an unknown ancestor centuries ago.
 
Posted by Stetson (# 9597) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aunt jane:
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
The Caricom countries might have had more credibility were it not for the shocking human rights record of most of them, lasting and delighted in even in the present day.

Which countries are you thinking of? The island nations have done far better than the Latin countries surrounding the Caribbean Sea; I'm wondering if you've mixed up who are the member countries.

This is the listing of member nations:
Antigua and Barbuda
Bahamas
Barbados
Belize
Dominica
Grenada
Guyana
Haiti
Jamaica
Montserrat
St Kitts & Nevis
Saint Lucia
St Vincent & Grenadines
Suriname
Trinidad and Tobago

I'm quite well acquainted with the constitution of Caricom. I don't think that "They're not as bad as some others" negates what I said. The others aren't the ones demanding recompense for wrongs done to them while they're gleefully doing wrongs to others.
When you write "doing wrongs to others", do you mean "other nations"? If so can you think of some recent relevant examples? I don't recall any of the above Caribbean nations mass-enslaving any peoples lately.
For the most part, I'd agree that the nations on that list have admirable himan-rights records. Jamaica might be a bit of a blight right now, with the cops apparently turning a blind-eye to anti-gay violence, and Haiti of course has a history of brutal dictatorships(cue jingoistic crowing about the superiority of anglo to franco institutions). Other than that, I'm not really aware of any of them having systemic and extensive human-rights violations.

Right now in South Korea, people are still occassionally hauled into court on rather dubious charges under the National Security Act, sometimes merely for expressing an opinion along the lines of "I think the South and the US started the Korean War". But I don't think that negates the right of Koreans to pursue, say, claims against Japan for colonial era sufferings.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
individuals alive now in 2014 are suffering hardship that could be alleviated by a reparations payment and can be attributed to a wrong that was done to an unknown ancestor centuries ago.

Have we rather danced around this point? Can we identify, specifically, what hardships are being suffered that can be directly attributed to 18th / early 19th century wrongs?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
individuals alive now in 2014 are suffering hardship that could be alleviated by a reparations payment and can be attributed to a wrong that was done to an unknown ancestor centuries ago.

Have we rather danced around this point? Can we identify, specifically, what hardships are being suffered that can be directly attributed to 18th / early 19th century wrongs?
I think we have already acknowledged that under the heading of "practical difficulties" and "known complications". We know in general that the US and European economies are built in part on the excess capital garnered through slave labor, and that the economies of many African nations are further diminished from the loss of prime wage-earners. As has been pointed out already several times, making the exact calculation would be difficult, if not impossible.

That doesn't change the moral obligation. It simply makes it more difficult, or again potentially impossible, to rectify. That's frustrating for those who understandably wish it to be "over". But the constant diversion from discussions of the moral obligation to the discussion of the practical and political hindrances is, I'm guessing, equally frustrating if not heartbreaking to those who wish to first of all be heard-- to have that moral obligations named & recognized. It changes the conversation significantly, as well as some subsequent conversations (e.g. about aid) if we establish first that moral obligation-- even if we know the "fix" may be difficult or impossible.

[ 13. March 2014, 23:11: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Scrumpmeister:
I'm quite well acquainted with the constitution of Caricom. I don't think that "They're not as bad as some others" negates what I said. The others aren't the ones demanding recompense for wrongs done to them while they're gleefully doing wrongs to others.

I'd like to see some specifics. I don't think you have any.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
Do you feel that all British people personally had blame placed on them and money taken out of their pocket in relation to the Kenyan Mau Mau settlement?

The 2012 Mau Mau settlement is relevant to the themes in this thread in two respects.

First, it is reasonable for direct living victims of a nation’s crimes to be compensated, so Kikuyus and other Kenyans who suffered in the fifties are as entitled to redress from Britain as are Jews who endured the Holocaust of the forties from Germany.

It is when money is sought centuries later that the situation becomes ridiculous, in ways which a number of posters have pointed out.

Secondly, it is yet another illustration of the one-way moralizing which so often accompanies these issues, because the so-called Mau Mau also perpetrated appalling atrocities, against their own people as well as against a number of Europeans and Asians, but its members have not been identified and prosecuted, nor their victims helped, by the various post-colonial Kenyan governments.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Contrary to British propaganda and western perceptions of the time, the Mau Mau attacks were mostly well organised and planned.

"...the insurgents' lack of heavy weaponry and the heavily entrenched police and Home Guard positions meant that Mau Mau attacks were restricted to nighttime and where loyalist positions were weak. When attacks did commence they were fast and brutal, as insurgents were easily able to identify loyalists because they were often local to those communities themselves. The Lari massacre was by comparison rather outstanding and in contrast to regular Mau Mau strikes which more often than not targeted only loyalists without such massive civilian casualties. "Even the attack upon Lari, in the view of the rebel commanders was strategic and specific.”


 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
because the so-called Mau Mau also perpetrated appalling atrocities, against their own people as well as against a number of Europeans and Asians, but its members have not been identified and prosecuted, nor their victims helped, by the various post-colonial Kenyan governments.

Good grief. A few thousand Kenyans were hanged by the British government and the rebellion was utterly crushed. Many of the hanged might appropriately be labelled "so called" Mau Mau in that they almost certainly weren't - they were guilty by association. Some were found in mau mau camps, caught and hanged, and were likely in the camps because of being imprisoned by Mau Mau.

When the post-colonial government came to power the most disadvantaged group were those associated with mau mau. The Kikuyu who had been used by the British in the homeguard were those with positions of power and influence, and those who had fought for freedom got nothing or less than nothing.

The British continued to keep several hundred thousand detainees in concentration camps for their associations, real or imagined, with Mau Mau for 6/7 years after the violence stopped without trial.

Agreed atrocities were carried out on both sides, but the majority of victims on both sides were innocent. Trying to balance the wrongs and work out which block of people was on balance owed more is completely wrong-headed.

That off my chest about mau mau, I think it is an unhelpful parallel because it was essentially a civil war among Kikuyu which the British benefited from by (briefly) keeping the colony in which many individuals were treated unjustly by the British government (and incidentally had the papers proving it withheld for 50 years), and those individuals are owed money in compensation.

On the other hand the slavery compensation issue is between states. It is arguing that a state inherited a legacy of disadvantage and wrong done to it by another state, which can then be inherited by the state, without the need to trace harm done to individuals.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
The Haitian reparations stretched out to not end until 1947, within the last hundred years. It's also amusing to hear that centuries old taking is impossible to trace or handle.

When I was visiting London, I noted that you could buy a house that had a 699 year leasehold. Somehow tracking property claims over the centuries seems quite manageable while reparations for historic damage are just too hard to cope with so we might as well completely forget about it.

In the United States, a number of the largest financial and insurance companies have acknowledge they benefited from slavery. These companies have had corporate lineage where the profits of the companies or their predecessors are baked into the finances of the corporation. Some of these corporations have apologized, I don't know that many have given any financial reparations.

[ 14. March 2014, 04:08: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
The Lari massacre was by comparison rather outstanding and in contrast to regular Mau Mau strikes which more often than not targeted only loyalists without such massive civilian casualties. "Even the attack upon Lari, in the view of the rebel commanders was strategic and specific.”



While I will defend Mau Mau against many accusations I think this is a bit revisionist. Lari might have started out as strategic in the minds of some commanders, but it turned into a vengeful massacre. I think a lot of violence under Mau Mau vs homeguards was linked to inter-family and inter-clan feuds and long-standing grievances being settled in the context of what was essentially a civil war. There was a lot of revenge killing.

But to give it some perspective, as I say above several hundred thousand Kikuyus were interned in concentration camps without trial, a thousand plus were hanged, tens of thousands of Kikuyus died (killed by mau mau, homeguard and British soldiers) and around 150 British soldiers and 30 settlers were killed.

[ 14. March 2014, 04:13: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:

long-standing grievances being settled in the context of what was essentially a civil war.

With you up to this point. The British intentionally divided the Kikuyu from other groups and the Mau Mau from the Kikuyu, thus exacerbating any existing tensions and creating new ones.
Not to mention none of this would have happened if the British were not engaged in stealing African land and, in many cases, continuing slavery in all but name.
Not that this excuses atrocities committed by the Mau Mau. But it must be seen in full perspective.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Agreed atrocities were carried out on both sides, but the majority of victims on both sides were innocent. Trying to balance the wrongs and work out which block of people was on balance owed more is completely wrong-headed.

Even in context it wasn't clear that I meant the "both sides" in this paragraph to refer to Mau Mau vs Homeguard. I think it's pretty obvious that the British were way out ahead in terms of the atrocities done to others.
 
Posted by The Scrumpmeister (# 5638) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aunt jane:
When you write "doing wrongs to others", do you mean "other nations"? If so can you think of some recent relevant examples? I don't recall any of the above Caribbean nations mass-enslaving any peoples lately.

Now that less emotionally worked up about it, I was making reference to the treatment of homosexual people, or people perceived to be gay, both in law and, more importantly, culturally. The positive encouragement of, and pride and delight in homophobia that exists in many of the countries listed above is something I have a hard time with. I think my initial post came from that place.

I'm not suggesting anything about the equality of the circumstances and will let others do that for themselves but I do think that there is something disingenuous about demanding reparation of the descendants of those who have wronged us while taking delight in singling out a group of people for various degrees of communal hatred ourselves.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I think we have already acknowledged that under the heading of "practical difficulties" and "known complications". We know in general that the US and European economies are built in part on the excess capital garnered through slave labor, and that the economies of many African nations are further diminished from the loss of prime wage-earners. As has been pointed out already several times, making the exact calculation would be difficult, if not impossible.

That doesn't change the moral obligation. It simply makes it more difficult, or again potentially impossible, to rectify. That's frustrating for those who understandably wish it to be "over". But the constant diversion from discussions of the moral obligation to the discussion of the practical and political hindrances is, I'm guessing, equally frustrating if not heartbreaking to those who wish to first of all be heard-- to have that moral obligations named & recognized. It changes the conversation significantly, as well as some subsequent conversations (e.g. about aid) if we establish first that moral obligation-- even if we know the "fix" may be difficult or impossible.

That's my difficulty with the current campaign. If what is intended is to achieve a truthful, healing acknowledgement of historic wrongs and a reconciliation between the descendents of those wronged and the descendents of those who committed those wrongs, then why is it couched in terms of "give me all your money".
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Yes, which is why I incline to the view that it's unpleasant gesture politics.

Based on your 0% knowledge of the actual campaign, of course.

I think just because it's a long shot, doesn't mean that it's simply political posturing. The proposal is asking for a lot of things that strongly suggest an interest getting former European slave trading countries to contribute to the economic, scientific, and cultural development of their former colonies. It doesn't even vaguely resemble a cynical grab for cash.

Clearly the reaction in Europe to this action is extremely negative, so there's little indication that this is a good thing for the Caribbean countries in terms of their international standing.

It may be worth noting that the British law firm that has taken on this case is the same one that got the Mau Mau settlement.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Yes, which is why I incline to the view that it's unpleasant gesture politics.

Based on your 0% knowledge of the actual campaign, of course.
I'm sorry, I hadn't realised that I'd stumbled onto a thread full of experts on the subject.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But you accept that, were this to happen, someone somewhere would lose out?

By that logic criminals with young children would have a good defense against paying fines.
If one of your great-great-grandfathers had robbed a man of £10,000, would you say that you and all your siblings and cousins (however distant) should be responsible for paying back that money (adjusted for inflation of course) to each and every one of the victim's great-great-grandchildren?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
The proposal is asking for a lot of things that strongly suggest an interest getting former European slave trading countries to contribute to the economic, scientific, and cultural development of their former colonies

I think it's all about trying to get rich countries to pay for development and improvements in their countries. They're just using slavery in the argument to make it harder for us to say no.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Yes, which is why I incline to the view that it's unpleasant gesture politics.

Based on your 0% knowledge of the actual campaign, of course.
I'm sorry, I hadn't realised that I'd stumbled onto a thread full of experts on the subject.
Quite a few people on this thread have exhibited greater knowledge of the Caribbean and the countries involved than you have.

I gave you some background on St Vincent which has lead the charge for some years and that they internationally have a better reputation for transparency than other countries that have received reparations.

Your uninformed replies indicate that your position is based entirely on bias and not on facts. Repeated them endlessly doesn't make them any more compelling either.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I think it's all about trying to get rich countries to pay for development and improvements in their countries. They're just using slavery in the argument to make it harder for us to say no.

So in your version of reality, it is not possible that they actually feel they have a justified claim?

I just want to know what your position is here. If you don't think it's reasonable to ask for rectification of a past wrong that had an economic impact in general, then that's informing your position.

I would be far more concerned if you think that wanting reparations specifically for slavery, as opposed to the other human rights abuses in which victims and descendants of victims have been compensated, is the issue. That slavery should just be left in the past, perhaps. Meaning that you think a certain group should just shut up and be quiet about what happened to them.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
Quite a few people on this thread have exhibited greater knowledge of the Caribbean and the countries involved than you have.

Don't really understand this point. The 'countries involved' include my own and this isn't a general knowledge competition.

Of course, you might not agree with the opinions I hold, but that's a different matter...

quote:
I gave you some background on St Vincent which has lead the charge for some years and that they internationally have a better reputation for transparency than other countries that have received reparations.
But the (admittedly rather blunt) response to this would be, so what? The transparency of the country doesn't affect whether money is liable to be paid. (Though it might, I concede, have a bearing on who money should be paid to, should liability be established.)

quote:
Your uninformed replies indicate that your position is based entirely on bias and not on facts. Repeated them endlessly doesn't make them any more compelling either.
Your informed, unbiased comments are noted.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister
That slavery should just be left in the past, perhaps. Meaning that you think a certain group should just shut up and be quiet about what happened to them.

Who said anything about people having to shut up? No one has even suggested that. Most of us know about slavery and the evils of the slave trade - Transatlantic or otherwise.

But, it's funny how forgiveness and reconciliation - and an acceptance of the evils of history - go out of the window when filthy lucre is involved, isn't it?

This is not about understanding the past and learning from it, but it's about revenge and financial opportunism. And it's an opportunity for certain incredibly unforgiving people to keep playing the race card when, frankly, the world is moving on from that kind of binary and bitter thinking.

The nations of Europe have pumped billions of pounds of aid into the developing world over the last fifty years, much of which has been embezzled. But, no, that's not enough. "Let's screw 'em for every last penny, and who cares how much suffering is caused to totally innocent people in European countries." After all, it's not the landed earls and lords who will suffer, but the descendants of slaves: wage slaves of the Industrial Revolution.

Those who really care for justice should ensure that the rights and well being of all oppressed people are protected. But what we see here is just naked revenge against those "eternally evil white people" and... "we don't care whether they are rich or poor, ruler or oppressed; we will screw them for everything we can get out of them..."

That's the ugly truth about all this.
 
Posted by seekingsister (# 17707) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Who said anything about people having to shut up? No one has even suggested that. Most of us know about slavery and the evils of the slave trade - Transatlantic or otherwise.

But, it's funny how forgiveness and reconciliation - and an acceptance of the evils of history - go out of the window when filthy lucre is involved, isn't it?

This is not about understanding the past and learning from it, but it's about revenge and financial opportunism. And it's an opportunity for certain incredibly unforgiving people to keep playing the race card when, frankly, the world is moving on from that kind of binary and bitter thinking.

The nations of Europe have pumped billions of pounds of aid into the developing world over the last fifty years, much of which has been embezzled. But, no, that's not enough. "Let's screw 'em for every last penny, and who cares how much suffering is caused to totally innocent people in European countries." After all, it's not the landed earls and lords who will suffer, but the descendants of slaves: wage slaves of the Industrial Revolution.

Those who really care for justice should ensure that the rights and well being of all oppressed people are protected. But what we see here is just naked revenge against those "eternally evil white people" and... "we don't care whether they are rich or poor, ruler or oppressed; we will screw them for everything we can get out of them..."

That's the ugly truth about all this. [/QB]

So this is what you think about the Caribbean governments - they are vengeful and greedy. Not that they feel a lingering pain and hurt over the past wrongdoing.

I'm out of this conversation; it's making me depressed. I've seen a lot of ugly in this thread and it's not coming from Caricom.

[ 14. March 2014, 09:45: Message edited by: seekingsister ]
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
And it's an opportunity for certain incredibly unforgiving people to keep playing the race card when, frankly, the world is moving on from that kind of binary and bitter thinking.

It's kind of interesting that whenever structural inequalities are raised, people are told to shut up and move on.

quote:

The nations of Europe have pumped billions of pounds of aid into the developing world over the last fifty years, much of which has been embezzled.

Largely to prop up various dictators during the cold war, or as a roundabout way of financing the European arms industry. I don't think you can pretend that the majority of the Aid given was the result of some kind of altruism.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
If one of your great-great-grandfathers had robbed a man of £10,000, would you say that you and all your siblings and cousins (however distant) should be responsible for paying back that money (adjusted for inflation of course) to each and every one of the victim's great-great-grandchildren?

No. Why do you ask? I can't see what link it has with what I said.

I'm talking about Anglican't's defense that the dependents of the state will be harmed if the state coughs up. That is analogous to a criminal saying he can't pay a fine because it will deprive his children.

[ 14. March 2014, 10:09: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You know nothing about me and my long involvement with Africa, including having a considerable knowledge of an African language and having been involved with an African translation project.

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Fascinating. Which African language? Which translation project?


 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:


I think it's all about trying to get rich countries to pay for development and improvements in their countries. They're just using slavery in the argument to make it harder for us to say no.

And what's wrong with that?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I'm out of this conversation; it's making me depressed. I've seen a lot of ugly in this thread and it's not coming from Caricom.

You've got to understand though that when one is a member of an oppressed minority, bearing a legacy of historic racial injustice, continually reminded of one's lowly place in the world and suffering ongoing inequality of opportunity and wealth that one can get quite emotional... oh, wait, am I getting this the right way round?
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
And it's an opportunity for certain incredibly unforgiving people to keep playing the race card when, frankly, the world is moving on from that kind of binary and bitter thinking.

It's kind of interesting that whenever structural inequalities are raised, people are told to shut up and move on.

quote:

The nations of Europe have pumped billions of pounds of aid into the developing world over the last fifty years, much of which has been embezzled.

Largely to prop up various dictators during the cold war, or as a roundabout way of financing the European arms industry. I don't think you can pretend that the majority of the Aid given was the result of some kind of altruism.

Also, aid is often tied to purchases from the aid-giving country. I recall extremely clearly in the 1970s, seeing a large group of trucks sitting and rusting near Georgetown, Guyana. Canada had given aid to Guyana to buy the trucks, ostensibly to transport rice. Guyana had dutifully bought the trucks from Canada with the aid money, but the trucks were too heavy for the roads, so they sat and rusted into junk.

During the same period of time I travelled to many of the Caribbean islands. They all had very nice airports. Great for North American and European tourists to pass through. I recall conversations several times as to how Canadian aid money had built or contributed to them. Certainly some of the locals were using these airports, but that certainly was not the target group. The rationale, which sounds rather excellent, was that tourism via the airports would greatly help the economies of these island nations. I suppose it does, but these are service jobs, low paying, and I refrain from "hot holidays' both for love of snow and winter, and my discomfort with these resorts, built with off shore money, serving rich tourists and paying the local workers a pittance in comparison. I also don't like the worker searches, equally or more invasive than most airport or diamond mine jobsites to ensure the workers are not stealing from the tourists as they come and go from their jobs which pay 10% of the tourists' wages.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
I have recently been involved in a project in Africa came from a European government's aid budget. The particular part of the project that this government was paying for could have been delivered by companies in Africa, but they insisted that it be delivered by a company from the European country as a condition for their funding.

The company has since gone bust (despite the European governments efforts to funnel their aid budget to them) and since the work is rather specialist no other company within the European country is able to or willing to take it on. Rather than divert the money to an African company the money has instead been withdrawn and so the project needs to get more funding to stay afloat.

I don't think this is all that uncommon.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I just want to know what your position is here. If you don't think it's reasonable to ask for rectification of a past wrong that had an economic impact in general, then that's informing your position.

I think that when the wrong is hundreds of years in the past and those years have seen extensive attempts to put it right then it is unreasonable to act as if no such rectification has happened.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
If one of your great-great-grandfathers had robbed a man of £10,000, would you say that you and all your siblings and cousins (however distant) should be responsible for paying back that money (adjusted for inflation of course) to each and every one of the victim's great-great-grandchildren?

No. Why do you ask? I can't see what link it has with what I said.
Just expanding your analogy to make a wider point about the overall thread. My answer is also "no", by the way.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I think it's all about trying to get rich countries to pay for development and improvements in their countries. They're just using slavery in the argument to make it harder for us to say no.

And what's wrong with that?
The first sentence or the second? The first is just the old socialism v capitalism argument, and I don't intend to rehash it here other than to say the arguments in both directions are no more or less valid regardless of the skin colour or heritage of the various sides. The second is just my strong dislike of people playing the "either you do what I say or you're a racist" card.
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I think it's all about trying to get rich countries to pay for development and improvements in their countries. They're just using slavery in the argument to make it harder for us to say no.

And what's wrong with that?
The first sentence or the second? The first is just the old socialism v capitalism argument, and I don't intend to rehash it here other than to say the arguments in both directions are no more or less valid regardless of the skin colour or heritage of the various sides.
Ah come on. I agree with you about a lot of things political and economic, but I struggle with the idea that we should leave it to market forces to sort out the kind of global social injustice that means that 1 person in 8 in the world won't eat today.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I think we have already acknowledged that under the heading of "practical difficulties" and "known complications". We know in general that the US and European economies are built in part on the excess capital garnered through slave labor, and that the economies of many African nations are further diminished from the loss of prime wage-earners. As has been pointed out already several times, making the exact calculation would be difficult, if not impossible.

That doesn't change the moral obligation. It simply makes it more difficult, or again potentially impossible, to rectify. That's frustrating for those who understandably wish it to be "over". But the constant diversion from discussions of the moral obligation to the discussion of the practical and political hindrances is, I'm guessing, equally frustrating if not heartbreaking to those who wish to first of all be heard-- to have that moral obligations named & recognized. It changes the conversation significantly, as well as some subsequent conversations (e.g. about aid) if we establish first that moral obligation-- even if we know the "fix" may be difficult or impossible.

That's my difficulty with the current campaign. If what is intended is to achieve a truthful, healing acknowledgement of historic wrongs and a reconciliation between the descendents of those wronged and the descendents of those who committed those wrongs, then why is it couched in terms of "give me all your money".
I'm not trying to speculate on the motives of those bringing the action. Perhaps they have a plan for financial compensation in place they think is feasible. I don't know, that's for them to say.

But the fact is, we do have a moral culpability. One that carries with it a financial component. We (Americans and Europeans) caused real, financial (and significantly other) harm to African tribes and nations. Our current prosperity is built to some degree on that. Our relative financial inequity is to some degree built on that.

So it is reasonable and fair for the discussion to be based in part on "give me all [sic] your money". Because, in a very real way, it is their money. And our instinctive response to try and shut down that conversation strikes me as uncomfortably reminiscent of the financial motives of the original slave traders. Are we really in a position to suggest that they are a bunch of money-grubbing opportunists? Really???

Again, the logistical, practical, and political barriers to this are immense, possibly insurmountable. That in and of itself should not be a reason to simply dismiss the discussion out of hand.
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We (Americans and Europeans) caused real, financial (and significantly other) harm to African tribes and nations. Our current prosperity is built to some degree on that. Our relative financial inequity is to some degree built on that.


What if it *weren't*? Would it then be unreasonable to expect us to try to right the inequalities of the world?

How much more should we do to try to achieve justice if we think we are to blame for the inequality than if we don't?

Or is your thinking that if slavery hadn't happened, the inequalities in the world would be much less than currently, and therefore while we would still have a responsibility, in justice for sharing with our fellow humans, less generosity would be required, and it becomes a moot point?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
[QUOTE]
The nations of Europe have pumped billions of pounds of aid into the developing world over the last fifty years, much of which has been embezzled. .

While a reality, African graft/corruption has been vastly overstated has in recent discussions as a factor. See, for example, Jeffrey Sach's excellent work

My own very small but firsthand experience in central Africa also confirms that Western aid has not been wasted-- at least not any more so than we waste our public and private funds at home.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
The first is just the old socialism v capitalism argument, and I don't intend to rehash it here other than to say the arguments in both directions are no more or less valid regardless of the skin colour or heritage of the various sides.

Ah come on. I agree with you about a lot of things political and economic, but I struggle with the idea that we should leave it to market forces to sort out the kind of global social injustice that means that 1 person in 8 in the world won't eat today.
...a statement that does not rely on the skin colour or heritage of those who are starving for its validity. Which is the only point I was making.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
If one of your great-great-grandfathers had robbed a man of £10,000, would you say that you and all your siblings and cousins (however distant) should be responsible for paying back that money (adjusted for inflation of course) to each and every one of the victim's great-great-grandchildren?

No. Why do you ask? I can't see what link it has with what I said.
Just expanding your analogy to make a wider point about the overall thread. My answer is also "no", by the way.
Let's say instead of something difficult to trace like cash, the item was a stolen Rembrandt. Would you be required to return the purloined painting? Of course. Similarly, if one would be able to trace the original £10,000 and demonstrate how it was included in an inheritance that was passed down to subsequent generations, you probably would be expected to return it. It's just with cash it's much harder to trace and parse out what came from where, whereas with whole goods like artwork it's much clearer. That's at play here as well, of course, as we constantly return to the logistical difficulty in putting a dollar amount on the actual monetary impact of prior slavery on contemporary economies. But the basic principle is the same, it's just logistically more difficult.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
at least not any more so than we waste our public and private funds at home.

My God, it's worse than I thought.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Can we identify, specifically, what hardships are being suffered that can be directly attributed to 18th / early 19th century wrongs?

As has been pointed out already several times, making the exact calculation would be difficult, if not impossible.

That doesn't change the moral obligation. It simply makes it more difficult, or again potentially impossible, to rectify. That's frustrating for those who understandably wish it to be "over". But the constant diversion from discussions of the moral obligation to the discussion of the practical and political hindrances is, I'm guessing, equally frustrating if not heartbreaking to those who wish to first of all be heard-- to have that moral obligations named & recognized. It changes the conversation significantly, as well as some subsequent conversations (e.g. about aid) if we establish first that moral obligation-- even if we know the "fix" may be difficult or impossible.

quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
But the fact is, we do have a moral culpability. One that carries with it a financial component. We (Americans and Europeans) caused real, financial (and significantly other) harm to African tribes and nations. Our current prosperity is built to some degree on that. Our relative financial inequity is to some degree built on that.

So it is reasonable and fair for the discussion to be based in part on "give me all [sic] your money". Because, in a very real way, it is their money. And our instinctive response to try and shut down that conversation strikes me as uncomfortably reminiscent of the financial motives of the original slave traders. Are we really in a position to suggest that they are a bunch of money-grubbing opportunists? Really???

Again, the logistical, practical, and political barriers to this are immense, possibly insurmountable. That in and of itself should not be a reason to simply dismiss the discussion out of hand.

I don't understand how these statements can be reconciled. On the one hand you seem to be saying that it's entirely proper for ex-colonies to pursue compensation claims but at the same time acknowledging that the value of such a claim would be impossible to ascertain.

How can there be a financial claim if it is impossible to quantify?

This financial question seems to me to be quite separate to any moral question (and any admission of moral culpability does not necessarily result in financial culpability).
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We (Americans and Europeans) caused real, financial (and significantly other) harm to African tribes and nations. Our current prosperity is built to some degree on that. Our relative financial inequity is to some degree built on that.


What if it *weren't*? Would it then be unreasonable to expect us to try to right the inequalities of the world?

How much more should we do to try to achieve justice if we think we are to blame for the inequality than if we don't?

Or is your thinking that if slavery hadn't happened, the inequalities in the world would be much less than currently, and therefore while we would still have a responsibility, in justice for sharing with our fellow humans, less generosity would be required, and it becomes a moot point?

Good points.

I guess I'm arguing to the lowest common denominator.

There are humane, compassionate reasons to care about the immense fiscal inequities in the world. There is also a moral culpability issue at play in many/most of those inequities. Both are true. If you aren't motivated by one, you ought to be by the other.
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
The first is just the old socialism v capitalism argument, and I don't intend to rehash it here other than to say the arguments in both directions are no more or less valid regardless of the skin colour or heritage of the various sides.

Ah come on. I agree with you about a lot of things political and economic, but I struggle with the idea that we should leave it to market forces to sort out the kind of global social injustice that means that 1 person in 8 in the world won't eat today.
...a statement that does not rely on the skin colour or heritage of those who are starving for its validity. Which is the only point I was making.
Fair enough, and I think that in principle I agree. At least, I don't see any reason for social justice to be a direct result of how culpable I personally feel for the injustice.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by seekingsister:
I just want to know what your position is here. If you don't think it's reasonable to ask for rectification of a past wrong that had an economic impact in general, then that's informing your position.

I think that when the wrong is hundreds of years in the past and those years have seen extensive attempts to put it right then it is unreasonable to act as if no such rectification has happened.
I'm not convinced that there have been "extensive attempts to put it right". Speaking only for my country, in the US, the fact that slavery was immediately followed by more than a century of Jim Crow laws, segregation, lynching and other violence specifically directed at suppressing those who were freed doesn't sound much like an "extensive attempt to put it right."
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I'm not convinced that there have been "extensive attempts to put it right". Speaking only for my country, in the US, the fact that slavery was immediately followed by more than a century of Jim Crow laws, segregation, lynching and other violence specifically directed at suppressing those who were freed doesn't sound much like an "extensive attempt to put it right."

Would you agree that contrasts with the approach in the British Empire where the Royal Navy cracked down on slavery after its abolition?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But you accept that, were this to happen, someone somewhere would lose out?

By that logic criminals with young children would have a good defense against paying fines.
If one of your great-great-grandfathers had robbed a man of £10,000, would you say that you and all your siblings and cousins (however distant) should be responsible for paying back that money (adjusted for inflation of course) to each and every one of the victim's great-great-grandchildren?
If we adjust your analogy to fit reality, the old man is still alive and enjoying the fruits of his crime.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Let's say instead of something difficult to trace like cash, the item was a stolen Rembrandt. Would you be required to return the purloined painting? Of course.

Debatable. And barely relevant, as the only definitively identifiable "items" that were actually stolen were people, and they are all long dead so giving them back is no longer an issue.

quote:
Similarly, if one would be able to trace the original £10,000 and demonstrate how it was included in an inheritance that was passed down to subsequent generations, you probably would be expected to return it.
After five generations? I very much doubt it.

quote:
It's just with cash it's much harder to trace and parse out what came from where, whereas with whole goods like artwork it's much clearer. That's at play here as well, of course, as we constantly return to the logistical difficulty in putting a dollar amount on the actual monetary impact of prior slavery on contemporary economies. But the basic principle is the same, it's just logistically more difficult.
I am thus far unconvinced that any contemporary economies (with the excepton of Haiti) are worse off because of slavery than they would have been had slavery never happened. Individuals at the time? Yes, definitely and demonstrably so. Economies in the present? I want to see some evidence.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Let's say instead of something difficult to trace like cash, the item was a stolen Rembrandt. Would you be required to return the purloined painting?

No need to conjecture a purely hypothetical case.

quote:
A New York man has gone to court for the return of several Nazi-looted artworks from the controversial collection of Cornelius Gurlitt in Munich.

David Toren, 88, whose father and uncle were art collectors in the prewar German city of Breslau, sued in U.S. District Court in Washington, D.C., earlier this month to demand the return of the 1901 paintings “Two Riders on the Beach” and “Basket Weavers” by the German-Jewish artist Max Liebermann.

Gurlitt’s father, Hildebrand, purchased the ”Riders” painting in 1942 while working for the Nazis, according to news reports. Hildebrand Gurlitt had told postwar American military authorities that it had been in his family since before the Nazis came to power.

Documents show the painting was among those confiscated by the Nazis from Toren’s great-uncle David Friedmann in Breslau — today Wroclaw, Poland — in 1939. Toren, an attorney, is Friedmann’s only surviving heir. The Nazis noted the Liebermann painting in the collection and in recent years it was listed in German’s Lostart database.

While the younger Gurlitt still possesses the “Riders” painting, he sold “Basket Weavers” at auction to an unnamed Israeli collector in 2000 for about $92,300, Haaretz reported.

So does the same logic apply here? The alleged offense took place in the distant past and the current possessor of the loot is not the original looter (a consideration that doesn't really apply to nation-states). I'm not sure I can see an argument as to why stealing art in 1939 is still actionable today but getting back the payments of the Haitian indemnity, which continued until 1947, is too far in the past to do anything about.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:

How can there be a financial claim if it is impossible to quantify?

I think it's quite possible to show that there is some financial impact w/o being able to quantify the exact amount. I think it is pretty easy to demonstrate that if the economy of a country benefitted from several centuries of slave labor, that has a financial impact that continued for many generations after slavery is ended. The original slave owners used their ill-gotten gains to amass property that they passed on to their children, they used their ill-gotten gains to educate those children. Those children then were able to leverage those assets in accumulating wealth that was passed on to their children. And so on. Similarly, you have tribes that were economically decimated by the loss of prime wage-earners-- the workers-- leaving behind the sick, disabled, and elderly. That has a similar generational impact. So there is a very real fiscal harm. BUT... calculating the exact figure, the exact fiscal impact generations later is not something that can be easily measured because to some degree it's measuring a "what if". "What if" there had been no slavery... what would the American economy look like now? What would African economy look like?


quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
This financial question seems to me to be quite separate to any moral question

This is what I have been arguing.


quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
(and any admission of moral culpability does not necessarily result in financial culpability).

It doesn't necessarily result in that, but I think in this specific case it is pretty apparent that it will, for the reasons noted above, even though determining the exact figure may be difficult-to-impossible, and finding an effective and just way to transmit those sums may similarly be fraught with logistical and political obstacles.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Let's say instead of something difficult to trace like cash, the item was a stolen Rembrandt. Would you be required to return the purloined painting? Of course.

Debatable. And barely relevant, as the only definitively identifiable "items" that were actually stolen were people, and they are all long dead so giving them back is no longer an issue.
Only if you don't consider the entire working output of someone's life to be an "item". It may not be in the strictly grammatical sense, but I'm not sure it's a useful distinction to make in this case.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Let's say instead of something difficult to trace like cash, the item was a stolen Rembrandt. Would you be required to return the purloined painting?

No need to conjecture a purely hypothetical case.

quote:
A New York man has gone to court for the return of several Nazi-looted artworks from the controversial collection of Cornelius Gurlitt in Munich.

David Toren, 88, whose father and uncle were art collectors in the prewar German city of Breslau, sued in U.S. District Court in Washington, D.C., earlier this month to demand the return of the 1901 paintings “Two Riders on the Beach” and “Basket Weavers” by the German-Jewish artist Max Liebermann.

Gurlitt’s father, Hildebrand, purchased the ”Riders” painting in 1942 while working for the Nazis, according to news reports. Hildebrand Gurlitt had told postwar American military authorities that it had been in his family since before the Nazis came to power.

Documents show the painting was among those confiscated by the Nazis from Toren’s great-uncle David Friedmann in Breslau — today Wroclaw, Poland — in 1939. Toren, an attorney, is Friedmann’s only surviving heir. The Nazis noted the Liebermann painting in the collection and in recent years it was listed in German’s Lostart database.

While the younger Gurlitt still possesses the “Riders” painting, he sold “Basket Weavers” at auction to an unnamed Israeli collector in 2000 for about $92,300, Haaretz reported.

So does the same logic apply here? The alleged offense took place in the distant past and the current possessor of the loot is not the original looter (a consideration that doesn't really apply to nation-states). I'm not sure I can see an argument as to why stealing art in 1939 is still actionable today but getting back the payments of the Haitian indemnity, which continued until 1947, is too far in the past to do anything about.

But we're talking morality not legality-- or practicality-- here.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I'm not convinced that there have been "extensive attempts to put it right". Speaking only for my country, in the US, the fact that slavery was immediately followed by more than a century of Jim Crow laws, segregation, lynching and other violence specifically directed at suppressing those who were freed doesn't sound much like an "extensive attempt to put it right."

Would you agree that contrasts with the approach in the British Empire where the Royal Navy cracked down on slavery after its abolition?
Sadly, like most Americans, I don't know enough about those efforts to comment. From your brief statement, it sounds like there was an "extensive attempt" to ensure slavery was well and truly ended, that there was no further suppression of individuals as happened in the American South for a century afterward. Certainly that is commendable, at least compared to our shameful example. What I'm not hearing, though, is any "extensive attempt" to provide financial recompense* for the purloined labor and it's impact both on the direct victims and the indirect victims (African tribes/nations).

*the one exception I know of is the Quakers, who did reimburse their slaves when they were freed.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
The alleged offense took place in the distant past

A single generation is not "the distant past". Temporal paradox notwithstanding, if we were having this conversation in the late 1800s then the comparison might be more apt.

quote:
I'm not sure I can see an argument as to why stealing art in 1939 is still actionable today but getting back the payments of the Haitian indemnity, which continued until 1947, is too far in the past to do anything about.
I'm somewhat open to the idea that France should repay Haiti, for exactly that reason.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Only if you don't consider the entire working output of someone's life to be an "item". It may not be in the strictly grammatical sense, but I'm not sure it's a useful distinction to make in this case.

Actually, that might provide a way to put a relatively reliable dollarpound figure on how much was stolen. Take the average annual wage for a free person doing similar work at the same time, multiply it by the number of slaves and how many years (on average) they worked, and you have an amount.

I'd honestly be interested to see what that amount would be.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I'm not convinced that there have been "extensive attempts to put it right". Speaking only for my country, in the US, the fact that slavery was immediately followed by more than a century of Jim Crow laws, segregation, lynching and other violence specifically directed at suppressing those who were freed doesn't sound much like an "extensive attempt to put it right."

Would you agree that contrasts with the approach in the British Empire where the Royal Navy cracked down on slavery after its abolition?
Sadly, like most Americans, I don't know enough about those efforts to comment. From your brief statement, it sounds like there was an "extensive attempt" to ensure slavery was well and truly ended, that there was no further suppression of individuals as happened in the American South for a century afterward. Certainly that is commendable, at least compared to our shameful example. What I'm not hearing, though, is any "extensive attempt" to provide financial recompense* for the purloined labor and it's impact both on the direct victims and the indirect victims (African tribes/nations).

*the one exception I know of is the Quakers, who did reimburse their slaves when they were freed.

It is a ridiculous thing to mention, regardless. It is saying a thief should be free from guilt as he prevented anyone else robbing the bank.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Sadly, like most Americans, I don't know enough about those efforts to comment. From your brief statement, it sounds like there was an "extensive attempt" to ensure slavery was well and truly ended, that there was no further suppression of individuals as happened in the American South for a century afterward. Certainly that is commendable, at least compared to our shameful example.

Interestingly enough, the U.S. Navy actually contributed ships to Britain's West Africa Squadron starting in 1820. The northern elites were becoming more anti-slavery and the southern elites supported the effort because they didn't want newly-imported slaves undercutting the value of their existing slaves. The U.S. had banned the importation of slaves in 1808 and for the most part made a moral distinction between capturing new slaves ("man-catching") and maintaining slavery as an institution. To call the early nineteenth century U.S. position on slavery "inconsistent and schizophrenic" would actually be an understatement.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Only if you don't consider the entire working output of someone's life to be an "item". It may not be in the strictly grammatical sense, but I'm not sure it's a useful distinction to make in this case.

Actually, that might provide a way to put a relatively reliable dollarpound figure on how much was stolen. Take the average annual wage for a free person doing similar work at the same time, multiply it by the number of slaves and how many years (on average) they worked, and you have an amount.

I'd honestly be interested to see what that amount would be.

I believe that is roughly what the Quakers did when they freed their slaves.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
Fair play to them. Do we know how much back pay they decided was owed?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Fair play to them. Do we know how much back pay they decided was owed?

I don't. I tried googling "Quaker reparations for slavery" and got a number of interesting looking hits behind paywalls. : ( I would assume it was whatever the going rate for freemen in that line of work (household workers, field laborers, etc) was at the time.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
It is a ridiculous thing to mention, regardless. It is saying a thief should be free from guilt as he prevented anyone else robbing the bank.

Presumably not ridiculous if one is looking at a pattern of behaviour in the round?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
It is a ridiculous thing to mention, regardless. It is saying a thief should be free from guilt as he prevented anyone else robbing the bank.

Presumably not ridiculous if one is looking at a pattern of behaviour in the round?
If not ridiculous, it is at the very least irrelevant.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Actually, that might provide a way to put a relatively reliable dollarpound figure on how much was stolen.

I remember reading an analysis of what the monetary value of all U.S. slaves in 1860 would have been. In this case sale price is an approximation of expected lifetime productive value minus the external costs of slave ownership (hiring an overseer, basic food and shelter, flogging instruments, etc.) Short answer: slaves represented the single largest concentration of worth in the U.S. in 1860, worth more than all the manufacturing facilities, or all the railroads, or any other single sector of the economy. The only thing that was worth more was the land comprising the United States.

quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Take the average annual wage for a free person doing similar work at the same time, multiply it by the number of slaves and how many years (on average) they worked, and you have an amount.

One complicating factor is that, in a lot of cases, there was no equivalent "free person doing similar work at the same time". The Caribbean sugar plantation system, which consumed most of the slaves we're discussing, was so lucrative slaves could (and were) simply worked to death. (e.g. 24/7 work shifts during harvest time.) There was simply no free labor force doing anything like this.

A better measure might be the productive output of the system. How much sugar was produced, what was its sale value at the time, and what does that translate to in present-day currency?
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:


A better measure might be the productive output of the system. How much sugar was produced, what was its sale value at the time, and what does that translate to in present-day currency?

Looking at this purely as an intellectual challenge, I'd be happy to start calculating using output, but I think it's fair to say that the providers of risk capital expect some return on their investment, and there would be other costs to take into account (admittedly not as significant as labour) so even if the workforce hadn't been slaves, their earning wouldn't have equaled the sale value of product. They might well have been equal to quite a large chunk of it, though. And we might be able to devise an acceptable methodology for adjusting back from sale value.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
Looking at this purely as an intellectual challenge, I'd be happy to start calculating using output, but I think it's fair to say that the providers of risk capital expect some return on their investment, and there would be other costs to take into account (admittedly not as significant as labour) so even if the workforce hadn't been slaves, their earning wouldn't have equaled the sale value of product.

That's one way of looking at it. Another is that extracting the sale value of whatever product was produced from forced labor was the main purpose of enslavement and, as such, the whole value represents "stolen goods".
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
Looking at this purely as an intellectual challenge, I'd be happy to start calculating using output, but I think it's fair to say that the providers of risk capital expect some return on their investment, and there would be other costs to take into account (admittedly not as significant as labour) so even if the workforce hadn't been slaves, their earning wouldn't have equaled the sale value of product.

That's one way of looking at it. Another is that extracting the sale value of whatever product was produced from forced labor was the main purpose of enslavement and, as such, the whole value represents "stolen goods".
Yes. You could argue that the operation was considered viable because it could be done with next to nil labour costs, and therefore all the income flows from the illegal act.

It's a bit like starting a business with dirty money. Even if you then make profits from an "honest" trade, you could argue that the whole of the enterprise is the proceeds of crime (not sure how it actually works under the Proceeds of Crime Act, but I wouldn't be surprised if that position holds).

I think there might be a few technically sustainable arguments as to what should be calculated and how. That might enable you to set the boundaries of the bargaining arena.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
"What if" there had been no slavery... what would the American economy look like now? What would African economy look like?

Here's the interesting question. West Indian countries owe their nature and existence to slavery. Had slavery not existed, the demographics of countries like Jamaica or Trinidad would be radically different.

So what would the inhabitants of West Indian countries be compensated for? There doesn't seem to me to be any guarantee that they would enjoy a better standard of living today had they not been moved (indeed, on current economic conditions one might argue that it's better to live in the Caribbean than West Africa).

Or are we comparing life in the Caribbean today compared with how life would have unfolded had Africa remained untouched by Europeans? If it is then, as you say, not only is a comparison almost impossible to make but it doesn't strike me as conclusive that one life is definitely prefereable to the other.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Again with the benefits of colonialism bullshit.
Same ridiculous reasoning which has been used to justify slavery and theft when it was occurring.

[ 14. March 2014, 15:28: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Again with the benefits of colonialism bullshit.
Same ridiculous reasoning which has been used to justify slavery and theft when it was occurring.

I wasn't claiming 'benefits of colonialism' (though I believe there were some).

I was simply arguing that if one were to compare (if such a comparison were possible) 1) the West Indies as they exist today and 2) a counter-factual Africa in which there had been no European involvement whatsover, that it's not clear to me one place would be a better place to live over another.

To call that 'bullshit' means that you know for certain that this hypothetical Africa that has never actually existed would undoubtedly enjoy a better standard of living than the present-day West Indies. I don't know how one can claim that (unless one has a time machine and a penchant for creating alternative timelines).
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Sadly, like most Americans, I don't know enough about those efforts to comment. From your brief statement, it sounds like there was an "extensive attempt" to ensure slavery was well and truly ended, that there was no further suppression of individuals as happened in the American South for a century afterward. Certainly that is commendable, at least compared to our shameful example.

Interestingly enough, the U.S. Navy actually contributed ships to Britain's West Africa Squadron starting in 1820. The northern elites were becoming more anti-slavery and the southern elites supported the effort because they didn't want newly-imported slaves undercutting the value of their existing slaves. The U.S. had banned the importation of slaves in 1808 and for the most part made a moral distinction between capturing new slaves ("man-catching") and maintaining slavery as an institution. To call the early nineteenth century U.S. position on slavery "inconsistent and schizophrenic" would actually be an understatement.
Haiti was also involved in anti-slave-trade naval actions.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
One complicating factor is that, in a lot of cases, there was no equivalent "free person doing similar work at the same time". The Caribbean sugar plantation system, which consumed most of the slaves we're discussing, was so lucrative slaves could (and were) simply worked to death. (e.g. 24/7 work shifts during harvest time.) There was simply no free labor force doing anything like this.

Actually there is a good proxy. Following emancipation the Caribbean islands found they needed to import a considerable amount of labour to work the sugar plantations. Many emancipated slaves either did not want to continue as employees on the plantations or only on terms which (perhaps from spite or stubbornness) the planters wouldn't pay.

They got that labour from all over the world, but especially from India. People came on indentured terms, contracted to work for a certain number of years in exchange for assisted or free passage. They came in their tens of thousands throughout the 1840s and 1850s in particular, although a large majority went home again when their contracts were up. There is plenty of evidence of the terms of their contracts.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
Back to the First Nations example (First Nations = North American Indians in Canada). I posted re an Anglican Diocese that ceased to operate after paying for a settlement. However, First Nations continue to receive specific things on account of having their land taken. They are 'nations' because they signed treaties that recognized them as such. First Nations people living on reserves pay no tax, on or off reserve, they generally have fully funded education at post secondary levels, additional health benefits others don't receive, can hunt any time they want without licenses. The point being that some forms of payments may be in the form of entitlements.

Could European nations allow commodities to be imported without duty for example? Or allow freer immigration and work visas? Or provide educational funding? -- the point being that their past conduct did negative things to these nations and present conduct could rectify. They could take an active interest and responsibility in the development of these countries.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:

I was simply arguing that if one were to compare (if such a comparison were possible) 1) the West Indies as they exist today and 2) a counter-factual Africa in which there had been no European involvement whatsover, that it's not clear to me one place would be a better place to live over another.

To call that 'bullshit' means that you know for certain that this hypothetical Africa that has never actually existed would undoubtedly enjoy a better standard of living than the present-day West Indies. I don't know how one can claim that (unless one has a time machine and a penchant for creating alternative timelines).

Your argument is rubbish. Can I rape you, then claim your life was likely going to be shit anyway so I go free?

We cannot know beyond all doubt how Africa would have developed had Europe not spent centuries raping her.
We can do reasoned studies, with maths and everything.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I wasn't claiming 'benefits of colonialism' (though I believe there were some). ....I was simply arguing that if one were to compare (if such a comparison were possible) 1) the West Indies as they exist today and 2) a counter-factual Africa in which there had been no European involvement whatsover, that it's not clear to me one place would be a better place to live over another.

I'll try to imagine a Kenya in which there weren't concentration camps interring hundreds of thusands through the late 50s and early 60s, weren't the tens of thousands of deaths in the state of emergency, wasn't the legacy of having been cleared off the best land, and the subsequent grab for land as independence dawned with the subsequent legacy of inter-ethnic strife.

On the other hand, Europeans brought modern medicine, road building, vaccines and an educational system.

However many of the benefits of improved medical care and education have been realized after colonialism rather than during. Which highlights the fact that there's a false dichotomy here. The question isn't whether colonialism brought some benefits or not, it is whether European involvement in Africa brought and still brings benefits or not.

Undoubtedly it does. Millions of lives are saved with bednets, vaccines, millions are lifted out of poverty with opportunities for education and industry... but it isn't colonialism that does that, it is aid, collaboration, making technology available... colonialism only brought misery and racism and was not necessary to achieve the good that Europe has achieved in Africa. Much of which has been achieved once colonialism went.

It is worth adding that many Africans would consider European missionary work a great good that was done for Africa. Not a very popular or fashionable view in Europe now, but nevertheless there it is.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Your argument is rubbish.

Well not if one is trying to calculate loss. You've used a lot of colourful criminal law analogies in your posts, but if one were approaching this as a tortious claim, then trying to ascertain what loss has actually been suffered is one of the key factors to consider, presumably?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Read the link in my previous post.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
"What if" there had been no slavery... what would the American economy look like now? What would African economy look like?

Here's the interesting question. West Indian countries owe their nature and existence to slavery. Had slavery not existed, the demographics of countries like Jamaica or Trinidad would be radically different.

So what would the inhabitants of West Indian countries be compensated for? There doesn't seem to me to be any guarantee that they would enjoy a better standard of living today had they not been moved (indeed, on current economic conditions one might argue that it's better to live in the Caribbean than West Africa).

Or are we comparing life in the Caribbean today compared with how life would have unfolded had Africa remained untouched by Europeans? If it is then, as you say, not only is a comparison almost impossible to make but it doesn't strike me as conclusive that one life is definitely prefereable to the other.

Again, my argument is that the unknown "what ifs" make the pragmatics of the case extremely challenging, if not impossible. But that doesn't change the moral culpability, nor does it alter the direction of the impact, simply the quantification. The reality that there was an enormous net fiscal gain to America and Europe is indisputable-- that ill-gotten gain was passed on to subsequent generations through inheritance and the building of a massive infrastructure. Even the previously mentioned technological gifts to Africa (modern medicine, education, etc.) was made possible through the wealth that financed it-- wealth built on slavery. And, again, African tribes/nations were clearly impacted negatively-- you extract the prime workers from any society and disrupt family structures you're going to have a massive economic impact that will resonate for generations to come.

Acknowledging the difficulties in quantifying that impact does not equate to the conclusion that there is no impact. Just like acknowledging the logistical and political difficulties inherent in enacting a recompense does not change the moral culpability.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
However many of the benefits of improved medical care and education have been realized after colonialism rather than during. Which highlights the fact that there's a false dichotomy here.

Indeed. We can even look at a few real-world examples to test this hypothesis. For example, if colonial rule is an effective aid in introducing Western medicine and technology, we would expect Thailand (which was never a colony) to lag behind its colonized neighbors (Laos, Cambodia, Malaysia, and Burma) in these areas. The fact that the reverse seems to be the case casts some doubt on the validity of the hypothesis.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
Yes. You could argue that the operation was considered viable because it could be done with next to nil labour costs, and therefore all the income flows from the illegal act.

It's a bit like starting a business with dirty money. Even if you then make profits from an "honest" trade, you could argue that the whole of the enterprise is the proceeds of crime (not sure how it actually works under the Proceeds of Crime Act, but I wouldn't be surprised if that position holds).

I think there might be a few technically sustainable arguments as to what should be calculated and how. That might enable you to set the boundaries of the bargaining arena.

Well, a lower boundary at least. "Forfeiture of ill-gotten gains" is usually considered the bare minimum required by justice.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
However many of the benefits of improved medical care and education have been realized after colonialism rather than during. Which highlights the fact that there's a false dichotomy here.

Indeed. We can even look at a few real-world examples to test this hypothesis. For example, if colonial rule is an effective aid in introducing Western medicine and technology, we would expect Thailand (which was never a colony) to lag behind its colonized neighbors (Laos, Cambodia, Malaysia, and Burma) in these areas. The fact that the reverse seems to be the case casts some doubt on the validity of the hypothesis.
This also begs the question of where Africa might be with the positives if Western influence but without all the intervening years of Weatern brought turmoil.
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
It is worth adding that many Africans would consider European missionary work a great good that was done for Africa. Not a very popular or fashionable view in Europe now, but nevertheless there it is.

It wasn't a fashionable view (by the people in charge) then either.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
West Indian countries owe their nature and existence to slavery. Had slavery not existed, the demographics of countries like Jamaica or Trinidad would be radically different.

So what would the inhabitants of West Indian countries be compensated for? There doesn't seem to me to be any guarantee that they would enjoy a better standard of living today had they not been moved (indeed, on current economic conditions one might argue that it's better to live in the Caribbean than West Africa).

Or are we comparing life in the Caribbean today compared with how life would have unfolded had Africa remained untouched by Europeans? If it is then, as you say, not only is a comparison almost impossible to make but it doesn't strike me as conclusive that one life is definitely prefereable to the other.

Transatlantic slavery created new nations, cultures and psychologies: that's the point. Caribbean history is a history of slavery and there's no way to 'move on' from this history unless we propose that Caribbean people (and the Europeans themselves) engage in a deliberate form of amnesia. The black and mixed-race Caribbean middle classes did try this for a while, but then realised that they were never going to be accepted as honorary Europeans, therefore they needed to begin to learn and accept their own history, and how it had made them. And that process didn't put Europeans in a very good light.

You apparently find it hard to believe that slave colonies that became lasting communities and nations also created psychological, cultural and sociological contexts with a lasting influence. FYI African American Studies, Caribbean Studies and a good proportion of Postcolonial Studies have been devoted to exploring the consequences of Transatlantic slavery on the African diaspora. There's a vast amount of material now available, so there's no need to be poorly informed. If you're genuinely interested the information isn't hard to find.

Regarding the nefarious consequences for Africa of the Transatlantic Slave Trade, I said in an earlier post that this has been judged by some scholars to be considerable. I think the issue revolves partly around the economic impact of depopulation. It's also partly about the ongoing psychological impacts on communities who for several centuries were wholeheartedly devoted to stimulating and maintaining human destruction for the sake of money and power.

The trade also paved the way for European colonisation of Africa. Yes, some of the oppressed will always find a way to benefit from their oppressors, but it's hard to deny that the gospel was compromised by being shackled to the forces of conquest and oppression or that the relations between black and white weren't warped as a result of this history.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
We cannot know beyond all doubt how Africa would have developed had Europe not spent centuries raping her.
We can do reasoned studies, with maths and everything.

The effect of the Atlantic slave trade would be one factor. The same exercise has been done for slave trading within Africa. This study suggests that the cost of that alone might equal 71 years of development. Indigenous slavery represented a different model; it was often (though not always) less brutal than external slaving, either the Atlantic or the Islamic trades, but it was more widespread and much more long lasting. The first Portuguese traders in the 1470s found slave markets on the West African coast that were then centuries old and a developed trade spanning the continent. In many cases it was the early 20th century before there was de facto abolition of the slave trade within West Africa.

I haven't seen a similar study for the effect of the Islamic slave trade as an inhibiting factor on African development but that would also be instructive. I have seen studies for the impacts of colonialism on African development, but those are very hard to interpret. There are both positive and negative impacts and the weight of them varies very widely from one part of Africa to another. A full picture would need to look at many other factors too, of course. Climate and geographical features are likely to have a bigger say in some parts of the continent than any other single factor.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
Croesos wrote:
quote:
Indeed. We can even look at a few real-world examples to test this hypothesis. For example, if colonial rule is an effective aid in introducing Western medicine and technology, we would expect Thailand (which was never a colony) to lag behind its colonized neighbors (Laos, Cambodia, Malaysia, and Burma) in these areas. The fact that the reverse seems to be the case casts some doubt on the validity of the hypothesis.
Malaysia spends more per capita on healthcare than Thailand. As do Singapore and Brunei which you have omitted entirely. The most recent available figures (source - WHO, 2011 data) are:

Singapore - 2787
Brunei - 1295
Malaysia - 995
Thailand - 353
Vietnam - 231
Cambodia - 135
Laos - 78
Burma - 28

(all US dollars, corrected for inflation to a 2005 base).

As a matter of fact, I do agree with mdijon, but for the reasons he gives.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Honest Ron Bacardi:
Croesos wrote:
quote:
Indeed. We can even look at a few real-world examples to test this hypothesis. For example, if colonial rule is an effective aid in introducing Western medicine and technology, we would expect Thailand (which was never a colony) to lag behind its colonized neighbors (Laos, Cambodia, Malaysia, and Burma) in these areas. The fact that the reverse seems to be the case casts some doubt on the validity of the hypothesis.
Malaysia spends more per capita on healthcare than Thailand. As do Singapore and Brunei which you have omitted entirely. The most recent available figures (source - WHO, 2011 data) are:

Singapore - 2787
Brunei - 1295
Malaysia - 995
Thailand - 353
Vietnam - 231
Cambodia - 135
Laos - 78
Burma - 28

(all US dollars, corrected for inflation to a 2005 base).

As a matter of fact, I do agree with mdijon, but for the reasons he gives.

I "omitted" Singapore and Brunei for the largely geographic reason that they don't border Thailand. I didn't include India either, which is actually closer to Thailand than Brunei. If I'd thought of them I'd consider the comparison inapt, since the compact nature of Singapore and Brunei gives an "apples and oranges" feel to the comparison, since neither possesses outlying regions that might be remote from professional healthcare. Geography matters, in that sense.

At any rate, as the United States demonstrates spending more per capita on healthcare doesn't mean you're necessarily getting better healthcare. So what are Thailand's neighbors getting for their per capita health care spending. Here's a look at some general proxies for healthcare:

Life Expectancy at Birth

So Malaysia is pretty comparable to Thailand in this area while the others trail behind. Of course, life expectancy is only a rough proxy for medical care. What about situations where some level of medical care is more directly called for?

Infant Mortality (deaths per 1,000 live births)

Those are from the CIA World Factbook, if you feel like double-checking.

So Malaysia comes close, and the rest aren't even in the same ballpark. It's still the opposite of what we'd expect to see if the "colonialism leads to better medical care" hypothesis is correct, which would be Thailand being noticeably worse than all its formerly colonial neighbors, rather than roughly on par with Malaysia and significantly better than other nations it borders.

Of course, these are current statistics. What would be more interesting would be stats from the 1950s or 1960s, either just before or just after the end of colonialism for these countries. The benefits would still be fresh, without the intervening half-century of theoretically inferior, self-determined governance.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
"Forfeiture of ill-gotten gains" is usually considered the bare minimum required by justice.

If you catch the criminal, yes, and an apology with it. But if all you do is catch up with his great-grandchildren, who are as innocent of wrongdoing as the original victim, then there is nothing to apologise for, and restoration of what is provably 100% stolen property is the maximum intervention that is justified. A Rembrandt would qualify.

Consider also a different case where what is taken is land. It may be completely identifiable that a particular area of land was unjustly taken a few generations ago. But it seems to me that the evil involved in turning off the land those for whom it is home is greater than the good in giving it to the descendants of the original owner, who have never lived there.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
I haven't seen a similar study for the effect of the Islamic slave trade as an inhibiting factor on African development but that would also be instructive. I have seen studies for the impacts of colonialism on African development, but those are very hard to interpret.

I understand that Leopold II of Belgium put forward as one of his reasons for setting up the Congo Free State the eradication of the Islamic slave trade. I think the inhabitants of the Congo Free State would have considered the Islamic slave trade preferable.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

Consider also a different case where what is taken is land. It may be completely identifiable that a particular area of land was unjustly taken a few generations ago. But it seems to me that the evil involved in turning off the land those for whom it is home is greater than the good in giving it to the descendants of the original owner, who have never lived there.

While there are no doubt millions of Westerners who would agree with you, I'm equally certain that there are few displaced people groups around the globe who would have a very different perspective on that.
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
"Forfeiture of ill-gotten gains" is usually considered the bare minimum required by justice.

If you catch the criminal, yes, and an apology with it. But if all you do is catch up with his great-grandchildren, who are as innocent of wrongdoing as the original victim, then there is nothing to apologise for, and restoration of what is provably 100% stolen property is the maximum intervention that is justified. A Rembrandt would qualify.

Russ

yes and no.
If my great grandfather had stolen some great painting, and then left it to ... and I suddenly found it in the attic. Then yes if I'm quick at giving it back there may be a little to apologize for, but I can still commiserate their loss.
[and if it was a not so great painting, it might even be that the thefts will balance out. But the giveaway signs are rather clear]


If I've had it for some years and to complete the metaphor obtained guest fees from it's exhibition then there's a strong case you've been (at least morally) criminally negligent in not checking it's history. And personally where you've become rich from the entrance fees some of that needs to go back.
If my father had made a very good copy so we couldn't tell then one of them ought to go back.

[ 14. March 2014, 21:51: Message edited by: Jay-Emm ]
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jay-Emm:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
It is worth adding that many Africans would consider European missionary work a great good that was done for Africa. Not a very popular or fashionable view in Europe now, but nevertheless there it is.

It wasn't a fashionable view (by the people in charge) then either.
The missionaries' record was quite diverse.

Some colluded with imperialism, and others fought the slave trade, the opium trade, land seizures, institutionalised racism and so on.

Recently, American sociologist Robert Woodberry has published material on the relationship between Protestant missions and the subsequent health of democracy in the countries where they worked.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Contrary to British propaganda and western perceptions of the time, the Mau Mau attacks were mostly well organised and planned.

"...the insurgents' lack of heavy weaponry and the heavily entrenched police and Home Guard positions meant that Mau Mau attacks were restricted to nighttime and where loyalist positions were weak. When attacks did commence they were fast and brutal, as insurgents were easily able to identify loyalists because they were often local to those communities themselves. The Lari massacre was by comparison rather outstanding and in contrast to regular Mau Mau strikes which more often than not targeted only loyalists without such massive civilian casualties. "Even the attack upon Lari, in the view of the rebel commanders was strategic and specific.”


Nice try, but if you are going to quote Wikipedia, you run the risk that readers are going to check the source.

The same article also states that “Mau Mau militants were guilty of numerous war crimes” in which their victims were “tortured, mutilated and murdered”.

They killed over 1,800 of their fellow Africans (not counting "disappeareds"), as well as a number of European and Asian men, women and children.

An atrocity is an atrocity, even if it is carried out by those who have the overall balance of justice and suffering on their side.

The numbers who died in the nuclear blasts in Japan in 1945 were minuscule compared to the numbers killed by Japanese military forces 1937-45 (between 10 and 14 million in China alone), but they arguably represented an atrocity nonetheless, and were experienced as such by the people of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

[ 14. March 2014, 22:46: Message edited by: Kaplan Corday ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
"Forfeiture of ill-gotten gains" is usually considered the bare minimum required by justice.

If you catch the criminal, yes, and an apology with it. But if all you do is catch up with his great-grandchildren, who are as innocent of wrongdoing as the original victim, then there is nothing to apologise for, and restoration of what is provably 100% stolen property is the maximum intervention that is justified. A Rembrandt would qualify.
As I pointed out previously (more than once), when it comes to nation-states and their actions, they are considered to be the same entities as they ones that existed and acted centuries ago.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Britain created the situation for the stage for the Mau Mau atrocities. Not that this excuses the Mau Mau actions. But the economic recompense, which is the main topic of discussion here, is laid at the feet of Britain.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
They killed over 1,800 of their fellow Africans (not counting "disappeareds"), as well as a number of European and Asian men, women and children.

About 30 European settlers and 150 soldiers. Against the 10s of thousands of dead Kikuyus (I think 1,800 is an underestimate for the mau mau) and the hundreds of thousands who were interned in concentration camps by the British without trial for years.

But I said all that upthread.

Furthermore those that are compensated may or may not have been actually involved in mau mau. Certainly hundreds with no credible evidence against them were hanged.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Croesos
At any rate, as the United States demonstrates spending more per capita on healthcare doesn't mean you're necessarily getting better healthcare. So what are Thailand's neighbors getting for their per capita health care spending. Here's a look at some general proxies for healthcare:

Life Expectancy at Birth

Thailand - 74.18 years
Burma - 65.94 years
Cambodia - 63.78 years
Laos - 63.51 years
Malaysia - 74.52 years

Life expectancy does not depend entirely on the quality of health care. It also depends on diet and other lifestyle issues. I believe that the latter are actually more important.

Moo
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Even if one disputes that Thailand is ahead of all its immediate neighbours in development (although it inarguably is compared with Laos, Cambodia and Burma), it is very hard to identify a benefit that Thailand has missed out on by not being a colony.

Reading through the rest of the thread it seems to me there are three different groups of scenarios being argued;

i) Individuals have wronged other individuals. The robbed paintings scenarios or burglary scenarios belong here. Most of us agree that the wronging individual ought to pay a reparation, and that stolen goods owned by descendants may need to be restored depending on their nature and identifiability, with a rapidly tapering requirement as the generations go by.

ii) States have wronged individuals. The Mau mau/ state of emergency in Kenya scenario belongs here. While the wronged individual remains alive, the state retains its liability for reparations while it exists. The British state has a responsibility towards individual Kenyans who prove their case irrespective of the actions of the Kenyan state, which is not directly involved in the case.

Some liability for reparations may exist towards their descendants if it could be shown that they have been deprived of property they might have inherited, for instance.

iii) States have wronged other states. I would argue liability for reperations may well exist, and that seems to be accepted in the West German reparations to Israel that Croeses references upthread. At this point I think it does become reasonable to consider the actions of that other state, and whether the continuity exists between the wrong done in the past and the current state entities that one is dealing with.

Presumably the continuity between Jews in Europe and the Israeli state was considered enough to make this legitimate as a recipient for West German reparations.

It is here that the question of slavery reparations has its context, and therefore individual wrongs and descendants of individuals are not the question. It is the continuity of states and nations that are in question.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
it seems to me there are three different groups of scenarios being argued;

i) Individuals have wronged other individuals. ii) States have wronged individuals.
iii) States have wronged other states.

I think moral principles are clearest in the case of individuals against individuals; establishing the principles at that level is a worthwhile step before going on to try to apply those principles in the case where the wrong was an action of the state.

The relationship between the individual and the collective is not totally straightforward.

I can see the sense in trying to distinguish acts of policy by the state from acts of individuals. But it's not obvious to me that the transatlantic slave trade was such an act of policy by the British government - was this not private enterprise ?

I'm also not immediately and totally convinced that a state can be wronged. Only individuals suffer.

And even if a state could be wronged, Wikipedia tells me that the state of St Vincent and the Grenadines came into being in 1979, and thus it seems hard to argue that the state as such was wronged in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
International law seems to recognize that states can be wronged - corrective UN resolutions can be made, wars can be denounced, and the Germans can be reparations to Israel.

Which also didn't exist at the time of the holocaust, but is regarded as inheriting the legacy.

I agree it is easier with individuals, but that isn't a reason to not think about states when the crime fits a state.

Slavery may have involved acts my many individuals, but the argument is that the state ought not to have allowed it. Eventually the state came round to that view and slavery was made illegal.

[ 16. March 2014, 10:49: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
International law seems to recognize that states can be wronged - corrective UN resolutions can be made, wars can be denounced, and the Germans can be reparations to Israel.

Which also didn't exist at the time of the holocaust, but is regarded as inheriting the legacy.

Presumably the idea of wronged states can be seen, for example, in the reparations provisions of the Treaty of Frankfurt, ending the Franco-Prussian War, and the Treaty of Versailles?
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
International law seems to recognize that

Presumably the idea of wronged states can be seen, for example, in the reparations provisions of the Treaty of Frankfurt, ending the Franco-Prussian War, and the Treaty of Versailles?
The idea obviously can.

Whether the demands made were accurate, proportionate, etc... is a different matter.
Also they were of course obtained at the barrel of a gun, and not so open for negotiation or analysis.

[Also in the example of Haiti. Current thinking is that France didn't have a right to the 'property' it claimed was stolen from it. So it was a false claim. But it was a claim non the less (the British equiv's may be more a stretch as individuals were involved at one point in the chain).]

[ 16. March 2014, 11:55: Message edited by: Jay-Emm ]
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Slavery may have involved acts by many individuals, but the argument is that the state ought not to have allowed it. Eventually the state came round to that view and slavery was made illegal.

So you'd have the Caribbean countries in effect sue the British government for not banning slavery earlier ? Any particular administration ? Or all of them from William the Conqueror onwards ?

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
I once heard an academic claim that Queen Elizabeth I had actually outlawed slavery, and that therefore the slaving expeditions that took place during her reign were illegal. He clearly thought that focusing on specific laws in specific times and places was more useful in the reparations struggle than trying to deal with the vague immorality of the slave trade in a vast number of different colonies and legal systems.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Presumably the idea of wronged states can be seen, for example, in the reparations provisions of the Treaty of Frankfurt, ending the Franco-Prussian War, and the Treaty of Versailles?

Neither of those can now be regarded as either a good argument or precedent for the legitimacy or prudence of permitting reparations thereafter either in theory or practice.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Presumably the idea of wronged states can be seen, for example, in the reparations provisions of the Treaty of Frankfurt, ending the Franco-Prussian War, and the Treaty of Versailles?

I think those cases illustrate "agreed" reparations as a condition of a peace treaty, rather than a claim for reparations under international law, or as a disinterested assessment of what compensation the victims (the party that was attacked in the war) were morally entitled to.

And insofar as they were a claim for the cost to the victors of restoring the status quo, it was specifically from the coffers of the state that that expenditure was made, so in that sense the states were the wronged party.

However, both followed immediately (in historical terms) upon the putting-right of the crime rather than someone coming up with a claim six generations later.

I cannot see it as a Good Thing if it becomes fashionable to rewrite history as one thinks it ought to have turned out, and then launch lawsuits on behalf of those who have lost out relative to that imaginary counterfactual scenario. Are there not enough real injustices being committed right now ?

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Slavery may have involved acts by many individuals, but the argument is that the state ought not to have allowed it. Eventually the state came round to that view and slavery was made illegal.

quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
So you'd have the Caribbean countries in effect sue the British government for not banning slavery earlier ? Any particular administration ? Or all of them from William the Conqueror onwards ?

Not an administration. The state. Just as it was the state of West Germany that agreed to reparations to Israel, rather than a specific administration.

It's an interesting question to think through how long a government might have to lie low after a wrong to avoid any reparations.

I can't help thinking it would be fantastic to see a nation do something really unprecedented in paying reparations over such a huge historic wrong. I would find it inspiring and moving.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
I think those cases illustrate "agreed" reparations as a condition of a peace treaty, rather than a claim for reparations under international law, or as a disinterested assessment of what compensation the victims (the party that was attacked in the war) were morally entitled to.

And insofar as they were a claim for the cost to the victors of restoring the status quo, it was specifically from the coffers of the state that that expenditure was made, so in that sense the states were the wronged party.

However, both followed immediately (in historical terms) upon the putting-right of the crime rather than someone coming up with a claim six generations later.

I cannot see it as a Good Thing if it becomes fashionable to rewrite history as one thinks it ought to have turned out, and then launch lawsuits on behalf of those who have lost out relative to that imaginary counterfactual scenario. Are there not enough real injustices being committed right now ?

I agree with the last paragraph, but with all due respect, the rest is nonsense.

The reparations imposed on the French in 1871 and the Germans in 1919 weren't "agreed'. In both cases they were imposed by the winner on the loser. The settlement in 1919 can just about be defended as putting right the wrongs of 1871, but there's no sense in which Prussia's grabbing Alsace-Lorraine in 1870 was righting a wrong. It was a simple case of vae victis - we've won so we can do it. Bismarck engineered a war and won it.

Nor is there any sense that the coffers of the state are in some sense different from the personal assists of its citizens/subjects. That was hardly a defensible argument even when states were regarded as the personal property of their sovereigns. Simple question - if a state is made to pay a reparation, where do you think the money comes from?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Simple question - if a state is made to pay a reparation, where do you think the money comes from?

And that is at the heart of the protestations against reparations. Self-interest, not right or wrong.
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Simple question - if a state is made to pay a reparation, where do you think the money comes from?

Ultimately depends on the states (taxation and legal) policies.

But in* general from those who are significantly better off than the people who ultimately benefit** in the states claiming.
And where a considerable part of the difference is a direct consequence of the actions of slavery and/or imperialism. (which of course includes me).

*the context of this subject.
**assuming of course that it isn't diverted by either state.

[ 16. March 2014, 18:26: Message edited by: Jay-Emm ]
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

I cannot see it as a Good Thing if it becomes fashionable to rewrite history as one thinks it ought to have turned out, and then launch lawsuits on behalf of those who have lost out relative to that imaginary counterfactual scenario. Are there not enough real injustices being committed right now ?

Best wishes,

Russ

Because what, seeing slavery as evil is " imaginary" and "counterfactual"? It's just some new "fashionable" idea?

Some injustices take decades, centuries even, to be fully accounted for. That doesn't make the underlying issues any less "real". It does, again, make a good number of practical matters far more difficult. But can't we take just like 2 seconds to acknowledge the reality and the actuality (anything but "imaginary"!) of the evil before we rush to just brush it aside as inconvenient?

Some of what we've learned both from South Africa and Rwanda is how the truth about an evil continues to get played out generation after generation until you finally bring things out in the open, acknowledge them, speak of them, begin naming things. Mandella was genius in recognizing how important this is, that we will continue to be haunted by the past until we come to terms with it. Not in "imaginary" injustices or even "long-ago history" but in real injustice that bleeds our souls today. If there's any doubt about that, just take a brief glance at race relations in American post-emancipation.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
So you'd have the Caribbean countries in effect sue the British government for not banning slavery earlier ? Any particular administration ? Or all of them from William the Conqueror onwards ?

Not an administration. The state. Just as it was the state of West Germany that agreed to reparations to Israel, rather than a specific administration.

I thought you were saying that the state is morally culpable for not preventing (what we now recognise as) wrongs committed by private citizens. Are you saying that, or are you saying that individuals long since dead were morally responsible but the state should pay anyway ?

English law works on the basis that anything is permitted unless specifically prohibited. So to complain that the state didn't prevent something is to complain that no law was passed - that the anti-slavery Acts of the nineteenth century should have been made law sooner. So who exactly are you saying should have enacted this law earlier and didn't, thereby ncurring moral responsibility for the transatlantic slave trade ?

The example of German reparations to Israel for the Holocaust is, like your other examples, concerning recent (in the lifetime of at least some of the perpetrators) reparations for the specific actions of the state under a particular government.

Should the US seek reparations for 9/11 from the government of Pakistan ? For failing to prevent private individuals committing an atrocity ? Will that still be a valid claim in 150 years time - is it just that innocent Pakistanis in 2164 should foot the bill ?

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

Should the US seek reparations for 9/11 from the government of Pakistan ?

Apparently our government thinks so.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Should the US seek reparations for 9/11 from the government of Pakistan ? For failing to prevent private individuals committing an atrocity ? Will that still be a valid claim in 150 years time - is it just that innocent Pakistanis in 2164 should foot the bill ?

What did Pakistan have to do with 9/11? Al Qaeda was being run from Afghanistan and the hijackers were Arabs (mostly Saudis), not Pakistanis.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
English law works on the basis that anything is permitted unless specifically prohibited. So to complain that the state didn't prevent something is to complain that no law was passed - that the anti-slavery Acts of the nineteenth century should have been made law sooner. So who exactly are you saying should have enacted this law earlier and didn't, thereby ncurring moral responsibility for the transatlantic slave trade ?

The example of German reparations to Israel for the Holocaust is, like your other examples, concerning recent (in the lifetime of at least some of the perpetrators) reparations for the specific actions of the state under a particular government.

The US govt certainly acted promptly, demanding that the Afghanistan govt (such as it was) hand over Bin Laden, and then acting with force when that didn't happen. Those actions appear to hold the state of Afghanistan responsible for the actions of an individual within Afghanistan.

Your points about slavery not being prohibited at the time are exactly the point. The fact that the government failed to do anything to stop centuries of slaving, and profited handsomely in the process, is a negligence with a moral dimension.

I take issue with your view about the lifetime of individuals being relevant in this category of reparation - if the argument is about the state's responsibility then that should not be directly linked to the lifetime of individuals. Clearly there should be some sort of limitation, but where it should be isn't clear to me.

[ 17. March 2014, 03:53: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You know nothing about me and my long involvement with Africa, including having a considerable knowledge of an African language and having been involved with an African translation project.

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Fascinating. Which African language? Which translation project?

<Sounds of cicadas>
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
I thought you were saying that the state is morally culpable for not preventing (what we now recognise as) wrongs committed by private citizens. Are you saying that, or are you saying that individuals long since dead were morally responsible but the state should pay anyway?

Actually we're talking about direct actions by the state. For example, there were sixteen slave revolts in Jamaica from the time Britain gained control of the island in 1655 until slavery ended there in the 1830s. Virtually all of them were crushed by government troops. Why do you consider this to be the action of "private citizens"? I don't think it unreasonable to conclude that the nearby presence of government troops with the clear mandate to suppress slave rebellion or escape contributed a rather important component to maintaining the slave plantation system.

quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
The example of German reparations to Israel for the Holocaust is, like your other examples, concerning recent (in the lifetime of at least some of the perpetrators) reparations for the specific actions of the state under a particular government.

You're going to have to make up your mind as to whether states can perform actions or whether everything is just the action of "private citizens". After all, the upper leadership echelon of the Third Reich was mostly dead by the time West Germany started paying reparations to Israel. Wouldn't that make such reparations unjust under your reasoning?
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Actually we're talking about direct actions by the state. For example, there were sixteen slave revolts in Jamaica from the time Britain gained control of the island in 1655 until slavery ended there in the 1830s. Virtually all of them were crushed by government troops. Why do you consider this to be the action of "private citizens"? I don't think it unreasonable to conclude that the nearby presence of government troops with the clear mandate to suppress slave rebellion or escape contributed a rather important component to maintaining the slave plantation system.

Seems perfectly fair to describe the governance of those Caribbean islands that were British colonies as actions of the British state.

I thought we were talking about the transatlantic slave trade - merchant adventurers buying slaves in Africa and selling them in the W Indies.

If your concern is British governance of Jamaica, then I guess we have to think about whether what the British state (allowing for the moment the assumption of a single entity before and after the Act of Union) did there is pretty much on a par with what governments always do - uphold the laws and maintain a monopoly of violence - or whether the government's treatment of the people was unusually harsh by the standards of the time.

What makes no sense to me is to apply 21st-century standards of the behaviour we expect from Western liberal governments as if everyone throughout history should have known and applied these standards and owes a financial debt (to be paid by us the taxpayers of the Western liberal societies) for not doing so.

The "human rights" that we are fortunate enough to enjoy are not part of any State of Nature. They were developed over time, largely here in our corner of the world, and are still not accepted by governments in large areas of the world today.

If the case amounts to governments in 1655 not behaving as we expect governments to in 2014, then this is not some sort of shocking crime for which millions in reparations are morally due, it's just a reflection of historical development of ideas.

Get real.

But thanks for clarifying your meaning.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
But can't we take just like 2 seconds to acknowledge the reality and the actuality (anything but "imaginary"!) of the evil before we rush to just brush it aside as inconvenient?

Nobody is denying that slavery was evil. That's why it was banned and all the slaves were freed. But apparently banning slavery and freeing all the slaves doesn't count for anything unless there's some cash handed over as well.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
And that is at the heart of the protestations against reparations. Self-interest, not right or wrong.

You say that as if self-interest isn't at the heart of CARICOM's demands.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
What about Viking attacks on the coastal and riverine areas of Europe? Apart from the damage to buildings, crops and grazing lands, the Vikings enslaved many Russians, as well as Angles, Jutes and Saxons. Indeed, a man of Viking descent attacked and conquered England in 1066, and thereafter maintained a harsh rule, demanding taxes, seizing lands from their owners and handing it out to his followers. Should there be any reparations paid by the governments of the Norse countries?
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
You try that and we'll come for you again.


(I should add that the case you're looking for is probably Mongols.)

[ 17. March 2014, 09:29: Message edited by: JFH ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
I don't think Southern Europeans experience the same legacy today as a result of the Vikings that Jamaicans experience today as a result of the Transatlantic slave trade.

It's not a very apt comparison.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
If the case amounts to governments in 1655 not behaving as we expect governments to in 2014

Let me stop on that "if". It was 1807 when slavery was outlawed in the UK, not 1655. More importantly "not behaving as we expect" needs some unpacking in terms of the scales of wrongs. It ranges from the genocidal to modern-day niceties of freedom of expression.

I would say that slavery is closer to the genocide end of the scale than it is to the niceties of modern morals.

I don't think moral relativism really cuts it on this one.
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
As for comparisons, I am honestly not sure whether I see how slavery was the sole driving power behind differences in development. We also have the "industrious revolution" preceding the industrial one, which seems to have depended on some sort of way for people to actually work harder and more efficient in Europe, leading to creating the capital necessary for capitalism to function. The triangular trade may have been wealth inducing, but the biggest markets of European goods would still remain the home markets, and later on India. Whereas colonialism and imperialism definitely played a part in it, some here have seemed to claim that all of it came from the unpaid labour of slaves - and I don't think it necessarily did. Britain, Spain and France may have seen their economies boosted by their efforts, and other nations somewhat as well as bi-effects of Europe's general rise, but Germany and Scandinavia was not completely without development despite having little involvement in the slave trade. Britain was fortunate enough to have access to coal and steel and other tools at the right time and place to spark revolution - something China didn't, despite having much similar economic background.

Most of all, if the case is to be made that 1. Transatlantic slave trade was uniquely evil, and 2. that it was the cause of profits that should now be repaid to its producers, I think the best comparison would be the African slave trade with the Orient, which took place over twice as long and with more people involved and in what was most likely not that much better conditions. It didn't cause the same profits, if Western development is to be deduced to solely "positive" effects of slavery (which I don't agree on), but should have had similarly adverse effects on African society and thus lead to similar reparation claims.

With regards to Sweden, our modern wealth was mainly built on having the world's highest economic development in the years 1870-1970, shared with Japan, so we should get a pass on the slavery bill. However, we're looking forward to hearing from the Czech Republic regarding that plunder of Prague 3 days after the Westphalian Peace was signed, which pretty much single-handedly financed Sweden's economic development for fifty years ahead. Evidence can be found at Uppsala University and the Royal Palace in Stockholm.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JFH:


With regards to Sweden, our modern wealth was mainly built on having the world's highest economic development in the years 1870-1970

Which was helped by staying neutral in the war against the Nazis 1939-45 and selling them iron instead.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Not only selling them iron ore.

They also allowed trains full of Nazi troops to go through on the way to Norway; German planes used airstrips close to the Norwegian border; troops from Norway, plus tanks and other heavy equipment, used Swedish railways on the way to the USSR and Finland; German troops used Swedish trains to get back to Germany for leave, etc.

On the other hand, the Swedes did play a major part in the rescue of Danish Jews and they didn't hand back escaping allied service personnel (unlike the Swiss).
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
quote:
Originally posted by JFH:


With regards to Sweden, our modern wealth was mainly built on having the world's highest economic development in the years 1870-1970

Which was helped by staying neutral in the war against the Nazis 1939-45 and selling them iron instead.
Norway stayed neutral until invaded. Denmark stayed neutral until invaded. Belgium stayed neutral until invaded. Netherlands stayed neutral until invaded. What's that big blob you've got on the west end of the Atlantic? Another neutralist until invaded. Sweden had to choose sides between Stalin that invaded Finland, or Hitler that invaded Norway. We stayed on the fence there. Tell me, who's that mustachio'd guy from Yalta that your leaders handed Poland, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, Yugoslavia and Eastern Germany to?

As for trains, once Norway was already conquered and thousands of Jews from Denmark, Norway, Poland and Germany had taken refuge in Sweden, we avoided getting occupied by accepting that they send garrison troops along our railroads. However, the fact that the German invasion of Norway succeeded is evidence that the Royal Navy could not enforce a blockade of the North Sea.

Also, Allied bombers used our bases (which we never allowed Germans to do), our spy network informed Stalin two weeks ahead of Operation Barbarossa (but were met with disbelief), our spies helped out with intel for industrial bombing and our diplomats saved thousands of Jews in Hungary before they were taken and "disappeared" at the hands of your allies, the Russians.

Oh, also, this guy named Winston quotes himself as having ordered the Swedes to by any means necessary staying out of the war in 1940, with the motivation "The last thing we need now is another victim!" in his book series he wrote after the conflict. Not sure if such words would've had an impact on the situation, of course.

I'm not sure what kind of crime against humanity not being occupied for five years is, but either way, it wouldn't have helped my grandfather's best friend who was lost when the fishing boat he was serving on "hit a mine" on Kattegatt during the war.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JFH:
if Western development is to be deduced to solely "positive" effects of slavery (which I don't agree on), but should have had similarly adverse effects on African society and thus lead to similar reparation claims.

I don't think one could argue the "solely" in that quote, and I don't believe it is necessary to in order to make the case for reparations. That someone else was as bad isn't much of a defense in itself. This particular claim is coming from the Caribbean and therefore it is easy to see why that would focus on the UK.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I don't think Southern Europeans experience the same legacy today as a result of the Vikings that Jamaicans experience today as a result of the Transatlantic slave trade.

It's not a very apt comparison.

It's inappropriate because it is impossible to identify a cadre of potential claimants though, not because of any other material difference in the nature of the wrongs suffered/inflicted. In relation to the depradations of the Vikings or the Mongols that's primarily because of the passage of time. In the case of the Africans and Europeans taken in slavery to North Africa and the Gulf it's because so few of those taken survived at all. In all cases though we're still talking about historic wrongs perpetrated centuries ago by/against people long dead.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
The other difference is that there was no cohort of Brits desperate for work who stepped off the boat in Copenhagen to see signs saying "No Brits No Irish No Dogs".
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The other difference is that there was no cohort of Brits desperate for work who stepped off the boat in Copenhagen to see signs saying "No Brits No Irish No Dogs".

Are we not considering claims for reparations for slavery any more?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Seems perfectly fair to describe the governance of those Caribbean islands that were British colonies as actions of the British state.

I thought we were talking about the transatlantic slave trade - merchant adventurers buying slaves in Africa and selling them in the W Indies.

That's an interesting question itself. Can the state absolve itself of responsibility by subcontracting out actions of dubious morality? See my previous comments regarding some of the terms of the Treaty of Utrecht for context. In this case, does the crown granting the slave trade concession (extracted as one of the terms of the aforementioned treaty) to Spanish colonies in the New World to a private corporation in exchange for a share of the profits mitigate their responsibility? The U.S. tried that same strategy relatively recently in Iraq, using mercenaries like Blackwater to conduct some of the more morally dubious operations of that war.

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Let me stop on that "if". It was 1807 when slavery was outlawed in the UK, not 1655.

Actually the UK outlawed the slave trade in 1807. Slavery itself was not outlawed until about a quarter century later.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Thanks, indeed I forgot that the Christmas Uprising was in 1831 when Jamaican slaves were brutally suppressed for agitating for their freedom.
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I don't think Southern Europeans experience the same legacy today as a result of the Vikings that Jamaicans experience today as a result of the Transatlantic slave trade.

It's not a very apt comparison.

I agree, but this brings me back to my original point that the driver should be the extent of the inequality, not the extent of the culpability. Otherwise we would end up saying reparation had to be made for offences that had resulted in very little inequality, but where the evidence of culpability was very strong. In my view, this isn't the point.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
But can't we take just like 2 seconds to acknowledge the reality and the actuality (anything but "imaginary"!) of the evil before we rush to just brush it aside as inconvenient?

Nobody is denying that slavery was evil. That's why it was banned and all the slaves were freed. But apparently banning slavery and freeing all the slaves doesn't count for anything unless there's some cash handed over as well.
So if you stop stealing something, that's all that matters-- no need to pay back your stolen goods?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JFH:
As for comparisons, I am honestly not sure whether I see how slavery was the sole driving power behind differences in development. We also have the "industrious revolution" preceding the industrial one, which seems to have depended on some sort of way for people to actually work harder and more efficient in Europe, leading to creating the capital necessary for capitalism to function. The triangular trade may have been wealth inducing, but the biggest markets of European goods would still remain the home markets, and later on India. Whereas colonialism and imperialism definitely played a part in it, some here have seemed to claim that all of it came from the unpaid labour of slaves - and I don't think it necessarily did. Britain, Spain and France may have seen their economies boosted by their efforts, and other nations somewhat as well as bi-effects of Europe's general rise, but Germany and Scandinavia was not completely without development despite having little involvement in the slave trade. Britain was fortunate enough to have access to coal and steel and other tools at the right time and place to spark revolution - something China didn't, despite having much similar economic background.

But look in contrast to what is happening in those nations and tribes decimated by slavery. How are you going to have the capital or personnel for either an "industrious" or an industrial revolution when your society has been stripped of all it's prime wage-earners-- the very people you need to be "industrious".

Obviously there are multiple factors at play (Jeffrey Sach's The End of Poverty does a great job of parsing this out). As noted before, that goes to the (many) practical difficulties in setting a figure and working out how/where that would be paid. But the fact that there are multiple causal factors and multiple complicating factors in enacting justice does not change the fact that clearly slavery was one of those contributing factors to the unequal development.

[ 17. March 2014, 13:20: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
But can't we take just like 2 seconds to acknowledge the reality and the actuality (anything but "imaginary"!) of the evil before we rush to just brush it aside as inconvenient?

Nobody is denying that slavery was evil. That's why it was banned and all the slaves were freed. But apparently banning slavery and freeing all the slaves doesn't count for anything unless there's some cash handed over as well.
So if you stop stealing something, that's all that matters-- no need to pay back your stolen goods?
But if one steals something one is doing something that is already illegal. Owning a slave when slavery hasn't been banned isn't illegal.
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
But can't we take just like 2 seconds to acknowledge the reality and the actuality (anything but "imaginary"!) of the evil before we rush to just brush it aside as inconvenient?

Nobody is denying that slavery was evil. That's why it was banned and all the slaves were freed. But apparently banning slavery and freeing all the slaves doesn't count for anything unless there's some cash handed over as well.
So if you stop stealing something, that's all that matters-- no need to pay back your stolen goods?
But if one steals something one is doing something that is already illegal. Owning a slave when slavery hasn't been banned isn't illegal.
Whether it was against the law is irrelevant to the issue of whether it constituted taking something off someone with the intention of permanently depriving them of it.

As an analogy, even when marital rape was not a crime, it was still carnal knowledge by force without consent, ie rape.

[Edited to Godwin myself]

You might as well argue that what the Nazis did was legal in Germany at the time.

[ 17. March 2014, 14:11: Message edited by: Erroneous Monk ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The other difference is that there was no cohort of Brits desperate for work who stepped off the boat in Copenhagen to see signs saying "No Brits No Irish No Dogs".

quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
Are we not considering claims for reparations for slavery any more?

I think it adds to the feeling that the legacy of slavery is not so completely unrelated to the present day order of the world.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But if one steals something one is doing something that is already illegal. Owning a slave when slavery hasn't been banned isn't illegal.

Is the circularity of this argument not apparent when we are considering the state's culpability as a legislator?

I wonder if that line was tried in the Nuremberg trials. "I've done nothing illegal".

[ 17. March 2014, 14:29: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But if one steals something one is doing something that is already illegal. Owning a slave when slavery hasn't been banned isn't illegal.

Is the circularity of this argument not apparent when we are considering the state's culpability as a legislator?


Then on what basis would a claim proceed? Six pages in to this discussion and it all still seems rather hairy-fairy.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
The international court of justice.

What is airy-fairy to me is whether the chief objection is moral, legal, logistic or practical. It's a bit of a whack-a-mole argument at the moment - as soon as one objection is addressed another one pops up, often one of the previous moles dressed in new clothes.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:

[Edited to Godwin myself]

You might as well argue that what the Nazis did was legal in Germany at the time.

It is not Godwining when the comparison is apt.

quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
And that is at the heart of the protestations against reparations. Self-interest, not right or wrong.

You say that as if self-interest isn't at the heart of CARICOM's demands.
Of course they CARICOM are looking after their own self-interest. But from a POV that would not have existed if Europeans had not caused it.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
I've been thinking of this as a tortious claim, which would require (from memory):

A duty
A breach of that duty
Causation
Loss
Remoteness

It would seem to me that any claim could be attacked (to varying degrees) on each of these grounds.

Separately, why would the ICJ decide on this? The problem with the Nuremburg analogy, it seems to me, is that what the Nazis did was widely considered to be wrong at the time the misdeeds were committed. This is not necessarily the case with slavery.

ETA: This is in reply to mdijon.

[ 17. March 2014, 15:28: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:

Separately, why would the ICJ decide on this? The problem with the Nuremburg analogy, it seems to me, is that what the Nazis did was widely considered to be wrong at the time the misdeeds were committed. This is not necessarily the case with slavery.

ETA: This is in reply to mdijon.

Actually, given that, at the time of the Transatlantic Trade, Europeans did not wholesale enslave each other and the massive amount of justifications used, I would disagree.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Of course they CARICOM are looking after their own self-interest. But from a POV that would not have existed if Europeans had not caused it.

If Europeans hadn't done anything, the CARICOM nations wouldn't even exist.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
If you asked any of the slaves I think they'd have told you it was wrong. Do they get a vote among the "most people"?

How can it possibly be a serious argument that most people would think that torture, death in the most degrading conditions, rape and child abuse wasn't wrong?
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The other difference is that there was no cohort of Brits desperate for work who stepped off the boat in Copenhagen to see signs saying "No Brits No Irish No Dogs".

quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
Are we not considering claims for reparations for slavery any more?

I think it adds to the feeling that the legacy of slavery is not so completely unrelated to the present day order of the world.

I think that's a bit thin. In the 1950s and 1960s immigrants came to the UK from all over, and most of them faced bigotry, prejudice and discrimination regardless of their skin colour or whether their great(x5) grandfather had been a slave. Neither is the "No Irish" element to those signs evidence that compensation should be paid to Ireland for English violence there 300 years ago.

I can see how you feel this sentiment though:

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
What is airy-fairy to me is whether the chief objection is moral, legal, logistic or practical. It's a bit of a whack-a-mole argument at the moment - as soon as one objection is addressed another one pops up, often one of the previous moles dressed in new clothes.

I think there are numerous arguments against the claim for reparations (as opposed to any claim for a frank acknowlegment of the evil of slavery and a recognition that it was shameful). One is that in practical terms it would be next to impossible to calculate or pay any claim for reparations. I think you have acknowledged that many of those actually seeking reparations are quite aware that this argument alone means they are wasting their time.

But practicalities aside, there's the argument that something like this can't ever actually be reparation. That involves compensating a victim, putting right as far as possible a wrong done to them. But all these victims died generations ago; their children, grandchildren and great grandchildren have since died too. This side of heaven there is nothing to be done to compensate any of them for what they suffered. Paying a sum instead to a fairly unscientific selection of their more remote descendents doesn't compensate the victims. It does though punish millions of taxpayers who had nothing to do with those wrongs but happen to live in the country where, centuries ago, other people lived who did profit from slavery.

Those people have no responsibility for a centuries old wrong. Even their own ancestors might well never have profited from slavery. If they are minded to help anyone, they would probably sooner pay aid to the poorest people in the world, who are rather more likely to be found in Africa than in CARICOM to be honest - on a PPP basis some CARICOM members have per capita GDP figures comparable to the EU average (Haiti being the obvious exception).
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
How can it possibly be a serious argument that most people would think that torture, death in the most degrading conditions, rape and child abuse wasn't wrong?

We obviously think that now but you'd accept that that might not have been such a widely-held view in the past?

While this was going on we routinely sent children up chimneys to clean. We now think of that as a barbaric practice but presumably it was viewed differently back then.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
I think that's a bit thin. In the 1950s and 1960s immigrants came to the UK from all over, and most of them faced bigotry, prejudice and discrimination regardless of their skin colour or whether their great(x5) grandfather had been a slave.

Immigrants of many colours faced bigotry and prejudice, but to suggest it was regardless of skin colour is not credible. Racism was a massive part of 1950s and 60s attitudes in the UK towards black immigrants and their treatment was worse.

Racism was at the heart of the justification of the Trans-atlantic slave trade and was clearly still present. Black people were still not worth as much as white people in UK society.

quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
That involves compensating a victim, putting right as far as possible a wrong done to them. But all these victims died generations ago; their children, grandchildren and great grandchildren have since died too.

So you would have been against West Germany paying reparations to Israel on similar grounds? That was rather unscientific, many victims were already dead etc.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Immigrants of many colours faced bigotry and prejudice, but to suggest it was regardless of skin colour is not credible. Racism was a massive part of 1950s and 60s attitudes in the UK towards black immigrants and their treatment was worse.

Racism was at the heart of the justification of the Trans-atlantic slave trade and was clearly still present. Black people were still not worth as much as white people in UK society.

Given that large-scale repatriation of post-war West Indian immigrants never really happened, what bearing does this have on whether money should be paid to CARICOM states?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Of course they CARICOM are looking after their own self-interest. But from a POV that would not have existed if Europeans had not caused it.

If Europeans hadn't done anything, the CARICOM nations wouldn't even exist.
A bit like giving a girl a new dolly because you tore the head off the other whilst raping her makes the rape alright.
The poverty enjoyed by the CARICOM nations is of direct result of European slavery.

[ 17. March 2014, 16:28: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
How can it possibly be a serious argument that most people would think that torture, death in the most degrading conditions, rape and child abuse wasn't wrong?

quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
We obviously think that now but you'd accept that that might not have been such a widely-held view in the past?

It's one thing to tolerate child labour, another to oversee such callous brutality and violence. The abolitionists could see it was wrong, and campaigned vigorously. Probably much of the population was indifferent, or didn't want to disturb the status quo, and those with vested interests won the day. None of this was genuine ignorance. People knew that rape and torture were wrong in the 18th and 19th centuries, they just prepared to close their eyes to it out of indifference or self-interest.

[ 17. March 2014, 16:35: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
The poverty enjoyed by the CARICOM nations is of direct result of European slavery.

The full-member nations? Some of the Associate members aren't poor.

[ 17. March 2014, 16:37: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
A bit like saying Adam Afriyie and Barack Obama nullify racism.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Or that people didn't really know that lynching was wrong until the 60s.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
A bit like saying Adam Afriyie and Barack Obama nullify racism.

Well hang on, let's run with this thought for a moment. Why do you suppose that some CARICOM members (if you consider all levels of membership) are better off than others? Do you attribute this entirely to the effects of slavery? And if so, how do you account for the differences?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
I think there are numerous arguments against the claim for reparations (as opposed to any claim for a frank acknowlegment of the evil of slavery and a recognition that it was shameful). One is that in practical terms it would be next to impossible to calculate or pay any claim for reparations. I think you have acknowledged that many of those actually seeking reparations are quite aware that this argument alone means they are wasting their time.

I for one would not agree with that statement. I think it's possible those seeking reparations realize the practical and political complications may mean they will never actually gain any financial compensation. I don't think they believe they are "wasting their time." I doubt they would be raising the issue if they thought it was a "waste of time." I imagine they have real, achievable goals-- whether financial or otherwise-- they hope to gain from this endeavor. I wish them well.


quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:

But practicalities aside, there's the argument that something like this can't ever actually be reparation. That involves compensating a victim, putting right as far as possible a wrong done to them. But all these victims died generations ago; their children, grandchildren and great grandchildren have since died too. This side of heaven there is nothing to be done to compensate any of them for what they suffered. Paying a sum instead to a fairly unscientific selection of their more remote descendents doesn't compensate the victims. It does though punish millions of taxpayers who had nothing to do with those wrongs but happen to live in the country where, centuries ago, other people lived who did profit from slavery.

Those people have no responsibility for a centuries old wrong. Even their own ancestors might well never have profited from slavery.

Not true. As has been noted already, ALL of us who live in the West have profited from slavery-- including those (myself included) whose ancestors did not live here in the time of slavery. But everyone who lives in the West is benefiting from living in an economy built on slavery. We do business in a country with a huge infrastructure-- road, buildings, educational institutions-- that was built, either directly or indirectly-- with slave money. And at the same time, people living in countries that were decimated by slave labor (thru the loss of prime wage earners) are living in a country that was deprived of that exact same infrastructure that could have been built had they had the benefit of those strong, young wage earners. Those realities impact our economies today.

Again, I agree that determining the exact amount those factors are still impacting both Western and African/Carribean economies would be complex-- perhaps impossibly so. But there should be no doubt that everyone of us in the West-- regardless of who our ancestors were-- has benefited from the infrastructure of a slave economy. While we may not bear moral culpability for slavery, we do still enjoy the profits of "purloined goods" (stolen labor).

It is interesting to observe that the cultures that are arguing vs. reparations are cultures that are uniquely individualistic-- and the argument is framed (as above) very individualistically-- I didn't do it, therefore I am not responsible. The cultures impacted by slavery are primarily communal cultures-- where there's a greater sense of communal sin-- that we all bear responsibility for the sins of the community, even if we didn't personally participate in them. In some parts of Africa the very way that the anti-reparations argument has been framed would be incomprehensible.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Do you attribute this entirely to the effects of slavery?

I don't think anyone has suggested this. Causation is usually complex, and that is certainly the case here. But it is clearly one, among many, factors.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Well hang on, let's run with this thought for a moment. Why do you suppose that some CARICOM members (if you consider all levels of membership) are better off than others? Do you attribute this entirely to the effects of slavery? And if so, how do you account for the differences?

No, let's not run along around a loop of those same tired arguments. Is poverty really a hindrance when we see rags-to-riches stories every day? Is racism really holding anyone back when we consider how many Indian millionaires there are in Britain? Heard it before.

I'm more interested in understanding where the moral relativism ends. Did anyone know it was wrong to lynch black men in the 60s? Did anyone in Germany really have the external perspective to realise that gassing Jews was bad? Did the slave traders have sufficient educational advantage to know that kidnapping, raping, and shackling sick and terrified men and women in insanitary conditions for a trans-atlantic voyage was wrong? Let's finish this shit first before we go on to whacking some other mole.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
It is the entire point if the other miles, to shift attention and distract.
Not making any money at the bookies betting they will not keep popping up.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Of other moles. Bloody small keyboard and not paying enough attention.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Do you attribute this entirely to the effects of slavery?

I don't think anyone has suggested this. Causation is usually complex, and that is certainly the case here. But it is clearly one, among many, factors.
To me, the statement 'The poverty enjoyed by the CARICOM nations is of direct result of European slavery' indicates that someone has suggested this. Unless I've misunderstood, which is why I sought clarification.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
It is interesting to observe that the cultures that are arguing vs. reparations are cultures that are uniquely individualistic-- and the argument is framed (as above) very individualistically-- I didn't do it, therefore I am not responsible. The cultures impacted by slavery are primarily communal cultures-- where there's a greater sense of communal sin-- that we all bear responsibility for the sins of the community, even if we didn't personally participate in them. In some parts of Africa the very way that the anti-reparations argument has been framed would be incomprehensible.

That's a fair point. There is a cultural element at play in the response. Even with my individualistic Western mindset though I believe there is such a thing as collective responsibility. But I also believe there is perspective and context.

I feel both guilt and responsibility over the Mau Mau atrocities, although they were committed before I was born in a country I've never been to. I'm glad reparations were paid to people who suffered and I wish more had been paid and sooner. But those atrocities were committed in living memory, in my name as a citizen of the UK, and to people who could be identified and given redress.

I feel neither guilt nor responsibility for Boudicca's slaughter of the 11th Legion and savage despoiling of London though these were terrible massacres carried out in my own country.

I feel guilt for the transatlantic slave trade as a white European, but I don't feel responsible. And it wouldn't make me feel less guilty to seek out someone, somewhere whose distant ancestors had been slaves centuries ago and pay them some money.

I feel much more guilt and responsibility when I read of people starving and know that I am comfortably off and have plenty in the cupboard. I know that I can't help everyone but I try to deal with my sense of guilt and responsibility by paying something to someone who needs it (as people do when they are motivated to give to charity). I've certainly supported actvities in the past in CARICOM countries, but I've done that because individuals or communities there were in need now and that need touched my heart, not because someone else had suffered terribly there 200 years previously.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
No, let's not run along around a loop of those same tired arguments.

But doesn't that go to the heart of some of the issues at play, if one is to assert that historic slavery is responsible for present-day poverty?

If one CARICOM member is very rich, and another CARICOM member is poor, should the poorer CARICOM member get more money than the richer one? And why is one CARICOM member richer than another? Is that because slavery affected that member more than the other or is it because the poverty found in that member state was caused by factors in addition to slavery?
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
To me, the statement 'The poverty enjoyed by the CARICOM nations is of direct result of European slavery' indicates that someone has suggested this.

No one has suggested this - there is a difference between 'direct' and 'entire'.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Immigrants of many colours faced bigotry and prejudice, but to suggest it was regardless of skin colour is not credible. Racism was a massive part of 1950s and 60s attitudes in the UK towards black immigrants and their treatment was worse.

So the famous sign "No Blacks, No Irish" mainly discriminated against the former?

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Racism was at the heart of the justification of the Trans-atlantic slave trade and was clearly still present. Black people were still not worth as much as white people in UK society.

I've no doubt racism was a substantial factor in the slave trade, that it was easier for slave traders to convince themselves that what they were doing wasn't SO bad as they were doing it to people who were very different, were uneducated, seemed to them to be "primitive" etc. I'm not sure how that bears on the situation now though.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
So you would have been against West Germany paying reparations to Israel on similar grounds? That was rather unscientific, many victims were already dead etc.

No, but if it had only become possible to engineer a claim for payment five or six generations after the Holocaust it would have been much more difficult to characterise those payments as reparations, and for the same reasons as here.

(Incidentally, it was the 9th not the 11th Legion Boudicca wiped out so gruesomely - my Inner Pedant won't let me leave that typo in my preceding post to stand uncorrected eeven though the correction is immaterial to the point!).
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Do you attribute this entirely to the effects of slavery?

I don't think anyone has suggested this. Causation is usually complex, and that is certainly the case here. But it is clearly one, among many, factors.
To me, the statement 'The poverty enjoyed by the CARICOM nations is of direct result of European slavery' indicates that someone has suggested this. Unless I've misunderstood, which is why I sought clarification.
Well, as I'm reading it, it's saying that there is a direct relationship between European slavery and Caribbean poverty. I think that's true, for the reasons I mentioned. It does not suggest that slavery is the ONLY cause of poverty. Simply that it is one. I believe that is clearly the case.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
It is interesting to observe that the cultures that are arguing vs. reparations are cultures that are uniquely individualistic-- and the argument is framed (as above) very individualistically-- I didn't do it, therefore I am not responsible. The cultures impacted by slavery are primarily communal cultures-- where there's a greater sense of communal sin-- that we all bear responsibility for the sins of the community, even if we didn't personally participate in them. In some parts of Africa the very way that the anti-reparations argument has been framed would be incomprehensible.

That's a fair point. There is a cultural element at play in the response. Even with my individualistic Western mindset though I believe there is such a thing as collective responsibility. But I also believe there is perspective and context.

I feel both guilt and responsibility over the Mau Mau atrocities, although they were committed before I was born in a country I've never been to. I'm glad reparations were paid to people who suffered and I wish more had been paid and sooner. But those atrocities were committed in living memory, in my name as a citizen of the UK, and to people who could be identified and given redress.

I feel neither guilt nor responsibility for Boudicca's slaughter of the 11th Legion and savage despoiling of London though these were terrible massacres carried out in my own country.

I feel guilt for the transatlantic slave trade as a white European, but I don't feel responsible. And it wouldn't make me feel less guilty to seek out someone, somewhere whose distant ancestors had been slaves centuries ago and pay them some money.

I feel much more guilt and responsibility when I read of people starving and know that I am comfortably off and have plenty in the cupboard. I know that I can't help everyone but I try to deal with my sense of guilt and responsibility by paying something to someone who needs it (as people do when they are motivated to give to charity). I've certainly supported actvities in the past in CARICOM countries, but I've done that because individuals or communities there were in need now and that need touched my heart, not because someone else had suffered terribly there 200 years previously.

I would share your perspective-- my instinctual response is very similar to yours, only along more American lines in terms of the specifics. But I'm also skeptic.al of making too much out of my feelings of guilt/responsibility. I don't think they're necessarily the best barometer. We are (all of us humans) fairly disconnected emotionally from our sin, pretty well defended, so our feelings don't always tell us all that much. And our emotive or instinctual response of guilt/responsibility itself is fairly culturally determined I think.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
It was 1807 when slavery was outlawed in the UK, not 1655.

That's the point. Saying that the British state is morally to blame for "permitting" slavery over those 150+ years is to blame it for not enacting in the 1600s the legislation of the 1800s.

As an armchair historian you may conclude that there's no good reason why that shouldn't have happened. But you're still projecting back onto history your twenty-first century ideas. No-one in the eighteenth century would have dreamed of drawing a moral near-equivalence between slavery and genocide. You're trying to hold the past to present-day ideas as a way of trying to get some cash out of your neighbours in the here-and-now, because the past can't pay. And that's not justice.

The Nazis had their day in court before any reparations were paid. How are you going to give the British governments of the 17th century a fair trial, if they can't respond to the charges being brought ?

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
A bit like giving a girl a new dolly because you tore the head off the other whilst raping her makes the rape alright.

No, it's like saying that if my great-great grandfather hadn't raped your great-great-grandmother, you wouldn't have been born. It's a statement that can be true, and recognised to be true, without condoning or excusing the original rape.

Your great-great-grandmother might still have had a great-great-grandchild, of course, but they wouldn't have been you. They might even have had a better life than you as a result of the family trauma caused by the rape never having happened. But it still is not at all obvious to me why I should pay you monetary compensation because you didn't get to be them.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
It was 1807 when slavery was outlawed in the UK, not 1655.

That's the point. Saying that the British state is morally to blame for "permitting" slavery over those 150+ years is to blame it for not enacting in the 1600s the legislation of the 1800s.

As an armchair historian you may conclude that there's no good reason why that shouldn't have happened. But you're still projecting back onto history your twenty-first century ideas. No-one in the eighteenth century would have dreamed of drawing a moral near-equivalence between slavery and genocide. You're trying to hold the past to present-day ideas as a way of trying to get some cash out of your neighbours in the here-and-now, because the past can't pay. And that's not justice.

The Nazis had their day in court before any reparations were paid. How are you going to give the British governments of the 17th century a fair trial, if they can't respond to the charges being brought ?

If I go to a foreign country and break a law I didn't know about, I'm still held accountable (says the girl who got 2 traffic tickets in Denmark last summer...) Whether our ancestors could have known slavery was evil or not does not change the fact that we, today, are profiting from it. It doesn't change the fact that our economy is built on stolen goods.

If I accidentally knock over an expensive vase at a friend's house, I will immediately offer to replace it even though it wasn't an intentional act.

I think the situation we will actually find ourselves in is analogous to where your toddler accidentally knocks over a vase at your friend's house-- and you discover that it's a rare antique that has been in the family for centuries-- there is simply no way you could afford to replace it's monetary value, and no way you can compensate for the personal loss. Which is a very uncomfortable feeling, so we immediately try to find ways to evade feeling responsible.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
A bit like giving a girl a new dolly because you tore the head off the other whilst raping her makes the rape alright.

No, it's like saying that if my great-great grandfather hadn't raped your great-great-grandmother, you wouldn't have been born. It's a statement that can be true, and recognised to be true, without condoning or excusing the original rape.

Your great-great-grandmother might still have had a great-great-grandchild, of course, but they wouldn't have been you. They might even have had a better life than you as a result of the family trauma caused by the rape never having happened. But it still is not at all obvious to me why I should pay you monetary compensation because you didn't get to be them.

Analogies have their weak spots. What would you do in the case that the rapist is still alive?
As has been pointed out several times, Europe and the Americas present prosperity is in large part directly attributable to slavery.
The perpetrators and victims are still here, not long since dead. Individuals are, but the entities and communities are not.
It is a matter of practice and, ISTM, law which draws those continuities.

[ 17. March 2014, 19:55: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
As an armchair historian you may conclude that there's no good reason why that shouldn't have happened. But you're still projecting back onto history your twenty-first century ideas. No-one in the eighteenth century would have dreamed of drawing a moral near-equivalence between slavery and genocide.

I think you're the one projecting backwards. An eighteenth century person may very well have seen "a moral near-equivalence between slavery and genocide" insofar as they wouldn't have had that much moral compunction about either. You don't have to look much further than the policies applied to the native populations to demonstrate that.

quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
How are you going to give the British governments of the 17th century a fair trial, if they can't respond to the charges being brought?

Then where's the dividing line, temporally speaking? And what happens to treaties and other international agreements that "age out"? As I noted earlier, the treaty that granted the U.K. a slave-trading concession in the Spanish Caribbean is the same one that granted it control of Gibraltar. If the current British government is not responsible for the actions of its seventeenth (or, in this case, eighteenth) century incarnation, why is the current government's territorial claim over Gibraltar still considered valid?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
I think framing the discussion as "judging past nation states" is a false way to look at it. Rather, I think it's about recognizing that the current nation states-- the ones that we can all agree do acknowledge slavery is evil-- have profited from those past sins, and at the expense of other people groups. Whatever our ancestors may or may not have known/believed is irrelevant-- WE know slavery is evil, WE know the money we gained was ill-gotten.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
An eighteenth century person may very well have seen "a moral near-equivalence between slavery and genocide" insofar as they wouldn't have had that much moral compunction about either. You don't have to look much further than the policies applied to the native populations to demonstrate that

You could be right. When you give someone a fair trial, one of the possible outcomes is that they alienate their would-be supporters, showing by what they say that they are guilty beyond reasonable doubt.

The chances of giving anyone a fair trial drop dramatically after they're dead, and diminish further at a rate that can be taken to be proportional to the speed of cultural change.

Which is one reason why suing for historic wrongs is a bad idea.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Causation is usually complex, and that is certainly the case here...
...it's saying that there is a direct relationship between European slavery and Caribbean poverty. I think that's true,

Yes, more complex than the claimants' case suggests.

If you had a computer model of the economics of the Caribbean, it's pretty likely that it would show that the historical outcome is neither the best nor the worst of all possible outcomes. And that there would be better and worse outcomes with slavery, and better and worse outcomes without slavery.

So in order to make the statement about relationship between
slavery and poverty meaningful, you would have to specify some economically-coherent ahistorical scenario that represents the "without slavery" situation but otherwise differs from the historical scenario as little as possible.

The difficult bit is "economically coherent" without benefit of such a model. If no slavery, lower profit margin on sugar plantations, so less inward capital investment. If still a colony, still repatriation of profits to the colonial power, depending on the extent of absentee owners. If no slavery, what does that do to the deomographics and the balance of production and consumption ?

I know just enough economics to know that it's not as cut-and-dried as some might like to think.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
It was 1807 when slavery was outlawed in the UK, not 1655.

That's the point. Saying that the British state is morally to blame for "permitting" slavery over those 150+ years is to blame it for not enacting in the 1600s the legislation of the 1800s. ...
Not quite. There's some doubt whether slavery was ever lawful in the British Isles. What was odd and inconsistent, was that it was lawful in various colonies. In the eighteenth century, if a slave managed to land on English soil, that emancipated them. I think the same applied if they landed in Scotland. Slave owners went to considerable lengths to make sure that either didn't happen or that their slaves didn't find out.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:

I'm more interested in understanding where the moral relativism ends... ...Did the slave traders have sufficient educational advantage to know that kidnapping, raping, and shackling sick and terrified men and women in insanitary conditions for a trans-atlantic voyage was wrong? Let's finish this shit first before we go on to whacking some other mole.

Buying and selling slaves does not necessarily involve rape, terror or insanitary conditions. I would have thought that enlightened self-interest was enough to persuade slave traders to deliver their wares alive and in good condition. But the little I have read confirms your suggestion that conditions were horrible and many died from disease.

You don't seem very clear whether the moral wrong that you're outraged about is having colonies in the first place, running plantations on slave labour in those colonies, buying transporting and selling slaves to those colonies, or doing it in a brutal and inhuman manner.

The first is pretty clearly an act of the State, the last an act of private individuals that was never government policy. Having colonies is something that was certainly seen at the time as morally OK, Unnecessary brutality seems obviously wrong then as now. Insanitary conditions on ships are not something that has made a lasting economic impact.

Because there are different answers to different parts of the whole system, you're getting answers when you refer to one part that you've dismissed with regard to other parts, which is why it seems like an outbreak of moles.

If you picked one aspect - one moral crime to charge our ancestors with - and stuck with it, then you'd have fewer moles. But I suspect that the case you want to make depends on treating the whole as an indivisible crime that can be pinned on the undying state.

Your question about the moral consciousness or otherwise of slave traders deserves an answer. My guess is that if the reality was that horrible, then only those sailors and captains with no conscience came back after their first experience of it, and they were careful to keep the details out of the public knowledge. So lots of people back in Britain saw nothing wrong with their bowdlerised idea of what was going on. But none of us were there, and that's only a guess.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
If there is no way of justifying British involvement in the slave trade on the basis of moral relativism, then neither can it be used to let Africans off the hook.

Morally, there is nothing to choose between Africans and Europeans.

The fact is that Europeans bought into an existing, flourishing African slave trade, and were able to extend it globally because of their superior maritime technology.

The mercenary and cynical truth is that the descendants of slaves are trying it out on British descendants from the slave trading era because they know there is no way of getting any money out of the descendants of other culprits, ie the originators of the whole evil system.

The real “old mole”, pace Marx, is truth, and it will keep inconveniently popping up no matter how often it is whacked.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Not quite. There's some doubt whether slavery was ever lawful in the British Isles.

Um, no, no there isn't. Slavery was lawful in the British Isles until 1833 with exceptions for East India Company, Ceylon, and Saint Helena until 1843.
But had it not been, your case would not be strengthened as it would even more indicate presence of the knowledge that it was bad.
And who controlled the colonies? Wouldn't that be the state?
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
But I suspect that the case you want to make depends on treating the whole as an indivisible crime that can be pinned on the undying state.

If it is lawful, it is the responsibility of the state.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JFH:
Norway stayed neutral until invaded. Denmark stayed neutral until invaded. Belgium stayed neutral until invaded. Netherlands stayed neutral until invaded.

Many escaped and served with the Allies, and those that remained set up resistance organisations.

quote:
What's that big blob you've got on the west end of the Atlantic? Another neutralist until invaded.
If you're referring to the USA, Roosevelt gave every possible assistance to Britain 1939-41 short of declaring war.

quote:
Tell me, who's that mustachio'd guy from Yalta that your leaders handed Poland, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, Yugoslavia and Eastern Germany to?
They had little choice after six exhausting years of fighting an enemy which "neutral" Sweden had been supplying with metal for its arms industry.

quote:
However, the fact that the German invasion of Norway succeeded is evidence that the Royal Navy could not enforce a blockade of the North Sea.
So remaining neutral entitles you to sneer at other countries which did the right thing when they encounter a setback?

quote:
your allies, the Russians.
If by "Russians" you mean the Soviet Union, which included a large number of ethnic and linguistic groupings, then Stalin was Hitler's most enthusiastic ally 1939-41, trusting him in a way he never did the western democracies, and supplying Germany (like Sweden) right up to, and including, 22 June, 1941.

Of course the Allies supported the Soviet Union - when two criminals are in conflict you support the less dangerous against the more dangerous.

[ 18. March 2014, 01:02: Message edited by: Kaplan Corday ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Buying and selling slaves does not necessarily involve rape, terror or insanitary conditions.

Perhaps not necessarily rape or unsanitary conditions, but terror is a necessity of a slave system. Slavery is an inherently violent system, wherein the threat of violence has to be both credible and constant.

quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
I would have thought that enlightened self-interest was enough to persuade slave traders to deliver their wares alive and in good condition.

Which just shows the dangers of relying on assumptions of enlightened self interest and a set of baseless assumptions. Much like the sugar barons who were their primary customers, slave traders needed to keep their cargo alive, but "in good condition" was subjective. Sick and malnourished slaves are less likely to rebel, and every crate of food packed for the voyage is one or two fewer slaves you can pack in.

quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Having colonies is something that was certainly seen at the time as morally OK, Unnecessary brutality seems obviously wrong then as now.

Except the brutality wasn't "unnecessary", it was a necessary part of slaveholding.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
No-one in the eighteenth century would have dreamed of drawing a moral near-equivalence between slavery and genocide.

So in your view the slaves would still count as "no-one".

From 1789. “You may choose to look the other way but you can never say again that you did not know.”

If you read the history of the slave trade and the abolition movement you won't need to do so much revisionist guess work to try and absolve the society that let it happen.

[ 18. March 2014, 03:57: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
So the famous sign "No Blacks, No Irish" mainly discriminated against the former?

Considering the history of racism in London from wrongful hangings with prejudicial language tolerated in court through the nigger for a neighbour vote labour campaign and the race riots of the late 50s in Notting Hill and Oswald Mosley ought to afford you the imagination to see beyond that rather facile line of yours.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
If there is no way of justifying British involvement in the slave trade on the basis of moral relativism, then neither can it be used to let Africans off the hook.

This is the mole about individual responsibility. The target of reparations is the state. This isn't about saying whether British people are worse than African people, it's about what a state presided over.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But doesn't that go to the heart of some of the issues at play, if one is to assert that historic slavery is responsible for present-day poverty?

No, what goes to the heart of the issue at play is when you think society would be morally culpable for tolerating kidnapping, false imprisonment, rape and torture. 100 years ago? 50 years back?
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But doesn't that go to the heart of some of the issues at play, if one is to assert that historic slavery is responsible for present-day poverty?

No
Then it seems to me that, at least, we cannot calculate what compensation (if any) ought to be paid.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
If we can't agree that rape and torture is wrong and when it first became wrong then we sure as hell aren't getting on to the technicalities of how you calculate what is owed.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
If the current British government is not responsible for the actions of its seventeenth (or, in this case, eighteenth) century incarnation, why is the current government's territorial claim over Gibraltar still considered valid?

As far as I'm concerned, the claim to Gibraltar is valid because the people who live there want to be British. If they wanted to be Spanish then I would fully support moves to transfer the territory to Spain, regardless of any 17th or 18th century dealings.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
No, what goes to the heart of the issue at play is when you think society would be morally culpable for tolerating kidnapping, false imprisonment, rape and torture. 100 years ago? 50 years back?

When the victims are still alive.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
So if the victims are killed after the rape we're all square immediately? No moral culpability?

[ 18. March 2014, 08:22: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
So the famous sign "No Blacks, No Irish" mainly discriminated against the former?

Considering the history of racism in London from wrongful hangings with prejudicial language tolerated in court through the nigger for a neighbour vote labour campaign and the race riots of the late 50s in Notting Hill and Oswald Mosley ought to afford you the imagination to see beyond that rather facile line of yours.
Not intentionally facile, and I wasn't trying to upset you. I think that broadening the discussion from the culpability of European nations for the atlantic slave trade to modern or recent racist attitudes in European societies is going to turn the modest outbreak of moles you are unhappy about to something more like an epidemic.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Thanks for spotting that I was upset. You're right, best to save that for another time.
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
lilbuddha:
quote:
Um, no, no there isn't. Slavery was lawful in the British Isles until 1833...
Technically it is correct that slavery was lawful in the British Empire until the Slavery Abolition Act of 1833, but a number of individuals brought to the British Isles as slaves successfully sued for their freedom. The earliest ruling mentioned in the Wikipedia article was 1569, which held that English law could not recognise slavery; there were several cases in Scotland and the verdict in the case of James Somersett in 1772 was taken to mean that slavery was not allowed under English common law.

It's a complicated situation, because a lot of English law is built on legal precedent ("we've always done it like this before") and not spelt out explicitly in Acts of Parliament. But when the law of England and Scotland was challenged by slaves seeking their freedom, the courts decided that slavery was not allowed. This didn't help the slaves in overseas territories, of course, and it took a long time for the abolitionist movement to get the principle formally recognised in an Act of Parliament. But it is not strictly accurate to say that the law of the British Isles allowed slavery until 1833. It was legal in the overseas territories, but not in Britain itself.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
So if the victims are killed after the rape we're all square immediately? No moral culpability?

Good point, well made. Revise my suggestion to "still alive, or would be had they not been killed as part of the wrong that was done".
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
OK, but I think we're on different questions.

I think you are answering "What is the maximum length of time after which a society's moral culpability is no longer inherited?".

The question I was originally asking was "How close to the present day does one need to get in order to view the society of the day as morally culpable for tolerating slavery including rape, murder and torture?"

This was in response to Russ and Anglican't arguing that we can't judge previous societies by modern standards.

(Having said that we disagree on the former still, but it is clearly an arguable point. I also think other factors should be considered - the scale of the wrong, what has been done in the intervening time etc).
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

You don't seem very clear whether the moral wrong that you're outraged about is having colonies in the first place, running plantations on slave labour in those colonies, buying transporting and selling slaves to those colonies, or doing it in a brutal and inhuman manner.


There are no means of forcing people to work without pay, whether in cash or in investment in the capital growth of the operation, that are not inherently brutal and inhuman.

The idea that if the plantation owners had been nice about it, the slaves would happily have consented to work for free seems to me to perpetuate the idea that the slaves were a sub-species, not as human as their owners (or as us now), which I can't go along with.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
OK, but I think we're on different questions.

I think you are answering "What is the maximum length of time after which a society's moral culpability is no longer inherited?".

The question I was originally asking was "How close to the present day does one need to get in order to view the society of the day as morally culpable for tolerating slavery including rape, murder and torture?"

It's practically the same question when the whole purpose of defining 17th/18th century society as morally culpable is to force 21st century society to pay reparations.

If all you want is a "they were wrong to do it" then I'll happily agree. I'll also agree that the Vikings were wrong to rape and pillage throughout Northern Europe, the Romans were wrong to have slaves, Joshua was wrong to commit genocide in Jericho and homo sapiens were wrong to wipe out the neanderthals.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
... and homo sapiens were wrong to wipe out the neanderthals.

Hold on now, that's only a theory.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
If all you want is a "they were wrong to do it" then I'll happily agree.

Thank God for that. "Wrong" counts as an understatement of course, but since you apply it to all manner of other genocide and war crime at least that's consistent.

Practically similar questions provided the conversation ends there, but we have very different ongoing debates; trying to understand how one can possibly think people weren't all that bad when judged by the standards of the day is one thing, arguing about the links to present day society is a whole other ball game.

By the way, British slavery carried on through to the 19th Century.

[ 18. March 2014, 11:06: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
No, what goes to the heart of the issue at play is when you think society would be morally culpable for tolerating kidnapping, false imprisonment, rape and torture. 100 years ago? 50 years back?

When the victims are still alive.
What about when their descendants are still negatively impacted by the original crime? That means they, too, are victims. That is the basis of this action.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
What about when their descendants are still negatively impacted by the original crime? That means they, too, are victims. That is the basis of this action.

There comes a point when the descendents can no longer claim that their lives are being directly and demonstrably affected by something that happened a considerable time ago. With slavery I think that point has long since passed.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
What about when their descendants are still negatively impacted by the original crime? That means they, too, are victims. That is the basis of this action.

There comes a point when the descendents can no longer claim that their lives are being directly and demonstrably affected by something that happened a considerable time ago. With slavery I think that point has long since passed.
And I think the evidence is clear that we are nowhere near that point.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
What about when their descendants are still negatively impacted by the original crime? That means they, too, are victims. That is the basis of this action.

There comes a point when the descendents can no longer claim that their lives are being directly and demonstrably affected by something that happened a considerable time ago. With slavery I think that point has long since passed.
And I think the evidence is clear that we are nowhere near that point.
If that were the case though, wouldn't it be straightforward to point to the loss that is still being suffered by the remote descendants of slaves that is attributable to the atlantic slave trade? Yet I think we're agreed that in practical terms any such loss is unidentifiable and incapable of calculation.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
If that were the case though, wouldn't it be straightforward to point to the loss that is still being suffered by the remote descendants of slaves that is attributable to the atlantic slave trade?

Yeah, life is always simple and straightforward. Besides, I think we have pointed it out and that it is relatively straightforward.
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:

Yet I think we're agreed that in practical terms any such loss is unidentifiable and incapable of calculation.

No. The loss is identifiable and though it might be difficult to calculate precisely, it does not follow that no effort should be made.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
If that were the case though, wouldn't it be straightforward to point to the loss that is still being suffered by the remote descendants of slaves that is attributable to the atlantic slave trade?

Yeah, life is always simple and straightforward. Besides, I think we have pointed it out and that it is relatively straightforward.
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:

Yet I think we're agreed that in practical terms any such loss is unidentifiable and incapable of calculation.

No. The loss is identifiable and though it might be difficult to calculate precisely, it does not follow that no effort should be made.

If it is straightforward, and I have missed that, can you explain to me how it can be identified? Looking at CARICOM members with materially the same history and demographics as each other, some have per capita GDP figures that are comparable to Spain and Italy, others are more comparable to Albania. And then of course there's Haiti which has no comparables outside the poorest parts of Africa.

On the face of it such variation implies that the slave trade factor, common to all these countries, has been so comprehensively subsumed by other factors and influences over the centuries that even identifying its influence would be anything but straightforward, let alone quantifying it.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
Without wishing to encourage reckless over-breeding of moles, it seems to me that one of the underlying disagreements here is about the role of the state. I note the parallel thread which I don't have time to follow on whether taxes should be seen as mainly about payments for services. Seems like one of the big political questions is about "Big Govt" vs "Small Govt", and while there's a lot of common ground regarding the wide range of services that modern governments are involved in, the way people look at the underlying purpose of the state is very different.

The claim here seems to be that part of the role of the state is a responsibility (to God ?) to pass legislation banning every conceivable evil that may be committed either within the territory or by residents of the territory, including evils that will not be recognised as such by the majority of citizens for over 150 years into the future.

If people today treat their goldfish in a way that some future society comes to disapprove of in the light of research, the State will no doubt be held responsible for not passing laws to prevent it. Big Govt or Bloody Enormous Govt ?

OK, maybe that's a bit over the top, but you get my drift.

Russ
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
mdijon:
quote:
By the way, British slavery carried on through to the 19th Century.
I wasn't disputing that: merely attempting to point out that lilbuddha's statement that it was allowed in the British Isles was not strictly correct. And the slaves who sued for their freedom under English and Scottish law were influential in the abolitionist movement, though you couldn't prove it from that film about William Wilberforce... (it didn't mention the Quakers much either).
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pottage:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
What about when their descendants are still negatively impacted by the original crime? That means they, too, are victims. That is the basis of this action.

There comes a point when the descendents can no longer claim that their lives are being directly and demonstrably affected by something that happened a considerable time ago. With slavery I think that point has long since passed.
And I think the evidence is clear that we are nowhere near that point.
If that were the case though, wouldn't it be straightforward to point to the loss that is still being suffered by the remote descendants of slaves that is attributable to the atlantic slave trade? Yet I think we're agreed that in practical terms any such loss is unidentifiable and incapable of calculation.
Ah, but now you've changed the goal posts. "incapable of calculation" is not at all the same as "past the point where lives are being directly and demonstrably affected".

I believe that lives are still being directly and demonstrably affected both positively in the West (e.g. massive investment in infrastructure amassed during the time of slavery, built with slave dollars) and negatively in Africa and the Carribean (lack of infrastructure from the same period, due to the loss of prime wage earners). I would agree that exact calculation of the amount this is true will be difficult if not impossible.

However, I suspect the real problem-- and the reason that we rush so quickly to either "it's too far gone" or "it can't be done" is not because it IS incalculable, but rather because we fear it just might be. Because we greatly fear that if someone (and an economist may be able to do the hard work to just that) were able to accumulate and crunch the #s enough to offer some credible $$number to afix to the financial benefit still enjoyed by members of Western economies due to that investment of slave dollars, that we really, really wouldn't like the answer and what it might imply for our current level of comfort.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

Without wishing to encourage reckless over-
The claim here seems to be that part of the role of the state is a responsibility (to God ?) to pass legislation banning every conceivable evil that may be committed either within the territory or by residents of the territory

Some of those who are pro-reparations may well believe that, however as a concept it was first brought up (alluded to) by the anti-reparations crowd claiming that slavery was the result of a bunch of private acts with no state support.

In any case, as was pointed out above, it wasn't a case of the state passively allowing a state of affairs to occur - it was complicit in enforcing that state of affairs.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

Without wishing to encourage reckless over-
The claim here seems to be that part of the role of the state is a responsibility (to God ?) to pass legislation banning every conceivable evil that may be committed either within the territory or by residents of the territory

Some of those who are pro-reparations may well believe that, however as a concept it was first brought up (alluded to) by the anti-reparations crowd claiming that slavery was the result of a bunch of private acts with no state support.

In any case, as was pointed out above, it wasn't a case of the state passively allowing a state of affairs to occur - it was complicit in enforcing that state of affairs.

And, again, it's not really about expecting some long-ago state to anticipate 21st c. morality. It's about us, today, in the 21st c., recognizing the way the current fiscal and development inequities present in the world today are built in part on that legacy of slavery. So that those of us in the 21st c., who should, presumably, be expected to have 21st c. understandings of the evil of slavery, should respond to the reality that our wealth is built on slave labor. Its about us, not them.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
However, I suspect the real problem-- and the reason that we rush so quickly to either "it's too far gone" or "it can't be done" is not because it IS incalculable, but rather because we fear it just might be. Because we greatly fear that if someone (and an economist may be able to do the hard work to just that) were able to accumulate and crunch the #s enough to offer some credible $$number to afix to the financial benefit still enjoyed by members of Western economies due to that investment of slave dollars, that we really, really wouldn't like the answer and what it might imply for our current level of comfort.

These reasons wouldn't apply to the CARICOM governments themselves, though - do you happen to know of any estimate they're working from? I wasn't able to find it on their website.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

However, I suspect the real problem-- and the reason that we rush so quickly to either "it's too far gone" or "it can't be done" is not because it IS incalculable, but rather because we fear it just might be.

Not true.

It is not a matter of money.

Eighteen of the world’s twenty poorest nations are in Africa, the continent originally responsible for the slave trade.

Whatever the immense sum the economist pulled out of a hat, I for one would be happy for my taxes to go toward its accumulation across Western countries, provided it was used for genuine purposes such as health and education in those eighteen African countries, and provided it was administered independently, and not by the countries’ corrupt and incompetent politicians and bureaucrats who bear so much responsibility for their countries’ poverty.

I would strongly object to such a sum going to the Caribbean nations, who are not as needy (except for Haiti) and who are out to get it by playing pea and thimble tricks with history.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
Eighteen of the world’s twenty poorest nations are in Africa, the continent originally responsible for the slave trade.

Whack. How dare you make me beat you like this. Whack. This is all your fault that I get so angry. Whack.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Ah, but now you've changed the goal posts. "incapable of calculation" is not at all the same as "past the point where lives are being directly and demonstrably affected".

I believe that lives are still being directly and demonstrably affected both positively in the West (e.g. massive investment in infrastructure amassed during the time of slavery, built with slave dollars) and negatively in Africa and the Carribean (lack of infrastructure from the same period, due to the loss of prime wage earners). I would agree that exact calculation of the amount this is true will be difficult if not impossible.

However, I suspect the real problem-- and the reason that we rush so quickly to either "it's too far gone" or "it can't be done" is not because it IS incalculable, but rather because we fear it just might be. Because we greatly fear that if someone (and an economist may be able to do the hard work to just that) were able to accumulate and crunch the #s enough to offer some credible $$number to afix to the financial benefit still enjoyed by members of Western economies due to that investment of slave dollars, that we really, really wouldn't like the answer and what it might imply for our current level of comfort.

I disagree that we are talking about different things. At least I disagree so long as we mean to discuss reparation payments as opposed to acknowledgement and apology for the historical evil.

If it is impossible to identify or quantify a loss or deficit being suffered now, many generations on, that is the result of the slave trade, then we are "past the point where lives are being directly and demonstrably affected." If a wrong occurred so long ago, and since then so many other factors have intervened which have a greater influence on the lives today of the slaves' remote descendants that no identifiable effects of the slave trade remain, then how would we make tangible reparation? I think the impossibility of making reparation is one way in which you can determine that the time for reparation is past.

I know you think differently. You have said that for you the basis of the action proposed by CARICOM is that the slaves' descendants ARE still being impacted negatively by the slave trade specifically. I have pointed to the wide disparity between CARICOM countries in terms of their levels of development, wealth etc, despite the fact that they have materially the same history and demographics. I think that these great disparities suggest that other events in the intervening centuries play so much greater a role in determining the current situation of those countries that the effects of the slave trade itself are lost beyond identification. If you disagree, can you point me to where the campaign for reparations has set out its research and calculations so I can see whether my interpretation is too superficial?

Let me just stress that what I am disputing here is that there is a case for reparation payments now for the slave trade. I don't argue that there wouldn't have been a case for reparation payments in the past, nearer to the events. I don't argue that there isn't cause for the former slaving nations to acknowledge very clearly that the slave trade was shameful and wicked. And most of all I don't suggest for a moment that the relatively affluent countries of the West (whether they have a historical involvement in the atlantic slave trade or not) shouldn't be targeting aid at places where there is need, now, in 2014. Some of the CARICOM countries are places where there is clearly current need; some of them are quite affluent.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I believe that lives are still being directly and demonstrably affected both positively in the West (e.g. massive investment in infrastructure amassed during the time of slavery, built with slave dollars) and negatively in Africa and the Carribean (lack of infrastructure from the same period, due to the loss of prime wage earners).

OK, let's start there. Can you demonstrate that (a) Western infrastructure developments would not have happened without the slave trade, and (b) infrastructure developments in Africa/the Carribbean would have happened without the slave trade?

With regards to (a), I would say that the industrial revolution was the most significant driver of economic improvement in the West - slavery had been going for hundreds of years before it happened, without anything like the same amount of economic growth. Furthermore, it is simply untrue to say that every improvement that happened at the time was "built with slave dollars". An estimate of the contribution of the slave trade to the British economy of the time seems to put it at around 5%: Reference link. That's not insignificant, but it's a very far cry from saying that all the benefits we enjoy today are due to slavery.

Your argument for (b) hinges on the loss of manpower from the affected countries. Firstly, I will note that for obvious reasons this argument does not apply to the CARICOM nations. Secondly, there is still the need to demonstrate that African countries would have seen significantly greater economic and infrastructure development had those people not been removed.
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
I'm just musing over the additional complexity that it isn't a zero-sum game. Isn't there an argument that the human race as a whole would be better off (the global economy bigger) if slavery had never happened. If that argument can be sustained, and I bet there are economists who could have a good try at it, then arguably I am worse off today because of the slave trade. Don't worry, I'm not about to suggest that anyone owes me reparations.

I still end up right back where I started, which is that I am very lucky because I was born here, and lots of people in the world are very unlucky because they were born somewhere else. However that came about, I owe it to my brothers in justice - not in charity - to share my fortune with them.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
Isn't there an argument that the human race as a whole would be better off (the global economy bigger) if slavery had never happened.

I'm not sure it would have made much difference either way, to be honest. The industrial revolution would still have happened.

Of course, if you take the extreme pro-reparations position and assume that the industrial revolution was only made possible in the first place because of slavery, then a good argument can be made that the global economy would have been much smaller now if slavery had never happened. I'm not arguing that point myself because I don't agree with the initial premise.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
Isn't there an argument that the human race as a whole would be better off (the global economy bigger) if slavery had never happened.

I'm not sure it would have made much difference either way, to be honest. The industrial revolution would still have happened.

Of course, if you take the extreme pro-reparations position and assume that the industrial revolution was only made possible in the first place because of slavery, then a good argument can be made that the global economy would have been much smaller now if slavery had never happened. I'm not arguing that point myself because I don't agree with the initial premise.

I think the question is not would/would not the industrial revolution have happened-- clearly it would. The question, rather, is whether it would have happened in such an unequal way. If both resources & people had been distributed more evenly, rather than so concentrated in the West as a consequence of slavery, would development/ industrialization have been more widespread?
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
If the view expressed on this thread that modern day racism is in part a legacy of slavery is taken as a given*, I would certainly say I am worse off for that.

Not just in the sense that I abhor racism and would rather live in an equal society without this odious historical baggage (although, yes, that, very much) but also because as (a) I work in Stratford, East London, and (b) one third of the adults in my house is black, I have a direct and personal interest in racial minorities as a class being economically prosperous.

What I hate about the reparations rhetoric is the implication that black and white are two distinct interest groups in competition with one another, that within those groups individuals are morally interchangeable, so that an injustice done to one can be remedied by reparation given to another, and the underlying assumption that there is some sort of inherited moral responsibility* for things that happened centuries before my birth, as a result of my national and racial identity. None of that helps me to see black people as just people. None of that shows up racism for the wicked stupidity that it is.


(*I'm not sure that it is. I think we are perfectly capable of being cunts to categories of people we have never enslaved).

(**and no, saying 'we're talking about states' doesn't answer that one. A state is not, except by analogy, a moral entity. The fact that the UK has some degree of political stability and continuity (which it does) does not imply that the UK has a moral identity which goes deeper than (1) the ethics of individual decision makers or (2) the collective moral responsibility arising from the choices, actions and inactions people actually alive at any given time. There is no entity, state or individual, which inherits the moral guilt of slavery.)
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
If both resources & people had been distributed more evenly, rather than so concentrated in the West as a consequence of slavery, would development/ industrialization have been more widespread?

We're assuming that the mass transportation of slaves didn't happen, that the European powers were united in their condemnation of slavery from the 15th, or at least the 16th century, but that nothing else changed?

Then, I suggest, Africa would have become a more primitive version of India (compare pre-colonial Africa with India under the Mughals, and extrapolate). I don't see that making much of a difference to modern-day Africa.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:


What I hate about the reparations rhetoric is the implication that black and white are two distinct interest groups in competition with one another, that within those groups individuals are morally interchangeable, so that an injustice done to one can be remedied by reparation given to another, and the underlying assumption that there is some sort of inherited moral responsibility* for things that happened centuries before my birth, as a result of my national and racial identity. None of that helps me to see black people as just people. None of that shows up racism for the wicked stupidity that it is.


This is about governments, nations and societies not individuals - and it's certainly not about you. You might be a lovely person to your black friends, but that's not the issue here.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
This is about governments, nations and societies not individuals - and it's certainly not about you. You might be a lovely person to your black friends, but that's not the issue here.

When it comes to coughing up any money, it's individuals who will have to pay, though.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
You could say that about anything that the govt spends money on.

I haven't checked to see what percentage of the aid budget would be swallowed up by these reparations demands, but I doubt that this money would otherwise be spent on something like the NHS - although it's possible that there might be funding for educational or professional scholarships, staff exchanges, etc.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
[qb]I think the question is not would/would not the industrial revolution have happened-- clearly it would. The question, rather, is whether it would have happened in such an unequal way. If both resources & people had been distributed more evenly, rather than so concentrated in the West as a consequence of slavery, would development/ industrialization have been more widespread?

Probably not, no. The only difference I can see is that we would have had to pay people (probably not much) to grow our cotton/sugar/etc rather than using slaves - as indeed we did once slavery was abolished. There's absolutely no reason to assume that we'd have spread development or industry to other countries any more in the absence of slavery than we actually did in real history.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
If the view expressed on this thread that modern day racism is in part a legacy of slavery is taken as a given*, I would certainly say I am worse off for that.

I don't agree with that. I would say that slavery was caused by racism, not the other way around.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
If the view expressed on this thread that modern day racism is in part a legacy of slavery is taken as a given*, I would certainly say I am worse off for that.

I don't agree with that. I would say that slavery was caused by racism, not the other way around.
The question of which came first is an interesting one, but early colonial history is instructive. Many of the first workers on the plantations were poor whites. Some were formally indentured labourers, while some were actually abductees - the verb 'to kidnap' comes from the practice of kidnapping poor white British children and shipping them to the Americas. Poor whites in general were treated very poorly, sometimes no better than the black slaves. (And of course, for the Spanish and Portuguese, the first slaves they had in the Americas weren't black but native Indian. The point it, black people weren't the first choice.)

This rough equality of pigmentation and suffering became problematic, however. Firstly, there were never enough poor whites to do the work required. This led to a huge increase in the numbers of imported black slaves, which left whites as a fearful minority. Moreover, the poverty and maltreatment of poor whites often led to them making common cause with the black slaves. The colonial authorities couldn't allow this to continue, and deliberately instated divide and rule laws that differentiated between black and white. The early practice of encouraging marriage between white men and their black slave mistresses and the manumission of their children was soon seen as a threat for the same reasons, so it was either discouraged or outlawed.

All of this represents an ongoing 'blackening' of inferiority and oppression. There was some racism in Europe before and during the slave trade, true, but the Victorians became far more outspoken and systematic regarding black inferiority than previous generations of British people had been.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
If the view expressed on this thread that modern day racism is in part a legacy of slavery is taken as a given*, I would certainly say I am worse off for that.

I don't agree with that. I would say that slavery was caused by racism, not the other way around.
No, its pretty clear that modern so-called "scientific" racism was the product of mass-market chattel slavery.

Obviously people in general thought that We were the best and They were inferior to us for all of history. And obviously there had been all sorts of slavery and conquest and oppression before the invention of modern racism. But that sort of proves the point. It wasn't neccessary to construct three or four or five rather artificial races in order to justify the sort of things that went on in Western Europe the Middle Ages. By the 18th century it was.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
I haven't ever seen any stories about slave-raiding within Western Christendom. While the Scots and the English used to steal each other's cattle, there's nothing that I know of about them taking slaves. The same goes for most wars within Christendom. Whether there was a similar lack of slave raiding between Muslim peoples I don't know. But I think that's pretty unusual as a historical situation. Most peoples until pretty recently routinely raided their neighbours for slaves.
I believe Christians did use Muslim slaves and of course vice versa.
Scientific racism would have been constructed to justify why, if taking Europeans as slaves was wrong, taking Africans as slaves was acceptable.
Possibly as a result of the scientific racist justification I believe the African slave trade was horrible in ways that, say, slavery in the classical world was not.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
Slavery within Western Christendom seems to have been relatively rare after about 1100. Prior to that it was more common - about 10% of the people recorded in the Domesday Book were slaves, and it seems to have remained prevalent in Eastern Europe for far longer ("slav" being the derivation). In some ways it was overtaken by feudal structures which tied people to the land rather than a chattel owner, but it's also received wisdom that the church suppressed it.

That said, slave markets in places like Venice flourished in the fifteenth century, trading mainly Eastern European captives to the Mongols and the Ottomans, although not within Christendom. The Crusader kingdoms felt the need to have rules and regulations about how Christian knights should treat their Muslim slaves which suggests that practice was common amongst them.
 
Posted by betjemaniac (# 17618) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I haven't ever seen any stories about slave-raiding within Western Christendom. .

Well no, but ON Western Christendom....

http://www.bbc.co.uk/history/british/empire_seapower/white_slaves_01.shtml

http://www.theguardian.com/uk/2004/mar/11/highereducation.books

This is all as a point of order more than anything else.
 
Posted by Kaplan Corday (# 16119) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
Eighteen of the world’s twenty poorest nations are in Africa, the continent originally responsible for the slave trade.

Whack. How dare you make me beat you like this. Whack. This is all your fault that I get so angry. Whack.
The sentence of mine which you quote contains two facts.

The connection which you obtusely invent between them is the precise opposite to the one I made in the rest of the post, ie that the past is irrelevant, and that today’s poor African countries should be helped right now because they are poor right now.

The reference to the slave trade was obviously connected to the theme of the thread - that other, less needy, countries are looking for a handout on shaky historical and moral grounds.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I think the question is not would/would not the industrial revolution have happened-- clearly it would. The question, rather, is whether it would have happened in such an unequal way. If both resources & people had been distributed more evenly, rather than so concentrated in the West as a consequence of slavery, would development/ industrialization have been more widespread?

Probably not, no. The only difference I can see is that we would have had to pay people (probably not much) to grow our cotton/sugar/etc rather than using slaves - as indeed we did once slavery was abolished. There's absolutely no reason to assume that we'd have spread development or industry to other countries any more in the absence of slavery than we actually did in real history.
It's not what we would have done differently-- it's what they would have done differently. To have an industrial revolution, you need to have a middle class. You need individuals who have sufficient leisure time and resources to think creatively about, say, practical uses for that new steam engine someone just invented. Probably a working class person (since they're closer to the work and more likely to see those practical applications) but still able to spend some time in the evenings tinkering, and some resources to buy the raw materials. In a nation or tribe where all of your prime wage earners have been transported elsewhere you're not going to have that happen. If you're spending 20 hours a day just scratching enough food outta the ground to survive, you're not going to have the means at your disposal to harness those new technologies or to come up with your own.

[code]

[ 19. March 2014, 20:47: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
This is about governments, nations and societies not individuals.

You're right that the pro-claim argument only makes sense in the context of a view in which justice is seen as some sort of equity between classes of people.

As Eliab has pointed out much better than I could say it, such a "class-centred" view
- is based on a logic of "2 wrongs make a right"
- actively encourages people to treat others of different backgrounds as members of opposed classes rather than as people first and foremost.

It's a twisted view that comes from over-exposure to sociology.

We're called to the difficult task of loving our neighbour, not to join the struggle for parity between this class of neighbours and that class.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
This is about governments, nations and societies not individuals - and it's certainly not about you.

The government that supported slavery is gone. The society that supported slavery is gone. The nation that supported slavery does so no longer.

On what basis does a 'nation', considered independently of the people who comprise it, or the government that represents it, get to be considered as a moral entity?


quote:
You might be a lovely person to your black friends, but that's not the issue here.
I don't have 'black friends'. I have friends. Some of them have darker skin than others.

I want a world where talking about 'black friends' as a category sounds about as significant as talking about my 'blonde friends'. Someone who thinks that certain nationalities inherit a responsibility for crimes committed by their forebears plainly does not want a world like that.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
I want a world where talking about 'black friends' as a category sounds about as significant as talking about my 'blonde friends'. Someone who thinks that certain nationalities inherit a responsibility for crimes committed by their forebears plainly does not want a world like that.

Simply, categorically untrue.

We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm. Our disagreement is how we get there. Your suggestion seems to be that you simply press the restart button and forget about the past. Others of us are suggesting that the past is still impacting the present in a lot of ways (Mandela had a lot to say about that) and that we cannot get to our goal of a race-blind society w/o naming and really wrestling with those skeletons from the past.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
You might be a lovely person to your black friends, but that's not the issue here.

I don't have 'black friends'. I have friends. Some of them have darker skin than others.

I want a world where talking about 'black friends' as a category sounds about as significant as talking about my 'blonde friends'. Someone who thinks that certain nationalities inherit a responsibility for crimes committed by their forebears plainly does not want a world like that.

While black people remain disproportionately disadvantaged on the world stage it's hard to argue convincingly that colour doesn't matter, and that black people should be quiet about their history. Turning a blind eye to the effects of the past on the present won't move things forward.

Whether reparations would move things forward is an interesting question. Probably not, because no one of sufficient fame and moral stature has (or it likely to) come forward to make the case convincingly for reparations and to propose the fairest way that they could be put info effect. Moreover, if Western governments agreed to pay reparations now it would simply stoke up anti-black hatred in the Western world, which would defeat the whole object of the thing.

As I implied earlier on in the thread, I think this is more about gesture politics rather than anything else, so there's really no need for anyone to get upset. It's not going to happen. Things will carry on as normal.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Furthermore, it is simply untrue to say that every improvement that happened at the time was "built with slave dollars". An estimate of the contribution of the slave trade to the British economy of the time seems to put it at around 5%: Reference link. That's not insignificant, but it's a very far cry from saying that all the benefits we enjoy today are due to slavery.

Hold on a second. A 5% boost to GDP (which I'm guessing is what you mean with your 5% figure) every year for decades is HUGE! For comparison, the downturn from the recent financial crisis shrank U.S. GDP by about 2.8% (in inflation-adjusted terms) in 2009 relative to 2008. That one year shrinkage nearly toppled the economy. And yet you claim that a decades (or centuries) long boost roughly equivalent to the post-war boom years of the U.S. economy is no big deal.

And to put it in perspective, 5% of the eighteenth or early nineteenth century British economy is probably closer to 20% or 30% of economy of the various Caribbean colonies from which that productivity was extracted. (That's just a rough guess on my part backed up by no empirical data other than a general sense of history. If anyone has a good source on the relative size of the economies of Great Britain and its Caribbean colonies in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, I'd be grateful.) Again for comparison purposes, the U.S. economy shrank by an average of about 7% per year for the four opening years of the Great Depression. Once again I have to ask, what is the basis for claiming that removing two or three times that proportion of productivity for decades is not a huge economic brake on development and local prosperity?

BTW, since I can only see the first page of your linked article, does the 5% figure cited as proceeds from "the slave trade" only apply to revenue directly derived from the buying and selling of slaves, or does it also cover the work-product forcibly extracted from slaves?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
A brief, easily digestible overview of the importance of the Triangle trade slavery to Europeans and Americans.

I case anyone might miss it, there is a link contained somewhere in the previous sentence.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Another link.

BTW, a quick search shows that the US produces 60% of its own oil needs. Yet that 60%, produces only .9% of the US GDP. Why do they bother?*

So, as Crœsos illustrates, even should 5% be the entire slavery figure, that is still a massive amount of money.


*Spoiler for those needing a clue bat: Because it is not the percentage, but the percentage of what amount.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Furthermore, it is simply untrue to say that every improvement that happened at the time was "built with slave dollars". An estimate of the contribution of the slave trade to the British economy of the time seems to put it at around 5%: Reference link. That's not insignificant, but it's a very far cry from saying that all the benefits we enjoy today are due to slavery.

Hold on a second. A 5% boost to GDP (which I'm guessing is what you mean with your 5% figure) every year for decades is HUGE!
It seems pretty unlikely that they mean slavery accounted for 5% annual GDP growth; that would imply that without slavery the UK would have been in steady decline from 1700-1831, when average annual growth was only 1.09% (from this BoE publication.)
quote:
For comparison, the downturn from the recent financial crisis shrank U.S. GDP by about 2.8% (in inflation-adjusted terms) in 2009 relative to 2008. That one year shrinkage nearly toppled the economy.

What makes you think that? Many countries have experienced far larger declines during the recent crises without coming anywhere near to economic collapse.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kaplan Corday:
Eighteen of the world’s twenty poorest nations are in Africa, the continent originally responsible for the slave trade.

Correlation is not causation. Even when it is potentially an element of causation, there are many others.
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Furthermore, it is simply untrue to say that every improvement that happened at the time was "built with slave dollars". An estimate of the contribution of the slave trade to the British economy of the time seems to put it at around 5%: Reference link. That's not insignificant, but it's a very far cry from saying that all the benefits we enjoy today are due to slavery.

Hold on a second. A 5% boost to GDP (which I'm guessing is what you mean with your 5% figure) every year for decades is HUGE!
It seems pretty unlikely that they mean slavery accounted for 5% annual GDP growth; that would imply that without slavery the UK would have been in steady decline from 1700-1831, when average annual growth was only 1.09% (from this BoE publication.)
quote:
For comparison, the downturn from the recent financial crisis shrank U.S. GDP by about 2.8% (in inflation-adjusted terms) in 2009 relative to 2008. That one year shrinkage nearly toppled the economy.

What makes you think that? Many countries have experienced far larger declines during the recent crises without coming anywhere near to economic collapse.

True basically you'd have to account for opportunity cost, i.e. how much GDP they could have earned (and I'm not sure how good GDP is with self sustenance so possibly need to add a correcting factor).
But 5% is immensely huge as not only are you getting the miracle of compound interest*, the rate of return will be correlated to how much you put in (e.g. can buy and develop a steam factory).
So even if if reduced it will have a huge difference.

*So your money doubles in 15 years.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
It's not what we would have done differently-- it's what they would have done differently. To have an industrial revolution, you need to have a middle class. You need individuals who have sufficient leisure time and resources to think creatively about, say, practical uses for that new steam engine someone just invented. Probably a working class person (since they're closer to the work and more likely to see those practical applications) but still able to spend some time in the evenings tinkering, and some resources to buy the raw materials. In a nation or tribe where all of your prime wage earners have been transported elsewhere you're not going to have that happen. If you're spending 20 hours a day just scratching enough food outta the ground to survive, you're not going to have the means at your disposal to harness those new technologies or to come up with your own.

Is there any reason at all to presume that the African societies of the time - which were largely tribal and undeveloped - would have come anywhere near having an industrial revolution of their own had slavery not happened? It didn't happen in any comparable countries that weren't affected by slavery.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Hold on a second. A 5% boost to GDP (which I'm guessing is what you mean with your 5% figure) every year for decades is HUGE!

5% of the economy as a whole. And if that's huge then the other 95% must be gargantuan, which in itself makes the claim that slavery was the only thing paying for our industrial development incorrect.

It's also worth noting that the article I linked to does not subtract the costs of slavery from the amount. That's why I picked it - it gives the biggest figure.

quote:
BTW, since I can only see the first page of your linked article, does the 5% figure cited as proceeds from "the slave trade" only apply to revenue directly derived from the buying and selling of slaves, or does it also cover the work-product forcibly extracted from slaves?
If you click on the grey bar to the right of the page it takes you to the next one.

It's the total including the work done. He puts the contribution of the actual trade itself at about 1%, with the other 4% made up of plantation revenue, etc.
 
Posted by Pottage (# 9529) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
A brief, easily digestible overview of the importance of the Triangle trade slavery to Europeans and Americans.

I case anyone might miss it, there is a link contained somewhere in the previous sentence.

An alternative analysis, though not quite so brief or easily digestible. But it's interesting because in its treatment of other works it provides a summary of the debate on whether or not the transatlantic slave trade underpinned the industrial revolution so substantially that it wouldn't otherwise have occurred at all or in the same form.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm.

Someone who wants representatives of one race to pay compensation to representatives of another, by definition does not want a society where race doesn't matter. They want to have certain rights and responsibilities to be assigned contingent on race.

I'm not going to call that 'racist' in the crude sense, because it clearly isn't motivated by prejudice but has some sort of ethic of justice in mind (albeit not one that I share). But it is quite obviously opposed to the agenda I want, which is complete indifference to race. I do not want to have to know, notice or care what colour your skin is.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
While black people remain disproportionately disadvantaged on the world stage it's hard to argue convincingly that colour doesn't matter, and that black people should be quiet about their history.

The thing is, I don't think there is a “they” to whom the history of slavery belongs. I don't see why the paleness of my skin, and the possibility that I might share a small part of my DNA with an eighteenth century bastard, prevents me from having any response to the accounts of historical wickedness that someone with a slightly higher level of melanin (and, possibly, on average a slightly higher chance of counting said eighteenth century bastard as their ancestor) might have.

No other sort of historical arseholery is categorised like that. I can have an opinion on whether Harold or William had the better claim to the English crown, but whether I prefer the victor or the vanquished, the story of the Norman conquest is one that shaped my world, and is my history. I can take a view that Martin Luther was a saint or a schismatic, and not feel personally aligned with any of the horrible things that Catholics or Protestants have done to one another in the past. I can see good and bad in history, see that both good and bad has gone to make up the world that now exists, and see that good and bad was done both to, and in the name of, groups which have their successors today, to which I might belong. But I don't think there's some category of “Saxon history” or “Protestant history”, to which modern people of unblemished Saxon descent or Protestant lineage have a unique claim of ownership. The whole history of the world is our story – including the bits of it that involve black people.

[ 20. March 2014, 09:22: Message edited by: Eliab ]
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm.

Someone who wants representatives of one race to pay compensation to representatives of another, by definition does not want a society where race doesn't matter. They want to have certain rights and responsibilities to be assigned contingent on race.
No, they want compensation for the crime of slavery, not just because they're a different race. One can disagree with the claim, but it doesn't depend on racial identity - slavery would also have been wrong if both slaves and slavers had been the same race.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
No, they want compensation for the crime of slavery, not just because they're a different race. One can disagree with the claim, but it doesn't depend on racial identity - slavery would also have been wrong if both slaves and slavers had been the same race.

So the tax pounds of working class Black Britons will be paid (perhaps indirectly) to wealthy white Cayman Islanders?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm.

Someone who wants representatives of one race to pay compensation to representatives of another, by definition does not want a society where race doesn't matter. They want to have certain rights and responsibilities to be assigned contingent on race.
No, they want compensation for the crime of slavery, not just because they're a different race. One can disagree with the claim, but it doesn't depend on racial identity - slavery would also have been wrong if both slaves and slavers had been the same race.
Well, sometime in the distant past of this thread I made the point that the government of any given Caribbean country is not merely representing people that are descended from slaves. They represent white people who, I'm assuming, do not come from slave families, as well as people of colour whose personal ancestry does not include slavery.

There is a definite tendency to just lump large, heterogenous groups of people together. And even the word 'they' that we're using a lot tends to do that - it's amazing how people can get through a conversation (not, I emphasise just this one) without needing to articulate exactly who 'they' are. It's a great all-purpose word for labelling without defining.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
No, they want compensation for the crime of slavery, not just because they're a different race. One can disagree with the claim, but it doesn't depend on racial identity - slavery would also have been wrong if both slaves and slavers had been the same race.

So the tax pounds of working class Black Britons will be paid (perhaps indirectly) to wealthy white Cayman Islanders?
I an others have already pointed this out, under the heading of "practical difficulties." It's one of a large number of issues under that category. But it doesn't change the underlying moral issue, just makes any resolution more complicated.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
It's not what we would have done differently-- it's what they would have done differently. To have an industrial revolution, you need to have a middle class. You need individuals who have sufficient leisure time and resources to think creatively about, say, practical uses for that new steam engine someone just invented. Probably a working class person (since they're closer to the work and more likely to see those practical applications) but still able to spend some time in the evenings tinkering, and some resources to buy the raw materials. In a nation or tribe where all of your prime wage earners have been transported elsewhere you're not going to have that happen. If you're spending 20 hours a day just scratching enough food outta the ground to survive, you're not going to have the means at your disposal to harness those new technologies or to come up with your own.

Is there any reason at all to presume that the African societies of the time - which were largely tribal and undeveloped - would have come anywhere near having an industrial revolution of their own had slavery not happened? It didn't happen in any comparable countries that weren't affected by slavery.
Obviously that's not true. If industrial revolution didn't happen in any countries that had slavery and also didn't happen in any countries that didn't have slavery, then there would have been no industrial revolution. Your statement hinges on the use of the qualifier "comparable"-- I'm not sure what a "comparable" country would be in this scenario-- a country not affected by colonialism and slavery, one w/ no loss of resources or prime wage-earners, where there was no industrial advancement building on the ones in Europe.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm.

Someone who wants representatives of one race to pay compensation to representatives of another, by definition does not want a society where race doesn't matter. They want to have certain rights and responsibilities to be assigned contingent on race.

I'm not going to call that 'racist' in the crude sense, because it clearly isn't motivated by prejudice but has some sort of ethic of justice in mind (albeit not one that I share). But it is quite obviously opposed to the agenda I want, which is complete indifference to race. I do not want to have to know, notice or care what colour your skin is.

This is getting close to a hell call.

Again, we all want a race-blind society. The difference is, can we get there by simply ignoring the past and trying to push a reset button? Or, as Mandela suggested, is the way to get there by naming, acknowledging, and responding to the racial sins of the past?

To suggest that those who agree with Mandela that the way forward is by dealing with the past don't share your desire for a race-blind society is absurdly unfair.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm.

Someone who wants representatives of one race to pay compensation to representatives of another, by definition does not want a society where race doesn't matter. They want to have certain rights and responsibilities to be assigned contingent on race.
No, they want compensation for the crime of slavery, not just because they're a different race. One can disagree with the claim, but it doesn't depend on racial identity - slavery would also have been wrong if both slaves and slavers had been the same race.
Well, sometime in the distant past of this thread I made the point that the government of any given Caribbean country is not merely representing people that are descended from slaves. They represent white people who, I'm assuming, do not come from slave families, as well as people of colour whose personal ancestry does not include slavery.

There is a definite tendency to just lump large, heterogenous groups of people together. And even the word 'they' that we're using a lot tends to do that - it's amazing how people can get through a conversation (not, I emphasise just this one) without needing to articulate exactly who 'they' are. It's a great all-purpose word for labelling without defining.

But, as noted above in the "practical difficulties", this isn't just about race at this point. You have persons of both races living in the Caribbean, Africa, US and Europe. In the US anyway you have a large population of mixed-race persons whose ancestors (for very sad reasons) include both slaveholders and slaves. My own ancestors immigrated to the US around 50 years after emancipation.

The basis for reparations would be the inequalities that result from living in a society that has either benefitted from or has been harmed financially by slavery. It's not about punishing you for your ancestor's sins, it's about repaying stolen goods. Everyone living in the US or Europe, regardless of when or how they got there, has benefited from living in the society with a massive infrastructure built with slave money.

Again, all of the above causes immense, possibly insurmountable, practical difficulties. But that doesn't change the underlying moral issues.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Again, we all want a race-blind society. The difference is, can we get there by simply ignoring the past and trying to push a reset button? Or, as Mandela suggested, is the way to get there by naming, acknowledging, and responding to the racial sins of the past?

To suggest that those who agree with Mandela that the way forward is by dealing with the past don't share your desire for a race-blind society is absurdly unfair.

Did Nelson Mandela call for reparations from former slave-owning countries to former slave colonies? Did he call for (or enact) any similar scheme of reparations in post-Apartheid South Africa?

[ 20. March 2014, 13:36: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Again, we all want a race-blind society. The difference is, can we get there by simply ignoring the past and trying to push a reset button? Or, as Mandela suggested, is the way to get there by naming, acknowledging, and responding to the racial sins of the past?

To suggest that those who agree with Mandela that the way forward is by dealing with the past don't share your desire for a race-blind society is absurdly unfair.

Did Nelson Mandela call for reparations from former slave-owning countries to former slave colonies? Did he call for (or enact) any similar scheme of reparations in post-Apartheid South Africa?
A committee was appointed to consider this and make recommendations to the government
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Again, we all want a race-blind society. The difference is, can we get there by simply ignoring the past and trying to push a reset button? Or, as Mandela suggested, is the way to get there by naming, acknowledging, and responding to the racial sins of the past?

To suggest that those who agree with Mandela that the way forward is by dealing with the past don't share your desire for a race-blind society is absurdly unfair.

Did Nelson Mandela call for reparations from former slave-owning countries to former slave colonies? Did he call for (or enact) any similar scheme of reparations in post-Apartheid South Africa?
See Erroneous' link. The point is that he felt the "truth and reconciliation" councils were essential before moving on.

[ 20. March 2014, 14:35: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
This is interesting in terms of some additional history of slavery: Research Reveals Massive Extent Of Slavery Between Muslims, Christians For Three Centuries, between 1500 and 1800.

quote:
...faith slavery “does not fit the historical master narrative that people in the United States and Europe tend to assume.”
“This narrative holds that from Columbus’ time until the 20th century, history was largely about European colonial expansion, with the imposition of white, European, Christian power on much of the world,”....
“This story of faith slavery does not fit that narrative. The idea that triumphant Europeans were not everywhere inflicting their dominance on others seems counter-intuitive,”... "during this centuries-long struggle between nearly equal empires, millions of European Christians ended up enslaved in Muslim hands.”


 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
While black people remain disproportionately disadvantaged on the world stage it's hard to argue convincingly that colour doesn't matter, and that black people should be quiet about their history.

The thing is, I don't think there is a “they” to whom the history of slavery belongs. I don't see why the paleness of my skin, and the possibility that I might share a small part of my DNA with an eighteenth century bastard, prevents me from having any response to the accounts of historical wickedness that someone with a slightly higher level of melanin (and, possibly, on average a slightly higher chance of counting said eighteenth century bastard as their ancestor) might have.

We're talking about a decision that would ideally be made by a society and its politicians and intellectuals exploring the issue together and coming to a decision that would be carried out by the government. It wouldn't be based on you and your whiteness, or you and your particular set of ancestors. British citizens, voters, lawmakers and taxpayers come in all colours and have a variety of bloodlines.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

The basis for reparations would be the inequalities that result from living in a society that has either benefitted from or has been harmed financially by slavery. It's not about punishing you for your ancestor's sins, it's about repaying stolen goods. Everyone living in the US or Europe, regardless of when or how they got there, has benefited from living in the society with a massive infrastructure built with slave money.

Again, all of the above causes immense, possibly insurmountable, practical difficulties. But that doesn't change the underlying moral issues.

We've discussed the moral principles, and while it's just to reclaim identifiable stolen goods from those who are not morally culpable, stolen cash can only be reclaimed from the guilty party, because as soon as it is mixed with any of his/her own money it becomes unidentifiable. You can't reclaim cash from descendants, and if when you find the thief he's still alive but bankrupt then you don't have a moral right to reclaim cash he doesn't have from those who are choosing to support him in his bankruptcy.

(If the cash is in the form of new banknotes with known serial numbers then that may count as an identifiable object, but I don't think that's relevant here).

You also don't have a moral right to compensation from someone who could have prevented someone else from beating you up and chose not to. Unless they had some sort of duty to you to undertake that prevention, your moral claim is on the individual who did the beating. And if some third parties benefit from that (e.g. in a competitive business situation they gain from you being out of action while recovering from being beaten up) that doesn't give you a moral claim on their extra earnings. Benefitting is not a crime. Your moral claim (including for loss of earnings) is against the guy who mugged you - the guy who is morally culpable because he made the moral choice to act as he did.

You're right that it's better to try to distinguish arguments of moral principle from problems of practicality, but if there isn't a clear moral argument in the case of simple crimes like theft and assault then there's no point pretending that there's an unequivocal moral case in more complex situations.

Or am I missing something here ?

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

The basis for reparations would be the inequalities that result from living in a society that has either benefitted from or has been harmed financially by slavery. It's not about punishing you for your ancestor's sins, it's about repaying stolen goods. Everyone living in the US or Europe, regardless of when or how they got there, has benefited from living in the society with a massive infrastructure built with slave money.

Again, all of the above causes immense, possibly insurmountable, practical difficulties. But that doesn't change the underlying moral issues.

We've discussed the moral principles, and while it's just to reclaim identifiable stolen goods from those who are not morally culpable, stolen cash can only be reclaimed from the guilty party, because as soon as it is mixed with any of his/her own money it becomes unidentifiable. You can't reclaim cash from descendants, and if when you find the thief he's still alive but bankrupt then you don't have a moral right to reclaim cash he doesn't have from those who are choosing to support him in his bankruptcy...

You're right that it's better to try to distinguish arguments of moral principle from problems of practicality, but if there isn't a clear moral argument in the case of simple crimes like theft and assault then there's no point pretending that there's an unequivocal moral case in more complex situations.

Or am I missing something here ?

Best wishes,

Russ

You are confusing moral right with legal right here. One can have a moral obligation w/o necessarily having a legal obligation.

I may be mistaken, but I believe that even speaking in terms of legal rights/obligations (at least in US estate law) that if someone dies before having repaid stolen cash, the victims can sue the estate so that the funds will be deducted from the inheritance. There's no moral culpability on the heirs-- they certainly wouldn't be charged with any criminal offense, no matter how heinous the crime their ancestor committed. Yet they still would not be allowed to inherit/benefit from those ill-gotten gains. That would seem to be applicable here.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Any debt incurred by the deceased is (or at least should be) paid before distribution of the assets. On occasions, the debts may be more than the estate value, and the estate is administered in bankruptcy.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Any debt incurred by the deceased is (or at least should be) paid before distribution of the assets. On occasions, the debts may be more than the estate value, and the estate is administered in bankruptcy.

Yes. My point.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
My apologies Cliffdweller - I entirely missed the irony in your post.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
We all long for a society where race truly doesn't matter, just as you affirm.

Someone who wants representatives of one race to pay compensation to representatives of another, by definition does not want a society where race doesn't matter. They want to have certain rights and responsibilities to be assigned contingent on race.
No, they want compensation for the crime of slavery, not just because they're a different race. One can disagree with the claim, but it doesn't depend on racial identity - slavery would also have been wrong if both slaves and slavers had been the same race.
Well, sometime in the distant past of this thread I made the point that the government of any given Caribbean country is not merely representing people that are descended from slaves. They represent white people who, I'm assuming, do not come from slave families, as well as people of colour whose personal ancestry does not include slavery.

There is a definite tendency to just lump large, heterogenous groups of people together. And even the word 'they' that we're using a lot tends to do that - it's amazing how people can get through a conversation (not, I emphasise just this one) without needing to articulate exactly who 'they' are. It's a great all-purpose word for labelling without defining.

But, as noted above in the "practical difficulties", this isn't just about race at this point. You have persons of both races living in the Caribbean, Africa, US and Europe. In the US anyway you have a large population of mixed-race persons whose ancestors (for very sad reasons) include both slaveholders and slaves. My own ancestors immigrated to the US around 50 years after emancipation.

The basis for reparations would be the inequalities that result from living in a society that has either benefitted from or has been harmed financially by slavery. It's not about punishing you for your ancestor's sins, it's about repaying stolen goods. Everyone living in the US or Europe, regardless of when or how they got there, has benefited from living in the society with a massive infrastructure built with slave money.

Again, all of the above causes immense, possibly insurmountable, practical difficulties. But that doesn't change the underlying moral issues.

Well, I think there's an element of heterogeneity in the 'society' you're calling the US. There's probably some disparity in Europe as well, but certainly I wouldn't think that the US is all one monolithic 'society', all of which that has benefited from slave history.

It's not even the case that slavery was applied equally across the United States.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Is there any reason at all to presume that the African societies of the time - which were largely tribal and undeveloped - would have come anywhere near having an industrial revolution of their own had slavery not happened? It didn't happen in any comparable countries that weren't affected by slavery.

Obviously that's not true. If industrial revolution didn't happen in any countries that had slavery and also didn't happen in any countries that didn't have slavery, then there would have been no industrial revolution.
The industrial revolution pretty much only happened in Britain, and the technology that resulted from it spread to other similarly-developed countries over the following decades. My assertion is that there's no reason to suppose it would have been spread in any major way to a no-slavery Africa, and as it (rather than slavery) was the primary cause of increased wealth in Europe/America there is therefore no reason to claim that the only reason real-world Africa is poor is because of slavery.

quote:
Your statement hinges on the use of the qualifier "comparable"-- I'm not sure what a "comparable" country would be in this scenario-- a country not affected by colonialism and slavery, one w/ no loss of resources or prime wage-earners, where there was no industrial advancement building on the ones in Europe.
"Comparable" means "similar to pre-slavery Africa" in the context in which I used it. There are many countries in (the rest of) Africa, the Middle East and Asia that fit the bill.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
]Well, I think there's an element of heterogeneity in the 'society' you're calling the US. There's probably some disparity in Europe as well, but certainly I wouldn't think that the US is all one monolithic 'society', all of which that has benefited from slave history.

It's not even the case that slavery was applied equally across the United States.

If you follow my argument, the benefit of slavery has nothing to do with bloodlines. It has to do with an economy that has a massive infrastructure (roads, schools, etc) built with slave dollars. I would guess the number of Americans today who can trace their lineage to slaveowners would be less than the majority (as I mentioned, my own ancestors immigrated post-emancipation), and many African Americans would have both slaveowners and slaves in their lineage. But everyone currently living in America benefits economically from living in a country with that massive infrastructure that was built using those slave dollars.

Obviously slavery was not applied equally across the US. But, as Lincoln detailed in one of his speeches (2nd inaugural? Can't remember) the North benefitted economically from slavery as well as the South. Southern economic prosperity meant lower taxes fro the north, lower prices for goods like cotton and tobacco, etc. Lincoln (whose theology veered toward the dark) even feared that God might require the bloody war to continue for more than a century to atone for every year that slavery had existed and benefitted both sides.

[ 21. March 2014, 13:36: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
built with slave dollars.

It's like people aren't even reading my posts. I guess having a good soundbite is more important than the truth.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
ISTM, you have not revealed a TRUTH, but an interpretation. And the whole industrial revolution tangent is more a distraction than a case builder, regardless.

[ 21. March 2014, 15:28: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
ISTM, you have not revealed a TRUTH, but an interpretation.

Is the figure of 5% I quoted earlier in the week as the proportion of the British economy that was made up by revenues from slavery in doubt? Because "built with slave dollars" implies that the things were entirely financed by - and simply would not exist without - slave dollars, rather than the actual case that slave dollars contributed towards a fraction of their overall cost.

quote:
And the whole industrial revolution tangent is more a distraction than a case builder, regardless.
A distraction? I'd say it's central to any serious discussion of the alleged productivity and economic growth that was 'stolen' from African countries by the slave trade.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
ISTM, you have not revealed a TRUTH, but an interpretation.

Is the figure of 5% I quoted earlier in the week as the proportion of the British economy that was made up by revenues from slavery in doubt? Because "built with slave dollars" implies that the things were entirely financed by - and simply would not exist without - slave dollars, rather than the actual case that slave dollars contributed towards a fraction of their overall cost.
Prior posters with more background in economics than I have addressed the impact 5% would have on the overall British economy. I and others have addressed the economic impact of slavery in the American economy (which can be traced to British colonialism, although obviously from 1776 on it's ours alone). Perhaps you'd like to go back to their posts and answer/address their response rather than pout that no one's responding?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
5% is 5%. It leaves 95% as the remainder. Would it have made infrastructure investment a bit easier? Yes. Would it have been the sole driver of infrastructure investment as you are claiming? No.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
5% is 5%. It leaves 95% as the remainder. Would it have made infrastructure investment a bit easier? Yes. Would it have been the sole driver of infrastructure investment as you are claiming? No.

So I can surmise then that you have no problem with the notion of 5% of British GNP going to reparations?
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

I may be mistaken, but I believe that even speaking in terms of legal rights/obligations (at least in US estate law) that if someone dies before having repaid stolen cash, the victims can sue the estate so that the funds will be deducted from the inheritance. There's no moral culpability on the heirs-- they certainly wouldn't be charged with any criminal offense, no matter how heinous the crime their ancestor committed. Yet they still would not be allowed to inherit/benefit from those ill-gotten gains. That would seem to be applicable here.

That applies if the victim catches up with the thief after he dies but before the money is distributed to the heirs. Once the inheritance has happened, you can't undo it. It's not the act of dying that makes a difference, it's the money passing from the guilty person (who has a moral obligation to return it) to somebody innocent (who doesn't).

If someone steals money from you and runs off to another country, what you can legally recover depends on the laws of that country. What you should be able to recover - what you can morally claim - is the full amount he stole, if the thief or his estate has it, but nothing of what others have. If the thief arrived in that country with your money and a similar amount of his own money, but everything he had is now all in the hands of his bookie, his wine merchant, his mistress, his daughter, and the charity he made a deathbed bequest to, then you don't have right to claim money from any of them. Because you can't show that any of the transactions involved the specific money he stole from you. And if you can't take your pound of flesh without taking one drop of blood that you're not owed, then morally you have to forgo it.

Doesn't seem particularly controversial or difficult.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
]Well, I think there's an element of heterogeneity in the 'society' you're calling the US. There's probably some disparity in Europe as well, but certainly I wouldn't think that the US is all one monolithic 'society', all of which that has benefited from slave history.

It's not even the case that slavery was applied equally across the United States.

If you follow my argument, the benefit of slavery has nothing to do with bloodlines. It has to do with an economy that has a massive infrastructure (roads, schools, etc) built with slave dollars. I would guess the number of Americans today who can trace their lineage to slaveowners would be less than the majority (as I mentioned, my own ancestors immigrated post-emancipation), and many African Americans would have both slaveowners and slaves in their lineage. But everyone currently living in America benefits economically from living in a country with that massive infrastructure that was built using those slave dollars.

Obviously slavery was not applied equally across the US. But, as Lincoln detailed in one of his speeches (2nd inaugural? Can't remember) the North benefitted economically from slavery as well as the South. Southern economic prosperity meant lower taxes fro the north, lower prices for goods like cotton and tobacco, etc. Lincoln (whose theology veered toward the dark) even feared that God might require the bloody war to continue for more than a century to atone for every year that slavery had existed and benefitted both sides.

If you read the bit you've quoted, it says nothing about bloodlines.

And okay, so you can argue that the north benefitted from the situation in the south. Why stop there? Why not investigate all the other places in the world that benefitted from being able to trade with a more prosperous north? And the benefits that other places got from THOSE places?

It's probably entirely possible to construct an explanation of how my forebears in Australia in the 1840s benefitted from the existence of slavery in America.

I still think, though, that this whole approach of finding the source of an obligation to help in the existence of past wrongs - either by demonstrating one side's losses or the other side's gains - is a fruitless exercise that's far less effective than pointing out the current situation without trying to attribute it to causes created by long-dead ancestors.

Poor countries should be helped because they need help now. Rich countries should help poor countries because there's considerable self-interest in doing so. Poor countries would be far better advised to show rich countries what's in it for them, rather than trying to engage in a guilt trip.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:

I may be mistaken, but I believe that even speaking in terms of legal rights/obligations (at least in US estate law) that if someone dies before having repaid stolen cash, the victims can sue the estate so that the funds will be deducted from the inheritance. There's no moral culpability on the heirs-- they certainly wouldn't be charged with any criminal offense, no matter how heinous the crime their ancestor committed. Yet they still would not be allowed to inherit/benefit from those ill-gotten gains. That would seem to be applicable here.

That applies if the victim catches up with the thief after he dies but before the money is distributed to the heirs. Once the inheritance has happened, you can't undo it. It's not the act of dying that makes a difference, it's the money passing from the guilty person (who has a moral obligation to return it) to somebody innocent (who doesn't).

If someone steals money from you and runs off to another country, what you can legally recover depends on the laws of that country. What you should be able to recover - what you can morally claim - is the full amount he stole, if the thief or his estate has it, but nothing of what others have. If the thief arrived in that country with your money and a similar amount of his own money, but everything he had is now all in the hands of his bookie, his wine merchant, his mistress, his daughter, and the charity he made a deathbed bequest to, then you don't have right to claim money from any of them. Because you can't show that any of the transactions involved the specific money he stole from you. And if you can't take your pound of flesh without taking one drop of blood that you're not owed, then morally you have to forgo it.

Doesn't seem particularly controversial or difficult.

Best wishes,

Russ

What appears to be controversial or difficult for you, again, is the distinction between moral obligation and legal obligation. In every instance above where you use the phrase "moral obligation" it is quite clear that you mean, rather, legal obligation. I am not disputing the legalities here, but would vehemently argue your constant conflating of the two to suggest that our (whether corporate or individual) moral obligation is limited to that which we are obligated to under the law (of any country).

To build on your facts, though, the fact that an estate has a legal obligation to return stolen property-- to pay out ill-gotten gains before passing the rest of the inheritance onto the heirs-- seems to support the moral principle we are suggesting here-- that heirs should not profit from the ill-gotten gains of their evil ancestors. The fact that the legal obligation ends once the estate is settled would seem to me to be as much a practical matter as anything-- obviously, as both you and I have pointed out, once the funds are co-mingled it gets very hard to sort out what is what. (All of which has been dealt with on this thread under the substantial discussions of "practical difficulties"). None of those practical-- or legal-- considerations, though, alter the moral obligation, and in fact the legal obligation would seem to support the general moral principle on which it is based.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by orfeo:
[qb]]Well, I think there's an element of heterogeneity in the 'society' you're calling the US. There's probably some disparity in Europe as well, but certainly I wouldn't think that the US is all one monolithic 'society', all of which that has benefited from slave history.

It's not even the case that slavery was applied equally across the United States.

If you read the bit you've quoted, it says nothing about bloodlines.
I thought that's what you meant when you reference the "element of heterogeneity". What was your point, then?


quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:

And okay, so you can argue that the north benefitted from the situation in the south. Why stop there? Why not investigate all the other places in the world that benefitted from being able to trade with a more prosperous north? And the benefits that other places got from THOSE places?

It's probably entirely possible to construct an explanation of how my forebears in Australia in the 1840s benefitted from the existence of slavery in America.

All of which, once again, seems to belong in the category of practical difficulties rather than moral obligation.


quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:

Poor countries should be helped because they need help now. Rich countries should help poor countries because there's considerable self-interest in doing so.

agree

quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Poor countries would be far better advised to show rich countries what's in it for them, rather than trying to engage in a guilt trip.

Possibly true. The whole field of diplomatic/ international relations and the manifold political aspects of foreign aid is entirely outside my wheelhouse. But I'm not sure it's for us (those of us in the rich country) to say.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
What was your point, then?

That I don't think the USA is a uniform society. Especially not after having visited parts of it last year.

And yes, some of the fault lines are along racial lines, but there's a lot more to it than that. A concept like the 'nine nations of North America' divides the USA into a lot of component parts.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
What was your point, then?

That I don't think the USA is a uniform society. Especially not after having visited parts of it last year.

And yes, some of the fault lines are along racial lines, but there's a lot more to it than that. A concept like the 'nine nations of North America' divides the USA into a lot of component parts.

I don't disagree with any of that (my own state would really be at least 3 very distinct regions), but have no idea how it is relevant to this discussion. What is your point, as pertains to the topic of reparations?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Well, for example, what contribution do you think that slave labour made to the development of the Pacific Northwest's infrastructure, given that most of that area's significant infrastructure postdates slavery by several decades?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Well, for example, what contribution do you think that slave labour made to the development of the Pacific Northwest's infrastructure, given that most of that area's significant infrastructure postdates slavery by several decades?

The infrastructure is all interrelated though. The whole exploration and settlement of the West, for example, occurred prior to emancipation-- an exploration/settlement aided and in many ways directly or indirectly funded by the federal govt-- which was (as Lincoln noted in the speech I referenced earlier) heavily subsidized by Southern slavery.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Marvin the Martian,

The link you provided, the one with the 5% figure. I have not read it as yet.
However, the man who wrote it, Stanley Engerman, is most noted for his work Time on the_Cross: The Economics of American Negro Slavery, containing questionable assumptions.
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:

quote:
And the whole industrial revolution tangent is more a distraction than a case builder, regardless.
A distraction? I'd say it's central to any serious discussion of the alleged productivity and economic growth that was 'stolen' from African countries by the slave trade.
You know, I think you are correct.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Well, for example, what contribution do you think that slave labour made to the development of the Pacific Northwest's infrastructure, given that most of that area's significant infrastructure postdates slavery by several decades?

The infrastructure is all interrelated though. The whole exploration and settlement of the West, for example, occurred prior to emancipation-- an exploration/settlement aided and in many ways directly or indirectly funded by the federal govt-- which was (as Lincoln noted in the speech I referenced earlier) heavily subsidized by Southern slavery.
No, not "the whole" exploration/settlement. That's my point. Having recently been to that part of the world, I was struck by how much of its development and growth didn't happen until closer to the year 1900. Look at absolutely crucial things like the transcontinental railways and they postdate slavery.

You can say it's all interrelated because everything is. What goes on in one part of the world affects the other parts. But it's not all equally interrelated. It's not homogenous.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
PS And the whole reason I said 'infrastructure' and not 'exploration/settlement' was because a bunch of wagons turning up somewhere isn't 'infrastructure'.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I still think, though, that this whole approach of finding the source of an obligation to help in the existence of past wrongs - either by demonstrating one side's losses or the other side's gains - is a fruitless exercise that's far less effective than pointing out the current situation without trying to attribute it to causes created by long-dead ancestors.

Poor countries should be helped because they need help now. Rich countries should help poor countries because there's considerable self-interest in doing so. Poor countries would be far better advised to show rich countries what's in it for them, rather than trying to engage in a guilt trip.

I agree with this.

If I pick up a newspaper today, and read that the UK is going to give so many millions of pounds to this or that developing country, in aid, for disaster relief, in interest-free loans to invest in infrastructure, in the deployment of skilled personnel, or whatever, I can't say I'd think much about that. I'd assume it had been budgetted for, and that the government had had at least some advice from respectable economists that the project, whatever it was, was viable. I wouldn't necessarily assume it was the best possible use of an overseas aid budget, or even that it would achieve it's stated aims, so possibly there would be some argument that people who know about economics could have about whether the use of the money was wise, but in principle, I would think it a proper use of UK money. It's the sort of thing that I expect governments of wealthy nations to do.

And I'd assume it would be the sort of thing most Britons want. While I cannot see much enthusiasm here for some perfect international communism, pretty much everyone would prefer to live in a world with the more extreme poverty and injustice eliminated.

But if I read that the government was proposing to pay exactly the same sum for slavery reparations, I'd think it a stupid decision. I don't think it's the proper role of a modern government to pay out money in atonement for our (false) collective guilt for crimes commited 200 years ago. I'd object, not because I object to rich nations helping poorer ones, but because I don't want my government to make spending decisions for absurd reasons.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Again, we all want a race-blind society. The difference is, can we get there by simply ignoring the past and trying to push a reset button? Or, as Mandela suggested, is the way to get there by naming, acknowledging, and responding to the racial sins of the past?

It depends. If there are living victims of injustice, there'll also be live issues to be addressed (which is the case in South Africa). If we're talking about historic wrongs so far back that you'd struggle to find a old person whose great-grandparents were involved in the slave trade, then concentrating on the present day and (for the purpose of assessing extant moral obligations, not for historical study generally) ignoring the past is not only possible but obvious.

I don't see that 'naming and acknowledging' slavery is a big deal. Not only does just about everyone now alive in the UK think that slavery is evil, no one could possibly be under the impression that it were otherwise. This is a case where we can all just move on.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
5% is 5%. It leaves 95% as the remainder. Would it have made infrastructure investment a bit easier? Yes. Would it have been the sole driver of infrastructure investment as you are claiming? No.

So I can surmise then that you have no problem with the notion of 5% of British GNP going to reparations?
I have no problem with you claiming that 5% of the infrastructure that was built at the time can be said to have been built "with slave dollars". Let's start there.
 
Posted by Jay-Emm (# 11411) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
So I can surmise then that you have no problem with the notion of 5% of British GNP going to reparations?

I have no problem with you claiming that 5% of the infrastructure that was built at the time can be said to have been built "with slave dollars". Let's start there.
That wasn't the statistic. Not all GDP is spent on infrastructure.
To use a personal metaphor about 20% of my money is free to spend/invest. Of the rest, 50% is mortgage (so actually I am lucky enough to be getting some 'infrastructure' from that but most of that is going on interest, if I was a bit worse off it would be renting). About 15% is insurance and gas (which has no permanent effect) and then 15% food/cleaning/collection (so some of that's really free). So an extra 5% would be an effective 20% rise. And of course some of that free money gets 'wasted' on holiday, bigger maintenence projects (which may add infrastructure, and really it's the deprecation that matters) so actually a heck of the percentage of my investments/infrastructure comes from that.

Going back to nations they also have to buy stuff that does no good, many of them have interest on previous debts. So again the same applies.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Well, for example, what contribution do you think that slave labour made to the development of the Pacific Northwest's infrastructure, given that most of that area's significant infrastructure postdates slavery by several decades?

The infrastructure is all interrelated though. The whole exploration and settlement of the West, for example, occurred prior to emancipation-- an exploration/settlement aided and in many ways directly or indirectly funded by the federal govt-- which was (as Lincoln noted in the speech I referenced earlier) heavily subsidized by Southern slavery.
No, not "the whole" exploration/settlement. That's my point. Having recently been to that part of the world, I was struck by how much of its development and growth didn't happen until closer to the year 1900. Look at absolutely crucial things like the transcontinental railways and they postdate slavery.

I'm glad you visited our fair state. I was born and have lived all my life in California-- which became a state (not a territory, not an isolated outpost) 14 years before the civil war (although that, I'll grant you, was more about gold money than slave dollars).

Exploration and settlement of the entire West was ongoing, but quite a the bulk was done prior to the Civl War. The transcontinental railroad was built during (not after) the Civil War-- and has it's own sad story of labor exploitation.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
PS And the whole reason I said 'infrastructure' and not 'exploration/settlement' was because a bunch of wagons turning up somewhere isn't 'infrastructure'.

Your visit to my state appears to have been faulty. There was waaaay more than just a few wagons in Calfiornia during the first half of the 19th c. If the federal government had not funded exploration there wouldn't have been anyplace to put infrastructure on. And of course, the forced suppression and relocation of the native population was necessary for that settlement-- a suppression funded by the federal government (as well as, of course, yet another opportunity for costly and complicated reparations).
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
Our governments seemed to have few problems with giving 5% of GDP to the bankers. In reparation for the crimes of, er, the bankers.

At the same time they were telling us that it was politically impossible to take global warming seriously because the voters wouldn't stand for 1% increase in energy costs.


Hmmmmmmm.......
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
If there are living victims of injustice, there'll also be live issues to be addressed (which is the case in South Africa). If we're talking about historic wrongs so far back that you'd struggle to find a old person whose great-grandparents were involved in the slave trade, then concentrating on the present day and (for the purpose of assessing extant moral obligations, not for historical study generally) ignoring the past is not only possible but obvious.

I don't see that 'naming and acknowledging' slavery is a big deal. Not only does just about everyone now alive in the UK think that slavery is evil, no one could possibly be under the impression that it were otherwise. This is a case where we can all just move on.

I have a very old grandmother still living who has given me the name and some details of one of her African ancestors who was a slave. Before he died a few years ago, my grandfather told me the name of his European ancestor who arrived in the Americas in the 19th century during the era of slavery. I've confirmed that this man did exist, when he left the British Isles and what he was doing beforehand. Oral accounts are very useful for family history, and they can be used when looking for written documentation.

However, the impression I'm getting is that though you've heard about the awfulness of the Transatlantic slave trade you're never really considered what it might mean to the descendants of those slaves. This is a big gap in your awareness, really, because it makes it difficult for you to understand the resulting spirituality, culture, lifestyles, family structures and other aspects of everyday life that come into play for these people.

You don't have to be interested in these things, of course, but it makes it hard for your protestations to appear informed if you're not. You end up just sounding resentful towards people, which undermines your claims of wanting to 'move on' - and also leaves a slightly bitter taste in the mouths of those who are following your arguments. You don't have to be in favour of reparations, but stop and think about the impression you're giving.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
If someone steals money from you and runs off to another country, what you can legally recover depends on the laws of that country. What you should be able to recover - what you can morally claim - is the full amount he stole, if the thief or his estate has it, but nothing of what others have. If the thief arrived in that country with your money and a similar amount of his own money, but everything he had is now all in the hands of his bookie, his wine merchant, his mistress, his daughter, and the charity he made a deathbed bequest to, then you don't have right to claim money from any of them.

What appears to be controversial or difficult for you, again, is the distinction between moral obligation and legal obligation. In every instance above where you use the phrase "moral obligation" it is quite clear that you mean, rather, legal obligation. I am not disputing the legalities here, but would vehemently argue your constant conflating of the two to suggest that our (whether corporate or individual) moral obligation is limited to that which we are obligated to under the law (of any country)...

..the moral principle we are suggesting here-- that heirs should not profit from the ill-gotten gains of their evil ancestors. The fact that the legal obligation ends once the estate is settled would seem to me to be as much a practical matter as anything-- obviously, as both you and I have pointed out, once the funds are co-mingled it gets very hard to sort out what is what. (All of which has been dealt with on this thread under the substantial discussions of "practical difficulties").

No, I make a clear distinction between the statutes of any particular country and the moral obligation to uphold natural justice. Sure, my idea of natural justice is heavily influenced by English "common law" - nobody's perfect - but so far you've said nothing to make me question that idea of justice.

You seem to be using the word "moral" to mean something else. A moral obligation not to profit from evil ? So all the lawyers in the world are immoral ? All the policemen and all the judges, making an honest living out of the existence of crime, are all immoral because they're profiting from evil ? Where does this supposed moral principle come from, or how can we know that it is so ?

Or is it that you think the idea of inheriting anything is immoral because it's "unearned income" and so anyone who inherits anything is fair game ?

In my hypothetical example, suppose that there are no "practical difficulties" in knowing which banknote went where. If some of the stolen money went on crates of champagne, do you really think that the wine merchant becomes morally responsible for repaying the victim ?

Are you saying that if you had a crystal ball that would show you exactly what the world would have been like if the crime had not been committed, then everyone has a moral obligation to make the world as much like that as they can ? And the absence of the crystal ball is a mere practical difficulty that doesn't affect the morality of the action ?

If your crystal ball showed you that I would have been killed in a car accident if the car had not fortuitously been stolen, would that then make it moral to kill me ?

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Or is it that you think the idea of inheriting anything is immoral because it's "unearned income" and so anyone who inherits anything is fair game ?

In my hypothetical example, suppose that there are no "practical difficulties" in knowing which banknote went where. If some of the stolen money went on crates of champagne, do you really think that the wine merchant becomes morally responsible for repaying the victim ?

Are you saying that if you had a crystal ball that would show you exactly what the world would have been like if the crime had not been committed, then everyone has a moral obligation to make the world as much like that as they can ? And the absence of the crystal ball is a mere practical difficulty that doesn't affect the morality of the action ?

If your crystal ball showed you that I would have been killed in a car accident if the car had not fortuitously been stolen, would that then make it moral to kill me ?

All one long extended strawman argument.


quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

You seem to be using the word "moral" to mean something else. A moral obligation not to profit from evil? So all the lawyers in the world are immoral ?

well, now that you ask....
[Snigger]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Well, for example, what contribution do you think that slave labour made to the development of the Pacific Northwest's infrastructure, given that most of that area's significant infrastructure postdates slavery by several decades?

The infrastructure is all interrelated though. The whole exploration and settlement of the West, for example, occurred prior to emancipation-- an exploration/settlement aided and in many ways directly or indirectly funded by the federal govt-- which was (as Lincoln noted in the speech I referenced earlier) heavily subsidized by Southern slavery.
No, not "the whole" exploration/settlement. That's my point. Having recently been to that part of the world, I was struck by how much of its development and growth didn't happen until closer to the year 1900. Look at absolutely crucial things like the transcontinental railways and they postdate slavery.

I'm glad you visited our fair state. I was born and have lived all my life in California-- which became a state (not a territory, not an isolated outpost) 14 years before the civil war (although that, I'll grant you, was more about gold money than slave dollars).

Exploration and settlement of the entire West was ongoing, but quite a the bulk was done prior to the Civl War. The transcontinental railroad was built during (not after) the Civil War-- and has it's own sad story of labor exploitation.

First time I've ever heard someone call California part of the Pacific Northwest. I wasn't talking about California, and I've got no idea why you think I was.

[ 22. March 2014, 21:41: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
First time I've ever heard someone call California part of the Pacific Northwest. I wasn't talking about California, and I've got no idea why you think I was.

While the gold rush gave California a significant head start, for the most part it was all part of the same westward expansion, financed by government investment in an army (to suppress/forcably remove the native residents) and the transatlantic railroad. I mentioned my 50 yrs living in California simply to indicate that I might have a bit more knowledge of the settlement of the West than you got on a single vacation.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
However, the impression I'm getting is that though you've heard about the awfulness of the Transatlantic slave trade you're never really considered what it might mean to the descendants of those slaves. This is a big gap in your awareness, really, because it makes it difficult for you to understand the resulting spirituality, culture, lifestyles, family structures and other aspects of everyday life that come into play for these people.

That's not the point of this discussion, though. No one's arguing against your family's right, if it wishes, to preserve the names and stories of the victims of slavery. What their personal histories mean to you really is up to you. I neither get nor want a say in that.

The issue is not what families like yours are entitled to do, feel and value for yourselves. It's what you're entitled to from the rest of us as a result of events older than living memory. The point isn't the meaning of slavery to you, and it isn't whether I know about, or even care about, what slavery means to you. The issue is whether preserving a personal meaning to slavery that goes deeper than the common revulsion which everyone else feels for it gives you a right to reparation. And if so, against whom you get to exercise that right.

And no, frankly, I do not think the fact that your grandmother knows the name of an enslaved ancestor is a sufficiently egregious injustice that it cries out to be compensated, or that any extant individual or government would be liable to compensate you for it even if it was.

quote:
You don't have to be interested in these things, of course, but it makes it hard for your protestations to appear informed if you're not. You end up just sounding resentful towards people, which undermines your claims of wanting to 'move on' - and also leaves a slightly bitter taste in the mouths of those who are following your arguments. You don't have to be in favour of reparations, but stop and think about the impression you're giving.
If you are reading resentment into my posts, then there is basically nothing I can do about the impression you think I am giving. I don't think there's anything I've written to suggest resentment, because it hadn't even occurred to me that I might feel any. Against whom? For what?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Money isn't going to make the original injury better. Acknowledgements of past wrongs are helpful, and attitude adjustments when helping descendants are nice (i.e. not blaming them for the mess that they were born into). But extracting large sums of money from one group of living people to hand over to another group of living people on account of ancestral wrongs done so long ago that no one who did it is left living, and there's a significant group of people on BOTH sides of the fence by ancestry--that seems to me just a way of creating further resentment for future generations to cope with (or not). (And I'm saying this as a part-blood Cherokee.)
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
one long extended strawman argument.

If I'm arguing against a POV that you don't hold, then maybe that's because you're not stating (clearly enough to cross the gulf of misunderstanding) the moral principles you do hold ?

If you don't believe in the "crystal ball" approach, and you don't believe in the intrinsic wrongness of "profiting" from the misdeeds of others and you don't believe that inheriting is more morally dubious than other transactions, then what exactly is this universal moral principle that we should be acknowledging before starting in on the "practical difficulties" ?

Yours baffled,

Russ
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
If you are reading resentment into my posts, then there is basically nothing I can do about the impression you think I am giving. I don't think there's anything I've written to suggest resentment, because it hadn't even occurred to me that I might feel any. Against whom? For what?

Resentful of CARICOM and any other black people who haven't 'moved on'? After all, if it wasn't for them you wouldn't have to think about what you find to be an utterly distasteful subject.

As for my grandparents, I only mentioned them because you implied that there's no one currently alive who has any knowledge or awareness of ancestors who were slaves or involved with the slave trade. YOU'RE the one who made what now seems to be an irrelevant remark.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
First time I've ever heard someone call California part of the Pacific Northwest. I wasn't talking about California, and I've got no idea why you think I was.

While the gold rush gave California a significant head start, for the most part it was all part of the same westward expansion, financed by government investment in an army (to suppress/forcably remove the native residents) and the transatlantic railroad. I mentioned my 50 yrs living in California simply to indicate that I might have a bit more knowledge of the settlement of the West than you got on a single vacation.
I find that when one is on vacation, one has a tendency to pay rather more attention to museum exhibits and historical buildings and to things like wall plaques on the sides of buildings than when one is just going about daily business... although I will admit the wall plaques part was in Vancouver.

And then I also did crazy things like read books or parts of the internet, which don't rely on you being in a particular place to read them.

Despite your local knowledge, I still don't agree that it was all just one general westward expansion happening at the same time. It wasn't just the gold rush that gave California a head start, there was already Spanish settlement in California and not, as far as I can gather, Spanish settlement further north. Exploration, but not settlement. Even place names attest to that history.

Nor do I think something like the gold rush is an insignificant factor. In the 1860s San Francisco was a booming town with a population rising from 56,000 to 149,000. In 1869 Seattle had 1,000 people. Are you really trying to tell me that's even development?

The existence of a transcontinental railroad terminating in California did not magically make travel to everywhere on the west coast equally easy. If it had, they wouldn't have bothered building a transcontinental railway terminating in Seattle a couple of decades later.

This is all a fairly massive tangent in any case, as I don't really think there's much value in trying to quantify just how much benefit a country like the United States might have gained from slave labour, but if you're going to try and quantify it I think it should be rather more nuanced than "you all benefited everywhere equally across all 50 states".
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:

This is all a fairly massive tangent in any case, as I don't really think there's much value in trying to quantify just how much benefit a country like the United States might have gained from slave labour, but if you're going to try and quantify it I think it should be rather more nuanced than "you all benefited everywhere equally across all 50 states".

Not my claim, nor anyone else's here that I can see.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
I thought the issue was, at least in part, how the legacy of the slave trade had affected the social, economic and political development of the nations who are now populated by descendants of the slaves. The political development is somewhat variable, though it appears that many are approximating democracy. The economic development is problematic. The islands have few resources other than tourism. The social legacy of slavery - this one it interesting. I am not sure when someone moves on, or when a society, nation or country moves on, and the past no longer influences.

I am descended from 2 generations refugees, and a first generation Canadian. I see in my children that they are removed from the trauma my parents experienced, and removed from my experience of them and their issues. But is there no effect? How might it be measured? I think within individuals it is rather difficult, particularly when variable resources to master the past are available, such as access to social, mental health and medical care, education, and wealth.

There is another thread in Purgatory about forgetting, which to my mind is 'never', but this thread is about the effects. The easy comparison is the oft-cited American statistics about the economic and social prospects of black people which are said to be lower than white, and higher in terms of incarceration, negative police encounters, and health outcomes. Is there a legacy of slavery and related racism to be blamed at all for that? I am not qualified to speak to the issue, but it seems rather clear to an observer that people make the link, hence affirmative action programs. Taking that as a basis, the transfer of the ideas to the Caricom nations seems rather straightforward.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
The easy comparison is the oft-cited American statistics about the economic and social prospects of black people which are said to be lower than white, and higher in terms of incarceration, negative police encounters, and health outcomes. Is there a legacy of slavery and related racism to be blamed at all for that?

I think that assessment depends on the rather optimistic assumption that "related racism" is a "legacy" and not an ongoing force in action.

quote:
Of the 2.3 million people in American jails, 806,000 are black males. African-Americans -- males and females -- make up .6 percent of the entire world's population, but African-American males -- alone -- make up 8 percent of the entire world's prison population. I know there are people who think some kind of demon culture could create a world where a group that makes up roughly one in 200 citizens of the world, comprises one in 12 of its prisoners. But I kind of doubt it.
Italics in original.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
What chain of cause-and-effect are you suggesting is at work here ? And what light does that throw on the case for or against reparations for slavery ?

Are we back to the politician's syllogism -
- something must be done about racism
- this is something about racism
Therefore we must do this ?

Russ
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
I think it's possible those seeking reparations realize the practical and political complications may mean they will never actually gain any financial compensation. I don't think they believe they are "wasting their time." I doubt they would be raising the issue if they thought it was a "waste of time." I imagine they have real, achievable goals-- whether financial or otherwise-- they hope to gain from this endeavor. I wish them well

Seems to me the goals are political. If you're trying to build an alliance among Caribbean nations, it helps to have an external enemy to unite against. Just as the EU may seem more like a worthwhile endeavour when the EU nations as a block are contrasted with and standing against Russia than when the EU is seeking to manage issues between EU countries (which is a zero-sum game at best).

And while I wish the Caribbean nations well in general, and hope their alliance prospers, I can't wish them success in developing a sense of history that encourages their people to see themselves as victims who are owed something. That's not a good perspective to have - it can easily lead to envy, bitterness, refusing responsibility for one's own actions.

I'd have thought it worthwhile for Prince Charles or some European charitable foundation to offer a grant to set up a museum of slavery in the Caribbean; some small action that acknowledges what did take place, asserts a shared value that the end of slavery is a good thing and individual freedoms to be valued, and imparts a positive view that the Caribbean peoples are now free, strong and self-determining, playing an equal part with other nations in the search for solutions to world problems. A museum that tells the story of past miseries with a happy ending, not a bitter one.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
Have you considered the possibility that "the story of slavery" doesn't have a happy ending?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Have you considered the possibility that "the story of slavery" doesn't have a happy ending?

The fact that slavery was ended seems like a pretty happy ending to the story to me.
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
I think you have to see it as the urgently necessary passing of one phase and the start of another. Nowhere in the Americas did the end of slavery mean the dawning of equality and justice, or even the chance to do a good day's work for a good day's pay. E.g., for some skilled ex-slaves in the USA their vocational options actually declined, because whites - who were increasing in number at the time - didn't want to face competition on the open job market.

In the British Caribbean, the end of slavery heralded Britain's loss of interest in the region. The boom days of King Sugar were coming to an end, and the colonial authorities' main concern was to keep a lid on the population's anger at the lack of economic development. Colonial control was exercised via brutal and oppressive means.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
Have you considered the possibility that "the story of slavery" doesn't have a happy ending?

The fact that slavery was ended seems like a pretty happy ending to the story to me.
That's the way the narrative gets told-- the white savior (Wilberforce, Woolman, Lincoln) coming in and saving the day. And I'm happy for their stories to be told-- but then again, they have been. But there are other voices out there, with stories to share, that have a much more bitter edge to them. When you begin with the notion that your "slave museum" needs to present a happy ending to the "history" of slavery you've already altered the meaning of the term.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
When you begin with the notion that your "slave museum" needs to present a happy ending to the "history" of slavery you've already altered the meaning of the term.

The "history" of slavery ended when the last slave was freed, just like the "history" of World War Two ended when the last shot was fired. In both cases, what came after is something else - a different "history".
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
When you begin with the notion that your "slave museum" needs to present a happy ending to the "history" of slavery you've already altered the meaning of the term.

The "history" of slavery ended when the last slave was freed, just like the "history" of World War Two ended when the last shot was fired. In both cases, what came after is something else - a different "history".
So the history of WW2 has nothing to do with, say, the formation of Israel and all that came from that, the Nuremberg trials and all the fruit of that, formation of NATO and UN, etc.?

Again, I think you have a different understanding of "history" than I do.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
So the history of WW2 has nothing to do with, say, the formation of Israel and all that came from that, the Nuremberg trials and all the fruit of that, formation of NATO and UN, etc.?

Well, I wouldn't put any of that into a Museum Of World War Two. And I certainly wouldn't go round blaming the Germans, Italians and Japanese for Israeli land grabs in Palestine on the grounds that they were the "bad guys" of WW2.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
The easy comparison is the oft-cited American statistics about the economic and social prospects of black people which are said to be lower than white, and higher in terms of incarceration, negative police encounters, and health outcomes. Is there a legacy of slavery and related racism to be blamed at all for that?

I think that assessment depends on the rather optimistic assumption that "related racism" is a "legacy" and not an ongoing force in action.
Which would seem to argue for the compensation idea.

quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
The "history" of slavery ended when the last slave was freed, just like the "history" of World War Two ended when the last shot was fired. In both cases, what came after is something else - a different "history".

That is not the way historians see it. Rather, they connect the events together. The origins of WW2 are withing WW1, and the roots of the Cold War are within WW2, and the current Russia-Ukraine situation also follows from both of those, cf We haven't listened to the Russians, which is about the age old fear of Russia about western Europe and more recently USA.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:

The easy comparison is the oft-cited American statistics about the economic and social prospects of black people which are said to be lower than white, and higher in terms of incarceration, negative police encounters, and health outcomes. Is there a legacy of slavery and related racism to be blamed at all for that? ...

....the way historians see it. Rather, they connect the events together. The origins of WW2 are within WW1, and the roots of the Cold War are within WW2, and the current Russia-Ukraine situation also follows from both of those

Nothing wrong with making connections - if seeing the large-scale picture over a historic timescale gives us insight into how best to talk to the Russians, or the Caribbean peoples for that matter, then that can only be good.

But that historic perspective has to sit alongside and not replace or undermine a moral perspective in which individuals are held fully responsible for their actions.

Saying to Vladimir Putin that it's entirely understandable if he goes around annexing his neighbour's territory does not lead to a more secure and peaceful world. Just as saying to a young man whose skin colour proclaims him a descendant of slaves that it's thereby not entirely his fault if he gets caught breaking the law isn't doing him any favours. As well as being an insult to all the honest law-abiding black people in America.

Understanding in the sense of insight should not lead to understanding in he sense of condoning or excusing. 'Cos that's where the wrongness creeps in.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

Saying to Vladimir Putin that it's entirely understandable if he goes around annexing his neighbour's territory does not lead to a more secure and peaceful world. Just as saying to a young man whose skin colour proclaims him a descendant of slaves that it's thereby not entirely his fault if he gets caught breaking the law isn't doing him any favours. As well as being an insult to all the honest law-abiding black people in America.

Wow. Holy strawman, batman!
[Ultra confused]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Just as saying to a young man whose skin colour proclaims him a descendant of slaves that it's thereby not entirely his fault if he gets caught breaking the law isn't doing him any favours. As well as being an insult to all the honest law-abiding black people in America.

No one has said this. Poverty breeds crime. Black people in America, and the UK, are generally put to disadvantage economically. Personal responsibility is a factor, but so is circumstance.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

But that historic perspective has to sit alongside and not replace or undermine a moral perspective in which individuals are held fully responsible for their actions.

Saying to Vladimir Putin that it's entirely understandable if he goes around annexing his neighbour's territory does not lead to a more secure and peaceful world. Just as saying to a young man whose skin colour proclaims him a descendant of slaves that it's thereby not entirely his fault if he gets caught breaking the law isn't doing him any favours. As well as being an insult to all the honest law-abiding black people in America.

Understanding in the sense of insight should not lead to understanding in he sense of condoning or excusing. 'Cos that's where the wrongness creeps in.

Best wishes,

Russ

Precisely. Well said.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
No one has said this. Poverty breeds crime. Black people in America, and the UK, are generally put to disadvantage economically. Personal responsibility is a factor, but so is circumstance.

That's not really in dispute. What is in dispute is the assertion that modern-day circumstances can be blamed wholly and solely on a slave trade that ended hundreds of years ago.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
What is in dispute is the assertion that modern-day circumstances can be blamed wholly and solely

I don't think anyone is arguing that that they are wholly and solely caused by slavery, but that it is a contributory factor.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
I don't think anyone is arguing that that they are wholly and solely caused by slavery

Most of the arguments in favour of reparations on this thread are saying exactly that. There's no suggestion that other factors might be in play, it's all "they're poor today because of slavery".
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Is there reason to believe that large reparation payments would do away with the poverty in these countries?

The money would have to be used with great care and wisdom, and that very well might not happen.

Moo
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Is there reason to believe that large reparation payments would do away with the poverty in these countries?

The money would have to be used with great care and wisdom, and that very well might not happen.

Moo

No it does not. There really isn't a parallel, but the roughly $3 billion to residential school survivors in Canada shows the disposition of the money in such cases, its positive or negative effects, and any other results are hardly the point.

Further, I suspect that if those who eventually might pay out tried to influence at all where the money goes, i.e. its social effects and whether it is squandered etc, would be met with rather negative response along the lines of 'as if it is the right of the oppressor to then decide in an oppressive manner how reparations might be disposed of'.

quote:
http://news.nationalpost.com/2011/12/17/residential-school-payments-unable-to-compensate-for-genocidal-practices-survivor/
Payments to former students of Indian residential schools have reached nearly $2.8 billion, but that amount doesn’t even come close to compensating the tens of thousands of students harmed, says a survivor. “These were genocidal practices... “If your kids were taken from you for 10 or 11 years, is $43,000 enough (compensation)? Is that fair for what it cost me? My family? Of course it’s not fair.”


 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
I don't think anyone is arguing that that they are wholly and solely caused by slavery

Most of the arguments in favour of reparations on this thread are saying exactly that. There's no suggestion that other factors might be in play, it's all "they're poor today because of slavery".
Simply not true, and you know it. I and others have repeatedly said-- so many times I feared I was becoming monotonous-- that causes are complex and the causes of poverty were complicated. You are completely misrepresenting the argument that has been made.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet:
No it does not. There really isn't a parallel, but the roughly $3 billion to residential school survivors in Canada shows the disposition of the money in such cases, its positive or negative effects, and any other results are hardly the point.

If the money was paid to individual survivors I would not expect any problems. If reparations are paid to a country, I would expect a fight on how it should be allocated.

quote:
Further, I suspect that if those who eventually might pay out tried to influence at all where the money goes, i.e. its social effects and whether it is squandered etc, would be met with rather negative response along the lines of 'as if it is the right of the oppressor to then decide in an oppressive manner how reparations might be disposed of'.
I agree completely. If reparations are paid they should be handed over to the community without strings. The fact that there are no individuals who can be specifically identified as victims creates a problem for the community. What they do with it is no one else's business. However, community decisions on how to spend the money might very well result in anger and bitterness.

Moo
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:

In the British Caribbean, the end of slavery heralded Britain's loss of interest in the region. The boom days of King Sugar were coming to an end

That sounds like you're saying that the abolition of slavery led to a loss of profitability of the sugar industry which led to a lack of investment in the Caribbean colonies by the colonial powers which contributed to the relative poverty of the region which persists to modern times.

That sounds plausible. But it's almost the opposite of the original assertion that the slave trade was the cause of poverty. Maybe it's the descendants of the abolitionists who should be paying reparations...

There's a lot of nonsense talked by some people about the "causes of poverty". Poverty is part of the State of Nature. It's where we all came from. In no country at any time has it ever been fully overcome. Taking the hard-won prosperity that has been generated in the "developed world" since the Industrial Revolution by the application of capital and technology and organisational initiative, and treating this as some sort of right of every people that each tribe would have developed for itself by now if only the evil Westerners had left them alone is a total misunderstanding of economic history. It's a left-wing fantasy.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:

In the British Caribbean, the end of slavery heralded Britain's loss of interest in the region. The boom days of King Sugar were coming to an end

That sounds like you're saying that the abolition of slavery led to a loss of profitability of the sugar industry which led to a lack of investment in the Caribbean colonies by the colonial powers which contributed to the relative poverty of the region which persists to modern times.

That sounds plausible. But it's almost the opposite of the original assertion that the slave trade was the cause of poverty. Maybe it's the descendants of the abolitionists who should be paying reparations...

There's no "opposite" here. It's just one of several factors at play: the fact that sugar isn't as profitable w/o slave labor is rather obvious, but doesn't reverse the argument. Indeed, had colonial powers not developed an economic model based on slave-grown sugar, other more profitable crops or economic models might have arisen to take their place. In fact, if you are a fiscal conservative, one of those "magic of the marketplace" laissez-faire capitalists, then it's pretty much a given that the magic marketplace would have ensured that result.


quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
[
There's a lot of nonsense talked by some people about the "causes of poverty". Poverty is part of the State of Nature. It's where we all came from. In no country at any time has it ever been fully overcome. Taking the hard-won prosperity that has been generated in the "developed world" since the Industrial Revolution by the application of capital and technology and organisational initiative, and treating this as some sort of right of every people that each tribe would have developed for itself by now if only the evil Westerners had left them alone is a total misunderstanding of economic history. It's a left-wing fantasy.

So let me see-- Western prosperity is "hard won"-- by whose hard work, exactly?

If prosperity were based on nothing more than "hard work" then the richest people in the world would be a few million women living in central Africa.

I don't think I can say much more to you outside of hell.

[ 28. March 2014, 23:17: Message edited by: cliffdweller ]
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:


That sounds plausible. But it's almost the opposite of the original assertion that the slave trade was the cause of poverty. Maybe it's the descendants of the abolitionists who should be paying reparations...

No, that's not right.

Some historians claim that sugar was already becoming less profitable by the time the slave trade and then slavery were abolished, and that this is partly what made abolition acceptable to the political classes. So you can't blame the abolitionists for poverty! (It has been argued, though, that they should have paid more mind to how the ex-slaves were going to be treated after abolition.)

Anyway, the issue isn't that slavery made the slaves poor, since slaves can hardly be said to 'own' anything an anyway if they don't own their own bodies! The problem is that the system was never designed to benefit the people who, for the wealth of others, were brutally and deliberately placed at the bottom of the heap. During slavery the people at the bottom were the slaves, especially the blackest field slaves. After slavery, these people were anyone whose skin was black enough to indicate a significant African (and hence slave) heritage.

Slavery had created a shadist hierarchy that impacted on anyone who tried to get on in life both before and after abolition. It held back people who had passed exams, created businesses, been industrious employees or given loyal service to the church. It embedded itself in the minds of children at school, in the very books they read and in the attitudes of their teachers and parents. The mindset of superiority and inferiority didn't vanish just because slavery had been abolished. No one who had a privileged position in society (i.e. the white and light-skinned group) was willing to give way to the rest. They made sure that everyone else knew their place. This is the ongoing legacy of slavery, made worse than class discrimination because you can't hide your skin, no matter how educated you are.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
had colonial powers not developed an economic model based on slave-grown sugar, other more profitable crops or economic models might have arisen to take their place.

I think the vagueness of this is indicating that you haven't the slightest idea how the economic history of the world would have been different in the counterfactual case (the alternative history without the transatlantic slave trade). Which rather undermines your suggestion that it's straightforward to calculate how much poorer the Caribbean is as a result of such slavery.

You're right to suggest that the capital of the colonial powers would have been invested in a different industry (agricultural or otherwise). But there's nothing to suggest that such investment would necessarily have been in the Caribbean - some other part of the world would probably have benefitted.


quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
...prosperity that has been generated in the "developed world" since the Industrial Revolution by the application of capital and technology and organisational initiative...

quote:
in reply you said:
[/qb]
If prosperity were based on nothing more than "hard work" then the richest people in the world would be a few million women living in central Africa.[/QB]

Do you see how you have distorted what I said ? Is that what they call a straw man ? Holy Baloney, batman...
[Big Grin]

Russ
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
Slavery had created a shadist hierarchy...

...This is the ongoing legacy of slavery

So it's nothing to do with economics at all ? The real claim has nothing to do with "stolen goods" or "slave dollars" - it is that by not banning slavery sooner than they did, European governments created racism as we know it ?

Not saying there's no connection, just trying to tease out what you're claiming are the causes and effects involved.

Maybe if, as a speculative "alternative history", the European merchant adventurers of the 17th and 18th centuries had encountered American Indians selling each other as slaves rather than Africans selling each other as slaves, racism would have developed as prejudice against red skins rather than black skins ?

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Which rather undermines your suggestion that it's straightforward to calculate how much poorer the Caribbean is as a result of such slavery.

This is worthy of a hell call. I have not suggested that calculating the economic impact of slavery is "straightforward", I have said the reverse-- that it is complicated, probably to the point of impossibility. I have said that not once, but probably a dozen times. I'm not the only one. Many, many people have said that-- over and over and over again. Not one person has EVER on this thread suggested that calculating that impact would be "straightforward". Never. We have said the reverse-- so many many times that it is impossible that you would not know that. Which means that, ONCE AGAIN, you are DELIBERATELY misrepresenting what has been argued on this thread. That, my dear, is what a strawman argument looks like. It is a form of deception. Often it's an unintentional act, and for days now I've been willing to assume that is the case with you. No more. It's absolutely, abundantly clear that you have absolutely NO desire to discuss this in a reasonable and reflective way. I have probably by now already passed the limits of what's acceptable for purgatory, so if you want to continue this, I'll see you in hell.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:

How can there be a financial claim if it is impossible to quantify?

I think it's quite possible to show that there is some financial impact w/o being able to quantify the exact amount. I think it is pretty easy to demonstrate that if the economy of a country benefitted from several centuries of slave labor, that has a financial impact that continued for many generations after slavery is ended...

...there is a very real fiscal harm. BUT... calculating the exact figure, the exact fiscal impact generations later is not something that can be easily measured because to some degree it's measuring a "what if". "What if" there had been no slavery... what would the American economy look like now?

Seems I've over-stated the case - my apologies.

You have indeed acknowledged the difficulties.

My mistake - I withdraw the suggestion that you think it straightforward.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
Slavery had created a shadist hierarchy...

...This is the ongoing legacy of slavery

So it's nothing to do with economics at all ? The real claim has nothing to do with "stolen goods" or "slave dollars" - it is that by not banning slavery sooner than they did, European governments created racism as we know it ?

Not saying there's no connection, just trying to tease out what you're claiming are the causes and effects involved.

Maybe if, as a speculative "alternative history", the European merchant adventurers of the 17th and 18th centuries had encountered American Indians selling each other as slaves rather than Africans selling each other as slaves, racism would have developed as prejudice against red skins rather than black skins ?

Best wishes,

Russ

I find this post a strange one.

Economic development and historical and cultural factors are closely intertwined. This is the case everywhere in the world. As has already been said, the past is a heavy determining factor on the present, and none of the many historical works on Caribbean development that I've come across attempt to argue that the foundational reality of slavery is irrelevant.

Regarding the American Indians, in many places they were enslaved by European colonists; it's widely known that their numbers were decimated by the brutality of the early Spanish arrivals in parts of the Americas. Most didn't survive for long enough to provide the centuries of large-scale slave labour that the Europeans required, which was why Africans began to predominate. I don't know to what extent the different tribes attempted to enslave each other, but interestingly, I've heard that in the USA some tribes did deal eventually deal in African - and occasionally even in white - slaves. But I'm sure there were many different customs practised by different tribes under different circumstances, 1000s of miles apart.
 


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