Thread: God's morality is objective Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.


To visit this thread, use this URL:
http://forum.ship-of-fools.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic;f=70;t=024518

Posted by Squibs (# 14408) on :
 
These days there is much chatter on the internetz about subjective and objective morality. The claim is often made that without God objective morality can not exist. Without getting to much into the particulars of the argument, I must say that I find it convincing. In short, I believe that there are certain actions that are wrong and that God is the best ontological foundation for such a belief. God is a better explination that anything am Harris has devised (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Moral_Landscape. But perhaps this is for another thread.

One of the few decent arguments against the concept of objective morality derived from God (perhaps I've worded that wrong) is to claim that God's morality is itself subjective because it is based upon God's own ideas. As the objective card is removed from the table (or the attempt is made), the conclusion is that God's ideas are no "better" than any other views on morality.

On the face of it the only option is to offer a circular argument that seeks to establish an immutable God with goodness and goodness with this God. Alternatively, one could propose that morality lies outside God, which would pose some very awkward questions.

It's a fascinating argument, and one that I don't necessarily have a rebuttal against.

Any takers? Or anyone want to run with this?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Squibs:
These days there is much chatter on the internetz about subjective and objective morality. The claim is often made that without God objective morality can not exist. Without getting to much into the particulars of the argument, I must say that I find it convincing. In short, I believe that there are certain actions that are wrong and that God is the best ontological foundation for such a belief.

From my perspective the biggest problem with this assertion is that if morality is "objective", there shouldn't be so much disagreement about it. Most other things that are "objective" generate greater agreement the more they're observed. Moral codes seem to proliferate over time.

I can understand why "God said so" is rhetorically attractive as a justification, but it seems to be an assumption made more for convenience than for any other reason.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
What's the point of a morality? I imagine for some all you need is consequentialism driven by a social understanding of the pleasure principle.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Squibs:
One of the few decent arguments against the concept of objective morality derived from God (perhaps I've worded that wrong) is to claim that God's morality is itself subjective because it is based upon God's own ideas. As the objective card is removed from the table (or the attempt is made), the conclusion is that God's ideas are no "better" than any other views on morality.

This "counter-argument" is based on a Platonic falsehood that sees morality as some kind of external yardstick (an "idea") with which to measure action. That is not the case. Rather, morality in an Aristotelian sense is simply the good of a creature that can make rational decisions. The good of a squirrel consists in part in collecting nuts and storing them away for winter. Where a squirrel can't do that, for example because it has a broken leg, we call it "ill". In other cases of interruption of its good we may call it "disturbed" or "confused" etc. The good of a human being consists in part in not killing innocent human beings. Where a human being does kill innocent humans, we call him "evil" if this arises from his own free decision. Where it doesn't, we call him "(mentally) disturbed" or perhaps "confused" etc. So this is in strict analogy to the squirrel, the only difference being that a human has the ability to turn away from his good by a free choice, and hence can be judged by "morals" (how well choices accord with goods).

It is then obvious that a Creator determines the "morals" of all rational creatures automatically, namely simply by making them with their own sets of good, just like any other creature. (Note that "good" here is completely general. The good of a stone is in part to be hard and heavy...) It is not the case that the Creator first makes rational creatures, and then makes a moral yardstick, and finally imposes the latter on the former - so that the rational creatures may feel "oppressed" by this choice. Rather in the very act of making creatures, their goods are set, and hence in making rational creatures, their "morals".

This is subjective in the sense that all creation is subjective. Obviously, that's nothing but saying that there is a Creator. It is however not subjective as in making an additional choice about "morals", existing apart from the original creation, which God somehow then decides to be good for creatures. Our "morals" are rather part of us, they are natural to us, written on our heart one might say more poetically...

quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
From my perspective the biggest problem with this assertion is that if morality is "objective", there shouldn't be so much disagreement about it.

The only thing that needs to be said concerning this is that nobody has ever claimed that it is easy to discover these objective truths. "Natural" as in natural moral law does not at all mean "obvious". We are spending incredible efforts to discover objective natural physical law, with plenty of ferocious disagreement along the way. There is no particular reason why "morals" should not likewise contain difficult problems that are hard to resolve. And so it does.
 
Posted by que sais-je (# 17185) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
This "counter-argument" is based on a Platonic falsehood that sees morality as some kind of external yardstick (an "idea") with which to measure action. That is not the case. Rather, morality in an Aristotelian sense is simply the good of a creature that can make rational decisions.

I agree with you in thinking the Aristotelian view makes more sense - but that's because neither you nor I are Platonists. They might reasonably say you can't dump Plato's view by fiat. But we'll see if any Platonists join in.


It is then obvious that a Creator determines the "morals" of all rational creatures automatically, namely simply by making them with their own sets of good, just like any other creature.


But if creature act too much against their own virtues (here just a synonym for their good) they would probably not survive as social groupings. Too many murders/thefts/adulteries impairs trust make group survival less likely. It's not clear that a Creator is necessary to arrange things - it just happens.

There is no particular reason why "morals" should not likewise contain difficult problems that are hard to resolve. And so it does.

I agree, but also if it was very easy to be moral, morality would cease to be visible. It's like air - the experience of it's absence makes us notice it and makes it an object of study.

It seems to me that our ethical systems may be no more that assimilation of early learning projected, as humans are prone to do, onto a wider world.

As a child you are taught that some actions are 'good' (walking, using a potty, managing a spoon). 'Good' = getting approval = 'virtue'.

Later, when we are herded together in schools and nurseries we get an early grounding in rights ('We don't bite people, do we Tristram?', 'How would it be if we all behaved like that?'). And so on.

This isn't 'ethical' training - it's child management. But when we leave the nursery and extend the lessons to life in general perhaps it becomes ethics. I suspect it is not the poets who are the invisible legislators of mankind but the parents and primary school teachers.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by que sais-je:
I agree with you in thinking the Aristotelian view makes more sense - but that's because neither you nor I are Platonists. They might reasonably say you can't dump Plato's view by fiat. But we'll see if any Platonists join in.

Well, actually I'd guess that the view of some kind of separable moral is not Platonic, as in the historical school of philosophy associated with the philosopher Plato. I merely meant "Platonic" in the generalized sense of "abstracting an idea from things and declaring that it has a kind of independent existence on its own, and in fact then is taken to be the external measure of the things from which it was abstracted". That was perhaps a bit confusing, since I did use "Aristotelian" more properly.

quote:
Originally posted by que sais-je:
But if creature act too much against their own virtues (here just a synonym for their good) they would probably not survive as social groupings. Too many murders/thefts/adulteries impairs trust make group survival less likely. It's not clear that a Creator is necessary to arrange things - it just happens.

First, I do not argue the existence of God from the existence of morals. I think all such arguments are as weak as our practical grasp of morals, i.e., very weak indeed. Second, it is no surprise that an Aristotelian explanation of morals would be very close in spirit to any "biologically derived" explanation. Aristotle is very much a "natural philosopher". Just as for any physical phenomenon, however, it is false to assume that Divine explanations come in as another cause among the natural ones. Rather, Divine causality is external to the whole set of circumstances and natural causes, causing all of it in a non-temporal sense. So in reading off morals from "nature", we are not eliminating God. We are rather discovering God's design. Third, the true difference comes to light not in the analysis of human morality, but in the evaluation of it. What is the force of discovering that this or that moral rule is best for human flourishing in a natural sense? In particular so if general human progress allows one to artificially modify and delay the expected "pay-offs" of our choices? Can we exert control over our morality, can we shape it to our liking?

quote:
Originally posted by que sais-je:
It seems to me that our ethical systems may be no more that assimilation of early learning projected, as humans are prone to do, onto a wider world.

This is basically a pointless comment as far as our discussion here is concerned. It may well be the case that we learn the morals of "not hitting others" from our parents. But this does not explain why our parents are not teaching us "hit them harder" instead. The mode of establishing morals is not the same as the content of morals. Humans in general require much more learning than other animals, but what we have to learn in order to flourish remains part of our nature. It is not good for humans to "hit each other harder", because for one this disrupts community and humans flourish better in groups. Furthermore, we can of course see the very act of parents teaching their children as part of an ongoing investigation into human flourishing. We may say for example that on the subject of hitting each other we have progressed beyond the parents in ancient Sparta, and we can demonstrate this objectively by "out-flourishing" them.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Squibs:
One of the few decent arguments against the concept of objective morality derived from God (perhaps I've worded that wrong) is to claim that God's morality is itself subjective because it is based upon God's own ideas. As the objective card is removed from the table (or the attempt is made), the conclusion is that God's ideas are no "better" than any other views on morality.

The problem of course is that in claiming that God's ideas are themselves only subjective, the arguer simultaneously gets rid of any real ground for discounting them. If God's morality is only subjective there is no reason why God shouldn't impose them on anybody God chooses.

But God is not a person just like us writ large. God has no agenda other than the good of creation. God doesn't have any needs or passions, not even, despite some evangelical argument, any aversion to sin. God doesn't have ideas as we understand them, since God everything as it is perfectly by creating it. So treating God as just one more subjectivity is profoundly misguided.

(I rather think the words 'objective' and 'subjective' unhelpful in this kind of context.)

Of course, none of the above means that humans have unmediated access to God.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
From my perspective the biggest problem with this assertion is that if morality is "objective", there shouldn't be so much disagreement about it. Most other things that are "objective" generate greater agreement the more they're observed.

The area of human learning that commands greatest agreement is mathematics. Now either mathematics has no objective existence, or else mathematics falsifies materialism, or some other option obtains.
None of the above options are entirely unproblematic for your position.
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
Then it is moral to burn your daughter alive for being raped.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC...
Then it is moral to burn your daughter alive for being raped.

Such an action is certainly not necessarily immoral from a naturalistic point of view, because burning your daughter merely involves the reconfiguration of matter, which is what nature does. It's no more immoral than two rocks hitting each other as they hurtle through space. And if such an action provides utility to the person performing the act, then what's 'wrong' with that (within a naturalistic paradigm)?

Of course, I think the action certainly is totally immoral. But then, thankfully, I am not a (metaphysical) naturalist.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Most other things that are "objective" generate greater agreement the more they're observed. Moral codes seem to proliferate over time.

Is that so?

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN in 1948. Could you have got so many cultures to acknowledge a common set of morals in 1548? 1048? 548?
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
First, I do not argue the existence of God from the existence of morals. I think all such arguments are as weak as our practical grasp of morals, i.e., very weak indeed.

I find that interesting, because for me the concept of morality (note the, erm, key change there) is a knock-down argument against materialism. I acknowledge that it's not that way for other doubtless cleverer people but I've yet to encounter a description of morality that didn't seem to boil down to one of two options - either that morality is an illusion (and therefore we can't call any choice or action evil) or that morality is part of the nature of reality (which whilst not proving theism, makes it look a reasonable option and certainly kicks strict materialism off its pedestal).
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
either that morality is an illusion (and therefore we can't call any choice or action evil)

That simply doesn't follow. Even if there is no such thing as an independent objective morality it doesn't mean we can't say that we think murder is evil. It just means we have to persuade other people to agree with our position rather than appealing to an external authority in order to impose it on them.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
That simply doesn't follow. Even if there is no such thing as an independent objective morality it doesn't mean we can't say that we think murder is evil. It just means we have to persuade other people to agree with our position rather than appealing to an external authority in order to impose it on them.

So are you trying to argue then that if the entire human race agreed with one voice that murder was not evil, it would become good?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
So are you trying to argue then that if the entire human race agreed with one voice that murder was not evil, it would become good?

As far as we were concerned, yes.

Is that any different in principle from the situation that actually pertains, namely that the entire human race agree that murder (albeit with varying definitions of the word!) is bad, therefore we consider it to be evil.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
As far as we were concerned, yes.

Then any claim that murder is evil is an illusion. It is, in your mind, nothing more than the opinion of a large number of people and therefore not subject to challenge.

quote:
Is that any different in principle from the situation that actually pertains, namely that the entire human race agree that murder (albeit with varying definitions of the word!) is bad, therefore we consider it to be evil.
Yes. Because I believe in the concept of objective morality, I can consider whether or not the majority opinion, or even my individual opinion, might be wrong. Calling it wrong requires there to be a standard to which it can theoretically be compared, whether or not we have any certain access to that standard. You on the other hand are stood, philosophically speaking, on a branch which you've just sawn through because you've defined your standard as the unanimous vote and therefore ruled out the possibility of a unanimous vote being wrong.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Squibs:
These days there is much chatter on the internetz about subjective and objective morality. The claim is often made that without God objective morality can not exist. Without getting to much into the particulars of the argument, I must say that I find it convincing. In short, I believe that there are certain actions that are wrong and that God is the best ontological foundation for such a belief. God is a better explination that anything am Harris has devised (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Moral_Landscape. But perhaps this is for another thread.

One of the few decent arguments against the concept of objective morality derived from God (perhaps I've worded that wrong) is to claim that God's morality is itself subjective because it is based upon God's own ideas. As the objective card is removed from the table (or the attempt is made), the conclusion is that God's ideas are no "better" than any other views on morality.

On the face of it the only option is to offer a circular argument that seeks to establish an immutable God with goodness and goodness with this God. Alternatively, one could propose that morality lies outside God, which would pose some very awkward questions.

It's a fascinating argument, and one that I don't necessarily have a rebuttal against.

Any takers? Or anyone want to run with this?

If morality is objective because it comes from the circular God is Moral argument I'm going to take the consequences a step further. It means that as a necessary consequence you have an objective morality because Might Makes Right. Nothing more, nothing less. God is the mightiest therefore he says what is right. That is the single and sole source of God's morality. "Because I can enforce this and am the biggest there is."
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
If morality is objective because it comes from the circular God is Moral argument I'm going to take the consequences a step further. It means that as a necessary consequence you have an objective morality because Might Makes Right.

The fact that you're raising this objection suggests that you think it's then possible for there to be an objective morality to which God does not adhere, but that he might decree a different morality and enforce it by power. This is philosophically possible but in it God has become a creature in the broad sense because you could theorise the existence of an entity who has equal power yet is more moral according to the objective standard, and this alternative would be God (or closer to God) as monotheists conceive him to be.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Then any claim that murder is evil is an illusion.

Not an illusion. A belief.

quote:
It is, in your mind, nothing more than the opinion of a large number of people and therefore not subject to challenge.
I didn't say it was not subject to challenge. Perhaps you misunderstood the meaning of "as far as we were concerned"? I mean, if you posit a scenario where humanity speaks with one voice then by definition there are no people challenging that voice!

quote:
Because I believe in the concept of objective morality, I can consider whether or not the majority opinion, or even my individual opinion, might be wrong. Calling it wrong requires there to be a standard to which it can theoretically be compared, whether or not we have any certain access to that standard.
Calling it wrong merely requires an alternative moral framework from which one can make such a claim. It doesn't require either side to be objectively right or wrong.

It is, in fact, your view that prevents any questioning of morality, because it states that X moral opinion is utterly and objectively true and cannot be argued against.

quote:
You on the other hand are stood, philosophically speaking, on a branch which you've just sawn through because you've defined your standard as the unanimous vote and therefore ruled out the possibility of a unanimous vote being wrong.
If it's truly unanimous then nobody will be claiming it's wrong in the first place, which I'll grant means it won't be overturned. And for all practical purposes I'd say any moral claim that is agreed upon by every single person on the planet is true, as far as we're concerned.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Not an illusion. A belief.

Marvin the Martian believes murder is wrong. Fred Bloggs believes murder is right. There is no objective morality, therefore neither can be said to be right or wrong according to your argument. You can tell Fred he's done evil, and he can say that he believes he hasn't. You can never at any point appeal to Fred to change his belief from the wrong one to the right one, because there is no right one in your mind, there is only your preference.
quote:
I didn't say it was not subject to challenge. Perhaps you misunderstood the meaning of "as far as we were concerned"?
No, I don't think I did. I ignored it because I thought you were using it to evade the question. Let's narrow down that question. Bunch of children on an island grow up to believe that people with blond hair should be thrown off a cliff. That's their belief. I can say they're wrong. You can say nothing better than that their beliefs differ from yours. And I can say that if they were the only people in existence, they would still be wrong. You can't, in fact you've already said that they would be right (with the qualifier, as far as they're concerned).
quote:
I mean, if you posit a scenario where humanity speaks with one voice then by definition there are no people challenging that voice!
Quite so, and for me that means everybody is wrong, whereas you're not prepared to say that. I suspect this is because you know that you can't, without conceding the point that there's an objective morality. And in case it's not obvious I acknowledge that I cannot know they are wrong any more than you can. But because I believe in the possibility of true right and wrong, I can think it consistently. You cannot. All you can say is that you don't share their beliefs.

quote:
Calling it wrong merely requires an alternative moral framework from which one can make such a claim. It doesn't require either side to be objectively right or wrong.
But if neither side is right or wrong, then it's not a moral framework but a system of preferences and nothing more. You not only have no basis to judge between them, the concept of judging is meaningless. How do you morally judge between flavours or colours or scents?

quote:
It is, in fact, your view that prevents any questioning of morality, because it states that X moral opinion is utterly and objectively true and cannot be argued against.
A common argument against the existence of objective morality but it's complete rubbish. Without an objective morality you have nothing else to say to a wrongdoer than "I don't like it." Your definition of immorality is that which you don't like, or more broadly that which lots of people don't like. It's precisely because there is an objective morality that "I know you like that but it's wrong" is neither a nonsense thing to say not a paraphrase for "I know you like that but I don't", and this is why your claim here is rubbish.

quote:
And for all practical purposes I'd say any moral claim that is agreed upon by every single person on the planet is true, as far as we're concerned.
There's that disclaimer again. It's coming across as you conceding that the claim could be wrong (objective morality) but nobody would then be reasonably held responsible for so being wrong. If that's your position then I agree with it.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Squibs:

One of the few decent arguments against the concept of objective morality derived from God (perhaps I've worded that wrong) is to claim that God's morality is itself subjective because it is based upon God's own ideas. As the objective card is removed from the table (or the attempt is made), the conclusion is that God's ideas are no "better" than any other views on morality.

Wtf?

Objectivity = truth.

God makes and sustains the world.

God saved the Israelites from slavery and oppression in Egypt.

Only quite a bit later did God give the Ten Commandments. And these were commandments so people could live well in community. They weren't for God's sake, they were for God's people's sake.

So:

1: if objectivity is truth and God is truth then God is not subjective.

2: God has no morality. God has no need of morality. God loves and saves humanity before God suggested morality to humans so they could live better together.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by que sais-je:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The only thing that needs to be said concerning this is that nobody has ever claimed that it is easy to discover these objective truths. "Natural" as in natural moral law does not at all mean "obvious". We are spending incredible efforts to discover objective natural physical law, with plenty of ferocious disagreement along the way. There is no particular reason why "morals" should not likewise contain difficult problems that are hard to resolve. And so it does.

I agree, but also if it was very easy to be moral, morality would cease to be visible. It's like air - the experience of it's absence makes us notice it and makes it an object of study.
Who said anything about "obvious" or "easy"? I'm simply making the case that the more time is spent examining most objective phenomena, the greater the consensus on those pheonomena. To take the suggested example of air (which was well known and intensely examined even before the existence of reliable vacuum pumps), we actually know a lot about air and how it behaves. And the more we examine air, the more we can say about it with a reasonable degree of confidence.

On the other hand, the more a moral question is examined the more fragmentary the answers become. Take IngoB's example of "killing innocent human beings", a question examined by moral codes for a very long time indeed. Despite several millennia of examining this question, there still seems to be no consensus on exactly who qualifies as "innocent" under this rubric. Most societies have something they define as "murder", but the parameters can vary wildly. "Honor killings" seem a fairly obvious example. Or the execution of heretics. Of course, the Christian paradigm holds that no one is truly "innocent" (with the exception of God), making the entire question academic.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
Not as between human beings, it doesn't.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Not as between human beings, it doesn't.

Sure it does! If you only have to avoid "killing innocent human beings" and no human beings actually qualify as "innocent", it's a stricture you can avoid just as easily as the question of whether or not griffins are kosher.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
'Not innocent in God's eyes' <> 'not innocent in human eyes'.

[ 12. December 2012, 14:15: Message edited by: Matt Black ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
'Not innocent in God's eyes' <> 'not innocent in human eyes'.

IngoB didn't specify a context. Of course, if God's will is objective, there's no reason the two couldn't be equivalent. In fact, if morality is objective we would expect them to be.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
But relationally they are different.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
But relationally they are different.

Are they? I thought the argument was being advanced that human morality is essentially 'hard wired' in by God.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
There is the sense, between ourselves, though, that we are "not to judge another man's servant" when it comes to the issue of innocence. That is due I would guess to our own imperfections (motes and beams and all that); God, being perfect, is not so fettered.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Marvin the Martian believes murder is wrong. Fred Bloggs believes murder is right. There is no objective morality, therefore neither can be said to be right or wrong according to your argument. You can tell Fred he's done evil, and he can say that he believes he hasn't. You can never at any point appeal to Fred to change his belief from the wrong one to the right one, because there is no right one in your mind, there is only your preference.

I can appeal to him to change to my belief though. And if we have any kind of shared understanding of life, the universe and everything then I may even succeed.

quote:
Let's narrow down that question. Bunch of children on an island grow up to believe that people with blond hair should be thrown off a cliff. That's their belief. I can say they're wrong. You can say nothing better than that their beliefs differ from yours. And I can say that if they were the only people in existence, they would still be wrong. You can't, in fact you've already said that they would be right (with the qualifier, as far as they're concerned).
Yes to all points. Of course, that wouldn't stop me from trying to convince them that they're wrong - but it would stop me from barging into their society, taking it over and completely destroying the whole thing so that I could stop it happening. That ain't my place.

quote:
Quite so, and for me that means everybody is wrong, whereas you're not prepared to say that. I suspect this is because you know that you can't, without conceding the point that there's an objective morality.
Indeed. Well done.

quote:
And in case it's not obvious I acknowledge that I cannot know they are wrong any more than you can. But because I believe in the possibility of true right and wrong, I can think it consistently. You cannot. All you can say is that you don't share their beliefs.
Yes, correct.

I don't, for example, condemn the Spartans for exposing their children on the mountainside so that only the strongest would live. Or the Aztecs for practicing human sacrifice. Neither do I condemn the Romans for liking wild parties, or the Mormons for being polygamists, or any woman who gets an abortion for doing so. None of those are things I believe are good, but I don't believe I have the right to waltz into someone else's life and command them to start using my morality instead of theirs.

quote:
But if neither side is right or wrong, then it's not a moral framework but a system of preferences and nothing more. You not only have no basis to judge between them, the concept of judging is meaningless. How do you morally judge between flavours or colours or scents?
And yet people do have favourite colours, tastes and scents. And the ones that are most popular with most people are the ones that proliferate in society. Why can't it be the same with moral codes?

quote:
Without an objective morality you have nothing else to say to a wrongdoer than "I don't like it." Your definition of immorality is that which you don't like, or more broadly that which lots of people don't like.
Correct.

quote:
It's precisely because there is an objective morality that "I know you like that but it's wrong" is neither a nonsense thing to say not a paraphrase for "I know you like that but I don't", and this is why your claim here is rubbish.
I see no difference between the two. Any time anyone uses the second, they're just using it in place of the first in order to prevent discussion of the point.

quote:
There's that disclaimer again. It's coming across as you conceding that the claim could be wrong (objective morality) but nobody would then be reasonably held responsible for so being wrong. If that's your position then I agree with it.
Well, I'm using it because I personally do believe murder is wrong, and I don't want to be seen to be promoting it.

But let's be fair, murder is a silly example to use given that nobody thinks being killed is a good thing. It's just that all the "objective morality" people like to start with the 'everyone thinks this thing is wrong' moralities in the hope that the people they're debating will fall into some clever semantic traps and be forced to accept that there may be an objective truth, at which point they'll break out their Holy Texts and say "Ha! Then everything in here is objectively true and you can't say it isn't because you accept that objective truth exists!".

It starts with universal condemnation of murder, and end up with persecution of all those people the religious folks don't like. Because for them, "I don't like" means "objectively bad".
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
But if you have the power to stop the blond children from being thrown off the cliff, but you choose to not exercise that power, are you not guilty of their deaths?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
But if neither side is right or wrong, then it's not a moral framework but a system of preferences and nothing more.

The argument from adverse consequences is a particularly pernicious type of fallacy. Here your argument seems to be that morality must be objective because if it's not it would be harder (or impossible) for you to pass judgement on other people's moral codes. While that may be so, reality is not necessarily ordered for your personal rhetorical convenience. The fact that you'd like for your moral code to be endorsed and enforced by an omniscient superbeing is not proof that it is.

quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
But if you have the power to stop the blond children from being thrown off the cliff, but you choose to not exercise that power, are you not guilty of their deaths?

The same question can (and has) been asked about God. He usually gets some kind of a Prime Directive exemption based on free will.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
I find that interesting, because for me the concept of morality (note the, erm, key change there) is a knock-down argument against materialism. I acknowledge that it's not that way for other doubtless cleverer people but I've yet to encounter a description of morality that didn't seem to boil down to one of two options - either that morality is an illusion (and therefore we can't call any choice or action evil) or that morality is part of the nature of reality (which whilst not proving theism, makes it look a reasonable option and certainly kicks strict materialism off its pedestal).

The problem is that a social agreement or a biological development or a cultural tradition is not an "illusion" as far as practical consequences go. For example, if I claim that all morality is merely a product of evolution, then you may answer that such morals are hence an illusion and that nothing stops you from rejecting a merely biologically conditioned restriction through a free and rational decision. But this is not the case. Because I am then biologically conditioned to make your life miserable in response. As far as practical effects go, there is little difference there to "real" morals and "illusory" morals commanding our obedience. There may be some, but with the blunt instrument of our moral understanding it will be quite hard to mount a compelling case.

quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
On the other hand, the more a moral question is examined the more fragmentary the answers become. Take IngoB's example of "killing innocent human beings", a question examined by moral codes for a very long time indeed. Despite several millennia of examining this question, there still seems to be no consensus on exactly who qualifies as "innocent" under this rubric.

You are here simply re-importing basically the entire moral system through that word "innocent". Because one is innocent if one has done no evil, but whether this is the case or not is in itself a moral question. The point is however that given some definition, any definition, of "innocence", all modern moral systems agree that killing such a person is murder and not allowed. You may get away with killing one person in one moral system and not the other, because they disagree about whether the victim is innocent. But you will not get away in either system with killing a person that this system considers innocent. There has been historical development on this, showing that progress in moral discernment is possible, but it is now basically a moral principle accepted by all (at least in the sense that lip service is paid to it by the vast majority of sane people - morals are never absolute in terms of how real people actually apply them in everyday life).
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The point is however that given some definition, any definition, of "innocence", all modern moral systems agree that killing such a person is murder and not allowed. You may get away with killing one person in one moral system and not the other, because they disagree about whether the victim is innocent.

That sounds awfully . . . subjective. Why not simply use this objective morality everyone's so hot on to judge innocence?
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
But if neither side is right or wrong, then it's not a moral framework but a system of preferences and nothing more.

The argument from adverse consequences is a particularly pernicious type of fallacy.
I'm not particularly interested here in appealing to consequences though I note in passing that Marvin apparently would prefer to let babies die of exposure on a hillside than interfere with another culture, and I find that appalling. No, I'm arguing that morality as a concept requires objective morality.

quote:
Here your argument seems to be that morality must be objective because if it's not it would be harder (or impossible) for you to pass judgement on other people's moral codes.

Almost but not quite. I'm saying that if there is no objective morality, then there is no way that one can pass judgment on another's moral codes or even have a disagreement about morality. You might consider that a good thing, and it seems ssensible. I'd be interested to see if you applied it when I robbed your house though.

quote:
While that may be so, reality is not necessarily ordered for your personal rhetorical convenience.
Nevertheless when you speak of there being no objective morality yet behave in all ways as though there is, you sound to me very much as though you're speaking nonsense. I mean that literally - not making a poor argument, just saying something that is self-evidently contradictory. It would be logically consistent to say that morality is just a set of rules that is not related to concepts of good and evil of course. Are you doing that?

quote:
The fact that you'd like for your moral code to be endorsed and enforced by an omniscient superbeing is not proof that it is.
Strawman, irrelevant, and untrue. Superficially I'd prefer it if there was no objective morality because then I wouldn't be answerable to it. I would extend Marvin's argument and do what the fuck I liked and could get away with, probably.

quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
But if you have the power to stop the blond children from being thrown off the cliff, but you choose to not exercise that power, are you not guilty of their deaths?

The same question can (and has) been asked about God.
That's all very interesting but are you going to answer the question?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
The argument from adverse consequences is a particularly pernicious type of fallacy. Here your argument seems to be that morality must be objective because if it's not it would be harder (or impossible) for you to pass judgement on other people's moral codes.

Almost but not quite. I'm saying that if there is no objective morality, then there is no way that one can pass judgment on another's moral codes or even have a disagreement about morality.
Exactly so. I'm not seeing any convincing argument as to why the Universe must necessarily be set it up in such a way to make it more convenient for you to "pass judgment on another's moral codes". Personal convenience is not a convincing argument for something's existence or non-existence.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
That sounds awfully . . . subjective. Why not simply use this objective morality everyone's so hot on to judge innocence?

Because objective morality is far from easy to discern, develop and apply in general, and the blanket term "innocent" can refer to any number of difficult cases and issues. However, if you gun down a toddler tomorrow as "too evil", then the reaction that you will get will show that objective morality is not entirely impotent in discerning innocence.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Exactly so. I'm not seeing any convincing argument as to why the Universe must necessarily be set it up in such a way to make it more convenient for you to "pass judgment on another's moral codes". Personal convenience is not a convincing argument for something's existence or non-existence.

It's not about personal convenience, it's about having a coherent position. You agree then that the consequence of your position is that you cannot criticise anyone else's morality? I plead Godwin's Law for not taking the obvious next step and rest my case.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
Such an action is certainly not necessarily immoral from a naturalistic point of view, because burning your daughter merely involves the reconfiguration of matter, which is what nature does. It's no more immoral than two rocks hitting each other as they hurtle through space. And if such an action provides utility to the person performing the act, then what's 'wrong' with that (within a naturalistic paradigm)?

The argument is fallacious. You're switching between a conception of moral neutrality that only obtains in certain metaphysical systems (reconfigurations of matter are morally neutral) and applying it to a naturalistic conception of morality which would almost certainly consider it a straw man.

There are arguments that make naturalistic conceptions of morality look problematic. But that isn't one of them.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
It's not about personal convenience, it's about having a coherent position. You agree then that the consequence of your position is that you cannot criticise anyone else's morality?

Not at all. That makes as much sense as saying you can't offer opinions on art unless aesthetics is objective, or compare the merits of various athletes unless the rules of football are somehow embedded in the universe.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
either that morality is an illusion

That simply doesn't follow. Even if there is no such thing as an independent objective morality it doesn't mean we can't say that we think murder is evil. It just means we have to persuade other people to agree with our position rather than appealing to an external authority in order to impose it on them.
It depends on what you mean by persuade. We can bribe other people to agree with our position. We can flatter them or fast talk them, or use a stirring speech to befuddle them. We can coerce them. We can certainly appeal to external authority - if we bung the right politician a big enough bribe impose our preferences on anybody we like.
What we cannot do, if morality is not objective, is persuade them if by persuade we mean offer relevant reasons.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
that morality is an illusion (and therefore we can't call any choice or action evil) or that morality is part of the nature of reality (which whilst not proving theism, makes it look a reasonable option and certainly kicks strict materialism off its pedestal).

If morality is an illusion it follows that the prohibition 'we can't call any choice or action evil' is also an illusion. Therefore, if morality is an illusion we can call choices and actions evil as much as we like.
If we want to prevent someone from taking the last bit of chocolate cake, and the most effective way of doing so is to tell them that the chocolate cake is evil then if there is no objective morality there is no reason other than our own subjective preferences why we shouldn't tell them it's evil.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Most societies have something they define as "murder", but the parameters can vary wildly. "Honor killings" seem a fairly obvious example. Or the execution of heretics.

Most societies have something they define as air. But the number of definitions of air have multiplied over time. The Ancient Greeks claimed it was one of four elements, but our society defines it as a mixture of elements with a few compounds thrown in.
Of course, you could point out that there's a time direction: the change is one-directional and that's a mark that the change in definition of air is made on the basis of objective observation and criteria. That raises the question of whether the change from executing heretics or honour killings is one-directional. Are there many societies in known history that have gone from our claim that honour-killings are wrong to the belief that honour killings are sometimes justified (except in cases of mass immigration from a pro-honour killing society). There does seem to be a moral ratchet in the case of morality also.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
'Not innocent in God's eyes' <> 'not innocent in human eyes'.

IngoB didn't specify a context. Of course, if God's will is objective, there's no reason the two couldn't be equivalent. In fact, if morality is objective we would expect them to be.
Your argument equivocates between 'objective' in the sense of 'about something that's objectively there' and 'objective' in the sense of 'the thing that's objectively there'. Your conclusion only follows if the two formulations are equivalent. If they aren't equivalent then there's no reason to expect human opinions about what's objectively there to be the same as what's objectively there. In fact, the definition of objective amounts to a claim that the two formulations can always be distinguished in principle, and that therefore there's always a possibility that they can be distinguished in fact too.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Of course, that wouldn't stop me from trying to convince them that they're wrong - but it would stop me from barging into their society, taking it over and completely destroying the whole thing so that I could stop it happening. That ain't my place.

Why do you need a place?
Assuming no objective morality there are no places and therefore you don't need one. It's like saying that because nobody issues resident's parking on your street nobody is allowed to park there.

It ain't your place to barge in and take over. It ain't your place to hold back from barging in. It ain't your place to try to convince them that they're wrong. It ain't your place to refuse to help put them all to death and salt the earth at the abomination. There are no places. You don't need no places.
 
Posted by HughWillRidmee (# 15614) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:

Wtf?

Objectivity = truth.

God makes and sustains the world.

That is your opinion – you cannot demonstrate that it is truth.
quote:


God saved the Israelites from slavery and oppression in Egypt.

That also is your opinion – you cannot demonstrate that it is truth, nor can the archaeologists who have been attempting to do so pretty much since the end of the six-day war
quote:


Only quite a bit later did God give the Ten Commandments. And these were commandments so people could live well in community. They weren't for God's sake, they were for God's people's sake.

Assuming you are referring to the version in Exodus 20 – the first three don’t add much to the quality of community life do they? (Exodus 34 doesn't enhance your argument either does it?)

quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
... The good of a human being consists in part in not killing innocent human beings. Where a human being does kill innocent humans, we call him "evil" if this arises from his own free decision. Where it doesn't, we call him "(mentally) disturbed" or perhaps "confused"

May need separate thread, but, and I suspect that this is an area you know far better than I, there seems to be strong experimental evidence that our decisions are made by the unconscious brain based upon past influences (genetics and experience) which remove the option of genuinely free decision (free will?). If this is true killing an innocent is still “evil” – but it is the action that is “evil” rather than the person since the perception of decision making is merely the story by which our conscious mind accepts inevitably constructed instruction from the unconscious. The extension of this, of course, is that, were we created by an all knowing/all powerful god that god would have created us unable to choose good or bad.
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by HughWillRidmee:
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:

Wtf?

Objectivity = truth.

God makes and sustains the world.

That is your opinion – you cannot demonstrate that it is truth.
quote:


Truth? What kind of truth? You cannot demonstrate that it is not true.

My position is more philosophically and logically sound however. The thing that creates, sustains and redeems the world is the source of objectivity precisely because it is creator, sustainer and redeemer. Without those things, there would be no life so objectivity is null and void.

Your position, as an atheist, is the weaker position as you have no logical source of objectivity. You have no source of truth.


quote:
Originally posted by HughWillRidmee:
quote:


Only quite a bit later did God give the Ten Commandments. And these were commandments so people could live well in community. They weren't for God's sake, they were for God's people's sake.

Assuming you are referring to the version in Exodus 20 – the first three don’t add much to the quality of community life do they?

The first three are the source of objectivity from which the others flow. Perfectly logical. One does not put the cart before the horse. The horse comes first.

Which was my original point. God first, then morality.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Truth? What kind of truth? You cannot demonstrate that it is not true.

I think you've strayed into Russell's teapot territory.
 
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
'Not innocent in God's eyes' <> 'not innocent in human eyes'.

IngoB didn't specify a context. Of course, if God's will is objective, there's no reason the two couldn't be equivalent. In fact, if morality is objective we would expect them to be.
Your argument equivocates between 'objective' in the sense of 'about something that's objectively there' and 'objective' in the sense of 'the thing that's objectively there'. Your conclusion only follows if the two formulations are equivalent. If they aren't equivalent then there's no reason to expect human opinions about what's objectively there to be the same as what's objectively there. In fact, the definition of objective amounts to a claim that the two formulations can always be distinguished in principle, and that therefore there's always a possibility that they can be distinguished in fact too.
Actually, I think the problem with this entire argument is that it assumes that "objectivity" is a property of the thing being observed, rather than a quality of the relation between the observer and the observed. It assumes that "morality" is some kind of thing (an "object") that can be set apart from those observing it, such that they can analyze its properties and come to agreement about its nature. But morality is in us, and we as social animals exist in it--no separation is possible. Objectivity and subjectivity are not coherent constructs in this domain (I'm not sure they're coherent with regard to anything more complex than a rock, but that's another discussion).
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by HughWillRidmee:
May need separate thread, but, and I suspect that this is an area you know far better than I, there seems to be strong experimental evidence that our decisions are made by the unconscious brain based upon past influences (genetics and experience) which remove the option of genuinely free decision (free will?). If this is true killing an innocent is still “evil” – but it is the action that is “evil” rather than the person since the perception of decision making is merely the story by which our conscious mind accepts inevitably constructed instruction from the unconscious.

No, this is wrong on several levels. First, let's assume the absurd position of materialism as true, for the sake of argument. In this case, there is obviously no "evil" in a strict sense, since the world is then merely a collection of atoms (quarks, gluons, what have you...) in motion (taken as term for any sort of change). However, it still makes sense to classify a particular (only relatively slowly changing) set of these atoms as a "person" that "acts", since this improves the predictability of atomic movements around this "person" greatly. Likewise their "acts" can be efficiently described by their effect on other "objects" and "persons", i.e., other collections of atoms that display lasting coherence in their motions. Certain "acts" can then be tagged as "evil" according to how much they disrupt the activities of a "person", the so-called "victim". And since such "acts" are committed by another "person", it remains perfectly appropriate to assign this label "evil" to the origin of the "act", a "person" that one might label "perpetrator". This again improves predictability about the atomic motions, since an "evil person" is likely to commit more "evil acts" in the future. So while materialism is obvious nonsense, one can in fact reconstruct the moral order entirely in terms of "efficient descriptions" of matter in motion. (Why is materialism obvious nonsense? Because the most fundamental and undeniable experience that you have, being you, cannot be explained materialistically. "Cannot" as in strictly impossible, not as in "currently unknown".)

Second, let's assume for the sake of argument that it is experimentally clear that becoming conscious of making a decision is significantly time-lagged to the actual making of decisions. (That is AFAIK not the case, rather it remains a contentious hypothesis with some apparent experimental support. But it's not my area of study, so I'm not claiming to be an expert on the current status.) This represents a problem only to an "implementation" of "free will" that invokes the homunculus of consciousness. I mean this kind of theory: the "subconscious brain" sort of prepares the cognitive case, like underlings prepare papers for a boss, and then put these on the table of a little man inside your head, who studies the reports, makes an explicit decision on what to do - this being the "conscious decision" part - whereupon his underlings (the "subconscious brain") scramble to execute his will. Obviously that kind of theory would be in trouble if the decisions were actually made before any conscious realization.

However, that sort of theory is basically bollocks anyhow, at least at the point when we bring the homunculus into play. It is not per se wrong to employ a homunculus in theories about the brain. These little men inside our heads are often a necessary place-holders for "stuff that clearly happens but for which we have no mechanistic explanation, or which would be to costly to model". However, if one puts a homunculus into place, then one is precisely not allowed to make far-reaching conclusions based on what these little men do. They must remain place-holders while we focus on something else.

This problem, if it then is even real, can be taken care of quite simply by assigning "free will" to the workings of the entire brain, with the "conscious" part being simply a high level summary of what one has decided, presumably for purposes of conceptual memorization. There is actually no particular problem in embracing all of what my brain does as reflecting "me" and "my decisions". And frankly, even experientially it is quite clear that there is a vast range of decisions taking, all in some sense expressing my freedom to act, but with very varied cognitive and conscious impact. I did for example decide to shut the door behind me when I left my house this morning. I was free not to. My intellect (intellect in the most general sense of "understanding" the world) proposed it as a good to my will (will in the most general sense of "internal drive") that the door should be shut. My will followed this and the door was shut. The total cognitive and conscious footprint of all that was however very small, it was "almost automatic". However, a lot more is going on now cognitively and consciously, as I reflect back on this. None of this is particularly surprising, and none of this represents any particular threat to "free will".

Third, none of this is of the slightest interest to the practical implementation of morality. Say you convinced me of the truth of materialism, atheism, evolutionism and whatever other "isms" makes you deny the most obvious fact about the universe, namely yourself. Then I would still maintain morality in a practical sense as it is. I don't care what the deep philosophical explanation for you trying to steal my car is. I don't care that there is no "I" that could care or not care. I do kick your butt for trying to steal my car. Morality is real at least in this sense: try to steal my car, get your butt kicked - in whatever definition of these terms you wish to use.

quote:
Originally posted by HughWillRidmee:
The extension of this, of course, is that, were we created by an all knowing/all powerful god that god would have created us unable to choose good or bad.

This follows from nothing that you have said, has not internal logic and is manifestly false.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
What we cannot do, if morality is not objective, is persuade them if by persuade we mean offer relevant reasons.

Whyever not? Obviously there needs to be some level of shared understanding in order for it to be possible, but as that is in fact the case for pretty much all humans everywhere then I fail to see the problem.
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
As far as I can see words like good and bad are lables we give to actions.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
But if you have the power to stop the blond children from being thrown off the cliff, but you choose to not exercise that power, are you not guilty of their deaths?

The same question can (and has) been asked about God. He usually gets some kind of a Prime Directive exemption based on free will.
Yes, but doesn't that demonstrate my point above: that God's application of morality to mankind does not equate to ours entre nous (between ourselves)? "My ways are not your ways", and all that.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Timothy the Obscure:
Actually, I think the problem with this entire argument is that it assumes that "objectivity" is a property of the thing being observed, rather than a quality of the relation between the observer and the observed. It assumes that "morality" is some kind of thing (an "object") that can be set apart from those observing it, such that they can analyze its properties and come to agreement about its nature. But morality is in us, and we as social animals exist in it--no separation is possible. Objectivity and subjectivity are not coherent constructs in this domain (I'm not sure they're coherent with regard to anything more complex than a rock, but that's another discussion).

I'd agree up to a point. Certainly, these kinds of discussion are bogged down by people talking past each other.
I'm not entirely sure, though, that we can say that the pair of words entirely lose their application.
The root meaning of 'objective' is that the thing discussed is a property of the intentional object known or perceived rather than added by the knowing or perceiving subject. It's then a fairly natural shift to use the word to mean something that is there to be known or perceived even when there's nobody who knows or perceives it. It does introduce confusion to do that, since you have to be careful not to shift fallaciously from talking about the thing as known to the thing as possibly not known and vice versa.

But just because morality is bound up with who we are doesn't mean we can't be objective about it. All that's required is that the act of understanding be to some extent separable from the phenomenon. It's possible to be under a misapprehension about one's own emotional state for example. And while the status of economics as a science perhaps suffers from the fact that it affects the behaviour studied and so on, it's still about something that some economists can have false biased beliefs about.

I suppose the basic distinction is whether it's meaningful to talk about bias. If someone can be biased, then there's something objective there for them to be biased about. Bias is basically a subjective element distorting comprehension of something not subjective. If not, then not.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
What we cannot do, if morality is not objective, is persuade them if by persuade we mean offer relevant reasons.

Whyever not? Obviously there needs to be some level of shared understanding in order for it to be possible, but as that is in fact the case for pretty much all humans everywhere then I fail to see the problem.
You can't offer someone relevant reasons to prefer champaigne to bitter. You can appeal to snob value, but snob value isn't a relevant reason in this sense.

What's a shared understanding got to do with it? On the hypothesis that morality is subjective, there's nothing there to understand. Moral judgements are nothing to do with understanding; they're expressions of emotions, or attempts to alter other people's behaviour, or something of that sort.

Reasons are grounds for thinking that an opinion is right or wrong. When right and wrong don't apply reasons are irrelevant. They have nothing to do with the case. And if morality is subjective, then right and wrong by definition don't apply.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Squibs:
The claim is often made that without God objective morality can not exist. Without getting to much into the particulars of the argument, I must say that I find it convincing. In short, I believe that there are certain actions that are wrong and that God is the best ontological foundation for such a belief.

I understand "objective morality" to mean a morality that is in some sense hard-wired into the universe such that it is discoverable by a disinterested and competent intelligent creature.

On the basis that a morality that is undiscoverable is practically equivalent to no morality existing.

If such a hard-wired discoverable morality exists, then it does so regardless of how the universe came to be.

The suggestion that "natural causes" could create a universe but couldn't create a universe with built-in morality seems like an anthropomorphism too far.

Of course, most of the time we humans fall short of being competent and disinterested. We want too much to guard against the particular sins and deprivations that have been committed against us, that we therefore feel strongly the wrongness of.

Others haven't helped us when we wanted them to, or have used what power they had over us to impose on us ways we didn't want, and we seek not to repeat those evils, by helping or not imposing on others.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
Morality is objective. Good is good. I was horrified to encounter what turned out to be an even more horrifically common kind of 'thinking' on Churchnet and Premier Christian, in a person of otherwise lovely disposition, the actual proposition that if God declared rape good then it would be.

Love is objective. We ALL know it when we are subject to it - and not.
 
Posted by HughWillRidmee (# 15614) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Wtf?
Objectivity = truth.
God makes and sustains the world.

That is your opinion – you cannot demonstrate that it is truth.
Truth? What kind of truth? You cannot demonstrate that it is not true.

My position is more philosophically and logically sound however. The thing that creates, sustains and redeems the world is the source of objectivity precisely because it is creator, sustainer and redeemer. Without those things, there would be no life so objectivity is null and void.

Your position, as an atheist, is the weaker position as you have no logical source of objectivity. You have no source of truth

.
Is this a circular argument– I can’t prove anything but what I believe without evidence is true because it has to be true or my belief is untrue?

My position (that I do not believe in a god or gods) does not require a logical source of objectivity – I’m not the one making the claims that God makes and sustains the world. and God saved the Israelites from slavery and oppression in Egypt If you can demonstrate any valid basis for your belief in these statements please do so – I’ve never found anyone offer such a thing yet. Similarly, how do you justify (other than my inability to prove a negative*) the world needing a creator, needing a sustainer or needing a redeemer because without those things there would be no life? Perhaps you could anthropomorphize the big bang (which was a start of something) and the laws of physics (which seem to encompass pretty much everything in, on and around our world) but you’ve lost me on the redeemer bit – and when last I thought about it I seemed to be alive OK.

*I presume you’re aware of Russell’s teapot.
Checking for later posts to respond to I see that Croesos got there first – great minds etc..
quote:
The first three are the source of objectivity from which the others flow. Perfectly logical. One does not put the cart before the horse. The horse comes first.

But the cart doesn’t go very far when no-one can see, touch, taste, hear or sense the horse in any way other than via their imagination, does it? (Not much good for the roses either come to think of it).
quote:
Which was my original point. God first, then morality.

OK – it was your original point – it’s still an opinion rather than a truth.

quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
Morality is objective. Good is good. I was horrified to encounter what turned out to be an even more horrifically common kind of 'thinking' on Churchnet and Premier Christian, in a person of otherwise lovely disposition, the actual proposition that if God declared rape good then it would be.

Love is objective. We ALL know it when we are subject to it - and not.

Firstly – such an attitude (rape being made good), I think, fully deserves to be called horrific – irrespective of the god element – it would be the same if secular law were so amended..

Secondly - being my simpleton self – is it not the case that if God decided what constitutes right and wrong (= morality?) he can change that decision and right and wrong are changed because if they’re not then something superior to god exists. (Superior in the sense of more powerful and, presumably, pre-existent). And I was always taught that that was not an option – though perhaps my teachers were wrong?

My head hurts less now I’m an atheist!

@IngoB – Thanks for your time – after a quick read through I’m not sure you’ve really answered my query, though I’m not sure I expressed the query very well either. I’ll read it again but the impression I gained (quite possibly wrongly) was that you reject the idea because of its implications regarding your beliefs. Have you read Free Will by Sam Harris? – it’s not long (66 pages)and seems to have a lot of references to published research but I have no way of knowing how good they are, nor what contrary results have been gained elsewhere. His basic tenet certainly would make life very difficult for traditional religious views, though I don’t think it damages the concept of morality at a group level. As I understand it we know that psychopaths (no remorse/conscience?) tend to have a damaged, mis-formed or missing area in the brain. That doesn’t mean we tolerate their behaviour – it might mean reassessing how we protect others until (if ever) we develop a way of making those brains whole. Similarly, if major behaviour is governed largely by experience (I recall being told that abusers more often have a history of being abused than non-abusers etc....) why shouldn’t lesser behaviours be so too? I don’t know where the statistic comes from but it’s often said that 80% of people professing religious association have the same association as their parents. Childhood emulation becomes a set form of behaviour? –we know that repetition encourages acceptance/agreement, just as we know that the brain can be trained to recall, as fact, things that never happened.

Where we get to is that a body such as a cult (Scientology?) or a state (Sparta?) can modify learning and ensure that most people’s automatic responses are acceptable to whoever is setting the rules; and I find that highly repugnant (Give me a child to the age of 7?). Yet it may be a hard-wired evolutionary fact that we can only address by providing experience that counters damaging environments/genetics. I’m frightening myself here so I’ll stop.

[ 13. December 2012, 23:33: Message edited by: HughWillRidmee ]
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by HughWillRidmee:


My position (that I do not believe in a god or gods) does not require a logical source of objectivity – I’m not the one making the claims that God makes and sustains the world. and God saved the Israelites from slavery and oppression in Egypt If you can demonstrate any valid basis for your belief in these statements please do so – I’ve never found anyone offer such a thing yet. Similarly, how do you justify (other than my inability to prove a negative*) the world needing a creator, needing a sustainer or needing a redeemer because without those things there would be no life? Perhaps you could anthropomorphize the big bang (which was a start of something) and the laws of physics (which seem to encompass pretty much everything in, on and around our world) but you’ve lost me on the redeemer bit – and when last I thought about it I seemed to be alive OK.

*I presume you’re aware of Russell’s teapot.
Checking for later posts to respond to I see that Croesos got there first – great minds etc..
quote:
The first three are the source of objectivity from which the others flow. Perfectly logical. One does not put the cart before the horse. The horse comes first.

But the cart doesn’t go very far when no-one can see, touch, taste, hear or sense the horse in any way other than via their imagination, does it? (Not much good for the roses either come to think of it).
quote:
Which was my original point. God first, then morality.

OK – it was your original point – it’s still an opinion rather than a truth.

I've recently been through the irrationality of atheism on another thread Hugh. I've realised I can't be arsed to go through it again.

Needles too say Russell's teapot is a load of rubbish. Theism is philosophically and logically the most rational position to explain the world.

Atheism has no evidence to say God does not exist. Indeed, they would have to prove nothing came from nothing and it all just happened randomly and we exist for nothing and it's all about nothing.

Which is highly irrational.

As for God being my opinion? Sure. But it's the most reasonable conclusion to come to based on the evidence of our existence.

Your atheism is your opinion - it's just less reasonable.
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
HughWillRidmee, like many here, you are a VERY clever chap. Which means far more than I and able to do quality AND quantity.

I just do annoying sound bites.

Your teachers were obviously absurdly wrong. It's like the 'reasoning' of Oolon Colluphid.

Whatever is objectively, perfectly moral, good, loving is eternally subjectified ontologically in God.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
What's a shared understanding got to do with it? On the hypothesis that morality is subjective, there's nothing there to understand. Moral judgements are nothing to do with understanding; they're expressions of emotions, or attempts to alter other people's behaviour, or something of that sort.

But neither are they in isolation from one another. By "shared understanding" I really mean nothing more than "there is a certain level of morality on which we agree". That may be at as base a level as "it's bad for me to be killed", or it may be at as advanced a level as "we should love each other", but as long as it exists then other moralities can be discussed from it.

You could, of course, posit a situation where there is literally no such level of agreement whatsoever between two people, but I doubt that it exists in reality. And once there's that bedrock of shared understanding it's possible to have the discussion, and perhaps for one of us to convince the other that their view is better.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
By "shared understanding" I really mean nothing more than "there is a certain level of morality on which we agree". That may be at as base a level as "it's bad for me to be killed", or it may be at as advanced a level as "we should love each other", but as long as it exists then other moralities can be discussed from it.

That is only true if there is some kind of constraint upon moral judgements that means that one moral judgement can constrain other moral judgements.
Someone thinks that it's wrong for Bigendians to wage war upon Littleendians. You can ask them to explain that this is a special case of it is wrong for anyone to wage war upon anyone. And therefore get them to conclude that it is also wrong for Littleendians to wage war upon Bigendians.
But there's no reason that any such constraint need exist if morality is subjective opinion. Subjective opinion just isn't required to recognise any such constraint.

quote:
And once there's that bedrock of shared understanding it's possible to have the discussion, and perhaps for one of us to convince the other that their view is better.
Better according to whom?
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
By "shared understanding" I really mean nothing more than "there is a certain level of morality on which we agree". That may be at as base a level as "it's bad for me to be killed", or it may be at as advanced a level as "we should love each other", but as long as it exists then other moralities can be discussed from it.

That is only true if there is some kind of constraint upon moral judgements that means that one moral judgement can constrain other moral judgements.
Someone thinks that it's wrong for Bigendians to wage war upon Littleendians. You can ask them to explain that this is a special case of it is wrong for anyone to wage war upon anyone. And therefore get them to conclude that it is also wrong for Littleendians to wage war upon Bigendians.
But there's no reason that any such constraint need exist if morality is subjective opinion. Subjective opinion just isn't required to recognise any such constraint.

quote:
And once there's that bedrock of shared understanding it's possible to have the discussion, and perhaps for one of us to convince the other that their view is better.
Better according to whom?

This all seems to be far more complicated than it needs to be.

You could start by asking someone "Do you want to try and avoid hardshp, starvation and death. The majority of people will answer yes. From there you can make a very convincing case for "these things are good to do, these things aren't good to do" that pave the way to people banding together into societys to farm, keep warm and keep the bandits out.

Wham bam you get a code to live by.

Next.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
Having a code isn't the point. The question is more whether one code is as good as another, or whether it is meaningful to talk about a "best code".

And most of the time people's codes include a whole lot of stuff that is cultural rather than moral. Whether it's which way up to eat one's egg or how old a child has to be before being considered an adult.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Having a code isn't the point. The question is more whether one code is as good as another,

That depends on what you want the outcome to be. If you want to avoid starving during the winter then the code that says band together, farm land and build store houses is going to be demonstrably better than a code that says hit people with rocks to steal their pack lunch and burn buildings to the ground for warmth.

quote:
or whether it is meaningful to talk about a "best code".

Best code? I guess that would be up for debate in most circumstances.

quote:
And most of the time people's codes include a whole lot of stuff that is cultural rather than moral. Whether it's which way up to eat one's egg or how old a child has to be before being considered an adult.

Yes.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by HughWillRidmee:
I’ll read it again but the impression I gained (quite possibly wrongly) was that you reject the idea because of its implications regarding your beliefs.

You wish. [Biased] However, it is somewhat difficult to explain the problem, because most people have quite frankly a "magical" attitude to technology and in particular computers. It is easiest to explain it to someone who has programming experience (is a "magician"). But to keep it non-technical, ... take James Joyce' "Ulysses", well known for being a "stream of consciousness" novel. Is "Ulysses" conscious? No, of course not. It is a book. But doesn't it have all the necessary bits and pieces? All the required mental components, if you like? Setting aside any doubts one might have about Joyce' ability to capture the mind accurately, I would still say no to that. These mental components are recorded in the book as a sort of list of the actual mental processes of a real person, but no matter how accurate such a list may be, there is no life in a recorded value. A written thought is not the same as thought one actually has, even if the former is the most precise representation of the latter imaginable. But what if he made a Leopold Bloom puppet, that somehow acted out the book as we progress through it? Well, that's fun and if it's life-like enough it may even fool people into believing that the puppet is Bloom. But enacting some recorded value does give only a mechanical life to it, it does not supply the sort of life that this record is a record of. But what if the book was really not a static entity, but rather a dynamic one? What if the Bloom puppet had lots of sensors by which it detects the environment, databases against which to compare the input, massive compute power to drive an expert system that creates these values and then they are enacted as well? Wouldn't that be just like Bloom, wouldn't that be like a human being? (Now we have basically arrived where a discussion could start with a programmer). No, and mark this well Mr Turing, it still wouldn't be like Bloom or a human being at all. Because when all is said and done, all this incredible technology does is to create a kind of "Ulysses" book on the fly, calculating representative values of all kinds of mental components through complex processes, and then enacts them through a puppet body in conceivably highly convincing ways.

So I have no doubts that it is at least in principle possible to construct such a puppet that would fool absolutely everyone into believing that it is a human being. But nevertheless, in all this complexity, there would be nobody home. It would just be the most amazing gadget ever. It would just be an astonishing way of writing and performing "Ulysses" dynamically and interactively. But there would be no actual light in the eyes of this puppet (even if the engineers could make it appear so with the right kind of moistness and colour of the artificial eyeballs). The key point is that I know that I am not like that. In fact, you could convince me Matrix-style that absolutely everything I believe about the world is wrong. But you cannot convince me that I am like that. It is our primary experience that we are, I am having thoughts, I do not consist of thoughts. Even if you represent every bit of my mental life all the time by untold technological wizardry, you would just create a flawless representation of me, you would not create an actual being like me. The Turing test is a silly fail, because it ignores the most basic of psychological processes. I do not recognize a fellow human being as one of my kind due to all the smart answers they can give. Rather, I know that I am me, therefore I conclude that there could be others that are they, and then I collect evidence for what entities in my environment could qualify for that. And quite frankly, the most powerful evidence for that is "looks like me, i.e., like a human being", which has nothing to do with any assessment of their intellectual output at all. There is no real external evidence for being someone, however. Being someone is necessarily an internal experience. Yet this does not make this experience in the slightest an "irrational" thing.

Anyway, I come to this simply from having experience with programming. My contention is basically that one cannot program a person. One can possibly program something that acts just like a person, to the point where absolutely everybody is fooled. But then everybody would be fooled indeed, because this would still not be the same as programming a person. And the primary evidence I have for this is that I know what code does to a computer, and I know what I do within myself. And there just is no way these can become the same. It is not a quantitative problem, but a qualitative one. Some physicists also have an intuitive understanding of this problem (and of course, I'm primarily trained as a physicist). That's because they have described matter with mathematical rules so much, with partial differential equations and whatnot. They may not be programming nature, but they are deciphering the basic code. And that can lead to similar queasiness about this whole "being someone" concept.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
You could start by asking someone "Do you want to try and avoid hardshp, starvation and death. The majority of people will answer yes. From there you can make a very convincing case for "these things are good to do, these things aren't good to do" that pave the way to people banding together into societys to farm, keep warm and keep the bandits out.

Wham bam you get a code to live by.

Next.

As you point out in your very next post, this may or may not be sufficient to determine which code to live by.
If you believe that given enough thought the above method is sufficient to produce a single code to live by, then you're claiming morality is objective.
If you believe that it isn't, then we run into a problem, which is that some people stand to benefit more under code A than code B and other people stand to benefit under code B than code A. This means that if anything the discussion is less complicated than it needs to be.
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
You could start by asking someone "Do you want to try and avoid hardshp, starvation and death. The majority of people will answer yes. From there you can make a very convincing case for "these things are good to do, these things aren't good to do" that pave the way to people banding together into societys to farm, keep warm and keep the bandits out.

Wham bam you get a code to live by.

Next.

As you point out in your very next post, this may or may not be sufficient to determine which code to live by.
If you believe that given enough thought the above method is sufficient to produce a single code to live by, then you're claiming morality is objective.
If you believe that it isn't, then we run into a problem, which is that some people stand to benefit more under code A than code B and other people stand to benefit under code B than code A. This means that if anything the discussion is less complicated than it needs to be.

I think people keep putting the cart before the horse when talking about morality. I don't think that God embodies concepts of good and bad and that some humans perceived objective goodness and decided to shape their lives accordingly so that they could be good.

I think that there are basic modes of behaviour that are going to be more sucessful than others such as forming a group as stated above. When people saw that the results of co-operation meant that they were warmer, had a store of food and lived longer they then had proof that, "These things are good". When the loan bandit is caught trying to murder and steel by the newly formed guards who agreed to work together and protect the farmers....well all could look upon the body of the bandit and have very good reason to proclaim that "His way of life was bad".

So to recap I dont think good and bad existed as such at the dawn of time and then people discovered them and thought how do we live so that we can echo these godly concepts. I think people observed that some behaviours were beneficial and some weren't and invented the labels "good" and "bad".
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:


You could start by asking someone "Do you want to try and avoid hardshp, starvation and death. The majority of people will answer yes. From there you can make a very convincing case for "these things are good to do, these things aren't good to do" that pave the way to people banding together into societys to farm, keep warm and keep the bandits out.

Wham bam you get a code to live by.

Next.

Unless, of course, you are a bandit.
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
You could start by asking someone "Do you want to try and avoid hardshp, starvation and death. The majority of people will answer yes. From there you can make a very convincing case for "these things are good to do, these things aren't good to do" that pave the way to people banding together into societys to farm, keep warm and keep the bandits out.

Wham bam you get a code to live by.

Next.

As you point out in your very next post, this may or may not be sufficient to determine which code to live by.
If you believe that given enough thought the above method is sufficient to produce a single code to live by, then you're claiming morality is objective.
If you believe that it isn't, then we run into a problem, which is that some people stand to benefit more under code A than code B and other people stand to benefit under code B than code A. This means that if anything the discussion is less complicated than it needs to be.

I think people keep putting the cart before the horse when talking about morality. I don't think that God embodies concepts of good and bad and that some humans perceived objective goodness and decided to shape their lives accordingly so that they could be good.

I think that there are basic modes of behaviour that are going to be more sucessful than others such as forming a group as stated above. When people saw that the results of co-operation meant that they were warmer, had a store of food and lived longer they then had proof that, "These things are good". When the loan bandit is caught trying to murder and steel by the newly formed guards who agreed to work together and protect the farmers....well all could look upon the body of the bandit and have very good reason to proclaim that "His way of life was bad".

So to recap I dont think good and bad existed as such at the dawn of time and then people discovered them and thought how do we live so that we can echo these godly concepts. I think people observed that some behaviours were beneficial and some weren't and invented the labels "good" and "bad".

The trouble is George, that the argument is too parochial. In comparing those who co-operate to the bandit that seeks to prey on others you are painting a scenario of a functioning society and those who sit of the edge of that society. But what of those societies who may be living quite happy and contented lives but who, nonetheless, decide to expand their boundaries and power by conquest of other co-operating societies? If the driver of the good is what makes our society successful, then why shouldn't we maximise the prospect of long-term sustainability by conquering or wiping out other societies to ensure we retain a monopoly on the available resources? From our point of view that could be considered good. On the basis of your naturalistic evolutionary approach, how could you argue otherwise?
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Drewthealexander:
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
You could start by asking someone "Do you want to try and avoid hardshp, starvation and death. The majority of people will answer yes. From there you can make a very convincing case for "these things are good to do, these things aren't good to do" that pave the way to people banding together into societys to farm, keep warm and keep the bandits out.

Wham bam you get a code to live by.

Next.

As you point out in your very next post, this may or may not be sufficient to determine which code to live by.
If you believe that given enough thought the above method is sufficient to produce a single code to live by, then you're claiming morality is objective.
If you believe that it isn't, then we run into a problem, which is that some people stand to benefit more under code A than code B and other people stand to benefit under code B than code A. This means that if anything the discussion is less complicated than it needs to be.

I think people keep putting the cart before the horse when talking about morality. I don't think that God embodies concepts of good and bad and that some humans perceived objective goodness and decided to shape their lives accordingly so that they could be good.

I think that there are basic modes of behaviour that are going to be more sucessful than others such as forming a group as stated above. When people saw that the results of co-operation meant that they were warmer, had a store of food and lived longer they then had proof that, "These things are good". When the loan bandit is caught trying to murder and steel by the newly formed guards who agreed to work together and protect the farmers....well all could look upon the body of the bandit and have very good reason to proclaim that "His way of life was bad".

So to recap I dont think good and bad existed as such at the dawn of time and then people discovered them and thought how do we live so that we can echo these godly concepts. I think people observed that some behaviours were beneficial and some weren't and invented the labels "good" and "bad".

The trouble is George, that the argument is too parochial. In comparing those who co-operate to the bandit that seeks to prey on others you are painting a scenario of a functioning society and those who sit of the edge of that society. But what of those societies who may be living quite happy and contented lives but who, nonetheless, decide to expand their boundaries and power by conquest of other co-operating societies? If the driver of the good is what makes our society successful, then why shouldn't we maximise the prospect of long-term sustainability by conquering or wiping out other societies to ensure we retain a monopoly on the available resources? From our point of view that could be considered good. On the basis of your naturalistic evolutionary approach, how could you argue otherwise?

 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Drewthealexander:
The trouble is George, that the argument is too parochial. In comparing those who co-operate to the bandit that seeks to prey on others you are painting a scenario of a functioning society and those who sit of the edge of that society. But what of those societies who may be living quite happy and contented lives but who, nonetheless, decide to expand their boundaries and power by conquest of other co-operating societies? If the driver of the good is what makes our society successful, then why shouldn't we maximise the prospect of long-term sustainability by conquering or wiping out other societies to ensure we retain a monopoly on the available resources? From our point of view that could be considered good. On the basis of your naturalistic evolutionary approach, how could you argue otherwise?

That's not what I'm arguing. I'm saying that the idea of Good and Bad are a human invention and don't need there to be a God to jump start or embody them. The fact that different groups have different views on what is good and bad doesn't change that fact.

The fact that the peaceful society, the war like society and the lone bandit all have different modes of behaviour doesn't change the fact that their motives all spring from the same basic wish. I want to have food, warmth and stay alive.

Your objection paints a picture of a society with subjective morality. Which seems to fit with reality. When you make the point that people can do "bad" things and call them "good" what exactly are you arguing against.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
So to recap I dont think good and bad existed as such at the dawn of time and then people discovered them and thought how do we live so that we can echo these godly concepts. I think people observed that some behaviours were beneficial and some weren't and invented the labels "good" and "bad".

And the difference between 'good' and 'beneficial' is more than merely semantic because...?
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
@George. You wrote

quote:
That's not what I'm arguing. I'm saying that the idea of Good and Bad are a human invention and don't need there to be a God to jump start or embody them. The fact that different groups have different views on what is good and bad doesn't change that fact.

The fact that the peaceful society, the war like society and the lone bandit all have different modes of behaviour doesn't change the fact that their motives all spring from the same basic wish. I want to have food, warmth and stay alive.

Your objection paints a picture of a society with subjective morality. Which seems to fit with reality. When you make the point that people can do "bad" things and call them "good" what exactly are you arguing against.

Thank you - I misunderstood your point. I'll be interested in your answer to Dafyd's question to you.

The question that comes to my mind is, assuming your premise is correct, how you account for altruism.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
@Drew

A discussion of biological altruism.

The interesting part is at the end: "But is it 'Real' Altruism?"
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
@Drew

A discussion of biological altruism.

The interesting part is at the end: "But is it 'Real' Altruism?"

Thank you Grokesx. I'll see if the engaging Mr Spigot has time to return to this before commenting further.
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
And the difference between 'good' and 'beneficial' is more than merely semantic because...?

Good question. I'm not sure I can see any meaningful difference between good and beneficial. How would you define them?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
And the difference between 'good' and 'beneficial' is more than merely semantic because...?

Good question. I'm not sure I can see any meaningful difference between good and beneficial. How would you define them?
You appeared to be using 'good' to mean something subjective, a label created by human beings. But you also appeared to be using 'beneficial' to mean something objective: something that promotes getting food, warmth and safety.
You denied that people discovered that some things were good; you said people observed that some things were beneficial. But if good and beneficial mean the same thing, then that's simply contradicting yourself. Or else you're using 'beneficial' when it suits you to treat morality as objective and 'good' when it suits you not to.
 
Posted by HughWillRidmee (# 15614) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
I've recently been through the irrationality of atheism on another thread Hugh. I've realised I can't be arsed to go through it again.


And since you can’t be arsed to link to it I can’t be arsed to go looking for it.
quote:
Needles sic too sic say Russell's teapot is a load of rubbish. Theism is philosophically and logically the most rational position to explain the world.
One unsupported statement followed by another. Did you know that ostrichs don’t actually bury their heads in the sand?
quote:

Atheism has no evidence to say God does not exist.

Oh dear! Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence – but it can be very strongly indicative. Atheism of course doesn’t have to do anything just because you say it must. May I suggest you repeat the following until it sticks – Atheism is the absence of belief in a god or gods. Atheists do not have to prove anything (and asking for the impossible – the proof of a negative – comes across as rather desperate doesn’t it?). You’re making specific claims (which you have not attempted to justify) so the requirement for evidence is with you.

quote:
Indeed, they would have to prove nothing came from nothing and it all just happened randomly and we exist for nothing and it's all about nothing. Which is highly irrational.
Nothing came from nothing? Do you mean something came from nothing – it's probably down to my being thick but I find it’s getting very difficult to know what you think words mean.
What "all just happened randomly"? What does “we exist for nothing” mean? What is “all about nothing”. Are you making the assumption that everything has to have a purpose? If so – upon what grounds do you base this? What is the purpose of arthritis, of depression or of the god you believe in? If you think that the Universe has a purpose CLICK HERE (Ad skipable after 5 seconds).
quote:
As for God being my opinion? Sure. But it's the most reasonable conclusion to come to based on the evidence of our existence.
No – the most reasonable conclusion is that there just might be some sort of supernature but that there is no solid basis for thinking that there is and a very good reason for thinking that it either does not exist or that, if it does, it has no interaction with our natural world. “We cannot live simultaneously in a world of natural causation and of miracles, for if one miracle can occur, there is no limit.” biologist Richard Lewontin The best evidence for the lack of an interacting supernature is that the universe works without it. Imperfectly of course – I have to look in a mirror occasionally – but work it does.

quote:
Originally posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard:
HughWillRidmee, like many here, you are a VERY clever chap. Which means far more than I and able to do quality AND quantity.

Quantity certainly, quality – I wish
quote:


I just do annoying sound bites.

I confess that sometimes I’d like to be able to stop at annoying unsound bites.
quote:
Your teachers were obviously absurdly wrong. It's like the 'reasoning' of Oolon Colluphid.

As in Everything You Never Wanted to Know About Sex But Have Been Forced to Find Out?
quote:
Whatever is objectively, perfectly moral, good, loving is eternally subjectified ontologically in God.

Seeking clarity only - Are you saying that, in your understanding, God is bound by a concept (morality() that cannot be changed, that God is, in some way, a concept used to anthropomorphize (sort of) morality, that morality is a vital element of Godishness – I fear that your answer wasn’t simple enough for me. How do you know what is perfectly moral – is perfect morality immutable – and if so what is it? As I understand it current revelations about the way our brains work are providing experimental evidence that we have little (certainly much less than we imagine), and perhaps no, freedom to make conscious decisions. If demonstrated to be unarguably true would (could) that impinge on morality, goodness, love etc..

quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:

Anyway, I come to this simply from having experience with programming. My contention is basically that one cannot program a person. One can possibly program something that acts just like a person, to the point where absolutely everybody is fooled. But then everybody would be fooled indeed, because this would still not be the same as programming a person.

I think I pretty much agree with on this although my programming experience started and ended with key words on rubber keys and saving the result to an audio tape.

I gather that the experimental evidence is pointing to the suggestion that our programming was not “done” it evolved – and possibly very early in the evolution of multi-celled life. It, so it is suggested, is buried so deep within our brains that we often commence action in response to external stimuli (as observed through fMRI and skin monitoring) before we are conscious of the need to make a decision. (Foot lifting on accelerator before the conscious vision centre shows awareness of the oncoming vehicle for instance). Therefore the feeling that we are making a decision would be (sometimes/often/always?) untrue, the decision has been made and the action initiated – it’s just that we need(?) a story to justify what we do. And that would suggest that your argument, like mine, is the inevitable conclusion of our unique mixes of genetics and experience (and therefore liable to change if in receipt of sufficiently influential data).


HatTip to TP et al - we may be looking more like Pan narrans rather than Homo sapiens by the day.

[ 17. December 2012, 00:52: Message edited by: HughWillRidmee ]
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
And the difference between 'good' and 'beneficial' is more than merely semantic because...?

Good question. I'm not sure I can see any meaningful difference between good and beneficial. How would you define them?
You appeared to be using 'good' to mean something subjective, a label created by human beings. But you also appeared to be using 'beneficial' to mean something objective: something that promotes getting food, warmth and safety.
You denied that people discovered that some things were good; you said people observed that some things were beneficial. But if good and beneficial mean the same thing, then that's simply contradicting yourself. Or else you're using 'beneficial' when it suits you to treat morality as objective and 'good' when it suits you not to.

That's a really good point. You've made me go back and look at my definitions again.

I've had a good think and tried to come up with a distinction between good and beneficial.

If I gave a person in the desert dieing of thirst a glass of water we can see the proof that it's beneficial. And we could add the label "good" onto the action. But offer a glass of water to a drowning person isn't beneficial at all so could we then claim that whether a physical act was beneficial or not is a subjective thing?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
If I gave a person in the desert dieing of thirst a glass of water we can see the proof that it's beneficial. And we could add the label "good" onto the action. But offer a glass of water to a drowning person isn't beneficial at all so could we then claim that whether a physical act was beneficial or not is a subjective thing?

I'd say that's not what subjective means. 'Subjective' would mean that the moral judgement depends upon the person making the judgement. It doesn't mean that the judgement depends upon the circumstances. You'd have to be a very strange kind of moral ultra-absolutist to think that giving a glass of water is always right or always wrong - it's got nothing to do with the subjective/objective distinction.

One person could think that torture is always wrong; another could think that torturing terrorists for information is acceptable. So far that doesn't tell you anything about which if either thinks their moral judgements are subjective or objective. (Moral subjectivists are less likely to think that there are things which are wrong under all circumstances, but that's not a hard and fast generalisation.) What tells you whether someone believes morality is objective is whether they think they might be wrong.
 
Posted by George Spigot (# 253) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
[QUOTE]I'd say that's not what subjective means. 'Subjective' would mean that the moral judgement depends upon the person making the judgement. It doesn't mean that the judgement depends upon the circumstances.

I've never thought of it that way before. One of my objections to objective morality was the idea that the morality of an action depends on the circumstances. For example there are times when it could be right to lie. Or times when it could be right to steal. Are you saying that objective morality isn’t fixed in stone in the sense that actions are either always right or always wrong?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by George Spigot:
For example there are times when it could be right to lie. Or times when it could be right to steal. Are you saying that objective morality isn’t fixed in stone in the sense that actions are either always right or always wrong?

It depends.
There are philosophers who think morality is objective who think that there are actions that under some description are always right or always wrong. And there are philosophers who think no action is necessarily wrong. An example of the latter would be classical utilitarianism. A classical utilitarian believes that an action is right if it creates the greatest possible amount of utility for all concerned (utility meaning pleasure minus pain). They think that's a question of objective fact. Whether it's right to steal, lie or torture depends entirely upon whether it will create utility or not. So a classical utilitarian believes there is an objective morality in which no action is intrinsically right or wrong.

In ethical philosophy, ethics is divided into normative ethics and meta-ethics. Normative ethics argues about what it is right to do, and why: the question of whether any actions are always wrong, and if so, which ones and why, is part of normative ethics: arguing about what right and wrong are. Meta-ethics argues about what 'right' and 'wrong' mean at all, and what kind of activity morality is: the question of whether morality is objective or subjective is part of what's called meta-ethics: argument about what kind of activity morality is. Normative ethical theories and meta-ethical theories may have implications for each other, but are in principle distinct.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
Wtf?

Objectivity = truth.

God makes and sustains the world.

God saved the Israelites from slavery and oppression in Egypt.

This third is obvious fiction. The archaeological evidence provides no support for the tale of slavery in Egypt and indeed quite a lot against.

If objectivity is truth, and your foundations are wrong, you need to discard your conclusions based on those foundations.

Both the first and second statements are highly questionable. Objectivity is a state of viewing - either an ideal or a myth depending. And that God creates and sustains the world is not proven. So that's one pholosophically dubious statement, one practically dubious statement, and an outright falsehood.

quote:
Only quite a bit later did God give the Ten Commandments.
According to the fictional record, the Ten Commandments were given to Moses - the same person who led the Exodus. I'd hardly describe that as "quite a bit later". And it's still a part of the bible we know to be fiction.

quote:
2: God has no morality. God has no need of morality. God loves and saves humanity before God suggested morality to humans so they could live better together.
Or rather God is amoral to the point of drowning the world, even in his own fictional PR document mind controls Pharaoh to give himself an excuse to show off, and generally is a moral example of what not to do. If morality is objectively the right thing to do then God would be the most moral entity going and would automatically follow his own rules.


And onto more interesting matters, my belief is that the difference between subjective and non-deontological objective morality is like the difference between theory and practice. Even if you have a supposedly objective morality you yourself have limited information under any given circumstance so the moral reasoning you can do has the subjective strand of the information you have available and thus the outcome is subjective. The only exception is deontological ethics - in which the ethical thing to do is to follow the rules to the letter and then wash your hands of the outcome no matter how many people you kill.
 
Posted by Truman White (# 17290) on :
 
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Justinian:

And onto more interesting matters, my belief is that the difference between subjective and non-deontological objective morality is like the difference between theory and practice. Even if you have a supposedly objective morality you yourself have limited information under any given circumstance so the moral reasoning you can do has the subjective strand of the information you have available and thus the outcome is subjective. The only exception is deontological ethics - in which the ethical thing to do is to follow the rules to the letter and then wash your hands of the outcome no matter how many people you kill. [/QB]

Non dentological objective morality? What's that when it's at home? How can you have objective morality with no moral duties? Christianity teaches that morality is objective because it's grounded in a Person - a Person to whom we are responsible.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
And onto more interesting matters, my belief is that the difference between subjective and non-deontological objective morality is like the difference between theory and practice. Even if you have a supposedly objective morality you yourself have limited information under any given circumstance so the moral reasoning you can do has the subjective strand of the information you have available and thus the outcome is subjective.

You're saying that limited information makes our moral judgements infallible? Surely if a consequentialist, for example, thinks her moral judgements are fallible she won't think they suddenly become infallible should she lose information.

quote:
The only exception is deontological ethics - in which the ethical thing to do is to follow the rules to the letter and then wash your hands of the outcome no matter how many people you kill.
I don't quite follow. You could have an objective and therefore fallibilist deontological ethics. In fact, fallibists are more likely to be deontologists, since an ethical infallibilist is more likely to see ethics as about ends not means.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Truman White:
Non dentological objective morality? What's that when it's at home? How can you have objective morality with no moral duties?

Deontological ethics is any ethics in which there are certain things you must never use as means to your ends. For example, the United Nations Declaration of Human Rights is an example of deontological ethic: it declares that nobody may ever hurt or torture anybody else without their consent.

There are plenty of examples of ethics that are not deontological. Aristotle held a mixed ethics: there are some things you must not ever do, such as unlawful killing or adultery. But much of his ethics is about the cultivation of virtues, such as courage or generosity. You can believe that an act is objectively courageous or generous (and therefore good) without thinking that it is therefore done as conforming to an exceptionless injunction. Likewise, classical utilitarianism believes that an act is objectively good or bad according to whether it results in a greater amount of pleasure or suffering. It therefore rejects the idea that there's anything you should never do regardless of the consequences.
 
Posted by Truman White (# 17290) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Truman White:
Non dentological objective morality? What's that when it's at home? How can you have objective morality with no moral duties?

Deontological ethics is any ethics in which there are certain things you must never use as means to your ends. For example, the United Nations Declaration of Human Rights is an example of deontological ethic: it declares that nobody may ever hurt or torture anybody else without their consent.

There are plenty of examples of ethics that are not deontological. Aristotle held a mixed ethics: there are some things you must not ever do, such as unlawful killing or adultery. But much of his ethics is about the cultivation of virtues, such as courage or generosity. You can believe that an act is objectively courageous or generous (and therefore good) without thinking that it is therefore done as conforming to an exceptionless injunction. Likewise, classical utilitarianism believes that an act is objectively good or bad according to whether it results in a greater amount of pleasure or suffering. It therefore rejects the idea that there's anything you should never do regardless of the consequences.

Cheers Dafyd. Glad you cleared that one up.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
You're saying that limited information makes our moral judgements infallible? Surely if a consequentialist, for example, thinks her moral judgements are fallible she won't think they suddenly become infallible should she lose information.

Backwards. I'm saying that limited information makes all our judgements falliable and therefore we need to cross-check whatever we do.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
I'm saying that limited information makes all our judgements falliable and therefore we need to cross-check whatever we do.

How does that make it like ethical subjectivism? Under ethical subjectivism, by definition our judgements can't be wrong.
(There's nothing for them to be wrong about / they're not the kinds of mental activity that can be wrong / we know enough about the contents of our own psyche - pick the version that corresponds to your flavour of subjectivism.)
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
I'm saying that limited information makes all our judgements falliable and therefore we need to cross-check whatever we do.

How does that make it like ethical subjectivism? Under ethical subjectivism, by definition our judgements can't be wrong.
Not in the way I'm familiar with it. And I don't think Wikipedia agrees with you either. There is nothing in ethical subjectivism saying that you can't be wrong, merely that you can not know that you are right.

In my understanding there are three basic camps of people. Those calling themselves objectivists who are convinced there is One True Way and that they or their authority has all the answers. Those calling themselves subjectivists who are either hopelessly nihilistic or followers of one of the mutant forms of postmodernism and deny that anything is real. And those who can be either under the objectivist or subjectivist banner who start with the idea that they don't and indeed can't know it all but there's something worth talking about. In this case the labels confuse people (as a rule atheists claim subjective morality means this with a fairly materialist metaphysics and theists claim objective morality and the provision that they can not know the complete mind of God).
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
How does that make it like ethical subjectivism? Under ethical subjectivism, by definition our judgements can't be wrong.

Not in the way I'm familiar with it. And I don't think Wikipedia agrees with you either. There is nothing in ethical subjectivism saying that you can't be wrong, merely that you can not know that you are right.
I don't think wikipedia agrees with you either.

What would it mean for a subjective judgement to be wrong? What could it be wrong about?

A judgement is wrong if there is a mismatch between the judgement and the object of the judgement. That is, it's wrong if the object is not as the judgement represents it. Therefore, the possibility of a judgement being wrong requires that the judgement is aiming to fit at some property of the object. Therefore, the judgement is about some objective matter. For example, if I say that there is life on at least one of the extra-solar planets so far discovered, that is right or wrong according to whether there is life on at least one of those planets, and is therefore objective. Even though nobody on this planet has sufficient information to know one way or the other.

So, according to, say, classical utilitarianism, a judgement that something is the right course of action is wrong just in case it does not maximise utility.

A judgment is subjective if it depends upon the judging subject. A subjective judgement is not determined by its object. Therefore, there can be no mismatch between the judgement and what the judgement depends on - the judgement is identical with its conditions of success.
For example, my judgement that my daughter is the best and most darling baby in the world, being frankly subjective, is not something that can be wrong. (What information could you give me that would change my mind?)

I'd just add that all ethical systems approximate to deontology in situations of incomplete information. For example, rule utilitarians are classical utilitarians who justify general ethical commands on the grounds that they have a higher probability of maximising utility than alternative courses of action. Similar things apply to virtue ethics: if you're not sure go with the basic rules.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
Justinian, can I extend your attempt at a summary a bit? I think there are four camps:
1. There is no objective morality and therefore... well actually no conclusions can be made and one could end up anywhere
2. There is no objective morality but there's clearly something important there to talk about such that we can for example discuss our differing subjective moralities and try to harmonise them
3. Morality is objective but the probability of humans being able to identify the standard in its entirety range from somewhat unlikely to certainly impossible
4. Morality is objective and therefore what I say is The Truth, end of story.

Now, I'd say most people here are 2 or 3 but in debate we extrapolate our opponent's position such that they appear to be in 1 or 4. 1 and 4 are the territory of sociopaths and fundamentalist zealots and can be discounted as far as serious debate goes. What we're focussing on here though is whether or not 2 makes sense, and those of us who hold position 3 are saying it does not. Not that it's a moral failing but rather that it's a position that's internally inconsistent - without a theoretical objective morality there is nothing that can be debated.
 
Posted by Justinian (# 5357) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
What would it mean for a subjective judgement to be wrong? What could it be wrong about?

The frame of reference of the person or persons acted upon because you are only in your frame of reference. You're equating subjective with solipsistic.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Justinian:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
What would it mean for a subjective judgement to be wrong? What could it be wrong about?

The frame of reference of the person or persons acted upon because you are only in your frame of reference. You're equating subjective with solipsistic.
Could you expand please? Suppose I judge that battery farming is cruel. How is that about the frames of reference of any other person or person's acted upon? Surely it is about the treatment of chickens? To say that the frames of reference of the farmers or consumers ought to be taken into account is perhaps to miss the point of condemning battery farming on the grounds of cruelty.

Do truths about other people's frames of reference impose any normative constraint upon your moral judgements other than those that you yourself judge that they should? Are they supposed to be normative truths? Or are they supposed to be non-normative truths that can't render judgements wrong? If the former, you're grounding ethics in something objective - an objectively existing duty to respect other people's frames of reference. If the latter, then they can't render your ethical judgements wrong.

Basically, does empathy make available intrinsically relevant moral truths? Then ethics is objective. Does empathy only make available non-moral facts, facts that are judged morally relevant within some moral systems? Then it can't make judgements according to standards that don't consider those relevant wrong by their standards.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
There's a position that says that if you believe that battery farming is cruel then it's wrong for you to eat battery farmed chicken, but if I believe that battery farming is the least-bad alternative then I can eat chicken with a clear conscience.

Whereas an objectivist would insist that it has to be either OK or not-OK, but can't be morally licit for me and not for you.

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Suppose I judge that battery farming is cruel.

Doesn't this contradict the premise of the OP? After all, if morality is objective your judgement is irrelevant.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
There's a position that says that if you believe that battery farming is cruel then it's wrong for you to eat battery farmed chicken, but if I believe that battery farming is the least-bad alternative then I can eat chicken with a clear conscience.

Whereas an objectivist would insist that it has to be either OK or not-OK, but can't be morally licit for me and not for you.

It's possible that someone could believe that there's an objective moral principle that your moral beliefs are binding upon you, but that you're not at fault for violating moral principles that you don't believe in. It's a bit of minimal moral priniciple, but it's possible. You'd call it objective moral relativism if you like. Certainly, a believer in objective morality can hold that sincere belief is an excuse.
It's much less likely that a believer that morality is subjective could consistently hold it so long as they held the more rigourous moral view. Someone who believes battery farming is licit could hold it. But someone who hold what they consider the subjective belief that battery farming is wrong must do so because they don't want chickens to be battery farmed. (Or they have some other objection to battery farmers.) What they care about in adopting their moral principle is the chickens (or the farmers). You can't consistently want chickens not to be battery farmed but not mind if other people do it. Therefore, they're committing themselves to saying it's wrong to support battery farming whatever your beliefs about it.
Subjective moral relativism is actually a lot harder to consistently hold that objective moral relativism. It basically becomes a permissive libertinism.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Suppose I judge that battery farming is cruel.

Doesn't this contradict the premise of the OP? After all, if morality is objective your judgement is irrelevant.
No.
(If morality is objective then my judgement doesn't affect the truth of the matter, but I was hardly arguing that it was.)
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
No.
(If morality is objective then my judgement doesn't affect the truth of the matter, but I was hardly arguing that it was.)

But it rather raises the question: "If morality is objective, and our moral judgments are necessarily at least partially subjective, how does it all pan out when the believer in objective morality actually makes those moral judgements? Does his/her judgement become objective by virtue of believing it to be so?
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
quote:
No.
(If morality is objective then my judgement doesn't affect the truth of the matter, but I was hardly arguing that it was.)

But it rather raises the question: "If morality is objective, and our moral judgments are necessarily at least partially subjective, how does it all pan out when the believer in objective morality actually makes those moral judgements? Does his/her judgement become objective by virtue of believing it to be so?
I wonder if this confuses moral ontology (where one grounds morality) with moral epistemology (where one finds it). If we say that moral values and responsibilities are objective we are saying that they have a source which remains unaltered regardless whether I follow it, believe in it, or even am aware of it. This is moral ontology. Now how we discover the grounds of these virtues and responsibilities is another matter.

Personally, I hold that moral values and responsibilities are grounded in God's nature. In terms of how they may be discovered I would say that this is possible through various faiths or no faith - we have something of the imprint of God's nature on our humanity which includes a moral sense through which we perceive certain actions and attitudes are always right, and always wrong regardless of time, place, custom and practice.

So whilst I would argue they are most perfectly articulated by Christ, our perception and application of moral virtue and responsibility will, I suggest, always be hampered by our less than perfect human natures.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
But it rather raises the question: "If morality is objective, and our moral judgments are necessarily at least partially subjective, how does it all pan out when the believer in objective morality actually makes those moral judgements? Does his/her judgement become objective by virtue of believing it to be so?

Your second question only makes sense if 'objective' there means 'unbiased'. But 'believer in objective morality' only makes sense if 'objective' means 'the case or not independent of judgements made about it'. A believer in objective morality does not therefore believe that his or her moral judgement is unbiased. Quite the contrary: it only makes sense for me to say that my moral judgement may be biased if I believe in objective morality for it to be biased about. Your question is therefore a non-sequitur arising from a fallacy of equivocation.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
I wonder if this confuses moral ontology (where one grounds morality) with moral epistemology (where one finds it).
Of course it does. That's the whole point. Most moral objectivists of the theistic kind I have argued with seek to downplay the role of subjectivity, but the actual working out of moral questions involve it. (I would say it involves nothing else.)

If we look at the common modes of getting in touch with objective morality, they are subjective processes: Working to some sort of utilitarian standard - intersubjective. What would Jesus do/looking into the heart/asking for Allah's or God's or Whoever's guidance - subjective. Consulting sacred texts - since there is no agreement which texts if any are genuinely God's words or inspiration, at least some of it is delusion or wonky subjectivity. Consulting priest/iman/Pope - ditto.

ISTM that no matter what the ontology is, the realities of the epistemology make subjectivity the only game in town.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
If we look at the common modes of getting in touch with objective morality, they are subjective processes: Working to some sort of utilitarian standard - intersubjective. What would Jesus do/looking into the heart/asking for Allah's or God's or Whoever's guidance - subjective. Consulting sacred texts - since there is no agreement which texts if any are genuinely God's words or inspiration, at least some of it is delusion or wonky subjectivity. Consulting priest/iman/Pope - ditto.

ISTM that no matter what the ontology is, the realities of the epistemology make subjectivity the only game in town.

The same arguments could be used to claim that any method of getting in touch with anything objective uses subjective processes. Especially if you're prepared to use the word 'intersubjective', whatever 'intersubjective' means in this context.

I can see how you could describe interpreting a sacred text as 'intersubjective', since a text, however sacred, is written in a human language which is a human convention. And choosing which sacred text has authority is not a purely individual matter. But you don't use the word 'intersubjective' for that one, but merely 'subjective'. Instead you use the word 'intersubjective' for ways of assessing utilitarian standards. What is intersubjective about them? Either they are determined empirically, or an appearance of empirical rigour is used to disguise the expression of an essentially individual prejudice. But at no point does intersubjective convention come into it.
I can't help noticing that you use 'subjective' for what only some religious people do, and 'intersubjective' for what some atheists do. Is your choice of word purely rhetorical?
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
@Dafyd

OK, to get all the equivocation stuff out of the way, here are some definitions I have in mind in these discussions:

Subjective: relating to or of the nature of an object as it is known in the mind as distinct from a thing in itself.

Objective: relating to or of the nature of an object as a thing in itself as distinct from as it is known in the mind.

Intersubjective: The sharing of subjective states by two or more individuals. Shared cognition and consensus.

I'd say that any practical attempt to adopt utilitarianism is an intersubjective undertaking. Secular democratic government is nothing more than utilitarianism writ large. On a personal level, it can be described as merely subjective, I suppose.

quote:
And choosing which sacred text has authority is not a purely individual matter. But you don't use the word 'intersubjective' for that one, but merely 'subjective'
Actually, I didn't. I said at least some of it is delusion or wonkily subjective. That's because there is no intersubjective consensus - even among people of the same faith ffs - on the matter of authority regarding moral matters.

quote:
The same arguments could be used to claim that any method of getting in touch with anything objective uses subjective processes. Especially if you're prepared to use the word 'intersubjective.
Quite. And we have ways of addressing this conundrum when it comes to things like electrons and sound waves and light and atoms and molecules and cells and such and such.

This all boils down to Mackie's idea of the "queerness" of moral facts. If they exist, they are of such a character that the normal methods of investigation of objective reality and intersubjective consensus don't apply. So to use the language of "objectivity" without setting out how it actually works in the working out of moral judgements is incoherent.
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
@Grokesk. I think we are in agreement that determining the content of morality (I use the term as shorthand) involves subjective or intersubjectuve processes. (Thank you for the definitions by the way - I hadn't previously come across the term "intersubjective.")

The question as to whether morality is ontologically objective or subjective is still, however, relevant. If you conclude that morality is objective in an ontological sense, this will, I think, influence where you will look to help you discover the content and application of such morality.
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
And just to add (while i have the quote in front of me) if we start from the conviction of an objective morality, the questions we ask to help us discover it may also be different. The second Anglican-Roman Catholic International Commission report, Life in Christ suggests that 'the fundamental moral question is not "what we ought to do" but "what kind of persons are we called to become."' Clearly this approach only makes sense if someone is doing the "calling."
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Drewthealexander:
certain actions and attitudes are always right, and always wrong regardless of time, place, custom

I suspect that you can maintain this only by bringing the circumstantial detail into the definition of the act or attitude.

For example, pulling a trigger is an act which may be right or wrong, given the circumstances. In the particular circumstances in which you think it is very wrong, you lump the act and the circumstances into a "compound concept" called "murder".

In one sense there's nothing wrong with that approach. But you're deceiving yourself if you think you've removed any of the inherent complexity thereby or any of the dependence of morality on circumstances. You've just shifted the frame of the question from "in what circumstances is this act wrong ?" to "what is the domain of circumstances over which this concept - murder - is applicable ?"

Best wishes,

Russ
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Drewthealexander:
certain actions and attitudes are always right, and always wrong regardless of time, place, custom

I suspect that you can maintain this only by bringing the circumstantial detail into the definition of the act or attitude.

For example, pulling a trigger is an act which may be right or wrong, given the circumstances. In the particular circumstances in which you think it is very wrong, you lump the act and the circumstances into a "compound concept" called "murder".

I'm not sure that directly addresses Drewthealexander's point. The circumstantial variables that affect whether most people think pulling a trigger is right or wrong are not the kinds of thing that would naturally be included under 'time, place, custom'.

It's not quite as black and white as Drewthealexander paints it, true. An act is I think intentional human behaviour. Intentional means that for any act it makes sense to ask why the agent did it. Now the kind of circumstances that affect whether someone considers pulling a trigger right or wrong are generally those that could be taken into account by the agent's intention. And in the case of trigger pulling, they're largely not matters of time, place and custom. There are cases where it's more woolly. Different societies have different concepts of property rights, and so it follows that custom affects whether a given behaviour amounts to stealing. Driving your car on the correct side of the road requires a fair amount of elaboration before it can be made to depend upon a custom-neutral principle. But most custom-dependent moral principles can be justified by reference to some custom-neutral good which they're intended to serve.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
OK, to get all the equivocation stuff out of the way, here are some definitions I have in mind in these discussions:

Subjective: relating to or of the nature of an object as it is known in the mind as distinct from a thing in itself.

Objective: relating to or of the nature of an object as a thing in itself as distinct from as it is known in the mind.

Intersubjective: The sharing of subjective states by two or more individuals. Shared cognition and consensus.

That's a poor definition of objective, since 'objective' has two relevant senses and it's not clear which one you mean. When someone says morality is objective they mean it is a thing in itself as distinct from as it is known in the mind. Ok. But when you ask whether a judgement is objective they don't mean the judgement is distinct from as it is known in the mind - that would be nonsense since judgement is a mental activity with no mind-independent existence. But if you say that the judgement is objective because it relates to something distinct from the mind, then that's not what's meant by saying morality is objective.

Now when you say 'intersubjective' refers to shared subjective states, I presume you don't mean telepathy. But any other sense in which one can be said to share a subjective state is very woolly. Consensus is not the same as shared cognition.

quote:
I'd say that any practical attempt to adopt utilitarianism is an intersubjective undertaking. Secular democratic government is nothing more than utilitarianism writ large. On a personal level, it can be described as merely subjective, I suppose.
The first sentence is only true in so far as any practical attempt to adopt anything is intersubjective.
Utilitarianism, when stripped of its ideological coating, is the claim that the aim of government is to maximise GDP without regard to equality or workers' rights. Now that certainly seems to be the aim of our present secular democratic government. But it does not follow that it is the aim of secular democratic government as such. In fact, you'll find as much or more disagreement over what secular democratic government entails, or even how to implement utilitarianism, as you will among religious believers.

quote:
quote:
And choosing which sacred text has authority is not a purely individual matter. But you don't use the word 'intersubjective' for that one, but merely 'subjective'
Actually, I didn't. I said at least some of it is delusion or wonkily subjective. That's because there is no intersubjective consensus - even among people of the same faith ffs - on the matter of authority regarding moral matters.
'Delusion or wonkily subjective' is merely a rude way of saying 'subjective'.
As I said above, claiming that secular democratic government is based on a shared consensus while dismissing religious believers as not having any intersubjective consensus is laughable. You're applying completely different standards.

quote:
quote:
The same arguments could be used to claim that any method of getting in touch with anything objective uses subjective processes. Especially if you're prepared to use the word 'intersubjective.
Quite. And we have ways of addressing this conundrum when it comes to things like electrons and sound waves and light and atoms and molecules and cells and such and such.
We have ways of addressing the problem when it comes to historical events as well. They aren't as effective as they are when they come to matters that can be quantified and addressed with mathematical tools, but they can still be used. It's an open question whether they apply to economics. Some of the same methods - rational argument - can also be used in philosophy and hermeneutics.
If the ways we have of addressing the matter in moral argument aren't sufficient, the same applies to this meta-moral argument we're having now. So do you think that your arguments are addressing the problem in any way? If not, what do you think you're doing? If so, why are you claiming there's a problem with moral argument.

quote:
This all boils down to Mackie's idea of the "queerness" of moral facts. If they exist, they are of such a character that the normal methods of investigation of objective reality and intersubjective consensus don't apply. So to use the language of "objectivity" without setting out how it actually works in the working out of moral judgements is incoherent.
The most obvious thing wrong with Mackie's argument is that only intuitionists take moral facts to be the kinds of thing that Mackie is dismissing as queer.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
That's a poor definition of objective...
OK, I've shown you mine, you show me yours. Otherwise wibbling on about equivocations and definitions is just a version of that well known logical fallacy - avoiding the question.

quote:
In fact, you'll find as much or more disagreement over what secular democratic government entails, or even how to implement utilitarianism, as you will among religious believers
That may be so. But the important thing is that it is seen for what it is - a bunch of people trying to alter other people's subjective opinions to reach some sort of er, intersubjective consensus.

quote:
'Delusion or wonkily subjective' is merely a rude way of saying 'subjective'.
As I said above, claiming that secular democratic government is based on a shared consensus while dismissing religious believers as not having any intersubjective consensus is laughable.

You've overlooked the key phrase - "...at least some of it." Do you dispute that at least some claimed authority is deluded? Does God hate fags? Should Muslim apostates be killed? Are there 72 virgins waiting in heaven for suicide bombers? When you die, will you be re-incarnated in a form determined by the law of Karma? If your answer to any of these questions is no, how did you come to that answer?

quote:
Some of the same methods - rational argument - can also be used in philosophy and hermeneutics.
Scientism alert. And tested, how?

quote:
The most obvious thing wrong with Mackie's argument is that only intuitionists take moral facts to be the kinds of thing that Mackie is dismissing as queer.
OK, then. What kind of thing do you take a moral fact to be?
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
The question as to whether morality is ontologically objective or subjective is still, however, relevant.
I don't see how it can be - not to the nuts and bolts of making moral judgements anyway. Usually, if there are ontological questions that we can't get an epistemic handle on, we hold up our hands and say, "I don't know" or, "We're working on that one."

In talking about morality above, you express yourself - as I contend we all surely must - in subjective terms, "Personally, I hold that..." "I would say that this is possible through various faiths or no faith..." Or else you quote a flat out assertion from an interfaith report. I'm not saying these are not valid ways of addressing the issue for you, but I can't for the life of me see any place for notions of objectivity in the mix.

I see a parallel in the world of science. Quantum Theory is one of the most well supported of all scientific theories, but at heart it is every bit as queer as any putative moral property. There are a number of possible interpretations and you pretty much take whichever one takes your fancy. I favour the many worlds model for no better reason than it makes for good sci-fi. Much speculation abounds over what all the different interpretations mean, but the most productive practical approach - resulting in, for instance, us talking to each other in the way we are - has been from the "Shut up and calculate" school, which basically says, forget the interpretation of what we can't yet know and concentrate on what we can.

But just as we have any number of people claiming a hotline to the objective moral standard of God, Allah or whoever with impressive sounding, but empty, terminology, unending chutzpah and no substance whatsoever, so we have quantum bollocks mongers serving a similar function.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
quote:
That's a poor definition of objective...
OK, I've shown you mine, you show me yours. Otherwise wibbling on about equivocations and definitions is just a version of that well known logical fallacy - avoiding the question.
I showed you mine twice - once when explaining why you were committing a fallacy of equivocation and once when explaining why your definition wasn't up to the job.
From the SOED:
Objective 2b: Opp. to subjective in the modern sense, That is the object of thought as dist. from the perceiving or thinking subject, hence that is, or is regarded as a 'thing'; real.
Objective 3a: Of a person, writing, etc.: Treating a subject so as to exhibit the actual facts, not coloured by the feelings or opinions of the writer.
Objective judgement is a case of 3a. Morality is objective is a case of 2b.

quote:
quote:
In fact, you'll find as much or more disagreement over what secular democratic government entails, or even how to implement utilitarianism, as you will among religious believers
That may be so. But the important thing is that it is seen for what it is - a bunch of people trying to alter other people's subjective opinions to reach some sort of er, intersubjective consensus.
Every secular democrat agrees with you about the subjective nature of morality?

quote:
quote:
'Delusion or wonkily subjective' is merely a rude way of saying 'subjective'.
As I said above, claiming that secular democratic government is based on a shared consensus while dismissing religious believers as not having any intersubjective consensus is laughable.

You've overlooked the key phrase - "...at least some of it." Do you dispute that at least some claimed authority is deluded? Does God hate fags? Should Muslim apostates be killed? Are there 72 virgins waiting in heaven for suicide bombers? When you die, will you be re-incarnated in a form determined by the law of Karma? If your answer to any of these questions is no, how did you come to that answer?
Taking 'at least some of it' seriously would have meant the entire paragraph irrelevant to the discussion. I therefore ignored 'at least some of it' as a get out clause to be used to evade challenge.
I can distinguish between 'treat every human being as an end not a means' and 'God hates fags' since I believe the one is objectively true and the other is objectively harmful. ('Deluded' is not my word.) But you don't have that justification. By 'delusion' all you mean is 'subjective opinion that I wish to be rude about'.

quote:
quote:
Some of the same methods - rational argument - can also be used in philosophy and hermeneutics.
Scientism alert. And tested, how?
The same way mathematics is tested: by other people following the reasoning.

quote:
quote:
The most obvious thing wrong with Mackie's argument is that only intuitionists take moral facts to be the kinds of thing that Mackie is dismissing as queer.
OK, then. What kind of thing do you take a moral fact to be?
A moral fact is a fact about what promotes human flourishing.
 
Posted by Drewthealexander (# 16660) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Drewthealexander:
certain actions and attitudes are always right, and always wrong regardless of time, place, custom

I suspect that you can maintain this only by bringing the circumstantial detail into the definition of the act or attitude.

For example, pulling a trigger is an act which may be right or wrong, given the circumstances. In the particular circumstances in which you think it is very wrong, you lump the act and the circumstances into a "compound concept" called "murder".

In one sense there's nothing wrong with that approach. But you're deceiving yourself if you think you've removed any of the inherent complexity thereby or any of the dependence of morality on circumstances. You've just shifted the frame of the question from "in what circumstances is this act wrong ?" to "what is the domain of circumstances over which this concept - murder - is applicable ?"

Best wishes,

Russ

Best wishes accepted Russ. Please accept mine.

Perhaps an example of my own may help clarify my own take on this undoubtedly tricky area. Let's take the example of the Nazi policy of genocide. According to this philosophy, human flourishing in a global sense would be promoted by the extermination of (among others) the Jewish race. Now let's imagine a world in which Nazism was the dominant philosophy after a successful campaign of world conquest. Even if the whole of humanity has concluded that this view was in fact correct it would, on the basis of an objective view of morality, still be wrong.

Now the presumption that moral values and responsibilities are objectively grounded doesn't remove the difficulty of determining how these work out in practice. But it does give us a basis for exploring them. So my starting point would be the character of God as expressed in Christ, from which we may begin to explore certian basic moral presumptions. As a starting point for these I woild include equality, grace, the value of human life, the unity of humankind, preferential claims for the poor and marginalized, and the goodness of creation.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
@Dafyd

In no particular order.

quote:
The same way mathematics is tested: by other people following the reasoning.
That puts anyone promoting ideas of objective morality on the same footing as I am with my predilection for the many worlds interpretation of quantum physics on the grounds that I like its implications. Anyone with sufficient knowledge and aptitude could follow the reasoning, do the maths and see that it is internally consistent and consistent with what we know so far. But they could also do the same with the Copenhagen Interpretation, the de Broglie–Bohm theory and many others. "Objectively", they can't all be right, and we can't as yet - if ever - test them. If I say to someone who holds to the Copenhagen Interpretation, "You're wrong and I'm right," there is not one shred of "objective" - in any sense of the word - meaning in the statement.

So, as far as actually doing anything with quantum theory, such as developing things like transistors, quantum computers, tunnelling microscopes and the like, these theories are useless, of interest to philosophers and no one else. Anyone who tries to convince us otherwise is either fooling themselves or trying to fool us. I contend the same is true of "objective" morality.

quote:
Every secular democrat agrees with you about the subjective nature of morality?
No, but it doesn't matter. Secular democrats, whatever their metaphysical views, can only argue about moral matters in terms that can be intersubjectively shared by all. If they don't do that, they cease to be secular democrats. How secular particular societies are in practice, obviously, differs widely.

quote:
By 'delusion' all you mean is 'subjective opinion that I wish to be rude about'.
I'm not going to go off on another tangent about definitions nor yet respond to your tiresome habit of putting words in my mouth. Suffice to say if we take delusion in this context to mean something that is falsely believed, the point I am making is that the plethora of moral assertions made by - most usually religious - people who hold that morality is objective cannot all be true. This then raises the question of how the believer in objective morality distinguishes the true from the false. My question to you is how do you do that non-subjectively?

So far you have given me this:

quote:
I can distinguish between 'treat every human being as an end not a means' and 'God hates fags' since I believe the one is objectively true and the other is objectively harmful. ('Deluded' is not my word.) But you don't have that justification.
I'm sorry, all you've done is shove the word "objectively" into the sentence a couple of times and called it justification. Fred Phelps believes "God hates fags" is objectively true and that tolerating homosexual behaviour is objectively harmful. How do you propose justifying your beliefs over his non-subjectively?

And finally:

QUOTE] A moral fact is a fact about what promotes human flourishing.[/QUOTE]

Okay, give us an example. And, bearing in mind you don't think moral facts are metaphysically queer, to which family of facts is it similar to? What can you tell us about its properties and how do you know it?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
If I say to someone who holds to the Copenhagen Interpretation, "You're wrong and I'm right," there is not one shred of "objective" - in any sense of the word - meaning in the statement.

I disagree. 'The many worlds interpretation is objectively wrong' or 'the many worlds interpretation is objectively right' are meaningful and can be understood by anyone who understands the many worlds interpretation. If someone can't understand what it means to say that the many worlds interpretation is right, then they don't understand what the many worlds interpretation means in the first place.

How do you propose to show non-subjectively that there really is no shred of objective meaning, in any sense of the word, in your statement?

You claim that a statement cannot be objective if it is not yet testable. But that means that objective facts only become objective once someone thinks up a way to test them. But that's a contradiction: if they're dependent upon someone thinking of a way to test them, they're not objective even after someone has tested them.

quote:
So, as far as actually doing anything with quantum theory, such as developing things like transistors, quantum computers, tunnelling microscopes and the like, these theories are useless, of interest to philosophers and no one else.
How do we test the above statement that it's of interest to philosophers and no one else? Suppose we find someone who isn't a philosopher who finds it interesting? (Over Christmas my parents were talking about a play they'd been to about the many worlds interpretation of quantum mechanics. They aren't philosophers. But maybe they're No True noone else?)

And why does the above statement have anything to do with anything? Consider 'Julius Caesar led an army across the Rubicon'. How does that help anyone develop electron microscopes? Is it therefore a subjective opinion?

quote:
This then raises the question of how the believer in objective morality distinguishes the true from the false. My question to you is how do you do that non-subjectively?
I suppose by a process of rational argument such as you're trying to use now.

I asked you this before. Do you think your arguments in this thread are subjective or non-subjective? Can you establish whether you're right and I'm wrong or vice versa (or whether we're both wrong) non-subjectively?

quote:
quote:
A moral fact is a fact about what promotes human flourishing.
Okay, give us an example. And, bearing in mind you don't think moral facts are metaphysically queer, to which family of facts is it similar to? What can you tell us about its properties and how do you know it?
'Morality' is most similar to concepts such as 'health' and 'rationality'.

Why does this matter? Basically, the question is what methods of persuasion we use. If we think morality is objective, then we use the kinds of methods we use for history or other arguments about subject matters we think hold objectively - we avoid logical fallacy and so on. We act as if we're trying to determine the truth. If someone points out a flaw in our argument we abandon the argument. Yes, it's difficult and there are no easy or immediate answers, but the fact that we don't know any answers doesn't mean we don't give up.
On the other hand, if we take morality to have no objective existence, then there's no reason why we shouldn't embrace logical fallacies in our argument if they're persuasive. If someone points out a flaw in our argument we ignore them. We happily reuse the argument on other people. And so on.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
I disagree. 'The many worlds interpretation is objectively wrong' or 'the many worlds interpretation is objectively right' are meaningful and can be understood by anyone who understands the many worlds interpretation.
Meaningful but irrelevant. I have no "objective" way of choosing the many worlds interpretation over the Copenhagen one because they are equally rational and neither are empirically testable.

quote:
You claim that a statement cannot be objective if it is not yet testable. But that means that objective facts only become objective once someone thinks up a way to test them. But that's a contradiction: if they're dependent upon someone thinking of a way to test them, they're not objective even after someone has tested them.
No, I'm saying a statement cannot be known to be objective if it is not yet testable. "I don't know" is a perfectly reasonable position to take, whereas "I do know blah" where blah is untestable is not. At best it is a subjective opinion.

quote:
How do we test the above statement that it's of interest to philosophers and no one else? Suppose we find someone who isn't a philosopher who finds it interesting? (Over Christmas my parents were talking about a play they'd been to about the many worlds interpretation of quantum mechanics. They aren't philosophers. But maybe they're No True noone else?)
OK, it is only philosophically interesting. I'll allow your parents to be interested if they want to be.

quote:
And why does the above statement have anything to do with anything? Consider 'Julius Caesar led an army across the Rubicon'. How does that help anyone develop electron microscopes? Is it therefore a subjective opinion?
I'm not sure you're grasping what I'm trying to say, which is probably my fault. All of the things listed are practical applications that have arisen out of what we understand and observe about quantum mechanics, which are independent of the interpretations such as Copenhagen and many worlds. One could spend a lifetime developing quantum cryptology, quantum teleportation etc without ever having to consider those interpretations. One would just shut up and calculate. Anybody who wibbles on about quantum healing or quantum consciousness or anything else that depends on a particular interpretation is overreaching or having a laugh.

And so it is with morality. It doesn't matter a flying fuck whether it is objective or not if we can't ascertain it to be so. Anyone who pretends otherwise is having a laugh, in my subjective opinion.

More tomorrow.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
I suppose by a process of rational argument such as you're trying to use now.
Well, clearly we have different opinions on how far rational argument can take us in establishing objectivity. All I would add on that score is that if rational argument could get us to objective truth on its own, there would be no need for science and there would be no open philosophical questions. It's necessary but not sufficient. I don't think I'm going out on a scientismistic limb in thinking that.

quote:
Morality' is most similar to concepts such as 'health' and 'rationality'.
Hm, that embraces a wide spectrum, since I don't think health and rationality are very similar. But it is interesting you choose health, as that is the example Sam Harris uses as analogous to his concept of the science of morality. I believe the last time we talked about this I said your position reminds me of Harris's, notwithstanding your evident dislike of the man.

Anyway, I pretty much agree with Russell Blackford's take on the whole idea of objective morality.

The thing is, though, I asked you for an example of a single moral fact, what you know about it and how you know it. Specifics, man, specifics.

quote:
On the other hand, if we take morality to have no objective existence, then there's no reason why we shouldn't embrace logical fallacies in our argument if they're persuasive. If someone points out a flaw in our argument we ignore them. We happily reuse the argument on other people. And so on.
Well, that's an argument that you've used on another person here and to no-one's surprise, I should imagine, they weren't very impressed with it either, seeing as it combines insult with bare assertion. Just because someone doesn't believe you can get a truly objective handle on moral matters means they have no reason to use rational argument? That's egregious, unsupported bollocks.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
quote:
I disagree. 'The many worlds interpretation is objectively wrong' or 'the many worlds interpretation is objectively right' are meaningful and can be understood by anyone who understands the many worlds interpretation.
Meaningful but irrelevant. I have no "objective" way of choosing the many worlds interpretation over the Copenhagen one because they are equally rational and neither are empirically testable.
If you had a way of choosing one interpretation over the other it wouldn't be objective. A method of choosing belongs to the object as known in the mind of the person choosing rather to the nature of the object in itself. By definition testability is a subjective property.

When you say 'I have no way of choosing' the one interpretation over the other, that's not saying anything about the two interpretations. It's saying something about you. Some person in the future might come up with a way. A statement that's about you can't show anything about whether the two interpretations are about something objectively there. They are or aren't objectively there regardless of the limits of your ingenuity.

Nobody had anyway of testing whether the Higgs Boson existed for decades before the LHC was built. That doesn't mean that the Higgs Boson has only just started to objectively exist.

As it happens, I can think of a reason for choosing, namely Occam's razor, or, given the context of the discussion, Russell's teapot argument. It's reasonable to prefer the Copenhagen interpretation over the many worlds interpretation just in case it's reasonable to prefer no teapot orbiting Pluto to a teapot orbiting Pluto.

quote:
No, I'm saying a statement cannot be known to be objective if it is not yet testable. "I don't know" is a perfectly reasonable position to take, whereas "I do know blah" where blah is untestable is not. At best it is a subjective opinion.
Again, whether or not something can be known is a fact about the object as it is known, or not, in the mind, and not about the object as it is in itself. It's a subjective matter. That's irrelevant to whether the object itself is objectively there or not.

Anyway, time to interrogate this concept of something being testable. It's rarely a matter of finding a simple test that returns a yes-no answer. For example, take the Higgs Boson. The LHC didn't suddenly exhibit incontrovertible evidence for it. It just gave a whole lot of data, that when interrogated with statistical methods suggested that the standard model was more likely than whatever they were using as the null hypothesis. Not even when Galileo dropped two objects off the top of the Leaning Tower did he get an absolutely unambiguous and decisive test of his theory. (Think what the margin of error on Galileo's experiment must have been in the light of what we know about how reliable eyewitness testimony is.) Physics is built up over a succession of tests that slowly make alternative explanations less and less likely. There are hardly ever any decisive tests.
And physics is clear cut compared to biology. Tests for whether birds are descended from the most recent common ancestor of diplodocus and triceratops basically consist of people looking at bones and arguing about whether they think this bone looks more like that bone than the other bone.
And again clear cut tests are even harder to come by in psychology and economics and sociology and philosophy.
But there's a continuum. There's no clear cut line on one side of which things are testable and on the other side of which things aren't. It's just that the tests get even less decisive as we progress along the continuum. But why should that be a reason to give up trying?

quote:
quote:
And why does the above statement have anything to do with anything? Consider 'Julius Caesar led an army across the Rubicon'. How does that help anyone develop electron microscopes? Is it therefore a subjective opinion?
I'm not sure you're grasping what I'm trying to say, which is probably my fault. All of the things listed are practical applications that have arisen out of what we understand and observe about quantum mechanics, which are independent of the interpretations such as Copenhagen and many worlds. One could spend a lifetime developing quantum cryptology, quantum teleportation etc without ever having to consider those interpretations. One would just shut up and calculate. Anybody who wibbles on about quantum healing or quantum consciousness or anything else that depends on a particular interpretation is overreaching or having a laugh.
No, I was grasping you perfectly well. Electron microscopes are a practical application that have arisen out of quantum mechanic yes? That was why I mentioned them. We don't know whether the people who developed the electron microscope held the Copenhagen interpretation or the many worlds interpretation; it didn't matter to what they were doing.

Now, the above argument relies upon some more general logical priniciple. (If it doesn't, then it's a purely ad hoc argument that has no relevance to metaethics.) We might state it as being that a proposition can only be objectively true or false if it has some practical application of a certain sort. (I think that's a fair statement of the position: let me know if you think the precise wording matters.) Call this logical principle P.
From P, follows your conclusion about morality: morality has no practical application of the kind we're talking about and therefore there is no objective fact of the matter.

Now, do we have reason to believe P. One reason to disbelieve P would be to find a counterexample. So: a proposed counterexample. Julius Caesar led his armies across the Rubicon.
Either a): Julius Caesar led his armies across the Rubicon, has practical applications of the sort we're talking about;
b): There is no truth of the matter for us to know about whether Julius Caesar led his armies across the Rubicon is true or false - classical historians are all having a laugh;
c): P is false.
A) and b) are pretty hard bullets to bite. Opting for c) means your argument falls apart.

Further comment: the claim that we oughtn't to worry about objective truth and falsehood unless there are practical applications is very New Labour. Or rather it's one of the things that New Labour borrowed from the Conservatives. It's the thinking behind the slow take over of scientific research by corporate funding and corporate sponsorship. The problem is that the people who discovered the stuff that has practical applications did so on the belief that they were finding out the objective truth. They were scientific realists, rather than instrumentalists. A notorious example: group theory was developed by people who were trying to develop a branch of mathematics that had no scientific, let alone practical, applications. But it turned out that it could be applied to quantum physics.
If people do ever discover whether the many worlds interpretation is true (or false), it won't be people who believe that it can't be tested and is therefore only of interest to philosophers. Should they do so, it will because they thought it mattered and therefore tried to work out a way to test it.

Going back to a previous post of yours:
quote:
Fred Phelps believes "God hates fags" is objectively true and that tolerating homosexual behaviour is objectively harmful. How do you propose justifying your beliefs over his non-subjectively?
I think this sort of argument needs a name, and I propose to call it the 'Suddenly Fred Phelps is an Authority' argument.
Anyone who tried to argue that Darwinian evolution wasn't objectively true because no believer in Darwinian evolution can convince Fred Phelps would get laughed out of court. Fred Phelps, from what I gather, has a number of ludicrous beliefs about how gay people live their lives that are factually incorrect, and basically has no interest in correcting himself. Fred Phelps, from what I gather, is not in any way interested in listening to or learning from any kind of rational argument. We do not care what Fred Phelps thinks on any subject under the sun, except out of some morbid curiosity about Fred Phelps. So the presumption must be, until shown otherwise, that his views on Biblical interpretation and Christian ethics are just as wrongheaded and immune to rational argument as his views on everything else. Yet your above argument starts from the presumption that his views are just as worthy of attention as anybody else's. That somehow failure to find an argument that will convince Fred Phelps is a sign that the arguments are faulty rather than further confirmation that Fred Phelps is a sad man who neither cares about rational argument nor would know what to do with one if he did.
(If you genuinely want to see arguments against anti-same-sex religious doctrines, Dead Horses is full of them. It's over there.)

From your second post:

quote:
All I would add on that score is that if rational argument could get us to objective truth on its own, there would be no need for science and there would be no open philosophical questions. It's necessary but not sufficient.
That's no reason to give up trying.
I mean, it's not as if the past two and a half thousand years are completely without result. For example: slavery was universally accepted: then people became increasingly defensive about it: now we think it's universally wrong. If you think that it's possible to argue just as rationally in the other direction, then show it can be done.
(I'm not saying that rational argument is purely formal and takes place with no reference to the subject matter, which is the way people live their lives. But see above about how testing isn't as simple as you seem to be making out.)


quote:
The thing is, though, I asked you for an example of a single moral fact, what you know about it and how you know it. Specifics, man, specifics.
I'd like to think that I'm open to arguments that there are no moral facts should any good arguments come along. That precludes me saying that I know there are moral facts. And I also think that without some kind of God-like concept it's hard to have any normative objective concepts at all (including health and rationality), and there are enough atheists that I respect that I can't say I know there's a God. So on the whole I decline to answer your challenge in your terms.

The thing is, my argument doesn't depend upon my being able to answer your challenge. Because I'm arguing that moral facts are objective. That is, I'm arguing that they're true independent of whether or not I know them. And all arguments to the contrary are unconvincing; and the contrary positions all require biting bigger and harder bullets than the bullets that my position requires me to bite.

With that proviso, I'm pretty sure that kindness is good and cruelty is bad. Because a society in which people are kind is going to work better than a society in which people are cruel. And because all things being equal, it seems that kind people are more interesting, less philistine, nicer in other ways, and happier, than cruel people. And it seems a lot easier to get a consistent moral system that doesn't require special pleading in which kindness is a virtue than it is to get one in which cruelty is a virtue.

quote:
quote:
On the other hand, if we take morality to have no objective existence, then there's no reason why we shouldn't embrace logical fallacies in our argument if they're persuasive. If someone points out a flaw in our argument we ignore them. We happily reuse the argument on other people. And so on.
Well, that's an argument that you've used on another person here and to no-one's surprise, I should imagine, they weren't very impressed with it either, seeing as it combines insult with bare assertion. Just because someone doesn't believe you can get a truly objective handle on moral matters means they have no reason to use rational argument?
Why is it insulting? Compared to say, asking you to explain why you're more rational than Fred Phelps.

There's that fallacy of equivocation thing again, this time building a straw man. A handle on moral matters relates to the nature of morality as it is known in the mind, and therefore is by definition subjective. When you
say we don't have an objective handle on the truth, you're using 'objective' in what I cited as sense 3b a few posts back. But I'm not arguing about whether morality is objective in sense 3b; I'm arguing about whether it's objective in what I cited as sense 2a.

So you say we can't get a truly objective (3b) handle on the truth in moral matters.
By implication...
i) we may not get a truly objective handle, we might be able to get a shakily objective handle. A shakily objective handle is better than nothing. Even the Dalai Lama or Desmond Tutu might not have a truly objective handle, but they could still have a handle that's more objective than say, Fred Phelps.
ii) if one handle on the truth can be closer to being truly objective (3b) than another, even if none of them is ever truly objective (3b) then there is such a thing as the truth in moral matters for there to be handles on? And that truth is therefore in sense 2a objective.

On the other hand, suppose we conclude from the fact that we can't get a truly objective handle, that all handles are as good as each other, or that we can't get a handle at all, and that therefore there is no truth to get a handle on or if there is it doesn't matter. That seems closer to the position you've appeared to me to be arguing for. What then is the point of rationality? It's not to get a better handle on the truth, since we're supposing no handle is better than any other.

Rationality and reasons are members of a set of concepts that includes truth. And all members of that set depend upon each other. Rationality is the normative standard by which we justify beliefs by reasons. Belief is a mental activity that aims at the truth. Justifying a belief means improving its aim at the truth. Take truth out and all the rest fall apart.

Can you come up with an objection to irrational argument that doesn't at some point rely on aiming at truth or an equivalent concept?

Evidence for my assertion: Bomber Harris. You find it incongruous that I don't like him even though his position is similar to mine. (I'll leave aside the advocating preemptive nuclear strikes on civilian populations thing.) The fact is, I think his arguments as far as I know of them are bad and fallacious. Therefore, so far as I think my position is objective, I'm going to like him less than someone arguing for a dissimilar position with better arguments. (I don't say I'm perfect at this, but I try.) Better arguments might either convince me that I'm wrong, which would be good, or at least point out flaws in my handle on the truth, which help improve my handle on the truth. But if Harris' arguments are fallacious they're of no good to me in either activity.
Now, from a moral subjectivist standpoint that's incongruous. A moral subjectivist wouldn't care whether Harris' arguments are rational or fallacious as much as they would care whether they supported a similar position. So long as they aren't so fallacious as to discredit my position by association, they might convince someone to agree with me. And it appears that a moral subjectivist does find it incongruous that I dismiss Harris.

[ 30. December 2012, 22:16: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
@Dafyd

quote:
As it happens, I can think of a reason for choosing, namely Occam's razor.
I don't know how you come to the conclusion that what quantum theory describes is only a set of probabilities which upon measurement immediately and randomly assumes only one of the possible values, and before that is in a state that is neither a wave nor a particle, and that the reality we live in is dependent on this process, is simpler than the idea that all the possibilities are real with separate existences; other than by subjective means. Both are equally mainstream interpretations, equally supported and equally mathematically sound. Your reasons for preferring one over the other are of no greater consequence than my fanciful one. I don't see the relevance of Russell's teapot, since both interpretations are currently unfalsifiable claims. All I am saying is we are firmly in "I don't know" territory and to claim more is just opinion. It may be opinion influenced by rational thought, reason, logic or whatever, but it is mistaken to call it anything other than what it is.

quote:
Anyway, time to interrogate this concept of something being testable. It's rarely a matter of finding a simple test that returns a yes-no answer...
I don't see how the difficulty of testing makes any difference to the principle. The Higgs boson is in the process of being tested - or rather the predictions of the Standard Model about it are being tested. If the expected results are found - as tentatively seem to be the case - over time, the Higgs will take its place in the Standard Model as - to use Stephen Jay Gould's phrase - something which is confirmed to such a degree it would be perverse to withhold provisional assent, which is the closest thing science can get to saying "objective fact".


quote:
Tests for whether birds are descended from the most recent common ancestor of diplodocus and triceratops basically consist of people looking at bones and arguing about whether they think this bone looks more like that bone than the other bone.
And this reflected in the status of the theory. AFAIK, the specific details of the evolution of birds is the subject of much dispute and although many scientists will have their own opinions on the matter, the details are not claimed as known.

quote:
But there's a continuum. There's no clear cut line on one side of which things are testable and on the other side of which things aren't
A continuum has extremities. I'm saying the claim that morality is objective lies at one extremity.

quote:
But why should that be a reason to give up trying?
I am not aware I suggested that.

quote:
We might state it as being that a proposition can only be objectively true or false if it has some practical application of a certain sort. (I think that's a fair statement of the position: let me know if you think the precise wording matters.)
That is not what I am saying at all. I am saying:

A) A proposition is either objectively true or objectively false.
B) Human beings can - within certain parameters to be argued over by philosophers endlessly - know whether it is true or false.
C) If human beings lack sufficient knowledge or evidence for or against a proposition, then they do not know whether it is true or false.
D) It is inadvisable (and/or dangerous) to place a proposition that is unknown in a practical application or within a wider body of knowledge that has practical applications.
E) New Labour was shit
F) Research for research's sake is groovy.
G) "Don't know, but working on it" is a part of science I wholeheartedly endorse.
H) Who said anything about thinking many worlds is forever untestable?

Happy New Year. Battle re-commences with a sore head tomorrow, maybe.
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
The thing is, my argument doesn't depend upon my being able to answer your challenge. Because I'm arguing that moral facts are objective. That is, I'm arguing that they're true independent of whether or not I know them. And all arguments to the contrary are unconvincing; and the contrary positions all require biting bigger and harder bullets than the bullets that my position requires me to bite
Thing is, it thus a pointless argument. As far as I can see, you are not proposing a way of establishing the proposition or utilising the argument in any way to arrive at objective moral conclusions. So the idea of moral objectivity is just left hanging. Interesting - at present – as a philosophical curiosity. But actually you are not saying that at all, because you also say the person who believes objective morality to be true is in a better rational position to make moral judgements, notwithstanding the fact that you are not claiming to access any properties of the objective reality of morality in the actual act of making moral judgements. So somehow, according to you, the subjective state of belief has the objective result of making the moral objectivist more prone to rational moral decision making. This is the problem I am having, and the one you are, it seems to me, avoiding by claims of equivocation. You claim to be saying that all you are arguing is for the existence of morality in sense 2b while denying that you are saying anything at all about sense 3a. On the other hand, according to you there are implications after all for sense 3a, in that believing the 2b sense puts one in a better position rationally than not when it comes to moral decision making.

quote:
With that proviso, I'm pretty sure that kindness is good and cruelty is bad. Because a society in which people are kind is going to work better than a society in which people are cruel. And because all things being equal, it seems that kind people are more interesting, less philistine, nicer in other ways, and happier, than cruel people. And it seems a lot easier to get a consistent moral system that doesn't require special pleading in which kindness is a virtue than it is to get one in which cruelty is a virtue.
I can't see how any of this is different for the moral anti realist. Throw me a bone, I'm struggling.

Anyway, so far we have conducted this discussion in, for the most part, naturalistic terms and are at a point summed up by the Internet Encyclopaedia of Philosophy in its entry on moral relativism:

quote:
The main problem they (philosophers holding to moral relativism) face is to show how the denial of objective moral truth need not entail a subjectivism that drains the rationality out of moral discourse. Their critics, on the other hand, face the possibly even more challenging task of justifying the claim that there is such a thing as objective moral truth.
I'm unlikely to convince you of the former and you haven't even tried doing the latter.

The thing is - another thing, the discussion is full of them - this thread is called "God's Morality is Objective", which comes pre-loaded with a whole host of philosophical assumptions that change the game somewhat. You can dismiss allusions as "Since when has Fred Phelps been an authority on Christian ethics?", but the uncomfortable truth for the moral objectivist of your stripe is that the most vocal moral objectivists emphatically embrace the idea that they have a perfectly good 3b handle and are not scared about beating people about the head with it. And as you say, they are immune to rational argument because their gods do not value rational argument. Who needs rationality when you can look into your heart or consult the religious bigwig or religious text?

You say that two and a half thousand year of rational enquiry has resulted in moral improvement, but part of that enquiry has, for many people, resulted in the jettisoning of the idea that morality is necessarily an objective property of a divine being.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grokesx:
you are not claiming to access any properties of the objective reality of morality in the actual act of making moral judgements.

You asked me whether I knew, rather than whether I was 'accessing properties'.
As regards accessing properties, what did you think this next bit you quote was about? The word 'because' should have been a clue.

quote:
quote:
With that proviso, I'm pretty sure that kindness is good and cruelty is bad. Because a society in which people are kind is going to work better than a society in which people are cruel. And because all things being equal, it seems that kind people are more interesting, less philistine, nicer in other ways, and happier, than cruel people. And it seems a lot easier to get a consistent moral system that doesn't require special pleading in which kindness is a virtue than it is to get one in which cruelty is a virtue.
I can't see how any of this is different for the moral anti realist.
The moral anti realist doesn't think any of this amounts to evidence justifying a belief? They don't think any of this amounts to access to moral 'properties'?

A moral anti realist might care about them, but they needn't care about any of those things, need they? So why would they if it doesn't advance their position?

quote:
Throw me a bone, I'm struggling.
How about you throw me some of the bones that I've been asking for?
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
So what's God's morality again?
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
quote:
So what's God's morality again?
If this study is anything to go by, it depends entirely on who you ask and when you ask them.

Anyway, if anyone is still interested, here is Prof Massimo Pigliucci's take on a recent debate over at Less Wrong.

Even though IMO, Pigliucci is a self regarding blowhard and the Less Wrong boys are just weird, I found it all mildly diverting. I recommend Eliezer Yudkowsky's piece on the grounds that anything that starts with Terry Pratchett's Susan and Death and ends with Harry Potter re-written by geeks can't be all bad.

And my mind has been earth shatteringly changed. I now believe morality is, in the style of the old Radio 4 programme 20 Questions, subjective with objective connections, or objective with subjective connections, or objective, or subjective. Or vegetable.

Edited because I just wouldn't let it lie.

[ 04. January 2013, 22:31: Message edited by: Grokesx ]
 
Posted by Grokesx (# 17221) on :
 
Shit, the link to the study is empty. Here it is.
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
Love it Grokesx: whatever we project.

It's all pathetically circular isn't it? We misinterpret the text with our fear and ignorance, declare that to be God's 'morality', whatever morality is and although it's meaninglessly arbitrary claim it's 'objective'.

Uh huh.

Been there.
 


© Ship of Fools 2016

Powered by Infopop Corporation
UBB.classicTM 6.5.0