Thread: Kerygmania: This is in the Bible - but it stinks! IMHO... Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Following on from an unneccessary (in my view) but gracious retraction from chemincreux on another thread, I found myself reacting aganst the assertion that "Nothing in the Bible stinks." I found myself thinking "Well, for starters - the what happens to Saul stinks!"

Now that's a very subjective reaction - but I think it contains a moral component that's important. I wondered if it might be useful to have a thread in which people could dump passages they found morally repugnant - and other people could perhaps come along and offer to rehabilitate them, on the usual grounds; different standards of the time, different ways of looking at the same thing, etc. etc.

Well, there's my first candidate. The Saul narrative in I Samuel 9 ff.

[ 28. May 2016, 02:04: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
Certainly all those passages like Joshua 6:21 would have to be candidates for our revulsion at the oldest of the OT understandings of God's will.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
My current pet yuk is in Isaiah 43:28, which can be read as a prediction of the holocaust. The problem with the over-reading of Isaiah is it is not an interpretation I can reject but I am not happy with it at all.

For those who want it in ESV it is
quote:
Therefore I will profane the princes of the sanctuary
and deliver Jacob to utter destruction
and Israel to reviling

In the REB it is
quote:
and your leaders descrated my sanctuary;
that is why I put Jacob under my solemn curse
and left Israel to be reviled

In the NRSV it is
quote:
Therefore I profaned the princes of the sanctuary,
I delivered Jacob to utter destruction,
and Israel to reviling.

You will spot the tense change. The problem is that the Hebrew tense is the 'continous' so the ambiguity is there in the original. Yes Isaiah is talking to the situation he finds himself in, but we as Christians quite happily read future prophecy into other ambiguities in the prophets soI can not rule this out.

Jengie
 
Posted by professorkirke (# 9037) on :
 
Links to the above passages:

1 Samuel 9
Josha 6:20-21

Don't forget to include the links, folks. It helps us to want to stay involved in the Keryg threads!


Very interesting thread, Psyduck. I want to add some thoughts but I will have to wait till later this evening. [Smile]

-Digory
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
A classical bit of Psyduck questioning. Can I provoke you a bit more? We'll need to avoid a Purg dimension and also a Dead Horse, but there is a really important general issue of Biblical Interpretation here. Here's the deep issue.

1. Is it possible to hold to the principle that scripture is authoritative and inspired (that's not the same as inerrant) and yet be open to the possibility that some stuff in the Bible stinks!

My personal answer to that is "yes". There are plenty of "stinky bits" in the OT for example, whose only real value today can be that they serve as an example of how not to think and behave. Here is a "charming" extract from Psalm 137.
 
Posted by Oreophagite (# 10534) on :
 
Mystics tell me that any given Bible passage can be read and understood on seven levels of understanding. Most of us can do the first level - which is to take what we read at literal face value, reading it as residents of the 21st century. The mystics say that this first level is merely "code" that hides an esoteric meaning.

I'm not a mystical OT scholar, so I don't know. But the Psalms do have some odd images here and there.

My liberal friends laugh, and say that the Bible says what it means, and means what it says - but with exceptions.

As for things in the Bible that "stink" - well, there's Ezekiel 4:9-17. You won't see that in the Lectionary.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Well, there's my first candidate. The Saul narrative in I Samuel 9 ff.

The Saul narrative is a fairly long section. Could you expand on what exactly you feel 'stinks' in this narrative?

quote:
Originally posted by Jengie Jon:
My current pet yuk is in Isaiah 43:28, which can be read as a prediction of the holocaust. The problem with the over-reading of Isaiah is it is not an interpretation I can reject but I am not happy with it at all.

I think we can reasonably rule this out as an interpretation of the passage. Within the 'narrative framework' of Isaiah this was explicitly looking forward to the Babylonian Exile and the restoration beyond that (that within a New Testament understanding would be the fulfillment found in the ministry of Jesus Christ). Seems a very odd leap to try to tie Isaiah's 8th Century BC prophecy to the 20th Century AD atrocity, skipping over other historical events like the Exile, Jesus, the destruction of Jerusalem, etc
 
Posted by LutheranChik (# 9826) on :
 
I recently had the opportunity to read the Book of Hosea, and I was struck by some of the misogynistic images/language in it. That isn't the tone of the whole thing, of course -- you've got God cast as the crazy Lover absolutely besotted by love for Israel, the Bad Girl -- but I can see where parts of it would be very troubling to, say, a woman who has been the victim of domestic abuse.
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
quote:
Originally posted by Jengie Jon:
My current pet yuk is in Isaiah 43:28, which can be read as a prediction of the holocaust. The problem with the over-reading of Isaiah is it is not an interpretation I can reject but I am not happy with it at all.

I think we can reasonably rule this out as an interpretation of the passage. Within the 'narrative framework' of Isaiah this was explicitly looking forward to the Babylonian Exile and the restoration beyond that (that within a New Testament understanding would be the fulfillment found in the ministry of Jesus Christ). Seems a very odd leap to try to tie Isaiah's 8th Century BC prophecy to the 20th Century AD atrocity, skipping over other historical events like the Exile, Jesus, the destruction of Jerusalem, etc
Only if we are also willing to forgo all the suffering servant passages as not referring to Christ after all if all the book of Isaiah was looking forward to the Babylonian Exile(dubious in many commentaries) and concerned solely with that and the return then it can not be concerned with something that happened several hundred years later. Sorry does not wash. My argument is not that this is what Isaiah meant, but that in our tradition of multiple understandings we can not rule this out, especially when you look at it in context when if you take future tense it is already post exile.

Jengie
 
Posted by Petaflop (# 9804) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oreophagite:
As for things in the Bible that "stink" - well, there's Ezekiel 4:9-17. You won't see that in the Lectionary.

verse 15 (KJV)...
quote:
Then he said unto me, Lo, I have given thee cow's dung for man's dung, and thou shalt prepare thy bread therewith.
After complaining he gets to use cow dung instead. Nothing wrong with cow dung as a fuel: (link).

Cow dung can also be used to make a water purifier: (link)
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Barnabas62:
quote:
Here is a "charming" extract from Psalm 137.

I'd have thought it's obvious why that bit's in the Bible. It's there to defeat Boney M...

I'm only being semi-jesting here. It's often struck me that some of the worse bits in the Psalms actually reflect the full, honest depth of the human response to real oppression - which can include real hatred. To turn to the theological question:
quote:
Is it possible to hold to the principle that scripture is authoritative and inspired (that's not the same as inerrant) and yet be open to the possibility that some stuff in the Bible stinks!

maybe this offers grounds for a "yes" answer: what we have here in Psalm 137 is an uncensored account of a religiously-framed human response to deportation and oppression. It's horrible and ugly, but it is the truth about how human beings respond. In fact, it may be the truth about some of what goes on under our highly censored Christian responses to such things. But I don't think it's necessary to view a passage like this as prescriptive. It's true, not in the sense of telling us how human beings ought to behave, but in holding up a mirror to how we do behave. Or at least think.

This is in the category of "I hate it - but it has to be in" bits of the Bible.
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Sorry - I thought copying automatically included the link. Here's the charmoing bit in Question: Ps. 137
quote:

[7] Remember, O LORD, against the E'domites
the day of Jerusalem,
how they said, "Rase it, rase it!
Down to its foundations!"
[8] O daughter of Babylon, you devastator!
Happy shall he be who requites you
with what you have done to us!
[9] Happy shall he be who takes your little ones
and dashes them against the rock!



 
Posted by LucyP (# 10476) on :
 
Petaflop said

quote:
After complaining he gets to use cow dung instead. Nothing wrong with cow dung as a fuel
Strangely enough, I was reading that passage this morning. My commentary said the barley cakes were probably cooked directly on the hot "coals" - so directly in contact with the glowing coal-substitute.

Sounds potentially stinky to me, though perhaps not in the sense of the OP!
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
LucyP:
quote:
My commentary said the barley cakes were probably cooked directly on the hot "coals" - so directly in contact with the glowing coal-substitute.

Wonder if they did their steaks that way? Gives a whole new meaning to "Well done, thou good and faithful servant..." [Big Grin]
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
Certainly all those passages like Joshua 6:21 would have to be candidates for our revulsion at the oldest of the OT understandings of God's will.

Pussyfooting. The whole book of Joshua goes.
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Nah - I'd keep ch. 24
quote:
[14]
"Now therefore fear the LORD, and serve him in sincerity and in faithfulness; put away the gods which your fathers served beyond the River, and in Egypt, and serve the LORD. [15] And if you be unwilling to serve the LORD, choose this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your fathers served in the region beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you dwell; but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD."

And I'd print the rest of the book as a footnote, in italics...
[Big Grin]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
... with a health warning?
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
GOVERNMENT HEALTH WARNING: If you forsake the LORD and serve foreign gods, then he will turn and do you harm, and consume you, after having done you good.
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Actually, and much more seriously, of course I think that Joshua should be in the Bible. All of it. I think the questions it raises are about our reading-strategies as 21st. century Christians. It really worries me that some attitudes towards Biblical authority preclude questioning e.g. the morality of "Biblical" genocides.

I think it says something important about our attitude to the Bible if we're saying - and able to say "this is in the Bible - but I still think it stinks!"
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Actually, and much more seriously, of course I think that Joshua should be in the Bible. All of it. I think the questions it raises are about our reading-strategies as 21st. century Christians. It really worries me that some attitudes towards Biblical authority preclude questioning e.g. the morality of "Biblical" genocides.

I think it says something important about our attitude to the Bible if we're saying - and able to say "this is in the Bible - but I still think it stinks!"

I like to say that "literally this is wrong, but it works as a metaphor."

Joshua is a fabulous metaphor for clearing sin from your life. Every story is priceless, and a worthy topic for sermons and lessons of all kinds. As a literal piece of history, however, it is a series of atrocities.

[ 16. November 2005, 17:42: Message edited by: Freddy ]
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I like to say that "literally this is wrong, but it works as a metaphor."

Joshua is a fabulous metaphor for clearing sin from your life. Every story is priceless, and a worthy topic for sermons and lessons of all kinds. As a literal piece of history, however, it is a series of atrocities.

I'm actually uneasy with that. I think it is because once you say "this is OK as a metaphor", it opens the door for some to misunderstand it and attempt to literalise the metaphor.

It seems to me that as soon as anyone says "hate sin!", there are inevitably going to be others who hear that as "hate sinners".
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
I'm actually uneasy with that. I think it is because once you say "this is OK as a metaphor", it opens the door for some to misunderstand it and attempt to literalise the metaphor.

It seems to me that as soon as anyone says "hate sin!", there are inevitably going to be others who hear that as "hate sinners".

OK. I can see that people will do that.

Does this mean that we can't talk about "crushing racism" for fear that people will take this too literally? It seems to me that we are pretty accustomed to these sorts of comparisons.

Still, it is true that we are also accustomed to taking things too literally. [Paranoid]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jengie Jon:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
quote:
Originally posted by Jengie Jon:
My current pet yuk is in Isaiah 43:28, which can be read as a prediction of the holocaust. The problem with the over-reading of Isaiah is it is not an interpretation I can reject but I am not happy with it at all.

I think we can reasonably rule this out as an interpretation of the passage. Within the 'narrative framework' of Isaiah this was explicitly looking forward to the Babylonian Exile and the restoration beyond that (that within a New Testament understanding would be the fulfillment found in the ministry of Jesus Christ). Seems a very odd leap to try to tie Isaiah's 8th Century BC prophecy to the 20th Century AD atrocity, skipping over other historical events like the Exile, Jesus, the destruction of Jerusalem, etc
Only if we are also willing to forgo all the suffering servant passages as not referring to Christ after all if all the book of Isaiah was looking forward to the Babylonian Exile(dubious in many commentaries) and concerned solely with that and the return then it can not be concerned with something that happened several hundred years later.
Not at all. I would say that the writers of the Bible understood that the Babylonian exile did not end with the physical return of the Jewish people to the land, since the were still under the rule of a foreign power. It was the minstry of Jesus as the suffering servant that brought the "exile" to an end.

However, my point was that there was a limit to multiple readings of a text. It is not possible that any and all readings can be sustained by a text - and in fact I would say that it says more about the person who sugested that interepretation to you than about the text itself.
 
Posted by chemincreux (# 10635) on :
 
Psyduck

Oh, all right then. I recant, and admit to a faint acrid sensation whenever I see something great and wonderful - like an inexplicable intuitive healing - reduced to something immeasurably less - like a supernatural miracle -
by religious piety.

It puts me in mind of the story Antony de Mello told of somebody arguing with the devil along the way. Suddenly they come across a piece of uncontrovertible truth. "There!" says the disciple "Doesn't that worry you?" "Not at all"
says the devil, "leave it alone. Sooner or later someone will come along anf find it, and make a belief of it."

Here's a biblical case in point. In the New RSV
the chapter heading calls it "A Girl Restored to Life...", which is close, but "restored to health"
IMO would be more accurate.

I'll quote in full the passages which illustrate my point.

Mark 5:35-43 While he was still speaking, some people came from the leader's [Jairus's] house to say "Your daughter is dead. Why trouble the teacher any further?" But overhearing [or ignoring] what they said, Jesus said to the leader of the synagogue, "Do not fear, only believe." He allowed no-one to follow him except Peter, James and John, the brother of James. When they came to the house of the leader of the synagogue, he saw a commotion, people weeping and wailing loudly. When he had entered, he said to them, "Why do you make a commotion and weep? The child is not dead but sleeping." And they laughed at him. Then he put them all outside, and took the child's father and mother and those that were with him, and went in where the child was. He took her by the hand and said to her, "Talitha cum," which means, "Little girl, get up!" And immediately the girl got up and began to walk about (she was twelve years of age). At this they were overcome with amazement. He strictly ordered them that no one should know this, and told them to give her something to eat.

Luke's account is almost identical. But from
Luke 8:52 there are slight differences:

They were all weeping and wailing for her; but he said "Do not weep; for she is not dead but sleeping." And they laughed at him, knowing that she was dead. But he took her by the hand and called out "Child, get up!" Her spirit returned, and she got up at once. Then he directed them to give her something to eat. Her parents were astounded; but he ordered them to tell no one what had happened.

Three differences. Luke, the physician, adds the words "knowing that she was dead" thus siding with the onlookers and contradicting Jesus! Secondly, he does not quote Jesus in Aramaic, as Mark does (possibly because Luke was a follower of Peter, who was credited with a healing miracle
using similar words) and finally, there is no longer a STRICT injunction not to blab about the matter.

Jesus has taken three of his most important disciples, and after ejecting the rent-a-crowd
mourners so as not to alarm the girl when she recovers, he shows Peter James and John how you deal with a devout father who is unwittingly about to bury his own daughter alive. He's the leader of the synagogue - he cannot even touch her without becoming ritually unclean.

But the disciples don't get it, do they - and the temptation to talk about what they have seen (because, among other things, they were themselves involved) is too great. As on other occasions. And on one of them, Jesus wept.

This is not exegesis, of course. It's another story, if you like, the one that speaks to me.
But I didn't make it up. Tell me if you think I'm wrong.
 
Posted by Evo1 (# 10249) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chemincreux:
This is not exegesis, of course. It's another story, if you like, the one that speaks to me.
But I didn't make it up. Tell me if you think I'm wrong.

I think you're wrong. This passage clarifies Jesus' techniques I think. (When us Christians die (that is buried and everything - and years later - we are described as being asleep in Christ)

After he had said this, he went on to tell them, "Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep; but I am going there to wake him up."
His disciples replied, "Lord, if he sleeps, he will get better." Jesus had been speaking of his death, but his disciples thought he meant natural sleep.
So then he told them plainly, "Lazarus is dead, and for your sake I am glad I was not there, so that you may believe. But let us go to him." (Jn 11)
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Joshua is a fabulous metaphor for clearing sin from your life. Every story is priceless, and a worthy topic for sermons and lessons of all kinds.

Would you be comfortable using the Holocaust in that way? Or the driving out of North American natives?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Joshua is a fabulous metaphor for clearing sin from your life. Every story is priceless, and a worthy topic for sermons and lessons of all kinds.

Would you be comfortable using the Holocaust in that way? Or the driving out of North American natives?
Not at all. Especially as I am part Jewish and part native American.

I would be more comfortable using the defeat of Nazism or Communism that way.

Fortunately, most of the biblical stories are more like those latter than the former. Almost everyone attacked Israel after Jericho and Ai, so they make at least a partially credible victim.

But, again, I am not defending the literal stories. Those were bad times. To some extent the stories are a case of God making lemonade out of lemons.

Anyway, if they weren't lemonade you couldn't make sermons out of them. As it is they make great sermons. No one comes up afterwards all upset about what Samson did to the innocent Philistines. Yet I'm sure that the Philistines were just as innocent as anyone else in those days. [Biased]
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Steve Tom:
quote:
Pussyfooting. The whole book of Joshua goes.
But isn't that basically a piece of sanitizing? Isn't it morally better to keep Joshua in, and say "Well, this is one of the sources of our tradition - and it stinks. So we'd better be very careful about slipping into triumphalism..."

Of course, Joshua's always been in the Bible, since God invented printing [Biased] , and maybe it's only since the Holocaust that we've been able to see the obscenity that was there all the time.

Shame we can't join the dots, and extend that same sense of obscenity to that revolting praise-song "Be bold! Be strong! For the Lord your God is with you..." Straight out of Joshua 1 that is. [Projectile]
 
Posted by Oreophagite (# 10534) on :
 
Hmmm. I've come across the occasional post-Enlightenment, post-liberal, neo-rational, proto-Pelagian, revisionist scholar (also known as "Son of Satan") who opines that since parts of the Holy Scripture make us uncomfortable, we should toss the whole thing out the window and make up our own rules as cafeteria Christians.

I know for sure that this isn't where this particular thread is headed, and apologize for using the above cuss words. In particular, for the part that doesn't use inclusive language.

Rather than saying that this or that "stinks", we need to understand what it MEANS. It's all there for a reason. For a lot of them, I'll go apophatic and say I have no clue WHY they're there.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oreophagite:
Rather than saying that this or that "stinks", we need to understand what it MEANS. It's all there for a reason. For a lot of them, I'll go apophatic and say I have no clue WHY they're there.

Nicely put! Better apophatic than cynical.
 
Posted by ozowen (# 8935) on :
 
All the genocide stories give me the willies.
The psalms that celebrate genocides and death and destruction of others disturb me.
eg; The Lord is loving and kind, he killed off everyone else...
 
Posted by Chorister (# 473) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by SteveTom:
Pussyfooting. The whole book of Joshua goes.

I shall look forward to reading the prequel to your book with interest - it will obviously be very short. [Big Grin]

If, as I understand it, the Bible is a window on the development of understanding about God through the centuries, it shows how people originally thought in terms of God as a vengeful God, punishing his enemies. This developed over time into the idea of a God of Love. Jesus wasn't into chucking the whole lot out, though.

Matthew 5: 17: Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Oreophagite:
quote:
Rather than saying that this or that "stinks", we need to understand what it MEANS.
But sometimes what it MEANS is what stinks. I'd intended this thread as a place where people could simply declare their perceptions that certain things stank, and others could come along and maybe argue the contrary. Are you saying that nothing in the Bible can stink?

Chorister:
quote:
Jesus wasn't into chucking the whole lot out, though.

Matthew 5: 17: Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

Well, this is the very chapter in which Jesus says over and over again 'εγω δε λεγω - but I say to you - and sets himself over against the Law, and above it, by changing it. This is another thread, but it does seem at least possible that 5:17 is "Matthew" getting nervous at the radical implications of what Jesus is saying, and editing it to make it appear less revolutionary. If it is Jesus (and actually, I suspect it may be) then he's being deeply ironic! He just has changed the law, and set himself above it! IMHO one of the most unambiguously non-stinky bits of the whole Bible! It's actually what opens the door to this possibility:
quote:
If, as I understand it, the Bible is a window on the development of understanding about God through the centuries, it shows how people originally thought in terms of God as a vengeful God, punishing his enemies. This developed over time into the idea of a God of Love.
- though I'd connect the last sentence of it directly with Jesus, for all that there are clear roots for it in the OT. It's only a clear perception of the subordination of the OT revelation to Christ that lets Christians critique certain bits of both testaments (Syrophoenician woman, anyone?) as stinky.

What is fascinating, though, is that the Jews seem to have found their own way to such rebalancing. Apart, that is, from the distressing excesses of their own extremists - but hey! Who are we as a whole religious tradition to point the finger at another whole religious tradition. Especially when we have extreme views sheltering under our roof, about Leviticus being at least as important for Christians as Jesus Christ, for instance.
 
Posted by Luigi (# 4031) on :
 
But Psyduck - I would argue that Leviticus is as important as Jesus because that is the very book that sheds light on how insightful and daring Jesus was. Or to put it another way, it shows just how massive the journey within the OT was. And how far things had to travel to get to Jesus.

Of course parts of the OT stink. Indeed parts of the OT affirm total nonsense. The ducking and diving that some Christians do to make the OT and the gospels sing from the same hymn sheet are truly extraordinary.

The problem as I see it is that many Christians know or suspect that vast amounts of the OT are wrong. (Were women who had problems with their periods really meant to be treated as they were?)

But they don't know what to do with this disturbing thought, so they turn away. Which is sad because what humans always want to turn away from, just what might be what has been hidden since the foundation of the world.

Luigi
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Luigi:
Were women who had problems with their periods really meant to be treated as they were?

Rules like this have existed in many cultures at different times and places.

I think the OT writers mistook their cultural norms for God's law.

Moo
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Chorister:
If, as I understand it, the Bible is a window on the development of understanding about God through the centuries, it shows how people originally thought in terms of God as a vengeful God, punishing his enemies. This developed over time into the idea of a God of Love. Jesus wasn't into chucking the whole lot out, though.

Matthew 5: 17: Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

I think that this is right.

Part of what the mysterious word "fulfill" means is "explain", which is what Jesus was doing with His "but I say to you" statements. He was explaining and extending the thinking behind the Law.

It is true that some of the explanations appear to be simple contradictions, but I think that if we look at them carefully we can see that they are more truly explanations.
 
Posted by chemincreux (# 10635) on :
 
Evo1

Thanks for reminding me. I was coming to Lazarus. But lots of really interesting OT stuff is going on around here and I don't think my concerns over L (even if he didn't stink) are really in the spirit of Psyduck's OP. So I've started a new thread (see Did Lazarus stink?)

See you there, I hope.
 
Posted by Oreophagite (# 10534) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
[QB] Oreophagite:
quote:
Rather than saying that this or that "stinks", we need to understand what it MEANS.
But sometimes what it MEANS is what stinks. I'd intended this thread as a place where people could simply declare their perceptions that certain things stank, and others could come along and maybe argue the contrary. Are you saying that nothing in the Bible can stink?

Maybe so, though I personally think it stinks that God had to incarnate as Jesus and die on the cross because we (humanity) are such sinful idiots.

What I know I'm saying is that I'm not smart enough to be able to analyze and understand everything that seems to "stink". With some of those passages that continue to appear to "stink" upon my feeble-minded analysis, I just have to stand back in awe and mystery. I can't explain God, nor do I have the authority to. I did give one "stinking" example - baking the bread on dung.

As for women with their periods, I believe that to this day, women having their periods are not allowed to receive the Eucharist in some eastern churches. I don't know the reason.
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Oreophagite:
quote:
With some of those passages that continue to appear to "stink" upon my feeble-minded analysis, I just have to stand back in awe and mystery.
With respect, I think that's a terribly dangerous attitude.
quote:
I can't explain God, nor do I have the authority to.
I don't think anyone is asking you to explain God; we aren't talking about God, but the Bible. I don't want to stray into Dead Horses territory, but the Bible isn't God, however you think it's related to him. Are we really required by faith not to recoil in horror from passages like Genesis 38, or the Joshua passages? Or the story of Jephtha's daughter - when the lesson of the "sacrifice" of Isaac seems to have been comprehensively unlearned? I'm prepared to listen openly to attempts to rehabilitate these passages, but I really do think that it's terribly dangerous to say, as I think you're saying. "These are in teh Bible so they can't stink." Maybe I'm misinterpreting you?

And oddly enough:
quote:
I personally think it stinks that God had to incarnate as Jesus and die on the cross because we (humanity) are such sinful idiots.

I happen to think that that's the most beautiful thing in the Bible - the understanding that God pours himself out in love into our world and accepts all the consequences of doing so. Vote for non-stinkiest passage - maybe Phil. 2:1-11.
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
But isn't that basically a piece of sanitizing?

Well, if you take me literally, yes.

(Sigh, now I know how God feels about fundamentalists.)

I wasn't seriously suggesting anyone remove the book of Joshua from their copy of Writings, I was just "dumping a passage I found morally repugnant" on the pile.
I'm no fan of the airbrush.
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
It's actually the impulse to sanitize that concerns me. And I've said enough to indicate that that's there in me too. But we daren't sanitize, and even a too-quick disavowal is dangerous.

Hence I'm actually agreeing with Luigi:
quote:
But Psyduck - I would argue that Leviticus is as important as Jesus because that is the very book that sheds light on how insightful and daring Jesus was. Or to put it another way, it shows just how massive the journey within the OT was. And how far things had to travel to get to Jesus.

And I'd go so far as to say that the meaning of Joshua after Auschwitz is that there's no way back for us to an easy translation of genocide into triumphalism, or the spiritualization of what we can only now see as mass-murder. But we're stuck with it, and we can't disavow it. And I think that the only way to cope with it is to sit on our butts and do some really anguished theological thinking, not least about what we mean by some of the things we sing in in church. The basic point I take from Luigi is that we can't read the Bible unrefracted through the stories of what we now know, where we are now, and how we got here.
 
Posted by Cheesy* (# 3330) on :
 
[boring scientific point]

quote:
Originally posted by Petaflop:
quote:
Originally posted by Oreophagite:
As for things in the Bible that "stink" - well, there's Ezekiel 4:9-17. You won't see that in the Lectionary.

verse 15 (KJV)...
quote:
Then he said unto me, Lo, I have given thee cow's dung for man's dung, and thou shalt prepare thy bread therewith.
After complaining he gets to use cow dung instead. Nothing wrong with cow dung as a fuel: (link).

Cow dung can also be used to make a water purifier: (link)

Actually according to the latter link, the water is purified by using the dung to heat clay to make the purifier.

I doubt that much good would come of using dung itself as the purifier.

Burning excreta under food is a pretty dangerous occupation. Moveover, what your link does not say is that there is a dilemma for a farmer about the use of animal waste. Most studies I've read indicate that the benefits accrued long-term from using manure on the ground as a nutrient source outway the short-term gains of using it as a fuel.

Shit is a pretty inefficient fuel, after all.

[/boring scientific point]

Given low sanitary conditions, I'd say that the prohibition against touching dead bodies, excreta and certain foods was actually very sensible.

C
 
Posted by SteveTom (# 23) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
It's actually the impulse to sanitize that concerns me. And I've said enough to indicate that that's there in me too. But we daren't sanitize, and even a too-quick disavowal is dangerous.

I'd absolutely agree - depending on what precisely you mean by "disavowal".

If you mean that it's dangerous to try to forget Joshua & pretend it isn't there, yes certainly.

If you mean that it's dangerous to condemn too quickly what it teaches, well, we need to ask ourselves unanswerable questions about how differently we would have acted in those circumstances, and how well we understand the realities of iron age life; but still we have to say "To the best of our understanding this is morally indefensible, and our lesson from it is how not to do likewise".
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
And I'd go so far as to say that the meaning of Joshua after Auschwitz is that there's no way back for us to an easy translation of genocide into triumphalism, or the spiritualization of what we can only now see as mass-murder.

But we slaughtered millions of innocent Germans and Japanese, and most Westerners are happy to see it as triumphalism. [Confused]

The fact is that we escaped by the skin of our teeth. The same is also true of Israel, who faced overwhelming odds, yet triumphed by the hand of God.
 
Posted by Teufelchen (# 10158) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
But we slaughtered millions of innocent Germans and Japanese, and most Westerners are happy to see it as triumphalism. [Confused]

The fact is that we escaped by the skin of our teeth. The same is also true of Israel, who faced overwhelming odds, yet triumphed by the hand of God.

Careful with that 'we'. Not everyone here is from a country that was on the Allied side in WW2.

The children of Israel conquered Canaan because God told them to, and they took that land from its inhabitants and lived there instead. The Axis nations attacked their neighbours, and were defeated in retaliation. And US airbases aside, I don't see Germany and Japan overrun with nationals from Allied nations. There is a difference.

T.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Teufelchen:
Careful with that 'we'. Not everyone here is from a country that was on the Allied side in WW2.

Good point. I hope I haven't offended. [Hot and Hormonal]
quote:
Originally posted by Teufelchen:
The children of Israel conquered Canaan because God told them to, and they took that land from its inhabitants and lived there instead. The Axis nations attacked their neighbours, and were defeated in retaliation. And US airbases aside, I don't see Germany and Japan overrun with nationals from Allied nations. There is a difference.

Huge difference. I agree completely. I'm not really defending it.

The point is that the Bible attempts to make a similar case. For the Israelite point of view it made sense. From ours (depending, as you note, on who "us" is) it is obviously a tough sell.
 
Posted by chemincreux (# 10635) on :
 
This my first practice at posting a link. Here's a real juicy one for all you gothic horror
fansThe death of Antiochus Epihanes.
 
Posted by kiwimac (# 10733) on :
 
quote:
The children of Israel conquered Canaan because God told them to, and they took that land from its inhabitants and lived there instead.
The archaeological evidence suggests not so much an act of conquest but more of a slow 'sidling' into Canaan. With the israelites confined mostly to the highlands until they were able to cope with the Phoenecians who lived in the coastal areas.

ISTM that we need to be very careful about reading Jewish Triumphalism as history, it is not necessarily so.

Kiwimac
 
Posted by Psyduck (# 2270) on :
 
Hi, Kiwimac! Good to have you on board. And a first post in Kerygmania - obviously a person of taste!

The peaceful infiltration model does do a great deal more justice to Judges, doesn't it? It's based on the sociology of seminomads living in the 19th century BC in Mesopotamia, but I think it transfers quite well to the 14th-13th centuries in Palestine. Mind you I have a soft spot for the sociological model of Gottwald, too, in which the lack of any archaeological evidence of people coming in from outside, coupled with extensive burning, and the linguistic evidence of loss of high Canaanite linguistic culture, followed after a hiatus of some 50 years by the appearance of Hebrew, signifies that an underclass (the Hapiru?) had taken over.

But the point is that even if you confine the Joshua narratives to central Palestine, they do say some pretty horrible stuff. Wider context is important, though, I agree.
 
Posted by kiwimac (# 10733) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Hi, Kiwimac! Good to have you on board. And a first post in Kerygmania - obviously a person of taste!

The peaceful infiltration model does do a great deal more justice to Judges, doesn't it? It's based on the sociology of seminomads living in the 19th century BC in Mesopotamia, but I think it transfers quite well to the 14th-13th centuries in Palestine. Mind you I have a soft spot for the sociological model of Gottwald, too, in which the lack of any archaeological evidence of people coming in from outside, coupled with extensive burning, and the linguistic evidence of loss of high Canaanite linguistic culture, followed after a hiatus of some 50 years by the appearance of Hebrew, signifies that an underclass (the Hapiru?) had taken over.

But the point is that even if you confine the Joshua narratives to central Palestine, they do say some pretty horrible stuff. Wider context is important, though, I agree.

Psyduck,

Flattery will get you everywhere! (BTW, Psyduck is one of my favourite Pokemon) Yes, I do agree that the infiltration model does do more justice to Judges but also agree that there is some extremely yucky stuff in that there book? [Big Grin]

Grace and peace

Kiwimac
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Kiwimac

Welcome from me too. And applause for spotting Psyduck's origins. This is both for you and the Pokemon character. [Biased]

<tangent>
Confession time - I'm way off the pot on the most up to date archeological understandings. So here are a couple of questions.

1. Which authors do you recommend on gradual infiltration?

2. On the basis of this theory, how historical is the exile in Baylon?

Although not a historical argument, I tend to work on the general understanding that the great "events" in Judaic history were the crucible which created the distinctive Israelite identity, rather than the notion that the search for identity was the myth-generator of Israelite identity and biblical histories. Not so much that I reckon it is all good history - I'm sure there are camp-fire stories in there - but there is probably some sort of core of core events which provide the basis for the OT.

But I'm happy to have my stupidity exposed - and certainly wouldn't mind a push in the right direction on the archeology. Don't think its worth a separate thread at this stage - it may turn out to be quite a good additional illuminator of this one.
<end tangent>
 
Posted by Yakov (# 10943) on :
 
I read in a few liberal Jewish commentaries that Joseph can't possibly be meant to be taken literally, because in subsequent books the Hebrews are dealing with the same people that they supposedly extinguished in Josh.

-ya.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Yakov:
I read in a few liberal Jewish commentaries that Joseph can't possibly be meant to be taken literally, because in subsequent books the Hebrews are dealing with the same people that they supposedly extinguished in Josh.

I assume you mean that it is Joshua that can't possibly be meant to be taken literally. But I'm not aware that any entire people were extinguished in the book. Except perhaps the Anakim, and, almost, the tribe of Benjamin (in Judges 20 & 21).
 
Posted by Choirboi (# 9222) on :
 
I'm surprised that in a thread of this title, no one has mentioned the latest book(2005) by the retired bishop of Newark, John Shelby Spong, entitled The Sins of Scripture . He addresses precisely the issues adressed in this thread. I think he does a fairly good job at addressing the biblical text from its historical context, explaining how culture affects how people understand God's presence and working in their particular age.

I suggest anyone interested in this topic have a read.
 
Posted by Yerevan (# 10383) on :
 
I once heard a sermon which insisted that "we have to like ALL the Bible, even the bits about genocide" (I'm quoting it from memory, but the preacher literally said that sentence).

[Mad]

I first read the Bible as a curious teenager (with a vague assumption that you had to think it was all literally true to be a C) and was so irritated by passages like 1 Timothy 2.11-15 that I wanted nothing more to do with it. Which has implications for the 'Just give them a Bible' school of evangelism...
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
Can someone take a crack at redeeming this one? I'm a bit more troubled by New Testament "stinkage" than by Old Testament babies-against-rocks stuff--I can buy that the latter connects to prophecies and ways of being which were "explained" and "fulfilled" in Jesus (thanks, previous poster!), but I can't get over thinking Jesus was just, well, a bit MEAN in this one:

Matthew 15:22-26 (New International Version)

New International Version (NIV)
Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society


22A Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, "Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is suffering terribly from demon-possession."

23Jesus did not answer a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, "Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us."

24He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel."

25The woman came and knelt before him. "Lord, help me!" she said.

26He replied, "It is not right to take the children's bread and toss it to their dogs."


Okay, it's true that she snaps right back at him and he (contritely?) does end up healing the daughter, but I have a hard time getting over feeling, um, a little pissed at the "dogs" reference.

Are we to understand that Jesus initallly DID believe it wouldn't be right for him to help the daughter, and if the woman hadn't pestered him further the girl would have died, or that the whole thing was a rhetorical flourish since Jesus knew in the beginning that the woman wouldn't give up that easily and wanted to use her faith as an example?

PS 1: sorry i couldn't figure out how to link or bold.
PS 2: those who derail this into the seemingly obligatory squabble about the nature of "demon possession" (see Purgatory and Hell) will find their inboxes cluttered with grow-a-penis spam. [Smile]
 
Posted by xSx (# 7210) on :
 
I think the plagues visited on Egypt during the time of Moses stink.
Not only does all Egypt suffer for something they had little part in (i.e. Pharoah's decision not to let the slaves go), but it's not Pharaoh's fault either.
Every first born son in the land dies because God hardens Pharoah's heart so God's wonders are made plainer.
(See particularly:http://bible.oremus.org/?ql=14539054 )

I can just about see that if Pharoah had just let them go (pretty unlikely IMO) the Israelites might not have realised God had saved them, etc.
But why do there have to be so many plagues?

ETA - I tried to make the link work [Frown] Off to the practice thread!

[ 13. May 2006, 16:57: Message edited by: xSx ]
 
Posted by The Machine Elf (# 1622) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
Are we to understand that Jesus initallly DID believe it wouldn't be right for him to help the daughter, and if the woman hadn't pestered him further the girl would have died, or that the whole thing was a rhetorical flourish since Jesus knew in the beginning that the woman wouldn't give up that easily and wanted to use her faith as an example?

I think how else she might have answered - if she had kept 'shouting after' Jesus and demanding - instead of replying as she did. I read this as her humility being rewarded - she didn't have a right to healing, but acknowledged that it was a small thing compared to Jesus' authority she was asking (like a scrap of food that falls to the floor) - not her tenacity.


TME
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:

Which authors do you recommend on gradual infiltration?

I found a useful summary of the 'creep' theory in the following book:

John Bright, A History of Israel, 3rd edn. London: SCM, 1980.

More recently you may have heard of the "New Chronology" theory that attempts to revise the dating of events at the time and - if correct - would pull the archaeology into line with the biblical data. The argument is that the evidence is there in the archaeology, so to speak, but we have been looking at the wrong time. This theory is still hotly contested, though.
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by The Machine Elf:
she didn't have a right to healing, but acknowledged that it was a small thing compared to Jesus' authority she was asking (like a scrap of food that falls to the floor) - not her tenacity.


thanks for that, Machine Elf--you're right, the woman was, in her approach, more humble than snappish, and i can definitely see an interpretation where Jesus would appreciate and reward that.

but i'm still cranky about it, for two (and probably other) reasons:

1) given that we commonly understand Jesus's mission as ultimately involving ALL of humanity, and indeed one of the more attractive aspects of his mission in his own time was his radical acceptance of people typically rejected by polite Jewish society, why is Jesus initially so small-minded (my gloss, not necessarily the case) about whether it's worth the two words to heal the Samaritan's child? basically, i guess i take issue with the idea that the woman didn't have a right to healing, and i have a hard time getting behind a Christ who initially expresses that idea.

2) the woman wasn't asking for her own healing--she wanted it for her child. how can I get behind a Christ who predicates the survival of a child on either A) the mother's regional affiliation or B) whether the mother hits the right note of humility, persistance, and/or faith? i'm a special education teacher of students with severe special needs: i've worked with parents who love me to pieces and parents who make my life a living, breathing hell. when i go in a room with a severely autistic child, i don't care WHO's mother's son that child is or what that mother's been up to lately: i see a child i need to help. i can't get behind a God or a Christ figure who comes across as doing any less than that. "if you then, being evil..." etc.

i really want to understand these verses in a way that doesn't make Jesus seem either small-minded (if he honestly changed his mind) or manipulative (if he knew all along that he'd heal her in the end). I hope that folks can bear with me as i try to figure it out.
 
Posted by Niënna (# 4652) on :
 
infinite_monkey,

Sometimes putting things like those scriptures into context can help (maybe sometimes it doesn't help at all).

In Matthew 15, the verses before this story, Jesus talks to his disciples and the Pharisees about what comes out of the heart makes a person unclean, "For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false testimony, slander. These are what make a man 'unclean'; but eating with unwashed hands does not make him 'unclean.'" (Matthew 15:19-20).

In the context, I think, culturally - the Canaanites were seens as low-life, unclean, no-gooders (please, bible people who know much more than me - correct me if I'm wrong).

And when Jesus says to this woman (who is considered an unclean, lowlife) "You have great faith," - I think he is really validating her.

If I had to make one observation, I think maybe the way the Rabbis told stories and tried to makes points are definately strange to us 21st century audience.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Niënna:
If I had to make one observation, I think maybe the way the Rabbis told stories and tried to makes points are definately strange to us 21st century audience.

I think this is the heart of the problem. We see our manners and customs as the norm.

There is a saying, "The past is another country; they do things differently there." This episode happened in the past and in another country. If the Canaanite woman had interpreted Jesus's words in the way that's obvious to us, she would have gone away in tears. The fact that she didn't indicates to me that their culture was different.

Moo
 
Posted by Gextvedde (# 11084) on :
 
My Biblical studies teacher recently made the comment “human anger is usually egocentric whereas Gods anger is always about injustice” and I thought to myself “In the Bible? Really”? So my bits for dumping are Numbers 11 (and plenty of other parts in the same book) where God keeps having a paddy, bursting into flame and killing loads of people in the process. See also the test for an unfaithful wife in Ch 5 where she has to drink “bitter waters” and if she dies, she was guilty. Try suggesting that to Relate and see how far it gets you.

(Ps My first attempt at providing a link so appologies if it doesn't work).
 
Posted by GrahamR (# 11299) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
I found a useful summary of the 'creep' theory in the following book:

John Bright, A History of Israel, 3rd edn. London: SCM, 1980.

More recently you may have heard of the "New Chronology" theory that attempts to revise the dating of events at the time and - if correct - would pull the archaeology into line with the biblical data. The argument is that the evidence is there in the archaeology, so to speak, but we have been looking at the wrong time. This theory is still hotly contested, though.

William Dever is more up-to-date than Bright: What Did the Biblical Writers Know and When Did They Know It? and Who Were the Early Israelites and Where Did They Come From? I don't entirely agree with him, but they're pretty good summaries. He argues that whilst a minority of Israelites may have come from Egypt most were disaffected Canaanites- and draws a parallel between modern US citizens celebrating thanksgiving, whether or not their ancestors were on the Mayflower.

Rohl's "new chronology" doesn't stand up to the archaeological evidence, as he needs to move Egyptian chronology by about 300 years, which you just can't do (it's better dated than that). Prof Finklestein from Tel Aviv university has got his own "Low Chronology", but about the only archaeologists who think he's right are his grad students... [Snigger]

Also, although the Book of Joshua tries to give the impression that the Israelites got rid of all the non-Israelites, the book of Judges (3:5-6) gives a rather different impression:
quote:
The Israelites lived among the Canaanites, Hittites, Amorites, Perizzites, Hivites and Jebusites. They took their daughters in marriage and gave their own daughters to their sons, and served their gods.
Of course, this also raises the question of how, archaeologically, you'd be able to spot the Israelites in the first place... [Eek!]
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Psyduck:
Sorry - I thought copying automatically included the link. Here's the charmoing bit in Question: Ps. 137
quote:

[7] Remember, O LORD, against the E'domites
the day of Jerusalem,
how they said, "Rase it, rase it!
Down to its foundations!"
[8] O daughter of Babylon, you devastator!
Happy shall he be who requites you
with what you have done to us!
[9] Happy shall he be who takes your little ones
and dashes them against the rock!



This expresses genuine human emotion and is better uttered than censored.
 
Posted by Gextvedde (# 11084) on :
 
I must admit, I find this less difficult because it’s a person expressing their utter anger and despair. Someone once told me that the key is in the word “their” which can imply the meaning “they have done this to us, let it happen back to them”. Ok so it doesn’t quite fit with loving ones enemies but I can’t imagine many of us having watched our own children dashed against rocks thinking too differently (or maybe I’m just a crap person). Anyway, as I said, personally I find this less troubling than instances where God directly commands some pretty appalling things.
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:


There is a saying, "The past is another country; they do things differently there." This episode happened in the past and in another country. If the Canaanite woman had interpreted Jesus's words in the way that's obvious to us, she would have gone away in tears. The fact that she didn't indicates to me that their culture was different.

Moo

Thanks--that makes a lot of sense. I still think the quote is kind of jarring and not much in keeping with the spirit of Jesus in every other word he said, but I can absolutely see the possibility that something in that exchange must have "softened" it for the original audience.

Now, can you justify Jesus' wanton attack on the defenseless fig tree? matthew 21:19
I have insanely high standards of conduct for messianic figures. [Smile]
 
Posted by Amethyst (# 11068) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:


There is a saying, "The past is another country; they do things differently there." This episode happened in the past and in another country. If the Canaanite woman had interpreted Jesus's words in the way that's obvious to us, she would have gone away in tears. The fact that she didn't indicates to me that their culture was different.

Moo

Thanks--that makes a lot of sense. I still think the quote is kind of jarring and not much in keeping with the spirit of Jesus in every other word he said, but I can absolutely see the possibility that something in that exchange must have "softened" it for the original audience.


Just to add another bit to the Canaanite woman’s story: David H. Stern, in his ‘Jewish New Testament Commentary’ has some interesting comments on this, including pointing out that the word used by the woman translates as ‘little dogs’ or ‘pet dogs’, being fed under the table. He also says that Jesus’s words are in effect ‘a straightforward Middle-Eastern style friendly joke’ (bit complicated to go into here, but it sounds reasonable as he explains it).

I think it is right that we project our own assumptions and reactions on the past, as Moo has said. This is why I find commentaries such as Stern’s so fascinating, as he illuminates stories and actions which we sometimes fail to understand, because our culture is not that of Jews living in 1st century Judea.

I'll have to check and see what he says about the fig tree....
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
Now, can you justify Jesus' wanton attack on the defenseless fig tree? matthew 21:19
I have insanely high standards of conduct for messianic figures. [Smile]

Jesus appears to have been obsessed with fruit. Maybe He had an unhappy encounter with fruitless trees as a child. He often pledged violence against trees without fruit:
quote:
Matthew 3:10 Therefore every tree which does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.

Matthew 7:19 Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.

Matthew 12:33 “Either make the tree good and its fruit good, or else make the tree bad and its fruit bad; for a tree is known by its fruit.

Matthew 21:41 “He will destroy those wicked men miserably, and lease his vineyard to other vinedressers who will render to him the fruits in their seasons.”

Matthew 21:43 “Therefore I say to you, the kingdom of God will be taken from you and given to a nation bearing the fruits of it."

John 15:2 Every branch in Me that does not bear fruit He takes away; and every branch that bears fruit He prunes, that it may bear more fruit.

So the attack on the fig tree is in keeping with His frequent threats. The tree should have expected it. [Disappointed]

I don't think, though, that He was hasty or irrational in this vendetta. Earlier He had the same problem with another fig tree, but He gave it a second chance:
quote:
Luke 13.6 He also spoke this parable: “A certain man had a fig tree planted in his vineyard, and he came seeking fruit on it and found none. 7 Then he said to the keeper of his vineyard, ‘Look, for three years I have come seeking fruit on this fig tree and find none. Cut it down; why does it use up the ground?’ 8 But he answered and said to him, ‘Sir, let it alone this year also, until I dig around it and fertilize it. 9 And if it bears fruit, well. But if not, after that you can cut it down.’”
It is easy to conclude that He is the master who owned the tree. He gave the tree another chance. [Tear]

By the end of gospels, however, it should be obvious to everyone that the tree was out of chances. [Frown]
 
Posted by Amethyst (# 11068) on :
 
Freddy: [Overused] [Killing me]
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
Thanks much, Amethyst and Freddy, for the wonderful blend of insight and chuckles I've come to love about this crazy ship.

Jesus seems equally unpleased with goats--perhaps there's a connection somewhere.
 
Posted by Liverpool fan (# 11424) on :
 
A lot in the Bible is very dodgy. That's why a lot of people steer away from it, especially when the dodgy texts and other ones are abused.

Nearly all of the Bible is written from a viewpoint of persecution and a desire to have land. Therefore all sorts of violent things got attributed to God. And I'm not just talking about the Old Testament.
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
The same passage that bothers Infinite Monkey bothers me. (Gentile mother of demon-possessed child gets ignored and called a dog.) Wonder why?

A new problem just came to me today. A friend who is new to Christianity and an alcoholic told me that his one problem with Jesus was, "He was a drinker." I'd never thought of Jesus in just those terms. Are we even sure that he did drink regularly?
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
I'd bet just about everyone drank regularly- that or get dysentery from nasty water.
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
That's pretty much what I told him, Lyda*Rose -- that wine was used, even in the children's water, as a disinfectant. It was only later that I wondered about it.

Wasn't John the Baptist an abstainer? I thought there was a sect at that time that avoided all wine, women and barbers.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Twilight:
Wasn't John the Baptist an abstainer? I thought there was a sect at that time that avoided all wine, women and barbers.

I think John the Baptist was a Nazirite. He seems to have followed the rules for Nazirites.

Moo

[ 20. May 2006, 23:21: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
Thank you, Moo. That's what I was trying to think of.
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Niënna:
If I had to make one observation, I think maybe the way the Rabbis told stories and tried to makes points are definately strange to us 21st century audience.

I think this is the heart of the problem. We see our manners and customs as the norm.

There is a saying, "The past is another country; they do things differently there." This episode happened in the past and in another country. If the Canaanite woman had interpreted Jesus's words in the way that's obvious to us, she would have gone away in tears. The fact that she didn't indicates to me that their culture was different.

Moo

It could be said of everything in the Bible that it happened in the past and in another country -- yet we still try to understand it.

I don't think we can conclude that if the Canaanite woman felt insulted she would have gone away in tears. Quite often, mothers put up with insults and derision from doctors and teachers for the sake of their children. This woman had been following Jesus for some time. She had been crying out to him over and over, trying to get his attention even though he was pointedly ignoring her. It would seem that she had heard that he was a true healer, perhaps she had actually witnessed healing miracles. I think most mothers would put up with almost any amount of insult and follow for miles if they truly believed the healer could cure their sick child.

Jesus' words seem fairly clear to me. He says he is ignoring her because he
"was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel."
and

"It is not right to take the children's bread and toss it to their dogs."

In short, he has been ignoring her all day because she is not Jewish. If she had committed a breach of manners or custom then he would surely have mentioned that as a reason rather than state the reasons he did give.

He does grant her wish and heal her daughter because she had great faith in him. If she had given up after only an hour or so of pleading she would have gone home and her child would not have been healed -- because she wasn't Jewish.
 
Posted by craigb (# 11318) on :
 
I think there is some past history being dealt with here about the Cananite woman, regarding whom the cananites worshipped as God. It sounds like she is saying, yes you are lord, and I don't need much of your time, just a crumb of your power is all it takes.

There is a test of her faith, and I don't think Jesus is knocking her at all, and the lesson we learn from it is that when heaven seems quiet to keep knocking, to keep asking because we shall recieve if we don't give up.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Infinite_monkey, I once wrote a sermon about the Canaanite woman and Jesus' dealings with her. In my opinion, nothing Jesus said or did (before the very end, at least) was on the "straight." It was a test. NOT a test of the woman--he knew her type already--desperate, gutsy, good sense of humor, never-say-die. He knew that she could handle what he was about to do, especially from the perspective of the final result. No, it was a test of the DISCIPLES, who failed it totally.

Basically, on this one single occasion Jesus behaved exactly as the small-minded bigoted disciples wanted him to--ignoring the foreigner, walking past the beggar, refusing to waste any more precious time or energy on the no-hopers. He did everything they wanted. And he watched them out of the corner of his eye to see whether they had learned anything during their time with him--anything at all about compassion, love or mercy.

They SHOULD have spoken up for the woman. Even a simple, "Uh, Lord, there's a woman following you, aren't you going to stop for her like you usually do?" would have been a passing grade. But no--they were too darn pleased to see him behaving like a proper Jew and rabbi for once. They egged him on, even when he became totally outrageous by calling her a dog.

So finally he gave up on them, turned to the woman, and showed his true face of love and mercy. He reverted to type. How disappointed the disciples must have been! But how much more disappointed Jesus must have been in them.

And the woman? Perhaps it WAS hard on her to have to wait a few extra minutes for the happy ending. But I doubt she even thought of that in the end. And in a very real sense, Jesus honored her and her great faith by using her as a teaching partner in his effort to educate the disciples. I think she would have felt it was worth it in view of his purpose. What an honor--to know that God thinks you are tough enough to stand a little adversity in order to work in partnership with him to help others.

Though I doubt the disciples saw it that way. [Devil]
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
Thank you Lamb Chopped! You've been an instrument of prayer for me. I've been wrestling with that one for the past three days and nights.

I'm sure you're right. If you put, even the slightest hint of a question into the reading of verses 24 and 26 then it's even more obvious that Jesus is teaching a lesson.
 
Posted by JimS (# 10766) on :
 
Surely the natural way to read this passage is that it shows Jesus learning about his mission. He is focused on his role as the suffering servant, there to redeem the Jews and in this passage he realises that his ministry is to gentiles as well.
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
JimS, I tried on that view for a bit the other night but finally rejected it, because I thought that things I'd read over the years from the more Learned Shipmates, tended toward the belief that Jesus understood his own mission very well.

However, since I am decidedly not one of the LS -- I could have that wrong.

[ 23. May 2006, 11:02: Message edited by: Twilight ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Twilight
If she had committed a breach of manners or custom then he would surely have mentioned that as a reason rather than state the reasons he did give.

I didn't mean that the Canaanite woman had committed any breach of customs. I meant that we, in our culture, cannot readily understand the meaning of Jesus's words because we do not know the cultural context.

Amethyst made this point above,
quote:

Just to add another bit to the Canaanite woman’s story: David H. Stern, in his ‘Jewish New Testament Commentary’ has some interesting comments on this, including pointing out that the word used by the woman translates as ‘little dogs’ or ‘pet dogs’, being fed under the table. He also says that Jesus’s words are in effect ‘a straightforward Middle-Eastern style friendly joke’ (bit complicated to go into here, but it sounds reasonable as he explains it).

I think it is right that we project our own assumptions and reactions on the past, as Moo has said. This is why I find commentaries such as Stern’s so fascinating, as he illuminates stories and actions which we sometimes fail to understand, because our culture is not that of Jews living in 1st century Judea.

No way can I see Jesus's words as "a straightforward Middle-Eastern style friendly joke", but if someone who knows the culture says so, I'll take his word for it. (I trust David Stern's accuracy.)

Moo
 
Posted by Twilight (# 2832) on :
 
My Harper Collins study Bible says: "lit. small dogs, puppies or house dogs, but still a very uncomplimentary term for Gentiles."

I think it really doesn't matter whether the dogs were pets or strays and if Jesus had been making jokes about the inferiority of Gentiles it makes the passage even worse. Just imagine if the "pets" were house slaves to the whites and you'll see how offensive the passage might seem to some people. Likewise, the idea that Jesus was prissily ignoring her because her voice was strident, was also making the passage seem worse to me.

I'm sorry to keep going on about this, Moo, but Lamb Chopped's version is the only one I can entertain and not have my faith shaken a bit.
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
Lamb Chopped. I think I borrowed that sermon last year!

Jeff
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Gosh, [Hot and Hormonal] [Yipee]
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
Being a newbie here, I'm reluctant (but not sufficiently to keep me from posting this) to risk violating the integrity of the thread here, but I have a take on the whole "it stinks" thing.

I think it's awfully important for those of us who cringe at the word "inerrant" to be able to talk about Scriptural authority with those for whom that word is important. I have come to a place that gives equal authority to all the texts of Scripture, seeing them all as equally revelatory.

Since they are all revelatory, they are all inspired and intended, and in some sense, "inerrant." Now, what they reveal is not always God. In many cases, what they reveal is my penchant for creating God in my violent self-image, but this is also God's intent. To show me myself. How I separate the two is by measuring the texts against Jesus. ("Philip, if you have seen me, you have seen the Father...)

This means I use Jesus as a "lens" by which I read the texts, both his life and his own manner of reading Scripture. This way of reading is supported by the Biblical text itself. Second Corinthians 3 bears this out.

This permits me to speak to "inerrantists" in a way that permits, even encourages conversation, and it still preserves the reality that much of what I read up to and including Malachi is not about God.

Hope this isn't out of place here.

Jeff
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Infinite_monkey, I once wrote a sermon about the Canaanite woman and Jesus' dealings with her. In my opinion, nothing Jesus said or did (before the very end, at least) was on the "straight." It was a test. NOT a test of the woman--he knew her type already--desperate, gutsy, good sense of humor, never-say-die. He knew that she could handle what he was about to do, especially from the perspective of the final result. No, it was a test of the DISCIPLES, who failed it totally.

Thanks, Lamb Chopped--that's a good way to look at it.
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Welcome aboard PaxChristi: We have a special board on the ship for the more regular/thorny issues. Innerancy is one of them. The thread dealing with this issue is here.

Pyx_e, Kerygmania Host.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
{bump}
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for bumping. I think I may find Pax Christi's comments useful wandering around the ship as well as round the bible. I'd always thought of Dead Horses dismissively - the issues there aren't dead at all, however smelly some of the older arguments may be getting. How about a new thread: This is in Dead Horses, but it doesn't stink! [Two face]

[ 06. January 2007, 08:28: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by justlooking (# 12079) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LutheranChik:
I recently had the opportunity to read the Book of Hosea, and I was struck by some of the misogynistic images/language in it. That isn't the tone of the whole thing, of course -- you've got God cast as the crazy Lover absolutely besotted by love for Israel, the Bad Girl -- but I can see where parts of it would be very troubling to, say, a woman who has been the victim of domestic abuse.

Hosea's wife was unfaithful - apparently she had been a Baal worshipper and a temple prostitue and several times returned to these practices. Despite everything he never stopped loving her and always took her back. He didn't divorce her. It can read very diferently in the light of this understanding. Hosea is using his personal experiences to show God as a wronged husband - heartbroken, but still loving and always willing to forgive and take the unfaithful wife(Israel) back. It shows that we can abandon God but God will never abandon us.

[ 06. January 2007, 10:52: Message edited by: justlooking ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by justlooking:
Hosea is using his personal experiences to show God as a wronged husband - heartbroken, but still loving and always willing to forgive and take the unfaithful wife(Israel) back. It shows that we can abandon God but God will never abandon us.

The way I read it, God told Hosea to marry a prostitute so that his experiences would be an illustration for Israel.

Hosea is not just using his own experience to show what the relationship between God and Israel is. At God's behest he set himself up for experiences that would reflect this relationship.

This kind of "enactment" is done by other OT prophets also. I always forget which prophet it was who was told by God to lie on one side for a very long time, then lie on the other side for a very long time.

Moo
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I always forget which prophet it was who was told by God to lie on one side for a very long time, then lie on the other side for a very long time.

Moo

That would be me when asleep, Moo.

Either that, or Ezekiel.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Hosea is not just using his own experience to show what the relationship between God and Israel is. At God's behest he set himself up for experiences that would reflect this relationship.

This kind of "enactment" is done by other OT prophets also.

This is exactly the way that my denomination views these peculiar events. They then take this a step further and suggest that this was also true of what happened to Jesus:

To quote:
quote:
The prophets represented their church's condition relative to its teachings from the Word and its life according to them, as the following stories from the Word make clear:
[2] By these actions the prophet Ezekiel carried the injustices done by the house of Israel and the house of Judah; but he did not take away those injustices or atone for them, he only represented them and made them visible.

The same thing is meant by the statement about the Lord that says, "He bore our diseases, he carried our pains. Jehovah put on him the injustices committed by us all. Through his knowledge he justified many as he himself carried their injustices" (Isaiah 53:4, 6, 11).

From all this it is clear that "bearing iniquities" or "carrying injustices" does not mean taking them away; it means representing the desecration of the Word's truth. (True Christianity 130)

To me this seems like a reasonable explanation, not only of why the prophets did such strange things, but of why such terrible things happened to Jesus.
 
Posted by Jenyt (# 8800) on :
 
I'm not sure whether this really requires a separate thread, but here goes:

There are many passages and issues in the Bible which we are often taught to ignore these days, for example church leaders often say that creationism isn't true, and that we should also ignore Paul's prohibition of women preachers in 1 Timothy 2:11-15. My question is essentially how far can we ignore certain passages of the Bible without simply picking and mixing what we choose to believe. I'm really primarily interested in what the NT says on certain issues.
 
Posted by Teufelchen (# 10158) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jenyt:
I'm not sure whether this really requires a separate thread

I think it does, and moreover, the issue of creationism is a Dead Horse and ought to be discussed on the appropriate thread.

Additionally, I'm not sure we are taught to disbelieve the creation story - rather, by using our God-given intelligence, we can tell for ourselves that it cannot be literally true.

T.
 
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I always forget which prophet it was who was told by God to lie on one side for a very long time, then lie on the other side for a very long time.

That would be me when asleep, Moo.

Either that, or Ezekiel.

Which is strange enough, but not quite as bouncing-off-the-walls crazy as the cooking requirements that went with it:
quote:
God: Cook on a fire of your own poo

Ezekiel: Erm, isn't that a bit, you know, unclean? I know you're quite hot on the whole clean/unclean thing, isn't there another option?

God: OK. Special favour, just for you. You can cook on cow dung instead. Now don't say I never give you anything!

(Ezekiel 4:12-15, New Gumby Version)

Which is actually one of my favourite passages, just because it's so daft, but I can seamlessly link it to the OP by mentioning the smell (or stink) it would have caused. [Big Grin]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jenyt:
for example church leaders often say that creationism isn't true

Not really. What is more likely is that they say that creationism IS true, but that some people misread the Bible as saying it took six days of twenty-four hours is a misreading of the Bible.

What the Bible actually says is true - what some people say it says might not b,
 
Posted by Petaflop (# 9804) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jenyt:
There are many passages and issues in the Bible which we are often taught to ignore these days, for example church leaders often say that creationism isn't true, and that we should also ignore Paul's prohibition of women preachers in 1 Timothy 2:11-15. My question is essentially how far can we ignore certain passages of the Bible without simply picking and mixing what we choose to believe. I'm really primarily interested in what the NT says on certain issues.

The problems are quite a lot more complex than whether or not we can ignore some bits. Everyone ignores something and then comes up with a reason for doing so: for example, the OT purity laws , despite Mt 5 and Lk 16 [link].

More significantly, lots of people have studied the bible prayerfully and at length, and read it different ways. For example, it is often said that evangelicals often place great emphasis on Paul's writings, wheras other Christians give greater weight to the gospels.

There is also a difference of focus: do we look at individual verses through a microscope, or do we step back and see the whole story. As an evangelical I was often encouraged to learn bible verses to quote to myself and others. I now think that was shortsighted, it would be equally or perhaps more beneficial to learn to retell whole stories, in my own words. If instead of poring over each scentence attributed to Jesus in the gospels and meshing it with everything else he said, we can step back and see who he is, how he behaves, and how his story unfolds, maybe we can gain a more rounded picture of the God whom we worship.
 
Posted by Janine (# 3337) on :
 
Might also help if we -- when we are considering one of those horrible passages -- if we love people while we investigate what it means to believe XYZ doctrine based on passage XYZ.
 
Posted by Jenyt (# 8800) on :
 
Thanks Petaflop! But surely if we all focus on different parts of the Bible, e.g. the gospels or the epistles, surely we're bound to come out with very different view of God. So do you think it would be better to focus more on what Christ said, as God, rather than Paul who was after all only a man?

I wasn't really wanting to discuss the rightness and wrongness of various interpretations of biblical passages, such as creationism: I agree that is definately dead horse material!
 
Posted by Flubb (# 918) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I assume you mean that it is Joshua that can't possibly be meant to be taken literally. But I'm not aware that any entire people were extinguished in the book. Except perhaps the Anakim, and, almost, the tribe of Benjamin (in Judges 20 & 21).

I heard a sermon a few years ago on the genocides, and the preacher pointed out that from every group that was supposed to be 'exterminated' </dalekvoice>, there is a story about 1 of them being redeemed. Can't remember a single example, but it was interesting.
 
Posted by John Spears (# 11694) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
A classical bit of Psyduck questioning. Can I provoke you a bit more? We'll need to avoid a Purg dimension and also a Dead Horse, but there is a really important general issue of Biblical Interpretation here. Here's the deep issue.

1. Is it possible to hold to the principle that scripture is authoritative and inspired (that's not the same as inerrant) and yet be open to the possibility that some stuff in the Bible stinks!

My personal answer to that is "yes". There are plenty of "stinky bits" in the OT for example, whose only real value today can be that they serve as an example of how not to think and behave. Here is a "charming" extract from Psalm 137.

Thats a good point - for example the Psalmists utter calls for destruction upon his enemies - it could be understood that God wanted it to be there, but that it was there as an example of how NOT to be.

But I have more concern about the bits where it says "God did " .... x & y.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by John Spears
Thats a good point - for example the Psalmists utter calls for destruction upon his enemies - it could be understood that God wanted it to be there, but that it was there as an example of how NOT to be.

I think it's also there to show us normal human nature. When someone has done something truly terrible to someone or something you love (in this case Jerusalem) these fantasies of revenge are quite common. That's not to say the psalmist would actually have bashed in the heads of Babylonian babies if he had a chance. I see this as a way of venting.

There is a thread about the cursing psalms.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Does plagiarism stink? In the bible I don't think it necessarily does, but shouldn't we be aware, now, that some texts ascribed to the great and good were done so by their followers, and their true authorship hidden not to deceive, but from humility?

And who really sang the Magnificat?
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Bump!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
bump
 
Posted by SpikeyPants (# 12953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LutheranChik:
I recently had the opportunity to read the Book of Hosea, and I was struck by some of the misogynistic images/language in it. That isn't the tone of the whole thing, of course -- you've got God cast as the crazy Lover absolutely besotted by love for Israel, the Bad Girl -- but I can see where parts of it would be very troubling to, say, a woman who has been the victim of domestic abuse.

Hey, I saw your blogspot. You seem like a cool person. I just had to tell you that. I send warm wishes your way! Perhaps we can send emails?
[Razz]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
{bump}
 
Posted by tallmaninthecnr (# 15429) on :
 
19 But God struck down some of the men of Beth Shemesh, putting seventy of them to death because they had looked into the ark of the LORD. The people mourned because of the heavy blow the LORD had dealt them,

Reading Samuel last night and came to this passage, and maybe it was the mood I was in but it made me stop and close my bible and switch the light out and lie there wondering how do I ever make sense of all this? How do I pass over verses like this by appealing to the argument about what God is 'really' like a revealed by Jesus in the NT, it just seems a poor argument. I know there are other verses that cause just as much distress in the OT but this was my one for the day.
 
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on :
 
Shipmates, there are crew members on 'Divine Purpose in the Old Testament' defending God's command to commit genocide against the Amalekites (1 Samuel 15). I suggest you all take a look if you haven't already.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Guilty as charged. We think it was staged, a setup.

16 "But, indeed, for this reason I have allowed you to remain, in order to show you My power and in order to proclaim My name through all the earth. Exodus 9

17For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, "FOR THIS VERY PURPOSE I RAISED YOU UP, TO DEMONSTRATE MY POWER IN YOU, AND THAT MY NAME MIGHT BE PROCLAIMED THROUGHOUT THE WHOLE EARTH." Romans 9

The Bible uses unfortunate choice in words: fear God, glorify God, proclaim His name, give Him His dues, honour. What doesn't seem to get across is the idea that we are family, and we need to include Him in our plans, so that lost family members know where "home" is.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
{bump}
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
[tangent]We don't need no stinkin' no-post-in-two-weeks-and-you're-out rule. This is Kerygmania, baby! We've got millennium on our side![/tangent]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
[tangent]We don't need no stinkin' no-post-in-two-weeks-and-you're-out rule. This is Kerygmania, baby! We've got millennium on our side![/tangent]

Indeed! In the scale of things we have:

[1] Teenage Time (very short span - nanoseconds)
[2] Adult Time ("In my day...")
[3] Generational Time ("There used to be fields all round here...")
[4] Historical Time (1066 and All That)
[5] Geological Time ("Give or take 20 million years or so")
[6] Universe Time ("Shortly after eight billion years ago...", and finally
[7] Kerygmania Time ("Bump").

Purgatory Time overlaps between [1] and [2], I think, depending on the age of the poster.

Anyway, just to show that there is always something to add (and take away when no one is noticing) to threads here, I pop in a thesis affecting texts impacted by olfactory issues.

The Bible is an inherited collection of texts held together by ancestral communal agreement. The texts carry import just as much as the concept of 'canon.'

Therefore each and every text must be taken seriously as part of the whole. Failure to do so risks ineffective or even incorrect reading of the whole.

The onus is on those who seek to ignore or remove segments of the whole to provide a justification for doing so. Such validation must be able to support not just the rationale for engaging in an excision exercise, but also the resulting product (the reading outcome).

Open for testing!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I like the idea of "ancestral communal agreement" as a preservative/adhesive. I'm sure the aboriginal peoples do too. Not to mention the Chinese (because that's probably against the 10C).

It's not that odd bits stink and need cutting out. They are very useful. They should be preserved forever in formaldehyde, as examples of what we all*, God help us, are capable of.

* "All" in the generic, not an individual, sense. My wife is not capable of genocide. I am incapable of finding the delete button when I need it most. But between us, and with a few angry mates....

[ 09. August 2011, 18:50: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I like the idea of "ancestral communal agreement" as a preservative/adhesive. I'm sure the aboriginal peoples do too. Not to mention the Chinese (because that's probably against the 10C).

It's not that odd bits stink and need cutting out. They are very useful. They should be preserved forever in formaldehyde, as examples of what we all*, God help us, are capable of.

* "All" in the generic, not an individual, sense. My wife is not capable of genocide. I am incapable of finding the delete button when I need it most. But between us, and with a few angry mates....

Yes, I've never been a great fan of the arguments proposed in favour of liberalism. To my kind the biblical writers nailed the human condition on the head by pointing out that we are all fundamentally flawed and would jump a queue if we thought we could get away with it. Or riot on nice summer evenings when there's nothing worth watching on TV. Or commit genocide when the husband's not looking...
 
Posted by lilyswinburne (# 12934) on :
 
I'm not sure if this is a new topic or not, but I am interested in which daily lectionary has the least amount of ickiness in it. I suspect that the Catholic daily Mass readings, which only schedule 13.5 percent of the OT, and cuts out the violent bits of the Psalms, probably meets that criteria.

(Statistic from http://catholic-resources.org/Lectionary/Statistics.htm)

I thought I read an Episcopalian boasting "we read the WHOLE Bible" but now I can't find the reference.

Lily
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilyswinburne:
I thought I read an Episcopalian boasting "we read the WHOLE Bible" but now I can't find the reference.

I would be very surprised if this were true, although I can imagine some fanboy saying it. Why would any lectionary send folks through all those "begats," or through all that priestly instruction on what to sacrifice when, or how to build a tabernacle and what to furnish it with?

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Chorister (# 473) on :
 
S'OK, if Anglicans base their authority on Scripture, Tradition and Reason, they only have to read 1/3 of the whole Bible. [Biased]
 
Posted by The Silent Acolyte (# 1158) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tclune:
quote:
Originally posted by lilyswinburne:
I thought I read an Episcopalian boasting "we read the WHOLE Bible" but now I can't find the reference.

I would be very surprised if this were true, although I can imagine some fanboy saying it. Why would any lectionary send folks through all those "begats," or through all that priestly instruction on what to sacrifice when, or how to build a tabernacle and what to furnish it with?
I've got no brief for lectionaries sending folk through the entire corpus of Scripture, but please allow this fanboy to step up to the mark.

Matthew 1:1-16 (the father of) and Luke 3:23-38 (the son of God) are both eminently readable and preachable. Was it Matthew that, formerly, was the eucharistic gospel lection for Feast of the Holy Name?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I'm not sure if this is the right board. But have we had anywhere a discussion of how and where the various books of the New Testament came to be?

How closely acquainted with Mark were the early readers of Luke? Would they have noticed the differences, as well as the similarities?

Was the Codex Sinaiticus read only by holy locust-eaters? At what point in the church's history did writers dare to publish letters to augment those of Paul. Would Paul have been annoyed by Matthew?

And so on. I know there are bound to be arguments about particular dates, but I can't seem to keep a simplified overview in my head.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Um. That probably ought to be a separate thread. "Where did it all come from?" might be better than "Where did it all go - " (Choose your own epithet).
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I like the idea of "ancestral communal agreement" as a preservative/adhesive. I'm sure the aboriginal peoples do too. Not to mention the Chinese (because that's probably against the 10C).

It's not that odd bits stink and need cutting out. They are very useful. They should be preserved forever in formaldehyde, as examples of what we all*, God help us, are capable of.

* "All" in the generic, not an individual, sense. My wife is not capable of genocide. I am incapable of finding the delete button when I need it most. But between us, and with a few angry mates....

Yes, I've never been a great fan of the arguments proposed in favour of liberalism. To my kind the biblical writers nailed the human condition on the head by pointing out that we are all fundamentally flawed and would jump a queue if we thought we could get away with it. Or riot on nice summer evenings when there's nothing worth watching on TV. Or commit genocide when the husband's not looking...
Showing up the potential is quite different from condoning such actions.

Especially in the name of God.

Long live liberalism.

[ 13. August 2011, 13:38: Message edited by: Evensong ]
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
How closely acquainted with Mark were the early readers of Luke? Would they have noticed the differences, as well as the similarities?

I suspect that Luke's community (Boeotia?, well-off members of the Roman establishment) had never heard of Mark's gospel. Mark wrote for a different community (Syria? certainly persecutued Christians on the margins of society).
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Showing up the potential is quite different from condoning such actions.

Especially in the name of God.

Long live liberalism.

The dead end that classic liberalism finds itself in, though, is that in order to find a publicly justifiable ground upon which to judge the action (not condoning it), it has to deny the potential.

In other words, it cannot grant the thesis that humans are fundamentally flawed without also condoning the action. The action follows from the nature and if a human, being free from ulterior constraints (God, Church, Academy, State, or whatever), has a flawed nature then that human has no valid guiding light to direct it away from flawed actions – and ultimately from actions contrary to human life. It follows that philosophically, if liberalism is to avoid that particular dead end, it needs to disavow the fundamentally flawed nature of humanity and assume that humans are fundamentally good. This permits the concept that humans are capable of ultimate good.

Unfortunately, that does rather run counter to the 'common sense' of millennia, of which the biblical writings are just one witness.

Grant the potential based on a fundamental flaw, however, and one is then able to assess the action in the light of other criteria. One set of such criteria is provided from within the biblical setting. There we find a holistic attempt to take human nature seriously and to place it against a measure so that it can be assessed (judged). The challenge is to take such a canon of criteria holistically, because it has been collected, collated, and disseminated holistically. Christians (whether they like it or not) have placed themselves under such an authority – an act that is somewhat illiberal (disavowing freedom from authority)! It follows that a believer must take the entire set of texts seriously and port them into his or her worldview / belief system / regulation for action. Any attempt to ignore or excise parts that don't fit one's current worldview (etc.) must be justified publicly – i.e., grounded on an alternate test of validity that can be reasoned out in public.

In saying “ take the entire set of texts seriously” I am not advocating a blind literalistic reading of all the texts. Rather I am suggesting that a serious study is one that treats each text on its merits as God's word in human words, putting oneself in the shoes of the author and audience of the time and walking a mile in those shoes, taking the textual and historical context seriously, so as to do justice to the text. If a text condones an action in the name of God, that has to be taken seriously first before any consideration can be given as to its current applicability. To do otherwise would be to impose a foreign concept of 'god' on God and to misinterpret and misunderstand his nature (and thus to risk misreading his will in respect of human action).

I'm not sure what philosophical position this is. It's not liberalism, but I don't think it is conservatism, either, as both terms have been understood over the past couple of hundred years. 'Critical realism' is one possible tag.
 
Posted by Penny S (# 14768) on :
 
A few points, maybe trivial. A few years ago I started reading through everything from Genesis 1. after a bit I started putting in markers to what I was calling "the bad bits". after a bit further, when it was getting tricky to close the book effectively, I stopped. I can't remember exactly where, but I had certainly reached the Levite's concubine. The bad bits tended to two themes, genocide, or maltreatment of women. In some cases, both. I began to feel that the book had nothing much to say to me.

In the maltreatment of women, the period issue is not simply the treatment of the normal cycle. The woman Jesus healed was completely cut off from the congregation and society in general, because the flow was continuous. In Bede, Augustine writes to Gregory on the subject of excluding menstruating women from the eucharist. Gregory, very wisely, advised that if a woman felt that it was appropriate not to take part out of respect, that was good, but that if she felt she should take part out of worshipful feelings, that was good too. I did hear, at the time I left the Anglicans because of stupid arguments against women's ordination, one priest use the possibility that a woman might be menstruating, and he wouldn't know, as a reason why women should not become priests. He did not explain why this was important, and no superior told him the idea was inappropriate. (It was the latter failing that added to my feeling that I didn't belong in a place with Bronze age ideas like that - and I bet he didn't feel the same about the male causes of ritual uncleanliness.)

Thirdly, the use of cattle dung in food preparation. In India, it is used as a regularly renewed screed for the kitchen floor, and is regarded as a means of ensuring cleanliness. I'm not aware of any work on the truth of this idea.

Penny
 
Posted by Seraphim (# 14676) on :
 
quote:
Remember, O LORD, against the E'domites
the day of Jerusalem,
how they said, "Rase it, rase it!
Down to its foundations!"
[8] O daughter of Babylon, you devastator!
Happy shall he be who requites you
with what you have done to us!
[9] Happy shall he be who takes your little ones
and dashes them against the rock!

In Orthodox churches this is a very frequent hymn.

I've read that various saints and fathers did not read this passage something to be applied literally , but rather regarded the Amalekites as representative of all those forces of evil that attempt to remove us from the path of faith and righteousness in Christ. The little ones in the passage are understood to be unwholesome, evil thoughts newly seeded in us by the enemy. We are to mercilessly cast them down before they grow to have any strength over us.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
The dead end that classic liberalism finds itself in, though, is that in order to find a publicly justifiable ground upon which to judge the action (not condoning it), it has to deny the potential.


Don't know about classic liberalism, but this liberal does not deny the human potential for evil. Indeed, I would call genocide evil.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

In other words, it cannot grant the thesis that humans are fundamentally flawed without also condoning the action. The action follows from the nature and if a human, being free from ulterior constraints (God, Church, Academy, State, or whatever), has a flawed nature then that human has no valid guiding light to direct it away from flawed actions – and ultimately from actions contrary to human life. It follows that philosophically, if liberalism is to avoid that particular dead end, it needs to disavow the fundamentally flawed nature of humanity and assume that humans are fundamentally good. This permits the concept that humans are capable of ultimate good.

I'm afraid I really can't understand what you are on about here.

Personally, my position is that humans are capable of both great good and great evil and everything in between.

I certainly go for a canonical textual interpretation: it's my favorite!

Canonically, genocide doesn't fit with Jesus' command to love your enemies.

The "liberal" position in such instances is to say it's about human moral progression.

"We know better now Jesus has come and told us the right stuff".

Right or wrong, it's a viable position that takes the entire bible seriously.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Seraphim:
The little ones in the passage are understood to be unwholesome, evil thoughts newly seeded in us by the enemy. We are to mercilessly cast them down before they grow to have any strength over us.

That is also how we explain it in the New Church.
 
Posted by BWSmith (# 2981) on :
 
I'm disappointed that in six years, no one has mentioned the last two chapters of Ezra, which is focused on the problem of Jewish intermarriage and how to systematically send away the foreign wives (and children) of the returned exiles (Abraham-Hagar style).
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Personally, my position is that humans are capable of both great good and great evil and everything in between.

I certainly go for a canonical textual interpretation: it's my favorite!

Canonically, genocide doesn't fit with Jesus' command to love your enemies.

The "liberal" position in such instances is to say it's about human moral progression.

"We know better now Jesus has come and told us the right stuff".

Right or wrong, it's a viable position that takes the entire bible seriously.

It certainly is the case that one of the tenets of classic liberalism, which informs and provides the backing for current liberalism, is that human nature has been improving over time and therefore we do indeed know better now than we did formerly. I do question that principle, because I think the evidence is lacking. In fact, the only thing I think we can say is that we make better tools over time (building on what went before), but that human nature has remained the same over time. We are no different in this respect to our forebears. That seems to be the only conclusion we can draw from the available evidence.

Be that as it may, I would in any event question the received wisdom concerning genocide in the bible. Just for fun, I propose the following counter statement:
quote:
The biblical record shows that God willed genocide in the OT, continued to will it through Jesus, and has a plan to complete the act of genocide in the future. Genocide is part of God's loving nature.
I'll explain this in a moment, but first, a song.

Well, actually it's my take on the Manic Street Preachers' take on Aneurin Bevan's statement: This Is My Truth, Tell Me Yours.

The Enlightenment / modernist project fed us at least one positive principle: “Dare to Know!” Having the willingness to emerge from self-imposed nonage (the inability to use one's own understanding without another's guidance) is a hallmark of the modernist process, clearly in the beginning a struggle to break free from tyranny of Guardians (whether in Church, State, or Academy). It calls on humans not to be lazy or cowardly, but to have the courage to face up to the issues that question our in-built familiarities and invade our comfort zone. Even if we were to jettison all the other principles of that era, I would vote for keeping that one: having the courage to use one's own initiative in gaining knowledge.

That principle, however, cannot work unaided. The post-Enlightenment / postmodern project has fed us another, equally positive principle: “We are bound to be free!” Play on words there – however much we may want to attain freedom we are always tied up to our presuppositions. We are bound. Nevertheless, as humans our nature is to struggle on a path to be free, despite the odds. We are bound to go forward. Effectively, I think the majority of postmodernist philosophers (particularly those who spoke French) were not being prescriptive when they said no one truth can prevail, rather they were being descriptive. They threw open the window one day, saw across the world, and gasped, “Look! There's a host of cultures, belief structures, and truths out there!”

Putting both principles together we get a neat balance. To wit:

[1] We are caged by our presuppositions and worldviews, no doubt about that, and they underlie our thoughts and actions – often without our being aware of them. It is because they influence and skew our interpretations, and thus lead to wrong thinking and behaviour, that they need objective double-checking.

[2] We should have the audacity to hold them at arms' length while we test their validity. We can struggle to get to grips with recognising them. What we shouldn't do is throw our hands up in exasperation and give up. How do we recognise those presuppositions? One of the biggest challenges facing any reader of the bible is knowing how to respond to the hard sayings (those 'stinky' bits that make the reader uncomfortable and which vary from reader to reader). Those hard parts can wear one down very easily. But equally, this is where hard sayings can be of immense importance, because they very quickly flag up the conceptions we hold that need investigating. This is way of turning these passages to our advantage, rather than letting them ride us. As soon as feel ourselves giving a mental "Yuck!" to something we read, we should immediately ask the "Why is that there?" and "What is it in me that caused that reaction to this text?" questions.

Back to genocide.

I would argue that the words we use in the (English) translation process can skew our interpretation. Two words in particular have done this: Genocide and Love. Neither are used in the bible in the way too often used and assumed by Christians today. In fact, I would say that we have allowed our presuppositions to rule our reading. There isn't time here to go into detail (this post is already appallingly long), but I am more than happy to pick the question up if anyone is interested. Essentially, however, the argument is this: there is no Genocide in the bible. The concept is not the same as the Hebrew term used in the passages often invoked – herem – which is a covenant-based concept and needs to be understood as such. Similarly with 'Love.' The English denotation no longer maps to the Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek NT equivalents. What we do have is a theme running throughout the bible (validated by Jesus) that herem is a practice invoked and retained by God and without which his creation can not have 'Love.'
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Nigel M:
quote:
I would argue that the words we use in the (English) translation process can skew our interpretation. Two words in particular have done this: Genocide and Love. Neither are used in the bible in the way too often used and assumed by Christians today. In fact, I would say that we have allowed our presuppositions to rule our reading. There isn't time here to go into detail (this post is already appallingly long), but I am more than happy to pick the question up if anyone is interested. Essentially, however, the argument is this: there is no Genocide in the bible. The concept is not the same as the Hebrew term used in the passages often invoked – herem – which is a covenant-based concept and needs to be understood as such. Similarly with 'Love.' The English denotation no longer maps to the Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek NT equivalents. What we do have is a theme running throughout the bible (validated by Jesus) that herem is a practice invoked and retained by God and without which his creation can not have 'Love.'
I'd like to read what you have to say about this, if you think you have the time to start a thread on it. I think the subject and some of its tangents are biggies in the discussion of the "stinky stuff".
 
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on :
 
I used to have problems with this until I read other religious texts of other traditions and I read what was essentially the same thing - sometimes more blatant - but I wasn't offended, in fact I may even have been enlivened and envigorated by it. Where it clashes with me is in that Girardian sense of violent redmption; it's then that I have big problems
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
I'd like to read what you have to say about this, if you think you have the time to start a thread on it. I think the subject and some of its tangents are biggies in the discussion of the "stinky stuff".

I'll certainly get that underway, Lyda*Rose - bear with me while I work towards a weekend!

fletcher christian
Might it be possible to make use of Girard's sense of 'siding with the victim' as a cue to overcoming redemptive violence? I am thinking here of the stance Christians (and Jews?) might logically have to take if they are to live out the defence of 'the widow and orphan' in today's world - and how that logic must(?) be prepared to involve violence in some form if necessary.
 
Posted by Stetson (# 9597) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Seraphim:
The little ones in the passage are understood to be unwholesome, evil thoughts newly seeded in us by the enemy. We are to mercilessly cast them down before they grow to have any strength over us.

That is also how we explain it in the New Church.
In explaining it that way, are you also postulating that the psalmist meant it that way?

Because if not(ie. if you admit that the psalm means what it appears to mean), I don't quite see what the point of adding a metaphorical overlay is. If it's because we want to have a verse which preaches against "unwholesome, evil thoughts", well, there are countless passages in the Bible which already preach against that.
 
Posted by Stetson (# 9597) on :
 
Seraphim wrote:

quote:
I've read that various saints and fathers did not read this passage something to be applied literally , but rather regarded the Amalekites as representative of all those forces of evil that attempt to remove us from the path of faith and righteousness in Christ.
Somewhat odd, then, that the writer used an actual group of people, with whom the Hebrews had been at actual war, for his metaphor.

It would be as if an American, writing today, were to pen a hymn celebrating how his countrymen had "blown the heads off of indian kids", and then his apologists tried to claim that he just meant "indian kids" as a metaphor for the evil thoughts within our minds. I don't think a lot of people would buy that.

[ 19. August 2011, 04:57: Message edited by: Stetson ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
It certainly is the case that one of the tenets of classic liberalism, which informs and provides the backing for current liberalism, is that human nature has been improving over time and therefore we do indeed know better now than we did formerly. I do question that principle, because I think the evidence is lacking.

Nietzsche hints to as much and I agree with him.

But for a few areas.

We no longer burn people at the stake, we no longer torture and kill without impunity (save in politically justified warfare).

We look after those that cannot look after themselves much more now than we ever did before Christianity.

Indeed, Nietzsche thought the Christian argument that the weak and the useless were worthy of regard was a terrible human tragedy.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
In fact, the only thing I think we can say is that we make better tools over time (building on what went before), but that human nature has remained the same over time. We are no different in this respect to our forebears. That seems to be the only conclusion we can draw from the available evidence.

Better tools for better lives. In the western world, most people live "better" now than they did in the ancient world. At least in terms of physical hardship and an egalitarian society.

We are much more egalitarian now than the ancient world ever was.

Morals or ideas influenced by Christianity? Is this "sanctification" by fruits?


quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

Back to genocide.

I would argue that the words we use in the (English) translation process can skew our interpretation. Two words in particular have done this: Genocide and Love. Neither are used in the bible in the way too often used and assumed by Christians today. In fact, I would say that we have allowed our presuppositions to rule our reading. There isn't time here to go into detail (this post is already appallingly long), but I am more than happy to pick the question up if anyone is interested. Essentially, however, the argument is this: there is no Genocide in the bible. The concept is not the same as the Hebrew term used in the passages often invoked – herem – which is a covenant-based concept and needs to be understood as such. Similarly with 'Love.' The English denotation no longer maps to the Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek NT equivalents. What we do have is a theme running throughout the bible (validated by Jesus) that herem is a practice invoked and retained by God and without which his creation can not have 'Love.'

Exterminating the enemy is love? [Roll Eyes]

Can't do it canonically. You have to pick either or.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Evensong

Later in the weekend I will kick start a new thread on the subject of genocide, so I won't repeat yards of material on that here - save to say that in answer to your last question: Yes! Though as always the terms need defining. My conclusion from going through the biblical material and the cultural settings informing that material is that this is the canonical view.

On your other thoughts, I think the evidence from history is that humans have not improved their natures and behaviours. Babylonian society and laws have much to offer when compared with, say, Hitler's Germany, despite the vast passage of time between the two. We may not burn people at stakes, but neither did the Babylonians. I think it is also arguable that Greek society reflected a more 'advanced' nature than that of Rome or Pol Pot. So the rather optimistic view of Georg Hegel that we were advancing to the climax of man's achievements does not really stack up. In his defence, though, he couldn't have predicted two world wars from the comfort of his native Prussia.

When Hannah Arendt published her Eichmann in Jerusalem: a report on the banality of evil, she showed how ordinary humans - jolly next door neighbours in any other context - can perform acts we would designate evil. The fact that ordinary people can do 'evil' in our age was highlighted further by Milgram's experiments on individuals who were told to administer electric shocks to other participants.

It all goes to show that human nature has not changes with time. The best we can say on the evidence is that good times come in cycles. We are more or less better off at any given time in history, but factors other than 'progress' are in play here. Scarcity of resources plays a part, for example. We happen to live in a comfortable society that can afford rights. Not all current societies can afford that luxury. At a future date we may no longer afford them.

I don't agree either that we look after people in a better way nowadays. Pre-Christian societies had very well organised hierarchical social support mechanisms. Our 'enlightened' concept of parking our elderly relatives in a home away from the family would never have been acceptable, for example.

There's also a logical break, too, I think with the idea that better tools make better lives. They may improve our comfort, but that is not the same thing as improving our nature. It could be argued that more comfort simply breeds more greed. Additionally we are improving the comfort only for some - but marginalising the majority in the process.

So I question this received wisdom of classic liberalism. It follows that I have also to question those approaches to biblical interpretation that presuppose such a philosophical grounding. It boils down, I think, to a need to bellow "Where's the evidence?!!" when reading commentaries that assume a progress in human nature throughout biblical history.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I was beginning to get to grips with some of this when the word herem appeared a couple of times and I was lost. It's obviously understood by the cognoscenti but I'd be awfully grateful if you could give a couple of examples of its use. Sorry to hold up the argument.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Absolutely right pimple – it's far too easy to get carried away and cut corners by using technical jargon in place of explanation. My apologies.

The Hebrews have a verb, transliterated Haram, with a related noun Herem. It appears (in both forms) around 84 times in the Jewish Scripture. There isn't one English word or phrase that does justice in translation of this Hebrew word set. The English versions go with something along the lines of “totally destroy,” “utterly destroy,” “devote,” “ban,” “exterminate,” “consecrated.” None of these are really adequate in imagining the context of the term. It is linked elsewhere in the bible and in related near eastern texts with a solemn judicial-religious process of setting something aside for the ownership of a particular person or deity. For example, a person who wished to become a priest could do just that, but if he wished to make this a life-long commitment he would go through the vows associated with herem so that everyone would know (including himself!) that he could no longer engage in any other activity. He could not take up another occupation. Similarly, a field donated to the temple under herem rules could never again be sold or bought. It belonged forever to the temple. This process was by no means limited to Israel; it was part and parcel of near eastern processes – albeit not a common occurrence. The Moabite Stone makes reference to an attack on Israel under these rules, 'devoting' Israel to Moab's deity. In medieval Judaism the term was applied to the process for putting someone out of the community and then shunning them (hence the translation sometimes used, “Ban” - although this is somewhat anachronistic). A forerunner to this 'Ban' process makes a biblical appearance (same verb used) after the Babylonian war (Ezra 10:8) and the concept may lie behind Paul's enigmatic “hand this man over to satan” statement (1 Corinthians 5:5), where Paul enacts a judicial process – announces judgement, convicts, and sentences a person who was disrupting the community by his lifestyle. Sentence was to be carried out in a formal setting; very heremish. Even in modern times we had the example of the Harem, the Turkish sacrosanct area for women who formally belonged to a ruler and who could not, therefore, be given to any other man. The use of the herem in war was a minority event, but was surrounded with formality, declarations, warnings, etc. It was not a surprise to the enemy; they were made very aware of the consequences of their rebellion and outcome if they did not cease. In 1 Samuel, Amalek is placed under this herem and is then heremed (for want of a better word) by the sword. 'Judicial execution' might be the appropriate phrase here.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Evensong

Later in the weekend I will kick start a new thread on the subject of genocide, so I won't repeat yards of material on that here - save to say that in answer to your last question: Yes!

I've got ten minutes on here before dinner is ready so I haven't looked at your new thread premise yet.

But if you can justify Hitler's genocide of the Jews, then you're seriously deluded.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

On your other thoughts, I think the evidence from history is that humans have not improved their natures and behaviours.

I've just realised that statement is purely dependent on what you mean by "improvement".

If it is "improvement" in the Christian sense, then I would argue you are wrong.

David Bentley Hart in Atheist Delusions: The Christian Revolution and it's fashionable enemies argues quite the opposite and he is most convincing.

A book sanctioned by the Archbishop of Canterbury no less (won the Ramsey Award this year) so it can't be all that bad.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
The fact that ordinary people can do 'evil' in our age was highlighted further by Milgram's experiments on individuals who were told to administer electric shocks to other participants.

Hardly evil when one is asked to participate in a scientific experiment where the people participating trust the designers know what they are doing and do it for a reason. And that the other participants in the experiment have agreed to such an experiment.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

It all goes to show that human nature has not changes with time. The best we can say on the evidence is that good times come in cycles. We are more or less better off at any given time in history, but factors other than 'progress' are in play here. Scarcity of resources plays a part, for example. We happen to live in a comfortable society that can afford rights. Not all current societies can afford that luxury. At a future date we may no longer afford them.

I happen to believe in Matthew Ridley's Rational Optimism in that society has indeed improved over time due to trade and specialisation and things will continue to improve.

I for one am glad I do not live in the middle ages as peasant working myself to the bone while facing possible starvation if things go wrong.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

I don't agree either that we look after people in a better way nowadays. Pre-Christian societies had very well organised hierarchical social support mechanisms.

David Bentley Hart would certainly argue otherwise. What set Christians apart from pagans most distinctly in early Christianity were their acts of charity. I believe Emperor Julian complained that Christians not only looked after their own poor but the poor of others as well and this was quite disconcerting to the Greaco-Roman world.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

There's also a logical break, too, I think with the idea that better tools make better lives. They may improve our comfort, but that is not the same thing as improving our nature.

It is arguable that our natures have improved over time.

Personally, I still believe we are susceptible to both good and evil and capable of both.

What does change is the moral framework with which to direct those potentials.

And make no mistake, direction is a very powerful thing.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

So I question this received wisdom of classic liberalism. It follows that I have also to question those approaches to biblical interpretation that presuppose such a philosophical grounding. It boils down, I think, to a need to bellow "Where's the evidence?!!" when reading commentaries that assume a progress in human nature throughout biblical history.

If there is no progress in human nature and society, then Christianity is a load of bollocks.

The Kingdom that Christ envisaged on earth as it is in heaven will have borne no fruit for the last 2,000 years.

In which case, we may as well give up as Christians.

Are you a Christian Nigel?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Partial tangent. WIKIPEDIA is useful on herem and cherem but my printer's ****** at the moment so I'll study it at length later.

However, an interesting reference to Achan in Joshua caught my eye. He, like Ananias a few years later, kept back part of a gift for himself, and was stoned to death for his pains.

I expect both Peter and Ananias knew the story. No wonder the poor sod dropped dead!
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
But if you can justify Hitler's genocide of the Jews, then you're seriously deluded.

I don't recall NigelM saying he is going to do this. I understood his intention is to explain why some people's attributing God ordering 'genocide' is incorrect. This place is Kerygmania after all, so I assume that the discussion would be related to the understanding of the Biblical text.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
...if you can justify Hitler's genocide of the Jews, then you're seriously deluded.

I fear your dinner may have gone cold, Evensong, as I suspect it took longer then 10 to reply! Thanks for coming back.

Hopefully it will be clear from the other thread why there are problems with using the term 'genocide' in connection with the bible. Its use facilitates leaps of semantic logic that cannot be justified. There is no theological or ethical connection between the herem and genocide. To borrow from Tertullian somewhat: What has Jericho to do with Auschwitz?!

quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
I've just realised that statement is purely dependent on what you mean by "improvement".

Yes - this was the (secondary) point I was making: It has been a commonplace to say that we as human beings have improved over time and therefore we are better than our forefathers. This is not the same thing at all as saying that we have improved our tools, or our living standards. I'm focussing on the nature (or similar concept) that we posses. Too often I hear others make a leap that I think is illogical from "We are better off nowadays" to "We are better nowadays" and on the basis of that leap are able to assume that we have improved as human beings compared to our ancestors.

I accept that we are better off (or at least a minority of people in the world are). But it has not been proven that we are better.

If that is the case, then the justification disappears for holding that we can ignore or otherwise devalue segments of the biblical record. Rather, they all have to be taken seriously.

I'll hold off from trying to argue this case further here if I may; it might get too confusing having to run it on two threads.

RE: David Bentley Hart's work. I have a great deal of sympathy for what he says about the presuppositions of atheistic faith. Again, however, I don't think what he says goes to the issue here. I'm not decrying any good that Christianity has done. I have no beef with that. My point is that the goodness we have is but one facet of the total aspect. We ignore the other at our peril. The main point, however, has been about God's nature and whether much that has passed for theology in the West over the past couple of hundred years or so has not been reading our (presupposed preferred) human nature into that of God's, failing to notice the whole picture.

RE: Stanley Milgram's obedience experiments. I agree about the nature of the experiment, and I'm not particularly fussed whether we use the word 'evil' here or not. The point is that the social conclusion drawn is that humans will act in pretty unenlightened ways given the right situation. It matters not that we (humanity) might have improved our nature over time, or that we have socially improved (even courtesy of Christianity), but that any apparently decent human being is capable of inhumane acts.

RE: Matthew Ridley. I haven't read his works, but are we not back again to the definition of the word 'improve'? I would agree with your desire not to be worse off (in the sense of a peasant), but this is still only about better tools and increased comfort. I still can see no logical link between that sense of 'improvement' and improved human nature. A peasant might aspire to be a freeman, and a freeman a lord, but all three may be thieves if they think they can away with it.

Only yesterday on the news here in the UK we heard the court case of a woman who was asleep during the recent riots, but whose tenant came back with looted clothes, an item of which the woman kept for herself. The opportunity (situation) presented itself, human nature won out.

OK, enough of the bad news! I don't want this sound like I am completing undermining all the good acts that Christians (at least) have done - including during the riots - or the good that humans are certainly capable of (including being prepared to lay down their lives for others (also seen during those same riots). Just to repeat the point: this is one facet of the case, but in order to properly understand God's nature as revealed in Jesus - and how that impacts on our ways of living - we need to see the whole aspect.

quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
If there is no progress in human nature and society, then Christianity is a load of bollocks.

This is the nub of application. I fully understand your reaction Evensong, but my plea is to work with the biblical texts, taking them seriously in full context, and then decide what to do with the question of how to apply them. If it helps, you may have already dealt with your fear here. It's not really a question of improvement in human nature; it's how the nature towards either good or evil is directed.

Just to get back to the perspective again:-

The aim is to better understand God's nature, because that directs our way of living (the ethic driving the morals).

Achieving that aim has, to my mind, been clouded by the fear of hard sayings / stinky passages in the bible.

Justification for not tackling these issues fully has often been sought in classic liberal philosophy, that we are better now than they were then.

I challenge that stance because I don't think it is justified, but frankly this is a secondary issue. I think it is possible to take all biblical texts seriously without the need to undermine alternate stances. I see that the bible is consistent in its full context throughout on this and I believe it is possible to provide an evidential basis for it. I just sense - from experience - that if one is wedded to the liberal stance mentioned above, one will find it terribly difficult to reconcile one with the other. One gets twisted up in knots.

And you are perfectly right to ask the question as to whether or not I am a Christian (I assume it wasn't rhetorical?!). To make it clear to all: Yes, I am a card-carrying Christian.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
Thanks for your considered responses to my points raised Nigel.

I'm still unsure about the whole idea of nature and society and change and improvement.

Like I have said before, I think society has improved. Whether is is due to a change of nature or a change of ethics seems a rather moot point. If you cange your ethics, does your nature not change?

Or are we just discussing potential nature here?

I know it's a secondary issue to your point of genocide, but for me it's something I've been wondering about alot recently so my apologies if I'm getting off your thought tracks. It bothered me so much I started a Purg thread on it recently. Like you, I was looking for evidence.

The other issue that comes up is that if you don't believe human nature has changed over time, then you can't go for the idea of theosis. That we become sanctified (in our nature) by Christ becoming man. God became man so man could become God.

I assume you don't ascribe to such a theology? If not, I'd say you are unusual. Most Christians seem to.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

And you are perfectly right to ask the question as to whether or not I am a Christian (I assume it wasn't rhetorical?!). To make it clear to all: Yes, I am a card-carrying Christian.

You have a card?.

That's no fair. I don't have a card.

Bloody slack Anglicans don't give out cards.

[ 22. August 2011, 12:33: Message edited by: Evensong ]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Make your own. There are programs for publishing the puppies I understand.

I'd love one that stated in caps CHRISTIAN (like the company name), then my name in smaller, humbler caps and lower case, then "Saved since circa 33AD".
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
You have a card?.

That's no fair. I don't have a card.

Bloody slack Anglicans don't give out cards.

Meffodists do - a new one each year.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
You have a card?

I made my own, Evensong; in fact I'm still making it! (enter pious mode - doff halo - smirk sanctimoniously - continue along The Way...)

Let me stick a bookmark in your thoughts on ethics and theosis - I'd love to follow those up - hopefully before the Rapture.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
I know it's a secondary issue to your point of genocide, but for me it's something I've been wondering about alot recently so my apologies if I'm getting off your thought tracks. It bothered me so much I started a Purg thread on it recently. Like you, I was looking for evidence.

The other issue that comes up is that if you don't believe human nature has changed over time, then you can't go for the idea of theosis. That we become sanctified (in our nature) by Christ becoming man. God became man so man could become God.

I've just had flick through the Purg thread you started (and congratulations on holding down a topic of conversation across three threads on different boards!). The question of definitions is an important one – isn't it always? - and this being Kerygmania I wondered if it would be good to try things from a biblical angle.

Would the model of 'holy-clean-unclean' be of any use here? As presented in the Pentateuch in association with the tabernacle/temple and sacrificial system it can seem somewhat ponderous, but there may be mileage in defining behaviour and the environment in those terms and seeing if there are any principles worth pulling out. For example, some behaviours are normal (clean), others have become abnormal, or below the norm (unclean) and need cleansing to get back to the norm, and then there's the holy, above the norm, the aspiration (the “be holy as I am holy” = “be perfect as your father is perfect” from both testaments).

If that model is a valid one for Christians and not just the wilderness Jews, then I wonder how it should be applied today?

RE: the theosis point. Although the concept has received only grudging acceptance among many western Christians compared to the Orthodox and others (perhaps because of fear of diluting hard won monotheism?), I do think it is part of the biblical message. The way to it, as I see it in the bible, is via Jesus as God's image. If we become more in the image of Jesus then we are by default becoming more in the image of God – more like God, more united with God.

At one level as soon as we renounce rebellion from God we are renouncing Sin (in that particular biblical sense of rebellion) and therefore we are already theo-dised. In another sense we have to renounce 'sin' in the other biblical sense – slip ups – not rebellions, but more slipping below the norm / clean mark during our Christian life. I know this sounds like the distinction often made between justification and sanctification, but I don't think that the Israelites would have been that exercised about such fine distinctions! I think their concern was more about how they lived out being an 'image' in the sense of ruling. How to behave in the authorised way their God wanted them to behave, managing (or stewarding) creation and all who sail in her.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
bump
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
Er, progressive revelation anyone?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Er, progressive revelation anyone?

Is that your answer for everything Martin? Seems to crop up a lot in your posts across many threads these days [Big Grin]

[ 08. December 2013, 19:12: Message edited by: Jammy Dodger ]
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
Aye Jay Dee. It's my present groove. I catch up 10 years after everyone else, although nobody has done it or is doing it as well as Rob Bell currently, on his FaceBook page.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I do enjoy his writing too. And your posts when I can understand them that is [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
As this thread has a long and venerable history in Kerygmania (despite no-one having found another text that stinks that they'd like to comment on since Dec. 2013), I am bumping it to the front page ahead of the coming Oblivionation. If this sparks further discussion of Bible texts that stink, that would be a bonus.

Trudy, Scrumptious Kerygmania Host
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Talk about a bumpy ride!

I think what stinks most in the bible, time and time again, is the unforgiveable misuse of power and the ascription of human cruelty to divine justice. Some of you will know what's coming next.

Ananias drops dead (Act 5). Hours later, his wife turns up. Peter tricks her into repeating Ananias's "unholy, unforgiveable lie" then jumps in with the killer line:

"The men are at the door who buried your husband, and they will carry you out."

How long have those men been at the door? Did it take them three hours to bury Ananias? Did they just happen to stay for a cup of tea or two afterwards? What were the instructions they got from Peter - "Stick around chaps, I might have a bit of gardening for you to do later..." ?

I await your filthy stinking justifications of this cowardly bully's deeds ands words!
 
Posted by Brenda Clough (# 18061) on :
 
I am sure this has been mentioned upthread, because it is a classic: Jesus's confrontation with the Syro-Phoenician woman who had a sick daughter. She asks him to heal her. He says, "Should dogs get fed before the children of the house?"
=Nasty.= Reams and reams of argument (He was smiling when he said it! She was a whore! He can see the future and knew that in the next sentence he would give in! The kid wasn't really sick! He had to make a gesture to all the listening Jews before healing! and so on) does not change the nastiness of the retort.
 
Posted by riotgrrrl (# 18437) on :
 
Not sure if this has been mentioned so far, but good old Deuteronomy 2.28-9

quote:
If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not engaged, and seizes her and lies with her and they are discovered, 29then the man who lay with her shall give to the girl's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife because he has violated her; he cannot divorce her all his days.
Sure the laws of Deuteronomy aren't applicable to modern Christians but it still stinks that this was ever a law in the first place .
 
Posted by Jengie jon (# 273) on :
 
Yes, it stinks. However thank God that we know it stinks for it was written into a society where that was a surprising bit of women's liberation.

The normative practice was probably at the time which was to treat the girl as spoiled goods. Married off at a discount if the father could arrange it, if not treated as a slave because she was unmarriageable or worse still cast out home as having brought disgrace on the family.

When I say spoiled goods I am not talking metaphorically. We have come a long way since women were viewed as property, but that was the type of society that the commandments were written for. You need only see the order not to covet your neighbours wife, or his manservant or maidservant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor (Exodus 20:17) to get a clear statement of the fact.

This is one of those occasions where reading as to a given society rather than to a current one suggests a completely different agenda by the Almighty.

Jengie
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
This one comes up again and again and again...

Short answer, Jengie's right, and in the context of the culture it was very pro-woman. What the law does is force the rapist to make reparations for the social and economic harm he has done her (that being pretty much the only thing the asshole CAN redress, given the crime). A rape victim in such a culture faced the loss of social status, future career (for women, =marriage and head of household status), future family (children), and poverty (because there were almost no careers a woman could support herself with bar prostitution). So, how to redress that?

The law (with parallel passages) gives a rape victim the right either to marry the rapist regardless of his wishes in the matter, and he is not allowed to ever divorce her, either (unlike basically every other marriage in Israel). This guarantees her the social and financial support of marriage. The rapist gets no say at all, nil, zilch, nada. Which is still better than he deserves.

If she chooses NOT to marry the asshole, he is forced to pay reparations to her birth family, which can be used for her support in case she never marries. Her father has the deciding vote on which of the two happens, which was probably thrown in to prevent unapproved suitors from trying to force marriage through rape.

Is the situation ideal? Duh, of course not. But under the circumstances about as pro-woman as you can get. (Note: killing him would do no good, as she'd still be left in a mess.)
 
Posted by Hedgehog (# 14125) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
The law (with parallel passages) gives a rape victim the right either to marry the rapist regardless of his wishes in the matter, and he is not allowed to ever divorce her, either (unlike basically every other marriage in Israel). This guarantees her the social and financial support of marriage. The rapist gets no say at all, nil, zilch, nada. Which is still better than he deserves.

If she chooses NOT to marry the asshole, he is forced to pay reparations to her birth family, which can be used for her support in case she never marries. Her father has the deciding vote on which of the two happens, which was probably thrown in to prevent unapproved suitors from trying to force marriage through rape.

I'm confused. Where does it say that it is an either/or choice? What riotgrrrl quoted states that the rapist is to pay the 50 shekels and marry the girl and never divorce her. Other translations seem to indicate the same thing. The earlier verses do run through the variations of the situation (virgin/not virgin; engaged/not engaged; voluntary/rape), but I am failing to see where the victim gets the choice to not marry the rapist. What am I missing?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
There's a parallel expanded passage which goes into the details I mentioned. I'll have to dig it up later, I'm late for an appointment!
 
Posted by venbede (# 16669) on :
 
I've just read G K Chesterton's Father Brown story, The Sign of the Broken Sword. I thought this passage relevant:

"'Sir Arthur St. Clare, as I have already said, was a man who read his Bible. That was what was the matter with him. When will people understand that it is useless for a man to read his Bible unless he also reads everybody else's Bible? A printer reads a Bible for misprints. A Mormon reads his Bible, and finds polygamy; a Christian Scientist reads his, and finds we have no arms and legs. St. Clare was an old Anglo-Indian Protestant soldier. Now, just think what that might mean; and, for Heaven's sake, don't cant about it. It might mean a man physically formidable living under a tropic sun in an Oriental society, and soaking himself without sense or guidance in an Oriental Book. Of course, he read the Old Testament rather than the New. Of course, he found in the Old Testament anything that he wanted -- lust, tyranny, treason. Oh, I dare say he was honest, as you call it. But what is the good of a man being honest in his worship of dishonesty?

'In each of the hot and secret countries to which the man went he kept a harem, he tortured witnesses, he amassed shameful gold; but certainly he would have said with steady eyes that he did it to the glory of the Lord. My own theology is sufficiently expressed by asking which Lord?"
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
I love that story and that passage -- some of the best of Father Brown.
 
Posted by riotgrrrl (# 18437) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
There's a parallel expanded passage which goes into the details I mentioned. I'll have to dig it up later, I'm late for an appointment!

Please do, I'd be really keen to read that- and thank you for your highly interesting explanation.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Okay, I found the following, and it's likely I was conflating the two passages in my memory:

quote:
Exodus 22:16-17


16 “If a man seduces a virgin who is not betrothed and lies with her, he shall give the bride-price for her and make her his wife. 17 If her father utterly refuses to give her to him, he shall pay money equal to the bride-price for virgins.

The difference here of course is that we're talking seduction, not rape--and yet I wonder if the two wouldn't have been conflated in practice just as I apparently did in memory. It's not that easy to draw a line between seduction and rape when the only two people who were there have vested interests in telling the story (and may tell it differently from one another, too).

Going strictly by the letter of the written passages we've looked at, in both cases the man is liable for the damage done to the girl's future. A rapist must make reparations through marriage--he gets no choice in the matter; it looks like a seducer is in the same boat, though it's more implied than stated.

Nothing is said in either passage about compelling the girl or her family; both passages are all about male responsibility to make reparations. In one case (seduction) the law deals explicitly with the question of "What if the girl's family doesn't WANT the marriage?" and concludes that financial damages must be paid. In the other case (rape) this question doesn't come up at all, and we'll have to decide it based on our own understanding of the Law as a whole.

Because the two passages are so very similar, and because of the trouble proving rape vs. seduction in the situation outlined, I incline very strongly to think that the same exception was granted. I also incline to it because otherwise every girl in love with a ne'er-do-well would claim rape to force Dad's approval to their marriage--and every asshole intent on marrying into a rich and powerful family would be able to do it legally by simply raping a daughter. The whole tenor of the Law is to prevent these kinds of abuses. Therefore I think the unwilling father clause applied to cases of rape as well.

The clause about "he can never divorce her" is also unique, in this case to the rape scenario. Its intent is clearly to protect the woman. The seduction scenario says nothing either way, and again, we must decide that one based on our overall understanding of the Law.

I rather suspect that divorce WAS a possibility in cases of generally-admitted seduction, for two reasons. First of all, such a divorce wasn't likely to happen immediately after the wedding, as the couple is obviously already, er, inclined to be together. So she's not at risk of being dumped and abandoned immediately the wedding is celebrated. And second, because the Law does treat women as moral, thinking, responsible human beings, and in the case of seduction, she bears some responsibility. So the extra safeguard given to a rapist's victim probably does not apply to her, and she must take her chances with the general population of married men and women.

I hope that all makes some sense.

[ 10. July 2015, 17:04: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Hedgehog (# 14125) on :
 
Thank you, Lamb Chopped. I was looking through Leviticus and Numbers for the parallel section. It didn't occur to me that it would be as far back as Exodus.

I agree that the rape situation should have allowed for the victim's father to decline the marriage, pretty much for the same reasons you gave. It may well have been an understood part of the law that the forced marriage portion could be waived by the party that was intended to benefit from it. That sort of inherently understood meaning wouldn't be completely unheard of in the law. To give a modern example, technically the U.S. Constitution forbids "cruel AND unusual" punishment...but that is not interpreted as meaning that cruel punishment is okay just as long as it isn't unusual. The understood meaning of phrases is not necessarily the literal meaning of phrases.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Right. One difficulty that sometimes crops up is that we (for values of many modern nations, notably our shared country, the US!) have a hermeneutic we use to understand laws which is basically "If you didn't spell it out in detail using precise language and even correct freaking punctuation, we will drive a truck through the resulting loopholes singing "NYAH nyah nyah NYAH!"

While the more usual hermeneutic (used of ordinary speech and also of the Bible) is "Duh, you idiot, you should know me better than to take one isolated statement and say I meant X when everything else I've ever done and said is not-X."

And sometimes people will take the modern legal hermeneutic and apply it to Scripture, with disastrous results... [Waterworks] [Waterworks] [Waterworks]

[ 10. July 2015, 19:10: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Brenda Clough:
Jesus's confrontation with the Syro-Phoenician woman who had a sick daughter. She asks him to heal her. He says, "Should dogs get fed before the children of the house?"

As a general comment with all these, you have to be careful about reading 21st Century sensitivities into a 1st century culture.

From memory, the word that Jesus uses for 'dog' is not a harsh 'stray dog', but rather a softer 'domesticated dog'. Hence the woman's comeback that the dog gets to eat the scraps!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
There's also the fact that written text doesn't always convey certain emotions well, such as humor or teasing. We can only go by the woman's reaction, since she was there--and she does not show disgust, anger, or anything else you'd expect in response to a real racist slur. Similarly, Jesus himself does not "double down" on the apparent racism once she responds, though that's the usual behavior of someone who meant to be nasty.

I'm not trying to explain it away. But the reaction of the alleged "target" must be taken into account, as well as the general character and subsequent behavior of the alleged racist.

A modern example would be a kid from my church who yells out to another kid, "Yo, nigga, whatcha doin'?" You'd have to see the second kid's response to know whether the first one deserves a sharp reprimand or not. (and no, at my church you can't tell just by looking at kid no. 1's skin color, things are more complex than that.)
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
**bump**
(because you never know when this thread will come in handy)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Like when I want to come back with "Yo, Lamb chopped!" [Devil]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yo, dude. [Biased]
 
Posted by Joesaphat (# 18493) on :
 
sooooooo many stinkers, what do folks think of Jeremy 19: And I will cause them to eat the flesh of their sons and the flesh of their daughters, and they shall eat every one the flesh of his friend.

Jeremiah 19: 1-9

[Added Bible reference for context. Mamacita, Host]

[ 12. January 2016, 16:03: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Joesaphat (# 18493) on :
 
or possibly psalm 58, with its not so subtle hints to abortion

Break the teeth in their mouths, O God;
Lord, tear out the fangs of those lions!
Let them vanish like water that flows away;
when they draw the bow, let their arrows fall short.
May they be like a slug that melts away as it moves along,
like a stillborn child that never sees the sun.

Psalm 58
[Added Bible reference for context. Mamacita, Host]

[ 12. January 2016, 16:10: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
I think the Psalm is referring to miscarriage (the NRSV translates it as "untimely birth") or stillbirth, both of which would have been common in that time and place. The context of the psalm is a prayer for vengeance. The Psalmist is using a miscarried fetus as one of several analogies for God bringing judgment by causing weakness and death.

ETA: Still a nasty business, though, those cursing psalms.

[ 12. January 2016, 16:20: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Kwesi (# 10274) on :
 
Hedgehog
quote:
To give a modern example, technically the U.S. Constitution forbids "cruel AND unusual" punishment...but that is not interpreted as meaning that cruel punishment is okay just as long as it isn't unusual.
...........Unless one is referring to capital punishment?
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
Just a thought - there is good precedent for leaving out verses that 'stink' - se tomorrow's gospel where Jesus nearly gets lynched for quoting Isaiah selectively. He leaves out vengeance.
 
Posted by Stejjie (# 13941) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Just a thought - there is good precedent for leaving out verses that 'stink' - se tomorrow's gospel where Jesus nearly gets lynched for quoting Isaiah selectively. He leaves out vengeance.

I think that episode does work as an example of this thread, but not quite in the way leo suggests. Jesus doesn't get nearly lynched for anything particularly to do with the Isaiah passage he quotes, or even his claiming to have fulfilled it - in fact, Luke says they "spoke well" of him at that point.

Where that passage is an example of "This is in the Bible - but it stinks!" by the crowd is when Jesus goes on to point to the stories of Elijah and Elisha as examples of when Isaiah's words are fulfilled among the Gentiles and not Israel and heavily implies that it might happen again with him. That's when they take offence and try to kill him...
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Stejjie:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Just a thought - there is good precedent for leaving out verses that 'stink' - se tomorrow's gospel where Jesus nearly gets lynched for quoting Isaiah selectively. He leaves out vengeance.

I think that episode does work as an example of this thread, but not quite in the way leo suggests. Jesus doesn't get nearly lynched for anything particularly to do with the Isaiah passage he quotes, or even his claiming to have fulfilled it - in fact, Luke says they "spoke well" of him at that point.

Where that passage is an example of "This is in the Bible - but it stinks!" by the crowd is when Jesus goes on to point to the stories of Elijah and Elisha as examples of when Isaiah's words are fulfilled among the Gentiles and not Israel and heavily implies that it might happen again with him. That's when they take offence and try to kill him...

Yes - because be left out the vengeance expected to be visited on the gentiles and turned if on the Jews - see especially the targum quoted here which explains where i'm coming from about selectively quoting the Bible being a good thing.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
In Hell, I commented that Exodus 21 is fucked up.
LambChopped did not care to explain there why it was not and suggested moving the discussion here.

Not sure how quoting the bible works here, if certain interpretations have copyright, so I am beginning this with a discussion of Exodus 21 with a link to reference.
It begins by discussing the terms of Hebrew(Israelite) indentured servitude. A problem right off,it fails to include the rest of the cultures in the world, therefore seem to be cool with slavery for everyone else. (not to mention the children of Ham rubbish)
It goes on to say that the male, upon the end of his seven year sentence/contract, wishes to stay with his wife and child, he must remain a slave forever
Tell me how this is not fucked up?
Also, please explain Leviticus 25:44

[Edited to include link. Mamacita, Host]

[ 28. February 2016, 02:35: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
What the fuck? I told you the truth. I did not think the Hell thread, on a totally different topic, was the right place to explain what is going on in the passage about what to do with slaves who voluntarily choose to stay with their masters and families, as slaves, forever. The reason why (besides annoying the fuck out of the hosts) will become apparent below. At no time did I undertake to justify slavery, or even to treat it beyond that particular passage.

I will do what I promised to do, then. If you want more, you can ask me when the bronchitis clears up.

The passage in question is Exodus 21, these verses:

quote:
"2 When you buy a Hebrew slave, he shall serve six years, and in the seventh he shall go out free, for nothing. 3 If he comes in single, he shall go out single; if he comes in married, then his wife shall go out with him. 4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out alone. 5 But if the slave plainly says, ‘I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out free,’ 6 then his master shall bring him to God, and he shall bring him to the door or the doorpost. And his master shall bore his ear through with an awl, and he shall be his slave forever."
And the parallel passage in Deuteronomy 15:

quote:
12 “If your brother, a Hebrew man or a Hebrew woman, is sold to you, he shall serve you six years, and in the seventh year you shall let him go free from you. 13 And when you let him go free from you, you shall not let him go empty-handed. 14 You shall furnish him liberally out of your flock, out of your threshing floor, and out of your winepress. As the Lord your God has blessed you, you shall give to him. 15 You shall remember that you were a slave in the land of Egypt, and the Lord your God redeemed you; therefore I command you this today. 16 But if he says to you, ‘I will not go out from you,’ because he loves you and your household, since he is well-off with you, 17 then you shall take an awl, and put it through his ear into the door, and he shall be your slave forever. And to your female slave you shall do the same. 18 It shall not seem hard to you when you let him go free from you, for at half the cost of a hired worker he has served you six years. So the Lord your God will bless you in all that you do."
Let’s start with the situation envisioned in the passages. A fellow Hebrew has been sold into slavery to another Hebrew. By the law of Moses he must be regarded as a brother, and cannot under any circumstances (bar this one) remain a slave for more than seven years at maximum. He may be released early for any number of reasons; but if he serves out the full term, he is to be set free unconditionally with whoever he brought with him (wife, children) and with a start-up living stake besides. He is not to be turned loose to starve, thieve, or sell himself again. And all of this is based explicitly on the fact that the whole race of Hebrews had been slaves in Egypt, and are not to treat each other as chattel.

Note that this is in no way a discussion of the moral value or otherwise of slavery. It simply assumes the basic conditions of ancient societies pretty much everywhere—that some unfortunate people did wind up in slavery, usually as a result of debt or warfare. You may say that nothing short of complete abolitionism in the text would do, and that anything else is unacceptable. If you say so, you are certainly entitled to your opinion. I look at it, however, and think, “This is yet another case of God knowing exactly how shitty we are to one another, and attempting to do damage control rather than shooting for the moon and getting nothing at all.” Similar examples of damage limitation include the strictures put on divorce, on vengeance killing, and on the mistreatment of women, sexual and otherwise.

Notice also that this passage is dealing with what would seem to me the highly unusual circumstance where a man (or woman), having been a slave, is given his (her) freedom and decides not to take it. Laws are normally made for events that happen, not impossible hypotheticals. I therefore conclude that some ancient slaves did in fact wish to continue in their current enslaved situation. And this could be because of friendship, love of other slaves not yet free, or economic benefit.

A ritual is provided, therefore, that will make this possible but highly unusual situation both public and recognized. The slave gets “taken to God” (which I take to mean either to the tabernacle/temple, or else simply placed in the presence of a priestly authority, so as to solemnize the thing properly) and gets his ear pierced with an awl with the wooden door serving as a, er, back support. (Ew! Ewwwwwww! Okay, reaction over)

Yes, this is freaky. But it is also not too terribly painful if they’re using the earlobe (yes, I’ve had my ears pierced without anesthetic) and it is voluntarily chosen. And it is really pretty minimal in a society where every male was circumcised (shudder). More to the point, it creates a permanent, visible reminder of the agreement, which prevents others in the future from blaming the owner for seemingly breaking the command about seven-year-only slaves. It might also cause the would-be permanent slave to take the decision a bit more seriously.

All of this would be mere historical curiosity if it were not for the modern application of it, which is the real reason I wanted to get the discussion the hell out of Hell. Because Hell is not the place for ooshy gooshy religious feels—and yet for a great many Christians, that is precisely what this OT passage points to with relationship to Christ. There is only one person I can imagine loving to the point I would gladly be his slave forever, would proudly bear his scars on my body (as Paul boasts more than once). And that is Jesus Christ. Mock me if you like. I’m not the only one (as bad Christian music will testify).
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:

quote:
This is yet another case of God knowing exactly how shitty we are to one another, and attempting to do damage control rather than shooting for the moon and getting nothing at all.
God has not one iota of an issue laying down the law, telling people to do things against their desire in other places in the bible.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
Verses 4 and 5 of the Exodus passage LC quoted give a particularly twisted, manipulative, and probably economic reason for the practice, IMHO.

In certain circumstances, a male slave would face the horrible, evil choice of leaving his family behind to get freedom for himself, or staying with them and becoming a slave for life.

Personally, I think any owner that invoked that clause should've have had *his* ear pierced that way, so that anyone who saw him would think he was a lifelong slave, and treat him accordingly. And if his piercing closed up, they'd think he was a runaway slave, trying to hide.

But then, that's me, in this time and place.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
A problem right off,it fails to include the rest of the cultures in the world, therefore seem to be cool with slavery for everyone else. (not to mention the children of Ham rubbish

Exodus is a book written for the Israelites about the Israelites. The passage you cited, like much of the Torah, was setting down laws governing this particular people. I wouldn't say that its omission of other cultures of the world was a matter of being cool (or not being cool) with anyone else practicing slavery. It was writing laws for Israel, not the rest of the world.

This is not to disregard the great, terrible, mischief that humans, in the centuries since Exodus was written, have justified based on such texts. But that's a different matter.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:

quote:
This is yet another case of God knowing exactly how shitty we are to one another, and attempting to do damage control rather than shooting for the moon and getting nothing at all.
God has not one iota of an issue laying down the law, telling people to do things against their desire in other places in the bible.
Have you ever raised a child?

If so, you know that you don't start off by saying to the child, "I want a five paragraph essay out of you by Friday." Unless you want the kid to fail, of course.

No, you start out with "This is the letter A, see how it looks? It sounds like this..." and so on. It's no use trying to teach rhetoric when the kid hasn't mastered reading yet. (Written rhetoric, you pedants snickering, sheesh. You know what I mean)

You need to consider the historical setting. When God was shaping ancient Israel, he was doing very much the moral ABCs--"line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little" as Isaiah put it. Israel was living in a world full of things like child sacrifice, temple prostitution, and endless revenge feuds. Getting them to put a lid on that shit was a huge step forward, never mind taking on evils we ourselves didn't cope with until the eighteenth/nineteenth century.

(I suppose this should give us pause as well--what are we doing that our descendants will condemn as obvious atrocity?)
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mamacita:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
A problem right off,it fails to include the rest of the cultures in the world, therefore seem to be cool with slavery for everyone else. (not to mention the children of Ham rubbish

Exodus is a book written for the Israelites about the Israelites. The passage you cited, like much of the Torah, was setting down laws governing this particular people. I wouldn't say that its omission of other cultures of the world was a matter of being cool (or not being cool) with anyone else practicing slavery. It was writing laws for Israel, not the rest of the world.

This is not to disregard the great, terrible, mischief that humans, in the centuries since Exodus was written, have justified based on such texts. But that's a different matter.

This, pretty much. Also, it is my understanding that scholars pretty much agree that the Levitical laws were not all typed up by Moses on one night, but are a result of perhaps centuries of the kind of case/ precedent procedure that tends to produce common law.

To modern eyes, Levitical slave laws are a parody of fairness, but at the time, the idea of making actual laws that set limitations on the liberties people could take with slaves was pretty progressive. Pre-Revolutionary American courts actually had to make new laws that overrode Levitical slave laws to turn slavery into the horrible, inhuman institution it became. (A couple New England slaves actually sued for freedom from abusive masters, way, way back in the day. The slave owner lobby put a stop to that.)

It is one of the things that makes the Bible a fascinating document to me-- it covers the evolution of the cultural assumptions of a group of people from oral history to written history to theological development to philosophical development.

To me it shows a progress toward-- dare I say it-- a more and more humanistic approach to building a society. But to expect the path along the way to match up with specific current ideas of justice and individual rights is unrealistic.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
--Long ago, I took a class from a rabbi. He said that the Penteteuch is Torah, the rest of the Hebrew scriptures are Torah, that "everything is Torah". I guess that view is probably from the Orthodox /Hassidic /Kabbalistic part of the Jewish spectrum. Mystical. I liked the idea of everything being Torah.

--In my childhood church, the Bible was basically the Word about the WORD. I've sometimes thought of it as an user's/owner's manual. My current view is along the lines of "It's one culture's struggles with and towards God; some or all of it may be inspired by God, in some sense; and it's where I can go to think about and work out that stuff".
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
As Kelly points out, a good starting point is always to get a grip on the original context (not just linguistic, but all the way up through social expectations to world-view) before drawing conclusions and applications. One light consideration is given here by Peter Williams, Warden of Tyndale House in Cambridge (UK version).
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Ok, I don't agree with you lot about the training wheel approach.
The peoples of the bible had been transmitting these stories for millennia before they were written, plenty of time for updating, just as you would in any teachings of a child.
in teaching a child, you do not correct them and say, 'Hit your sister with less force, but strike the neighbour child however you wish'. You say do not hit. And you introduce the reasoning as they become more capable of understanding. In other words; simple, strong prohibitions first.
Again, starting form the very first, God has no problem with draconian edicts, why does he get so chary of them here?
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Yeah, IME children are subject to strict rules that get more relaxed as they develop their own judgement, but then I am not arguing that Levitical law was handed down by God of a piece, like Muslims say the Koran was. Or like orthodox Jews and inerrantists say the Bible was. I don't think Leviticus is in fallible, but I do think it is literal-- a literal transcription of exactly the laws the Israelites had at the time they were compiled. That is what history writers do, legal history or otherwise--they don't evaluate the material compiled.

I agree that the "this is what God wanted those specific people to do at that time." Is a hard argument to support, but I will take what I do believe about literalism to Dead Horses.( Gosh, this topic is versatile!)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
This is probably another instance where an English word used in translation fails to do justice to the original concept. Like the English words "love" and "soul", perhaps "slave" should be removed from bibles and another term introduced. Something that better represents the semantic domain covered by the Hebrew term in its context. "Slave" smuggles too many more modern presuppositions into the frame.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
In other words; simple, strong prohibitions first.
Again, starting form the very first, God has no problem with draconian edicts, why does he get so chary of them here?

Of course if the rules are not from God but from the wisest, most charitable contemporary heads, and if over the centuries the heads got increasingly wiser and more charitable....
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
This is probably another instance where an English word used in translation fails to do justice to the original concept. Like the English words "love" and "soul", perhaps "slave" should be removed from bibles and another term introduced. Something that better represents the semantic domain covered by the Hebrew term in its context. "Slave" smuggles too many more modern presuppositions into the frame.

It ain't only the word, but the description which equals slave.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
But in what sense does the description in Ex. 21 overlap with the concept of 'slave' in English?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
But in what sense does the description in Ex. 21 overlap with the concept of 'slave' in English?

Ownership and perpetual servitude. Exodus 21 lays out the conditions of Hebrew servitude, but it does not contradict the passages which say taking slaves is fine.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
We'd have to take each passage on its own merits, I know, but as far as this particular passage (Ex. 21:2-11) goes, I can't see how it comes near to falling into the 'stink' category. If anything, it lifts it out of the stink associated with slavery.

The circumstances that gave rise the related set of judicial rulings in this passage appear to run like this:

In a situation where a man has fallen into debt without any reasonable means of being able to repay on his own account, he is entitled to seek protection – in a covenant relationship – in the house (the economy) of a benefactor from the same community who will pay the debt. The man then has guaranteed work and subsistence in this new relationship, a 'father-son' covenantal relationship that sets up expectations on both sides, and where the weight of the debt has been taken off his shoulders. He has security.

The court making the first ruling looked to the foundational legal principles for guidance (we call them the 10 commandments, listed a chapter earlier) and saw the application of the Sabbath principle here. Accordingly the court ruled that such fellow community members – fellow citizens of the same faith and social community – should not remain in that relationship for more than six years. The seventh is the year of the start of rest and restoration, where the man must be allowed to return to his responsibilities under God, even if by that stage the debt equivalent had not been worked off. He is free from debt and owes nothing to anybody. A man could work for fewer than six years, but not more.

At some point after that courts were asked to rule on a series of subsequent issues:
[1] Question: In a case where a man enters the protective system with his wife, what happens at the end of the protective period?
Answer: He leaves with his wife if he had one. The 'Father' has no right to retain anyone after the conclusion of the six year (or less) period.

[2] Question: In a case where a man agreed to receive the gift of a wife and there are children of the marriage born during the relevant period, who is responsible for whom at the end of that period?
Answer: Starting principle is that if children are born, then they stay with the mother who remains under the protection of the 'Father'.

[3] Question: In a case where children are born during the relevant period, but where the man is pleading to remain with his wife and children, he must formally swear to the court that he will be the loyal one for his family and also declare loyalty to his 'Father'. This declaration will be ratified in the accepted way by ear piercing and this relationship will be lasting, i.e. it supersedes the time-bound Sabbath principle.

And so on; related cases are considered as they arise. The mandate the courts had to apply was the covenant relationship and how to make it work in situations where something had gone wrong, in this case where a member of the community had fallen into hard times and had no protection. This is not really on a par with more modern concepts of slavery, where someone is taken forcefully and against his or her will out of their community and forced to work without reprieve for the duration of their rather brutalised lives.

In these circumstances it might be worth trying to translate the passage differently, avoiding the snare words. For example:
quote:

If you acquire [the verb is not limited to the English word 'buy'] a Hebrew [a subject from the community] worker [the noun covers range of meaning associated with service], he is to work for [be subject to] you for six years, but in the seventh year he will go out free without paying anything [i.e. he is a debt subject, not something else – e.g., war booty].

If he came in [became one of the 'Father's House, protected by the one in charge] by himself he will go out by himself; if he had a wife when he came in, then his wife will go out with him.

If his 'Father' gave him a wife, and she bore sons or daughters, the wife and the children will belong to her 'Father', and he will go out by himself.

But if the subject should declare, ‘I wish to continue owing loyalty and allegiance to my 'Father', my wife, and my children; I will not go out free,’ then his 'Father' must bring him to the judges, and he will bring him to the door or the doorposts, and his 'Father' will pierce his ear with an awl, and he shall work for him forever.

If a man sells his daughter as a female worker, she will not go out as the male workers do. If she does not please her new 'Father', who has designated her for himself, then he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to a foreign nation, because he has dealt deceitfully with her. If he designated her for his son, then he will deal with her according to the customary rights of daughters. If he takes another wife, he must not diminish the first one’s food, her clothing, or her marital rights. If he does not provide her with these three things, then she will go out free, without paying money.


 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Ok, first you have an incorrect view of what slavery is. It is not only the most brutal treatment, it is indefinite servitude.
Second, Exodus 21 is carving out an exemption for the treatment of male Hebrews, not describing anything different to slavery.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Ok, first you have an incorrect view of what slavery is.

It's not a question of an incorrect view of slavery. It's a matter of trying to understand what the text says about the system of slavery as practiced by the Israelites and how it was governed and regulated. That is not to excuse it or pretty it up or paint over it, and certainly not to use it as sanction for continuing such practices.

People upthread are simply trying to explain that slavery in ancient Israel was not the same thing as the system of chattel slavery known in the West in the last 400 years.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
i dont think they are correct.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
A link to a Wikipedia article is a refutation?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
It shows that the treatment and conditions endured by slaves didn't really change. The economic scale is the major difference between ancient world slavery and new world slavery.
Not a hell of a moral highground, IMO.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The issue about whether the bible supports slavery could do with a thread all to itself here in Kerygmania. It would be a worthwhile investigation as it clearly still has resonances in the popular imagination. Here the issue has only really been about the single passage in Exodus 21.

For what it's worth, I'd start off with a good wholesome thesis: Nowhere does the Bible support slavery.

That would then need to be explained along these lines:

[1] The biblical authors have to be understood on their own terms and in the terms they used to express their worldview, mindsets, and resulting cultures. Authorial intention is king (or at least is better than the alternatives)

[2] Importing concepts from other worldviews, mindsets, and resulting cultures, into the biblical texts risks anachronism, which is illegitimate. Concepts from one culture do not automatically overlap with concepts from another. I cannot assume that just because I think about something in one way, that therefore someone from another time and place thought about that something in exactly the same way.

[3] Following from that, and because concepts are communicated so commonly by words, it follows that words used in a translation process have to be chosen on the basis of their 'fit' with the concepts denoted and connoted by words used in the original language. It is rare to find words with a complete fit.

[4] The English word 'slave' carries connotations (and even denotations) that do not map effectively with their Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek counterparts in the Bible. As shown by the issue on this thread and by websites that prove the point, the word 'slave' is proving to be hopeless, in that it has failed to do justice to the concepts behind the biblical words. Rather than promoting study of the bible, it has facilitated a 'reading in' that has distorted the author's original meaning. There is no hope that it can prevent this

[5] Accordingly, it is not appropriate to use the term 'slave' in translation of biblical texts unless it can be shown that the concepts associated with the term 'slave' map sufficiently to their equivalents in the Bible. In lieu of that, and in the absence of a related term that might suffice, I suggest that the biblical authors were communicating a concept that is better translated by the English term 'work' (or cognate terms to that).

Hang on... I'll start a new thread...
 
Posted by Agnostic Believer (# 18566) on :
 
Too many pages to this thread for this ‘newbie’ to attempt even a ‘speed read’ to see if anyone has hit on my stinkiest stinker, which is Genesis 19:1-8.
But what is important, to me, is the lesson that the entire succession of ‘stinkers’ ought to teach us.
And that is that none of the writings of anyone from Moses through to current Religious leaders were/are ‘inspired’ to a degree whereby they were/are exempt from the influence of their culture, cosmic knowledge, or academic capability.
From the most primitive, barbaric, and penal, through to the most civilised, all spoke/wrote accordingly, as distinct from doing so under God’s ‘Robotic Pen’ control.
Even today we still have those whose penal and judgemental personalities would have God resurrecting the majority of mankind for the purpose of subjecting them to an ‘eternal life’ of hellfire torment.
After all is said and done, it is but a mere 400 years since (in Britain) we hunted witches (always female), strapped weights to them, and cast them into deep water…..those that surfaced proving that they were witches and were then burned at the stake, whereas those that stayed submerged were granted posthumous pardons.
 


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