Thread: So what was Israel supposed to do with all the orphans? Board: Dead Horses / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
In the "Father, Son, and Holy Scriptures" thread currently in Purg, EtymologicalEvangelical attempted to justify the killing of infants during the Conquest of Canaan with the following:

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So what was Israel supposed to do with all the orphans?

Presumably let them die a slow death wandering around in the wilderness or bring up thousands of people who would undoubtedly turn on the destroyers of their parents once they reached adulthood? A really great investment in the future for Israel, don't you think?

It seems to me that convenience is a very slender thread to hang murder of infants on. Particularly for someone opposed to convenience abortion.

If convenience justifies killing Canaanite babies, why doesn't it justify abortion? Or if it doesn't justify abortion, then why does it justify killing Canaanite babies?

Both are, on the pro-life argument, innocent. Justifying one and not the other appears an attempt to eat one's cake and have it, as the proverbial goes.

So where's the diff?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Mousethief -

Your entire approach to this problem is wrong.

I do not approve of the killing of Canaanite babies. Neither does God. He hates it as I hate it. But what if He were put in an impossible position due to the extreme evil of the babies' parents, such that He had no choice but to judge them in the harshest possible way?

This is a particular judgment in a particular context, and to suggest that the belief that this was "of God" therefore implies an approval of abortion, is a non sequitur.

In fact, I would affirm that these children were actually murdered. Not by God, but by their own parents. Their own parents may not have actually physically killed them, but in effect they did so, by provoking the righteous judgment of God on the whole nation.

Interestingly this may have some bearing on the abortion issue, but not in the sense, which you imagine.

I am essentially against the practice of abortion. But what happens when, say, a woman becomes pregnant as a result of rape? She may or may not want an abortion (and I have every respect for a woman who wishes to keep her child in that situation - not that it's any of my business anyway). I would say that if she does want an abortion, she should be allowed to have one, but I certainly believe that the rapist becomes a murderer in the eyes of God. He may not have killed the child, but he put the victim in the position where she was forced to bear his child as a result of rape. If then she feels understandably compelled to seek the help of the health service to terminate the pregnancy - i.e. kill the child - then that child has been murdered in the sight of God. But it is not a crime committed by the victim or the state, but by the rapist, who created the situation in which this became a tragic necessity. Now, of course, the state does not reason or legislate in this way, but this is what I believe is the case before God.

If there is any moral principle that is revealed through the judgment on, say, Jericho, it is this: that God's judgment may be provoked such that He is forced to take the lives of the innocent, but the guilt for those lives is imputed to those who provoked the judgment. The same is true of rape and any other illegal and coercive intercourse, such as incest, which may necessitate an abortion.

So therefore, I affirm that abortion, although sometimes necessary, is nevertheless murder (except in the very small number of tragic cases involving danger to the life of the mother and certain very extreme cases of deformity, where the integrity of the personhood of the foetus is seriously compromised, such as with anencephaly).
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
In the "Father, Son, and Holy Scriptures" thread currently in Purg, EtymologicalEvangelical attempted to justify the killing of infants during the Conquest of Canaan with the following:

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So what was Israel supposed to do with all the orphans?

Presumably let them die a slow death wandering around in the wilderness or bring up thousands of people who would undoubtedly turn on the destroyers of their parents once they reached adulthood? A really great investment in the future for Israel, don't you think?


[Projectile]

I read that three times just to confirm I'd read it accurately and I'm still in mild shock.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Tries out new Hat

mousethief, having read the Purg thread and seen the Hostly comment, I appreciate this topic should be discussed somewhere!

Strictly speaking, abortion and child murder are separate topics, one a DH, the other not. But we'll leave the discussion here because of the comparative link, at least until us newbie DH Hosts chat together with Louise, which I'm off to initiate. Whether its long term future will be here may depend on how the thread develops. It can have a gallop here pro tem.

Barnabas62
Dead Horse Host
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Justinian, old chap...

The realisation that there is a brutal reality outside of cosy middle-class western secular democracy does have that effect, I'm afraid.

Still... being in "mild shock" probably excuses you from actually being bovvered to answer the question. I wouldn't want to add to your troubles, poor soul. [Waterworks]

[ 26. February 2014, 19:21: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Justinian, old chap...

The realisation that there is a brutal reality outside of cosy middle-class western secular democracy does have that effect, I'm afraid.

Still... being in "mild shock" probably excuses you from actually being bovvered to answer the question. I wouldn't want to add to your troubles, poor soul. [Waterworks]

EE, even if you take the accuracy of the bible as a given (rather than it being a set of tribal stories) the answer is the following.

There might be a brutal reality. But "I was only following orders" didn't fly as a defence for genocide at Nuremberg.

[ 26. February 2014, 19:33: Message edited by: Justinian ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
If there is any moral principle that is revealed through the judgment on, say, Jericho, it is this: that God's judgment may be provoked such that He is forced to take the lives of the innocent, but the guilt for those lives is imputed to those who provoked the judgment. The same is true of rape and any other illegal and coercive intercourse, such as incest, which may necessitate an abortion.

Wow, God's a real wifebeater, isn't He? This is pretty much the exact justification offered by every abusive asshole: "Why do you keep making me hit you?"

I'm also a bit puzzled that a supposedly omnipotent Being can be "forced" to do anything.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Run it past me again why God is forced to punish people who have not actually done the thing that has offended him, including children. It still makes no sense to me.
 
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on :
 
If we are making this about abortion, the obvious question for those who are pro choice but appalled by Joshua or Samuel is something along the lines of...

How can you get so upset about babies who might have been killed a few thousand years ago at the command of a character who might not even be historical but fight so hard to keep legal a practice responsible for the deaths of 30 million babies in one nation alone?

Personally, I think most abortions are sin. On the other hand, I'm not to prepared to say that about all abortions. Hard to write a law that only allows abortions in the case of incest, rape, and the life of the mother. So, keeping abortion legal is the only way to go about it. At the same time, I'd be OK if all abortion clinics were closed and the procedure was only performed in hospitals by an OBGYN with admitting privileges.

On the issue of the Israelites killing babies because God says so, I haven't a clue which of you is right. The old consensus was that Deuteronomy, Joshua, and Samuel were all written by the Deuteronomists (D) meaning that they likely didn't see themselves as contradicting one another. On the other hand, OT scholars no longer accept that old consensus. We have no clue who wrote Joshua and Samuel and if they were worried about contradicting Deuteronomy or Ezekiel. So, the OT really might contradict itself.

But wait...there is more. EE gives a plausible explanation of why the two don't contradict each other. Plausible doesn't mean true.

Historicity aside. I take the stories as written to be a part of scripture and that they tell us something about God. That said, from a scriptural standpoint, the preponderance of scripture and tradition teaches that it is wrong to kill children because of what their parents do. I'd also claim it teaches the same thing about abortion.

We could also talk about the drone strikes that Obama authorized which killed children for the sins of their parents. Obama is firm believer in abortion being legal. So, I guess there isn't much of a contradiction for him.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Mousethief -

Your entire approach to this problem is wrong.

I do not approve of the killing of Canaanite babies. Neither does God. He hates it as I hate it.

The immortal, omniscient, omnipotent being does something he hates. I've some seafront property in Florida to sell you.

quote:
But what if He were put in an impossible position due to the extreme evil of the babies' parents, such that He had no choice but to judge them in the harshest possible way?
Then he can judge the parents not the kids. Killing the kids rather than commanding their adoption and God himself offering visible signs of repentance for having had to commit genocide is purely gratuitous.

quote:
In fact, I would affirm that these children were actually murdered. Not by God, but by their own parents. Their own parents may not have actually physically killed them, but in effect they did so, by provoking the righteous judgment of God on the whole nation.
"Honey. Why did you make me have to hit you. Why did you do it honey? I'm only hitting you because you provoke me." Fuck that noise. It's directly from the abusers' playbook.

And even if it were true it would not excuse a massacre of the innocent.

quote:
If there is any moral principle that is revealed through the judgment on, say, Jericho, it is this: that God's judgment may be provoked such that He is forced to take the lives of the innocent, but the guilt for those lives is imputed to those who provoked the judgment.
I'd call that bullshit. I'd say that there is one obvious moral principle revealed by Jericho. And that is that God can retroactively be used to excuse any atrocity, even genocide. And that claiming that God commanded you to genocide means that some people will absolve you of guilt.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
If we are making this about abortion, the obvious question for those who are pro choice but appalled by Joshua or Samuel is something along the lines of...

How can you get so upset about babies who might have been killed a few thousand years ago at the command of a character who might not even be historical but fight so hard to keep legal a practice responsible for the deaths of 30 million babies in one nation alone?

Because a being without a functional brain isn't in any functional sense a human. It's a bundle of cells with no more thought, awareness, or other positive human traits than either a finger or a cancer. If it has no sentience I honestly don't care about it.

Next question?

[ 26. February 2014, 19:46: Message edited by: Justinian ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
If we are making this about abortion, the obvious question for those who are pro choice but appalled by Joshua or Samuel is something along the lines of...

How can you get so upset about babies who might have been killed a few thousand years ago at the command of a character who might not even be historical but fight so hard to keep legal a practice responsible for the deaths of 30 million babies in one nation alone?

Because it says something about the God we're all supposed to be believing in. If we assert that the record in the bible must be true, then we're actually saying that all this crap about 'loving your neighbour' is actually not worth believing, because God himself doesn't practice that. And not only does he not practice it, he goes further and punishes individuals who have nothing to do with the original offence.

We might as well believe in the gods of Olympus, they at least did things for a reason: their own amusement.

quote:
Personally, I think most abortions are sin. On the other hand, I'm not to prepared to say that about all abortions. Hard to write a law that only allows abortions in the case of incest, rape, and the life of the mother. So, keeping abortion legal is the only way to go about it. At the same time, I'd be OK if all abortion clinics were closed and the procedure was only performed in hospitals by an OBGYN with admitting privileges.
I really don't think this has anything to do with abortion, and everything to do with the character of God.

quote:
On the issue of the Israelites killing babies because God says so, I haven't a clue which of you is right. The old consensus was that Deuteronomy, Joshua, and Samuel were all written by the Deuteronomists (D) meaning that they likely didn't see themselves as contradicting one another. On the other hand, OT scholars no longer accept that old consensus. We have no clue who wrote Joshua and Samuel and if they were worried about contradicting Deuteronomy or Ezekiel. So, the OT really might contradict itself.
I'm not sure that helps EE's position much. Basically you are saying that the OT is inaccurate or God is a bastard. That isn't much of a choice.

quote:
But wait...there is more. EE gives a plausible explanation of why the two don't contradict each other. Plausible doesn't mean true.

Historicity aside. I take the stories as written to be a part of scripture and that they tell us something about God. That said, from a scriptural standpoint, the preponderance of scripture and tradition teaches that it is wrong to kill children because of what their parents do. I'd also claim it teaches the same thing about abortion.

Exactly. If this story is actually about God, it tells us something very serious about God: he is a bastard and if someone in your family gets on the wrong side of him, beware of the shrapnel.

quote:
We could also talk about the drone strikes that Obama authorized which killed children for the sins of their parents. Obama is firm believer in abortion being legal. So, I guess there isn't much of a contradiction for him.
We could. If that had anything at all to do with it.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
God being put in an 'impossible position' ...

'Nothing is impossible with God ...'

Don't you think you are in danger of putting restrictions on the Almighty, EE?

You often have a go at the Calvinists for making God out to be some kind of torturer - admittedly in terms of eternal predestination which is rather different to what we're discussing here - but don't you think that the same principle might apply?

One of the arguments against Calvinism, of course, is that in seeking to defend God's sovereignty it actually limits it - because it effectively puts God into a straitjacket where he is put into an 'impossible position' - ie. forgiving and redeeming people without somehow compromising his own holiness and justice.

You know how the argument goes because you have railed against it yourself at various times.

Now, here we apparently see you arguing along similar lines. God has painted himself into a corner. He has subjected Himself - the eternal God - to an impossible position that he can't get out of ...

I'm sure you'll have thought through the implications of this as a bright and intelligent chap ...

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Mousethief -

quote:
[qb]But what if He were put in an impossible position due to the extreme evil of the babies' parents, such that He had no choice but to judge them in the harshest possible way?


No choice? No choice??

The sovereign and eternal God had no choice???

[Confused]

You'd rather restrict God's freedom of movement than look at alternative explanations - of which there are several available and all within the bounds of generally accepted Christian orthodoxy.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
I'm not sure that helps EE's position much. Basically you are saying that the OT is inaccurate or God is a bastard. That isn't much of a choice.

That's a false dichotomy. It could be "both/and" just as easily as "either/or".
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Hmmm ... I think I've heard that somewhere before ...
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
EE, even if you take the accuracy of the bible as a given (rather than it being a set of tribal stories) the answer is the following.

Best would have been for God not to have fucked up his own creation enough that genocide of the adults was desirable.

Next best would have been for God to do his own dirty work rather than turned his supposedly chosen people into a tribe of genocidal monsters.

After that comes killing the adults and adopting the kids, bringing them up as their own children and redeeming the (supposedly) evil by surrounding them by light.

Only after that comes telling people to crush the voice of their consciences and commit genocide on innocent children come into the issue.

There might be a brutal reality. But "I was only following orders" didn't fly as a defence for genocide at Nuremberg.

Interestingly, I was thinking of you when I made the following comment on the thread in Purg:

quote:
(The incredible irony of this is that it is often the case that those sceptics, atheists and liberals who rail against these passages of the Old Testament, have no hesitation in declaring themselves against the pro-life position, as I have discovered on the Ship!)
Ah well...

Anyway, getting back to your points above...

1. God did not fuck up his own creation. Man did. We are, after all, beings with free will and moral responsibility. I know atheists can't bear this fact, although strangely many of them act as though people really do have free will, because they expect us to agree with their position. Quite obviously if none of us have free will, then we are theists because we have been programmed to be. Logic clearly isn't the atheist's forte. Never mind.

2. The "next best" probably had something to do with God wanting his people to understand the consequences of evil in no uncertain terms. Being part of the process of judgment would have inculcated this truth into them like nothing else.

3. The adoption scenario is pretty absurd given the demographics as well as the psychology of the situation. For Israel to be overrun by thousands of children who would grow up asking what happened to their parents, and would undoubtedly be bent on revenge seems to me to be suicidal. Adopting a "fifth column" doesn't sound particularly wise to me.

4. The last option is bullshit. You have no evidence whatsoever that the people were required to "crush their consciences". I am sure they were keen to protect their nation from an evil influence

It's ironic that you should bring up Nuremberg. If the nations of Canaan had not been judged there would most probably not have been a Jewish people for Hitler to persecute. The 'kindness' of Justinian types would have done Hitler's work for him thousands of years ago.

[ 26. February 2014, 20:07: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

It's ironic that you should bring up Nuremberg. If the nations of Canaan had not been judged there would most probably not have been a Jewish people for Hitler to persecute. The 'kindness' of Justinian types would have done Hitler's work for him thousands of years ago.

That's an interesting thought. Pray, what bad thing had all the adult Jews affected by the holocaust in the world done to deserve all their children being killed by the Nazis? It must have been something pretty terrible, according to this argument.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Of course the Nazi's had feck all to do with God's judgement on Israel. Which had feck all to do with the holocaust.

And this just shows the ludicrousness of the argument - transposed to modern times we would dismiss this story out of hand.

[ 26. February 2014, 20:13: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
God being put in an 'impossible position' ...

'Nothing is impossible with God ...'

Don't you think you are in danger of putting restrictions on the Almighty, EE?

You often have a go at the Calvinists for making God out to be some kind of torturer - admittedly in terms of eternal predestination which is rather different to what we're discussing here - but don't you think that the same principle might apply?

No, the same principle certainly does not apply. Calvinism denies human freedom, whereas I affirm it, and a God who respects human freedom has chosen to limit Himself thereby.

Nothing is impossible for the God, who, in Christ, wept over Jerusalem. I assume you can see the paradox?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I do not approve of the killing of Canaanite babies. Neither does God. He hates it as I hate it. But what if He were put in an impossible position due to the extreme evil of the babies' parents, such that He had no choice but to judge them in the harshest possible way?

Then he is a weak God, if he cannot execute justice without contradicting his own nature.

quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
I'm also a bit puzzled that a supposedly omnipotent Being can be "forced" to do anything.

Precisely.

quote:
EE said:4. The last option is bullshit. You have no evidence whatsoever that the people were required to "crush their consciences". I am sure they were keen to protect their nation from an evil influence
You're saying killing babies gave them no pang of conscience at all. That doesn't exactly paint them in a very positive light.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Nothing is impossible for the God, who, in Christ, wept over Jerusalem. I assume you can see the paradox?

Nothing is impossible for God except executing justice on naughty Canaanites without killing innocent babies. On your own admission.

[ 26. February 2014, 20:19: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
No, the same principle certainly does not apply. Calvinism..., whereas I..

That told you, Gam.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
1. God did not fuck up his own creation. Man did. We are, after all, beings with free will and moral responsibility.

A responsibility you deny to God. You also deny the responsibility of doing good work to God.

quote:
2. The "next best" probably had something to do with God wanting his people to understand the consequences of evil in no uncertain terms. Being part of the process of judgment would have inculcated this truth into them like nothing else.
And this is nonsense. If God punishing people didn't work (as it manifestly didn't) why would God making them do the punishments?

quote:
3. The adoption scenario is pretty absurd given the demographics as well as the psychology of the situation. For Israel to be overrun by thousands of children who would grow up asking what happened to their parents, and would undoubtedly be bent on revenge seems to me to be suicidal. Adopting a "fifth column" doesn't sound particularly wise to me.
Apparently you don't know what the word "adoption" means. And don't believe in redemption.

quote:
4. The last option is bullshit. You have no evidence whatsoever that the people were required to "crush their consciences". I am sure they were keen to protect their nation from an evil influence
Kids are not born evil. At least not unless God's image is evil. If there was an evil inflence there it is unlikely to be larger than the one that made them all commit genocide - although anyone who tried to protect them from that influence came to a sticky end.

quote:
It's ironic that you should bring up Nuremberg. If the nations of Canaan had not been judged there would most probably not have been a Jewish people for Hitler to persecute. The 'kindness' of Justinian types would have done Hitler's work for him thousands of years ago.
As opposed to God ordering genocide on the Caananites?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I kinda like the idea that because we didn't utterly destroy Germany after the war, walk through the streets killing all live children, incinerate any record of their culture and remove any reference to their language - we were actually better than God.

That's quite brightened up my day.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But what if He were put in an impossible position due to the extreme evil of the babies' parents, such that He had no choice but to judge them in the harshest possible way?

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Nothing is impossible for the God, who, in Christ, wept over Jerusalem. I assume you can see the paradox?

If nothing is impossible for God, then God was not put in an impossible position. Therefore God either had the babies killed because having the babies killed pleased God or the bible is an unreliable account.

Take your pick. Because there are only three options.

I go for option 3. You have ruled out option 1. And I believe reject option 3. Leaving you with a God who chose to have babies slaughtered.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
The immortal, omniscient, omnipotent being does something he hates.

Absolutely correct. "I have no pleasure in the death of him who dies", and "the Lord does not afflict willingly..."

Ezekiel 18:32 and Lamentations 3:33 respectively.

quote:
Then he can judge the parents not the kids. Killing the kids rather than commanding their adoption and God himself offering visible signs of repentance for having had to commit genocide is purely gratuitous.
Easy for you in your complacent comfort bubble to say something like this.

quote:
"Honey. Why did you make me have to hit you. Why did you do it honey? I'm only hitting you because you provoke me." Fuck that noise. It's directly from the abusers' playbook.
Pathetic comparison. I don't need to say anything more about this bullshit.

quote:
I'd call that bullshit. I'd say that there is one obvious moral principle revealed by Jericho. And that is that God can retroactively be used to excuse any atrocity, even genocide. And that claiming that God commanded you to genocide means that some people will absolve you of guilt.
I am not using God to excuse anything. Am I planning to go off and commit genocide and that is why I am putting these arguments?

Errmm... nope.

Which rather shows how fucking stupid your comment was.
 
Posted by StevHep (# 17198) on :
 
I think the idea is for Christians to read the OT in the light of the NT. The running theme through the history of the relationship between the Israelites and the Canaanites is that whenever the two mingled the Israelites took to worshipping Canaanite deities and forsaking the Lord. One of the aspects of this worship, allegedly, was child sacrifice. The command to extirpate the Canaanites was posited on the need to keep the People of God faithful to their Covenant relationship and the Children of Israel safe from sacrifice.

Much of the Law was concerned with this notion of purity, keeping wool separate from linen was emblematic of not creating impurity through mixing things up. The way that the People of God was to be in the world but not of the world was by creating a sacred realm within which all was pure and from which they could then have dealings with the profane realms outside the Covenant. In that context the presence within the realm of Canaanites was a guarantee of impurity.

This should, from a Christian POV, be primarily read as a type in carnal form of the spiritual realities which should guide the new People of God the Church in how she operates in the world but not of it. That is, the Church should be One and she should be Holy and that she should not be afraid to exclude from her fold those who will not accept her doctrines nor treat with reverence her sacraments. Which does not exclude an eagerness to increase to the maximum the size of the fold so that it becomes as numerous as the grains of sand on the seashore.

So it is right to view such biblical commands primarily in the context of the aim that God has to secure a right relationship of His People with Him. Still, if one accepts that there is to some degree a literal truth underlying the theological purpose of the narrative it does pose ethical questions. On that I would say firstly since it relates to the Old Covenant there can be no read through to these latter days of the New so Christians can never be commanded or pretend to have been commanded to act in such ways.

Secondly the Israelites could only do such a thing with the specific command of God relayed through an undisputed authority as a mandate and other examples of such conduct from them are to be reprehended.

Thirdly life belongs to its Creator and it does not end with death. If it is not possible for human agents of God to punish the guilty without having knock on effects on the innocent then they have the dilemma of either not punishing the guilty at all or of doing so but at a cost to the guiltless. However, justice denied in time can be secured in eternity if the Creator wills it to be so. In the cases of the Holy Innocents in Nazareth and the victims of abortion today when children are killed without the Divine Mandate we can have great hope or even certainty of their place in heaven. We have every reason therefore to hope for the same in the case of those innocents who die with it as in the case of the Canaanites and, indeed, also the Jews in the time of Nebuchadnezzar and the destruction of Jerusalem.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I am not using God to excuse anything. Am I planning to go off and commit genocide and that is why I am putting these arguments?

Errmm... nope.

Which rather shows how fucking stupid your comment was.

Why not? It is biblical, innit?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
I feel that some of you are close to making a Hell call.

I encourage you to do so if you are so minded, not least because otherwise I may well beat you to it and you'll be disappointed not to have got there first.
 
Posted by Garasu (# 17152) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
I'm not sure that helps EE's position much. Basically you are saying that the OT is inaccurate or God is a bastard. That isn't much of a choice.

That's a false dichotomy. It could be "both/and" just as easily as "either/or".
Unless otherwise specified, "or" is normally supposed to mean, logically, "at least one of the alternatives is true" rather than "at most one of the alternatives is true".
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
Wow. Theodicy, scriptural inerrancy and divine omnipotence. Together again the way you've always wanted them.

There's also Elisha and the Bears and, of course, Noah and the Flood. All those unclean animals that God was helpless to save from God's wrath.

One other thought for those who are trying to link abortion and divine genocide. Are miscarriages abortions by God that he's helpless to prevent?

[ 26. February 2014, 20:45: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
If nothing is impossible for God, then God was not put in an impossible position.

Therefore God either had the babies killed because having the babies killed pleased God or the bible is an unreliable account.

Take your pick. Because there are only three options.

Things are impossible for God

God was pleased by the killing of babies

The account is not reliable

I go for option 3. You have ruled out option 1. And I believe reject option 3. Leaving you with a God who chose to have babies slaughtered.

Your logic is pretty crap, to put it mildly.

"Nothing is impossible for God" does not mean God can create a square circle, or a rock too heavy for Him to lift. God does not contradict logic, and logical contradiction renders something a nothingness.

God has created morally responsible beings with free will. That is their essence. Therefore it follows that God cannot relate to them in a way that denies their essence. That would be tantamount to not relating to them. So this contradiction - being a self-destructive 'nothing' - is impossible for God, given that "nothing is impossible for God".

Therefore man can put God in a position in which He has to act in a way He would prefer not to.

So we have three options:

1. Nothing is impossible for God.

2. Man has free will and therefore can thwart the preferred purposes of God, because God cannot contradict Himself by undermining man's free will.

3. Therefore God may find Himself in a position where He has to judge people, when He would ideally prefer not to.

Oh, and there's a fourth...

4. The account is reliable.

Clearly.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
God does not contradict logic

Oh good, that means God definitely was a mass murderer.

I do love this logical approach.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
StevHep -

Excellent post. [Overused]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by StevHep:
Thirdly life belongs to its Creator and it does not end with death. If it is not possible for human agents of God to punish the guilty without having knock on effects on the innocent then they have the dilemma of either not punishing the guilty at all or of doing so but at a cost to the guiltless. However, justice denied in time can be secured in eternity if the Creator wills it to be so. In the cases of the Holy Innocents in Nazareth and the victims of abortion today when children are killed without the Divine Mandate we can have great hope or even certainty of their place in heaven. We have every reason therefore to hope for the same in the case of those innocents who die with it as in the case of the Canaanites and, indeed, also the Jews in the time of Nebuchadnezzar and the destruction of Jerusalem.

So the Christian position is that killing kids is kind of a "no harm, no foul" situation?

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
2. Man has free will and therefore can thwart the preferred purposes of God, because God cannot contradict Himself by undermining man's free will.

Doesn't that contradict the Exodus account where God hardens Pharaoh's heart? Why doesn't Pharaoh get free will?
 
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
If we are making this about abortion, the obvious question for those who are pro choice but appalled by Joshua or Samuel is something along the lines of...

How can you get so upset about babies who might have been killed a few thousand years ago at the command of a character who might not even be historical but fight so hard to keep legal a practice responsible for the deaths of 30 million babies in one nation alone?

Because a being without a functional brain isn't in any functional sense a human. It's a bundle of cells with no more thought, awareness, or other positive human traits than either a finger or a cancer. If it has no sentience I honestly don't care about it.

Next question?

Yes but you aren't a Christian and didn't start a thread in Dead Horses comparing the two events. Personally, I couldn't care less about the new atheist opinion on Christian theology. I'm not sure why you are so troubled about what a God you don't believe exists told a character that historians don't believe existed to do several thousand years ago. Well, I know what reason you will give. I just think it's melodramatic malarkey.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Yeah, but even that comic satirical post, hilariously lampooning atheism makes more sense than EE's position.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Croesos
Doesn't that contradict the Exodus account where God hardens Pharaoh's heart? Why doesn't Pharaoh get free will?

I am not going to reinvent the wheel, so read my explanation in this post. It's about halfway through the post.
 
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on :
 
quote:
originally posted by Justinian:
The immortal, omniscient, omnipotent being does something he hates. I've some seafront property in Florida to sell you.

No you don't. Florida is actually on the ocean. What you have is some ocean front property in Arizona.

Here
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I feel that some of you are close to making a Hell call.

I encourage you to do so if you are so minded, not least because otherwise I may well beat you to it and you'll be disappointed not to have got there first.

Ah, go on then.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
Well, this is very interesting. Most answers to the Problem of Evil take the line that God could intervene, but doesn't, because He has some higher purpose in mind. Now EE seems prepared to argue that actually God does intervene, but only by genocide.

Most odd ...
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus
Now EE seems prepared to argue that actually God does intervene, but only by genocide.

Only by genocide??

Where the hell did I say that? [Confused]

Funny, but I thought I was simply upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.
 
Posted by StevHep (# 17198) on :
 
quote:
So the Christian position is that killing kids is kind of a "no harm, no foul" situation?


What might happen to the child in eternity does not obviate the moral consequences for the killers in both time and eternity. Any action needs to be considered in the light not simply of its consequences but also of its motivations. That an act motivated by a disordered passion may have, through the mercy of God, an happy outcome does not prevent the actor being called to account for the grave sin of becoming an agent off evil.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
Basically EE as far as I can see your position is:

a. That there exists some kind of Cosmic Evilness Threshold. Below this threshold God cannot intervene because to do so would deny human freedom. Above this threshold God has to intervene because (not sure why actually).

b. The Evilness of the Canaanites was above the threshold.

c. The only possible intervention was genocide.

And the evidence you have presented for all this is ... a lot of sarcasm! (With exclamation marks for added convincingness.)
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus
Now EE seems prepared to argue that actually God does intervene, but only by genocide.

Only by genocide??

Where the hell did I say that? [Confused]

OK, that was a bit of a distortion, but you're prepared to argue at length that the only possible intervention in the case of the Canaanites was genocide.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
What I'm suggesting, EE is that you are as guilty as limiting God as the Calvinists are often said to be.

In the Calvinist schema God is restricted rather differently to how your God is restricted - but he is still, arguably, restricted.

The details are different but the principles remain the same.

I'm with SteveHep on these things being understood through the lens of the NT and to be taken typologically and so on. The Church effectively 'Christianised' the OT, of course.

I do believe that there is an underlying historicity to these accounts but I don't believe that they are necessarily blow-by-blow accounts of how things actually happened on the ground.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Ricardus -

Your dispute is not with me, but with the Bible.

Unless you have a version of the Bible without the offending accounts!
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
No, the dispute Ricardus has is with your interpretation of the Bible.

The Bible and your interpretation of it are not coterminous.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
I'm with SteveHep on these things being understood through the lens of the NT and to be taken typologically and so on. The Church effectively 'Christianised' the OT, of course.

I am not aware that StevHep put the view that the events were merely typological. StevHep can speak for him-/herself on that one.

Dare I suggest that it's... wait for it... (drum roll please)... not a case of either/or but both/and.

quote:
No, the dispute Ricardus has is with your interpretation of the Bible.
Funny, but I don't remember being the author of the book of Joshua. Read the account for yourself. It's pretty clear.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Croesos
Doesn't that contradict the Exodus account where God hardens Pharaoh's heart? Why doesn't Pharaoh get free will?

I am not going to reinvent the wheel, so read my explanation in this post. It's about halfway through the post.
Your interpretation seems incredibly convoluted and strained. The Exodus account has a fairly set formula of a plague happening, Pharaoh relenting and telling Moses the Israelites can go, and then some variation of "But the Lord hardened Pharaoh's heart, and he was not willing to let them go." The most straightforward reading (and I suspect you come from a religious tradition that likes the idea of Biblical literalism) is that there's some kind of causal connection between what goes before the "and" and what follows after.

Your interpretation is that the Bible is giving us sentences along the lines of "John Hinckley shot Ronald Reagan, and Ronald Reagan died". Both clauses are true, but the sentence is written in a deliberately deceptive way.
 
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on :
 
quote:
originally posted by pydseybare:
Because it says something about the God we're all supposed to be believing in. If we assert that the record in the bible must be true, then we're actually saying that all this crap about 'loving your neighbour' is actually not worth believing, because God himself doesn't practice that. And not only does he not practice it, he goes further and punishes individuals who have nothing to do with the original offence.

We might as well believe in the gods of Olympus, they at least did things for a reason: their own amusement.

I'd believe in the god's of Olympus if I believed in the gods of Olympus. If I wanted to believe in a God that told me what I wanted to hear or thought I should want to hear, I could create such a God easily enough. I do not. So, I don't.
To me, even if God never ordered the death of children, the mere fact the story is included in scripture tells us something about God. Does it tell us something about God that most 21st century Westerners want to hear? Nope. But that doesn't mean it isn't true. As far as I'm concerned those stories are part of the tradition and must be wrestled with not just simply dismissed because we don't like what they tell us about God. What it doesn't do is contradict Jesus telling us to love God and love our neighbors. Unless you practice a hermeneutic of preferences and proof-texts, then it does or doesn't depending on you guessed it...


quote:
originally posted by pydseybare:
I really don't think this has anything to do with abortion, and everything to do with the character of God.

And yet here we have a thread in Dead Horses talking about abortion. [Confused]

quote:
originally posted by pydseybare:
I'm not sure that helps EE's position much. Basically you are saying that the OT is inaccurate or God is a bastard. That isn't much of a choice.

What made you think I was trying to help EE's case?

quote:
originally posted by pydseybare:
Exactly. If this story is actually about God, it tells us something very serious about God: he is a bastard and if someone in your family gets on the wrong side of him, beware of the shrapnel.

Well, Jesus who you claim is your example knew about these stories and said little to discount them. Rather, he said to love God. If you think that God is a bastard, it is because you are judging God by your own standards of morality. I am perfectly willing to admit that God as presented in the Bible is a bastard by 21st Century Western standards. I just don't care about those standards


quote:
originally posted by pydseybare:
We could. If that had anything at all to do with it.

Has as much to do with it as abortion. Considering how many people who have a problem with the OT love them some Barack Obama, I'd say it has even more to do with it. Especially since for many of those sorts of people I've met, religion is only useful if it can be used to support their political preferences.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Being typological and 'merely typological' are two different things, EE.

I am not saying that these events are purely typographical - I am sure there are historical events behind the accounts. I keep saying that and you appear not to notice. Perhaps because you are obsessed with arguing against what you think I'm saying rather than what I am actually saying.

Of course these things are in the Bible. We wouldn't be having this discussion if they weren't.

The issue isn't that they are there, but how they are to be understood.

Your view seems to be that the only legitimate way to understand them is as straightforward historical narratives in a way that no other ancient text from any culture happens to be.

I don't think that is tenable.

Nor do I see it as contradictory that the scriptures can be inspired and yet contain stories that are not 100% historically accurate in every respect.

That's not how these things work.
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
hosting

Glad to see a Hell call has been made for people to take all personal conflicts off this thread. Can I ask that people take their personal animosity to other posters off to the Hell Board as per C4* and back off from trading barely disguised personal insults on this thread.
Thanks
Louise
Dead Horses host

hosting off

* or just drop it on this board - the choice is yours.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Of course, I meant 'purely typological' not 'purely typographical'.

[Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Yes but you aren't a Christian and didn't start a thread in Dead Horses comparing the two events. Personally, I couldn't care less about the new atheist opinion on Christian theology. I'm not sure why you are so troubled about what a God you don't believe exists told a character that historians don't believe existed to do several thousand years ago. Well, I know what reason you will give. I just think it's melodramatic malarkey.

I don't particularly care about what a God I don't believe in says. What I care about is the moral reasoning or lack of it of the real live humans I share this planet with.

quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
originally posted by Justinian:
The immortal, omniscient, omnipotent being does something he hates. I've some seafront property in Florida to sell you.

No you don't. Florida is actually on the ocean. What you have is some ocean front property in Arizona.

Here

Thank you [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
What I don't understand is this ...

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:


[QUOTE]Then he can judge the parents not the kids. Killing the kids rather than commanding their adoption and God himself offering visible signs of repentance for having had to commit genocide is purely gratuitous.

Easy for you in your complacent comfort bubble to say something like this.

Why is Justinian in any more of a 'complacent comfort bubble' than anyone else on these boards?

Why isn't EE's interpretative framework something of a 'comfort bubble'?

Why is it a comfort bubble for Justinian and not EE?

This sounds awfully like the holier-than-thou guilt trips that EE keeps accusing Pydseybare of imposing on people.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
That's not how these things work.

According to whom? Are you some kind of incontrovertible authority on these matters, or what??

Unless there is a good textual reason to doubt the historicity of an account, then it is perfectly acceptable to assume that it is accurate. That is generally how historical study works.

Not personally liking the events is not a good reason to doubt their historicity.

I am sure there are many people who wish Oliver Cromwell hadn't acted as he did at Drogheda and Wexford. But not liking his actions does not mean that the events did not take place. Kinda obvious really...
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Why is Justinian in any more of a 'complacent comfort bubble' than anyone else on these boards?

Why isn't EE's interpretative framework something of a 'comfort bubble'?

Why is it a comfort bubble for Justinian and not EE?

This sounds awfully like the holier-than-thou guilt trips that EE keeps accusing Pydseybare of imposing on people.

It's strange - and rather telling - that you ask me a string of questions, and then draw a highly spurious conclusion (before even allowing me time to answer the questions!!), but the elephant in the room is your - and certain other contributors' - refusal to answer the question that forms the title of this thread.

Answer that and then I'll answer your questions.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
It's strange - and rather telling - that you ask me a string of questions, and then draw a highly spurious conclusion (before even allowing me time to answer the questions!!), but the elephant in the room is your - and certain other contributors' - refusal to answer the question that forms the title of this thread.

Answer that and then I'll answer your questions.

Asked and answered.

If there was any need for the genocide, adopt as many of the orphans as you possibly can. You just refuse to accept this.

However that God had screwed up badly enough in guiding his children that he needed one group of them to commit genocide on another is telling about the competence of your version of God.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
After a day away I've just about caught up with this and the original thread on scripture. You've done about four pages between you since I last looked in!!

My own tentative answer on this [and not just mine, I've come across it elsewhere though the only name I can now remember is CS Lewis' friend Sheldon van Auken (hope I've spelled that right) in his book 'A Severe Mercy'] is based on the idea that we live in a real world where what we do has real consequences, from which God does not entirely protect us precisely so that the world can be real and significant, that what we do can REALLY matter.

Put a bit crudely, we do not live in a cartoony 'Tom & Jerry' world in which no matter how often Tom is diced by running through a mesh fence, or Jerry flattened by a steam roller, all it needs is a quick 'cut' to a new scene and all is healed (until the next time). Such a world is great fun in a cartoon which we know isn't real - but to live in such a world would be pretty meaningless and our actions in such a world insignificant and ultimately unimportant.

A bit more seriously, nor do we live in the kind of world where any time we want to commit evil, all the laws of physics suddenly change to make it impossible - the rock we throw, intending to kill, suddenly turns into a balloon; the gun will always misfire, and so on. Again such a world would render our moral decisions unreal, ultimately unimportant, more than a bit meaningless. Of course the logic of such a world would lead ultimately to a world in which evil is simply impossible because God makes us just choiceless robots who can only do good. I think you know that if you meet such a world in a sci-fi or fantasy story, you probably wouldn't be happy with it.

The 'real-world' concept means that what you do is important and has real results - including the Holocaust, the Moors Murders, the Cambodian killing fields and all manner of other problems. Does God intervene so that it isn't as bad as it might be? Yes. Does he intervene to the point that moral decisions are obviously meaningless, unchallenging, or mindlessly robotic? No. Does God guarantee that in relation to this real world there will be no ultimate injustice? Yes. For the repentant, there is forgiveness and a change based on lived-out reality rather than God just 'magically' and arbitrarily 'making them good; for the unrepentant, well the fact that there will be no ultimate injustice means they will pay for their sins, and not only the individual acts of sin but for the kind of person they have made of themselves (arguably the important meaning of the image of 'Gehenna' is not the fire, but the fact that in our world, the place was a rubbish dump). Those posing a 'cosy' view of Jesus should note that in some of his teachings he portrays himself as the judge in this context.

For the undeserving sufferers, well emphatically as Abraham said, "Shall not the judge of all the earth do right?" and should we not trust Him with that and ourselves get on with our lives as God wants - which in itself will be a major contribution to goodness in the world.

Apart from the conscious obedience of his people, God intervenes in other ways, which can include using human wars. We trust that when he does this kind of thing, his intervention is better than whatever would have been the alternative.

In the acts of Israel in the early OT, we appear to have a very much 'one-off' situation in which God carries out such a providential judgement 'in the open', using his own people in their invasion of Canaan to execute judgement on the Canaanites. From these scenarios they also very much learn, and the ultimate trend of these events is towards good and, to put it shortly, towards Jesus. Israel was not generally allowed to just 'do their own thing' in such matters, and often God allowed them to come unstuck when they did.

I won't, indeed couldn't, spell out every last detail of this idea, but setting the 'real world that matters' against the arbitrary alternatives, the Tom and Jerry world or the robot world, it may be worth the price....
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
"Honey. Why did you make me have to hit you. Why did you do it honey? I'm only hitting you because you provoke me." Fuck that noise. It's directly from the abusers' playbook.
Pathetic comparison. I don't need to say anything more about this bullshit.
Only if you want YOUR words to be taken seriously. Blowing off other people's analogies with "pathetic comparison" is not argumentation at all. You should be able to show why it's pathetic, and indicate in what way it is disanalagous. Otherwise your post is pathetic bloviating.

quote:
Originally posted by Garasu:
Unless otherwise specified, "or" is normally supposed to mean, logically, "at least one of the alternatives is true" rather than "at most one of the alternatives is true".

Natural language doesn't use words the way logicians do. What "or" means depends entirely on context. If the menu at the restaurant says you can have fries or baked potato, you wouldn't get very far if you argued that "or" should include "both."

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Funny, but I thought I was simply upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.

YES! THIS IS EXACTLY THE PROBLEM! What you are upholding is the truth and integrity of your interpretation of Scripture. You mistakenly believe that you are upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Funny, but I don't remember being the author of the book of Joshua. Read the account for yourself. It's pretty clear.

It is indeed. But whether or not it is an accurate and historical account of what happened is a matter of interpretation. Reading the account will not tell us that, any more than reading Pride and Prejudice will tell us whether there was really an Englishman named Mr. Darcy who married a woman named Elizabeth under such-and-such circumstances. Despite the text being pretty darned clear.

quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
To me, even if God never ordered the death of children, the mere fact the story is included in scripture tells us something about God.

Yes. It tells us that God took a bunch of people so fucked up that they thought murdering a bunch of innocent babies was cool, and even blamed it on Him, and yet he made them into a people worthy to be the progenitors of the Incarnate Christ.

quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
For the undeserving sufferers, well emphatically as Abraham said, "Shall not the judge of all the earth do right?" and should we not trust Him with that and ourselves get on with our lives as God wants - which in itself will be a major contribution to goodness in the world.

Interesting you should bring this up -- God saying he would spare a city if there were as few as 10 righteous people in it. We know for a fact there were righteous infants in Jericho. Surely there were at least 10.

We should indeed be living our lives as God wants. But "get on with our lives" seems to imply we should stop arguing about this. And yet, here you are arguing about it. I think we need to argue about this stuff (clearly you do, too).
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

Unless there is a good textual reason to doubt the historicity of an account, then it is perfectly acceptable to assume that it is accurate. That is generally how historical study works.

There being no space for archaeological reasons in historical study?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
I'd believe in the god's of Olympus if I believed in the gods of Olympus. If I wanted to believe in a God that told me what I wanted to hear or thought I should want to hear, I could create such a God easily enough. I do not. So, I don't.
To me, even if God never ordered the death of children, the mere fact the story is included in scripture tells us something about God. Does it tell us something about God that most 21st century Westerners want to hear? Nope. But that doesn't mean it isn't true. As far as I'm concerned those stories are part of the tradition and must be wrestled with not just simply dismissed because we don't like what they tell us about God. What it doesn't do is contradict Jesus telling us to love God and love our neighbors. Unless you practice a hermeneutic of preferences and proof-texts, then it does or doesn't depending on you guessed it...

Two things: first you appear to be suggesting above that you are choosing to believe in this god rather than the other gods of Olympus.

Second, you appear to be suggesting that this God does not contradict the God in Jesus. Which implies that actually, on occasion, God does not want us to love our neighbour - he wants us to destroy them.


quote:
Well, Jesus who you claim is your example knew about these stories and said little to discount them. Rather, he said to love God. If you think that God is a bastard, it is because you are judging God by your own standards of morality. I am perfectly willing to admit that God as presented in the Bible is a bastard by 21st Century Western standards. I just don't care about those standards
I see. The fact of the biblical truth is more important to you than believing in divine consistency. Fair enough.

For me, the consistency of God, expressed in Jesus Christ is far more important than the integrity and accuracy of the bible.


quote:
quote:
originally posted by pydseybare:
We could. If that had anything at all to do with it.

Has as much to do with it as abortion. Considering how many people who have a problem with the OT love them some Barack Obama, I'd say it has even more to do with it. Especially since for many of those sorts of people I've met, religion is only useful if it can be used to support their political preferences.
I think it is surprising that EE chooses to use the terms he has regarding these orphans given his professions about abortion. That seems to me to be contradictory.

In turn, though, that has feck all to do with Barak Obama and his views on abortion.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief
Only if you want YOUR words to be taken seriously. Blowing off other people's analogies with "pathetic comparison" is not argumentation at all. You should be able to show why it's pathetic, and indicate in what way it is disanalagous. Otherwise your post is pathetic bloviating.

The comparison between an abusive husband and the righteous judge who is God, is absurd. Are you seriously expecting people to accept that an abusive person has a legitimate right to appeal to the actions of God to justify his criminality?

Absurd. The implication of this is that God is not permitted to judge anyone for his evil, because if He does, some nutcase will say: "Aw well, God can be a nasty bastard, so therefore I am allowed to be!"

quote:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Funny, but I thought I was simply upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.

YES! THIS IS EXACTLY THE PROBLEM! What you are upholding is the truth and integrity of your interpretation of Scripture. You mistakenly believe that you are upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.
and...

quote:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Funny, but I don't remember being the author of the book of Joshua. Read the account for yourself. It's pretty clear.

It is indeed. But whether or not it is an accurate and historical account of what happened is a matter of interpretation. Reading the account will not tell us that, any more than reading Pride and Prejudice will tell us whether there was really an Englishman named Mr. Darcy who married a woman named Elizabeth under such-and-such circumstances. Despite the text being pretty darned clear.
So presumably you have evidence that the book of Joshua, for example, is fiction? If so, please be so kind as to present it. Personal dislike for the content of the book doesn't count, by the way, as I am sure you must know, if you have any kind of intellectual and academic credentials.

Also, you may like to present evidence to justify abusing (as in the hell thread - "lunatic ravings") someone who happens to believe that the book of Joshua is not fiction.

So anyone who takes an ancient account of an event at face value is guilty of "lunatic ravings" is he? Perhaps we should regard the entire history of the Ancient World as fiction, just to pander to mousethief's delicate sensibilities?

Hmmm... what were you saying about "being taken seriously", again?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
The comparison between an abusive husband and the righteous judge who is God, is absurd. Are you seriously expecting people to accept that an abusive person has a legitimate right to appeal to the actions of God to justify his criminality?

Why wouldn't he? Logic surely suggests to some people that because God ordered something in the bible, it isn't unreasonable to think that he might be ordering me to do it right now. He has done it in the past, he's doing it again now.

quote:
Absurd. The implication of this is that God is not permitted to judge anyone for his evil, because if He does, some nutcase will say: "Aw well, God can be a nasty bastard, so therefore I am allowed to be!"
Actually I can go some distance with you on this thought: if God is responsible for life, he has (at least) some responsibility for death. And given that everyone dies eventually, one might say that God shortening a life is not really murder. Murder being a rather human idea anyway, and one which is hard to migrate to a deity, never mind one who is supposed to be the creator of all things.

But we don't have to go there in this situation. God tells other people to kill, to commit genocide. It isn't God striking down the first born with a mystery illness, this is God telling men to kill without mercy.

And in that latter situation, it is much more difficult to argue with another person who claims that God is likewise calling them, individually, to commit genocide.

Surely that is a pretty obvious and logical point.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton
In the acts of Israel in the early OT, we appear to have a very much 'one-off' situation in which God carries out such a providential judgement 'in the open', using his own people in their invasion of Canaan to execute judgement on the Canaanites.

This point about 'one-off' situations is very important.

What I have noticed from certain contributors, is that they seem to regard the content of the Bible as a set of universal laws, pretexts or precedents, such that if we believe that God acted in a certain way at a certain point in time, then He is bound to act in a similar way in other contexts, or that we are justified in distilling principles from His actions and applying them in other contexts.

So, if I believe that it is true that God judged the people of Jericho as it is literally described in the Book of Joshua, then apparently I am somehow committed to the principle of destroying unwanted children or advocating genocide as a universally legitimate method of dealing with a perceived problem. "You believe that God ordered the destruction of Jericho, therefore you believe in genocide." This is only not a non sequitur on the basis of an erroneous legalistic (and I would say, essentially humanistic) view of Scripture.

This reaction betrays a certain view of the Bible and even of God. It's as if such people are looking for a religion which is reduced to a mere set of universally applicable principles, and the Bible is seen as a repository of those principles. There seems to be no place in such a scheme for the reality of the living God. God does not set precedents, because He is not subject to human legal systems. In His wisdom He may act in a certain way in a certain context, in which there are factors which have no bearing on other contexts. Therefore to act in that way in that context cannot set a precedent for action in other contexts.

It's ironic (and very revealing) that someone like pydseybare talks about following what he feels the Holy Spirit is saying and yet, on the evidence of his comments on the Ship and particularly on this thread, he seems to espouse a view of the Bible, which leaves no room for God's sovereign working, despite claiming to believe in a God who is bigger than logic and moral consistency (as confirmed at the end of this comment)!
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So anyone who takes an ancient account of an event at face value is guilty of "lunatic ravings" is he?

Personally, I have no problem believing that the genocidal event happened. Furthermore, I have no problem believing that the Israelites - including the writer of the Book of Joshua - believed that God had commanded them to do it. After all, we see such delusions even today (9/11 anyone?). The only bit I don't believe is that God actually commanded it.
 
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So presumably you have evidence that the book of Joshua, for example, is fiction? If so, please be so kind as to present it.

For me, the evidence that it is not fully accurate (at least in the sense that it does not accurately portray God's view on what the Israelites should have done) is that it seems utterly in contradiction to the character of God as revealed in Jesus. Can you imagine Jesus - 'Love your enemies, bless those who curse you' Jesus - ordering his followers to commit ethnic cleansing?

But Jesus is our supreme window into the nature of God, is he not? What's going on here, then; as I asked upthread, is it that God's nature changed between OT and NT times? Does God want us to love our enemies except when they're really evil and pagan, in which case it's okay to slaughter them? I don't see a way out of this other than to take Joshua (and the other 'problem texts' in the OT' as not fully expressing the nature and will of God.

EDIT - cross-posted with EE and MtM

[ 27. February 2014, 09:11: Message edited by: South Coast Kevin ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Ricardus -

Your dispute is not with me, but with the Bible.

Unless you have a version of the Bible without the offending accounts!

I don't think it is possible to reconcile the grace, mercy and love passages of the Bible (not to mention those bits in Ezekiel about sons not being punished for the fathers) with the book of Joshua without reading one or other of them in a counterintuitive way. You seem to prefer to distort the grace and love passages, but don't offer any reason for it other than sarcasm.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by South Coast Kevin
For me, the evidence that it is not fully accurate (at least in the sense that it does not accurately portray God's view on what the Israelites should have done) is that it seems utterly in contradiction to the character of God as revealed in Jesus. Can you imagine Jesus - 'Love your enemies, bless those who curse you' Jesus - ordering his followers to commit ethnic cleansing?

But Jesus is our supreme window into the nature of God, is he not? What's going on here, then; as I asked upthread, is it that God's nature changed between OT and NT times? Does God want us to love our enemies except when they're really evil and pagan, in which case it's okay to slaughter them? I don't see a way out of this other than to take Joshua (and the other 'problem texts' in the OT' as not fully expressing the nature and will of God.

But we know from the Gospel of Matthew that Jesus will judge certain people far more harshly than God judged the inhabitants of Jericho...

quote:
"Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels"
Matthew 25:41.

You say:

quote:
Does God want us to love our enemies except when they're really evil and pagan, in which case it's okay to slaughter them?
Who said anything about it being "okay to slaughter them"? There is nothing in the passage in Joshua (and in other similar OT passages) which sets forth these events as universal principles for Christian action (a point I made in my last post above). That is something you are reading into the text.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus
You seem to prefer to distort the grace and love passages, but don't offer any reason for it other than sarcasm.

[Confused]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Well, Jesus who you claim is your example knew about these stories and said little to discount them.

Jesus said relatively little about the Old Testament though, didn't he? Apart from saying some prophecies were about him and giving opinions on specific parts of the Law when someone asked him.

I suppose the line about opening their eyes to understand the Scriptures supports the view that the meaning of Scripture isn't self evident. Certainly some of the exegesis in Hebrews is far from being a plain reading of Scripture.
 
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But we know from the Gospel of Matthew that Jesus will judge certain people far more harshly than God judged the inhabitants of Jericho...

quote:
"Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels"
Matthew 25:41.

Maybe so, but this doesn't resolve the apparent contradiction between 'Love your enemies' and 'Kill them all, including the women and children'.
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You say:
quote:
Does God want us to love our enemies except when they're really evil and pagan, in which case it's okay to slaughter them?
Who said anything about it being "okay to slaughter them"? There is nothing in the passage in Joshua (and in other similar OT passages) which sets forth these events as universal principles for Christian action (a point I made in my last post above). That is something you are reading into the text.
God said it's okay to slaughter them - in fact the Bible records him as commanding that, doesn't it? I'm not saying we should extrapolate a universal principle from Joshua; I'm saying that Joshua's actions apparently contradict the apparently universal principles of peacemaking and non-violence as espoused by Jesus. The way of the cross, rather than the way of the sword.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So, if I believe that it is true that God judged the people of Jericho as it is literally described in the Book of Joshua, then apparently I am somehow committed to the principle of destroying unwanted children or advocating genocide as a universally legitimate method of dealing with a perceived problem.

Not "universally legitimate". But the point is that you are saying genocide is OK if God commands it, which means you are leaving the option open for genocide to be a legitimate solution to future problems should you believe God is commanding it.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The thing is, EE, what evidence do you have - other than your own interpretation - that the Book of Joshua isn't as I - and many others - believe it to be ... a work of ancient histography which is certainly based on historical events but which, like ancient histographies, contains a mixture of literal fact and mythology.

Why is that such a difficult context?

What evidence do you have for your assertion other than believing that the view articulated above is false?

Just saying, 'The Bah-ble says ...' doesn't establish anything.

Sure, these stories are included in scripture. That doesn't mean that we have to take them 100% literally.

Where do you get that idea from? Other than a particularly woodenly fundamentalist tradition to which you appear to subscribe.

It is not the Bible that we are getting at or criticising. It is your interpretation of the Bible.

The Bible and your interpretation of the Bible are separate things. They are not coterminous.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
It seems to me that EE is actually confusing the terms he is using.

Logic implies that one things leads on from another.

So if we are to accept a God who chooses certain people for his purposes, it is a fairly logical step to believe that he will protect those people from other people, including by wiping out enemies.

What, however, is not logical is the idea that the above God promises those people that they will be his 'forever', but then later decides that he no longer believes in the idea of a people chosen by genetics, and actually wants a people who believe in him. It isn't logical because the latter step cannot be gotten from the former step.

Now 'reasonable'. The ancient Greeks had this idea of the 'ethical' being the thing that all sensible Greeks would agree on - which some say has influenced ideas such as democracy. So, if we have a bunch of people and you present the story to them in the way that EE does (ie there is this God who said he is always going to do something, but 'ah-ha' he changed his mind. But no he didn't, because he is God and did I tell you that God is unchangable and reliable..?), I suspect most people would say it wasn't.

Is it 'believable'? Clearly it is, because people believe it.

It is 'internally consistent'? I'm not sure it is, actually, but let me for the moment accept that inside EE's head it all makes perfect sense.

So we're left with something which is believable and internally consistent, but not logical and reasonable.

Which, is odd, wouldn't you say?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Not "universally legitimate". But the point is that you are saying genocide is OK if God commands it, which means you are leaving the option open for genocide to be a legitimate solution to future problems should you believe God is commanding it.

No, you are putting words in my mouth.

"God commanding something" and "my belief in God commanding something" are two entirely different things.

If God happens to work in a certain way in this world, and after the event something somehow convinced me that the event was "of God", then, yes, I suppose I would believe it was of God. That is completely different from the idea of "leaving the option open for genocide to be a legitimate solution to future problems should you believe God is commanding it". The idea of "leaving the option open" implies that I have some kind of choice in the matter, so that if I had the political power I could exploit my reading of the Bible to construct a pretext for acting in a certain way. Well clearly if I were choosing to act, then it wouldn't be God, would it?

You are constructing an edifice of idealism full of pretexts and precedents, from my belief - based on realism - that a particular event in a particular context was commanded by God. It's a non sequitur.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
This point about 'one-off' situations is very important.

What I have noticed from certain contributors, is that they seem to regard the content of the Bible as a set of universal laws, pretexts or precedents, such that if we believe that God acted in a certain way at a certain point in time, then He is bound to act in a similar way in other contexts, or that we are justified in distilling principles from His actions and applying them in other contexts.

Yes, but that is a matter of conjecture, interpretation, tradition and discussion.

If you are saying it is from God, then you are not left with the option of simply denying it is a possibility for people of God to say 'God is telling us to commit genocide' based on the bible.

How you understand the bible will inevitably determine which parts apply to you. Obviously.

quote:
So, if I believe that it is true that God judged the people of Jericho as it is literally described in the Book of Joshua, then apparently I am somehow committed to the principle of destroying unwanted children or advocating genocide as a universally legitimate method of dealing with a perceived problem. "You believe that God ordered the destruction of Jericho, therefore you believe in genocide." This is only not a non sequitur on the basis of an erroneous legalistic (and I would say, essentially humanistic) view of Scripture.
Nope, there is no non sequitur in saying that you, EE, believe that God ordered genocide. Moreover, it is an utterly reasonable position to say that you can never fully dismiss the idea that God might actually call you to do it again.

quote:
This reaction betrays a certain view of the Bible and even of God. It's as if such people are looking for a religion which is reduced to a mere set of universally applicable principles, and the Bible is seen as a repository of those principles. There seems to be no place in such a scheme for the reality of the living God. God does not set precedents, because He is not subject to human legal systems. In His wisdom He may act in a certain way in a certain context, in which there are factors which have no bearing on other contexts. Therefore to act in that way in that context cannot set a precedent for action in other contexts.
It seems to me the opposite is actually true. It seems as if you are saying this must be true, because the bible says so. Therefore I must create a form of argument that makes sense to explain it. In the process you are actually denying the reality of God outwith of the pages of the bible.

quote:
It's ironic (and very revealing) that someone like pydseybare talks about following what he feels the Holy Spirit is saying and yet, on the evidence of his comments on the Ship and particularly on this thread, he seems to espouse a view of the Bible, which leaves no room for God's sovereign working, despite claiming to believe in a God who is bigger than logic and moral consistency (as confirmed at the end of this comment)!
Absolutely not, you misunderstand. God can do anything, but he doesn't. God does not order genocide.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
The thing is, EE, what evidence do you have - other than your own interpretation - that the Book of Joshua isn't as I - and many others - believe it to be ... a work of ancient histography which is certainly based on historical events but which, like ancient histographies, contains a mixture of literal fact and mythology.

Why is that such a difficult context?

What evidence do you have for your assertion other than believing that the view articulated above is false?

Just saying, 'The Bah-ble says ...' doesn't establish anything.

Sure, these stories are included in scripture. That doesn't mean that we have to take them 100% literally.

Where do you get that idea from? Other than a particularly woodenly fundamentalist tradition to which you appear to subscribe.

It is not the Bible that we are getting at or criticising. It is your interpretation of the Bible.

The Bible and your interpretation of the Bible are separate things. They are not coterminous.

You're beginning to sound like a broken record, Gamaliel, trotting out your cliches and stock phrases. I would have thought a poet would be a bit more imaginative with language than this. Almost all your posts take the same form. Haven't you really got anything else to share?

Anyway... generally the burden of proof is on those who take the more unusual interpretative route.

If it looks like a duck and quacks like a duck, guess what...

But those who insist that it's not a duck, but a frog, need to bear the burden of proof.

But to be fair, SCK has had the decency to offer some evidence for the more arcane interpretation:

quote:
For me, the evidence that it is not fully accurate (at least in the sense that it does not accurately portray God's view on what the Israelites should have done) is that it seems utterly in contradiction to the character of God as revealed in Jesus. Can you imagine Jesus - 'Love your enemies, bless those who curse you' Jesus - ordering his followers to commit ethnic cleansing?

But Jesus is our supreme window into the nature of God, is he not? What's going on here, then; as I asked upthread, is it that God's nature changed between OT and NT times? Does God want us to love our enemies except when they're really evil and pagan, in which case it's okay to slaughter them? I don't see a way out of this other than to take Joshua (and the other 'problem texts' in the OT' as not fully expressing the nature and will of God.

Fair point. He is using the character of God, as revealed in Jesus Christ, as the hermeneutical principle by which to interpret the Old Testament.

The trouble with this is that this same Jesus made no attempt to disabuse us of the belief that the apparently historical events of the entry into the Promised Land were true. I would have thought that God would display his truthfulness and integrity through Jesus. Apparently not.

So I'm afraid that the one piece of evidence that has been offered to support the 'frog' interpretation, falls down.

Therefore I take the accounts to be true, as I perceive that Jesus does as well. That is my evidence.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
interpretation, falls down.

Therefore I take the accounts to be true, as I perceive that Jesus does as well. That is my evidence.

Yes, but where do you get this perception from? Let me give you a clue: it isn't logic.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
The problem here, EE, is that you don't seem to be able to cope with the idea of story.

Jesus used stories all the time. Unless you're one of those people who genuinely believes that the Good Samaritan actually happened. So God, at least in the person of Jesus, is comfortable with making something up and using that made-up story to teach an eternal truth.

This is not surprising. If we are made in His image, and we are inveterate story-tellers, why is it against God's nature to be a story-teller?
 
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
The trouble with this is that this same Jesus made no attempt to disabuse us of the belief that the apparently historical events of the entry into the Promised Land were true. I would have thought that God would display his truthfulness and integrity through Jesus. Apparently not.

So I'm afraid that the one piece of evidence that has been offered to support the 'frog' interpretation, falls down.

Therefore I take the accounts to be true, as I perceive that Jesus does as well. That is my evidence.

A fair point in return, EE. But I have no problem with Jesus believing things that were / are not true. For example, Jesus seemingly believed in 6-day creation and a literal Adam and Eve. I don't. This doesn't bother me, though, because I take the self-emptying (kenosis) element of Jesus' incarnation as meaning that he became subject to human limitations and restrictions, which would include taking on aspects of his cultural context.

I know this viewpoint is open to the charges of subjectivity and relativism, but it seems like a better option than believing that God sometimes orders ethnic cleansing but nonetheless expects all his followers to love and do good to their enemies.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
The problem here, EE, is that you don't seem to be able to cope with the idea of story.

Jesus used stories all the time. Unless you're one of those people who genuinely believes that the Good Samaritan actually happened. So God, at least in the person of Jesus, is comfortable with making something up and using that made-up story to teach an eternal truth.

This is not surprising. If we are made in His image, and we are inveterate story-tellers, why is it against God's nature to be a story-teller?

So therefore are you saying that any ancient writing that takes the form of an historical account must be viewed as a story or parable if it contains elements we don't personally like? Is that it?

OK. Let's suppose it's a parable then. None of the problems of the account fall away, because God is still 'God' in the story, and He still commands the slaughter of the inhabitants of Jericho. And Jesus made no attempt to clarify that the account was actually a load of bollocks.

So your point makes no sense at all.

By the way, the gospels make clear that Jesus spoke in parables, you know, just to help the reader. Funny, how the same help is not extended to us with regard to the historical accounts of the Old Testament, where we are just left guessing...

I suppose those who talk about the consistency of God's character as revealed in Jesus will have a contorted and acrobatically intricate answer for that problem. Wait for it...
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
So you are saying that everyone should take your concept of totally unimpeachably historical biblical record, even though there is absolutely no evidence that anyone ever took that as a given throughout Jewish history, because you say so.

And the fact that there are plenty of historical Jewish references to interpreting the text makes no difference to you?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
The problem here, EE, is that you don't seem to be able to cope with the idea of story.

Jesus used stories all the time. Unless you're one of those people who genuinely believes that the Good Samaritan actually happened. So God, at least in the person of Jesus, is comfortable with making something up and using that made-up story to teach an eternal truth.

This is not surprising. If we are made in His image, and we are inveterate story-tellers, why is it against God's nature to be a story-teller?

So therefore are you saying that any ancient writing that takes the form of an historical account must be viewed as a story or parable if it contains elements we don't personally like? Is that it?

OK. Let's suppose it's a parable then. None of the problems of the account fall away, because God is still 'God' in the story, and He still commands the slaughter of the inhabitants of Jericho. And Jesus made no attempt to clarify that the account was actually a load of bollocks.

So your point makes no sense at all.

By the way, the gospels make clear that Jesus spoke in parables, you know, just to help the reader. Funny, how the same help is not extended to us with regard to the historical accounts of the Old Testament, where we are just left guessing...

I suppose those who talk about the consistency of God's character as revealed in Jesus will have a contorted and acrobatically intricate answer for that problem. Wait for it...

I think I can actually rest my case here.

You do have a problem - a huge, insurmountable problem - with the concept of story. Specifically with the idea that something doesn't have to have happened to be true.

That's okay. I'm content with Jesus using OT stories to teach things as I am with Alfred burning the cakes, the spider in Robert the Bruce's cave, or the positioning of Cnut's throne.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by South Coast Kevin
A fair point in return, EE. But I have no problem with Jesus believing things that were / are not true. For example, Jesus seemingly believed in 6-day creation and a literal Adam and Eve. I don't. This doesn't bother me, though, because I take the self-emptying (kenosis) element of Jesus' incarnation as meaning that he became subject to human limitations and restrictions, which would include taking on aspects of his cultural context.

I know this viewpoint is open to the charges of subjectivity and relativism, but it seems like a better option than believing that God sometimes orders ethnic cleansing but nonetheless expects all his followers to love and do good to their enemies.

Thanks for that response, and I appreciate your honesty and fair-mindedness.

I take your point about creation (and I think I can talk about this, since we are in DH), but I take the view that I don't think it's entirely fair to rely on the issue of origins to make a point about Jesus' view of the Old Testament. Despite what we are often led to believe, the entire theory of origins is speculative, and has to be, due to the nature of the scientific method, which is essentially empirical, and therefore dependent on direct observation and measurement and inferences therefrom. For example, it's interesting that the belief in the event known as the Big Bang is inferred on the assumption that the laws of physics are universally applicable - otherwise it would be impossible to make any extrapolations into the very distant past. But then, as Stephen Hawking has written, those very same laws break down at the event of the BB. In other words, an event whose very existence can only be believed if x is true (x = the universal consistency of the laws of physics), then renders x untrue by its own working. So therefore the event, though possibly true, is unproveable, because of a logically inconsistent method of inference.

The same method of speculation applies to evolution, in which leaps of logic are made on the basis of observations of change within species.

It may be true. It may not be. Science doesn't know, and it cannot know, by the very nature of its own method. I am not suggesting that I am a YEC, but it seems epistemologically suspect to be dogmatic about this issue.

So I would echo the words recorded in the book of Job: "Where were you when I laid the foundations of the earth?" Job 38:4.

For this reason, I don't think reference to creation is valid in the context of our discussion.

As for Jesus' view of the Old Testament judgments, there is an interesting tension revealed concerning one event:

quote:
Now it came to pass, when the time had come for Him to be received up, that He steadfastly set His face to go to Jerusalem, and sent messengers before His face. And as they went, they entered a village of the Samaritans, to prepare for Him. But they did not receive Him, because His face was set for the journey to Jerusalem. And when His disciples James and John saw this, they said, “Lord, do You want us to command fire to come down from heaven and consume them, just as Elijah did?”

But He turned and rebuked them, and said, “You do not know what manner of spirit you are of. For the Son of Man did not come to destroy men’s lives but to save them.” And they went to another village.

Luke 9:51-56.

Jesus made absolutely clear that we cannot apply the 'principles' of the Old Testament in our Christian lives. It knocks on the head the ridiculous accusation that anyone who takes the events of, say, Joshua as historically true, is somehow committed to the principle of genocide.

But then someone may argue: "Aha, but this is evidence from the life of Jesus that He rejected the Old Testament as literally true!"

Nope. Jesus had a clear opportunity here to tell his disciples that the event they were wishing to replicate did not happen, or that if it did happen, Elijah called fire down from heaven under the influence of the devil. But no. Jesus did no such thing. We know that Jesus affirmed the existence and godliness of Elijah - hence his appearance with Jesus on the Mount of Transfiguration.

So there is a tension here. Jesus affirmed Elijah, but also made clear that we cannot treat events of the Old Testament as universal principles, and that if we do, the implication is that we are under the influence of a demonic spirit.

[ 27. February 2014, 11:30: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The problem is, EE, is that you clearly don't understand how ancient texts work - and poetry too, for that matter, but we'll let that pass.

It is as reductionist to say that the Book of Joshua is 'fiction' - in the sense of it being like Pride and Prejudice, say, a novel - as it is to treat it as if if is a literal, blow-by-blow account of events rather like those we might read in a newspaper.

I'm with South Coast Kevin on the kenosis thing.

You'll be telling us next that Job and his Comforter's literally spoke in rhyme and that the account in the Book of Job is a literal transcript of what was actually said ... and that the mysterious, intriguing and tantalising thing about the conversation between God and Satan is an actual word-for-word transcript of what was said ...

How literal do you want to be?

Parables and stories aren't always prefaced with 'this is a parable' - not in the Bible and not elsewhere ... although they clearly are in some instances.

Swift's 'A Modest Proposal' wasn't issued with a preface which said, 'Oh, by the way folks, this is a wind-up, it's satire ... just in case you don't get it ...'

Defoe's Robinson Crusoe wasn't published with a caveat which said, 'Look guys, this is a novel, right?'

We don't see a notice saying, 'This is a film, it's not real, right?' when we go to the cinema.

You have to understand literary conventions and how they work. There are literary aspects in the scriptures all the time ...

Take the incident with Elijah and the captains of 50 in 2 Kings Chapter 1. What happens there? There are two attempts by different captains of 50 to get up the hill to Elijah and on each occasion fire comes down from heaven and consumes them all.

The third time the captain of 50 varies the pattern and fire doesn't come down from heaven and consume him or his men.

What's going on there? Recognise a pattern? It happens in threes ... rather reminiscent, don't you think, of mythological stories ... the Three Little Pigs, The Billy Goats Gruff and so on ...

The Little Pigs houses are twice destroyed but the third one survives because it's made of brick. Two billy goats are eaten by the troll but the third butts him over the parapet of the bridge ...

That's how things go in these kind of stories.

Now, I am not for a moment suggesting that the OT stories aren't inspired or aren't based on historical events. What I am saying is that there are literary patterns that conform to what we know of how 'myth' works ...

That doesn't mean that they aren't true.

Nor does it mean that I am dismissing them simply because I don't like the idea of fire from heaven consuming people or because I believe that miraculous events can't or don't take place.

No, that's not the issue.

The issue is to 'wrestle' as Barnabas62 puts it with the scriptural record and to look at the context, the genre, the literary tropes and conceits and take the thing as a whole ... not to jump to some kind of reductionist conclusion in one direction or another.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
I think I can actually rest my case here.

You do have a problem - a huge, insurmountable problem - with the concept of story. Specifically with the idea that something doesn't have to have happened to be true.

That's okay. I'm content with Jesus using OT stories to teach things as I am with Alfred burning the cakes, the spider in Robert the Bruce's cave, or the positioning of Cnut's throne.

What nonsense!

You have arrived at a verdict from zero evidence, because there is no logic to your conclusion from what I have written.

Nowhere have I said, or even implied, that fiction cannot convey truth. I certainly believe that the parables were stories, and I certainly believe that they convey truth. But it is fatuous to imply that because stories can convey truth, we must assume that all historical accounts, which contain elements we don't personally like, must be mere stories.

There are stories which convey truth.

There are historical accounts describing real events.

Don't you think the two genres can co-exist?
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief
Only if you want YOUR words to be taken seriously. Blowing off other people's analogies with "pathetic comparison" is not argumentation at all. You should be able to show why it's pathetic, and indicate in what way it is disanalagous. Otherwise your post is pathetic bloviating.

The comparison between an abusive husband and the righteous judge who is God, is absurd. Are you seriously expecting people to accept that an abusive person has a legitimate right to appeal to the actions of God to justify his criminality?
I am saying that if God behaves that way because God has authority then the appeal to authority is open to people with authority.

quote:
Absurd. The implication of this is that God is not permitted to judge anyone for his evil, because if He does, some nutcase will say: "Aw well, God can be a nasty bastard, so therefore I am allowed to be!"
And this is your flying leap of logic. With respect to genocide God behaves like Pontius Pilate, washing his hands of it. God is permitted to judge - but if we are made in God's image then we are not only permitted to but have the responsibility to judge as well.

quote:
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Funny, but I thought I was simply upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.

YES! THIS IS EXACTLY THE PROBLEM! What you are upholding is the truth and integrity of your interpretation of Scripture. You mistakenly believe that you are upholding the truth and integrity of Scripture.
and...
And your version of scripture is contrary to both a clear reading of scripture (in which God explicitly hardens Pharaoh's heart go give himself an excuse, this demonstrating God's regard for Free Will) and with most Christian interpretations of that passage and of the New Testament. It's a personal and highly subjective reading that bears more relationship to your preconceptions than what is actually written.

quote:
So presumably you have evidence that the book of Joshua, for example, is fiction? If so, please be so kind as to present it.
First it's presented alongside fiction such as Genesis. Or do you believe in both the six day creation and the Flood? Second, if taken on its own merits, rather than in the context of being alongside other works of fiction consensus is that the historicity is false.

So tell me. What evidence do you have that Joshua is more real than the six day creation? Or the Flood? And why should it be seen as in a different genre?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I cross-posted with EE and notice that he's used the 1 Kings 2 fire from heaven incident to bolster his own position ...

But with a different conclusion to the one I've reached.

Who is to say whether EE is right and I'm wrong or vice-versa?

It's a question of interpretation.

The fact that Christ alludes to this OT story doesn't tell us anything about whether he accepted it as historical fact or whether he saw it figuratively.

That element is supplied by us - our interpretation. It isn't incontrovertibly there in the text one way or another.

That's the point I'm making. You can't simply point to a text and say, 'There, Jesus seemed to take it literally so therefore we must ...'

I'm no expert but it seems from what I've read that there was a fair bit of latitude in how the Rabbis understood the OT stories. Some of them took a more allegorical approach, others were more literal.

The same was true as Christianity developed. In Alexandria, as is well known, a more allegorical school of interpretation emerged. In Antioch, it was more literal.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Gamaliel -

On and on and on and on and on ad nauseam you have hammered the point about "not either/or but both/and".

But now, when it suits your particular personal subjective position, it's a case of "not both/and but either/or"!

EITHER:

Stories

OR:

Historical accounts

I prefer to take the more educated, more nuanced and less simplistic view:

The two can co-exist.

And that seems far more consistent with something called 'reality'.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
For crying out loud, EE ... read what my posts say, not what you think they say. I have said that the OT stories contain both historical and mythological material at one and the same time ...

That they are both/and not either/or ...

Where have I said differently?

You are the one who is making the binary and oppositional points, not me.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Wait - so they could be allegorical stories, they could actually be plain old-fashioned lies - the important thing to you, EE, is that Jesus Christ uses them, am I right?

Well Jesus Christ didn't use this particular story, hence he didn't think it mattered very much. How about that?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
How come everyone else has a personal, subjective position and you don't, EE?

How is your position more educated and nuanced than anyone else's?

What kind of reality is that?

It's unreality.

It goes like this:

EE - my position = nuanced, balanced, based on indisputable logic.

Everyone else's position apart from EE's = otherwise, subjective, unbalanced, unnuanced, uneducated ...

[Confused]

If it wasn't so tragic and deluded it'd be funny.
 
Posted by Laurelin (# 17211) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So there is a tension here. Jesus affirmed Elijah, but also made clear that we cannot treat events of the Old Testament as universal principles, and that if we do, the implication is that we are under the influence of a demonic spirit.

I agree with this, EE.

So why can't you apply a similar hermeneutical principle to the texts which seem to endorse divinely-sanctioned genocide?????
[Confused]

It is not just the atheists who are appalled by these particular texts. Do you really find it so absurd that evangelicals like me, who take Scripture seriously and live their lives by it, would also wrestle with the extremely troubling moral/ethical implications of this passage?

To ask questions of this particular text does not automatically mean that someone is a heretic who is only out to deconstruct the Bible.

The books of the OT were not written in the way in which 21st century people understand history. That doesn't make the biblical writers stupid. Or not inspired by the Holy Spirit. But it does mean that a woodenly literal understanding of Scripture does it no favours. Which is why I classify myself as 'open evangelical' and emphatically not 'fundamentalist'.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
The problem is, EE, is that you clearly don't understand how ancient texts work

Evidence to support that assertion, please.

(And I am not going to take lessons from someone who can't even spell historiography properly!)

[ 27. February 2014, 11:54: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
The idea of "leaving the option open" implies that I have some kind of choice in the matter, so that if I had the political power I could exploit my reading of the Bible to construct a pretext for acting in a certain way. Well clearly if I were choosing to act, then it wouldn't be God, would it?

Here's a simple question. If you honestly and truly believed that God was commanding you to commit genocide, would you obey?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I'm typing quickly and I make mistakes.

Incidentally, I'm not taken lessons from a logician who doesn't even apply logic properly.

Which is far more serious.

You don't understand how ancient texts work because you've clearly demonstrated that in your approach to them. You treat them in a modernist way rather than a pre-modernist one.

You've only got to read you own posts.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Laurelin
I agree with this, EE.

So why can't you apply a similar hermeneutical principle to the texts which seem to endorse divinely-sanctioned genocide????? [Confused]

Oh FFS!!!!!

[brick wall]

Indeed I do. What the hell do you think I have been saying?

Do you think I approve of genocide as a 'universal principle'?

Where did I say that?

I thought I had expressly said the very opposite!!

All I have been saying is that I believe that the events described in the OT actually took place. Nothing about their relevance for today.

[ 27. February 2014, 12:02: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
There are stories which convey truth.

There are historical accounts describing real events.

Don't you think the two genres can co-exist?

You seem to have problems with the possibility of historical figures having stories made up about them.

It's not whether the two genres can co-exist, it's whether they can occupy exactly the same space, at the same time. Which they obviously can, and do.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The tragedy is, EE, is that you are not about to start taking lessons from anyone because you already think you know it all.

I don't think I've ever argued with anyone quite like you ... I really don't know what's going on in your head. It clearly makes sense to you but it doesn't follow any rational position that I'm able to trace.

But the fault clearly lies with me. I haven't reckoned on your superior genius and ability to interpret ancient texts correctly and incontrovertibly ...
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
All I have been saying is that I believe that the events described in the OT actually took place. Nothing about their relevance for today.

Ah OK. The OT is irrelevant for today.

Problem solved.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
I'm typing quickly and I make mistakes.

Incidentally, I'm not taken lessons from a logician who doesn't even apply logic properly.

Which is far more serious.

You don't understand how ancient texts work because you've clearly demonstrated that in your approach to them. You treat them in a modernist way rather than a pre-modernist one.

You've only got to read you own posts.

No evidence then. Yet more unsupported assertions, posing and bluster.

Just as I thought.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
All I have been saying is that I believe that the events described in the OT actually took place. Nothing about their relevance for today.

To repeat my earlier question Are you a Young-Earth Creationist?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Here's a simple question. If you honestly and truly believed that God was commanding you to commit genocide, would you obey?

Idealists deal in hypotheticals and second-guessing.

Realists don't.

I'm a realist.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
What Doc Tor said.

I'll get into trouble for this but it's both/and not either/or ...

What's the problem? Where's the difficulty?

It's only a problem and a difficulty because your interpretative framework makes it so.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
To repeat my earlier question Are you a Young-Earth Creationist?

Go back and read my post where I refer to the subject of origins.

Sounds astonishingly agnostic to me!
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus
You seem to prefer to distort the grace and love passages, but don't offer any reason for it other than sarcasm.

[Confused]
My point is that people are saying that the genocide passages don't seem in accordance with the descriptions of God as loving and merciful elsewhere in the Bible. You seem to be arguing that love and mercy don't have the implications that they would appear to have prima facie. It seems to me simpler to argue that the genocide passages don't have the meaning they would appear to have at first glance.

You asked for evidence that the passages are not historical. I give you two offers off hand. Firstly the archaeological evidence presented by Finkelstein and Silbermann in "The Bible Unearthed". Secondly ancient histories do tend to start with myth and move into fact, witness Livy who starts with Aeneas and Romulus and Remus but who nonetheless turns into a bona fide historian.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I could supply you with all the evidence there is and then some, EE and you would reject it. The same as you have done when I - and others - have provided evidence that apparently contradicts other positions you hold.

There is no point in providing you with evidence as you completely disregard it.

You are wedded to your interpretation of things and that is the end of it. You apparently make no effort whatsoever to consider alternatives.

It is pretty clear from your posts and the one you have answered questions and posts here from myself and others that you don't understand how ancient texts work. If you did you wouldn't hold to the position you do.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
What Ricardus said.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Here is a little story you might not guess: GK Chesterton is one of my favourite authors. In Orthodoxy CKC discusses the idea of a crazy man being coldly logical. His insanity is not in his illogicality, but in the fact that he has taken hold of something and applies that logic to everything he sees. GKC expands this idea in on the Father Brown stories too - a person who believes someone is watching him is not illogical because he sees everything around him as evidence of his paranoia, but coldly logical.


And just to please some of you, here is the passage in all its glory.

quote:
Facts and history utterly contradict this view. Most of the very great poets have been not only sane, but extremely business-like; and if Shakespeare ever really held horses, it was because he was much the safest man to hold them. Imagination does not breed insanity. Exactly what does breed insanity is reason. Poets do not go mad; but chess-players do. Mathematicians go mad, and cashiers; but creative artists very seldom. I am not, as will be seen, in any sense attacking logic: I only say that this danger does lie in logic, not in imagination.
I suggest what EE needs is a healthy dose of imagination.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus
You asked for evidence that the passages are not historical. I give you two offers off hand. Firstly the archaeological evidence presented by Finkelstein and Silbermann in "The Bible Unearthed". Secondly ancient histories do tend to start with myth and move into fact, witness Livy who starts with Aeneas and Romulus and Remus but who nonetheless turns into a bona fide historian.

I'm very happy to investigate the evidence, but what I will say is that having looked at various archaeological claims by sceptics, the conclusions about the Bible seem to be based on the spurious principle of "absence of evidence is evidence of absence".

Furthermore, what is true of one historian is not necessarily true of another. The idea of "methodology by association" is also fallacious, of course.

As for using the character of Christ as a hermeneutical principle: well, I don't accept a deceitful Christ who gives a false impression about the Old Testament, as in the case of Elijah, who did a very nasty thing at God's bidding. So the use of that principle is also fallacious.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Here's a simple question. If you honestly and truly believed that God was commanding you to commit genocide, would you obey?

Idealists deal in hypotheticals and second-guessing.

Realists don't.

I'm a realist.

Your first line is strictly false. Realists second guess themselves all the time - and it is realistic to do so because they don't have all the information. Only people with certainty don't. You are no realist.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Here's a simple question. If you honestly and truly believed that God was commanding you to commit genocide, would you obey?

Idealists deal in hypotheticals and second-guessing.

Realists don't.

I'm a realist.

Just for the record, your refusal to answer the question is quite telling.

After all, as hypotheticals go it's quite a realistic one from your point of view. Because if God has commanded genocide in the past, and God is unchanging, then God may well command genocide again in the future. Is that not a logical conclusion to reach? And if so, is considering what your response will be should you be the one He commands not a pretty good idea?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Just for the record, your refusal to answer the question is quite telling.

After all, as hypotheticals go it's quite a realistic one from your point of view. Because if God has commanded genocide in the past, and God is unchanging, then God may well command genocide again in the future. Is that not a logical conclusion to reach? And if so, is considering what your response will be should you be the one He commands not a pretty good idea?

Conversely, if one believes that God has changed his mind, what mental block is there to prevent you believing he might not change it back again?
 
Posted by Laurelin (# 17211) on :
 
So, EE, you are agnostic about origins, whilst at the same time affirming God as the maker of all things. Fair enough. [Smile] That's my stance too. [Cool]

So why, exactly, are you getting so incredibly indignant with anyone who is agnostic about the Canaanite genocide? [Help]

After all, if you are agnostic about origins, I guess you are agnostic about a literal Adam. Yet Jesus clearly talked about a literal Adam. Does that make Jesus wrong? (Posters like South Coast Kevin have already given credible - and orthodox - theories about that.)

If you were, in fact, a literal creationist, then your approach to biblical interpretation would at least be consistent.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Marvin the Martian -

Since you are into putting me on the spot concerning a hypothetical situation, then let me ask you one.

You are the leader of a nation, and you have absolute power with regard to military decisions. Your nation is at war, and is seeking to defend itself against an aggressor bent on the total annihilation of your people.

Now suppose there is a scenario in which, having considered all the options, the only way your nation can survive is to do something to your enemy which would result in the death of all its inhabitants.

Would you do that thing?

Yes or no?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
I don't believe that such a situation could ever arise, but if it did then no, I would not wipe them out.

[ 27. February 2014, 12:48: Message edited by: Marvin the Martian ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Laurelin
So why, exactly, are you getting so incredibly indignant with anyone who is agnostic about the Canaanite genocide? [Help]

Funnily enough, it's more a case of others being indignant at me for being so desperately non-conformist to their dogmatic agenda of rejecting the literal view!!

If they want to think it's fiction. Fine. But don't expect me to agree.

Tolerate and live with different opinions, is what I say. But they can't, can they? They are more fundie than the fundies!

Hence Gamaliel's constant prattling. And what's-his-name, whom I have decided to ignore on this thread. Etc...
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:


Hence Gamaliel's constant prattling. And what's-his-name, whom I have decided to ignore on this thread. Etc...

That could be almost anyone.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
I don't believe that such a situation could ever arise, but if it did then no, I would not wipe them out.

Therefore you would effectively commit genocide against your own people, since it is your responsibility to protect them, and you have the means to do so.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Therefore you would effectively commit genocide against your own people, since it is your responsibility to protect them, and you have the means to do so.

Not even slightly, the guilt would be on the opposing army's hands. But even if it were on mine, I would sooner answer to God for refusing to kill innocents than for actually doing so.

Anyway, I believe it's your turn to answer my question. Though I'm already fairly sure that your answer will be "yes, I would burn them all without a second thought".
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:


Anyway, I believe it's your turn to answer my question. Though I'm already fairly sure that your answer will be "yes, I would burn them all without a second thought".

I hope it isn't, otherwise EE would have contradicted himself. And we can't have that..
 
Posted by Laurelin (# 17211) on :
 
You've left God out of your scenario, EE. Is GOD telling the leader to make that decision? Is GOD ordering him to wipe out the aggressors' nation as an act of self-defence? That is a crucial difference between your challenging hypothetical situation, and the situation as presented in Scripture. And that is what bothers people: not that the Israelites did this (it's awful, but it's what all conquering tribes do) but that GOD ordered them to do it. Your imaginary scenario doesn't address that.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
If they want to think it's fiction. Fine. But don't expect me to agree.

Why not, if you yourself are agnostic about the literal truth of the Creation narratives?

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Therefore you would effectively commit genocide against your own people, since it is your responsibility to protect them, and you have the means to do so.

The only thing that would make me guilty of genocide is if I decided to pre-empt this by wiping out THEIR people.

In any case, this hypothetical scenario has no bearing on the passages about Israel's holy war. It's not even a close analogy. Israel's holy war had far more to do with OT notions of cultic purity and the spiritual dangers of idolatry (like the appalling Molech worship).

[ 27. February 2014, 13:11: Message edited by: Laurelin ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Not even slightly, the guilt would be on the opposing army's hands. But even if it were on mine, I would sooner answer to God for refusing to kill innocents than for actually doing so.

But you have killed innocents, due to dereliction of duty.

Your apportioning of guilt does not change the reality on the ground.

Which is why I say that I am a realist, not an idealist. You idealistically talk about the apportioning of guilt, whereas I am talking about a leader fulfilling his duty to protect his people from an aggressor.

quote:
Anyway, I believe it's your turn to answer my question. Though I'm already fairly sure that your answer will be "yes, I would burn them all without a second thought".
Ah, I see where you are coming from. You want me to say 'yes' so that you can draw some conclusion about my character and desires.

This is not about hypothetical scenarios, but personal judgmentalism.

And for that reason, I reject the whole approach you are taking.

It's dishonest.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Laurelin
You've left God out of your scenario, EE.

Is GOD telling the leader to make that decision? Is GOD ordering him to wipe out the aggressors' nation as an act of self-defence?

That is the crucial difference between your challenging hypothetical situation, and the situation as presented in Scripture.

Then I suggest that you ask God that question, and not me.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Then I suggest that you ask God that question, and not me.

Just, so just to be clear everyone: EE's God might conceivably, in some circumstances, ask him (EE) to commit genocide.

I'm glad we've got that cleared up.

[ 27. February 2014, 13:18: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Laurelin
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
If they want to think it's fiction. Fine. But don't expect me to agree.

Why not, if you yourself are agnostic about the literal truth of the Creation narratives?
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua (other than a vague appeal to the character of God as manifested in Jesus, which I have already addressed), then I take it that they are basically literal accounts.

But, for some reason, people like Gamaliel just don't seem prepared to respect that position. He goes on about fundamentalism, but he - and others - are being remarkably dogmatic and, I would say, bigoted about their position.

But then again, theological liberalism is a myth, as there is often no bigot as dogmatic as a liberal bigot.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But you have killed innocents, due to dereliction of duty.

If I would be guilty of anything, it would be failing to act to prevent the deaths of innocents. A somewhat lesser charge.

quote:
Your apportioning of guilt does not change the reality on the ground.
The "reality on the ground" of your hypothetical situation is that one nation is going to be completely wiped out. That doesn't change regardless of whether I choose to be the one doing the wiping or the one getting wiped.

quote:
Which is why I say that I am a realist, not an idealist. You idealistically talk about the apportioning of guilt, whereas I am talking about a leader fulfilling his duty to protect his people from an aggressor.
...by any means necessary, fair or foul. That's the part I reject.

quote:
[b]Ah, I see where you are coming from. You want me to say 'yes' so that you can draw some conclusion about my character and desires.[/QB]
Partly, yes, though those conclusions can easily be drawn from what you've already said. But also to see if you have the courage and honesty to follow your theology through to its logical end, even if only in theory.

I mean, if Joshua was right to do what he did because God commanded it, then logically anyone else would be right to do the same thing if God commanded it again. You've already affirmed the first part, so why not affirm the second?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You are the leader of a nation, and you have absolute power with regard to military decisions. Your nation is at war, and is seeking to defend itself against an aggressor bent on the total annihilation of your people.

Now suppose there is a scenario in which, having considered all the options, the only way your nation can survive is to do something to your enemy which would result in the death of all its inhabitants.

[Confused] What? Are the infants SAS trained? Do they explode if their parent's heartbeat stops? No, wait! If their parents don't feed them at the proper time....
 
Posted by Laurelin (# 17211) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Then I suggest that you ask God that question, and not me.

No, EE. I don't have to ask God the question. According to the Canaanite paradigm, God has already given the command to commit genocide. That's what you are avoiding.

Thing is, I don't actually believe in such a god. And, I think, neither do you. I refuse to accept that you honestly believe God would order you or me or anyone today to commit genocide.

As I said before, your hypothetical scenario does not relate very well to the actual passages under discussion.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua (other than a vague appeal to the character of God as manifested in Jesus, which I have already addressed), then I take it that they are basically literal accounts.

But not Genesis?

quote:
But then again, theological liberalism is a myth, as there is often no bigot as dogmatic as a liberal bigot.
This is a tangent and a red herring (since both conservatives and liberals can be guilty of bigotry). Once again, you seem to avoid the question as to why people might find it so incredibly disturbing why God would give orders to wipe out a people (even if such orders were never given again in Scripture).

[ 27. February 2014, 13:32: Message edited by: Laurelin ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua

Whoa there. No doubt? Only if you pointedly refuse to spend literally seconds on the internet looking up, say, the Battle of Jericho.

It seems to me that if good archaeological evidence suggests that Jericho was empty when Joshua was supposed to have invaded, there's a measure of doubt as to the literal interpretation...
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Marvin the Martian -

Since you are into putting me on the spot concerning a hypothetical situation, then let me ask you one.

You are the leader of a nation, and you have absolute power with regard to military decisions. Your nation is at war, and is seeking to defend itself against an aggressor bent on the total annihilation of your people.

Now suppose there is a scenario in which, having considered all the options, the only way your nation can survive is to do something to your enemy which would result in the death of all its inhabitants.

Would you do that thing?

Yes or no?

1: I believe this is a ridiculous hypothetical
2: I don't think I would wipe them out. I might be wrong
3: I am not God. What was the force so much more powerful than God himself that it forced God into that position? Without such a force this hypothetical gets silly.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua

Asked and answered. I've already linked Wikipedia once - the prevailing scholarly view isn't just that there is evidence to doubt the literal interpretation but that "Joshua is not a factual account of historical events". When you say "there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events" you are not only making a statement that is starkly factually wrong, you are demonstrating that you can't even be bothered to spend thirty seconds investigating the subject.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian
Partly, yes, though those conclusions can easily be drawn from what you've already said. But also to see if you have the courage and honesty to follow your theology through to its logical end, even if only in theory.

I mean, if Joshua was right to do what he did because God commanded it, then logically anyone else would be right to do the same thing if God commanded it again. You've already affirmed the first part, so why not affirm the second?

Courage and honesty?

Hmmm... interesting you should talk about those qualities.

You are asking me to commit myself to a course of action within a hypothetical scenario. That was your original question, and I constructed such a scenario to help with the discussion.

Now someone may think that, because I believe that God ordered the destruction of Jericho, that I believe He delights in destroying people's lives, and because I choose to believe this, therefore I do as well.

I don't know whether that's what you think, but your tone in one of your recent posts suggested this, so I will follow through with this possibility.

Firstly, this is a lie. God did not and does not delight in executing judgment on people. I certainly have no desire to believe in a God who does.

Secondly, I do not choose to believe in a certain kind of God, as if there is a spiritual supermarket where we all choose our own preferred brands of product, that fit in with our own personalities. God is an objective reality. I can no more choose Him than I can choose my own existence. I can certainly delude myself about Him, as can anyone else. But it's not a matter of "I believe this because it fits into what I want...", but "I am seeking the objective truth about God, whether I like what I find or not."

The former agenda is effectively a form of Christianised atheism. In this thinking, "God" is coterminous with "belief in God". In other words, God is merely a projection - a personification of one's own objectified desires, hopes and feelings.

I don't accept the literal view of Joshua, because I have some deep desire to harm people with God's sanction. I accept it, because I believe it is objectively true, and although the account is troubling (and, might I add, I believe it is very troubling to God, because of the extent of evil which necessitated His judgment), I believe that the honest approach is to come to terms with it, and try to understand why such a course of action was necessary in that context.

In fact, just believing this account to be nothing more than a fable presents more of a problem to those who espouse that view. They now have to come to terms with the question of why the chosen people of God wanted to believe in that kind of God, and why Jesus made no effort to disabuse us of this image of God. After all, stories are generally chosen, real events are not. So it's the liberal view which is more disturbing than the view I take.

The fact is that there are situations in which the only options are evil. The righteous course of action is the path of the lesser evil. It's no good hypothesising about what I or you or anyone would do in that situation, such that it speaks into our character and desires today. If such a situation arose we would all be in the same boat. We would all have to choose evil, since all the options would be evil. All I can say is that, in that situation, I hope that I would identify the path of the lesser evil - the smallest evil, and choose that. Clearly if I then had to commit some form of 'evil', then I would feel regret and sadness about that. It's no good anyone saying that, in that situation, they would be "whiter than white". They would not. You would not. I would not. No one would. To pretend otherwise is delusion and cowardice.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
For a kick-off, EE, I am not saying that the OT is 'fiction' in the way that Pride & Prejudice or War & Peace is fiction.

I am simply saying - and you are obdurately refusing to accept - that the OT contains pre-modern historiography which, by its very nature, contains a mixture of literal history and mythology. Ricardus has given examples. So have I. You have dismissed or refused to engage with them all.

My beef with your position isn't driven by an irrational and dogmatically bigoted opposition to fundamentalism ... although fundamentalism of any kind isn't my favourite attribute ...

It's to do with you obdurate refusal to accept anything that flies in the face of your position which - far from your assertions to the contrary - is an emotional and knee-jerk one rather than one based on evidence and facts.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Laurelin
[b] [QUOTE]Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
/b]

Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua (other than a vague appeal to the character of God as manifested in Jesus, which I have already addressed), then I take it that they are basically literal accounts.


This passage shows no evidence of your engagement with the historical evidence in any way, shape or form. It is all about your interpretation.

There is very little archaeological evidence for the Israelite conquest of Canaan - but I am prepared to accept that it took place. Absence of evidence isn't necessarily evidence of absence.

However, the balance of probability points towards the OT accounts being a mix of literal history and hyperbole ...

There isn't a great deal of evidence for the sun standing still, for instance, so that the Israelites could complete slaughtering their enemies. Ok, some have claimed to have found such evidence in ancient Chinese astrology and so on.

But that isn't quite the point ... you'll be looking for the remains of the Ark on Mt Ararat next.

Sure, there is an historical context for the Book of Joshua. I don't doubt that. I don't doubt that the Israelites interpreted incidents - which may have included genocide - during their struggle with the Canaanites which they interpreted as them wreaking God's judgement and vengeance on these people ...

I don't doubt that the Canaanites may have been responsible for some pretty heavy shit and sinful practices ...

But the whole thing has the sense of an after-the-event justification thing ... rather than factual reportage in the way you seem to view it.

'The Bible is true and some of it actually happened.'

I really don't see the problem with that kind of position nor why it means that people who hold to some version of it are somehow inveterately liberal ...

Nor do I see it as implying that Jesus was in some way being deceitful or disingenuous by treating the OT stories as if they were literal accounts - rather than taking the disciples aside and saying, 'Look guys, this was really all picture-language you know ...'

I submit that you are not motivated by facts, evidence, reason or rational logical argument as you claim but by fear ... which is the underlying cause of all fundamentalism ... fear that your world-view might be threatened, fear that you might have to revise your position, fear of backing done and of losing face ...
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
I am simply saying - and you are obdurately refusing to accept - that the OT contains pre-modern historiography which, by its very nature, contains a mixture of literal history and mythology.

No, that is not what you are saying.

This is what you are saying:

quote:
I am simply saying - and you are obdurately refusing to accept - that I BELIEVE THAT the OT contains pre-modern historiography which, by its very nature, contains a mixture of literal history and mythology.
You go on about interpretation, and how we all put our own construction on the Bible.

Well, it seems incredibly hypocritical not to apply YOUR rule to yourself.

Which rather underlines my comment about dogmatism and bigotry. Why don't you have the tolerance to accept different points of view?

You're a fundie. Plain and simple.

Hoisted with your own petard!
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Oh if only it were that simple, EE ...

I've no more been posted with my own petard than you are an expert on ancient texts or even capable of framing a logical argument.

Of course I believe that ancient texts contain a mixture of literal history and mythology - in the C S Lewis sense of the term.

So does anyone else who has read Homer or Caesar, Tacitus, Herodotus, Plato or any other ancient text one might mention ... and there are Shippies around who will have read a lot more of them than thee and me. You may well have read a lot more of them than me.

I am not trotting out my own personal opinion on these issues, but received and collective wisdom.

On the other hand, you are insisting on your particular form of fundamentalist conservative evangelical hermeneutic as the only viable option. 'God said it, it's in the Bah-ble, so there ...'

For someone who went to one of our top universities you don't half sound like some red-neck fundie out in the Appallachians at times.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Oh if only it were that simple, EE ...

I've no more been posted with my own petard than you are an expert on ancient texts or even capable of framing a logical argument.

Of course I believe that ancient texts contain a mixture of literal history and mythology - in the C S Lewis sense of the term.

So does anyone else who has read Homer or Caesar, Tacitus, Herodotus, Plato or any other ancient text one might mention ... and there are Shippies around who will have read a lot more of them than thee and me. You may well have read a lot more of them than me.I am not trotting out my own personal opinion on these issues, but received and collective wisdom.

On the other hand, you are insisting on your particular form of fundamentalist conservative evangelical hermeneutic as the only viable option. 'God said it, it's in the Bah-ble, so there ...'

For someone who went to one of our top universities you don't half sound like some red-neck fundie out in the Appallachians at times.

Ah here we go!

The true Gamaliel is coming out.

What you are saying to me: your view is your own interpretation but my view is not, but objectively valid.

In other words: "there is one rule for you and another for me".

So all your long rambling posts, pretending to be all 'umble, and saying that we all put our own intepretation on the Bible, have just been exposed as a pack of lies.

It takes a while to force you out into the open to show your true colours, but I am rather pleased that I have done it.

And I would like to say to you that you would not survive five minutes in a theology or philosophy faculty. I studied theology (with a large philosophy elective element) in a so called 'liberal' faculty and came out with a 2:1. I debated not only with the other students but even some of the lecturers who respected me. You're an amateur and frankly I don't know why I condescend to respect your intelligence, given the nonsense you come out with at times.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
I am simply saying - and you are obdurately refusing to accept - that the OT contains pre-modern historiography which, by its very nature, contains a mixture of literal history and mythology.

No, that is not what you are saying.

This is what you are saying:

quote:
I am simply saying - and you are obdurately refusing to accept - that I BELIEVE THAT the OT contains pre-modern historiography which, by its very nature, contains a mixture of literal history and mythology.
You go on about interpretation, and how we all put our own construction on the Bible.

Well, it seems incredibly hypocritical not to apply YOUR rule to yourself.

Which rather underlines my comment about dogmatism and bigotry. Why don't you have the tolerance to accept different points of view?

You're a fundie. Plain and simple.

Hoisted with your own petard!

Sorry. Bollocks.

I stand by my original charge that you simply don't understand stories.

As to why the Tribes of Israel would choose to include a story about how their God could beat up any other god... I'm reasonably certain that the plain meaning of that is, well, plain.

As to "why Jesus made no effort to disabuse us of this image of God"... Tell me, have you actually ever read the gospels for yourself? I'm reasonably certain that Jesus made rather a big deal of "you've heard it said, but I'm teaching you this", and seriously, what the hell was the Sermon on the Mount all about but a repudiation of a warlike Israelite God?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I studied theology (with a large philosophy elective element) in a so called 'liberal' faculty and came out with a 2:1. I debated not only with the other students but even some of the lecturers who respected me. You're an amateur and frankly I don't know why I condescend to respect your intelligence, given the nonsense you come out with at times.

I've a doctorate in planetary geophysics and am an award-winning author and science educator. Why not put your dick away and deal with what he's saying?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I studied theology (with a large philosophy elective element) in a so called 'liberal' faculty and came out with a 2:1. I debated not only with the other students but even some of the lecturers who respected me. You're an amateur and frankly I don't know why I condescend to respect your intelligence, given the nonsense you come out with at times.

Herein lies the problem: to EE, we're all amateurs.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I may get 'called' by the Hosts on this one but I can't understand how the hell you got a 2:1 in Philosophy and Theology from one of our top universities by spouting the kind of crap you spout here.

I've got a First Class Honours degree, by the way so I could wave that particular willy around if I wanted to.

As for me being revealed in my true colours... what the hell are you talking about?

I will at least acknowledge that there's some interpretation going on in my approach. I am following the line taken by all reputable scholars that I am aware of ... that early, pre-modern texts tend to include a mixture of 'real' history and mythology. Even the Biblical accounts.

That isn't to say that they aren't historic. They are. But not in the way that you are using the term.

I despair sometimes.

I really think that you're a troll at times, just winding us all up for the sake of it.

In fact, it'd be easier to believe that you are a troll than that you are educated to the level you claim and come out with the tosh you spout.

I'm not the only one here who finds your application of logic rather idiosyncratic to say the least.

Nor am I the only conservatively inclined Christian on these boards who finds your approach obscurantist and illuminist at worst, somewhat misguided at best.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You are asking me to commit myself to a course of action within a hypothetical scenario. That was your original question, and I constructed such a scenario to help with the discussion.

Yes, and I gave you my answer to the hypothetical situation you created. I note that you have still not answered mine.

quote:
Now someone may think that, because I believe that God ordered the destruction of Jericho, that I believe He delights in destroying people's lives, and because I choose to believe this, therefore I do as well.
Not at all. I never said anything about whether you (or God) would enjoy doing it, only that you would do it.

quote:
But it's not a matter of "I believe this because it fits into what I want...", but "I am seeking the objective truth about God, whether I like what I find or not."
Are you sure you're searching in the right way?

quote:
I don't accept the literal view of Joshua, because I have some deep desire to harm people with God's sanction. I accept it, because I believe it is objectively true, and although the account is troubling (and, might I add, I believe it is very troubling to God, because of the extent of evil which necessitated His judgment), I believe that the honest approach is to come to terms with it, and try to understand why such a course of action was necessary in that context.
Why do you believe the Joshua account is objectively true? Given that we both believe in a God of love and mercy, do you really think that option is more likely than the option where the writer of Joshua claims Divine sanction for what was actually an entirely human atrocity?

quote:
In fact, just believing this account to be nothing more than a fable presents more of a problem to those who espouse that view. They now have to come to terms with the question of why the chosen people of God wanted to believe in that kind of God, and why Jesus made no effort to disabuse us of this image of God.
The first part is easy - people like stories where the characters they identify with are Big Damn Heroes striding around the world smiting evil with God On Their Side.

As for Jesus, I'd say He did disabuse us of that notion. Love your enemies. Offer the other cheek. The Good Samaritan rather than the Good Judean.

quote:
The fact is that there are situations in which the only options are evil.
False. There may be situations in which the only options that enable you to survive are evil, but that's not the same thing.

We should not do evil, even if it's so that good may result. I'm sure you know which book I'm paraphrasing from there.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua

Asked and answered. I've already linked Wikipedia once - the prevailing scholarly view isn't just that there is evidence to doubt the literal interpretation but that "Joshua is not a factual account of historical events". When you say "there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events" you are not only making a statement that is starkly factually wrong, you are demonstrating that you can't even be bothered to spend thirty seconds investigating the subject.
I don't claim to be an expert on the subject but the end of the Bronze Age is a hobby of mine and I have yet to come across a reputable student of the period who thinks that we can read Joshua as a straightforward historical narrative - hang on, I lie, Kenneth Kitchen thinks we can read it as an account, not of a conquest, but as a succession of historical raids. But by and large people aren't signing up for the whole Israelites leaving Egypt, wandering around in the Sinai for forty years and then conquering Canaan and annihilating the inhabitants. Now if EE can point us to reputable historical scholars who are signed up to that account I would love to hear about it. But AIUI the Hexateuch is a theologised account, by people signed up to Second Temple Judaism, of an oral tradition of a group of Bronze Age pastoralists breaking away from the power of the New Kingdom on the one hand and the Caananite city states on the other hand. It's a story about the origins of faith, not a definitive account of it.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I'm sure there were academics at your university who 'respected' you despite their liberal leanings. I've found that there are plenty of liberals who respect conservatives and evangelicals of various shades.

That's not the issue.

Your tutors will have seen you in 3-D and able to form an opinion based on experience of you in the flesh. We only have your posts to go on.

They are full of non-sequiturs, a refusal to admit that there are alternative viewpoints and a dismissive and hoity-toity attitude towards anyone who disagrees with you - be it Pydseybare, myself or anyone else.

I admire your fervour and stickability, I'll give you that, but I am pretty aghast at the paucity and level of your arguments. Is that the best you can do?

'I've finally unmasked Gamaliel, I have proven that his interpretation is an interpretation just like anyone else's ... ha ha ha ... that will show him ...'

Like as if that's news to me and I've never thought of it before.

Read.my.lips. Of course my interpretation is an interpretation.

So.is.yours.

That's what you don't appear to be able to accept ... that it isn't 'what the Bible says' that is the issue but our interpretation of what the Bible says.

Duh!

Neither do you seem able to accept that something can be a 'story' and true at one and the same time. It either has to be absolute literal fact or it isn't true at all.

Didn't they teach you anything at university?
 
Posted by Laurelin (# 17211) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
The true Gamaliel is coming out.

What you are saying to me: your view is your own interpretation but my view is not, but objectively valid.

This accusation doesn't stick though. Gamaliel has never hidden the fact that his interpretative framework, as much as mine and yours, is also open to question.

quote:
It takes a while to force you out into the open to show your true colours, but I am rather pleased that I have done it.
Curious, how you seem to believe you've scored some great victory here. [Paranoid]

Nobody here has a problem with you having the freedom to believe whatever you want to. But if you are prepared to believe that God, once upon a time in the distant past, did order genocide, then you must naturally be prepared for some kickback, rather than throwing up your hands in horror at the very notion that people could question this. Or throwing at them the accusation that they are 'bigots' for questioning your interpretative framework.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Laurelin:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

[QUOTE]It takes a while to force you out into the open to show your true colours, but I am rather pleased that I have done it.

Curious, how you seem to believe you've scored some great victory here. [Paranoid]

You know what they say, Laurelin, 'little things please little minds ...'

The thing is, what EE doesn't appear to appreciate is that it is possible to hold an alternative view to him without compromising the Gospel, undermining the authority of scripture or apostasising in some way.

Because he doesn't appear to grasp that what he is using is an interpretative framework. That somehow the rest of us are all amateurs compared to the great and wise EE and that if we disagree with him in some way we are morally suspect or bigoted or reprehensible in some way ...

I can be a first class pain in the arse and have been told as much in Hell as elsewhere. Fine. For all my many faults, though, I will at least acknowledge that I operating through an interpretative framework and in the context of a tradition and frame of reference.

EE seems to be suggesting that it's just a case of him, the Bible and the Holy Spirit.

Which isn't far from Pydseybare's position when you come to think of it. Which is why I tend to regard the pair of them as bookends or two sides of the same coin ...

At least Pydseybare is generally polite.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
the only way your nation can survive is to do something to your enemy which would result in the death of all its inhabitants.

In the whole bloody and war-torn history of the world, has this ever happened? Has there ever been a case where one nation has the power to utterly destroy and depopulate another, but no power at all to threaten, disarm, enslave, conquer, exile, intimidate, terrorise, assimilate, disperse or negotiate with it?

May be, just possibly, such an event has happened, but the Biblical genocides aren't it. Peaceful co-existence (possibly for a value of 'peaceful' involving first beating the shit out of and then reducing to vassalage) was an option for Israel. See the account of the Gibeonites. (Rather unfairly, 'the Gibeonite deception' in the NIV, as if someone telling a fib to avoid being slaughtered is the fault that most needed emphasis).
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
Reading this thread, I am led to ask how God stopped being an asshole and a devil between the OT and NT, and turned into a loving Nice God. Or the more likely interpretation....

People invade a country and kill the inhabitants wantonly. The actually enjoy doing it. They then tell the story around the campfire to their children and grandchildren that God told them to do. God meanwhile is off creating stars and planets in other parts of the universe. I suspect the campfire is replaced by the boardroom, and the story is told that God of course told them to send drones to kill the inhabitants wantonly.
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
EE probably thinks King Alfred burned the cakes because someone sometime wrote the story down.

But, as many people have said, that's not the way it works.

Me, as a historian, I regard even what has been written down with some suspicion -- especially when it was written down several centuries after the event happened. That is a general point, applicable to all historical writing, not to this incident or the bible in particular.

As Gamaliel (I think) said, no one's disputing the genocide, or that Joshua claimed that God commanded it, or even that Joshua may have believed it. (Substitute for Joshua if you will the apologists for the invasion and genocide any time from the event to several centuries later, until the story was written down.) We're saying they were wrong.

John
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua

Asked and answered. I've already linked Wikipedia once - the prevailing scholarly view isn't just that there is evidence to doubt the literal interpretation but that "Joshua is not a factual account of historical events". When you say "there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events" you are not only making a statement that is starkly factually wrong, you are demonstrating that you can't even be bothered to spend thirty seconds investigating the subject.
Well it's very scholarly of you to rush to a conclusion before actually debating the evidence.

But I know what is likely to happen, because it has happened before in other discussions I have had concerning biblical evidence. The two sides maintain their entrenched positions, and the credibility of opposing scholars is constantly called into question. The trading of ad hominems generally obscures the consideration of evidence.

As a matter of fact, if you had actually researched this subject, you would know that there has been a debate about the dating of the conquest of Canaan, and the radiocarbon dating of items from Jericho (City IV). As with all academic disciplines, it is a matter of a work in progress, especially concerning a subject such as archaeology, in which evidence is understandably sparse, and in which so often the principle of "absence of evidence is evidence of absence" is invoked to draw definite conclusions.

I remember this when I debated on another site concerning the Lukan census, in which I presented copious evidence to support the biblical view, which was then dismissed without any proper refutation, simply because my conclusions were unwelcome to a bunch of atheists.

I will admit that my statement above was wrong. Yes, OK, I concede that there is some evidence to question the literal interpretation of the events, but it is certainly not sufficient to conclude that those events did not occur. Certainly Gamaliel's settled conclusion is contrary to the processes of proper research and robust scholarly analysis. In other words, his approach is academically invalid, although I suppose it's the kind of view one would expect from those dependent on a diet of popular media 'scholarship'. If he is such an expert on the Ancient World, he ought to know that archaeological evidence is notoriously flimsy, and theories change as more evidence is unearthed.

To be honest, on this thread I was focusing on textual evidence, and the internal coherence of the Scriptures, since that was the line of attack taken against the literal view. Clearly there is no internal coherent textual evidence to doubt the literal interpretation.

I will look at the archaeological evidence, and get back to you.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But you have killed innocents, due to dereliction of duty.

Your apportioning of guilt does not change the reality on the ground.

Which is why I say that I am a realist, not an idealist.

No, you are a utilitarian consequentialist. An ethical position which has generally been rejected by Christianity. (Apart from anything else, I am not convinced there is any possible answer to the problem of evil that will satisfy a utilitarian consequentialist.)

(Also in what sense were the Canaanites the aggressors? Didn't the Israelites invade their lands?)
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Certainly Gamaliel's settled conclusion is contrary to the processes of proper research and robust scholarly analysis. In other words, his approach is academically invalid, although I suppose it's the kind of view one would expect from those dependent on a diet of popular media 'scholarship'. If he is such an expert on the Ancient World, he ought to know that archaeological evidence is notoriously flimsy, and theories change as more evidence is unearthed.

To be honest, on this thread I was focusing on textual evidence, and the internal coherence of the Scriptures, since that was the line of attack taken against the literal view. Clearly there is no internal coherent textual evidence to doubt the literal interpretation.

I will look at the archaeological evidence, and get back to you.

At least looking at the archaeological evidence will give you the opportunity to use the shovel you're currently digging a hole with for a different purpose.

You had the opportunity to actually apologise, rather than deliver a fauxpology and get another dig in a Gamaliel. But you blew it. Oh, internets... [Disappointed]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So presumably you have evidence that the book of Joshua, for example, is fiction?

I will let South Coast Kevin answer for me.

quote:
Originally posted by South Coast Kevin:
For me, the evidence that it is not fully accurate (at least in the sense that it does not accurately portray God's view on what the Israelites should have done) is that it seems utterly in contradiction to the character of God as revealed in Jesus. Can you imagine Jesus - 'Love your enemies, bless those who curse you' Jesus - ordering his followers to commit ethnic cleansing?

And I will add: What is your evidence to think it happened just as it happened? Correct me if I'm wrong here, but your argument appears to be it must have happened exactly that way because the Bible says so. Even though you will admit that other things the Bible says aren't necessarily to be taken at face value.

quote:
EE said:
Also, you may like to present evidence to justify abusing (as in the hell thread - "lunatic ravings") someone who happens to believe that the book of Joshua is not fiction.

Distinguish an attack on words from an attack on a person. I did not say the ravings of a lunatic, which would be a personal attack.

quote:
So anyone who takes an ancient account of an event at face value is guilty of "lunatic ravings" is he? Perhaps we should regard the entire history of the Ancient World as fiction, just to pander to mousethief's delicate sensibilities?
I suggest not wildly extrapolating beyond what somebody has said and then insulting their sensibilities based on your extrapolation. People who do not do this generally seem more sensible and sensitive than people who do.

quote:
Hmmm... what were you saying about "being taken seriously", again?
I cannot expect to be taken seriously by everyone. That the majority of rational thinkers on the Ship take me seriously has to be good enough for me.

quote:
What I have noticed from certain contributors, is that they seem to regard the content of the Bible as a set of universal laws, pretexts or precedents, such that if we believe that God acted in a certain way at a certain point in time, then He is bound to act in a similar way in other contexts, or that we are justified in distilling principles from His actions and applying them in other contexts.
Interesting you should notice this, as it doesn't exist. Nobody has said or hinted at this, at least on the three threads that this discussion has spawned. We aren't talking about how God should behave, but about God's character. We're saying God is not the sort of God to order the killing of babies. You're saying He is.

quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Personally, I have no problem believing that the genocidal event happened. Furthermore, I have no problem believing that the Israelites - including the writer of the Book of Joshua - believed that God had commanded them to do it. After all, we see such delusions even today (9/11 anyone?). The only bit I don't believe is that God actually commanded it.

This. Exactly and precisely this.

quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
Well, Jesus who you claim is your example knew about these stories and said little to discount them.

Interesting defense. He also said exactly nothing about abortion. Game over on abortion, according to Beeswax Altar?

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You're beginning to sound like a broken record, Gamaliel, trotting out your cliches and stock phrases.

Sputter. Kof. Sputter. Sputter.

quote:
The trouble with this is that this same Jesus made no attempt to disabuse us of the belief that the apparently historical events of the entry into the Promised Land were true. I would have thought that God would display his truthfulness and integrity through Jesus. Apparently not. <snip> Therefore I take the accounts to be true, as I perceive that Jesus does as well. That is my evidence.
You can't perceive something that isn't there. Argument from silence is no argument unless you have firm evidence that there absolutely could be no silence on this unless it were the case. Which you do not have. There are a billion things Jesus never spoke of (or at least weren't recorded - John says he said a lot of things that didn't get written down, but the things that did get written down are for our edification). Jesus didn't deny that pi=3 or the sun moves and the earth stands still, both firmly established in the Old Testament. I do not (and I hope to shout you do not) conclude from this that he believed them to be true, and I for God's sake wouldn't base a biblical hermeneutic on his silence about them. (I assume you refuse to eat pork or wear clothing made of two or more kinds of fibre? Jesus said nothing about this.)

quote:
So therefore are you saying that any ancient writing that takes the form of an historical account must be viewed as a story or parable if it contains elements we don't personally like? Is that it?
No. How many times do people have to say this? It's not that we personally do not like them. It's that they eviscerate the nature of God revealed in Jesus Christ.

You appear to think that any ancient writing that takes the form of what you think of as a historical account must be viewed as a historical account. Is that it?

quote:
You have arrived at a verdict from zero evidence,
Kind of like your verdict that Jesus affirms the historicity of the Jericho account.

quote:
There are historical accounts describing real events.
So you say. Assertion is not support. Maybe you could give an argument about why you think they are historical accounts? (As you have been asked repeatedly but have hitherto neglected to do, other than "that's what they look like to me.")

quote:
that having looked at various archaeological claims by sceptics, the conclusions about the Bible seem to be based on the spurious principle of "absence of evidence is evidence of absence".
[Killing me] [Killing me] [Killing me] [Killing me] [Killing me] [Killing me]

Exactly your argument for Jesus' belief in the the historicity of the Book of Joshua! OMG! You're killing me! Priceless, my precious! Priceless!

quote:
If they want to think it's fiction. Fine. But don't expect me to agree.
What we expect is for you to support your position with evidence and logic. We're still waiting.

quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
And what's-his-name, whom I have decided to ignore on this thread.

That could be almost anyone.
[Killing me] [Overused]

Pysdeybare wins the internet.

quote:
EE said:
I studied theology (with a large philosophy elective element) in a so called 'liberal' faculty and came out with a 2:1. I debated not only with the other students but even some of the lecturers who respected me. You're an amateur and frankly I don't know why I condescend to respect your intelligence, given the nonsense you come out with at times.

Yeah yeah yeah. And I have a master's degree in philosophy from a prestigious philosophy department. That and $1.30 will get me an apple fritter from my favorite doughnut shop. But alas it doesn't increase the desultory length of my dick. How's that working for you?

quote:
I will admit that my statement above was wrong. Yes, OK, I concede that there is some evidence to question the literal interpretation of the events, but it is certainly not sufficient to conclude that those events did not occur.
It's a hell of a lot more than any evidence you've presented that they DID occur. Infinitely more if we're computing the ratio.

[ 27. February 2014, 16:36: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I may get 'called' by the Hosts on this one but I can't understand how the hell you got a 2:1 in Philosophy and Theology from one of our top universities by spouting the kind of crap you spout here.

That might just about get a Commandment 3 pass as critical comment on posts (i.e. a variation on "your post is stupid"), but
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:

I really think that you're a troll at times, just winding us all up for the sake of it.

In fact, it'd be easier to believe that you are a troll than that you are educated to the level you claim and come out with the tosh you spout.

Host Hat On

That gets you a formal warning for troll calling, which is as you well know a matter for Admin. Specifically, it is a breach of Commandment 3.

In addition.

Gamaliel and EE

I am referring you both to Admin for your continued parading of your personality conflict (Commandment 4 applies) outside of Hell, despite Louise's specific warning to all contributors re Commandment 4 in this post. earlier in the thread. Ignoring a Host's post can get you both into further hot water with Admin.

Barnabas62
Dead Horses Host

Host Hat Off
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
EtymologicalEvangelical and Gamaliel

I've lost count of how many times you've been warned about personal attacks on each other.

The next time either of you takes a pot shot at the other outside Hell and one of us will start handing out enforced shore.

Clear?

Alan
Ship of Fools Admin
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
[Hot and Hormonal]

Ok, fair call and fair warning. I shouldn't have taken the bait.

My rhetoric ran away with me but that's no excuse.

I will endeavour to resist temptation. Other people are giving EE a better run for his money than I can.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua

Asked and answered. I've already linked Wikipedia once - the prevailing scholarly view isn't just that there is evidence to doubt the literal interpretation but that "Joshua is not a factual account of historical events". When you say "there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events" you are not only making a statement that is starkly factually wrong, you are demonstrating that you can't even be bothered to spend thirty seconds investigating the subject.
As a matter of fact, if you had actually researched this subject, you would know that there has been a debate about the dating of the conquest of Canaan, and the radiocarbon dating of items from Jericho (City IV).
Which means that when you said "there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events" you were not only saying something that was factually wrong but something you knew to be factually wrong. That the evidence is disputed doesn't mean it isn't there.

Why were you saying something you knew to be factually wrong?

quote:
I will admit that my statement above was wrong. Yes, OK, I concede that there is some evidence to question the literal interpretation of the events, but it is certainly not sufficient to conclude that those events did not occur.
It's sufficient to conclude that if you "assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities" they did not occur. It's not sufficient to prove it beyond all doubt. Balance of probabilities is your standard, and consensus and balance of probabilities are against you.

Out of curiosity, did you not know where the historical consensus was or now it has been pointed out to you what the consensus is have you decided to stop assessing on the balance of probabilities because it no longer supports your argument?

quote:
If he is such an expert on the Ancient World, he ought to know that archaeological evidence is notoriously flimsy, and theories change as more evidence is unearthed.
I refer your own words to you again.

quote:
To be honest, on this thread I was focusing on textual evidence, and the internal coherence of the Scriptures, since that was the line of attack taken against the literal view. Clearly there is no internal coherent textual evidence to doubt the literal interpretation.
Once again you are making false statements. There is a coherent internal attack in the bible against the book of Joshua. It revolves around the peoples supposedly wiped out cropping up later.

Now once more you can justify things saying "He only killed some of them and the book doesn't record the reverses." But you're into apologetics. Your statement that "there is no internal coherent textual evidence to doubt the literal interpretation" is quite obviously false. There is evidence even if you can explain it away.

Why are you making false statements here? Is it because you want to show your initial statement to be justifiable even when it isn't?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Biblical Justification Gymnastics should be an Olympic event or a circus act. Not the best I've seen at Cirque du Soliel can contort so drastically.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Well, having had a look at some of the evidence it is by no means clear that the sceptics have a case. Of course, it all depends on our view of biblical chronology, but assuming the traditional view of the destruction of Jericho around 1406 BC, then we are essentially faced with the dispute between the interpretation of the archaeological evidence of John Garstang versus that of Kathleen Kenyon. The former dates the destruction of Jericho (City IV) to around 1400 BC, whereas the latter dates it to 1550 BC.

Certainly there is the evidence of the dating of pottery unearthed and catalogued by Garstang in the 1930s, which supports the biblical account, especially the scarabs which feature the names of Egyptian Pharaohs of the 15th century BC, whereas Kenyon's conclusion with regard to pottery is based on an argument from silence, namely, the absence of expensive imported Cypriot pottery. However, she acknowledged that she excavated an economically poor area of the city, where one would not expect to find such items.

The conflict between these two interpretations is well analysed in this article.

So I am not convinced that the literal view has been kicked into the long grass. Far from it.

I await the refutation of Wood's thesis, so we can take the debate further.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
The conflict between these two interpretations is well analysed in this article.

Except the radiocarbon dating is handled in a very cavalier manner: the very best dates clock in 1500s BC.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell
EtymologicalEvangelical and Gamaliel

I've lost count of how many times you've been warned about personal attacks on each other.

The next time either of you takes a pot shot at the other outside Hell and one of us will start handing out enforced shore.

Clear?

I am sorry about this. [Hot and Hormonal]

I will stick to a discussion of the evidence relating to the topic, and I trust that we can have a fruitful debate.

I will do my utmost to chill out from now on.

[ 27. February 2014, 17:39: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Except the radiocarbon dating is handled in a very cavalier manner: the very best dates clock in 1500s BC.

Could you expand on that point please.

What do you mean by 'cavalier' in this context?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Except the radiocarbon dating is handled in a very cavalier manner: the very best dates clock in 1500s BC.

Could you expand on that point please.

What do you mean by 'cavalier' in this context?

In that an article dated 2008, he's still using radiocarbon data that was discredited in 1995. In the addendum, Wood - despite using C14 to originally bolster his case - says that using C14 dating is wrong when it doesn't agree with the 'historical' date.

That's what I mean by cavalier. Either Wood agrees with C14, and has to accept what it says, or he doesn't. He doesn't get to choose which C14 dates he likes. (Clearly, he can do, but his credibility takes a massive hit.)
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The thing is, though, even if there were hard-fast and irrefutable evidence for the Israelite capture of Jericho, then there'd still be the issue of whether it happened in exactly the way the Book of Joshua describes ... with the Israelites blowing trumpets and the walls come tumbling down ...

'Joshua fit de battle of Jericho, Jericho, Jericho ...'

It would be very difficult to 'prove' or demonstrate that the walls collapsed by supernatural means - unless they happened to fall in a way that was commensurate with that and not through an earthquake or by being levelled by a victorious army etc etc.

One might just as well go looking for archaelogical evidence for the Transfiguration, say ... 'Hey, these rocks here look rather bleached, just as if a bright light has been shining on them ...'

Or looking for 2,000 pig skeletons at the point where the herd is said to have tumbled down the cliff in the Gospel accounts.

I do believe that God is perfectly capable of doing supernatural things ... in our space/time here and now world.

But the point of these stories is theological ... there are some strange and 'unexplained' stories in the scriptures but by and large the miraculous, supernatural happenings tend to have a theological purpose.

That's not to say they didn't happen, but it is to provide some context and reason for their inclusion in the narratives.

The theological point is surely more important than whether Jericho was taken in exactly the way the Bible describes. If we can handle the 6-Day Creation in figurative terms than surely we can handle this story in a similar way?

And yes, I know, I know, it could lead us to relegating the accounts of the resurrection appearances of Christ to a symbolic or figurative level. Yes, I accept there is a danger of that.

But it doesn't necessarily follow. That doesn't mean that we are picking and choosing ... I don't see it as a case of all or nothing. Either you believe in the Book of Joshua literally or else the whole thing falls apart.

To this extent, I don't believe that a purely literal interpretation has ever been out of the woods ...

We are clearly dealing with a pre-modern historiographical account which - like all of these things - contains mythic elements. I'm not sure it even helps to try to suss out where the myth ends and the history begins ... the two things are fused together. That's how these things work, it seems to me.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
In that an article dated 2008, he's still using radiocarbon data that was discredited in 1995. In the addendum, Wood - despite using C14 to originally bolster his case - says that using C14 dating is wrong when it doesn't agree with the 'historical' date.

That's what I mean by cavalier. Either Wood agrees with C14, and has to accept what it says, or he doesn't. He doesn't get to choose which C14 dates he likes. (Clearly, he can do, but his credibility takes a massive hit.)

Well, I agree that there is some controversy about the use of C14 dating (not least the question of distortion produced by the volcanic effect), and I also agree that he would be wise to clarify the issue, although he has attempted to do this in the addendum. But his main evidence is based on the dating of pottery, and from what I have seen of his arguments, they appear to be sound. The evidence of the scarab amulets, discovered by John Garstang, suggests a date for the destruction of Jericho well after Kenyon's date - or at least it suggests that the cemetery just outside the city was still in use well after Kenyon's date of 1550 BC for its destruction. Why would people continue to use a cemetery for 150 years after the destruction of the city to which it was attached?

I will try and find out how Wood substantiates the dating of the pottery, because that is key to his thesis.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Presumably we don't know long after the destruction of Jericho that people began to resettle the city. Isn't it one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world?

Presumably, even if Jericho fell in exactly the way the Book of Joshua describes, people soon started to settle there again.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Presumably we don't know long after the destruction of Jericho that people began to resettle the city. Isn't it one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world?

Presumably, even if Jericho fell in exactly the way the Book of Joshua describes, people soon started to settle there again.

Well, according to Wood: "In his excavation of the cemetery northwest of the city, Garstang recovered a continuous series of Egyptian scarabs extending from the 18th century B.C.E. (the XIIIth Dynasty) to the early 14th century B.C.E. (the XVIIIth Dynasty)."

He admits that there is an amulet with the name of Amenhotep III, who was Pharaoh from 1386-1349 BC, a reign beginning shortly after his date for the destruction of Jericho. Dates in the ancient world cannot always be pinned down precisely, and there is some debate about when Amenhotep III's reign began - as noted by one of the comments by an Egyptologist after Wood's article (Douglas Petrovich from the University of Toronto).

But it's interesting that the scarab sequence ends at Amenhotep III and yet stretches back to the 18th century BC. This strongly suggests - though doesn't prove (as if anything can be conclusively proven in the ancient world) - that the cemetery was not used after the destruction of the city, but was in continuous use for many centuries while Jericho was standing.

This appears to, at least, crudely support the biblical account and the traditional date of Jericho's destruction.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Sure, it could support a date for the fall of the city but as you say, it doesn't 'prove' it - and things of that kind of antiquity are always going to be difficult to prove ...

Which is why I'd rather focus on the theological issues - which are also problematic - rather than the 'where did Cain and Abel's wives come from' type of questions.

At the very least, it seems that historians are agreed that there may have been strife between the ancient Semites and the Canaanite peoples - who were also Semites I've heard it suggested ...

The current popular theory, of course, is that there were groups of Semites in the land of Canaan all along - but that it is perfectly possible that some went down to Egypt and later returned.

I don't see why we have to plump for any one theory or solution over another - we can acknowledge that there's an historical background and context without having to wed ourselves to a modernist view of ancient history which treats it as literal 'fact' ...

I suspect that there's a lot of leeway between:

The whole thing is a fable and all made up ...

And:

The whole thing happened exactly as we read in the scriptures.

I don't see why we have to diametrically oppose these issues. I still don't see how it undermines the value and purpose of books like Joshua if we don't take them as literal objective fact but treat them as inspired, certainly, but ancient histiographies that combine both historical and mythological elements and where each is fused together without the kind of distinctions that we moderns tend to make in such instances ...

My brother-in-law's Pentecostal brother went ape with me recently for drawing an analogy between Shakespeare's Henry V and the OT histories. I wasn't making a direct comparison or suggesting that the OT histories aren't inspired by God or are on the same 'level' as 'secular literature' as it were - but he went ballistic ...

I was denigrating the scriptures, I was doing all sorts of despicable things ...

I can see what he was getting at as I've been involved with charismatic evangelical churches and know how the mindset and thinking works ... but I find it increasingly difficult to understand the vehemence and passion of his reaction ... it's not as if I was saying we need to tear these books out of Bibles or take no notice of them.

Nor do I see a view of these books as containing both history and mythology as somehow incompatible with a 'high' view of the authority and inspiration of scripture.

Others may disagree but that's my take these days.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well, I agree that there is some controversy about the use of C14 dating (not least the question of distortion produced by the volcanic effect), and I also agree that he would be wise to clarify the issue, although he has attempted to do this in the addendum.

Yes, there is some controversy about C14 dating. But that is external to its use here. Wood is initially arguing that the C14 date from the charcoal fragment backs up his preferred date - then (and only then) when it's pointed out in the comments that the C14 date he's using has been re-evaluated in a peer-reviewed journal some 13 years previously to be 150 years earlier, it's all "C14 dates are unreliable".

That's an indefensible piece of hypocrisy.

Wood wants his date to be c.1450BC, because that fits with his Biblically-inspired model, and ignores evidence to the contrary. That is not good archaeology.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well, having had a look at some of the evidence it is by no means clear that the sceptics have a case.

Once more you are strictly factually wrong. It might not be clear that the sceptics are right. But given the way the academic consensus lies it's trivial that the sceptics have a case.

quote:
So I am not convinced that the literal view has been kicked into the long grass. Far from it.
A very different statement from your earlier one.

quote:
I await the refutation of Wood's thesis, so we can take the debate further.
Creosus has done this by pointing out how he's been found torturing his facts to fit his ideas.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Yes, there is some controversy about C14 dating. But that is external to its use here. Wood is initially arguing that the C14 date from the charcoal fragment backs up his preferred date - then (and only then) when it's pointed out in the comments that the C14 date he's using has been re-evaluated in a peer-reviewed journal some 13 years previously to be 150 years earlier, it's all "C14 dates are unreliable".

That's an indefensible piece of hypocrisy.

Well, he acknowledged the error, and, with all due respect, I don't think the charge of hypocrisy is fair. It is very common in the academic world for scholars to be wedded to their hypotheses to the point of being reluctant to concede easily to challenging evidence. Theists do it; atheists do it (and it seems that Kathleen Kenyon did it by ignoring pottery dating evidence, and relied on an argument from silence, i.e. the absence of expensive imported Cypriot pottery). It's unfortunate, but it's human nature. If we condemned all scholars who acted in this way, then there would be very few left with any credibility, if any!

But even if we accept that Wood made a gross error of judgment, it doesn't invalidate the compelling evidence of the pottery find.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian
Creosus has done this by pointing out how he's been found torturing his facts to fit his ideas.

Presumably you mean Doc Tor?

To refute a thesis, we have to look at all the data and claims presented and not just focus on one error or weak argument, unless that error is presuppositional, which it is not in this case.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
To refute a thesis, we have to look at all the data and claims presented and not just focus on one error or weak argument, unless that error is presuppositional, which it is not in this case.

The only part I'm qualified to comment on is the C14 dating.

There is, however, the "holed below the waterline" argument. Wood's acceptance and then rejection of the C14 date when he's called out on it leads me to understand he's willing to skew other data to fit his thesis.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
The silly thing here is that if the C14 evidence pointed to the correct date and the pottery evidence didn't, I have no doubt EE would focus on the latter rather than the former.

Some guy said something about pottery. We have no way of telling about his credibility on that or whether there are other sources which back up his assertion.

Given that he plays with radiocarbon dating evidence to fit his agenda, how do we know he is not doing the same with pottery?
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Originally posted by Gamaliel:

quote:
We are clearly dealing with a pre-modern historiographical account which - like all of these things - contains mythic elements. I'm not sure it even helps to try to suss out where the myth ends and the history begins ... the two things are fused together. That's how these things work, it seems to me.
Given that the author of Joshua was working with oral tradition, fused with a certain amount of Second Temple theology, rather than the War Memoirs of Field Marshal Joshua Bar Nun it's not outwith the grounds of possibility that people were aware that there had been a certain amount of burning of cities at the end of the bronze age and were also aware that there was a stonking great ruin at Jericho and conflated the two.

People who oppose the idea that the Old Testament contains mythic history often underestimate how badly yer common or garden factual history gets out of date. I have a number of books on my shelf that I cannot bear to get rid of that are basically obsolete as history. The Book of Joshua, for all it's faults, like the History of the Kings of Britain or the Niebelunglied belongs to the ages. That is vastly preferable to a work which bears the same relationship to modern scholarship as one of those worthy Victorian volumes you can get for nothing on Kindle and which history professors solemnly warn their undergraduates not to cite in their bibliographies if they are aiming for something higher than a 'D'.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gildas:
history professors solemnly warn their undergraduates not to cite in their bibliographies if they are aiming for something higher than a 'D'.

Does that really happen?

I didn't study history, but have sourced pretty old things in written work and did not get D grades. Surely the point is that whilst these might indicate understanding at a given point in time since then there has been more discussion and more evidence has been found on the subject.

Citing old sources in itself is not a problem - the problem is when you only cite old sources and imagine that they're the last word on the subject.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Well, yes, that's fair enough. I imagine that no-one lost points in a Classics exam by quoting Gibbon. But I would not advise an undergraduate to stint on buying or otherwise laying hands on contemporary scholarship on the grounds that they could get Victorian scholarship for nothing.

And, of course, this does not invalidate the point that I was making that history, like many other scholarly endeavours, dates horribly and perhaps, it was better for Holy Writ to present itself in the form of timeless myth than of a historical account that would be out of date in a couple of decades.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gildas:
And, of course, this does not invalidate the point that I was making that history, like many other scholarly endeavours, dates horribly and perhaps, it was better for Holy Writ to present itself in the form of timeless myth than of a historical account that would be out of date in a couple of decades.

Which is pretty much my take on the Creation accounts. If Genesis 1 went into the Standard Model, inflation, the creation of amino acids and sex-selected genetic traits, it wouldn't have been comprehensible until now, and may well be superseded in fifty years.

Myth is a brilliant vehicle for conveying information.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
The only part I'm qualified to comment on is the C14 dating.

There is, however, the "holed below the waterline" argument. Wood's acceptance and then rejection of the C14 date when he's called out on it leads me to understand he's willing to skew other data to fit his thesis.

Unfortunately, that argument can be levelled against Kathleen Kenyon also, given that she refused to follow through on the implications of the pottery find at Jericho, and instead relied on an argument from silence - an absence of certain expected evidence which can even be explained, even by quoting her own work.

So I am not convinced by your argument.

If we are going to talk about evidence, then we should look at all the evidence dispassionately, and without relying on the ad hominem argument.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

If we are going to talk about evidence, then we should look at all the evidence dispassionately, and without relying on the ad hominem argument.

We should also attempt to look favourable at the evidence outwith of our own preconceptions. This comes down to whether this guy is actually an expert on ancient pottery and whether other experts agree with him.

It is not an ad hominem to argue that he seems unreliable either, because he has admitted as much. Part of the work of understanding and seiving evidence is an assessment of the reliability of sources. Given that this guy has made a simple error in part of his argument (in fact the part that at least one of us here is actually an expert in), it is reasonable to ask questions about the way he handles other data.

Now - a) are you actually an expert on ancient pottery or b) have you put together a portfolio of other experts and their opinions on this issue?

You introduced it as evidence, now prove to us why it should be considered reliable, because so far you've not done so.

Other than that this small fact superficially supports your assertion, I'm not sure where you think bringing this academic paper to this argument gets us.

And before you ask, no I'm not going to waste my time checking your sources.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Gah, what I meant to say was:

We should also attempt to look more closely at apparently favourable sources to consider the evidence outwith of our own preconceptions. This comes down to whether this guy is actually an expert on ancient pottery and whether other experts agree with him.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Dr Wood did his Ph.D. dissertation on Canaanite pottery of the Late Bronze Age. Therefore he is an expert in the subject.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Dr Wood did his Ph.D. dissertation on Canaanite pottery of the Late Bronze Age. Therefore he is an expert in the subject.

OK, now prove to us that this assertions in this paper match other findings by his peers.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
wow, that was difficult:

quote:

The first group includes the fundamentalists, who believe in the reliability of the biblical text in all its details, and that the text forms the basis and guide for their archaeological work. I can mention, for example, Bryant Wood and his work on Jericho (e.g. Wood 1990), and Adam Zertal, who restored an imaginary altar on Mount Ebal on the basis of the biblical text (e.g. Zertal 1986–87). Both of them, as well as other scholars of this group, are good, professional archaeologists, but their archaeological work is clearly biased and distorted by their views on the biblical text.

Ussishkin, D. (2007). Questions of methodology. In Proceedings of the British Academy (Vol. 143, pp. 131-141).

[ 28. February 2014, 13:19: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Assertions do not count as evidence.

Sorry.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
If we are going to talk about evidence, then we should look at all the evidence dispassionately, and without relying on the ad hominem argument.

You're abusing the term ad hominem. His conclusions are in doubt because he's been caught with his fingers in the scientific till - a perfectly reasonable inference.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Assertions do not count as evidence.

Sorry.

You are quite right, so show us where Dr Wood has published his research in peer-reviewed journals outwith of the one he works for (which, actually, is not a respected peer-reviewed journal).

It isn't down to me to prove anything. I'm just showing you that Dr Wood does not have hero-status within the academic circles in which he moves, and some totally disagree with his approach.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
John Garstang catalogued items of Cypriot pottery found in a wealthier part of Jericho, which Kathleen Kenyon did not excavate. At the time (the 1930's) Garstang did not appreciate the significance of the find, and yet the presence of this Cypriot bichrome ware - dated to the Late Bronze Age - blows Kenyon's theory out of the water, since she relied on the absence of such pottery to arrive at her earlier date for the destruction of the city. In his article Wood provides photographic evidence of these items, and this can be substantiated. Are you disputing this evidence?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
John Garstang catalogued items of Cypriot pottery found in a wealthier part of Jericho, which Kathleen Kenyon did not excavate. At the time (the 1930's) Garstang did not appreciate the significance of the find, and yet the presence of this Cypriot bichrome ware - dated to the Late Bronze Age - blows Kenyon's theory out of the water, since she relied on the absence of such pottery to arrive at her earlier date for the destruction of the city. In his article Wood provides photographic evidence of these items, and this can be substantiated. Are you disputing this evidence?

None of us are experts in Late Bronze Age pottery, so let's not pretend that we are.

The C14 dates from the proposed layer is for a date c.1550BC. On that basis, and that the paper appeared in a peer-reviewed journal where it was exposed to at least some scrutiny before publication, I'd say that it puts Wood's preferred date into question, whether or not Wood is a good archaeologist or not.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
As I said, it is down to you to show that your evidence is reliable. Photos obviously can be faked, evidence can be misunderstood.

I can point you to apparently academic websites that assert all kinds of things. That doesn't mean that they are therefore reliable.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Both of them, as well as other scholars of this group, are good, professional archaeologists, but their archaeological work is clearly biased and distorted by their views on the biblical text.
Actually this is a very incoherent appraisal. On the one hand, Wood and Zertal are affirmed as good, professional archaeologists, but they are accused of bias, simply because, like all scientists, they hold to a hypothesis, which they are seeking to confirm by investigation of the evidence. Either the evidence supports the hypothesis or it does not. Wood has shown that the evidence of the pottery found at Jericho supports his hypothesis, whatever the controversy about C-14 dating. The evidence of the pottery will not just go away.

This is not bias, but science.

Also, are we seriously to believe that those who hold to the philosophy of naturalism can never be biased thereby?

One could just as easily say that those who wish to prove the Bible to be historically inaccurate are biased.

It works both ways.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
[Confused]

Do you understand the peer review process? You can't just make up shit and then say that because your apparent evidence fits your preconceived theory, it shows that the theory must be right.

All scientific knowledge sits within a framework of understanding.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Then google: Bryant Wood photos fake (or some similar wording).

It shouldn't take you long, as I am sure his alleged fraud would have been exposed by now. After all, there are apparently enough people with the motive to rubbish his work.

You may like to do the same for the moon landings, and then report your findings on Alex Jones' or David Icke's websites.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
OK, I did.

I got this link and this link.

You really should think about doing things before suggesting on public bulletin boards that others should do it.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Wood has shown that the evidence of the pottery found at Jericho supports his hypothesis, whatever the controversy about C-14 dating. The evidence of the pottery will not just go away.

The only controversy about the C14 dating is that Wood wants to use it when it supports his date, and doesn't when it disagrees with him.

The C14 evidence won't go away either.

So, to conclude: there is more than sufficient evidence to cast doubt on the historical exactness of the Book of Joshua.

[ 28. February 2014, 13:54: Message edited by: Doc Tor ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
OK, I did.

I got this link and this link.

You really should think about doing things before suggesting on public bulletin boards that others should do it.

Firstly, you are the one disputing Dr Wood's findings. Therefore it is incumbent on you to substantiate your misgivings.

Secondly, I note that only one small piece of evidence is presented in the first article to question Wood's thesis (with copious evidence that supports it conveniently ignored), hence the comment from Bienkowski:

quote:
Wood has attempted to redate the destruction of Jericho City IV from the end of the Middle Bronze Age (c. 1550 B.C.) to the end of the Late Bronze I (c. 1400 B.C.). He has put forward four lines of argument to support his conclusion. Not a single one of these arguments can stand up to scrutiny. On the contrary, there is strong evidence to confirm Kathleen Kenyon's dating of City IV to the Middle Bronze Age. Wood's attempt to equate the destruction of City IV with the Israelite conquest of Jericho must therefore be rejected.
No evidence provided to support the claim that "Not a single one of these arguments can stand up to scrutiny". That is not science or scholarship, I'm afraid, but bare assertion, a point Wood made in his reply to Bienkowski.

Presumably if Bienkowski had any evidence, this article would have presented it.

The only evidence presented is the C-14 reading of several charred grains. That appears to support Kenyon's dating of the destruction of Jericho.

However, I notice that the article has failed to address the 'problem' of the pottery, which supports Wood's thesis.

Therefore the evidence is inconclusive, and to rubbish an expert's work on the basis of one piece of evidence is very poor scholarship. On the basis of this article (and, assuming I can find the time, I will look into the problems of C-14 dating), the jury is still out on the question of the historical accuracy of the biblical account. This is what is to be expected, given that archaeology, as with all scientific disciplines, is a work in progress.

So the statements that I have read on this thread, that dogmatically claim that the evidence undermines the biblical record are unfounded and misguided.

As for the other article, well this statement just about sums it up:

quote:
In that time, Dr. Wood’s pottery evidence, scarab evidence, radiocarbon dating and mudslide story–all of which were mentioned in Wood’s original 1990 BAR article and championed by Mr. Holding in his Jericho article as well as in BHI-- have all been shown to be false. I’m not a professional archaeologist or Bible historian, but even I found all the relevant data relatively easily to show why the larger community of scholars reject Dr. Wood’s “findings” and have done so for nearly two decades now.
No evidence presented against the pottery and scarab claims, and plenty of speculation concerning the other claims.

And then the last paragraph is particularly telling:

quote:
The bottom line here is Provan, Long, and Longman’s admission in one of the notes attached to this section of their textbook. They admit, “[W]e have noted already Bienkowski’s challenge and Wood’s response, and in our opinion Wood makes the better case” [344, n200]. Opinion hardly matters here, but it is important to point out that Provan, Long, and Longman are basing their opinion only on the original “dialogue” between Wood and Bienkowski in the 1990 BAR articles. Obviously, they were not “on the lookout” for any “adequate” refutations of the data presented by Wood post-1990. But, unlike Mr. Holding, they didn’t claim to be looking out for such material, either. Yet, I must confess that I find it somewhat refreshing to read these authors admit to their bias in accepting Wood’s dated conclusions on little more than their own personal feelings for the data rather than a detailed study of the contrary evidence, even if that admission is buried in a footnote.
So let's get this straight. No evidence is presented, and yet Wood's view is rubbished by someone (who earlier in the article admits to not being an archaeologist) who finds it refreshing that other scholars admit to their 'bias' in supporting Wood's view on little more than their personal feelings, rather than on a detailed study of the contrary evidence, which he refuses to divulge to us! So apparently he is not opposing Wood on the basis of personal feelings or bias, even though he gives us absolutely no reason to think otherwise! (Furthermore, in the text there is no evidence that these scholars "admitted to their bias" - that is something the author of the article is reading into their position. Maybe they did admit to it, but you couldn't be convinced of it from reading this article! The 'admission' that is quoted is not an admission at all. So this doesn't look very honest to me).

I'm glad I am not a psychologist. Try wading through that acrobatic evidence-free logic!
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
[Roll Eyes]

Shitty reply found by google in response to a shitty article found by EE which 'supports' his assertions, even though shown to be unreliable.

Yeah, ok, EE. Thing is you've still not proven reliably your point.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
OK, I did.

I got this link and this link.

You really should think about doing things before suggesting on public bulletin boards that others should do it.

Firstly, you are the one disputing Dr Wood's findings. Therefore it is incumbent on you to substantiate your misgivings.
Bzzt.

Showing that other reputable scholars dispute Wood's findings does not require us to substantiate our misgivings. It is merely sufficient to show that others, working on the same problem with the same data, come to different conclusions.

I don't have a dog in this fight (as a geologist, the idea of someone arguing over a 150 year difference is... interesting). I don't actually mind whether Jericho IV was sacked in 1400BC, 1550BC, or 2600BC as suggested by another scholar, because I'm not a inerrantist.

What I do mind is people doing bad science.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
It's interesting that there is actually a blatant contradiction between pydsey's two articles.

The first one (Biblical Chronologist) quotes the debate between Bienkowsi and Wood, as a way of criticising Wood, and yet the other one (The Skeptical Review) admits that the authors of Biblical History of Israel (Provan, Long and Longman) agreed that Wood's case was stronger than Bienkowski's: "[W]e have noted already Bienkowski’s challenge and Wood’s response, and in our opinion Wood makes the better case”.

The attempt to make Provan, Long and Longman say the opposite of what they actually said is sheer dishonesty. Talk about tampering with evidence. Presumably, Doc Tor, I can apply your "water line method" to this case, yes? (Or do different rules apply, when the case is against the Bible?)

I think pydsey should take more time to read through the evidence he is presenting, in order to avoid this kind of embarrassment in future.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Here, here, it doesn't matter to me either. I don't have any opinion worth anything on the use of pottery in archaeology.

What does bother me is that anyone can think a guy on a random website with absolutely no independent verification is a reliable source of information.

And that anyone thinks that because they've offered some shitty evidence that it is down to us those trying to understand the evidence to prove it wrong. How the heck would we do that?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

I think pydsey should take more time to read through the evidence he is presenting, in order to avoid this kind of embarrassment in future.

I took 2 seconds and found two papers on google, as you suggested.

I'm not claiming they are serious sources.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I think pydsey should take more time to read through the evidence he is presenting, in order to avoid this kind of embarrassment in future.

I'm reasonably certain it's you who should be embarrassed. The one source you're relying on has been unequivocally shown to be playing fast and loose with the only piece of genuine scientific data available, and still you spin and spin.

What evidence, then, would it take for you to accept that the biblical account of the invasion of Canaan was not actual history?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

What evidence, then, would it take for you to accept that the biblical account of the invasion of Canaan was not actual history?

There are those who appear they would maintain their views even should God personally tell them otherwise.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

What evidence, then, would it take for you to accept that the biblical account of the invasion of Canaan was not actual history?

There are those who appear they would maintain their views even should God personally tell them otherwise.
There are those who would rather have been right than be right. They would rather double down to save face than change their position to be right when their position is proved wrong.

Someone truly interested in truth changes their mind when the evidence lets their old position down.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
I'm reasonably certain it's you who should be embarrassed. The one source you're relying on has been unequivocally shown to be playing fast and loose with the only piece of genuine scientific data available, and still you spin and spin.

Well, it's obvious that you haven't even bothered to look at what you term "the only genuine piece of scientific data available". Not only is that description entirely false, but highly selective even within the range of the C-14 data.

There wasn't just one reading from the destruction level of City IV, but 19!

These all gave wildly different dates ranging from 1690 to 1520 BC.

Furthermore, pydsey's first article states concerning the piece of evidence that Dr Wood was supposedly being 'dishonest' about:

quote:
In fact, radiocarbon is such a source. In the early 1990's, when Wood first published his claims, there was only one radiocarbon measurement available for City IV. It was from a piece of charcoal dated by the British Museum to 1410 plus or minus 40 years B.C. Unfortunately, this date was later retracted by the British Museum, along with dates of several hundred other samples. The British Museum found that their radiocarbon measurement apparatus had gone out of calibration for a period of time, and thus had yielded incorrect dates during that period. The corrected date for the charcoal sample from City IV turned out to be consistent with Kenyon's ca. 1550 B.C. date for the City IV destruction.

The corrected date no longer supported Wood's proposal, but it was insufficient to falsify the proposal. Radiocarbon dates on charcoal give the date the wood grew, not the date it was burned. To be consistent with Bryant Wood's proposal, the wood which burned to produce the charcoal sample would need to have been cut from a living tree 150 years prior to the destruction. Of course, this is not impossible.

So what you mistakenly term the only genuine scientific evidence is far from conclusive.

And, of course, you continue to blatantly ignore the copious pottery evidence.

Are you expecting me to accept a theory based on an argument from silence (Kenyon's dubious lack of Cypriot pottery theory), rather than based on what was actually excavated?

So, no, I am not embarrassed, because the evidence is on my side, and I don't refer to blatantly contradictory articles to support my case, like pydsey has done.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
EE,

Serious question here: how old do you believe the Earth to be?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha
EE,

Serious question here: how old do you believe the Earth to be?

What the hell has that got to do with Jericho?

[Confused]

Anyway, gotta run. Have an evening shift. Hope to continue this discussion later...
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
If you are a YECCie, their is no point discussing anything with you here. If you are not, why so tightly wound in this discussion?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So, no, I am not embarrassed, because the evidence is on my side

Pfft.

Everybody keeps 150 year-old bags of charcoal lying around. No, they couldn't discount the possibility, but dude, you're clutching at straws.

Again, what evidence would satisfy you that the Book of Joshua isn't actual history?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well, it's obvious that you haven't even bothered to look at what you term "the only genuine piece of scientific data available". Not only is that description entirely false, but highly selective even within the range of the C-14 data.

There wasn't just one reading from the destruction level of City IV, but 19!

These all gave wildly different dates ranging from 1690 to 1520 BC.

I see. Now you are arguing with someone who is an expert in C14 dating.

Let me see, would I bank on you holding any water whatsoever on this point: not a chance.

Give it up, you've got no idea.

quote:
And, of course, you continue to blatantly ignore the copious pottery evidence.
Evidence which is disputed and which you've given no reason to us to believe.

quote:
Are you expecting me to accept a theory based on an argument from silence (Kenyon's dubious lack of Cypriot pottery theory), rather than based on what was actually excavated?
Nope. I don't care whether you believe Kenyon (whoever that is).

quote:
So, no, I am not embarrassed, because the evidence is on my side, and I don't refer to blatantly contradictory articles to support my case, like pydsey has done.
You still don't get it do you [Roll Eyes]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
What the hell has that got to do with Jericho?

[Confused]

The lack of any kind of scientific reasoning ability is commonly associated with young earth creationists. You are showing all the classic signs.

quote:
Anyway, gotta run. Have an evening shift. Hope to continue this discussion later...
I look forward to the day when you actually start a discussion. This has been a single-sided monotone of bullshit.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
EE, if I were to present you with a plausible archaeological argument against the historicity of Joshua, how would you, as a non-specialist, know if I was bullshitting or not?

It seems to me that we are not in a position to dismiss the majority opinion. Yes, sometimes the lone voice of sanity can prevail against the hidebound establishment, but none of us has the skills to be that lone voice.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Ricardus -

Could I just ask you if you have a higher qualification in politics and economics? Yes or no?

This is highly relevant by the way...
 
Posted by Anglican_Brat (# 12349) on :
 
Consider this:

If the Book of Joshua was historical, Israel's neighbours would be scared shitless. I mean, where else would you have a situation where one side utterly and completely decimated the other side?

Furthermore, not only would Israel's neighbours notice, but Israel's prophets would allude to Joshua over and over again of what happens when Israel is faithful. "See, Israel, when you are faithful, all your enemies die, just like in Joshua."

But we don't have that. In Isaiah, the Assyrians mock how weak Judah really is, they don't seem to recall any story where the Israelites were great military warriors (2 Kings 18:28-35). The Prophets, to my knowledge, do not allude to the Conquest, though they do allude to Moses and the Covenant.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Anglican_Brat -

Strange how you appeal to the Bible in order to undermine the Bible.

Looks rather self-refuting to me.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical


Looks rather self-refuting to me.

Bingo. Your 'argument' is exactly that.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
The lack of any kind of scientific reasoning ability is commonly associated with young earth creationists. You are showing all the classic signs.

Right. If you know so much about the scientific method, then please explain it to me.

Go on. Let's see what you've got as far as understanding critical reasoning is concerned.

Instead of spending this whole thread just snapping at my heels with cynical comments, why don't you actually show me how to engage with the evidence in the way that you think is correct?

I will then evaluate your response, to see whether you actually understand the principles of critical analysis.

This should be interesting...
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Right. If you know so much about the scientific method, then please explain it to me.

Go on. Let's see what you've got as far as understanding critical reasoning is concerned.

Instead of spending this whole thread just snapping at my heels with cynical comments, why don't you actually show me how to engage with the evidence in the way that you think is correct?

Because you haven't supplied any plausible evidence. Because I don't care very much about archaeology in Jericho.

I do care that you don't seem able to weigh and present information in a way to make an argument and that you seem intent on blaming everyone else for the fact that you cannot back up your statements with actual reliable and credible evidence. Nobody asked you to say the stuff you said upthread, you just said it. And then you had to look rather quickly to find something, anything, on which you could hang it. Unfortunately for you, the things you chose to hang it on were fatally flawed, and we have people on this bulletin board who are able to call it bullshit.

quote:
I will then evaluate your response, to see whether you actually understand the principles of critical analysis.

This should be interesting...

You clearly don't have that ability.

I'm sorry, EE, you just don't.

[ 28. February 2014, 20:53: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical
I will then evaluate your response, to see whether you actually understand the principles of critical analysis.

This should be interesting...

You clearly don't have that ability.
Since being rebuked by a host on this thread, I have tried to stick to the discussion of evidence and avoid personal comments (and take my personal feelings to the hell board).

That is what I will continue to do.

That's all I can say.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So, no, I am not embarrassed, because the evidence is on my side

Except that your evidence rests entirely on the testimony of one scholar, who has been shown to be less than totally reliable (to put it nicely). Further it appears to be his word contra mundum, and his word is suspect. So, no, the evidence is not on your side.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Well, if it is a personal attack to say that I think the evidence of this thread shows that EtymologicalEvangelical lacks the ability to judge my critical analytical skills, then I am very sorry indeed.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief
Except that your evidence rests entirely on the testimony of one scholar, who has been shown to be less than totally reliable (to put it nicely). Further it appears to be his word contra mundum, and his word is suspect. So, no, the evidence is not on your side.

By using the word 'testimony' you make it sound like he is just sharing his own personal subjective experience.

Whatever the controversy about the particular piece of C-14 evidence, Wood is actually presenting evidence, which can be assessed and evaluated objectively.

Furthermore, concerning the testimony / view / theory (or whatever word you wish to use) of one scholar, it should be noted that the prevailing 'majority' view rests on the work of one woman, namely, Kathleen Kenyon. Anyone with any view on this subject relies on the evidence of the very few people who have excavated there.

So we are not dealing with one man contra mundum, but a range of evidence presented by a small number of people.

As for reliability and honesty: why is it that Wood is being castigated for his error over one particular piece of evidence, which taken together with other C-14 evidence is not conclusive, when Kathleen Kenyon's view is not treated with the same concern, even though she built her theory of the dating of the destruction of Jericho on an argument from silence, namely, the lack of expensive imported pottery in a part of the city, which by her own admission was an economically poor area? Wood makes the claim that Garstang actually found and catalogued this very pottery from another part of the city. If Wood's claim is really spurious (and he was dishonest as to brazenly fabricate the evidence), then I would have thought that the exposure of it would be all over the internet like a rash! But it isn't. There is essentially one criticism of Wood relating to one piece of C-14 dating. I hardly think that justifies ignoring all the other evidence he presents.

So, I am sorry, but I don't agree with you.

I acknowledge that the archaeological evidence could undermine the historicity of the account in Joshua. It could also confirm it.

Archaeology is simply a work in progress, and in this case the evidence is somewhat contradictory.

Therefore I don't accept that we can confidently say that the historicity of the Bible has been debunked by archaeology - at least as far as the Jericho account in Joshua is concerned.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Ricardus -

Could I just ask you if you have a higher qualification in politics and economics? Yes or no?

This is highly relevant by the way...

No. I have a BA in modern languages, which qualifies me to produce plausible bullshit in a range of languages.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus
No. I have a BA in modern languages, which qualifies me to produce plausible bullshit in a range of languages.

Well, you have probably guessed why I asked the question in the light of your comments in your earlier post.

Millions of people who do not have qualifications in politics and economics are allowed to make decisions that directly affect the political and economic structure of their country. It's called the ballot box.

Now why is it that the process of democracy credits ordinary people with intelligence (whether they are intelligent or not)? And why is it that the jury system allows ordinary people - not qualified in criminal law - to decide the fate of a defendant?

In our western secular democracies we accept as a given that ordinary people can think about subjects in which they are not formally qualified, and make important decisions about other people's lives without the necessary expertise.

So if this is acceptable - and I assume you agree with democracy and the jury system - why is it unacceptable for ordinary people to think about evidence in subjects in which they do not have a formal qualification? Any reasonably educated person can learn to evaluate evidence critically and to discern poor arguments and fallacious reasoning.

Either we accept that people's intelligence is respected and we are all allowed to critically examine information which is conveyed to us, or we build our society on elitism, in which the vast majority are unthinking serfs totally dependent on their appropriately qualified 'betters'.

I know which kind of society I prefer.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The thing is, though, EE, even if the 14th century date is correct and the pottery provides overwhelming evidence for the destruction of Jericho IV by the Israelites at the date that conservative biblical scholars maintain, how does that help us with the 'orphans' issue?

It would certainly support the historicity of the account in terms of context and date.

But it doesn't help us with the theodicy or the theological interpretation of these events.

Nor would the dating evidence necessarily reveal how Jericho was destroyed ... whether it was destroyed by supernatural means as per the OT account, or by more conventional methods, shall we say ...

What 'evidence' would you or could you provide other than 'the Bah-ble says'?

Assuming that the Bible is to be interpreted in a literal, inerrantist kind of way, of course ...

Which isn't necessarily the way that the Rabbis and other Jewish believers have interpreted it down the years.

We are still left with the issue of interpretation.

The archaeological evidence - such as it is - doesn't help us very much with that, it seems to me.

Which is fair enough.

This isn't a problem if we are dealing with myth - in the C S Lewis sense. It's only a problem if we are dealing with a particular 19th/early 20th century concept of Biblical inerrancy.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Anglican_Brat -

Strange how you appeal to the Bible in order to undermine the Bible.

Looks rather self-refuting to me.

ISTM he is saying the Bible is not internally consistent with the Jericho texts. And that evidence adds to the physical evidence which calls into question said texts.
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

Archaeology is simply a work in progress, and in this case the evidence is somewhat contradictory.

If, by this, you mean new techniques are being developed and older ones refined and that our understandings are progressing; then you are correct.
If you mean that one can simply choose the version which best fits their preconception and wave away contradictory evidence, I disagree.
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
and we are all allowed to critically examine information

And this, no snark intended, is what your argument fails to do.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
As for reliability and honesty: why is it that Wood is being castigated for his error over one particular piece of evidence, which taken together with other C-14 evidence is not conclusive, when Kathleen Kenyon's view is not treated with the same concern, even though she built her theory of the dating of the destruction of Jericho on an argument from silence, namely, the lack of expensive imported pottery in a part of the city, which by her own admission was an economically poor area?

Argument from lack of pottery (which is fairly strong in archaeology) versus lying about C-14 dating? Sorry, you lose.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I will then evaluate your response, to see whether you actually understand the principles of critical analysis.

This should be interesting...

You clearly don't have that ability.

I'm sorry, EE, you just don't.

quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
Well, if it is a personal attack to say that I think the evidence of this thread shows that EtymologicalEvangelical lacks the ability to judge my critical analytical skills, then I am very sorry indeed.

You are correct to be sorry.

What the guidelines say, quite starkly, is this. From Purgatory Guidelines.

quote:
1. No personal attacks

We all have different opinions about weighty matters, some strongly held. Disagree with the view, not the person. The statement, "View X is stupid," is acceptable. The statement, "Person X is stupid," is not.

And to clarify their application here in Dead Horses, DH Guideline 2 says this

quote:
Dead Horses is really an extension of Purgatory, so not only do the Ship of Fools 10 Commandments apply, so do the Purgatory guidelines. We ask that you respect your fellow contributors by adhering to them.
You see the difference. By deducing a general lack of ability to analyse (which is of course akin to calling someone stupid) from posts which you assess as stupid (and are within your rights to do so) you cross the line from criticism of post to criticism of person.

You are free to make that deduction of course, but you can't express it outside of Hell. It is a Commandment 3 offence, as clarified by Purgatory Guideline 1. And both of those apply here in Dead Horses.

From my Hosting POV, your apology is acceptable. I hope the rules clarification will help for the future. Just stick to criticism of posts.

Barnabas62
Dead Horses Host
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

Millions of people who do not have qualifications in politics and economics are allowed to make decisions that directly affect the political and economic structure of their country. It's called the ballot box.

Now why is it that the process of democracy credits ordinary people with intelligence (whether they are intelligent or not)? And why is it that the jury system allows ordinary people - not qualified in criminal law - to decide the fate of a defendant?

AIUI, in criminal jury trials the judge is the judge of the law, and the jury is the judge of the facts. Questions of law should not generally trouble the jury.

Likewise, economics is about means, and the ballot box is about ends. Economics will (theoretically) tell you that if you want an egalitarian society you should do A, B and C, and if you want a high-growth society you should do X, Y and Z. It won't tell you whether an egalitarian or a high-growth society is preferable, because that is a moral choice for the voters at the ballot box.

The ballot box also exists because, regardless of their understanding of the wider macro-economic situation, voters can tell if their own circumstances have improved or declined under the government of the day, thus giving the government of the day a positive incentive to make sure they improve. For which task they may well call in the services of a professional economist.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Fair enough, Barnabas62.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Right. So, let us just try to get some perspective on EE's argument:

1. Some guy thinks that there is something important to be said about archaeology in Jericho.

2. He says this is based on pottery and C14 dating.

3. However it is proven that C14 is spurious.

4. Further it is shown that others in his field think his approach is biased.

5. Hence it is reasonable to be dubious about what this guy is saying (1) because he appears to only publish on his own website, not in peer reviewed journals (2) because he has been shown to be wrong on C14 data (3) because others do not accept his approach and have said so in peer reviewed journals in the field.

6. Even if Dr Wood is actually true, this evidence only suggests something very narrow regarding something happening at that time in Jericho

7. Even if something happened in Jericho at the time indicated, that does not necessarily mean that it was as the bible indicates.

8. Therefore this evidence does not even touch on the question of reliability of this part of the bible, never mind the rest of it.

9. Even if it did, and even if the archaeology could be so watertight that there could be no argument that the bible was historically accurate, this has no bearing on whether the phrase 'and God told x' is actually accurate, because no archaeology could ever prove that.

10. Hence this whole stream of argument, even if it could be proven to be correct in every respect up to point 9. is utterly bogus.

So, based on that, I don't even need to engage with the evidence that you have presented, given that it doesn't make any difference to the point that you're trying to make. I reiterate that other than using my university-learned skills to assess the likely reliability of sources, I am not trained to assess C14 or pottery archaeological data.

That is my critical reasoning.

Furthermore, there clearly is plenty of other evidence (archaeological, theological and textural), I'd like you to withdraw this remark you made above, which is clearly nonsense.

Not only is there evidence to doubt the accuracy of the biblical historical record, the evidence in support of the historicity of the biblical record is not supported by the source you've supplied.

You've failed on both sides of that argument.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Because I assess historical evidence on the basis of the balance of probabilities, and given that there is no evidence whatsoever to doubt the literal interpretation of the events described in, say, Joshua (other than a vague appeal to the character of God as manifested in Jesus, which I have already addressed), then I take it that they are basically literal accounts.



 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
5. Hence it is reasonable to be dubious about what this guy is saying (1) because he appears to only publish on his own website, not in peer reviewed journals (2) because he has been shown to be wrong on C14 data (3) because others do not accept his approach and have said so in peer reviewed journals in the field.

Is this true, EE? This so-called expert of yours can't even get himself published? Tell me pysdeybare has omitted some important bit of evidence (which is to say, give us a reference to a peer-reviewed article by Dr. Wood).
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
The articles detailing his controversial ideas appear in the Biblical Archaeology Review which is a non-peer reviewed popular magazine though does publish articles by serious scholars (they also published the opposition to his hypothesis). And in Bible and Spade which is dedicated to the inerrantist view and for which he is the editor.

He's published in Israel Exploration Journal 50(1-2):123-130 (2000) which does seem to be peer reviewed but the article, "Khirbet el-Maqatir, 1995-1998" does not seem to deal with the controversy in question directly (it was also in the Notes and News section so might not have the same peer review requirements of other sections). He has published in Levant 14(01): 73-79 (1982) also peer reviewed and again the article doesn't seem to deal directly with the controversy (among other things it was published before his hypothesis was proposed in 1990) "The Stratigraphic Relationship of Local and Imported Bichrome Ware at Megiddo".
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Here is Wiki on Bryant Wood.

There is no conclusive connection between inerrancy views of scripture and honesty over research work. Nor are all peer review systems free from bias.

But, if you are a researcher of any kind, and you feel your work is being discounted because of your prior beliefs, then I think you have to work within the peer review system itself, rather than step outside it.

From a preliminary look, it seems that he has good claims to expertise re dating of pottery shards, coupled with some peer review of his work in that field. So far as carbon dating is concerned, not so much.

I'm going to "dig around" a bit more. Kenyon's careful work has been "received wisdom" re the dating of Jericho IV for many years. That much I did know in advance.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
The articles detailing his controversial ideas appear in the Biblical Archaeology Review which is a non-peer reviewed popular magazine though does publish articles by serious scholars (they also published the opposition to his hypothesis). And in Bible and Spade which is dedicated to the inerrantist view and for which he is the editor.

Thank you for this, you are quite right to pull me up on this.

BAR and Bible and Space do not meet the criteria, in my opinion, of properly serious peer-reviewed journals.


quote:
He's published in Israel Exploration Journal 50(1-2):123-130 (2000) which does seem to be peer reviewed but the article, "Khirbet el-Maqatir, 1995-1998" does not seem to deal with the controversy in question directly (it was also in the Notes and News section so might not have the same peer review requirements of other sections). He has published in Levant 14(01): 73-79 (1982) also peer reviewed and again the article doesn't seem to deal directly with the controversy (among other things it was published before his hypothesis was proposed in 1990) "The Stratigraphic Relationship of Local and Imported Bichrome Ware at Megiddo".
I am not sure how serious the Israel Exploration Journal is, but I am willing to concede that it appears to be a peer reviewed journal. According to SJR it has a citation H index of 6, according to wikipedia an individual would need an h index of 12 to get tenure in a university.

Levant appears to have a h-index of 7.

The low citation index might be due to the low number of people working in the field (although one would think Middle-Eastern Archaeology would have a reasonable amount of interest, given the religious aspects of the findings) - however the general impession is that these are second-rate journals which one might expect a young doctoral student to publish work in.

I am willing to amend my statement above to: Dr Wood appears to have very little published in any kind of peer reviewed journal. The vast majority of his work has been published on websites which he works for.

[ 03. March 2014, 09:54: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Here is Wiki on Bryant Wood.

There is no conclusive connection between inerrancy views of scripture and honesty over research work. Nor are all peer review systems free from bias.

Interesting point. I wonder if any serious research has been undertaken as to research honesty and religious fundamentalism.

Of course you are right to say that there is a major problem embedded within the peer review system of bias, faking, lies, cheating etc.

The truth is that there are plenty of academic journals and it is widely held that one can get almost anything published somewhere. In fact, most researchers would puzzle as to why you would even want to go to the effort of writing up research and then not publishing it in a journal, for the credibility of independent "pairs of eyes" looking over your work if nothing else.

As I've said above, I can't tell whether the conclusions Dr Wood makes are good or not. I read that others believe he is a good archaeologist, but that his religious views make his conclusions bias and untenable.

quote:
But, if you are a researcher of any kind, and you feel your work is being discounted because of your prior beliefs, then I think you have to work within the peer review system itself, rather than step outside it.
I don't think you have to, but self-publishing work has a stigma about it, and if the work you are self-publishing is very controversial and you're trying to publish it in such a way as to look very academic, and you've been shown to be wrong on something significant, and you're not publishing in journals when you clearly could be - then serious questions can be asked about your credibility.

I repeat, though, non-credible sources and researchers are not necessarily wrong. But a test of credibility is a fairly simple way to question whether work should be accepted on face value.

quote:
From a preliminary look, it seems that he has good claims to expertise re dating of pottery shards, coupled with some peer review of his work in that field. So far as carbon dating is concerned, not so much.
He certainly seems to have qualifications in the field from reputable academic institutions.

[ 03. March 2014, 10:09: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Thinking about this a bit more, it must be true that a person who is attached to a specific meta-narrative is more likely to present bias, particularly when the research he is making has some impact on the meta-narrative.

Daniel Sarewitz writes on this:

quote:
How can we explain such pervasive bias? Like a magnetic field that pulls iron filings into alignment, a powerful cultural belief is aligning multiple sources of scientific bias in the same direction.
He is speaking of the much-discussed question of bias in biopharmacutical science, but the same must also be true when you are studying something which has significant impacts (you believe) on the public understanding/acceptance of something you believe, deeply, to be true.

I'd say, unfortunately, someone who has the same training as Dr Wood, but who doesn't actually care either way as to the likely impact of pottery dating on findings in Jericho, is more likely to be unbiased than Dr Wood is. Hence, in some ways, he has an even greater obligation to prove his case and prove he is not just interpreting the results in a way that would be helpful to his religious belief.

[ 03. March 2014, 10:45: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
"Well he would" (as Mandy Rice Davis Davies put it memorably).

Or the problem of Bulverism ("you say that because you are a mother!") as C S Lewis put it.

More colloquially yet; "Playing the man rather than the ball".

The only real antidote is to take findings and conclusions on their merits, rather than start off suspicious. Even stopped clocks are right twice a day.

If his conclusions, based on his best understanding of the aging of pottery, were that the pottery findings at Jericho IV seemed to be at variance with prior understandings of the dating of the "walls down" at Jericho IV, had been expressed that way, there was scope for further research. I haven't read enough yet. People do overstate their case of course, but sometimes they get their case overstated for them!

Where I agree with pydseybare is that none of this really looks at the moral issue of the reported "slaughter of the innocents".

In my view, if Joshua 6 in its present form turned out to be a post-Exilic theological "salvation-history" reflection on some ancient Israelite camp-fire stories, I wouldn't be in the least surprised. There is evidence in scripture that the human authors had theological views of their own, and that there was variation between those views.

It is easier for me to see this "theological conversation" in the OT between the "tribal God" henotheism and the "One God of all" monotheism (of Is 40-55 for example) contained in the OT documents. By Jesus time, there is no doubt that Judaism was monotheistic, but it still seems to have had an exclusive view of how "light to the Gentiles" might be worked out. That was what Christianity changed. That, I think, is where there is a "theological conversation" between the OT and the NT.

The inwardness of the conversation is "what is God really like?" My personal view owes something to the Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy with its comments about something claimed to be "tea".

Joshua 6 gives us a picture which is "almost but not complete unlike" the picture of God we get from this later "conversation" between the OT and the NT. What holds the tension is this awareness of the transcendent "otherness" of God, which we do well to remember that we cannot ever fully understand. He is God, we aren't. His thoughts are not our thoughts.

I shudder a bit at that thought, but not enough to prevent me saying this. Joshua 6 is about as far removed from love of enemies as I can find. It is never, never, never, to be imitated by anyone who claims to follow Jesus.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
"Well he would" (as Mandy Rice Davis Davies put it memorably).

Or the problem of Bulverism ("you say that because you are a mother!") as C S Lewis put it.

More colloquially yet; "Playing the man rather than the ball".

The only real antidote is to take findings and conclusions on their merits, rather than start off suspicious. Even stopped clocks are right twice a day.


There is no 'playing of the man', if he had published this in a journal, had a better record of research, worked in a respected university insitute, had not been accused of bias by colleagues.. and so on, there would be no obvious question of credibility.

Unfortunately, this is one of the ways we are taught at university to assess claims of this kind.

If one does not use a measure of credibility in reading reports, one is inevitably going to get caught up in answering any-old-crap questions from very uncredible sources.

[ 03. March 2014, 10:59: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
We all take shortcuts based on judgment. Will this really be worth my time? That's the beauty of peer review. If a paper has got through the preliminary vetting then it's worth a read whoever the author may be. If it hasn't, then we all take a view.

Folks build up a different kind of credibility even here. We all create our own track records triggered whenever anyone sees a name or an avatar. It's a good idea to avoid the "scroll past" the reputation. A kind of highly informal and not obviously fair peer review.

The issue is that biased people also have insights. Since bias is normal, that's basically all of us. The root of prejudice is that little phrase "pre-judge" i.e. to judge not on merit but some form of prior opinion of the worth of a person's work.

Pre-judging may be necessary, and it may often be right, but it is not free from risk of Bulverism.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Here is the thing. A Biblical archaeologist might be perfectly objective. However, given the nature of humans for confirmation bias, the very idea of approaching any endeavor with an inherently limited* framework is not good science. So is this still bulverism to [Paranoid] when such a person speaks contrary to the mainstream?

*And suspect framework. Where on the inerrancy spectrum does a person fall? Jericho or Noah?

And before any attempts to get all Scientismist on my arse, yes anyone can approach research with a bias. However this sorts itself out eventually unless contained within an artificial housing such as Biblical archaeology.

ETA: Oh, Oh, this relates to the OP. When one believes the bible stands without interpretation, without human bias, one is painted into genocidal corners.

[ 03. March 2014, 16:57: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
What's wrong with the usual tests of replicabilty or falsification? In general, scientists and researchers don't have to pass character tests before being allowed to practise their chosen fields. They are expected to have demonstrated a certain level of competence through various tests on the way to achieving qualifications.

Good science can be, has been, and is being, done by folks who are hardly paragons of virtue in their personal lives. People compartmentalise. Why should we apply special tests to folks of particular religious beliefs? Their work will either stand up, or it won't. It looks as though Wood's Jericho assertions won't stand up, which just demonstrates that the system works, provided that research results are open to independent scrutiny.

I agree it is relevant to this thread, since there is more than one DH in play at this point. But the point has wider relevance than just this thread.

[ 03. March 2014, 18:09: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
My comment was not meant to deride to any religion and I truly do not care what religion any scientist belongs to, with the following caveat: A person subscribing to a literalist view of a work such as the bible is unsuited to science endeavours which contradict said view. Such as an evolutionary biologist who believes in a 6,000 year old earth.

I do have a problem with the let science sort it out philosophy, in that this is fine for the scientific community; but causes problems with the general public by putting out plausible, but inaccurate data.

And I think tying to prove religion is missing the point from the first.

[ 03. March 2014, 20:44: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Sure, but unless you accept the disciplines of the research methods in play in your chosen field, you will never meet the necessary qualification standards which will get you to the starting line.

There is some measure of self-selection involved. People do not, generally, expose themselves to severe cognitive dissonance.

If I give an example from a different field, F F Bruce was a distinguished professor of exegetical studies , who was also a life long member of the Christian Brethren, a movement noted for conservative evangelical viewpoints. But Bruce was a maverick within the movement to which he belonged. He was an intelligent, reforming voice within a theologically conservative movement.

Basically, we make a mistake if we assume either a lack of honesty or competence simply because there are tensions as a result of membership of two dissimilar groups. It may be that it takes both courage and wit to cope with those tensions. It may look very difficult to us.

Some people prefer to be inside the tent pissing out. Of course one may be suspicious of the motives of any researcher who we perceive as having a axe to grind. But why assume it will be used to subvert scientific research processes? The reforming aim may lie elsewhere.

The proof of the pudding will be in the eating. If someone gets caught out in a concealed agenda, either way, they will lose their credibility. It is simply wrong to believe they have, inevitably, such an agenda.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
If I give an example from a different field, F F Bruce was a distinguished professor of exegetical studies , who was also a life long member of the Christian Brethren, a movement noted for conservative evangelical viewpoints. But Bruce was a maverick within the movement to which he belonged. He was an intelligent, reforming voice within a theologically conservative movement.

I don't think this has anything to do with anything. Theologian are free to believe all kinds of things, it being essentially a philosophical pursuit.

In constrast science (and for this I'm taking archaeology to be a science) is something you are tackling outside of the mind and with physical evidence.

Hence one can be a respected theologian, within or without your sect.

Let us think of other examples: if a Jehovah's Witness (who, I think, have scruples regarding blood transfusion) was to publish papers regarding the safety of blood transfusions, we'd clearly have reason to suspect bias. If that person was to publish on his own website we'd have more reason to suspect bias. If he was to publish on his own website, which professed to be an effort to prove the assertions of the Jehovah's Witnesses regarding blood transfusion we'd have ample reason to totally ignore him.

Similarly someone who was a Scientologist making statements about the sanity of science fiction writers. Etc and so on.

quote:
Basically, we make a mistake if we assume either a lack of honesty or competence simply because there are tensions as a result of membership of two dissimilar groups. It may be that it takes both courage and wit to cope with those tensions. It may look very difficult to us.
I don't think there is a mistake. This guy, if he truly has something impressive to say, should say it in a peer reviewed journal like everyone else. That he is preaching to the gallery is indicative of bias.

quote:
Some people prefer to be inside the tent pissing out. Of course one may be suspicious of the motives of any researcher who we perceive as having a axe to grind. But why assume it will be used to subvert scientific research processes? The reforming aim may lie elsewhere.
Because it is easier to assume things are as they seem. If there is reason to suspect bias, it is a reasonable suggestion that the researcher prove that they are not biased - by using the normal systems and protocols that are available.

quote:
The proof of the pudding will be in the eating. If someone gets caught out in a concealed agenda, either way, they will lose their credibility. It is simply wrong to believe they have, inevitably, such an agenda.
Not really. If, for example, this guy had submitted a tonne of papers to peer reviewed journals, and had them rejected (for bias or whatever other reason) we'd never know and he is very unlikely to tell us.

We're here in the stage before eating the pudding, and we're assessing as far as we are able whether the pudding is even edible.

If you want to consume it, carry on, but it is a totally reasonable position to say that this pudding looks inedible.

[ 04. March 2014, 13:05: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
I'm not defending Bryant Wood, pydseybare. I'm defending the right of anyone of any persuasion whatsoever to pursue any career for which they have the talent. I'm defending the principle that any research work they do should be judged on its merits, not pre-judged on the basis of assumptions about prior beliefs.

Both you and lilbuddha seem to be arguing that biblical inerrantists cannot on principle be trusted to do decent archaeological research work. I'm arguing that is an unnecessary assumption. If the work is no good, peers will find it out by the usual peer review processes. There is no need to second guess them.

If you're not arguing that, then I've misunderstood you.

[ 04. March 2014, 17:18: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I'm not defending Bryant Wood, pydseybare. I'm defending the right of anyone of any persuasion whatsoever to pursue any career for which they have the talent. I'm defending the principle that any research work they do should be judged on its merits, not pre-judged on the basis of assumptions about prior beliefs.

Both you and lilbuddha seem to be arguing that biblical inerrantists cannot on principle be trusted to do decent archaeological research work. I'm arguing that is an unnecessary assumption. If the work is no good, peers will find it out by the usual peer review processes. There is no need to second guess them.

Explain to me what this guy's peers can do, given that he isn't publishing his controversial work in peer reviewed journals. There is no process for showing that work is bad if it isn't even published. The best that can be done is what others have done - namely list this guy as doing work which is considered to be biased.

I am totally arguing that someone with an inerrant view of the bible is an unreliable and likely biased source for data in an area which impinges directly on their faith.

They might not be biased, of course the way to prove this is to get a job with a secular university and to publish in a peer reviewed journal. The way not to do it is to set up your own website and journal. That seems pretty obvious to me.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
What part of "not defending Bryant Wood" are you failing to understand, pydseybare? I'm not an innerantist, I don't believe in Intelligent Design, I have no time for scientists who make claims for research which they are not prepared to see tested by their peers. I don't like concealed agendas, I have no time for special pleading.

The principle I am asserting is this one. It is wrong to pre-judge serious research work by asserting that the results must have been tainted by the prior beliefs of the researcher. I'm sticking to that, come what may. Arguments like that have been used historically to persecute minorities. It is a matter of individual freedoms.

If you want to say "may have been tainted" then we have an agreement. Bias is normal, but it is not wrong to be cautious about the possible impact of prior beliefs in this field of research.

[ 04. March 2014, 17:55: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:


Both you and lilbuddha seem to be arguing that biblical inerrantists cannot on principle be trusted to do decent archaeological research work. I'm arguing that is an unnecessary assumption. If the work is no good, peers will find it out by the usual peer review processes. There is no need to second guess them.

I am not saying cannot be trusted. And, I do need to remind myself that not all inerrantists are literalists.
The history of archaeology is riddled with assumption, bias and bad science. No, it is not all tied to religion, pride is there strongly as well as prejudice. But data is forever gone.

In theory, I agree with you Barnabas62. In practice, if I am honest, I cannot claim to live up to this. It reveals yet another flaw in my character.
ETA: the last line is most emphatically not sarcasm. It is a simple acknowledgement.

[ 04. March 2014, 18:04: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
What part of "not defending Bryant Wood" are you failing to understand, pydseybare?

The part where you seem to repeatedly fail to appreciate that this guy is not credible.

quote:
I'm not an innerantist, I don't believe in Intelligent Design, I have no time for scientists who make claims for research which they are not prepared to see tested by their peers. I don't like concealed agendas, I have no time for special pleading.
At no point did I think, nor imply, nor suggest that you were.

quote:
The principle I am asserting is this one. It is wrong to pre-judge serious research work by asserting that the results must have been tainted by the prior beliefs of the researcher. I'm sticking to that, come what may. Arguments like that have been used historically to persecute minorities. It is a matter of individual freedoms.

And I am saying that is an absurd assertion, and flies in the face of how scholarly credibility is established. I am not persecuting anyone.

quote:
If you want to say "may have been tainted" then we have an agreement. Bias is normal, but it is not wrong to be cautious about the possible impact of prior beliefs in this field of research.
Yeah. Well, whether or not it is possible to look at biblical archaeology dispassionately and objectively is not anything I can comment on.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Well, I will have one final go at this tangent, because there is an important point at stake here.

There is a misplaced middle term in your argument, pydseybare.

a) Bryant Wood has demonstrated that his research findings have been affected more by his beliefs than the facts.

b) Bryant Wood is an inerrantist

c) Therefore all innerantists will demonstrate the same flaw. They cannot be be trusted to do proper, peer-reviewable research work in any area where the findings may challenge their beliefs.

There is no "therefore" about it. There is simply an assumption.

There is a finding of guilt in advance of evidence and applying it to a group of people (inerrantists) on the basis of your understanding of the way their beliefs affect their character.

In my rebuttal, I will refer to Atticus Finch's closing submission for the defence, in the trial of Tom Robinson in "To Kill a Mockingbird".

quote:
He is asking you to believe that all negros lie, that all negros cannot be trusted. A belief which itself is a lie, as I am sure I do not have remind you gentlemen
lilBuddha got my point. Are you still sure you don't? Do you really believe that all inerrantists are forced to lie when faced with inconvenient findings? Do you believe that all innerantists are so lacking in personal integrity that they cannot face inconvenient facts? That seems to be what you are saying. If you are, that is pre-judging a lot of people you don't know.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Well, I will have one final go at this tangent, because there is an important point at stake here.

There is a misplaced middle term in your argument, pydseybare.

a) Bryant Wood has demonstrated that his research findings have been affected more by his beliefs than the facts.

b) Bryant Wood is an inerrantist

c) Therefore all innerantists will demonstrate the same flaw. They cannot be be trusted to do proper, peer-reviewable research work in any area where the findings may challenge their beliefs.

There is no "therefore" about it. There is simply an assumption.

Actually, I have not specifically made a statement about 'inerrantists', I have simply said that there is reason to suspect bias when someone is reporting data that seems to back up their worldview, particularly when they are doing it outwith of the normal credible academic circles.

I don't actually need to argue this point with you, if you don't like the way science works, then bully for you. That doesn't change the way that science works.

quote:
There is a finding of guilt in advance of evidence and applying it to a group of people (inerrantists) on the basis of your understanding of the way their beliefs affect their character.

In my rebuttal, I will refer to Atticus Finch's closing submission for the defence, in the trial of Tom Robinson in "To Kill a Mockingbird".

quote:
He is asking you to believe that all negros lie, that all negros cannot be trusted. A belief which itself is a lie, as I am sure I do not have remind you gentlemen
lilBuddha got my point. Are you still sure you don't? Do you really believe that all inerrantists are forced to lie when faced with inconvenient findings? Do you believe that all innerantists are so lacking in personal integrity that they cannot face inconvenient facts? That seems to be what you are saying. If you are, that is pre-judging a lot of people you don't know.
Now you have gone completely off piste and appear to be equating the usual assessment of the credibility of a person making a scientific claim with racism.

I am not prejudging anyone, I am simply applying a normal test of credibility. This has nothing to do with dismissing scientific research because the author is black, is gay, is a woman or whatever other abuses you can make up.

The fact is that this guy has a worldview which he is trying to support by producing archaeological assertions. That is not the same as 'being black'. Utter drivel.

Furthermore, as I have said several times above, just because he is not credible is not to say that he is incorrect. A man who enjoys running into a crowded cinema, shouting 'fire' and watching the fire engines arrive might, conceivably, on one occasion be reporting a real fire.

Now, I don't have anything else to say to you. If you want to try to assess the pottery data, then be my guest, but I do not have the skill to do so. As far as I am concerned, and I'm sure the view of the vast majority of people who believe in and use the conventional scientific process, this work is not credible, and Dr Wood needs to do a lot of work to show he is not biased.

Yes, I totally appreciate that there is a lot of other bias in science. That has nothing to do with this.

Science findings today always fit within a wider framework. Is has not been about loose cannons coming up with wild theories for a very long time. At the very least, today loose cannons have to work to prove their assertions to their colleagues.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:


I am totally arguing that someone with an inerrant view of the bible is an unreliable and likely biased source for data in an area which impinges directly on their faith.

They might not be biased, of course the way to prove this is to get a job with a secular university and to publish in a peer reviewed journal. The way not to do it is to set up your own website and journal. That seems pretty obvious to me.

quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:

I am not prejudging anyone, I am simply applying a normal test of credibility. This has nothing to do with dismissing scientific research because the author is black, is gay, is a woman or whatever other abuses you can make up.

The problem I had was with simply with the italicised part of your earlier post.

I am more than happy to accept your clarification that no such bias has ever been intended.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
The problem I had was with simply with the italicised part of your earlier post.

I am more than happy to accept your clarification that no such bias has ever been intended.

I have no idea whether bias in this situation is intentional, and furthermore I'm not very interested either way.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
For me, the important question is: what does the evidence tell us?

We can wrangle and speculate forever about people's motives and agendas, but everyone actually has some kind of starting position - various assumptions about the nature of reality - and most scientific research involves being guided by presuppositions, for which confirmation is being sought. Yes, hypotheses can be revised, but it is rare, for example, for someone committed to the philosophy of naturalism to jettison that view of reality.

The overriding assumption seems to be that anyone with a religious view of reality is biased (and therefore lacking credibility) if he seeks confirmation of his worldview, whereas anyone with an atheistic agenda, doing exactly the same thing, is never biased. This approach is clearly grotesquely unjust.

Dr Wood has presented some evidence concerning the dating of Bronze Age pottery. Frankly, it makes not a shred of difference whether he is a graffiti artist presenting his theory scrawled on the back wall of a public toilet. Or whether he's a local down the pub who scribbled it on the back of a fag packet. What really matters is whether the evidence itself is sound.

It seems to me that these long-winded ad hominem attacks are just a cynical way of avoiding the challenge of the evidence.

Play the ball. Not the man.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

Dr Wood has presented some evidence concerning the dating of Bronze Age pottery. Frankly, it makes not a shred of difference whether he is a graffiti artist presenting his theory scrawled on the back wall of a public toilet. Or whether he's a local down the pub who scribbled it on the back of a fag packet. What really matters is whether the evidence itself is sound.

I'm sorry, but it really does matter. And that you think it doesn't matter says a lot about you.

quote:
It seems to me that these long-winded ad hominem attacks are just a cynical way of avoiding the challenge of the evidence.

Play the ball. Not the man.

Stop using terms you don't understand. This is not an ad hominem attack, this is judging the credibility of someone based on factual things he has said about himself.

An ad hominem attack would be: Dr Woods is unable to credibly make a cup of tea because he is an inerrantist. It is an ad hominem because the ability to make tea is obviously nothing to do with his inerrantist views.

But clearly and obviously this is not that situation. The things Dr Wood says here are obviously going to influence and be influenced by his inerrant views of the bible.

[ 05. March 2014, 11:00: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
EE


Here is a view of the chronological evidence. It concentrates on the carbon dating evidence.

Unless that evidence can be refuted, then Wood's chronology must fall.

Here is Wood's attempted refutation of Bienkowski. This is dated March 2012.

Here is an earlier comment (2008) by Bryant Wood re C14 dating.

Here is Wiki on radiocarbon dating.

From this, the section on the Radioactive Date Calibration Curve is pertinent.

quote:
The 2004 version of the calibration curve extends back quite accurately to 26,000 years BP. Any errors in the calibration curve do not contribute more than ±16 years to the measurement error during the historic and late prehistoric periods (0–6,000 yrs BP) and no more than ±163 years over the entire 26,000 years of the curve, although its shape can reduce the accuracy as mentioned above.
Doubtless, more detailed arguments can be advanced, but on the radiocarbon dating issue, it does not look as though Bryant Wood's objections hold water. The general view that Jericho IV was destroyed in c 1550 BC, first put forward by Kenyon, and confirmed by the subsequent radiocarbon dating analysis, seems to be very soundly based.

Wood says this himself.

quote:
My dating of the destruction of Jericho to ca. 1400 B.C. is based on pottery, which, in turn, is based on Egyptian chronology.
So his problem is with the radiocarbon dating evidence, on which he has cast doubt, since it corroborates Kenyon and casts doubt on his findings. Personally, I see no reason why the radioactive carbon dating evidence should be doubted, given the way in which it has been systematically refined and calibrated.

[ 05. March 2014, 12:11: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
Strictly speaking the chronology from radiocarbon data can be off due to the source being older than the layer it is in (e.g., tree cut down, wood aged then used in a piece of household furniture which only ends up in an archaeological layer some dozens of years later, its age will be the age of cutting down). However for Jericho we have more than one dating and the latest dating is from burnt grain seeds, an item unlikely to be kept for more than a handful of years before being consumed by humans or other animals. And the dates yields agree on the older date for the layer in question.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Yes, that is my reading as well.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The thing is, whatever chronology we choose we've still got the issue of the genocide - whether it was real or whether it is hyperbolic in tribal mythology terms ...

Frankly, I find the question as posed in the OP to be rather beside the point on one level. It's a bit like asking where Cain and Abel's wives came from or how the author of Jonah knew what Jonah sang from within the belly of the great fish ...

Or - as our local vicar has done - arguing in a church mag article that the victims of a particular natural catastrophe in ancient times were partly to blame for living where they did - thereby, in his view, absolving God of the 'blame'.

Where there's blame, there's a claim ...

'Acts of God' and all that.

I still think it is possible to regard the Joshua invasion and genocides as being based on historical events and yet written in the kind of mythological/semi-mythological style and genre that characterises ancient historiographies from all cultures.

Why should the Book of Joshua be any different in that respect?

I don't for the life of me understand how this in anyway undermines its authenticity or its veracity as Holy Writ ... it's in the OT canon and there for a reason.

I don't see how that necessitates taking it completely literally nor speculating about whether it would have been kinder for the kids in Jericho to be killed there and then rather than be let loose into the desert as orphans. That makes no sense to me at all.

It'd be like speculating whether it would have been kinder to stab them or to bludgeon them to death. Stabbing. Oh, that's alright then ... at least they didn't suffer as much ...

It's a completely specious line of reasoning and argument.

It's also a scary one.

'God made them as stubble to our swords,' Cromwell wrote after one of his victories against the Royalists.

Some of the New England Puritans used the Book of Joshua to justify the massacre of Native American non-combatants during the Pequod Wars of the 1630s.

That's where we get onto very thin ice, very thin ice indeed.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
As I write this, I am standing in Room 57 (Ancient Levant) of the British Museum. There is no pottery from Jericho exhibited here, but quite a bit from Lachish. I have just compared Dr. Wood's claim with the kind of pottery found in Lachish dated 1400 to 1200 BC. Hmmm... same design (bichrome). I'm afraid I can't see the Jericho type pottery design in the section for the 16th century BC.

But who knows? Perhaps the British Museum lacks credibility as well?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
As I write this, I am standing in Room 57 (Ancient Levant) of the British Museum. There is no pottery from Jericho exhibited here, but quite a bit from Lachish. I have just compared Dr. Wood's claim with the kind of pottery found in Lachish dated 1400 to 1200 BC. Hmmm... same design (bichrome). I'm afraid I can't see the Jericho type pottery design in the section for the 16th century BC.

But who knows? Perhaps the British Museum lacks credibility as well?

Just as you confuse your interpretation of the Bible with the Bible itself, you confuse your interpretation of the display at the British Museum with the knowledge of the curators of the British Museum. TWBFIIWSS. (That Would Be Funny If It Weren't So Sad)
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
[Killing me]

I'm a huge fan of the British Museum. I love their free guided tours. I once went on one of the Assyrian rooms. Fascinating. All those lion hunts and winged man/eagle/lion things and blokes with funny beards ... all those siege engines at Lachish and crossing the Euphrates in giant coracles ...

Wonderful, wonderful stuff.

Of course, looking at the Assyrian friezes I became completely convinced of the absolute historical veracity of the story of Sennacherib and the angel smiting his hordes outside Jerusalem ... 'and behold, when they awoke they were all dead men.'

I also realised that the famous poem by Byron, 'The Assyrian came down like a wolf on the fold/And his cohorts were gleaming in purple and gold ...' wasn't actually a poem at all but a first-hand journalistic report ...

I am aghast.

For a bright bloke, EE you don't half miss the point at times.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The last comment was ad hominem. I withdraw it.

What I would say instead is, 'For someone who claims to be a Philosophy and Theology graduate from one of our leading universities, your arguments often strike me as rather thin and full of category errors.

It could well be that I'm missing something - but I very much doubt it because plenty of other Shipmates seem to have the same reaction.

For whatever reason, the standard of logical argument and theological insight that you would have imbibed on your course doesn't appear to translate itself into the ability to argue a cogent and convincing case.

In this instance you appear to make a logical jump across several assumptions rather than waiting for there to be data to support those assumptions.

It strikes me as something of a short-cut.

'There is no Jericho pottery in the British Museum display from the time that Wood dates the fall of the city, therefore this strongly supports this thesis.'

Which is rather like the following schema where Z = The Book of Joshua is historically accurate in every detail and the other letters and dashed represent actual data (letters - upper case for substantial data and lower case for incomplete or questionable data) and the dashes missing data.

A _ _ _ E _ f _ _ h _ _ _ L _ _ _ _ q _ S _ _ v _ _ _ Z

There are plenty of gaps to fill in.

It's only an analogy but even if we accept that the balance of probability leans towards the date that Wood suggests it by no means supports the contention that:

- The British Museum display has the last word on the matter.

- The Bible has somehow eluded the characteristic common to all ancient writings, that of containing both literal historical fact (or being set against an historical background) and also mythological historiography at one and the same time.'

I hope that's less ad hominem.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief
Just as you confuse your interpretation of the Bible with the Bible itself, you confuse your interpretation of the display at the British Museum with the knowledge of the curators of the British Museum. TWBFIIWSS. (That Would Be Funny If It Weren't So Sad)

Well, the displays are pretty clear. I was not hallucinating when I read the dates of the different styles of pottery from the same region as Jericho. If you want to call straightforward empirical evidence an 'interpretation', then fine. Perhaps we should apply this rule to any straightforward observation of empirical evidence?

Bichrome ware with concentric circles is dated as Late Bronze Age pottery. This is pretty clear circumstantial evidence that confirms Dr Wood's claim for the pottery excavated by John Garstang at Jericho.

I will continue to present evidence. Certain others (thankfully a minority) can continue to insult me, but I am not going to lower myself to that level. And this includes ignoring the two posts after your one (which I will not be reading) after having seen the first one introduced with a sniggering emoticon.

[ 06. March 2014, 19:00: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well, the displays are pretty clear. I was not hallucinating when I read the dates of the different styles of pottery from the same region as Jericho. If you want to call straightforward empirical evidence an 'interpretation', then fine. Perhaps we should apply this rule to any straightforward observation of empirical evidence?

Am I missing something, or have you just compared samples you can see in a display in a museum with samples you've only seen spoken of on some bloke's website and called it empirical evidence?

quote:
Bichrome ware with concentric circles is dated as Late Bronze Age pottery. This is pretty clear circumstantial evidence that confirms Dr Wood's claim for the pottery excavated by John Garstang at Jericho.
I'm sorry, have you suddenly become an expert in Bronze Age pottery since the last time we spoke?
quote:

I will continue to present evidence. Certain others (thankfully a minority) can continue to insult me, but I am not going to lower myself to that level. And this includes ignoring the two posts after your one (which I will not be reading) after having seen the first one introduced with a sniggering emoticon.

OK. Well, just so you know - this second-hand "evidence" that you are presenting would only be credible if (a) you actually knew what it was that you were comparing things with and (b) you'd actually seen the thing you are claiming is similar to another thing you've seen in a museum.

Good grief charlie brown.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I will continue to present evidence.

You can't continue to present evidence until you start. "I saw it in the British museum and I swear it looked like what this discredited archaeologist talked about on his website" isn't evidence. Sorry, but it just isn't. Side-by-side photos that can be verified to be what they say they are, that would be evidence. Your say-so about an exhibit at the British Museum compared to a description from a website? Nay, that ain't evidence.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Ok - apologies for the 'sniggering' emoticon ... actually, it wasn't a sniggering emoticon but a belly laugh one ...

Of course the displays were clear. It's the British Museum not a car boot sale.

I'm sure they were fascinating. If the dates corroborate and line up with the Wood dating then fine ... I don't have a problem with Wood being correct or with Wood not being correct in his dating.

He might be impeccable in his dating.

That still doesn't deal with the nub of the issue, which is your interpretation and reading of the text.

For some reason, unless I've missed it somewhere, you haven't addressed that point.

You ask for evidence that the history books in the Bible combine literal and mythological elements in the same way that all ancient historiographies do - but when literary or other evidence is cited you dismiss it.

The only evidence you appear capable of accepting are those which you believe to support your own views.

I'm increasingly of the view that you are working with a flawed paradigm and not treating the scriptures in the way we should approach ancient historiographies.

What I don't understand is why we have to adopt a binary approach that asserts that unless the OT historiographies are factually accurate (in a modernist sense) in every detail then it somehow undermines their status as Holy Writ.

I don't get why this has to be the case.

It's a big jump from the available evidence, not the corollary of it.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Side-by-side photos that can be verified to be what they say they are, that would be evidence. Your say-so about an exhibit at the British Museum compared to a description from a website? Nay, that ain't evidence.

I think we can reasonably discount reports until the actual samples are compared side-by-side by experts.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Side-by-side photos that can be verified to be what they say they are, that would be evidence. Your say-so about an exhibit at the British Museum compared to a description from a website? Nay, that ain't evidence.

I think we can reasonably discount reports until the actual samples are compared side-by-side by experts.
I can see your point.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
And even then, if the evidence passes muster and the early date for the destruction is verified, how does that 'prove' that the description in the Book of Joshua is an accurate blow-by-blow account of what actually happened - complete with trumpets and genocide?

There's a step of faith involved all ways round, of course.

As well as the archaeological evidence - such as it is - there's also the literary-critical aspects. I don't see those being addressed.

It seems to be the case that because it's in the Bible it must by very virtue of that fact be an empirically testable account of what actually happened - otherwise we make God out to be a liar - because God doesn't tell stories - and therefore the whole basis of our faith collapses like a pack of cards.

This, it seems to me, is such a brittle view that when it breaks, as surely it must, rather than bends then it's going to do some damage both to the individual holding it and those around him and nearest and dearest to him.

I'd genuinely hate for that to happen.

Put some bend in that wooden post or tree trunk of yours, EE, otherwise it will snap with an almighty crack when the wind blows ...

[Frown]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
And even then, if the evidence passes muster and the early date for the destruction is verified, how does that 'prove' that the description in the Book of Joshua is an accurate blow-by-blow account of what actually happened - complete with trumpets and genocide?


Of course, this is the irony of the whole thing: even if there were mountains of experts lining up to agree that this piece of pottery proves that something happened at a particular date in Jericho, it doesn't actually prove anything.

I bet someone chipped a piece of pottery and threw it in a rubbish dump. How does that prove that the bible story is empirically true?

Even if it did, how would that prove that Joshua was actually hearing God (rather than his own imagining) calling him to massacre - which, lest we forget, what the point of this thread in the first place.

[ 06. March 2014, 20:24: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Yes, and of course God was doing the infants a favour in having them massacred as otherwise they would have had a long, slow, lingering death in the desert ...

It's a bit like the burning heretics at the stake thing in order to purify their souls.

Or throwing witches into ponds to see whether they sink or float.

I'm still waiting for the literary aspects to be addressed. But, oh, wait, we're not dealing with literature here at all but empirically proveable blow-by-blow accounts of actual events as seen by our correspondent on the ground.

If I could be arsed, I'd start a new thread on where Cain and Abel's wives came from to see what convoluted answer we get to that.

Or how the writer of Job knew what transpired in the reported conversation between God and the Devil.

Or how the writer of Jonah knew what the prophet sang in the belly of the big fish ...

For these and all our questions, for everything we didn't know about the Bible and always wanted to ask there is a clear-cut and empirically proveable answer if only we submitted ourselves to the clear authority of the evidence supplied ...

Great, isn't it?
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
For me, the important question is: what does the evidence tell us?

Yes, but the issue is that most of us don't have access to the evidence. Unless the Organ Fund will pay for us to go on a dig in the Holy Land, for the purpose of settling this dead horse.

FWIW I agree that this is a problem, in that the empirical method was supposed to put a stop to argumenta ab auctoritate (arguments from authority), and in fact fails to do so as far as the general public is concerned. However this is simply How Things Are, and is true of everything from global warming to vitamin tablets.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Gamaliel, do I really need to remind you that you are drinking in the last chance saloon when it comes to ad hominems v EE?

There is a Hell thread available for such personal taunts. Feel free to use it if you must; any of you.

On more general points, you are all free to explore the child murder point of the OP or the relationship between biblical inerrancy and biblical archaeology, or between biblical inerrancy and belief in a nasty God on this thread. Given the way the thread has gone, that seems the pragmatic approach at this point.

Barnabas62
Dead Horses Host
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Fair enough, Barnabas62. I did take subsequent remarks to Hell, but yes, I overdid it here.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Ariston on the abuse thread (ermm... I mean hell thread), asked for some pictures of ceramics, so perhaps he / she might be interested in comparing the pottery from the following two sites.

Firstly, here we have Dr Wood's article, which features a photo of various fragments of pottery - about halfway through the article with the caption beginning "Cypriot bichrome ware". These sherds were discovered by Professor Garstang at Jericho, of course.

The sherds in the top left hand corner and the top middle are of particular interest, because they reveal one of the main features of Cypriot bichrome ware, which is a red line between two black lines.

Now this style of pottery is featured on this site: the Ancient Pottery Database of The Foundation for Archaeological Research of the Land of Israel. You can find the main website of this organisation here. This is what they say about themselves: "The Foundation for Archaeological Research in the Land of Israel (RA) was founded in 2009, as a non-profit organization aiming to advance and promote archaeological research in Israel, support archaeological projects, help preserve and develop archaeological and heritage sites, develop and promote new technological tools in the service of archaeology, and support research concerning the archaeology and history of the southern Levant."

The page I linked to on the pottery database concerns the Late Bronze Age, which began in the very year (1550 BC) in which, according to Kenyon, Jericho was destroyed. So clearly it would be highly unlikely that there would be any pottery from this period in Jericho, especially pottery that had to be imported from overseas, namely, Cyprus (which, of course, takes time).

On this page of the pottery database there is a description of Cypriot Bichrome Ware:

quote:
Cypriot bichrome ware, although produced in Cyprus, is found mainly in southern Levantine mainland sites. Unlike the Cypriot ceramics tradition, this ware is wheel-made. Cypriot bichrome is characterized by its most common decoration: two black lines with a red line in between them. Between those lines geometric, floral or zoomorphic decorations would often appear.
This is pottery from the period ca. 1550 - 1450 / 1400. Dr Wood makes the claim that Kathleen Kenyon looked for this kind of pottery and didn't find it, therefore assumed a date for Jericho's destruction in the middle of the 16th century BC. This evidence clearly supports Dr Wood's claim.

This evidence does not, however, incontestably rule out Kenyon's date for the destruction of Jericho, because bichrome pottery did begin to appear in the 16th century BC. But this kind of decorative pottery is generally characteristic of the Late Bronze Age, rather than the Middle Bronze Age.

Thus Wood's thesis is plausible, as far as pottery goes, and this just serves to underline the fact that the evidence is not conclusive enough to either rule in or rule out the historicity of the biblical account of the destruction of Jericho.

So those who airily dismiss the biblical account will have to do a bit more work, I'm afraid.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
That's the best you've got? "It's not impossible"? And from this, derision for people who dare disagree with your premise?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
From my reading of archaeology journal articles (and I have looked at quite a few on JSTOR), it is clear that there are huge disagreements about issues of dating, and that much archaeological evidence is inconclusive. Therefore we can only work on the basis of degrees of plausibility.

Which makes the incredibly abusive response to my views all the more ridiculous. Anyone with any scholarly nous should keep an open mind, not fling around accusations of bias etc..
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Without pointing to specific articles, this latest post amount to no better than the earlier thread regarding your personal observations at the British Museum.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Which makes the incredibly abusive response to my views all the more ridiculous. Anyone with any scholarly nous should keep an open mind, not fling around accusations of bias etc..

Can I remind you that I started this tangent when you blithely asserted that there was no doubt as to the historicity of the events described in Joshua?

There is doubt by the bucket-load, something you seem to now to be approaching from entirely the other side in that you're claiming that the events described in Joshua might be true.

Howls of derisive laughter, Bruce.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well, the displays are pretty clear. I was not hallucinating when I read the dates of the different styles of pottery from the same region as Jericho. If you want to call straightforward empirical evidence an 'interpretation', then fine....

Your "evidence" here consists of your interpretation of pottery you saw at the BM. You have not addressed this point. This sure looks like the interaction (or lack thereof) of someone not willing to discuss the point.

And yet the snarky tone of this gratuitous quip is not lost on anybody here:

quote:
But who knows? Perhaps the British Museum lacks credibility as well?
There's more than one way to play the man. Accusing someone of doubting the all-holy British Museum (PBUI) sure apears like a subtle way of calling people intellectually dishonest. But it's veiled. So it's okay.

We are accused of not wanting to discuss the issues. And yet we are consistently ignored when we do, so that we (in our foolishness) (speaking only for myself here) get hot under the collar. Which is then used as proof that we're not willing to discuss the issues. It reminds me of the girl who keeps taunting with lies the boy on the playground until he finally socks her one, then HE gets in trouble. While she is, in fact, the instigator, and using HER best weapon -- her nasty, cutting lies -- against which he has no defense, until he uses his best weapon to defend himself. Would that she were more honest and less aggressive.
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
Dating is difficult for that time period and linking different scales can be tricky. Radiocarbon is useful because it provides an absolute scale but does depend on when the item ceased to live as opposed to when it got put in the layer in question; it also has a margin of error. Written sources are also useful but will be written with a purpose which might well not include historical accuracy, can be mistaken (or errors in copying), can round figures (40 years happens far too frequently in Biblical accounts), can fail to mention things like joint rule (king A ruled for 34 years, king B ruled for 23 but fails to mention their reigns overlapped for 10 years), and usually don't give dates that we can use absolutely (barring rare mentions of solar eclipses and even then the question remains of which solar eclipse). Pottery is good for relative ages (people using this style lived before people using this style) but not for length of time (how long was this style popular) or absolute time. It also runs the risk that styles might be popular in different places at different times or that old pieces may show up in much newer layers (e.g., heirlooms).

I'll note btw that Kathleen Kenyon was a Christian who was apparently disappointed that her research at Tell es Sultan undercut the Bible story. "Nevertheless, though we have been disappointed in our search for the city of the Biblical story, this disappointment has been more than compensated by the uncovering of its remarkable earlier history" (Kenyon, 1954, "Ancient Jericho")
 
Posted by leo (# 1458) on :
 
It seems that Kathleen Kenyon went out with the purpose of proving that the Bible was 'true' rather than looking impartially at the evidence.

I am surprised that anyone still takes her seriously or buys her books.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Because Christians can be good archaeologists and be honest about what they find, leo. Why should you think Kenyon fails an honesty or a competence test, particularly when she reported findings which did not support her publicly declared prior expectations?

The only test is that matters is this one. Do her research findings and assessments stand up to independent cross examination and any subsequent findings? The answer to that seems to be 'very well'. At least that is the general view from archaeologists of many different beliefs and opinions. Though there are some dissenting voices, of course. That's in the nature of research work.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Apparently Kathleen Kenyon was a virulent anti-Zionist, and there are claims that this may have affected her interpretation of archaeological data.

See here

here and

here.

Whether Kenyon was biased or not is not for me to say. But I am just making the point that if we are to ignore the possible influence of Kenyon's views on her work, then we should apply the same moral standard to our view of Dr Wood. Bias is bias. It makes no difference what the philosophy is towards which a scholar is apparently biased. But why is it that anyone who acknowledges that he believes in the Bible, is immediately accused of "having an agenda" (and therefore "lacking credibility"), while such an accusation is not levelled so readily against scholars who are committed to other controversial viewpoints?

quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Can I remind you that I started this tangent when you blithely asserted that there was no doubt as to the historicity of the events described in Joshua?

There is doubt by the bucket-load, something you seem to now to be approaching from entirely the other side in that you're claiming that the events described in Joshua might be true.

Howls of derisive laughter, Bruce.

Well, I have looked back at your contribution on this thread, and you began with the following statements:

quote:
The problem here, EE, is that you don't seem to be able to cope with the idea of story.

Jesus used stories all the time. Unless you're one of those people who genuinely believes that the Good Samaritan actually happened. So God, at least in the person of Jesus, is comfortable with making something up and using that made-up story to teach an eternal truth.

This is not surprising. If we are made in His image, and we are inveterate story-tellers, why is it against God's nature to be a story-teller?

In other words, you assumed that the account of the destruction of Jericho as recounted in the Bible must be merely a story, and anyone who questions that view is apparently not "able to cope with the idea of story". As we can see, there then followed a scurrilous insinuation that I could be one of those who thinks that the story of the Good Samaritan actually happened.

You deride me for my views, and yet there is no logical basis for your claim. And this was the context in which I expressed the view about there being no evidence to doubt the historicity of the account in Joshua. We were talking about the textual evidence. And this is what Gamaliel was banging on about. There is no internal textual evidence to suggest that this account is merely a parable, unlike the evidence in the gospels, by which we can ascertain that stories like the Good Samaritan are indeed parables.

You can howl with laughter as much as you like, but I suggest that you look at people's statements in context. Ripping people's comments out of context is generally not the scholarly way of doing things, I'm afraid.

It is absolutely true that there is no textual evidence to doubt the historicity of the account in Joshua, other than a vague appeal to the supposed character of God. This was the nature of my comment when we talking about different genres of literature. Nothing about archaeological evidence. I admit, I should have clarified this, but I just assumed that when apparently intelligent adults have a discussion on a theme, that not everything has to be s.p.e.l.l.e.d. out, and that if there are queries, then clarification can be asked for in a mature and respectful way (I won't be holding my breath for that on the Ship!).

And by the way, all I have so far concluded about the archaeological evidence is that it is inconclusive, and so therefore I find no reason not to give the text the benefit of the doubt.

[ 09. March 2014, 10:09: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Oh dear Lord, where to start?

quote:
In other words, you assumed that the account of the destruction of Jericho as recounted in the Bible must be merely a story
Here's a good place. You know how I make my living, right? I make stuff up and people pay me for it? I would never, ever, let the words "merely a story" ever pass my lips.

I reiterate. You Do Not Understand The Idea of Story.

Your misinterpretation of everything else that follows stems from this. You're simply making a category error.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

It is absolutely true that there is no textual evidence to doubt the historicity of the account in Joshua, other than a vague appeal to the supposed character of God.

Um, I think this argument was disposed of by Justinian towards the end of this post.

Justinian linked to this article which points out that the various tribes that were supposedly annihilated in Joshua do in fact turn up later in the Old Testament as not having been annihilated at all. Now that article is blatantly partisan and I wouldn't trust its commentary but the Bible passages it quotes speak for themselves.
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But I am just making the point that if we are to ignore the possible influence of Kenyon's views on her work, then we should apply the same moral standard to our view of Dr Wood. Bias is bias. It makes no difference what the philosophy is towards which a scholar is apparently biased.

It does make a difference, and that difference is down to vested interest. Obviously no-one is neutral. We all have world-views, biases and initial viewpoints. The question is whether a) we are aware of those biases, and discard them as much as possible when attempting to look objectively at things, and b) whether we're honest enough to re-assess those viewpoints when we encounter something that conflicts with them.

If I am a scientist investigating the blue-eared antelope, and my religious worldview necessitates their exeistence, I am going to have to be very carful when I investigate evidence for the blue-eared antelope that my bias towards its existence doesn't affect my research. If I don't give a shit about whether or not the blue-eared antelope exists, then I don't have to be so careful. I have no vested interest. The issue is which biases we have, and how much we let them affect us. "Everyone is biased" isn't a sufficient statement to cover what we're talking about.

Dr Wood's religious worldview means that he's got a vested interest in his archaeology proving a certain set of historical events. That means he should fall into the 'very careful' category.

I don't see how anti-zionism affects the specific topic of the destruction of Jericho. I doubt it would challenge Kenyan's worldview if the true date matches scripture or not. So, yes, she has a bias. But no, she doesn't have a vested interest. So your equal moral standards point doesn't hold.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Here's a good place. You know how I make my living, right? I make stuff up and people pay me for it? I would never, ever, let the words "merely a story" ever pass my lips.

"I make stuff up". Yes, you do. As you did in your assumption about my approach to the biblical text.

quote:
I reiterate. You Do Not Understand The Idea of Story.
Then please do be so kind as to condescend to educate poor little me.

Whatever my supposed ignorance, I do happen to understand the difference between events that actually occurred and events that did not actually occur, but nevertheless communicate some kind of meaning that speaks into the nature of reality.

What you seem to be insisting on, is that if I accept the historical accuracy of a text which recounts events that are not to your liking, then "I don't understand the idea of story", because I apparently can't comprehend how this text could function as a story. What I want to know is: did the events actually occur? To argue that they could not have occurred, because that would undermine the metaphorical / figurative / symbolic / didactic value of the text, is a completely fatuous claim. That is tantamount to saying that reality could never teach us anything.

What are we supposed to do with your way of thinking? Should we doubt the events of, for example, the Second World War, because the accounts of the events could function as stories? Should we assume that all historical accounts are nothing but stories ("nothing but" being synonymous with the deeply offensive term 'merely*')?

Talk about "category error" as much as you like. It makes absolutely no sense.


* Mere: being nothing more than something specified (Collins)

(As a writer I would have thought you would know the meaning of the word 'mere'!)
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs
I don't see how anti-zionism affects the specific topic of the destruction of Jericho.

It's glaringly obvious.

God commanded Israel to invade and occupy Canaan by driving out the inhabitants. How does that not provide a justification for Zionism?!
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

And by the way, all I have so far concluded about the archaeological evidence is that it is inconclusive, and so therefore I find no reason not to give the text the benefit of the doubt.

This, to me, shows the limitation of your approach. One could just as easily say that there is no reason to give the text the benefit of the doubt.

If one has a vested interest (in any direction, actually), one is obviously most likely to read the evidence in a way that supports your position. In fact, there is almost no evidence that could ever be cited that will tilt you (and I'm talking about one in general rather than anyone specifically) off of your preconceived position.

So if you desperately want the bible to give a provably true record of the Joshua conflicts, there is almost nothing that anyone could say that will knock that belief, and almost any evidence, however tenuous, will be brought out in support of it.

Hence the scientific process, peer review and so on and so forth. Otherwise we're left at the mercy of crazies and fundamentalists who want to push us to believe in their precious ball of wax.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
What you seem to be insisting on, is that if I accept the historical accuracy of a text which recounts events that are not to your liking, then "I don't understand the idea of story", because I apparently can't comprehend how this text could function as a story. What I want to know is: did the events actually occur? To argue that they could not have occurred, because that would undermine the metaphorical / figurative / symbolic / didactic value of the text, is a completely fatuous claim. That is tantamount to saying that reality could never teach us anything.

Seriously. You're just walking into the same wall over and over again.

It is not either/or. It's and.

Pick up any two histories of the First World War, doesn't matter which (though Keegan's is excellent). That there is more than one history of the First World War should something. That there are dozens should tell you more. Bearing in mind that this war happened in the lives of our grandparents, it should be, according to your lights, be straightforward to assemble a Definitive, Accurate and Incontrovertible History of the First World War.

It's not, because that's not what histories are for. All those historians are telling a story. All historians are telling stories. Even the author/s of Joshua. It doesn't matter particularly what your interpretation of the story might be, but recognising that there is one is important.

That you find this viewpoint even slightly controversial is puzzling, as I thought most people here would know this.

Whether or not the events in Joshua actually occurred as they are written - I appreciate that it's important to you, even though you don't seem to be willing to dispassionately sift the evidence presented. But whether those events actually occurred are not why they were written down, preserved and retold three and a half thousand years later.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I was hearing an interesting historical point the other day about the charge of the light brigade in the Crimean War.

It seems that we have a folk memory of the charge which implies that it was rather pointless, that lots of men died, that it didn't achieve anything.. and so on and so forth. Mostly, it appears, from a famous poem by Tennyson*.

Although it now appears that this was almost entirely wrong, and indeed spread accidentally by an early war correspondent who misunderstood what was happening on the ground.

I am no historian, nor am I pretending to be an expert on the Crimean conflict, but it strikes me that it is not difficult to imagine something of this kind happening in the conflicts of the OT.

Indeed, given the way and times in which they were written, it would be mighty odd if the reports were more accurate than that written by a trained journalist of something he observed first hand in 1854.

*well, this is what I heard a historian suggest. It appears other views are available.

[ 09. March 2014, 14:43: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Sorry, pydseybare, I saw nothing in that article to refute the charge being useless.
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
lilBuddha - it was a Radio 4 programme yesterday morning - I heard it too. It said that the first report of everyone being killed was a mistaken first report from the front. I'm currently trying to find a link.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
"Charge of the Light Brigade was a military success"

Once again, I'm not qualified to assess historical opinions - I just heard a similar view on the radio yesterday and thought it was interesting. It might well be a totally unsupported minority view of the conflict.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
This, to me, shows the limitation of your approach. One could just as easily say that there is no reason to give the text the benefit of the doubt.

If one has a vested interest (in any direction, actually), one is obviously most likely to read the evidence in a way that supports your position. In fact, there is almost no evidence that could ever be cited that will tilt you (and I'm talking about one in general rather than anyone specifically) off of your preconceived position.

So if you desperately want the bible to give a provably true record of the Joshua conflicts, there is almost nothing that anyone could say that will knock that belief, and almost any evidence, however tenuous, will be brought out in support of it.

Hence the scientific process, peer review and so on and so forth. Otherwise we're left at the mercy of crazies and fundamentalists who want to push us to believe in their precious ball of wax.

Of course, I can understand your point, but the problem is that one can say this about anyone with any philosophical or theological position.

I find it unacceptable that a certain constituency of people should be singled at as being particularly prone to bias, whereas others are treated far more leniently. For example, what evidence could ever shake Richard Dawkins' view of the origin of the universe and of life? I've seen enough of him through his writings and videos to know that he subscribes to what can only be described as "naturalism of the gaps" or "science will work it out one day". He has faith that the philosophy of naturalism will one day be vindicated, and nothing can shake him from that viewpoint. If there are any problems with, say, abiogenesis, or cosmology, it's not sufficient to cause him to question his particular form of fundamentalism.

And let us look at the mystics and existentialists, who say that their particular spiritual experience is the basis of what they believe about God and reality. Absolutely no evidence could ever shake them from their belief that they can rely on the feelings that they believe God has given them, because, by their own admission, such feelings are outside the investigation of evidence and reason. Therefore they also are fundamentalists.

I agree that some so-called "Bible believing Christians" are totally closed minded, but such a state of mind is not confined to such people. In fact, I don't accept that such people even have a monopoly on closed-mindedness.

As for the insinuation from your post that I am closed-minded and nothing could shake my viewpoint, I am very prepared to admit that I am wrong, and I have conceded arguments to my 'opponents' in debate quite a number of times. In fact, on this very thread Justinian seems to have overlooked the fact that I conceded that my statement that there was no evidence to doubt the historicity of the Jericho account was wrong:

quote:
I will admit that my statement above was wrong. Yes, OK, I concede that there is some evidence to question the literal interpretation of the events, but it is certainly not sufficient to conclude that those events did not occur.
I find it particularly bad form in debate to ignore a concession. But Justinian and others keep banging on about how my comment concerning the lack of evidence was wrong, when I have already admitted it!

The fact that they clearly don't accept my concession can only mean that they are simply not happy to leave the issue in a state of doubt and ambiguity, in which evidence is inconclusive, but rather that they insist that I should submit to their position. In other words, they appear to be imposing their form of fundamentalism on me. Clearly I am not the fundamentalist in this debate, because I am prepared to keep an open mind by acknowledging the difficulties in drawing a definitive conclusion from the evidence.

If you or anyone else insists that I should interpret evidence in accordance with your particular viewpoint, when the evidence is clearly inconclusive, then you have no grounds to accuse me of closed-minded fundamentalism. I think that is rather obvious!
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I agree that some so-called "Bible believing Christians" are totally closed minded, but such a state of mind is not confined to such people. In fact, I don't accept that such people even have a monopoly on closed-mindedness.

Has anybody on the Ship in recent memory intimated that this is the case? This is a straw man.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Insisting on evidence is not close-minded. Insisting on some form of intellectual rigour is not close-minded. Reaching a firm decision based on evidence and intellectual rigour is not close-minded.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
"Charge of the Light Brigade was a military success"

Once again, I'm not qualified to assess historical opinions - I just heard a similar view on the radio yesterday and thought it was interesting. It might well be a totally unsupported minority view of the conflict.

I would more lay the charge that it helped cause more needless deaths in future campaigns.
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
lilBuddha - it was a Radio 4 programme yesterday morning - I heard it too. It said that the first report of everyone being killed was a mistaken first report from the front. I'm currently trying to find a link.

I would appreciate the link, thank you.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Insisting on evidence is not close-minded. Insisting on some form of intellectual rigour is not close-minded. Reaching a firm decision based on evidence and intellectual rigour is not close-minded.

Indeed.

And your point (in the context of this discussion) is.....?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Insisting on evidence is not close-minded. Insisting on some form of intellectual rigour is not close-minded. Reaching a firm decision based on evidence and intellectual rigour is not close-minded.

Indeed.

And your point (in the context of this discussion) is.....?

You seem to be calling everyone close-minded who believes the assertions above. We're not.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
You seem to be calling everyone close-minded who believes the assertions above. We're not.

Errmm... nope.

I am calling people closed-minded, who try to force an unproven position on other people.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
You seem to be calling everyone close-minded who believes the assertions above. We're not.

Errmm... nope.

I am calling people closed-minded, who try to force an unproven position on other people.

And be using standards of proof under which a murderer's guilt wouldn't be proved if they were seen by 20 people plunging the knife into their victim on the grounds it could be a stunt by Derren Brown.
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs
I don't see how anti-zionism affects the specific topic of the destruction of Jericho.

It's glaringly obvious.

God commanded Israel to invade and occupy Canaan by driving out the inhabitants. How does that not provide a justification for Zionism?!

If it was shown that Wood's dates were definitely wrong, his worldview would be in serious trouble.
If it was shown that Kenyan's dates were definitely wrong, her worldview would not be in any kind of trouble.

Their vested interest is simply not the same. That's not to say that one or the other doesn't have bias. As you have pointed out (again), that is certainly the case. What you don't seem able to acknowledge is what the outworking of those biases means. You've just made the same point again, despite it already having been answered:

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I find it unacceptable that a certain constituency of people should be singled at as being particularly prone to bias, whereas others are treated far more leniently.

It's not that a certain group of people are singled out as being prone to bias. It's that a certain group of people are being singled out as allowing (or being in danger of allowing) their biases to influence their approach to evidence.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
You seem to be calling everyone close-minded who believes the assertions above. We're not.

Errmm... nope.

I am calling people closed-minded, who try to force an unproven position on other people.

You're trying to get everyone else to admit that Joshua is possibly a true historical record of events.

The rest of us are going "maybe, but going on the best evidence, we're reasonably certain it's not."

We see a similar thing when we have Actual Climate Scientist and Oil-funded Denier on the telly together. Actual Climate Scientist will always admit to some doubt, but that it's pretty bloody unlikely that they and thousands of other scientists are wrong. All that Oil-funded Denier hears is "doubt", and thinks they've proved their point.

Again, there's nothing wrong with having reached a firm conclusion based on the available facts, subject to those facts changing. If you (or Wood - I'm pretty certain if he had those facts he'd have published them on his own website by now) have new information you'd like to bring to the table, I'll consider it. Otherwise, I'll stick with the conclusion I've already reached, namely, that it's unlikely that Jericho's walls fell in the 1400s BC, unlikely that an actual genocide of Canaanites took place, and unlikely that Joshua records a straightforward history of the Israelite invasion of Canaan.

Your position is unproven and contrary to key evidence. My position has considerable evidence behind it, while still allowing room for some doubt. That there is some room for doubt is not a weakness in my argument. It is a feature.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
That there is some room for doubt is not a weakness in my argument. It is a feature.

[Overused] This needs to be shouted from the battlements.
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
lilBuddha - it was a Radio 4 programme yesterday morning - I heard it too. It said that the first report of everyone being killed was a mistaken first report from the front. I'm currently trying to find a link.

I would appreciate the link, thank you.
Can't find it - it was part of something else and there are too many programmes it might be part of as there's lots of coverage currently on the history of Crimea. Someone effectively said the war correspondents weren't very good, William Howard Russell maybe, from digging around. This report was published in the Times and entered the public understanding, including Tennyson and his poem. I did find a paper saying that many histories now are undoing the initial impressions from reports at the time, which prove to be less than accurate, but I can't find anything that makes the claim I heard broadcast.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
No worries, CK. From pydseybare's link, the change in view seems more reinterpretation and supposition than any new evidence. Is this your impression from the radio interview?
If so, I would again lay the charge of more unnecessary deaths rather than credit for victories.
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
No, it stuck in my mind because it was a fairly sweeping assertion that the reporting was totally inaccurate, that actually many of the 600 did survive, but the report filed was published and entered the collective psyche, reinforced by the poem. But it was a comment within a programme on reporting or the Ukraine situation or the history of Crimea and I can't remember who said it or which programme.

Which does make it a relevant comment for this discussion on accuracy of Biblical stories when an incident within the time of photography and newspapers, war reporting, telegraph and the beginning of the mass media should be disputed.

The comment I found on war reporting is here:

quote:
<snip> Wells offered the conventional wisdom that dailies provided a premature version of events instead of a “true chronicle” because they had no time to check references and to reflect on them. Hence, he asserted, audiences did not learn from later books but unlearned from them journalism’s prior misstatements that tended to accumulate as copy flowed in complementing or correcting earlier columns. <snip> source

 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Of course, I can understand your point, but the problem is that one can say this about anyone with any philosophical or theological position.

Right, to the extent that any philosophical or theological position is untestable by logic, science and reasoning. A position, as you'll recall, that I've made several times before.

Let me make it again: that God spoke to people in the OT and told them to massacre people is not anything that could ever be proven by science. In fact, I don't believe it is even anything that could be argued with logic.

quote:
I find it unacceptable that a certain constituency of people should be singled at as being particularly prone to bias, whereas others are treated far more leniently. For example, what evidence could ever shake Richard Dawkins' view of the origin of the universe and of life? I've seen enough of him through his writings and videos to know that he subscribes to what can only be described as "naturalism of the gaps" or "science will work it out one day". He has faith that the philosophy of naturalism will one day be vindicated, and nothing can shake him from that viewpoint. If there are any problems with, say, abiogenesis, or cosmology, it's not sufficient to cause him to question his particular form of fundamentalism.
Yes, but we're not here talking about Dawkins. I have read a lot of his material, I really appreciate his scientific skill in a lot of things, but in a lot of other areas he is using the old 'this is the way it is because I say so' argument. In some areas of which he sometimes speaks, he is not credible either.

In those areas of science where he has made a call, others argue with him about the facts and his conclusions. That doesn't mean that he is suddenly an inarguable source of knowledge on all things. Of course not, that is an utterly ridiculous idea.

quote:
And let us look at the mystics and existentialists, who say that their particular spiritual experience is the basis of what they believe about God and reality. Absolutely no evidence could ever shake them from their belief that they can rely on the feelings that they believe God has given them, because, by their own admission, such feelings are outside the investigation of evidence and reason. Therefore they also are fundamentalists.
Right, the difference, as I have pointed out so many times, is that they're not claiming their belief is based on scientific evidence. Indeed, many would claim that their knowledge is not obtainable by logic at all.

quote:
I agree that some so-called "Bible believing Christians" are totally closed minded, but such a state of mind is not confined to such people. In fact, I don't accept that such people even have a monopoly on closed-mindedness.
Irrelevant. Nobody has claimed that bible-believing Christians are the only group who are unable to see beyond their worldview.

quote:
As for the insinuation from your post that I am closed-minded and nothing could shake my viewpoint, I am very prepared to admit that I am wrong, and I have conceded arguments to my 'opponents' in debate quite a number of times. In fact, on this very thread Justinian seems to have overlooked the fact that I conceded that my statement that there was no evidence to doubt the historicity of the Jericho account was wrong:

quote:
I will admit that my statement above was wrong. Yes, OK, I concede that there is some evidence to question the literal interpretation of the events, but it is certainly not sufficient to conclude that those events did not occur.
I find it particularly bad form in debate to ignore a concession. But Justinian and others keep banging on about how my comment concerning the lack of evidence was wrong, when I have already admitted it!
Again, this is irrelevant. Your point was wrong by such a degree that you've been attempting to row-back from it ever since. In fact, there are very good reasons for thinking that the evidence in the OT of the destruction of Jericho is not correct. You've not conceded that point, you've just repeatedly stated that you want to believe it to be true and pointed at a very narrow (and disputed) piece of material as evidence.

This has the air of desperation of the person who wants to believe that the female filmstar he is stalking is in love with him - on the flimsy evidence of a pro-forma letter he once received. Most reasonable people would say that such a stalker was being delusional.

I think, at very best you are being delusional in the same way.

quote:
The fact that they clearly don't accept my concession can only mean that they are simply not happy to leave the issue in a state of doubt and ambiguity, in which evidence is inconclusive, but rather that they insist that I should submit to their position. In other words, they appear to be imposing their form of fundamentalism on me. Clearly I am not the fundamentalist in this debate, because I am prepared to keep an open mind by acknowledging the difficulties in drawing a definitive conclusion from the evidence.
What rot. So far from being the case that there is no point in even refuting it line-by-line.

quote:
If you or anyone else insists that I should interpret evidence in accordance with your particular viewpoint, when the evidence is clearly inconclusive, then you have no grounds to accuse me of closed-minded fundamentalism. I think that is rather obvious!
As I have said, I don't believe this evidence amounts to anything anyway, and it would make no difference to me if there were ever evidence to prove that the destruction of Jericho happened exactly as stated in the OT.

My problem is not with whether the massacre happened, but whether God ordered it. You tell me, what possible proof could there be for deciding whether God actually said those things to the Israelites?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
No worries, CK. From pydseybare's link, the change in view seems more reinterpretation and supposition than any new evidence. Is this your impression from the radio interview?
If so, I would again lay the charge of more unnecessary deaths rather than credit for victories.

Let me say once again that I am not an expert on these points and am trained in philosophy and science and not history.

As to the facts, there appears to exist reliable first hand records as to the casualties from the charge - which appears to suggest a casualty rate of 40% - 110 killed, 130 wounded out of 658 cavalrymen.

The impression given in Russell's original Times report was that all, or nearly all of the British died, a point obliquely infered by Tennyson's poem which was based on the news report.

As to whether the charge was or was not pointless, whether it had a serious military target, whether it scared the Russians into surrender and so on is not anything I can comment upon.

But I would reiterate the point made by others above that history is interpretation of the facts. Frequently the reality is far removed from the memory, the emotions and the politics of the events.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical
I agree that some so-called "Bible believing Christians" are totally closed minded, but such a state of mind is not confined to such people. In fact, I don't accept that such people even have a monopoly on closed-mindedness.

Irrelevant. Nobody has claimed that bible-believing Christians are the only group who are unable to see beyond their worldview.
Well, I am glad you now admit that the claim you made on p.4 of this thread is now irrelevant.

Shall I remind you?

quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
wow, that was difficult:

quote:
The first group includes the fundamentalists, who believe in the reliability of the biblical text in all its details, and that the text forms the basis and guide for their archaeological work. I can mention, for example, Bryant Wood and his work on Jericho (e.g. Wood 1990), and Adam Zertal, who restored an imaginary altar on Mount Ebal on the basis of the biblical text (e.g. Zertal 1986–87). Both of them, as well as other scholars of this group, are good, professional archaeologists, but their archaeological work is clearly biased and distorted by their views on the biblical text.
Ussishkin, D. (2007). Questions of methodology. In Proceedings of the British Academy (Vol. 143, pp. 131-141).
So Wood is a "good, professional archaeologist", but he must be 'clearly' biased, because he's a fundie. No other reason.

Given that bias can affect anyone with any philosophical position, and given that all scientists are led by certain assumptions, then any fair-minded person would have to conclude that the argument you quoted is completely redundant.

But this is an example of singling out so-called Bible believers for special censure.

quote:
Again, this is irrelevant. Your point was wrong by such a degree that you've been attempting to row-back from it ever since. In fact, there are very good reasons for thinking that the evidence in the OT of the destruction of Jericho is not correct. You've not conceded that point, you've just repeatedly stated that you want to believe it to be true and pointed at a very narrow (and disputed) piece of material as evidence.
Where have I repeated that I "want to believe it to be true".

Please could you provide the relevant quote from my comments. Since you claim to be so concerned about evidence, then this is not really a lot to ask, is it?

quote:
This has the air of desperation of the person who wants to believe that the female filmstar he is stalking is in love with him - on the flimsy evidence of a pro-forma letter he once received. Most reasonable people would say that such a stalker was being delusional.

I think, at very best you are being delusional in the same way.

You make an absurd comment like that and accuse me of desperation!! Sheesh!!
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well, I am glad you now admit that the claim you made on p.4 of this thread is now irrelevant.

How is that irrelevant? Saying that inerrantists are biased with reference to biblical archaeology is obviously not to say that others are also not biased.

quote:
So Wood is a "good, professional archaeologist", but he must be 'clearly' biased, because he's a fundie. No other reason.
Well strictly speaking the point I was making was that his worldview means that he wants to interpret facts in a certain way.

quote:
Given that bias can affect anyone with any philosophical position, and given that all scientists are led by certain assumptions, then any fair-minded person would have to conclude that the argument you quoted is completely redundant.
How do you get to that?

Someone has a worldview which means that their conclusions are unsafe in a particular thing. Other people have biased. Therefore it doesn't matter that some worldviews are overwhelmingly biased.

Rubbish. What are you talking about?

quote:
But this is an example of singling out so-called Bible believers for special censure.
Nope, it is saying that when someone has a biased worldview that is as overwhelming as this one appears to be, there is reason to believe that the evidence supplied which obviously has an impact on that worldview is not credible.

As I have said previously, it is very unlikely that Dr Wood's views on tea-making (or many many other areas) would lack credibility.


quote:
Where have I repeated that I "want to believe it to be true".

Please could you provide the relevant quote from my comments. Since you claim to be so concerned about evidence, then this is not really a lot to ask, is it?

Nope, being as most of us are not literalists on language, it is obvious to us that you can repeat a point without actually stating it fully each time.

quote:
You make an absurd comment like that and accuse me of desperation!! Sheesh!!
Refute it then. Prove to us that you're not just delusional and hanging on to this disputed evidence because it happens to superficially support your position - despite the fact that the overwhelming evidence and scholarly opinion is in the opposite direction.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
How is that irrelevant? Saying that inerrantists are biased with reference to biblical archaeology is obviously not to say that others are also not biased.

There is not one single shred of evidence in what you quoted that proves - or even suggests - that Dr Wood is biased. The fact that he works under a hypothesis, namely the truthfulness of the Bible, is no different from what any other researcher does. For example, science itself could not work unless we accept the principle of the uniformity of the laws of physics and chemistry. Now suppose evidence emerges that challenges this assumption (for example, the double slit experiment). Do scientists suddenly jettison their prior assumption, or do they suspend judgment until further evidence becomes available?

But no. The moment some piece of evidence appears to challenge the historicity of the biblical accounts, certain indignant and insistent voices demand that the researcher concludes that the biblical account is false. But those same voices would not apply the same rule to the assumptions undergirding the whole of the rest of science.

Which rather proves my point.

quote:
Well strictly speaking the point I was making was that his worldview means that he wants to interpret facts in a certain way.
Well, according to that 'reasoning' (which is actually a form of the genetic fallacy) I could say that you are only saying what you say because you want to. Anyone can accuse anyone else of this. It's very poor thinking, and it has no place in any kind of sensible debate.

If I take this idea to its logical conclusion, am I to believe that you hold the position you do, because you don't actually want to? After all, if you wanted to hold this position, then, of course, by your own (fallacious) reasoning, that undermines its veracity.

Do keep up...

quote:
Refute it then. Prove to us that you're not just delusional and hanging on to this disputed evidence because it happens to superficially support your position - despite the fact that the overwhelming evidence and scholarly opinion is in the opposite direction.
I assume that you have heard of the concept of "burden of proof"?

Or maybe not....?

Yeah, I mean, the police knock on my door and accuse me of having assaulted someone in the local park. They offer no convincing evidence (although they did take a vote down the station and the majority of coppers reckon I must have done it), and their whole case can be summed up in one declaration: "Prove that you didn't do it!!"

What a joke. [Killing me]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
There is not one single shred of evidence in what you quoted that proves - or even suggests - that Dr Wood is biased. The fact that he works under a hypothesis, namely the truthfulness of the Bible, is no different from what any other researcher does.

Yes it is. Very different from most other researchers, in fact so different that other people in his field think this makes his work non credible.

quote:
For example, science itself could not work unless we accept the principle of the uniformity of the laws of physics and chemistry. Now suppose evidence emerges that challenges this assumption (for example, the double slit experiment). Do scientists suddenly jettison their prior assumption, or do they suspend judgment until further evidence becomes available?
True but irrelevant.

quote:
But no. The moment some piece of evidence appears to challenge the historicity of the biblical accounts, certain indignant and insistent voices demand that the researcher concludes that the biblical account is false. But those same voices would not apply the same rule to the assumptions undergirding the whole of the rest of science.
I'm not demanding anything, I'm just saying that Dr Wood's views are not credible for the reasons given above - namely the known existence of a worldview to which he subscribes, the fact he doesn't work for a credible institution, the fact he doesn't publish his work in peer reviewed journals, the fact that his views are in a massive minority. All of which speak to his credibility.

quote:
Well, according to that 'reasoning' (which is actually a form of the genetic fallacy) I could say that you are only saying what you say because you want to. Anyone can accuse anyone else of this. It's very poor thinking, and it has no place in any kind of sensible debate.
Bullshit. You don't know what you are talking about yet again. It is no fallacy to judge someone based on something they profess to be a worldview if the thing they're saying obviously likely to be strongly influenced by the worldview.

Every person wants to be consistent. If you have an prior attachment to a view of the bible as being literally true in every respect, clearly that is going to colour the way you view historical evidence which speaks (or you believe speaks) to that view - as you have here shown.


quote:
If I take this idea to its logical conclusion, am I to believe that you hold the position you do, because you don't actually want to? After all, if you wanted to hold this position, then, of course, by your own (fallacious) reasoning, that undermines its veracity.

Do keep up...

If I claim to believe I have found evidence and reasoned something via the scientific process which subsequently is shown to have been rather convenient with regard to my widely published worldview, then yes, others have a right to question my credibility.

If I'm making that statement on a bulletin board, that is one thing. But if I'm claiming this is strong evidence of the verasity of my worldview, then others have the absolute right to question my credibility.

quote:
I assume that you have heard of the concept of "burden of proof"?

Or maybe not....?

Yeah, I mean, the police knock on my door and accuse me of having assaulted someone in the local park. They offer no convincing evidence (although they did take a vote down the station and the majority of coppers reckon I must have done it), and their whole case can be summed up in one declaration: "Prove that you didn't do it!!"

What a joke. [Killing me]

I am interpreting the words you have used on this thread - and I believe they indicate that you are delusional for the reasons I have given. I don't have to supply any other burden of proof, it is now down to you to show that my interpretation is wrong.

Yet again, you show a total lack of knowledge of the terms you are using.


[Disappointed]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
Yes it is. Very different from most other researchers, in fact so different that other people in his field think this makes his work non credible.

Two sentences which are merely assertions, the only 'hint' of evidence being an appeal to the opinions of "other people in his field", who themselves provide no supporting evidence for their assertions!

Therefore a meaningless appeal to authority (another logical fallacy).

quote:
True but irrelevant.
It is hugely relevant, as I explained. But clearly you didn't understand the point, hence your repetition of an already refuted assertion. (Another fallacy).

quote:
I'm not demanding anything, I'm just saying that Dr Wood's views are not credible for the reasons given above - namely the known existence of a worldview to which he subscribes, the fact he doesn't work for a credible institution, the fact he doesn't publish his work in peer reviewed journals, the fact that his views are in a massive minority. All of which speak to his credibility.
The ad hominem is also a known logical fallacy.

Doing well, aren't we?

quote:
Bullshit. You don't know what you are talking about yet again. It is no fallacy to judge someone based on something they profess to be a worldview if the thing they're saying obviously likely to be strongly influenced by the worldview.

Every person wants to be consistent. If you have an prior attachment to a view of the bible as being literally true in every respect, clearly that is going to colour the way you view historical evidence which speaks (or you believe speaks) to that view - as you have here shown.

Oh dear oh dear. So someone who wants to believe something to be true therefore lacks credibility when researching that subject. Therefore, according to "pydseyian logic", we have to make sure that we are either totally apathetic about the subject being researched or we are inimical to it, in order to secure our credibility. What utter tosh!

quote:
I am interpreting the words you have used on this thread - and I believe they indicate that you are delusional for the reasons I have given. I don't have to supply any other burden of proof, it is now down to you to show that my interpretation is wrong.
"I am interpreting..."; "I believe...". Yeah. It's what's going on in your mind, and therefore the burden of proof is on you, because you have made the accusation. That's how reason works. If it's not to your particular liking, then tough.

So we have had so far...

1. The appeal to authority.
2. Bare assertion (while ignoring prior refutation).
3. The ad hominem.
4. The genetic fallacy.
5. Misplacing the burden of proof.

FIVE logical fallacies in just one post!

And to top it all, the person making these fallacious arguments talks about CREDIBILITY!!!!!

I congratulate you on this quite remarkable feat!!
[Overused]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Just... stop. Please. This is just embarrassing.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Just... stop. Please. This is just embarrassing.

Another post packed full of irrefutable evidence, I see!

[brick wall]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Two sentences which are merely assertions, the only 'hint' of evidence being an appeal to the opinions of "other people in his field", who themselves provide no supporting evidence for their assertions!

Therefore a meaningless appeal to authority (another logical fallacy).

Wrong, I'm not appealing to authority, I am assessing credibility.

quote:
It is hugely relevant, as I explained. But clearly you didn't understand the point, hence your repetition of an already refuted assertion. (Another fallacy).
Sigh. I have already said that scientific knowledge fits within the existing framework of that knowledge. Hence you can't just make claims about observed phenomena and claim that you are being scientific outwith of the understood framework with any credibility. Hence you are refuting a point I haven't made.

Working within the framework of science is not the same as working within the framework of a religious (or other) worldview.

quote:
The ad hominem is also a known logical fallacy.

Doing well, aren't we?

And as I have explained to you, it is not an ad hominem to judge someone on the words that they've used about themselves.

quote:
Oh dear oh dear. So someone who wants to believe something to be true therefore lacks credibility when researching that subject. Therefore, according to "pydseyian logic", we have to make sure that we are either totally apathetic about the subject being researched or we are inimical to it, in order to secure our credibility. What utter tosh!
No, but one does have to use the available mechanisms to prove that you are not, in fact, just being biased in favour of your preconceived ideas - by publishing in peer reviewed journals, by working for a credible university, by having the respect of your colleagues.. and so on.

quote:
"I am interpreting..."; "I believe...". Yeah. It's what's going on in your mind, and therefore the burden of proof is on you, because you have made the accusation. That's how reason works. If it's not to your particular liking, then tough.
I have already offered proof though. You just don't like it.

quote:

So we have had so far...

1. The appeal to authority.
2. Bare assertion (while ignoring prior refutation).
3. The ad hominem.
4. The genetic fallacy.
5. Misplacing the burden of proof.

FIVE logical fallacies in just one post!

Bullshit. You clearly have no idea what you are talking about or what logical fallacies actually look like.

quote:
And to top it all, the person making these fallacious arguments talks about CREDIBILITY!!!!!

I congratulate you on this quite remarkable feat!!
[Overused]

Way to go for avoiding the point.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Yet more bare assertions.

QED
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs
If it was shown that Wood's dates were definitely wrong, his worldview would be in serious trouble.

If it was shown that Kenyan's dates were definitely wrong, her worldview would not be in any kind of trouble.

Their vested interest is simply not the same. That's not to say that one or the other doesn't have bias. As you have pointed out (again), that is certainly the case. What you don't seem able to acknowledge is what the outworking of those biases means. You've just made the same point again, despite it already having been answered:

But you are assuming that they are actually driven by vested interest. You have failed to make any case that Dr Wood is driven by vested interest other than the bare assumption that he must be because of his view of biblical inerrancy.

In fact, it is not even true that his view of biblical inerrancy would be in trouble if Kenyon's date was found to be correct, because inerrancy itself is a topic subject to debate and qualification. Or to be more accurate and relevant to this case: biblical chronology is a topic subject to considerable debate (even within conservative theology). Here is an example.

You are making an assumption about Dr Wood's way of thinking that is without evidential foundation. Instead of just looking at the evidence, and evaluating it on its own merits, you try to prejudge Dr Wood's motives and psychology. That is not a scholarly way of dealing with any subject. I would suggest that it's a way of avoiding any consideration of the evidence.

quote:
It's not that a certain group of people are singled out as being prone to bias. It's that a certain group of people are being singled out as allowing (or being in danger of allowing) their biases to influence their approach to evidence.
The two sentences in that paragraph contradict each other.

"Prone to bias" means in effect: "allowing their biases to influence their approach to evidence". If someone does not allow their biases to influence their approach to evidence, then it follows that, in reality, they are not "prone to bias", unless 'bias' means nothing more than "holding a particular position", which, of course, is true of everyone, thus rendering your comment meaningless.

The fact is that Miss Kenyon had (as far as I have read) strong views on the subject of Zionism. It is not for me to judge whether her anti-Zionist views were less strong than Dr Wood's inerrantist views.

It is not for you to judge either.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Yet more bare assertions.

QED

If you're concerned about assertions with evidence attached, you could try addressing this post.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
I will certainly look into the claims of Justinian's article, when I have a bit more time.

Meanwhile, since I am required to do a shedload of work, others may like to apply themselves to study the pottery evidence, instead of just ignoring it.
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But you are assuming that they are actually driven by vested interest. You have failed to make any case that Dr Wood is driven by vested interest other than the bare assumption that he must be because of his view of biblical inerrancy.

No, and no. I have said that he is in danger of being driven by vested interest because of his worldview, whereas Kenyan isn't. Her worldview might put her in danger of being driven by vested interest if in another sphere, but in this one, it's not an issue.

It's a straightforward point, which has perhaps been clouded by the different uses of the word 'bias' - worldview is a more useful word. If our worldview has the potential of being under attack by something we encounter, our objectivity towards the thing we have encountered is in danger.

It makes no difference to an anti-zionist worldview when, or even if Jericho was sacked.
It makes a huge difference to a biblical literalist viewpoint if Jericho was sacked, when it was, and who by.

In this specific case, Wood's worldview puts him in danger of being biased. As Barnabas62 points out, he might not be biased. But it's a real possibility. It's simply not the same for Kenyan in this case - she has nothing to lose either way.

If we were talking about the modern Israel's borders, then Kenyan's anti-zionist worldview would put her in danger of being biased, because her views could well affect her objectivity.

Worldviews affect our approach to things and our objectivity, all of us. But not equally; it depends what is being talked about, and how self-aware and open we are. We see it with climate change science and a whole bunch of other things. It's a simple principle: a lack of, or a reduced vested interest correlates with objectivity.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
goperryrevs -

It does not follow that Kenyon's dating is fatal to Wood's inerrantist worldview, as I pointed out earlier. The concept of "biblical inerrancy" is subject to interpretation, and biblical chronology is also under debate.

So I don't see or accept your viewpoint.

But if you are right, then you are effectively saying this: anyone who approaches evidence with a prior assumption that the Bible is true, must be regarded as someone lacking credibility.

Why not also say the same for someone who assumes that the Bible can't be true? The same argument applies. After all, just think how fatal the evidence for a miracle (say the resurrection of Jesus Christ) is to the atheist worldview?

In fact, I would like to turn your argument on its head by saying that evidence for merely natural events are not damaging to the theistic worldview, because God can co-exist with merely natural events (His existence is not dependent on the miraculous), whereas evidence for the miraculous is damaging to the atheistic worldview. Therefore the theistic worldview is far more robust than the atheistic one. I am well aware that we are not debating around the distinction between theism and atheism in general terms, but I am simply making the point that this problem of 'bias' - or "perceived bias" - cannot be confined to a religious / spiritual worldview. The non-religious could have even more of a problem with this.

As for Zionism: well, I don't think it takes too much imagination to infer that Zionists will try to fashion arguments from ancient history to justify their occupation of Palestine. Any event that could provide that justification - such as the destruction of Jericho - is therefore damaging to anti-Zionism. I am not saying that Kenyon was biased, but her viewpoint exposes her to bias as much as Wood's viewpoint exposes him.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
The thing is, though, EE, the pottery evidence neither confirms nor denies the veracity of the Biblical account.

That's not the point.

The point isn't whether Jericho was sacked and destroyed but whether it occurred in the way the book of Joshua presents it.

All I've been saying, all along, is that the Book of Joshua is written in the genre of ancient historiography - and like all works of that period takes a different approach to history to the way that we do today.

The pottery evidence might well be very interesting in terms of establishing dates for when the fall of Jericho took place - but it wouldn't establish whether the walls fell down when the Israelites blew trumpets or whether Rahab the Prostitute lived in this, that or the other section of wall.

It's all very interesting but doesn't have a great deal of bearing on the OP.

'The Bible is true and some of it actually happened.'

Unless some mass grave turned up with men, women and children all tumbled into it then we have no external corroboration for the Joshua account at all.

Even if we found a cemetery tomorrow there'd still be debate on how we interpreted the evidence.

However we understand OT history, I think it's pretty axiomatic that we are not dealing with descriptions of events in the contemporary sense. That doesn't mean that these events didn't take place, but it is to acknowledge what appears to me to be pretty self evident - that the OT accounts contain both history and mythology at one and the same time.

What I can't understand is what that should be such a contentious acknowledgement.

It's not as if atheism or a denial of any supernatural agency whatsoever is predicated on this approach.

It's only a difficulty if one persists to holding on to a rather modernist fundie approach popularised around 1900.
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
EE, I have only made one straightforward point, which I don't think is that hard to grasp. I don't know why you're struggling with it so much.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But if you are right, then you are effectively saying this: anyone who approaches evidence with a prior assumption that the Bible is true, must be regarded as someone lacking credibility.

No I am not. That is a huge leap from what I actually said. Saying someone is in danger of being biased is nowhere near saying that they must lack credibility. They might, they might not.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Why not also say the same for someone who assumes that the Bible can't be true? The same argument applies.

It does, and I would. If someone is out to prove the Bible wrong, I'd say that they are also in danger of bias.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
After all, just think how fatal the evidence for a miracle (say the resurrection of Jesus Christ) is to the atheist worldview?

Yes, it is, I have always thought that.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I am simply making the point that this problem of 'bias' - or "perceived bias" - cannot be confined to a religious / spiritual worldview. The non-religious could have even more of a problem with this.

I never said it was confined to a religious / spiritual worldview, and I don't know why you think I think it would be. But it depends on the issue that we're talking about. For example, if we were talking about something miraculous, then both a prior belief or disbelief in miracles could well become bias. Someone who was agnostic on the subject of miracles would not be so likely to be biased.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
As for Zionism: well, I don't think it takes too much imagination to infer that Zionists will try to fashion arguments from ancient history to justify their occupation of Palestine. Any event that could provide that justification - such as the destruction of Jericho - is therefore damaging to anti-Zionism. I am not saying that Kenyon was biased, but her viewpoint exposes her to bias as much as Wood's viewpoint exposes him.

As much as? No way. Even if her viewpoint does bring some bias (which I doubt), it is nowhere near as much as Wood's. His worldview is entirely dependent on events in the Bible being literally, historically true. If those events are shown not to have happened, or happened differently, his worldview collapses. There is no equivalence; her worldview survives either eventuality.

Again, that's not to say Wood is necessarily dishonest, wrong, or lacks credibility, or any of the things that you appear to think I am saying. And it's not to say that Kenyan is necessarily right and objective either. All it says is that there is a fair risk that Wood will interpret the data to fit his beliefs, and he should have to work all the harder to show that this isn't the case. This isn't a binary "is biased"/"isn't biased", and my point is a general one about vested interest having the potential to influence objectivity.

The only point I have made on this thread is that Wood's vested interest in giving a certain date for the sacking of Jericho is larger than Kenyan's. That's it. Despite that vested interest, he might be right. But... for reasons that others have given, it appears that he has indeed allowed his beliefs to influence his science.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Yep, Goperryrevs, exactly right.

It seems to me that it is always the fundies who paint themselves into such tight corners. Be it atheist fundies or theistic ones.

A fair bit of latitude gives room to breathe. All these more prescriptive people are squeezing themselves into a very tight staitjacket.

There's no need for them to do so.

There is no need to take the slant that the Book of Joshua is 100% historically accurate in every detail. No reason whatsoever.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
However we understand OT history, I think it's pretty axiomatic that we are not dealing with descriptions of events in the contemporary sense. That doesn't mean that these events didn't take place, but it is to acknowledge what appears to me to be pretty self evident - that the OT accounts contain both history and mythology at one and the same time.

Self-evident?

OK, so if it is 'self-evident' that the account of the fall of Jericho in the book of Joshua contains a description of events, which (or some of which), strictly speaking, did not actually happen (even though the narrative may have some kind of symbolic, metaphorical or didactic value), then please could you show me the particular wording in the account, which reveals this startlingly obvious truth.

'Self-evident' is an extremely strong term, so your claim ought to be incontestably obvious from the narrative. Therefore, it is not unreasonable of me to ask you to produce this evidence.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
No, it's not unreasonable.

It's self-evident, I would suggest, in terms of the genre. As I've said before, Joshua, like all the other OT histories, is a piece of ancient historiography. So it's not unreasonable to suggest that it would share the characteristics of that genre - ie. a mix of literal history and mythology.

If you're looking at Herodotus or Tacitus or Caesar's Gallic Wars or any other ancient history do you expect to find textual references that explain that what we're dealing with is a mixture of fact and mythology?

No, of course not.

So why should such 'evidence' be forthcoming in the Book of Joshua?

I was in the British Library the other day reading a 17th century publication and although it was clearly an eyewitness account of certain conversations and events it, too, mixed elements of mythology, 'prophecy' and so on.

That's how these kind of writings work.

That's the self-evident part.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
I must admit that that is the weirdest example of 'self-evident' that I have ever seen.

The *Mother* of all circular arguments!!
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Since fiction makes every effort to be internally consistent, it's highly unlikely to find any evidence in the text that the events described in the book didn't actually happen.

What evidence from the text of The Lord of the Rings can we use to ascertain that the events of the War of the Ring didn't happen? I'd argue, none at all.

So we have to look outside the text itself in order to work out what it is. Likewise with the Book of Joshua. Again, an utterly uncontroversial point.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Exactly, Doc Tor.

So what was Gamaliel on about, I wonder?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Highlighting something you'd apparently overlooked - as far as I could see - which was that there's no point in looking for textual confirmation within Joshua that it contains a mixture of fact and mythology.

Because you ain't gonna find it any more than you are going to find a similar statement in Lord of The Rings.

I'm not sure you've understood the Doc Tor's salient point but we'll let that pass.

Just because something - The Lord of the Rings - doesn't say, 'Look, this is fiction' - doesn't mean that it isn't fiction.

I'm not saying that the Book of Joshua is fiction. I'm saying it's a mixture of fact and mythology - like any other ancient historical text whether scriptural or otherwise.

It needn't say that in the text for it to be the case. Indeed, why would it need to say it in the text as it was axiomatic at the time it was written that this was how these things worked.

That's the point I'm making.

If I've understood yours, I apologise. But I rather suspect you've miusunderstood mine.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Indeed, why would it need to say it in the text as it was axiomatic at the time it was written that this was how these things worked.

And the evidence that it was "axiomatic at the time it was written that this was how these things worked" is...?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Exactly that. How ancient texts work. That's what is axiomatic.

It's axiomatic that ancient texts work like that because all the studies show them to work like that. That's how they were written. That's how the work. There is plenty of literary and scholarly evidence to that effect.

Show me an ancient historiography that is not a combination of literal history - or what passed for 'history' in that sense - and mythology.

Historians are broadly agreed, for instance, that the Books of the Maccabees in the Apocrypha/Deutero-canonical represent a reasonable accurate picture of the course of events of the Jewish revolt ...

What they don't accept is the literal accuracy of all the details.

Now, I'm wondering what kind of evidence you'd accept - other than a passage inserted somewhere in Joshua or in Judges that says, 'Look folks, this is an ancient historical text and as such doesn't deal with history in the way people in later generations will. It's 3 parts fact and 2 parts myth ...'

I don't know why I have to spell things out so much. The obduracy is all on one side here is seems to me.

'I won't believe until you show me the evidence ...'

And then when evidence is provided it is invariably dismissed. Yet the rest of us are expected to swallow the evidence you provide from highly partial sources with a vested interest in particular pieces of pottery dating from particular points in time.

Even if the pottery you've become excited about does confirm the date of the sacking of Jericho - and I've got no axe to grind on the dating at all - then it still doesn't prove that the Book of Joshua is different from other ancient historiographies in that it simply puts forward sober fact in a documentary form ...
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Exactly that. How ancient texts work. That's what is axiomatic.

It's axiomatic that ancient texts work like that because all the studies show them to work like that. That's how they were written. That's how the work. There is plenty of literary and scholarly evidence to that effect.

So you are saying that every single apparently historical account from the Ancient World* must include some elements which are basically not true (i.e. descriptions of events which did not actually happen), and that there is plenty of literary and scholarly evidence to show that this phenomenon should be regarded as axiomatic.

And the evidence for this extraordinary (and almost certainly bogus) claim is....?

Citations please.


*"Ancient World" defined as....?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I'm not sure you've understood the Doc Tor's salient point but we'll let that pass.

No, he didn't understand the point. You have. I understand yours, too.

EE, "every single history from the ancient world"? Hell, every single history written. It's only quite recently that historians have concerned themselves with veracity.

From Gilgamesh, through the Iliad, the Gallic Wars, Bayeux tapestry and onwards to the contemporary histories of the British Empire, pretty much every important source of history we have is constructed to tell a story. Working out what the story is and who's telling it is almost the first part of sorting through the text to see where the fictions might be.

The more ancient the text, the more difficult it gets - which is why for centuries, it was assumed the Iliad was purely fictional, and Troy never existed. Joshua, which predates the Iliad (at least in the events it purports to describe), mentions recognisable place names, but if you want to take God's words to Joshua as what God actually said to Joshua, are you going to take the reported speech of Zeus in the Iliad with similar seriousness?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
EE, "every single history from the ancient world"? Hell, every single history written. It's only quite recently that historians have concerned themselves with veracity.

If Gamaliel's claim is true that it is axiomatic - i.e. self-evident - that apparently historical accounts from the as yet undefined "Ancient World" must include fictional elements, then his rule must apply to every single account, otherwise, by definition, the rule is not axiomatic!

I would have thought that was obvious.

So therefore I want to see evidence that this axiom exists.

Where is it?

Claiming that because we know that the Ancient World produced certain stories, means that all accounts from the same period must be at least partly fictional, is a non sequitur.

Just what sort of 'logic' is that?

[ 10. March 2014, 22:35: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So therefore I want to see evidence that this axiom exists.

No, you don't. What you want is to talk to some historians who specialise in interpreting ancient texts and ask them which of the texts they deal with contain mythic elements. If they answer, pretty much all of them, then there you go.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Doc Tor -

Quite clearly you don't understand the meaning of the word 'axiom'.

Gamaliel made a claim that it is 'self-evident' that "ancient texts" contain mythic elements. This claim is so extreme and incredible, that it requires substantiation.

So where is the evidence of this 'axiom'? Asking for the opinions of certain historians is fair enough, as long as we ask the following questions:

1. Which periods of ancient history are we talking about?

2. Why is it assumed that the historiography of every nation in a given period, should follow the same principles?

3. On what basis does the contemporary historian judge an account to be 'myth'? What is the philosophical basis of this judgment?

4. If 'myth' is a part of historical accounts, then what function did it serve, and how can we establish that without resorting to subjective judgments?

I would have thought that a self-proclaimed 'expert' like Gamaliel, who seems to give the impression that he knows what he is talking about, would be only too eager to answer these questions.

So I await his response...
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
EE, would you permit a little digression that takes us into less heated waters?

Back in my undergraduate days, I was an English major and swotted up barely enough Anglo-Saxon to slog through Beowulf and Judith with glossaries in hand, along with a few other texts from (very) roughly a thousand years ago. Not, perhaps, ancient enough to qualify here. But bear with me.

Unlike Joshua’s account of Jericho, no scholars supposed then (when I studied the thing) or now that the events described in Beowulf presented an accurate historical account. They couldn’t suppose such a thing; the poem closes with Beowulf, the hero of the story, dying from wounds sustained in a fight with a dragon.

I’m not myself a scholar, but any serious scholar of Anglo-Saxon literature claiming that Beowulf = history would make headlines, since I think we all accept that dragons, in the form of fire-breathing, treasure-horde-guarding, flying reptiles, do not, nor have ever, existed. Dragons are mythological. Since the poem clearly contains at least one mythological element, there’s reason to suppose it may contain others – like Grendel and his mother, for example: monsters whom Beowulf slays.

Yet assorted archaeological finds, and researches into other texts from the relevant period, confirm that at least some of the individuals mentioned in Beowulf did exist. It turns out that there was in fact a Danish King Hrothgar, for example (he’s the king to whose aid Beowulf, a Geatish hero, came in the poem); Hrothgar did live at Hereot (the Great Hall mentioned in the poem). Archaeological digs have found what is widely supposed to be Hereot. Further, there are references in the poem to events that are known to have happened, as they’re described in other texts from the times.

In short, Beowulf, an epic poem, contains a mix of fact and fancy, like the Iliad and others mentioned above. Mentions of monsters and dragons in Beowulf doesn’t discredit the mentions of known historical figures and descriptions of events confirmed elsewhere. Nor does mention of historical persons, places, and events confirm the existence of the dragon which wounds Beowulf at the end. They simply both co-exist in the same poem. The real question here is why. Why do we so consistently find such mixes of fact and fancy in literature written before modern times?

It’s simple: these texts were written for specific purposes. They’re neither journalism nor history. They’re celebrations of heroism, and of peoples, and of those peoples’ triumphs and victories – their great moments. These texts were weren’t compiled as precise reports of what happened; they were compiled to celebrate and inspire the efforts, sacrifices, and loyalties of a people (and their great warriors / leaders / heroes) to claim the destiny they believed their God (or gods) to have created them for.

I don't recall which side of the pond you inhabit, but perhaps you're familiar with the US national anthem; it's another example of the genre to which both Beowulf and the account of Jericho belong. Does "The Star-Spangled Banner" refer to at least one historical fact? Sure. Does it also contain some purely nationalistic exaggeration meant to inspire & celebrate nationalists who heard it? Yep. No doubt the "Charge of the Light Brigade" falls into this category too.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Quite clearly you don't understand the meaning of the word 'axiom'.

No, quite clearly, you don't understand the meaning of the word 'axiom'.

You're asking Gamaliel for proof of his axiom, when an axiom is simply an assumption that needs no proof. So when historians approach an ancient text, they make the assumption that some of it will be true, some of it will be almost true, some of it will be fanciful exaggeration to a particular end and some of it will be false, either by commission or omission.

You can, of course, argue that such an assumption shouldn't be made, in which case you do have the problem of dragons in Beowulf and Zeus in the Iliad. You can argue that such an assumption shouldn't be made specifically in relation to the ancient books of the Bible, while remaining for other texts.

But in both of the above cases, it's up to you to argue coherently and cogently why a different reading of either all ancient texts or the OT specifically should be made. So far, you've done neither.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge
Yet assorted archaeological finds, and researches into other texts from the relevant period, confirm that at least some of the individuals mentioned in Beowulf did exist. It turns out that there was in fact a Danish King Hrothgar, for example (he’s the king to whose aid Beowulf, a Geatish hero, came in the poem); Hrothgar did live at Hereot (the Great Hall mentioned in the poem). Archaeological digs have found what is widely supposed to be Hereot. Further, there are references in the poem to events that are known to have happened, as they’re described in other texts from the times.

Hang on... how can you find confirmation from "other texts from the times" when those texts are also presumably full of fictional elements?

Gamaliel is making a sweeping statement about ALL - I repeat ALL - ancient texts, and he even goes so far as to say that it is self-evident that ancient texts contain mythic elements. So we cannot then decide that some texts are historically accurate and some are not.

The question arises: if some of the information in these texts is historically accurate, and the rest is not, how do we decide which elements are myth are which are not?

There must be some independent arbiter that enables us to disentangle the truth from the fiction. You say that we can use "other texts", but that doesn't help us, because "other texts" are part of the corpus of information, the absolute veracity of which is being questioned! If we say "archaeological evidence", then we have a highly inadequate source, as archaeology is clearly a work in progress, as is obvious from the history of archaeological discovery. Furthermore, archaeological evidence is subject to interpretation. Moreover, Gamaliel has said a number of times that he would rather talk about the textual evidence rather than the archaeological.

If we then say that "all those elements which are 'supernatural' must be mythic", then we are imposing a particular philosophy on the text, namely, philosophical naturalism, which, by the way, is a philosophy unprovable by science.

Perhaps you would like to clarify these points.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
No matter how much you rail against this, this is how it is.

There is no 'arbiter' of truths. You read, and you cross-reference, and you make propositions and put forward theses. Some things are more likely than others. If a single text refers to King Tor, but none of the contemporaneous ones do, then perhaps King Tor is a mythic character in a fable. If they all do, and there are place names like Torbridge and Torquay, perhaps King Tor did exist, even if he was unlikely to have slain the Frumious Bandersnatch.

It's a series of overlapping questions, without the prospect necessarily of ever reaching a definitive answer. You appear to be comforted by certainty, but there's nothing for you here, I'm afraid.

[ 11. March 2014, 10:51: Message edited by: Doc Tor ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
No, quite clearly, you don't understand the meaning of the word 'axiom'.

You're asking Gamaliel for proof of his axiom, when an axiom is simply an assumption that needs no proof.

An axiom is "a statement or proposition which is regarded as being established, accepted, or self-evidently true".

Now it doesn't follow that anyone can just make up a statement or proposition and say "this is an axiom", thereby absolving themselves from needing to substantiate it.

If I said: "It is an axiom that all bankers are fraudsters", do you think I would be justified in expecting everyone just to accept that without question?

Suppose someone challenged me with... "OK. So prove that that proposition is an axiom".

Do you think the following response is credible: "No, I don't need to prove that it's an axiom, because I say that it is, and axioms don't need proof." ?

If Gamaliel's proposition is truly an axiom, then it wouldn't need proof. But I am asking him to provide evidence to show that the proposition is an axiom at all!

Can't you see the difference?
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
It'a an exaggeration to say that all texts contain mythic elements. When the ruler of Ugarit writes to the King of Cyprus to say his city is under attack; and archaeology demonstrates that it was burned down at roughly the same time we can safely assume that it's a reasonably accurate précis of events. But most narratives from the period aren't straightforward like that and they weren't, by and large, written by people who distinguished between myth and history in any kind of clear cut way. Then you have the problem that not everyone who wrote texts in ancient times was afflicted with rigourous honesty. There are inscriptions of the Pharaoh Hatshepsut which claim the credit for the defeat of they Hyksos some decades previously. The modern equivalent would be Mr Cameron putting up statues to himself claiming credit for the overthrow of the Third Reich. One archaeologist observes that ideally we ought to have three independent attestations for any event to claim it as an historical fact; whilst we are lucky in reality to get just one. But the idea that we can accept the Exodus and Conquest model as an historical fact based purely on the evidence of the Hexateuch is a faith based position, not one based on solid historical methodology.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
No matter how much you rail against this, this is how it is.

There is no 'arbiter' of truths. You read, and you cross-reference, and you make propositions and put forward theses. Some things are more likely than others. If a single text refers to King Tor, but none of the contemporaneous ones do, then perhaps King Tor is a mythic character in a fable. If they all do, and there are place names like Torbridge and Torquay, perhaps King Tor did exist, even if he was unlikely to have slain the Frumious Bandersnatch.

It's a series of overlapping questions, without the prospect necessarily of ever reaching a definitive answer. You appear to be comforted by certainty, but there's nothing for you here, I'm afraid.

Again, you seem to be ignoring the fact that I am not the one obsessed with certainty, because I am not the one talking about axioms. Axioms are to do with certainty, being self-evidently true propositions.

If nothing is certain, then it follows that people like you and Gamaliel cannot start making sweeping statements about the nature of ancient texts. He doesn't know. You don't know. And I don't know. So why are you and Gamaliel insisting that a certain apparently historical account from the Bible must contain mythic elements?

You have proven by your own words that you have no case.

By the way... I am not 'railing', but discussing. So stop using emotive and prejudiced language to undermine the legitimacy of the debate.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Again, you seem to be ignoring the fact that I am not the one obsessed with certainty, because I am not the one talking about axioms. Axioms are to do with certainty, being self-evidently true propositions.

If nothing is certain, then it follows that people like you and Gamaliel cannot start making sweeping statements about the nature of ancient texts. He doesn't know. You don't know. And I don't know. So why are you and Gamaliel insisting that a certain apparently historical account from the Bible must contain mythic elements?

Well, because looking at a historical record, it is reasonable to assume that it contains a variety of writing, has been influenced by politics, by religion, by the way that the writer wants the material to be received, by memory, by inexact knowledge of the facts and so on and so forth.

It is reasonable to assume that historical documents are influenced by those things - and somewhat naive to think that anything would not be.

So then the ball is back in your court to explain how you know that the bible is accurate in a way that no other historical document.. ever.. is.


quote:


You have proven by your own words that you have no case.

By the way... I am not 'railing', but discussing. So stop using emotive and prejudiced language to undermine the legitimacy of the debate.

How does he have no case? What on earth are you talking about: historical documents are never simply taken at face value as being totally accurate. Where is the controversy in that thought?

[ 11. March 2014, 11:13: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Axioms are not to do with certainty. They're to do with presuppositions that are held to be true, in order to have a common framework in which to operate. That's all.

So "ancient texts contain the fabulous" is the working hypothesis. It's not a sweeping statement that needs rigorous proof. It just is. Unless you think either, that dragons exist, or that the Bible is a special exception. In which case, it's your argument to make.

Which, I add, you're not doing, and as such, there's no actual legitimate debate to undermine, since everyone else is more or less agreed about the nature of the text of Joshua.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
If I may, I'd like to hold up a mirror. Look into the mirror, EE and you'll see these words. You might recognise them.


quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Doc Tor
[b] Stop using emotive and prejudiced language to undermine the legitimacy of the debate.

Because that's what I think you're doing. You claim to be debating calmly and rationally yet your tone can become rather hectoring and 'railing' at times. I have never claimed to be an 'expert'. None of us are.

What I have said - and yes, Gildas may be right, there could be some exaggeration involved - is that as a general rule of thumb it's going to be axiomatic that ancient historiographies (and I was thinking of histories rather than letters and despatches and so on) are going to combine mythic and factual elements.

I find that incontrovertible. It's a feature we find with literature of that era and genre.

You've asked me to provide the burden of proof for that assertion. I'm simply suggesting that it's a reasonable assumption from what we know of ancient texts.

I could just as easily turn the question round and ask you to provide incontrovertible proof that the walls of Jericho fell down when the Israelites blew trumpets or that the River Jordan was miraculously stopped mid flow in order for the Israelites to cross.

There's no empirical way of proving any of these things to be historically true - unless some previously unimagined archaeological evidence turned up.

That doesn't mean that they didn't happen. But neither does it mean that they did. It's a faith thing. We chose whether to believe it as literal fact or take it as mythical/symbolic ... and as has been said, previous generations didn't necessarily make those kind of fine distinctions.

The reason I've introduced the literary element as opposed to simply the archaeological angle is to demonstrate that we need to have issues in mind such as authorial intention - as Doc Tor says using some excellent examples.

What's the purpose of the Bayeux Tapestry? To tell the story of the Norman Conquest of England from a Norman perspective.

What's the purpose of Joshua? To give an account of how the Israelites came to be in position of the Land of Canaan and how God helped them achieve that - and also to explain some inconvenient issues such as why they were still having difficulties ('Dang! we didn't drive out the peoples of the Land as comprehensively as we were directed ...')

All literature has designs on the reader of one form or other. 'These things were written so you might believe,' John (or the writer of John) informs us in his Gospel.

Why is that such a difficult concept to accept?

It's only an issue if one buys into a particular Modernist form of fundamentalism dating from the late 19th/early 20th centuries.

It's not a major issue otherwise.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
So "ancient texts contain the fabulous" is the working hypothesis.

Now you are moving the goalposts, because the 'axiom' view has clearly been shown to be false.

"A working hypothesis" is far removed from the idea of "self-evident" and "axioms".
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
So "ancient texts contain the fabulous" is the working hypothesis.

Now you are moving the goalposts, because the 'axiom' view has clearly been shown to be false.

"A working hypothesis" is far removed from the idea of "self-evident" and "axioms".

Nope. It's simply the initial supposition that everyone (except inerrantists) is working from. The working hypothesis is axiomatic.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Now you are moving the goalposts, because the 'axiom' view has clearly been shown to be false.

I refer you to the first line of the wikipedia definition of axiom (which I did not write, I hasten to add)

wiki:

quote:
An axiom, or postulate, is a premise or starting point of reasoning. A self-evident principle or one that is accepted as true without proof as the basis for argument; a postulate.
So there.

quote:
"A working hypothesis" is far removed from the idea of "self-evident" and "axioms".
I don't think it is, actually, when you are using 'working hypothesis' in the sense of 'premise or starting point of reasoning'.

It is obviously an utterly reasonable position to start from the position of thinking that all history is influenced by things other than simply what happened.

[ 11. March 2014, 12:43: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Of course, one can start from a different axiom, which one would you like to postulate EE?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Nope. It's simply the initial supposition that everyone (except inerrantists) is working from. The working hypothesis is axiomatic.

Well that just proves that you don't know what an axiom is.

Also your claim about "everyone except inerrantists" is false. Obviously you have never heard of Herodotus and Thucydides.

I quote a former Reader in Classics at Reading University, Dr Alan Wardman:

quote:
Both Herodotus and Thucydides, in their different ways, held the view that myth was unsatisfactory.
And from the same article...

quote:
The functions of myth and history are sharply distinguished. Myth produces entertainment, while history, through aiming at truth, will ultimately be a service; if not to the public, at any rate for the minority who want to know what happened. Since the pattern of events will probably recur, Thucydides' work will help posterity to follow the history of their own times. It would not be unreasonable to claim that Herodotus stressed the nature of historical method, while Thucydides, though perfectly aware of the importance of the right method, had his eye on distinguishing knowledge from amusement as the goal of history.
From "Myth in Greek Historiography" by Dr A. E. Wardman, from the journal Historia: Zeitschrift für Alte Geschichte: Oct. 1960. You can find this on JSTOR.

(Journal description: Historia is an international, peer-reviewed journal focusing on Greek and Roman antiquity. Original articles feature research on Greek and Hellenistic history, the Roman Republic and Empire as well as late antiquity. It covers all aspects of political, economic, religious and social life and deals with legal, archaeological, numismatic and epigraphical questions.)

In other words, an eminent classical scholar has confirmed in a peer-reviewed journal that these two ancient Greek historians (5th century BC) were well able to distinguish fact from myth (especially Thucydides) and, moreover, were well able to provide historical accounts excluding what they regarded as mythic elements.

This clearly shows that the claim that "all ancient texts contain myth" is spurious (depending on how we define 'myth' of course, as I will go on to explain). There were historians in the Ancient World who regarded themselves as responsible conveyors of the truth, and who are we to assume that they were deluded?

And what about ancient Hebrew historiography and the Israelite view of themselves in relation to history?

Professor James Barr wrote the following in an article entitled "The Meaning of Mythology in Relation to the Old Testament":

quote:
It will probably be agreed that the importance of history in the Israelite mind was the greatest factor in enforcing the differences from the mythological environment. It is thus perhaps possible to say that the central position in Israelite thought is occupied by history rather than myth, and that such survivals of myth as exist are controlled by the historical sense. It is perhaps too much to say, as has sometimes been said, that myth by its own nature is in principle unhistorical and uninterested in history. But it is certainly true that for the most part myth has in fact tended to an interest in the cyclic or the permanent rather than in the moving stage of history. If we ask how this Israelite interest in the historical arose, we are probably forced back on Israel's own confession to the centrality of the Exodus and the events surrounding it. This is independent of any question of the exact accuracy of the Exodus narratives as we have them.
From: Vetus Testamentum: Jan. 1959

(Journal Description: Vetus Testamentum is a leading journal covering all aspects of Old Testament study. It includes articles on history, literature, religion and theology, text, versions, language, and the bearing on the Old Testament of archaeology and the study of the Ancient Near East. Since 1951 the journals has been generally recognized to be indispensable for scholarly work on the Old Testament.)

Now of course it is true that Barr acknowledges that the Israelite sense of history arose independently "of any question of the exact accuracy of the Exodus narratives as we have them". In other words, he is not making a statement about the historical accuracy of the text, nor is he undermining it; he is saying that, in Israelites' consciousness of history is more important than myth, and that their sense of history pivots on the historical event of the Exodus (and, by implication, what naturally follows from that).

If Professorship Barr is right, then we would expect Hebrew writers to produce accounts which were understood and accepted to be largely accurate, otherwise this sense of the historical would be undermined.

Furthermore, in the same article Barr makes the following observation:

quote:
It (myth) is a totality first of all because mythological thinking is a striving for a total world-view, for an interpretation or meaning of all that is significant. Mythology is not a peripheral manifestation, not a luxury, but a serious attempt at integration of reality and experience, considerably more serious than what we loosely call to-day one's "philosophy of life." Its goal is a totality of what is significant to man's needs, material, intellectual and religious. It has then its aspects which correspond to science, to logic, and to faith, and and it would be wrong to see myth as a distorted substitute for only one of these.
And...

quote:
...myth is not a mere story or fiction but an integral and essential instrument for the maintenance of actual human life in the world.
So therefore 'myth' could correspond to actual events or it could not. Barr makes clear that myth is functional, and so it does not follow that it should rely on fictional elements. It may or it may not.

If I were to agree with Gamaliel that all ancient texts contain 'myth', then that is saying nothing at all other than that those texts have a function. They could be historically accurate or they may not be. As Barr has made clear, the function of 'myth' is independent of historical accuracy. That does not therefore mean that myth is dependent on historical inaccuracy. Myth can draw on fiction and on fact. It's independent. That is what the word 'independent' means.

In fact, to be honest, on this definition, virtually all historical accounts from all ages contain 'myth'. It has nothing necessarily to do with fiction.

When I studied history at A-level, I would say that it was driven by an underlying 'myth', namely the 'myth' of "the central importance of the role of elites". I am sure that all the particular events I studied actually happened, but it was the interpretation of the impact of those events and the characters involved in them, which established the myth. Others may have studied the same period under another 'myth', namely, "the central importance of social conditions". And yet another: "the central importance of the influence of thought and philosophy".

Nowt to do with making stuff up.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
From wiki

quote:
Herodotus(/hɨˈrɒdətəs/; Ancient Greek: Ἡρόδοτος Hēródotos) was an ancient Greek historian who was born in Halicarnassus, Caria (modern-day Bodrum, Turkey) and lived in the fifth century BC (c. 484–425 BC). He has been called "The Father of History" (first conferred by Cicero), as well as "The Father of Lies" (first conferred by Voltaire). He was the first historian known to collect his materials systematically, test their accuracy to a certain extent, and arrange them in a well-constructed and vivid narrative.[1] The Histories—his masterpiece and the only work he is known to have produced—is a record of his "inquiry" (or ἱστορία historía, a word that passed into Latin and acquired its modern meaning of "history"), being an investigation of the origins of the Greco-Persian Wars and including a wealth of geographical and ethnographical information. Although some of his stories were fanciful and others inaccurate, he claimed he was reporting only what had been told to him.
Thucydides is an interesting case, and very much an outlier - the first real attempt at actual history as we know it. It's unclear as to how accurate Thucydides' History is - some will swear by it, others will say he's writing a pro-Athenian account and skewing the narrative that way.

The wiki commentary makes this statement:

quote:
By distancing himself from the storytelling practices of Homer, Thucydides makes it clear that while he does consider mythology and epics to be evidence, these works cannot be given much credibility, and that it takes an impartial and empirically minded historian, such as himself, to accurately portray the events of the past.
That Thucydides has to make it explicit that he's writing events as they happened and only as they happened is showing a break from previous practice. He's taking it as, ooh, axiomatic, that people will approach his writing in the same way they approach all the other histories.

So while it's pure conjecture to suggest that Thucydides would reject your position, it's not looking good for you.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
You expect me to be worried about what Wikipedia says??

[Killing me] [Killing me]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Wiki, for all its issues, has considerably more oversight than the source your quoting.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I suggest as an axiom that wikipedia is at least as good a place to start a conversation as a 50 year old academic paper quoted out of context, and probably considerably more.

Anyway, just because the ancients apparently distinguished between history and myth, that doesn't mean that they therefore considered all historical reports to be accurate.

I'm pretty sure they didn't think that, because they were not stupid.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
So peer reviewed articles are now inferior to Wikipedia?

What a joke.

After all the stuff written about peer review earlier in this thread, suddenly it all goes out of the window when it's inconvenient for your position.

How sad.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare
I suggest as an axiom that wikipedia is at least as good a place to start a conversation as a 50 year old academic paper quoted out of context, and probably considerably more.

Anyway, just because the ancients apparently distinguished between history and myth, that doesn't mean that they therefore considered all historical reports to be accurate.

I'm pretty sure they didn't think that, because they were not stupid.

Firstly, please provide evidence that I am quoting the paper out of context. The fact that it was written fifty years ago is completely irrelevant, unless you seriously think that the more recently something is said, the more true it must be (another logical fallacy).

Secondly, I never said that the ancients considered all historical reports to be accurate.

Gamaliel made the claim that it is axiomatic that all ancient texts contain myth, and in the context of this discussion, he appears to understand 'myth' in terms that undermine the historical accuracy of the accounts containing this element.

Now that I have presented evidence to challenge this position, instead of doing the decent thing and engaging with that evidence, you twist my words.

Not very scholarly, I'm afraid.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Um, the bible is not peer reviewed.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Wikipedia (apparently) disagrees with your interpretation of a 60 year old academic paper, from which you've taken random paragraphs and added your own gloss.

Show me where the wikipedia article actually disagrees with the text of the paragraphs that you've taken from the paper rather than your interpretation of it.

Let us try, shall we:

quote:
from the paper:

The functions of myth and history are sharply distinguished. Myth produces entertainment, while history, through aiming at truth, will ultimately be a service; if not to the public, at any rate for the minority who want to know what happened. Since the pattern of events will probably recur, Thucydides' work will help posterity to follow the history of their own times. It would not be unreasonable to claim that Herodotus stressed the nature of historical method, while Thucydides, though perfectly aware of the importance of the right method, had his eye on distinguishing knowledge from amusement as the goal of history.

and

quote:
from wikipedia

By distancing himself from the storytelling practices of Homer, Thucydides makes it clear that while he does consider mythology and epics to be evidence, these works cannot be given much credibility, and that it takes an impartial and empirically minded historian, such as himself, to accurately portray the events of the past.

Where is the contradiction? Thucydides apparently thought that history was something distinct from the epic myths of Homer and thought that history could be more powerful than myth had his eye on distinguishing knowledge from amusement as the goal of history.

That doesn't therefore mean that Thucydides was more accurate than any other historian. There is no contradiction between these sources.

In fact, the only contradiction lies in your interpretation, which implies that because Thucydides said that he was able to be an impartial reporter of the facts of history, he actually was an impartial reporter of the facts of history.

Indeed, one might even argue that it was to Thucydides' advantage to persuade his readers that he was impartial, irrespective of his actual intention, bias and ability.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Firstly, please provide evidence that I am quoting the paper out of context. The fact that it was written fifty years ago is completely irrelevant, unless you seriously think that the more recently something is said, the more true it must be (another logical fallacy).

I don't have to provide evidence that you've quoted out of context, because you haven't quoted the whole paper here. Ergo you haven't quoted the context, hence you have quoted the paragraphs out of context.

Old papers do not necessarily reflect the current scholarly consensus on an issue. As we have discussed previously on this thread.

quote:
Secondly, I never said that the ancients considered all historical reports to be accurate.

Gamaliel made the claim that it is axiomatic that all ancient texts contain myth, and in the context of this discussion, he appears to understand 'myth' in terms that undermine the historical accuracy of the accounts containing this element.

Now that I have presented evidence to challenge this position, instead of doing the decent thing and engaging with that evidence, you twist my words.

Not very scholarly, I'm afraid.

Again, there is no contradiction to suggest that the Greeks thought one thing and current historical thinking is something else.

Even if we are to accept your assertion that Greeks labelled one set of knowledge as 'historical' and another as 'myth', there is little evidence to suggest that they took the former to be 'valuable example' and the latter to be 'worthless lies'. Indeed, the example of Socrates in Plato uses masses of examples from across genres, because it doesn't seem to matter to him what kind of sources examples come from.

Even if this 'good accurate historical knowledge' idea existed amongst the Ancient Greeks, that doesn't mean it has to exist now.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You expect me to be worried about what Wikipedia says??

[Killing me] [Killing me]

Simply dismissing Voltaire's opinion because it comes via Wikipedia should be worrying you far more.

To be fair to Herodotus, he may have been simply reporting inaccurate accounts accurately. But that they are mixed up with accurate reports makes it difficult to discern either. A feature common in many ancient texts...
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
For perspective, Wikipedia is no less accurate than any published encyclopedia.
But, whatever, EE. You are arguing for Wood, who holds a minority opinion, and you back him by your casual observation at a museum. This is more trustworthy?
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
The thing is, EE, the way you're arguing, it comes across as if you have a prior viewpoint, and you're frantically scrabbling round trying to find stuff to back that viewpoint up. The way someone like Doc Tor posts is that he actually has a good and wide grasp of the subject matter, and actually understands the nuances and principles he's talking about.

I mean, this part of your earlier post:

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
...myth is not a mere story or fiction but an integral and essential instrument for the maintenance of actual human life in the world.
So therefore 'myth' could correspond to actual events or it could not. Barr makes clear that myth is functional, and so it does not follow that it should rely on fictional elements. It may or it may not.

If I were to agree with Gamaliel that all ancient texts contain 'myth', then that is saying nothing at all other than that those texts have a function. They could be historically accurate or they may not be. As Barr has made clear, the function of 'myth' is independent of historical accuracy. That does not therefore mean that myth is dependent on historical inaccuracy. Myth can draw on fiction and on fact. It's independent. That is what the word 'independent' means.

In fact, to be honest, on this definition, virtually all historical accounts from all ages contain 'myth'. It has nothing necessarily to do with fiction.

just seems to back up Doc Tor's point earlier that you haven't grasped what story is about. I get the impression that you think that story and fiction are interchangeable words. And actually, what you're saying above is reasonably close to what people have been trying to explain to you on this thread (other than, it's not a binary choice between corresponding to actual events / not corresponding to actual events, but a muddy, hard to separate mixture of the two.

There are two huge principles that I think you haven't grasped.

1. Whenever anyone retells the past, what they tell is not a 100% accurate facsimile of what happened. They interpret, they choose some details over others. They embellish, they stress importance, they omit. And if the retelling is second or third hand, then you have further layers of selection and interpretation. There is not a choice between accurate/historical on the one hand, and fictional/myth on the other hand. Everything contains elements of both. Modern history leans towards the accurate/historical end of the scale, but there is always an element of the mythical in everything. Histories conflict, because different people report from different perspectives.

2. The realisation that people are wired to understand through story. Story is how we communicate, we understand. We don't comprehend things through a list of facts or events. We tell stories. When things happen to us, and we tell other people, we do so by forming a story of what has happened. When you see a film "based on actual events", the "true-life" events are shaped and moulded to form a story. Sometimes that involves merging individuals, shifting events around, paraphrasing or inventing dialogue. But that process isn't intended to deceive and mislead, but improve the communication of the story. Or, think of a filmed interview. You could argue that only a full, unedited version of the original footage is 'accurate'. But the problem is it's not. It has a perspective. The placement of the camera, what is in shot, and what isn't, what isn't caught on camera; all these things mean that even a single shot is still a subjective viewpoint. So, cutting that interview up, taking out words, shifting parts around, omitting unnecessary parts isn't censoring or deceiving. It's making the communication of the story better. It's working with the original media to form something that is useful for communicating messages - principles, ideas, themes - through story. Story is nothing to do with saying something is fictional. Story is about understanding how people understand. Fiction and non-fiction are both conveyed through story.

I think it would help this discussion a lot more if you had a grasp of those two principles.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You expect me to be worried about what Wikipedia says??

[Killing me] [Killing me]

I think that Wikipedia is a hell of a lot more reliable than some random person on the internet. Which is all any of us are. I think some random person on the internet is more reliable than someone pushing an agenda so hard he's been frozen out of his own academic discipline for ten years and is generally treated like a crank (Wood). And I think that someone generally treated like a crank in their own discipline is more reliable than a proof-texted snippets from a debate going on fifty years ago and who is a known victim of quote mining.

The other point about the book of Joshua is that as far as we can tell it was written in the Babylonian Exile. Even if it was intended to be history as near as we can tell it was written seven hundred years after the time it happened and without modern archaeology. If it was understood and accepted to be right, it was understood and accepted to be right by people who lived almost a thousand years after the events in question.

How good is your thirteenth century history?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs
The thing is, EE, the way you're arguing, it comes across as if you have a prior viewpoint, and you're frantically scrabbling round trying to find stuff to back that viewpoint up. The way someone like Doc Tor posts is that he actually has a good and wide grasp of the subject matter, and actually understands the nuances and principles he's talking about.

No, actually I have made clear that the evidence is inconclusive and that 'myth' - properly understood - has a function, which is communicated through accounts which may or may not be historically accurate. As Professor Barr made clear, 'myth' functions independently of the question of historical accuracy, which, of course, is not the same as saying that it is dependent on historical inaccuracy.

Whatever Doc Tor may or may not understand, I can only go on what he communicates, and I'm afraid I am not convinced that he does have a good grasp of the subject, given his total misunderstanding of the concept of 'axiom'.

I would have thought it was painfully obvious that a 'story' can be either true or not true, and can function as a 'story' within the context of fact or fiction. It is absurd to expect me to change my view of that purely on the basis of the bare assertion that some anonymous bloke on the internet called 'Doc Tor' insists that I should trust him, in the absence of any evidence.

quote:
I get the impression that you think that story and fiction are interchangeable words.
Then I suggest you reread my posts. You accuse me of having a bias, but it is clear to me that you are just seeing what you want to see. Nowhere did I say or even imply such a thing.

quote:
There are two huge principles that I think you haven't grasped.

1. Whenever anyone retells the past, what they tell is not a 100% accurate facsimile of what happened. They interpret, they choose some details over others. They embellish, they stress importance, they omit. And if the retelling is second or third hand, then you have further layers of selection and interpretation. There is not a choice between accurate/historical on the one hand, and fictional/myth on the other hand. Everything contains elements of both. Modern history leans towards the accurate/historical end of the scale, but there is always an element of the mythical in everything. Histories conflict, because different people report from different perspectives.

Well your thinking is wrong. I have grasped this from a very early age as a matter of fact. In fact, it is so obvious it hardly needs saying.

But, what you are saying is quite wrong in one respect. It is certainly true that accounts can be embellished or 'spun', with emphasis laid on one point rather than the other. In fact, I even made that point in the post from which you have quoted, but you seem to be blind to it (because, of course, you are just spinning a version of what you want to see from my comment). My reference to my A-level history course many years ago included this view.

However, it does not follow that there has to be a mixture of fact and fiction in the retelling of an account. You say "everything contains elements of both". But you cannot possibly know that. That is a wild assumption without any evidential support.

Furthermore, you are using the word 'mythical' in a way that I have not used it. In fact, as Professor Barr made clear, 'mythical' does not equate to "not historically accurate" or 'fictional' or "made up" or "not objectively true". So I don't think you really understand this subject, despite your claims. It is clear to me that you don't really understand the role of myth, and that you are presenting a highly simplistic analysis based on binary thinking.

quote:
2. The realisation that people are wired to understand through story. Story is how we communicate, we understand. We don't comprehend things through a list of facts or events. We tell stories. When things happen to us, and we tell other people, we do so by forming a story of what has happened. When you see a film "based on actual events", the "true-life" events are shaped and moulded to form a story. Sometimes that involves merging individuals, shifting events around, paraphrasing or inventing dialogue. But that process isn't intended to deceive and mislead, but improve the communication of the story. Or, think of a filmed interview. You could argue that only a full, unedited version of the original footage is 'accurate'. But the problem is it's not. It has a perspective. The placement of the camera, what is in shot, and what isn't, what isn't caught on camera; all these things mean that even a single shot is still a subjective viewpoint. So, cutting that interview up, taking out words, shifting parts around, omitting unnecessary parts isn't censoring or deceiving. It's making the communication of the story better. It's working with the original media to form something that is useful for communicating messages - principles, ideas, themes - through story. Story is nothing to do with saying something is fictional. Story is about understanding how people understand. Fiction and non-fiction are both conveyed through story.
That is one long paragraph of stating the painfully obvious. As if any of us didn't know this!

So what? And your point is...?

In fact, you are confirming my view that the historical account in the Bible could be essentially accurate, because as you say "story is nothing to do with saying something is fictional". When have I ever disputed that?

I really don't know why you bothered to write your last post, because none of it undermines my view that we cannot just assume that there are untrue / false / made up / historically inaccurate elements to the account of the destruction of Jericho. Other than, of course, your claim that every account contains a mixture of fiction and fact, which is merely an assumption.

In fact, your two principles contradict each other, because in the first you insist that accounts contain a mixture of fiction and fact, and in the second you say that stories have nothing to do with fiction, even though the reporting of an event introduces the fictional element.

So clearly you have no right to speak to me in such a patronising way, when you can't even present to me a logically harmonious account of your views, and also you fail to understand what I wrote in the long post to which you refer.

Sorry, mate, but you can't expect anyone to respect an incoherent position.

[ 11. March 2014, 16:43: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
This is priceless.

First Doc Tor misunderstands the meaning of axiom now everyone else's argument seems to be incoherent and only EE is the one able to put together a logically coherent and convincing case.

Of course, silly us, we should have realised that from the outside. It's axiomatic.

As far as EE is concerned ...
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So clearly you have no right to speak to me in such a patronising way, when you can't even present to me a logically harmonious account of your views, and also you fail to understand what I wrote in the long post to which you refer.

Sorry, mate, but you can't expect anyone to respect an incoherent position.

I'm sure he's gutted. And I'm cut to the quick too. But just in case he hasn't fainted into his mint julep out on the veranda:

Dear goperryrevs, I'll still respect you, whichever position you might find yourself in.

[Big Grin]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
only EE is the one able to put together a logically coherent and convincing case.

Of course, silly us, we should have realised that from the outside. It's axiomatic.

Proof! I demand proof!
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Alright, Gamaliel, then you explain the following:

1. What an axiom is. (I will then check it against the definition in a dictionary of philosophy).

2. What you understand by the word 'myth'. How does it function?

3. The interrelationship between fact and fiction in the historical accounts of the Old Testament, providing us with a method of distinguishing between the two.

Instead of a cheap shot ad hominem (which is frankly getting so boring), why don't you actually engage with the subject?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
In fact, you are confirming my view that the historical account in the Bible could be essentially accurate,

And herein lies a major issue. Wherein lies your history? Where is the boundary between myth (Adam and Eve) and history (Roman occupation of the Holy Land)?
And why should any of the bible be historically accurate?
That is not the point.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge
Yet assorted archaeological finds, and researches into other texts from the relevant period, confirm that at least some of the individuals mentioned in Beowulf did exist. It turns out that there was in fact a Danish King Hrothgar, for example (he’s the king to whose aid Beowulf, a Geatish hero, came in the poem); Hrothgar did live at Hereot (the Great Hall mentioned in the poem). Archaeological digs have found what is widely supposed to be Hereot. Further, there are references in the poem to events that are known to have happened, as they’re described in other texts from the times.

Hang on... how can you find confirmation from "other texts from the times" when those texts are also presumably full of fictional elements?
First, some pedantry: Nowhere in my post did I mention "fiction." I deliberately avoided this term because, AFAIK, "fictions" are counterfactual narratives deliberately created by writers who know their accounts to be counterfactual while writing them, and who create the accounts for readers who also understand the accounts to be counterfactual. In the ancient world, Aesop's fables were fiction. Both writers and hearers / readers knew that neither foxes nor crows talk, and that foxes can't flatter crows into dropping their grapes for the foxes to eat. What's "true" about the story is its moral; its events are counterfactual. There is no intention to deceive here. Neither is there any expectation that hearers / readers will treat the counterfactual narrative as factual.

“Myth” is a different kettle of fish altogether. While it, too, may be counterfactual, it also may not be. The intent is different from that of fiction: it’s a genuine effort to explain some phenomenon. The explainer may or may not believe the details of the explanation; it may be that the explainer’s culture holds explanations, however imaginative or far-fetched, at a higher premium than “facts.” Alternatively, the explainer may genuinely believe the explanation. Still, myth is not an attempt to deceive or persuade, but simply to account for something which the explainer can’t otherwise account for. There may be some expectation that the myth is handled – repeated, passed on, etc. – more or less as if it were “fact.”

In the case of the Beowulfian dragon, what is going on? Is this bit of Beowulf “fiction?” Unlikely; for starters, "fiction" as we moderns understand the term, did not yet exist in the Anglo-Saxon world. For another, all you have to do is read the poem to understand its purpose: to memorialize the deeds of a great culture hero, not to create a counterfactual narrative about him.

So if the dragon isn’t fiction, what is it? Is it myth?

In point of fact, dragons pop up with great regularity in ancient literary texts across a wide swathe of cultures, centuries, and languages. Since dragons don't exist, and have never, AFAWK, existed, how do we explain this teeming population of non-existent literary beasts? There are various explanations:

1. We're wrong. Dragons really did co-exist with humans at some point in time, and references to these experiences linger on in originally-oral literary traditions.

2. Dragons became a common literary device among scribers of oral traditions who had no contact with each other to indicate or explain "something big and scary happened at this point in the story, but we're not sure what."

3. Dragons are mythological efforts to explain death, destruction, and other forms of human misfortune.

4. Scribers and/or those who passed on the original oral tradition believed in dragons because some people had come across fossil evidence and this was how they explained that evidence to themselves.

Did the writer of Beowulf (we don't know who wrote it down) believe in the existence of dragons? There’s no way to know. All we can really know is that the dragon episode apparently formed part of the oral tradition Beowulf was (and had been for some time) and got written down with the rest. It’s important to understand that (at least for most European literatures) “authority” – that is, the forms and contents (and where known, the authors) of literary work took precedence over creativity and originality; a work’s provenance lay in its strict adherence to handed-down tradition. So it’s unlikely the Beowulfian scribe simply inserted the “dragon” bits for his own or others’ entertainment, i.e., developed them as fiction. He may not have known they were counterfactual; he may or may not have assumed his readers would understand them as such.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Gamaliel is making a sweeping statement about ALL - I repeat ALL - ancient texts, and he even goes so far as to say that it is self-evident that ancient texts contain mythic elements. So we cannot then decide that some texts are historically accurate and some are not.

The question arises: if some of the information in these texts is historically accurate, and the rest is not, how do we decide which elements are myth are which are not?

I can’t speak for Gamaliel, but I assume he (she?) gives you credit for knowing that there are many kinds of ancient texts. Some of course, are official records, kept primarily for the purpose of making sure that subjects know who was king, and what they did, and who is to be king next, and what the laws are, etc. There are other texts which indicate how certain crimes are handled. There are texts which are simple correspondence between one party and another. There are inventories, and treaties, and wills, and trade agreements. There are literary texts. Much of this stuff is fragmentary, and it involves different writers from different places. Household inventories and letters and wills may not contain mythic elements, but they often do contain information about places, approximate dates, and individuals. Cross-referencing these kinds of materials with figures mentioned in literature can give us some plausible sense -- in a few cases -- of “what really happened” even if it can’t be considered iron-clad proof.

So when a historian discovers an “official” list of Scandinavian kings that includes a Danish one named Hrothgar and another Geatish one named Beowulf (by the end of the poem, he’s king of the Geats), and the dates of the list are consistent with the date of the text of the poem, this tends to confirm the historicity of the figures named in the poem. It doesn’t, of course, prove their historicity. But then if more documents of the right linguistic characteristics and dating – treaties, trades, correspondence, etc.— turn up mentioning these figures, the evidence for the figures’ historicity grows.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
There must be some independent arbiter that enables us to disentangle the truth from the fiction.

Again, I’m not talking about fiction. I referred solely to one epic poem, and it appears to contain some limited information that may be historically accurate, while also containing at least one element that seems to be mythological.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You say that we can use "other texts", but that doesn't help us, because "other texts" are part of the corpus of information, the absolute veracity of which is being questioned!

I should have been more clear. Such ancient textual material which has come down to us is of many different types. Literary works are substantially different from other, “official” texts. An inventory of the king’s household goods, or the will of a noble lady, or a treaty between two neighboring states, are unlikely to incorporate much mythology. Literary works, often originating in oral traditions which have been handed down from even more ancient times, often (but probably not always) will.

Further, “veracity” is not a standard I understand with reference to literary works. Literature can serve all sorts of purposes, but there’s nearly always a human point-of-view behind any given work. Humans can be ignorant of some or all the “facts” they base their writing on; they can know the “facts” but choose to distort or ignore them; they can misunderstand or mistranslate works by others, and on and on. We look to literature for a wider grasp of the human condition, not for factual veracity. Literature may include facts and veracity, but that’s not what it’s for.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

1. What an axiom is. (I will then check it against the definition in a dictionary of philosophy).

Not sure why a paper dictionary is better than an online one, but here goes:

Oxford Dictionary of Philosophy by Simon Blackburn 1996 edition pg 32

quote:
axiom A proposition laid down as one from which we may begin; an assertion that is taken as fundamental, at least for the purposes of the branch of enquiry in hand. The axiomatic method is that of defining a set of such propositions, and the proof procedures or rules of inference that are permissible, and the deriving the theorems that result
You are welcome.

[ 11. March 2014, 17:53: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
It is clear to me that you don't really understand the role of myth, and that you are presenting a highly simplistic analysis based on binary thinking.

There's some beautiful irony here:

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:I would have thought it was painfully obvious that a 'story' can be either true or not true, and can function as a 'story' within the context of fact or fiction.
I have lost count of the number of times that you have boiled a continuum down to either/or binary claims, and you continue to do it. True/not true, fact/fiction, accurate/inaccurate. Where is the nuance?

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:In fact, you are confirming my view that the historical account in the Bible could be essentially accurate, because as you say "story is nothing to do with saying something is fictional". When have I ever disputed that?
It is not about you disputing it. It is about your inability to grasp it. Which is my perception, and continues to be.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:However, it does not follow that there has to be a mixture of fact and fiction in the retelling of an account. You say "everything contains elements of both". But you cannot possibly know that. That is a wild assumption without any evidential support.
Actually, I was careful with my words. I did not say that everything is a mixture of fact and fiction. I used "accurate/historical" and "fictional/myth" as the two ingredients. And that's why I made the two points I did, because accurate/historical != fact. Nothing can ever be fully accurate, because, as I have pointed out (and as you appear to agree), everything is an interpretation; things are edited and omitted. Including the account of the destruction of Jericho. Nothing is fully historical - nothing possibly can be. Of course, something can be more historical than something else, but they are at points on a continuum.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:It is certainly true that accounts can be embellished or 'spun', with emphasis laid on one point rather than the other.
Not can be. Are. All are. Everything is presented from a certain point of view.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:In fact, I even made that point in the post from which you have quoted, but you seem to be blind to it
No, because I pointed out that what you were saying was very close to what people have been trying to tell you.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:In fact, as Professor Barr made clear, 'mythical' does not equate to "not historically accurate" or 'fictional' or "made up" or "not objectively true".
I know that this is the case, and he is right. If the way I have used words has suggested that he is not, then either I have not been clear or you have misunderstood.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:It is absurd to expect me to change my view of that purely on the basis of the bare assertion that some anonymous bloke on the internet called 'Doc Tor' insists that I should trust him, in the absence of any evidence.
Well, of course. But the same goes for you. My perception is that this thread has been you vs everyone else for a while now, and that your arguments have been distraction, binary and selective, and that others have countered with reasoned, comprehensive and nuanced understandings. I'm sure your perception is that you are a lone voice of reason mastering a bunch of thickies. But, well, we both have our perceptions and can form our own narratives.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:In fact, you are confirming my view that the historical account in the Bible could be essentially accurate, because as you say "story is nothing to do with saying something is fictional".
Well, yes and no. So long as you concede that "essentially accurate" is still from a point of view. As I have said, everything falls somewhere on a scale of accuracy. The questions are 'how accurate?', 'which bits?', and 'in what ways?'. Others have given plenty of food for thought in relation to these questions, and I don't see the need to go over them again.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:none of it undermines my view that we cannot just assume that there are untrue / false / made up / historically inaccurate elements to the account of the destruction of Jericho. Other than, of course, your claim that every account contains a mixture of fiction and fact, which is merely an assumption.
Again, I didn't claim that everything contains a mixture of fiction and fact. You're conflating things and misunderstanding my point. The point is not that we can assume that bits of the story are made up / false etc. The point is that we can assume that the story is not 100% accurate. Because nothing can ever be 100% accurate. That's why I bothered to write my last post. Because the question that immediately follows that is then "how accurate is this story?", not "is this story accurate or not?", which is the binary question that you seem to be asking. That's when we bring in literary principles and look at myth and archaeology and all the rest of it.

When we read a biography, the person we encounter is not the real person who existed. One biography might be more accurate than another. We are presented an image of the real person. When we read scripture, we do not encounter the real Moses; we encounter an image of him. Same goes for Joshua, Mary, Joseph, Jesus, and even God. They are all characters in a story. They give us an image of the real characters and events, but they can never be a full and complete 100% accurate image. The events that are described can never be a full and comprehensive description. Things are edited out, things are interpreted.

The stance you have advocated <I take it all at face value unless someone gives me a good reason not to> is woefully inadequate. It fails to ask the questions as to how we ended up with this story, this version of events, this point of view. It fails to dig deeper and wrestle with the scripture, the story.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:So I don't think you really understand this subject, despite your claims.
I claim to understand very little. You appear to be an expert in everything. I offer my perspective and opinion in a genuine hope that you, I and others can come to a better understanding. I don't mean to patronize - I'm sure you don't either, despite my perception being that your posts can come across as incredibly patronizing. I'm sure your mileage varies. But, please consider that maybe there's something in the fact that you are a totally lone voice here. It could be that you understand something that the rest of us can't grasp. Alternatively... ?

quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Dear goperryrevs, I'll still respect you, whichever position you might find yourself in.

[Big Grin]

Thanks Doc [Smile]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
What Goperryrevs said.

In spades.

Pedantically, I might suggest he said 'Jesus and even God the Father', rather than 'Jesus and even God' - which could imply that Jesus isn't God ... but I know Goperryrevs isn't saying that.

To go back to the challenges EE has given me.

Well, the definition of an axiom has been given several times on this thread already. Need I repeat it?

As for what constitutes myth, well, a quick online definition is:

'A traditional story, especially one concerning the early history of a people or explaining a natural or social phenomenon, and typically involving supernatural beings or events.'

There's more to it than that, but it's a fair enough start.

As to how we differentiate between myth and actual, literal history - well, I'm not sure this is even the right question to ask in this context.

Of course, the ancients could and did differentiate between myth and objective fact/reality but they weren't at all squeamish about combining the two in the same narrative form.

So, for instance, Tacitus has no problem in ventriloquising a pre-battle speech into the mouth of Calgacus, King of the Picts before his defeat by the Romans at Mons Graupius.

Of course, it's feasible, but highly unlikely, that Tacitus received information on the actual contents of the speech from a captured Pict who passed it onto the Romans with the result that Tacitus had some documentary material to include in his history.

What is far more likely is that he is using a conventional literary device of the time. Imagining what Calgacus may have said under those circumstances.

That doesn't mean that Calgacus didn't exist or that the battle didn't take place.

Same thing with the OT stories. Who was there to transcribe Jonah's lament from inside the belly of the great fish?

Are we seriously saying that he found time to compose a Psalm while he was in a fish's gut at the bottom of the sea?

Sure, Chidiock Tichborne composed a very elegant and moving elegy on the eve of his execution in the reign of Elizabeth I but do we take that as some kind of 'proof' that Jonah did something similar?

It's a complete missing of the point. As I've said upthread, it's like speculating about where Cain and Abel's wives came from.

How can we tell the difference between literal and mythological elements in the scriptures?

I don't think we can in all instances and I don't think it matters either. We come to our conclusions based on engaging with the texts, attempting to understand how these work and the various genres, conditions, literary elements and everything else involved.

The lazy way out is to simply say, 'I'll take it at face value purely because the tradition I belong to takes it that way ...' Or, even more lazily, neither recognise nor accept that we operate within an interpretative framework formed by a whole range of factors including our particular religious tradition.

But I've said all this before. I don't really know where I'm required to reiterate what is an entirely reasonable and well attested position.

The only reason to challenge such a position, it seems to me, is if one is inveterately wedded to a particular late 19th/early 20th century view of scriptural inerrancy and has invested one's emotional stability and security in it.

Why else would anyone argue such a case? There's no requirement to hold to a literalist approach within either scripture or tradition - or Tradition come to that.

I know what I'll hear now ...

'Evidence? Evidence?'

[Roll Eyes]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I have just been looking at EE's sources. Wardman's paper begins:

quote:
The value of myth and the mystical was one of the major problems raised in the development of Greek historical writing. A large part of available material, both oral and written, was mystical in kind; it consisted of genealogies and stories about the time when gods and men were on closer terms. Many such 'facts' were accessible in Homer and Hesiod. There were, too, numerous local traditions, dealing with such topics as the founding of cities, anecdotes related by local guides and preserved out of patriotic satisfaction. As historians came to concentrate on their own times, or the recent past, making use of oral sources and personal observations, they discovered that their own enquiries were often in conflict with versions of the myths. Not surprisingly, mythical and historical came to be considered as opposites, and mythical, in the sense of 'untrue', became almost a by-word. Myth seemed likely to be rejected from all historical work; but since the material was abundant and the stories well known, critics and historians continued to discuss the place of myth in history. This paper is an attempt to illustrate the ways in which Greek writers tried to save myth for history; and to indicate briefly on the validity of myth in historical writing as compared to its validity in philosophy and rhetoric.
The paragraph that EE quoted is immediately followed by this:

quote:
Both men contributed to understanding the correct place of myth. But it so happened that Herodotus' remarks were overlooked in antiquity. It was thought that Thucydides, in excluding the mythical, was probably making a silent criticism of Herodotus for incorporating stories about 'Candaules and Gyges, Croesus and Adrestos, Polykrates and his ring, Xerxes' dream before the sailing of the armada and Hippas' dream before Marathon'. These stories are not mythical in the same was as the story about Heracles; they contain marvellous, exotic elements, strange coincidences, and deal with the recent past or foreign parts. They do not raise problems about antiquity, e.g. as to when the heroic period began to shade into the merely historical. In view of this interpretation of Thucydides, and in view of the number of stories in Herodotus, it was easy to forget what he as said about myth elsewhere, and to ignore the fact that he did not necessarily believe all the stories he told.
Both emphases mine.

About this, EE wrote

quote:
In other words, an eminent classical scholar has confirmed in a peer-reviewed journal that these two ancient Greek historians (5th century BC) were well able to distinguish fact from myth (especially Thucydides) and, moreover, were well able to provide historical accounts excluding what they regarded as mythic elements.

This clearly shows that the claim that "all ancient texts contain myth" is spurious (depending on how we define 'myth' of course, as I will go on to explain). There were historians in the Ancient World who regarded themselves as responsible conveyors of the truth, and who are we to assume that they were deluded?

In fact the paper offers the exact opposite of this opinion - that the writers mentioned were attempting to save myth for history and that Thucydides, whilst excluding the more mythical heroic stories than Herodotus, included stories that he didn't even believe.

And one final part of this paper:

quote:
Myth in the strict sense dealt with the events of the remote past. This raises a different problem; so far we have been considering historians who wrote about events within or near their own lifetime, or later writers who used the works of such historians. It is easy to see that myth could only be incidental to the main theme. But when writers approached the remote past, with a view to constructing history, they found myth at the centre of their subject. These myths had to be converted, if possible, into history.
I'm sorry EE, I don't know where you think you got this source from, or who told you that it supports your position, but the text of your own sourced evidence disagrees with the position you're making.

I can't actually see why you would use this source to support your position. It makes me wonder about your sanity.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs
The stance you have advocated <I take it all at face value unless someone gives me a good reason not to> is woefully inadequate. It fails to ask the questions as to how we ended up with this story, this version of events, this point of view. It fails to dig deeper and wrestle with the scripture, the story.

Except that that is not the stance that I have ever advocated. Not once have I suggested that we should not dig deeper and wrestle with the Scripture. But wrestling and digging deeper is not dependent on assuming that the scriptural account is not true. It is precisely because I believe the Bible is true that I wrestle with it.

What I have been asking is essentially this: is the historical account of the destruction of Jericho as recorded in the book of Joshua basically true? Did God actually command the Israelites under Joshua to attack Jericho and put all the inhabitants (except Rahab and family) to the sword? Did the method of defeating Jericho occur essentially in the way that it is described?

Yes or no.

If the answer is 'no', then I don't think it is unreasonable (lone voice or not) for me to ask for the workings out that have led to that conclusion.

But all I have read is essentially a variation on the tortured theme of "it is axiomatic / self-evident that all ancient accounts contain myth - even though the concept of myth is subject to all sorts of interpretation - and therefore this account in Joshua must contain myth / story / fiction / embellishment / metaphor and so on and so on... and why can't you just accept that from us, some of whom are clearly experts and you just don't understand the principles involved etc etc..."

OK. Let's cut to the chase then.

I give up. I will happily concede till the cows come home the meaning of axiom, myth, story and all the rest of it. Fine. Consider that all of you have won the internet. Congratulations!

But what I want to know is this. If the account of the destruction of Jericho is not essentially true - i.e. it actually happened as basically described, then which bits of the account are not true, and furthermore, how did you arrive at that conclusion?

Or do we just say: we don't know?

Fine.

If that is the case, then as far as anyone knows the account could be historically accurate. Which is what I have been saying all along.

What I simply cannot accept (and I don't care whether it is me against the rest of the planet, quite frankly), is to be railroaded into accepting a position, simply because the majority seem to espouse it, based entirely on assumptions and circular arguments.

Gamaliel may moan that I ask for evidence. But that is a strange complaint. What alternative is there to evidence? Subjective opinion? What you had for breakfast? Feelings claimed to be from the Holy Spirit?

So yes, I do ask for one thing:

EVIDENCE.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Well I think pydsey's last post is a perfect example of spin. What I said clearly was that those Greek historians were able to distinguish between myth and accurate history. Which is undeniably true both from what I quoted from the article and from what pydsey has quoted.

A reference to my sanity is clear evidence that pydsey's motive in this debate is less than pure.

What sort of person (indeed what sort of so called 'Christian') insinuates that another person is insane, simply on the basis of a different interpretation of a scholarly paper?

Shame on you.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Well I think pydsey's last post is a perfect example of spin. What I said clearly was that those Greek historians were able to distinguish between myth and accurate history. Which is undeniably true both from what I quoted from the article and from what pydsey has quoted.

But the article says the exact opposite. Herodotus included stories such as the Ring of Gyges - which is myth, but in a different sense than the stories of Heracles. And whilst Thucydides did not include these stories, his other writings included stories he did not believe in. Both of these writers were engaged in 'reconstructing history' and 'saving myth for history' by repackaging the stories to make them sound less mythical. That is what the paper says, and what it says it is actually about.

quote:
A reference to my sanity is clear evidence that pydsey's motive in this debate is less than pure.

What sort of person (indeed what sort of so called 'Christian') insinuates that another person is insane, simply on the basis of a different interpretation of a scholarly paper?

Shame on you.

Shame on you for quoting paragraphs from a paper that actually disagrees with your premise.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Pydsey, no reasonable person will waste his time with people who question his sanity.

Therefore, from now on I am skipping your posts. You can say what you like, and in your imagination you can have the luxury of winning whatever argument you like without fear of contradiction. Congratulations! But I won't be reading your stuff. Frankly, I've had enough of the childish insults. I've better things to do in life.

Nuff said.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I see.

1. You supply a source.

2. You insist that others should engage with your source.

3. I read your source and it doesn't actually say what your selective paragraphs say it says - to the extent that I'm left wondering how you can possibly sanely use this source in support of your argument

4. This is obviously evidence of childish insults.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
It wouldn't be right for me to 'play Host' but as someone who has fired off ad hominem remarks here and elsewhere, I'm expecting you to get a tap on the shoulder, Pydseybare.

Questioning someone's ability to correctly interpret evidence is one thing, questioning their sanity something else ...

Howbeit, I can certainly understand your exasperation.

@EE - I'm not suggesting that we don't supply evidence, simply that there are also reasonable assumptions we can make and stating that ancient historiographies contain both mythical and factual elements is one of them.

I really don't see why you are making such a big deal of this. Unless you somehow believe that the Bible doesn't follow the patterns and characteristics expected of other forms of ancient literature then I don't know why it's such a big deal.

As to whether the fall of Jericho occurred in exactly the way the Bible describes, with miraculously tumbling walls, Rahab and the spies, a massacre and so on ...

I'm not sure it's even the right question to ask.

However, if we do ask it then my answer would differ according to what stage in life - or what stage in faith, if you like - I happened to be in.

If you'd asked me as an earnest young evangelical of about 25 or so, I would have answered differently to how I would answer now.

Then, I would have said that whilst I didn't like the implications, I would be reluctant to consider the story mythological in case in so doing I was being disbelieving and sceptical or undermining any sense of God's interaction and supernatural intervention in the world.

Now, I wouldn't be so squeamish.

If you're asking me to give a rationale or method for how to discern which incidents are 'factual' and which mythological - then no, I couldn't do that nor would I feel the need to do so.

That's not the point.

And that's not a subjective, what the Lord told me to eat for breakfast this morning response either.

It's one based on reason and wrestling with the text and with tradition.

I really don't see the problem. It's not an issue. As I've said before, it's only an issue if we want to make it an issue and then in most cases because we might still be wedded to a particular view of scriptural inerrancy and how the Bible 'works'.

I'm not at all wedded to a late 19th/early 20th century model of scriptural inerrancy so the whole issue of the literal historicity of Joshua isn't really an issue for me.

I find it hard to understand why it remains such an issue for you, quite frankly. Unless you've invested a whole load of emotional capital into it.

But that's your business and not mine.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
I really don't see why you are making such a big deal of this. Unless you somehow believe that the Bible doesn't follow the patterns and characteristics expected of other forms of ancient literature then I don't know why it's such a big deal.

Well, truth is a big deal. In fact, it's the "biggest deal" of the lot.

But if this whole discussion is such a bind, then why don't you just ignore it? Why do you keep coming back to this thread? That suggests to me that this issue does matter to you, contrary to your protestations.

If it really doesn't matter to you whether the account in Joshua is true or not, then I can't understand your insistence on correcting me, when, in fact, nothing I have said should be of any concern to you. All I have said is that the account could be true.

On the basis of what you have just written, the idea that the account could be true should present you with no difficulty or anxiety.

So can we leave it there then?

If we cannot leave it there, then clearly this whole issue does matter to you, and you can't then come back and post another comment telling us all that "it's no big deal" - or words to that effect!

How about it?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Yes, truth does matter. Something can be true and yet not be literally true.

We've had that out before.

And somehow you won't accept it.

It's not just me, either. Goperryrevs and others have been saying how these things don't fall into neat dichotomies of truth/fiction and so on.

The world isn't as simple as that. The scriptures aren't as simple as that.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Originally posted by Etymological Evangelical:

quote:
What I said clearly was that those Greek historians were able to distinguish between myth and accurate history. Which is undeniably true both from what I quoted from the article and from what pydsey has quoted.
In point of fact both Herodotus and Thucydides attempted to distinguish between myth and accurate history but neither was completely successful in their attempt to do so.

I'm not sure what any of this has to do with the Book of Joshua who baldly narrates his story from beginning to end, unlike Thucydides and Herodotus who explain that there are variant accounts of the events in question and that they have done their best to rule between competing accounts. It doesn't exactly follow that because some classical authors at least understood the distinction between myth and accurate history it was understood by everyone, across the known world, between the Middle Bronze Age and the Fall of Rome.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Yes, truth does matter. Something can be true and yet not be literally true.

I certainly accept that principle.

In fact, I regard the entirety of Revelation chapter 13 as symbolic, rather than as a mixture of symbol and literal event, so I take a symbolic view of the idea of being branded with the mark of the beast, for example. Many Christians don't take that view.

You talk as if this issue has never occurred to me, but I have thought about this for decades. Honestly, give me a break, man.

But just because this principle is true does not mean that we can assume that every account in the Bible is either 'true' in the non-literal sense, or is a mixture. We have to take each account on its own merits, looking at the style of literature and the context.

On the basis of that, I am not convinced that I must accept that there are basically fictional (i.e. not actually true) elements in the account in Joshua, especially considering that no one seems to be able to tell me which bits are not true!

But, like I said, it doesn't matter, does it? At least that's what you think, so you say.

So what difference does it make if I believe that the account in Joshua could be true?

What's the big deal?

Why are we even discussing this?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gildas
I'm not sure what any of this has to do with the Book of Joshua who baldly narrates his story from beginning to end, unlike Thucydides and Herodotus who explain that there are variant accounts of the events in question and that they have done their best to rule between competing accounts. It doesn't exactly follow that because some classical authors at least understood the distinction between myth and accurate history it was understood by everyone, across the known world, between the Middle Bronze Age and the Fall of Rome.

I made this point in response to the claim that all ancient writings are purported to contain what is referred to as 'myth'. And that the truth of this claim is 'self-evident'.

Clearly it is not self-evident. Not by any stretch of the imagination.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Except that that is not the stance that I have ever advocated. Not once have I suggested that we should not dig deeper and wrestle with the Scripture. But wrestling and digging deeper is not dependent on assuming that the scriptural account is not true. It is precisely because I believe the Bible is true that I wrestle with it.

You might not have said you don't. You have shown you don't.

quote:
What I have been asking is essentially this: is the historical account of the destruction of Jericho as recorded in the book of Joshua basically true? Did God actually command the Israelites under Joshua to attack Jericho and put all the inhabitants (except Rahab and family) to the sword? Did the method of defeating Jericho occur essentially in the way that it is described?

Yes or no.

And you have then been using the flimsiest of pretexts to attempt to dismiss the overwhelming mass of evidence that points to the answer no.

quote:
If the answer is 'no', then I don't think it is unreasonable (lone voice or not) for me to ask for the workings out that have led to that conclusion.
I have shown that it is incompatible with other parts of the bible, those that show the tribes that Joshua genocided to still be alive. It has been shown that it is incompatible with radiocarbon dating and the best archaeology we have. It has been shown that the overwhelming archaeological consensus is against your position - and the one fringe guy you can dig up is unable to get published. You have asked and you have been answered.

quote:
But all I have read is essentially a variation on the tortured theme of "it is axiomatic / self-evident that all ancient accounts contain myth - even though the concept of myth is subject to all sorts of interpretation - and therefore this account in Joshua must contain myth / story / fiction / embellishment / metaphor and so on and so on... and why can't you just accept that from us, some of whom are clearly experts and you just don't understand the principles involved etc etc..."
Many of us have written more than that. Many of us have answered you with facts and evidence. If that is all you have read then there are only two conclusions I can draw.

1: You lack the competence to read what is being said on this thread
2: You are doing the internet equivalent of sticking your fingers in your ears and singing at the top of your lungs "LALALALALALA I CAN'T HEAR YOU!" And then you are asserting that you haven't heard what has been said.

quote:
But what I want to know is this. If the account of the destruction of Jericho is not essentially true - i.e. it actually happened as basically described, then which bits of the account are not true, and furthermore, how did you arrive at that conclusion?
According to the bible itself the supposed genocides did not occur because the tribes survived. Therefore that is not true. According to the best archaeological evidence we have the cities sacked were not sacked.

At this point we can conclude that when it is in direct contradiction to the bible and to archaeology where it is true it is only true by coincidence. There probably was someone named Joshua. We can not take it as reliable evidence for anything beyond that unless we reject both the bible and archaeology.

quote:
Or do we just say: we don't know?
Oh, we can say "We don't know which minor details were true - but the overwhelming majority of it is almost certainly false".

quote:
Fine.

If that is the case, then as far as anyone knows the account could be historically accurate.

And this is inventing a false dichotomy as I have shown above.

quote:
Which is what I have been saying all along.
Then try changing the record and stop torturing logic just so you don't have to wrestle with the idea that the story is fictitious.

quote:
What I simply cannot accept (and I don't care whether it is me against the rest of the planet, quite frankly), is to be railroaded into accepting a position, simply because the majority seem to espouse it, based entirely on assumptions and circular arguments.
And now out come the strawmen.

quote:
Gamaliel may moan that I ask for evidence.
Fields full of strawmen. You have been given evidence. To claim that you have not is to re-write history. What you are asking for isn't evidence. It is proof. Quite literally proof at times. The standard of evidence you are asking for is quite literally impossible to achieve.

quote:
But that is a strange complaint.
Yes, your strawman is strange.

quote:
What alternative is there to evidence?
Claiming three times you haven't been given evidence doesn't make it any more true. Now stop with the strawman.

quote:
So yes, I do ask for one thing:

EVIDENCE.

And you have been given it. You appear to have borrowed the creationist playbook. In this case demand evidence. When evidence is presented demand proof. When proof is admitted to be impossible claim you haven't been presented with evidence. When presented with evidence again flat out deny that you were presented with it. When presented a third time point out that it is incomplete and not proof.

This is why people get fed up of debating creationists. There is no evidence they will accept and they will use any possible claim they can make to attempt to deny what is actually being presented. They normally focus on Joshua - but I have seen all your rhetorical tricks before.
 
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
... So what difference does it make if I believe that the account in Joshua could be true?

What's the big deal?

Why are we even discussing this?

Because some of us are wondering why anyone would worship a Christian God that doesn't just allow, but commands genocide, and blames the victims as well.

You see, some of us think that fallible, broken humans claiming God told them to do something horrible that they wanted to do all along is WAAAAAAY more believable than the Christian God literally ordering a genocide. Why? 'Cause it happens all the time, all over the world, in every religion, even to the present day. Physics and engineering make planes fly; religion provides a reason to fly them into buildings.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Soror Magna for the win. Yes, THAT is why we're discussing this. The real question is why we're blathering about pottery.
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Soror Magna for the win. Yes, THAT is why we're discussing this. The real question is why we're blathering about pottery.

Because some of us wouldn't be here without pottery? (A few of my ancestors are from the Staffordshire potteries.)

However what God a person imagines may tell us a lot about the person.

As another aside on the Jericho story I find it interesting that Matthew in the NT make Rahab an ancestor of David (wife of Salmon and mother of Boaz) while the Talmud has her as becoming the wife of Joshua and ancestor of several important prophets (but not David).
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
I'm on a very dodgy hotspot connection to this iPad and am on shore leave anyway. Wish I hadn't done a quick catch up.

But Host duties are what they are.

pydseybare, EE, desist from shame calling and sanity doubting. You are crossing the C4 personality conflict line.

Barnabas62
Dead Horses Host

[ 12. March 2014, 06:41: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I am prepared to give you a break, EE. It doesn't seem that you are prepared to give yourself one. You are not giving yourself a break from false dichotomies and demanding empirical proofs where no such water-tight proofs can ever exist.

It simply sounds to me that you are holding onto an inveterately inerrantist position (in the 19th/early 20th century sense) because there might, just might, be the sliver of possibility that the Book of Joshua records literal historical fact in exactly the way that the stories are recorded ...

And you have convinced yourself that you are doing this in the interests of Truth.

It is analogous to the Young Earth Creationist argument.

Saying that you don't take Revelation 13 literally - unlike some fundamentalist Christians - is a form of progress I suppose ...
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But what I want to know is this. If the account of the destruction of Jericho is not essentially true - i.e. it actually happened as basically described, then which bits of the account are not true, and furthermore, how did you arrive at that conclusion?

Justinian has already beaten me to it, but all I'd say is that all sorts of people have given all sorts of answers to that question on this thread.

There are the contradiction-within-God answers, which point out that for God to have done so would be at odds with his character revealed elsewhere in scripture. So the answer might be that Joshua and the Israelites projected God's desire onto an atrocity they committed themselves.

There are the contradiction-within-Scripture answers, where other scriptures show that tribes who were apparently wiped out suddenly appear alive and well (I'm not sure how persuasive this is personally, since "all" doesn't always literally mean all, and a handful of survivors could have re-established said tribes. But I'd be willing to hear more).

There are the contradiction-from-archaeology answers, which you have engaged with, but with different conclusions to others.

There are the literary-genre answers, which compare the Pentateuch to similar documents which contain a muddy mix of history, myth and so on.

There are the when-it-was-written answers, arguing that it was likely written 700 years after the events, its historical accuracy is in question.

All these are reasonable arguments. They're not incontrovertible evidence, but we're not going to find that anywhere.

What I think you have failed to do is combat these by arguing in favour of your own default position that the stories must be fully accurate and historically reliable. That's not a neutral position (none are). Are you reasons for taking the story at face value anything other than theological? In other words, is your doctrine of scripture the starting point from which everything else is formed, or is your starting point based on a historical method, or what? To go back a page or two, it appears that you have a vested interest in the story being historically reliable, due to your theological views of scripture. Is that fair? I have no problem if that's the case, but I think it's better to be upfront about these things. That's not to accuse you of bias, but, as with Wood, I'd suggest that it might put you in danger of bias.

So, why is your starting point of <it must be essentially accurate> more reasonable than other starting points? What are your reasons for taking the passage at face value?

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
It is precisely because I believe the Bible is true that I wrestle with it.

But what do you mean by 'true'? Take for example, the four gospels. What we have are four reasonably similar accounts of the same person. As we've talked about, each is telling its own story, editing, cutting, choosing, omitting, re-ordering, interpreting, adding. I believe they are trustworthy accounts. But I don't believe that they are fully accurate, because nothing can be. Together, we have a more accurate picture than if we only had one gospel. But even then, there are contradictions and disagreements between the gospels. For me, those contradictions, far from showing that the gospels are unreliable or untrue, boost their authenticity. They are not over major facts, they are simply the results of what happens when humans try to remember or record things.

And in the rest of scripture, far from having one sole voice that tells us the 'truth', we have different viewpoints, different opinions. But through this cacophony we can hear God speak.

With the sacking of Jericho, we don't have four accounts; we have one, very possibly written a long time after the events. We have one point of view, one interpretation. Believing the Bible as a whole to be true doesn't mean that we have to take the one story at full literal face value. We too can interpret, investigate - and even disagree. I mean, do we take 2 Samuel 24 at full literal face value, or 1 Chronicles 21? (Did God cause David to take the census, or Satan?).

This thread, for me, illustrates the problem with a literal reading of scripture. It's too varied and contradictory to allow itself to be treated like that. If we take that approach, we either end up destroying our faith and rejecting the whole Bible, or developing extreme cognitive dissonance. In my humble opinion, there is another way.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Indeed, a more excellent way.

Great post, Goperryrevs.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster
However what God a person imagines may tell us a lot about the person.

That is an extremely personal comment, and it demands a response. I hope that the following response complies with the rules of this board, and so I have tried to keep the comments as general as possible, so as not to point the finger at any particular person. However, I think a general observation about attitude is a legitimate point of debate (and I speak as someone who is not exactly "whiter than white" in the attitude department).

This for me is the real "elephant in the room".

Perhaps the chief complaint against the historical reading of an account such as the destruction of Jericho is that it contradicts God's nature of love. Those who argue for a vision of God who is non-judgmental, unconditionally forgiving, providing forgiveness without there needing to be a cost, tolerant, pacifist and so on, should perhaps display the qualities of their God in their approach to people who disagree with them. That, after all, is what tolerance and "unconditional forgiveness" is supposed to be about!

It is ironic that those who scream against the God of judgment are often highly judgmental.

As for those who want to believe in the God who commanded the destruction of Jericho, well I am not one of them. I don't particularly want to believe that God commanded this. But if 'God' is nothing more than the projection of our own desires, then we really ought to admit that we are actually atheists. Either God is objectively real or He is not. It is a simple matter of truth. I often wonder whether many liberal Christians are actually atheists at heart, as they seem to just want to make up God as they go along: "This is the God I want to believe in, so that is God, as far as I am concerned." That is actually self-worship, and God is merely an objectification of one's own personal desires.

A God who is objectively real and actually exists as more than just a nice idea, is bound to be extremely difficult to understand - for obvious reasons. It stands to reason that He has acted in the world in ways that are well nigh impossible to understand. I am concerned with what is actually objectively true, not what I would like to be true.

It's all very well saying that "we want this bit of the Bible to be true, but not that, because we like this and not that", but what is the basis for these decisions? It all sounds like an attempt to fashion God in our own image.

I will have a look at goperryrevs' evidence in due course...
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
Yes, EE, I could conclude you are right, God is God, and he really did order genocide.

The problem then is that, apart from terror of hellfire, I have absolutely no desire to be in any kind of relationship with that God. He sounds like the sort of person I prefer to avoid.

But I'm commanded to love him. Not just obey out of fear. I'm therefore in a totally cleft stick. The possibilities are:

1. God is as you describe him, and I can never be right with that God, because he wants me to love him, and I can't love the odious character you describe.

2. God is more like I think he is. This God I can get right with.

Now, there really is no objective way of really knowing. Option 1 may be true, but it's a dead end. Option 2 may be false, but it's something I can work on until I find that it is, or indeed that it isn't.

Option 2 is really therefore the only one that repays pursuing.

[ 12. March 2014, 12:04: Message edited by: Karl: Liberal Backslider ]
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
It's all very well saying that "we want this bit of the Bible to be true, but not that, because we like this and not that", but what is the basis for these decisions? It all sounds like an attempt to fashion God in our own image.

I feel like I started exploring this a bit in my last post. The reasons are not really because we like one bit and not another, but because the nature of Scripture itself is that it demands that we have to choose. And the basis (for me at least) is by combining those passages with tradition, reason and experience, then seeing what comes out the other side.

One simple example: Food sacrificed to idols. According to the Council of Jerusalem (Acts 15) all Christians should avoid it. According to John (Rev 2) it's a sin to do it. According to Paul (1 Cor 8), it's no big deal, so long as your conscience is clean.

These positions, all in the Bible, are contradictory. You have to choose one over the others. We have to engage with the Bible, and pick and choose. Just as when Jesus contradicts the Old Testament. And the Bible is full of these kinds of things. It is primarily collection of human documents. It must be approached as a collection of human documents first and foremost. Upon doing so, then we can begin to discern and hear the voice of God behind and within it all. To approach it first and foremost as a divine document (the way, for example, Muslims see the Koran) leads to big problems.

If I disagree with a view I find presented in Scripture, that does not mean I am disagreeing with God. It's part of the process of wrestling with Scripture. I mean, take Job's friends. They quote scripture to Job, straight out of Deuteronomy. The God turns up and tells them they're wrong! So, God is contradicting... God??? How do you deal with that?

The reality is that we all pick and choose. We all value some bits over others. We all try to reconcile things which appear unreconcilable. Either we admit that, or we are in self-denial. The challenge is choosing the right bits - discerning the voice and message of God behind the human words.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Yes, indeed, and to a greater or lesser extent, we all operate within interpretative frameworks that prioritise or introduce a sense of 'heirarchy' into the way we tackle the scriptures.

Take the Orthodox, for instance, put crudely, their approach to the NT is to have the Gospels paramount followed by the Epistles ... so if push came to shove, then the words of Jesus in the Gospels take precedence ...

Of course, I'm simplifying to make a point ...

Whereas in certain Reformed or reformed circles, one gets the impression that certain passages in Romans are the real nub of things and that everything else is simply 'filler' ...

Again, I'm exaggerating to make a point ...

We all do that and we all make selections. I'm sure EE will accept as much.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
What goperryrevs said.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness."

I will note it doesn't say "for historical accuracy." Nothing in this verse says that the purpose, or even A purpose, of the scriptures is to tell us what happened. It's for orthodoxis (right doctrine) and orthopraxis (right actions).

Why do you believe the events of Joshua depict, according to post-enlightenment understandings of historical accuracy, actual events as they took place? Scripture doesn't tell us they do. It lays out the story, but there is neither internal (within the book of Joshua) or external (within the rest of the Bible) evidence that it is historically accurate according to post-enlightenment understandings of historical accuracy.

Indeed, as has been pointed out, it flatly contradicts things that come later in the Scriptures. Israelites are fighting people groups that, according to the book of Joshua, were completely and totally annihilated.

Experience tells us that people 3500 years ago didn't have a post-enlightenment concept of history.

All the evidence we have is against Joshua being what we, in these post-enlightenment days, call historically accurate.

Yet you want to hang on to even the slimmest possibility that it is historically accurate in that sense. Why? Because you want to believe that the Bible is "true"? But IIRC even you yourself have admitted that "true" needn't mean "historically accurate." So what motivates you to ignore all the evidence and hold on to this hermeneutic principle?

[ 12. March 2014, 15:25: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
Indeed. ISTM that none of the lines of attack yields a knockout argument against EE in itself but taken together a lot of unlikely things have to be true for EE to be right.

It's possible, but unlikely, that the guy who can't get his conclusions peer reviewed is right and the majority of archaeologists are wrong.

It's possible, but unlikely, that we should take Joshua at face value, but every time the Bible talks about God's love or justice we should mentally gloss it as "But love and justice mean the opposite of what you naturally imagine".

It's possible, but unlikely, that Joshua is a rare (unique?) example of an ancient history that contains no mythical elements.

It's possible, but unlikely, that "totally annihilated" means they left survivors to build up the tribes again.

What is the value of insisting on a conclusion that requires you to take the less likely option at each stage?
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster
However what God a person imagines may tell us a lot about the person.

That is an extremely personal comment, and it demands a response. I hope that the following response complies with the rules of this board, and so I have tried to keep the comments as general as possible, so as not to point the finger at any particular person. However, I think a general observation about attitude is a legitimate point of debate (and I speak as someone who is not exactly "whiter than white" in the attitude department).

This for me is the real "elephant in the room".

Perhaps the chief complaint against the historical reading of an account such as the destruction of Jericho is that it contradicts God's nature of love. Those who argue for a vision of God who is non-judgmental, unconditionally forgiving, providing forgiveness without there needing to be a cost, tolerant, pacifist and so on, should perhaps display the qualities of their God in their approach to people who disagree with them. That, after all, is what tolerance and "unconditional forgiveness" is supposed to be about!

The problem is that when you have a finite choice of two judgements, one that disproportionately does good for people and one that does disproportionate evil, there is only one possibility that does not make God inflict disproportionate evil.

quote:
It is ironic that those who scream against the God of judgment are often highly judgmental.
That's because the "judgement" you seem to want to hold so dearly isn't wrong because it is a judgement per se - it is wrong because it is a final binary judgement. As such it doesn't matter if the condemned are Adolf Hitler and Judas Iscariot. Ultimate punishment is always disproportionately increasing the amount of evil possible.

quote:
As for those who want to believe in the God who commanded the destruction of Jericho, well I am not one of them.
You claim not to be. But you use any possible scrap of evidence you can lay your hands on to try to use the thinnest margins of doubt to say it could have happened. What you are telling us is in flat contradiction with what your arguments show us.

quote:
A God who is objectively real and actually exists as more than just a nice idea, is bound to be extremely difficult to understand - for obvious reasons. It stands to reason that He has acted in the world in ways that are well nigh impossible to understand. I am concerned with what is actually objectively true, not what I would like to be true.
Then why are you relying on such contentious and flimsy arguments? And torturing logic quite so seriously?

And the other point here is is that your God is not even slightly difficult to understand. It is a monster that comes from the id and acts entirely in line with the way such a monster would act with the sole exception of the incarnation.

I have a shadow side too. One that would judge and return evil for imperfection. I just know myself and have the decency to know where that part of me comes from. I do not put my shadow self on a pedestal and call it God. In fact I watch out very carefully for what it tells me, and distrust that voice.

quote:
I will have a look at goperryrevs' evidence in due course...
Why have you not done so already on this thread? Given that none of the evidence is new you have flat out admitted that you have been ignoring the opposing evidence.
 
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on :
 
quote:
Justinian wrote:

And the other point here is is that your God is not even slightly difficult to understand. It is a monster that comes from the id and acts entirely in line with the way such a monster would act with the sole exception of the incarnation.

I have a shadow side too. One that would judge and return evil for imperfection. I just know myself and have the decency to know where that part of me comes from. I do not put my shadow self on a pedestal and call it God. In fact I watch out very carefully for what it tells me, and distrust that voice.

That's an interesting analysis; if you're using a psychological approach, then one could always add to that the idea of the super-ego, which is judgmental, often in a very harsh way, to the individual, who is then locked into an interplay of guilt, remorse, and hope for redemption. I suppose in Christianity, this harshness is softened considerably; but maybe some Christians miss it!
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
My suspicion would be - and I don't mean this in a value judgement sense - that EE wishes to maintain a highly literal meaning at all costs partly because such a view underpins a charismatic view of spiritual gifts and the idea of an interventionist God who performs miracles and so on.

Which is fair enough, but it's a view which seems not to take into the account the possibility of belief in the supernatural and an interventionist God without the necessity of a rigidly literalist approach to the scriptures.

It's as if the slightest admission that any scriptural incident may not be literally and historically true in a post-Enlightenment sense is to open ourselves up to apostasy and unbelief. As if to doubt the historicity in post-Enlightenment terms of any scriptural incident is to pull out a key-stone which will lead to the collapse of the entire edifice.

Of course, this doesn't necessarily follow and EE has yet to appreciate that fact - or apparently has yet to reach that position. Arguing with EE is rather like arguing with my own past - which is probably why I do it so often ...

I can certainly understand why EE feels the need to defend the scriptures against what he sees to be a relativist attack - but to do so he appears to set up all manner of straw men and false dichotomies.

He's, rightly, become rankled with me in the past for my use of the term 'woodenly literal' and this is exactly what I mean.

But it's difficult to express it any other way when most of EE's arguments appear to consist of the setting up of strict polar opposites - truth/fiction, myth/reality, belief/unbelief, atheist/believer ...

Sure, these opposites exist, of course they do, but there is often a fair bit of leeway and wriggle-room between mutually exclusive positions.

My problem with the kind of theology that EE appears to espouse is that it leads to a form of dualism. It creates a rather Manichaeistic world-view of blacks and whites and little room for nuance and shades of grey.

I've been accused of a kind of spineless relativism by EE on a number of occasions, whereas I believe he's in danger of painting himself into a corner and - to mix metaphors - trapping himself in a strait-jacket of his own inflexibility.

Sure, EE is aware of the bigger picture and the characteristics of his own position but it's one he seems hell-bent on holding despite all the indications to the contrary - or even all indications for a less rigid take on the same position.

Once he realises that his faith is not being attacked or is in any way threatened by greater latitude and elasticity then he's got the best of both worlds ... a less strait-jacketed and tightly corseted faith and yet a belief in the supernatural, in mystery and the numinous.

No-one here, it seems to me, is attempting to rob EE of a belief in a God who acts and intervenes in the day-to-day. A little less suspicion on his part would loosen things up a bit.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Justinian -

Well I have started to have a look at your article about the supposed contradictions within the book of Joshua. I haven't got to the end of it yet, but what I have seen doesn't exactly fill me with much alarm.

For example, the following claim is made:

quote:
Now here is a really interesting example of a compounding series of contradictions. The book of Joshua tells us that he conquered Jerusalem (Joshua 12:10). The land was "assigned to the Israelites." (Joshua 12:7)

The book contains internal inconsistencies for we are also told that, "the men of Judah failed to drive out the Jebusites living in Jerusalem." (Joshua 15:63)

But what this article has failed to do is actually quote the rest of Joshua 15:63. The entire verse reads: "As for the Jebusites, the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the children of Judah could not drive them out; but the Jebusites dwell with the children of Judah at Jerusalem to this day."

In other words, there is no contradiction between the idea that the king in Jerusalem had been defeated (Joshua 12:10) and the Jebusites had not been driven out, while the Israelites nevertheless occupied the city. It's not clear why the Jebusites had not been driven out, but that is not the problem. The problem is the claim that there is some contradiction between the Jebusites not being driven out and the Israelites occupying Jerusalem.

The same argument applies to Judges 1:21 - "But the children of Benjamin did not drive out the Jebusites who inhabited Jerusalem; so the Jebusites dwell with the children of Benjamin in Jerusalem to this day."

However, the article claims that the book of Joshua confirms that the Jebusites were driven out and their city burned:

quote:
The passage is repeated again in (Judges 1:21), with the difference that this time it is the Benjamites who failed in the conquest. You can compare this with the account in the 11th chapter of Joshua , where we are told that Jebusites were among a listing of other peoples whom Joshua, "cut down until they had not a single survivor." (Joshua 11:8) "Their cities were destroyed," (Joshua 11:12) and the people living there were "put to the sword, destroying them all". The Israelites then "plundered the cities," (Joshua 11:14) leaving alive only the animals, but "every living soul they put to the sword until they had destroyed everyone. They did not leave anyone alive." (Joshua 11:14) "Jericho fought against you, as did the Jebusites, but I delivered them into your hands. I drove them out before you." (Joshua 24:11)
Well, let us look at what Joshua chapter 11 actually says concerning the tribes which fought against Israel (verses 1-5):

quote:
And it came to pass, when Jabin king of Hazor heard these things, that he sent to Jobab king of Madon, to the king of Shimron, to the king of Achshaph, and to the kings who were from the north, in the mountains, in the plain south of Chinneroth, in the lowland, and in the heights of Dor on the west, to the Canaanites in the east and in the west, the Amorite, the Hittite, the Perizzite, the Jebusite in the mountains, and the Hivite below Hermon in the land of Mizpah. So they went out, they and all their armies with them, as many people as the sand that is on the seashore in multitude, with very many horses and chariots. And when all these kings had met together, they came and camped together at the waters of Merom to fight against Israel.
Did you see the phrase "in the mountains" to qualify which of the Jebusites we are talking about? Not all the Jebusites, but "the Jebusites in the mountains" obviously in the north, which is the region being spoken about here. Therefore, not the Jebusites in Jerusalem.

So there is no contradiction at all.

It's a bit like saying that because the Allies bombed Hamburg, why were there Germans still living in Munich? Not an argument at all, is it?

I'll plough on with this article and see what more juicy morsels there are, but it's not looking good for you so far...
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Nor is it looking any better for you, EE.

Does it not occur to you that the Book of Joshua might have been written partly to account for the fact that there were still Jebusites and other Canaanites living in the Land?

'We're still having problems, we're still surrounded by these Canaanite peoples ... there must be some theological reason for this. Ah, we can't have done the job properly. We didn't massacre or drive them out as per our original divine mandate ...'

You do have an unfortunate tendency, I'm afraid, to start to gloat and go 'nah-na nah-na nah' before engaging with the material properly.

At least, that's how it comes over to me.

'There, a proof-text ... got you!'

Sure, the Book of Joshua does say that Jebusites and so on remained living in the Land. I noticed that straightaway.

What it demonstrates - as some of us have maintained all along - is that there is certainly a definite historical background and context there. Everyone agrees with that.

What seems to be disputed - by you at least - is that the Book of Joshua can be a post-Enlightenment style historical account of these events and not - as most of us would maintain - a pre-modern and ancient historiographical account which mingles myth and literal history.

I don't see how any of the passages you've quoted demonstrates otherwise.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Kenneth Kitchen, who is of Mr Evangelical's kidney with regard to this sort of thing, argues that we have tended to read Joshua as a description of a conquest of All Israel when, in fact, it is a description of the seizure of part of Israel and then a series of smash and grab raids against other parts of Canaan. Which conveniently fits with the known historical facts and the fact that the Canaanites turn up again in the book of Judges, a bit like the way that the destruction of the Daleks in Doctor Who has never precluded them turning up in the next season.

As a reading of Joshua this kinda sorta works, IMO, with the following caveats. Firstly, there's still little evidence for the invasion and conquest account of Israel and quite a lot for the 'Invisible Israel' version of events. Secondly, it doesn't get us past the obviously mythic bits e.g. the sun standing still in the sky which, as both Luther and Calvin noted, is not a 100% fit with Copernicus' account of the working of the solar system. Finally it doesn't really deal with the ethical divergence between Jesus' virtue ethics which involve the sentiment that "he that hateth his brother in his heart is a murderer" and the idea that God can command people to go round murdering women and children on the consequentialist ground that looking after them might be a bit problematic. (Imagine that you are an Israelite woman, or child, how are you going to feel when Daddy gets back from the office after a hard days slaughter).

Those are fairly serious difficulties with interpreting Joshua in the way that Mr Evangelical does and I am struggling to see a way past them that doesn't involve invoking the authority of scripture and leaving it as that.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
So ploughing on with Justinian's article about the supposed contradictions in the conquest of Canaan, we come to the following:

quote:
With the Israelites firmly in control of Jerusalem and the Jebusites wiped out, centuries later David could freely take "Goliath's head to Jerusalem." (1 Samuel 17:54)

The only problem with this scenario is that it turns out that the great Israeli hero who had the honor of conquering Jerusalem and the Jebusites was David himself, after he had grown up and become King. "David went to Jerusalem to attack the Jebusites." (2 Samuel 5:6)

Now, depending on which version of events you (arbitrarily?) declare to be 'historical' either Joshua had already wiped out those Jebusites, 'leaving no one alive' (Joshua 11:14) or, immediately after his death, "the men of Judah made an assault on Jerusalem and captured it; they put its people (the Jebusites) to the sword, and set fire to the city." (Judges 1:8)

Or, then again, "the men of Judah failed to drive out the Jebusites living in Jerusalem." (Joshua 15:63)

Or, then again, maybe the Benjamites attacked and failed. (Judges 1:21) "The children of Israel dwelt among the Jebusites." (Judges 3:5)

In David's day, the Jebusites, were apparently alive and well enough to mock him, saying, "you'll never get in here! Even the blind and the lame could keep you out!" (2 Samuel 5:6)

I have already dealt with the fact that there is no contradiction caused by the account in Joshua 11, because the author of this article has misread that chapter.

The article claims that there is a contradiction between Judges 1:8 and 1:21. He quotes the verses as...

...the men of Judah made an assault on Jerusalem and captured it; they put its people (the Jebusites) to the sword, and set fire to the city.

and then the situation a little later...

The children of Israel dwelt among the Jebusites.

Actually the anonymous author of the article has mistranslated Judges 1:8. This is a literal translation of the Hebrew original:

And the children of Judah fought against Jerusalem and they took it and smote it (וילכּדוּ אוֹתה ויכּוּה) with the edge of the sword and they set the city on fire.

The description is very general and there simply is not sufficient detail to assure us that every last Jebusite was killed. What this verse is saying is that the tribe of Judah conquered Jerusalem, using the weapons of sword and fire. Given that the Bible often clarifies that "they destroyed everyone, man and woman, old and young" when a city is conquered, then it seems strange that this clarification is not given here. Obviously we cannot assume that the people of Judah left any inhabitants alive, and neither can we assume that they killed everyone. All that we know is that they conquered the city.

Therefore, due to the sparse information provided, we cannot say that this contradicts Judges 1:21.

It might or it might not. Therefore this cannot be used an argument either for or against the historical accuracy of Judges.

(By the way, I've had a look at other bits of the website on which this article is found, and it's extremely weird. The author seems to spend a lot of time obsessing about the state of his nose. A weirdo. It doesn't really inspire confidence. But anyway, I will take his arguments on their own merit.)

More to come anon...
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Andrew Brown is on topic.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Sure he is.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
How is what Brown wrote a false dichotomy? It seems to me a fairly nuanced view.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Actually, EE, every argument you put forth on this post reinforces Andrew Brown's point.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge
How is what Brown wrote a false dichotomy? It seems to me a fairly nuanced view.

I am responding to Doc Tor's post in the context of what he has written on this thread, and he has obviously quoted Brown to support his view.

His view is, of course, that someone who claims that an apparently historical event recounted in the Bible is accurate "doesn't understand the idea of story". In other words, he is promoting the false dichotomy of story, on the one hand, and historical truth, on the other.

A true account can be just as meaningful as a false one. Furthermore, an interpretation of historical events can also be true.

But if Doc Tor is right, then every single historical account, that has ever been written about anything, is false, if it has any kind of meaning (and therefore can function as a story) for anyone. Which, of course, is nonsense.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
I think that's wrong:

A historical fact is an interpretation of the known facts. A story may contain facts but is told for some other reason.

Tacitus' account of Tiberius is written with a specific agenda in mind and is probably wrong in some instances. Nonetheless, nobody would deny Tacitus the title of historian. Alan Massie's account, in his novel Tiberius, is probably fairer and is certainly based on the known facts but he selects facts and invents stuff to keep the novel cantering along. Therefore a story. I freely concede that it can be a fine line from time to time.

Now the Old Testament is a melange of myth (Adam and Eve, pre-Noachic giants, and so forth), folk memory, history, chronicle, historical fiction and editorialisation. It's simply false to say that the Old Testament has no historical value. But if you have to take sides on the story/ history dichotomy then it is, very largely, story.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
In other words, he is promoting the false dichotomy of story, on the one hand, and historical truth, on the other.

Geez, it's not just story you don't understand. It's plain English.

Your comment above is what you believe. I believe exactly the opposite: that story, and historical truth, are indivisible and often indistinguishable. There are no 'hands' to have one or the other on. You have two hands full of both at the same time.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
[QB
But if Doc Tor is right, then every single historical account, that has ever been written about anything, is false, if it has any kind of meaning (and therefore can function as a story) for anyone. Which, of course, is nonsense. [/QB]

Which, of course, is none of what Doc Tor has said and is more demonstration of Brown's point.
Your argument is more twisted than a pretzel in a tornado.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Given that the Bible often clarifies that "they destroyed everyone, man and woman, old and young" when a city is conquered, then it seems strange that this clarification is not given here.

This would only be strange if "The Bible" were a single work written by a single author and edited by a single editor. And even then, not necessarily so. But given that "The Bible" is a huge compendium of texts from across over 1000 years*, written by scores of people with different motives and aspirations and political agendae, it's hardly strange at all. You might as well say it's strange that the Gospels aren't more like the Psalms.

_____
*or whatever. I'm neither going to look it up nor cavil about it if the number is off. Suck it up and deal.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Hang on, they were writing in King James English a thousand years ago?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Hang on, they were writing in King James English a thousand years ago?

I can see you're not sucking and dealing.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Agenda is already plural. I don't think there's any need (or precedent) for agendae.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:

But if Doc Tor is right, then every single historical account, that has ever been written about anything, is false, if it has any kind of meaning (and therefore can function as a story) for anyone. Which, of course, is nonsense.

Doc Tor said no such thing.

Let's imagine that John Smith goes to the police claiming to have been mugged the night before.

He describes his assailant and the event to the police. He said he was walking home, minding his own business, when John Jones came up on him from behind, demanded his wallet and threatened him with a knife if Smith didn't comply. He says Jones is tall and burly, has a dark complexion,and the knife was 10 inches long.

Jones is arrested. Smith picks him out of a lineup, even though Jones turns out to be of medium height and build, has a fair complexion, and a search of Jones's apartment turns up a knife (ID'd as the weapon by Smith) which is 6 inches long, along with Smith's wallet, with cash, credit cards, and ID still inside.

John Jones tells a different story. He says he was panhandling. He approached Smith and asked for money. Smith took his wallet out, at which point a car nearby backfired loudly, and Smith, startled, dropped his wallet and ran away.

Jones says he tried to follow Smith but couldn't keep up, so he returned home with the intention of using the ID in the wallet to get in touch with Smith the following day so Jones could return the wallet to Smith. He says he was arrested before he had an opportunity to follow through.

Which account reflects "the historical truth" of this event? Is one account completely true and the other completely false? Do both accounts have some elements of truth and some inaccuracies? Are there obvious reasons for the accounts to differ so widely? What "really happened" here, and how do we know?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Hang on, they were writing in King James English a thousand years ago?

I can see you're not sucking and dealing.
That was not a dig at your numbers. That was a sideways dig at the notion that one can take the bible at face value. From a translation perspective, reading the bible takes as much care as from a multi-source perspective.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Hang on, they were writing in King James English a thousand years ago?

I can see you're not sucking and dealing.
That was not a dig at your numbers. That was a sideways dig at the notion that one can take the bible at face value. From a translation perspective, reading the bible takes as much care as from a multi-source perspective.
I apologize; twinkles in eyes just don't come across in a text-based medium. I was yanking your chain.

quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
Agenda is already plural. I don't think there's any need (or precedent) for agendae.

Fucking stupid dead languages where the singular of one declension cannot be distinguished from the plural of another.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Indeed. I always use "Agendas" myself. They can just suck and deal in my book.
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
mousethief:
quote:
Fucking stupid dead languages where the singular of one declension cannot be distinguished from the plural of another.
<tangent> You can always get round that by saying that the word you're using has been borrowed into English and should follow regular English pluralisation rules, like mdijon just did.

I think the people who ask for one panino instead of one panini are being unnecessarily pedantic. And yes, I do know my Italian plurals. <\tangent>
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
See here.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Typically pedantic of me, but what has happened here is that

'Agendum' means 'A thing to be done'

'Agenda' means 'Things (plural) to be done.

'Agenda' became a title or heading on lists of things to be done by committees etc. As a result people started speaking of such lists as 'An Agenda' which then needed to be pluralised because the usage had subtly changed.

Welcome to the world of living language...!
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Typically pedantic of me, but what has happened here is that

'Agendum' means 'A thing to be done'

'Agenda' means 'Things (plural) to be done.


Only if you're writing or speaking Latin. If you're using English, "agenda" has been a singular noun for many decades.

Just like "arena", "media" , "focus" and "forum" -- to name just a few of the words that English-speaking pedants sometimes try to imagine are still Latin in usage.

If we're going to be pedantic, and not just with the words, the rule is to print foreign language words in italics, to indicate that they are not English. If people want to start printing these and other words in italics, they might have a case to make (so to speak), but not otherwise.

John
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
Your comment above is what you believe. I believe exactly the opposite: that story, and historical truth, are indivisible and often indistinguishable. There are no 'hands' to have one or the other on. You have two hands full of both at the same time.

This shouldn't be allowed! A resolution in Dead Horses! I mean, you have now come round to agreeing with me, that an account can be both historically true and accurate and also function as a story. Well done.

quote:
Originally posted by Porridge
Doc Tor said no such thing.

Excellent!

Then he has no case against me, if he didn't say it - i.e. he didn't at all imply it.

I take it all back.

Doc Tor allows some true accounts to function as stories. So what was all the fuss about then?

As for your example:

Different accounts of the same event cannot both be true, unless they are the same in all particulars. But it doesn't follow that both of the accounts must be false.

Furthermore, usually such accounts point to an event that really did happen, but approach it from different angles. This is totally different from what is being suggested on this thread, namely, that the account in Joshua is fundamentally false, or if it did happen, it did not involve God (which is again a fundamental aspect of the account).

It may very well be that different Israelite soldiers may have come back from the conquest of Jericho with slightly different 'takes' on the event, but they would hardly have differed on the fundamentals.

One other thing: witness statements are used in a court of law to discover the truth of the details of a crime. Witness statements are not dismissed as: "Oh, you are just making up a story, because you have some agenda to implicate a particular person." But this is how many of the ostensibly historical accounts of the Old Testament are treated: they are believed to be the product, basically, of deceit, in which either genuinely deluded or wilfully malicious editors concocted fables in order to promote a certain view of God. This is about as far removed from responsible witness statements as one can imagine.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
EE, you're not very good at this, are you?

quote:
an account can be both historically true and accurate and also function as a story.
is something I've never disputed.

What we've been discussing for nine whole pages is whether the Book of Joshua is historically true and accurate (no one here but you believes it is), and what the function of the story of Joshua serves in the foundation myth of the Israelites (which is independent on the historical truth of the events).

So the idea that I agree with you is you yet again not being able grasp the argument. The thesis that Joshua is an ancient mythological account written hundreds of years after the events it purports to describe is entirely uncontentious. The mythological and historical elements of the story are so deeply, irrevocably entwined as to make untangling them at this great distance an impossible and futile task.

I know you want it to be wholly true for theological reasons. You can keep those beliefs despite the evidence - that's fine. Or you can accept that the book is of a different genre to that of history, and take it from there.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Ah, truth as meaning meets truth as facticity again.

EE, you should read James Barr sometimes. He's good on this stuff.

Or, if you have read him, it's hard to figure why you miss what the other contributors are saying.

We figure that the Book of Joshua, in the form we have currently, was written no earlier than the 5th century BC. That is, post-Exile in Babylon.

So of course it was not written by anyone who subscribes to more modern notions of historicity. The author is hardly to be blamed for his approach to story telling as a part of the recording of the salvation history of his people. Unless, that is, you see him as some kind of automaton, completely controlled supernaturally by the Spirit of God so that all possibilities of myth and legend have been miraculously expunged from the text.

I mean, some people believe the text was preserved from error by that, or similar, means. I didn't think you thought like that, but I'm willing to be corrected.

But if you did think like that, all we've got here is a Fundamentalist comparing text interpretation with non-Fundamentalists. So of course there will be no agreement. The starting premises are different.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:

I mean, some people believe the text was preserved from error by that, or similar, means. I didn't think you thought like that, but I'm willing to be corrected.

But if you did think like that, all we've got here is a Fundamentalist comparing text interpretation with non-Fundamentalists. So of course there will be no agreement. The starting premises are different.

It has been suggested that this is the case. EE has not yet answered this question.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
In the kind of evangelicalism I was brought up in (and which incidentally seems to have been the original intent of the original producers of "The Fundamentals", as opposed to their later 'hyper-orthodox' heirs), it used to be held proper to consider issues of 'genre'. That is, you don't expect the exact same kind of literalism from a poem as from a scholarly essay, from a 'saga' as from a court chronicle, from prophecy as from history, and so on.

Stuff from as far back as the conquest is likely to be 'saga'; doesn't mean you don't take it seriously, might mean you shouldn't take it dumb wooden literally.

Might this kind of thought help in this thread?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
In the kind of evangelicalism I was brought up in (and which incidentally seems to have been the original intent of the original producers of "The Fundamentals", as opposed to their later 'hyper-orthodox' heirs), it used to be held proper to consider issues of 'genre'. That is, you don't expect the exact same kind of literalism from a poem as from a scholarly essay, from a 'saga' as from a court chronicle, from prophecy as from history, and so on.

Stuff from as far back as the conquest is likely to be 'saga'; doesn't mean you don't take it seriously, might mean you shouldn't take it dumb wooden literally.

Might this kind of thought help in this thread?

Hasn't yet.
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I mean, you have now come round to agreeing with me, that an account can be both historically true and accurate and also function as a story.

Now that you're starting to grasp what we've all been trying to say to you for 9 pages, maybe it's worth re-reading the thread without projecting what we're not saying onto what we actually said? Then your snide (and inaccurate) summings up in Hell of our positions (note the plural; you're discussing with varied individuals, not one borg-like entity) might not seem so strong?

I for one have tried to make the point over and over that story and accuracy are two related, but separate issues. Something can be very accurate and not be story, inaccurate but story, accurate and story, or neither accurate and not story. That is a given, you have agreed with that point, and none of us have disagreed with it.

What I have tried to elaborate is what follows on from that. Namely, that these are not four distinct options, but that anything (including the Jericho account) can fall somewhere on those axis. I have also made the point that, when it comes to accuracy, nothing can be a fully accurate account, it is impossible to include everything. Which is fine, because most things are inconsequential (what did Joshua have for breakfast? What time did he wake up?). Story too tells us something, some stories resonate better than others, some stories tell us more about life, God and ourselves than others. But these are like axis on a graph - the nature of the story and the historical accuracy are distinct, and don't affect each other.

So, of course, the Jericho account could be, for the sake of argument, historically accurate (given the nuance that nothing can be fully accurate, as I've explained). And it is a story, a narrative - it's not a list of data. None of that is in dispute, so if you think it is, go back, and re-read, understanding that it's not.

What is in dispute is this: why should we assume that it is essentially historical, and does it matter if it's not? Your starting point is that it is, but I don't think you've given many good reasons to back that up. Others have given many good reasons why it probably isn't, and you have failed to answer them. My summing up of some of those reasons are still at the top of page 9 (and they're not mine, they're paraphrases of what others have said, so you can go back through the thread and see). There are six I outlined, and I'd say you've engaged to a decent level with two of them (archaeology and contradiction-within-scripture). I'd like to hear more of what you think of the others.

And again, I think the question is more nuanced than "is it historical or not" anyhow? The question is "how historical is it?". Maybe the Israelites raised Jericho, but God didn't tell them. Maybe they did and God told them too, but it didn't happen quite as scripture says. Maybe it's exactly what scripture said. Maybe none of it happened at all.

And still, further, the even bigger question is "how do we fit this with the rest of scripture, our theology in general, and what we believe about God?" We can't read this passage in isolation, we have to read it in the light of Christ, through the lens of Christ. And so, our interpretation of it is fitted around Jesus, rather than the other way round.
 
Posted by South Coast Kevin (# 16130) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs:
And still, further, the even bigger question is "how do we fit this with the rest of scripture, our theology in general, and what we believe about God?" We can't read this passage in isolation, we have to read it in the light of Christ, through the lens of Christ. And so, our interpretation of it is fitted around Jesus, rather than the other way round.

My italics - to highlight what I think is an absolutely key principle for reading and interpreting the Bible.

There's an apparent (I'd say self-evident and unavoidable) contradiction between God telling the Israelites to slaughter everyone in Jericho, and Jesus telling his followers to not resist an evil person, to bless those who curse them etc. ISTM in trying to harmonise these two things we have to give one primacy over the other.

For me, it's an easy decision to give that primacy to what we have of the words and actions of Jesus, and I find baffling any approach that doesn't do this.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Originally posted by Steve Langton:

quote:
In the kind of evangelicalism I was brought up in (and which incidentally seems to have been the original intent of the original producers of "The Fundamentals", as opposed to their later 'hyper-orthodox' heirs), it used to be held proper to consider issues of 'genre'. That is, you don't expect the exact same kind of literalism from a poem as from a scholarly essay, from a 'saga' as from a court chronicle, from prophecy as from history, and so on.

Actually, IME, modern fundamentalists and modern fundamentalist definitions of inerrancy do this. I think the problem is that those of us who aren't signed up to the Book of Joshua as a historical account bracket it with Geoffrey of Monmouth and the early books of Livy and the fundamentalists regard it as being just like Norman Davies or Sir Richard Evans only with added inerrancy. The argumentum ad genre which really ought to apply to the entire canon of scripture is generally confined to the bits of the Song of Solomon where he waxes lyrical about his lover's breasts. Boobs are allegorical, pillage and carnage is the holiness of God made manifest. There is probably a moral to this but I suspect that if I could work it out it would be too depressing for words.
 
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on :
 
That is mirabile dictu* - 'boobs are allegorical and carnage and pillage is the holiness of God made manifest'. I think I shall have it inscribed on my pewter tankard.

*ace gob-smack.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by goperryrevs
Now that you're starting to grasp what we've all been trying to say to you for 9 pages...

Well, at least excluding Doc Tor, who told me from the start that I didn't "understand the idea of story", because I affirmed the historical accuracy of the account in Joshua. And then he suggested that I must be one of those people who thinks that the story of the Good Samaritan was true, as if to confirm the point he was making, namely, that we must assume that the account in Joshua has the same status as the parables of Jesus, and anyone who thinks otherwise "does not understand the idea of story". Go and reread his posts if you don't believe me!

So I am not quite as idiotic as you seem to be making me out to be.

quote:
What is in dispute is this: why should we assume that it is essentially historical, and does it matter if it's not? Your starting point is that it is, but I don't think you've given many good reasons to back that up. Others have given many good reasons why it probably isn't, and you have failed to answer them. My summing up of some of those reasons are still at the top of page 9 (and they're not mine, they're paraphrases of what others have said, so you can go back through the thread and see). There are six I outlined, and I'd say you've engaged to a decent level with two of them (archaeology and contradiction-within-scripture). I'd like to hear more of what you think of the others.

And again, I think the question is more nuanced than "is it historical or not" anyhow? The question is "how historical is it?". Maybe the Israelites raised Jericho, but God didn't tell them. Maybe they did and God told them too, but it didn't happen quite as scripture says. Maybe it's exactly what scripture said. Maybe none of it happened at all.

And still, further, the even bigger question is "how do we fit this with the rest of scripture, our theology in general, and what we believe about God?" We can't read this passage in isolation, we have to read it in the light of Christ, through the lens of Christ. And so, our interpretation of it is fitted around Jesus, rather than the other way round.

But Jesus is not a liar. His righteousness does not involve giving false impressions.

Throughout much of the Old Testament we are led to believe that God constantly referred to the historical event of the Exodus from Egypt to bring His people to repentance. There are so many references to this, that I am sure you know at least some of them (I will provide references if need be, but I am sure at this stage I don't need to). The idea that that event - and of course all that follows, including the conquest of Canaan - was known by God to be a fantasy, undermines the entire prophetic message of repentance. It's like saying: "Look, why are you rebelling against me? I delivered you from Egypt - well... sort of... in the narrative... in the story... you know, it didn't really happen, but let's pretend that it did - and because of what I 'did' for you, then why are you being so ungrateful...etc etc" A God who appeals to a fantasy - basically a brazen lie - to urge a moral response from His people, is not a God with any credibility.

Now I would have thought that the kind, gentle, morally upright, compassionate, respectful Jesus would make clear to people that the God of the Old Testament is a lie. Surely He would have made it clear to them that He has come to bring a new way of seeing God - a God, who is not the liar and bloodthirsty and genocidal maniac of the Old Testament - but a new vision of the true God, who was not revealed through the Hebrew Scriptures. But Jesus did not do that, did He?

In fact, the Jesus of the Gospels is even more 'violent' than the God of the Old Testament. At least the God of the Old Testament limited Himself to ending certain people's earthly lives, but the gentle Jesus meek and mild of the Gospels sends some people to the "everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels" (Matthew 25)!

When the woman was caught in adultery, Jesus did not say "well, of course, the commandment to stone adulterers is a load of bollocks made up by a bunch of religious fundamentalist nutters." No. He invited those who were without sin to cast the first stone. In other words, Jesus put that judgment of the Old Testament in its proper context.

And this is the key to the whole problem with the judgments described in the Old Testament. For some reason, those who dismiss them as fantasy, seem to be concerned that God was establishing an absolute principle or universal modus operandi, and "if He could order so-called genocide then, then He can do it now". The disciples of Jesus made the same error, when they wanted to call down fire from heaven on the towns which rejected their message, as Elijah had. Jesus told them that they didn't know what manner of spirit was influencing them. Why didn't Jesus simply take the opportunity to disabuse us of the belief that what Elijah did actually happened? If God did not work through Elijah to 'murder' all those soldiers, then surely Jesus should have clarified that?! But no. Jesus acted as though the event did occur as described in the Old Testament, but also made clear that just because God worked in that way at that time, that does not mean that we can just assume that God will work like this now.

I agree that the corporate judgment on Jericho is difficult to understand. We don't know the level of evil that God was dealing with, and it is admittedly difficult to understand the nature of corporate judgment in which God treats social entities rather than just individuals as moral agents, and thus innocent people - mainly children - are caught up in the judgment which has been provoked by their sinful parents. What comes across to me in an account like the destruction of Jericho is a tragic necessity. To call God 'genocidal' and thus compare Him to Hitler et al is unconscionable. It is clear that God does not want to judge anyone in this way, but in a moral universe there are moral judgments, which can be provoked by man when evil reaches a certain level of depravity. God has ordained that parents have a moral responsibility to their children, although in most circumstances, in which corporate judgment is not relevant, the children are not judged for the sins of their parents.

There is much that we can learn from the nature of God's judgment in the Old Testament and I outlined some ideas in my very first post on this thread, when the subject concerned abortion (which is actually the reason that this thread is in DH, although I suppose the issue of inerrancy probably qualifies it now to be here as well).

Have I covered all the reasons yet?
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
No. Nor will you. Ever.

So why are you trying?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Excellent detailed rebuttal of all my points, comprehensively supported by appropriate evidence, argument and citations.

Well done, Gamaliel!
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Thanks EE, it was axiomatic, of course.

The thing is, you've disregarded nine or 10 pages of accumulated evidence and points-of-view from at least half a dozen or so rational and reasoned speakers.

If I've started to take the mickey it's only because certain people here are demonstrating a cavalier disregard for what they consider evidence.

Evidence is only admissible as evidence, it seems to me, as far as EE is concerned, when that evidence backs up his own presuppositions.

Everyone else's evidence can therefore be dismissed. Thereby, EE is left standing six feet above contradiction.

It's a neat trick. I only wish I had the same thick skin and chutzpah to carry it off.

Not that you are carrying it off, of course. Perhaps in your own imagination you are, but not with anyone else.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
No, you are seeing what you want to see.

I have not 'disregarded' 9 or 10 pages of evidence. I have responded to it. If people don't accept my arguments, that has nothing to do with me.

You keep insisting that I should roll over and accept your point of view, and that of others, simply on the basis that you say it. It doesn't work like that. Truth is not established by mob rule or majority vote.

You can try and bully me as much you like, but, like I said elsewhere, we learn in the classroom not the playground. In fact, the more you insist and hector, the less likely I am to listen, because I prefer to consider reasoned arguments and coherent evidence. None of the evidence presented to 'prove' that the account in Joshua is historically inaccurate is convincing, with the sole exception of one piece of C-14 evidence, which does not agree with other pieces of the same kind of evidence (i.e. other C-14 readings from the destruction layer ranging from 1347 to 1690 BC).
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
I have not 'disregarded' 9 or 10 pages of evidence. I have responded to it. If people don't accept my arguments, that has nothing to do with me.

It could very well have to do with you. You could be presenting your evidence poorly. But if it does have nothing to do with you, that contradicts your statement

quote:
None of the evidence presented to 'prove' that the account in Joshua is historically inaccurate is convincing,
That's nothing to do with the evidence. Sauce for the goose.

quote:
You keep insisting that I should roll over and accept your point of view, and that of others, simply on the basis that you say it.
You immediately contradict this as well.

quote:
None of the evidence presented to 'prove' that the account in Joshua is historically inaccurate is convincing, with the sole exception of one piece of C-14 evidence,
Ah, it's NOT simply on the basis that it is being said here. There IS evidence presented. Gee, your earlier statement entirely fails to countenance this fact.

In fact the preponderance of the evidence ("prove" is nonsense in this context; Math has proofs--History, not so much) is against you. You have some pottery sherds, and your unshakeable conviction that the text MUST meet post-Enlightenment standards of historicity.

You've not yet even begun to attempt to defend the idea that a bunch of 5th century BCE goatherds could have a post-Enlightenment theory of history. Where did they get such an anachronistic theory of history? Is there any evidence of any of their contemporaries having a post-Enlightenment concept of historical writing? Let's hear it then.

Prediction: you'll blow this post off and not attempt to respond to my points, especially the last.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I perceive that Mousethief is a prophet ...

[Biased]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
He is indeed.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Then you've been winding us up and stringing us along all the time, then?

All this stuff about pottery and dating and you are either unable to respond to Mousethief's point about pre-modern histories apparently being written to suit Post-Enlightenment historical sensibilities or you don't think it's an issue at all ...

Either way, a pretty untenable position to hold.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But Jesus is not a liar. His righteousness does not involve giving false impressions.

Even if this assertion is, arguendo or otherwise, rock-solid certain, his righteousness does NOT preclude ordinary mortal humans from receiving or perceiving or developing false impressions. Or are we to assume that the scribe or scribes who recorded the Book of Joshua for posterity some 700 years after the events was/were infallible rather than mortal and/or human, and write in such a way that only one (correct) reading of their efforts is possible?

[ 20. March 2014, 15:45: Message edited by: Porridge ]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Then you've been winding us up and stringing us along all the time, then?

All this stuff about pottery and dating and you are either unable to respond to Mousethief's point about pre-modern histories apparently being written to suit Post-Enlightenment historical sensibilities or you don't think it's an issue at all ...

Either way, a pretty untenable position to hold.

Well, I really don't think my reply earlier today to goperryrevs was a wind-up. I look forward to a sensible response to that, although I notice that Porridge, who is a decent contributor, has responded, so I hope to give him the time of day later.

You expect me to listen to you, but you almost never engage with the arguments, but just spend your time playing a personality game with me.

I am not falling for it. You go on about 'myth', but when I quoted from a scholarly article on the subject, you just ignored it. You are clearly out of your depth.

If you seriously think that you can railroad me into accepting your point of view, when you present no evidence, then you are grievously mistaken. Give me just one good reason why I should.

And as for the "mob rule" approach, I frankly could not care less whether it is me against a million other posters. I am a free thinker (properly speaking), meaning I think for myself, and therefore I do not base my views on the combined opinions of mutually back-scratching opponents. In fact, if anything, such opposition only makes me feel more motivated to think for myself, and not give in to manipulators.

And by the way... if you think I am defiant just for the sake of it, I am very willing to admit that I am wrong and concede points, as I have done quite a number of times both on this site and elsewhere. But I will only concede if proven to be wrong with proper evidence and argument, and not insistent opinion and psychological pressure.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
I'm going to rot in Hell over this but I seriously can't resist it.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
You are clearly out of your depth.

[Killing me]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
[brick wall]

The day I see 'proper evidence' provided on this thread from your side of the argument then that's the day that Hell freezes over.

Your arguments have been demolished time and time and time again and you still claim to have the moral and intellectual high ground.

It'd be funny if it wasn't so tragic.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Yet again...

NO EVIDENCE.

Ah well...

[brick wall]
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Your arguments have been demolished time and time and time again and you still claim to have the moral and intellectual high ground.

Instead of bluffing, how about this..

List the refutations of my arguments.

Come on, let's see this great demolition job. I'll start you off...

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Please fill in the blanks. This should be good for a laugh...
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Give me just one good reason why I should.

We've collectively given you lots of reasons why you should change your mind, including:

The most convincing independent scientific evidence (ie does not rely on interpretation of pottery) supports a date suggested by one interpretation of pottery that Jericho was uninhabited at the time the Israelites were thought to have destroyed the city.

The Book of Joshua is, by the best sources, written down up to 700 years after the events it describes.

Tribes which, according to Joshua's account were utterly destroyed, appear later on.

The Book of Joshua was written well before any notion of accurately recording impartial history was conceived.

The Book of Joshua contains supernatural occurrences (God speaking to man, the sun standing still in the sky, city walls collapsing to the sound of horns) that are unknown in 'normal' histories, but are well documented in other mythological texts of the time (which you don't take to be true).

So don't pretend we haven't come up with good reasons: we have. You choose to deny they're good reasons, and/or ignore their importance. You say you're waiting for evidence, yet I'm completely satisfied that there is no evidence that would convince you that you're either wrong, or would give you concern that you might be wrong.

I'd like you to state what kind of evidence you'd accept as valid. If nothing we've said so far fits the bill, it should be relatively straightforward for you to give us a list.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
The most convincing independent scientific evidence (ie does not rely on interpretation of pottery) supports a date suggested by one interpretation of pottery that Jericho was uninhabited at the time the Israelites were thought to have destroyed the city.

Unconvincing, because the C-14 readings are erratic from the same destruction layer of Jericho, ranging from 1347 to 1690 BC.

Furthermore, the dating of pottery is a standard discipline within archaeology, and therefore not to be dismissed, as you appear to be doing.

quote:
The Book of Joshua is, by the best sources, written down up to 700 years after the events it describes.
And your evidence for this claim is?

quote:
Tribes which, according to Joshua's account were utterly destroyed, appear later on.
I have already refuted that. Did you miss my post about the Jebusites?

quote:
The Book of Joshua was written well before any notion of accurately recording impartial history was conceived.
And your evidence for this assertion is?

quote:
The Book of Joshua contains supernatural occurrences (God speaking to man, the sun standing still in the sky, city walls collapsing to the sound of horns) that are unknown in 'normal' histories, but are well documented in other mythological texts of the time (which you don't take to be true).
I am not an atheist, and therefore I do not recognise arguments based on the assumption of the philosophy of naturalism. I would be very happy to have a discussion about philosophical presuppositions, but in the context of this debate, this 'evidence' is inadmissible, being an example of special pleading.

Oh, is that all?

Any more arguments to offer, since all those are utterly unconvincing or without any support?

[ 20. March 2014, 16:59: Message edited by: EtymologicalEvangelical ]
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
EE, if you want a serious debate and serious refutation of your points it might help if you practised what you preached and provided some evidence for the points you are making.

Instead, all you've done for page after page is provide flimsy citations from works that are hardly mainstream nor widely respected as either theology, archaeology or anything else.

Yet again...

NO EVIDENCE.

Ah well...

I really don't know how long you can keep this self-deception going.

I'm impressed with your persistence. I'll give you that.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Do yourself a favour. Check out your own presuppositions. And if you haven't done so already ...

Read James Barr .

Even if you don't agree with any of the arguments, it might just possibly open up the possibility that you are not being bullied here. Personally, I think Barr is right to describe much of the range of positions we describe as fundamentalism as incoherent. He certainly produces some impressive arguments. He has helped a lot of us to understand a thought world which we found difficult to disentangle. And, certainly in my case, remain in good relationships with folks for whom it remains their preferred thought world.

It is possible to see these points of view, discuss them without rancour, lose the impression of being 'under attack', or 'bullied'.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Agreed. I've been accused of bullying by EE before. I can see why he might feel a bit ganged-up on here on this thread though, but it's certainly not bullying.

If anything, his own recalcitrance is what we're all banging our shins against - EE included.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Come on, let's see this great demolition job. I'll start you off...

1. There's no way in fucking Hell that 6th century BCE goatherds can have a post-Enlightenment histioriography.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
The thing is, EE, is that you could be arguing about anything here, literally anything at all - the existence of aliens, the location of Atlantis, the Illuminati - and whatever reasonable, academic refutation is presented, you'd always have some 'evidence' from the believers that you could use to dismiss it.

So, given a choice of two dates for the destruction of Jericho, as suggested by the pottery (see, not dismissing that at all), and a single date from the correct layer by C14 which agrees with one date and not with the other... the reasonable conclusion would be to go with the one where the C14 and one pottery date coincide. Not you.

Given the best scholarly evidence that Joshua was talking about events in ~1400BC, partly written in its present form during the reign of Josiah (~600BC) and completed during or even after the Exile, it would be reasonable to conclude that its historicity is doubtful. Not you.

Given that tribes that were supposedly destroyed during Joshua appear later in the OT, it would be reasonable to conclude that the events described in the text are of at least a partially exaggerated nature. Not you.

Given what we know of ancient writers, and that accurate history became a concept to be aspired to only in Roman times, it would be reasonable to conclude that the writer/s of Joshua did not aspire to write an accurate history. Not you.

Given that similar works of that period and later, contain passages where gods speak to other gods and to men, and supernatural elements are common, it would be reasonable to conclude that the writer/s of Joshua followed a similar style of mythic storytelling. Not you.

All of this, taken as a whole, is simply special pleading on your part. It's not about you not being an atheist - if I believed in the Greek pantheon, and took the Iliad as actual history, a pound to a penny you'd be lining up on the other side of this argument. There's better evidence for Grendel having existed, given what we know of the Anglo-Saxon world as accurately depicted in Beowulf.

Again, I ask you: what evidence would you be prepared to accept that Joshua was not an accurate historical document?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
EE, if you want a serious debate and serious refutation of your points it might help if you practised what you preached and provided some evidence for the points you are making.

Instead, all you've done for page after page is provide flimsy citations from works that are hardly mainstream nor widely respected as either theology, archaeology or anything else.

Yet again...

NO EVIDENCE.

Ah well...

I really don't know how long you can keep this self-deception going.

I'm impressed with your persistence. I'll give you that.

Well, given that I have conceded that the archaeological evidence is inconclusive, and therefore could support the biblical text, or may not, and given that I have simply given the biblical text the benefit of the doubt (taking into account the genre of the literature in question), then I think the burden of proof is on those who are making a definite dogmatic claim, and who are taking the unusual and less obvious textual route.

In other words, the burden of proof is on you and your back-scratching cronies.

By the way, it would be interesting to know which bits of the Bible you actually accept are true ('true' as in describing events that actually happened), and why. After all, according to your way of thinking, the entire story of Jesus is just a myth. He never actually existed, because apparently that's the way ancient texts work. Didn't you know that? We wouldn't want to be accused of "not understanding the idea of story" now, would we? According to your way of thinking, the whole of Christianity is a complete shame, but then as someone, who to all intents and purposes is clearly an atheist (or at least acting like one), you would accept that, wouldn't you?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
In other words, the burden of proof is on you and your back-scratching cronies.

Care to retract that before I message a host?
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
Doc Tor -

You're churning out the same old arguments, to which I have already responded. Did you not see my earlier post?

quote:
Again, I ask you: what evidence would you be prepared to accept that Joshua was not an accurate historical document?
Well, perhaps just some small hint by Jesus that the Old Testament was a load of bollocks. ("It is said... but I say" doesn't count, because that is just an outworking and application of the Law, not a rejection of the Law.)

An explanation, proven by reference to clear biblical evidence, that God's righteousness is manifested in Jesus through brazen deceit, given that (if you are right) he conned people into thinking that the Old Testament events were true, when God knew they were not.

Proof of the dating of the writing of the book of Joshua. The opinions of scholars who adhere to the Graf-Wellhausen documentary hypothesis do not count as proof, by the way. That hypothesis would itself need to be proven, which it has not been.

Conclusive archaeological evidence that irrefutably undermines the biblical account.

That'll do for starters...

As for the "back-scratching" comment: perhaps there will be an end to all this guff about me being isolated on this thread. This playground approach of "mob rule", which is presented as an argument to railroad me into accepting a point of view, is quite sickening.

If you are not part of that, then, on that condition, I retract the comment as it concerns you and anyone else who does not think in that manipulative way. But I certainly do not retract it when it concerns those who relate to me in that dishonest and deeply immature way.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Doc Tor -

You're churning out the same old arguments, to which I have already responded. Did you not see my earlier post?

They're arguments. But they're not good arguments. They're not defensible by logic or reason. As you go on to say, your defence is based entirely on theology, not archaeology or philosophy or science or literary criticism.

quote:
quote:
Again, I ask you: what evidence would you be prepared to accept that Joshua was not an accurate historical document?
Well, perhaps just some small hint by Jesus that the Old Testament was a load of bollocks. ("It is said... but I say" doesn't count, because that is just an outworking and application of the Law, not a rejection of the Law.)

An explanation, proven by reference to clear biblical evidence, that God's righteousness is manifested in Jesus through brazen deceit, given that (if you are right) he conned people into thinking that the Old Testament events were true, when God knew they were not.

Proof of the dating of the writing of the book of Joshua. The opinions of scholars who adhere to the Graf-Wellhausen documentary hypothesis do not count as proof, by the way. That hypothesis would itself need to be proven, which it has not been.

Conclusive archaeological evidence that irrefutably undermines the biblical account.

All you've done is say, "the Bible proves that the Bible is true, and any evidence presented to the contrary is unacceptable to me."

Also, your fauxpology sucks.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
(Sighs) ... Do you really live in binary-land, EE?

Either we believe that the Book of Joshua is an historically accurate account in a post-Enlightenment kind of way or else we are atheists.

Ergo, Gamaliel is an atheist ...

[Roll Eyes]

Everything is completely black-and-white to you isn't it? I'm surprised you don't work for the highways department, as a zebra crossing ...

If anything is 'sickening' on this thread it isn't that people are apparently 'ganging up on you' but your complete and utter refusal to engage with reason, logic and rational debate.

You've not provided a single scrap of evidence or any textual, historical or literary reason why we should treat the Book of Joshua as an historical account in the 'literal' sense - in a post-Enlightenment kind of way.

The only 'evidence' you've provided are assertions that it has to be that way otherwise Jesus is made out to be a liar or that the Bible as a whole is entirely untrustworthy.

What was your degree in again? Binary and Dualistic Studies?
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Doc Tor, who told me from the start that I didn't "understand the idea of story", because I affirmed the historical accuracy of the account in Joshua.

My impression was that he said it because you wouldn't allow the validity of it not being historical (his opinion), rather than because you affirmed the historical accuracy. But that's not much to do with me. You can fight it out with him.

ISTM that for you things in Scripture have to either be "true" as in historically accurate, or "story" as in an obvious fiction, like the parable of the Good Samaritan, and that you're uncomfortable with something being somewhere in between. I have no such scruples.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Throughout much of the Old Testament we are led to believe that God constantly referred to the historical event of the Exodus from Egypt to bring His people to repentance. <snip> It's like saying: "Look, why are you rebelling against me? I delivered you from Egypt - well... sort of...

Firstly, this assumes that when we read "thus saith the Lord" it literally means that every time. I'm not so sure. Is it necessary that everything in the Prophets is God's Words exactly as He spoke them, or is there room for interpretation there too?

Secondly, for this to be true: That God rescued His people from slavery in Egypt, took them through the desert, and into a new and fruitful land, it does not follow that every detail in the narratives in the Torah have to be fully accurate. The account of the destruction of Jericho doesn't have to have happened for the above to be true. This is what I was saying above. I'm comfortable with a mixture of history and fiction, and I'm not too bothered about defining the lines between the two. For me, it's simply not about an all or nothing "either the entire Bible is literally true, or none of it is" paradigm. There are endless shades between, and those shades vary throughout scripture. I appreciate you might want an answer to "well, which bits are historical, and which bits aren't?", and "well, how do you know that the Jesus stories aren't made up too then?" Those are tough questions with long answers, but the alternatives (it's all rubbish / it's all true) ultimately bring much bigger questions and problems.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
When the woman was caught in adultery, Jesus did not say "well, of course, the commandment to stone adulterers is a load of bollocks made up by a bunch of religious fundamentalist nutters." No. He invited those who were without sin to cast the first stone. In other words, Jesus put that judgment of the Old Testament in its proper context.

Well, I think he did a lot more than that, as has been discussed. He was quite happy to contradict and re-interpret. Same with the apostles. Their use of scripture to back up their arguments is laughable, but only if you approach them from a modernist / systematic perspective. I think the way they saw it was more that they reached into their histories and traditions, and found tools to use as they wished. They were quite happy to pick, choose, re-interpret, and even contradict.

As for Jesus being 'harsher' than the OT God, that's an interesting tangent, and one I find interesting, and willing to discuss, but not sure if this is the place for it.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
But Jesus is not a liar. His righteousness does not involve giving false impressions.

Jesus was still a product of his times (Martin PC has said stuff about this). I don't know whether Jesus took the Jericho accounts literally or not. I don't think we can infer either way from scripture. I'm not sure if it struck him as particularly important. I don't think Jesus came to bring us Truth in terms of scientific fact, or the historical accuracy of the Torah, but to bring us Truth about God and ourselves. In the incarnation, God emptied himself, and that included his omniscience. For example, in Mark 2:26, Jesus appears to misremember who was High Priest when David ate the bread. If this was a mistake, or if there's another explanation, it does not bother me. Who Jesus was doesn't fall down because he got someone's name wrong.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
And as for the "mob rule" approach, I frankly could not care less whether it is me against a million other posters.

To be clear, I understand and respect this. My pointing out that you are a lone voice was not to railroad you into agreement. In many things I am a lone voice in my own church tradition. My point was simply that, when that is the case, we should be even more careful to consider our positions and opinions. I am naturally rebellious, and sometimes my disagreement with the majority is simply down to that. Other times, I think it's not. It's easy to bristle and cement-in when we're on our own, and lose our objectivity.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
So I am not quite as idiotic as you seem to be making me out to be.

I don't think you are an idiot. In this thread I think you've had a tendency to read into what people have said things that weren't there, and once you've done so, it's very hard to get you to deviate from that. Also, it seems you're much more comfortable with defined either/or understandings than uncertainty or nuance. I also think that you're prone to fitting facts around your opinions, but we're all guilty of that at times. But then, this has been said before. Hey ho.

quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Again, I ask you: what evidence would you be prepared to accept that Joshua was not an accurate historical document?
Well, perhaps just some small hint by Jesus that the Old Testament was a load of bollocks.
This, I think, is the rub. It strongly suggests to me that your opinions are based much more on theological grounds than scientific or historical. (which is why I asked that question earlier). The destruction of Jericho happened centuries before Jesus. Whether Jesus believed it happened or not should have no bearing to a historian or archaeologist investigating it.

That's fine, but I think you'd do better to admit that for you at least, this is primarily a theological discussion, not a historical or scientific one. You know, that vested interest we were talking about earlier: that your theological viewpoint (towards Jesus) necessitates a literal, historical Old Testament. And to reject the latter would put the former into serious jeopardy. Of course, my suggestion would be to change your theology, and reject your current view of Jesus for a more nuanced one, but that's your prerogative.
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
Gam, you know those times that get all ad hominem, and you say you'll learn and change, and people doubt you, but you say it's different this time, then you go and do it again.

That's what just happened, that is.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Yep. All that. I agree with Goperryrevs but that doesn't imply complicity or some kind of atheist conspiracy theory where we are all ganging up on EE, the stalwart defender of the truth ...

Goperryrevs is talking sense. You'll be suggesting that he's an atheist next ...
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Well yes, ok ... [Hot and Hormonal]

It's become a habit. EE has similar habits. He seems to have a tendency to interpret certain lines of argument as personal attacks, bullying or group-think bullying ...

Whereas I have a tendency to drift into ad hominem remarks and sarcasm which probably only reinforce that impression.

But seeing as he doesn't listen to the rest of you either, no matter how more moderate, balanced, cogently argued or eloquent you all are compared with me.

Two wrongs don't make a right of course, but EE's the one who has been flashing the atheist card at me. That counts as ad hominem in my book.

Which doesn't mean that I should respond in kind, of course.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor
They're arguments. But they're not good arguments. They're not defensible by logic or reason. As you go on to say, your defence is based entirely on theology, not archaeology or philosophy or science or literary criticism.

Three assertions.

No logic or evidence in them at all. Therefore I dismiss them.

quote:
All you've done is say, "the Bible proves that the Bible is true, and any evidence presented to the contrary is unacceptable to me."
And all you have said is: "I have decided that I don't personally like a particular passage of the Old Testament and so I am going to pretend to be all intellectual and assert that there is no truth in it. Of course, I will package my non-arguments in language that appear to inject some kind of imaginary pseudo-truth into the Bible, so I can pretend to be a Christian, and then when anyone objects, I will keep asserting my position until that person cracks."

Trouble is, the person is never going to crack. All he will do is laugh.

quote:
Also, your fauxpology sucks.
Yeah, as if I'll lose sleep over it.
 
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on :
 
Well, clearly you won't. Just as you won't lose sleep about accusing your fellow Christians of not actually being Christians at all.

Sweet dreams, EE.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
And all you have said is: "I have decided that I don't personally like a particular passage of the Old Testament and so I am going to pretend to be all intellectual and assert that there is no truth in it. Of course, I will package my non-arguments in language that appear to inject some kind of imaginary pseudo-truth into the Bible, so I can pretend to be a Christian, and then when anyone objects, I will keep asserting my position until that person cracks.".

You see, this is why people lose patience with you. You simply don't have the courage to say "I'm an inerrantist, and here I stand." You try to engage in arguments which are other than theological, and then retreat back to the theological when challenged. It's a deeply intellectually dishonest way of engaging with other people, especially as all you're left with at the end of the day is shouting "atheist" at anyone who doesn't agree with you - Gamaliel, and now me.

I'm sure you think it's in your purview to divide the sheep and the goats, but I'm assured by a higher authority - who we both presumably answer to - that it's not.

All I ask is that you don't try this out in real life, either your attempts at argument or judging the validity of other's salvation. That would be kind of embarrassing.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel
Well, clearly you won't. Just as you won't lose sleep about accusing your fellow Christians of not actually being Christians at all.

Sweet dreams, EE.

I am not going to lie to you Gamaliel. I do not regard you as a fellow Christian. Sorry, but I don't.

If you want to take that statement of honesty as an insult, then so be it.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
quote:
by Gamaliel
"... that's the day that Hell freezes over."

As 'Hell' is a name for the afterlife of the lost from Scandinavian mythology it is my understanding that it always was frozen over, that being a more relevant kind of hell so far north....

And please don't turn that into a major tangent; I'm not being entirely serious. I am more serious in suggesting that the theodicy which was the original purpose of this thread might be better served by taking a break from the current line of argument. On the face of it, the historical evidence isn't exactly in huge quantities and taking the Bible literally is a faith position in these circumstances, just agree that and move on. The dead and the reasons why a good God might have been involved in the conquest are hardly respected by the attitudes here.

The nature of this particular argument deserves better, even if it is a defunct equine....

And getting me to be that stuffy is a real indicator of how bad things have got!
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
hosting

EE and Gamaliel - you've been warned multiple times about importing your personality conflict into threads outside the hell board. The matter is with the admins. I've been busy working all day and have checked in at 2 in the morning to see that this thread started to go wrong yesterday morning and has put on numbers of posts without a host stepping in. I'm therefore going to lock the thread until an admin can make their wishes known as it's very late at night for me to sift through this large pile of dung. I don't think a temporary closure will be much of a loss to anyone while a decision is made.

Louise

Dead Horses Host

hosting off

[ 21. March 2014, 01:36: Message edited by: Louise ]
 
Posted by RooK (# 1852) on :
 
Gamaliel, EtymologicalEvangelical,

We weary of your feud. One of you is an idiot, and the other is a fool. Take a couple weeks to reflect on whether you really want to be either. Because, if after you come back this dance happens again on multiple boards, the fish won’t even have to chew on your remains.

-RooK
Admin
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
OK, the thread is now open again. But with two provisos.

1. No continuation of specific lines of argument advanced by Gamaliel and EE as part of their feuding. They are not able to respond to specific critical comment. It will be fine to continue the general themes of the thread

2. Stay well clear of any Commandment 3 or Commandment 4 line crosses. We've had more than enough of that already. That applies also to comments about Gamaliel and EE in their absences.

Failure to observe these provisos will get any of you a reference to Admin.


Barnabas62
Dead Horses Host

[ 21. March 2014, 06:56: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
I've heard a justification similar to that at the start of this thread for the genocide described in Joshua - that the tribes were subsistence Bronze Age farmers and couldn't possibly care for women and children from another tribe, so when taking over a country or city the only way to survive was by taking no prisoners and killing the original tribe. And that the aggressor tribe was doing God's will by surviving to spread the word of God's actions and were doing this by killing off those people who were following other gods, so blasphemous.

This sounds like justification of human expediency to me and I don't agree with it, but I do wonder where this idea comes from. Does anyone have any ideas?

I heard it from someone who has a lot to do with Kingdom Faith, along with a lot of other things that made me grind my teeth, but I was told it was in a book they were reading.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Curiosity, there is a general and possibly even valid argument that

First; we live in an era where we know lots of stuff the ancient Israelites didn't and couldn't as they tried to survive in a hostile world. In particular we know of the love of Jesus and the changed view of life that results.

On the one hand we have to be very careful how we judge people who lived without that knowledge; on the other we have to realise that to make our knowledge possible God may himself have had to make terrible choices about which he will not have been happy but where the alternative would have been just the exercise of his coercive power in a way that would ultimately have compromised the reality of the human moral choices.

This view goes along with a wider view that God deals with us through a 'real world' in which choices have real consequences and human learning sometimes has to be done the hard way. Whatever God does in this situation comes with the guarantee that he, the Judge of the whole universe, will ensure there is no ultimate injustice. I posted a version of this view on a thread a few weeks ago and I'm trying to find it to repost here. Bear with me on that....
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
It doesn't explain killing all the animals as the cattle, sheep, and goats could be used by the Israelites.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
It doesn't explain killing all the animals as the cattle, sheep, and goats could be used by the Israelites.

We shall need another excuse.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Marco Liverani suggests that the point of Joshua, as a post-exilic document is to push the whole "we are a pure community, whose destiny is to remain separate from the people of the land" bit is to provide ideological legitimation to a policy among returned exiles not to interact with Caananites, Samaritans and so forth. Smiting the heathen livestock makes no kind of sense in a conquest narrative but makes every kind of sense if you are creating a rationale for having no dealings with anyone outside the charmed circle. It should be added that becoming Amish, avant la letter was never a very practical policy and was never followed.

If you like the Old Testament is a kind of dialectic between an understanding of Israel as an exclusive brethren and a universalist understanding of Israel as the means by which all the nations would be blessed. Obviously, the New Testament definitive comes down on the universalist side which isn't to say that we can caricature modern Judaism as the continuation of the theology of Joshua by other means!
 
Posted by goperryrevs (# 13504) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gildas:
If you like the Old Testament is a kind of dialectic between an understanding of Israel as an exclusive brethren and a universalist understanding of Israel as the means by which all the nations would be blessed.

I really like this. It puts a great context into Jesus' words about being the light of the world.

A lot of Jesus ministry was drawing the Jews back to their original calling. Their natural response had been to become proud and elitist due to their unique place as chosen people. Jesus called them to be outward looking and see their role in terms of ministry to the world. So things like the Sermon on the Mount weren't so much general principles to live by, but a manifesto for how a chosen people should respond to an occupying nation.

This too is the message of Jonah. It tackles the question "what do chosen people look like?" head on, and (for the Jews) in a pretty confrontational way.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Gildas;
quote:
It should be added that becoming Amish, avant la letter was never a very practical policy and was never followed.

I take it you mean that an Amish-style community in those days would simply not have survived?? as far as I know, modern Amish and other Anabaptists recognise that - but also recognise that since the NT a better way is available and should be followed. Amish are perhaps a bit too exclusive and have got a bit hide-bound by their traditions at times; but it is also fair comment that much of that is accounted for by isolation due to being persecuted.

I do not want to hijack this thread for an Anabaptist argument; I already did that without really meaning to in the Purgatory thread 'Father, Son and Holy Scriptures...' so if you want to discuss Anabaptism, go there...

is that OK, hosts?

Given the recent history of this thread I'm not going to quibble too much about whether Joshua is 'post-exilic'; for me, even if written down earlier, such an account would probably be in the genre 'saga' rather than modern-style history. But whatever we make of the history of the documents we still have to come to terms with the implications.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
I think Gildas makes an excellent point and can see no reason why it should not be explored in this thread. It has moved to be more about biblical inerrancy, of course, but that was to be expected.

My own modest contribution is to observe that groups like the Amish, who have a conservative theology and conservative view of scripture, demonstrate a peaceable and forgiving outlook in their separateness. The Amish world view is about as far removed from ruthless conquest of foreign territory by force as you are likely to find.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
OK Barnabas; but I'd come onto this thread with an interest in the original 'theodicy' and slightly less the scriptural issues, and felt that while I wanted to comment and ask for clarity on Gildas' Amish remark, I don't want to go through a whole repeat of the Church and State argument we'd had in Purg.

Having said that I've comments on recent posts here where Anabaptist viewpoints seem relevant, if we can take them as viewpoints on the main topic rather than going off on a tangent about the Anabaptists, I'd be quite happy....

I'm not sure how long the other thread will now go, anyway. I've been wondering about starting a specific Church and State issues thread - watch this space, or something like that....
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
originally by goperryrevs;
quote:
So things like the Sermon on the Mount weren't so much general principles to live by, but a manifesto for how a chosen people should respond to an occupying nation.
I think the Amish and the wider Anabaptist community would say that the Sermon does provide principles to live by, indeed principles which are reinforced elsewhere, e.g., in Romans 12 and in I Peter. But on the understanding that they are to be lived out under the New Covenant by Jesus' followers in the spirit of being a 'kingdom not of this world' or 'citizens of the kingdom of heaven in exile/diaspora on earth' rather than seeking a further conquest in worldly terms for Jesus. Similar to your idea of response to an occupying nation, but of wider application.

Yes, the Anabaptists demonstrate a peaceable and forgiving attitude (though also stern about unrepented sin); but it should be borne in mind that this is not based on a simplistically cosy or woolly God, but on an understanding that in the present age we are commissioned to leave vengeance to God.

As regards Scripture the Anabaptists were often accused of dualism because they so firmly understood that the NT made that kind of difference to Christian behaviour and the place of the Church in the world. Their 'Christendomite' opponents tended to see a different kind of continuity between the Testaments, with Jesus' kingdom in a more 'of this world' form and therefore imitating the OT model seen in Israel's wars and conquests.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:


My own modest contribution is to observe that groups like the Amish, who have a conservative theology and conservative view of scripture, demonstrate a peaceable and forgiving outlook in their separateness. The Amish world view is about as far removed from ruthless conquest of foreign territory by force as you are likely to find.

That's a very good point, Barnabas (and Steve), I was thinking more in terms of a radical separatedness from the other peoples of the land rather than any commonalities in terms of a theology of non-violence. Perhaps a better analogy (though still not an exact one) would be the Essenes.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
It doesn't explain killing all the animals as the cattle, sheep, and goats could be used by the Israelites.

It's worth pointing out that the word used for the massacre of the Canaanites is herem, which, whatever it does mean, certainly doesn't mean 'defensive warfare' or any of the other theodicies that have been proposed.

It apparently (not sure how much to trust Wiki here) has the sense of consecrating to God by means of total destruction. The 'plain reading', I think, is that the Israelite conquest of Canaan was for the glory of God, not for their own benefit (and those who did try to benefit from it were also killed). What one makes of that I don't know.

[ 22. March 2014, 05:33: Message edited by: Ricardus ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
The real issue is probably how we see the Traditional understanding that there is an attribute of God which we call "wrath". Now in human terms, wrath is associated in our minds with extreme anger. Whereas wrath in God is argued to be a consequence of His holiness and righteousness, not as in humans a response of the emotion of anger.

Personally, I cannot resolve any of this satisfactorily. What I can see is the clear Christian imperative against repaying evil with evil; rather it must be met with good. Nothing seems more central to NT teaching than that.

What that does for me is to consign concepts like herem to a past world. My best guess is that holiness and righteousness in God do, somehow, exist, alongside mercy, love and forgiveness, but it is imperative that we move completely over to repaying evil with good, leaving eternal resolution of these matters to God Himself. Seeing ourselves today as somehow active agents in processes akin to herem is a denial of our essential calling as Christians. That is an essential part of the New Covenant. Kingdom values are I think incompatible with any active participation by Christians in herem.

That is the best sense I can make of the overall picture from scripture and tradition. I think you can get to that, even if you have a very conservative view of the historicity of these ancient and troubling accounts of the activities of God and his chosen people.

[ 22. March 2014, 06:32: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
I'm suddenly struck by a similarity between the Flood account and the Israelite invasion of Canaan: that nothing was to be left alive.

In the Flood, the waters were to close over the whole earth, purifying it from evil - the only survivors were Noah and his family, and the animals in the Ark. In the invasion, the Canaanites were to be killed utterly and everything they owned - which was contrary to the usual mode of warfare, up to and including the present day (to quote Conan the Barbarian: "What's best in life?" "To crush your enemies, see them driven before you, and to hear the lamentations of their women!").

It's unlikely that any Baal-worshipping goats could have convinced the Israelites over to the dark side, and livestock was wealth. The act of purification would have been symbolic - certainly it didn't make economic sense - but can we trace that symbolism back to the Flood?
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
The Epic of Gilgamesh Chapter 5 is interesting in this context, since the theological view of the purpose for the flood and the blame attachable to it is completely different to the biblical account.

This understanding of purification from evil by utter destruction seems to be a theological characteristic of Jewish salvation history. In other cultures, Gods of those times were seen as powerful, requiring placating and propitiation, but that seems to been more about their believed greater-than-human abilities, than any relationship between divine holiness and human evil. Maybe I'm wrong about that?

I wonder if Gods were perceived as scary because of the 'nasty, brutish and short' experiences which were commonplace. I suppose the real difference was that in many other primitive religions, Gods were seen as capricious, needing obeisance and sacrifice to keep them sweet. A kind of explanation for the vagaries of human life. Whereas within Judaism, the capriciousness and evil behaviour was seen as an aspect of human behaviour, a rebellion against God. Which He had to deal with as a matter of honour? A different kind of explanation for the same vagaries?

As you know, I'm more inclined to accept an emergent understanding of God, illustrated by the different theologies to be found in the OT (and to some extent the NT as well). So that influences my thinking on points like this.

[ 22. March 2014, 10:47: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
De-lurking and blundering in....

quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:

It apparently (not sure how much to trust Wiki here) has the sense of consecrating to God by means of total destruction. The 'plain reading', I think, is that the Israelite conquest of Canaan was for the glory of God, not for their own benefit (and those who did try to benefit from it were also killed). What one makes of that I don't know.

Yes, Wiki basically gets it right. The noun herem derives from a root that has the basic meaning of "set aside" or "proscribe." It's the same root in Arabic that stands behind the word "harem" for a set-apart space and the label "haram" for things that are forbidden.

The total destruction of every living thing is definitely presented as a "religious" action in the biblical stories.

This wasn't unique to ancient Israel. In the famous "Mesha Stele," the Moabite king claims that he "devoted" or "put to the ban" (the verbal form of herem) Israelites to his god, Athtar-Chemosh: "And Kemosh said to me, 'Go, take Nebo from Israel.' And I went in the night and fought against it from daybreak until midday, and I took it and I killed the whole population: seven thousand male subjects and aliens, and female subjects, aliens, and servant girls. For I had put it to the ban for Ashtar Kemosh." [K. C. Hanson's translation, adapting Albright's: K. C. Hanson Mesha Stele]

For what this is worth....

[ 22. March 2014, 13:41: Message edited by: Dubious Thomas ]
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
The Mesha Stele has the Moabite king, Mesha, describing his taking and destroying (herem) of the Israelite city of Nebo

And Chemosh said to me, "Go take Nebo from Israel!" So I went by night and fought against it from the break of dawn until noon, taking it and slaying all seven thousand men, boys, women, girls and maid-servants, for I had devoted them to destruction for (the god) Ashtar-Chemosh.

The stele was apparently created within a generation of the event taking place (and Mesha was a contemporary of Joram son of Ahab according to 2 Kings 3). It indicates the practice of completely destroying the human population of a city after devoting it to a god (not just Yahweh) was not unknown in that place and time. It is not mentioned what happened to the livestock of Nebo.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Now that is very interesting, and news to me. The further question which occurs to me, which you may know the answer to, is "which came first"? The conception of herem in Canaanite religions, or within Judaism?
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Finally found my earlier post on the theodicy issue, back on an earlier page of this thread; I don't think it'll be sufficiently remembered now after where else the thread has gone, so I'm reposting it for the ongoing discussion

quote:

My own tentative answer on this [and not just mine, I've come across it elsewhere though the only name I can now remember is CS Lewis' friend Sheldon van Auken (hope I've spelled that right) in his book 'A Severe Mercy'] is based on the idea that we live in a real world where what we do has real consequences, from which God does not entirely protect us precisely so that the world can be real and significant, that what we do can REALLY matter.

Put a bit crudely, we do not live in a cartoony 'Tom & Jerry' world in which no matter how often Tom is diced by running through a mesh fence, or Jerry flattened by a steam roller, all it needs is a quick 'cut' to a new scene and all is healed (until the next time). Such a world is great fun in a cartoon which we know isn't real - but to live in such a world would be pretty meaningless and our actions in such a world insignificant and ultimately unimportant.

A bit more seriously, nor do we live in the kind of world where any time we want to commit evil, all the laws of physics suddenly change to make it impossible - the rock we throw, intending to kill, suddenly turns into a balloon; the gun will always misfire, and so on. Again such a world would render our moral decisions unreal, ultimately unimportant, more than a bit meaningless. Of course the logic of such a world would lead ultimately to a world in which evil is simply impossible because God makes us just choiceless robots who can only do good. I think you know that if you meet such a world in a sci-fi or fantasy story, you probably wouldn't be happy with it.

The 'real-world' concept means that what you do is important and has real results - including the Holocaust, the Moors Murders, the Cambodian killing fields and all manner of other problems. Does God intervene so that it isn't as bad as it might be? Yes. Does he intervene to the point that moral decisions are obviously meaningless, unchallenging, or mindlessly robotic? No. Does God guarantee that in relation to this real world there will be no ultimate injustice? Yes. For the repentant, there is forgiveness and a change based on lived-out reality rather than God just 'magically' and arbitrarily 'making them good'; for the unrepentant, well the fact that there will be no ultimate injustice means they will pay for their sins, and not only the individual acts of sin but for the kind of person they have made of themselves (arguably the important meaning of the image of 'Gehenna' is not the fire, but the fact that in our world, the place was a rubbish dump). Those posing a 'cosy' view of Jesus should note that in some of his teachings he portrays himself as the judge in this context.

For the undeserving sufferers, well emphatically as Abraham said, "Shall not the judge of all the earth do right?" and should we not trust Him with that for these issues of the past and ourselves get on with our lives as God wants - which in itself will be a major contribution to goodness in the world.

Apart from the conscious obedience of his people, God intervenes in other ways, which can include using human wars. We trust that when he does this kind of thing, his intervention is better than whatever would have been the alternative.

In the acts of Israel in the early OT, we appear to have a very much 'one-off' situation in which God carries out such a providential judgement 'in the open', using his own people in their invasion of Canaan to execute judgement on the Canaanites. From these scenarios they also very much learn, and the ultimate trend of these events is towards good and, to put it shortly, towards Jesus. Israel was not generally allowed to just 'do their own thing' in such matters, and often God allowed them to come unstuck when they did.

(added to my original - this para is related to the recent discussion of 'herem' SL.)

I won't, indeed couldn't, spell out every last detail of this idea, but setting the 'real world that matters' idea against the arbitrary alternatives, the Tom and Jerry world or the robot world, it may be worth the price....


 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Herem, again.

Steve, I think the argument in your penultimate paragraph falls under one of the rationalisations in the article. I prefer this contrary view.

quote:
Wars of extermination are of historical interest only, and do not serve as a model within Judaism.

Nor Christianity. These accounts provide no reliable information about the character of God or the historicity of these events. They are much more likely to be legendary and, in addition, contain pious misconceptions about the God they worshiped. They seem pretty much in line with Mesha's conceptions about the requirements of his God Chemosh. That ought to give any literalist pause for thought.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Regarding ancient records of battles consider this inscribed on Egyptian temple walls after Ramesses II's second Syrian campaign.

quote:
His majesty slaughtered the armed forces of the Hittites in their entirety, their great rulers and all their brothers ... their infantry and chariot troops fell prostrate, one on top of the other. His majesty killed them ... and they lay stretched out in front of their horses. But his majesty was alone, nobody accompanied him
In reality, his forces were nearly destroyed. The best he managed was an ordered retreat and saving more of his army than might have been the case.

Hyperbole and braggadocio were the order of the day.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Well, historians, poets, and artists who depicted battle scenes, also knew what it took to survive very human expressions of wrath by the powerful. (whether or not they considered themselves as Gods).
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Indeed. This is Shelley on the subject:

quote:
Near them, on the sand,
Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown,
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them and the heart that fed:

Ozymandias, of course, being the Greek version of Ramesses II's throne name.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
The further question which occurs to me, which you may know the answer to, is "which came first"? The conception of herem in Canaanite religions, or within Judaism?

Judaism is a Canaanite religion.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
I've been thinking further about my last post even since I first put it in back upthread. It was all a bit tentative, but I think there is a good deal of mileage in the basic idea of 'living in a real world' as opposed to the alternatives.

I hope you'll have gathered that I'm not a total dumb wooden literalist by any means;at the same time I think that the Bible as it has come down to us does contain truth from God about a situation even when it is not simplistically literalist, and should not be just brushed easily aside.

It can be more profitable to wrestle with a hard text than just to ignore it because we don't immediately easily like it.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Mousethief
quote:
Judaism is a Canaanite religion.
That statement comes in many varieties; which one are you suggesting??
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
mousethief was right, I should have said 'other Canaanite religions''.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Just for clarity; Yes, Israel's religion is 'Canaanite' in the sense of being a religion practised in the ;and of Canaan. But it is not exactly derived from the others or akin to them? or is it? I'm aware of arguments among archaeologists about this and wondered which of these views MT might be proposing?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I meant it not just in the geographical sense. Judaism has some commonality with certain other religions of the area, IIRC. The Israelites did not sacrifice their children to YHWH like the Molochites. However there is a certain incident with Abraham and Isaac, where YHWH interrupted the sacrifice and provided a substitute. This speaks of a possible connection to, and outgrowth from, an earlier child-sacrificing religion. This particular branch moved away from the child sacrifice, giving rise to a story in which God put a stop to it; this serves as a "just so" story to explain why we don't do it, although our neighbors do and our forefathers did.

Is it not also the case that in some Canaanite stories, Yahweh and Asherah are spouses? There are webs of interconnection there, it would seem.

I admit I don't know all the research, but I am suspicious of attempts to make Judaism sui generis.* Seems like special pleading.

_____
*the only one of its kind

[ 22. March 2014, 21:26: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:


I admit I don't know all the research, but I am suspicious of attempts to make Judaism sui generis.* Seems like special pleading.

_____
*the only one of its kind

Even if it were, the people were not. They are a product of their place and time.
But, ISTM, a separation is exactly what some see.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Thanks, MT. I think I might prefer to phrase it that Abraham came from a background in which all religions, not just Canaanite, went in for such sacrifice, and God led Abraham in a different direction.

Do you accept the thesis some put out in which the Israelites were always Canaanites - no Exodus, no conquest?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Xpost. This part is to lilBuddha:

They certainly grew apart. By all evidence, the religion of the Ivrim was, back in the ancient past, as henotheist as the best of 'em. Over time it turned into a monotheist religion. Certainly looks like a situation of starting like the neighbors, and growing apart.

quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Do you accept the thesis some put out in which the Israelites were always Canaanites - no Exodus, no conquest?

I don't know enough about the archaeology of the period to say. I've heard some say there is no evidence of a large incursion of Canaanite braceros in Egypt; I'm agnostic on the question.

[ 22. March 2014, 21:48: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
It's entirely possible that the religion of Israel grew from the same traditions of the religions of Canaan but nonetheless diverged sufficiently that eventually it had very little in common with them. My understanding is that Yahweh was originally a Canaanite deity and that he was, at one point, an item with Asherah but that throughout the First Temple period there was a drawing of lines and that by the Second Temple period there was a fairly defined orthodoxy. I think that if you had taken a Yahweh worshipper from the middle bronze age and whisked them forward in time to meet Ezra and Nehemiah they would not really have had a lot in common. But they would have had a common ancestor.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
I think that the Bible as it has come down to us does contain truth from God about a situation even when it is not simplistically literalist, and should not be just brushed easily aside.

I'm not sure I see anyone in this discussion doing that. What we are trying to do is to face up honestly to the considerable difficulties this text produces.
quote:
It can be more profitable to wrestle with a hard text than just to ignore it because we don't immediately easily like it.
The historical, ethical, theological and contemporary political implications of this text for Christian belief have been the subject of much wrestling for two millenia. Stuff like that was, for example, grist to the mill for Marcionites and Gnostics.

Personally, they've bothered me, on an off, for close on half a century and my current views arise from much hard thought over that period of time. I'm an Anabaptist, and have been a member of the same evangelical church for close on 40 years.

It appears that believers in Chemosh and believers in Jahwe had similar views about herem. What is your explanation for that, if not that it may have been some kind of prevalent Canaanite religious concept, not just to be found in Judaism?

[BTW, my prior comment about literalists was intended as a general observation and I certainly wasn't pointing at you. I knew a little about the Mesha stele but had never really considered its text in this context before. It strikes me as pretty challenging evidence and seems to have been dated reliably to the 9th century BC.)
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Fairly said, Barnabas. I was trying to put a bit of distance between myself and some earlier antics on this thread.

I have my own list of texts which are problems for the excessively literal, but won't go there on this thread unless someone else brings up one of them!
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
I think it might be helpful to distinguish between "Israelite religion" and "Judaism." Professional scholars typically identify "Judaism" as having emerged out of the Babylonian Exile. It's what the religion of the kingdom of Judah became because of that crucial historical experience.

"Israelite religion" is everything that existed in Israel for the centuries prior to the Babylonian Exile.

Obviously, there's an organic relationship between Israelite religion and Judaism, just as there is between Judaism of the "Second Temple" period and Christianity. But they're not identical.

Israelite religion had a lot in common with other "Canaanite" religions, and the evidence is mounting that most of the early Israelites were "Canaanites." This view certainly isn't "consensus" yet, but it's quite "mainstream."

I guess it's probably "tacky" to mention that I work on this stuff for a living (Hebrew Bible professor at a university) ... oh well, there, I did it! (And I could just be a plumber pretending to be a professor! [Big Grin] )
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
A P.S. to my last post:

The point of all I wrote is that I think we have to make sense of the stuff Joshua narrates about Israelite behavior in relation to the Ancient Near Eastern context in which the book was written ... which is what some other participants in this thread have been suggesting, too.

It just wasn't unusual to claim that your god told you to exterminate all of your opponents as an act of devotion.

Of course, this doesn't prove that the Israelites actually did it!

A few years ago, the American Public Broadcasting Service (PBS) series "Nova" did a program titled, "The Bible's Buried Secrets," which does a pretty decent job of presenting the scholarly views and debates (I use it in my courses). Here are Youtube clips of two segments from the program that are relevant to this thread:
"The Canaanite Cities" and "Israelite Origins". In the first segment, the debate between Amnon Ben-Tor and his colleague Sharon Zuckerman about who destroyed Hazor is quite enlightening.

By the way, it's worth noting that most scholars date the emergence of the Israelites in Canaan (however they got there) to the 13th century B.C. So, the "inerrantist" scholars who insist on the 15th or 16th century based on a very literal interpretation of the chronology found in Genesis and Kings are well outside the scholarly mainstream--such that they aren't typically part of the discussions.

Okay ... that was a really long P.S.! Sorry about that! I hope some of this is helpful.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Don't apologize, Dubious Thomas! That's fascinating stuff.
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
It is also my understanding that Moabite, the language of the Mesha Stele, and Hebrew are very closely related which also points to a close culture in other ways.
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
It is also my understanding that Moabite, the language of the Mesha Stele, and Hebrew are very closely related which also points to a close culture in other ways.

Yes, that's right. Basically, they're dialects of the same language. A 9th century BC Israelite who could read Hebrew could have read the Mesha Stele inscription with little difficulty. Nowadays, when students study "ancient Hebrew inscriptions," the Mesha Stele is usually part of the curriculum.
 
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on :
 
It would be fascinating if we knew more about the religious systems in Moab and also Ammon and Edom, but, that probably depends on more archaeology in Jordan and hopes of more written material.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Did the Exodus really happen?

This isn't just a tangent, of course, since a mythical Exodus would cast doubt on the whole Canaanite conquest narratives.

The Mesha Stele does provide some support for the view that there was a nation(tribe) called Israel in Canaan in the 9th century BC, and there were warlike acts between nations (tribes) at that time, battling for control of territory.

It's speculative, but there is some attraction in the view that the experiences of slavery in Egypt were a part of the tribal experience of Israelites and other groups in the area. For some, those experiences may have included escape and a period of wandering in the desert. A common heritage which included understanding of the purposes of the Egyptians in taking slaves. Personally I would be surprised if the Exodus was complete myth. I would be much less surprised if the bitterness of slavery and the providential wonder of escape had become embedded in the group mind as a result of the experiences of some of the people.

I rather liked this quote from the linked article.

quote:
3. Knowing the Exodus is not a literal historical accounting does not ultimately change our connection to each other or to God. Faith should not rest on splitting seas. At the Passover Seder we declare: "In each generation, each individual should see himself as if he (or she) went forth from Egypt." The message does not depend upon whether 3 or 3 million individuals left.
Providential rescue from slavery is an excellent article of faith. The Lord will save His people. That is the essential purpose of the narrative and, given its obvious importance in the development of Judaism, through "many dangers toils and snares", I think it likely that there were ancient experiences behind the stories.

I'm in the same position as mousethief, I think. Agnostic about the precise relationship between myth and history, but I would be surprised if the stories were not backed by tribal memories of the bitter experiences of some of the tribe. That sort of thing gets burned into the soul.

[ 23. March 2014, 10:09: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
Barnabas, you're absolutely right. The issue of the historicity of the exodus is definitely not tangential to questions about the origins of the Israelites and the "conquest".

On all of these questions, I recommend, Israel Finkelstein and Neil Asher Silberman's The Bible Unearthed, although they take a more "minimalist" position than I do on a number issues. Also worthy of note is the American archaeologist, William Dever.

quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
The Mesha Stele does provide some support for the view that there was a nation(tribe) called Israel in Canaan in the 9th century BC, and there were warlike acts between nations (tribes) at that time, battling for control of territory.

There isn't really any debate about the existence of "Israel" in the 9th century. There's lots and lots of evidence in addition to the Mesha Stele. For example, the Black Obelisk of Shalmaneser III, which is from roughly the same time, refers to tribute paid to the Assyrian empire by King Jehu (who is titled, "son of Omri," despite the fact that the Bible says he exterminated the family of Omri!).

The debates focus on the earlier history of the Israelites, where we have no corroborating evidence outside of the Bible. Good historians always insist on multiple lines of converging evidence, and that's what we lack for the 11th century and earlier.

quote:
It's speculative, but there is some attraction in the view that the experiences of slavery in Egypt were a part of the tribal experience of Israelites and other groups in the area. For some, those experiences may have included escape and a period of wandering in the desert. A common heritage which included understanding of the purposes of the Egyptians in taking slaves. Personally I would be surprised if the Exodus was complete myth. I would be much less surprised if the bitterness of slavery and the providential wonder of escape had become embedded in the group mind as a result of the experiences of some of the people.


This is pretty much the view held by William Dever, and I agree with it. And neither of us is a biblical inerrantist!
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
I think I may have mentioned this already but this is a nine page thread in Dead Horses, so the hosts know what they are letting themselves in for!

We know that there was some kind of entity knocking around at the end of the Bronze Age called Israel because the Pharaoh Merenptah claimed, with characteristic modesty, to have wiped them out around 1200BC. In Merenptah's day the New Kingdom was the hegemonic power of the day exercising control over the land of Canaan via various Canaanite city states whilst engaging in the odd campaign in the area to show the local pastoralists who, exactly, was boss. When the Bronze Age system started to totter it would have been very much in the interests of any pastoralists, tribespeople or other liminal types to give it a huge shove on the grounds that the Egyptian/ Canaanite hegemony in the area very largely represented death and taxes. So, whilst it's likely that Joshua gets the names of the cities wrong (Yep, that big ruin, must have been one of ours) it's also likely that there was a lot of city burning and getting out from under the power of Egypt and Canaan generally going on and that the story was retold centuries later under the influence of Josianic/ 2nd Temple theology with a heavy degree of mythologisation and a figurative peregrination amped up to a literal peregrination. It's also possible, as Dubious Thomas points out, that at some point dissident Egyptians migrated to Canaan and joined the proto-Israelites and that their story got conflated with the war of liberation. Robert Drews, whose book on the Bronze Age Collapse you ought to read, if you are interested enough in this stuff to read thus far, suggests that the Canticle of Miriam, which we read during Eastertide, dates from this period and represents some kind of victory over the Egyptians and later got redacted into the book of Exodus.

I'd be interested in Dubious Thomas' comments as he isn't an interested amateur (unless he's a postman, in which case where's my Amazon parcel that was due yesterday?) but, of course, my fellow interested amateurs opinions are always welcome!
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Dubious Thomas; as I understand it the dating of the Exodus to the 1200s/13thC BCE was based on first assuming that because the city the Israelites were slaves in is called Ra'Amses in the Bible it must have been the Ramessid dynasty city of 'Pi Ramesse'. When Egyptian archaeology finally sorted out the chronology Rameses turned out to be 13th C in our terms.

This of course ends up disagreeing with the biblical date implied by Solomon's speech at the Temple dedication, which would put the Exodus in the 1400s/15thC BCE. One view, which would certainly apply to a pre-Ramessid mention in the book of Genesis,suggests that a later editor of the story has substituted an -in his time- modern name for an original city which had subsequently decayed following shifts in the Nile Delta watercourses; in somewhat the same way that a modern English historian might, for clarity to his modern readers, refer to Caesar crossing the 'English Channel' even though there wouldn't be any English in Britain for several centuries after Caesar. Thus the text would imply 'in the region of modern Ra'Amses/Pi-Ramesse', rather than
the Ramessid city itself.

The actual city in question was probably, I understand, called 'Avaris' or similar. The known activities of Rameses (any of them!) and the later Merenptah inscription would rather preclude an Exodus in that period anyway.
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Dubious Thomas; as I understand it the dating of the Exodus to the 1200s/13thC BCE was based on first assuming that because the city the Israelites were slaves in is called Ra'Amses in the Bible it must have been the Ramessid dynasty city of 'Pi Ramesse'. When Egyptian archaeology finally sorted out the chronology Rameses turned out to be 13th C in our terms.

I was careful not to refer to the dating of the exodus, but to the appearance of the Israelites in the land of Canaan.

While there was a time when the references to "Pithom and Rameses" in Exodus 1:11 played an important role for some scholars, that is not the case today. Today, the focus is on the archaeological evidence for a distinct ethnic group emerging in the land of Canaan, and that evidence all converges on the 13th century, and happens to match up with the Merneptah Stele's reference to "Israel." That's why, in the "Nova" clip I posted, Amnon Ben-Tor was so eager to show evidence for a cataclysmic destruction of Hazor in the 13th century--that would fit the other evidence for Israelites in Canaan in the 13th century.

You and others might find the following article by James K. Hoffmeir of the Trinity Evangelical Divinity School of interest: "What is the Biblical Date for the Exodus? A Response to Bryant Wood" (it's an online PDF). Yes, that Bryant Wood!

Note that Hoffmeir himself has to distinguish "the ongoing debate among evangelicals" from "the broader context of the main-stream of scholarship," in which most scholars just aren't that interested in the kinds of things that exercise conservative Protestant interpreters.

As Hoffmeir points out in his critique of Woods' arguments, there are massive problems with assigning the exodus and "conquest" to the 15th century, the biggest of these being the fact that Egypt was firmly in control of Canaan during the century when the Israelites were supposedly invading and occupying it!

One could, I suppose, assign the exodus to the 15th century and the conquest to the 13th. But this would mean giving up on an "inerrant" Bible, since its narratives place both events within a time-span of less than fifty years.

I hope this is helpful.
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
I'll add that Hoffmeir is the most qualified evangelical scholar trying to demonstrate the historicity of the exodus and conquest more-or-less as narrated in the Bible. Even folks (like me!) who disagree strongly with him and take issue with his apologetic agenda respect his scholarly abilities and the integrity of his archaeological work. If folks are interested in seeing how a case could be made for accepting Joshua as "historical," Hoffmeir is the person to read, not Wood.

The place to start would be with his Israel in Egypt, published by Oxford University Press, which means it was rigorously peer-reviewed.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
In the texts the partial occupation of Canaan in Numbers and Joshua is set immediately before the appearance of the Philistines as described in Judges and Samuel. The genealogy of David tells us that there were four generations between the conquest and the Kingdom. A century or two. The Philistines turn up at least half way through that, probably earlier. So the arrival in Canaan, according to these stories, can't be earlier than the 1200s BC, maybe later.

NB its the genealogies that count if we want to understand what the books are actually saying happened and how long it took, not the ambiguous and sparse counts of years, which are more about numerology than chronology. As a rule of thumb, or at least a first working hypothesis, any span of years with 40 in it is a statement about the quality and nature of the elapsed time, not its exact length.

Just as the descriptions of the occupation, and the locations where Israelites are found later, tell us what the writers intend us to think happened. And its not what they say was supposed to have happened. The carve-up did not go as planned. Not all the Canaanite cities were destroyed or occupied. The peoples did intermarry. That's what the books actually say. They think that Israel was meant to destroy all the locals, take all the cities, and occupy the whole land. But they are very clear that that did not happen.
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Thank you, Dubious Thomas; I'll do my best to follow up your various references.

One thing I might be querying in light of some comments upthread is whether Egyptian control of Canaan in the 1400s was really 'firm' or whether that was propaganda. Don't respond to that immediately, give me time to read up....
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
NB its the genealogies that count if we want to understand what the books are actually saying happened and how long it took,

This might be true (though I'm not sure, since biblical writers regularly 'play around' with genealogies for ideological purposes), but "what the books are actually saying happened and how long it took" cannot automatically be equated with what actually, historically happened and how long it took.

quote:
Just as the descriptions of the occupation, and the locations where Israelites are found later, tell us what the writers intend us to think happened. And its not what they say was supposed to have happened. The carve-up did not go as planned. Not all the Canaanite cities were destroyed or occupied. The peoples did intermarry. That's what the books actually say. They think that Israel was meant to destroy all the locals, take all the cities, and occupy the whole land. But they are very clear that that did not happen.
It looks to me like you are conflating Joshua and Judges. But, in fact, things are even more complicated that the scenario you describe. It's widely affirmed by non-evangelical biblical scholars (and even a good number of evangelicals) that there are irreconcilable contradictions between the picture of the conquest painted in Joshua and the scenario of occupation presented in Judges, and that there are contradictions internal to each book, as well -- never mind the contradictions between the archaeological evidence and the biblical claims.

One well-known example (which I know was raised earlier in this thread, but before I decided to blunder in):

Joshua 12:10 lists the king of Jerusalem as one of "the kings of the land whom Joshua and the Israelites defeated on the west side of the Jordan." Within the context of Joshua as a whole, it's quite clear than the claim to have defeated a king is a claim to have taken and destroyed his city and occupied his land.

However, Judges 1:8 says that the Judahites conquered and destroyed Jerusalem after the death of Joshua (Judges 1:1).

Then, Judges 1:21 says that the Benjaminites failed to drive out "the Jebusites who lived in Jerusalm; so the Jebusites have lived in Jerusalem among the Benjaminites to this day."

The very same statement appears in Joshua 15:63. However, there, it is the Judahites who couldn't drive out the Jebusites, who "live with the people of Judah in Jerusalem to this day."

Judges 19:10-12 makes clear that Jerusalem was still controlled by its Jebusite residents, and not by Israelites.

Finally, to complete the "mess," 2 Samuel 5:6-9 says that David conquered Jerusalem, which had remained a Jebusite city until his time.

Clearly, some of these claims have to be "wrong" historically. But inerrantists have done exegetical-apologetic gymnastics to make them all "true," treating the Bible in a way that they would treat no other ancient text.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:

Clearly, some of these claims have to be "wrong" historically. But inerrantists have done exegetical-apologetic gymnastics to make them all "true," treating the Bible in a way that they would treat no other ancient text.

Indeed. Try this on for size. Particularly Section C - A suggested solution.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:


Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:



....but "what the books are actually saying happened and how long it took" cannot automatically be equated with what actually, historically happened and how long it took.

[QUOTE][qb]

Whose doing that? I'm trying to find out what the books say, that is what the authors intend their readers to understand by them. You need to do that to read fact or fiction.
[QUOTE]
[QB]
it. looks to me like you are conflating Joshua and Judges. But, in fact, things are even more complicated that the scenario you describe. It's widely affirmed by non-evangelical biblical scholars (and even a good number of evangelicals) that there are irreconcilable contradictions between the picture of the conquest painted in Joshua and the scenario of occupation presented in Judges, and that there are contradictions internal to each book, as well -- never mind the contradictions between the archaeological evidence and the biblical claims.

One well-known example (which I know was raised earlier in this thread, but before I decided to blunder in):

Joshua 12:10 lists the king of Jerusalem as one of "the kings of the land whom Joshua and the Israelites defeated on the west side of the Jordan." Within the context of Joshua as a whole, it's quite clear than the claim to have defeated a king is a claim to have taken and destroyed his city and occupied his land.

However, Judges 1:8 says that the Judahites conquered and destroyed Jerusalem after the death of Joshua (Judges 1:1).

Then, Judges 1:21 says that the Benjaminites failed to drive out "the Jebusites who lived in Jerusalm; so the Jebusites have lived in Jerusalem among the Benjaminites to this day."

The very same statement appears in Joshua 15:63. However, there, it is the Judahites who couldn't drive out the Jebusites, who "live with the people of Judah in Jerusalem to this day."

Judges 19:10-12 makes clear that Jerusalem was still controlled by its Jebusite residents, and not by Israelites.

Finally, to complete the "mess," 2 Samuel 5:6-9 says that David conquered Jerusalem, which had remained a Jebusite city until his time.

Clearly, some of these claims have to be "wrong" historically. But inerrantists have done exegetical-apologetic gymnastics to make them all "true," treating the Bible in a way that they would treat no other ancient text.

Sorry, but that's special pleading. Its obvious that the timespan of Joshua and Judges overlap, in that the later parts of Joshua is a sort of "what happened next" summary, and Judges contains a kind of "previously in Palestine" summary. Some of it is word for word the same. And the later stories in Judges are set in the same times as the first part of Samuel (and Ruth of course)

And why would anyone think that just because a people are defeated and they lose a city they can never come back or win the next war or get their city back? Ten seconds with a map of Europe should finish off that idea. No point in making up stories as to how come the Jebusites could lose a war and win another one later, we have no evidence at all - as far as I remember we might not even have any evidence for their existence outside these stories - but its hardly such a weird thing that it needs a special explanation anyway.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:


It can be more profitable to wrestle with a hard text than just to ignore it because we don't immediately easily like it.

This pisses me off. In a big way. Many of those of us who reject the idea of God as a cosmic genocidal maniac have got there in part through "wrestling with a hard text". The accusation that we've just "rejected it" because we "don't like it" (like a child rejecting mashed swede) is insulting, presumptuous, tiresome and untrue, and I'm beginning to get seriously jacked off by it.

[ 24. March 2014, 09:11: Message edited by: Karl: Liberal Backslider ]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Karl

I think Steve accepted my counter-argument on this point and I know from many posts here that you didn't get to your own understanding without a lot of wrestling. So I understand your annoyance.

Just remember that Hell is for the pissed off and make sure you stick to the issues here.

B62, DH Host

[ 24. March 2014, 10:07: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on :
 
Sorry, Karl; what I said was based on two experiences. First, that I do find that for myself and many others it is profitable to fully engage with a 'hard text' and that to do so leads to a deeper understanding. And secondly that there are an awful lot of people who do just do the superficial 'rejection because they don't like it' thing.

I have only respect for people who have seriously engaged with the tough stuff, even if they don't agree with me.
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Sorry, but that's special pleading. Its obvious that the timespan of Joshua and Judges overlap, in that the later parts of Joshua is a sort of "what happened next" summary, and Judges contains a kind of "previously in Palestine" summary. Some of it is word for word the same. And the later stories in Judges are set in the same times as the first part of Samuel (and Ruth of course)

And why would anyone think that just because a people are defeated and they lose a city they can never come back or win the next war or get their city back? Ten seconds with a map of Europe should finish off that idea. No point in making up stories as to how come the Jebusites could lose a war and win another one later, we have no evidence at all - as far as I remember we might not even have any evidence for their existence outside these stories - but its hardly such a weird thing that it needs a special explanation anyway.

Ken,

Sorry, but I think the special pleading is coming from you. These kinds of arguments apply a kind of hermeneutic of goodwill to the Bible that would not be applied to any other ancient text. When historical contradictions of the kind that are found in Joshua and Judges appear in other ancient texts, they're taken as just that.

The weakness with the approach you are advocating is indicated by the fact that you have to fill in information in order to cancel out the contradictions. If the Jebusites managed (THREE separate times!) to reconquer and rebuild Jerusalem, such a significant event would surely be noted in a narrative that is so concerned with the conquest and control of the land.

For what it's worth, and that may not be much, I don't often engage in these kinds of debates (just as, I am sure, you seldom bother to debate Creationists on the fine points of the exegesis of Genesis in relation to their beliefs), because this is just quite "alien" to the way I (and my professional peers) think about the Bible and history. We KNOW that the Bible is riddled with historical contradictions, errors, and plain fabrications; so it feels weird to have to try to make the case for such an obvious FACT.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
quote:
Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:

Clearly, some of these claims have to be "wrong" historically. But inerrantists have done exegetical-apologetic gymnastics to make them all "true," treating the Bible in a way that they would treat no other ancient text.

Indeed. Try this on for size. Particularly Section C - A suggested solution.
Still does not answer the question of why The God of the New Testament, who resolves by his own sacrifice, is so willing to sacrifice others in the Old.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
I wasn't supporting the arguments in the link, lilBuddha, I was giving the link as an example of the type of argumentation Dubious Thomas was criticising.

I know very well that it does not answer your point. It should be pretty clear by now that I see the text as unreliable on history and demonstrating a theology re the nature of God with which I do not agree.

[ 24. March 2014, 17:46: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:
[ We KNOW that the Bible is riddled with historical contradictions, errors, and plain fabrications; so it feels weird to have to try to make the case for such an obvious FACT.

I'm sure you can find all sorts of obvious contradictions and fabrications but this just isn't one of them. (Jonah or Esther would be much easier places to start if you were trying to demonstrate that some of the OT does not conform to any likely history) Whether or not you are looking for "true history" from Joshua and Judges the little proof-texts you quoted simply don't bear the weight you are putting on them.

Just read the story in the books. Joshua 9 describes an alliance of southern Canaanite peoples and mountain-dwellers against Joshua, and says that the Gibeonites fooled him into making a peace treaty with them. In chapter 10 the kings of Jerusalem, Hebron, Jarmuth, Lachish and Eglon, attack Joshua and are killed, then Gezer joins the alliance, then the cities of Makkedah, Libnah, Lachish, Eglon, Hebron, and Debit are sacked by Israelites, and quite a lot of smiting happens. In chapter 11 the original alliance from chapter 9 (including the Jebusites and Jerusalem) attacks, led by the king of Hazor, and is defeated and Hazor is sacked, but not all the cities are: "But as for the cities that stood still in their strength, Israel burned none of them, save Hazor only; that did Joshua burn."

Joshua 15 is part of the planned partition of the land (which was explicitly not achieved). Jerusalem is on the border of the land allotted to Judah and the land of the Jebusites and is still held by the Jebusites ("As for the Jebusites the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the children of Judah could not drive them out: but the Jebusites dwell with the children of Judah at Jerusalem unto this day.)

This chapter also says that Caleb was allotted land as part of the tribe of Judah, although he is not even an Israelite never mind a Judean. The later tribe of Judah is said to be made up of a mixture of different groups, some Israelite, some not.

In chapter 18 we get another border itinerary, and Jebus (that is Jerusalem) is on the border. In chapter 24 there is another, different partition of the land in which Jebus/Jerusalem is allotted to Benjamin. Also never achieved. Those may have been plans or prophecies or commandments from God, but the book never claims that Israel carried them out. Quite the opposite, it moans about them having failed to. For example in Judges 1: "And the children of Benjamin did not drive out the Jebusites that inhabited Jerusalem; but the Jebusites dwell with the children of Benjamin in Jerusalem unto this day." And Judges 3: "And the children of Israel dwelt among the Canaanites, Hittites, and Amorites, and Perizzites, and Hivites, and Jebusites: and they took their daughters to be their wives, and gave their daughters to their sons, and served their gods. And the children of Israel did evil in the sight of the Lord, and forgat the Lord their God, and served Baalim and the groves."

And further mentions of Jebusites, sometimes alongside Benjaminites, throughout Judges and the earlier part of Samuel, until David gets into smiting mode. Which puts David's capture of Jerusalem in the context of his Judah vs. Benjamin conflict, also of his immediate clansfolk from Hebron and Bethlehem vs the rest of Judah (which causes trouble all through Samuel and the earlier part of Kings)

There is nothing implausible or contradictory there that even the most brain-dead of literalists need feel called to defend with mental gymnastics or otherwise.

I suppose the real lesson here is that what Joshua and Judges actually say is not what some simplified Sunday-school versions say they say.

The simplified version is:

1) God commands Israel to wipe out the Canaanites, Amorites, Hivites, Hittites, Perizzites, Jebusites, Gigabites, Thisites, Thatites, Theotherites, etc, etc ,etc

2) Joshua wins lots of battles, captures all the cities, slaughters all the Ites

3) Israel has a big meeting and divides up the land into tribal territories, just like in the map at the back of your book

4) Each tribe settles down into its allotted territory

6) And then the Philistines turn up and everything goes pear-shaped for about four hundred years until Samuel, Saul, and David come on the scene.

What Joshua and the first few chapters of Judges actually say is more like this:

1) God commands Israel to wipe out the Canaanites, Amorites, Hivites, Hittites, Perizites, Jebusites, Gigashites, Thisites, Thatites, Theotherites, etc, etc ,etc

2) Joshua wins lots of battles (desctibed at length), loses a few more (skipped over in passing), captures some cities, slaughters many Ites, but nowhere near most of them, never mind all. And lets some tribes off slaughtering entirely, some deliberately, some by accident.

3) Israel has a big meeting and divides up the land into tribal territories, just like in the map at the back of your book

4) Some tribes try to settle down into their allotted territory, some fail, some don't even bother. There are lots of little wars in which various leaders carve out land for themselves at the expense of the Cites usually, but sometimes of Hebrews. And the most successful of them is Caleb who isn't even a Hebrew. Quite a lot of the Ites manage to hold on to some or all of their territory. Some of them, including the Jebusites, mix with the Hebrews and intermarry with them. At least one other attempt is made to redraw the map and give territory to those tribes who seem capable of actually possesing it, but that, too, fails (though some Benjaminites move into Jerusalem and live with the Jebusites)

6) And then the Philistines turn up and everything stays pear-shaped for something between about fifty and a hundred and fifty years until Samuel, Saul, and David come on the scene.

Now, that doesn't mean that's what actually happened. But it is what the story actually says. If your read it as a story rather than as a proof-text mine.

Also NB the story is set at the end of the Iron Age and the begining of the Bronze age. The Exodus leaves an Eqypt where weapons and ploughshares are made of bronze and arrives in a Canaan where they are made of iron. Bummer for them, they have to go to the Philistines to get their tools fixed because they have no smiths. (1 Samuel 13.19, and yes that is a proof text but isn't it a bloody good one!)

Now we now the Philistines and Hittites did use iron when they arrived in Canaan. Or Palestine, as we are now allowed to call it, because its full of Philistines. And that fits with some time between the late 1200s BC and maybe a little after 1000 BC.

Before that no-one would hav had iron, there would have been no Philistines or Hittites in the land, and Egypt would have been Top Nation (as in fact they are in the last chapters of Genesis - they are even taxing the place) It would be pretty pointless to run through the wilderness to get away from the Egyptians by going to a country they are in charge of.

Much after that everybody would have iron, Egypt would have ercovered afrom the Sea Peoples, and Assyria would have started throwing its weight around again. But they don't get mentioned in the OT till 2 Kings 15, by which time Tiglath-Pileser III is king of Assyria and its far too late to do anything about them.


Again, none of this means that the stories are true history. But they do mean that whoever wrote them had a good idea of what they were talking about, and that the stories are set in the time of the Sea Peoples and the neo-Hittites - the very start of the Iron Age. If this is historical fiction it is historical fiction written by people who had some idea of technological progress and historical change, who knew the past was not like the present, and had a good idea of what some of the differences were.

[ 24. March 2014, 17:51: Message edited by: ken ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I wasn't supporting the arguments in the link, lilBuddha, I was giving the link as an example of the type of argumentation Dubious Thomas was criticising.

I know very well that it does not answer your point. It should be pretty clear by now that I see the text as unreliable on history and demonstrating a theology re the nature of God with which I do not agree.

My apologies, Barnabas62.
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
Ken,

You've done a fine job of presenting the kinds of arguments that conservative evangelical scholars (guys like Iain Provan, for example) offer, which are regularly and ruthlessly dismantled by scholars who are not driven by a need to prove the veracity of the biblical historical narratives.

Honestly, I have neither the time nor the energy to write a critique of your lengthy and quite cogent argument. I have to focus on evaluating much less well-developed arguments in undergraduate writing. Sorry. I shouldn't have jumped into a debate I couldn't give the attention it deserves.

If you'd like to explore the alternative to your approach, I recommend Miller and Hayes, A History of Ancient Israel and Judah. They discuss the problems with trying to reconcile Joshua with Judges, etc.

[ 24. March 2014, 20:04: Message edited by: Dubious Thomas ]
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Originally posted by ken:

quote:
Also NB the story is set at the end of the Iron Age and the begining of the Bronze age. The Exodus leaves an Eqypt where weapons and ploughshares are made of bronze and arrives in a Canaan where they are made of iron. Bummer for them, they have to go to the Philistines to get their tools fixed because they have no smiths. (1 Samuel 13.19, and yes that is a proof text but isn't it a bloody good one!)

Now we now the Philistines and Hittites did use iron when they arrived in Canaan. Or Palestine, as we are now allowed to call it, because its full of Philistines. And that fits with some time between the late 1200s BC and maybe a little after 1000 BC.

Before that no-one would hav had iron, there would have been no Philistines or Hittites in the land, and Egypt would have been Top Nation (as in fact they are in the last chapters of Genesis - they are even taxing the place) It would be pretty pointless to run through the wilderness to get away from the Egyptians by going to a country they are in charge of.

Now that strikes me as a folk memory. In Homer the heroes have bronze weapons and armour rock up to the battlefield in a chariot and then dismount and fight hand to hand. It is entirely correct that around the period when Troy VI was sacked soldiers wore bronze armour and travelled by chariot but they also fought from their chariots in a way that Achilles and co. don't.

In the same way the Israelites did transition from bronze age to iron age but there's no evidence that they did so any later than other groups in the region. Philistines did turn up in Canaan at the end of the bronze age (from Crete), whereas the Hittites controlled northern Canaan, from their fastnesses in Anatolia until the destruction of their Empire during the bronze age collapse. At which point they vanish from history.

Incidentally, there is plenty of good reason for a group which has dropped out of ordered society to head for the periphery, as opposed to the centre. If a group of Canaanite labourers made themselves habiru then heading for the hills where law enforcement was less effective than it was right under Pharaohs nose would be a sound move. It's not as if the enforcement of justice is entirely consistent in a modern state - if you want to run a crack den the West Side of Baltimore is probably a better bet than Manhattan. Hanging out with a bunch of Canaanite pastoralists on the fringes of the local client state was probably a better bit than hanging out in Pi-Rameses.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:
Ken,

You've done a fine job of presenting the kinds of arguments that conservative evangelical scholars (guys like Iain Provan, for example) offer, which are regularly and ruthlessly dismantled by scholars who are not driven by a need to prove the veracity of the biblical historical narratives.

Which is a pity because that's not at all what I am trying to do. I am trying to read what the text actually says. And I don't think it says what you said it says.

That's a completely different question from whether its historically true or not. After all there are plenty of people (not all fruitcakes though most of them are) who reject the usual account of Egyptian history of that period. And some who think the whole Sea Peoples/Philistines thing is made up and has little evidential base.
 
Posted by Penny S (# 14768) on :
 
Gildas, I'm pretty sure that the Greeks at Troy used chariots both as transport to the site of fighting, where they dismounted, and as platforms for fighting as well - I've just checked one source which seems to confirm that (see here), but am not ready to plough all the way through the original to find references myself. Another source says it was rarely so used. (In describing the actions of heroes, standing in a chariot throwing spears, or, perish the thought, shooting arrows doesn't quite work. It's what ordinary warriors would do, maybe.) Doesn't alter your argument, though.
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
You may well be right, Penny, my understanding is that Homer has bronze age heroes fighting with iron age tactics but I can't imagine that no-one during that period decided to go up hand to hand with an important adversary to make a point. My other understanding is, via Robert Drews, that the development of iron age weaponry made the bronze age collapse possible. A foot soldier could suddenly take down a chariot but, until then, a chariot was invincible. But it's not unreasonable to point out that a certain amount of hand to hand fighting went on during the period, as well.
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Which is a pity because that's not at all what I am trying to do. I am trying to read what the text actually says. And I don't think it says what you said it says.

I really am sorry. It's 'unfair' of me to have posed a challenge and then not followed through with the discussion. But I find it daunting to think of doing an adequate job of making my case in response to the specifics of your reading of Joshua and Judges.

Let me just make a general point, if I may. I would suggest that the problem with "trying to read what the text actually says" is that the text doesn't actually say one consistent thing. It just can't be read so that all of the details fit together into a coherent narrative. It likely wasn't even meant to be read that way.

I do think it says what I said it says -- because, well, that's actually what it does say.

I think I did misunderstand part of what you were getting at. Yes, you're right, we can and should distinguish an explanation of the story narrated by a text from conclusions about whether that story is historically true.

But, in my experience, most folks who try to read Joshua and Judges as presenting a coherent, consistent story do so in order to support claims for its historicity. I accept that you were not trying to do that.

I'm not sure I can manage much more on this (again, as I noted, given time and energy considerations). I wish I could! These are questions I care a lot about!
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:
[QB] ... I recommend Miller and Hayes, A History of Ancient Israel and Judah. /QB]

Doesn;t seem to be in the main academic bookshops round here... though I have yet to try Foyle's. (And if that fails there are the little shops near the British Museum)
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
Foyle's says its out of print [Frown]
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Foyle's says its out of print [Frown]

That's unfortunate! ... and odd! I just checked the website for Westminster John Knox Press, the publisher. They show it being available here in the United States. However, WJK's UK website doesn't list it -- so it doesn't seem to be available over there.

I'm sure most theology libraries will have it. Is that an option for you?
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dubious Thomas:
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Foyle's says its out of print [Frown]

That's unfortunate! ... and odd! I just checked the website for Westminster John Knox Press, the publisher. They show it being available here in the United States. However, WJK's UK website doesn't list it -- so it doesn't seem to be available over there.

I'm sure most theology libraries will have it. Is that an option for you?

According to the catalogue we have the 1977 edition where I work. My card lets me in to the back door of the library about 5 metres from my desk...

But that one is old, old, old.

I might go and have a look though.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
According to the catalogue we have the 1977 edition where I work. My card lets me in to the back door of the library about 5 metres from my desk...

But that one is old, old, old.

I might go and have a look though.

Its the Hayes-and-Miller edited one and I suspect well out of date. I read the relevant chapters (which in fact were written by Miller and Hayes). The one about the occupation of Canaan doesn't actually say anything very different from what I said in my long post, other than its written in academic rather than normal language so rather less scathing than I was. And they seem to have a problem with the idea that a city (in particular Jerusalem but also some others) could change hands a number of times over a few decades, or could have a mixed population of different tribes and nations living alongside each other - which frankly I don't understand, it happened often enough in recent European history, I genuinely don;t see teh problem.

Also two things that are I suppose bugbears of mine. They talk about the "internal chronology" of Genesis-Kings in a way that even most serious theological conservative scholars probably don't any more - taking the 480 years from the Exodus to the Temple at face value (when it is clearly a numerological symbol, not a date(*)) and trying to add together the careers of the various Judges to fit into that timespan - then find it wanting (as it obviously bloody is) so dismiss supposed "conservatives". But that business of adding up the dates of Judges and Patriarchs is really just an obession of YECcies and some rather odd adventists and dispensationalists with a certain kind of "prophetic" interpretation system, and most evangelical scholars are likely to pay it little attention these days. (Also as I said before it forces you to ignore the Philistines, who can't be ignored, and puts the Captivity and Exodus back into the Middle Kingdom of Egypt which is fashionable with makers of woo-woo TV documentaries shown on cable channels in the small hours of the morning but impossible to reconcile with any straightfoward reading of the text)

Also they seem to still be attached (or were attached in 1977) to the notion that you can chop up the OT verse by verse, almost word by word, into JEDP sources, and go on about this or that being written or interpolated by the "Deuteronomist" or one or another supposed redactor.

Now I doubt if very many people who think about it seriously hold that the Pentateuch and the "historical" books are not composed from previous sources. (No Biblical literalist could about the histories because there are passages that claim to be from other books). And the old division of these sources broadly into JEDP may even be correct - though we cannot possible know for sure, and there are many other plausible schemes - and they are certainly interesting and fun to speculate about. But exact assignment of portios of text to sources is logically impossible, it can't be done. You cvan only start to do that if you have more than one different text to look at (in fact is probably the minimum, with various arbitrary assignments of one or another of them as an outgroup to the others). We simply don't have that for the Pentateuch, Joshua, Judges, or most of Samuel and Kings. We do have it for the Gospels - three obviously closely-related texts and one outlier - so it is possible to set up schemes that attempt to separate sourtces (though not to "prove" any of them other than probabilistically) We sort of have it for the bits of Samuel and the earlier part of Kings that are paralelled in Chronicles - though its so obvious what the supposed Chrionicler is up to we don't get much interesting out of it. (**) We do have it for the very end of Kings around the fall of Jesusalem - because Kings, and Jeremiah have reasonably complete but mostly independent accounts, the paralells in Chronicles seems to get a bit more sensible at the end, and there are outliers in some other prophets (Ezekiel even has dates!)

But seriously, the only way we can assign passages from the Pentateuch, Joshua, Judges, or Samuel+1Kings, to different souces is subjective judgements based on style and literary "feel". That's great fun, but absolutely untestable, even statistcally.


I'm being unfair. This is a short chapter in a book from forty years ago. I assume they would write it differently now. I assume they have written it differently. Perhaps taking Albright and Alt and and Bright and Noth less seriously. And I kind of assume (and hope) that no-one now talks about early Israel as an "amphictyony" or tries to make the description of the occupation into a kind of Peasant's Revolt (two screamingly anachronistic importations that seem to have been popular fifty or sixty years ago)

And I hope people take the bloody Philistines seriously these days... not really with much confidence though. I have met peopel teaching Old Testament studies to trainee priests and ministers (not evangelicals and fundamentalists, nice Anglican liberals) who seem to have no idea of the differences between Philistines and Phoenicians, or Assyrians and Babylonians, never mind the Canaanites, Amorites, or Hittites. And didn't even know the Persians were mostly monotheists. They all seem to get conflated together in some sort of "Ancient Oriental Empire" lump. Apart from the Egyptians who were mysterious and sexy and had pyramids.

Moan, moan, moan....

Sorry that became a rant. And I'm not knocking Miller or Hayes, just wishing we had a copy of their newer book. And as I said most of what they say is what I was saying as well. Honest guv.

But then I am no kind of Biblical or literary scholar. Got hardly a sentence of Hebrew in me (***) Nor am I a historian. By academic training I'm a biologist (which is why I know you need three sources to make a logical tree and even then need to make assumptions about the root, and can only get probablisitic answers) and by teenage predilection an ancient wargamer. Which is how come I knew who the Philistines and Phoenecians were...

(*) Rule of Thumb One - the numbers 12 or 40 are almost always symbolic. 12*40 is a dead giveaway. 12 is means a full or complete set of people. Which is why there have to be 12 children of Israel, 12 tribes, and 12 disciples, even though more are mentioned by name in the text. If doesn't mean "one more tribe than 11" it means "the right number of tribes, all there were meant to be". 40 is a symbol of a complete period of time. So there are 40 days and 40 nights. And a surprising number of judges and priests do their business for 40 years. So 480 years from the Exodus to the Temple means that the time of the tribes has been fulfilled. That's what it means - its not a dodgy metaphorical interpertation, its an accurate translation of an idiom.

(**) Rule of Thumb Two - as told me by an Old testament lecturer (who did know the difference between Philistines and Phoenicians) when Kings and Chronicles differ, go with Kings every time.

(***) though I did do night classes in Middle Egyptian once...
 
Posted by Dubious Thomas (# 10144) on :
 
I can't respond in detail -- too busy craving graham crackers (see my new post in Dead Horses!) ....

I should have "warned you away" from the 1977 edition of the book. It's [I[way[/I] out-of-date in many ways, and lacks many of the best features of the new edition -- which is really a completely new book, rather than simply a refurbishment of the older one.
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
bumping up for housekeeping reasons
 


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