Thread: Why only men? Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Martin L (# 11804) on
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Why would the priesthood (both OT and NT) be limited only to men?
It seems to me that, in both OT and NT days, it is an issue of cultural expediency--men were chosen because people were willing to accept male priests only.
Why then is the issue not solved now? What possible argument could be made, other than tradition?
Finally, why would anybody think God would oppose a female priesthood? What possible motive would God have for that?
Posted by Silver Faux (# 8783) on
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With all due respect, since you appear to believe that the answers to your questions are self-evident, with whom are you seeking a dialogue?
Posted by Martin L (# 11804) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Silver Faux:
With all due respect, since you appear to believe that the answers to your questions are self-evident, with whom are you seeking a dialogue?
Fair enough. The answers are self-evident to me, but certainly other answers are self-evident to others.
If anyone cares to offer insight into what reasons God might have for choosing or preferring a male priesthood (and I'm not arrogant about it...I'm willing to consider that I could be wrong), I'd be truly interested.
If a past thread has already covered this, then I apologize (and humbly request a link, if possible, as I cannot find it).
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
Why then is the issue not solved now? What possible argument could be made, other than tradition?
What's wrong with tradition?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
Why then is the issue not solved now? What possible argument could be made, other than tradition?
What's wrong with tradition?
This one excludes half the population from the decision making process.
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
Why then is the issue not solved now? What possible argument could be made, other than tradition?
What's wrong with tradition?
What is right with it in this instance?
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
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Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation? The fact that they are ritually unclean in many cultures, Jewish and other tribal cultures regularly? Certainly if you read the Pentateuch, women spend a lot of their life unclean, and the priestly castes had to be ritually cleansed - see the Leviticus thread in Kerygmania. If this cleansing is a problem you can see why women might be excluded.
I can see why in primitive societies this is a problem - animals being attracted to the smell of blood, bleeding being something that normally means the person bleeding is injured and may well die either from the wound or the resulting infection. And the superstitions that mean women bleeding doesn't imply death.
[ 19. June 2010, 07:40: Message edited by: Curiosity killed ... ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation? The fact that they are ritually unclean in many cultures, Jewish and other tribal cultures regularly? Certainly if you read the Pentateuch, women spend a lot of their life unclean, and the priestly castes had to be ritually cleansed - see the Leviticus thread in Kerygmania. If this cleansing is a problem you can see why women might be excluded.
I can see why in primitive societies this is a problem - animals being attracted to the smell of blood, bleeding being something that normally means the person bleeding is injured and may well die either from the wound or the resulting infection. And the superstitions that mean women bleeding doesn't imply death.
Yes, in primitive societies I can see these fears having a hold. But none of this is any excuse whatever for excluding women from the priesthood today.
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
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I didn't say that it was a good reason now.
But those sorts of irrational feelings linger. Have you tried talking about menstruation to teenage boys? Or most men?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
I didn't say that it was a good reason now.
But those sorts of irrational feelings linger. Have you tried talking about menstruation to teenage boys? Or most men?
I do, I do, and many other plumbing topics - but only because I love to see them squirm.
Seriously - I just wonder if it is fear of women which causes some sectors of society to insist on excluding women today (using many spurious excuses) Our local golf club is a case in point.
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
Fair enough. The answers are self-evident to me, but certainly other answers are self-evident to others.
Did you fail logic in college...?
Posted by wilson (# 37) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
If a past thread has already covered this, then I apologize (and humbly request a link, if possible, as I cannot find it).
Here's the orginal DH thread from back when we only had one per topic.
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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Yo Curiosity--
I'm no authority in psych stuff, but I can tell that OT Law would mean that the guys would be unclean just as often as the girls. "Any emission of semen" would do it, at least for a day. And since the priests and Levites served from age thirty to fifty, well. . .
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
Why then is the issue not solved now? What possible argument could be made, other than tradition?
What's wrong with tradition?
This one excludes half the population from the decision making process.
Buried in that are two unstated premises: that the primary function of the priest is to make decisions, and that people who are not priests are not involved in making decisions.
Both of those premises are false. You can't create a true conclusion out of false premises.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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Josephine - do you really think women have a voice in Church affairs where those churches don't allow women priests?
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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I can't answer for her but I remember an RC priest in a discussion group with me. The chair was a woman and when she told us to gather together again, he said, 'You don't go against the Catholic Women's Network. They run the church.'
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation?
Women not serving at the altar has a lot to do with menstruation, at least in the Orthodox Church.
The only blood permitted at our altar ever is the blood of our Lord Jesus Christ in the chalice. If the priest or deacon or one of the acolytes begins to bleed for any reason at all -- if the priest nicked his hand with the knife he's cutting the bread with, or if an acolyte was bored and picked at a scab and made it bleed -- he must immediately leave the altar. If it's the priest who is bleeding, the service must be paused until the flow of blood is stopped and he can return to finish the service.
That would make it hard for a woman to serve as a parish priest. "Sorry, we won't be having Liturgy tomorrow, as I've started my period."
Of course, an all-male priesthood is not the same thing as a "lack of credence given to women." And the rule about blood in the altar is not the only reason we have an all-male priesthood. But it is one of the reasons.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Evensong:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin L:
Why then is the issue not solved now? What possible argument could be made, other than tradition?
What's wrong with tradition?
What is right with it in this instance?
The answer to what's right about tradition is always "it's tradition." If you are in a traditional church, then tradition means those right, good, and true things that are passed down from our forebears. Modern problems break upon the rocks of tradition. Not the other way around.
But also a subtext underlying your question is that you believe that tradition is wrong in this instance? Why? Presumably because you believe women should be allowed to be priests. Which is to say you believe the tradition is wrong. But why? Presumably because things outside the tradition have led you to believe (a) that the qualifications for the priesthood are a certain set of conditions that don't include sex, and (b) women are just as capable of men at fulfilling those conditions.
Certainly the key factor is whether or not the conditions listed in (a) are sufficient. Whatever your list is, (b) will follow, since there's not much, other than being male, that women can't do. So the vital question is what's on your (a) list. If your (a) list isn't drawn entirely from tradition, then you're saying that tradition is wrong about what should be on the list.
So you're drawing the conclusion that tradition is wrong based on the premise that tradition is wrong. A circle.
Ah! but you say, I a drawing the conclusion that tradition is right based on the premise that tradition is right.
No, I am not drawing any conclusions. The person tied to a traditional understanding of the priesthood is just keeping to their tradition. That's not a conclusion. There is no change involved, either. You can argue, perhaps convincingly, perhaps not, that a preference for tradition over modern trends or a utilitarian understanding of the priesthood is arbitrary.
And indeed it's that utilitarian definition of the priesthood that I think is the crux of the matter. It represents a change in Christian teaching/practice and as such the burden of proof for adopting it lies on the one proposing the change. Once the utilitarian definition is accepted, the okayness of women priests is inescapable (logically anyway). But I haven't seen convincing arguments for the utilitarian definition.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation?
Women not serving at the altar has a lot to do with menstruation, at least in the Orthodox Church.
The only blood permitted at our altar ever is the blood of our Lord Jesus Christ in the chalice. If the priest or deacon or one of the acolytes begins to bleed for any reason at all -- if the priest nicked his hand with the knife he's cutting the bread with, or if an acolyte was bored and picked at a scab and made it bleed -- he must immediately leave the altar. If it's the priest who is bleeding, the service must be paused until the flow of blood is stopped and he can return to finish the service.
That would make it hard for a woman to serve as a parish priest. "Sorry, we won't be having Liturgy tomorrow, as I've started my period."
Of course, an all-male priesthood is not the same thing as a "lack of credence given to women." And the rule about blood in the altar is not the only reason we have an all-male priesthood. But it is one of the reasons.
Why?
I can't see any correlation whatever between menstrual bleeding and the blood of Christ in the chalice.
[ 19. June 2010, 15:43: Message edited by: Boogie ]
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Josephine - do you really think women have a voice in Church affairs where those churches don't allow women priests?
Yes. I am a member of a church that doesn't have women priests. And, yes, women have a voice in the affairs of our Church.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I can't see any correlation whatever between menstrual bleeding and the blood of Christ in the chalice.
It isn't about menstrual bleeding. It's about blood.
Our sacrifice is a bloodless sacrifice. We do not allow any blood on the altar or in the sanctuary other than the blood of Christ. No blood of pigeons, or bulls, or sheep, or humans. It's simply not allowed.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I can't see any correlation whatever between menstrual bleeding and the blood of Christ in the chalice.
It isn't about menstrual bleeding. It's about blood.
Our sacrifice is a bloodless sacrifice. We do not allow any blood on the altar or in the sanctuary other than the blood of Christ. No blood of pigeons, or bulls, or sheep, or humans. It's simply not allowed.
So you said - and I am asking why?
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
Our sacrifice is a bloodless sacrifice. We do not allow any blood on the altar or in the sanctuary other than the blood of Christ. No blood of pigeons, or bulls, or sheep, or humans. It's simply not allowed.
So you said - and I am asking why?
I thought you wanted to know specifically why menstrual blood is forbidden. It's not just menstrual blood, it's any and all blood.
I don't know exactly why the Church decided to keep blood away from the altar. My guess is that all or nearly all of the early Christians came from traditions where blood was poured on altars -- the blood of birds or bulls or perhaps even humans. Banning blood from the altar made it clear to everyone (believers and nonbelievers alike) that we're different. It was Christ's blood that was shed for the life of the world, not any other blood.
But one of the things about being in a traditional church is that "we do it that way because we do it that way" is a perfectly acceptable and appropriate answer. We use wheat bread for the Eucharist because we use wheat bread. That's how we are taught to do it. That's the tradition we have received. Is there something about wheat that makes it better than any other grain? Of course not. Could things have been different? Could it have happened that the bread for the Eucharist was made from some other grain? Sure. But it didn't happen any other way. We use wheat bread, and only wheat bread, because that's what we do.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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So would I be allowed to train as a priest? I have had a hysterectomy, so no chance of any bleeding.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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You're not getting this, are you?
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
So would I be allowed to train as a priest? I have had a hysterectomy, so no chance of any bleeding.
Not having menstrual periods would be necessary for serving as a priest, but it would not be sufficient.
To become a priest, you have to be of a canonical age. You have to be either single, or married only once. (If you are on your second marriage, it doesn't matter whether you were widowed or divorced; the twice- or thrice-married can't be priests.) If you're married, your wife has to be on her first marriage as well. There are other rules as well; I don't know them all because I don't need to.
And even if you meet all the requirements, you still have to be approved by the bishop. You can't just decide you're going to be a priest, the way you can decide you're going to be an electrician. Being a priest is not a trade.
A man becomes a priest through the sacrament of ordination. All of our sacraments require specific "stuff" -- wheat bread and grape wine for the Eucharist, water for baptism, oil for chrismation. Wheat bread and grape wine are not required because they're instrinsically or ontologically or functionallly superior to corn bread and apple cider. We don't use wine because it works better than cider would. Cider might quench your thirst just as well, kill germs just as well, and be just as good at making glad the hearts of man. But we don't use cider. We use wine. We use wine because that's what we use and what we have always used. Tradition.
The "stuff" required for ordination is a male human being. Again, not because a male human being is superior in any way to a female human being, but because that's what we use and what we've always used. Because we do.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
You're not getting this, are you?
You are right, I'm not.
Thanks for the explanation Josephine, but 'just because we do' will never be good enough reason for me
I am a natural rule breaker (Even when the rules make some sense!)
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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If you're local I will come visit you when you inevitably get arrested and thrown in jail.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If you're local I will come visit you when you inevitably get arrested and thrown in jail.
I didn't say I break laws - just rules
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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Some maverick.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If you're local I will come visit you when you inevitably get arrested and thrown in jail.
I didn't say I break laws - just rules
What's the difference? You only break rules when you know you're not going to get into trouble?
And what Josephine said about the nature of priestly authority. I have no problem with women in ordained positions, but I don't believe the myth that priests are supposed to be ecclesiastic autocrats. It's the layfolk who pay the priests' stipends, after all. That's a lot of political power.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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Breaking rules may not get you in trouble with the law - but it sure does annoy the people who write the rules, especially if they are control freaks.
Our local golf club is a prime example - you can turn up in really smart shorts but if they are below the knee you'll be sent home. Turn up in yellow and pink plus fours and you are allowed in. No women 'tho!
But my seious point is that 'It has always been this way' is fine for bread/wine, how we sit/stand etc. But when it discriminates against minorities (or, in this case, half the population) then a re-think is needed. Especially as we know menstrual blood is natural, fine and healthy with nothing whatever to do with death. In fact lack of it means lack of new life!
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on
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I think the claim of women being excluded from decision-making if they are excluded from the priesthood is aimed more at Rome than anywhere else.
On the official, hierarchical level, the Roman Catholic Church has no place for women in its leadership. Everyone from some level of authority on up is a priest. (Well, they're usually cardinals or at least archbishops, not "just" priests.)
Whether or not that's really how the Catholic Church operates is another matter for debate - in the US, at least, the diocesan and parish levels are more important, ISTM (being an Anglo- and not a Roman Catholic). And at that level, women have official input, at least potentially; and they have unofficial input wherever they're responsible for the formation of children. However, I'd guess not many men whose power was limited to childrearing, education, or lay communities and organizations, would consider themselves to be powerful.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
But my seious point is that 'It has always been this way' is fine for bread/wine, how we sit/stand etc. But when it discriminates against minorities (or, in this case, half the population) then a re-think is needed. Especially as we know menstrual blood is natural, fine and healthy with nothing whatever to do with death. In fact lack of it means lack of new life!
Actually, lack of it often means you're pregnant and that's presence of new life.
[/tangent]
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Especially as we know menstrual blood is natural, fine and healthy with nothing whatever to do with death.
I'm afraid I don't understand whatever point you're trying to make. Could you try again, please?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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You said that only Christ's blood is allowed near the altar. His blood was (in your view) due to his sacrifice (like the birds, doves, bulls etc of the OT) Menstruation is a sign of health - not death or sacrifice.
Another point on women and decision making. I wonder, if women and mothers were on an equal footing with Catholic priests in the decision making processes - would child abusing priests have been sent on to do the same in other parishes?
I doubt it.
...
<edited because I can't spell>
[ 20. June 2010, 06:48: Message edited by: Boogie ]
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
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The only case of clergy child abuse that I know of where women were in charge of deciding what to do about it, it was a small congregational non-denominational sort of church. Most of the men were out of town when the women found out about the abuse. They insisted that the pastor leave town within 24 hours. They really didn't care where he went or what he did, as long as he was gone. Of course, he left town. Of course, he set up another church in his new town. Presumably, he continued to abuse.
Women, like men, are human. We can make bad decisions, too.
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on
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Just came across this (from the Episcopal Church's new, "trial use" Holy Women, Holy Men observances):
quote:
Loving God, we thank you for the work and witness of Isabel Florence Hapgood, who introduced the Divine Liturgy of the Russian Orthodox Church to English-speaking Christians, and encouraged dialogue between Anglicans and Orthodox. Guide us as we build on the foundation that she gave us, that all may be one in Christ; who with you and the Holy Spirit lives and reigns, one God, unto ages of ages. Amen.
Isabel Florence Hapgood's feast will be observed next week. At any rate, it seems relevant to this thread as an example of a woman exhibiting a very strong leadership role in Orthodoxy! Of course, since I haven't googled her yet, this collect is all I know about her, but still...
Posted by QJ (# 14873) on
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I can't remember the authors name, but he came to the conclusion that he would never again join a church that would not let a qualified woman hold any post in the church. After reading his thoughts in his book "Wounded Warriors" i agree with him. However, if God really only wanted men as priests, then the point would be obedience which is important enough in itself.
tonight, i had a great fathers day dinner. It was at a seafood restaurant and most of the food was tainted with forbidden meats. YUM!!!
A logical person who looked in the standard American local phone book can see that christians are as mixed up as could be imagined with the variety of doctrines, possible all made up by men. Perhaps its time the women got to make up some holy rules?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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Ellen White made up some doctrine. As did Mary Baker Eddy.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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I was wondering about the argument from tradition and why it seems insufficient (to most of us) when applied to other professions which used to exclude women, such as law or medicine (or voting) but some hold forth as perfectly reasonable for religious professionals when I came across this.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
And indeed it's that utilitarian definition of the priesthood that I think is the crux of the matter. It represents a change in Christian teaching/practice and as such the burden of proof for adopting it lies on the one proposing the change. Once the utilitarian definition is accepted, the okayness of women priests is inescapable (logically anyway). But I haven't seen convincing arguments for the utilitarian definition.
Perhaps the distinction is that unlike doctors, lawyers, engineers, voters, etc. the clergy serve no useful (i.e. "utilitarian") function, making discrimination more palatable in this instance.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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Mind you, there used to be some very utilitarian tests for religious professionals once upon a time, as well as a pretty severe performance review process.
But, as they say, times change.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Perhaps the distinction is that unlike doctors, lawyers, engineers, voters, etc. the clergy serve no useful (i.e. "utilitarian") function,
I would expect an atheist to say no less. But for believers, at least those of us in traditions with an ordained priesthood, this is not the case, as many other threads on the Ship could attest. For the sacraments are, to us, an indispensable part of our religion, and thus those that administer them are of great utility, indeed.
[spling]
[ 21. June 2010, 02:48: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Perhaps the distinction is that unlike doctors, lawyers, engineers, voters, etc. the clergy serve no useful (i.e. "utilitarian") function,
I would expect an atheist to say no less. But for believers, at least those of us in traditions with an ordained priesthood, this is not the case, as many other threads on the Ship could attest. For the sacraments are, to us, an indispensable part of our religion, and thus those that administer them are of great utility, indeed.
[spling]
So a priest without a penis might accidentally change wine into Christ's lymph instead of His blood? I'm not buying the whole "chicks can't do magic, but dudes can" argument. More to the point, doesn't the focus on the adherents ("for believers", "to us") inherently admit that the only distinction here is the sexism of the faithful?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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It's not an argument. It's our tradition. One of the many requirements for the priesthood is a penis. Oh well.
[ 21. June 2010, 03:09: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
It's not an argument. It's our tradition. One of the many requirements for the priesthood is a penis. Oh well.
I noticed you haven't addressed the main question. Why do we find statements like "one of the many requirements to be a medical doctor/lawyer/voter is a penis" to be abhorrent, but the priesthood gets a pass? The male-only tradition is historically just a strong in those areas (until recently), but "tradition" is regarded as inadequate. Or is this just a case of "my tradition is sacred, yours is discriminatory"?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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Qualifications for doctors are strictly utilitarian; there is no spiritual or religious component. Qualifications for religious offices have religious components. Go figure.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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I have great respect for Orthodoxy in much of its theology, but I personally can't get past the feeling that if I belonged to Orthodoxy, while I'd be on the bus, I'd be always pointed to the back of the bus with the other second class members. Women as a class are pre-judged to be deficient for service to God in a major capacity. It has nothing to do with individuals and their gifts and talents; it has to do with being in an excluded class.
This is sadly what I can't get past. Obviously, Orthodox women who stick with it don't feel that way. That's fine. My feelings are mine; theirs are theirs, and they've found a good spiritual home.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Qualifications for doctors are strictly utilitarian; there is no spiritual or religious component. Qualifications for religious offices have religious components. Go figure.
Although most owners are very fond of them, having a penis is not exactly a religion. I think it could more aptly be described as a physical component rather than a religious one.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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It's a real sticking point, Lyda, and I certainly can't blame you for feeling the way you do. It's something that I grit my teeth over, still. But I feel like Peter when Jesus said "eat me." Where shall I go? This is where I have found the words of eternal life.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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I see you'd really rather ridicule than discuss, Croesus. It doesn't seem worthwhile to treat your response seriously.
[ 21. June 2010, 03:32: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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One could even describe the penis as downright "utilitarian"!
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I see you'd really rather ridicule than discuss, Croesus. It doesn't seem worthwhile to treat your response seriously.
I'm treating the "magical, mystical, utterly religious penis" argument as seriously as I possibly can.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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So I see.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
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I suppose I should have said I'm treating as seriously as it deserves. In what way is male-ness "religious" or "spiritual" (to borrow your phrases) in a way that is inaccessible to anyone unblessed with a male body?
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
I was wondering about the argument from tradition and why it seems insufficient (to most of us) when applied to other professions which used to exclude women, such as law or medicine (or voting) but some hold forth as perfectly reasonable for religious professionals....
The problem is that you're thinking of the priesthood as just another job. It's not.
Becoming a priest is more like becoming a husband than it is like becoming a doctor or a lawyer or a computer programmer. Being a priest is not about what you know or what you can do. It's about having a particular relationship with the Church.
To become a doctor or lawyer, there's a body of knowledge you have to master. You go to school for a long time, then take a big important test, and if you can pass the test, demonstrating that you know everything you're supposed to know, then you get to be a lawyer or a doctor. (Yeah, I know I've way oversimplified. Bear with me.)
The requirements for becoming a priest are entirely different. Priests have to be male. They have to be either never-married or married only once. If they've never married, they have to be virgins. If they're married, their wife can have been married only once.
For a performance-based job, those requirements would be ludicrous. What difference does it make whether the IT guy is a virgin? If he's married, what difference does it make how many times his wife has been married? Absolutely none at all. But for the priesthood, it matters.
At the same time, we don't require any education.* You don't have to master any body of knowledge or any defined set of skills. There's no test that's anything like the bar exam for lawyers, no Microsoft Certification test you can pass.
Instead, the Church decides whether she wants you for a priest, the way a woman might decide whether she wants a man for a husband. And there are men who want to be a priest, who do all the "right" things, go to seminary, attend all the divine services, and so on and so forth, and they're told no. There doesn't have to be a reason.
And, likewise, if the Church wants you, all you have to do is stand still long enough for a couple of bishops to lay hands on you and ask the Holy Spirit to make you a priest.
It's not about having the right qualifications for the job.
* As a practical matter, a seminary education is usually required these days. But that's not a canonical requirement.
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on
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As an Anglican, I really like that explanation, Josephine. Except I think the Church is allowed to want a woman for a priest, but hey, that's among the reasons I'm an Anglican! (OK, as an Episcopalian, I also immediately want to ask how "the Church" chooses its priests - do women participate in that process at all?)
Personally, I strongly respect the Orthodox Church and think it would be a loss to the wider Body of Christ if the Orthodox Church were forced in any way (by whom? I don't know, this is hypothetical) to give up its traditions (which would, of course, be giving up its identity).
I'm curious, though - in the Roman Catholic Church there are women who feel oppressed and are doing whatever they can to at least make noise about the idea of women's ordination. Are there any women like that in the Orthodox Church? Of course, the vast majority of women in the RCC who believe women should be ordained won't ever make an issue of it, even if they sometimes feel like second-class members in the church.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The problem is that you're thinking of the priesthood as just another job. It's not.
Becoming a priest is more like becoming a husband than it is like becoming a doctor or a lawyer or a computer programmer. Being a priest is not about what you know or what you can do. It's about having a particular relationship with the Church.
It should be noted that doctors and lawyers, in addition to their knowledge of their subject of expertise, are also expected to maintain certain relationships with their patients/clients. You can know all about medicine or law, but as soon as you start unauthorized human experimentation or start colluding with opposing counsel to convict your client, you're out.
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
And, likewise, if the Church wants you, all you have to do is stand still long enough for a couple of bishops to lay hands on you and ask the Holy Spirit to make you a priest.
It's not about having the right qualifications for the job.
Interesting juxtaposition. In the first paragraph you describe the qualifications of the job (standing still and bishoply handling), while in the second you say that you don't have to have the right qualifications. All in defense of yet another qualification of the job (penis-having). I think that instead of saying that you don't need the right qualifications to be a priest, what you mean is that the qualifications to be a priest have nothing to do with whether you'd be any good at it.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Interesting juxtaposition. In the first paragraph you describe the qualifications of the job (standing still and bishoply handling), while in the second you say that you don't have to have the right qualifications. All in defense of yet another qualification of the job (penis-having). I think that instead of saying that you don't need the right qualifications to be a priest, what you mean is that the qualifications to be a priest have nothing to do with whether you'd be any good at it.
I was thinking of "standing still while the bishop laid hands on you" as a (brief and vastly oversimplified) description of the means by which a man is made a priest, not his qualifications for being made a priest.
I think it's far more likely that someone talking about how you become a priest would talk about impediments than qualifications. There is a list of things that, according to our canons, could prevent you from becoming a priest. There is no such list of things that would qualify you for being a priest. You can't just check off 20 items from a list and say, "Okay, that's it, I'm ready to be a priest."
The Church is not a business, and the priesthood is not a management position. Again, it's far more like being a husband than it is like being a manager or a professional. At least the point of being a husband and the point of being a priest are the same -- they're both podvigs that one enters into in order to work out the salvation of ones own soul and to collaborate with and cooperate with God and with your wife (for the husband) or your parishioners (for the priest) in working out their salvation.
Churchgeek, to answer your question -- yes, there are people in the Orthodox Church (both men and women) who think that the Church should admit women to the priesthood. There are, I believe, more who think that the Church should admit women to the diaconate. One can make a strong case from Tradition for the latter, not so much for the former.
However, I don't know of any woman who thinks that she herself should be ordained to the priesthood. There may be some, but when I have asked women who would like to see women in the priesthood whether they themselves would want to be priests, the answer has always been "NO!" Nevertheless, these women do feel that not being eligible for the priesthood makes them second-class members of the Church.
I don't know whether having women deacons would make a difference in how those women feel about the role of women in the Orthodox Church. I do think that we'll see women deacons again in my lifetime, or perhaps my children's lifetime. I hope so, anyway.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
I think it's far more likely that someone talking about how you become a priest would talk about impediments than qualifications. There is a list of things that, according to our canons, could prevent you from becoming a priest. There is no such list of things that would qualify you for being a priest. You can't just check off 20 items from a list and say, "Okay, that's it, I'm ready to be a priest."
I'm not sure that there's a meaningful distinction between "impediments" and "qualifications" in this case. The whole point of this thread is that there is a checklist for the priesthood in certain sects and one of the most notable items on this metaphorical list is that you have to be able to check off "M" rather than "F".
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
I'm not sure that there's a meaningful distinction between "impediments" and "qualifications" in this case.
The difference would be that, if you have a list of qualifications, then if you can check all the boxes, you can do whatever it is you're trying to qualify for. To qualify a driver's license, you have to get a certain amount of instruction and practice, pass a written test, pass a driving test. Do all that and you get the license.
If you have a list of impediments, then if you check one of the things on the list, you are prevented from doing whatever it is you want to do. However, not having any impediments doesn't automatically mean that you can do it.
Being blind would be an impediment to getting a driver's license, as would being 12 years old. But if you've got perfectly good vision and you're 27 years old, that doesn't mean you get a license. And if you're 12 years old, have perfectly good vision, and could easily pass both the written and the driving test, you still can't get a license. Being too young is an impediment. Being old enough is not a qualification.
If you don't see the difference, I'm not sure that I can help you.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
It just seems like you're playing at semantics.
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
I'm not sure that there's a meaningful distinction between "impediments" and "qualifications" in this case.
The difference would be that, if you have a list of qualifications, then if you can check all the boxes, you can do whatever it is you're trying to qualify for. To qualify a driver's license, you have to get a certain amount of instruction and practice, pass a written test, pass a driving test. Do all that and you get the license.
Or if you felt the need to phrase it the other way, you could say that failing the written test is an impediment to getting a driver's license. There doesn't seem to be a distinction between qualification and impediment other than some sort of rhetorical convenience.
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
If you have a list of impediments, then if you check one of the things on the list, you are prevented from doing whatever it is you want to do. However, not having any impediments doesn't automatically mean that you can do it.
Being blind would be an impediment to getting a driver's license, as would being 12 years old. But if you've got perfectly good vision and you're 27 years old, that doesn't mean you get a license. And if you're 12 years old, have perfectly good vision, and could easily pass both the written and the driving test, you still can't get a license. Being too young is an impediment. Being old enough is not a qualification.
If you don't see the difference, I'm not sure that I can help you.
Being old enough may not be the only qualification but it is certainly a qualification, contrary to your assertion.
It just seems like a lot of semantic fluff expended to say essentially "we don't require that priests be men, but we do insist that they not be women". The fact that these restrictions are identical seems like something you're expending great effort to avoid acknowledging.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
Or if you felt the need to phrase it the other way, you could say that failing the written test is an impediment to getting a driver's license. There doesn't seem to be a distinction between qualification and impediment other than some sort of rhetorical convenience.
The difference (as I understand Josephine's explanation) is that if there were qualifications for being a priest (age, marital status, education, baptism, professed faith...), someone with those qualifications would be entitled to be a priest as of right.
Her point is that there is no one in that position. No one is entitled to say that they have met the criteria and therefore ought to be a priest. Priesthood is not something that anyone has a right to, or that they can, even by their own exemplary efforts, qualify for. It is a calling bestowed on some and not others. A man who is under a canonical impediment, or who simply is not selected by the church, is in the same position as all women - he cannot be a priest however admirably suited to the role he may seem.
I'm glad that I'm in a church that acknowledges that women can be and are called to act as priests, but I do sort-of see the point that it is not entirely appropriate to apply strict equal-opportunities considerations to a process which by its nature is personal and to a certain extent arbitrary.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
Her point is that there is no one in that position. No one is entitled to say that they have met the criteria and therefore ought to be a priest. Priesthood is not something that anyone has a right to, or that they can, even by their own exemplary efforts, qualify for. It is a calling bestowed on some and not others. A man who is under a canonical impediment, or who simply is not selected by the church, is in the same position as all women - he cannot be a priest however admirably suited to the role he may seem.
Who said anything about "their own exemplary efforts"? I don't regard having a specific gender as being either particularly exemplary or much of an effort. And once again we're playing semantic games about whether having calling is a qualification or not having a calling is an impediment. You're making it out as if there's some huge difference between ALL(A) and NONE(not(A)). In other words, a bunch of pointless hair-splitting.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
I don't regard having a specific gender as being either particularly exemplary or much of an effort.
Quite. That's my (understanding of Josephine's) point - that it's not about putting in the effort to show the ability to do the job in the same way that getting a driver's licence or medical degree is just about ability. Gender isn't about effort or ability at all (obviously).
The argument is that it is less unfair and inappropriate to bar women from the priesthood (however well-suited they appear) if the decision is to confer a status (or recognise a calling) that no one has a right to, than it would be if priesthood were solely about reaching a certain level of demonstrable ability.
I disagree with the conclusion: it seems bizarre to me to exclude women, particularly as the Church (as a whole) can observe how those traditions that have ordained them have managed, and can see that they are no less used by God than the men. But it isn't just a semantic quibble. There is a real difference between a nominally merit-based selection (which we rightly use for doctors and drivers) and an avowedly personal one (such as we use for priests and husbands) and what is required to make one fair (gender-blindness) is not necessarily required for the other.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:
Just came across this (from the Episcopal Church's new, "trial use" Holy Women, Holy Men observances):
quote:
Loving God, we thank you for the work and witness of Isabel Florence Hapgood, who introduced the Divine Liturgy of the Russian Orthodox Church to English-speaking Christians, and encouraged dialogue between Anglicans and Orthodox. Guide us as we build on the foundation that she gave us, that all may be one in Christ; who with you and the Holy Spirit lives and reigns, one God, unto ages of ages. Amen.
Isabel Florence Hapgood's feast will be observed next week. At any rate, it seems relevant to this thread as an example of a woman exhibiting a very strong leadership role in Orthodoxy! Of course, since I haven't googled her yet, this collect is all I know about her, but still...
Churchgeek, you might find this thread useful.
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Josephine - do you really think women have a voice in Church affairs where those churches don't allow women priests?
Yes. I am a member of a church that doesn't have women priests. And, yes, women have a voice in the affairs of our Church.
I was at a church conference a couple of weekends ago at which the opening address was given by a highly-respected lady who delivered her address and answered questions afterwards incredibly eruditely and with clearly from a basis of sound knowledge of Orthodox theology. It was the ideal start to the conference. I thanked her for it as we spoke privately later in the weekend. Different addresses and parts of the conference were given in English or Russian, and a translation was always provided, for which we had headsets. Prior to the opening address, we witnessed a minor altercation between this lady and the archbishop. From my corner, all we were able to hear was a very stern, 'No! No! No! No!' from the lady. We later learnt that the archbishop had wanted the opening address to be in Russian (the lady speaks both languages fluently, and then some, and has taken part in high-level translation work for NATO in the past). Suffice it to say that the archbishop was not the one to get his way. I know that this is not a major decision but it is an example.
I have to agree with Josephine about decision-making and priesthood. Certainly, thinking of my own parish, when it came to deciding what we were going to do about needing a new church, where to look, whom to approach, one of the two main driving forces behind the whole thing was a woman. Week by week, our choir is led by a woman, (which is no insignificant matter in a church where almost the entire service is sung, and has a great many variables which need to be known and prepared). While I may have the responsibility of compiling the services, (a hangover from my days as a reader: I haven't yet been replaced), our parishioners are quite vocal about saying what does and does not work for them, and I take that on board in terms of music used, language used, and so forth. Sometimes it is something that simply hadn't ocurred to me or my parish priest, and we just implement the suggestion, sometimes the suggestion comes from a particular angle and needs to be balanced with other needs, and sometimes it simply cannot work, but the point is that those who are not clergy are not without influence or the ability to take decisions.
Posted by Martin L (# 11804) on
:
As evidenced by many posts, it seems to be that potential intellectual capacity of a woman to be a priest is not the issue.
Is the blood factor (or presumably anything relating to conception) then the only reason God might desire the exclusion of women as priests?
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
I'll be absolutely honest, Martin. I have no idea why only men are called to be priests. Blood is part of it, but I don't think it's the biggest or most important part. If it were, then women past menopause would be eligible for the priesthood, and they aren't.
I'm reasonably sure there is some other reason. And I've heard a variety of explanations, but they're all post hoc explanations, if you know what I mean. They all look at this situation -- we only have men as priests -- and try to interpret it, to construct an explanation for it that makes sense.
The only explanation I have that makes any sense is that Jesus didn't call any women to be part of the Twelve. He could have. There were women who were close friends and associates of his, and he didn't tell them to come and follow him. After the Resurrection, and before the Ascension, when he spent time with his disciples teaching them what they needed to know to get the Church going, he never told them to make women priests and bishops. Again, he could have. But he didn't.
I wish he had. But he's God, and I'm not. I trust him. That means that I trust that he had a very good reason for this decision of his, even if I don't understand it, even if he didn't explain it, and even if I don't like it very much.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
Interesting. With appropriate fear and trembling, I'd suppose it's because putting a woman in direct leadership (which is hardly the only form there is, as female saints would attest) would've been too much for a culture already in the throes of culture-shock. Some of Paul's language around gender roles and slavery I think falls into a similar category. It's about compromises made with the culture in order that Christ may still be proclaimed.
Now, it seems the culture has changed in a way where restricting ordination from women is a barrier between many people and Christ, and so to me it makes more sense to ordain women, and I wish moves had been made in that direction much earlier.
There was probably a time when it took a biological man to be a husband, but I think at least in this culture, it has passed, as Gwai and I swap gender roles all the time (caring for children, earning money, working inside or outside the home.) I'm not sure we're quite to a non-gendered society yet, but we seem to be moving in that direction (even though I'm still one of the only guys with a child during working-hours on the playground...almost all the other parents are women; weekends are of course another story.)
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Interesting. With appropriate fear and trembling, I'd suppose it's because putting a woman in direct leadership (which is hardly the only form there is, as female saints would attest) would've been too much for a culture already in the throes of culture-shock.
That's often said, Bullfrog. But there were both men and women serving as priests among the pagans in the Roman Empire. I have never heard anyone explain why that was accepted, but why it would nevertheless have been shocking and scandalous had the Christians done the same. It doesn't make sense to me.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Interesting. With appropriate fear and trembling, I'd suppose it's because putting a woman in direct leadership (which is hardly the only form there is, as female saints would attest) would've been too much for a culture already in the throes of culture-shock.
That's often said, Bullfrog. But there were both men and women serving as priests among the pagans in the Roman Empire. I have never heard anyone explain why that was accepted, but why it would nevertheless have been shocking and scandalous had the Christians done the same. It doesn't make sense to me.
There's definitely an...impression...that a lot of pagan rituals, particularly around fertility, were very sexual.
Given the obvious influence of stoicism on early Christianity, I can see how the early Xtians wouldn't take to this. At the same time, I notice that Tertullian himself, often cited as an example of arch early Christian misogyny, wrote a book praising Perpetua.
There's also (and my prof, a Catholic, admits that this is a weak argument, even if it is the Catholic one) the anthropological argument that Jesus himself was male and therefore any who wish to fully represent him would also have to be male. Once again, in a post-gendered society such as we've been becoming over the past 50 or 100 years this may be less of an issue now than it would've been then. For almost all roles aside from childbirth, women can almost be men and men can just about be women.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
There's definitely an...impression...that a lot of pagan rituals, particularly around fertility, were very sexual.
Have you changed the argument, then? It's not that the Church didn't have women serving as priests because the Roman society would be shocked by having women in such a position, but that the Church didn't have women serving as priests because the assumption was that priests would be having a lot of sex, and of course we don't want our women to be doing that, even if the men do?
I don't buy it. There were rituals that were highly sexual. But there were also the vestal virgins, who were buried alive if they got caught having sex. And there wasn't anything sexual about reading the signs of the gods' favor in the stars or the entrails of a goat.
quote:
There's also (and my prof, a Catholic, admits that this is a weak argument, even if it is the Catholic one) the anthropological argument that Jesus himself was male and therefore any who wish to fully represent him would also have to be male.
I agree that it's a weak argument. It's probably the one that's most commonly offered, but then you have to go on and ask why, if the priest has to be male to represent Jesus, does he not also have to have dark brown eyes and long dark hair? How far does the correspondence have to go?
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The only explanation I have that makes any sense is that Jesus didn't call any women to be part of the Twelve. He could have. There were women who were close friends and associates of his, and he didn't tell them to come and follow him. After the Resurrection, and before the Ascension, when he spent time with his disciples teaching them what they needed to know to get the Church going, he never told them to make women priests and bishops. Again, he could have. But he didn't.
The thing that most undermines this sort of reasoning is that it is applied so unevenly. It could be noted that Jesus only called ethnic Jews to be part of the Twelve, and yet this is not taken as an indication that gentiles should be barred from the priesthood.
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
That's often said, Bullfrog. But there were both men and women serving as priests among the pagans in the Roman Empire. I have never heard anyone explain why that was accepted, but why it would nevertheless have been shocking and scandalous had the Christians done the same. It doesn't make sense to me.
Bear in mind that up until about the time of the Bar Kokhba revolt Christians regarded themselves as a sect of Judaism, not a new religion. As such they would certainly not have adopted pagan customs like female priesthood. The simplest explanation is that the Christian tradition simply maintained the sexist social structure advocated both in the Old Testament and the Jewish culture of the time.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The only explanation I have that makes any sense is that Jesus didn't call any women to be part of the Twelve. He could have. ... But he didn't.
The thing that most undermines this sort of reasoning is that it is applied so unevenly. It could be noted that Jesus only called ethnic Jews to be part of the Twelve, and yet this is not taken as an indication that gentiles should be barred from the priesthood.
You're absolutely correct. As I noted above, we simply don't have any definitive explanations. We have a variety of post hoc explanations, some of which work reasonably well for some people, and some that don't.
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do. He didn't tell us why. We can guess, but it's only guessing. We don't know. Because we trust God, that's okay with us.
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The simplest explanation is that the Christian tradition simply maintained the sexist social structure advocated both in the Old Testament and the Jewish culture of the time.
That's also possible, and it may well have been part of it. If you attend an Orthodox worship service, you can see the continuity with Jewish worship. But the early Church quite deliberately ditched many of the practices associated with judaism; it was made clear from very early on that Christians did not have to become Jews. Peter's vision at Joppa could easily have been used to justify women priests. But it wasn't.
And the wealthy and powerful convert women didn't insist on becoming priests. We know that, because there aren't any letters talking about why it wasn't possible, so apparently it wasn't an issue for them. If it had been, we'd know more about what the apostles thought about it, and why. But since it was accepted everywhere in the Church without argument or discussion, there's just not much there in the record. So we speculate.
What is clearly in the record is that the priests and bishops were men. The deacons were both men and women. We know that God established this practice firmly in the Church. As I said above, he told us what to do. He didn't tell us why. We can guess, but it's only guessing. We don't know. Because we trust God, that's okay with us.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do. He didn't tell us why. We can guess, but it's only guessing. We don't know. Because we trust God, that's okay with us.
But surely isn't that the whole problem here? If you don't know the reason, you can't work out what the correct boundaries are. You can't work out whether it was only men because there is a reason it can only BE men, or it was only men because it just happened that the most suitable people around at the time were all men.
I suppose that keeping it to only men is in one sense the 'safe' option. But both approaches have their risks - you can choose between the risk of excluding people who should be included, or the risk including people who should be excluded.
I've found some of the discussion on this page about qualification and impediments and so on quite interesting, because as a drafter of legislation I have to deal with these sorts of language issues all the time. Frankly the writers of the Bible would mostly fail any sort of legislative drafting course, but they weren't trying to BE drafters. For the most part they were telling stories/history, or providing thoughts on philosphical and theological questions. Taking those styles of writing and trying to turn them into solid, unambiguous rules is nearly impossible.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The only explanation I have that makes any sense is that Jesus didn't call any women to be part of the Twelve. He could have. There were women who were close friends and associates of his, and he didn't tell them to come and follow him. After the Resurrection, and before the Ascension, when he spent time with his disciples teaching them what they needed to know to get the Church going, he never told them to make women priests and bishops. Again, he could have. But he didn't.
Did he tell men to be priests and bishops?
And how do we know he didn't ask women to come and follow him - and also include them in his instructions? It wasn't documented - probably because men did the recording. But I would be surprised if it didn't happen - he was inclusive in every other way.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do.
I think that fact requires a strong belief in tradition or a particular interpretation of scripture. One could equally argue that the church firmly established the practice without guidance from God.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do.
I think that fact requires a strong belief in tradition or a particular interpretation of scripture.
I think it would be fair to say that it is the result of a particular understanding of what the Church is, including a particular understanding of the role of the Holy Spirit in guiding the life of the Church.
quote:
One could equally argue that the church firmly established the practice without guidance from God.
One could. But that argument would not be Orthodox.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do.
I think that fact requires a strong belief in tradition or a particular interpretation of scripture. One could equally argue that the church firmly established the practice without guidance from God.
"Because God said so" is not so much an argument as it is an attempt to shut down all debate. It's also a way of casting those who disagree as not just disagreeing with you, but disagreeing with God. (God coincidentally always holds the same opinion as those making the argument.) I don't see why we should take the assertion that God said (somewhere unrecorded in scripture) "no chicks in pulpits" any more seriously than we take assertions that the "Curse of Ham" is God's mandate to enslave those of African descent.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
"Because God said so" is not so much an argument as it is an attempt to shut down all debate. It's also a way of casting those who disagree as not just disagreeing with you, but disagreeing with God.
I'm sorry, Crœsos. I'm not trying to shut down the debate; I'm trying to explain why the Orthodox Church doesn't have women in the priesthood.
I don't expect anyone in any other church to follow our rules or accept our reasoning. That's okay. We don't tell people in other churches what they should believe or what they should do. If another church believes that God calls women to serve in their ordained ministry, I would not disagree with them. That's for them to work out with God.
For us, we follow the tradition that we have received. For us, the fact that it is the tradition that we have received is the reason that we do what we do. We don't need another reason. We don't have to have an explanation. "We do it this way because we have always done it this way" works for us. That's what we believe God wants us to do.
We're not going to tell you what God wants you to do. That's not our place. And I think, with all respect, that it is not your place to tell us what God wants us to do. That's not shutting down the discussion. That's setting boundaries that allow the discussion to take place.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
"Shut down all debate."
What debate? We're not debating this. This is not some kind of moot court, where whoever wins gets to impose their idea of the ministry on the other party. Someone asked "why only men?" We're saying why. It's not a fucking debate. It never has been.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
I'm not trying to shut down the debate; I'm trying to explain why the Orthodox Church doesn't have women in the priesthood.
<snip>
We don't have to have an explanation.
Perhaps the fact that you have no explanation is the biggest impediment to providing one?
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
We're not going to tell you what God wants you to do. That's not our place.
This may be a tangent, but if telling people what God wants them to do is not the place of the Church, what's it for?
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
"Shut down all debate."
What debate? We're not debating this. This is not some kind of moot court, where whoever wins gets to impose their idea of the ministry on the other party. Someone asked "why only men?" We're saying why. It's not a fucking debate. It never has been.
"Shut down all discussion", if you prefer. Thanks for illustrating my point. If you've got God's putative endorsement any explanation offered can't be questioned and must be assumed to make sense. If God says "no chicks in pulpits", who are we to ask for clarification? If God says the universe is only six thousand years old, who are you going to believe: your Creator or your own lying eyes? If God says the 'Sons of Ham' are cursed to slavery, isn't abolishionism sinful defiance? God is the ultimate trump card when you don't want to explain yourself.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
We're not going to tell you what God wants you to do. That's not our place.
This may be a tangent, but if telling people what God wants them to do is not the place of the Church, what's it for?
To provide us a shelter from within which we can work out our salvation in fear and trembling.
ETA: I beg your pardon for equivocating on the word "explain" in my earlier post. If it's really too difficult to work out what I mean, perhaps Eliab can once again help clarify it for you. He doesn't agree with what I'm saying, but he seems to have no difficulty understanding it.
[ 22. June 2010, 17:12: Message edited by: Josephine ]
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on
:
quote:
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do.
Serious question. When? As pointed out, it's not recorded in scripture that Jesus ever said "only men can be priests". So presumably if God actually _told_ the church what to do, it must have been at some other time. When, and to whom, did God tell that "only men can be priests?"
This sounds like it's going to go back to the "Well, Jesus only called men" arguement, which automatically leads to the "well, he only called Jews, he only called (as far as we know) the non-physically disabled, he only called (as far as we know) the non-visually impaired, etc. So unless you can point to a time and place where and when God actually said "men only, but the blind or crippled, or non-white, or gentile are OK", I don't think that "God said so" holds much water.
And, although I wasn't thinking it when I started typing this, it now occurs to me that there is grounds for saying that He said the exact opposite. "In Christ there is no male or female, Jew or Gentile, slave or free..."
Mousethief, this is a discussion board. If you don't want to discuss and debate the issue, why are you here?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
Did Jesus intend to establish a Church at all? He seemed pretty much against religious rules imo.
Posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe (# 5521) on
:
How else would you read Matthew 16:18?
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
I thought The word “church” in the New Testament came from the Greek word, ekklesia - 'To call out'
Would he have recognised what we see today as his 'calling out'?
(
pretty much off topic - sorry, but a lot of assumptions are being made about our calling here. maybe a new thread or has it been done to death before?)
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
"Shut down all debate."
What debate? We're not debating this. This is not some kind of moot court, where whoever wins gets to impose their idea of the ministry on the other party. Someone asked "why only men?" We're saying why. It's not a fucking debate. It never has been.
"Shut down all discussion", if you prefer. Thanks for illustrating my point. If you've got God's putative endorsement any explanation offered can't be questioned and must be assumed to make sense. If God says "no chicks in pulpits", who are we to ask for clarification? If God says the universe is only six thousand years old, who are you going to believe: your Creator or your own lying eyes? If God says the 'Sons of Ham' are cursed to slavery, isn't abolishionism sinful defiance? God is the ultimate trump card when you don't want to explain yourself.
Have you ever spent time in a seminary?
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
There's definitely an...impression...that a lot of pagan rituals, particularly around fertility, were very sexual.
Have you changed the argument, then? It's not that the Church didn't have women serving as priests because the Roman society would be shocked by having women in such a position, but that the Church didn't have women serving as priests because the assumption was that priests would be having a lot of sex, and of course we don't want our women to be doing that, even if the men do?
I don't buy it. There were rituals that were highly sexual. But there were also the vestal virgins, who were buried alive if they got caught having sex. And there wasn't anything sexual about reading the signs of the gods' favor in the stars or the entrails of a goat. quote:
There's also (and my prof, a Catholic, admits that this is a weak argument, even if it is the Catholic one) the anthropological argument that Jesus himself was male and therefore any who wish to fully represent him would also have to be male.
I agree that it's a weak argument. It's probably the one that's most commonly offered, but then you have to go on and ask why, if the priest has to be male to represent Jesus, does he not also have to have dark brown eyes and long dark hair? How far does the correspondence have to go?
I'm not trying to frame arguments, more toss out hypotheses. I'm admittedly not knowledgeable enough to say what was actually going on in the patristic period or before. I figure there were probably different cultures with different norms across the empire, so the same practice could mean different things in different localities, just like it is today. The stuff that excited people in Latin America merely fascinates those of us in North America, etc. And in each of these spaces, what the heck is a priest supposed to actually do in the first place in these climates? I have an inkling of how they operate in a 20th-21st century UMC church, but I'm sure that's wildly different from the traditions in which these regulations were formed.
And yeah, it's a weak argument, but as sexist as it is, it's the closest thing to one I can find that isn't either trapped in an anachronism or based on even worse hetero-male-normative sexism.
And far as "God says so," my usual response is "why did she say so, when did he say it, and what's that to where we are today" (and some other questions too, presuming good faith on the spokesperson)?
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I thought The word “church” in the New Testament came from the Greek word, ekklesia - 'To call out'
Would he have recognised what we see today as his 'calling out'?
(
pretty much off topic - sorry, but a lot of assumptions are being made about our calling here. maybe a new thread or has it been done to death before?)
[TANGENT]
Ekklesia is a noun, not a verb. Kaleo is the verb "I call" and Ek means "out of." I think ti also referred to Greek social/political gatherings.
[/TANGENT]
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
quote:
The fact is, God established this practice firmly in the Church. He told us what to do.
Serious question. When? As pointed out, it's not recorded in scripture that Jesus ever said "only men can be priests". So presumably if God actually _told_ the church what to do, it must have been at some other time. When, and to whom, did God tell that "only men can be priests?"
The fact that it is the unbroken tradition since apostolic times would suggest that it't not being written down in any extant source isn't really of much significance. My grandmother's birth certificate has been long lost, but the absence of written documentation doesn't negate the historical fact of her birth.
The truth is that my position is really one of obedience to the Apostolic Tradition more than any strong personal feeling either way on this specific matter so I don't really see myself arguing one way or another with any great passion. However, reading what you said above, Nicolemrw, reminded me of something I found this morning while looking into something quite different, (the matter of the position Christians adopt for prayer on Sundays), and it seemed pertinent here. It's from St Basil's treatise On the Holy Spirit and is, I think, often referred to as his canon 91:
quote:
Of the beliefs and practices whether generally accepted or publicly enjoined which are preserved in the Church some we possess derived from written teaching; others we have received delivered to us "in a mystery" by the tradition of the apostles; and both of these in relation to true religion have the same force. And these no one will gainsay; no one, at all events, who is even moderately versed in the institutions of the Church. For were we to attempt to reject such customs as having no written authority, on the ground that the importance they possess is small, we should unintentionally injure the Gospel in its very vitals; or, rather, should make our public definition a mere phrase and nothing more.
For instance, to take the first and most general example, who is thence who has taught us in writing to sign with the sign of the cross those who have trusted in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ? What writing has taught us to turn to the East for prayer? Which of the saints has left us in writing the words of the invocation at the displaying of the bread of the Eucharist and the cup of blessing? For we are not, as is well known, content with what the apostle or the Gospel has recorded, but both in preface and conclusion we add other words as being of great importance to the validity of the ministry, and these we derive from unwritten teaching.
Moreover we bless the water of baptism and the oil of the chrism, and besides this the catechumen who is being baptized. On what written authority do we do this? Is not our authority silent and mystical tradition? Nay, by what written word is the anointing of oil itself taught? And whence comes the custom of baptizing thrice? And as to the other customs of baptism from what Scripture do we derive the renunciation of Satan and his angels? Does not this come from that unpublished and secret teaching which our fathers guarded in a silence out of the reach of curious meddling and inquisitive investigation? Well had they learnt the lesson that the awful dignity of the mysteries is best preserved by silence. What the uninitiated are not even allowed to look at was hardly likely to be publicly paraded about in written documents. What was the meaning of the mighty Moses in not making all the parts of the tabernacle open to everyone? The profane he stationed without the sacred barriers; the first courts he conceded to the purer; the Levites alone he judged worthy of being servants of the Deity; sacrifices and burnt offerings and the rest of the priestly functions he allotted to the priests; one chosen out of all he admitted to the shrine, and even this one not always but on only one day in the year, and of this one day a time was fixed for his entry so that he might gaze on the Holy of Holies amazed at the strangeness and novelty of the sight. Moses was wise enough to know that contempt stretches to the trite and to the obvious, while a keen interest is naturally associated with the unusual and the unfamiliar. In the same manner the Apostles and Fathers who laid down laws for the Church from the beginning thus guarded the awful dignity of the mysteries in secrecy and silence, for what is bruited abroad random among the common folk is no mystery at all. This is the reason for our tradition of unwritten precepts and practices, that the knowledge of our dogmas may not become neglected and contemned by the multitude through familiarity. "Dogma" and "Kerygma" are two distinct things; the former is observed in silence; the latter is proclaimed to all the world.
quote:
And, although I wasn't thinking it when I started typing this, it now occurs to me that there is grounds for saying that He said the exact opposite. "In Christ there is no male or female, Jew or Gentile, slave or free..."
Speaking from memory, was this not in the context of a discussion specifically about baptism? If so, then in order to make it apply more generally, or indeed specifically to ordination, then an argument would need to be constructed to show that baptism alone is the basis for all exercise of ministry and receipt of charisma within the life of the Church. I'm not saying that this isn't possible but only that, without it, there seems to be a massive jump from that verse of scripture to saying ordination ought to be conferred on women.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
The fact that Basil had to argue so vociferously for his case shows that there was even then a dissenting opinion. Why else would he have spent so much ink?
And I also draw a line between tradition and scripture where I think Basil would not. Looking at these practices, I would think it perfectly fit to ask why pray to the east, or why are the words of institution phrased just so, or why do we insist on saying "Thee" and "Thou" when no other English speaking culture uses these words anywhere outside of church and certain theatrical performances? Sometimes there are good answers, but I think it's useful to hear them out instead of hiding them behind a curtain.
And speaking of curtains, if Jesus became contemptible and common in the incarnation, why this insistence on trying to shove him back into the Tabernacle?
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
The fact that Basil had to argue so vociferously for his case shows that there was even then a dissenting opinion. Why else would he have spent so much ink?
Indeed. Most tings like this, including the conciliar decrees, only came about because of movements against the received tradition. That's generally accepted, I think.
quote:
Looking at these practices, I would think it perfectly fit to ask why pray to the east...
He does actually go on to explain this and other things in not very much depth in the paragraphs following the portion I quoted.
quote:
...or why do we insist on saying "Thee" and "Thou" when no other English speaking culture uses these words anywhere outside of church and certain theatrical performances?
Really? That's news to me.
Chicago doesn't represent the full extent of people's use of English. Visit my part of the UK or a few miles further north and just listen to people speak and you'll hear all of those old words and then some, albeit with local accents. Say something to the locals (I'm not from round here - at work they tell me I talk "posh") with a Chicago accent and don't be surprised when you get asked, 'What didst tha say?' I'm not saying that's any basis for the liturgical use of these words but to say that they aren't used outside of church and the theatre is simply not accurate.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
Chicago doesn't represent the full extent of people's use of English.
I'm sorry, Bullfrog. That sounds snooty when I read it off my screen in a way that it didn't in my head.
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on
:
So, in other words, MA, you assume that because that's the way its always been, it was specifically ordained by God. Yet you have no proof or even evidence that this is the case?
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
Chicago doesn't represent the full extent of people's use of English.
I'm sorry, Bullfrog. That sounds snooty when I read it off my screen in a way that it didn't in my head.
None taken. I've lived here five years or so and still am not totally sure what a traditional Chicago accent is.
I still question whether the "received tradition" was ever such a static thing. I can understand some of Basil's ideas, and my questions aren't always hostile (really!) I just have trouble with the idea that all of this "received" stuff was meant even from inception to be held as normative for all times and places. In school we've been taught that the tradition was often an evolving ad hoc kind of thing that only later was rationalized. I don't think that being ad hoc and rationalized later means we have to completely gut the tradition, but I'd rather people were more intentional and selective in how they appropriated it for their own context.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
So, in other words, MA, you assume that because that's the way its always been, it was specifically ordained by God. Yet you have no proof or even evidence that this is the case?
I'm saying that, as an Orthodox Christian, I don't start with looking for extant, specifically written proof, and then question everything that isn't written. That way just doesn't compute for me. I start with the practice of the Church. Because we lay such immense store by retaining and carrying on what we have received - that is such an integral part of our church culture - the absence of written proof is not on its own any good reason not to believe something. That mindset has crept in at times and it has failed, disastrously.
I'm thinking specifically of the Old Rite as one example. In the 17th century, it was found that Russian Orthodox and Greek Orthodox liturgical practice had become somewhat divergent. The assumption at the time was that this was the result of Russian alteration and accretion, and the then Russian patriarch forced the Russian church to bring its practice into line with what the Greek church was doing. Many refused. These were the prayers and ways of worshipping that they had been taught by those who had gone before them, who learnt them from those before them. They were not going to give them up on a whim, so they resisted, were anathematised, and were persecuted by the state with varying degrees of harshness at different times, particularly under Tsar Peter the Great. Many fled the country. Others stayed and were tortured or even executed. It's a shameful part of Russian history. To us, in the west, in the 21st century, it may sound like a petty thing to argue over such things as how many fingers we use to cross ourselves but this is one of the main things that was revised at the time, and I mention it to impress just to what degree the passing on of what we have received is woven into Orthodox church culture.
In the 20th century, some old Greek manuscripts were discovered to be remarkably similar to the old Russian practice, and with improved liturgical scholarship, it was found that differences had not been caused by Russian accretion but by Greek revision. The Russians had, in fact, kept the old ways. The anathemas were lifted, acts of repentance were done in reparation for the wrongs done to the Old Ritualists, and the door was opened for them to return. Bishops were even specially consecrated to look after any who wished to return.
The point is that the written manuscripts were part of the tradition that we have received, part of what has been passed on (traditere) to us and must be valued as such, but that textual evidence on its own is of no greater value than the rest of Tradition, and that the absence of written evidence does not negate the facts. The Old Ritualists in the 17th century knew this. They did not have access to these ancient Greek texts to prove their case. They simply had their faithfulnes to what had been received and, in the end, they were shown to be right and those who had relied purely on written evidence ended up asking their forgiveness.
If you come from a tradition that doesn't have that sense of clinging as though it were life itself to the traditions that have been received from those before - where this way of thinking is not a part of the culture - then I can see how what some of us are saying here can look like irresponsible pledging of everything to some idea about the past without any evidence, but for those of us who are part of such traditions, the evidence lies in the fact that this is what we do, because we know that we belong to a culture where the likelihood is that what we do is what has been done for a long time and what will be done for a long time to come. From this perspective, 'We do it this way because this is how we do it' doesn't sound quite so irresponsible. It might not satisfy somebody who is looking for infalible written proof of something from the past, of course, but I just don't see the life in Christ in that way.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
So, in other words, MA, you assume that because that's the way its always been, it was specifically ordained by God. Yet you have no proof or even evidence that this is the case?
Well, see, for us, the fact that it's the way it's always been, in the Church, is itself the evidence that it's the way God has ordained it.
If you go back about 1500 years or so, there was this man called Vincent. He noticed that there were lots of different ways of understanding the Holy Scriptures -- probably as many interpretations of Scriptures as there were people reading Scriptures. They couldn't all be right. He wanted to be sure he got things right, so he asked respected for their knowledge and their holiness how to tell truth from error.
They all told him pretty much the same thing.
First, because the Holy Spirit was given to the church at the very beginning, and the Spirit promised to give the Church all the truth, because we can trust the Holy Spirit to do exactly that, and because the believers at the very beginning had walked with Jesus and the apostles, or with people who had, what the Church has believed and done from the very beginning is more likely to be true than any brand-spanking new teachings or practices that conflict with the old ones.
Second, because the seal of the gift of the Holy Spirit is given to every believer at his or her baptism and chrismation, and because God doesn't play favorites, but reveals himself fully to every believer, without holding anything back, the things that have been believed and done by all or nearly all Christians in all places and times are more likely to be true than any "special revelation" or local or private practice that isn't shared by everyone else.
Third, even though we all could be holy, we don't all manage it, and some people are just better at hearing and obeying God than others, and because that's true, the things that are believed and done by those Christians that have shown through their lives and their deaths that they truly know God and are genuinely holy are more likely to be true than anything taught or done by people of less virtuous lives.
From that time to this, Orthodox Christians have used these three principles -- antiquity, universality, and consent -- as our guides when we decide among conflicting practices and beliefs. (And, yes, I've simplified the principles to a great extent so that they fit in one post; if you want to read the whole thing, look for The Commonitory of St. Vincent of Lerins.) And these three principles suggest that restricting the priesthood to men is more likely to be the correct practice than opening it to women as well.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
Chicago doesn't represent the full extent of people's use of English.
I'm sorry, Bullfrog. That sounds snooty when I read it off my screen in a way that it didn't in my head.
None taken.
Thank you, Bullfrog.
quote:
I still question whether the "received tradition" was ever such a static thing. I can understand some of Basil's ideas, and my questions aren't always hostile (really!) I just have trouble with the idea that all of this "received" stuff was meant even from inception to be held as normative for all times and places. In school we've been taught that the tradition was often an evolving ad hoc kind of thing that only later was rationalized. I don't think that being ad hoc and rationalized later means we have to completely gut the tradition, but I'd rather people were more intentional and selective in how they appropriated it for their own context.
I can understand that reasoning as somebody who used to subscribe to it quite vehemently. Now I'm less sure. It was part of my initial stirrings at conversion actually. I have recently, because of my own curiosity, been looking at the rule prevalent in some Orthodox circles that we are not to prostrate ourselves on Sundays in honour of the Resurrection. In places where this is observed, such as my own parish, the people seem to just know it. They have absorbed it from what has gone on around them and perhaps what they were taught as children. As it happens, this rule seems not to be entirely correct and is an exaggeration of the rule that we are not supposed to kneel down to pray on Sundays. Ask my fellow parishioners where this is written down and I doubt more than one or two could answer but it's something they just know. I know that it's written down in one of the canons of the 6th Ecumenical Council, and that this canon cites an earlier canon of the 1st Ecumenical Council which says the same thing, prefacing it with 'We have received from our divine fathers the canon law...'.
I find this over and over in the decrees and canons of the councils and the writings of the fathers. Time and time again we see one council re-affirming what has come from the previous council(s). On some minor points there are local variations but then on some other points that I would consider to be of no great doctrinal significance, we see insistence on uniformity. One example is that subdeacons are not allowed to marry, (although married men may be ordained). I initially came to know this because I have a friend whose bishop intends to ordain him to the subdiaconate but who remains a reader because he has stated an intention to marry and has not yet done so. So it sounded strange when a priest, upon hearing of my own forthcoming ordination, told me that subdeacons may indeed marry after ordination. I asked about this and somebody more knowledgable directed me to the canons, which showed this priest to be quite wrong. The Apostolic Canons say that, of the clergy, only chanters and readers may marry. By the time of the 6th Ecumenical Council, there had grown up ignorance of this precisely through people not keeping what had been passed on, and many subdeacons, deacons, and priests were also marrying. Instead of allowing for variations in practice on this seemingly minor point, the fathers of the 6th Ecumenical Council insisted on uniformity, decreeing that those who had disobeyed through ignorance before a certain date could choose whether they wished to remain in their married or ordained states, while any who did so after that date were to be deposed.
So I don't know that it is for me, a single individual, or even for a lone bishop, to take it upon myself to decide what ought to be kept intact and what can be dispensed with in my time and place, and for what reasons. That is why our bishops operate in a conciliar fashion, in light of what has come to us.
That isn't a very good ending but I need to sleep now. I'll perhaps catch up with the thread tomorrow.
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on
:
OK, I first have to state that I respect Orthodox traditions and the Orthodox Church's right to carry on its traditions. Like Josephine says, what my church does isn't a claim that your church ought to do the same, and vice versa.
Although in one sense, it can be taken that way - to the extent that any of our practices are practices we would recommend to all people everywhere. My own Anglican tradition, at least per Richard Hooker, specifically doesn't make that claim about its own practices, but believes church practices must be able to adapt to local needs and customs. (Precisely what can be adapted and how far those adaptations can go is another issue, perhaps one that is at the core of the Anglican troubles these days, but that's another matter.)
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
I'm thinking specifically of the Old Rite as one example. In the 17th century, it was found that Russian Orthodox and Greek Orthodox liturgical practice had become somewhat divergent. The assumption at the time was that this was the result of Russian alteration and accretion, and the then Russian patriarch forced the Russian church to bring its practice into line with what the Greek church was doing. Many refused. These were the prayers and ways of worshipping that they had been taught by those who had gone before them, who learnt them from those before them. They were not going to give them up on a whim, so they resisted, were anathematised, and were persecuted by the state with varying degrees of harshness at different times, particularly under Tsar Peter the Great. Many fled the country. Others stayed and were tortured or even executed. It's a shameful part of Russian history. To us, in the west, in the 21st century, it may sound like a petty thing to argue over such things as how many fingers we use to cross ourselves but this is one of the main things that was revised at the time, and I mention it to impress just to what degree the passing on of what we have received is woven into Orthodox church culture.
Isn't this precisely an example that traditions adapt and change? Before the discovery was made that the two churches had diverged somewhat, I'm sure the Russians thought they were doing precisely what had always been done since the Apostles. Since the two diverged, quite naturally, how do we know the Greek practice was indeed authentic or original? How do we know it had not also changed over time?
Anyway, those of us in the Western churches ought to recognize that there are different ways of thinking at the base of this whole discussion, and those ways of thinking arise from cultural roots that we in the Western churches at least usually claim we want to respect. The two different mindsets are an ancient example, IMO, of the inculturation of the Apostolic Faith.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
I'm thinking specifically of the Old Rite as one example. In the 17th century, it was found that Russian Orthodox and Greek Orthodox liturgical practice had become somewhat divergent. The assumption at the time was that this was the result of Russian alteration and accretion, and the then Russian patriarch forced the Russian church to bring its practice into line with what the Greek church was doing.
<snip>
In the 20th century, some old Greek manuscripts were discovered to be remarkably similar to the old Russian practice, and with improved liturgical scholarship, it was found that differences had not been caused by Russian accretion but by Greek revision. The Russians had, in fact, kept the old ways.
<snip
[The Old Ritualists] simply had their faithfulnes to what had been received and, in the end, they were shown to be right and those who had relied purely on written evidence ended up asking their forgiveness.
I actually drew the exact opposite conclusion from your story. According to your telling a group of reformers were working on an "assumption" and were presumably acting as their faithfulness dictated, while those who were able to produce written evidence (the Old Ritualists) were vindicated. And why did the Greek Orthodox Church (the source of the corrupted rituals) have a lesser faithfulness than their Russian counterparts? How does this square with Josephine's description of an essentially infallible church?
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
How does this square with Josephine's description of an essentially infallible church?
You might notice that the principles I described assume that there will be conflicts and contradictions and differences of opinion, that these differences matter, and that one may want or need to decide between and among them.
The principles explain how to work out the differences when those conflicts arise. Because we're working it out, collaborating with each other and with God, it sometimes takes us a very long time to work it out. But we do, eventually.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
How does this square with Josephine's description of an essentially infallible church?
You might notice that the principles I described assume that there will be conflicts and contradictions and differences of opinion, that these differences matter, and that one may want or need to decide between and among them.
The principles explain how to work out the differences when those conflicts arise. Because we're working it out, collaborating with each other and with God, it sometimes takes us a very long time to work it out. But we do, eventually.
In other words, the Church is sometimes mistaken but it is never wrong.
Out of curiosity, is today "eventually"? In other words, are current Church teachings perfect, or are you still in the process of working it out?
At any rate, I don't see this "oldest tradition wins" rule being applied very uniformly. Most Christian traditions have completely reversed themselves on questions like slavery, usury, or the execution of heretics. Why aren't the old standards adhered to in these cases, if older practices are more likely right than newfangled innovations?
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
Croesus, are you interested in a conversation? Or are you just spoiling for a fight?
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
Croesus, are you interested in a conversation? Or are you just spoiling for a fight?
Why does it have to be either/or? Can't it be both/and? The adversarial process is a very useful sieve for truth.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
The adversarial process is a very useful sieve for truth.
No it isn't.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
I haven't noticed that it is.
quote:
Originally said by Croesos:
"Shut down all discussion", if you prefer.
We're discussing it. You mean it is a reason you don't accept, and you can't stand to not poke at it with a sharp stick.
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
Mousethief, this is a discussion board. If you don't want to discuss and debate the issue, why are you here?
I do want to discuss. You have equated discussion and debate. They are not the same thing. Really, if I say "I don't know why" what is there to debate? I mean you can pass all the gas you please about why your way of thinking is better than mine, but that really isn't debate. We do it the way we do because that's what was handed to us by our forebears. As Josephine said, all the "reasons" are very much after-the-fact. Answers to the question, "I wonder why they would make this rule?" Maybe our mistake was to share those at all, if people thought that they could talk us out of them by debate, as if they were in fact the real reasons the tradition was adopted, and we could be talked out of the tradition if we could just be made to understand that those reasons were invalid.
I could understand also debating the question if we were saying "you must do this also." To talk somebody into changing their ways, you have to come up with reasons favouring the new ways. But we are not telling anybody else what to do. The OP asks "why only men?" It doesn't say "let me talk you into ordaining women." Is the OP title disingenuous, then?
As I said above, if you want to talk me into changing my ways, you have to show me the new way is better. You have to show me that the only rule for who becomes a priest should be whether they are capable of carrying out the constituent actions that a priest makes in day-to-day priesting. What I called the "utilitarian criterion" although it was ridiculed by Croesos, which is slim excuse for debate, by the way. Listing all of the duties of a priest and why women are perfectly capable of performing them (which they are) doesn't address the real question I have for people saying I should change: why should being able to perform all the duties be the only thing that matters?
And of course for us it isn't. Josephine tried to partly explain this using the metaphor or analogy of marriage. That didn't work.
Really as a debate this totally sucks. I told you what you would have to do to convince me my position was wrong, but nobody has tried. All I have seen are assertions that it is wrong, and ridicule. So maybe I should say yes, I would welcome debate, but haven't seen fuck-all of debate yet.
I think the way you argue someone out of a "God said so" position is not to say "other people thought God said things that you would admit were wrong." You argue that God didn't really say so, and in particular that God said something else. That seems unlikely in this case. But you rather haven't tried.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
Croesus, are you interested in a conversation? Or are you just spoiling for a fight?
Why does it have to be either/or? Can't it be both/and? The adversarial process is a very useful sieve for truth.
No, it isn't. It's a game that some people enjoy playing. But playing the game, and even being good at it, isn't the same thing at all as looking for, or finding, or being good at finding the truth.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
Eh, I've been not exactly consistent on this one either, but the thread did start asking for the rationale for restricting ordination to men, not whether or not such a practice was reasonable or ethical.
So, does it just boil down to a tradition that is considered as if it were handed down from God from all time for all time (or until further notice)?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
Croesus, are you interested in a conversation? Or are you just spoiling for a fight?
Why does it have to be either/or? Can't it be both/and? The adversarial process is a very useful sieve for truth.
No, it isn't. It's a game that some people enjoy playing. But playing the game, and even being good at it, isn't the same thing at all as looking for, or finding, or being good at finding the truth.
No, the adversarial system IS actually intended to find the truth. How good a job of it might be open to question, but you can't automatically move from 'adversarial' to 'game-playing'.
People ask difficult questions to see if the answers satisfy them, not just for the sake of going "AHA" if the answer's aren't up to scratch.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
The fact that it is the unbroken tradition since apostolic times would suggest that it't not being written down in any extant source isn't really of much significance. My grandmother's birth certificate has been long lost, but the absence of written documentation doesn't negate the historical fact of her birth.
I'm not loving the analogy here. Of course you know she was born - you can see her standing there. But isn't her BIRTHDATE open to question?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
For us, we follow the tradition that we have received. For us, the fact that it is the tradition that we have received is the reason that we do what we do. We don't need another reason. We don't have to have an explanation. "We do it this way because we have always done it this way" works for us. That's what we believe God wants us to do.
Hmm.
One of my favourite quotes of all time comes from Cyprian, who was a bishop in the 3rd century. And here's the quote, as I learned it in English:
"Antiquity without truth is but ancient error."
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
People ask difficult questions to see if the answers satisfy them, not just for the sake of going "AHA" if the answer's aren't up to scratch.
Asking difficult questions <> adversarial
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
People ask difficult questions to see if the answers satisfy them, not just for the sake of going "AHA" if the answer's aren't up to scratch.
Asking difficult questions <> adversarial
Perhaps not, but I've certainly found on some other message boards that continuing to ask questions and not accept the initial answers is SEEN as adversarial.
This tends to be much less of a problem on the Ship, admittedly.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Pounding away at something and not letting up even when your disputant has said they're at axiom level, picking at meaningless nits, pressing analogies beyond the breaking point, mockery, sarcasm, treating examples as if they were exhaustive -- there are many ways of being adversarial. Few of them advance discussion, debate, or understanding. They chiefly make the adversarial one look like a bully and a dullard, even if it perhaps somehow enhances their subsequent sexual performance or something.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Pounding away at something and not letting up even when your disputant has said they're at axiom level, picking at meaningless nits, pressing analogies beyond the breaking point, mockery, sarcasm, treating examples as if they were exhaustive -- there are many ways of being adversarial. Few of them advance discussion, debate, or understanding. They chiefly make the adversarial one look like a bully and a dullard, even if it perhaps somehow enhances their subsequent sexual performance or something.
This is so true - I left a forum I'd been with for many years because of one such person who did these and targetted me with them. I wonder who they are getting at now? I never look at the site.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
I actually drew the exact opposite conclusion from your story. According to your telling a group of reformers were working on an "assumption" and were presumably acting as their faithfulness dictated, while those who were able to produce written evidence (the Old Ritualists) were vindicated.
Ultimately, yes, because the written tradition is part of tradition just like any other. I'm not trying to denigrate it but only to set it in its proper valued place. To put too much weight on it to the exclusion of other parts of tradition is not the Orthodox way. My intention in providing the example of the treatment of the Old Ritualists was to show what can happen when there is an insistence on written documentation to the exclusion of all else, when a burden of written proof is placed on people who have otherwise been faithful to what has been handed down to them. In this case, those who were right were doubted (at best) just because they didn't have the right paperwork, and continued being doubted until it turned up 300 years later. Yet, properly, that is not the Orthodox way, and I hope that we, as a church, have learnt from it.
quote:
And why did the Greek Orthodox Church (the source of the corrupted rituals) have a lesser faithfulness than their Russian counterparts?
You'll have to ask the Greek church. That isn't meant to sound flippant - Greek liturgical revision is a running joke in the Russian church, even today. What we have today in New Rite Russian tradition parishes (including most of the OCA, to which Josephine and Mousethief belong, as well as my own Russian jurisdiction) is essentially the Greek rite as it existed in the 17th century. Even so, it is once again noticeably different from the modern Greek tradition. I think we have learnt from mistakes of the past, being satisfied that there is legitimate room for liturgical variation provided that it expresses the same truth that has been received. For example, those who do not prostrate on Sundays in honour of the Resurrection are no less faithful than those of us who 'flop around on the floor' (as my parish priest said of me
) at the customary parts of services, even if they fall on a Sunday. Both are expressions of the same faith. Yet this variety needs to incorporate those who are perhaps less willing to revise the prayers and customs of old so we know that what we do is grounded in what has gone before.
quote:
How does this square with Josephine's description of an essentially infallible church?
I can't answer better than Josephine herself. Adding my own bit, then...
We try to operate in a conciliar fashion. Our canons requires bishops in a particular area to be under a metropolitan bishop, as their first among equals, and to meet regularly in synod to iron out any difficulties. From time to time, this synod of bishops will meet with other synods of bishops to the same ends, and when there is some particular set of practical, spiritual, liturgical, doctrinal matters that needs to be worked through. Sometimes, all of the bishops aim to meet in synod, and there are plans underway for such a gathering as I type. So yes, people are people, and changes will naturally take place. The place of our synods is to ensure that these are in keeping what the Faith handed on to us, and to allow them where beneficial, encourage them where necessary, and rein then in when they can become disruptive - but we are to do it together.
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:
Isn't this precisely an example that traditions adapt and change? Before the discovery was made that the two churches had diverged somewhat, I'm sure the Russians thought they were doing precisely what had always been done since the Apostles. Since the two diverged, quite naturally, how do we know the Greek practice was indeed authentic or original? How do we know it had not also changed over time?
In the story, it was the Greek, rather than the Russian, practice that had changed over time, but your point stands. I think any Orthodox people today who think that the services as we have them are the same as they were 1000 years ago are very ignorant indeed of their own history. It isn't that we don't allow development, which is a natural part of Church life, but that we are generally reticent about it in order to preserve the Faith unchanged, and also that when it is permitted, we try to ensure that it does not constitute a departure from that Faith in any way. If it seems that we often bicker over seemingly trivial matters, it is only because of this desire. Something such as the sacraments, their effectualness, and their place in the life of the Church is of greater significance than how many fingers to use in crossing ourselves, so a question over whether the mystery of ordination may be received by a woman, and in what form, (we have the three degrees of priesthood), if such a question were to arise, would naturally be of great focus in testing it in light of the Faith received.
quote:
Anyway, those of us in the Western churches ought to recognize that there are different ways of thinking at the base of this whole discussion, and those ways of thinking arise from cultural roots that we in the Western churches at least usually claim we want to respect. The two different mindsets are an ancient example, IMO, of the inculturation of the Apostolic Faith.
I think you're right, churchgeek.
Incidentally, for anyone who is interested, I stumbled some time ago upon a collection of essays on this subject from Orthodox perspectives. Because I had come from a liberal Anglo-Catholic tradition, there were things in my new Orthodox home that I didn't quite understand. I was basking in the ease of them no longer being hot topics on which I was pressured to have a position and decided just to be obedient, developing my understanding in my own time. I found this book beneficial because it helped to refine my understanding of the nature of ordination and priesthood, and leave behind some of what I had picked up in my past. It also gave me an idea of some of the different perspectives and approaches that exist in Orthodoxy, which habve slightly different nuances to them from what I had previously known. Other people may get other things from it. It is called Women and the Priesthood and is edited by Fr Thomas Hopko. The ISBN is 9780881411461. Some parts show how some of the the arguments for and against the ordination of women, often posited in the western churches, simply don't fit with Orthodoxy, which ties in with what churchgeek said above about different ways of thinking about this. I think it is the paper by Metropolitan Kallistos of Diokleia (although I may be wrong and possibly read it elsewhere) that recounts an ecumenical forum where this matter was discussed, and a number of Anglo-Catholics were present, arguing against the OOW from a point of view of the priest acting in persona Christi and so having to be male, thinking this would impress their Orthodox interlocutors, only to be disappointed when the Orthodox delegates expressed how alien this was to their understanding, not necessarily of gender, but of priesthood.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
.... arguing against the OOW from a point of view of the priest acting in persona Christi and so having to be male, thinking this would impress their Orthodox interlocutors, only to be disappointed when the Orthodox delegates expressed how alien this was to their understanding, not necessarily of gender, but of priesthood.
Which brings up a point that I was thinking about as I was fixing my first cup of tea this morning. The Orthodox Church is not the only church in which the role of priest (or pastor or minister) is limited to men, and the question in the OP was not restricted to Orthodox reasoning or practice. I know it's often the case that, when we get to the same place as other churches do, we get there by an entirely different route.
I wouldn't want to speak for MartinL, but I'd certainly be interested in hearing from the others whose ordained ministry (or equivalent, if they don't call it ordination) is restricted to men. I'd be interested in knowing their reasons and their understanding of the priesthood.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
Orthodox Christians have used these three principles -- antiquity, universality, and consent -- as our guides when we decide among conflicting practices and beliefs.
Without wishing in the least to dissent from St Vincent, doesn't his argument work only if the Spirit is given free play to work in the Church? If men act to stifle some initiative that is of God, it doesn't get the chance to become established.
And similarly, it only works if you don't limit the franchise to those Christians who already agree with you. You can't use antiquity, universality and consensus in the Orthodox Church alone to prove that (say) venerating icons is lawful, because the Orthodox Church is precisely that group of Christians which slung out all the iconoclasts. It's a bit like a book my wife has somewhere on her shelves that argues that Christians shouldn't drink alcohol because "the majority of Bible-believing Christians have always thought that it was wrong to drink". The author is likely quite right, provided that you exclude from the definition of "Bible-believing Christians" everyone from a different tradition to his own, but the exercise didn't convince me.
It may be that the Orthodox Church (or the neo-puritan Bible-believers) are right in fact, but I don't think that agreement within a tradition is good evidence of that, because it starts by defining in advance the sub-set of Christians who are likely to be correct, and using the beliefs of those Christians as if they were the only ones whom the Spirit is leading.
Looking at the issue of women priests in the Church as a whole: well antiquity is against it, certainly, but a male-only priesthood is certainly not universal: the two biggest Churches are officially anti-, but there are voices in favour even within them, and splinter groups which ordain women which claim to be part of the Orthodox or Catholic movement. And there are lots of churches, large and small, who have independently considered the issue and ordained women. It is also by no means obvious to me that either side has any compelling advantage in holiness over their opponents: I suppose one could try to count the innumerable saints of the past for whom this was never a live issue as silent votes in favour of the status quo, but that would essentially be a repetition of the argument from antiquity and (previous, now vanished) universality rather than an independent confirmation of it. I think it would be very hard indeed to present a good argument that the closer one gets to God the more one sees that women can (or can't) be priests.
So only antiquity is firmly against, and that doesn't get a casting vote in such matters, even in Orthodoxy (see my reply to Michael below).
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
I'm thinking specifically of the Old Rite as one example. In the 17th century, it was found that Russian Orthodox and Greek Orthodox liturgical practice had become somewhat divergent. The assumption at the time was that this was the result of Russian alteration and accretion, and the then Russian patriarch forced the Russian church to bring its practice into line with what the Greek church was doing. Many refused. These were the prayers and ways of worshipping that they had been taught by those who had gone before them, who learnt them from those before them. They were not going to give them up on a whim, so they resisted, were anathematised, and were persecuted by the state with varying degrees of harshness at different times, particularly under Tsar Peter the Great. Many fled the country. Others stayed and were tortured or even executed. It's a shameful part of Russian history. To us, in the west, in the 21st century, it may sound like a petty thing to argue over such things as how many fingers we use to cross ourselves but this is one of the main things that was revised at the time, and I mention it to impress just to what degree the passing on of what we have received is woven into Orthodox church culture.
In the 20th century, some old Greek manuscripts were discovered to be remarkably similar to the old Russian practice, and with improved liturgical scholarship, it was found that differences had not been caused by Russian accretion but by Greek revision. The Russians had, in fact, kept the old ways. The anathemas were lifted, acts of repentance were done in reparation for the wrongs done to the Old Ritualists, and the door was opened for them to return. Bishops were even specially consecrated to look after any who wished to return.
I have two serious problems with that:
First, it looks to me as if you are saying that it was wrong to anathematise the Old Ritualists because, as it turned out, they were right. It seems to me that it would have been just as wrong even if they had been the innovators. The tragedy here is not that the winning side got it wrong, the tragedy is that God's people fall out over these things at all. I think I know you well enough to be sure that you wouldn't think the persecution justified even if the Old Ritualists had been wrong, but I am quite worried that you could think that the anathemas might have been. Certainly, on your account, the acts of repentance were provoked by the recognition of factual error, rather than because the Old Ritualists were treated shamefully irrespective of which side of the controversy was later shown to be right. That looks like a major moral blind-spot to me.
Second, the ‘proof' when it came, hasn't actually led to a revision in mainstream Orthodox practice, has it? Correct me if I'm wrong but isn't the three-fingered crossing still the standard? I've even read some Orthodox source (I think +Kallistos Ware, but ICBW) allegorise it: three digits extended for the three persons of the Trinity, two digits folded back for the two natures of Christ. When your Church believed the practice to be ancient, that was a good enough reason to pick on someone weaker, but now that it knows it to be novel, that's not a good enough reason to go back to the old ways. It seems to me that there's a lot more to the matter than following the ways that are old and (presumed to be) best. Being ancient is enough to recommend, or possibly permit, a practice, but it doesn't make it mandatory.
Which is how it should be, I think, but then that means that the idea of women priests ought to be worth a look, notwithstanding that the idea is a new one.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
The adversarial process is a very useful sieve for truth.
This is why the standards of intellectual debate in US politics are so high at the moment.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
It may be that the Orthodox Church (or the neo-puritan Bible-believers) are right in fact, but I don't think that agreement within a tradition is good evidence of that, because it starts by defining in advance the sub-set of Christians who are likely to be correct, and using the beliefs of those Christians as if they were the only ones whom the Spirit is leading.
You greatly mistake the Orthodox Church's understanding of herself, and her relation to the other Christian bodies. We didn't (somewhere back in antiquity) develop positions on women's ministry and azymes, and then exclude all faith communities that had the wrong beliefs. The Orthodox self-understanding (of its own identity) is first and foremost about communion (in the sense of togetherness (tainted as that word is with mushy 1970s sentimentalism) -- rather than the eucharist), not doctrine. The Roman Catholic Church separated itself from us over points of doctrine (officially, at least -- the reality "on the ground" was far more complex) because that is their way of understanding the identity of the church. Which is not to say there are not important doctrinal differences between us, and that they do not present an obstacle to reunion. But they are not what define us as Orthodox. Another group could believe exactly what we believe on all points of the nature of God, and humanity, and salvation, and the church, and yet they would not thereby be Orthodox.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
You greatly mistake the Orthodox Church's understanding of herself, and her relation to the other Christian bodies.
Quite possibly. And to the extent that I do understand, I disagree (obviously, or I'd want to be Orthodox). I don't think that answers my point, though.
St Vincent's rule on universality as explained by Josephine:
quote:
the seal of the gift of the Holy Spirit is given to every believer...
God ... reveals himself fully to every believer...
the things that have been believed and done by all or nearly all Christians in all places and times are more likely to be true than any "special revelation"...
only works if it does what it say on the tin. Every believer, every Christian has access to God's revelation and the evidential value of a consensus of all or nearly all Christians requires just that - a consensus of all or nearly all Christians.
You can, of course, point to a consensus in one particular denomination, and you can believe that the denomination you've chosen is particularly privileged for historical, doctrinal or institutional reasons, and (this is important) you may be absolutely right about that, but you would still be looking at a sub-set of "all Christians". You would necessarily have disenfranchised all the other Christians whose beliefs on the point in issue vary from your selected group. You would not be looking for a universal consensus at all. There might be a very good argument for thinking that your group is right, but it will be different argument to the stated argument from universality, which can only have evidential value if you look at what all Christians believe.
And on the women priests issue, there just isn't a universal view. There's a strong majority view, and a significant and flourishing minority one. It's not enough for universality to be a reliable guide to truth. To get there you have to argue that: "the things that have been believed and done by all or nearly all Christians in all places and times (not counting the Protestants) are likely to be true". Which would an argument entirely different - indeed, quite contrary - to the one that says universality is a good guide precisely because every believer has access to the full revelation of God.
Posted by FooloftheShip (# 15579) on
:
I still don't see any argument in favour of an exclusively male priesthood. To say that the life of a living body, the church, the body of Christ, is forever determined by introjected cultural norms from the Mosaic law is to deny the role of the holy spirit and of living itself in the life of the church. The point of the church, as I see it, is to assist in the ongoing creative acts of God, not to perpetuate itself.
Posted by FooloftheShip (# 15579) on
:
I suppose this is fundamentally because I see allegiance to tradition as essentially a form of assertion not of proposition.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
I'm thinking specifically of the Old Rite as one example. In the 17th century, it was found that Russian Orthodox and Greek Orthodox liturgical practice had become somewhat divergent. The assumption at the time was that this was the result of Russian alteration and accretion, and the then Russian patriarch forced the Russian church to bring its practice into line with what the Greek church was doing. Many refused. These were the prayers and ways of worshipping that they had been taught by those who had gone before them, who learnt them from those before them. They were not going to give them up on a whim, so they resisted, were anathematised, and were persecuted by the state with varying degrees of harshness at different times, particularly under Tsar Peter the Great. Many fled the country. Others stayed and were tortured or even executed. It's a shameful part of Russian history. To us, in the west, in the 21st century, it may sound like a petty thing to argue over such things as how many fingers we use to cross ourselves but this is one of the main things that was revised at the time, and I mention it to impress just to what degree the passing on of what we have received is woven into Orthodox church culture.
In the 20th century, some old Greek manuscripts were discovered to be remarkably similar to the old Russian practice, and with improved liturgical scholarship, it was found that differences had not been caused by Russian accretion but by Greek revision. The Russians had, in fact, kept the old ways. The anathemas were lifted, acts of repentance were done in reparation for the wrongs done to the Old Ritualists, and the door was opened for them to return. Bishops were even specially consecrated to look after any who wished to return.
I have two serious problems with that:
First, it looks to me as if you are saying that it was wrong to anathematise the Old Ritualists because, as it turned out, they were right. It seems to me that it would have been just as wrong even if they had been the innovators. The tragedy here is not that the winning side got it wrong, the tragedy is that God's people fall out over these things at all. I think I know you well enough to be sure that you wouldn't think the persecution justified even if the Old Ritualists had been wrong, but I am quite worried that you could think that the anathemas might have been.
I can't agree with this. It seems self-evident to me that the anathemas would have been quite correct had the Old Ritualists been wrong and, importantly, the liturgical reformers acted in an Orthodox manner because then the disobedience of the Old Ritualists would not have been in any way justifiable. As it stands, the reformers did not act in an Orthodox manner. They examined texts alone and disregarded the passing on of unwritten traditions. That being the case, I can sympathise with those who resisted them. It is indeed a difficulty that Christians can fall out over these things, not because we fall out over them - on the contrary, it is right that we respond with caution to what is perceived as a threat to the continuity of the Faith and outright reject it when it is shown to be so - but because people introduce things over which we can fall out. But I wouldn't call that a tragedy: that's just church life. We may be one body but we're different people. We don't all think the same way, we don't always arrive at the same conclusions, and it is natural that sometimes people will get things wrong. Yet the way we're structured and the way operate, if followed faithfully, is such that these things can be resolved in keeping with what is right and true.
quote:
Certainly, on your account, the acts of repentance were provoked by the recognition of factual error, rather than because the Old Ritualists were treated shamefully irrespective of which side of the controversy was later shown to be right. That looks like a major moral blind-spot to me.
I can't disagree with this. It is perhaps among the main reasons that the vast majority of Old Believers have not returned. I will take a long time and much more effort and humility to regain trust.
quote:
Second, the ‘proof' when it came, hasn't actually led to a revision in mainstream Orthodox practice, has it? Correct me if I'm wrong but isn't the three-fingered crossing still the standard? I've even read some Orthodox source (I think +Kallistos Ware, but ICBW) allegorise it: three digits extended for the three persons of the Trinity, two digits folded back for the two natures of Christ. When your Church believed the practice to be ancient, that was a good enough reason to pick on someone weaker, but now that it knows it to be novel, that's not a good enough reason to go back to the old ways. It seems to me that there's a lot more to the matter than following the ways that are old and (presumed to be) best.
This is essentially what I said in my previous post. We seem to have learnt from the experience that there can be room for legitimate variations, provided that, through conciliar affirmation or general acceptance, something is seen to be in keeping with what has been received and not a threat to it. So no, after three hundred years, we have not returned wholesale to the Old Rite* because the New Rite has become naturalised and has come to be seen as a vessel of the same Faith, today being largely uncontroversial. There are elements of the piety of the Old Rite which I wish were more prevalent but that is personal preference.
As for the oft-cited symbolism of the three-fingered Cross, the common explanation is simply based on that of the old two-fingered Cross but slightly adapted to the new finger arrangement. The replacement of the two-fingered crossing by the people with the three-fingered one was accompanied by the rejection of the two-fingered blessing by the priest in favour of the ICXC Christogram. More here, (if you'll forgive the shameless self-promotion).
*Although we haven't adopted the Old Rite wholesale, some elements of it are included in our prayer books as options where they had generally disappeared previously, and they are unselfconsciously used in some parishes where the people probably have no idea that there is anything unusual about them.
quote:
Being ancient is enough to recommend, or possibly permit, a practice, but it doesn't make it mandatory.
Which is how it should be, I think, but then that means that the idea of women priests ought to be worth a look, notwithstanding that the idea is a new one.
If it becomes a matter worth discussing, then perhaps it will receive that sort of attention. As things stand, matters generally only reach a point where bishops meet in council and take decisions when they are of significance to the life of the church. At the moment, that doesn't include the question of the ordination of women, which is something that is largely external to Orthodoxy. It would be almost like insisting that our bishops meet to discuss some resolution to the conflict between Calvinism and Arminianism, (that's perhaps an exaggeration but I'm sure you understand my meaning). If we look for the large swathes of Orthodox people, parishes, and dioceses that are wrestling with the question of the ordination of women as a dividing, challenging, or otherwise pressing matter, we just won't find them. That's something that other churches argue about, just as we don't expect Anglicans or Methodists to have a position on the dispute over whether to use the Julian or Meletian calendar. That isn't to say that the discussion of it elsewhere hasn't stirred some interest within Orthodox circles, and some enlightening things have been said and written, but as far as I'm aware, that's where it has begun and ended. I'm willing to be corrected on this point, though.
Posted by Otter (# 12020) on
:
I've been enjoying the explanations by Josephine and others on the Orthodox point of view.
Not too long ago I thought the non-ordination of women would have made the Orthodox church(es) Right Out for me if I was looking at a return to church involvement, but now that feeling is much lessened. Unfortunately, I can't articulate the why's and wherefore nearly as well as Josephine!
[ 23. June 2010, 19:39: Message edited by: Otter ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by FooloftheShip:
I suppose this is fundamentally because I see allegiance to tradition as essentially a form of assertion not of proposition.
What does this mean, please?
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation? The fact that they are ritually unclean in many cultures, Jewish and other tribal cultures regularly? Certainly if you read the Pentateuch, women spend a lot of their life unclean, and the priestly castes had to be ritually cleansed - see the Leviticus thread in Kerygmania. If this cleansing is a problem you can see why women might be excluded.
Hmmm...this didn't stop, for example, women in Ancient Egypt making it to the rank of High-Priestess, which brings me to an alternative thesis: that a female priesthood was a hallmark of paganism and both the Jews and their Christian successors were keen to put some clear water between themselves and the pagans.
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
True, but reading Leviticus, Deuteronomy and Exodus, as you do, when the cleanliness laws are discussed women do have to be set aside rather more than men. (I nearly wrote *in purdah* instead of *set aside*, but that's Islamic, not Christian or Jewish). The time a woman spends apart after childbirth is significantly lengthened after giving birth to a girl. So in the ancient Jewish tradition as described in the Pentateuch there does seem to be something about women not being clean, or certainly not being clean for significant amounts of time. And there's a whole lot about how the priests should be extra specially clean.
I found it interesting that blood is still not allowed in the altar area in Orthodox worship - as discussed earlier.
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
Coming from a church that debated this topic until we came to a 'universal' opinion (it took a very long time), I can point out what some of the 'issues' were for us that may help in understanding the approach of some (but obviously not all). I can't spell out all of the issues, but will hopefully cover some of them.
1. Tradition: The debate over whether we could abandon tradition on the issue of female priests. This picked up a lot of other elements, some of which are covered below.
2. Scripture: Two quite differing approaches were identified in scripture (to my mind, for us, this was the most important element in moving the debate on)
3. Reason: Some arguments were cast out on the basis that they were not 'reasonable'
4. Ritual Purity: the menstruation thing has already been mentioned on this thread - we decided this wasn't something we employed elsewhere - why would we employ it here? (we like bacon too)
5. Debate on what it meant to be 'made in the image of God' and the equality of men and women: This actually led to a liturgical change in the Eucharistic prayer with the addition of 'You made us in your own image, male and female you created us....'
6. Social change: Not only had our part of the world gone through the swinging 60's but it was coupled with a feminist movement. The same people who were part of these movements were also in the church and had a voice.
7. Ecumenical relations: A lot of time was spent debating this area in terms of what it meant to, not only to our relations within the anglican communion, but also in terms of what it would mean for our ecumenical relations with other churches. In the end, the 'prophetic voice' argument won the day.
8. Diocesan Readers and Chalice Bearers: Women were already accepted in these roles (although male priests did not have to accept them at this stage). A lot of ground was already covered in these debates.
9. The nature of ordination: At first, female deacons were accepted, then priests and Bishop's. It would take a little too long to enter into this debate - needless to say that this can be a sticking point for some, as the nature of ordination is seen quite differently among certain traditions.
10. Theological movements: both theology and Biblical studies helped in this area, especially when questions arose over the interpretation of scripture
There are many other reasons besides, but perhaps this might be where the debate lies for most people. What I will say - and I really don't mean this to sound insulting - is that for those who are part of a church that has accepted the ordination of women for more than a generation, it is extremely difficult to get back into the mindset of those who disagree. Any church that has accepted the ordination of women has a long history of debate on the issue and therefore rather frustrating to go back over old arguments that took a very long time and a huge amount of energy to tackle int he first place. That leaves us in a situation where one side of the debate considers a re-entry into it as a bit of waste of time and effort (I'm not saying this is a right attitude, it's just how it is), this is compounded by the fact (rightly or wrongly) that those who argue against often appear to have an implicit suggestion that we didn't debate it well enough, or we left something important out. This is a very problematic point, because Croseos suggested earlier, those who have accepted the ordination of women do see it in terms of the church's rejection of forms of domination and control (ie. of rejection of slavery, persecution of heretics, etc). That can and does come across to those on the other side of the debate as deeply insulting.
In the church I am in, we were extremely lucky to come to a consensus of opinion. It could have been very different. The problem in entering further dialogue in this is that the period of debate for us has been very long and very drawn out. Other traditions and churches will have their own lines of debate.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
I found it interesting that blood is still not allowed in the altar area in Orthodox worship - as discussed earlier.
That's right. If I am serving in the altar and cut my finger on something and blood is drawn, I must leave the altar until the bleeding stops. The sluzhebnik, (the pocket book of text and rubrics used by the priest and deacon for the Liturgy) has an extensive section at the back on how to deal with various eventualities. I'm fairly sure that is where I got this from.
[ 24. June 2010, 13:50: Message edited by: Michael Astley ]
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
If it's just down to menstruation, then why can't women be ordained but just officiate three out of four weeks a month? There must surely be more to it than that...
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
If it's just down to menstruation, then why can't women be ordained but just officiate three out of four weeks a month? There must surely be more to it than that...
I agree -- there is more to it than that. Otherwise, at the very least, women could be ordained after menopause.
For now, I'd like to see the Orthodox restore the diaconate to women. We'd have a lot to work out with just doing that, and, given that we move at about the same speed as ents, it would take a while to do it. But I think we need to do it.
I also think that we could be tonsuring women as readers. In parishes with no tonsured readers, both men and women can serve as lay readers, so I would guess there's nothing to prevent it.
Charli
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation? The fact that they are ritually unclean in many cultures, Jewish and other tribal cultures regularly? Certainly if you read the Pentateuch, women spend a lot of their life unclean, and the priestly castes had to be ritually cleansed - see the Leviticus thread in Kerygmania. If this cleansing is a problem you can see why women might be excluded.
Hmmm...this didn't stop, for example, women in Ancient Egypt making it to the rank of High-Priestess, which brings me to an alternative thesis: that a female priesthood was a hallmark of paganism and both the Jews and their Christian successors were keen to put some clear water between themselves and the pagans.
But the Ancient Egyptians do not seem to have been hung up on cleanliness issues for the "laity" at all. Interestingly, it is one of the few early cultures where men and women were (theoretically) equal under the law.
On your hypothesis, I think there were far more pagan priests than priestesses around at the time - certainly in Egypt - so I don't think it works.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Could the lack of credence given to women be anything to do with menstruation? The fact that they are ritually unclean in many cultures, Jewish and other tribal cultures regularly? Certainly if you read the Pentateuch, women spend a lot of their life unclean, and the priestly castes had to be ritually cleansed - see the Leviticus thread in Kerygmania. If this cleansing is a problem you can see why women might be excluded.
Hmmm...this didn't stop, for example, women in Ancient Egypt making it to the rank of High-Priestess, which brings me to an alternative thesis: that a female priesthood was a hallmark of paganism and both the Jews and their Christian successors were keen to put some clear water between themselves and the pagans.
Could be. Or maybe they had other reasons than cultural oversensitivity. It seems to me this is an issue where, no matter what facts about the ancient world that one side comes up with, the other side is able to explain it away, or come up with an epicycle to their hypothesis that neutralizes the first side's point. I'm not sure that trying to reconstruct the decision-making milieu of the first bishops is going to get us very far: it's much too speculative.
Bottom line for us is: we're the badgers. We hold on.
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
:
I guess part of it has to do with reasons of practicality. Until relatively recently (so to speak) roles for men and women were quite strictly defined in practical terms. For instance a man can't breast feed a child, but as a priest might have been required to do duty in the church to a far greater extent than many priests today. The social pressure to produce a male heir to carry on the name and ownership of property would have been a significant factor too, resulting in large families. I'm not saying that these things weren't also linked into the trappings of a patriarchal society, or that things couldn't have been different, but the practicality element does seem significant to me in some ways.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not sure that trying to reconstruct the decision-making milieu of the first bishops is going to get us very far: it's much too speculative.
Bottom line for us is: we're the badgers. We hold on.
But not always. I've already noted a couple of cases where most Christian sects have reversed the judgment of the first bishops. The decision about whether to use your own judgment or to defer to the wisdom of the ancients seems not to follow any general principle other than generally conforming to the accepted social norms of the time. (Or the social norms of the previous century.) It could be considered a divine Rorschach test, telling you whether the deity believed in prefers obedience or thought in His followers.
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not sure that trying to reconstruct the decision-making milieu of the first bishops is going to get us very far: it's much too speculative.
Bottom line for us is: we're the badgers. We hold on.
But not always. I've already noted a couple of cases where most Christian sects have reversed the judgment of the first bishops.
Yeah, you said that. But you didn't say whom you regarded as the first bishops, nor what their judgment was on these subjects, nor how you know what their judgment was, nor who reversed their judgment, nor when that reversal was supposed to have occurred.
A few more details, and maybe someone can actually talk to you about it.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Josephine:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not sure that trying to reconstruct the decision-making milieu of the first bishops is going to get us very far: it's much too speculative.
Bottom line for us is: we're the badgers. We hold on.
But not always. I've already noted a couple of cases where most Christian sects have reversed the judgment of the first bishops.
Yeah, you said that. But you didn't say whom you regarded as the first bishops, nor what their judgment was on these subjects, nor how you know what their judgment was, nor who reversed their judgment, nor when that reversal was supposed to have occurred.
A few more details, and maybe someone can actually talk to you about it.
Approval (or at least toleration) of slavery dates to the earliest days of Christianity. This position can be found in both the Old and New Testament. I'm not aware of any significant Christian Church taking the position that slavery is, in and of itself, a moral wrong until about the mid-eighteenth century. Today virtually all Christian denominations regard human bondage and forced labor as inherently immoral.
Likewise the execution of heretics or others who defy the Church was common starting around the time the Church had enough power to start executing people, though there is also a New Testament precedent for this position placing it in the first generation of believers. Like slavery, burning or otherwise executing heretics was not disavowed by the Church until relatively recently (i.e. the last couple centuries).
As for usury, again from its earliest days both the Eastern and Western branches of Christianity condemned the lending of money at any rate of interest. This is based in large part on Old Testament teachings, but usury is also condemned by Jesus Himself. Most denominations today have scaled back this teaching to only forbid lending money at excessive interest, though what's considered "excessive" is usually not explicitly defined.
I picked these three areas because they are fairly well known (to most, at least). Further, the teachings of the Church in these areas go back to the earliest days, either to the Apostles or Christ Himself. And yet despite this ancient tradition and pedigree, most Christian Churches today have teach almost the exact opposite of Christianity's earliest position on the matter.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
It seems self-evident to me that the anathemas would have been quite correct had the Old Ritualists been wrong and, importantly, the liturgical reformers acted in an Orthodox manner because then the disobedience of the Old Ritualists would not have been in any way justifiable.
I honestly cannot see how such a view can be reconciled with any sort of tradition that purports to reference Christ and his apostles. I don't doubt your good faith, but the conclusion is so utterly detached from the oldest, most widely accepted, and most highly revered expressions of the faith (Holy Scripture) that it has to be a sign that something has gone badly wrong with the tradition (or interpretation thereof) that would endorse it.
Is it even remotely conceivable that the man who told the story of the Good Samaritan or the Prodigal Son would approve of someone being thrown out of his Church because they crossed themselves with the wrong number of fingers or fell to their knees before God on the wrong day of the week? Not even St Nicholas could persuade me of that.
quote:
This is essentially what I said in my previous post. We seem to have learnt from the experience that there can be room for legitimate variations, provided that, through conciliar affirmation or general acceptance, something is seen to be in keeping with what has been received and not a threat to it. So no, after three hundred years, we have not returned wholesale to the Old Rite* because the New Rite has become naturalised and has come to be seen as a vessel of the same Faith, today being largely uncontroversial.
We haven't had three hundred years of women priests in the CofE yet, but the process is very much underway. For most people, it hasn't changed their faith, it's uncontroversial, and while they might personally prefer a priest of one gender or another in a particular situation, the idea of going back to a male-only priesthood would be outlandish.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
mousetheif - if I may ask a question
You seem to be happy to call God 'She' and yet dislike the idea of women priests. If the priest is representing God, how is that?
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
mousetheif - if I may ask a question
You seem to be happy to call God 'She' and yet dislike the idea of women priests.
I read mousethief as being concerned to defend/explain his membership of a church that does not ordain women, rather than saying that he personally dislikes the idea of women priests. There's a difference.
Posted by Michael Astley (# 5638) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Michael Astley:
It seems self-evident to me that the anathemas would have been quite correct had the Old Ritualists been wrong and, importantly, the liturgical reformers acted in an Orthodox manner because then the disobedience of the Old Ritualists would not have been in any way justifiable.
I honestly cannot see how such a view can be reconciled with any sort of tradition that purports to reference Christ and his apostles. I don't doubt your good faith, but the conclusion is so utterly detached from the oldest, most widely accepted, and most highly revered expressions of the faith (Holy Scripture) that it has to be a sign that something has gone badly wrong with the tradition (or interpretation thereof) that would endorse it.
Is it even remotely conceivable that the man who told the story of the Good Samaritan or the Prodigal Son would approve of someone being thrown out of his Church because they crossed themselves with the wrong number of fingers or fell to their knees before God on the wrong day of the week? Not even St Nicholas could persuade me of that.
Nor me, but then that isn't what I said. Re-read the section of my post that you quoted. The matter is not primarily one of minutiae. The Old Ritualists were not anathematised for how they worshipped but for their disobedience. Whatever your or my individual views on authority in the Church may be, the fact remains that the Orthodox Church is hierarchically structured and believes this to be apostolic. When the Holy Spirit is invoked on a man as he elevated to the episcopate, we believe that he is given special charism by God to perform that role in communion with his brother bishops, to rightly divide the word of truth and to order the life of his diocese for the salvation of those entrusted to his spiritual care, and that this communion is a microcosm of the life of the Three Divine Persons, through which we are to grow into that life. That is not to say that he is infallible. History and good sense tell us otherwise, and for this reason the clergy and faithful are demanded by the canons of the Church to withdraw from a bishop who teaches or acts out of accordaince with the Fsaith received, but when they are not so acting, and our hierarchs direct something for the spiritual benefit of the Church, then we who are under obedience to them are to follow accordingly. In this instance, as I said earlier, I do not believe that the patriarch was acting in an Orthodox manner, (nor, from what reading I have done on this matter, was it a conciliar decision of the bishops but rather was dictated from on high - also not how we understand these things to be done).
St Ignatius the God-bearer, often cited as one of the earliest non-scriptural witnesses of Apostolic Tradition, tells us:
quote:
'It is well for us to come to our senses at last, while we still have a chance to repent and turn to God. It is a fine thing to acknowledge God and the bishop. He who pays the bishop honour has been honoured by God. But he who acts without the bishop's knowledge is in the devil's service.'
As for the question of minutiae, I suppose how we view that in light of the teachings of Christ will depend on our own experience and background. I think those of us who are insistent that things be done correctly and with precision in offering to God need people of the other mindset to remind us not to fall into legalism. I also think that those who find such precision a temptatiion to distraction and who find a freer approach to these matters more beneficial need those of the other mindset to remind them not to fall into slovenliness. There is a danger of going to either extreme. More shameless self-promotion, (although I promise that it is pertinent, at least to this tangent).
[ 25. June 2010, 14:54: Message edited by: Michael Astley ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
mousetheif - if I may ask a question
You seem to be happy to call God 'She' and yet dislike the idea of women priests.
I read mousethief as being concerned to defend/explain his membership of a church that does not ordain women, rather than saying that he personally dislikes the idea of women priests. There's a difference.
Indeed I have explicitly said the opposite. The idea of women priests taken in vacuo doesn't bother me at all. When I was an Episcopalian, I had no problem at all receiving communion from a priest who was a woman, and indeed she was one of my closest friends. Women in the priesthood didn't drive me into Orthodoxy; the lack thereof in Orthodoxy was a hurdle to be overcome.
I didn't become Orthodox because it reaffirmed my prejudices and pandered to my desires. I became Orthodox because I came to honestly believe it to be the true repository of the apostolic witness. (More could be said here, to clarify and especially to refine, but that's a subject for another thread.)
So your question, Boogie, is both harsh and inaccurate.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
No intention to be harsh - sorry.
So you agree with the idea of women priests but accept that your Church doesn't?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
Not quite. I accept my church's teaching, but don't necessarily understand it (but I'm not required to), and wouldn't care if it taught the opposite. Like I said, my attitude toward women priests in vacuo is that I have no problem with it. But I'm not in vacuo, I'm in ecclesius Orthodoxus (or something
).
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