Thread: Purgatory: Dangers of Omitting the Filioque? Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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The Filioque isn't an issue I've spent much time considering. I know it was a late edition of the Creed. It was an important slight to the Orthodox. As far as I know, having it in the Creed has been Western tradition for centuries but it isn't a big issue now. As a matter of fact, TEC agreed to leave it out of the next prayerbook and it option in Enriching Our Worship. That's fine. I can go either way.
However...
A fellow priest upon coming to a new parish made a big deal about not using the filioque. Given her generally lax opinion of theological questions, I thought her even being interested in it at all was a positive development. Then, I started getting suspicious. Why does she care? What's the endgame? If the filioque is removed from our version of the Creed, what will those who favor removing it extrapolate from it no longer being there?
My concern is that sometimes you vote for something innocuous or positive and the next thing you know its been used to take you way out in left field. Some in TEC have taken a liking to Orthodox theology. Sometimes, not all the time, those interested draw conclusions from their reading of Orthodox theology that might come as a shock to the Orthodox theologian who put forth the idea in the first place.
What dubious theology can come from omitting the filioque? What ulterior motive could a person have for wanting to remove the filioque? Is it possible this really is just a quirky interest of my colleague?
[ 05. January 2015, 01:08: Message edited by: Kelly Alves ]
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
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I suppose there is the risk of falling into the hertical beliefs that the filioque was put in to counter in the first place (Arianism). Of course, I don't happen to belive that this was ever a real risk, but I suppose that one might make that argument.
Otherwise, not sure what harm can come from returning to the original Creed, other than the risk of "admitting one was wrong". since the issue of the filioque become such an important issue in the schism, might it's removal also imply "and we were on the wrong side of the whole schism thing", alhtough I think taht's a pretty small risk, given that the real issue was about Papal power to unilatirally change the creed, at elast as much if not more than the change itself.
but would admitting the West was wrong in that debate be a bad thing?
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on
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What bugs me about omitting the filioque is this: I don't understand a lot of theology. I have to assume that the Church knows what it's talking about when it tells me certain theological things are true. This includes the version of the creed I've recited all my life. So to have the Church say, "oh, never mind, this part isn't true after all" makes me wonder why I've been bothering all these years, and what else might they not actually know their ass from their elbow about either, but have been pretending they do know?
Posted by Shadowhund (# 9175) on
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Getting rid of the filioque has been a idee fixee among some ecumencists, as if once the filioque is eliminated, everything will magically fall into place. I know lots of Anglo-Catholics who were philorthodox thought that way, but it was magical thinking then, and it certainly is magical thinking now.
I know that there have been certain ecumenical occasions at the Vatican where filioque has been omitted. But, to eliminate it wholesale would mean that much of the Latin Rite's sacred music would no longer be usuable. That is not a trivial consideration.
I would say that eliminating the filioque raises dangers of a return to Arianism in the West, but for the fact that there are so many people, including clergy who should know better, who cheerfully recite "We believe" without believing a word of it, as if reciting it were an act of mere ceremonial deism or churchy mumbo-jumbo without significance. The Arian ship has already sailed.
[ 24. March 2011, 17:16: Message edited by: Shadowhund ]
Posted by uffda (# 14310) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Shadowhund:
The Arian ship has already sailed.
Considering that many of us have to live with a translation of the Apostles Creed like (I believe) "in Jesus Christ God's only son, our Lord. I do believe you are correct!
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
What dubious theology can come from omitting the filioque?
A distinction between the Second and Third Person of the Trinity can then not be maintained anymore by reasonable argument. Of course, such a distinction can still be maintained in a non-reasoned way (e.g., by "simply following tradition") or by consciously defying reason. Or one can simply ignore the issue.
The reasonable argument is this:
- You can differentiate me from John by noting that he has black hair and I have brown hair. This leaves our essence (we are both human) untouched, it is an accidental feature (I could have blond hair and would still be human). However, there are no accidental features in God. One simple reason is that He is the Primary Cause. Thus nothing else is available logically before God to cause accidental features in God, whereas for example my hair color can be caused by the hair color of my parents, a random generic mutation or application of coloring. Since there are no accidental features in God, they cannot be used to differentiate the Divine Persons.
- I can be distinguished from a worm by my ability to reason. This is not accidental, but essential, it is what makes me a human and the worm not. Likewise, if only the Father was omnipotent, only the Son omniscient, and only the Holy Ghost omnipresent, then one could easily distinguish them. However, they then could not be considered as having the same Divine essence. But Christian belief requires one Essence in three Persons for God, hence this cannot be used to establish a difference between the three Divine Persons.
- Take me and my son - you know none of our accidental features (well, you know quite a few perhaps, like our gender, but for the sake of argument assume you didn't). So like with God, you cannot distinguish us by accidental features. Both of us have the same by essence, are human. There's no distinction in that either. Still, you know the difference instantly: since he comes from me, and not the other way around, I am the father and he is the son. This is the only way then by which we can establish distinct Divine Persons: relationship of origin.
- Now, if I say to you "A->B" (B originates from A) and "A->C", have I then established three entities? No. Because "B=C" (B is the same entity as C) is not excluded by any relationship so far, and hence "A->B" and "A->C" could just be stating the same relationship with different labels: one time I call it "B", the other time I "C", but it is just that same entity which happens to originate from A. What kind of statement do I need to establish three distinct entities? Well, "B->C" (or "C->B", but labels are for the moment arbitrary). If C originates from B, then it is not the same as B. Since both B and C originate from A, they are not the same as A. Thus A, B, and C are not the same.
- Now map the labels as such: "A=Father", "B=Son", "C=Holy Spirit". The same argument holds. What is needed is hence "Son->Holy Spirit" (B->C). Or indeed "Holy Spirit->Son" (C->B), but the latter does not change the principle (three entities by relationship) yet maps the labels against traditional language (which is confusing). So we stick with the former. Thus the filioque follows since both "Father->Holy Spirit" (A->C) and "Son->Holy Spirit" (B->C).
Does removing the filioque have serious consequences? If you analyze belief rationally, it would require either attacking my first two points or the applicability of logic to matters Divine in the first place. The latter is more common, unfortunately.
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
What ulterior motive could a person have for wanting to remove the filioque?
Favoring the Orthodox over the Catholics is your most likely bet. A truly theo-logical motivation would be a nice surprise...
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
A distinction between the Second and Third Person of the Trinity can then not be maintained anymore by reasonable argument.
There's a One True Scotsman fallacy waiting to happen.
The son is begotten; the Spirit proceeds.
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Now, if I say to you "A->B" (B originates from A) and "A->C", have I then established three entities? No. Because "B=C" (B is the same entity as C) is not excluded by any relationship so far, and hence "A->B" and "A->C" could just be stating the same relationship with different labels: one time I call it "B", the other time I "C", but it is just that same entity which happens to originate from A. What kind of statement do I need to establish three distinct entities? Well, "B->C" (or "C->B", but labels are for the moment arbitrary). If C originates from B, then it is not the same as B. Since both B and C originate from A, they are not the same as A. Thus A, B, and C are not the same.
Now map the labels as such: "A=Father", "B=Son", "C=Holy Spirit". The same argument holds. What is needed is hence "Son->Holy Spirit" (B->C). Or indeed "Holy Spirit->Son" (C->B), but the latter does not change the principle (three entities by relationship) yet maps the labels against traditional language (which is confusing). So we stick with the former. Thus the filioque follows since both "Father->Holy Spirit" (A->C) and "Son->Holy Spirit" (B->C).
Your argument is good until you notice that there is more than one way in which B or C can originate from A. You could say that I originate from God, but the manner of my origin (I am created) is different from the manner of the Son's origin (he is eternally begotten).
Similarly, the Son is begotten of the Father, whereas the Spirit proceeds from the Father. These are not accidental properties, such as your example of hair colour, but are real distinctions between the Persons.
Probably.
[ETA: i.e. what mousethief said.]
[ 24. March 2011, 18:06: Message edited by: Adeodatus ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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You cannot cash out "begotten" in any other way than "proceed" here. These are both just terms from human experience used analogously to indicate a relationship of origin in God. There is neither "begetting" not "proceeding" in God in any direct sense, due to a complete lack of genitals, doors, and all other stuff in God. There is no time or space either, just God eternal. You have nothing to distinguish "manners of origination" from each other, since all such distinctions would be based on accidental or essential feature in God Himself, which we have already excluded. You can just attach different human labels, and that is mere word play as far as the argument I have given is concerned.
Of course, one can draw further analogies (say to the human intellect and will) that explain why we like to call only one particular procession "generation". Or one can simply point to the historical use of the term "Father" by Christ Himself. But this cannot abolish the need for a relationship of origin between the Son and the Holy Spirit, it can merely elucidate our specific naming scheme.
P.S.: Bringing in the relationship of origin we have to God is pointless, because it is essentially different. The argument is good only for relations from God to God, not even for the Incarnation (clearly Christ had accidental features that would allow to distinguish Him from other humans).
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on
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And here I was naive enough to think that it was a problem in scriptural exegesis:
e.g.
John 14:26 "the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name,"
John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:
John 16:7 "if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you."
How precise is this language (especially in the original Greek)? Father will send Him. He Proceedeth from the Father. I will send Him... (Which is to say, He proceedeth from me as well?)
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
A distinction between the Second and Third Person of the Trinity can then not be maintained anymore by reasonable argument.
You seem to leave out the possibility that we might not need reasonable argument at all. If the second person of the trinity said "Hi. I'm Jesus" and the third said "Hi. I'm not" we'd know where we were.
Your argument seems to regard them as quantum particles without sentience that we need a theoretical framework to distinguish. I think they're less tame than that.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
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I don't think we should remove it because I actually believe it. Ordinarily one only makes concessions if one gets something in return. Maybe I'm just being pessimistic about the ecumenical relations between us and the Orthodox, but I really can't see this concession yielding anything worth the effort.
Zach
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
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I have a standing offer of a half dozen freshly baked cookies for anyone who omits it from the creed.
Posted by Mama Thomas (# 10170) on
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I have wondered why it is so important to some people, especially those who happily interpolate the words "the power of" into the same creeds they complain have interpolated words.
The Orthodox won't give a hoots what forms of expression individual Anglican provinces authorise or don't.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
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I agree with IngoB's argument for the theological truth of the proposition. (I think Orthodox reliance on the monarchy of the Father to hold together the Trinity has poor theological consequences, as seen in a former regular poster on these boards.)
On the other hand, the 'filioque' clause was adopted by the Holy Roman Empire and resisted by Rome until Henry II was waging a war against the Byzantines in Italy. Under the circumstances, its inclusion in the creed has no authority to represent the faith of the catholic Church.
Posted by Moo (# 107) on
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During the 1970s, when the Episcopal Church was preparing to put out a new prayer book, there were a number of trial prayer books. At least one of these did not have the filioque.
Moo
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
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Mama Thomas has it- what's the point of an ecumenical gesture if it doesn't move us one lick closer to the Orthodox recognizing the validity of our Christian experience?
Zach
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
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well, I don't think it should be eliminated as an "ecumenical gesture" and certianly not if you belive it to be true. I think if it's to be removed by any particular Chruch it shoiuld be as the result of a recognition that it should never have been added in the first place, not because "well, we still think it's true, but we're willing to give it up to make you guy feel better". Becuase clearly, that isn't really going to make a huge difference to us Orthodox whether you use it or not (at least, not by itself).
it was added at a point in time (unilaterally, and well after the creed was accepted by the (then still One) Church. if you think it SHOULD have been added, then removing it would be wrong, in my view.. after all the Creed is your stateent of faith.. how can you have a statement of faith that you don't actually believe (as a Chruch.. I can see individuals not fully beliving, but taht's a different discussion). If you believe that it's addition was a mistake, then of course you should get rid of it (for the sae reason as above). the only condition under which you can approach it purely as an ecumenical gesture is if you (as a Chruch) dont' think it matters one way or the other (in which case, why bother with the Creed at all)
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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I thought it might be a creeping Arianism. However, the part of the Creed pertaining to Arianism isn't affected by removal of the filioque. It even contains the clause with the Father and the Son He is worshipped in glorified. If there is only one God and worship is only due God, then saying Holy Spirit is worthy of worship like the Father and the Son implies the Trinity.
Like I said, I can't believe the person really cares about ecumenical relations with the Orthodox or favoring them over Roman Catholics. I've seen others use ecumenical relations with the Orthodox to argue for getting rid of things they don't like. So far, this is the only reason I can figure for the person making a big deal of the issue and yet I can't figure out the underlying issue (which if discovered probably won't be of the least concern to the Orthodox). It just concerns me.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
John 15:26 "But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:
...
How precise is this language (especially in the original Greek)? Father will send Him. He Proceedeth from the Father. I will send Him... (Which is to say, He proceedeth from me as well?)
Pretty precise.
The Spirit is sent from the Father and proceeds from the Father, but the Greek is emphatic that Jesus ("I will send..") does the sending too.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Like I said, I can't believe the person really cares about ecumenical relations with the Orthodox or favoring them over Roman Catholics. I've seen others use ecumenical relations with the Orthodox to argue for getting rid of things they don't like. So far, this is the only reason I can figure for the person making a big deal of the issue and yet I can't figure out the underlying issue (which if discovered probably won't be of the least concern to the Orthodox). It just concerns me.
My guess, like others, would still be that it is creeping ecumenism. I doubt it is part of some big conspiracy or has Orthodox relations in view - more likely it is part of a general 'let's ditch anything that divides us' mentality.
Ditching things that divides us is a good thing (ISTM), but not without thinking about it carefully first. I think you are right to question why this is happening.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
You cannot cash out "begotten" in any other way than "proceed" here. These are both just terms from human experience used analogously to indicate a relationship of origin in God. There is neither "begetting" not "proceeding" in God in any direct sense, due to a complete lack of genitals, doors, and all other stuff in God.
How about homoousios?
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
You cannot cash out "begotten" in any other way than "proceed" here. These are both just terms from human experience used analogously to indicate a relationship of origin in God. There is neither "begetting" not "proceeding" in God in any direct sense, due to a complete lack of genitals, doors, and all other stuff in God.
Am I missing something? There is a fundamental difference between "begotten" and "proceed". "Begotten" = be fathered, i.e. be conceived, become incarnate in the womb of the Virgin and be made flesh. This is fundamental to being the Son. The Holy Spirit comes into the world and since Pentecost can indwell human hearts, but is not "begotten".
Going back to the main issue of this post though, there was some argument back in the 60s and 70s of the last century as to whether,
a. The Orthodox position could imply a Trinity that was assymmetric.
b. The Western position could be interpreted as downgrading the Holy Spirit, by implying that he was less significant than the Father and the Son, and that some of the weaknesses of Western Christianity followed from this.
As for me, I've never quite known what to think. That people have never been able to agree on it suggests that there might be an element of mystery about this. I repeat the normal CofE version without feeling I shouldn't. As it seems to me that Jesus's Ascension released the coming of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost I think the formulation 'proceeds from the Father through the Son', which I think was one of those aired at the Council of Florence, might have quite a lot going for it.
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
There is a fundamental difference between "begotten" and "proceed". "Begotten" = be fathered, i.e. be conceived, become incarnate in the womb of the Virgin and be made flesh.
Yes, but the "begotten" in the Creed refers to his being begotten "before all worlds", not to the Incarnation. At least AIUI anyway.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
You cannot cash out "begotten" in any other way than "proceed" here. These are both just terms from human experience used analogously to indicate a relationship of origin in God.
How about homoousios?
The Spirit is quite definitely homoousios with the Father. That's the point of including the Spirit in the Trinity: the Spirit is of the same kind and of the same substance as the other two persons.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
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For me, "and the Son" is a statement of just how much the Son shares with the Being of the Father. After all, there isn't three holies, but one holy, as Athanasius sayeth. It's also a statement that the life of the Holy Ghost in the Church is also the life of Christ in the Church.
Zach
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Going back to the main issue of this post though, there was some argument back in the 60s and 70s of the last century as to whether,
a. The Orthodox position could imply a Trinity that was assymmetric.
The Trinity *IS* asymmetric. The Father is the source or groundspring or origination or whatever you want to call it of the Son and the Spirit.
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
I can't believe the person really cares about ecumenical relations with the Orthodox or favoring them over Roman Catholics.
Maybe she cares about relations between them and read
An Agreed Statement of the
North American Orthodox-Catholic Theological Consultation.
In it's recommendations, it states
quote:
that the Catholic Church, as a consequence of the normative and irrevocable dogmatic value of the Creed of 381, use the original Greek text alone in making translations of that Creed for catechetical and liturgical use.
Posted by Chorister (# 473) on
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It is enough for me to know that the church thrashes out these thorny issues from time to time. The fact that they bother to do this shows me that it is important and they are trying to get it right.
I then relax and take part in the Liturgy knowing that the theologians have done the best they can, for the present age at least. Until the next time....
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Alt Wally:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
I can't believe the person really cares about ecumenical relations with the Orthodox or favoring them over Roman Catholics.
Maybe she cares about relations between them and read
An Agreed Statement of the
North American Orthodox-Catholic Theological Consultation.
In it's recommendations, it states
quote:
that the Catholic Church, as a consequence of the normative and irrevocable dogmatic value of the Creed of 381, use the original Greek text alone in making translations of that Creed for catechetical and liturgical use.
I doubt it.
But, how much closer to the Orthodox does that really bring us? Other things divide us as well. I doubt the person in question would support compromising on those. My suspicion is closer relations with the Orthodox is a ruse for an agenda that has nothing to do with the Orthodox.
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on
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The argument has been made that the filioque should properly be interpreted as proceeding from the Father through [the intercession of] the Son ("I will pray the Father and He will send the Comforter"),or IOW procession of the Spirit from the Father, through the Son.
I'm not completely sure I buy that argument, as the filioque in any understanding tends to create an imbalance in the trinitarian godhead, arguably. However, the foregoing interpretation of the filioque in which the procession of the Spirit originates in the Father and is mediated through the agency of the Son might be seen as a better solution than the idea that the Spirit is conjointly sent forth by the other two Persons.
Actually, this all sounds mumbo-jumbo...
Posted by New Yorker (# 9898) on
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I 've always thought that the Spirit is the bond of love between the Father and the Son and that such bond is so real that it creates the third person of the Trinity. If this be true, how can the Sprit proceed from the Father alone? The Spirit proceeds from the bond of the Father and the Son.
My two cents.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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So thought Augustine.
The Orthodox aren't as fond of Augustine as Catholics or Protestants.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
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quote:
Originally posted by New Yorker:
I 've always thought that the Spirit is the bond of love between the Father and the Son and that such bond is so real that it creates the third person of the Trinity.
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
So thought Augustine.
The Orthodox aren't as fond of Augustine as Catholics or Protestants.
According to Diarmaid MacCulloch, Gregory Palamas reused the idea. He didn't actually acknowledge that he was using Augustine, and Augustine would have disagreed with some of the use he was being put to, but the idea is in Palamas apparently.
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on
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All I understand is that there are many argments for and against the filioque; I do not understand the subtleties of all of those arguments. About the limit of my understanding is that there is real difference between the begetting of the Son and the proceeding of the Spirit. Some of the posts above give me additional insights into these differences, for whch I am grateful.
The Nicene Creed was adopted at an ecumenical council, one of the councils accepted as valid by vitually all denominations today of West, East and Oriental. The original did not have the filioque and aiui the filioque started to be used in Rome in the 8th century. From there, it spread throughout the West and was well in place there by 1054, before Barbarossa, and was one of the given reasons for the Great Anathemas.
I don't say it myself, not from any philorthodoxy, but because it has not been incorporated into the Creed by an ecumenical council.
[ 25. March 2011, 21:10: Message edited by: Gee D ]
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
But, how much closer to the Orthodox does that really bring us?
How much closer do you want to be? If there's no conception of that, then I agree simply dropping the alteration of the creed doesn't do much.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
The original did not have the filioque and aiui the filioque started to be used in Rome in the 8th century. From there, it spread throughout the West and was well in place there by 1054, before Barbarossa, and was one of the given reasons for the Great Anathemas.
The filioque was first added to the creed in Spain in the 7th century (as an anti-Arian measure). It was adopted by Charlemagne's court in Aachen in the 9th century, and from there spread throughout the West. Rome was actually pretty much the last place in the West to adopt it at the beginning of the 11th century.
Byzantium had always objected to it - not entirely from purely religious motives. The Holy Roman Emperors were setting themselves up as replacement Roman Emperors, so Byzantium would object to anything they were sponsorting. Likewise, the reason Rome finally adopted it was that they were pressured to do so while the Holy Roman Emperor was in town warring against the Byzantines. Byzantium pretty much objected to anything it could find to object to: the dispute that precipitated the Great Schism was whether the Eucharist should use leavened or unleavened bread.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Byzantium pretty much objected to anything it could find to object to: the dispute that precipitated the Great Schism was whether the Eucharist should use leavened or unleavened bread.
This makes it out that Rome had nothing to do with it; it was just those uppity Greeks who wouldn't just agree to disagree. This is somewhat problematic to reconcile with actual history. I'll just remind all that Humbert was a Latin, and it was he who "excommunicated" the Patriarch of Constantinople, not the other way around. For using yeast. It's not just those poor, harassed Westerns being bickered with just for spite by the benighted Easterners.
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Byzantium had always objected to it - not entirely from purely religious motives. The Holy Roman Emperors were setting themselves up as replacement Roman Emperors, so Byzantium would object to anything they were sponsorting. Likewise, the reason Rome finally adopted it was that they were pressured to do so while the Holy Roman Emperor was in town warring against the Byzantines. Byzantium pretty much objected to anything it could find to object to: the dispute that precipitated the Great Schism was whether the Eucharist should use leavened or unleavened bread.
That's what I meant when I said "given reasons". There was a series of alleged departures from true teaching, and the claims abouth the insertion of the filioque happened to
be true. Some of the others were less so.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:
And here I was naive enough to think that it was a problem in scriptural exegesis
I think it is important to realize that only theology makes definitive exegesis possible. Listing a number of "directly applicable" verses usually does not provide a clear answer, allowing several (often many) interpretations. Behind the argument I've given stand a number of key assumptions about God, and those again can be related to a quite different set of "directly applicable" verses. Thus theology is the medium through which exegesis can be harmonized across scripture. If you nevertheless want some "direct" argument from scripture, here's Aquinas again, and here are a bunch of quotes from the Fathers for good measure.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
You seem to leave out the possibility that we might not need reasonable argument at all. If the second person of the trinity said "Hi. I'm Jesus" and the third said "Hi. I'm not" we'd know where we were. Your argument seems to regard them as quantum particles without sentience that we need a theoretical framework to distinguish. I think they're less tame than that.
That's a strange and somewhat insulting comment, given that I illustrated all steps of the argument with human beings, not quantum particles. The idea of the Father and the Son (as God) saying "hi" to each other like this is of course painfully anthropomorphic. However, it certainly poses no challenge to the philosophical analysis.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
How about homoousios?
Historically, that's a problematic word. Taking it in the now agreed upon sense, it was Athanasius and the Cappadocian Fathers combating the Pneumatomachi who established that the Holy Spirit is one in essence with the Father and the Son, and the Pneumatomachi heresy was specifically condemned by the First Council of Constantinople in 381 AD in the First Canon.
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Am I missing something? There is a fundamental difference between "begotten" and "proceed". "Begotten" = be fathered, i.e. be conceived, become incarnate in the womb of the Virgin and be made flesh. This is fundamental to being the Son. The Holy Spirit comes into the world and since Pentecost can indwell human hearts, but is not "begotten".
Sure, you are missing that we are talking about God in His Godhead, not about God as Creator or God as Incarnate. It is standard Christian doctrine that the former can be thought of independent of the latter, i.e., God is not defined by His creation and it is not necessary for God to create. Thus we were talking about God (logically, not temporally) before there was anything but God. Otherwise we would be saying that God as such is undifferentiated, but becomes a Trinity by virtue of the Son incarnating and the Holy Spirit indwelling. That's an interesting form of Modalism. However, I would agree that the differentiation into Persons that exists in God as God, while logically prior to creation, maps in a specific way to creation. It is no accident that the Second Person (not the First or the Third) incarnates, and that the Third Person (not the First or the Second) indwells. All this is very interesting indeed, but it does not directly touch the argument I've given.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
The Trinity *IS* asymmetric. The Father is the source or groundspring or origination or whatever you want to call it of the Son and the Spirit.
Indeed, but modern Orthodox talk about the Trinity is not asymmetric enough. The Holy Spirit must arise somehow differently from the Son, and it is not sufficient to just use a different verb for their origination. Labels are arbitrary. One has to say how these verbs mean something different (and they mean something different precisely because the Holy Spirit originates also through the Son, but in one principle of origination with the Father, and logically second to that of the Father).
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
I'm not completely sure I buy that argument, as the filioque in any understanding tends to create an imbalance in the trinitarian godhead, arguably. However, the foregoing interpretation of the filioque in which the procession of the Spirit originates in the Father and is mediated through the agency of the Son might be seen as a better solution than the idea that the Spirit is conjointly sent forth by the other two Persons.
There really is no contradiction between these statements, just a shift of viewpoint. Firstly, for a nice summary of the agreement of Latin and Greek fathers on this see here, subsection "The same truth has been constantly held by the Fathers".
The basic point can be illustrated graphically. Latins and Greek Fathers agree that
Father -> Son,
Father -> Holy Spirit,
Father -> Son -> Holy Spirit.
If one now asks, who is the ultimate source, then the answer is the Father, because all of these start with "Father ->". If one however asks where the Holy Spirit comes from, then it is Father and Son, because one has both "Father -> Holy Spirit" and "Son -> Holy Spirit".
Thus the answer to the filioque problem is indeed simply to say "from the Father and through the Son", i.e., to add a further word. That does justice to all and in fact comes closest to the language of the Greek fathers.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
It's not just those poor, harassed Westerns being bickered with just for spite by the benighted Easterners.
True, it was not so. However, it sure looks to me like it is so now. The RCC sure seems a lot more ready to me to solve this particular issue now than the various Orthodox actors are.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
It's not just those poor, harassed Westerns being bickered with just for spite by the benighted Easterners.
True, it was not so. However, it sure looks to me like it is so now. The RCC sure seems a lot more ready to me to solve this particular issue now than the various Orthodox actors are.
You have to at least admit there's a hell of a lot more going on in relations between the churches than just the filioque. Also I would say that Rome's method of "solving issues" tends to be very "my way or the highway" so accusing the Orthodox of being stubborn is only saying we're like you.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
You have to at least admit there's a hell of a lot more going on in relations between the churches than just the filioque. Also I would say that Rome's method of "solving issues" tends to be very "my way or the highway" so accusing the Orthodox of being stubborn is only saying we're like you.
On this specific issue, I really believe that to be incorrect. In fact, I expect Rome to declare unilaterally some compromise in the not too far future. (If I were pope, I would declare the "through" solution as the new standard for the liturgy; and leave the other two possibilities - Orthodox omitting or the current RC "and" - as options that anybody can adopt as they see fit, provided this is understood as compatible with "through".)
As you know, I believe that no possibility of reunification exists, since the Orthodox understanding of the sacrament of matrimony is fundamentally incompatible with the RC one and a reversal of doctrine on that seems practically impossible on both sides. Hence I see no particular reason why the "filioque" controversy should not be laid to rest as the theological proxy for mutual ecclesiastic fuckwittery that it really is.
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on
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I'm sure this might sound simplistic, but for me whether or not the Filioque is theologically correct or not is a completely different issue to whether or not it should have been inserted. I think it's theologically correct, but I think it was unwise to add it. And it's better to acknowledge that now and remove it rather than dig our heels in and keep it.
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
If I were pope,
Just trying to imagine what that world would be like
Posted by Anglican_Brat (# 12349) on
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quote:
Originally posted by New Yorker:
I 've always thought that the Spirit is the bond of love between the Father and the Son and that such bond is so real that it creates the third person of the Trinity. If this be true, how can the Sprit proceed from the Father alone? The Spirit proceeds from the bond of the Father and the Son.
My two cents.
As I understand it, the problem with this idea from the Eastern view is that it depersonalizes the Holy Spirit. If the Holy Spirit is just the bond between Father and Son, then it isn't really a person and is thus inferior to the Two persons.
Posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe (# 5521) on
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quote:
Originally posted by New Yorker:
I 've always thought that the Spirit is the bond of love between the Father and the Son and that such bond is so real that it creates the third person of the Trinity.
That's how I remember learning it. Father is perfect; he has knowledge of himself; that knowledge is also perfect, thus a person (Son). Father and Son love each other; that love is also perfect, thus a person (Spirit).
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB
In fact, I expect Rome to declare unilaterally some compromise in the not too far future.
!!! ???
Am I the only person for whom there is something wrong with this concept?
One can imagine how such a way of doing things might be received at Esphigmenou. It's about as persuasive an approach as Regnans in Excelsis.
Posted by New Yorker (# 9898) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican_Brat:
quote:
Originally posted by New Yorker:
I 've always thought that the Spirit is the bond of love between the Father and the Son and that such bond is so real that it creates the third person of the Trinity. If this be true, how can the Sprit proceed from the Father alone? The Spirit proceeds from the bond of the Father and the Son.
My two cents.
As I understand it, the problem with this idea from the Eastern view is that it depersonalizes the Holy Spirit. If the Holy Spirit is just the bond between Father and Son, then it isn't really a person and is thus inferior to the Two persons.
The bond is so strong that a person exists from it.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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Sounds like the twin-seed-in-the-Spirit heresy.
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
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This idea (of the spirit being the manifestation as a person of the love between Father and Son) just really seems extremely contrived to me. Is there ANY sort of support for tis other than someone's imagination? I mean, I'm FAR from one to turn to scripture as the ultimate support for any concept, but it seems like there should be SOMETHING either in scripture or in the teaching of the very early Church or somewhere to make this more than speculation. At least can someone explain to me the logic behind it (other than just "it's God, so all things are possible"). I suppose this is certainly a possibility, but is it one with any sort of support to it?
I have to admit that the personhood of the Spirit has always been a hard concept for me to grasp (meaning that while I accept it as a given, I don't really see much to support it other than pure faith), this idea of the personhood being purely a result of the relationship between father and Son stretches the conept even more for me.
To me the filioque seems to put the Spirit in a tertiary role in the Trinity and that seems to me to be counter to the basic premise of single Godhood. While I can see the need for a single "source" even within a coequal unity, that is taken to a whole other level when you talk about the third person springing FROM the second (even if WITH the first). Takes it from a triangle into a line.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
Takes it from a triangle into a line.
This has always been my feeling as well. Good to see I'm not alone in that.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
That's a strange and somewhat insulting comment
Really insulting? I don't see how.
But I do see that you didn't get my point at all. Let my try again.
The idea that we need a mechanism for distinguishing the persons of the trinity based on some particular characteristic seems to deny that they are people. All you illustrations of people fail on that point also because we don't identify people by particular characteristics or points of origin in that way either.
People self-identify, and have clusters of characteristics and history that they reveal as they please, and some that they can't avoid sharing.
Your discussion of both people and the persons of the trinity reminded me more of identifying particles than it did of referring to people with the ability to speak for themselves.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
This makes it out that Rome had nothing to do with it; it was just those uppity Greeks who wouldn't just agree to disagree. This is somewhat problematic to reconcile with actual history. I'll just remind all that Humbert was a Latin, and it was he who "excommunicated" the Patriarch of Constantinople, not the other way around. For using yeast.
I did try to point out that there were political motives going on on both sides and both sides were looking for a fight to pick. Obviously, I didn't manage it for which I'm sorry. One of the main causes of friction was the Papacy's claims to pre-eminence. (Although the Patriarchate of Constantinople was using language that could be taken as claiming pre-eminence as well.) In fact, the significance of the Great Schism has been overstated: both excommunications were personal and soon lifted. What did for ecumenical relations permanently was not the Great Schism, but Rome sponsoring the Latin rite in Constantinople after the Venetians had conquered it.
The patriarch of Constantinople did excommunicate Humbert, and Pope Leo with him. Humbert got his excommunication in first. Constantinople had been objecting to Rome's omission of yeast (too much under the old law) just as much as the other way around.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
To me the filioque seems to put the Spirit in a tertiary role in the Trinity and that seems to me to be counter to the basic premise of single Godhood. While I can see the need for a single "source" even within a coequal unity, that is taken to a whole other level when you talk about the third person springing FROM the second (even if WITH the first). Takes it from a triangle into a line.
It seems to me the other way. Omitting the filioque means that the Trinity is being held together by the Father, which means that the Father gets a more equal than the other two position. Including the filioque means that the differences in role are less matters of status within the Trinity and more matters of differentiation between persons.
The Trinity with filioque is still a triangle. It's just that it's tilted, rather than having a base.
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
To me the filioque seems to put the Spirit in a tertiary role in the Trinity and that seems to me to be counter to the basic premise of single Godhood. While I can see the need for a single "source" even within a coequal unity, that is taken to a whole other level when you talk about the third person springing FROM the second (even if WITH the first). Takes it from a triangle into a line.
It seems to me the other way. Omitting the filioque means that the Trinity is being held together by the Father, which means that the Father gets a more equal than the other two position. Including the filioque means that the differences in role are less matters of status within the Trinity and more matters of differentiation between persons.
The Trinity with filioque is still a triangle. It's just that it's tilted, rather than having a base.
I'm just not seeing that, if B comes from A and C comes from B, that's not a triangle, and that's definitely not showing them as equal. it shows there to be a hierarch. a very clearly liniar hierarchy. if B and C both come from A, it does place A in a somewhat different position, and I do have a bit of a problem with that, but not AS big as with the idea of there being a chain. to me a true coequal trinity woudn't have either the son or the spirit proceeding from the father. The only way I can see that as realy working is if the Father was said to then proceed from the Spirit (making all three proceeding from each other).
Anyhow, obviously there are many ways to look at it, and to be honest I think words only mean what we interpret them to mean. we all have the same concept of trinity, and when we hear the words of the Creed, in whichever version, we interpret them to match our understanding of the trinity (rather than forming our understanding based on the words).
Getting back to another point someone was tyring to make about the schism.. the final break was not the anathemas and excommunications. the final break, in my oppinion, was the sacking of Constantinople by Latin crusaiders. that was the nail in the coffin of a unified Church. nothing to do with the Latin Rite.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
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I'm a bit bothered about this language that omitting the filioque might be dangerous. Because it's not, logically, a question of omitting it leading to a creed that has anything FALSE in it. It just might mean it has one less true thing in it.
[ 27. March 2011, 01:29: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
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It can lead to dangerous cravings for baklava.
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on
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Or pierogies?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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Maybe if they left it out they'd start fasting again.
Posted by Anglican_Brat (# 12349) on
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The only reason I like the Filioque is Merbecke's mass setting which is heaven to my ears. If Merbecke's mass setting of the Creed can do without the Filioque, then I would be all favor of dropping it.
Posted by Pancho (# 13533) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Maybe if they left it out they'd start fasting again.
Catholics of the Latine Rite (minus the sick, children, and elderly) are in fact required fast from food twice a year: on Ash Wednesday and Good Friday. They are also required to abstain from from meat on those two days and on the Fridays of Lent.
This moment of Eccles nerdom was brought to you by the letter F.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Pancho:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Maybe if they left it out they'd start fasting again.
Catholics of the Latine Rite (minus the sick, children, and elderly) are in fact required fast from food twice a year: on Ash Wednesday and Good Friday. They are also required to abstain from from meat on those two days and on the Fridays of Lent.
This moment of Eccles nerdom was brought to you by the letter F.
This is probably not a good place to talk about what I think about the onerous burden of fasting 9 whole days a year.
Posted by Pancho (# 13533) on
:
quote:
This is probably not a good place to talk about what I think about the onerous burden of fasting 9 whole days a year.
We can talk about it on that Lenten fasting thread you started (I've been meaning to jump in on it anyway).
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on
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This entire discussion brings to mind a recent thread in which the OP IIRC opined that the Father and the Son seemed definite entities to her, but the Holy Spirit seemed simply some sort of emanation from the Father. I can't be arsed to go searching for the thing. My point is, the way the procession of the Spirit is being spoken of here makes the Spirit seem like some sort of emanation/by-product of either a unitarian godhead or one comprised of only the first two Persons. I'd contrast that with the constructions that a former Orthodox-turned-atheist poster used that always seemed to border on tritheism and an overly reified, Mormonesque conception of the three Persons.
The recent poster to whom I initially referred actually seemed to be espousing a unitarian, adoptionist theology in which s/he viewed Christ as divine but not a pre-existant Person of the Godhead.
Doesn't all this bring us squarely back to what the meaning of the Trinity actually is, and how it is not modalism (to me some of what's been proposed in terms of the interior dynamic relations within the Trinity seem arguably a smoke and mirrors obfuscation for a crypto-modalism)?
I must say that I tend to resort at the end of the day to the Athanasian Creed (so-called) as the safest definition of the Trinity; many other formulations seem to get us either into the territory of unitarianism/modalism or tritheism.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Really insulting? I don't see how.
Because you claim that I treat God like a thing.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The idea that we need a mechanism for distinguishing the persons of the trinity based on some particular characteristic seems to deny that they are people. All you illustrations of people fail on that point also because we don't identify people by particular characteristics or points of origin in that way either.
Of course I'm denying that the Persons of the Trinity are people, they are God. And of course we identify people by their general (human, not dog, not cat, ...) and particular (John's face, John's sense of humor, not Jane's gait, not Jane's smile, ...) characteristics, as well as their relationship (son of Marc, uncle of Bill, boss of Rebecca) - by what else?
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
People self-identify, and have clusters of characteristics and history that they reveal as they please, and some that they can't avoid sharing.
Right. Now subtract embodiment (God is an incorporeal Spirit), history (God is eternal), causation of circumstance and biology (God is the uncaused Cause), any sort of separation in interaction (God is omnipresent in space and time), etc. and tell me what you have left of that. Yep, nothing. I'm sorry to burst your anthropomorphic bubble, but God is not much like us, actually. God is the Totally Other, and the Incarnation is just about the strangest thinkable thing.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Your discussion of both people and the persons of the trinity reminded me more of identifying particles than it did of referring to people with the ability to speak for themselves.
Over there (space), we have the Holy Spirit. He now (time) opens His mouth (embodiment) and says to the Father sitting over there (lack of omnipresence) "You know, I never told you (lack of omniscience) how one day three years ago (history) I met the Son."
Is that how you picture this?! If you have any grasp at all of what Christians say that God is, then it is incredibly hard to imagine any way in which there could be more than One. (Hence one can objectively say that polytheism is inferior: their gods cannot be God at all.) To separate the Divine essence into three Persons according to relations of origin would be an incredible stroke of genius, if it were not simply revealed.
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
To me the filioque seems to put the Spirit in a tertiary role in the Trinity and that seems to me to be counter to the basic premise of single Godhood. While I can see the need for a single "source" even within a coequal unity, that is taken to a whole other level when you talk about the third person springing FROM the second (even if WITH the first). Takes it from a triangle into a line.
This is what you imagine the Orthodox teaching to be:
code:
/- Son
Father <
\- Holy Spirit
Unfortunately, that is not so, since you have no way of distinguishing the upper line from the lower one. And no, simply attaching the label "generation" and "procession" does not do the trick - unless you can cash that out in terms of something within God (and you can't, other than by what will follow). Thus you end up with:
code:
Father -- Son/Holy Spirit
Not only does that confuse Son and Holy Spirit, it actually is your dreaded line instead of triangle. What does the "filioque" do? It keeps the upper and lower line apart, by inserting another statement of origin, like so:
code:
/- Son
Father < |
\- Holy Spirit
Now your triangle cannot collapse anymore, it is precisely "spanned open" by that line from Son to Holy Spirit. To make this compatible with Orthodox thought (at least the real orthodox Orthodox, i.e., the Greek fathers) one has to add that this new line would not exist but for that from Father and Son, so it is really one curve going "through" the Son from the Father.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
Well, I'm pretty much dead in this act as I'm - more or less - a unitarian modalist.
But the more I read this thread the more I think 'angels and pinheads'
If you believe God is three persons then why does it matter so much who does what in their relationship?
Is it that you struggle to know which one to relate to?
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
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quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I'm a bit bothered about this language that omitting the filioque might be dangerous. Because it's not, logically, a question of omitting it leading to a creed that has anything FALSE in it. It just might mean it has one less true thing in it.
Indeed.
But, you are thinking about this rationally.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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(this is to IngoB)
If the Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son, then this figure:
code:
/- Son
Father < |
\- Holy Spirit
Is inaccurate, because you have a line going from the Father to the Spirit that doesn't go through the Son. It would have to be this:
code:
Father === Son --- Spirit
In this model, the procession of the Spirit is "from the Father, through the Son." In your diagram, it is not; it's more like "from the Father, and both through the Son and not through the Son."
I fail to see why you think the begetting/proceeding distinction is inadequate. We are told Jesus is the only begotten. Thus the Spirit is not begotten. We know what a Father-Son relationship, the model or ground of the analogy, is. To say that two of the Persons have that relationship, and no other pair do, pretty much differentiates.
[ 27. March 2011, 14:44: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
:
Right, Mousethief. the entirety of the Creed and it's treating of the son and the spirit separately shows that there is no confusing the son and the spirit.. they are separate, and their relationship with the Father is not identical. but it IS at an identical level, which is lost by the addition of the filioque.
But you know what, it really doesn't matter! we are using the creed to describe what we believe about the trinity. the words flow from our understanding, not the other way around. human words are limited. language and understanding shifts over time. and I think it's just simply impossible anyway to put something as complex as the Trinity, as God, into human words and hope to be anythng close to accurate.
The point of the debate re: filioque really has less to do with whether it's a more accurate or less accurate description of what we all MEAN. It's about the question of whether one person who thinks they have a better wording can just institute a change in something established by the fathers of the Undivided Church. I'm sure each of us could word smith the Creed in a way that more accurately expresses (to us) what the beliefs of the Chruch are (or we think they are, or should be).. but should we be able to do that? the Creed, in it's original form, is nearly 2000 years old. it's withstood the test of time (and that wording hasn't led to huge misunderstandings of the nature of the Trinity -- or rahter I should say it hasn't led to huge disagreements within the commnity which uses that form of the Creed. I don't know if the same is true of the community which uses the filioque, but let's say it is. So either form seems to result in the same understanding (because after all the understanding predates the words--and both sets of words are trying to describe the same thing).
For my money, it is the LEAST of the issues that currently exist between East and West. yeah, we can debate it and talk about which one is more accurate. but for my money, the point isn't so much about the wording, it's about whether we should accept that the wording can be changed unilaterally, and just because someone (or a group) thinks they have a better wording. Seems to me if we accept that the wording can be changed, then it somewhat negates the point of having a Creed in the first place.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
The Trinity with filioque is still a triangle. It's just that it's tilted, rather than having a base.
I'm just not seeing that, if B comes from A and C comes from B, that's not a triangle, and that's definitely not showing them as equal. it shows there to be a hierarch. a very clearly liniar hierarchy.
It's not the Son from the Father and the Spirit from the Son. It's the Spirit from the Son and the Father together.
(Saying 'through the Son' would imply a chain more than 'and the Son' since it implies that the relation between the Father and Spirit exists only with the Son as mediator. We want to speak of there being unmediated relations both between Son and Spirit and between Spirit and Father.)
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
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well, would it be clearer then, using your logic, to say that the son proceeds from the father and the spirit, to clarify a triangular, rather than linear relationship?
to me the fact that the son (according to the filioque version of the creed) proceeds ONLY from the father, but the spirit proceeds from both puts the Spirit in a tertiary position, and I don't believe this is a true and accurate description of the trinity.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Really insulting? I don't see how.
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Because you claim that I treat God like a thing.
I'm sorry but that is how you come across. The language you use about God and his person is rather cold, logical and impersonal.
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Right. Now subtract embodiment (God is an incorporeal Spirit), history (God is eternal), causation of circumstance and biology (God is the uncaused Cause), any sort of separation in interaction (God is omnipresent in space and time), etc. and tell me what you have left of that. Yep, nothing.
But God was embodied and incarnate. And I don't think his bodily characteristics were either a mirage or a shell he picked up. They were him. We also read that has resurrected body ascended into heaven. I think there is less division between body and spirit than you describe.
Furthermore I think God has history. We read a fraction of it in the bible.
You might call this an anthropomorphic bubble... I'd look at it the other way around. We are the image of God. That means something. I think you are missing it.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Right. Now subtract embodiment (God is an incorporeal Spirit), history (God is eternal), causation of circumstance and biology (God is the uncaused Cause), any sort of separation in interaction (God is omnipresent in space and time), etc. and tell me what you have left of that. Yep, nothing.
But God was embodied and incarnate. And I don't think his bodily characteristics were either a mirage or a shell he picked up. They were him.
I think it's important that God would still be God if there had been no creation. And a fortiori no incarnation. The incarnation reveals the Trinity to us, but the incarnation doesn't contribute to God being Trinity.
And also I think it's important to keep straight those things that belong to Jesus as God and those things that belong to Jesus as human being. We can't use properties of Jesus as a human being as ways of talking about God where those properties don't apply.
quote:
Furthermore I think God has history. We read a fraction of it in the bible.
That's rather dubious, for a number of reasons. I can't make sense of time applying to God is one reason. The second is that saying God has a history means building that history into the story of God. Anything that is part of that history is then part of God. If some of that is what we would otherwise think evil, we run the dangers of theodicy: the claim that evil is in fact contributory to good and therefore not really evil.
quote:
You might call this an anthropomorphic bubble... I'd look at it the other way around. We are the image of God. That means something. I think you are missing it.
It means something. I'm not sure it means that.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
well, would it be clearer then, using your logic, to say that the son proceeds from the father and the spirit, to clarify a triangular, rather than linear relationship?
I don't see why it would be clearer?
Both Greek Fathers and Latin habitually treat the Son first and then the Spirit. Also, the Greeks would be shocked to hear you talking about the Son proceeding. The Son is begotten, and the Spirit proceeds. Both Greek and Latin Fathers use that language.
quote:
to me the fact that the son (according to the filioque version of the creed) proceeds ONLY from the father, but the spirit proceeds from both puts the Spirit in a tertiary position, and I don't believe this is a true and accurate description of the trinity.
To me leaving the filioque out puts the Spirit in a tertiary position, and I don't think that's a true and accurate description either.
You've already said that you're not happy with your model of the Trinity:
quote:
if B and C both come from A, it does place A in a somewhat different position, and I do have a bit of a problem with that
And I think the only way round that is to make 'coming from' not a matter of hierarchy. But I think that the Eastern concern, lacking the filioque, means that the hierarchy has to come in.
As you say, I don't think it's crucial to the faith. But to me that's how it works out.
[ 27. March 2011, 22:47: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
:
ok, true, the son doe snot "proceed". I got caught up in the concept and ignored the wording. but the point remains that the link between the father and the son is described as different from the link between the father and the spirit, and there is no particular reason to just throw in an EXTRA link between son and spirit--one that was not envisioned by those folks who first articulated the whole relationship of the trinity.
what it really boils down to is whether we can modify the creed wording to do what we believe to be a better job, and if so why have a creed anyway. why not do as some and just write one's own Creed then? or avoid any creed, as some groups do?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If the Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son, then this figure:
code:
/- Son
Father < |
\- Holy Spirit
Is inaccurate, because you have a line going from the Father to the Spirit that doesn't go through the Son. It would have to be this:
code:
Father === Son --- Spirit
In this model, the procession of the Spirit is "from the Father, through the Son." In your diagram, it is not; it's more like "from the Father, and both through the Son and not through the Son."
I mentioned three relations, not two. My diagram contains all three, namely (once more)
Father -> Son,
Father -> Holy Spirit,
Father -> Son -> Holy Spirit.
Your diagram omits the middle one, Father -> Holy Spirit. I do not know why, I said "from the Father and through the Son".
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I fail to see why you think the begetting/proceeding distinction is inadequate. We are told Jesus is the only begotten. Thus the Spirit is not begotten. We know what a Father-Son relationship, the model or ground of the analogy, is. To say that two of the Persons have that relationship, and no other pair do, pretty much differentiates.
You are merely attaching labels there. You do not know, cannot say, and hence again remain mum about how generation is supposed to be different from spiration. Of course, it is completely fine to stick to "it is revealed that there is some difference" and not bother any further cashing out such analogies. But then you definitely lose the right to bitch about the "filioque", because that is precisely about cashing out what is revealed in analogical terms!
Again, you do not know what a Father-Son Relationship is, in the following sense: You know what a father-son relationship is, more or less. But you do not know what of this refers analogously so as to establish a difference in Person but not in essence that does not equally refer to the Holy Spirit. Or if I am wrong, then stop procrastinating and state your terms of reference.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I think it's important that God would still be God if there had been no creation. And a fortiori no incarnation.
I think God couldn't but create. The question about whether he would still be God without the creation doesn't arise. We could wonder if a different God would have produced a different creation, but I think we're getting above our capacity to reason.
The arguments for God not having a history seem odd to me. Is the incarnation not part of God's history? OK, it isn't history in that God is outside of time, but it is something else that fills the place of history.
I suppose we could be likened to characters in a novel. The author doesn't have a history in the sense that he is outside the novel. But nevertheless the things written about us are the history of the author's interaction with us.
The author would still be a person and perhaps still be an author even if he hadn't written that particular book, but to then argue that what is written in the book doesn't apply to the author because he has no history and would still be the author even without the book seems to be going too far.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I think it's important that God would still be God if there had been no creation. And a fortiori no incarnation. The incarnation reveals the Trinity to us, but the incarnation doesn't contribute to God being Trinity.
Yes, God would still be God if there had been no creation, and He would be the same unchanging God that exists now.
The difference is that once creation happens there is a relationship with that creation.
I think that the Trinity is all about the relationship with humanity. The Incarnation communicates the nature of God to the human race - not changing God but revealing Him.
That revealed God is the Son. God has not changed, He is just made visible. And since He is visible He can have the influence that is called the Holy Spirit.
So the Son is essential to the sending of the Holy Spirit.
Posted by Pearl B4 Swine (# 11451) on
:
I don't want to re-print all of IngoB's post, but above, he showed us this:
My diagram contains all three, namely (once more)
Father -> Son,
Father -> Holy Spirit,
Father -> Son -> Holy Spirit.
It looks to me that this means that The Holy Spirit comes late to the table, by split-seconds, or by eons.
Posted by Anyuta (# 14692) on
:
hmm. so are you saying that the Holy Spirit would not exist without the Son? because although you said the word "revealed" the meaning seems to be more "exist".
This is an interesting concept, really.. the trinity not as a description of what God actually IS, but rather a description of how God relates to humanity. I had never hear it expressed as such, and further haven't thought about the implications, but it is something to ponder. The one thought that occurs to me is that this would resolve some difficulties with the limitiation of human language (how can human langues possibly ever describe God), and also perhaps the issue of "what if we are not the only satient species in the universe: God is the God of all, but is the TRINITY (given the person of Jesus within it) the God of all?
This of course goes way beyond the filioque.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Again, you do not know what a Father-Son Relationship is, in the following sense: You know what a father-son relationship is, more or less. But you do not know what of this refers analogously so as to establish a difference in Person but not in essence that does not equally refer to the Holy Spirit.
If I knew that I wouldn't need to use the analogy, would I? The whole point of analogies is that they point towards things that you can't put directly into words.
I don't understand your other contention. I am quite capable of saying that it was revealed, and yet the filioque is wrong, because the filioque was NOT revealed. I don't think we are right to go inventing things about the interpersonal relations among the persons of the godhead in the absence of pretty darned good evidence. And there is no pretty darned good evidence for the filioque. Further, I agree with Anyuta that the Latin Church had no business at all fiddling with a creed that was hammered out in not one but TWO ecumenical councils. Talk about unilateral. Yeah, you guys should fix it unilaterally because you messed it up unilaterally.
quote:
Or if I am wrong, then stop procrastinating and state your terms of reference.
I'm not a Thomist. I think we've already established that. I don't NEED to pin all the butterflies to the card.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
This is an interesting concept, really.. the trinity not as a description of what God actually IS, but rather a description of how God relates to humanity. I had never hear it expressed as such, and further haven't thought about the implications, but it is something to ponder.
I think one of the implications is that the Son also proceeds from the Spirit, as that's what happened in the Incarnation (which we just celebrated this past Friday). I think the relationships of the Trinity must refer to the interplay (all words are inadequate) of the Persons outside or independent of the created realm.
That said, I do also think that God, being who God is, could hardly help but create the world we know. It is of Her nature to love, and that love is a creative force, and would desire to create other persons to shower that love upon.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I think it's important that God would still be God if there had been no creation. And a fortiori no incarnation.
I think God couldn't but create.
It seems to me that if God can't but do it, it's not creation. Creation is a free process. This was I think a fairly important question for the fathers, who wanted to be clear about the difference between Christian theology on the one hand and neo-Platonism on the other.
The more modern reason for wanting to say God was free not to create is that we don't want to say that creation meets a need or a lack in God. God's agenda towards creation is in no way about creation meeting God's needs or filling up a lack in God. God's agenda towards creation is entirely for the sake of creation.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
That said, I do also think that God, being who God is, could hardly help but create the world we know. It is of Her nature to love, and that love is a creative force, and would desire to create other persons to shower that love upon.
That is one of the points about the Trinity: it means that God could help create the world as we know it, since the Trinity is not short of persons to shower love upon each other.
Creation's not here for God to love it. Creation's not for anything else, not even God. It has no purpose except to be itself.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
You're saying then that God had no reason to create it; it was just a random anal hair one boring Saturday afternoon.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
The more modern reason for wanting to say God was free not to create is that we don't want to say that creation meets a need or a lack in God.
I certainly wouldn't say that. I'd rather say that it flows inexorably from who God is. He's a creatin' kinda God. Otherwise I think you have to say that creating is not in God's nature, only the potential to create. And AIUI God is all actual, and none potential.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Sorry, Sunday.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anyuta:
hmm. so are you saying that the Holy Spirit would not exist without the Son? because although you said the word "revealed" the meaning seems to be more "exist".
Yes, the Holy Spirit cannot exist without the Son. But luckily the Son always existed and so did the Holy Spirit. God never changes.
I mean the word "revealed." When Jesus was born as the Word made flesh, or God incarnate, He added nothing to God. It was simply God making it possible for us to know Him and see Him, as Jesus said. But the same capacity to see and know Him always existed. This is the Word of God.
The thing that changed is us. The Incarnation did not take place until the human race was ready. If it had taken place a thousand years earlier Jesus' words could not have been received and understood or spread to the degree that they were.
Anyway, the point is that omitting the Filioque threatens to ignore the whole point of the Incarnation and how it facilitated the presence of God with us that is called the Holy Spirit.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
[QBIt seems to me that if God can't but do it, it's not creation.[/QB]
Why not? If someone forces me to write a book, is that not still creation? If I feel compelled by something within me to sing, is that still not creative?
However, when I say that God can't but do it, I don't necessarily mean he isn't free to not do it, I simply mean that he wouldn't ever have not done it.
Authors sometimes talk about needing to make plots do x,y or z for all sorts of reasons that they choose to observe - consistency of plot, of characterizations and so on. "I can't but write this ending" is true in a sense, but not one that challenges the authors authority over the book.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Why not? If someone forces me to write a book, is that not still creation? If I feel compelled by something within me to sing, is that still not creative?
Coercion isn't the same as can't but not. You could still choose to accept whatever retribution the coercer threatens.
I think the second example depends on 'feel compelled by something within me to sing'. How strongly do you mean 'compelled'? Also, singing a pre-existing song, as when I find myself humming the latest earworm, is different from composing a new song as I go.
quote:
Authors sometimes talk about needing to make plots do x,y or z for all sorts of reasons that they choose to observe - consistency of plot, of characterizations and so on. "I can't but write this ending" is true in a sense, but not one that challenges the authors authority over the book.
'I can't but write this ending' means something like 'if I'm to write the book as well as I can, in accordance with the characters and events and settings I've already set up for the book'. Although even in that situation, it's not the same as grinding through the writing process in a mechanical way.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
The more modern reason for wanting to say God was free not to create is that we don't want to say that creation meets a need or a lack in God.
I certainly wouldn't say that. I'd rather say that it flows inexorably from who God is. He's a creatin' kinda God. Otherwise I think you have to say that creating is not in God's nature, only the potential to create. And AIUI God is all actual, and none potential.
AIUI the answer to that is that creating is not a change from potential to actuality in God. God remains God whether creating or not.
quote:
You're saying then that God had no reason to create it; it was just a random anal hair one boring Saturday afternoon.
Rather the opposite, surely? God's reason for creating the world is that the world is good. But that's not a compelling reason; God could equally well have acted on the reason to do otherwise.
(We run into the problem talking about this that the relationship between reason and free will is not entirely clear even in us humans.)
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
So God created the world because She foresaw that the world was gonna be good. What's that contingent on, then?
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Coercion isn't the same as can't but not.
All your caveats aside I still don't get why "can't but not" precludes creativity. Singing ear-worms isn't the only way of feeling compelled to sing. And there is always some element of choice in most situations, in theory, but consequences that become increasingly unacceptable in practice.
Can you give me an illustration of what you mean since none of mine seem to fit the bill?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
So God created the world because She foresaw that the world was gonna be good. What's that contingent on, then?
I thin it means "Don't worry. Everything going to be alright."
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Marleyism? Is that all you have to offer?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
When I heard the song it struck me as a fresh, new insight.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
But where did it proceed from? And could he have chosen not to sing it?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
The answer is blowing in the wind.
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
:
To state the obvious: if this wasn't a debatable issue, it wouldn't have caused a schism lasting a thousand years. There is no dispute that this one small word(three in English) is a late addition to a creed that had been agreed by Ecumenical Council without it. So the dispute is one of authority. I've read theological arguments for and aganinst the filioque and, like many things in Scripture, there are arguements on both sides. So it isn't a theological issue.
I accept the claims of the Orthodox Church that it is the Church founded by the Apostles. This is logical on historical and geographical grounds. But the Patriarchate of Rome was part of this, and was the senior member. It is well attested to in the writings of the Church Fathers that all the Universal Church accepted the primacy of the See of Peter, because it was to Peter that Christ gave the keys to the kingdom. Rome was the senior arbiter in disputes within the Church, and top of the pecking order of primacy in all matters. After the Great Schism, to the present day, the Orthodox Church has played this down.
The fall of the Roman Empire in the West, and its overrun by barbarian heathens, made the Western Patriarch into a political figure which the See of Peter couldn't have envisaged previously. While communication and learning broke down, and Latin degenerated locally into Italian, French, Spanish and Portugese, the Pope was forced to exercise political power and was often at the mercy of temporal powers. The patriarchs in the East, largely escaped this until the Crusades and the rise of Ottoman Turkey.
So did the Pope have the authority to insert the filioque into the creed? Yes, if you believe that the Roman Patriarch has authority over the Church of Christ, as he had in the early days. No, if you believe that these things can only be decided by Ecumenical Council. Pope Benedict XVI sees the dangers facing Christianity in the West as relativism, secularism and the rise of militant Islam. This is why, in the closing years of his life, and service to the Catholic Church, he has put reconciliation at the heart of his papacy. His vision is to recreate an Ark of Salvation in a hostile world. His desire to connect with Orthodox Christianity is very strong.
Though I can't speak with any authority on this, I suspect that Pope Benedict would be quite willing to discuss the filioque as a negotiable issue in the furtherance of ecumenical ties with Eastern Christianity. Unfortunately I think he could bang his head against a wall for a millennium before there was a response. The Orthodox Church doesn't do ecumenism. It sees the healing of the divisions in Christendom as a simple matter of the rest of the world coming back into its fold. It sees reunion with Rome as the Pope repenting in sackloth and ashes and repudiating a thousand years of Catholic Church history. These things can't happen, and it's sad, because we now have a Pope with a total commitment to the reconciliation of Christendom.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
We saw the Pope of Rome as primus inter pares, not as the autocrat of the Church. If the throne of Peter included the authority to rule by fiat, then no ecumenical council would ever have been called because it would never have been needed. Just let il papa decide for us.
(oh bloody hell -- a translation: "first among equals")
[ 01. April 2011, 21:20: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
We saw the Pope of Rome as primus inter pares
In understand this, which is why I wrote:
No, if you believe that these things can only be decided by Ecumenical Council.
We're talking on this thread about dangers. I think there are dangers of omitting the filoque and dangers of including it. But they don't relate to salvation, as if an understanding or lack of it, with regards to the filioque, could affect that. They relate to the chance that Christians could obey Christ's command that we be ONE. If the ommission of the filioque from the creed could further that aim, I could go along with it. I suspect that Pope Benedict XVI could too, but I speak on no authority.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
To state the obvious: if this wasn't a debatable issue, it wouldn't have caused a schism lasting a thousand years.
I was under the impression that the schism was about the process of inserting the filioque, just as much as not more than it was about the actual content of the filioque.
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I was under the impression that the schism was about the process of inserting the filioque, just as much as not more than it was about the actual content of the filioque.
This is certainly so. I don't buy into theological arguements about whether or not the filioque is acceptable. I have seen Scriptural arguements from both sides, and I don't profess to be astute enough, theologically, to form a definative opinion. The schism is entirely about the process of inserting the filioque, and nothing to do with its content.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
The schism is entirely about the process of inserting the filioque, and nothing to do with its content.
As long as by that you mean the Pope of Rome getting too big for his britches, then yes.
The arguments for and against the filioque do sometimes seem to look like post-hoc justifications of predetermined positions.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I think God couldn't but create.
In that case, whatever forced your god to create, I will call my God.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The arguments for God not having a history seem odd to me. Is the incarnation not part of God's history? OK, it isn't history in that God is outside of time, but it is something else that fills the place of history.
I would say that the generation of the Son and the spiration of the Holy Spirit are both logically prior to the incarnation of the Son. Otherwise the created order would modify God by feedback, and we are then really saying that the Trinity is caused by the incarnation (and perhaps Pentecost for the Holy Spirit). Of course, many moderns assume a "responsive" God (one that changes according to what happens in the world) anyhow, and consider that to be only natural. However, it is basically impossible to declare such a being as the uncaused cause, pure act, non-composite, etc. Then the atheist arguments actually bite.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The author would still be a person and perhaps still be an author even if he hadn't written that particular book, but to then argue that what is written in the book doesn't apply to the author because he has no history and would still be the author even without the book seems to be going too far.
Nobody is claiming that God would be Creator without creating, merely that God would still be God. It is not necessary in an absolute sense for God to will creation, it is an act of His "free will". Though due to His immutability and eternity, it is necessary in the sense that supposing that He wills it, He cannot not will it, and then will always have willed it. The freedom of will is located in the supposition, not in the fact: it is so, always was and always will be, but it could have been otherwise.
quote:
Originally posted by Pearl B4 Swine:
It looks to me that this means that The Holy Spirit comes late to the table, by split-seconds, or by eons.
My diagrams showed relations of origin, not time, nor even logical priority.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If I knew that I wouldn't need to use the analogy, would I? The whole point of analogies is that they point towards things that you can't put directly into words.
Analogies are not magic. They will only suggest a new insight, if the mapping is sensible. My point was that your mapping makes no sense, because you export a difference indicated by using different words ("begetting" vs. "proceeding") into God without knowing what to assign this difference to. What you know how to assign is merely what these words have in common (namely that something comes from something else). Alternatively, I can also say that you refuse to follow through on the very insight that your analogy is actually generating. If indeed your mapping is sensible, then your analogy tells you that there must be some difference in God that corresponds to the difference between "begetting" and "proceeding". What then is this difference? You don't know. I do. I have told you what it is. You may not believe that, fine. However, you cannot use your analogy as an argument against what I propose, because my statement is entirely in accord with your analogy: it elucidates precisely what your analogy suggests.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I am quite capable of saying that it was revealed, and yet the filioque is wrong, because the filioque was NOT revealed.
The filioque may be considered potentially wrong because it was not explicitly revealed, but this is not the same as saying that the filioque is wrong because it was not explicitly revealed. I think it is right though not explicitly revealed, like lots of other dogma.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I don't think we are right to go inventing things about the interpersonal relations among the persons of the godhead in the absence of pretty darned good evidence. And there is no pretty darned good evidence for the filioque.
Bullshit. The argument from origin is logically unassailable, and it rests on statements about God that are themselves either directly revealed or derived from revelation in a logically unassailable manner. That you are not willing to engage with an argument does not make it any less compelling. Furthermore, traditional Christians are not reduced to an "atomistic" revelation that does not dare to go beyond a first level parsing of scripture. That's perhaps a common corruption of Protestantism, which arose because they destroyed the very teaching authority that protected thinking about revelation from error. I'm not so afflicted, and neither are you, so stop your silly "sola scriptura" rhetoric.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Further, I agree with Anyuta that the Latin Church had no business at all fiddling with a creed that was hammered out in not one but TWO ecumenical councils. Talk about unilateral. Yeah, you guys should fix it unilaterally because you messed it up unilaterally.
If the filioque is true (at least in the sense of being a valid expression of a perhaps even deeper truth), then it is just plain pigheadedness by the Orthodox to require the Latins to take it back. The Orthodox could certainly ask for expressions of sorrow that due ecclesiastic process had not been followed, or some such. (Though that would make a mockery of a history of mutual aggravation, Rome certainly would show the Orthodox that bit of charity.) However, this will apparently not do. Instead, a truth would need to be withdrawn, which actually has been an essential part of Latin liturgy and theology for about a millennium. To ask for that is so incredibly idiotic and uncharitable, that the Orthodox must pretend that the filioque is a falsehood to justify it. And so they do, resulting in an unresolvable stalemate.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'd rather say that it flows inexorably from who God is. He's a creatin' kinda God. Otherwise I think you have to say that creating is not in God's nature, only the potential to create. And AIUI God is all actual, and none potential.
It is a mistake to assign creation to God's essence, rather than to His will. If it is God's essence to create, then creation is not an act of love by God at all. It is merely necessary. It is crucial that God must be free to create or not, for Him to love doing so. God saw that creation was good, not necessary. However, you are right in the sense that due to God's eternity and immutability, this freedom of Divine will resides in what could have been, not in what was, is or will be. God is actually Creator, necessarily so in the sense that His loving decision to create never was not actual. Yet it is an imaginable possibility to be God without creating, hence God was free in loving us into existence.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If the throne of Peter included the authority to rule by fiat, then no ecumenical council would ever have been called because it would never have been needed. Just let il papa decide for us.
Non sequitur. That I can do X does not say anything about others doing X. Furthermore, it is false to say that ecumenical councils can decide any matters of faith or morals definitively alone. They can't. At all. They can only decide definitively together with St. Peter's successor. If any gathering of bishops tries to impose de fide doctrine or governance on the faithful against the pope, then their statements are null and void (and by virtue of that conflict strongly suspect of heresy). The power of the keys is bestowed on St. Peter alone. Ecumenical councils are certainly an excellent mechanism, but in the end they are just that: a way for the bishops to gather with the pope in order to declare definitive teaching and governance. It is however neither required that all bishops throw their lot with the pope, nor that they do so in physical proximity. It may have been a terribly bad idea by the pope to declare the filioque that was accepted only by the Latin side, but that does not make this act illegitimate.
If you analyze the structure of the Church merely by power, then indeed the pope is a "monarch" (primus). But the pope is a monarch that is supposed to be the "servant of servants" (inter pares). Every Orthodox bishop could likewise be accused of being an "aristocrat", as compared to the laity. The inversion of the power structure is spiritual, it is a common mistake to require it to be legal. Accuse the pope that declared the filioque of spiritual failings, and you may have a point.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
If the filioque is true (at least in the sense of being a valid expression of a perhaps even deeper truth), then it is just plain pigheadedness by the Orthodox to require the Latins to take it back.
There are a lot of things that are true that we don't go sticking into the ecumenical creed unilaterally. That you think this is a good argument says exactly everything anybody needs to know about the swollen head of the papacy.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
If the filioque is true (at least in the sense of being a valid expression of a perhaps even deeper truth), then it is just plain pigheadedness by the Orthodox to require the Latins to take it back.
There are a lot of things that are true that we don't go sticking into the ecumenical creed unilaterally. That you think this is a good argument says exactly everything anybody needs to know about the swollen head of the papacy.
I don't really see it as much to the Eastern Churches' credit that the truth of the filioque is irrelevent next to the fact that they weren't consulted in the matter. Just adding my two Protestant Pence to the debate...
Zach
[ 02. April 2011, 16:33: Message edited by: Zach82 ]
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
:
quote:
I don't really see it as much to the Eastern Churches' credit
I am shocked. SHOCKED.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
:
Out of anything relevent to say, Willy?
Zach
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In that case [if God couldn't but create], whatever forced your god to create, I will call my God.
God doesn't need forcing to create if God's nature is to create. And if it is not God's nature to create, what inspires God to create?
A feature can obviously be invented that allows God to create, but that would remain unexpressed or unfilled if God did not create. I don't see any reasonable grounds for saying both a creating and an uncreating Trinity could possess equal perfect completeness.
[ 02. April 2011, 17:51: Message edited by: Dave Marshall ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
If the filioque is true (at least in the sense of being a valid expression of a perhaps even deeper truth), then it is just plain pigheadedness by the Orthodox to require the Latins to take it back.
There are a lot of things that are true that we don't go sticking into the ecumenical creed unilaterally. That you think this is a good argument says exactly everything anybody needs to know about the swollen head of the papacy.
Read for freaking comprehension. I did not say that it was good to put the filioque in the creed. I said in the same post that doing so was legitimate (the pope in fact had the power to do so, irrespective of whether he should have done so). Thus I said that requiring the removal of a truth that was legitimately (though perhaps not wisely) added to the creed - after it has shaped close to a millennium of Latin church life - is pigheaded from the Orthodox. Because, you know, it simply is.
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Zach82:
Out of anything relevent to say, Willy?
Zach
The thread is festival of irrelevance IMO given what is stated in the Orthodox-Catholic statement on the topic of the thread. So what it gives rise to is for us all to ride our favorite hobby horses around. Forgive me, I simply noted the appearance of yours.
[ 02. April 2011, 21:17: Message edited by: Alt Wally ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Thus I said that requiring the removal of a truth that was legitimately (though perhaps not wisely) added to the creed - after it has shaped close to a millennium of Latin church life - is pigheaded from the Orthodox. Because, you know, it simply is.
See, we differ on the "legitimately" because of our view on the papacy. Because, you know, we simply do.
And saying that the eastern patriarchs are just prigs or stuffed shirts or whatever your insult-du-jour is, because they won't kowtow to the autocrat of Rome is just ... I don't know. Unbalanced?
[ 02. April 2011, 21:50: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
See, we differ on the "legitimately" because of our view on the papacy. Because, you know, we simply do.
Of course you Orthodox have to maintain some corrupted view of the papacy, because otherwise you would have to self-identify as schismatics and shop for sackcloth and ashes on your pilgrimage to Rome.
Yet it is silly to expect the RCC to share your views on that matter. Hence it is equally silly to bang on about how the filioque absolutely has to be removed, merely so that your corrupted understanding of the papacy is seen as "winning" in this way. You are turning a doctrinal issue into a proxy for an ecclesiastic turf war. As if a thousand years of that crap was not enough. But if the filioque is true (and correctly interpreted it surely is), then there is no harm whatsoever in saying "Credo ... filioque ..." (I believe ... and the Son ...). There is no harm in believing what is true.
The only reasonable action here is to allow for the Latins to say the filioque, for the Orthodox to leave it out, and issue a common statement why this does not imply a contradiction in doctrine (because rightly understood it surely does not). And then talk with each other about what a pope may or may not do. Let's remove this stupid proxy already, it brings nothing but harm.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
And saying that the eastern patriarchs are just prigs or stuffed shirts or whatever your insult-du-jour is, because they won't kowtow to the autocrat of Rome is just ... I don't know. Unbalanced?
I haven't insulted Orthodox bishops as either prigs or stuffed shirts. And it is strictly your problem if you see obedience to the vicar of Christ as "kowtowing". One can label any obedience negatively, including that which you presumably show to your bishop and patriarch.
But sticking to your terms, my point is not that your stuffed shirts should kowtow to the autocrat of Rome, though they should. My point is that they should stop using the filioque as a historical proxy for the question of kowtowing.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alt Wally:
The thread is festival of irrelevance IMO given what is stated in the Orthodox-Catholic statement on the topic of the thread. So what it gives rise to is for us all to ride our favorite hobby horses around. Forgive me, I simply noted the appearance of yours.
You know, maybe you should act less surprised when people that disagree with each other disagree with each other? Just saying.
Zach
Posted by Alt Wally (# 3245) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Zach82:
quote:
Originally posted by Alt Wally:
The thread is festival of irrelevance IMO given what is stated in the Orthodox-Catholic statement on the topic of the thread. So what it gives rise to is for us all to ride our favorite hobby horses around. Forgive me, I simply noted the appearance of yours.
You know, maybe you should act less surprised when people that disagree with each other disagree with each other? Just saying.
Zach
I guess I don't understand your persistent beef with the Eastern Church. But it is what it is.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
:
I can't see that I object to the Eastern Churches any more strenuously than the Roman Catholic Church, half of Anglicanism, or Evangelical Protestants. I am not sure disagreeing with people that disagree with me counts as a "hobby horse."
Zach
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
And it is strictly your problem if you see obedience to the vicar of Christ as "kowtowing".
On the contrary, I don't see obedience to the vicar of Christ as anything because there is no such thing as "the vicar of Christ" in the sense that the RCC means it. And the way the RCC throws its weight around and makes grandiose claims for itself is far more than "my" problem.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
:
Insofar as both Churches claim to be the One True Church, to the exclusion of all others, it sure seems that arguing about authority is ultimately a waste of time. Until either Church admits the possibility of the Church being wider than themselves, their respective claims of authority will necessarily contradict each other.
Which is a good reason to stick to the truth value of the filioque itself.
Zach
[ 03. April 2011, 03:45: Message edited by: Zach82 ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Zach82:
Until either Church admits the possibility of the Church being wider than themselves
The RCC's perspective is of course more refined than just "we are the Church", and corresponding statements have been made both at the highest level (Vatican II) and the most popular one (Catechism). Nothing of that sort is known to me from the Orthodox, which however may be partly due to their reluctance to make easily accessible any clear statement of doctrine.
quote:
Originally posted by Zach82:
Which is a good reason to stick to the truth value of the filioque itself.
However, the filioque is not important for its intrinsic truth value, but for what that is taken to signify with respect to the schism. Politics has to move before science on this one.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I said in the same post that doing so was legitimate (the pope in fact had the power to do so, irrespective of whether he should have done so).
I think Leo III specifically disclaimed having the power to add the filioque to the creed.
Posted by Zach82 (# 3208) on
:
quote:
The RCC's perspective is of course more refined than just "we are the Church", and corresponding statements have been made both at the highest level (Vatican II) and the most popular one (Catechism). Nothing of that sort is known to me from the Orthodox, which however may be partly due to their reluctance to make easily accessible any clear statement of doctrine.
Oh, I know full well the Roman Catholic Church's view is more nuanced than that. I do attend a Catholic theological school after all. But missing out on some nuance isn't quite the same thing as being wrong. Especially when we focus exclusively on the Roman Catholic Church's claims of authority, the situation is just about as I said. Unless either Church is willing to give a little on their claims of authority, then reconciling their claims is logically impossible.
quote:
However, the filioque is not important for its intrinsic truth value, but for what that is taken to signify with respect to the schism. Politics has to move before science on this one.
I think we can safely agree that if the Church says that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son, then it does so for more reasons than "The Pope says so," if only because we have salvation because Jesus Christ is "the way, the truth, and the life," and not because men in pointy/bulbous hats and dresses say we are saved. We do better to look at why the pope says the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son than whether or not he has the authority to make pronouncements like that.
Zach
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
God doesn't need forcing to create if God's nature is to create. And if it is not God's nature to create, what inspires God to create?
The second point is easy. Nothing inspires God, but God Himself, in a manner of speaking - for while there is no creation, there is nothing but God, so nothing other can inspire Him. A simpler way of saying this is simply that God freely decides to create (or for your god: god just creates).
The first point is difficult. A simple answer is that the god you suggest is not one I believe in. Can I show though that your god is metaphysically "wrong"? That's not so simple. Roughly, I would suggest that your god isn't actually a separate entity, but rather just a way of talking about a certain feature of the universe. Because if it is in the nature of god to create, then that is basically the same as saying that the universe just is and has to be, for there is no way god could not create it. So I think this is a kind of pantheistic position, which for some reason singles out the "just is and has to be" aspect of the universe and names that specifically "god".
What is wrong with pantheism then? Basically I would say that I observe contingency in all things. The chair I sit on is, but does not have to be. (Perhaps it is largely necessary by a series of causes in the past, but none of these causes seem necessary as such either.) Any object, or even any natural law, does not seem to have necessary existence. Putting several non-necessary entities together does not improve matters: at best one gets a causal chain that leaves the result more or less necessary by imposing their contingency onto the beginning. Hence to claim that putting all entities together somehow would make their sum, the universe, necessary seems unwarranted to me. To the contrary, from what I see in the world it rather makes sense to say that summing up all entities will deliver a radical contingency, puts an all or nothing question mark of unimaginable enormity behind it all. To give an answer to this question, I think one needs an entity that is totally other than the universe. One needs an entity that is radically non-contingent, absolutely necessary, and "bigger" than the question: an infinite exclamation mark. That I call my God.
Is this argument compelling? Probably not. It requires realizing something subtle about things, their contingency, and it requires seeing this as permeating the entire universe. (Buddhism gets this one perfectly right, by the way, calling it "emptiness".) One cannot really argue these kinds of "foundational" insights. Though one can experience this particular one, and yes, I think I have. Hence to make this argument compelling I would suggest doing what we are now calling meditation (following the Eastern use), but what used to be called contemplation.
That is admittedly weak intellectually, but surprisingly strong practically. I don't think that I can do more than that on this specific issue. Rest and see.
[ 04. April 2011, 07:30: Message edited by: IngoB ]
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Roughly, I would suggest that your god isn't actually a separate entity, but rather just a way of talking about a certain feature of the universe.
The only way to avoid that charge is to do what you do: define God as totally other than the universe. Which is implicitly what I do by assuming we are in fact talking about the same entity, the God of the Judeo-Christian tradition.
You are I think assuming the universe is a creation of God. To account for that God must have no necessary relationship with creation. That seems to me a special case, given the eternal context, of creation that begins and ends. The general case for an eternal creator will be eternal creating, where created reality is a process, never a final end.
Reality within that process will then be experienced within some 'horizon of perception', for us the limits of spacetime.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
The only way to avoid that charge is to do what you do: define God as totally other than the universe.
I did a lot more than that. Try engaging with what I actually said.
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I did a lot more than that. Try engaging with what I actually said.
Most was an explanation of what is wrong with pantheism, based on a claim that we're not talking about the same God. I've explained why I'm not in fact a pantheist.
On the question of what if creation is an eternal process then separates creator from creation, I'm not sure how to elaborate. God as creator is by definition eternal, ie. beyond spacetime and therefore beyond what we call change; creation is an eternal expression of the nature of the creator, what we experience as a process that we measure as time. Your experience of sitting on a chair is only ever a change in the 'your brain' region of space from one instant to the next, like every other element that makes up our consciousness. I don't see there is any contingency that cannot be accounted for simply by the nature of the ongoing creative process.
I guess I'm suspicious of delegating this kind of question to experience, as you suggest with contemplation. What kind of answer can that provide? Only I think one that is selectively disengaged from any means of verification, and therefore inherently unreliable.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
I don't see there is any contingency that cannot be accounted for simply by the nature of the ongoing creative process.
For you which (kind of) created entity exists is contingent, but not that some created entity exists. Again, I see no evidence in observable entities for the necessary existence of some-thing.
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
I guess I'm suspicious of delegating this kind of question to experience, as you suggest with contemplation. What kind of answer can that provide? Only I think one that is selectively disengaged from any means of verification, and therefore inherently unreliable.
I would have said that experience is the only reliable basis for any sort of verification, in particular also within the empirical / scientific enterprise. I assume what you actually are aiming at is that this particular experience is not provided by the dials of some measurement apparatus, but by introspection - and hence unreliable due to its means. However, meditation / contemplation is in fact rather reliable, and that was my practical point. The question what precisely you are mistrusting in contemplation is a rather interesting one - but for the sake of this discussion here, suffice to say that I don't think that there is a simple answer.
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
For you which (kind of) created entity exists is contingent, but not that some created entity exists. Again, I see no evidence in observable entities for the necessary existence of some-thing.
I don't think the model I'm describing supports the distinction you're making. Existence as an attribute only has meaning for other existing entities within the creation process.
The process itself is by definition a succession of created nows, each contingent only on the creativity of the creator. That each successive now appears to be contingent on its predecessor is only that, an appearance of contingency. In fact that appearance by definition is entirely a consequence of the nature of the creativity of the creator.
That we observe (ie. record successive states of) entities that for us exist is evidence for a creator. That we only ever observe now is evidence for creation being a process.
quote:
I assume what you actually are aiming at is that this particular experience is not provided by the dials of some measurement apparatus, but by introspection
Yes, as in your example.
quote:
However, meditation / contemplation is in fact rather reliable, and that was my practical point.
Reliable for what, though?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
I don't think the model I'm describing supports the distinction you're making.
I think your creator could be imagined as not creating (as not having creative nature). One can show logically from the existence of some-thing that a necessary Being must exist. Since there is evidence for the former, there is evidence for the latter. But one cannot simply reverse these logical conclusions and derive that from a necessary Being it follows that some-thing exists (where the necessary Being is not classed as some-thing, or at least doesn't have to be). In other words, the existence of some-thing shows that the necessary Being has in fact created, not that He necessarily has to create.
So your model may not have a place for a non-creating God, but that just means that I can reject it wholesale without violating any known evidence or logical constraints.
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
That each successive now appears to be contingent on its predecessor is only that, an appearance of contingency.
Parts of the universe are created as deterministically flowing from, parts as contingent with reference to, the previous state of the universe. The resulting temporal continuity of the universe is an essential part of what God creates, not a mere appearance. Furthermore, it is not the case that God is merely the "edge of now", creating stuff from moment to moment. If that were so, then some other entity would be required to eternally and continuously keep this "edge of now" god in existence, and that would be my God.
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
That we only ever observe now is evidence for creation being a process.
Indeed, in the sense that what is created is a process, or in other (less confusing) words, has temporal features. However, this is no evidence that the Divine act of creating itself is a process: if creating was a process, then we would have to ask what clocks its steps. A process requires a reference frame, for otherwise we cannot say "first this, then that". Yet the First Uncaused Cause cannot be located within any reference frame, for no prior cause can exist to establish it.
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
However, meditation / contemplation is in fact rather reliable, and that was my practical point.
Reliable for what, though?
It is reliably providing cognitively relevant experiences. I will open another thread to deal with this question.
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I think your creator could be imagined as not creating (as not having creative nature).
Of course we can imagine a different model. But the point of a model is not how it is arrived at but whether it accurately describes what is known. If the fit is good, we can reasonably have confidence in its predictive value. A model based on now and a creator and sustainer of now is a very good fit, both for reality as we experience it and the essence of the God idea in the Judeo-Christian tradition.
quote:
So your model may not have a place for a non-creating God, but that just means that I can reject it wholesale without violating any known evidence or logical constraints.
Only if you have a better-fitting model to account for why there is something rather than nothing.
quote:
Parts of the universe are created as deterministically flowing from, parts as contingent with reference to, the previous state of the universe.
Determinism and contingency within spacetime assumes a necessary relationship between the states of space across successive nows. My model by definition excludes this. It specifies, uncontroversially I would have thought, that God alone is responsible for the entire state of space now, including any relationship with the state of space at a preceding now.
quote:
this is no evidence that the Divine act of creating itself is a process
Alternatively, there is no evidence it is anything but a process. We only ever observe now as a universal space that records the residual effect of creation at all preceding nows. There's no difference in quantity or quality of evidence against which to evaluate the model, just in the perspective from from which it is viewed and the framework within which it is interpreted.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I think God couldn't but create.
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In that case, whatever forced your god to create, I will call my God.
In my view that makes as much sense as talking about whatever forced God to be good.
It's my view that it is in God's nature to create and he couldn't but do it. Likewise that he is good. That isn't to say someone or something else is forcing him to do either of those things.
I agree that the Son has his origin prior to the incarnation. But nevertheless I think it is part of his history and identity.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
The author would still be a person and perhaps still be an author even if he hadn't written that particular book, but to then argue that what is written in the book doesn't apply to the author because he has no history and would still be the author even without the book seems to be going too far.
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Nobody is claiming that God would be Creator without creating, merely that God would still be God.
I agree with that. I think one can argue that someone does something as an act of free will, but nevertheless finds doing it intrinsically part of their nature and unavoidable.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
After a contented eternity in perichoretic perichorea; internally, triunely boogying He created an angelic realm and later a material one.
It would be simpler if He'd always created, but that would mean He'd always incarnated and always partook of death.
But that would be heterodox. Hey IngoB, "That's perhaps a common corruption of Protestantism, which arose because they destroyed the very teaching authority that protected thinking about revelation from error. I'm not so afflicted, and neither are you, so stop your silly "sola scriptura" rhetoric."
What authority, mate ? It didn't work for the RCC from Augustine at least. At least old Thom realised he'd have been better of saying nothing after eight and a half million words.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
A model based on now and a creator and sustainer of now is a very good fit, both for reality as we experience it and the essence of the God idea in the Judeo-Christian tradition.
It is neither. I have just argued that a "god of now" itself requires some framework within which to operate, and hence is not God. Furthermore, of course a god limited to now is utterly alien to the Judeo-Christian tradition. You may be able to argue that scripture does not rule this out, since eisegesis is always hard to refute. However, there is no way that you can claim that an appreciable number of Jews or Christians in the past thought like this. They didn't, and that's historical fact.
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
Determinism and contingency within spacetime assumes a necessary relationship between the states of space across successive nows. My model by definition excludes this. It specifies, uncontroversially I would have thought, that God alone is responsible for the entire state of space now, including any relationship with the state of space at a preceding now.
It is true that a relationship between states of the universe is absolutely necessary only through God. It is also true, however, that we find in fact a high degree of "continuing causality" between the actual states of the universe, or in other words, we find time. (Unless you wish to claim that all our memories of the past are implanted in every now to falsely give us this impression - that's a conspiracy theory making Young Earth Creationism's hiding of dinosaur bones look like child's play...) The only explanation thereof, if one assumes a radical dependence of the universe on God as we both apparently do, is that God creates this time. However, at the very least this requires "memory" in "now-god". For example, if "now-god" chose to connect the previous now to this now by applying a law of gravity in which masses attract, then it may connect this now to the future now by applying a law of gravity in which masses repel, unless it "remembers" to not do that. Would you agree?
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
Alternatively, there is no evidence it is anything but a process.
As I've already argued, processes need a reference framework, something that makes meaningful "first this, then that". If this reference framework is a process itself, then it also needs a reference framework itself, and so forth. Observing the procedural nature of the universe hence tells us that the universe is not God, rather than that God is a process.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
It's my view that it is in God's nature to create and he couldn't but do it. Likewise that he is good. That isn't to say someone or something else is forcing him to do either of those things.
It is non-trivial to tease this out with precision, but I think there is clear difference between saying that goodness is essential to God, and saying that creation is essential to God. Basically, creation involves at least one specific external act because it goes from God to something else. Whereas goodness is, or at least can be seen as, a sort of "qualifier" of being. The core essence of God is Being, God Is. I can - at least analogously - say then that God Is Good, God Is Beautiful, God is True, etc. All these "qualify" what I mean by God is Being, but do not necessarily require anything besides God Himself. Hence they can be seen as "God-internal". However, God Is Creative is "God-external" because it requires that something be created to make sense.
In short: When I say "God Is Good", I explain what I mean when I say "God Is". But when I say "God Is Creative", I say what I expect "God Has Done / Does / Will Do". The former is of Essence, the latter of Will.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I agree that the Son has his origin prior to the incarnation. But nevertheless I think it is part of his history and identity.
The Son as God has no history, but Eternity. The Son as man has a history as Jesus Christ. At any rate, if the Son has his origin prior to the incarnation, then He must be distinct from the Holy Spirit prior to the incarnation. That is what my filioque argument was about.
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I think one can argue that someone does something as an act of free will, but nevertheless finds doing it intrinsically part of their nature and unavoidable.
Hmm, no. Turns this into an argument about culpability for sin, and you will see its dire consequences. What is true is that one can have free will in spite of being entirely predictable in one's choices, because then one can still be free in the sense of always choosing what is best. But this still requires that a different choice is imaginable, that one is in principle capable of doing other. Therefore, it cannot be a part of one's essence. For example, the BVM is free of sin. A dog is also free of sin. Nevertheless, the BVM is the greatest of saints, whereas the dog is no saint at all. That's because the BVM can be imagined to sin, it is not impossible by her nature, but the dog is essentially incapable of sinning. There is an essential difference between these two cases.
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
What authority, mate? It didn't work for the RCC from Augustine at least. At least old Thom realised he'd have been better of saying nothing after eight and a half million words.
Your personal vendetta against poor St. Augustine bores me to tears. And you have understood nothing about Christian religion if you believe that St. Thomas Aquinas' writings are false or useless because of what he said then. At any rate, the authority of the RCC is rather larger than Augustine or Aquinas. It is Divine, and the RCC has indeed rejected teachings of both these saints.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Your boredome bores me IngoB.
Your failure to engage from your self-appointed Olympian heights.
How ironic that Augustine's God is impersonal.
And old Thom thought his eight and a half million words were useless.
How parsimonious he became!
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
And again, under what authority am I not that you are? That excludes me from your love?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
And again, under what authority am I not that you are? That excludes me from your love?
You are under the same authority. You just happen to be disobedient in ways that I am not, though likely culpable for that only within limits. I'm not aware of particularly excluding you from my love, i.e., willing good for you. Your good of course includes entering full communion with the RCC, as is the case for every human being.
And can you please lay off St. Augustine? Even if you could show that something he said about God would imply that God is impersonal (and you have not done so as far as I know), it remains perfectly clear from his writings that he himself thought of God as personal. At worst then, St. Augustine was mistaken in some theological statement or the other, but his God was very personal indeed.
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I have just argued that a "god of now" itself requires some framework within which to operate, and hence is not God.
And I have just explained that I am talking about God, not a god. So a framework within which God operates is by definition excluded from my model.
quote:
there is no way that you can claim that an appreciable number of Jews or Christians in the past thought like this.
That's not what I said. I said my model is a good fit for the essence of the God idea in the Judeo-Christian tradition. By that I mean one God who is creator and sustainer of all that is. We're talking about how best to imagine that.
quote:
It is true that a relationship between states of the universe is absolutely necessary only through God. It is also true, however, that we find in fact a high degree of "continuing causality" between the actual states of the universe, or in other words, we find time.
You switched from outside to inside the model between those two sentences. We only find what looks to us like "continuing causality" inside the creation process, from within the physical. To metaphysically model creation is to step outside the physical, to where there is only God and, in my model now, in yours presumably spacetime and other 'places' (heaven, hell, etc).
quote:
(Unless you wish to claim that all our memories of the past are implanted in every now to falsely give us this impression...)
Memories of the past are no different to any other effect of creation at prior nows. They are a residual imprint of prior neurological states on our brain state now.
quote:
The only explanation thereof, if one assumes a radical dependence of the universe on God as we both apparently do, is that God creates this time. However, at the very least this requires "memory" in "now-god". For example, if "now-god" chose to connect the previous now to this now by applying a law of gravity in which masses attract, then it may connect this now to the future now by applying a law of gravity in which masses repel, unless it "remembers" to not do that. Would you agree?
No. If God alone is responsible for the entire state of space at successive nows, then gravity and every other natural phenomenon are results of the difference between the nows (or a long enough sequence of nows to measure as time). Gravity is part of our experience of how God creates, not a feature on a blueprint to which God is referring.
If creation is now and nothing more (my model), that we exist and experience time is only evidence for how God is God in creation. God doesn't need to remember to be God; God just is.
quote:
processes need a reference framework, something that makes meaningful "first this, then that".
God's creation is only a process from our point of view. From 'outside', from the perspective of the metaphysical modeller, there is only creation. We experience that as our now, with our past imprinted on it. For God it is the eternal now, the eternal expression of God's eternal nature.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
How am I disobedient to Christ?
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
:
Augustine's God is a machine. A stainless steel, faceless Bender with all future eternity spooled inside Him. A clock all ticked.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
It is non-trivial to tease this out with precision, but I think there is clear difference between saying that goodness is essential to God, and saying that creation is essential to God.
There are now too many strands with multiple posters for you to possibly keep track of (although you do seem to be doing extremely well) so I'll confine myself to this line for now.
I'm not sure how much of the distinction is a trick of language and how much is real. For instance, I don't know what it means to say that one can be good without any action to evidence it. I suppose one could say that one is intrinsically good and that will be expected to translate into a good action as soon as one is possible.
On the other hand, I don't think that's different from saying that one is intrinsically a creator and that that will be manifest some time or other.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
And I have just explained that I am talking about God, not a god. So a framework within which God operates is by definition excluded from my model.
If you define as absent from your model what is required for it operating, it will simply fail from self-contradiction. My point is that an "edge-of-now" process needs a framework. Think of the frames of a movie as they exist on a film. If you take scissors to the film reel, then where is "now, previous and later" in the resulting heap of pieces of film? One might as well say that there are just many different pictures (curiously related to each other). And it is not enough to point to one film frame and say "it causes the next". Because the problem is then merely moved to the word "causes": how does it do that? If there is a film reel, with one film frame attached to the next, and a projector with a motor spooling the film, then we know how one frame can come after the next. This is what I mean by a "framework" for the process. God can provide this framework if He is eternal, but not if He is Himself just within the "now". A single piece of film, even if a complete picture of the scene, does not explain how one gets to the next piece of film.
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Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
I said my model is a good fit for the essence of the God idea in the Judeo-Christian tradition.
Well, if you think that it is a good fit, and pretty much everyone of that tradition will tell you that it isn't, then you have a problem. Whether it is one of principle or of interpretation is what we are discussing.
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Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
We only find what looks to us like "continuing causality" inside the creation process, from within the physical.
Even an illusion of continuity would have to be maintained by something continuous. A sequence of random events will not appear continuous.
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Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
Memories of the past are no different to any other effect of creation at prior nows. They are a residual imprint of prior neurological states on our brain state now.
Ok, so how did they get from previous to now then? You need a "causal glue" of some kind, and that glue itself must be continuous. If I write A->B, then I may say that A and B are discrete, but only if the arrow isn't. Otherwise I get ACB, with -> becoming a discrete state C, a sequence which itself needs an explanation of the type A->C->B.
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Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
Gravity is part of our experience of how God creates, not a feature on a blueprint to which God is referring.
That does not address my argument. You need to locate the continuity we observe somewhere. If it is God creating consistently, then God must be such that consistency is in Him beyond the now.
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Originally posted by Dave Marshall:
God's creation is only a process from our point of view. From 'outside', from the perspective of the metaphysical modeller, there is only creation. We experience that as our now, with our past imprinted on it. For God it is the eternal now, the eternal expression of God's eternal nature.
Ahh, we are back to the straight classical model. I have no idea what all that stuff above was about then...
[ 07. April 2011, 06:32: Message edited by: IngoB ]
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on
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Originally posted by IngoB:
Ahh, we are back to the straight classical model.
Well, it's also a description that's entirely consistent with the model I've been describing.
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I have no idea what all that stuff above was about then...
If you look back at your objections I think you'll find they all attempt to apply a spacetime-internal frame of reference to a model that assumes an eternal perspective. They're never going to connect. It seems to be one of those things that becomes obvious once we see it. Perhaps a way in would be to consider that for creation as process, start and end are undefined. Make friends with that idea and maybe the model will begin to make sense.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
How am I disobedient to Christ?
Christ knows.
However, St. Cyprian explains why I think that you are disobedient at least concerning one issue: what Church you belong to.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Augustine's God is a machine. A stainless steel, faceless Bender with all future eternity spooled inside Him. A clock all ticked.
If I could live in two moments at once, instead of just one moment, would I be greater or lesser in my powers? Greater. Would I live more or less through experience and interaction? More. If I could live in a thousand moments? Thousandfold greater power and more life. If I could live in all moments at once, and even beyond? Infinitely greater power and more life. That's God.
Knowing the future has nothing to do with being a dead robot. It has everything to do with being totally alive to anything and everything in the world at once.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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What does Christ say mate? There's only one Church, one body - His - I'm in it. Not with you? Not included?
SHOW ME FROM CHRIST THAT I'M NOT.
YOU tell me where I'm not. Unless you're saying that Cyprian says it for you. Those might as well be your exact words.
And yes I'm angry. Yes I'm offended. Hurt. And yes I must lay that at the foot of the cross. Where we cannot meet. Where we cannot kneel together in communion.
As for your imaparsimonious rhetoric, nice.
Dispositional. What you HAVE to believe for your own narrative, untransferable 'reasons'.
Not orthodox let alone mandatory in any way that can be communicated.
I, of course, bow to the eternal meta-pre-creativity of God.
But if you need God to know tomorrow's observed electrons' spins today, like the real presence and other non-apostolic distinctives, we must tolerate that.
We must tolerate your intolerance. Your patronization. Your esotericism.
And you must tolerate our 'disobedience' in your untransferable, unexemplary, meaningless and of course imparsimoniou obedience.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
What does Christ say mate? There's only one Church, one body - His - I'm in it. Not with you? Not included?
SHOW ME FROM CHRIST THAT I'M NOT.
YOU tell me where I'm not.
Bit of a tangent here Martin - if Ingo is telling you where you are not then you are insisting that you know where you are.
Isn't your major problem with Augustine that you don't even know where an electron is? (By my maths you are likely to be a bit bigger than an electron.)
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
There's only one Church, one body - His - I'm in it. Not with you? Not included?
If you have been validly baptized, then you are indeed "part of His body". However, the body analogy isn't really flexible enough to accommodate what (I think) your actual position is... perhaps something like a cell in this.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
SHOW ME FROM CHRIST THAT I'M NOT.
Shrug. Show me from Christ anything... One point SoF really drives home is how utterly futile it is to attempt any kind of religious proof against hostile opinion.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
YOU tell me where I'm not. Unless you're saying that Cyprian says it for you. Those might as well be your exact words.
I'd be more optimistic about the salvation of those outside of / at odds with the Church, but sure, Cyprian drives home my basic point.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
And yes I'm angry. Yes I'm offended. Hurt. And yes I must lay that at the foot of the cross. Where we cannot meet. Where we cannot kneel together in communion.
You are a big boy, I guess you'll manage.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
But if you need God to know tomorrow's observed electrons' spins today, like the real presence and other non-apostolic distinctives, we must tolerate that. We must tolerate your intolerance. Your patronization. Your esotericism.
How droll.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
And you must tolerate our 'disobedience' in your untransferable, unexemplary, meaningless and of course imparsimoniou obedience.
Well, at least I must suffer it.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Thanks for nothing mate.
So my infant baptism and confirmation 6 years ago are invalid because the other priest was married and our bread is leavened?
Futile indeed.
You're welcome to kneel with me at Holy Trinity, Leicester this Sunday of course.
Remember me when you come in to your kingdom won't you. You and a billion first class Christians.
I'd happily continue to serve way beneath the broken Roman Catholic alcoholics and drug addicts I have the privilege of serving (they have nowhere else to go) a few of hours a week, in the fullness of the Kingdom, but I just get to be an object of pity on the burning shore while they are in Abraham's bosom ?
OK mate.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Cyprian: If any one consider and examine these things, there is no need for lengthened discussion and arguments. There is easy proof for faith in a short summary of the truth. The Lord speaks to Peter, saying, "I say unto thee, that thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound also in heaven, and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven." And again to the same He says, after His resurrection, "Feed my sheep." And although to all the apostles, after His resurrection, He gives an equal power, and says, "As the Father hath sent me, even so send I you: Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they shall be remitted unto him; and whose soever sins ye retain, they shall be retained;" yet, that He might set forth unity, He arranged by His authority the origin of that unity, as beginning from one. Assuredly the rest of the apostles were also the same as was Peter, endowed with a like partnership both of honour and power; but the beginning proceeds from unity. Which one Church, also, the Holy Spirit in the Song of Songs designated in the person of our Lord, and says, "My dove, my spotless one, is but one. She is the only one of her mother, elect of her that bare her." Does he who does not hold this unity of the Church think that he holds the faith? Does he who strives against and resists the Church trust that he is in the Church, when moreover the blessed Apostle Paul teaches the same thing, and sets forth the sacrament of unity, saying, "There is one body and one spirit, one hope of your calling, one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God?"
Amen
And this unity we ought firmly to hold and assert, especially those of us that are bishops who preside in the Church, that we may also prove the episcopate itself to be one and undivided. Let no one deceive the brotherhood by a falsehood: let no one corrupt the truth of the faith by perfidious prevarication. The episcopate is one, each part of which is held by each one for the whole. The Church also is one, which is spread abroad far and wide into a multitude by an increase of fruitfulness. As there are many rays of the sun, but one light; and many branches of a tree, but one strength based in its tenacious root; and since from one spring flow many streams, although the multiplicity seems diffused in the liberality of an overflowing abundance, yet the unity is still preserved in the source. Separate a ray of the sun from its body of light, its unity does not allow a division of light; break a branch from a tree,-when broken, it will not be able to bud; cut off the stream from its fountain, and that which is cut off dries up. Thus also the Church, shone over with the light of the Lord, sheds forth her rays over the whole world, yet it is one light which is everywhere diffused, nor is the unity of the body separated. Her fruitful abundance spreads her branches over the whole world. She broadly expands her rivers, liberally flowing, yet her head is one, her source one; and she is one mother, plentiful in the results of fruitfulness: from her womb we are born, by her milk we are nourished, by her spirit we are animated.
Amen
The spouse of Christ cannot be adulterous; she is uncorrupted and pure. She knows one home; she guards with chaste modesty the sanctity of one couch. She keeps us for God. She appoints the sons whom she has born for the kingdom. Whoever is separated from the Church and is joined to an adulteress, is separated from the promises of the Church; nor can he who forsakes the Church of Christ attain to the rewards of Christ. He is a stranger; he is profane; he is an enemy. He can no longer have God for his Father, who has not the Church for his mother. If any one could escape who was outside the ark of Noah, then he also may escape who shall be outside of the Church.
Amen
Well that's all right IngoB - I'm at least as included in Christ as you.
No problem.
No disobedience there. No 'adultery'. No separation.
Yet YOU judge me disobedient.
To whom ?
To what ?
How ?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
So my infant baptism and confirmation 6 years ago are invalid because the other priest was married and our bread is leavened?
Assuming that you were baptized/confirmed non-RC: Your baptism is (almost certainly) valid. Your confirmation isn't. That has little to do with whether your priest is married and what bread you use in your services. But it has to do with your episcopate not being in the apostolic succession and/or in communion with the Holy See.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
You're welcome to kneel with me at Holy Trinity, Leicester this Sunday of course.
If I am in Leicester, why not? As long as I don't give scandal to my RC brethren and false witness to the non-RC ones, I can certainly worship God with other Christians and under the right circumstances even with non-Christians. Thus kneeling in prayer is on, partaking in the Eucharist not.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Remember me when you come in to your kingdom won't you. You and a billion first class Christians.
Will do, if I make it. And you remember that we don't become citizen of that kingdom by virtue of our works, but as a gift. Quit blaming me for not accepting all the gifts waiting for you.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
I just get to be an object of pity on the burning shore while they are in Abraham's bosom?
Did I say somewhere that you'll go to hell? Not that I remember.
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Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Well that's all right IngoB - I'm at least as included in Christ as you. No problem. No disobedience there. No 'adultery'. No separation. Yet YOU judge me disobedient. To whom? To what? How?
The successor of St. Peter would not consider you to be in full communion with him, but he would me. End of story.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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Peter would. Jesus does.
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on
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And that's you and your man's loss.
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