Thread: Titanic struggle for the soul of the Catholic church Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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Looking ahead to next year, The Guardian offers this prognostication in "Religion": quote:
The big global religious story will be the continuation of last year’s titanic struggle for the soul of the Catholic church between Pope Francis and the Vatican. I don’t know where you should put your bets
finishing up the paragraph with: quote:
Whichever way the decision goes this time, the losing side will be convinced that the winners have betrayed the gospel. Andrew Brown
Andrew Brown seems to be a relatively sensible observer of church and religion. Is this particular offering likely?
That last line sounds as if it would describe almost any church spat. Certainly works for the Anglicans in the UK and the evangelicals in the US.
[ 28. December 2014, 00:24: Message edited by: Horseman Bree ]
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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Or maybe they're both the problem, the Curia of Trent and the ultramontane papacy of Vatican I. Before then Rome was perhaps redeemable, but since then it's probably too far gone.
[ 28. December 2014, 00:53: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
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quote:
Whichever way the decision goes this time, the losing side will be convinced that the winners have betrayed the gospel. Andrew Brown
So, we're all baptists now?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Andrew Brown seems to be a relatively sensible observer of church and religion. Is this particular offering likely?
Frankly, I expect that the "liberal" side has already put their best foot forward in the first round. They set up a totally biased organisation, (pre-)wrote summaries that summarised their opinions rather than the actual discussion, and tried to rush the event to a finish under the veil of unheard of secrecy. They basically tried to blitz the "conservatives". That will not be possible in the next round. I bet that instead of an even bigger showdown we will get a pre-negotiated "de facto annulment on demand" sold as pastoral streamlining of the current judicial process. That will save face for the conservatives, obey the letter of RC doctrine - though certainly not its spirit - and allow the liberals to further slide down the slippery slope to Protestant heresy and secular oblivion.
As for Pope Francis, if you ask me: "Pensionato subito!"
("Pensioner at once!" patterned after the "Santo subito!" - "Saint at once!" - cries at JPII's death...)
Posted by Rossweisse (# 2349) on
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I find the fact that the "liberal" side actually got a word in edgewise most refreshing. Having met the remarkably unpastoral Raymond Burke (Worst.Handshake.Ever.) several times, spoken to many who experienced him in concentrated form, and having been personally gazed upon by the dead-mullet eyes, I know that it took considerable doing.
My semi-serious concern is that Pope Francis might actually be in the kind of danger that John Paul I was rumored to have suffered. No, I'm not suggesting that Our Raymond might be capable of that, but the Vatican is being shaken up in a big way; privileges are being removed. The powerful tend not to like that.
At any rate, the annulment racket is a horrible thing that makes a mockery of the system and causes a lot of pain for the innocent. It's past time that it was cleaned up in favor of reality.
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
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Rossweisse--
Yes, I like Francis very much, and I've been worried about his safety for a long time.
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on
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IngoB, do you actually think there is any potential or need for discussion and a change in the Church's approach to Dead Horses from a conservative perspective? I ask this because I get the impression from friends of mine who hold similarly conservative Catholic views that there is not.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
Rossweisse--
Yes, I like Francis very much, and I've been worried about his safety for a long time.
Don't worry. I'm laying money on him being the first person to be made a saint whilst still alive. Being Pope of Rome nowadays is an automatic path to sainthood.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Macrina:
IngoB, do you actually think there is any potential or need for discussion and a change in the Church's approach to Dead Horses from a conservative perspective? I ask this because I get the impression from friends of mine who hold similarly conservative Catholic views that there is not.
I'm not quite sure what you are asking there... Is there a need to change doctrine? Nope, of course not. Is there a need to change the practice of annulment? Certainly. There shouldn't be more than perhaps a few hundred "ordinary process" annulments happening in the entire world per year. (So I'm not talking about "administrative" cases: defect of form, below legal age, and other things like that - though certainly the number of those should be pushed down as much as possible as well.) I'm not quite sure what exactly our beloved bishops are blaming for vast parts of the laity apparently being so confused about RC marriage as to have theirs invalidated (>99% of all "ordinary process" annulments in the USA are due to supposed "defect of consent"). But what I say to those bishops is this: 1. Bullshit! These are just convenient lies. Stop telling them to yourself and to others. "Not knowing" and "not giving a shit" are not the same thing. 2. Given the massive backlog of questionable marriages that were created under your watch (I use the term very loosely), (a) repent in sackcloth and ashes, for it is your responsibility to guard the sacraments and the doctrine, and to guide your flock; and (b) come down like bloody ton of bricks on each and every abuse and delusion of the faith that has led to this utterly untenable situation. And I mean right now, and with no further fudging, and if people feel that they have to leave over this then bloody well have them leave. Yes, it is messy and it hurts to lance a putrid, festering wound. But you let it get to this point, so you deal with it!
But no, instead we will just fast-track the abuse and delusion, so we can pretend that all is well because we are faster at sweeping dirt under the rug than at producing it. Brilliant.
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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IngoB, I realise you won't see these as a dichotomy, but if you were a bishop, which would comes first, protecting the purity of the sacraments or keeping alive the flickering faith of the sometimes rather less pure faithful?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
IngoB, I realise you won't see these as a dichotomy, but if you were a bishop, which would comes first, protecting the purity of the sacraments or keeping alive the flickering faith of the sometimes rather less pure faithful?
The case we are discussing is an excellent demonstration that contra to soppy sentimentality it is the former, not pastoral fudging to achieve the latter, which in the long run keeps alive the faith. First draw clear lines in the sand, then accommodate all you want on the right side of them. If that's not enough to make some people happy, then they will just have to carry their cross.
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Macrina:
IngoB, do you actually think there is any potential or need for discussion and a change in the Church's approach to Dead Horses from a conservative perspective? I ask this because I get the impression from friends of mine who hold similarly conservative Catholic views that there is not.
I'm not quite sure what you are asking there... Is there a need to change doctrine? Nope, of course not. Is there a need to change the practice of annulment? Certainly. There shouldn't be more than perhaps a few hundred "ordinary process" annulments happening in the entire world per year.
That answers my question thank you. I was seeking to understand the discussion that Conservatives wish to have with the liberal elements in the Church. I'm not sure that I'll ever share your position but it clarifies it somewhat for an outsider looking in.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Macrina:
That answers my question thank you. I was seeking to understand the discussion that Conservatives wish to have with the liberal elements in the Church. I'm not sure that I'll ever share your position but it clarifies it somewhat for an outsider looking in.
Mind you, I haven't exactly been elected the spokesman of Catholic conservatives just because I'm vociferous on SoF... I really would be more in the traditional than conservative camp, except that I'm not as deeply concerned with the liturgy and find that many trads I meet (virtually and in real life) are too ... well, sour-faced and cramped up. In my opinion the following by Hilaire Belloc must be true for you if you really want to be a traditional Catholic:
"Wherever the Catholic sun doth shine,
There’s always laughter and good red wine.
At least I’ve always found it so.
Benedicamus Domino!"
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on
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I don't know what the current practice is, but I'm assuming that annulments cannot be granted for those who are currently in abusive relationships, those who have been subjected to marital rape, unfaithfulness and cases of marriage of convenience (which admittedly could cover a heck of a lot); but rather annulments are only currently carried out in cases very soon after the marriage has taken place and with sworn statements about the lack of consummation? Is this where it currently sits?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
Is this where it currently sits?
IANACL & IANAP. So with a grain of salt: a marriage cannot be annulled just because it is abusive. Annulment is a judgement that a marriage was never contracted in the first place, not a judgement that the marriage has failed by some criterion, or that the spouses really don't want to continue with it. (It is of course allowed by RC canon law to physically separate, and indeed to civilly divorce, in the case of abuse. One does not have to suffer abuse in the name of marriage. However, this separation does not dissolve the marriage bond, only death can.)
Now, I guess it is possible that some canon lawyer will try to use the later abuse to show that at the time of marriage insufficient consent to the principles of Catholic marriage was present in the offending spouse. And if this insufficient consent is demonstrated, then indeed the marriage can be annulled, because it was never properly contracted in the first place. But it is just this sort of thing that I called a "convenient lie" above, and which has swelled the number of annulments a hundredfold.
In reality, that I piss all over a contract now does not at all demonstrate that I never understood the terms of the contract when I signed it. In fact, even if I signed a contract when it was to be expected by all (including myself) that I would likely break it, that should not generally make the contract void. It might have been terribly unwise then that this contract was signed under those circumstances, but that's different to saying that it didn't really happen. And as far as being informed about the terms is concerned, again one cannot just arbitrarily raise the bar on this. If I sign a contract, it is not expected that the very terms of this contract correspond to the deepest philosophy of my life that I wouldn't abolish even under the threat of death. It is sufficient that I have a basic grasp of the concepts being used, so that one can say that I knew what I was doing intellectually. Again, if I sign a contract without thinking things through and carefully investigating whether I truly agree with all the terms, then that might be highly imprudent of me. But if I knew enough (and more information was freely available, and I wasn't pressured into action), then my signature stands.
In my opinion we have to avoid this kind of circular judicial nonsense where only the functional, happy marriages end up being deemed indissoluble, whereas all the unwise, imprudent marriages, and/or those that are dysfunctional and unhappy, are being deemed non-existent and dispensable. This is attempting a judicial end run around human fallibility, and declares pointlessly that that which is not being put into liquid is indissoluble. The very point of saying that something is indissoluble is of course that when one tries to dissolve it, then it still doesn't. It is precisely under the acid test of human misfortune that indissolubility is a meaningful statement. We do not need to make claims about that which is not being tested to the breaking point anyhow.
But we have to pussyfoot around this endlessly because modernity cannot allow anybody any longer to risk their lives on something. But that's what RC marriage is, it is "marriage or bust". And yes, the natural reaction to this is recorded in the scriptures, from no lesser authorities than the apostles. Still, it is what it is. If you don't like it, become an eunuch for the kingdom, and you will have done even better.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
First draw clear lines in the sand, then accommodate all you want on the right side of them.
That expression - lines in the sand - carries an implication of arbitrariness. Doesn't much matter if you draw the line here or there - it's just a boundary for the sake of having a boundary.
And I put it to you that that desire for clear boundaries, clear rules, is a north European cultural thing. Alles in Ordnung - everything in order.
Whereas good red wine is a south European product...
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
First draw clear lines in the sand, then accommodate all you want on the right side of them.
That expression - lines in the sand - carries an implication of arbitrariness. Doesn't much matter if you draw the line here or there - it's just a boundary for the sake of having a boundary.
And I put it to you that that desire for clear boundaries, clear rules, is a north European cultural thing. Alles in Ordnung - everything in order.
Whereas good red wine is a south European product...
Best wishes,
Russ
Hang on. How is that arbitrary? The line in the sand is what one happens to believe, in the case of this thread what the RC has traditionally believed. If one happens to be on the srong side it's because they don't believe the same thing. I don't see how that's arbitrary.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
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There is no risk to Francis any more than there was to JPI. I.e. none apart from the whack-job risk realized in JPII.
IngoB will get his wish, Francis doesn't have long and his successors will copy his style and even substance. People like me will continue to be impressed while nothing else changes for a thousand years.
The arc of the moral universe is very, very long indeed.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
That expression - lines in the sand - carries an implication of arbitrariness. Doesn't much matter if you draw the line here or there - it's just a boundary for the sake of having a boundary.
Then you are using it wrongly. It actually means to establish a condition or principle (the line) which cannot be broken (stepped over) without facing serious consequences. It is hence generally the opposite of "arbitrary", and rather indicates the point from which on someone will consider further accommodations and negotiations impossible. This usage is historical (wait past the US bit, it is actually a Roman expression). It is consequently a slur to say that someone is arbitrarily drawing lines into the sand, because it basically means that someone has no principles and merely threatens for the sake of bullying. Not that you would be particularly worried about claiming that, I guess...
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
And I put it to you that that desire for clear boundaries, clear rules, is a north European cultural thing. Alles in Ordnung - everything in order. Whereas good red wine is a south European product...
This is merely an ad hominem - yes, thanks, I do know that I am German and no, sorry, the Catholic doctrinal and dogmatic system did not primarily develop under Northern European oversight. But as it happens, both Belloc and I - as Northern Europeans - were playing with these cultural stereotypes to make a point.
Posted by Gramps49 (# 16378) on
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Speaking as a Lutheran I find the Roman Church is at a crossroads. It can continue to be so rigid that it becomes obsolete; or it can become so loose it can run into secular oblivion as pointed out above.
Personally, I think there is a third way--staying true to the gospel while removing obstacles to the reception of the gospel. The discourse about annulments is a good example. Of course, this gets into the discussion of whether marriage is a sacrament or not.
I actually see the Roman Church now having to come to terms with what Luther raised over 500 years ago.
I find the Pope quite refreshing. He just may bring about a great reformation within the Roman church.
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
IngoB, I realise you won't see these as a dichotomy, but if you were a bishop, which would comes first, protecting the purity of the sacraments or keeping alive the flickering faith of the sometimes rather less pure faithful?
The case we are discussing is an excellent demonstration that contra to soppy sentimentality it is the former, not pastoral fudging to achieve the latter, which in the long run keeps alive the faith. First draw clear lines in the sand, then accommodate all you want on the right side of them. If that's not enough to make some people happy, then they will just have to carry their cross.
IngoB,
Can you justify that with reference to the Gospels?
What is the point of keeping the sacraments pure in an empty church?
Posted by Holy Smoke (# 14866) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
That expression - lines in the sand - carries an implication of arbitrariness. Doesn't much matter if you draw the line here or there - it's just a boundary for the sake of having a boundary.
Then you are using it wrongly. It actually means to establish a condition or principle (the line) which cannot be broken (stepped over) without facing serious consequences...
The serious consequences would be to the Roman Catholic Church as an institution, would they not, since breaking the boundaries would weaken the church's authority, and peoples' respect for that authority - if the church could go 'soft' on this matter of principle, then what matters of principle can it uphold?
In fact, it would have the effect not only of 'cheapening' marriage as a sacrament, but of cheapening the eucharist, by lowering the bar of entry to the sacrament, so basically, the Church would lost out both ways.
[ 28. December 2014, 19:05: Message edited by: Holy Smoke ]
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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Going back to the OP after this tangent on annulment, is there a reasonable chance that the present Pope can make any significant change in the attitude of the Curia?
Whatever the theological points you can waste time on as you debate, there is no question that there is a problem in the hierarchy, almost the same as the one that drove Luther 500 years ago - the problem of the pomp, fancy clothes and ornate buildings making the hierarchy uninterested in the world they live in and have influence on. All the pages IngoB can write are very interesting, but do not address the rot at the center.
Financial misdoing, avoidance of responsibility, attempting to hide misdeeds - all these are strictly opposed to the Message of Jesus. Is there any hope that the ponderous mass of the Curia can avoid the iceberg that is going to pull the rivets from the hull-plating and sink the unsinkable?
The priests and nuns trying to do their best out IRL are not being supported by their managers. How long, in this time of reveal-all, before the whole structure lists?
Annulments and divorces are only a symptom, not a root problem. Much of the "gay" problem would be reduced if simple pastoral care were allowed, whether or not those gays were to be allowed to approach the altar.
Is there a solution to the root problem?
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Going back to the OP after this tangent on annulment, is there a reasonable chance that the present Pope can make any significant change in the attitude of the Curia?
Whatever the theological points you can waste time on as you debate, there is no question that there is a problem in the hierarchy, almost the same as the one that drove Luther 500 years ago - the problem of the pomp, fancy clothes and ornate buildings making the hierarchy uninterested in the world they live in and have influence on. All the pages IngoB can write are very interesting, but do not address the rot at the center.
Financial misdoing, avoidance of responsibility, attempting to hide misdeeds - all these are strictly opposed to the Message of Jesus. Is there any hope that the ponderous mass of the Curia can avoid the iceberg that is going to pull the rivets from the hull-plating and sink the unsinkable?
The priests and nuns trying to do their best out IRL are not being supported by their managers. How long, in this time of reveal-all, before the whole structure lists?
Annulments and divorces are only a symptom, not a root problem. Much of the "gay" problem would be reduced if simple pastoral care were allowed, whether or not those gays were to be allowed to approach the altar.
Is there a solution to the root problem?
Denounce Trent and Vatican I. Before then Rome was still. Before then Rome was still redeemable.
Posted by Gramps49 (# 16378) on
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Holy Smoke, don't look now; but in the Western World the people's respect for the authority of Rome has all but disappeared. In Latin America the continent is fast becoming Protestent. The Roman church no longer speaks to them.
The Church does not stand or fall on whether marriage is a sacrament. It stands on the testimony of the Resurrection of Christ. It is through that prism all things stand or fall. If a current practice takes the people's eyes off the Resurrection, why not relegate it to history?
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Holy Smoke, don't look now; but in the Western World the people's respect for the authority of Rome has all but disappeared. In Latin America the continent is fast becoming Protestent. The Roman church no longer speaks to them.
The Church does not stand or fall on whether marriage is a sacrament. It stands on the testimony of the Resurrection of Christ. It is through that prism all things stand or fall. If a current practice takes the people's eyes off the Resurrection, why not relegate it to history?
2 reasons, really. The charitable one is that they genuinely believe what they're saying to be true. The second, more prosaic, reason is that admitting that this teaching can change puts up for debate a lot of things the RCC isn't willing to risk, most of all its own claims to authoritative teaching. They've balanced the authority of the church precariously on far too many teachings, particularly on social issues, that don't stand up to scrutiny. It worked for a time as a means of backing up their decisions, but now the teachings have become so obviously detrimental they cannot let them go without the whole edifice crashing down.
Posted by Pancho (# 13533) on
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If someone is sincere in learning about the goings-on at the Vatican from a trustworthy source then why is he reading Andrew Brown when he could spend his time much more profitably by reading journalists like John Allen, Rocco Palmo, and Sandro Magister instead?
Instead of the link in the OP, read this:
quote:
In a media environment in which everything the pope says and does is a sensation, we have the opposite problem — a surfeit of bogus or minor stories treated as big news, aided and abetted by a news cycle in which no one seems to have time for fact-checking.
In that spirit, here’s a rundown of my picks for the Top 5 “Over-Covered Vatican Stories of the Year.”...
The rest is here: The Top 5 Over Covered Vatican News Stories of 2014.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Holy Smoke, don't look now; but in the Western World the people's respect for the authority of Rome has all but disappeared. In Latin America the continent is fast becoming Protestent. The Roman church no longer speaks to them.
The Church does not stand or fall on whether marriage is a sacrament. It stands on the testimony of the Resurrection of Christ. It is through that prism all things stand or fall. If a current practice takes the people's eyes off the Resurrection, why not relegate it to history?
2 reasons, really. The charitable one is that they genuinely believe what they're saying to be true. The second, more prosaic, reason is that admitting that this teaching can change puts up for debate a lot of things the RCC isn't willing to risk, most of all its own claims to authoritative teaching. They've balanced the authority of the church precariously on far too many teachings, particularly on social issues, that don't stand up to scrutiny. It worked for a time as a means of backing up their decisions, but now the teachings have become so obviously detrimental they cannot let them go without the whole edifice crashing down.
To be fair to the RC, only in the eyes of secular society, which as it happens is indistinguishable from most of modern Christianity whose guide is the spirit of the age.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
To be fair to the RC, only in the eyes of secular society, which as it happens is indistinguishable from most of modern Christianity whose guide is the spirit of the age.
You seem to be defining secular society to be everyone except the hierarchy of the RCC. Even your own Orthodox tradition allows for divorce in certain circumstances.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Holy Smoke, don't look now; but in the Western World the people's respect for the authority of Rome has all but disappeared.
Actually, people's respect for Rome has taken an tiny upswing with the election of Pope Francis. Whether it'll continue its trajectory depends on a lot of factors, not least of which will be the ability of the Pope to speak over the heads of the Curia and address the ordinary Catholics in the streets and favelas.
I should really start praying for the man.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
To be fair to the RC, only in the eyes of secular society, which as it happens is indistinguishable from most of modern Christianity whose guide is the spirit of the age.
You seem to be defining secular society to be everyone except the hierarchy of the RCC. Even your own Orthodox tradition allows for divorce in certain circumstances.
But the Christ allows for divorce under circumstances. The Church, whatever or whoever one believes it to be, has to engage with modernity (otherwise how is the Church expected to spread the Gospel?) but in the process it cannot, must not, conform to it. Unfortunately that is exactly what most modern Christians have done.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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Ad Orientem: quote:
Denounce Trent and Vatican I. Before then Rome was still. Before then Rome was still redeemable.
So Rome was "still redeemable" before that pesky Luther pointed out that the Emperor (and the Pope) had no clothes. But the point is that neither Trent nor Vatican 1 dealt with the issues that were at hand, just as IngoB and others demand now.
We could still have the joy of men in skirts praising the auto-da-fe as a means of delivering sinners a bit early for God's judgment, the threat of the Pope actually financing armies to spread his power structure, and the rejection of all science and most art from the last 500 years, all in order to say that Church always is right, even when it is wrong.
Congratulations. I hope you enjoy the stake, because there would be nothing to protect you from any accusation whatsoever. The Church then had as little to do with treating people as "equals in the sight of God" as the Curia does now. I guess some people haven't learned much from the last 500 years, except to bewail the vanished Golden Time that never was.
Oh, and for those who think that the Church has earned the right to moral persuasion, try the report that points out that 0% of British RCs look to religious leaders for guidance in decision-making: report from last year.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
But the Christ allows for divorce under circumstances. The Church, whatever or whoever one believes it to be, has to engage with modernity (otherwise how is the Church expected to spread the Gospel?) but in the process it cannot, must not, conform to it. Unfortunately that is exactly what most modern Christians have done.
That's not the case. Most (if not all) Christians I know expect fidelity in marriage, chastity prior to marriage and consider divorce to be undesirable but sometimes a necessary last resort. Modern society expects promiscuity before marriage, has a very broad definition of fidelity when it has one at all (and accepts any number of excuses where it is lacking) and prefers divorce to working to save a marriage. In other words the Christians I know seek to respond in accordance with the value's Christ taught to the changes in the world, asking "what would Christ's response to this look like?" It IS fraught with the risk of conforming to the world, but fear of that should not lead us to commit the opposite error, of clinging to the spirit of the previous age as if the public morality of the 1930s (or indeed the 930s) was exactly in accord with Christianity, or turning Christ's message of love into a rulebook the Pharisees would have been proud of.
Posted by Gramps49 (# 16378) on
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In point of fact, the Roman church has changed a number of teachings when it finds its previous doctrine is no longer tenable. Three examples: it used to teach the earth was the center of the universe--no longer (it has also embraced the scientific method long ago). It used to allow for slavery--again no longer. And it used to ban usuary, now it allows for reasonable loan rates.
Technically speaking, while Augustine talked about the marriage as a sacrament, it did not officially become a sacrament until 1184 in the Council of Veronica. Even then, it is not at the same level as Baptism, Confirmation, or the Eucharist. That did not happen until 1215 in the Fourth Lateran Council. So, for much of the Roman Church's life marriage was actually no more than a social contract in which two parties agree to the marriage.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
As I understand it there are certain things the RCC has nailed colours to the mast over (e.g. women priests) and others where it has made clear it is a discipline of the church and not doctrinal (e.g. married priests). Additionally, unless I've misunderstood, when marriage was declared to be a sacrament it was considered to have always been a sacrament, it was just only now being formally recognised, just as the recognition of a saint would not mean that person only entered heaven at the time of recognition.
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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I've asked this question before, and nobody has ever produced a convincing answer.
Why does it matter whether we classify marriage as a sacrament or not? Whether we say that marriage is a sacrament or whether we don't, why does that have any bearing whatsoever on whether we say a marriage CANNOT be dissolved (RC teaching) or SHOULD NOT be dissolved (everybody else's teaching)?
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Ad Orientem: quote:
Denounce Trent and Vatican I. Before then Rome was still. Before then Rome was still redeemable.
So Rome was "still redeemable" before that pesky Luther pointed out that the Emperor (and the Pope) had no clothes. But the point is that neither Trent nor Vatican 1 dealt with the issues that were at hand, just as IngoB and others demand now.
We could still have the joy of men in skirts praising the auto-da-fe as a means of delivering sinners a bit early for God's judgment, the threat of the Pope actually financing armies to spread his power structure, and the rejection of all science and most art from the last 500 years, all in order to say that Church always is right, even when it is wrong.
Congratulations. I hope you enjoy the stake, because there would be nothing to protect you from any accusation whatsoever. The Church then had as little to do with treating people as "equals in the sight of God" as the Curia does now. I guess some people haven't learned much from the last 500 years, except to bewail the vanished Golden Time that never was.
Oh, and for those who think that the Church has earned the right to moral persuasion, try the report that points out that 0% of British RCs look to religious leaders for guidance in decision-making: report from last year.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
I presume the RCC considers that sacraments, requiring the action of God, cannot be reversed. You cannot unbaptise or unconfirm or unordain or unabsolve or unanoint someone, you cannot deconsecrate the Eucharistic elements (whereas many Protestants would consider them no longer important once the service is over). Presumably, therefore, you cannot unmarry someone. To me it seems far too mechanical for a God of compassion and miracles.
Posted by Doublethink. (# 1984) on
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You do not stop being someone's biological child, but adoption is possible.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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I was present at a conference where Metropolitan Kallistos Ware and other Orthodox delegates were broadly welcoming of what looked set to be an impending relaxation on the RCC approach to this issue.
There was strong disagreement from some of the RC delegates present and a robust discussion ensued.
I have to say, I was impressed by the quality and conduct of the debate on both sides.
In conversation with some of the RC priests afterwards, they told me that they thought Bishop Kallistos's position was 'weak' - despite their overall admiration and respect for him as an individual and for his Church as a whole.
Perhaps my spiritual DNA puts me in an invidious 'via media'position, but it did strike me that there was equal scope for relaxation in some areas and for greater definition and clarity in some areas - on both sides.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
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@Arethosemyfeet - as far as I understand it, the Orthodox were arguing that each case should be judged on its own merits, that 'ekkonomeia' should apply and that whilst there are good grounds for tolerance and grace - there are 'limits' - as it were.
Consequently, the Orthodox Church will countenance up to three successive marriages - but if you come back for a fourth they'll take a pretty dim view ... In a Lady Bracknell kind of way, "To have three 'failed' marriages for whatever reason is unfortunate ... to enter a fourth implies carelessness ..."
Whatever the case, they seem able to combine a 'high' view of marriage as a sacrament with the understanding that these things don't always work out in practice and that, for whatever reason, some marriages will fail.
The RCs at the conference I mentioned were keen to stress the damage that divorce does to children caught up in them - and that was acknowledged by the Orthodox - who equally put forward instances where they believed that the parents staying together would have inflicted more damage on the child ...
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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Whoever would think that practical concerns carried any weight when there was a matter of "principle" involved. Having "principles" allows one to totally ignore any collateral damage whatsoever, sort like destroying Vietnamese villages in order to "save" them.
Actually, come to think of it, the Vietnamese villages were in exactly the same position as most of those people who were burned at the stake: People in power decided that mere human lives were just a matter of policy informed by rigid thinking. This didn't do much for the reputation of either the US or the Vatican.
Let's see: false war in Iraq or false war on divorce? Both kill people for reasons of "principle" without any concern for humans.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
I daresay if we wait long enough we'll have a Hitler reference soon ... if we haven't had one already.
I can only speak as I find, and for all the strong feelings on either side of this one, what I found at the conference I attended was debate that was both robust and respectful at the same time.
Not that this issue was the actual theme of the conference as such, but it did come up -- and on neither side did I pick up a sense of, 'This is the party-line and we're sticking to it whatever collateral damage it causes ...'
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
I daresay if we wait long enough we'll have a Hitler reference soon ... if we haven't had one already.
Perhaps, but not from Horseman Bree - because Hitler wasn't American.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
What is the point of keeping the sacraments pure in an empty church?
Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be. An empty Church can fill again, but no human power can resurrect a Church that has died.
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Much of the "gay" problem would be reduced if simple pastoral care were allowed, whether or not those gays were to be allowed to approach the altar.
I won't bother with your spewing of prejudice and trash-talking. But this is mildly interesting. What precisely did you have in mind there that is supposedly being denied now?
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
In Latin America the continent is fast becoming Protestent. The Roman church no longer speaks to them.
True enough. Problem is that Protestantism is just a half-way house to secularism and post-Christianity. And unlike in Europe, where it took centuries for this development, in South America all this will happen way faster.
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Three examples: it used to teach the earth was the center of the universe--no longer (it has also embraced the scientific method long ago). It used to allow for slavery--again no longer. And it used to ban usuary, now it allows for reasonable loan rates.
All of these claims are wrong. Geocentrism was never an official doctrine of the Church in spite of what happened to Galileo (and the usual way this affair is recounted is very one-sided), and the Church was one of the greatest supporters of scientific development. There is a very long history of the opposition of the RCC to slavery (though yes, not at the level modern standards would require). And usury remains a mortal sin. This gives me the opportunity to link to Zippy Catholic's usury FAQ, which I find enlightening on the subject.
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
So, for much of the Roman Church's life marriage was actually no more than a social contract in which two parties agree to the marriage.
This is a complete misunderstanding. The sacrament is the contract, and it didn't need declaring to become one. As usual, the Church was defending ancient practice by these declarations. Sacramental marriage rites are well documented from the early Church in both East and West.
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Why does it matter whether we classify marriage as a sacrament or not? Whether we say that marriage is a sacrament or whether we don't, why does that have any bearing whatsoever on whether we say a marriage CANNOT be dissolved (RC teaching) or SHOULD NOT be dissolved (everybody else's teaching)?
Marriage is as ancient as humanity, and does not require the Church as such. Saying that marriage has been raised to a sacrament by the Lord is shorthand for saying that Christians are not free to avail themselves of "natural" marriages, but rather are bound to the teachings of Christ in this matter, and have to live by the rules He reinstated for His faithful. It is however correct that saying "sacrament" does not as such mean "indissoluble", this rather follows from the actual teachings.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Ad Orientem: quote:
Denounce Trent and Vatican I. Before then Rome was still. Before then Rome was still redeemable.
So Rome was "still redeemable" before that pesky Luther pointed out that the Emperor (and the Pope) had no clothes. But the point is that neither Trent nor Vatican 1 dealt with the issues that were at hand, just as IngoB and others demand now.
We could still have the joy of men in skirts praising the auto-da-fe as a means of delivering sinners a bit early for God's judgment, the threat of the Pope actually financing armies to spread his power structure, and the rejection of all science and most art from the last 500 years, all in order to say that Church always is right, even when it is wrong.
Congratulations. I hope you enjoy the stake, because there would be nothing to protect you from any accusation whatsoever. The Church then had as little to do with treating people as "equals in the sight of God" as the Curia does now. I guess some people haven't learned much from the last 500 years, except to bewail the vanished Golden Time that never was.
Oh, and for those who think that the Church has earned the right to moral persuasion, try the report that points out that 0% of British RCs look to religious leaders for guidance in decision-making: report from last year.
Redeemable in that they still hadn't set their worst errors in stone. Trent and Vatican I (and Vatican II is merely a symptom of both) did that though and are irreversible (at least in the eyes of Rome) except that the Holy Spirit should bring Rome to repentance and that it confess the orthodox faith.
As for Luther and the Reformation in general, it might well have been inevitable but, lacking a proper model (for the East was but a long lost memory in the mind of the West) what followed was also inevitable: protestantism => rationalism => atheism.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
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Odd (but probably inevitable) that in a thread on the struggle for the soul of the Catholic church, the blame is squarely placed at the feet of those rascally Protestants.
I never knew we had such power to bring such an august and perpetual institution to its knees...
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
As for Luther and the Reformation in general, it might well have been inevitable but, lacking a proper model (for the East was but a long lost memory in the mind of the West) what followed was also inevitable: protestantism => rationalism => atheism.
No, I'm pretty sure the reformers were well aware of the East, that's why the 39 articles feel the need to point out that the church in the east has erred as well as Rome. I also seem to recall that the non-juring Bishops approached the Orthodox with a view to pursuing unity in the 18th century but were rebuffed once the Orthodox realised they wouldn't get the whole CofE and CofS this way.
It's interesting to speculate what might have happened had the intended reunion come about.
[ 29. December 2014, 15:57: Message edited by: Arethosemyfeet ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
It's a bit more complicated than that, Arethosemyfeet ...
The Reformers were certainly aware of the East and intially some of them thought they'd find an ally in those quarters ... here were Christians who weren't under Papal jurisdiction ...
There was some fascinating correspondence between Melanchthon and the Ecumenical Patriarch which gradually fizzled out with the Patriarch asking the 'learned Germans' not to write again other than to send peaceful greetings ...
A polite way of telling them to ....
King Charles I had diplomatic relations with the Patriarch and I've read an account of a religious debate he is said to have had with the RC Marquis of Worcester at Raglan Castle (in the aftermath of Naseby) written by Worcester's chaplain (who later became RC himself). The King is keen to cite the Orthodox against Rome until the Marquis points out that the Orthodox go in for iconography and the veneration of relics and so on, and the invocation of Mary and the Saints just as much as the RCs did ...
I think what Ad Orientem means is that Orthodox practice and belief was largely forgotten in the West - not that the West had forgotten that the Orthodox existed ...
There are also some fascinating accounts of the dialogue between the Non-Jurors (and others) with the Orthodox in the early 18th century. Both sides depart shaking their heads, 'This lot are no better than the Papists ...' / 'This lot are no better than the Lutherans ...'
You're right that the Orthodox expected the CofE and CofS to simply roll over and accept their authority and become fully Orthodox.
I don't think they've changed their tune on that one ...
But what struck me, when reading the accounts, was how surprised some of the Anglicans were to find that the Orthodox were into relics, icons and the invocation of Mary and the Saints. It's as if they weren't expecting this at all ... as if they were expecting them to be Protestants of some kind simply because they weren't under the jurisdiction of Rome.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
IngoB: quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Much of the "gay" problem would be reduced if simple pastoral care were allowed, whether or not those gays were to be allowed to approach the altar.
I won't bother with your spewing of prejudice and trash-talking. But this is mildly interesting. What precisely did you have in mind there that is supposedly being denied now?
Well, for starters, stop proclaiming that people who are, after all, made "in the image of God" like everyone else, are unredeemable sinners, that they are a danger and a source of sickness to those who come in contact with them, and that they are responsible for the collapse of our society, which is what we hear coming from too many in the hierarchy.
Gays are simply people, not symbols of discord and disfunction. Most parish priests are aware of this, but the published statements of too many bishops would appear to describe gays as "not-quite-human".
For instance: Stop throwing gay organists out of the church when they dare to admit in public that they are partnered. If they were good enough to touch the musical instruments of the church one day, and nothing has changed, why are they not good enough the next day?
Stop accusing teens of being irredeemably sinful, and offer them pastoral advice and care, just as you would for the rest of us. Making them scapegoats for your (generic) insecurity is not the way of the Kingdom.
Yes, there may be impediments to Communion, just as there are for many straights who are allowed to receive (but no-one says anything about THEIR sins). Be consistent.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
I for one have never heard anyone say that gays, or anyone else for that matter, are "irredeemable". As for your example of the organist, then surely their removal is for the benefit of the people, because turning a blind eye is a de facto approval and is likely to cause scandal among the people.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
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I can imagine that happening in American Protestant congregations, but not Roman ones. You'd have to go way out of your way to hear it from European Protestant pulpits. I hope.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
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There is value in discussing the issue of gays in the church, but let's keep that discussion on a different thread in DH. Surely there's enough to say about the Catholic church besides?
Gwai,
Purgatory Host
Posted by Gramps49 (# 16378) on
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Regarding the Roman Church and the Geocentric Universe, when astronomers first began postulating something different, Pope Paul IV published an encyclical entiled: Index Librorum Prohibitorum (Index of Prohibited Books) calling such thoughts heretical. This was reaffirmed by the Council of Trent with their Tridentine Index.
While Thomas Acquinas first deduced slavery was a sin--and a few saints before him forbade it, it was not officially banned until 1537 under Pope Paul III.
Even though Acquinas was enlightened in regards to slavery, he taught that the charging of any interest on any monitary loan was usury. This was the position of the church until about the mid 1500s as I understand it.
Regarding marriage--I will have to fall back on my Lutheran understanding to explain it. Luther argues that God operates through two kingdoms: the kingdom of the left (law, power, government) and the kingdom of the right (gospel, grace, church)
Luther realized that no matter what culture one was born in there was some form of marriage institution. Even the most primitive culture had it. Moreover, Luther did not find any specific words of Jesus that instituted it. Jesus does bless marriage and definitely discouraged divorce. Jesus even sights the Genesis account, but in a de facto kind or way. Luther deduced since Jesus did not institute marriage as sacrament and that it is found throughout all culture, it must be under the realm of the kingdom of the left and as such can be defined by the culture it is in.
Thus, I do not think Luther would have much problem with the US Federal Courts saying marriage is the right of all citizens, including same sex couples. He may not like the idea of same sex couples getting married (however, I think Luther would have been progressive enough to be open to it if he lived in the 21st Century).
Protestantism will not be the death of the Roman Cathoic Church. Rigidity will be the death of the Church if it cannot rediscover what is the Gospel--this includes not only the Roman church but the fundamentalist/evangelical Protestant churches as well.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
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Titanic struggle for the soul of the Catholic church? What crisis?
No cultural artefact survives four orders of magnitude of years. But some have managed three.
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I bet that instead of an even bigger showdown we will get a pre-negotiated "de facto annulment on demand" sold as pastoral streamlining of the current judicial process.
Having followed these developments over an 18 month period, it was when I realised that things were going in this direction, that I lost all respect for this process. This fig leaf will be used so that everyone can claim some victory. No Church doctrine will need to be reinterpreted, but the indissolubility of marriage will become a farce. IngoB is right IMO, that annulment should be used only in its proper context, to deal with things such as consanguinity, forced marriage, lack of consent due to mental impairment, or non consummation through inability or unwillingness. This would amount to a few hundred a year. But it's after this that Ingo and I would part company. Over what to do about the many people who would remain excluded if they couldn't "regularise" their situation to the satisfaction of the Church. I suspect he would say that it's really a case of tough shit, unless you are prepared to live a lonely, sexless life forever, with no hope. Almost like eternal hell!
I see a strong case for examining the proposals of Cardinal Walter Kasper to look at some form of penitential practice, not necessarily identical to the Orthodox Church, but that acknowledges that life isn't always as perfect as we would like. Jesus certainly forbade remarriage, but He was telling His followers to be perfect, as our Father is perfect. Yet He knew we can't be perfect, and the best we can do is to follow after perfection.
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
or turning Christ's message of love into a rulebook the Pharisees would have been proud of.
Jesus fought all through His ministry against the legalism of the religious system of His day. Purity laws which excluded so many from any hope of God's mercy. A sacrificial system which the poorest couldn't afford, which alone could allow for God's forgiveness. He assured people they were forgiven. Many divorces are accompanied by great sin, but the parties aren't always equally guilty. Examining, with a qualified priest, what part they may have played in the failure, and repenting of that sin, could be followed by a readmission to the full life of the Church. This is no more than Kasper proposed, and I agree with it.
For the Catholic Church, the only answer to this and many other human problems is to renounce sex. This applies to couples who don't want huge families. It applies to gays. It applies to anyone whose marriage fails.. This is a Manicean hangover from the dark ages. It isn't realistic and won't happen in the vast majority of cases. So yes, it is a struggle for the soul of the Catholic Church. The fudge it's coming up with, of annulment on demand, may paper over the cracks, but it's totally devoid of integrity and cheapens marriage far more than an honest admission of failure ever could.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Well, for starters, stop proclaiming that people who are, after all, made "in the image of God" like everyone else, are unredeemable sinners, that they are a danger and a source of sickness to those who come in contact with them, and that they are responsible for the collapse of our society, which is what we hear coming from too many in the hierarchy.
If this is coming from many in the hierarchy, then I'm sure you could come up with some actual examples where bishops have said that sort of thing?!
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Gays are simply people, not symbols of discord and disfunction. Most parish priests are aware of this, but the published statements of too many bishops would appear to describe gays as "not-quite-human".
Oh, I like the sound of "published statements". Go ahead then, show us some of these many documents that declare homosexuals "not-quite-human".
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
For instance: Stop throwing gay organists out of the church when they dare to admit in public that they are partnered. If they were good enough to touch the musical instruments of the church one day, and nothing has changed, why are they not good enough the next day?
Your question is very naive. Obviously, what has changed is not the person, but the knowledge about that person. Irrespective of what action might be justified, or not, the Church can act only on what she knows. Or do you expect her to divine that this person is actively gay and fire the organist as soon as such a prophecy is obtained? That will go down well with the work tribunals...
On the question whether it is justified to fire that organist, that's really a prudential judgement. Under the assumption that this person is not just living with another man as "brother and brother", but is sexually active, then they are regularly committing a mortal sin in they eyes of the Church. Employing such a person can be judged to give scandal to the faithful and hence be against the interests of the employer. Or not. Best I can see, the bishops in the USA are much keener on beating such boundaries. Anyway, in this particular case the bishops are still fighting a (losing) battle against the acceptance of "gay marriage" on equal terms with regular marriage, and indeed more generally a (losing) battle against the acceptance of gay sex as "perfectly normal". Actually employing somebody who lives out what the Church condemns might appear as an admission that the Church is not really serious. So, basically, the prudential judgement in this case will have strong political aspects.
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Stop accusing teens of being irredeemably sinful, and offer them pastoral advice and care, just as you would for the rest of us. Making them scapegoats for your (generic) insecurity is not the way of the Kingdom.
Again, where is your proof that the Church has done this? I'm not aware that the Church has ever, in two millennia of global existence, declared any human being as "irredeemably sinful".
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Yes, there may be impediments to Communion, just as there are for many straights who are allowed to receive (but no-one says anything about THEIR sins). Be consistent.
The Church is, more or less, consistent. The problem is that many sins of the straights are not undeniably apparent. One can of course guess that many (most) straights are fornicators, contraceptors, masturbators etc. For that matter, many will be tax evaders, liars, gluttons, etc. And if most straights never - or at most once in a moonshine - make use of confession, it is fair guess that this is not the case because they are so saintly as not being in danger of sinning mortally. But none of this is written in the face of the individual. The Church is in fact not in the business of spying after the sins of people, the idea is that you self-report to get healed because you want to (just as with a doctor). I would be highly unsurprised if 75% of all people going up for communion in a regular Catholic parish should remain seated. And I wouldn't be particularly shocked if that number was 90%. But in general the Church runs a "you tell, we won't ask" policy. However, that does not mean that the Church closes her eyes to publicly available information. For example, someone seeking to remarry after a divorce from a sacramental marriage is engaging in a public act, one the Church knows about. The Church cannot simply pretend to not know about this. With gays "coming out", it depends on just how public that is. But of course, where that is turned into a public affair, like in a "gay marriage", again the Church cannot pretend to not know what is common knowledge.
I will admit that there is probably a bias to overlooking certain things more strenuously than others. Interestingly though it is your "enemies", like Cardinal Burke, who try to even this out: for example, by insisting that politicians publicly supporting policies against key Catholic teaching should not be allowed communion. But this of course is the opposite of what you want, you want the same laxity for all.
Posted by Ariston (# 10894) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Again, where is your proof that the Church has done this? I'm not aware that the Church has ever, in two millennia of global existence, declared any human being as "irredeemably sinful".
How about a canonization into Hell?
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Here, play with this one. . Not quite "irredeemable", just "non-existent"
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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And, wandering along, looking for one kind of thing, I found this somewhat different one : "Can the poor receive Communion?"
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Regarding the Roman Church and the Geocentric Universe, when astronomers first began postulating something different, Pope Paul IV published an encyclical entiled: Index Librorum Prohibitorum (Index of Prohibited Books) calling such thoughts heretical. This was reaffirmed by the Council of Trent with their Tridentine Index.
This is just all sorts of wrong. The first Index was not created for Galileo or against heliocentrism, but in reaction to the rise of Protestantism (which used the medium of printed leaflets and books to spread its heresies). The Congregation of the Index did put heliocentric works on the index during the Galileo affair (and pretty much because of Galileo having defied the request of the Holy See to publicly discuss his geocentric views as hypotheses rather than established truths, which undoubtedly they were at the time). But that Congregation was not a dogmatic institution of the Church, but more something like the agency that today produces movie ratings. I agree that classing heliocentric writings as the intellectual equivalent of porn that should be kept out of general circulation was a terribly bad move of the Church. But it did not in fact establish an official doctrine on the topic.
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
While Thomas Acquinas first deduced slavery was a sin--and a few saints before him forbade it, it was not officially banned until 1537 under Pope Paul III.
That is just a completely insufficient summary of the actual history. I have already linked to a source where you could get a rather more complete view of what actually happened, if you are interested. FWIW, I consider it one of the - largely unsung - glories of the British, not the RCC, that they practically ended the Western slave trade. So I'm not at all denying that the RCC did not play the role she probably should have played. But it is simply not true that the Church was largely inactive in this matter till the 16thC. (Incidentally, the Eastern slave trade of the Muslims was 1. much larger in numbers, 2. lasted much longer, and 3. was just leaps and bounds worse in the treatment of the slave population. If you look where the West traded slaves, you see many descendants of former black African slaves. If you go to the Middle East, you see next to none. Nobody seems to ask the Muslims questions about centuries of mass genital mutilation and basically mass murder.)
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Even though Acquinas was enlightened in regards to slavery, he taught that the charging of any interest on any monitary loan was usury. This was the position of the church until about the mid 1500s as I understand it.
No, that is wrong. Please do read the information at the link I provided above. Usury is charging interest on a specific kind of loan, namely one where the borrower can be held personally responsible for the loan, as opposed to a loan which is borrowed against some thing. From the link given above: <<Today this kind of loan is called a “full recourse loan”, as contrasted to a “non recourse loan”. So usury is charging interest on a full recourse loan.>> And as it happens, the rejection of full recourse loans is to a big part that they amount to a kind of slavery, because you acquire rights over a person rather than a thing.
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Protestantism will not be the death of the Roman Cathoic Church.
Indeed. Rather, Protestantism is the death throes of the Latin rite RCC.
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Here, play with this one. . Not quite "irredeemable", just "non-existent"
You accused many RC bishops of terrible and unChristian behaviour that is spelled out in publications. And the best you have is some random dude's blog post being upset about the Synod of the Family not discussing gays?! How about you back up your claims with some actual evidence?
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
And, wandering along, looking for one kind of thing, I found this somewhat different one : "Can the poor receive Communion?"
This is unrelated to the claims I asked you to back up. Anyway, it is not the Church which stands in the way of these people marrying. The Church does not charge the poor for access to her sacraments. It is - or at least this is the claim - the social expectation that you have to throw a fiesta when you marry. That is what the poor cannot afford. Perhaps the Church could push harder to change these social constraints (and it is a RC priest raising this issue), but that is quite a different thing to saying that the Church herself disadvantages the poor.
Posted by Pancho (# 13533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ariston:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Again, where is your proof that the Church has done this? I'm not aware that the Church has ever, in two millennia of global existence, declared any human being as "irredeemably sinful".
How about a canonization into Hell?
Despite being very tired, I've plowed through some of the links from that Wikipedia page. For the "canonization into Hell" it cites a story from the Spectator about the late Robert Hughes which cites an anecdote from his book The Culture of Complaint. I don't know if Hughes cites a source for his story in his book but I haven't found this "canonization into Hell" story elsewhere. It's not in the Italian Wikipedia page for Malatesta. It's not in the Italian Wikipedia page for Pope Pius II. It's not in the English Wikipedia page for Pope Pius II. It's not in Catholic Encyclopedia article cited by English Wikipedia. It's not in the Italian online biography also cited by the Wikipedia article. The excommunication is mentioned in the different links. His burning in effigy is mentioned in a couple of places. The story of of his being "canonized into hell" isn't mentioned in any of those places.
This is odd because it's such a dramatic, lurid story that it sounds like something out of a Hammer horror film. Maybe Hughes has a source for the story, I don't know, I don't own his book so I can't tell but if it were me I would take it with a (big) grain of salt.
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Odd (but probably inevitable) that in a thread on the struggle for the soul of the Catholic church, the blame is squarely placed at the feet of those rascally Protestants.
I never knew we had such power to bring such an august and perpetual institution to its knees...
"On this rock I shall build my Church and the gates of hell will not prevail against it. Protestants, on the other hand, are going to be more tricky."
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on
:
IngoB: quote:
Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be.
Could you expand on this please? After all, while Christ did command his followers to baptise and celebrate the Eucharist, he didn't command them to take weddings, anoint the dead and so forth. He also commanded his followers to feed the hungry, clothe the naked, proclaim the arrival of the Kingdom, and many other things. Why do you feel the sacramental part of the Church is more important then any of the other things the Church does in obedience to Christ?
Posted by Ariston (# 10894) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Pancho:
quote:
Originally posted by Ariston:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Again, where is your proof that the Church has done this? I'm not aware that the Church has ever, in two millennia of global existence, declared any human being as "irredeemably sinful".
How about a canonization into Hell?
This is odd because it's such a dramatic, lurid story that it sounds like something out of a Hammer horror film. Maybe Hughes has a source for the story, I don't know, I don't own his book so I can't tell but if it were me I would take it with a (big) grain of salt.
Sadly, the descendent of Sigismondo I first heard the story from (well, him and Dante) isn't available for citation. I'll grant that it may be something that got passed down as part of family tradition from time immemorial, or at least the 14th century.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Robert Armin
I believe sacraments are seen as the means of grace, mediated through the Church.
And as C S Lewis observes, it is grace which above all distinguishes Christianity from other faiths.
So I guess the issue behind the issue is not the centrality of sacraments but different understandings of how we may experience the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ; how grace may be mediated, experienced, received.
Posted by Angloid (# 159) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
IngoB: quote:
Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be.
…. Why do you feel the sacramental part of the Church is more important then any of the other things the Church does in obedience to Christ?
I don't often feel much affinity with IngoB, and quite possibly his response will be different. But it seems to me that 'all the other things' (feeding the hungry, caring for the sick etc etc), while vitally important, are not exclusively Christian virtues. I imagine that at the last judgement we will be held to account for our lack of human compassion, much more than our lack of religious observance. Nevertheless, the Church is a specific body of people called together to hear and respond to the Word of God and celebrate Christ's presence in the Eucharist. If we don't do that, there is nothing about us that distinguishes us from our non-Christian neighbours.
It goes without saying that our religion is meant to perfect and transform our humanity, and that therefore a religion practised without evidence of human values and human compassion is probably a fraud. Being human, and being as perfectly human as we can, with God's help, is the important thing. And that means, not claiming that Christians have the monopoly in doing good works.
Posted by Holy Smoke (# 14866) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
IngoB: quote:
Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be.
Could you expand on this please? After all, while Christ did command his followers to baptise and celebrate the Eucharist, he didn't command them to take weddings, anoint the dead and so forth. He also commanded his followers to feed the hungry, clothe the naked, proclaim the arrival of the Kingdom, and many other things. Why do you feel the sacramental part of the Church is more important then any of the other things the Church does in obedience to Christ?
Because if you don't have sacraments, exclusive to the Church, then you don't need ordained priests, and you don't have a reason to demand that people attend church regularly, albeit that it is relatively recently that the Church has had to rely on intellectual persuasion alone to try to get people to attend (and is failing). The very real threat of physical violence or imprisonment, or at the least, social ostracism, is a far more effective means of evangelization than arguing theological niceties, I think.
Of course, going back to the OP, the irony of the whole situation is the presumption that people who are excluded from communion are somehow missing out, when it more than likely that the whole business of sacraments is for the benefit of the Church as an institution, rather than for the benefit of those taking part.
It is an interesting exercise to draw up a table comparing the benefits to each - one will find that the real, tangible benefits (money, loyalty, obedience, etc.) accrue to the Church, and the more shall we say intangible benefits (divine grace, salvation, forgiveness, etc.) accrue to the congregation.
[ 31. December 2014, 12:52: Message edited by: Holy Smoke ]
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Holy Smoke:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
IngoB: quote:
Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be.
Could you expand on this please? After all, while Christ did command his followers to baptise and celebrate the Eucharist, he didn't command them to take weddings, anoint the dead and so forth. He also commanded his followers to feed the hungry, clothe the naked, proclaim the arrival of the Kingdom, and many other things. Why do you feel the sacramental part of the Church is more important then any of the other things the Church does in obedience to Christ?
Because if you don't have sacraments, exclusive to the Church, then you don't need ordained priests, and you don't have a reason to demand that people attend church regularly, albeit that it is relatively recently that the Church has had to rely on intellectual persuasion alone to try to get people to attend (and is failing). The very real threat of physical violence or imprisonment, or at the least, social ostracism, is a far more effective means of evangelization than arguing theological niceties, I think.
Of course, going back to the OP, the irony of the whole situation is the presumption that people who are excluded from communion are somehow missing out, when it more than likely that the whole business of sacraments is for the benefit of the Church as an institution, rather than for the benefit of those taking part.
It is an interesting exercise to draw up a table comparing the benefits to each - one will find that the real, tangible benefits (money, loyalty, obedience, etc.) accrue to the Church, and the more shall we say intangible benefits (divine grace, salvation, forgiveness, etc.) accrue to the congregation.
That's the cynical view. The sacraments are medicine and if administered incorrectly are quite often dangerous.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
Ineffective, yes. Dangerous? Hmmm.
Posted by Holy Smoke (# 14866) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Ineffective, yes. Dangerous? Hmmm.
If one is regularly practising sacrificial giving, then the danger is minimal.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Ineffective, yes. Dangerous? Hmmm.
Yes, dangerous.
"For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh judgment to himself"
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Being kind is dangerous?
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
I think my point is that judgement isn't instantaneous. At least, I've never seen anyone die during the distribution.
(During the Introit, yes.)
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
I think my point is that judgement isn't instantaneous. At least, I've never seen anyone die during the distribution.
(During the Introit, yes.)
Hmph! Can't you see the comparison I'm making (or at least I thought it was obvious) between physical dangers of incorrectly taking physical medicine and the spiritual dangers of incorrectly taking spiritual medicine?
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin60:
Being kind is dangerous?
It is kind about taking medicine incorrectly?
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
I think my point is that judgement isn't instantaneous. At least, I've never seen anyone die during the distribution.
(During the Introit, yes.)
Hmph! Can't you see the comparison I'm making (or at least I thought it was obvious) between physical dangers of incorrectly taking physical medicine and the spiritual dangers of incorrectly taking spiritual medicine?
Well yes. But taking meds the wrong way is likely to end up with the patient ill or dead in short order. Paul loved his hyperbolic rhetoric.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
How would you judge whether someone was 'eating and drinking unworthily,' Ad Orientem?
I can understand the idea behind 'closed communion' in the RC and Orthodox sense - but what I don't 'get' is how someone who might be RC or Orthodox (and who may or may not be receiving unworthily) is, ipso facto in a less 'dangerous' position when receiving the eucharist in their particular settings than someone who is neither RC or Orthodox.
I wouldn't attempt to receive the eucharist in either an RC or Orthodox setting - out of respect for their traditions and way of doing things.
I might not like it - but I can live with it. At least with the Orthodox you get the 'antidoron' - which I've been told is 'better than nothing' ... and I've always appreciated being offered that whenever I've attended an Orthodox Liturgy.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
But taking meds the wrong way is likely to end up with the patient ill or dead in short order.
Not so. I've personally helped people recover from taking meds long term which were supposed to help them, but in the end very nearly destroyed them. I've also watched others die, who were not helped in time or who could not be helped.
People can carry on for a remarkably long period of time under the delusion - reinforced by 'experts' and people they mistakenly trust - that something is helping, when in fact it is actually slowly poisoning them to death.
Or worse, tearing apart their very being. There are fates worse than death.
[ 31. December 2014, 16:05: Message edited by: zippycatholic ]
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
How would you judge whether someone was 'eating and drinking unworthily,' Ad Orientem?
Each person has to examine their own conscience. That is what we have confession for. The priest is not a mind reader. The responsibility therefore is primarily with the person receiving, unless the impediment to receiving the sacrament is itself public, in which case the priest also has a responsibility not to administer the sacrament, if only for the good of the would be recipient. I know I like to bring it up a lot, but think of Ambrose and Theodosius as a good example.
[ 31. December 2014, 16:15: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Well - I can see that in terms of Theodosius being called to repentance - but I don't quite so how it equates to, say, a Protestant or RC trying to receive at an Orthodox Liturgy ...
I would be a lot happier if you simply said, 'Look, as you are not officially Orthodox and haven't been formally received into the Orthodox Church we aren't in a position to administer the sacraments to you ... because we can't really do that until you have formally accepted our beliefs and joined yourself to an Orthodox jurisdiction ...'
Rather than trotting out some shtick about it being for our spiritual benefit if we don't receive ...
That simply sounds like trying to sugar the pill to me.
Ok, I can see why you say it and how it represents a very 'high' view of the sacrament - and it's a lot better than saying, 'Look, you're not Orthodox so just sod right off ...'
But it just sounds like one of these pious platitudes to me. All traditions have them. I'm sure there are RC and Protestant equivalents.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Well - I can see that in terms of Theodosius being called to repentance - but I don't quite so how it equates to, say, a Protestant or RC trying to receive at an Orthodox Liturgy ...
I would be a lot happier if you simply said, 'Look, as you are not officially Orthodox and haven't been formally received into the Orthodox Church we aren't in a position to administer the sacraments to you ... because we can't really do that until you have formally accepted our beliefs and joined yourself to an Orthodox jurisdiction ...'
Rather than trotting out some shtick about it being for our spiritual benefit if we don't receive ...
That simply sounds like trying to sugar the pill to me.
Ok, I can see why you say it and how it represents a very 'high' view of the sacrament - and it's a lot better than saying, 'Look, you're not Orthodox so just sod right off ...'
But it just sounds like one of these pious platitudes to me. All traditions have them. I'm sure there are RC and Protestant equivalents.
Now we seem to be talking at cross purposes. I wasn't talking about Protestants receiving in an Orthodox Church or RC Church, or RC's receiving in an Orthodox Church. I'm not sure how that's relevant to this discussion.
Posted by Holy Smoke (# 14866) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Well - I can see that in terms of Theodosius being called to repentance - but I don't quite so how it equates to, say, a Protestant or RC trying to receive at an Orthodox Liturgy ...
I would be a lot happier if you simply said, 'Look, as you are not officially Orthodox and haven't been formally received into the Orthodox Church we aren't in a position to administer the sacraments to you ... because we can't really do that until you have formally accepted our beliefs and joined yourself to an Orthodox jurisdiction ...'
Rather than trotting out some shtick about it being for our spiritual benefit if we don't receive ...
That simply sounds like trying to sugar the pill to me.
Ok, I can see why you say it and how it represents a very 'high' view of the sacrament - and it's a lot better than saying, 'Look, you're not Orthodox so just sod right off ...'
But it just sounds like one of these pious platitudes to me. All traditions have them. I'm sure there are RC and Protestant equivalents.
Now we seem to be talking at cross purposes. I wasn't talking about Protestants receiving in an Orthodox Church or RC Church, or RC's receiving in an Orthodox Church. I'm not sure how that's relevant to this discussion.
Yeah, we're talking about whether it is harmful to communicate while in a state of 'sin', and whether there is some objective truth in the injunction not to receive unworthily, or whether it is one more bit of ecclesiastical spin to make us do what the Church says. Nothing to do with 'closed communion', mate.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Yes, dangerous.
"For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh judgment to himself"
If you look hard at that quote you will notice that "unworthily" is an adverb. It describes a way of performing an action. It is not an adjective describing the person.
The woman who washed the feet of Jesus with her tears may not have been a worthy person, but she acted worthily.
Seems to me that the sort of person who worries about other people not being worthy of the sacraments has missed the point...
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Holy Smoke:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
quote:
Originally posted by Gamaliel:
Well - I can see that in terms of Theodosius being called to repentance - but I don't quite so how it equates to, say, a Protestant or RC trying to receive at an Orthodox Liturgy ...
I would be a lot happier if you simply said, 'Look, as you are not officially Orthodox and haven't been formally received into the Orthodox Church we aren't in a position to administer the sacraments to you ... because we can't really do that until you have formally accepted our beliefs and joined yourself to an Orthodox jurisdiction ...'
Rather than trotting out some shtick about it being for our spiritual benefit if we don't receive ...
That simply sounds like trying to sugar the pill to me.
Ok, I can see why you say it and how it represents a very 'high' view of the sacrament - and it's a lot better than saying, 'Look, you're not Orthodox so just sod right off ...'
But it just sounds like one of these pious platitudes to me. All traditions have them. I'm sure there are RC and Protestant equivalents.
Now we seem to be talking at cross purposes. I wasn't talking about Protestants receiving in an Orthodox Church or RC Church, or RC's receiving in an Orthodox Church. I'm not sure how that's relevant to this discussion.
Yeah, we're talking about whether it is harmful to communicate while in a state of 'sin', and whether there is some objective truth in the injunction not to receive unworthily, or whether it is one more bit of ecclesiastical spin to make us do what the Church says. Nothing to do with 'closed communion', mate.
And it is harmful. But then I guess it's all the same if you don't believe in sin or the efficacy of the sacraments...mate.
[ 31. December 2014, 17:17: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Holy Smoke:
If one is regularly practising sacrificial giving, then the danger is minimal.
I don't think one can 'buy' grace any more by doing lots of sacrificial giving, than by ceremonially killing animals or doing anything else performed as a religious exercise. The amount of any cost to oneself does not make something any more objectively virtuous or add to its moral virtue.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Ok, so I got the wrong end of the stick and misunderstood the thrust of the debate in these latter stages.
I was acting 'unworthily' and posting in an unworthy manner ...
Posted by Pancho (# 13533) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ariston:
quote:
Originally posted by Pancho:
quote:
Originally posted by Ariston:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Again, where is your proof that the Church has done this? I'm not aware that the Church has ever, in two millennia of global existence, declared any human being as "irredeemably sinful".
How about a canonization into Hell?
This is odd because it's such a dramatic, lurid story that it sounds like something out of a Hammer horror film. Maybe Hughes has a source for the story, I don't know, I don't own his book so I can't tell but if it were me I would take it with a (big) grain of salt.
Sadly, the descendent of Sigismondo I first heard the story from (well, him and Dante) isn't available for citation. I'll grant that it may be something that got passed down as part of family tradition from time immemorial, or at least the 14th century.
You quoted everything from before except for the part where I point out that I couldn't find that story in the notes, links and related English and Italian wiki articles, including a relatively detailed online biography in Italian, except for that one note that cites an unlinked Spectator article that shares a story from a Robert Hughes book.
It wouldn't surprise me if layfolk have a misunderstanding of what excommunication entails especially when it comes to that of a famous ancestor. I can see it as one of those ever-growing family stories that begins as "Grandaddy got excommunicated by the Pope" and ends up centuries later as "Ancestor made the Pope so angry the Pope canonized him into hell".
quote:
...the descendent of Sigismondo I first heard the story from (well, him and Dante)...
Sigismondo Malatesta lived in the 15th century. Dante Alighieri lived in the 13th and 14th centuries. Are you sure you are thinking of the right person?
As I'm sure you know, Dante has never had authority to canonize or excommunicate persons in the Catholic Church nor is the Inferno official Church teaching on who is or isn't in Hell. Dante placing a historical figure in Hell is not "canonization into Hell".
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
He means a descendant of both. I have friends who are descendants of Dante only. Well they must be of Malatesta too. 600 years gives you 16 million ancestors. So we're all our own cousins. But Dante is their family name. Like the egregious Wassamaddayou Joe.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
After all, while Christ did command his followers to baptise and celebrate the Eucharist, he didn't command them to take weddings, anoint the dead and so forth.
I believe that Christ instituted all seven sacraments as essential to the life of His Church, and that He did so personally, at least in an inchoate form. And no, I don't particularly care to what extent this has been documented in the bible. I do not think that scripture was intended to detail the Christian religion like a rule book, and I leave such straining for scriptural gnats to those Christians who had to reject Christian tradition as equal means to God's truth in order to escape the authority of the Church.
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
He also commanded his followers to feed the hungry, clothe the naked, proclaim the arrival of the Kingdom, and many other things. Why do you feel the sacramental part of the Church is more important then any of the other things the Church does in obedience to Christ?
The sacraments are the only instituted means of receiving grace from God. Of course, God can give you grace apart from the sacraments as He sees fit, but no other human action is as such Divinely favoured with guaranteed graces. Doing good works is an expression of the graces you have received from God - and this response can gain you merit in the eyes of God. In particular, it can merit you more graces, hopefully leading to a cycle of grace and charity culminating in your salvation. But any such virtuous cycle needs a starting point, and the sacraments are preeminent in this regard. Furthermore, only the sacraments are certain to provide sanctifying grace. Whether your good works will gain you heaven is anybody's guess and God's knowledge alone, but a freshly baptised person, or a baptised person just after a proper confession and absolution, who then dies, will go to heaven. No ifs, buts, and whys.
The sacraments provide a solid foundation of grace. For sure, one only lays foundations in order to build upon them. Yet a small cabin erected on rock solid foundations is better than a palace built on sand, when the storms come. And they will, for most of us.
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Martin60:
He means a descendant of both. I have friends who are descendants of Dante only. Well they must be of Malatesta too. 600 years gives you 16 million ancestors. So we're all our own cousins. But Dante is their family name. Like the egregious Wassamaddayou Joe.
Dolce, shurely?
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
To be fair, I have to report on this bishop's statement, or, at least, to relay the report:
"Heads explode" makes an interesting headline
quote:
There should be recognition of a diversity of forms. We have to look inside the church for a formal recognition of the kind of interpersonal relationship that is also present in many gay couples. Just as there are a variety of legal frameworks for partners in civil society, one must arrive at a diversity of forms in the church. … The intrinsic values are more important to me than the institutional question. The Christian ethic is based on lasting relationships where exclusivity, loyalty, and care are central to each other.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
For the other side of bishop's public performance, try "The Father Coughlin Awards" for some examples.
The 2014 summary is particularly wide-ranging.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gramps49:
Speaking as a Lutheran I find the Roman Church is at a crossroads. It can continue to be so rigid that it becomes obsolete; or it can become so loose it can run into secular oblivion as pointed out above.
How are ELCA's numbers over the past decade, then?
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
It's a keeper, like Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism. Protestantism isn't.
Posted by SvitlanaV2 (# 16967) on
:
Really? Why is that?
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
To be fair, I have to report on this bishop's statement, or, at least, to relay the report:
"Heads explode" makes an interesting headline
quote:
There should be recognition of a diversity of forms. We have to look inside the church for a formal recognition of the kind of interpersonal relationship that is also present in many gay couples. Just as there are a variety of legal frameworks for partners in civil society, one must arrive at a diversity of forms in the church. … The intrinsic values are more important to me than the institutional question. The Christian ethic is based on lasting relationships where exclusivity, loyalty, and care are central to each other.
Shouldn't he be sacked?
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Difficult though it will be, please avoid extended discussions re the Dead Horse, or take them to the DH Board.
Barnabas62
Purgatory Host
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The sacraments are the only instituted means of receiving grace from God. Of course, God can give you grace apart from the sacraments as He sees fit, but no other human action is as such Divinely favoured with guaranteed graces. Doing good works is an expression of the graces you have received from God - and this response can gain you merit in the eyes of God. In particular, it can merit you more graces, hopefully leading to a cycle of grace and charity culminating in your salvation. But any such virtuous cycle needs a starting point, and the sacraments are preeminent in this regard. Furthermore, only the sacraments are certain to provide sanctifying grace. Whether your good works will gain you heaven is anybody's guess and God's knowledge alone, but a freshly baptised person, or a baptised person just after a proper confession and absolution, who then dies, will go to heaven. No ifs, buts, and whys.
The sacraments provide a solid foundation of grace. For sure, one only lays foundations in order to build upon them. Yet a small cabin erected on rock solid foundations is better than a palace built on sand, when the storms come. And they will, for most of us.
Posting as a Shipmate.
In respect of that very clear summary (which certainly chimed with my understanding of Catholic belief), my understanding is that Pope Francis' understanding is the same.
Whatever his reforming intentions may be, I haven't personally seen any signs that he wishes to reform this central understanding of the relationship between the sacraments and Divine grace. So I don't think that issue is a part of any perceived "titanic struggle".
Or am I missing something?
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on
:
IngoB, thank you for your answer to my query. There is a lot there for me to ponder on, and I may need to get back to you in the future. In the meantime, may I ask you to expand a couple of points? quote:
I believe that Christ instituted all seven sacraments as essential to the life of His Church, and that He did so personally, at least in an inchoate form.
While I accept that the Bible is not a complete record of the life and ministry of Jesus, I would like to know why you believe this. There must be many traditions of which I am unaware; could you point me in the right direction in order to find out more? quote:
The sacraments are the only instituted means of receiving grace from God.
What about prayer? Our Lord commanded us to do that; is that not a means of receiving grace? Many Protestants would want to add reading the Bible as the preeminent way of receiving grace, but I'm not sure how that fits into the RC view.
Posted by Jon in the Nati (# 15849) on
:
quote:
Whatever his reforming intentions may be, I haven't personally seen any signs that he wishes to reform this central understanding of the relationship between the sacraments and Divine grace.
Even if it 'needed' reforming, and one were inclined to reform it, I see no way it could be reformed. The relationship IngoB lays out is basic Catholic doctrine, and has been for virtually the church's entire history. I'd imagine the answer is that the church does not view itself as having the authority to reform that.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
Jon in the Nati
From outside, that was my view too.
But there is this Jesuitical dimension - or so I also hear - which is capable of thinking the unthinkable.
The political analogy (re the US Constitution) is that there are strict constructionists (we can't change that) and other (maybe we can?). And I think you find such differing strains of thought within Catholicism, though the parameters of the really impossible boundaries are rather different.
I just didn't know whether there had been any sacramental speculation, that's all.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
While I accept that the Bible is not a complete record of the life and ministry of Jesus, I would like to know why you believe this. There must be many traditions of which I am unaware; could you point me in the right direction in order to find out more?
I'm not entirely sure what you are looking for there. Background: that Christ has instituted all seven sacraments is "de fide" (of faith) for Catholics, contrary opinion is anathematised by the Council of Trent (Decree on Sacraments, Canon 1); but that He has done so directly and personally is only "sententia theologice certa", according to Ott. The only serious contention in this regard among Catholic however concerns the sacraments of confirmation and anointing of the sick, which some theologians have considered as being instituted by the apostles inspired by the Holy Spirit (Petrus Lombardus, Bonaventura, ...). The strong majority of tradition is however with the direct institution of all sacraments. You can look at the Catholic Encyclopaedia, which has a detailed discussion for each of the seven sacraments (Baptism, Confirmation, etc.). Scripture documents the direct institution of baptism, Eucharist, and confession by Christ. It shows the other four sacraments to be present in apostolic times, and it shows the apostles as stewards, not originators, of the sacraments (1 Cor 4:1). There is no suggestion anywhere among the Church Fathers that the apostles (or even later bishops) instituted the sacraments, whereas all of them get discussed and referenced from early on by them. It is as usual difficult to find a direct proof for that which was not under debate, but St Ambrose writes in De Sacramentis ("On the Sacraments") IV, 4, 13: "Therefore, who is the author of the sacraments but the Lord Jesus? Those sacraments came down from heaven, for all counsel is from heaven."
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
What about prayer? Our Lord commanded us to do that; is that not a means of receiving grace?
Here's a prayer, how many graces do your think it will bring? Tongue in cheek of course, but I hope my point is clear: what graces a prayer may bring we do not know, and it will certainly depend on what kind of prayer it is. Indeed, we can easily imagine prayer that will be frowned on by God. And we can also imagine a worthy prayer stripped of the graces it ought to bring because of the way it is being prayed, or the state of the person praying. Whereas the sacraments are sure means of grace, indeed, they operate independent of the minister of the sacrament. The only requirement for them to work is that they are "performed" correctly. (Of course, whether the graces so released will affect anything depends on the recipient.)
I really think that sacraments are like the staple of Christian life. But this is not to be confused with the highest expression thereof, or whatever. Just like cooking potatoes will fill your belly but is unlikely to earn you a Michelin star, so partaking in the sacraments is a basic expression of Christian life but not therefore a primary means of being better than some other Christian (whatever that many mean...).
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
Many Protestants would want to add reading the Bible as the preeminent way of receiving grace, but I'm not sure how that fits into the RC view.
Well, half an hour of bible study will potentially gain you a plenary indulgence. So it's certainly highly appreciated by the Church. But indulgences are precisely a matter of the Church trying to encourage things (and by virtue of her standing with God being able to bring about certain things), it is not a matter of Divine grace as such. As far as that goes, I would comment similarly as concerning prayer - though obviously there is more scope for "wrong" prayer than for "wrong" bible reading. Still, we can think of say a militant atheist reading the bible with the intention to hunt for contradictions that he can post mockingly on his blog. It is unlikely that God will shower him with graces for doing that.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Whatever his reforming intentions may be, I haven't personally seen any signs that he wishes to reform this central understanding of the relationship between the sacraments and Divine grace. So I don't think that issue is a part of any perceived "titanic struggle". Or am I missing something?
I have seen no sign so far that Pope Francis is messing directly with the general Catholic approach to the sacraments.
However, there is such a thing as death by a thousand cuts. Creeping normality can be used to effectively remove even the strongest rules, if one has the patience. Usury is a case where that has already happened in the RCC, and insofar as the current situation combines lip service to regulations once considered crucial with the de facto complete ignoring of them (indeed, barely being able to still understand them at all...), this is a blueprint for further "liberal" changes to what is deemed "irreformable" in the RCC.
To halt "creeping normality" one must draw lines into the sand, and be prepared to act swiftly and decisively if they are being crossed. Pope Francis does not seem to be willing to do that, to say the least. Consequently, creeping normality will not be halted, indeed, we may well see it turn into trotting normality. And if our current pope continues to be confused about the association of his office with judgement, then it might even break into a gallop.
Posted by Gamaliel (# 812) on
:
Blimey ...
I've become quite open to Big T type Tradition/s in recent years but when I hear that sort of talk it makes me want to run in the opposite direction.
It sounds like a recipe for paranoia to me.
Someone like Pope Francis is going to be seen as a moderate breath of fresh air to some, a dangerous radical to others ... and far too conservative for other people.
It all depends on where you stand.
In your case somewhere in the middle of Trento (a lovely city) in the middle of the 16th century, I would guess ...
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Indeed, we can easily imagine prayer that will be frowned on by God. And we can also imagine a worthy prayer stripped of the graces it ought to bring because of the way it is being prayed, or the state of the person praying. Whereas the sacraments are sure means of grace, indeed, they operate independent of the minister of the sacrament. The only requirement for them to work is that they are "performed" correctly. (Of course, whether the graces so released will affect anything depends on the recipient.)
I really think that sacraments are like the staple of Christian life.
No, no and no.
Prayer, if I have understood aright, is the lifting of the heart and mind to God. At which it is hard to imagine Him frowning.
Prayer is a better candidate for the description "staple of the Christian life". Sacraments are more like birthday cake than potato - celebrating special moments.
Sacraments are symbolic actions. Bible reading is not a sacrament because it is undertaken for its own merit rather than as a symbol of something else.
The beneficial effect of the sacrament is something we trust to God for - faith, not certainty.
Your misplaced emphasis on performing the rite "by the book" as the guarantor of efficacy turns religion into magic
You know so much; how can you be so wrong on this ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by fullgospel (# 18233) on
:
I can't be alone in finding all this detailed discussion and seeking of (apparent) norms, tedious and unecassary but then I 'am' an INFP !
People's suffering does concern me -but not all I see, share concern for individuals over systems..
I am more concerned about 'Pastoral approaches' to these matters.
I am am hugely concerned that priests are (literal) dying off and parishes being closed down.
E.g in Liverpool Arch-diocese about half of all the priests are retired from active ministry / apostolate, with many in nursing homes.
Parishes there, are closing down at an alarming rate.
This related to the above thread in the most close and pressing -that is, urgent way.
Hoping for non-patronising response if any..
[ 04. January 2015, 22:25: Message edited by: fullgospel ]
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
The following may not be fully true for some countries that Shipmates live in, but it is true enough even in those cases to be necessary to say: Distorted Love
If you can't show how your "principles" show the active love expressed by Jesus, what is the value of those principles?
And why would rational people want to stay with your version of church, if that Love is not practised.
The Belgian bishop quoted above (and dismissed as not supporting the team) understands this, as does the Pope. Most of the Cardinals appear not to.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Prayer, if I have understood aright, is the lifting of the heart and mind to God. At which it is hard to imagine Him frowning.
Prayer is communication with God. The mere fact that you are "talking" does not however mean that you are communicating well. Of course, if you define prayer as communicating well with God, then unsurprisingly prayer will be ever pleasing to God. But it is simply not true that we always communicate well, not with other humans, and not with God either. Perhaps it is time to revisit the parable of the Pharisee and the tax collector praying? (Lk 18:9-14) The Pharisee surely was praying, and I certainly can imagine God frowning at that prayer.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Sacraments are more like birthday cake than potato - celebrating special moments.
The sacraments match every aspect of human life: the liminal - birth (baptism), adulthood (confirmation), illness, ageing and death (anointing of the sick) - the everyday - eating and drinking (Eucharist), washing and recovering from sickness (confession), and that which is both - relationship and procreation (marriage and hold orders). They are designed as a universal and continuous support structure for a life of faith, from the cradle to the grave, every step of the way.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Sacraments are symbolic actions.
Sacraments realise what they symbolise. That's what sets them apart from mere symbols. Baptism is not just a symbolic washing, it actually cleanses you: of sin, not of dirt. Etc.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
The beneficial effect of the sacrament is something we trust to God for - faith, not certainty.
It is precisely by faith that we are certain that the sacraments provide the graces they promise. Whether we receive these graces fruitfully is a different matter.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Your misplaced emphasis on performing the rite "by the book" as the guarantor of efficacy turns religion into magic.
Magic is either trickery, or a preternatural effect caused by the power of the agent invoking it. The sacraments are neither. They are supernatural and caused by the power of God in response to the human agent. That said, indeed "magic" as we know it from stories (rather than tricksters) is rather similar. In particular, neither the supposed occult not the actual Divine powers can be obtained in any manner the human agent wishes. It is by obeying their form that the human agent can bring them about.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
You know so much; how can you be so wrong on this ?
Your faith was mutilated in the 16thC. I merely know as well that which you have lost.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
The following may not be fully true for some countries that Shipmates live in, but it is true enough even in those cases to be necessary to say: Distorted Love
A very moving statement that needs repeating until it sinks in with some people.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Indeed, we can easily imagine prayer that will be frowned on by God. And we can also imagine a worthy prayer stripped of the graces it ought to bring because of the way it is being prayed, or the state of the person praying. Whereas the sacraments are sure means of grace, indeed, they operate independent of the minister of the sacrament. The only requirement for them to work is that they are "performed" correctly. (Of course, whether the graces so released will affect anything depends on the recipient.)
I really think that sacraments are like the staple of Christian life.
No, no and no.
Prayer, if I have understood aright, is the lifting of the heart and mind to God. At which it is hard to imagine Him frowning.
"God, I thank thee, that I am not as other men are, extortioners, unjust, adulterers, or even as this publican. I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I possess."
Posted by Anselmina (# 3032) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Your faith was mutilated in the 16thC. I merely know as well that which you have lost.
Wow. Who knew Russ was so old. And surely a contradiction; to know 'merely' that which someone has - allegedly - lost in terms of their relationship with God? Wouldn't one require a somewhat omniscient knowledge to even approach that one?
Posted by Organ Builder (# 12478) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Fr Weber:
"God, I thank thee, that I am not as other men are, extortioners, unjust, adulterers, or even as this publican. I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I possess."
I'll be the first to admit I wish I had posted this clever quote before you did, Fr. Weber, but I don't really think Jesus would have said this was lifting one's heart and mind to God, which is the definition Russ is positing for prayer. Perhaps it is the definition that is at fault, but when one starts talking about "real" or "genuine" prayer as opposed to whatever the opposite would be, I start getting nervous--it's a judgment I prefer not to make.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
Oh, I think the Pharisee was most certainly lifting his heart and mind to God--but not in the way he thought he was, and certainly not in the way that God demands.
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on
:
IngoB, I'm not sure about your claim that the sacraments are "sure means of grace". If we look at the Borgias (hoping this isn't the ecclesiastical equivalent of Godwin's Law) they must have taken Mass many times, not to mention the rest of the group, but they are hardly shining lights of virtue. You do qualify your claim by saying: quote:
It is precisely by faith that we are certain that the sacraments provide the graces they promise. Whether we receive these graces fruitfully is a different matter.
However, please forgive me if I say this sounds like special pleading. Penicillin is a sure remedy against infection, whether I receive it faithfully or not. If the sacraments can blocked by our attitudes, then they do not seem to be as powerful as you had suggested earlier.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselmina:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Your faith was mutilated in the 16thC. I merely know as well that which you have lost.
Wow. Who knew Russ was so old. And surely a contradiction; to know 'merely' that which someone has - allegedly - lost in terms of their relationship with God? Wouldn't one require a somewhat omniscient knowledge to even approach that one?
Russ isn't that old, but the various Protestant heresies are (and for present purposes Anglicans belong into this mix). Russ' faith is hence institutionally defective as far as the sacraments go. Furthermore, he appears to personally embrace and defend these defects as an advance (which is only logical, I would as well if I was a Protestant of some stripe). I do not need omniscience to know all that, I only need to know a bit of ecclesial history and listen to what he says. I'm a bit mystified why you think this presents any kind of difficulty, really?
quote:
Originally posted by Organ Builder:
I'll be the first to admit I wish I had posted this clever quote before you did, Fr. Weber, but I don't really think Jesus would have said this was lifting one's heart and mind to God, which is the definition Russ is positing for prayer. Perhaps it is the definition that is at fault, but when one starts talking about "real" or "genuine" prayer as opposed to whatever the opposite would be, I start getting nervous--it's a judgment I prefer not to make.
And I will be the first to point out that I did beat Fr. Weber to the punch. We are not generally called to judge the prayer of others. That's a different issue, which in fact the very same parable warns again. But that does not mean that discernment is impossible or indeed unnecessary. You should not heap up empty phrases in your prayer (Mt 6:7-8), you should not pray to feed your passions (Jas 4:3), you should pray in communal anger and quarrel (1 Tim 2:8), you should pray to advertise you piety to others (Mt 6:5-6), you should not give up in your prayers (Lk 18:1-8, plus many others), you should not pray in doubt but in faith (Jas 1:5-7, I'm sure many here will love that one...), etc. Anyhow, my point was quite simply that not every prayer is good, which I consider to be an established fact of revelation. Hence we know that not all prayers will bring grace. Whereas every sacrament brings specific graces assigned to it, that's basically its definition by Divine guarantee. Hence the sacraments are the sure foundation upon which a holy life is to be built. It does not follow from this at all that prayer, good works, etc. are somehow unnecessary. That would be like having foundations, but not building a house on it. That's no way to live. You build foundations so that you can build a solid house, and you partake in the sacraments so that you can live a good Christian life. Still, this solid basis lends its strength to what you build on top of it.
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
IngoB, I'm not sure about your claim that the sacraments are "sure means of grace". If we look at the Borgias (hoping this isn't the ecclesiastical equivalent of Godwin's Law) they must have taken Mass many times, not to mention the rest of the group, but they are hardly shining lights of virtue.
I'm sure Fred Phelps prayed a lot in his life. Nevertheless, I would not consider him to be an exemplary man. From Adam and Eve, whom tradition considers to have been "super-graced" at quite fantastical levels, humans have been rejecting God's supernatural gifts over and over and over again. There are two aspects to a gift: that it is given, and that it is received. If either is lacking, then it will not arrive. To say that God always gives a gift under specific circumstances is not to say that every human always receives a gift under the same circumstances.
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
However, please forgive me if I say this sounds like special pleading. Penicillin is a sure remedy against infection, whether I receive it faithfully or not. If the sacraments can blocked by our attitudes, then they do not seem to be as powerful as you had suggested earlier.
If the doctor gives you penicillin tablets to take three times daily, and you throw them in the garbage bin, will your infection clear up? Whose fault is that? The doctor's? Is the penicillin wasting in the garbage bin while you continue to be sick demonstration that it lacks antibiotic powers?
The "special pleading" you accuse me of is not particularly special. It is the very same general pleading all Christians do when asked why among Christians the Kingdom has not come. I might as well ask you why with all that prayer and good works, still not every Christian can be considered a saint walking the earth. Are your prayers and good works not demonstrably inefficient? Where is the impact of all these graces that you claim God is showering on people? Perhaps Christians suck marginally less than other people (though even that could be contented), but isn't this a far cry from the promises of that gospel of yours?
At this point you will come up with some version of the same pleading, for if it is not God's fault that the Kingdom is slow in coming, then it must be ours. Well, so it is. I agree. But this you cannot turn against me, anymore than I can turn it against you. We suck, harmoniously, together at realising God's graces...
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on
:
quote:
We suck, harmoniously, together at realising God's graces...
Agreed.
Having been thinking through the issues you've raised here, IngoB, I realise that, for me, the key idea is obedience. Jesus commanded us to "do this in remembrance of him", just as he commanded us to clothe the naked, feed the hungry and so forth, without mentioning any benefits that would follow as a result (at least, not in the Bible - I can't speak about tradition with any certainty). And so we do all these things in obedience without looking for any reward "save that of knowing that we do thy will". As a simple Prot I can't personally see any reason to exalt the sacraments above any other form of obedience to our Lord's commands; certainly I can't see any reason to agree with your claim that, "Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be".
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Indeed, without the sacraments there is no Church. Christ founded a visible Church with visible, sure signs of grace so that we might know where to go in order to be saved, otherwise we just fumble in the dark for there are no sacraments outside the Church (no "valid but illicit" nonsense).
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
certainly I can't see any reason to agree with your claim that, "Without pure sacraments the Church simply ceases to be".
Could you agree that sacraments are what we specifically need Church for?
We can be moral, pray, read our Bibles, even worship, without the Church (though a good church should be an aid and encouragement to all of that), but we can't get baptised except into the Church and can't receive communion without participating in the Church, because those things are inherently an expression of Christian community.
I don't think that goes quite as far as IngoB's position: it would imply that without sacraments, the Church would be in scandalous default of the role uniquely entrusted to it, but would not necessarily have entirely ceased to be, but it's close enough that we could at least meaningfully ask whether a church so failing in its task was properly a Church at all.
Posted by Urfshyne (# 17834) on
:
Ad Orientem quote:
Indeed, without the sacraments there is no Church.
Sorry, but are you totally discounting both the Quakers and the Salvation Army as being churches?
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on
:
"Titanic" as in women and children first?
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Urfshyne:
Ad Orientem quote:
Indeed, without the sacraments there is no Church.
Sorry, but are you totally discounting both the Quakers and the Salvation Army as being churches?
Please don't make me answer that, though I'm sure you can discern enough from that to know what I believe.
Simply put, there are no sacraments outside the Church. That's not to say that I don't believe that the Holy Spirit doesn't act outside the Church, but whatever grace he gives to those outside, sacraments they are not. Don't ask me who or what the Church is either, though thise who know me here should already know what I believe.
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on
:
Urfshyne - isn't it also the case that many Quakers would not wish to claim they are a church?
Posted by Doublethink. (# 1984) on
:
Many of us Quakers do consider ourselves in a church and Christian - but in the UK that is about half. Probably alot higher in Kenya and the US.
Historically UK Quakers have claimed we are not non-sacramental - we just don't use outward signs of sacrament and consider all aspects of life in some sense sacred. I fully accept that this is not a catholic understanding of sacraments or church.
I think Ad Orientam would consider me a Christian and a member of the universal church, but that is because I happen to have been baptised in the standard trinitarian fashion and can say the nicene creed without my fingers crossed, rather than because of the aspects of my faith that arise out of the Quaker tradition.
Most UK Quakers nowadays are members "by convincement" rather than born into the tradition - so I would guess a fair few have been baptised as children.
[ 06. January 2015, 20:51: Message edited by: Doublethink. ]
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on
:
Ad Orientem, yes, I'm pretty sure I know what your answer would be. What interests me (and this applies to IngoB as well) is why you think your answer is the right one. The claim that "without the sacraments there is no Church" is not self-evidently true to me, so I would be grateful if you could explain your reasons for believing it.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
But the fact that they identify as Quakers indicates that they are part of an organised group that has faith in the teachings of Jesus. Does this make them a church?
Or is the offering of pressed-cardboard wafers and the cheapest red plonk one can find a necessary part of being "Church"?
In the latter case, you are leaving out the whole range of Baptists and others who favor Wonder Bread and the products of Mr. Welch.
How far down this road of declaring everyone to be non-Christian do we have to go? Personally, and referring to G&S, "I have a little list", but I doubt that it would meet much enthusiasm anywhere else!
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
Ad Orientem, yes, I'm pretty sure I know what your answer would be. What interests me (and this applies to IngoB as well) is why you think your answer is the right one. The claim that "without the sacraments there is no Church" is not self-evidently true to me, so I would be grateful if you could explain your reasons for believing it.
Because I believe that the Church is visible. What makes the Church visible? The sacraments. That's not to diminish the importance of good works, but even unbelievers feed the hungry etc. What distinguishes the Church from them is the visible means of grace Christ has given us. "One body and one Spirit; as you are called in one hope of your calling. One Lord, one faith, one baptism". "No man lighteth a candle, and putteth it in a hidden place, nor under a bushel; but upon a candlestick, that they that come in, may see the light".
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
But the fact that they identify as Quakers indicates that they are part of an organised group that has faith in the teachings of Jesus. Does this make them a church?
Or is the offering of pressed-cardboard wafers and the cheapest red plonk one can find a necessary part of being "Church"?
In the latter case, you are leaving out the whole range of Baptists and others who favor Wonder Bread and the products of Mr. Welch.
How far down this road of declaring everyone to be non-Christian do we have to go? Personally, and referring to G&S, "I have a little list", but I doubt that it would meet much enthusiasm anywhere else!
Organisation doesn't make the Church. The Holy Spirit defines the Church. What makes a sacrament a sacrament? The Holy Spirit does. Even though I might have a stricter definition of who and what the Church is, that does not mean that I believe all those outside to be non-Christian. But then again "Christian" is rather a loose term. I would argue that the only way of salvation we know for sure is through the Church, precisely because of the sacraments. Whether or not God saves anyone outside is his business and his alone.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
No it isn't.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Says who?
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Me mate.
On His behalf.
He's not that useless. Impotent. Helpless. Ineffectual. Irresponsible. Arbitrary. Callous. Hard. Malevolent.
At all.
Jesus saves.
[ 06. January 2015, 21:40: Message edited by: Martin60 ]
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Ah! God's mouthpiece who also claims to know nuffink.
Posted by Doublethink. (# 1984) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
But the fact that they identify as Quakers indicates that they are part of an organised group that has faith in the teachings of Jesus. Does this make them a church?
Or is the offering of pressed-cardboard wafers and the cheapest red plonk one can find a necessary part of being "Church"?
In the latter case, you are leaving out the whole range of Baptists and others who favor Wonder Bread and the products of Mr. Welch.
How far down this road of declaring everyone to be non-Christian do we have to go? Personally, and referring to G&S, "I have a little list", but I doubt that it would meet much enthusiasm anywhere else!
In the UK we don't corporately describe ourselves as a Christian church - you might find this interesting.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Nice bit of blithe projection there.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Russ' faith is hence institutionally defective as far as the sacraments go.
If you mean that my faith is less institutionalised than yours, then yes.
quote:
We suck, harmoniously, together at realising God's graces...
Yes. Individually and collectively. In present, past and future equally. It's when you try to exempt the Vatican, or Tradition, or the Fathers of the Church, or anyone else, from the universal human condition of suckiness, that you fall short.
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Urfshyne:
Ad Orientem quote:
Indeed, without the sacraments there is no Church.
Sorry, but are you totally discounting both the Quakers and the Salvation Army as being churches?
Yes. (Well I am, anyway.)
The Church is, in Lutheran terms, the gathering of God's holy people as they gather for the right preaching the Gospel and the right administration of the sacraments.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by k-mann:
quote:
Originally posted by Urfshyne:
Ad Orientem quote:
Indeed, without the sacraments there is no Church.
Sorry, but are you totally discounting both the Quakers and the Salvation Army as being churches?
Yes. (Well I am, anyway.)
Ditto. And the Quakers don't even claim to be Christian anymore, let alone part of the Church.
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on
:
From the OP Guardian link
quote:
If Francis wins, he and his reforming party will change the interpretation of the church’s hard line on divorce and remarriage. The words will remain, of course, more sacred than ever, but in practice divorced and remarried Catholics will be admitted to communion and their present marriages treated as valid and in need of nurturing. If he loses, the church will maintain its logically perfect but wholly unworkable and dishonest theory of sexuality.
The view from within Catholicism (and Orthodoxy) of various (from their POV) heterodox communities outside their respective folds isn't, so far as I can see, part of the "titanic struggle" referred to in this article.
Normally I let evolving tangents go, but this one seems likely to generate Hellish heat, rather than throw any light on the original thread topic. So please get back to the "titanic struggle".
Barnabas62
Purgatory Host
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
It's when you try to exempt the Vatican, or Tradition, or the Fathers of the Church, or anyone else, from the universal human condition of suckiness, that you fall short.
I do what now?!
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
IngoB and others, I've said this before on other threads, and in various different ways. I'm going to say it again.
I can't see how one can be a Catholic and argue that the Pope has got something wrong.
If the Pope says the Catholic Church has got to change its line on something, then a good Catholic, and particularly a traditionalist one, must accept that. The thought that either oneself, or a group of people one associates with, might know better than the Pope is being a Protestant in Catholic clothing.
So long as the Pope has not decided, Catholics can and should debate these things. You all, even the unmarried mother in a Brazilian barrio, have a part to play in helping him discern. It's particularly inspiring that he has asked you to do so. But if he does decide, that's like having a Bull delivered with your morning papers. If the Pope decides the teaching on remarriage (say) must stay the same, it stays the same. If he decides it will change, it changes. Those Catholics who are traditionalists and would rather he had decided differently, must obey and change with him.
I don't agree with that approach to theology. But I'm not a Catholic.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
If the Pope decides the teaching on remarriage (say) must stay the same, it stays the same. If he decides it will change, it changes. Those Catholics who are traditionalists and would rather he had decided differently, must obey and change with him.
Surely, if he decides it stays the same, it stays the same. If he decides it will change, it has always been changed and the Church is simply recognising that...
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by k-mann:
The Church is, in Lutheran terms, the gathering of God's holy people as they gather for the right preaching the Gospel and the right administration of the sacraments.
Must be a disappoinment for you when you get there and find it's all not-yet-holy people seeking but not necessarily succeeding in rightly expounding the Gospel...
I guess one of the consequences of the fact that we humans suck is the need to distinguish between trying and succeeding. We address God, either out loud or in our heads, either in words or without, as a way of trying to lift our hearts and minds to God. And use the word "prayer" for both the success and the attempt.
And similarly use a word like "Church" for both what the Church is and for what it should be or seeks to be.
So some of our disagreement here is superficial, about the use of words to reference the ideal as against the reality.
Not helped by the adherence of some to the sort of crappy outdated medieval philosophy which asserts that the sucky reality ontologically is the shining ideal...
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I can't see how one can be a Catholic and argue that the Pope has got something wrong.
Why? It is decidedly not Catholic teaching that the pope gets everything right.
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
The thought that either oneself, or a group of people one associates with, might know better than the Pope is being a Protestant in Catholic clothing.
Point to a single official document of the RCC that supports your claim. You cannot. So why do you make this completely unsupported claim, even if actual Catholics tell you that it is wrong?
quote:
Melchior Cano, a Theologian at the Council of Trent (via Rorate Caeli):
Now it can be said briefly that those who defend blindly and indiscriminately any judgment whatsoever of the Supreme Pontiff concerning every matter weaken the authority of the Apostolic See; they do not support it; they subvert it; they do not fortify it… . Peter has no need of our lies; he has no need of our adulation.
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
If the Pope decides the teaching on remarriage (say) must stay the same, it stays the same. If he decides it will change, it changes. Those Catholics who are traditionalists and would rather he had decided differently, must obey and change with him. I don't agree with that approach to theology. But I'm not a Catholic.
Your problem is quite simply a lack of distinction. It is one thing to say what has to happen among the faithful when the pope decides things. And all the teachings about "ex cathedra" and "obsequium fide" (obedience of faith) pertain to that. It is quite another thing to discuss what sort of things a pope can decide. And the simple answer, as far as doctrine is concerned, is "not very much". In particular, any actual dogma of the Church is entirely irreversible. At most a pope can decide to elevate a particular interpretation of existing dogma to the level of standard pastoral practice. But a pope cannot say: this dogma was wrong, here, use this one instead. For that matter, neither can a pope simply step outside of tradition and declare doctrine about whatever he pleases. The pope cannot for example tomorrow state that painting birch trees red is the central practice of Christianity. The only sort of decision a pope can actually make are those which expound, clarify and make explicit the once given deposit of faith. There is, of course, still plenty of room in that. But it is far cry from some arbitrary dogma making power.
Once more, one must make a distinction between what kind of decisions a pope can make as part of his office, and what follows when a pope has made such a licit decision. The power of the pope to make decisions is "arbitrary" only within the highly constraining framework of the deposit of faith and its historical development. If a pope unwisely attempts to bind and loosen the faithful on matters not of received Christian faith and morals, then it is perfectly licit to ignore or even oppose him. If a pope illicitly tries to reverse a dogma of Christian faith and morals that has been established previously, then it is a moral and religious duty of the Christian faithful to oppose him.
This is not "Protestant", this simply follows from what the pope is: the Vicar of Christ, not Christ Himself. Christ is the Lord of Catholics, not the pope.
Read some actual Catholic teaching on this matter:
quote:
1st Vatican Council
If anyone says that it is possible that at some time, given the advancement of knowledge, a sense may be assigned to the dogmas propounded by the Church which is different from that which the Church has understood and understands: let him be anathema.
Mortalium Animos
For the teaching authority of the Church, which in the divine wisdom was constituted on earth in order that revealed doctrines might remain intact for ever, and that they might be brought with ease and security to the knowledge of men, and which is daily exercised through the Roman Pontiff and the Bishops who are in communion with him, has also the office of defining, when it sees fit, any truth with solemn rites and decrees, whenever this is necessary either to oppose the errors or the attacks of heretics, or more clearly and in greater detail to stamp the minds of the faithful with the articles of sacred doctrine which have been explained. But in the use of this extraordinary teaching authority no newly invented matter is brought in, nor is anything new added to the number of those truths which are at least implicitly contained in the deposit of Revelation, divinely handed down to the Church: only those which are made clear which perhaps may still seem obscure to some, or that which some have previously called into question is declared to be of faith.
Ineffabilis Deus
For the Church of Christ, watchful guardian that she is, and defender of the dogmas deposited with her, never changes anything, never diminishes anything, never adds anything to them; but with all diligence she treats the ancient documents faithfully and wisely; if they really are of ancient origin and if the faith of the Fathers has transmitted them, she strives to investigate and explain them in such a way that the ancient dogmas of heavenly doctrine will be made evident and clear, but will retain their full, integral, and proper nature, and will grown only within their own genus -- that is, within the same dogma, in the same sense and the same meaning.
Oath against Modernism
Fourthly, I sincerely hold that the doctrine of faith was handed down to us from the apostles through the orthodox Fathers in exactly the same meaning and always in the same purport. Therefore, I entirely reject the heretical' misrepresentation that dogmas evolve and change from one meaning to another different from the one which the Church held previously. I also condemn every error according to which, in place of the divine deposit which has been given to the spouse of Christ to be carefully guarded by her, there is put a philosophical figment or product of a human conscience that has gradually been developed by human effort and will continue to develop indefinitely.
Pascendi Dominici Gregis
But for Catholics the second Council of Nicea will always have the force of law, where it condemns those who dare, after the impious fashion of heretics, to deride the ecclesiastical traditions, to invent novelties of some kind . . . or endeavour by malice or craft to overthrow any one of the legitimate traditions of the Catholic Church; and Catholics will hold for law, also, the profession of the fourth Council of Constantinople: We therefore profess to conserve and guard the rules bequeathed to the Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church by the Holy and most illustrious Apostles, by the orthodox Councils, both general and local, and by every one of those divine interpreters the Fathers and Doctors of the Church. Wherefore the Roman Pontiffs, Pius IV. and Pius IX., ordered the insertion in the profession of faith of the following declaration: I most firmly admit and embrace the apostolic and ecclesiastical traditions and other observances and constitutions of the Church.
Posted by Alisdair (# 15837) on
:
The problems encountered by Jesus through the Pharisees have not gone away.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alisdair:
The problems encountered by Jesus through the Pharisees have not gone away.
In my experience, observations like this are usually used to excuse laxity in doctrine and morality, and to browbeat those who insist that there are certain truths of the Christian religion which are non-negotiable.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
Because how much mint you tithe is so important to God.
Posted by Organ Builder (# 12478) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Fr Weber:
In my experience, observations like this are usually used to excuse laxity in doctrine and morality, and to browbeat those who insist that there are certain truths of the Christian religion which are non-negotiable.
It seems to me many of the biblical Pharisees might just as well have been able to say to Jesus, "In my experience, observations like this are usually used to excuse laxity in doctrine and morality, and to browbeat those who insist that there are certain truths of the Jewish religion which are non-negotiable."
Of course, I've always had more than a little sneaking sympathy for the Pharisees, given that what we know from Jewish sources suggests that many or most of them were devout, well-intentioned believers who perhaps were a bit overly concerned with making certain they believed all the right things and followed all the correct rituals.
Taken as a whole, it seems to me a lot of Jesus' earthly ministry was trying to teach people that acting right, and acting for the right reasons, was more important than believing correctly. Perhaps he would tell us the sacraments were made for man, not man for the sacraments--which would be correct, of course, but we sometimes act as if we've forgotten it.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
I'm not aware of any apostolic decision on tithing produce, but if the apostles or their successors required it, it ought to be done.
And "pharasaical" is a two-edged sword; if it falls upon those who insist on sticking to rules, then it falls equally upon those who try to argue those rules into irrelevance.
Posted by Beeswax Altar (# 11644) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alisdair:
The problems encountered by Jesus through the Pharisees have not gone away.
Indeed
The Pharisees favored easy divorces and Jesus did not.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Less-easy divorce was the result of Jesus thinking that women were also human, and deserved proper treatment.
In a culture where women were regarded as having to belong to a man (father, husband...), easy divorce was a disaster for someone who was/is after all, made in God's image just as much as a man is. Jesus was trying to teach that a human had to be considered so, even if that human was female.
The Pharisees (and certain others today) were more concerned about the rules than they are about the humanity of people. But rules can be adjusted to suit the needs of the situation.
This lack of concern for humanity is the point of the argument facing the present group of Pharisees in the RC hierarchy.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
Some of that may indeed be true, HB, but none of it comes from the text. And indeed, in the text Jesus says specifically "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder"--which doesn't seem to leave any wiggle room, much less a warrant to make exceptions for any reason except "fornication." And of course, exegetes are all over the place regarding what he meant by that.
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
:
quote:
Fr Weber: And "pharasaical" is a two-edged sword; if it falls upon those who insist on sticking to rules, then it falls equally upon those who try to argue those rules into irrelevance.
Do we have a Biblical example of the Pharisees 'arguing rules into irrelevance'?
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
Why a biblical example, other than that you knew that would be difficult?
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
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quote:
Fr Weber: Why a biblical example, other than that you knew that would be difficult?
Well, we have plenty of Biblical examples of the Pharisees sticking to the rules. When you claim that this is a double-edged sword and that the Pharisees can also be used as an example against 'arguing rules into irrelevance', I wonder what you base this claim on.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
I can't think of anything in the Bible offhand, except that in the passage where the tithing of mint & cumin (herbs of which no one grew more than trifling amounts) is mentioned, Jesus accuses the Pharisees of neglecting the important duties of mercy and justice.
The rabbinical tradition, which is where pharisaism ended up, is full of the kind of excusing I mentioned. One example : as of the 16th century, the ban on usury is neatly sidestepped by considering commercial investments to be deposits rather than loans.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I can't see how one can be a Catholic and argue that the Pope has got something wrong.
If a pope unwisely attempts to bind and loosen the faithful on matters not of received Christian faith and morals, then it is perfectly licit to ignore or even oppose him. If a pope illicitly tries to reverse a dogma of Christian faith and morals that has been established previously, then it is a moral and religious duty of the Christian faithful to oppose him.
I would not urge on anyone the sort of absolute-monarch view of the papal office that Enoch is suggesting.
But I'm not convinced by your response.
Here you seem to be advocating private judgment as to the domain within which the Pope's words should be taken as authoritative. So that, for example, were a Catholic to conclude that choice of method of contraception is not a moral issue and not an issue that forms part of the faith that comes to us from the apostles, then it would be perfectly licit to ignore papal teaching on this issue.
Which I suspect you wouldn't agree with.
I'm sure you can see that the sort of Catholic who talks up the authority of the Pope ("Rome has spoken, the case is closed") when they agree with the Pope's underlying worldview, but raises a whole lot of reservations when they get a Pope they don't agree with, can come across as less than totally honest and consistent.
The passages you quote suggest a bunch of people who are terrified by the possibility of abandoning a time-honoured position in favour of what might turn out to be (horror!) merely the latest cultural fad. Whilst being totally unguarded as to the opposite risk of bringing Christian faith into disrepute by linking it inextricably with the discredited cosmology and philosophy of an earlier age. Is this ultra-conservatism one of the contending titans ?
Do you mean that it's OK to disagree with the Pope if you think he's not being traditional enough, but not-OK to disagree with him for not being just or merciful or consistent with the evidence or logically sound enough ? And if so, what does that say about your value system ? Where is your treasure ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
... I'm sure you can see that the sort of Catholic who talks up the authority of the Pope ("Rome has spoken, the case is closed") when they agree with the Pope's underlying worldview, but raises a whole lot of reservations when they get a Pope they don't agree with, can come across as less than totally honest and consistent. ...
Well put. Either that or fooling themselves.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Depends if you're an ultramontanist or not, dunnit! In theory, at least, the pope is only the servant of tradition. In practice, however, tradition is whatever the pope says it is, even if it contradicts that which was held to before, in which case it's put down to being merely a "developing understanding of tradition" or some other nonsense of some sort.
[ 09. January 2015, 01:58: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Here you seem to be advocating private judgment as to the domain within which the Pope's words should be taken as authoritative. So that, for example, were a Catholic to conclude that choice of method of contraception is not a moral issue and not an issue that forms part of the faith that comes to us from the apostles, then it would be perfectly licit to ignore papal teaching on this issue.
The problem with all these discussions is that unless I give some totally clear-cut rules that one can follow automatically without any thought, you will claim that I'm making arbitrary distinctions. But neither is there such a set of rules nor are the distinctions arbitrary. Nobody who has bothered looking at the historical Church and her teachings could come to the conclusion that sexual morals in general, and contraception in particular, is not a valid field for potential papal teachings. That's just dumb, and rhetorics aside, you of course know that it is. There is long history of concern with such questions in the Church. What is required here is hence informed and faithful judgement. And there is no cookie-cutter rule for what that means. In the end however any judgement we make will be private. That is unavoidable.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
The passages you quote suggest a bunch of people who are terrified by the possibility of abandoning a time-honoured position in favour of what might turn out to be (horror!) merely the latest cultural fad. Whilst being totally unguarded as to the opposite risk of bringing Christian faith into disrepute by linking it inextricably with the discredited cosmology and philosophy of an earlier age. Is this ultra-conservatism one of the contending titans ?
The "ultra-conservatism" I quoted - rather than your caricature thereof - is simply Catholic, and all contrary is straight-up anathema, as per 1st Vatican, 2nd Nicaea, and 4th Constantinople.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Do you mean that it's OK to disagree with the Pope if you think he's not being traditional enough, but not-OK to disagree with him for not being just or merciful or consistent with the evidence or logically sound enough ? And if so, what does that say about your value system ? Where is your treasure ?
Once more you demand clear rules that cannot exist. However, generally speaking it is much easier to show that the pope is illogical than that he is unjust. It is much easier to show that the pope acts against tradition than that he lacks mercy. And in case of doubt one should side with the accused. Furthermore, the personal failings of a pope, or even his blunders in ecclesial government, are not in the same category of concern to me as his potential changes of doctrine. Because those changes will affect me and all the faithful, until Christ comes again. Whereas his other contemporary failures tend to wash out of the system with time.
So as "unfair" as that may be, it is indeed a breach of tradition that requires immediate push-back, as well as possibly the pope being insane, whereas the pope being an asshole, a pervert, a power-monger, or what have you ..., is more survivable for the Church (as evident by the fact that the Church has survived those kinds of popes).
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Well put. Either that or fooling themselves.
I know what to expect of Russ, but you are painting yourself into a corner here. Who exactly of the >1 billion Catholics is following the pope in the Enoch-approved manner? The liberals aren't. The culturalists aren't. The conservatives aren't. The traditionalists aren't. Maybe it makes you happy to think that the RCC is crypto-Protestant throughout by your idea of Catholicism. But if no Catholic agrees with you, then what precisely is the point of that?
I quoted Melchior Cano at you. Did his words about the pope sound "Crypto-Protestant" to you? Well, he was a key theologian at the Council of Trent, the counter-Protestant council, and the work I was quoting from ("De Locis Theologicis") is often considered to be the most important Catholic theological text of the Renaissance.
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
In theory, at least, the pope is only the servant of tradition. In practice, however, tradition is whatever the pope says it is, even if it contradicts that which was held to before, in which case it's put down to being merely a "developing understanding of tradition" or some other nonsense of some sort.
And proof of that claim is provided by what, precisely? The Orthodox denial of any development of doctrine and discipline whatsoever - unless it is Palamite, or Nikonian, or Alexian... ?
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on
:
Even for the Orthodox the bishop of Rome has played a major part in the history of the Christian church.Many great minds have accepted the teachings of the papacy.Whilst that in no way makes these teachings true,it does at least indicate that they should not be dismissed airily as 'nonsense of some sort'.
Posted by CL (# 16145) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
IngoB and others, I've said this before on other threads, and in various different ways. I'm going to say it again.
I can't see how one can be a Catholic and argue that the Pope has got something wrong.
If the Pope says the Catholic Church has got to change its line on something, then a good Catholic, and particularly a traditionalist one, must accept that. The thought that either oneself, or a group of people one associates with, might know better than the Pope is being a Protestant in Catholic clothing.
So long as the Pope has not decided, Catholics can and should debate these things. You all, even the unmarried mother in a Brazilian barrio, have a part to play in helping him discern. It's particularly inspiring that he has asked you to do so. But if he does decide, that's like having a Bull delivered with your morning papers. If the Pope decides the teaching on remarriage (say) must stay the same, it stays the same. If he decides it will change, it changes. Those Catholics who are traditionalists and would rather he had decided differently, must obey and change with him.
I don't agree with that approach to theology. But I'm not a Catholic.
Utter nonsense and nothing more than the usual ignorant and stupid Protestant caricature of Catholicism.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Forthview:
Even for the Orthodox the bishop of Rome has played a major part in the history of the Christian church.Many great minds have accepted the teachings of the papacy.Whilst that in no way makes these teachings true,it does at least indicate that they should not be dismissed airily as 'nonsense of some sort'.
And once upon a time the bishop of Rome was Orthodox, yet he didn't claim immediate jurisdiction over the whole Church and neither did he claim infalibility.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Beeswax Altar:
quote:
Originally posted by Alisdair:
The problems encountered by Jesus through the Pharisees have not gone away.
Indeed
The Pharisees favored easy divorces and Jesus did not.
Not true - some did, some didn't, hence the disagreement between Shammai and Hillel
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by CL:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
IngoB and others, I've said this before on other threads, and in various different ways. I'm going to say it again.
I can't see how one can be a Catholic and argue that the Pope has got something wrong.
If the Pope says the Catholic Church has got to change its line on something, then a good Catholic, and particularly a traditionalist one, must accept that. The thought that either oneself, or a group of people one associates with, might know better than the Pope is being a Protestant in Catholic clothing.
So long as the Pope has not decided, Catholics can and should debate these things. You all, even the unmarried mother in a Brazilian barrio, have a part to play in helping him discern. It's particularly inspiring that he has asked you to do so. But if he does decide, that's like having a Bull delivered with your morning papers. If the Pope decides the teaching on remarriage (say) must stay the same, it stays the same. If he decides it will change, it changes. Those Catholics who are traditionalists and would rather he had decided differently, must obey and change with him.
I don't agree with that approach to theology. But I'm not a Catholic.
Utter nonsense and nothing more than the usual ignorant and stupid Protestant caricature of Catholicism.
Not quite so fast. I know perfectly well that most Catholics don't think that way. But it is such great fun to bait those on the Ship or elsewhere of the William George Ward, Hilaire Belloc, Ludwig Ott tendency.
If you were to ask, do I think that is the irresistible logic of that approach, though, I would have to say yes. I don't think one can consistently be that sort of traditionalist and not obey the Pope if he issues an encyclical or Bull one disagrees with.
Or to put it the other way round, that sort of Catholic can only disagree with the Pope if they become the sort of person they regard as 'no true Catholic'.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
Not quite sure whether there is a titanic struggle, or whether this is just journalistic overstatement.
But if there is, perhaps it's between the Lawful Neutral and the Neutral Good ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
for example, were a Catholic to conclude that choice of method of contraception is not a moral issue and not an issue that forms part of the faith that comes to us from the apostles, then it would be perfectly licit to ignore papal teaching on this issue.
The problem with all these discussions is that unless I give some totally clear-cut rules that one can follow automatically without any thought, you will claim that I'm making arbitrary distinctions. But neither is there such a set of rules nor are the distinctions arbitrary. Nobody who has bothered looking at the historical Church and her teachings could come to the conclusion that sexual morals in general, and contraception in particular, is not a valid field for potential papal teachings. That's just dumb, and rhetorics aside, you of course know that it is. There is long history of concern with such questions in the Church. What is required here is hence informed and faithful judgement. And there is no cookie-cutter rule for what that means. In the end however any judgement we make will be private. That is unavoidable.
You seem to be saying that, descriptively, everyone necessarily makes a judgment as to whether any particular utterance of the Pope represents the mind of the Church. Or not.
"Necessarily" implies that making such a judgment is not morally wrong as such.
Such a judgment may be wrongly made by lack of charity - being too willing to see him as barking mad, or influenced by Satan, or the spokesman for a particular faction or tendency within the church, for example. Or wrongly made by lack of prudence - rushing to judgment, failing to think things through and consider what other Christians have thought.
But coming to an incorrect conclusion by honest mistake seems a clear possibility. And you rightly suggest that this should be the charitable assumption in the absence of evidence to the contrary...
You seem to deny also that there are hard-and-fast rules by which such a judgment may be known to be incorrect. Which suggests that a certain amount of tolerance of differing views is in order.
In complex situations where a balance has to be struck between arguments or principles in tension, so much comes down to emphasis. And it's so much more fun to anathematize those with whom you disagree than to give a measured statement that they're over-emphasizing X and under-emphasizing Y...
I suspect there's a philosophical term for the sort of Frenchman who accepts any flawed or fallacious argument provided that it leads to a conclusion that France is right and France is great. And refuses to accept the validity of any principle by which France can be criticized.
Don't be that sort of Catholic. I know you want to aim higher than that...
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on
:
(Tangent, only justified if at all by the fact this thread has been quiet.)
Another reason to cheer the Pope. It seems something went wrong with the arrangements for the midnight Mass at St Peter's this year, and a soprano had to be flown in at the last minute from London. Afterwards, someone nervously informed the Pope that she was Jewish. He smiled and replied, "So was Mary". (From Private Eye)
Posted by Chesterbelloc (# 3128) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
Afterwards, someone nervously informed the Pope that she was Jewish. He smiled and replied, "So was Mary". (From Private Eye)
Something doesn't ring true to me about that, I must say. Why were they nervous about it? Who were they? The Vatican - and Francis personally and his immediate predecessors - has had generally excellent relations with the Jewish people for decades. That nervousness makes no sense to me.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Presumably the speaker thought there might be a problem with a person not of the correct faith taking a significant part in the service. After all, it isn't very long ago since that particular faith group was totally anathematised by that particular church.
Old bad habits die hard, as we see in the general rise in anti-Semitism across Europe.
Posted by Chesterbelloc (# 3128) on
:
Not buying it, HB. Suppose we restrict ourselves to even so long a period as the last hundred years: when in that time has there been a bar on non-Catholic musicians performing at Masses?
But especially today, 50 years post-Vatican II and with Francis on the throne, who on earth so close to the Vatican - a functionary of St Peter's, no less - would really think that a Jewish singer flown in in an emergency to sing at a Mass would be in any way frowned or found problematic by the current pope and openly express that worry to him?
But of course I can see that someone who wanted to make the current pontiff (many liberals' flavour of the month) look good particularly at the expense of Vatican functionaries (the "old guard") would peddle such a story - too good not to be true, yeah? Which is another reason for me to mistrust it.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
In theory, at least, the pope is only the servant of tradition.
Actually, no. The pope is supposed to be the servant of the servants of God.
And while such service may include reminding us (lazy servants as we are) of the value of traditions that are in danger of being forgotten, the job description does not include promoting tradition for its own sake, or leading a traditionalist faction within the body of Christian believers.
The pope is supposed to help us to promote Gospel values, not the values of hierarchy, authority and conservatism.
All is not as it should be, and a pope who recognises that and tries to do something about it, rather than pretending that everything that we have inherited from the generation before is perfect, is doing a worthwhile service.
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Robert Armin:
(Tangent, only justified if at all by the fact this thread has been quiet.)
Another reason to cheer the Pope. It seems something went wrong with the arrangements for the midnight Mass at St Peter's this year, and a soprano had to be flown in at the last minute from London. Afterwards, someone nervously informed the Pope that she was Jewish. He smiled and replied, "So was Mary". (From Private Eye)
An Israeli news website has it differently:
quote:
The Vatican discovered [Israeli soprano Chen] Reiss via Vienna's Philharmonic Symphony. She sang the same composition with the symphony at a festival for religious music two years ago. The pope himself was only told that the singer was Israeli 24 hours before the mass. "I approve very much, because Mary was also Jewish," he said.
They don't mention it being an emergency arrangement, or her being nervous.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
I suspect there's a philosophical term for the sort of Frenchman who accepts any flawed or fallacious argument provided that it leads to a conclusion that France is right and France is great. And refuses to accept the validity of any principle by which France can be criticized.
Don't be that sort of Catholic. I know you want to aim higher than that...
I find it rather hilarious how all your highfalutin' crap in the end so readily boils down to an argumentum ad hominem.
France is great. And if you have a problem with that, then I'm sure you can find a lake to jump into.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
In theory, at least, the pope is only the servant of tradition.
Actually, no. The pope is supposed to be the servant of the servants of God.
And thus he is the servant of the servants of that true tradition which is Divine in origin, guarded by the Holy Spirit throughout the ages, and so terribly sticks in your craw.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
An Israeli news website has it differently:
quote:
The Vatican discovered [Israeli soprano Chen] Reiss via Vienna's Philharmonic Symphony. She sang the same composition with the symphony at a festival for religious music two years ago. The pope himself was only told that the singer was Israeli 24 hours before the mass. "I approve very much, because Mary was also Jewish," he said.
They don't mention it being an emergency arrangement, or her being nervous.
All of this misses the point. The potential problem is not simply that the singer is Jewish. That's ridiculous. Why would anyone have an issue with a Jewish singer as such? I doubt that there ever was a time where a pope would have rejected a singer simply because they were Jewish. The potential problem is that this Jewish singer was performing at the Vatican's Christmas mass and was specifically singing Mozart's "Et incarnatus est", which is the part of the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed that asserts that Christ was incarnate by the Holy Ghost of the Virgin Mary, and was made man. Here is the performance in context, she is on at 3:14.
In other words, whether as Jew or possibly as secular person (no word on whether she is a practicing Jew, after all) she was singing something she didn't believe in, indeed something that is famously contrary to the Jewish faith as understood by contemporary Rabbinic Judaism, precisely at a point in a religious ceremony where this belief was being asserted by virtue of her singing it.
That is problematic, though it is hardly surprising that the singer herself thought of this as nothing more than a nice step in her singing career. The "answer" that the pope apparently gave was a pious soundbite that serves well to shake off the dumb secular press. But if you think about it, it is actually quite horrible, because it appropriates the singer's belief by a comparison to the Virgin Mary: the Jewish Virgin Mary gave her flesh to incarnate God, thereby de facto becoming the most intimate Christian, and the Jewish singer gives her voice to a celebration thereof, thereby de facto making her assert this Christian belief herself. Or it insults the Virgin Mary by pretending that her acceptance of becoming Christ's mother is comparable to a singer doing a paid job irrespective of what it may mean religiously.
In truth, hiring a Jewish singer for this is "OK" precisely because it is nothing like the Virgin Mary, but because we treat this person simply as a beautiful voice. It is "OK" for her to sing a part of a Creed that she does not believe in, and quite possibly actively believes against, because she is being treated as just a more impressive live version of an audio recording. She delivers a product, not a conviction, and this is part of a "show" that is being put on.
In turn, that is problematic, because the liturgy is not supposed to be a "show" in that sense, and certainly voicing the Creed is supposed to be an active affirmation of belief. I note that liturgical singing of a creed goes well beyond the more typical "non-believing organist playing accompanying music at church". But anyway, my point is that the real problems here are exactly the reverse of the secular sensibilities. If there is any anti-Semitism to be attributed here, then it is making a Jew sing this in this particular Christian religious context, rather than by not doing so.
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on
:
From personal experience I can say that on a good number of the occasions musicians performing at religious services may not share fully the faith of the religious body organising the event.
The same can be said of a number of 'worshippers' participating in some way in a religious rite.
I understand IngoB's worry that the singer at St Peter's may have been obliged to sing something which goes against her conscience,but surely she could not have been forced to take part.She must have done so willingly.
I understand also IngoB's point that this part of the liturgy (Et incarnates est )on Christmas night recalling the birth of Christ is a very important part of the liturgy.
One could say positively that the singer identified as Israeli ( and possibly Jewish,possibly observant Jewish) was happy to participate in this Christian liturgy and put her voice at the service of the Catholic church in helping to communicate the message of the birth of Christ.
If you want to be evangelic about it, it is just possible that the liturgy and the rite may just make her want to investigate Christianity more fully, (assuming that she is not already a Christian).
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
But participation is for the faithful. Unbelievers who are present merely observe.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Another point that comes to mind, and bit of a tangent I'm afraid, is that the above example merely demonstrates the unsuitability of such music to the liturgy. I would argue that as soon as you need to search for highly trained muscisians it ceases to be liturgical and becomes a mere performance. That's beauty of chant, I suppose, because it can be used everywhere at all times, even if it's just the priest and deacon. That's not to say that such pieces of music aren't in anyway beautiful or that they don't lift the mind in a spiritual sense, only that they are unsuitable.
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Another point that comes to mind, and bit of a tangent I'm afraid, is that the above example merely demonstrates the unsuitability of such music to the liturgy. I would argue that as soon as you need to search for highly trained muscisians it ceases to be liturgical and becomes a mere performance. That's beauty of chant, I suppose, because it can be used everywhere at all times, even if it's just the priest and deacon. That's not to say that such pieces of music aren't in anyway beautiful or that they don't lift the mind in a spiritual sense, only that they are unsuitable.
I don't think any liturgical music is inherently unsuitable. It becomes so if the aim, in using the music, is to provide a brilliant performance of a technically difficult piece.
Loving amateurs can use great works - as well as chant - to give glory to God, without aiming for or achieving technical excellence at either.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
I think it can be valid to go beyond the ordinary in a liturgical celebration, for special occasions. I think it can be a prudent choice to bring in unbelievers to stage such an extraordinary celebration, or for that matter an ordinary one. I think a televised "showpiece" mass is certainly a special occasion where one might want to "shine" by employing the talents of unbelievers. We do not have to make everything liturgical a key expression of faith crucial to conscience. This is pushing things too far towards a "Puritan" ideal. A bit of "advertisement by beauty" is allowable, even if we go shopping for it elsewhere.
That said, we cannot make liturgy just that - a show staged for others. That is going too far in the other direction. There needs to be a careful management of the "theatrical" aspects aimed at the public on such special occasions, or it indeed becomes a meaningless theatre. And the key problem in this particular case is that voicing the Creed has a particular and clear significance in the liturgy. If there is one thing - besides the consecration and reception of the host, obviously - that one cannot simply assign to a non-believer in the liturgical context, then it must be the confession of faith. That's just a bad idea.
On top of that, the particular part of the Creed that was assigned here is essentially incompatible with the assumed faith of the unbeliever, or at least with faith she belongs to by cultural ties. It is almost as if someone looked at the Creed and said: What is the essential deal breaker for Jews, on what issue did we fundamentally drift apart originally? And then they put the Christian view on that in the mouth of a Jewish woman. That's just ... seriously horrible. That the singer didn't care tells us something about the singer. That the pope waved this aside with a comment that is at least as bad as hiring the woman tells us something about this pope. He has either no liturgical sensibilities, or he is a smooth operator concerning the secular press, or both.
At any rate, this was not a good thing. As far as the supposed identification of chant with worship for the ordinary man goes - well, not really. I love Gregorian chant, to the point where I went on course to learn how to sing it. I think RC liturgy should bring back Gregorian chant for near everything, all responses, and all the times we sing in mass, but for say one hymn at the end. That said, if you ever crack open the Liber Usualis and look at the actual chants in there, you will soon discover that there are of course plenty of chant pieces that the ordinary man or woman in the pew will find rather difficult indeed. In other words, Gregorian chant is in the end a kind of music, and competent musicians will always stretch what is musically possible. So called melismatic or florid chant, which has many notes per syllable, is typically performed by a competent soloist and was never designed to be sung by everyone. And yes, I do think that has its place. It is good when we all offer worship together communally. It is also good when we offer in worship the best our most talented individuals can achieve. What is needed is awareness and intentionality in worship, a careful and respectful management of the meaning of the liturgical act. Then many things can be done without harm. What kills liturgy is disrespectful sloppiness and a focus on man instead of God.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
:
It seems to me that the disagreement is just whether it was a part of the service that may not be said by an unbeliever. I'd say that such parts are the sacramental parts which should not be said by any other lay person. Apparently in the UMC, where I often attend services, all but a very small part of the liturgy of communion may be said by a lay person. I have only seen this done once, but I found it intensely wrong. It made the pastor's role--and the elements' role--feel disconnected from the rest of the service, and that seemed inappropriate. I digress in this way to say that I certainly agree that certain parts of the service may not be said as performance. They simply must be believed. However I don't really get any other part of the service as performance either. I think that if one accepts a choir's performance as a gift to God* without needing to catechize the choristers, one may just as well accept a Jewish woman's sung statement of something vital to our faith. The alternative is needing to assume that the choir really does believe everything they say, and I have far too many friends in the choir to believe that.
*I'm not fully comfortable with that, but that's another thread
Posted by St Deird (# 7631) on
:
New thread on participation in worship...
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Don't be that sort of Catholic. I know you want to aim higher than that...
I find it rather hilarious how all your highfalutin' crap in the end so readily boils down to an argumentum ad hominem.
No. Ad hominem is playing the man not the ball, responding to the fact that it is you that is saying it rather than to what you're saying. This is the opposite. This is saying that the crap you're currently spouting is the problem and inviting you not to identify yourself with it.
quote:
France is great. And if you have a problem with that, then I'm sure you can find a lake to jump into.
I have no problem with Francophiles as such. But people who pretend that they're interested in truth and justice and goodness and are really only interested in trying to secure a pro-French conclusion are pretty despicable...
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
In theory, at least, the pope is only the servant of tradition.
Actually, no. The pope is supposed to be the servant of the servants of God.
And thus he is the servant of the servants of that true tradition which is Divine in origin, guarded by the Holy Spirit throughout the ages, and so terribly sticks in your craw.
I don't have a problem with tradition either. I like traditions. They tell us where we've come from. What I find hard to stomach is the sort of small-minded jobsworth who wants to impose their preferred tradition on everyone else, self-serving tradition, tradition for its own sake, tradition as the yardstick by which all things are assessed, tradition as the last word on where we're going.
Maybe I learnt at too young an age that the tradition of Sabbath-keeping exists for humankind, and not us for it.
Maybe the struggle is between those who know this and view tradition in that light, and those who don't ?
Best wishes,
Russ
[edited for code]
[ 19. January 2015, 05:17: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
"Pope opens doors to transsexual dubbed 'devil's daughter'." (Yahoo)
By the way, it was the man's own priest who called him that.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Maybe the struggle is between those who know this and view tradition in that light, and those who don't?
If we were to strip away all the bias, falsehood and insult of your post, then indeed we could probably boil it down to a different conception of tradition. But I prefer to leave it as ugly as it is.
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
"Pope opens doors to transsexual dubbed 'devil's daughter'." (Yahoo) By the way, it was the man's own priest who called him that.
I'm sure the loud slurping noises from papal publicity stunts that suck up to the Zeitgeist will lead to millions of new converts to the RC faith. You just wait. And feel free to hold your breath while you do...
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
And if they stop breeding like rabbits the de-conversion rate will win.
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
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You prefer the ostracism and denouncement as a "Devil's Daughter" to the pope's acceptance then?
Lovely. Funny you should mention ugliness in the same post.
(x-Post with Martin60)
[ 28. January 2015, 13:14: Message edited by: Karl: Liberal Backslider ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
You prefer the ostracism and denouncement as a "Devil's Daughter" to the pope's acceptance then? Lovely. Funny you should mention ugliness in the same post.
Since you accuse me of this, I'm sure you can somehow back it up? I mean, other than by simply asserting this?
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
You prefer the ostracism and denouncement as a "Devil's Daughter" to the pope's acceptance then? Lovely. Funny you should mention ugliness in the same post.
Since you accuse me of this, I'm sure you can somehow back it up? I mean, other than by simply asserting this?
See that question mark? It means it was a question. I don't put question marks on assertions. I ask for confirmation. It was what I inferred from your post, but I'm open to elucidation.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
See that question mark? It means it was a question. I don't put question marks on assertions. I ask for confirmation. It was what I inferred from your post, but I'm open to elucidation.
Don't play games. It was a rhetorical question, as you well know.
If the Spanish parish priest actually said this, and I wouldn't trust the secular press further than I can spit concerning that, then this is obviously wrong and entirely unwarranted by RC teaching and pastoral practice. But two wrongs do not make a right.
The problem with papal actions like these is that they have signal value beyond the direct concerns of the people involved. Why does Yahoo publish this, and why does Golden Key point to it here? Because everybody is immediately seeking for meaning and signs in this. The pope simply cannot to do anything that has the remotest chance of going public in a pure one-on-one pastoral manner. Like the POTUS or other public figures of great influence, his ever move is watched with eagle's eyes. If Pope Francis doesn't realise that, then he is plain stupid. I don't think that he is stupid. If he does this knowingly, then let's be clear that as far as the signal value is concerned, this is either hypocritical or heretical. Let me stress that it is of course neither hypocritical nor heretical to show charity to a transsexual in a "Lesbian" relationship about to get "married". Neither is it wrong to say sorry for whatever uncharitable act some other priest may have committed, as a higher-ranking representative of the Church. The problem is located in the wider signal value that everybody immediately reads into such acts. Either the pope intends to change the Church's teaching on sexual morals and intimate relationships, then this is a signal of heresy. Or he doesn't, then this is a signal of hypocrisy.
Liberals love to compare the condemnation of active homosexuality with racism. Why not here? If a white POTUS in the racist US past would have publicly embraced a black man who had come into conflict with segregation laws, but at the same time would have done nothing to actually change those very laws, would that have solved the problem of racism? Hardly. It would only have had value (beyond the personal) because everybody would have read a potential future change of law into this act.
If the pope wants to signal to the world that the alleged behaviour of the Spanish parish priest is not OK, and will not be tolerated any longer, then he could have exercised his full power of governance against that priest. That's actually his job as the supreme governor of the Church till Christ returns! (Micromanaging is of course not generally a good idea, but sometimes a manager must step in to set things on the right track.) But that would have shown the papal office as what it is. Pope Francis has gone for the "soft" publicity stunt instead. It is a bad choice that in the long run will do more harm than good.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
:
See, I disagree about signals. Last time Pope Francis said he supported the church's teaching on some dead horse or other, my husband (liberal and indubitably Protestant) posted it to facebook, with the comment "In other news, bears still go in the woods.*" Now I'm sure some people, probably particularly people who don't know much about the Catholic church, were indeed hoping the pope would say the opposite, but some people will always be hoping/expecting that. When the pope shows love to someone in an sometimes abused group, my biggest take is that he intended it as a reminder to all of us to show love, even to people we disagree with, even to those who are not always welcomed everywhere. I'm pretty sure Diego Neria Lejarraga would be more socially normal (and welcomed) in my circles than Pope Francis', but he still treated him decently. I hope I can do the same with people I am uncomfortable with.
*Approximated from memory
[ 28. January 2015, 14:30: Message edited by: Gwai ]
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
Heresy? If accepting that some people are made miserable by the dissonance between their phenotypical gender and what they feel themselves innately to be, and that we can do something about that misery is heresy then chalk me up as a heretic. And a proud one at that.
I really, really, hope the Pope is signalling there'll be a change. And it's a change for the better, for a RCC that cares more about people than rules. Which it should, because people do matter more than rules.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
"Rules" as if to make it sound arbitrary. It's nothing to do with rules, as if this was akin to determining which days we should fast on.
[ 28. January 2015, 14:37: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
This is in responses to IngoB's last post, not the ones since.
I still don't get how one who advocates a traditionalist understanding of Catholic teaching including on the papacy can argue that the Holy Father has got something wrong or made a mistake. It seems to be saying, 'I'll only follow St Ignatius's First Rule when the Holy Church thinks like I do'.
Of course we don't know how reliable this Yahoo report is. The media hasn't got a good reputation generally, and is fairly consistently worse than average when it reports religious affairs. My inclination is not to give the accuracy of this report the benefit of the doubt. So if this happened, we don't actually know which parts of it happened the way they are reported, what message the Pope was trying to convey or whether this was supposed to be confidential to Diego Neria Lejarraga but got leaked.
I'm not a Roman Catholic. But I would have no difficulty imagining a situation where the Pope might conclude that for the health of Diego Neria Lejarraga's immortal soul, it was good to meet him/her even though he/she did not fit neatly into the various categories of people conventionally in a state of grace. I even have little difficulty imagining the possibility that the Holy Father might want to signal to the faithful that publicly shaming those who did not fit those categories might not be the most charitable way of conducting church affairs. That might be irrespective of whether the church actually endorses or affirms everything that Diego Neria Lejarraga might do or have done. As Universal Bishop, I can even imagine that one might not mind too much if that message leaked to some of one's more authoritarian small town clergy. But I just do not know. It's not for me, or for anyone else to say.
I do stand, though, by what I've said thinking with the church. Even the thought, 'I'll only follow St Ignatius's First Rule when the Holy Church thinks like I do' is profoundly Protestant.
[ 28. January 2015, 14:50: Message edited by: Enoch ]
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
"Rules" as if to make it sound arbitrary. It's nothing to do with rules, as if this was akin to determining which days we should fast on.
Nonsense. It's everything about rules. You can call them principles if you like. You can call them what you like, but whatever you call them, people come first.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
"Rules" as if to make it sound arbitrary. It's nothing to do with rules, as if this was akin to determining which days we should fast on.
Nonsense. It's everything about rules. You can call them principles if you like. You can call them what you like, but whatever you call them, people come first.
Yet what did our Lord say to the woman caught in adultery? Even though he showed her mercy did he condone her sin? No.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
Enoch, I'm really not sure what you're not getting here. The Pope's infallibility extends only to pronouncements on faith and morals, and has to be explicitly invoked. Furthermore, no pronouncement intended as infallible can contradict church dogma or doctrine. He is the servant of Tradition, not its master.
Catholics do owe him obedience, but that has never meant he is free from criticism or that he cannot err on any point. And faced with a choice between obedience to the person of the Pope and obedience to what the Pope represents, a Catholic of conscience should always choose the latter.
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
What the blithering blather has gender reassignment got to do with sin?
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
That's a good question. As far as I can tell, the RCC considers gender dysphoria to be a mental illness, which suggests there is no culpability attached to it. Again, as far as I can tell the Church does not recognize gender reassignment.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
I'm pretty sure Diego Neria Lejarraga would be more socially normal (and welcomed) in my circles than Pope Francis', but he still treated him decently.
Pope Francis did not treat him decently, in any simple sense. Rather he singled him out and arranged for an - inevitably public - demonstration of decency, if you so wish. It's a different kind of game that is being played there, a very public one, and I think Pope Francis should stop trading clarity on doctrine for the warm fuzzies from people who are at best neutral to the Church, if not decidedly inimical to her. Because that's effectively what he has been doing, in my opinion, whatever may have been his intentions.
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
Heresy? If accepting that some people are made miserable by the dissonance between their phenotypical gender and what they feel themselves innately to be, and that we can do something about that misery is heresy then chalk me up as a heretic. And a proud one at that.
Nice picking and choosing there... Hint: what I was actually considering as potentially heretic (if accepted) was indicated by the application of scare quotes.
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I still don't get how one who advocates a traditionalist understanding of Catholic teaching including on the papacy can argue that the Holy Father has got something wrong or made a mistake.
And why precisely should any Catholic, or for that matter traditional Catholic, care that you don't get Catholicism? The pope is infallible only under very special circumstances, which furthermore need to be invoked by the pope explicitly and do not attach to his office automatically, much less to just every thing he does or says. Otherwise the pope is fallible, which means that he can get things wrong and make mistakes. It happens. I know no Catholic who is particularly threatened in their Catholicism by the fact that it happens (as much as they may rage against any real or perceived error of some pope or the other).
quote:
"New Commentary on the Code of Canon Law", J.P. Beal, J.A. Coriden, T.J. Green
Canon 1404 - The First See is judged by no one.
Canon 1404 is not a statement about the personal impeccability or inerrancy of the Holy Father. Should, indeed, the pope fall into heresy, it is understood that he would lose his office. To fall from Peter's faith is to fall from his chair. [footnote 36: various references to canon law sources] The question, however, of who or what body (probably a general council) would determine whether, in fact, the pope had fallen into heresy is unclear historically and is obviously not settled by this canon.
"De Romano Pontifice", St. Robert Bellarmine, Doctor of the Church
Therefore, the true opinion is the fifth, according to which the Pope who is manifestly a heretic ceases by himself to be Pope and head, in the same way as he ceases to be a Christian and a member of the body of the Church; and for this reason he can be judged and punished by the Church. This is the opinion of all the ancient Fathers, who teach that manifest heretics immediately lose all jurisdiction, and outstandingly that of St. Cyprian (lib. 4, epist. 2) who speaks as follows of Novatian, who was Pope [antipope] in the schism which occurred during the pontificate of St. Cornelius: "He would not be able to retain the episcopate, and, if he was made bishop before, he separated himself from the body of those who were, like him, bishops, and from the unity of the Church."
Summa Theologiae, St Thomas Aquinas, Doctor of the Church
A subject is not competent to administer to his prelate the correction which is an act of justice through the coercive nature of punishment: but the fraternal correction which is an act of charity is within the competency of everyone in respect of any person towards whom he is bound by charity, provided there be something in that person which requires correction. ... It must be observed, however, that if the faith were endangered, a subject ought to rebuke his prelate even publicly. Hence Paul, who was Peter's subject, rebuked him in public, on account of the imminent danger of scandal concerning faith, and, as the gloss of Augustine says on Galatians 2:11, "Peter gave an example to superiors, that if at any time they should happen to stray from the straight path, they should not disdain to be reproved by their subjects." ... To presume oneself to be simply better than one's prelate, would seem to savor of presumptuous pride; but there is no presumption in thinking oneself better in some respect, because, in this life, no man is without some fault.
Apostolic Constitution "Cum Ex Apostolic Officio", Pope Paul IV
... if ever at any time it shall appear that any Bishop, ... even the Roman Pontiff, prior to his promotion or his elevation as Cardinal or Roman Pontiff, has deviated from the Catholic Faith or fallen into some heresy:
(i) the promotion or elevation, even if it shall have been uncontested and by the unanimous assent of all the Cardinals, shall be null, void and worthless; ...
(v) each and all of their words, deeds, actions and enactments, howsoever made, and anything whatsoever to which these may give rise, shall be without force and shall grant no stability whatsoever nor any right to anyone;
(vi) those thus promoted or elevated shall be deprived automatically, and without need for any further declaration, of all dignity, position, honour, title, authority, office and power.
"The Church in Medieval Thought", Fausto Salvoni, Restoration Quarterly Vol. 2 No. 4 (1958): 205-19
Can the Pope become Heretic? In the Decree of Gratian we find this expression attributed by the Cardinal Deus Dedit (d. 1087) and Yves de Chartres to Boniface Archbishop of Mayence: "No one can judge the sins of the pope, who alone judges man, but can be judged by no one, except for the sin of heresy." (62) Innocent III asserted "the faith is very necessary for me, because I have only God as the judge of all by sins, but for the one sin against the faith I can be judged by the church."(63)
The medieval theologians did not study this possibility of heretical popes.(64) But all the canonists of the XII and XIII centuries accepted and agreed with the decree of Gratian. They acknowledged the possibility for the pope to become heretical. They questioned only how he can be judged by the church. Some canonists extended the authority of the church to judge the pope also to other sins.(65) But generally this authority was restricted to heresy.(66) According to Rufinus the heresy must be pertinacious,(67) that is, continuing after one or two admonitions. In that position the pope is inferior to every other Catholic Christian (minor quolibet catholico) said Huguccio.(68)
Though Cardinal Torquemada wrote that papal infallibility is caused by special assistance of the Holy Spirit, he really minimized its value. The pope indeed cannot only err as a private person, but he can also err in defining the creed. But his error, due to the liberty of the pope's will, cannot be adduced to prove the fallibility of the pope. He cannot therefore be deposed by the council because he is already displaced by himself for his heresy.(69)
I'm unfortunately unable to source online and in English translation quite a few medieval / early modern comments on this topic, so the above journal article will have to do. (In particular Pope Innocent III quite explicitly stated that the pope can become heretic, but his Sermons do not appear to be around in full translation, and I won't link to snippets that float around among Sedevacantists.)
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Fr Weber:
That's a good question. As far as I can tell, the RCC considers gender dysphoria to be a mental illness, which suggests there is no culpability attached to it. Again, as far as I can tell the Church does not recognize gender reassignment.
I'm not so sure that this particular issue is done and dusted in RC teaching. But yes, one is clearly not culpable of any sin simply for having gender identity disorder, and no, the changed gender would (best I know) not be recognised where this could be relevant to the Church (concerning marriage or ordination).
Anyway, as far as I get it this is a man who has been surgically and medically altered to appear as a woman. And this person now has a "Lesbian" relationship to a woman with the intention to "marry" her. So if we accept that this man is now a woman, then by the lights of the Church she may not become sexually active as a Lesbian and decidedly cannot marry another woman (at least certainly not sacramentally in the Church). But if we do not accept that this man is now a woman, then he presumably has had his penis removed surgically and hence now has a dire impediment to sacramental marriage, namely antecedent and perpetual impotence (Canon 1084). And of course, also here sex before marriage would be sinful. So basically, this particular relationship - if it is anything but sibling and sister - cannot possibly work in the eyes of the Church. If the pope let it be assumed by his actions that he cannot manage to judge that this is the case, then he is de facto undermining the clear teaching of the Church.
Posted by stonespring (# 15530) on
:
Note: "a transgender man" - as in the case being reported on of the Spanish transman who met with the Pope with his fiancee - is someone who is born "biologically female" but who identifies as male. The reporting of this has been pretty consistent in calling the person in question a female-to-male transgender person, as far as I am aware. So if you read about "a transgender man" in the news, as long as it's from a reputable news source in a relatively socially progressive country, you should assume its an FTM transgender individual.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
Sorry, I seem to have gotten that the wrong way around then. It wasn't quite so clear from the Yahoo link given above, though it certainly makes more sense concerning the purported insult by the parish priest. I should have realised that "Diego" and "man" would be after, rather than before, the surgery in secular reporting. Anyway, the analysis above basically holds, just by switching around what s/he really is, since phalloplasty leaves one impotent as such (quite apart from any less "mechanical" considerations). Anything but a sexually continent relationship would not be licit in the eyes of the Church.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
I'm pretty sure Diego Neria Lejarraga would be more socially normal (and welcomed) in my circles than Pope Francis', but he still treated him decently.
Pope Francis did not treat him decently, in any simple sense. Rather he singled him out and arranged for an - inevitably public - demonstration of decency, if you so wish. It's a different kind of game that is being played there, a very public one, and I think Pope Francis should stop trading clarity on doctrine for the warm fuzzies from people who are at best neutral to the Church, if not decidedly inimical to her. Because that's effectively what he has been doing, in my opinion, whatever may have been his intentions.
For one thing, I think you are saying the Church should be neutral or inimical to Diego really and not vis versa. Because Diego is clearly not neutral to the Catholic Church despite what his priest apparently said. If he were, he wouldn't want to meet with its leader.
Re decency and ways to interpret it, I think I addressed that in the part of my comment you snipped out.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
I think you are saying the Church should be neutral or inimical to Diego really and not vis versa.
I wasn't talking about Diego at all with that comment, because I don't think these actions are primarily about Diego or indeed even transgendered people in general. I was talking about people like you or your husband, or indeed the majority of the mass media. I think these actions are aimed at the majority of people in the West who have a different opinion about transgendered people (and homosexuality) than the Church has. Admittedly, that's cynical. And I don't necessarily mean that Pope Francis is calculating his actions for effect. He may well be genuinely moved and rather impulsive, but if so, then I think he has mastered the art of channeling that into a specific public persona. As I guess is to be expected of a Jesuit...
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
Because Diego is clearly not neutral to the Catholic Church despite what his priest apparently said. If he were, he wouldn't want to meet with its leader.
That's an unrealistic appraisal of possible motivations that Diego might have. Not that I have any idea about those. For all I know he considers himself totally devout and Catholic to the core. But it would certainly also be possible for Diego to outright hate the church, and aim for her destruction, and still want to meet Pope Francis.
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
Re decency and ways to interpret it, I think I addressed that in the part of my comment you snipped out.
Fair enough. I think we are largely in agreement there anyway, we just evaluate the outcome differently. As I've said, we will simply see how much good Pope Francis is doing with all this.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Gwai. Spot on. Francis is a Christian despite being Roman.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
he singled him out and arranged for an - inevitably public - demonstration of decency, if you so wish. It's a different kind of game that is being played there, a very public one, and I think Pope Francis should stop trading clarity on doctrine for the warm fuzzies
In other words, the Pope should stop giving the appearance of being a decent man, because people might get the wrong idea about the Catholic church...
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally Posted by IngoB:
But it would certainly also be possible for Diego to outright hate the church, and aim for her destruction, and still want to meet Pope Francis.
And why, if this soul is as evil as you say, should the Pope be afraid of Diego? Is he going to brainwash the poor Pope? Give the mistaken idea that it's possible to uphold church doctrine and show people basic courtesy and respect due to the image of God in them? Warm fuzzies, my ass. This is simply being human before humans, just as Jesus did.
In the Old Testament, contact with the Holy obliterated sinners with extreme prejudice. In the Gospels, contact with the Holy heals sinners. Have we gotten so far out that contact with sinners can destroy the holy? Is faith really such frail stuff that one confused soul can destroy an entire institution? If so, where is God in this?
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
Ok, I found some sources with a little more info:
Hoy newspaper (Spain). (In Spanish.) This is the original interview with Diego. It's quoted (in English) or referenced in the next two links.
Washington Post. This has quite a bit from Diego.
HuffPost.
I also checked the Whispers In The Loggia blog, but nothing yet.
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on
:
According to Hoy Diego says he is a believing and practicing Catholic with a strong Catholic background.
For Martin60 pope Francis is not Roman.He was born and brought up in Argentina of Italian (but not Roman) parentage.
He speaks Italian easily and well.His (South American)Spanish is clearly noticed in his pronunciation of prayers in Latin.
To emphasize his role as Bishop of Rome he tends to use Italian, and only Italian, almost all the time.
During his recent trip to Sri Lanka and the Philipines he made a great effort to use English.
However on a number of occasions he departed from his prepared text and improvised in his native Spanish.
Yes, Francis is a Christian,he is an adopted Roman but is also Argentinian.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
And why, if this soul is as evil as you say, should the Pope be afraid of Diego? Is he going to brainwash the poor Pope? Give the mistaken idea that it's possible to uphold church doctrine and show people basic courtesy and respect due to the image of God in them? Warm fuzzies, my ass. This is simply being human before humans, just as Jesus did.
And so on, and so forth... Yes, the warm fuzzies - as on display here, with you, and Martin60, and plenty of other people either neutral or inimical to the Church. And the uselessness of it all is also on full display, because none of you people now feels compelled to join RCIA, isn't that so?
Of course, I cannot predict the effect on less prejudiced people. I don't know whether now many Catholics that were drifting away from the Church feel encouraged to stay. I cannot predict whether those more friendly to the Church indeed see this as a motivation to now finally join RCIA. But here's the thing: I don't need to. I can just wait. Let's give it five years or so, then we will see the impact Pope Francis has had on the numbers.
Meanwhile, none of you particularly cares about the pope sending mixed messages - if not outright causing scandal to the faithful - concerning key Catholic teachings on gender, intimate relationships, and marriage. Because you think these teachings are wrong, so who cares? Well, I do. And so do others who think these teachings are right. Jesus did not simply meet and greet with sinners. That is the false accusation of the Pharisees against him! Jesus brought sinners to repentance, he was working as doctor among the sick, healing or at least attempting to heal them. Where is the "go, and sin no more" in all this? If the pope is putting on a public show of WWJD, then where's the "what would a repentant sinner do" bit? Where is Diego crying on the pope's feet and wiping it with his/her hair?
But yes, according to most of you - I know - Diego is not sinning at all. So this is just the pope behaving a bit more like any decent person would, and acting as a good pastor should. So, warm fuzzies for you then. Enjoy, since that's all this will ever change in you.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
hosting/
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Enjoy, since that's all this will ever change in you.
IngoB, we don't like personal attacks even when they are attacking "most of us" as perceived by you. Desist.
/hosting
[ 29. January 2015, 09:48: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
What I don't understand, if these teachings are "right", is why God wants people with gender dysphoria to be miserable, rather than change their gender. Seems rather a mean rule.
If that's "warm fuzzy" then so what? What's the harm in gender reassignment? Fuck all.
[ 29. January 2015, 10:15: Message edited by: Karl: Liberal Backslider ]
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
And why precisely should any Catholic, or for that matter traditional Catholic, care that you don't get Catholicism?
Because aren't you supposed to want and pray that I should be persuaded of the errors of my ways and join you? quote:
The pope is infallible only under very special circumstances, which furthermore need to be invoked by the pope explicitly and do not attach to his office automatically, much less to just every thing he does or says. Otherwise the pope is fallible, which means that he can get things wrong and make mistakes.
That's fine. However, there's still a big difference between saying 'we only have to believe what the Pope says when he says specifically that he's propounding doctrine infallibly' and adopting a carping approach to everything one's spiritual leader says or does because he doesn't represent the sort of Catholicism one likes.
We're not in the C16 when Papal elections were just a matter of the grubbiest power politics. Presumably, as a Catholic, one believes that the Pope is the person God has chosen to lead the Catholic Church. Isn't one therefore supposed to listen to what he says and look at what he does with discernment. Perhaps, yes, he might turn out to be mistaken. Even so, if he isn't doing something I'd do if I were Pope, isn't the first question I should ask of myself, 'might this have something to say to me?', rather than 'if I got the chance, I'd have something to say to him'.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
What I don't understand, if these teachings are "right", is why God wants people with gender dysphoria to be miserable, rather than change their gender. Seems rather a mean rule.
To repeat what I said above, how someone with gender identity disorder is to be treated is not - I think (!) - a fully settled issue within RC moral and pastoral practice. I think there is some scope there for seeing bodily surgery as the best available treatment option for this particular mental illness, if it acutely endangers the well-being of that person. This would however not entail accepting the changed gender as real where this affects church law (ordination and matrimony).
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Presumably, as a Catholic, one believes that the Pope is the person God has chosen to lead the Catholic Church. Isn't one therefore supposed to listen to what he says and look at what he does with discernment. Perhaps, yes, he might turn out to be mistaken. Even so, if he isn't doing something I'd do if I were Pope, isn't the first question I should ask of myself, 'might this have something to say to me?', rather than 'if I got the chance, I'd have something to say to him'.
I'm sorry, but I'm missing in all this the part where you show that this attitude and this discernment is missing in those who are uncomfortable with what Pope Francis is doing? Furthermore, I think you do not appreciate enough that being pope is an office. One can indeed apply discernment to the role of the office, it is not necessary to judge every single action of the papacy anew strictly on its own merits. And in practice, that is one reason why critique of what Pope Francis is doing is often so immediate. It is not "knee-jerk" (or at least it doesn't have to be), but a consistent comparison with a considered view of the role of this particular office. In fact, much of the praise for Pope Francis from others is generated near instantly in just the same way, but from a different view of the office.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
But yes, according to most of you - I know - Diego is not sinning at all. So this is just the pope behaving a bit more like any decent person would, and acting as a good pastor should. So, warm fuzzies for you then. Enjoy, since that's all this will ever change in you.
It's not difficult.
Sinning is chosen behaviour chosen to hurt others. Our race, gender, eye colour and height (to name a few) are not chosen by us at all they are 'given' - by God if you believe that, or by chance if you don't.
Either way, we can't sin by simply being black, tall, gay, male, female etc.
Posted by Bishops Finger (# 5430) on
:
I just thank God that it is s/he who is in overall charge, and not just the Roman Catholic (or any other) Church!
Ian J.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
It's not difficult. Sinning is chosen behaviour chosen to hurt others. Our race, gender, eye colour and height (to name a few) are not chosen by us at all they are 'given' - by God if you believe that, or by chance if you don't. Either way, we can't sin by simply being black, tall, gay, male, female etc.
I had a two paragraph response typed out before I realised that this would necessary stray into DH territory. Suffice to say then that you are absolutely correct, but for two things: 1. You overly limit what counts as "sin". 2. You include "tall" and "gay" in one list as if there are no differences between those two. But there are.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
I'm catholic AND Catholic Forthview, just not Roman.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
IngoB: quote:
You include "tall" and "gay" in one list as if there are no differences between those two. But there are.
I'm a bit surprised that, after all the discussion upthread, you didn't consider "male" or "female" as orientational sins, since the possibility for confusion and "improper" assignation exists. Is it sinful to maintain a lie if one perceives that one is the "wrong" physical gender and stays the way one is physically, or is one supposed to make changes to bring one disjointed pieces together, therefore approaching a less inimical state?
Plus I know some tall people who are really upset about that feature. Are they sinning by telling God that they disapprove of His choices?
And "gay": is it sinful to attempt to hide gayness, thereby damaging oneself and the people around one, especially one's married partner, or is it sinful to admit to one's nature, thereby earning disapproval from the Pharisees* while improving one's own mental state?
*See comments from Jesus on this matter
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
I'm a bit surprised that, after all the discussion upthread, you didn't consider "male" or "female" as orientational sins, since the possibility for confusion and "improper" assignation exists. Is it sinful to maintain a lie if one perceives that one is the "wrong" physical gender and stays the way one is physically, or is one supposed to make changes to bring one disjointed pieces together, therefore approaching a less inimical state?
(I don't know whether gender change is also DH? I'm not intending to overstep boundaries here.)
As mentioned, I'm not sure. I think gender is more fundamental to human life than for example weight, and consequently gender reassignment and liposuction are not to be considered at the same level. I do not know if gender reassignment is considered "evil as such", and if so, why precisely. Finally, I have not thought through possible scenarios of applying "double effect" in this case, i.e., to what extent gender reassignment may be an unintended though predictable lesser evil. Thus I can only answer that I reject the "I want X, therefore X is good" logic as obvious tosh, but I personally do not have a worked out and informed opinion on this topic.
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Plus I know some tall people who are really upset about that feature. Are they sinning by telling God that they disapprove of His choices?
At some point, yes, obviously. Every bitching about your situation, whatever that situation may be, can turn into an open conflict with God. At what point is, however, a different question. Clearly there is some scope to complain about one's lot, as the psalms show. And it seems just and right to me that those whose crosses are heavier shall have more freedom to moan about it.
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
And "gay": is it sinful to attempt to hide gayness, thereby damaging oneself and the people around one, especially one's married partner, or is it sinful to admit to one's nature, thereby earning disapproval from the Pharisees* while improving one's own mental state? *See comments from Jesus on this matter
Discussions of being gay are DH, I understand, so let's not get into that here.
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on
:
Martin, I am happy for you to call yourself whatever you wish.I felt sure that you were not Roman,as you would have otherwise surely known that the present pope was not born in Rome.
As far as I know the last Roman pope was Pius XII
(pope between 1939 and 1958).
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Why would I surely not have known?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
I find it curious that Martin60 considers himself to be "catholic", i.e., universal. I wonder in what way Martin60 could possibly be universal - is he perhaps a general principle of mystifying speech?
I also find curious that Martin60 considers himself to be "Catholic", which of course in common parlance simply means being a member of the Roman Catholic Church - which he is not. Protesting this usage is as useless as complaining that some Eastern churches have called dibs on the label "Orthodox".
Now, that Martin60 is not part of the SPQR, and isn't an Italian hailing from the biggest city there, that I can believe. I wonder though why he considers this worth mentioning. Why not say "I'm not a New Yorker?" or perhaps "I'm not a citizen of the Ming?"
It's all very confusing, really.
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Not really. I'm very grateful for my Roman Catholic heritage. Which makes me Catholic. Not just culturally as a Brit, but as an Anglican. I wouldn't claim to be Orthodox, although I'm strictly, rigidly, unyieldingly orthodox.
By the grace of God I'm catholic about it all too.
Placism is confusing isn't it?
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Sinning is chosen behaviour chosen to hurt others. Our race, gender, eye colour and height (to name a few) are not chosen by us at all they are 'given' - by God if you believe that, or by chance if you don't.
Either way, we can't sin by simply being black, tall, gay, male, female etc.
Seems to me that you're right that the only thing we're culpable - morally responsible - for is our choices. We're only responsible for what we are insofar as our choices have made us what we are. (My sister-in-law, for example, is a stubborn individual who reportedly stunted her growth by turning vegetarian as a teenager - some of her lack of height is a consequence of her choice).
So on that basis, if you believe that Diego has changed gender, then he is one of the very few people in the world whose maleness or femaleness could be (in your usage) sinful.
But in order to establish the wrongness or otherwise of his action, you would have to consider both intent and consequences. Has he hurt anyone thereby ? And was his intent honest, courageous, honourable etc or the opposite ? I'm unimpressed by the knee-jerk conservative reaction that such an act is untraditional and therefore must be bad. And equally the knee-jerk left-wing reaction that it's counter-cultural and therefore must be good.
Beyond our bad choices, there is a category of actions where we hurt other people or dishonour ourselves without choosing to (and without being culpably careless about). We regret the outcome afterwards, even though at the time we lack the knowledge or resources or perception to do otherwise.
It seems to me a matter of no more than linguistic convention, whether we use the word "sin" to include these shortcomings for which we are not to blame, or reserve that word for the failings for which we are culpable.
Which does not rule out the possibility of a dishonest usage which seeks to apply blame or induce guilt where none is due, to load the word with negative energy from the one case and then apply it to the other.
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
And why, if this soul is as evil as you say, should the Pope be afraid of Diego? Is he going to brainwash the poor Pope? Give the mistaken idea that it's possible to uphold church doctrine and show people basic courtesy and respect due to the image of God in them? Warm fuzzies, my ass. This is simply being human before humans, just as Jesus did.
And so on, and so forth... Yes, the warm fuzzies - as on display here, with you, and Martin60, and plenty of other people either neutral or inimical to the Church. And the uselessness of it all is also on full display, because none of you people now feels compelled to join RCIA, isn't that so?
Of course, I cannot predict the effect on less prejudiced people. I don't know whether now many Catholics that were drifting away from the Church feel encouraged to stay. I cannot predict whether those more friendly to the Church indeed see this as a motivation to now finally join RCIA. But here's the thing: I don't need to. I can just wait. Let's give it five years or so, then we will see the impact Pope Francis has had on the numbers.
Meanwhile, none of you particularly cares about the pope sending mixed messages - if not outright causing scandal to the faithful - concerning key Catholic teachings on gender, intimate relationships, and marriage. Because you think these teachings are wrong, so who cares? Well, I do. And so do others who think these teachings are right. Jesus did not simply meet and greet with sinners. That is the false accusation of the Pharisees against him! Jesus brought sinners to repentance, he was working as doctor among the sick, healing or at least attempting to heal them. Where is the "go, and sin no more" in all this? If the pope is putting on a public show of WWJD, then where's the "what would a repentant sinner do" bit? Where is Diego crying on the pope's feet and wiping it with his/her hair?
But yes, according to most of you - I know - Diego is not sinning at all. So this is just the pope behaving a bit more like any decent person would, and acting as a good pastor should. So, warm fuzzies for you then. Enjoy, since that's all this will ever change in you.
It's only prejudice if you form your opinion of someone without giving them a fair shake.
What I have is, I do not think, prejudice. I've seen this kind of tale before.
Nice try, but I've heard hellfire and damnation before. I've learned to live with the discomfort of someone else casting existential aspersions in my general direction.
[ 30. January 2015, 01:28: Message edited by: Bullfrog. ]
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
Now, IngoB, since you didn't respond to the latter part of my post, how do you answer this? quote:
In the Old Testament, contact with the Holy obliterated sinners with extreme prejudice. In the Gospels, contact with the Holy heals sinners. Have we gotten so far out that contact with sinners can destroy the holy? Is faith really such frail stuff that one confused soul can destroy an entire institution? If so, where is God in this?
Why are you so fearful that a trannie could threaten God's kingdom by meeting with the Pope? You spoke of him as if he were some kind of dastardly villain, steepling his fingers and fancying the destruction of the Roman Catholic Church.
The Gates of Hell shall not prevail. Satan shall be cast down. Do not be concerned with the evil of this age, for it will pass away.
Why is this one individual such a threat? How is that even conceivable?
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
It has the potential to cause much scandal among the faithful fof start. A bishop should not be the cause of scandal. But then Francis is a pope in the image of JPII. Both talking much meaningless gobbledegook (JPII philosophical mumbo jumbo and Francis "warm fuzzies") and the cause of much scandal among the RC faithful. I'm laying money on on Francis to be the first person to be canonised whilst still alive, btw. I can see it already, because most people are thick.
Benedict XVI on the otherhand was a breath of fresh air. Mild mannered, humble, patristic, a great mind yet intelligable.
Posted by St Deird (# 7631) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
And why, if this soul is as evil as you say, should the Pope be afraid of Diego? Is he going to brainwash the poor Pope? Give the mistaken idea that it's possible to uphold church doctrine and show people basic courtesy and respect due to the image of God in them? Warm fuzzies, my ass. This is simply being human before humans, just as Jesus did.
And so on, and so forth... Yes, the warm fuzzies - as on display here, with you, and Martin60, and plenty of other people either neutral or inimical to the Church. And the uselessness of it all is also on full display, because none of you people now feels compelled to join RCIA, isn't that so?
I'm confused.
The claim, earlier in the thread, was that the Pope was demonstrating to the public that we should behave lovingly towards people even if we disagree with them. And now you, IngoB, are calling it "useless" because no-one's feeling compelled to become Catholic as a result?
Surely, even assuming that the RCC is the one true church that we should all join, in a situation where we AREN'T joining it,
a) influencing people outside the RCC to behave more lovingly
is still better than
b) not caring whether people outside the RCC behave lovingly or not
After all, if nothing else, option (a) could cause people to gradually move closer to Christ, could it not?
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
Ad Orientem--
Actually, I think Francis is more like JP1, who I also liked very much.
B16 seemed to be much less of a people person.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Why are you so fearful that a trannie could threaten God's kingdom by meeting with the Pope? You spoke of him as if he were some kind of dastardly villain, steepling his fingers and fancying the destruction of the Roman Catholic Church. The Gates of Hell shall not prevail. Satan shall be cast down. Do not be concerned with the evil of this age, for it will pass away. Why is this one individual such a threat? How is that even conceivable?
I don't think the whole "gates of hell" thing means that we are to sit on our thumbs waiting for God to clear away any obstacles Satan is throwing our way. I think for the most part it will be us acting as instruments of God who are to ensure that the Gates of Hell indeed do not prevail. To use this verse as a kind of "laissez faire" principle is in my eyes entirely mistaken. I'm nor entirely sure what you are quoting or paraphrasing with the evil that shall pass away, but I'm sure that if you were to give me chapter and verse, then I would not find a simple counsel of passivity there either.
Diego is, I'm afraid, a pawn on a chessboard here. There's nothing anybody can do about that, including Pope Francis. As I've said above already, it is impossible for Pope Francis to act towards Diego simply as pastor, or as "good neighbour". At least not unless he hides his identity. Just like the current POTUS is effectively incapable of visiting the house of a poor family just as Mr Obama. It cannot be done. Wherever people in such positions go, they drag their office with them. The pope then is always scrutinised for "normative behaviour", at least when put in situations that do have relevant content for faith and morals. (Pope Francis probably can eat dinner without everybody around him trying to draw spiritual lessons from it. Probably.) And if the pope then deals with such a situation without in any way affirming the relevant normative teachings of the Church, nor in any way following the normative procedure for dealing with such situations, then people will wonder whether these norms still apply. And if the pope wishes to actually uphold these norms, then that's a problem. And if he doesn't, then that's a different problem...
In a way, the pope is doing here what Diego's "neighbours" should have been doing. Or perhaps his parish priest. At least as an initial step... So maybe Pope Francis wishes to "lead by example". Fine. Problem is that he does not have the reputation to do it. If Pope Francis was known as hammer of the heretics, as ultra-trad slamming the moderns left and right, as the second coming of Pius X, he he could have done this easily. Only Nixon could go to China. As it is though, basically everybody on all sides is seeing this as another brick in the liberal, modernist wall. This may be unfair to Pope Francis, but that's how things are. If he wants to liberally demonstrate being pastoral, then he needs to studiously demonstrate orthodoxy and orthopraxis. Or people will jump to conclusions. Them's the breaks if you are pope. And he is pope, he isn't just the bishop of Rome, much less some parish priest in Rome, and least of all some RC lay person.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
IngoB, whenever the topic of transgender people comes up it always feels to me as if you don't accept that gender can be anything other than a binary state, based on the presence or absence of a Y chromosome.
This is demonstrably not true, because androgen insensitivity syndrome has conclusively shown that it's possible for a person to end up with a female body while possessing a Y chromosome. Gender is affected by several different things, just as height is affected by several different things.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by St Deird:
I'm confused. The claim, earlier in the thread, was that the Pope was demonstrating to the public that we should behave lovingly towards people even if we disagree with them. And now you, IngoB, are calling it "useless" because no-one's feeling compelled to become Catholic as a result? Surely, even assuming that the RCC is the one true church that we should all join, in a situation where we AREN'T joining it,
a) influencing people outside the RCC to behave more lovingly
is still better than
b) not caring whether people outside the RCC behave lovingly or not
After all, if nothing else, option (a) could cause people to gradually move closer to Christ, could it not?
This simply ignores the actual situation, as actually expressed by several people on this thread. What Pope Francis is doing here is not seen as some special Christian (or Catholic) kindness. It is pretty much seen as the pope (and possibly with him the Church) catching up to basic standards of decent behaviour. It's more a "well, at least he did say sorry and came through in the end" moment in the eyes of the world. But the pope cannot actually come through in the end. So this invariably will disappoint and appear as hollow.
So probably nobody will dare to call Diego "devil's daughter" any more. Good. Is that special Christian kindness? It's more the absence of special Christian unkindness! But what will happen if Diego in face of so much friendliness now presents with his partner at communion? What, tell me, is the poor parish priest to do? I tell you what he probably should do, namely deny Diego communion. (Probably, because it is possible that Diego has repented and is living as sibling and sister with his partner. It's just unlikely.) Then what? Then all this friendliness comes crashing down. It would be sweetly ironic if Diego then appealed to Pope Francis to tell that parish priest to give him communion. What's Pope Francis going to say then? "Well, Diego, you asked me whether you have a place in the Church. And I hugged you. By this I meant that you actually need to repent and end all sexual activity with your partner, if you want to become a Catholic in good standing again. As soon as you do, of course you can take communion." Brilliant.
Of course, perhaps they had that conversation already. What do I know. But that's exactly the point. I do not know. I have no idea whether Pope Francis actually injected some orthopractical realism into his pastoral approach. If he did, it isn't getting any press. And so people everywhere are free to think "Well, finally the RCC seems to be shedding these stupid rules about gays, about time." Is that bringing people closer to Christ? If you believe that these rules are in fact stupid, then it is more bringing the Church closer to Christ. (And thus people, but a different group of people - not the ones commenting.) If you believe that these rules are in fact holy, then clearly not. Then this is rather affirming people in staying away from Christ.
I appreciate that Pope Francis is teaching the world and the Church "don't be mean to transsexuals". No doubt there are many people who still need to hear that, inside and outside of the Church. But here he appears to be simply joining the choir, and not striking a distinctive note. But he really has to. Because he cannot in fact sing along with the entire secular song. And the latter he breaks out of that harmony, the more dissonant it will be.
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
Some straw men here. No-one is saying "it's counter-cultural, therefore it's good", nor is anyone saying "I want X therefore X is good". It's more trying to find any way whatsoever in which this particular X, gender reassignment, can possibly be called not good, since it resolves a problem and harms no-one.
The definition of sin I struggle with is an action that does no-one any harm whatsoever but is decreed as "sin" anyway.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
IngoB, whenever the topic of transgender people comes up it always feels to me as if you don't accept that gender can be anything other than a binary state, based on the presence or absence of a Y chromosome.
This is demonstrably not true, because androgen insensitivity syndrome has conclusively shown that it's possible for a person to end up with a female body while possessing a Y chromosome. Gender is affected by several different things, just as height is affected by several different things.
That for some people it is difficult to determine their gender, and that for some it may even be a matter of human choice imposing one onto an unformed body, is neither here nor there. Just like I can discuss sight in spite of shortsightedness or even blindness, locomotion in spite of quadriplegia and muscular atrophy, etc. Dysfunction does not mean that I cannot discuss function. It simply means that what I discuss concerning function does not apply as straightforwardly to those who have dysfunction, and possibly in them only denotes a lack one has to contend with. And quite generally, hard cases do not make good law. It is foolish to start one's consideration of gender with those few difficult cases where gender is hard, or even impossible, to determine objectively. Whereas once one has figured out how one wants to deal with gender in principle, one can come back to these hard cases. Then one can motivate all sorts of exceptions and adaptations in such cases, because one has established principles as guidance.
In the case at hand, I do not believe that there is any difficulty in determining Diego's biological gender? Then we do not need to worry about the possibility of unclear biological gender here. That does not change anything concerning Diego. Because what we say about gender is based on its natural function, and we judge any dysfunction precisely by the actual deviation. So in the case of Diego, we have to ask what consequences the psychological disagreement with the biological gender may have. Nothing else.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
Some straw men here. No-one is saying "it's counter-cultural, therefore it's good", nor is anyone saying "I want X therefore X is good". It's more trying to find any way whatsoever in which this particular X, gender reassignment, can possibly be called not good, since it resolves a problem and harms no-one.
The definition of sin I struggle with is an action that does no-one any harm whatsoever but is decreed as "sin" anyway.
The 'sin' appears to be not living in the body that God gave you.
Which I find raises absolutely enormous problems. I don't know, for example, how such a position can be squared with Jesus healing a man born blind or the Apostles healing a man born a cripple. Nor do I know how it can be squared with allowing modern medicine to be used to deal with a range of other problems that people are born with.
The only way that it can be reconciled is simply to deny that there is any 'problem' to be fixed, or to demand that in a conflict between the mind and the body, it's the physical body that must triumph over the person's mind, that the evidence of OUR eyes is more important than the evidence of the own person's mind, heart and soul.
Personally I can't see how it's possible to treat the body in this way, so that the comfort of the person inside the body isn't relevant, but we do it in the reverse fashion as well - we tell deaf people that they're disabled when they don't feel disabled, and I've just happened to read a fascinating blog post by about a dyslexic person about how wearying it is to deal with all these 'normal' people who can't read letters backwards and think there's a problem when he/she reverses a letter's orientation.
But fundamentally that's what it's about: a position that other people know more about whether a person's body is okay or not than the person themselves know. This is cloaked in a statement that GOD knows more about the correct state of your body than you do, but there doesn't seem to be a lot of evidence that God is actually asked about this, nor is there much exploration of why it might be that God allows some people to be born in 'mistaken' bodies, such as blind or crippled, but never allows this mistake.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In the case at hand, I do not believe that there is any difficulty in determining Diego's biological gender?
As partly outlined in the post immediately below yours, this is begging the question. It's highly problematic to describe 'gender' as stopping at an external examination that checks whether various lumps appear to be in the place you, an external observer, expects.
Is the brain not a biological organ? Is its functioning not a biological process?
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In the case at hand, I do not believe that there is any difficulty in determining Diego's biological gender?
As partly outlined in the post immediately below yours, this is begging the question. It's highly problematic to describe 'gender' as stopping at an external examination that checks whether various lumps appear to be in the place you, an external observer, expects.
Is the brain not a biological organ? Is its functioning not a biological process?
The notion of biological gender is confused in any case. It's sex identity that is biological, (male and female), and there are blurred areas here; but the notion of gender formerly used to denote masculinity and femininity, which are more psychological and sociological areas. Unfortunately, the meaning of 'gender' has started to leak into 'sex', so that quite often you don't really know what someone means by the term.
On top of that, some people start talking about what is 'unnatural' or against 'natural function', so you end up with quite a scrambled set of meanings here!
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
As partly outlined in the post immediately below yours, this is begging the question. It's highly problematic to describe 'gender' as stopping at an external examination that checks whether various lumps appear to be in the place you, an external observer, expects. Is the brain not a biological organ? Is its functioning not a biological process?
Nobody is ignoring the brain here, but you are simply ignoring my point. In regular function, the gender of your genes, of your "lumps" and of your mind are one and the same. It is already a dysfunction if they somehow deviate from each other. I simply do not have to deal with gender identity disorder, people with various chromosomal abnormalities and whatnot to make statements about gender. Period. Once I have said something about gender in its regular function, I have to deal with the special cases presented by various dysfunctions. But then I only need to do so precisely in terms of these dysfunctions. I do not have to somehow generalise dysfunction to have the same status as function, and consider it on an equal footing. Dysfunction remains secondary to function, as some kind of privation thereof. And that's exactly how it should be dealt with.
(And before anybody jumps to conclusions: the above says in no way or form that people with gender dysfunction are secondary human beings. That is not the point at all.)
Edit in light of crosspost: Furthermore, I am talking about "sex identity" with "gender" here, primarily, not necessarily about "gender roles" where cultural concerns come into play as well.
[ 30. January 2015, 10:46: Message edited by: IngoB ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
As partly outlined in the post immediately below yours, this is begging the question. It's highly problematic to describe 'gender' as stopping at an external examination that checks whether various lumps appear to be in the place you, an external observer, expects. Is the brain not a biological organ? Is its functioning not a biological process?
Nobody is ignoring the brain here, but you are simply ignoring my point. In regular function, the gender of your genes, of your "lumps" and of your mind are one and the same. It is already a dysfunction if they somehow deviate from each other. I simply do not have to deal with gender identity disorder, people with various chromosomal abnormalities and whatnot to make statements about gender. Period. Once I have said something about gender in its regular function, I have to deal with the special cases presented by various dysfunctions. But then I only need to do so precisely in terms of these dysfunctions. I do not have to somehow generalise dysfunction to have the same status as function, and consider it on an equal footing. Dysfunction remains secondary to function, as some kind of privation thereof. And that's exactly how it should be dealt with.
(And before anybody jumps to conclusions: the above says in no way or form that people with gender dysfunction are secondary human beings. That is not the point at all.)
Yes.
But then you are saying it is a sin to resolve the dysfunction. Why is it a sin to resolve gender dysphoria, but not a sin to heal blindness or an inability to walk?
[ 30. January 2015, 10:46: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
ADDENDUM: That is the real problem here. A person suffering from gender dysphoria would actually entirely agree with you that there's a problem, but the approach you advocate is to tell them that they must live with it.
Either that, or you tell them that they must 'solve' it in a way that that all the evidence indicates doesn't work.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
But then you are saying it is a sin to resolve the dysfunction. Why is it a sin to resolve gender dysphoria, but not a sin to heal blindness or an inability to walk?
This is the third time on this thread then where I say that I - personally - am not sure about the sinfulness of gender reassignment therapy. Not because I disagree with the RCC, but simply because I have not put in the necessary work to have an informed and coherent opinion. I actually do not even know what the official RC teaching is there, at least not at the nitty-gritty level. And I also repeat once more that I think a key concern has to be just how strongly, and in what way, gender/sex is part of our identity.
This does not change my concerns with Diego and the pope, and from the start I have indicated that I am focusing on his presumably intimate relationship with a woman there.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
But then you are saying it is a sin to resolve the dysfunction. Why is it a sin to resolve gender dysphoria, but not a sin to heal blindness or an inability to walk?
This is the third time on this thread then where I say that I - personally - am not sure about the sinfulness of gender reassignment therapy. Not because I disagree with the RCC, but simply because I have not put in the necessary work to have an informed and coherent opinion. I actually do not even know what the official RC teaching is there, at least not at the nitty-gritty level. And I also repeat once more that I think a key concern has to be just how strongly, and in what way, gender/sex is part of our identity.
This does not change my concerns with Diego and the pope, and from the start I have indicated that I am focusing on his presumably intimate relationship with a woman there.
I don't get it. If you don't have a concluded position on gender reassignment, what exactly is there that is wrong about Diego such that there is a problem with Diego meeting the Pope?
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
On top of that, saying that gender dysphoria is a mental illness presupposes a huge amount. First, it should be properly termed sex and gender dysphoria, but we seem to stuck with the 'gender' word to denote sex.
Second, there may be biological causes for people's dissatisfaction with their sex identity; third, the common medical treatment is to change sex identity, provided the person has shown a long-standing dissatisfaction with their current sex; fourth, gender problems need not be dealt with medically in any case, but possibly psychologically.
But to call it a mental illness reminds me of the psychiatrization of homosexuality, which fortunately, has been largely abandoned.
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on
:
There are beaurocratic considerations which would justify calling sex and gender dysphoria a recognised medical condition. Though classing it as a mental illness seems very extreme.
In most places, someone (eg: a national health service, medical insurance) will only pay for a medical treatment if that treatment addresses a recognised medical condition and is expected to improve the quality of life of the patient. Which is why the beaurocrats need to be able to tick the box next to a list of recognised medical conditions.
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
But then you are saying it is a sin to resolve the dysfunction. Why is it a sin to resolve gender dysphoria, but not a sin to heal blindness or an inability to walk?
This is the third time on this thread then where I say that I - personally - am not sure about the sinfulness of gender reassignment therapy. Not because I disagree with the RCC, but simply because I have not put in the necessary work to have an informed and coherent opinion. I actually do not even know what the official RC teaching is there, at least not at the nitty-gritty level. And I also repeat once more that I think a key concern has to be just how strongly, and in what way, gender/sex is part of our identity.
This does not change my concerns with Diego and the pope, and from the start I have indicated that I am focusing on his presumably intimate relationship with a woman there.
I don't get it. If you don't have a concluded position on gender reassignment, what exactly is there that is wrong about Diego such that there is a problem with Diego meeting the Pope?
I think Ingo's position AIUI is that even if you allow Diego to have gender reassignment, he's still "really" a woman so can't marry one. And even if he is a sort of man, he can't get one up the duff so it's still verboten.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Ah well, if his problem is with homosexuality then my response is going to be the same: I don't think much of the two offered positions, which is to either tell homosexuals to just 'live with it', or to offer a solution that isn't a solution at all in the form of trying to cure the condition.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
There are beaurocratic considerations which would justify calling sex and gender dysphoria a recognised medical condition. Though classing it as a mental illness seems very extreme.
In most places, someone (eg: a national health service, medical insurance) will only pay for a medical treatment if that treatment addresses a recognised medical condition and is expected to improve the quality of life of the patient. Which is why the beaurocrats need to be able to tick the box next to a list of recognised medical conditions.
Yes, the NHS tends to treat it as a medical condition, but definitely not as a mental illness. This now smacks of the same judgmental view which listed homosexuality in the DSM.
I wonder if that is why the word 'gender' is now being used, instead of 'sex', since often we are talking about a dissatisfaction with sex identity. Gender misalignment is also a problem for some people, but does not require surgery.
In terms of talking of it as sinful, well, speaking as a psychotherapist, that is not germane.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
Sorry, the above is unclear. I am wondering if 'gender' is being used as a euphemism for 'sex' since people still feel uneasy about somebody's dissatisfaction with their sex identity. The trouble is, we no longer have a word for gender!
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Alan, is that rule in the presence of male admirers? Dysphoric indeed.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I don't get it. If you don't have a concluded position on gender reassignment, what exactly is there that is wrong about Diego such that there is a problem with Diego meeting the Pope?
I think Ingo's position AIUI is that even if you allow Diego to have gender reassignment, he's still "really" a woman so can't marry one. And even if he is a sort of man, he can't get one up the duff so it's still verboten.
Yeah, but it's not like Diego is trying to have sexy times with the Pope. Unless you count a hug as foreplay...
Posted by Teufelchen (# 10158) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
It has the potential to cause much scandal among the faithful fof start. A bishop should not be the cause of scandal. But then Francis is a pope in the image of JPII. Both talking much meaningless gobbledegook (JPII philosophical mumbo jumbo and Francis "warm fuzzies") and the cause of much scandal among the RC faithful. I'm laying money on on Francis to be the first person to be canonised whilst still alive, btw. I can see it already, because most people are thick.
I am at a loss to understand what you mean by all of this. It looks fairly insulting both to the pope specifically and to a broad sweep of humanity in general.
t
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
Aye, weak, hostile 'Christianity' in response to strong, benign.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Teufelchen:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
It has the potential to cause much scandal among the faithful fof start. A bishop should not be the cause of scandal. But then Francis is a pope in the image of JPII. Both talking much meaningless gobbledegook (JPII philosophical mumbo jumbo and Francis "warm fuzzies") and the cause of much scandal among the RC faithful. I'm laying money on on Francis to be the first person to be canonised whilst still alive, btw. I can see it already, because most people are thick.
I am at a loss to understand what you mean by all of this. It looks fairly insulting both to the pope specifically and to a broad sweep of humanity in general.
t
Apart from the typos it's quite easy. Both have been a cause of scandal. Both have been surrounded by a personality cult, partly of their own doing, which in the case of Francis will probably see him fast tracked to sainthood even faster than JPII, no doubt whilst he's still alive. Both are with little substance. That's what the papacy has become, it seems, except that brief period in between when the bishop of Rome (much under appreciated) seemed almost orthodox.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
Sigh. For Pope Francis to become a canonised saint during his own lifetime, the canonisation procedure would have to be changed fundamentally - for him. And unless then he would be emeritus, he would actually have to declare himself a saint! It's the pope who canonises saints. It doesn't really matter just how badly one thinks of Pope Francis, given that he cultivates an image of humility, this is simply not going to happen.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
You do recognise sarcasm, don't you?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
You do recognise sarcasm, don't you?
If you keep repeating things, people will eventually assume that you mean them.
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
As far as being born with your body somewhat mixed up:
Woman Born With No Womb Gives Birth To Miracle Twins
Some of the medical info is over my head, but AIUI: Hayley Haynes found out when she was 19 that she's genetically male--she has XY chromosomes. She also has androgen insensitivity, which meant she has no reproductive organs.
She really wanted to have a baby. But she doesn't have the plumbing to do it. She went to various doctors. Eventually, one found that Hayley had a very tiny womb, a few millimeters long. The doctor thought that if the womb could be enlarged, Hayley might be able to have a baby through IVF. She was put on hormones to grow her womb, and they worked, and the IVF worked, and she's got twins.
Those of you who think Diego's outward female gender was what God had in mind, and that Diego is still female: What do you think of Hayley's situation? Is she female or male? She identifies as female. Was she wrong to try to fix her body, to the extent that she could? (Putting aside, if you can, the question of whether IVF is right or wrong.)
And how does this compare with Diego's situation?
[ 31. January 2015, 11:44: Message edited by: Golden Key ]
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Real life (you know, that which we all, including celibate theologs, actually live in) has such a nasty way of not being tidy. It never quite conforms to the rules which men or women make up.
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
Addendum: Hayley is married to a man. Given that she's genetically male, is she in a same-sex marriage?
Like some posters think Diego is in a same-sex marriage.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
The proposition that any person who (1) appears outwardly to be a woman, and (2) who grew up believing they are a woman, but (3) who turns out to have androgen insensitivity must be labelled as a "man" is fraught with enormous difficulty.
The most obvious reason to me is that until the whole notion of chromosomes was discovered, many such people would have had no clue that they were genetically male, would have lived out their entire lives as women and would have been just fine with that.
And furthermore their local churches would have been just fine with that. Although the inability to bear children might have created some issues in some minds, but that throws open all sorts of questions about views of women generally, not just women who turn out to be genetically XY once anyone knows there's such a thing as X and Y.
[ 31. January 2015, 13:09: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
Those of you who think Diego's outward female gender was what God had in mind, and that Diego is still female: What do you think of Hayley's situation? Is she female or male? She identifies as female. Was she wrong to try to fix her body, to the extent that she could? (Putting aside, if you can, the question of whether IVF is right or wrong.) And how does this compare with Diego's situation?
First thing to say, I am not aware of any official statement on this. All the rest you will be getting is my speculation based on my understanding. Take it FWIW.
The second thing to say is that I would make a distinction between a truly indeterminate gender, and one where we simply have a hard time determining it, practically speaking. If there are people with a truly indeterminate gender, then I would say they can neither be married nor ordained, nor in any other way be assigned a gender arbitrarily before church law. The Church deals in realities, not in human declarations. If we say that there is no way of determine the reality of someone's gender, then we are saying that they cannot qualify in any way for those things that make demands on gender. It is also not at all unheard of for the Church to not allow people to partake in sacraments due to their embodied condition. For example, those that are permanently impotent (impotent, not sterile) cannot marry.
Is Hayley's gender indeterminate, or just hard to determine? That obviously depends on what you would judge this by. Here's my suggestion, which takes its cue precisely from the just mentioned impediment of impotence. Marriage is "the" gender-based sacrament. Well, what does it actually seek to do? It seeks to contain the conjugal act ordered to procreation. Mechanically speaking, it seeks to contain the particular act of human beings where a penis is inserted into a vagina, and the ejaculation of seminal fluid from that penis is brought about. Impotence is considered an impediment to marriage precisely because it means that this act cannot be performed by these people. So I would take this further here and say that whoever can play the "penis insertion and ejaculation" part should be considered a "man", and whoever can do the "reception into a vagina" part should be considered a "woman". This is still far from complete (what can count as a penis, what can count as a vagina, etc.), but it will do for the case at hand. Please note that fertility is not required, and that sterility is not an impediment to marriage.
In Hayley's case apparently she presents as "woman", i.e., she has a vagina. So I would say her sacramental marriage to a man would be licit, because they can have regular vaginal intercourse with each other. I think it is also licit for her to seek medical treatment to alleviate any deficiencies in her reproductive abilities, i.e., hormonal treatment to grow her womb. Though there it is starting to get a bit shady, because one can argue that in some sense she is making her condition worse. After all, she has a vagina and a rudimentary womb because of a disease that blocked the androgen that would have turned her into a man. However, we are now saying that we practically speaking will judge by the "plumbing". So we are saying that she is a woman, and hence from this perspective this is trying to cure a deficiency in her fertility as woman.
However, it is at any rate not apparently possible to cure her infertility by medical means such that natural conception can occur. The hormonal treatment enables impregnation with IVF, but not naturally. But IVF is itself not licit, hence the corresponding treatment is pointless (if we are set to avoid illicit behaviour), and hence in reality the question simply does not arise.
In summary, I would say Hayley is a woman, is licitly married to a man, but the way she has had a child was illicit. Yet not so because of the hormonal fertility treatment, but so because of the IVF.
In the case of Diego there is in fact no question of his "real gender". He remains a "biological woman". It is possible that at some future point in time medical technology will have advanced so much that Diego could fully and naturally act as a man in the sex act - but this is not the case with current medical efforts. By my criteria at least if we reach this future point, we would then have to say that Diego has indeed been turned from a woman into a man. This change itself may or may not be illicit (that's a different discussion), but at the end of it Diego would in principle be able to marry a woman, or be ordained a priest, at least as far as the question of gender is concerned. (One could still argue, for example, that someone who has sought a change of gender is not in a fit mental state to be a priest. But that's a different kind of argument.) Anyhow, we are not at this point. So for now Diego still counts as a woman before church law, and hence cannot marry another woman or be ordained, even just based on a consideration of gender.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The Church deals in realities, not in human declarations. If we say that there is no way of determine the reality of someone's gender, then we are saying that they cannot qualify in any way for those things that make demands on gender.
Inhuman, that.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In Hayley's case apparently she presents as "woman", i.e., she has a vagina.
The fact that you think men and women can be reduced to looking at a single location in the body is just mind-boggling.
Do you realise how much other evidence about the differences between men and women - even at a biological level of other organs and leaving the workings of the brain completely out of it - you're throwing away? Do you have any idea of how complex the presentation of intersex people can be?
You don't even seem aware of the fact that it's possible for someone to have both a 'penis' and 'vagina', albeit in both cases the formation will be underdeveloped.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
No, orfeo, I'm only theoretically aware of men and women. I have never encountered any living human entities, and was completely unaware that they had any other features than their genitals. Nobody has ever mentioned intersex people to me, and I have time and again proven myself incapable of looking up information on the internet.
Classification is not about capturing the complexity of the world, but about reducing it to a useful level. And the sacraments are simple interventions in the world. Their consequences may be as complex as the world is complex, but they themselves have simple purposes. Classifying for sacraments does not require "doing justice" to all what people can be. It merely requires "doing justice" to how people can achieve these simple purposes.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Classification is not about capturing the complexity of the world, but about reducing it to a useful level.
I completely disagree, in that any classification that fails to reflect the actual world is not useful.
Is this not the essence of much of scientific work, that the model being used to explain the world has to be changed once it's realised it doesn't accurately capture reality?
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I completely disagree, in that any classification that fails to reflect the actual world is not useful.
But that's not what's going on here. Newtonian gravity is a perfectly useful theory that you can use to answer the majority of questions (at least ones that relate to gravitational forces...). In most cases, you'll get the right answer. If your question is about the orbit of Mercury, or about the frequency of the clocks in GPS satellites, you'll be slightly wrong, and if your question is about rotating black holes, you're lost in space.
For most people, two binary biological sexes is a perfectly reasonable model (total incidence of intersex people is about 2 or 3 in 1000). Transgender or non-binary gender presentation people could be about an order of magnitude more common (possibly about a percent or so, although these estimates aren't easy).
There's nothing wrong with the traditional theory, as long as you have a way of noticing that you're trying to calculate Mercury's orbital dynamics and doing something else in that case.
[ 01. February 2015, 04:53: Message edited by: Leorning Cniht ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I completely disagree, in that any classification that fails to reflect the actual world is not useful.
But that's not what's going on here. Newtonian gravity is a perfectly useful theory that you can use to answer the majority of questions (at least ones that relate to gravitational forces...). In most cases, you'll get the right answer. If your question is about the orbit of Mercury, or about the frequency of the clocks in GPS satellites, you'll be slightly wrong, and if your question is about rotating black holes, you're lost in space.
For most people, two binary biological sexes is a perfectly reasonable model (total incidence of intersex people is about 2 or 3 in 1000). Transgender or non-binary gender presentation people could be about an order of magnitude more common (possibly about a percent or so, although these estimates aren't easy).
There's nothing wrong with the traditional theory, as long as you have a way of noticing that you're trying to calculate Mercury's orbital dynamics and doing something else in that case.
But that's precisely it: we're not noticing. It's not simply the case that we have a system that categorises people into male and female which works for 99% of people but the system allows an adjustment when necessary, we have systems that positively insist that people comply and be neatly male or female, even when they're actually not.
This is precisely what transgender and, above all, intersex people constantly have to fight for, a recognition of the reality that male and female are not logically exclusive categories and thereby the only options. "Female" does not mean the same as "not male", and "male" does not mean the same as "not female".
A system that insists that "male" and "female" are the only possible options is problematic precisely because it doesn't line up with the actual situation. To say that it works most of the time merely is a statement of how often it falls over, which is hardly helpful if you're the person affected when it does fall over. It's rather like responding to the fact that my car just spontaneously exploded by saying "well, most of our cars don't do that".
There's been a landmark court case recently in Australia where a person won the right to have no gender recorded on their birth certificate, and the High Court's starting point was that transgender people are real. The very first sentence of the judgement is: "Not all human beings can be classified by sex as either male or female." The rest of the judgement is about whether the particular law can handle a person that is neither male nor female. At no point in the judgement is there any hint that if the answer is no, the law cannot properly handle such a person, then everything's hunky dory and the intersex person should just adjust to the system. The clear policy of the judgement is that for an equitable outcome, the system needs to adjust to the person.
[ 01. February 2015, 05:40: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Might I add I'm particularly aware of this because I have to deal with the same kind of logical gap all the time in work, with other contexts.
A couple of months ago I had to point out to a client that their policy was flawed because it had a rule for people with "less than 365 days" service and a rule for people with "more than 12 months" service.
The system was going to fall over any time they were dealing with someone who had been in service for exactly 1 year (and I didn't even want to think about leap years, given their decision to use "days" in one rule and "months" in the other). There was going to be an opportunity for an argument over which rule applied, and it was pretty clear to me that if a situation arose where one rule was more beneficial to my client and the other rule was more beneficial to the other person, it was a recipe for trouble and expensive litigation.
Sure, the system wasn't going to fall over very often, but is that going to be a useful response when things don't work? Better to fix it so that it does work in every possible case. Better to recognise that "more than" and "less than" are not, in fact, the only 2 possible options.
All you have to do, really, is recognise that the logical opposite of "less than" isn't "more than", it's "not less than" (or "at least").
[ 01. February 2015, 05:58: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
At no point in the judgement is there any hint that if the answer is no, the law cannot properly handle such a person, then everything's hunky dory and the intersex person should just adjust to the system. The clear policy of the judgement is that for an equitable outcome, the system needs to adjust to the person.
Exactly right. And, in this instance, the system is the Catholic Church.
The title of this thread is 'Titanic struggle for the soul of the Catholic church'
What would the soul be worth if it put the system before the individual?
It was what Jesus spoke against, time after time. That people matter and if they are different then the religious institutions should find ways to change and cope. Remember - we are not talking about how people behave here, we are talking about who they are and the way they were made.
The Church likes to play these things as 'choice' so that people can 'repent' and fit into neat boxes. Tough. They don't.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Having a sex change operation isn't a choice? Nonsense.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Boogie, I think you've nailed it perfectly. Yes, that's exactly what 'choice' language is about.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Having a sex change operation isn't a choice? Nonsense.
No, being transgender isn't a choice.
And just like with homosexuality, the church's solution to people being transgender has often been to tell them to 'repent' and stop being transgender. Telling them to go ahead and be normal. Just... *hand waving* switch off your brain somehow.
[ 01. February 2015, 08:06: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
Maybe this will help...
(And apologies in advance if my crude way of putting this offends any trans folks. Absolutely not my intent.)
Let's say...Gerald..was born with a problem: his feet were on the wrong legs--i.e., right foot on the left leg, and vice versa.
As you can imagine, this caused Gerald all sorts of problems: walking was very difficult for him, running was impossible, even standing was hard--and he was in constant, severe pain.
To make things worse, most people didn't even believe anything was wrong. They didn't see it. When he was a kid, he was constantly getting punished and harassed for "pretending" (as they thought) that he couldn't walk. No one would give him any pain relief.
He kept trying to survive, to deal with a problem no one could see. His parents sent him to a camp that was supposed to cure him of his strange ideas. It was not a good experience.
When he grew up and moved away, he made some friends who could see that he was a bit different. Some thought he was acting up for laughs, others that he was a bit quirky. And some began to suspect that there was more to the situation. These, he trusted and told. They didn't all fully get it; some were deeply uncomfortable about it; but they all began to see his tangled legs, and realized that he was in great pain.
One day, when he was rubbing arnica salve into his feet, his close friends came by with a magazine article. It was about the growing recognition that some people really are born with mismatched feet. There were even doctors who tried to remedy the situation. (When he shrank back, his friends assured him that this was nothing like that "curing" camp.)
Some doctors had success with removing, switching, and reattaching the feet. Some even tried transplants. Others, when the situation was critical, would remove the feet and replace them with prosthetics. Different things worked for different people.
Gerald realized that he couldn't continue the way he was, and there just might be a chance for him to walk. If he didn't get relief soon, he feared he would kill himself.
He decided to have surgery.
Would it be wrong?
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The Church deals in realities, not in human declarations.
The traditional Catholic philosophy recognises a soul as well as a body. So one might have thought that the idea of a male soul in a female body (or vice versa) would be at least conceivable.
In the event of such an extra-ordinary occurrence, the evidence would be necessarily limited to the self-reported experience of the individual concerned, to "human declarations".
In matters of the mind, the only way to the reality leads through what people say. Which doesn't mean that people cannot be duplicitous or deluded, just that engaging with what people say is the only way to a resolution.
Statisticians have a useful concept that you've probably come across - Type1 and Type2 errors. They're interested - for any statistical test - in the probability of accepting a hypothesis which is false, or of rejecting a hypothesis that is true (and how to reduce those probabilities). I never remember which error is which...
The ideal of the justice system where I come from is that it is better that 10 guilty people go free than that one innocent person is punished. A relative weighting of >10:1 on Type 1 and Type 2 errors...
So why can the Catholic church not listen critically to Diego and to anyone else with similar issues, and make a judgment in each individual case (bearing in mind the >10:1 preference for not burdening the innocent) as to their assumed gender for administrative purposes ?
Why do you hanker for a church that hands down judgments from on high, not listening, heedless of whatever suffering it causes, refusing to recognise the possibility of error ? Why does the answer have to come from a theologian in an ivory tower, rather than from a healer of minds - an educated and experienced parish priest with understanding of the psychology of sin ?
Can you not see that there is a better way ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Martin60 (# 368) on
:
The unintended irony is always delicious.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I completely disagree, in that any classification that fails to reflect the actual world is not useful.
A classification needs only to reflect those aspects of the world relevant to its purposes. At a fair, you might see a sign with a line on it saying "only people with a height of 140 cm or above may take this ride". This splits all of humanity in people too short to take the ride, or not, and that's perfectly fine. Now you might come with a special case, an adult who has but stumps for legs. He does not reach the height standing on the ground, but this seems not quite right. So we look at what the purpose of the rule really is. We find it actually is about whether you fit into the security system holding you at the hips and shoulders during the ride. The simple line is just a proxy that works almost always because people have certain proportions. So we can go back to the person having no legs and say "looking deeper into what this rule is about, you are actually large enough for the ride". This however does not mean that we now have to change the sign and measure all the thousands upon thousands of visitors in much detail. It means that the person guarding the entrance has to be aware of special cases.
This is what I have done above. I've asked why the sacrament of marriage uses the simple "man" and "woman" classification in the first place, which works in the vast majority of cases, and asked how he can extend this to a special case, guarding that purpose. To say "but the world is more complicated" is really quite meaningless. The complexity of the world is exactly what I have dealt with, but I only need to deal with it in regards to the purposes of the sacrament.
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
It's not simply the case that we have a system that categorises people into male and female which works for 99% of people but the system allows an adjustment when necessary, we have systems that positively insist that people comply and be neatly male or female, even when they're actually not.
But I have proposed precisely such an adjustment. I have concluded that Hayley - for the purposes of the sacrament of marriage - counts as a woman, even though this could be considered doubtful. I have done so in a reasoned manner, by evaluating the purpose of the sacrament. What I have not done it to say "well, your case falls between the cracks, bye now". It remains true that Hayley is not a woman like most women, e.g., she has unusual genes for a woman. And nobody is denying her any sort of emotional or intellectual stance towards that. However, if she wishes to partake in the sacrament of marriage, then she will have to do so as a woman. And it would be dishonest if she sought sacramental marriage, but didn't mentally agree with being a woman at least for the purposes of the sacrament. In the case of Hayley, however, that appears to be not a problem at all.
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
The very first sentence of the judgement is: "Not all human beings can be classified by sex as either male or female." The rest of the judgement is about whether the particular law can handle a person that is neither male nor female.
We may assume in favour of this Australian High Court judge, and mentally add here "for the purposes of Australian secular law, concerning which I have been given authority". If we cannot add this mentally, then he is clear overstepping the boundaries of his remit and there's no guarantee whatsoever from his position in the judiciary that his statement has any validity or force.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
It was what Jesus spoke against, time after time. That people matter and if they are different then the religious institutions should find ways to change and cope. Remember - we are not talking about how people behave here, we are talking about who they are and the way they were made.
Jesus the anarchist is nowhere to be found in the bible. Against the background of Jewish law at the time, as personified by the Pharisees, he can be seen to bind more tightly in some case and to loosen in others. And where he provides a discussion, it is exactly along the lines of "what is the deeper purpose here". It is from such analysis that for example he loosens the rules of the Sabbath to allow charitable action and tightens the rules of marriage to re-establish the union of one flesh.
Now, it would be presumptuous in the extreme to declare that I have spoken as Jesus would have. But I do not accept that what I have done is in principe at odds with Jesus' own approach. I have assumed that people matter, and I have suggested how the Church could change to cope with specific difficult cases. I have looked at who people are and in what way they are made. What your presumably don't like is that I have focused on anatomy and physiology. But that is what is in my opinion relevant for deciding matters here. And it is false to consider the body just as some arbitrary chunk of matter under the command of the mind. Who we are and in what way we are made is to a significant degree determined by our embodiment. In this case, certain bodily features are in my opinion decisive.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
The traditional Catholic philosophy recognises a soul as well as a body. So one might have thought that the idea of a male soul in a female body (or vice versa) would be at least conceivable.
Traditional Catholic philosophy is not Cartesian dualist, but hylomorphic dualist. It recognises the soul as the form of the body. Gender is an essential accident (not in itself the essence of a person, but something a person has by virtue of that essence, which is to be a rational animal). Each and all problems with gender would be a mal-form-ation, some privation in the forming of the embodiment. This includes psychological problems with gender, which form part of this embodiment.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
So why can the Catholic church not listen critically to Diego and to anyone else with similar issues, and make a judgment in each individual case (bearing in mind the >10:1 preference for not burdening the innocent) as to their assumed gender for administrative purposes ?
There are two different questions here: 1) Is the "change of gender" morally licit itself, and 2) is it effective concerning conditions on gender the Church imposes? I think the answer to 1 is "possibly, it will depend on the case", and the answer to 2 is "no, not with current medical technology, but maybe some time in the future". So a judgement concerning 1 indeed requires looking at every individual case, but a judgement concerning 2 does not at this point in time. It may be that Diego committed no sin in undergoing gender reassignment therapy, but currently this therapy is not in fact capable to turn him into a man for the purposes of marriage. Hence the latter require no discussion with Diego (unless he wants to make a case that the Church is not aware of a radically new treatment that he has undergone).
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Having a sex change operation isn't a choice? Nonsense.
No, being transgender isn't a choice.
And just like with homosexuality, the church's solution to people being transgender has often been to tell them to 'repent' and stop being transgender. Telling them to go ahead and be normal. Just... *hand waving* switch off your brain somehow.
It's an interesting comparison, as I suppose historically homosexuality was pathologized by, variously, the law, psychiatry, medicine and theology; in short, declared to be unnatural, or just mad and/or bad.
I don't think that transgender people will go through such a prolonged trauma; for example, the NHS in the UK now declares that transgender is not a mental illness, and that medical therapies such as hormone treatment and surgery are efficacious with some people.
I'm not sure if there is a theological problem with it or not - would some versions of natural law state that it's against God's design? (I'm assuming that that's what 'unnatural' means in this context). It's obviously not literally unnatural!
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I completely disagree, in that any classification that fails to reflect the actual world is not useful.
A classification needs only to reflect those aspects of the world relevant to its purposes. At a fair, you might see a sign with a line on it saying "only people with a height of 140 cm or above may take this ride". This splits all of humanity in people too short to take the ride, or not, and that's perfectly fine. Now you might come with a special case, an adult who has but stumps for legs. He does not reach the height standing on the ground, but this seems not quite right. So we look at what the purpose of the rule really is. We find it actually is about whether you fit into the security system holding you at the hips and shoulders during the ride. The simple line is just a proxy that works almost always because people have certain proportions. So we can go back to the person having no legs and say "looking deeper into what this rule is about, you are actually large enough for the ride". This however does not mean that we now have to change the sign and measure all the thousands upon thousands of visitors in much detail. It means that the person guarding the entrance has to be aware of special cases.
This is what I have done above. I've asked why the sacrament of marriage uses the simple "man" and "woman" classification in the first place, which works in the vast majority of cases, and asked how he can extend this to a special case, guarding that purpose. To say "but the world is more complicated" is really quite meaningless. The complexity of the world is exactly what I have dealt with, but I only need to deal with it in regards to the purposes of the sacrament.
But the one thing you won't countenance is the possibility that the sacrament, with its simple binary classification, was developed at a time when it simply wasn't understood that there was anything else.
My entire point was that fixing the classification has to be one of the options.
Yes, it's possible to create conscious special exceptions so as to fit people who aren't really in the classification system so that they are now deemed to fit - a pertinent example is that the RCC has developed quite a system of marriage annulments to avoid difficulties with divorces.
Yes, it's also possible to just flatly deny any evidence that the classification system is incomplete or imperfect. I think that happened far too long with both transgender people and with homosexuality, by viewing these things as choices rather than something innate. It is increasingly difficult to maintain such positions and indeed it seems fewer and fewer churches are trying to maintain such positions.
The third option, though, has to be to actually revise the classification system, to work on the system instead of working on individual cases all the time.
This is pretty much the kind of discussion I end up having in legal and administrative contexts rather than theological ones. And frankly, people can be deeply, deeply attached to legal and administrative frameworks and often don't want to revise them even when they have told you that there's a problem. People usually want to fix the individual case and say there we go we've solved "it", but it's often part of my job to point out to them that either they haven't really solved "it", or the solution is a band-aid that doesn't deal with a bunch of other cases that stem from the same more systemic source.
In my view, that's what is happening here. Sure, it's perfectly possible to hem and haw over each individual case of a person that can't immediately be put into the "Male" box or the "Female" box, make a decision as to which box they belong and happily announce that 'the problem' is solved. But it's only solved for that one person - and quite possibly not even to that one person's satisfaction. Such an approach is never going to finish solving the problem because there will always be another individual case and it will most likely be different in some way to the previous one.
A long-term solution can only be arrived at by asking, well hang on, why exactly is it necessary to put this person in a "Male" or "Female" box anyway? Despite your claim that you're examining the purpose of the rule, I'm not personally convinced that you're examining it very deeply because you come back very quickly with a response that yes, the rule is perfectly fine.
Perhaps, though, it's simply inevitable so long as you see marriage's prime purpose as procreation rather than relationship that it's very easy to declare that yes, absolutely, we need one person in the "Male" box and one person in the "Female" box and raising the possibility of a system that has a third box just doesn't compute.
[ 01. February 2015, 14:31: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
PS It was not one male High Court judge. It was 5 judges, 3 male and 2 female. 4 heterosexual and 1 homosexual. Just so you know.
And no, there is absolutely no warrant to limit their statement that "not all people are either male or female" by saying "for the purpose of Australian law".
The very point of the case was that Australian law might not reflect the reality that not everybody is either male or female. They deliberately started out with a direct statement of fact, not of law. The rest of the judgement was about what the permissible categories were in the relevant Australian law. They in fact concluded that the relevant law only had 2 categories, and that it was NOT permissible to put "intersex" on a birth certificate in the State concerned. But they also concluded the law allowed you to pick neither of the 2 categories.
In other words, not only did they state that not all people are male or female, they actually stated that for the Australian law in question, people ARE either male or female, with no other category conceived. So your assertion is doubly wrong.
[ 01. February 2015, 14:42: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
A classification needs only to reflect those aspects of the world relevant to its purposes. At a fair, you might see a sign with a line on it saying "only people with a height of 140 cm or above may take this ride". This splits all of humanity in people too short to take the ride, or not, and that's perfectly fine. Now you might come with a special case, an adult who has but stumps for legs. He does not reach the height standing on the ground, but this seems not quite right. So we look at what the purpose of the rule really is. We find it actually is about whether you fit into the security system holding you at the hips and shoulders during the ride. The simple line is just a proxy that works almost always because people have certain proportions. So we can go back to the person having no legs and say "looking deeper into what this rule is about, you are actually large enough for the ride". This however does not mean that we now have to change the sign and measure all the thousands upon thousands of visitors in much detail. It means that the person guarding the entrance has to be aware of special cases. ...
All airlines have restrictions on what size and type of items you can bring into the cabin. If you look on their websites, you'll see a variety of ways of describing these ideal carry-on items - the dimensions, the sum of the dimensions, whatever. When you get to the airport, however, there's no measuring tape. There's just a metal sizer that your bag has to fit into. If it fits, you can carry it on. If it doesn't, you can't.
So, yes, it appears that the airlines DID change the sign. They still have a person "guarding" the entrance, but that person is checking to see if the luggage can be stored safely in the cabin, not measuring to see if the luggage meets some arbitrary standard that may or may not be an accurate proxy for whether it fits or not.
The sign posted by the RCC says that only baby-making-sex is allowed, and that is why it has to impose all this medieval reasoning and Procrustean rules about who can have sex with whom. None of it tells us anything about the depths of love and devotion that two humans can bestow upon each other. It's the equivalent of a sign saying, "You must be at least 150 cm tall to fall in love."
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
But the one thing you won't countenance is the possibility that the sacrament, with its simple binary classification, was developed at a time when it simply wasn't understood that there was anything else. My entire point was that fixing the classification has to be one of the options.
The Catholic sacrament of marriage - unlike the secular, romantic notions of marriage - actually has a very clean and precise purpose. It is basically a process of granting exclusive license for the kind of intercourse (vaginal, with ejaculation) that can lead to procreation. More can be said, of course, a lot more. But at the core, it is just that. Likewise, in my analogy the height rule at its core has the concern of having security devices grab a firm hold of the passenger. The only reason why one would have to revise such clear rules is if there was some fundamental change at the core. So if the ride had completely different security devices installed, then one would likely have to revise the height rule, or even abandon it. Likewise, if the way in which people naturally make babies with each other would have fundamentally changed, say by a global mutation of mankind, then one might have to rethink the sacrament of marriage. But this is simply not the case. Nothing whatsoever has changed concerning the core concern of the sacrament of marriage, indeed, as far as the "mechanics" go that core predates humanity. It is hence perfectly appropriate to simply analyse special cases in terms of the unchanged core concern, which is just what I have done.
The reason why you think I need to do something here is not because I have done anything wrong or inappropriate in terms of the Catholic sacrament. The reason is rather that you think the Catholic sacrament as such is wrong or inappropriate. But that's a different discussion, and one that has proven entirely useless to have, time and again. What you ultimately cannot deny is the logic of what I have done in terms of what I - not you - consider appropriate. And that is the only thing I'm arguing here. I'm not trying to convince you of the rightness of the Catholic sacrament. I'm only saying that in terms of it (or at least: in terms of my take on it), what I have suggested is appropriate.
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Perhaps, though, it's simply inevitable so long as you see marriage's prime purpose as procreation rather than relationship that it's very easy to declare that yes, absolutely, we need one person in the "Male" box and one person in the "Female" box and raising the possibility of a system that has a third box just doesn't compute.
Exactly!
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Nothing whatsoever has changed concerning the core concern of the sacrament of marriage, indeed, as far as the "mechanics" go that core predates humanity. It is hence perfectly appropriate to simply analyse special cases in terms of the unchanged core concern, which is just what I have done.
Even when those special cases, through no fault or choice, can never meet the criteria required?
I am sure the Church has much more grace and charity to people who are different in other ways than sexually. Could this be because it's run by celibate men?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
And no, there is absolutely no warrant to limit their statement that "not all people are either male or female" by saying "for the purpose of Australian law". The very point of the case was that Australian law might not reflect the reality that not everybody is either male or female.
First, apart from their role in the Australian judiciary, these High Court judges are just random people to me. Based on their role, I can guess that they are highly educated and intelligent in a way that facilitates a career in the judiciary. But that's it. They certainly do not wield any authority I would recognise, given that I'm currently not under Australian law. Second, I have in fact done above exactly this glorious thing that you are so proud of in your Australian judges. The very first thing I stated was actually not what one should look at in doubtful cases. The very first thing I have stated was what should be done in cases where gender is truly indeterminate. By which I mean both senses of determining things: neither being able to recognise gender, nor being able to impose it. And the simple answer is that someone who truly has no gender is not qualified for sacraments that make demands on gender. Obviously. Now, I think the number of people who are truly indeterminate in our times is either zero, or very close to it, other than by choice. Because we do have hormonal treatment, surgery and the like which can push indeterminate gender one way or the other. But I do not have the knowledge to exclude that there are still cases where gender can neither be recognised nor imposed. And it is of course possible that someone with indeterminate (in the sense of unrecognisable) gender chooses to not have gender imposed on themselves (or, more likely in practice, that their parents choose not to impose gender on them). And so I stated at least as a matter of principle what follows then.
quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
The sign posted by the RCC says that only baby-making-sex is allowed, and that is why it has to impose all this medieval reasoning and Procrustean rules about who can have sex with whom. None of it tells us anything about the depths of love and devotion that two humans can bestow upon each other. It's the equivalent of a sign saying, "You must be at least 150 cm tall to fall in love."
Medieval reasoning happens to be a term of praise to me. Anyway, you are quite right, it tells us nothing about the depths of love and devotion possible in marriage. But neither does it deny these or rule them out. Thus your rendering of the rule is simply unfair, since it really says no such thing. It simply says that if you want to take the ride, you have to be at least of that height. Whether you want, can, should or will fall in love while taking that ride is not a matter this rule itself is concerned with.
Now, here's the thing: there is no rule whatsoever in the Church about people falling deeply in love with each other, and being devoted to each other. They can do that with somebody of the other sex, or the same sex, or two people, or a hundred. You can start loving and stop loving as you see fit, as many times or as few as you want. If the Church says anything concerning this at all, then basically that you should love everybody. The Church however does have rules about love-making. If all that love and devotion culminates in you wanting to have sex with someone, then the Church says that there is exactly and precisely one way that is pleasing to God (and no, I'm not talking about sexual positions...). Consequently, the sacrament that the Church has to deal with that situation - marriage - has clear demands.
Now, you can rail against that. But believe me, I've heard every single argument you might make, and I remain entirely unimpressed. And yes, I know that this is mutual. Yet we should be clear here that all this blather about love and devotion falls short. We are simply not talking about that. Nobody stops you from loving anybody, least of all the Church. But if you want to have sex with them - be it as the highest expression your mutual love and devotion, or because you are just horny as a goat and want to fuck - then the Church says that you need to do so in a "procreational and exclusive way" as sealed by the sacrament of marriage.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Even when those special cases, through no fault or choice, can never meet the criteria required? I am sure the Church has much more grace and charity to people who are different in other ways than sexually. Could this be because it's run by celibate men?
If people truly are incapable of doing something, then it is neither graceful nor charitable to let them perform a charade to pretend to themselves or others that they can. And if the Church is kept from doing so because it is run by celibate men, then that would be a very good reason indeed why one should insist that the Church be run by celibate men.
Posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe (# 5521) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
If all that love and devotion culminates in you wanting to have sex with someone, then the Church says that there is exactly and precisely one way that is pleasing to God.
It flies in the face of all rational concepts of God that he should create something capable of being enjoyed in dozens of different ways, and then tell us to forget about the dozens and concentrate just on the one -- especially when the one can lead to all sorts of misery (read: unwanted children or [shudder] abortion).
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Reading this post in Bilgrimage , which deals with how being brought up Jesuit might affect Pope Francis and his dealings with some deceased equines, I noticed this quote of Ignatius de Loyola: quote:
Ignatius advised to obediently follow the Church, even if it meant believing "that the white I see is black, if the church hierarchy says so" — or words to that effect (it's at the end of the Spiritual Exercises).
I have a distinct feeling that people outside the RC church may not be aware of this attitude. There is another post by Bill Lindsay today dealing with his own experience of Jesuit education.
This certainly impacts on the discussion of changes.
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
If all that love and devotion culminates in you wanting to have sex with someone, then the Church says that there is exactly and precisely one way that is pleasing to God.
It flies in the face of all rational concepts of God that he should create something capable of being enjoyed in dozens of different ways, and then tell us to forget about the dozens and concentrate just on the one -- especially when the one can lead to all sorts of misery (read: unwanted children or [shudder] abortion).
No, no, no, silly one! That is the sin in the world and lure of the eEeVil one.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe:
It flies in the face of all rational concepts of God that he should create something capable of being enjoyed in dozens of different ways, and then tell us to forget about the dozens and concentrate just on the one -- especially when the one can lead to all sorts of misery (read: unwanted children or [shudder] abortion).
The fall has had horrible consequences, I agree. And the call to undo its consequence concerning sex while still in this world can impose a heavy cross, I agree. Yet there we are.
Horseman Bree, I'm not sure what you are getting at there. For liberal Jesuits - by now certainly the strong majority of the order - their Founder is a bit of an embarrassment in his ecclesial enthusiasms, really. If I see some cleric busy undermining the Church with all his strength, my first bet is always that it will be yet another Jesuit. The torch of "unquestioning obedience" certainly has passed on to others, both in reality and in Catholic imagination. These days it is groups like Opus Dei that would more readily come to mind... Anyway, if you are curious, here is the relevant chapter of the Spiritual Exercises. It is worth reading entire (it's all in the same spirit), but the quote comes from the Thirteenth Rule.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Sorry, I was thunderstruck when I saw that, and had to air it somewhere. No wonder Popes could run armies.
But, as in Lindsay's other example, the idea that the management could not be questioned is still an impediment in this day of better education and communication. I know how much trouble I would have been in in the last years of my teaching career, if I had done some of the things that were seen as normal at the beginning.
But the Magisterium is made up largely of men who are older than me, and who have had less feedback from outside than I did, while Pope Francis has clearly been exposed to much more "on the street", and that more recently, than most of the Cardinals and their advisers.
This is a significant part of the problem stated in the OP.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
I've just been told to repost this from a now-closed DH thread. Seems appropriate here:
Bilgimage on the specific issue in the OP
and a quote from that:
quote: The first and obvious thing that strikes me is the hunger of many Catholics responding to this story at the National Catholic Reporter thread for Catholic pastoral leaders that would do such a thing: hug a transgender man. Isn't that an astonishing hunger — the hunger for real pastoral leaders who remind us of a Christ who told stories about a loving God who refuses to chide an erring son, but who folds that son in an embrace when he comes home again?
followed later by this rather sad one:
quote: The second thing that strikes me is the ferocity of the anger — I'll go further and use the word "hate" — some Catholics display at hearing such reports.
Pretty good meat for the discussion, wherever it leads!
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
Firstly, the the erring son repents of his actions. Secondly, the NCR is a publication by Catholics on the edge of apostasy.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
quote: The second thing that strikes me is the ferocity of the anger — I'll go further and use the word "hate" — some Catholics display at hearing such reports.
Pretty good meat for the discussion, wherever it leads!
Born of fear, I imagine.
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
:
As someone once said, "Anger is the child of fear".
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
That's a rather toothless ad hominem. Lots of people are angry with the conservative / traditional Catholic position on this thread, and I guess that they could be considered fearful of something or the other. But rather obviously they would claim that their anger and/or fear is fully justified. As would the people whom you call angry / fearful here - so what?
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
... If people truly are incapable of doing something, then it is neither graceful nor charitable to let them perform a charade to pretend to themselves or others that they can. ...
According to the rules, then, people with certain disabilities who get married are also playacting. If the nature of marriage is part of a titanic struggle in the RCC, it may not be acceptance of same-sex or trans relationships that turn the tide; it might just be Catholics rejecting the insulting theology and 'sucks to be you' pastoral care that are the current official response to those with imperfect bodies.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
That's a rather toothless ad hominem. Lots of people are angry with the conservative / traditional Catholic position on this thread, and I guess that they could be considered fearful of something or the other. But rather obviously they would claim that their anger and/or fear is fully justified. As would the people whom you call angry / fearful here - so what?
I feel no fear.
What is there for me to be afraid of? Nothing.
Those angry people are fearful of change, fearful for their positions and fearful of a 'slippery slope' into something 'less' than they have now.
I imagine.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
According to the rules, then, people with certain disabilities who get married are also playacting. If the nature of marriage is part of a titanic struggle in the RCC, it may not be acceptance of same-sex or trans relationships that turn the tide; it might just be Catholics rejecting the insulting theology and 'sucks to be you' pastoral care that are the current official response to those with imperfect bodies.
Insinuation 101: never say anything too concrete, always let the others jump to the worst conclusions. That is maximally effective, gives least purchase for a defence, and provides you with plausible deniability in case you get called on your rhetorics.
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I feel no fear. What is there for me to be afraid of? Nothing.
Spoken in an Austrian accent, I suppose? You are the Boogieator B-800 Model 101...
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Those angry people are fearful of change, fearful for their positions and fearful of a 'slippery slope' into something 'less' than they have now. I imagine.
Bulverism is alive and well.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
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I was going to say that the purpose of human sex is clearly not reproduction, since if many adults have sex 2 or 3 thousand times during their lifetime, many of these occasions are not meant to make babies. In fact, talk of 'purpose' seems odd to me.
However, maybe this is diverting the thread extra mures, as they say in Rochdale, beyond these walls.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I feel no fear. What is there for me to be afraid of? Nothing.
Spoken in an Austrian accent, I suppose? You are the Boogieator B-800 Model 101...
Haha!
Of course I meant I feel no fear regarding any of this nonsense we have been discussing
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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ISTM that the next-previous ABC said that, once we have accepted the concept of birth control, then we have said that sex is not necessarily about procreation. Seems that a very high percentage of RCs have accepted that argument, whatever the Magisterium may pronounce.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Those angry people are fearful of change, fearful for their positions and fearful of a 'slippery slope' into something 'less' than they have now. I imagine.
Bulverism is alive and well.
Yes, fair dos.
But is it not important to discover their motivations/reasons for such anger/fear? (in my case it's mere speculation, but I doubt I'm wide of the mark)
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
And why should people throw hate-filled commentary into a discussion about disadvantaged minorities?
Is there no place for allowing for some people to merely exist, even if they can't join your club?
Hate speech has no place in religious discussion. We all know how badly that has turned out for many identifiable groups. It is the reason that the separation of church from state was seen as necessary, even by the religionists.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
ISTM that the next-previous ABC said that, once we have accepted the concept of birth control, then we have said that sex is not necessarily about procreation. Seems that a very high percentage of RCs have accepted that argument, whatever the Magisterium may pronounce.
Well, even before birth control (although I suppose humans have been trying to do that for a long time), it seems odd to me to say that the 'purpose' of sex is babies. As I said, have I had sex about 3000 times, in order to reproduce? (Modest estimate).
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
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quote:
Originally posted by quetzalcoatl:
As I said, have I had sex about 3000 times, in order to reproduce? (Modest estimate).
I don't think that estimate is anything to be modest about. In fact, a round of applause is in order...
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by quetzalcoatl:
As I said, have I had sex about 3000 times, in order to reproduce? (Modest estimate).
I don't think that estimate is anything to be modest about. In fact, a round of applause is in order...
Let me hasten to add, as Hamlet might say, it was all for Queen and country.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by quetzalcoatl:
Well, even before birth control (although I suppose humans have been trying to do that for a long time), it seems odd to me to say that the 'purpose' of sex is babies. As I said, have I had sex about 3000 times, in order to reproduce? (Modest estimate).
It's not the purpose as in "what I wanted when I did it". It's also not the purpose as in "what it achieves most of the time". It's purpose as in the reason why it exists, its end, its final cause. Without the need for animals to procreate there simply would be no sex. Sex is "designed" towards that end, whether by the "designer" you mean God, evolution or both. Our sex organs are "designed" for reproduction. That's simple biology. Our desire for sex is not somehow independent of this aim, but precisely a consequence of this aim. Sex is pleasurable so that we have it so that we reproduce. This statement is not at all refuted by the undeniable fact that lots of people, and indeed animals, attempt to gain the pleasure of sex without the bother of having kids. The claim is not that it is impossible to game the reward system of sex, neither that such gaming is rare, but simply that the reward system exists in the first place in order to encourage reproductive behaviour.
Likewise it is true that the sexual act is not always effective. Biological systems never are, but there are certainly further considerations at play here. For example, there are plenty of "weak" / malformed sperm in a typical ejaculate, but the many hurdles they have to pass before fertilising an egg mean that "bad" sperm are strongly selected against. But a high threshold means that one trades good selection against the possibility of complete failure. In humans one can furthermore speculate that the combination of ongoing sexual availability with nearly undetectable fertility encourages strong bonding of the partners by sex. Unlike with most animals, the only way a human male can be relatively sure that offspring will be his is if he constantly stays with the female. But given the frailty and slow development of human children, such close partnership of parents is sorely needed. Etc. Such "other motivations" for sex are hence not independent from the reproductive purpose, but rather derive from it.
Finally, humans are of course particularly flexible in their behaviour, and able to direct it by the power of their (more or less) free will. Unsurprisingly, that leads to massive variation in behaviour where sex is concerned. But that does not mean that the root cause of all this variation has changed, even where the willed behaviour stands against that cause. Just like there is no doubt that drinking is supposed to replenish the liquid in the body, but nevertheless I can drink lots of vodka for completely different reasons and in fact even dehydrate myself with that. Still, without that original purpose there would be no drinking at all, whether of water or vodka.
In summary, the statement that the purpose of sex is reproduction is not intended as an exhaustive description of all sexual acts. It is an abstract analysis of its "raison d'ętre" (reason for existence).
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Those angry people are fearful of change, fearful for their positions and fearful of a 'slippery slope' into something 'less' than they have now.
I imagine.
I suspect that you imagine correctly, that conservatism is always about fear.
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
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That's fine, IngoB, but it seems to me that you are sliding between reason and purpose. Admittedly, they are both polysemous words, so perhaps there is some overlap. But to me, at any rate, it seems odd to infer from a reason in nature, to a purpose. For example, gravity (being simplistic), causes things to fall down, so we can say that that is the reason that they do; but is that the purpose of gravity?
I suppose in a theistic context, this equivocation might be OK, since in the background is the idea that God intends nature to achieve X, whatever that is. So here the reason might be said to be the purpose.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
If the nature of marriage is part of a titanic struggle in the RCC, it may not be acceptance of same-sex or trans relationships that turn the tide; it might just be Catholics rejecting the insulting theology and 'sucks to be you' pastoral care that are the current official response to those with imperfect bodies.
Do you think that the Pope could fundamentally change his Church's teaching on sexual ethics for these people and remain recognisably Catholic?
It would be (and is) very easy for me to say that Christianity ought to say more to transsexual and homosexual people about how to have an ethical sex life than "Don't". But that's because I'm a liberal-ish Protestant. I am allowed to think that there have been moral advances in sexuality over the last 2000 years, many of them in the secular world, and we can (and should) look at including non-standard sexualities within an ethic of compassion, commitment, love, self-control, and (where necessary) sacrifice. I'm allowed to say that some of the restrictions that Christianity taught in the past were mistaken.
But that's not Catholicism. If you thought (as the Pope presumably does) that there's any mileage at all in the Catholic way of doing things, you'd have to concede that teaching that sexual expression belongs in heterosexual marriage only is pretty firmly established and represents teaching which carries divine authority. How would a Catholic change that? On what authority?
It would, of course, delight me if the Pope did declare himself a liberal Protestant and change all the teachings that I think are wrong. Next best, though, would be if he accompanied his demonstration of compassion for a transsexual man with a ringing endorsement of traditional ethics - that would provide a serious rebuke to those who are conservative without being caring, without compromising Catholic truth (as he sees it). But as IngoB is pointing out (and being consistently misunderstood), for the Pope to make a display of compassion without expressly either endorsing or repudiating the traditional ethic is to run the risk of holding out an entirely false hope that Catholic teaching might change when in fact it won't and can't. And he's right to say that this is problematic.
For my part, the fact that the traditional teaching sits so uneasily with compassion (in that the display of compassion absent reiteration of the teaching actually looks misleading even to an astute Catholic), and can so tellingly be mocked as saying "it sucks to be you" to minorities, is evidence that there's a problem with the teaching itself. But if you believe that the Catholic church is an authoritative teacher of morals, there's no getting away from the fact that this is what it has authoritatively taught.
[ 03. February 2015, 13:17: Message edited by: Eliab ]
Posted by saysay (# 6645) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
And why should people throw hate-filled commentary into a discussion about disadvantaged minorities?
Is there no place for allowing for some people to merely exist, even if they can't join your club?
Hate speech has no place in religious discussion. We all know how badly that has turned out for many identifiable groups. It is the reason that the separation of church from state was seen as necessary, even by the religionists.
Can you define hate speech? The way some people in the US are using that term is making me nervous.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In summary, the statement that the purpose of sex is reproduction is not intended as an exhaustive description of all sexual acts.
But it is. You and your church intend it as an exhaustive descrtipion of all permissible sexual acts. If it's not an act that's open to procreation/ordered to procreation, it's simply not allowed.
I've pointed out before that logically this should mean sex is only allowed during a window of 2-3 days at the relevant part of a women's cycle when there's an egg in position to be fertilised, but apparently there's this belief that God is too dumb to be aware of that particular aspect of human biology and can be fooled into thinking a sexual act is open to procreation when it occurs at completely the wrong time of the month.
So basically your criterion is that the sexual act looks right.
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on
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quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I've pointed out before that logically this should mean sex is only allowed during a window of 2-3 days at the relevant part of a women's cycle when there's an egg in position to be fertilised
God managed this for dogs. They do 'humping' but it's not sex (no ejaculation) They are only interested when a bitch is in season - and even then it has to be at the optimal fertile few days or the male doesn't bother.
If God could do this for dogs and plenty of other creatures, he could have done it for us humans.
(At least he didn't make us like our nearest cousins, bonobos, who do it all the time!)
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
If God could do this for dogs and plenty of other creatures, he could have done it for us humans.
There is, inevitably, a science fiction short story based on the premise that 'fixing' this is a Good Thing™, and how drastically society (written in the time when gay folk didn't exist...) alters because of it.
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on
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For bonobos, sex is their etiquette--whatever else they may feel about the experience.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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saysay: quote:
Can you define hate speech? The way some people in the US are using that term is making me nervous.
FWIW, my own take: "hate speech" in this context involves attacking the people who are LGBTQ (black or other "race", female, "native"...) and their supporters for being just what they are: consigning them to Hell, blaming them for the "breakdown of society/morals", imputing all sorts of immoral activity and belief (that are provably not so), generally degrading them as unfit to be part of anything God-oriented (or even human), rather than arguing a case based on some form of actual experience.
IOW, making certain people non-human in order to maintain some sense of isolated righteousness or some separation of "them" from "us".
The "hate" part comes from the ease with which the treatment of those "others" can be turned into active mistreatment, e.g. the physical attacks or shunning which cause injury, psychological damage or even death among those attacked.
Telling a person that, no matter what that person does, God will hate him forever is just as hateful (and unChristian) as telling a teenager that he deserves to be beaten up and shunned because he "looked at me the wrong way" or a woman that she deserves to be beaten up because "she isn't acting like she is my slave".
Let alone the huge amount of intolerance and hatefilled speech about mere skin colour that we can see in places like Ferguson or near any native reserve.
Basically, if you wouldn't say this nasty thing to your next-door neighbour, but you think you can get away with it in like-minded groupings (the Dalhousie dental students, or any frat) or more anonymously online, there is a reasonable chance it is hate speech.
Ask anyone who has been trolled on line.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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That's mostly a strawman. I'm not saying that no one is like that, but certainly not anyone here or even the vast majority of people who have traditional views on sexuality.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Telling a person that, no matter what that person does, God will hate him forever
Who does this? How common is it? Outside of fringe weirdos like the Westboro people, who talks this way? I run in some pretty theologically conservative circles, and everyone I know is horrified and disgusted by their rhetoric and behavior.
There are people who believe that sex outside a one man/one woman marriage is a sin. You seem to be equating that belief with the idea that homosexual orientation is an indelible stain that incurs God's wrath. The two beliefs are not the same thing. To claim that they are is at best hyperbolic, at worst mendacious.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
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I was about to respond to your post, Fr Weber, and then I remembered that my post would be a DH.
Rather let me say that the mentality of God hates sin can lead to people giving up if they don't feel they can conquer temptation. Not just in sexual matters either. For instance, I knew someone who quit church because he couldn't quit smoking. His church taught that smoking was defiling a temple of the holy spirit, and he'd tried to quit multiple times, but failed. So he gave up and decided he was a lost cause to God.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Those angry people are fearful of change, fearful for their positions and fearful of a 'slippery slope' into something 'less' than they have now.
I imagine.
I suspect that you imagine correctly, that conservatism is always about fear.
Best wishes,
Russ
I am no conservative but surely conservatism, though it may be about fear, is also against change that has not been thought through and against losing important aspects.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
There are two different questions here: 1) Is the "change of gender" morally licit itself, and 2) is it effective concerning conditions on gender the Church imposes? I think the answer to 1 is "possibly, it will depend on the case", and the answer to 2 is "no, not with current medical technology, but maybe some time in the future". So a judgement concerning 1 indeed requires looking at every individual case, but a judgement concerning 2 does not at this point in time. It may be that Diego committed no sin in undergoing gender reassignment therapy, but currently this therapy is not in fact capable to turn him into a man for the purposes of marriage.
Hence the latter require no discussion with Diego (unless he wants to make a case that the Church is not aware of a radically new treatment that he has undergone).
This seems clear and reasonable.
On question 1), if a "sex change" operation is not necessarily sinful, then Diego has not thereby committed an obvious public sin; it causes no scandal. So the pope can meet him, without saying "go and sin no more" about his gender swap (or whatever you want to call it). I think you indicated previously that you see the problem as being whether the pope can meet his Significant Other while maintaining the Catholic traching that it is illicit for an unmarried man to have a Significant Other ?
On question 2) I see that there is a real issue about whether Diego can marry. And the issue is that the traditional position of the Church is that a marriage which has not been consummated can be annulled.
Nothing to do with gender change - for this purpose Diego is just a man without a penis, unable to consummate the marriage.
So the marriage wouldn't be a binding commitment.
We had a long thread recently about marriage, and the core issue is balancing the virtue of commitment - two people vowing to stick together through thick and thin, for richer or for poorer etc - with the virtue of mercy towards those whose relationships don't survive. I don't want to repeat that argument, but see the same tension here.
The consummation rule is a mercy. It's a protection for a woman who, having married the man she has chosen to father her children, finds that he can't. As you say, the purpose of the rule...
Where I think your position is wrong is the combination of the two questions - you count whatever Diego and his partner do together - sleep in the same bed, touch each other with affection and eroticism - as being close enough to sex to condemn them for "living in sin" but not close enough to sex for the Church to count them as married. Against whom is their sin ?
If I make a motorised pram, I suggest that the State cannot in natural justice both refuse to register it and prosecute me for driving an unregistered vehicle.
Hope this makes sense,
Russ
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
surely conservatism, though it may be about fear, is also against change that has not been thought through and against losing important aspects.
Balancing fear of loss with hope of gain is rational. A mindset that weights the scales on the side of fear of loss is conservatism.
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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Fr. Weber: you obviously do not read the blogs that I do.
Try "Slut-shaming, suicide and Mrs. Hall" for starters, since the writer sums up the problem clearly. "Mom bloggers, if you are shaming teen-age girls" is another.
"Modesty culture" has been a significant force in driving young people out of the evangelical churches of the US (I don't know about other countries) along with the demonisation of LGBTQs and the rather anti-Christian preaching about "since it is the poor person's fault entirely that he/she is poor, we don't have to help them"
Please do not write that this is not a true representation of what happens to women in church: there are well over 1000 blogs written by women which deal with the general topic of the various forms of abuse directed by men at women.
If you need something a bit less "shrill" (a demeaning term which indicates that the mere thought of a woman speaking is making the "shrill" commenter uncomfortable), try Rachel Held Evans who is very thoroughly Biblical, as her recent book shows.
quote:
(Ironically, I’ve heard dozens of sermons about keeping my legs and my cleavage out of sight, but not one about ensuring my jewelry was not acquired through unjust or exploitative trade practices—which would be much more in keeping with biblical teachings on modesty.)
I could go on at some length, because this topic has been of interest to me since my daughters were quite young.
You will note that I have included a "good, Catholic" lady.
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
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Ad Orientem: I would suggest you try the same reading, or I can suggest more for you. It would be nice to have an actual comment rather than mere dismissive one-liners, so please read up a bit.
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on
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@ Eliab:
One word: usury.
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Ad Orientem: I would suggest you try the same reading, or I can suggest more for you. It would be nice to have an actual comment rather than mere dismissive one-liners, so please read up a bit.
The contention wasn't that such people don't exist, rather that they are not representative of the vast majority who hold to traditional sexual ethics. But if you're feeling uncharitable then I'm sure I can find extremes on the other end of the spectrum and claim they represent the liberal side.
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on
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This may partially be a pond difference because in this country--I will let others speak for Canada--those people really are most of the evangelical wing of the church.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Horseman Bree:
Telling a person that, no matter what that person does, God will hate him forever
HB, none of the blog posts you refer to have anything like this in them. Again, who is talking like this? Your rhetoric is reaching Chicken Little proportions here.
The post I'm quoting has nothing about modesty or slut-shaming in it. Can we focus on one aspect of Papist enormity at a time, please?
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
@ Eliab:
One word: usury.
I take it you mean that Catholic teaching can change on this as it (presumably) did on usury.
OK. On the subject of sexuality, what do you think:
a) The Pope could change if he wanted to;
b) The Pope's conduct suggests that he might wish to change;
c) The Pope actually wants to change?
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on
:
Well, it looks like Pope Francis thinks the answer to a, b and c is adapt or die. Someday, there'll be council or conclave or whatever, and after much wailing and gnashing, they will release an statement with an impressive Latin name -- oh, say Nam quisque matrimonium, which Google says means marriage for everyone. It will be something along the lines of marriage, like the Sabbath, was made for all humans, and the rules about male and female were made when we didn't understand as much about sex, gender and orientation, and we don't have to follow everything in Leviticus anyway, and marriage can be creative and fruitful in other ways besides children, and marriage benefits both individuals and society, and shouldn't be denied to anyone, yadda yadda yadda. Four legs good, two legs better.
Posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe (# 5521) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
They will release a statement with an impressive Latin name -- oh, say Nam quisque matrimonium, which Google says means marriage for everyone.
Google Translate is notoriously inaccurate when it comes to Latin. Matrimonium omnibus would be better -- which the ultra-right will interpret as throwing marriage under the bus.
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on
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Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
Well, it looks like Pope Francis thinks the answer to a, b and c is adapt or die. Someday, there'll be council or conclave or whatever, and after much wailing and gnashing, they will release an statement with an impressive Latin name -- oh, say Nam quisque matrimonium, which Google says means marriage for everyone. It will be something along the lines of marriage, like the Sabbath, was made for all humans, and the rules about male and female were made when we didn't understand as much about sex, gender and orientation, and we don't have to follow everything in Leviticus anyway, and marriage can be creative and fruitful in other ways besides children, and marriage benefits both individuals and society, and shouldn't be denied to anyone, yadda yadda yadda. Four legs good, two legs better.
And that will be the final proof that the bishop of Rome has abandoned the apostolic faith. And of course it will deserve to die, the RC that is, as it inevitably will under such circumstances.
[ 05. February 2015, 02:14: Message edited by: Ad Orientem ]
Posted by Gramps49 (# 16378) on
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Question: at what point does a thread become a dead horse?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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When it falls into one of the Dead Horse categories. If you want to move to move it, ask in the Styx.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
On question 1), if a "sex change" operation is not necessarily sinful, then Diego has not thereby committed an obvious public sin; it causes no scandal. So the pope can meet him, without saying "go and sin no more" about his gender swap (or whatever you want to call it).
This does not follow. First, that it is possible that Diego did not commit a sin (by my lights), doesn't mean that he actually didn't (even by my lights). Second, that I see a chance of double effect allowing this doesn't mean that every Catholic under the sun will think likewise. Many will never have heard of "double effect", and how it can mean that an evil (!) is licitly done. They are likely to see the pope's action as demonstrating that gender reassignment is simply OK, or that it is OK to sin, and thus either get things wrong or be shocked and confused by the pope apparently getting things wrong. Once more, this is a public act, and should be treated as such. If the pope does this, it needs to be framed, accompanied by proper explanation. The pope certainly can teach something relatively complicated to Catholics, like double effect. But not just by doing something and hoping that everybody will jump to the right conclusions.
The pope needs to snap out of the "I'm just a simple priest" mode. He isn't. Even if he wants to demonstrate precisely simplicity, he cannot. Because plenty of people will not see what he's doing as simple, but as simply wrong. He needs to explain his simplicity. He needs to tell people like me (but I'm frankly at the easy end of this) that he knows that there are many complicated considerations there but that he's going to cut through them here to make a point. Otherwise people, like yours truly, will worry that he will let fall to pieces what he has cut apart. And I will repeat, only Nixon could go to China. If Pope Francis was well known as orthodox and conservative, then this would provide a backdrop against which such an action would be speak powerfully for itself, not requiring further explanation. But he really isn't. Frankly, I get the impression nobody really knows what he is about...
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
On question 2) I see that there is a real issue about whether Diego can marry. And the issue is that the traditional position of the Church is that a marriage which has not been consummated can be annulled.
No, that's not the issue. The issue is that two women - and Diego is for the purposes of the sacrament a woman - cannot marry. Even if Diego was considered a man, then he could still not marry due to being antecedently and permanently impotent. But he is not considered a man for the purposes of the sacrament.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Nothing to do with gender change - for this purpose Diego is just a man without a penis, unable to consummate the marriage.
That's false. My point was exactly that current medical technology does not have the capacity to change a woman into a man.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
So the marriage wouldn't be a binding commitment.
No, there simply is no "marriage" here. And a non-consummated marriage is a binding commitment. Just one that potentially can be dissolved by human power.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
The consummation rule is a mercy. It's a protection for a woman who, having married the man she has chosen to father her children, finds that he can't. As you say, the purpose of the rule...
That's not the point of this rule. The point of this rule is that it is the "union of one flesh" that brings the marriage "contract" before God, at which point it is taken out of human hands. Before that, grave reason can allow the breaking of a human "contract" by proper authority (the pope, currently), no matter how sacred one might consider it to be. It is certainly not the case that the inability of a man to father children, or the inability of a woman to conceive them, provides reason as such to break a marriage. Infertility is neither a hindrance to marriage, nor grounds to dissolve it. And if we are talking about male impotence here, then this rule does not need to be invoked at all. Antecedent and permanent impotence means that marriage cannot be contracted in the first place, and such an apparent marriage would be simply annulled, rather than referred to the pope as a case where he might dissolve an unconsummated marriage bond by his authority.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Where I think your position is wrong is the combination of the two questions - you count whatever Diego and his partner do together - sleep in the same bed, touch each other with affection and eroticism - as being close enough to sex to condemn them for "living in sin" but not close enough to sex for the Church to count them as married. Against whom is their sin?
Frankly, this is mildly hilarious. Whatever happened to "sex is not just genital intercourse"? That the RCC gives license to one particular kind of sex (and doesn't really want to know what else you may be doing in bed as long as it leads to that), doesn't mean at all that the RCC considers everything else as not being sex. In fact, the rules in place there are IMHO very wise. The basic deal is that if a couple lives together as brother and sister, or sister and sister, or brother and brother, then their loving relationship does not fall under the rules for intimate relations. This avoids the need to specify in detail just what one can do, and also removes problems of cultural dependence and indeed of individual idiosyncrasies. Whatever your culture and upbringing will have been like, there will be things that you don't want to see a brother and sister do with each other. The taboo against incest will cut in at some point for you. The Church is saying that if the loving relationship of two people goes beyond what you find acceptable between siblings, then it will be considered as intimate in a sexual sense.
So tell me, do you actually believe that Diego and his partner are living as sibling and sister? I don't know, because I've not been told, but I consider it to be rather improbable. And if they do not, then this is a case of Lesbian sex, or if Diego was considered a man concerning marriage (but he isn't), then of fornication.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
If I make a motorised pram, I suggest that the State cannot in natural justice both refuse to register it and prosecute me for driving an unregistered vehicle.
Of course the State can refuse you registration for good reason, and then if you nevertheless take that unregistered vehicle on the road, prosecute you for that. And if you are building a motorised pram, then I very much hope that the State is willing to do both...
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In summary, the statement that the purpose of sex is reproduction is not intended as an exhaustive description of all sexual acts.
But it is. You and your church intend it as an exhaustive descrtipion of all permissible sexual acts. If it's not an act that's open to procreation/ordered to procreation, it's simply not allowed.
You contradict yourself by introducing the qualifier "permissible". Obviously "all" and "permissible" are not identical (unless all is permissible). It is an important point, because a typical objection against the rules of the Church that there is sex, even clearly apart from human wilfulness, which does not follow these rules. As far as sex goes, the Church asks her faithful to go beyond what is common in the world and embody the abstract purpose of sex in practice. On this matter, the Church is decidedly idealistic, puristic, or what have you - and the Church thinks that she need to be, because Jesus Christ decidedly was.
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I've pointed out before that logically this should mean sex is only allowed during a window of 2-3 days at the relevant part of a women's cycle when there's an egg in position to be fertilised, but apparently there's this belief that God is too dumb to be aware of that particular aspect of human biology and can be fooled into thinking a sexual act is open to procreation when it occurs at completely the wrong time of the month. So basically your criterion is that the sexual act looks right.
First, I do not believe that Catholic sexual morals, or indeed Catholic morals in general, are identical with the natural moral law. They are merely compatible with it. I see this rather like the relationship between Catholic theology and (natural) metaphysics. There is nothing in the former that explicitly contradicts the latter, or vice versa, but they are not identical in scope or content. It is furthermore clear that sexual morals in particular were given by the Lord Himself a rather idealistic shape. Even the apostles were shocked by demands being imposed there.
Second, Catholic morals rely on the simple principle that you are only responsible for what is under your control. Fertility is not naturally under our control. Hence we are not morally responsible for it. So in sex, there simply are two parts: On one hand there is the human act, making love. It can either have a form that allows procreation (vaginal intercourse with male ejaculation), or not. This is under our control, and hence our moral responsibility. On the other hand, there is the semen finding an egg, fertilising it, the egg imbedding in the womb and starting to develop, etc. This isn't naturally under our control, and hence is not under our responsibility. You may assign responsibility to nature, or God, or both. But we are not actively doing something there, even if this happens in our bodies. So we are not morally involved. Only if we decided to interfere with these processes, for example through birth control, then we are potentially liable for a failure to conceive, in a moral sense.
So your analysis is superficial. It works as a rule of thumb, but it fails to see the deeper reasons behind this rule of thumb. The point is not that God can somehow be fooled by something that looks like sex leading to reproduction (but doesn't). That's clearly absurd. The point is simply that human moral responsibility for conception does not extend naturally beyond the sexual act. The rest is in the hand of nature and/or God. If you want to put this poetically, you could say that every proper sexual act has to embody a question to God whether he wants to bless this marriage with another child. But the sexual act does not have to provide the answer to this. God does. And, anticipating the usual round of nonsense about natural family planning, or marrying someone who is infertile, or marrying in old age: just because we can predict what God's answer is going to be, does not mean that we are not asking a question. And Sarah didn't have the last laugh...
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
<Sorry for the triple post, but I'm working through a backlog here and putting it all in one mega-post seemed unhelpful.>
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
@ Eliab: One word: usury.
I take it you mean that Catholic teaching can change on this as it (presumably) did on usury.
The Catholic teaching on usury has not changed. At all. Most people do not in fact know what usury really means. It does not for example mean "charging too high interest". Neither does it simply mean "charging any interest at all". Usury means charging interest on what we nowadays call a "full recourse loan", i.e., where the loan is secured ultimately by the person borrowing the money, rather than by a thing. And one side of the argument against usury is basically the argument against slavery: you cannot own (a part of) a person. The other side of the argument against usury is that it creates "imaginary value" that is not tied to some concrete reality, a point that at the tail end of various financial crises may not be quite so alien to us today. Zippy Catholic has a good FAQ on usury. Zippy Catholic also documents that the supposed change of RC policy concerning usury in the early 19thC simply did not happen, see here.
However, what is correct is that ecclesiastical penalties imposed for the sin of usury were dropped. And that in consequence, usury has been all but forgotten. So if there is one clear lesson to be drawn from the historical case of usury, then it is this: If the Church wants to maintain her teachings on sin in practice, the she has to have the guts to confront sinners with actual, consistent and significant consequences. Or her teachings will get dismissed and ignored as so much theoretical fluff.
[ 05. February 2015, 09:27: Message edited by: IngoB ]
Posted by itsarumdo (# 18174) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
<Sorry for the triple post, but I'm working through a backlog here and putting it all in one mega-post seemed unhelpful.>
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
@ Eliab: One word: usury.
I take it you mean that Catholic teaching can change on this as it (presumably) did on usury.
The Catholic teaching on usury has not changed. At all. Most people do not in fact know what usury really means. It does not for example mean "charging too high interest". Neither does it simply mean "charging any interest at all". Usury means charging interest on what we nowadays call a "full recourse loan", i.e., where the loan is secured ultimately by the person borrowing the money, rather than by a thing. And one side of the argument against usury is basically the argument against slavery: you cannot own (a part of) a person. The other side of the argument against usury is that it creates "imaginary value" that is not tied to some concrete reality, a point that at the tail end of various financial crises may not be quite so alien to us today. Zippy Catholic has a good FAQ on usury. Zippy Catholic also documents that the supposed change of RC policy concerning usury in the early 19thC simply did not happen, see here.
However, what is correct is that ecclesiastical penalties imposed for the sin of usury were dropped. And that in consequence, usury has been all but forgotten. So if there is one clear lesson to be drawn from the historical case of usury, then it is this: If the Church wants to maintain her teachings on sin in practice, the she has to have the guts to confront sinners with actual, consistent and significant consequences. Or her teachings will get dismissed and ignored as so much theoretical fluff.
Then you believe that it is up to the Church to be God's policeman? I tend to think that sin is a personal and spiritual responsibility and that rules made and/or imposed by other humans are a human issue. Binding the legal process into a spiritual admonition is one of the problems a lot of westerners have with sharia and the more extreme forms of Islam. I wouldn't like to see a return of the mediaeval system that severely punished people who failed to turn up to church at specified times or who ate the wrong kind of food on certain days.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
When I let a room to you and state as a condition "no smoking inside", but you go ahead and smoke anyway, then I am well within my rights to throw you out. And while it would be clearly over the top if I tired to spy on you, or came into your room every hour to check on you, respecting your privacy does not mean that I have to turn a blind eye when I happen to see you smoking through the window, or when I smell the smoke wafting down the hallway.
This is also the way in which the Church can, and should, "police" its faithful, and in which she can, and should, "punish" them if necessary. The Church should not play secret police, but she should also not play dumb. And the primary punishment of the Church is simply to withdraw her normal recognition and services. Finally, unlike most people letting rooms, the Church is always willing to forgive those who repent and reform their lives, and willing to reinstate them to same privileges as before.
To try to paint this into the same corner as purported medieval excesses or Sharia law is just scaremongering.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The Catholic teaching on usury has not changed. At all.
[...]
Zippy Catholic has a good FAQ on usury. Zippy Catholic also documents that the supposed change of RC policy concerning usury in the early 19thC simply did not happen, see here.
Well, that's Zippy Catholic's view of RC policy, but it's not clear that it's the RC's view of RC policy. Does it not have a good FAQ of its own?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
Well, that's Zippy Catholic's view of RC policy, but it's not clear that it's the RC's view of RC policy. Does it not have a good FAQ of its own?
Not as far as I know. You can of course work your way through the official statements of the Church, as well as relevant theological sources, from Aquinas to the moral manuals. But I don't think that there's a convenient one stop FAQ otherwise that has better authority. The summaries that are out there, like the one by the Catholic Encyclopedia tend to be confused and confusing, whereas what Zippy Catholic says makes good sense to me. If you read what Aquinas says here concerning "handing over the ownership of a house, but reserving the use", for which one can be legitimately charged, then this pretty much establishes that non-recourse loans are not usury. Because that's basically (the non-recourse part of) a mortgage. Whereas what is declared as usury by analogy to wheat is to both lend money and ask for money (i.e., interest) for using it. By these examples, if I borrow money against (part of) some-thing, thus de facto transferring (part of) ownership (as will be realised if I cannot pay back), then I can be charged justly for retaining its usage while not having paid back the money. But if someone just lends me money, then interest charged has no grounding in the usage of some-thing, it is merely charge on account of having received the money and thus being able to use it. And that Aquinas thinks is unjust. But that just is what happens in a full recourse loan, where the lender of the money expects to be paid back more just for having given the money.
So I think Zippy Catholic is translating this well into a more modern setting. Whether this gets everything right is another question, but as a basic guide it seems OK to me.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
Well, maybe. But it seems odd that someone would put so much effort into investigating usury, decide that much of the modern financial system is based on a mortal sin that the RC authorities just sort of stopped talking about, and write an extensive FAQ detailing his position ... all without (apparently) asking anybody in the church who might be able to give an authoritative answer.
Seems like an official Vatican FAQ would save a lot of time. (But if they ever do get one, I hope it won't have that parchment background pattern...)
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
There is little doubt that much of the financial system is based on a mortal sin the RCC has been forgetting to mention for a couple of hundred years. The question is more whether any of it is not sinful, and why precisely. (Incidentally, the sin is in principle on the side of the lender, not the borrower. See one of the later articles in the Aquinas link I gave above.) Best I can tell, Zippy has been reading key sources, like Aquinas and Vix pervenit. He could of course still be reading them wrong, but it is pretty silly to blame him for making up his own mind based on (semi-)official sources, given that the Church is remarkably silent on the subject...
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on
:
How do the Vatican banks make money? Do they lend in the 'normal' way?
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mr cheesy:
How do the Vatican banks make money? Do they lend in the 'normal' way?
The "Vatican Bank", or rather the Institute for the Works of Religion (IOR from the Italian) is supposed to transfer and invest assets of dioceses and religious orders around the world. The IOR is not allowed to take deposits or make loans, and is hence not really a "bank" in the regular sense. It is a specialised financial service provider. The IOR also has been a complete clusterfuck, so it wouldn't be too surprising if they had ignored their statues concerning this. But no, they are not supposed to lend money.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
There is little doubt that much of the financial system is based on a mortal sin the RCC has been forgetting to mention for a couple of hundred years. The question is more whether any of it is not sinful, and why precisely. (Incidentally, the sin is in principle on the side of the lender, not the borrower. See one of the later articles in the Aquinas link I gave above.) Best I can tell, Zippy has been reading key sources, like Aquinas and Vix pervenit. He could of course still be reading them wrong, but it is pretty silly to blame him for making up his own mind based on (semi-)official sources, given that the Church is remarkably silent on the subject...
But RC silence is only really remarkable if you assume he's right that the whole financial structure is based on a mortal sin according to RC teaching. Is it really more likely that the RCC thinks all its members in the financial industry go to hell without saying boo, or that Zippy's got it wrong?
Presumably the RC has people who are more familiar with this stuff than Zippy Catholic; is there no way of checking with them?
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
Actually it isn't true that "the whole financial structure is based on a mortal sin." The vast majority of business credit is not usury, because the "loans" in question are not mutuum loans - the sort to which the prohibition of usury applies.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
Also the argument from the silence of the Holy See is, oddly enough, an actual heresy condemned by the Holy See. So Catholics who use that argument are actually committing material heresy.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
Welcome, zippycatholic. And if you are indeed the Zippy Catholic of the blog, then I guess it's over to you.
FWIW, I didn't say "whole", that's from Dave. I said "much", and I'm happy to learn that it is in fact much less than I thought it was (by virtue of business credit apparently being non-recourse for the most part).
Anyway, finance is not my thing, so have at it.
If anybody wonders what zippy is talking about concerning the silence of the Holy See, it is number 1127 here. I don't think that condemning this specific statement as moral error establishes that holding it "is the obstinate denial or obstinate doubt after the reception of baptism of some truth which is to be believed by divine and Catholic faith" (Canon 751), i.e., a heresy. Not every moral error is a heresy. Believing that the Christ was not Divine is a heresy (counter to divine and Catholic faith), believing that the lack of condemnation from the Holy See establishes an opinion as likely is generally just a dumb imprudence. Furthermore, you are basically ignoring the "young and modern must be better" vibes that the condemned statement clearly has. I might as well argue that this really is about condemning the moral error of always running after the latest trend unless the Holy See explicitly forbids it.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
if I borrow money against (part of) some-thing, thus de facto transferring (part of) ownership (as will be realised if I cannot pay back), then I can be charged justly for retaining its usage while not having paid back the money. But if someone just lends me money, then interest charged has no grounding in the usage of some-thing, it is merely charge on account of having received the money and thus being able to use it. And that Aquinas thinks is unjust. But that just is what happens in a full recourse loan, where the lender of the money expects to be paid back more just for having given the money.
This doesn't make sense to me.
you seem to be saying that:
- it is OK (not morally wrong as such) for me to ask for some compensation in exchange for lending you something
- it is OK for me to loan you something without collateral - without naming any specific things that you must forfeit if you don't pay it back - but instead claiming a right to confiscate unspecified goods of yours up to the value of the thing loaned if you cannot or will not return it
- it is OK for me to lend you money rather than things
But that by some strange alchemy, combining these three aspects - asking interest for money loaned without collateral - generates a new sin called usury which isn't present if any of the three elements is lacking ?
Perhaps you can gently correct my misunderstanding ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
Right IngoB, my response was directed at Dave W's post, which appeared to combine both an exaggeration of your characterization as well as a "silence of the Holy See" argument (in effect that the fact that the Church hasn't issued any new documents on contemporary practices negates existing doctrine which was affirmed and reaffirmed for millennia).
Whether the latter constitutes material heresy or is some sort of (nevertheless explicitly condemned) error is not a hill I'm prepared to die on. "Not just fallacious but explicitly condemned" is good enough for me.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
Russ:
In order to understand usury you have to understand the difference between a mutuum loan and a contract for rent.
In a contract for rent, the borrower pays you for the use of the actual property (say a house), and returns that actual property at the end of the loan. If you stop making rent payments, he forecloses and claims his actual property -- but you, the borrower, are done at that point: he cannot continue to require payments from you after he has retrieved the actual property he loaned to you, or that was purchased (either from you as collateral or from a third party) with his money. Non recourse loans, licit census contracts, etc are variations on this kind of contract: there is always some actual property in which claims of the various parties terminate. As Vix Pervenit affirms, "from these types of contract honest gain may be made".
In a mutuum (the word "loan" in the English translation of Vix Pervenit is originally "mutuum"), the lender gives you something and you consume it - which is to say, once you are done using it, it is no longer in either your or his possession. Aquinas refers to this kind of situation as the loan of something 'consumed in its use'. This kind of loan is only morally licit as an act of charity or friendship, and cannot by its nature give rise to any titles to profit -- because any titles to profit would not be rooted in actual property, but rather in the person of the borrower, making this into a kind of partial enslavement of the borrower by the lender.
Of course this immediately gives rise to many other questions, which is why someone ought to post an FAQ covering all the different questions which tend to arise, citing Magisterial documents and Aquinas where appropriate, etc. ;-)
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
The second paragraph in my reply to Russ mixes up whether "you" are the lender or the borrower, and (I'm obviously a noob as far as this board goes, having discovered it from my referrer stats) apparently I can't fix it. But hopefully it makes sense once you mentally unscramble what I inadvertently scrambled.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- it is OK (not morally wrong as such) for me to ask for some compensation in exchange for lending you something
Sure. I want a car, but I don't have the money at the moment. You lend me the money with the car as collateral. Effectively this means that you buy the car, but I get to drive around in it. We see this by the fact that if I default, you can repossess the car without further ado and sell it to recover your money. Now, my payment plan on one hand means that I eventually pay that car price to you. But I also pay you more: interest. Is this just? Sure, after all I get to drive around in what is effectively your car, why should I not pay you for doing that? This is not really different from renting a car and paying for it, except that at the end of this, if I have paid the loan off, I get to keep the car.
Likewise, if I secure a loan against some thing I already own (instead of trying to buy something new), then I'm de facto selling it to you, but I pay interest for the privilege of continuing to have it in my possession. And this things does not necessarily have to be a physical entity. I may for example take a loan against my copyright on a text. If I default, then you own the copyright on that text. Even though copyright is not a physical thing, it is nevertheless something that persists as an independent entity, and thus can act as a collateral.
Obviously, these kind of contracts can also be unjust. For example if you grossly overcharge interest, then this is unjust. That's not the point. The point is that they can be just. They are really a special kind of rental agreement.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- it is OK for me to loan you something without collateral - without naming any specific things that you must forfeit if you don't pay it back - but instead claiming a right to confiscate unspecified goods of yours up to the value of the thing loaned if you cannot or will not return it
No, that's not OK. In that case, you are really coming after me, you just happen to do so via my possessions (things I own). You did not effectively buy these things for me, and then granted usage to me. Neither did I effectively sell them to you, but retained usage. This is not a kind of rental contract with the ultimate goal of a transferral of ownership. The only thing you have to do with these possessions of mine is that you have an "I owe you" in your hand, and you are targeting the stuff I own because that's an easy way of getting something back from me. It is through me being personally liable that you are grabbing these things now, it is not the case that these things were put up as collateral in the first place. It's a different situation. Whether this is just or not is a different discussion, but first we need to agree that something different is happening here.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- it is OK for me to lend you money rather than things
It can be OK, sure.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
But that by some strange alchemy, combining these three aspects - asking interest for money loaned without collateral - generates a new sin called usury which isn't present if any of the three elements is lacking ? Perhaps you can gently correct my misunderstanding ?
The middle element is not OK, hence also not the combination. The problem is that what I'm putting up as a collateral there is really myself. The security you get for your loan is not some thing, it is me. If I default the loan, you get rights over me. You can take away my things, even though I never intended selling them to you. You can force me to labour for you (if in the polite form of taking part of the wages I earn, rather than outright slavery). You can perhaps have me thrown into prison, if I fail to provide you with satisfactory repayment. I'm on the line, as a person, not a thing. In a non-recourse loan, you only have right over the agreed upon collateral, a thing, which you effectively rent out to me until I can assume full ownership by paying you off. If I default, then that collateral is all you can go for. Other than for that thing, I'm free to keep what I own and do what I want.
Aside from the moral problem of effectively buying a part of a person, the other moral problem is that money is a medium exchange. While money has physical realisations (the bank notes in my wallet), the point of money is that you can buy and sell stuff with it. It is intended to be used, and even if one saves it up, then the point of that is precisely to store it up for future usage. In that sense money is like food or drink. The point of food or drink is that it will be consumed eventually. Even if you store up food or drink, it is with the intention of future usage.
Now imagine you give a bagel to someone but you say "You are hungry... here, you can have my bagel, but I want to get a bagel back." That's fair enough. It may not be charitable or nice, but it is just. You give a bagel, you get a bagel back (eventually). OK. Now the person wolfs down the bagel. Then you say "Ah, but you ate my bagel. Now I want one and a half bagels back. One bagel because I gave you one, and half a bagel extra because you ate it." That's obviously nuts. The point of a bagel is to be eaten, and giving someone a bagel just means expecting them to eat it. One cannot in justice charge for what every sane person will think is the very purpose one is giving something for.
But so also for money - if I borrow money from you, then presumably not to put it in a frame to admire it. I borrow money from you obviously because I need to use it to do something for me. It is neither particularly charitable nor nice if you expect to get every penny back, but it sure is fair enough. Yet on what grounds would you charge me interest for that loan? Why do I have to pay you for using the money you lent me, if clearly the very point of me borrowing money from you is to use it?
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Right IngoB, my response was directed at Dave W's post, which appeared to combine both an exaggeration of your characterization as well as a "silence of the Holy See" argument (in effect that the fact that the Church hasn't issued any new documents on contemporary practices negates existing doctrine which was affirmed and reaffirmed for millennia).
OK, if not the whole financial structure, then at least credit card debt, student loans, and car loans, and at least a big enough part of the financial structure to be the source of the 2008 global financial crisis (I gather from your FAQ.)
And I think you're mistaking the purpose of my reference to the silence of the Holy See. IngoB suggested that silence justified your reliance on self-study over asking an expert, but that doesn't make any sense to me; surely you're not forbidden to ask questions about it (I presume.)
In any case, I wasn't invoking that silence as a sure sign that interest on unsecured loans isn't considered usury; I'm saying it's one of those things that makes you go "hmmm." You may be entirely correct - but since your conclusion seems to suggest that large numbers of RCs have been committing mortal sin (mostly inadvertently, if they mistakenly think usury is just excessively high interest) without the Church saying anything about it for the last few hundred years (during which time they haven't been shy about calling out lots of other mortal sins) - aren't you at least a little bit interested in asking an expert to see if you've read things right and find out what the official line on current teaching is?
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I borrow money from you obviously because I need to use it to do something for me. It is neither particularly charitable nor nice if you expect to get every penny back, but it sure is fair enough. Yet on what grounds would you charge me interest for that loan? Why do I have to pay you for using the money you lent me, if clearly the very point of me borrowing money from you is to use it?
This seems like it would be an argument against any kind of interest-bearing loan, not just loans that are unsecured.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
...during which time they haven't been shy about calling out lots of other mortal sins
I don't know what Catholic Church you are talking about. My updated version of Denzinger covers significant doctrinal proclamations by the Holy See over the entire two thousand year history of the Church. It is approximately the size of a Stephen King hard cover novel, and - generously - at most 15% to 25% of those doctrinal declarations address moral theology at all (as opposed to sacramental theology and other doctrines of faith as distinct from morals).
Sure, you can try to get a Bishop to submit a dubium to the CDF -- making the attempt isn't actually forbidden. You can write a letter and ask to have lunch with the President too.
Beyond that, of course, there already are all sorts of authoritative documents from the Holy See on usury.
Anyway, I don't know the players here nor do I even have a sense of this community. But I do appreciate y'all being willing to check out my FAQ and give it consideration. If anyone would like further clarification on any particular point, you know where to find me.
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on
:
What strikes me in all this are two things:
Firstly, That the RCC's teaching on usury is, for what of a better analogy, a duck. It walks like a duck, it quacks like a duck. It's a duck. You can swear till you're blue in the face it's a goose, but it's a duck. It started off as a goose, but somewhere between then and now, it underwent a series of subtle transformations until what we have is an actual duck. It's absolutely forbidden to eat a duck, even keep one as a pet, but as long as you can point some convoluted definition of goose which encompasses a duck, you're fine.
Secondly, it is built into the core of the RCC that RCC doctrine is never wrong, so will never ever admit to the duck thing. A duck has always been a goose.
So I expect, probably in the next hundred years, in whatever form the Ship takes, for someone to post:
quote:
The Catholic teaching on marriage has not changed. At all.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Sure, you can try to get a Bishop to submit a dubium to the CDF -- making the attempt isn't actually forbidden. You can write a letter and ask to have lunch with the President too.
I rather doubt that your options for understanding church teaching are limited to autodidacticism on the one hand and the equivalent of "asking to have lunch with the President" on the other.
IngoB - The implications of Zippy's thesis seem pretty drastic. He may be right, but isn't there some way for a non-expert to ask an expert about another non-expert's opinion, short of going all the way to the Congregation for the Doctrine of Faith?
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
Seems about time to introduce the evangelical POV: from Slacktivist's "Sex and Money"
Part 1, that I have linked, is about exactly what you guys are arguing.
Summary quote:
quote:
I found myself, a few years later, having a very similar conversation with Muhammad Yunus, who has since then received the Nobel Peace Prize for his efforts through the Grameen Bank to extend credit to the poorest of the poor in Bangladesh.
Yunus is a Muslim running a bank in a Muslim country. Islam forbids lending at interest. The Koran and Islamic religious law is not ambiguous on that point. When I asked Dr. Yunus if he personally had any religious qualms about lending at interest, his answer was nearly identical to what I'd heard years earlier from my Christian professor.
Read more: http://www.patheos.com/blogs/slacktivist/2010/05/29/sex-money-part-1/#ixzz3R4Kw3CFt
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
I rather doubt that your options for understanding church teaching are limited to autodidacticism on the one hand ...
Reading the actual authoritative documents from the Holy See on the subject is "autodidactism". Got it.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
I rather doubt that your options for understanding church teaching are limited to autodidacticism on the one hand ...
Reading the actual authoritative documents from the Holy See on the subject is "autodidactism". Got it.
Well, in your case apparently yes:
quote:
the process or practice of learning a subject without a teacher or formal education; self-education
Doesn't that describe your effort? (It's not a slur.)
And since you're still here and responding to fragments of my posts, would you care to respond to this one?:
quote:
... aren't you at least a little bit interested in asking an expert to see if you've read things right and find out what the official line on current teaching is?
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- it is OK for me to loan you something without collateral - without naming any specific things that you must forfeit if you don't pay it back - but instead claiming a right to confiscate unspecified goods of yours up to the value of the thing loaned if you cannot or will not return it
No, that's not OK. In that case, you are really coming after me, you just happen to do so via my possessions (things I own). You did not effectively buy these things for me, and then granted usage to me. Neither did I effectively sell them to you, but retained usage. This is not a kind of rental contract with the ultimate goal of a transferral of ownership. The only thing you have to do with these possessions of mine is that you have an "I owe you" in your hand, and you are targeting the stuff I own because that's an easy way of getting something back from me. It is through me being personally liable that you are grabbing these things now, it is not the case that these things were put up as collateral in the first place. It's a different situation. Whether this is just or not is a different discussion, but first we need to agree that something different is happening here.
Have you mis-read Russ here, or have I mis-read you/Zippy Catholic?
I thought the RC position (or at least, the RC position if it's being accurately portrayed by ZC) was that your can lawfully make a full-recourse/mutuum loan, but not make a profit from it. Getting your money back is OK - getting money and interest is not.
If that's right then Russ's qualifier "up to the value of the thing loaned" is important and prevents the arrangement from being usury - the lender is only claiming the right to get back what he lent, not a profit. Or have I missed something?
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
Doesn't that describe your effort? (It's not a slur.)
Only to the extent it describes every effort to understand moral theology in detail. (And please: "Can't we talk to someone who is more of an expert than you?")
The Church obviously still condemns usury: Pope Francis was denouncing it just recently, and Pope Benedict mentioned it in Caritas in Veritate. The Church condemns abortion, but you can't consult an expert with Magisterial authority on whether salpingectomy is or is not a form of abortion any more easily, or in any less fraught a way, than you can consult an expert with Magisterial authority on futures contracts. The most recent actual Magisterial pronouncement on ectopic pregnancy I was able to find is from 1902:
https://zippycatholic.wordpress.com/2009/01/12/breaking-news-the-magisterium-explicitly-addresses-ectopic-pregnancy/
So it is true that I consulted mildly older documents in order to reach my understanding of the technical nuts and bolts of usury, that I haven't consulted nonexistent or self-proclaimed experts with nonexistent degrees on the subject, and that the CDF hasn't responded to a dubium on the subject in a century or two. But that hardly distinguishes this subject from any other in the domain of moral theology.
As I said already, the Catholic Church you are talking about - the one with ubiquitous panels of credentialed experts who can be consulted and relied upon to give detailed technical answers to questions on moral theology with Magisterial authority - doesn't seem to exist in reality. I would not (for example) trust the 'experts' in New Natural Law as far as I can kick them on the subject of abortion and ectopic pregnancy, whatever degrees they may hold from whatever institutions -- and they certainly do not speak with Magisterial authority.
So again, to the extent understanding usury correctly is an autodidactic enterprise, that - contrary to what you seem to have assumed - doesn't distinguish it from every other area of moral theology. The "official" position on secured futures contracts and the "official" position on salpingectomy are in more or less the same boat.
[ 07. February 2015, 15:34: Message edited by: zippycatholic ]
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
Doesn't that describe your effort? (It's not a slur.)
Only to the extent it describes every effort to understand moral theology in detail.
Really? That's how you think theology is taught (well, "learned" I guess, "taught" would imply a teacher) in RC seminaries?
The to-and-fro of classroom discussion must be very intellectually stimulating. "Here's a big stack of documents - read them. If you have any questions about whether you're interpreting things correctly - feel free to read them again. And when you're finished, if any layman should ever happen to ask a question about moral theology - give them a copy of the big stack of documents."
(And no, "Can't we talk to someone who is more of an expert than you?" doesn't seem all that unreasonable a question to me. They don't have to be "self-proclaimed experts with nonexistent degrees"; aren't there any actual RCC-recognized experts with actual theology degrees who aren't too elevated to take questions from someone lower than a bishop?)
Posted by moonlitdoor (# 11707) on
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I think the ship mate Trisagion would be a reasonable answer to your last question, although I don't think he is often posting here lately. He stated his job here a while back, but I don't have a link to him doing so and not sure what I am allowed to repeat, but it suggested he would be well informed on this subject.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
That's how you think theology is taught (well, "learned" I guess, "taught" would imply a teacher) in RC seminaries?
I admit that this imaginary Catholic Church in your mind, where seminaries are not only uniformly orthodox but can be counted on to understand finance as well, would save 'autodidacts' from a lot of the trouble of thinking for themselves.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
That's how you think theology is taught (well, "learned" I guess, "taught" would imply a teacher) in RC seminaries?
I admit that this imaginary Catholic Church in your mind, where seminaries are not only uniformly orthodox but can be counted on to understand finance as well, would save 'autodidacts' from a lot of the trouble of thinking for themselves.
So there's literally no one in the hierarchy you could ask whose opinion you might value? There's the CFD, you, the big stack of documents - and that's it? (Seems kind of lonely.)
As for orthodoxy - when I ask about the teaching of the RCC, I'm not asking about an eternal metaphysical truth (not that there's anything wrong with that!), I'm asking about what the RCC, in the form of priests and theologians, actually teaches its believers. That's really not such a strange definition of "the teaching of the RCC".
Now that I know what you think about the subject, I'm interested in learning what they would say if asked (and, secondarily, whom and how to ask), whether you would consider it orthodox or not.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
"So there's literally no one in the hierarchy you could ask whose opinion you might value? There's the CFD, you, the big stack of documents - and that's it? (Seems kind of lonely.)"
I've talked to certainly hundreds and possibly thousands of people on this subject in the years since I first took an interest in it -- folks from all sorts of different backgrounds, including clergy, professors of moral theology, and finance/business experts like myself. The fact that some priests have been passing around my recently published usury ebook to others doesn't in itself make my position more likely to be orthodox though. Nor do my formal credentials and deep experience in finance and business guarantee either orthodoxy or technical accuracy in my views.
My arguments, claims, and Magisterial references should be evaluated on their own merits. I am not interested in ad hominem, whether of the "gosh Zippy is smart so he must be right" or "Zippy's doesn't have XYZ credential so that casts his arguments in doubt" sort. Feel free to pass my work on the subject on to anyone you like - I've explicitly placed it in the public domain - and get the opinions of anyone you like.
But don't mistake various peoples' views (including my own) for Magisterial authority. Unless the Magisterium actually pronounces on a specific question (I've referenced where it has on this subject in my work), it is not only mistaken but condemned to take the silence of the Holy See as evidence of approval.
I'm afraid that, on this subject as any other, at the end of the day you have to make up your own mind what is credible and makes sense; that relying on the expertise of others is as fraught here as it is in any other important and controversial subject.
And now I really am over and out on this nice Saturday, and I leave the last word to whomever wants to speak it. If anyone wants to actually discuss the actual subject matter itself, as opposed to how lonely I must be, y'all know where to find me.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
I've talked to certainly hundreds and possibly thousands of people on this subject in the years since I first took an interest in it -- folks from all sorts of different backgrounds, including clergy, professors of moral theology, and finance/business experts like myself.
Well, I'm sorry you didn't mention this before, since it is the very first thing I asked you about. I would have liked to know what their responses were (and I don't think that's unreasonable or insulting; after all, you presumably wanted to know that too.)
But as you've now gone, you will keep your experiences of hundreds/thousands of discussions and your sunshine, whereas I will get ... more snow.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
The problem is that what I'm putting up as a collateral there is really myself. The security you get for your loan is not some thing, it is me. If I default the loan, you get rights over me. You can take away my things, even though I never intended selling them to you. You can force me to labour for you (if in the polite form of taking part of the wages I earn, rather than outright slavery). You can perhaps have me thrown into prison, if I fail to provide you with satisfactory repayment. I'm on the line, as a person, not a thing.
I think you're right in what you say here - the moral issue in all this is how far creditors should be allowed to go in recovering unpaid debts. If justice is a fair balance of the interests of the two parties involved, then a legal system that gives the creditor too many rights is unjust. He should not be able to take away the shirt on your back. Or the tools of your trade. Or anything else that prevents you from being a functioning employed member of society.
But note that:
- this moral principle makes no distinction between the principal and the interest
- if the law rightly gives the debtor a limit on their liability, then this creates a greater risk of default on loans in general. Interest is compensation for such risk as well as compensation for not having the use of the money (or thing loaned) for the period of the loan
- if you live in a big house full of nice furniture, there may be in practice not all that much difference between a system that requires you to pledge your nice furniture as collateral in order to get a loan, and a system where a nominally-unsecured loan to you is underpinned by an unspoken threat to send the bailiffs round to confiscate your nice furniture...
quote:
the other moral problem is that money is a medium exchange. While money has physical realisations (the bank notes in my wallet), the point of money is that you can buy and sell stuff with it. It is intended to be used, and even if one saves it up, then the point of that is precisely to store it up for future usage. In that sense money is like food or drink. The point of food or drink is that it will be consumed eventually. Even if you store up food or drink, it is with the intention of future usage.
Now imagine you give a bagel to someone but you say "You are hungry... here, you can have my bagel, but I want to get a bagel back." That's fair enough. It may not be charitable or nice, but it is just. You give a bagel, you get a bagel back (eventually). OK. Now the person wolfs down the bagel. Then you say "Ah, but you ate my bagel. Now I want one and a half bagels back. One bagel because I gave you one, and half a bagel extra because you ate it." That's obviously nuts.
This argument doesn't make any sense to me at all. The point of a car is to be driven. Whether you drive a rented car or just park it in the driveway to impress the neighbours, whether you eat a borrowed bagel or exhibit it as modern art, whether you spend the loaned banknote or frame it on the wall, is entirely up to you. The interest or charge or rent you pay me for borrowing the thing from me is first and foremost compensation for the fact that I don't have those choices while the thing is on loan to you.
Of course, in the case of a financial institution like a credit union, the interest charged to borrowers may be considered as primarily being the interest paid to savers, with the institution paying its operating expenses (and covering the risk of default) out of a difference in the two interest rates.
Subject to the debt-collection procedures being just (as above), is there anything morally wrong with such an arrangement ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Russ:
In order to understand usury you have to understand the difference between a mutuum loan and a contract for rent.
In a contract for rent, the borrower pays you for the use of the actual property (say a house), and returns that actual property at the end of the loan. If you stop making rent payments, he forecloses and claims his actual property -- but you, the borrower, are done at that point: he cannot continue to require payments from you after he has retrieved the actual property he loaned to you, or that was purchased (either from you as collateral or from a third party) with his money. Non recourse loans, licit census contracts, etc are variations on this kind of contract: there is always some actual property in which claims of the various parties terminate. As Vix Pervenit affirms, "from these types of contract honest gain may be made".
In a mutuum (the word "loan" in the English translation of Vix Pervenit is originally "mutuum"), the lender gives you something and you consume it - which is to say, once you are done using it, it is no longer in either your or his possession. Aquinas refers to this kind of situation as the loan of something 'consumed in its use'. This kind of loan is only morally licit as an act of charity or friendship, and cannot by its nature give rise to any titles to profit -- because any titles to profit would not be rooted in actual property, but rather in the person of the borrower, making this into a kind of partial enslavement of the borrower by the lender.
Of course this immediately gives rise to many other questions, which is why someone ought to post an FAQ covering all the different questions which tend to arise, citing Magisterial documents and Aquinas where appropriate, etc. ;-)
I can't follow this. Furthermore, what I can follow is both factually incorrect and over-precise logic-chopping. It reflects no credit on the moral theologians responsible, however celebrated.
If I let out my house to you, and you don't pay the rent, I can evict you. That does not discharge you from liability for the rent you owe. I can still sue you for it.
If I lend money to you secured on your house, and you don't pay, I have two options. I can foreclose. That means I keep your property but it replaces the debt + interest and you are discharged from it. The courts do not usually let creditors do this.
Or, I can sell the property. If I sell it for more than your debt + interest, I pay myself off and must give the surplus back to you. If I sell it for less than the debt, I can still sue you for the balance. This is called negative equity.
If I lend you money, you do not 'consume' it. Money is what is called a fungible i.e. if I put my money in the bank, my deposit isn't some specific notes with numbers on them. It's the amount, in whatever form it happens to be. The same could apply to a bag of sugar, but not really to an antique chair or a pork pie.
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
I thought the RC position (or at least, the RC position if it's being accurately portrayed by ZC) was that your can lawfully make a full-recourse/mutuum loan, but not make a profit from it. Getting your money back is OK - getting money and interest is not. If that's right then Russ's qualifier "up to the value of the thing loaned" is important and prevents the arrangement from being usury - the lender is only claiming the right to get back what he lent, not a profit. Or have I missed something?
Good point, sorry, I didn't read that qualifier Russ added carefully. I think you are correct there, to simply ask one's money back without interest certainly should be OK. That this seems uncomfortable is because one would not expect somebody to provide an interest free loan other than motivated by charity, and it doesn't seem very charitable to recover outstanding debt from the presumably poor by confiscating their remaining property. But I guess we can construct cases where even a charitable lender would recover a debt "mercilessly". And anyhow, we did not make charity an explicit condition, so we cannot count on the lender being that.
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
As for orthodoxy - when I ask about the teaching of the RCC, I'm not asking about an eternal metaphysical truth (not that there's anything wrong with that!), I'm asking about what the RCC, in the form of priests and theologians, actually teaches its believers. That's really not such a strange definition of "the teaching of the RCC".
In my experience as a convert with considerable interest in doctrinal matters, the RCC doesn't teach its believers anything about usury, other than in the sense that 1. there is a backlog of official documents on the subject, and 2. the word is occasionally used without further explanation in newer official documents. Nobody of the RCC has ever tried to teach me anything about usury as such. Without some apologetic interest in the topic, I would have simply looked up usury in the dictionary (e.g., "the action or practice of lending money at unreasonably high rates of interest" - OED), and would have thought that that is all this was about.
As zippy correctly points out, there is no official RC "Q&A service". In fact, one could argue that this apologetic role is actually proper to the laity. What of course does exist is somebody asking their priest about matters that concern them personally. And that sort of request can get kicked up from priest to bishop to CDF if it's a tough question. But I am not a money lender. So if I were to ask my priest about usury, then I would be doing it for the sake of apologetics or writing posts on SoF. It would not really be to save my own soul, or those of my loved ones. So in a sense I would be wasting his time, if I insist on getting a "philosophically precise" answer that I do not need myself. I would be quite reluctant to ask in depth about this, unless I'm friendly with the priest and think that he would enjoy looking at this for its own sake. A money lender however could more reasonably ask his priest about this...
However, I have in fact dug up two different (online) sources now, which seem to me to be reasonably well informed, and which contradict zippy concerning the extrinsic titles "loss occurring (damnum emergens) and profit ceasing (lucrum cessans)":
Fr G.L. Coulter (see in particular Chapter 3)
J. Burke (see in particular the revised version)
This is to be compared with Points 14-16 in Zippy's FAQ.
In summary, the story there goes like this: profit ceasing (lucrum cessans) was accepted as an extrinsic title that allowed charging of interest. The real change that happened in modern times is that the possibility of "profit elsewhere" became so ubiquitous, and the number of loans handed out so great (think of a banker), that the former practice of literally requiring a proof of "equal or greater lost opportunity" for every loan on which interest was charged was dropped. Basically, instead of assuming against the lender (in the confessional) unless the interest was proven justified, now it was assumed for the lender unless the interest was proven to be unjustified. And this de facto removed "normal lending" from the confessional altogether in short order.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- this moral principle makes no distinction between the principal and the interest
It does. I answered your question improperly, see my response to Eliab above.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- if the law rightly gives the debtor a limit on their liability, then this creates a greater risk of default on loans in general. Interest is compensation for such risk as well as compensation for not having the use of the money (or thing loaned) for the period of the loan
This seems to be the key question, really. To what extent is it justifiable to charge interest to compensate for the theoretical loss of gains elsewhere. Other Catholic commentators (see links above) disagree with zippy's conclusion that this is not justifiable (and consequently also interpret the actions of the Church differently).
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
- if you live in a big house full of nice furniture, there may be in practice not all that much difference between a system that requires you to pledge your nice furniture as collateral in order to get a loan, and a system where a nominally-unsecured loan to you is underpinned by an unspoken threat to send the bailiffs round to confiscate your nice furniture...
That's true to a degree. However, in the former case I get to decide what furniture I'm willing to lose if I default. In the latter case, the bailiff gets to choose.
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
This argument doesn't make any sense to me at all. The point of a car is to be driven. Whether you drive a rented car or just park it in the driveway to impress the neighbours, whether you eat a borrowed bagel or exhibit it as modern art, whether you spend the loaned banknote or frame it on the wall, is entirely up to you. The interest or charge or rent you pay me for borrowing the thing from me is first and foremost compensation for the fact that I don't have those choices while the thing is on loan to you.
People do not borrow money for fun or to have it on display. They borrow it so they can spend it, usually because they need it urgently, sometimes perhaps because they want to spend it frivolously. At any rate, it may be possible to charge interest as "extrinsic title", in particular because you forego a profit elsewhere by supplying this money as a credit. But the analogy I made concerns the justification (or rather the lack thereof) of an "intrinsic title". Imagine you have plenty of money (you don't need all of it for yourself) but currently have no particular other investment opportunity. Can you then charge interest on a loan just because you lend that money? Is that just? That's the question I was trying to talk about.
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
As for orthodoxy - when I ask about the teaching of the RCC, I'm not asking about an eternal metaphysical truth (not that there's anything wrong with that!), I'm asking about what the RCC, in the form of priests and theologians, actually teaches its believers. That's really not such a strange definition of "the teaching of the RCC".
As zippy correctly points out, there is no official RC "Q&A service". In fact, one could argue that this apologetic role is actually proper to the laity. What of course does exist is somebody asking their priest about matters that concern them personally. And that sort of request can get kicked up from priest to bishop to CDF if it's a tough question. But I am not a money lender. So if I were to ask my priest about usury, then I would be doing it for the sake of apologetics or writing posts on SoF. It would not really be to save my own soul, or those of my loved ones. So in a sense I would be wasting his time, if I insist on getting a "philosophically precise" answer that I do not need myself. I would be quite reluctant to ask in depth about this, unless I'm friendly with the priest and think that he would enjoy looking at this for its own sake. A money lender however could more reasonably ask his priest about this...
Fair enough. I don't think I would have hesitated to ask such a question of the pastor of the church I grew up in, so it seemed to me a natural thing for a curious RC to do as well. (It seems zippy felt the same way; it would have been interesting to hear what kind of responses he got.) quote:
However, I have in fact dug up two different (online) sources now, which seem to me to be reasonably well informed, and which contradict zippy concerning the extrinsic titles "loss occurring (damnum emergens) and profit ceasing (lucrum cessans)":
Fr G.L. Coulter (see in particular Chapter 3)
J. Burke (see in particular the revised version)
This is to be compared with Points 14-16 in Zippy's FAQ.
In summary, the story there goes like this: profit ceasing (lucrum cessans) was accepted as an extrinsic title that allowed charging of interest. The real change that happened in modern times is that the possibility of "profit elsewhere" became so ubiquitous, and the number of loans handed out so great (think of a banker), that the former practice of literally requiring a proof of "equal or greater lost opportunity" for every loan on which interest was charged was dropped. Basically, instead of assuming against the lender (in the confessional) unless the interest was proven justified, now it was assumed for the lender unless the interest was proven to be unjustified. And this de facto removed "normal lending" from the confessional altogether in short order.
As it happens, a some-time SoF poster today directed me to a source (J. Noonan's "The Scholastic Analysis of Usury") which apparently says pretty much the same thing. The book itself seems a little hard to find, so I was going to post a link to a summary of the main points ... but it turns out it's the same as your 2nd link.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
In summary, the story there goes like this: profit ceasing (lucrum cessans) was accepted as an extrinsic title that allowed charging of interest. The real change that happened in modern times is that the possibility of "profit elsewhere" became so ubiquitous ...
Accepted by whom?
That's how the story goes as told by the modernists (e.g. Noonan, who not incidentally also agitated for change in doctrine on contraception and is cited frequently by those agitating for change of doctrine on contraception, e.g. Charles Curran). But the people telling it never produce an actual Magisterial proclamation permitting charging interest for lost opportunity (opportunity cost). At least they've never produced one that I have seen. That's the dog that doesn't bark.
However, there actually is explicit Magisterial condemnation of that story, as documented in my FAQ, e.g.
"[The following proposition is condemned as erroneous:] Since ready cash is more valuable than that to be paid, and since there is no one who does not consider ready cash of greater worth than future cash, a creditor can demand something beyond the principal from the borrower, and for this reason be excused from usury. – Various Errors on Moral Subjects (II), Pope Innocent XI by decree of the Holy Office, March 4, 1679 (Denzinger)"
and
"We exhort you not to listen to those who say that today the issue of usury is present in name only, since gain is almost always obtained from money given to another. How false is this opinion and how far removed from the truth! We can easily understand this if we consider that the nature of one contract differs from the nature of another. – Vix Pervenit, Pope Benedict XIV, November 1, 1745"
(Damnum emergens as a just title, understood as actual open your wallet and pay out of pocket expenses on the part of a charitable lender, was accepted even by Aquinas at least in cases of borrowers who are 'back on their feet' and able to restore what the lender actually paid out of pocket).
That different people (including clergy) have different opinions on the subject is neither here nor there. It is easy enough (and has always been easy enough) to find clergy who support all sorts of heresies. And I've gotten all manner of different opinions from all manner of different people, just as you would expect.
What matters though is what can be supported by authoritative magisterial proclamations of doctrine; and the modernist story on usury gains no more support there than the modernist story on (e.g.) contraception.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
Fair enough. I don't think I would have hesitated to ask such a question of the pastor of the church I grew up in, so it seemed to me a natural thing for a curious RC to do as well. (It seems zippy felt the same way; it would have been interesting to hear what kind of responses he got.)
I've gotten every kind of response you could imagine, typically based on the politics of the person asked. I've noticed no difference between clergy and laymen. Dorothy Day types want to condemn all profits of every kind as immoral. Republicans in cassocks take the opposite tack and view usury as something that just doesn't apply in modern economies with modern money, unless just in illegal loan sharking. The great majority of people haven't given the subject a second thought, know next to nothing about it, and would probably just defer to sources like the Catholic Encyclopedia, Noonan, and the few online commentaries which reference Noonan (this describes me circa 2007 or so).
That's why you have to actually check up on the claims people make by actually reading the authoritative Magisterial sources (if they even exist) which support or undermine the view expressed. You can find someone in a clerical collar to give you just about any view of the subject you like.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
If I let out my house to you, and you don't pay the rent, I can evict you. That does not discharge you from liability for the rent you owe. I can still sue you for it.
If I lend money to you secured on your house, and you don't pay, I have two options. I can foreclose. That means I keep your property but it replaces the debt + interest and you are discharged from it. The courts do not usually let creditors do this.
Or, I can sell the property. If I sell it for more than your debt + interest, I pay myself off and must give the surplus back to you. If I sell it for less than the debt, I can still sue you for the balance. This is called negative equity.
If I lend you money, you do not 'consume' it. Money is what is called a fungible i.e. if I put my money in the bank, my deposit isn't some specific notes with numbers on them. It's the amount, in whatever form it happens to be. The same could apply to a bag of sugar, but not really to an antique chair or a pork pie.
These are all addressed in my FAQ. In general, unsecured contracts for profit are not licit. Secured contracts for profit are licit, and if the borrower defaults you recover what you are owed from the security. Notice how this makes lawsuits disappear unless there is actual negligence or fraud: lawsuits arising from misfortune are off the table.
"Consumed in its use" just means that whatever was loaned (it doesn't really matter what) is no longer in the possession of either the lender or the borrower, and it has not been exchanged for something else - something which actually exists - which explicitly secures the contract.
I cover this in the FAQ, and here is one of Aquinas' descriptions of "consumed in its use":
https://zippycatholic.wordpress.com/2015/02/02/more-numbskull-medieval-finance/
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Accepted by whom?
By the Church, according to those who disagree with you.
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
But the people telling it never produce an actual Magisterial proclamation permitting charging interest for lost opportunity (opportunity cost). At least they've never produced one that I have seen. That's the dog that doesn't bark.
But aren't you arguing from silence here just as much as those opposed? They are saying: the magisterium has not spoken against it, therefore it is allowed. You are saying: the magisterium has not spoken for it, therefore it is forbidden. A law needs to be made public to be in effect. Thus the opposing side here has an advantage, all other things being equal. (You will say - I assume - that all other things are not equal. Fine. But I'm just saying that I find the line "but it has not been explicitly allowed" far from convincing as such.)
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
"[The following proposition is condemned as erroneous:] Since ready cash is more valuable than that to be paid, and since there is no one who does not consider ready cash of greater worth than future cash, a creditor can demand something beyond the principal from the borrower, and for this reason be excused from usury. – Various Errors on Moral Subjects (II), Pope Innocent XI by decree of the Holy Office, March 4, 1679 (Denzinger)"
That however is not a direct statement about opportunity cost. It is a statement about the value of liquid assets as such. The point here can simply be that it is not sufficient to say that money that I have is better than money owed to me. If I have a mountains of spare money lying around, but do not see how I can invest it other than by lending it to you, then where is my "lost opportunity"? Of course, we are used to a world now where those with lots of money find an endless array of possible investments. But apparently this was not the case in the middle ages (and perhaps still in early modernity), where some "players" were sitting on considerably more coin than they knew what to do with. The magisterial statement could then simply mean that you have to argue an actual alternative investment opportunity to motivate the taking of interest. It is not sufficient to merely value liquid assets higher, because if those liquid assets can flow nowhere but remain stagnant, then they do not represent an opportunity. If all this is true, then modernity would have changed the picture by making the proof of alternative investments too trivial to remain an issue.
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
"We exhort you not to listen to those who say that today the issue of usury is present in name only, since gain is almost always obtained from money given to another. How false is this opinion and how far removed from the truth! We can easily understand this if we consider that the nature of one contract differs from the nature of another. – Vix Pervenit, Pope Benedict XIV, November 1, 1745"
Once more, it is far from clear that this speaks to opportunity cost. First, one really needs to continue this paragraph in the encyclical to its conclusion:
quote:
By the same token, the things which result from these contracts will differ in accordance with the varying nature of the contracts. Truly an obvious difference exists between gain which arises from money legally, and therefore can be upheld in the courts of both civil and canon law, and gain which is illicitly obtained, and must therefore be returned according to the judgments of both courts. Thus, it is clearly invalid to suggest, on the grounds that some gain is usually received from money lent out, that the issue of usury is irrelevant in our times.
Thus what this paragraph is apparently about is the simple assertion "everybody is doing it (namely taking interest), therefore it is OK". And the answer of the pope is: 1. No, even if everybody is doing it, some of it is OK and some not. 2. This is obvious, since even secular courts condemn some interest taking. This paragraph simply does not state what is OK and what not. It merely points out that "all loans charge interest nowadays" is no moral guarantee that "all loans are decent nowadays".
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
What matters though is what can be supported by authoritative magisterial proclamations of doctrine; and the modernist story on usury gains no more support there than the modernist story on (e.g.) contraception.
Well, I don't think that you've really demonstrated your case so far. But here's the best counterargument from the opposing side, as far as I am concerned: as documented by Burke from Noonan here, see pages 8-10, the Holy See did not challenge practice in the confessional which according to your interpretation was letting usurers off the hook. Admittedly, there seems to be an "until further notice" attached here. Still, it's been almost 200 years with no further notice forthcoming. The first case is this:
quote:
In 1822, a woman of Lyons “gave her capital to certain persons with the agreement that they pay her the interest rate prescribed by civil law.” She appealed her confessor’s refusal of absolution and the sacraments.] The Holy Office, judging the appeal, declared that “a response will be given at a suitable time”; that meanwhile, however, restitution was not necessary; and that the woman might receive the sacraments.
Now, what is supposed to be different if a woman did so in 2012 in Lyons? Must we not conclude that her charging interest as prescribed by civil law is also currently not considered a matter for the confessional by the Holy See?
Of course, one can argue that if this is actually usury, then everybody here is inculpable except for the Holy See. Everybody would act in good faith, but for those who have been delaying a clarification - an easy clarification, you would say - for almost 200 years. It is not impossible that the Holy See is attempting to build up the biggest millstone ever, so that they can go to hell with the largest accumulated responsibility for human sin. But it just seems more likely that the Holy See simply never got around to making the positive statement that argues why the woman in fact does not sin there. And they can afford being ... a bit slow, if they think that the practice has already been adjusted to what is good and proper, even if they haven'y said exactly why it is good and proper.
Mind you, I'm playing the devil's advocate here a bit. I actually think that it is entirely possible that the Holy See gave up, dropped the ball and decided to look the other way, leaving themselves an "escape clause" as they did so (the pending decision that never ever comes). But I think there are weaknesses in your argument for that. And "lucrum cessans" seems to be the pivot point.
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on
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We know from the Gospels that God expects interest on his (unsecured) loans, otherwise why would the servant entrusted with one talent have been castigated for putting it in the ground instead of in the bank?
What we *don't* know is how God values financial instruments, therefore we are unsure what the components of the interest are. I have always reasoned that the interest must be *at least* the time value of money (otherwise the lender still does not get his principal back - he gets back an amount that is nominally the same as his principal, but intrinsically less, since it will buy less (unless you are in a deflationary economy)).
But does God expect interest to cover credit risk? If you include credit risk in interest, you are effectively viewing the borrowers as a portfolio or system. You need to estimate the average propensity of them to "go bad" and spread that forecast loss across the portfolio as a whole.
What would God do? Does He actually "know" for sure our default rate? He is certainly capable of knowing it, but does he make that calculation? And does he expect us, as a portfolio, to systematically bear the cost of each other's default? Some would say that we *do* bear that cost, and that that must be part of His plan - in which case interest that covers credit risk gets the thumbs up.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Accepted by whom?
By the Church, according to those who disagree with you.
... and who provide no doctrinal support for that position.
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But aren't you arguing from silence here just as much as those opposed? They are saying: the magisterium has not spoken against it, therefore it is allowed. You are saying: the magisterium has not spoken for it, therefore it is forbidden.
I do cite where the Magisterium has spoken against it.
Furthermore Vix Pervenit explicitly states what kinds of contracts are licit for gain: non-mutuum contracts.
"Nor is it denied that it is very often possible for someone, by means of contracts differing entirely from [mutuum] loans, to spend and invest money legitimately either to provide oneself with an annual income or to engage in legitimate trade and business. From these types of contracts honest gain may be made."
quote:
But here's the best counterargument from the opposing side, as far as I am concerned:
I agree that the pastoral changes to practice in the confessional are pretty much the best case that the progressives can make. I discuss that in Question 47 of my FAQ. But if we buy that pastoral instruction to confessors has doctrinal implications then Pope John Paul II reversed doctrine on contraception in 1997:
https://zippycatholic.wordpress.com/2015/01/22/did-the-church-reverse-course-on-contraception-in-1997/
Folks can and will argue (and have argued) the thing endlessly, and it is always possible that I am wrong (though I wouldn't argue the case if I thought that was likely). But the case for profitable interest in mutuum loans (especially loans like credit cards) is untenable to outright ludicrous given the Magisterial statements defining where profit is and is not morally licit; and is supported by tendentious appeal to changes in pastoral practice which - if the argument were valid - would just as effectively undermine doctrine on contraception and other matters of chastity. On that much I am in agreement with John Noonan and Charles Curran: that is, if the argument from pastoral practice and sensus fidelium is valid on the one hand it is just as valid on the other.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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quote:
I wrote:
Furthermore Vix Pervenit explicitly states what kinds of contracts are licit for gain: non-mutuum contracts.
"Nor is it denied that it is very often possible for someone, by means of contracts differing entirely from [mutuum] loans, to spend and invest money legitimately either to provide oneself with an annual income or to engage in legitimate trade and business. From these types of contracts honest gain may be made."
That is far from the only citation, by the way. I also cite Regimini Universalis and Cum Onus on what kinds of contracts are licit for gain, and support that with Aquinas' account in the Summa and in De Malo.
The notion that the opposing view from e.g. Noonan and later scholastics is on equal footing with Aquinas' view is simply false. I've read Noonan's book at least twice, and his spin on his own citations is tendentious and wrong. His best case is pastoral and juridical changes which do not pertain to doctrine, tendentious citation of all sorts of non-magisterial scholastic disputation from the progressive side, and confusion about the nature of a mutuum versus other kinds of contracts.
My case (which just is Aquinas' case, as far as I can tell and which certainly is my intention) is argued from numerous Magisterial citations defining both what kinds of contracts are licit and what kinds are not. It is also certainly colored by my own background in finance and entrepreneurship, which I touch on in the preface to the ebook version of the FAQ.
[ 09. February 2015, 17:18: Message edited by: zippycatholic ]
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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Hi zippycatholic, and welcome aboard.
Finding myself in agreement with IngoB is a bit of a novel experience...
I'm wondering if what you're doing here amounts to extending Magisterial authority beyond faith and morals into matters of economics.
The Church hasn't always held to scholastic philosophy. If the Church has "always held" to anything in this area it would seem to be the proposition that there is sin in charging excessive interest. In deciding what is excessive, the benchmark is not "what is normal" in a particular culture but a consideration of what the lender can justly claim compensation for.
Inclusion of opportunity cost in that consideration is a development in economic understanding that does not change the moral principle.
You are as free to disagree with Benedict XV on economics as with Paul V on astronomy...
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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Hello Russ,
The prohibition of usury has no more dependence on specific economic theory than "thou shalt not steal". Mutuum loans as agreements between parties have been around for thousands of years, and usury was recognized as a form of slavery by pagans long before Christ let alone scholastic philosophy. I suppose certain economic theories might be incompatible with the immorality of theft, but, if so, that is so much the worse for those economic theories.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
We know from the Gospels that God expects interest on his (unsecured) loans, otherwise why would the servant entrusted with one talent have been castigated for putting it in the ground instead of in the bank?
That is to make the dubious assumption that the parable of the talents is an allegory and that the man going away is God.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
We know from the Gospels that God expects interest on his (unsecured) loans, otherwise why would the servant entrusted with one talent have been castigated for putting it in the ground instead of in the bank?
That is to make the dubious assumption that the parable of the talents is an allegory and that the man going away is God.
How is that dubious?
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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Zippy I am sure you will condemn this as typical Proddy slackness. Alas, you would be quite wrong. They may apply the reasoning to different materials but this approach to Christian ethics is just as prevalent among some Prods.
If you find yourself applying the words or concepts, licit or illicit to ethical decisions, it's a warning sign.
Licit is all too often a sign we'd like to persuade ourselves something is OK but have a sneaking feeling God doesn't agree with us. Illicit all too often goes with something we think other people should not do, but God isn't really that bothered about it one way or the other.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
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"Licit" and "illicit" are canon law terms. Their definitions are pretty clear cut, and though it's understandable that connotations from their conversational use might be brought to mind, those connotations are ultimately irrelevant to their use in legal terminology.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
The prohibition of usury has no more dependence on specific economic theory than "thou shalt not steal".
Exactly the point I was making.
But I was using "usury" to mean the moral principle of not charging excess interest.
You seem to mean something that involves categorising every loan into one of two forms of contract that were prevalent in a particular time and place. Which seems to contain an economic proposition.
Now it's possible that you mean something like "secured loans" and "unsecured loans" which could reasonably be taken to be mutually exclusive and exhaustive categories that could be applied irrespective of any economic understanding. In which case, my apologies - I'm getting the wrong idea from the way you express things.
What' I'm not seeing is how the valid reasons why I might charge you interest on a loan to buy an imperishable commodity, such as land - reasons such as opportunity cost, out-of-pocket expenses, risk of default - somehow cease to be valid reasons if instead you spend the money on a consumable commodity, such as a holiday. I appreciate that the land forms a security for the loan that the holiday, once taken, doesn't. But that doesn't seem to connect to the validity of the reasons for charging interest. Except that the risk of default becomes higher. Which is an argument for higher risk premium, not lower.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
usury was recognized as a form of slavery by pagans long before Christ let alone scholastic philosophy.
Paying off interest can become a form of slavery, yes. And the loan being unsecured may be a necessary condition for that to happen. But it is not, I think,a sufficient condition.
A: about the money you lent me. A hundred ducats, lent until harvest time.
B: at 10% interest. You've come to pay me back ?
A: I cannot. Locusts ate the whole crop. All I can pay you this year is 10 ducats.
B: that will cover the interest. But what about the principal ?
A: the best I can hope for now is to pay you 10 ducats every year for 10 years to clear the debt.
B: that will not clear the debt. By next harvest you will owe another 10 ducats interest...
A: No. The agreement was for one year only. I do not consent to those terms
B: then I will have you thrown in prison for non-payment
A: wait...
Slavery-in-all-but-name is all too possible, but arises ISTM from an unjust method of resolving the situation where someone defaults on a loan.
What prevents a good society from permitting interest on loans (secured & unsecured alike) at a level that compensates the lender for licit costs - opportunity costs, out-of-pocket costs, and insurance or cover against risk - whilst resolving defaults in a way that limits the debtor's liability ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
You seem to mean something that involves categorising every loan into one of two forms of contract that were prevalent in a particular time and place. Which seems to contain an economic proposition.
Now it's possible that you mean something like "secured loans" and "unsecured loans" which could reasonably be taken to be mutually exclusive and exhaustive categories that could be applied irrespective of any economic understanding. In which case, my apologies - I'm getting the wrong idea from the way you express things.
"Secured" and "unsecured" are somewhat misleading terms for the distinction being made. The important point is not what is being lent, or why, but the extent of the obligation on the borrower.
A "mutuum" loan or "full recourse" loan can be "secured" (like a mortgage) or "unsecured" (like a credit card debt) but it's still the sort of loan on which (according to the RCC according to ZC) you can't justly charge interest on, because the borrower's liability is unlimited. It isn't restricted to the subject matter of the loan, or ascribable to the use the borrower is making of some tangible property, but is pure profit on the advance of cash - usury.
You can (potentially) charge interest on loans where the borrower need not repay more than the security, or where the 'borrower' is a company, not an individual (because then the individuals behind the company have a liability limited to a fixed asset). That's not a mutuum loan, so not usury. It may be unfair or exploitative on ordinary ethical principles of fair dealing, but it isn't specifically usury.
The principle is that if you lend anything, and want to charge interest, you can't keep the borrower on the hook for the full debt with unlimited liability, regardless of what happens to the asset lent. You can have the right to collect interest*, OR you can have the right to unlimited enforcement of the debt* - you can't justly have both.
Whether or not you agree with ZC that usury is always unethical, the distinctions being made do seem to me to be genuine ones.
(*though either of these might be unfair for other reasons in any given case, of course)
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Fr Weber:
"Licit" and "illicit" are canon law terms. Their definitions are pretty clear cut, and though it's understandable that connotations from their conversational use might be brought to mind, those connotations are ultimately irrelevant to their use in legal terminology.
Law, whether canon or civil, should try to express morality, to encourage good behaviour and discourage bad, but should never, however canon, be regarded as defining them.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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When I use the term "morally licit", what I mean is "not prohibited under the Divine or natural law".
One can of course look at this from a virtue ethic point of view as well, and argue/conclude (just as an example) that usury is wrong because it involves contractually micro-enslaving your fellow man (as categorically distinct from contractually purchasing claims against actual property) as a hedge against risk and a guarantee of profit. Usury involves treating people as only things should be treated, which is inherently uncharitable (even when the counterparty agrees to be treated as only a thing should be treated). In either case (law or virtue), there is no dependence upon particular economic theories, theories of currency, etc. The principles involved in usury (as I understand it, which I believe to be as Aquinas understood it, which I believe to be as the RCC has _doctrinally_ defined it -- all of which should be verified by any reader to his own satisfaction before embracing my view) are as universal as the principles involved in theft.
Personally I find both the 'law' and 'virtue' perspectives helpful in moral theology generally. The former helps define lines which we just should not ever cross, but in its monomaniacal form turns moral good into something negative and encourages a 'minimum daily requirement' attitude. The latter is more holistic and is really ultimately the better perspective, but can tend toward 'pastoral' permissiveness as a false form of mercy.
Inferences from my choices of terminology to my personal psychology I leave as an exercise for people who care about that sort of thing. I do not claim (or believe myself) that my editorial choices are optimal.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Fr Weber:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
We know from the Gospels that God expects interest on his (unsecured) loans, otherwise why would the servant entrusted with one talent have been castigated for putting it in the ground instead of in the bank?
That is to make the dubious assumption that the parable of the talents is an allegory and that the man going away is God.
How is that dubious?
The landlord is the Roman Empire
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
The principle is that if you lend anything, and want to charge interest, you can't keep the borrower on the hook for the full debt with unlimited liability, regardless of what happens to the asset lent. You can have the right to collect interest*, OR you can have the right to unlimited enforcement of the debt* - you can't justly have both.
That would make sense if interest is seen purely as a risk premium.
Limited liability => risk of default => proportionate interest justified
Unlimited liability => no risk, as the lender can always recover the principal by going after the borrower's assets or future earnings => no justification for interest.
But I thought it was being argued earlier that in the happy case (where the indestructible non-consumable asset is always available to repay the lender and thus protect the borrower from the threat of unlimited liability), that interest is potentially justifiable...
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Fr Weber:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
We know from the Gospels that God expects interest on his (unsecured) loans, otherwise why would the servant entrusted with one talent have been castigated for putting it in the ground instead of in the bank?
That is to make the dubious assumption that the parable of the talents is an allegory and that the man going away is God.
How is that dubious?
The landlord is the Roman Empire
That's an interesting interpretation, and one which works on the parable considered by itself. But in the context of Mt 25, it's sandwiched between the parable of the wise & foolish virgins (be ready for the bridegroom!) and a prophecy about the last judgment. I'm not sure how it makes sense to have an arc of discourse about being prepared for Christ's return and the Last Judgment and then interrupt it with an irrelevant jab at the Roman Empire.
I'll stick with the traditional exegesis, thanks.
Posted by leo (# 1458) on
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Clearly, Matthew saw the parable as you do. Redaction criticism looks at the way the evangelists ordered their materialism.
Originally, however, the parable would have been free-standing.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
In either case (law or virtue), there is no dependence upon particular economic theories, theories of currency, etc. The principles involved in usury... ...are as universal as the principles involved in theft.
If in thinking about this topic you don't recognise opportunity costs as being real, then that's not a moral failing, it's a deficiency in your economics.
If you think about all transactions in terms of trading goods (rather than trading goods and services), and therefore conceive of a contract as changing the ownership-property of Things rather than as creating obligations upon people (some of which involve Things and some of which don't) then you may end up with a model that doesn't fit reality, not through any failing in the logic of your thought but from building on a foundation of an inadequate grasp of economics.
Yes there are universal principles.
- there's the principle of keeping one's word.
- There's a principle around the idea of a fair price - that what you charge should bear some relationship to the cost of what you provide - the opposite of greed, of charging as much as you can get away with.
- There's a principle around not being able to own another human being - of accepting that the right to payment of a debt is not a moral absolute, that liability may run up against the limit of "cannot pay".
- And there's a principle that a person's consent means something and needs to be respected in one's dealings with them.
How you combine those principles into a clear, consistent and logical position regarding the payment of interest on loans is not yet clear to me.
Such a conclusion - a balance - once reached, is not itself a principle; it's something that needs to be argued for, showing how it does justice to each of the moral principles you hold (which may be more or less in number than the four which occur to me).
It may be that you have fully understood Aquinas' answer and that it's the right answer. But the explanation - the connections between the principles and the conclusion, in a way which doesn't rely on a distorted view of economics, hasn't yet been made satisfactorily.
I'm not aware that Aquinas was an economist. If he knew no more economics than a typical educated person of his time, that's not a fault. On that subject he may be found to be honestly and sincerely wrong without being thrown out of the ranks of the great moral philosophers.
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
If in thinking about this topic you don't recognise opportunity costs as being real, then that's not a moral failing, it's a deficiency in your economics.
And you are using the term 'real' equivocally, which is confounding your capacity to understand the point.
Opportunity costs are not ontologically real (actual) property - property which can be possessed, repossessed, owned, bought, and sold - and used to collateralize a non recourse loan. Whether opportunity cost is 'real' or not in some other abstract sense as a parameter in some economic theory is irrelevant to the doctrine prohibiting usury, which is not dependent upon any particular economic theory. Whatever opportunity cost is, it isn't actual property which actually exists.
Now whether someone agrees with the usury doctrine is another matter. But as long as you think that opportunity costs are the same kind of thing as actual property which can collateralize a non recourse loan, you have not correctly understood the doctrine which you reject. Lenders/investors clearly do understand the difference between posting actual property as collateral and not doing so, and between business loans with personal guarantees and those without; so even from the practical side the failure to understand the point is not on the side of the discussion which makes and understands the distinction between what constitutes actual property and what does not.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
...and therefore conceive of a [morally licit investment of capital] contract [for profit] as [encumbering] the ownership-property of Things rather than as creating obligations upon [that is, enslaving] people ...
That is precisely what bounds morally licit investment of capital for profit under the usury doctrine.
That other kinds of obligations can arise in entirely different contexts which do not justify the pursuit of profit - say when you accidentally run over your neighbor's dog - is neither here nor there since it is outside of the scope of morally licit pursuit of profit.
Paying wages is addressed in my FAQ, as are most of the other usual questions which arise.
Whether one agrees with the doctrine or not is one thing. But if you think it depends on economic theory or can be refuted by economic conditions or practices, you don't yet understand it.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Whether one agrees with the doctrine or not is one thing. But if you think it depends on economic theory or can be refuted by economic conditions or practices, you don't yet understand it.
There may be aspects of this which I don't yet understand, which is a reason for continuing to discuss...
As you've presented it, it seems to me that you're saying that usury is not to do with the rate of interest being excessive, or how ruthlessly the lender pursues the borrower for the debt at the point of default - these might be moral issues, but they are issues additional to the question of whether the sin of usury has been committed. That sin is committed by the lender, at the point where the contract is signed, if that contract creates an obligation on the borrower personally, rather than limiting the lender's rights to title over some collateral Thing. And it's a sin because such an obligation is tantamount to slavery.
Is that the position you're putting forward ? Do I have that right ?
When I go to the barber, the implicit contract between us is that he will cut my hair and that I will pay him for this service a sum of money equal to the fee that he has displayed in his window. In the short period of time between getting up from the barber's chair and handing over a tenner on the way out, there is an obligation on me personally - no title to any Thing is involved.
When I go the library and pay a fine of 20c for returning a book late, in accordance with the agreement that I signed to become a member of the library, it was never in doubt that the book belonged to the library, but I am personally obliged to pay the 20c fine as well as returning their property.
If I held the view that you seem to be putting forward, then woe is me. Sinned against - practically enslaved - by barbers, librarians, and the whole service sector of the economy...
If I borrow money from the credit union over an agreed period of time, they do me a service for which I pay them some money. Trying to parse this as a purchase-of-goods transaction (where in case of dispute the vendor's remedy might plausibly be limited to getting their goods back)instead of a service transaction looks like an error in your appreciation of everyday economics.
Do you see where I'm coming from ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
... it seems to me that you're saying that usury is not to do with the rate of interest being excessive, or how ruthlessly the lender pursues the borrower for the debt at the point of default ...
The former is a matter of just pricing not specifically usury, and the latter does not arise in non-usurious investment of capital for profit because non-usurious investment of capital for profit does not encumber the borrower personally.
quote:
- these might be moral issues, but they are issues additional to the question of whether the sin of usury has been committed. That sin is committed by the lender, at the point where the contract [of investment of capital for profit] is signed, if that contract creates an obligation on the borrower personally, rather than limiting the lender's rights to title over some collateral Thing.
That is a correct statement of the doctrine.
quote:
And it's a sin because such an obligation is tantamount to slavery.
That is one explanation from one point of view of _why_ usury is morally wrong. But as with many moral precepts there may be all sorts of reasons, discussions, and controversy over the reasons why it is immoral.
quote:
When I go to the barber, the implicit contract between us is that he will cut my hair and that I will pay him for this service a sum of money equal to the fee that he has displayed in his window. In the short period of time between getting up from the barber's chair and handing over a tenner on the way out, there is an obligation on me personally - no title to any Thing is involved.
The obligation on you extends to the work the barber actually did: the haircut. If he charged you for two haircuts - interest on the time to walk from the chair to the cash register - that would be what the medievals called "hidden usury." If you actually damage him in some way (say by refusing to pay for a long time) you may be liable for damages in addition to the price of the haircut, as a fraud or thief is liable. So one of the other ways of 'seeing' why charging usury is immoral is that the lender in his pursuit of profit treats the borrower as if he were a thief or fraud, or at least negligent.
Again, though, understanding what usury _is_ and understanding _why it is morally wrong_ are distinct.
Also in general it should be noted that invoking edge cases or confusing cases in moral theology to invalidate paradigmatic cases is bad reasoning. I've referred to this as 'transitivity of bafflement' in the past: the fact that we may find some cases baffling does not invalidate different, clear, paradigmatic cases. Usury is charging interest on a mutuum loan, and while 'hidden usury' cases can be more subtle/confusing that is always the case. "Edge cases" can be invoked for any kind of moral case: murder, theft, contraception, adultery, etc. There is nothing 'special' about usury in this regard.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
:
To be a bit more rigorous, the sin of usury occurs at the point where the agreement is made. By far the numerical majority of contracts are not signed, written agreements. The sin of usury is intrinsic to the kind of agreement made between the parties. Whether or not this is in writing is irrelevant.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
Again, though, understanding what usury _is_ and understanding _why it is morally wrong_ are distinct.
Agreed. I think you've done a good job of explaining your view of what the definition usury is. I would also agree that the various features of that definition set out criteria that are morally relevant - they are things that ought to be considered in deciding on what is fair. What I think has yet to be established by argument is that the definition in itself determines some acts to be immoral. I don't think that you've shown that the set "technically usury, but nonetheless just" is an empty one.
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Also in general it should be noted that invoking edge cases or confusing cases in moral theology to invalidate paradigmatic cases is bad reasoning.
Only if you accept the paradigm. If you don't accept that usury is immoral by definition (as opposed to accepting that usury tends to be unjust) then the edge cases help define what it is that is in principle objectionable. We are all agreed (I hope) that usury which is blatantly exploitative is immoral - to test what combinations of unlimited liability, loan security, and level of interest rate and purported justifications for charging that rate we are prepared to approve we need to consider edge cases.
Of course, I speak as a Protestant who does not accept that the RCC has authority simply to declare usury immoral by definition (while at the same time, suspecting that the RCC does have a genuinely moral insight on the point worth serious consideration). I don't think the past statements of the Magisterium establish a moral paradigm as such.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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Originally posted by Eliab:
What I think has yet to be established by argument is that the definition in itself determines some acts to be immoral. I don't think that you've shown that the set "technically usury, but nonetheless just" is an empty one.
That wasn't my objective. My objective was to show what the RC doctrine on usury is, to show that it has not changed, to show its independence of economic theories and conditions, to answer some frequently asked questions about the subject which naturally arise once someone actually understands the doctrine, and to provide a few different perspectives on why usury is immoral.
That seems quite ambitious enough, and the extent to which my writing succeeds is better for others to determine than for me to determine.
I suppose one other objective is to show that when it comes to casuistry about boundary or 'edge' cases, usury as a moral subject matter is not really any different from other subjects. "Technically murder, but nonetheless just; technically adulterous, but nonetheless just; technically blasphemy, but nonetheless just ..." are the sorts of things that people have always argued about and will continue to argue about no matter what I say, and I have no ambition to settle all moral questions - even just when it comes to the specific subject matter of usury - to the satisfaction of all people. This won't surprise folks who read my blog regularly, because I am not a positivist.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
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Originally posted by zippycatholic:
That wasn't my objective. My objective was to show what the RC doctrine on usury is, to show that it has not changed, to show its independence of economic theories and conditions, to answer some frequently asked questions about the subject which naturally arise once someone actually understands the doctrine, and to provide a few different perspectives on why usury is immoral.
Fair enough. You've done all that pretty well. Although "hasn't changed..." appears to mean "hasn't formally revised, but no longer enforces...". Also, what you've shown to be independent of econmic theory is the definition of usury only. I don't know whether or not you'd agree that differing economic conditions might reduce or eliminate moral culpability for usury.
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I suppose one other objective is to show that when it comes to casuistry about boundary or 'edge' cases, usury as a moral subject matter is not really any different from other subjects. "Technically murder, but nonetheless just; technically adulterous, but nonetheless just; technically blasphemy, but nonetheless just ..." are the sorts of things that people have always argued about and will continue to argue about no matter what I say,
Yes, but the edge cases are the interesting ones for all those questions. Asking whether killing in self-defence, or in war, or to end the suffering of someone who longs to die, is morally acceptable tells us much more about what our ethical principles are than asking whether these things fall within a technical definition of murder. Asking whether sexually open marriages are ever moral is more interesting than pointing out that they are technically adulterous. Asking what may lawfully be said when angry and hurt with God says more about faith than condemning crass offensiveness.
It may be that some definition can be arrived at which does indeed set out where the real moral boundary lies (I'm not a positivist either), but it needs to be argued for. What exactly is wrong with adultery? Is in wrong because it abuses a divine ordinance? Or is a breach of trust? Or because it offends sexual purity? Or dissolves social bonds, risks public health, damages the line of inheritance of property, endangers the secure upbringing of children, or simply hurts innocent people? Asking about open marriages or other edge cases helps to sort out what it is about the paradigm case of adultery that I actually consider to be wrong.
I'm not disputing that in principle usury is similar - for me that's a reason to ask why exactly you say it's wrong, not to take the basic definition as settling the moral question.
[ 16. February 2015, 15:05: Message edited by: Eliab ]
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on
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Originally posted by Eliab:
... What exactly is wrong with adultery? Is in wrong because it abuses a divine ordinance? Or is a breach of trust? Or because it offends sexual purity? Or dissolves social bonds, risks public health, damages the line of inheritance of property, endangers the secure upbringing of children, or simply hurts innocent people? Asking about open marriages or other edge cases helps to sort out what it is about the paradigm case of adultery that I actually consider to be wrong. ...
Suppose it's wrong for all those reasons (which I do think). Demonstrating that there could be a convincing case why it was not wrong for one of those reasons, would not make it permissible, yet alone just.
What worries me about some of this stuff about which sorts of loans do and do not offend against usury being universally a sin, is that I lack the ability to believe that if usury is universally a sin (which I'm not convinced about), one can somehow make it all right by finagling pilpul about differences between sorts of security.
It seems to me that being paid a reasonable (usually too low) rate of interest on one's deposit by a bank or building society, or being charged a higher rate on one's mortgage is not a wickedness in the way that being a pay day lender, either as national business or your friendly neighbourhood one with big dogs, is.
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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Originally posted by Eliab:
Although "hasn't changed..." appears to mean "hasn't formally revised, but no longer enforces...".
Agreed, and in fact I make the point myself. The tendency toward lax 'pastoral' enforcement isn't limited to the subject of usury -- consider (for example) the rate of annulment of marriages despite no formal changes in marriage doctrine.
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Also, what you've shown to be independent of economic theory is the definition of usury only. I don't know whether or not you'd agree that differing economic conditions might reduce or eliminate moral culpability for usury.
"Reduce", to be sure, and invincible ignorance can eliminate culpability for any objectively immoral act. The seriousness and culpability for sin always depends on circumstances, even when the objective action under consideration is intrinsically immoral qua action. Lying in response to "does this dress make me look fat?" involves a different degree of moral seriousness from lying in response to "is this the man who committed the murder?"
Once again though there is nothing 'special' about usury here.
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Yes, but the edge cases are the interesting ones for all those questions. Asking whether killing in self-defence, or in war, or to end the suffering of someone who longs to die, is morally acceptable tells us much more about what our ethical principles are than asking whether these things fall within a technical definition of murder. ...
I agree that edge cases and casuistry can be interesting and useful for discussion. I wasn't denigrating casuistry in general (I couldn't do so without irony, having engaged in plenty of it myself), but pointing out a common fallacious rhetorical move, which I for my own amusement call 'transitivity of bafflement' -- the importation confusion about edge cases into clear cases. In this I am also being rather unapologetically Roman Catholic, following the lead of St. John Paul II in _Veritatis Splendour_:
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"Such theories however are not faithful to the Church's teaching, when they believe they can justify, as morally good, deliberate choices of kinds of behaviour contrary to the commandments of the divine and natural law. These theories cannot claim to be grounded in the Catholic moral tradition. Although the latter did witness the development of a casuistry which tried to assess the best ways to achieve the good in certain concrete situations, it is nonetheless true that this casuistry concerned only cases in which the law was uncertain, and thus the absolute validity of negative moral precepts, which oblige without exception, was not called into question."
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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Originally posted by Enoch:
... I lack the ability to believe that if usury is universally a sin (which I'm not convinced about), one can somehow make it all right by finagling pilpul about differences between sorts of security.
It is a question of whether claims for return of principal and profitable interest are asserted against persons or against property (subjects or objects). Treating people as only things should be treated (subjects as only objects should be treated) is fundamental to what makes many concrete kinds of actions immoral.
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It seems to me that being paid a reasonable (usually too low) rate of interest on one's deposit by a bank or building society, or being charged a higher rate on one's mortgage is not a wickedness in the way that being a pay day lender, either as national business or your friendly neighbourhood one with big dogs, is.
Stealing a dime from a rich man isn't a wickedness of the same degree as stealing all of the property of a poor man who depends upon that property for his livelihood. But they both fall under the moral species of theft.
Also, keep in mind that a deposit contract with a bank is not usurious at all, in itself: it is an investment of capital asserting claims against _property_ in pursuit of profit. In the contract between the bank and the depositor, the depositor asserts no claims against specific persons who are required to return the principal. There is no mutuum loan, therefore, and therefore there is no usury in the contract's claims to monetary gain. Those claims are against things, not people.
As always this does not mean that it is impossible to do moral wrong in such a case. It just means that whatever moral wrong may be done, it does not fall strictly speaking under the species of usury.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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Originally posted by zippycatholic:
as with many moral precepts there may be all sorts of reasons, discussions, and controversy over the reasons why it is immoral.
Seems to me that there are three cases. The set of valid reasons why something is immoral may have many members, one member, or be empty.
Eliab makes a case, for example, that the sin of adultery is in the "multiple reasons" category.
I suggest that we can conceive of an act which is morally wrong for exactly one reason. Perhaps something that would be perfectly licit if one hadn't just promised not to do it ?
And there's the possibility that usury as you've defined it isn't morally wrong as such, that Aquinas got it wrong. That every valid moral objection to professional moneylending boils down to unjust pricing, pursuing defaulters too ruthlessly, or some other sin that is similarly distinct from usury (as you've defined it).
If you don't want to take a position on which of these three cases applies, that's fine. But if you choose to argue for usury as being wrong for multiple reasons - and that's what it sounds like - then it doesn't seem unreasonable to press you to give two valid reasons - sufficient to rule out the other two categories - although I'll understand that they are not in your view the only (or necessarily the most compelling) reasons.
You've suggested that for a lender to hold a borrower personally liable for paying for the service that the lender provides is to treat the borrower like an object. Whilst a barber can licitly hold his customer personally liable for paying for the service (and as you rightly suggest may be additionally entitled to compensation for unreasonable delay in payment). What's the difference ? Why do you think that a barber or librarian (or the owner of a threshing machine, or anyone else who provides a service to others for a living) is worthy to be paid his wages and his costs, and the moneylender is not ?
Best wishes,
Russ
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[ 19. February 2015, 05:09: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
You've suggested that for a lender to hold a borrower personally liable for paying for the service that the lender provides is to treat the borrower like an object. Whilst a barber can licitly hold his customer personally liable for paying for the service (and as you rightly suggest may be additionally entitled to compensation for unreasonable delay in payment). What's the difference ?
Usury involves the intrinsic nature of the agreement between the parties. If you go to the barber (or hire any other worker to do a job) without having a means on hand to pay, you have committed a kind of fraud or theft against him. (Presumably he did not agree to cut your hair without being paid).
The prohibition of usury does not mean that it is impossible for unsecured personal obligations to arise when someone actually commits fraud, theft, or negligence. Fraud, theft, and negligence are by their nature extrinsic to the agreement between the parties. Just recompense for theft, fraud, etc does not produce a profit: it is an entirely distinct area of justice from capital investment or labor.
As I mentioned before, usury from one point of view involves the lender and borrower mutually (and perversely) agreeing to treat the borrower like a criminal in order that the lender may profit. There are all sorts of ways to view any sin -- usury can also be viewed as a kind of lie, in addition to enslavement, fraud, etc. But finding a comprehensive set of ways to appeal to the moral intuitions of all sorts of disparate people each with their own prejudices and intuitions is well beyond the scope of my own goals in publishing the FAQ.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by zippycatholic:
If you go to the barber (or hire any other worker to do a job) without having a means on hand to pay, you have committed a kind of fraud or theft against him...
...The prohibition of usury does not mean that it is impossible for unsecured personal obligations to arise when someone actually commits fraud, theft, or negligence. Fraud, theft, and negligence are by their nature extrinsic to the agreement
The barber expects to be paid as I leave the shop. The builder hands me as he leaves an invoice to be paid within 21 days. There is a period - however short - between the performance of the service and payment of the agreed price, when I as the customer have an unsecured personal obligation. And that's a normal part of a service economy, with no fraud involved. Unsecured personal obligation doesn't make a sin.
If my contract with the moneylender says that I will pay him the fee for his service at the point where his service to me is complete - ie at or shortly after the point in time where we've agreed that I will repay the sum borrowed - how is that different to paying the barber ? No fraud involved. And if the contract with the moneylender specifies payment in instalments up to the point where the debt is cleared, how is that different to paying the builder in instalments so that he can cover the cost of materials ? Paying a fee for a service received does not amount to being treated like a criminal.
But you also raise the issue of what happens if I don't pay the barber. if for example at the point where I reach the barber's till I find that my wallet has been stolen. I agree that he may be morally entitled to compensation for costs incurred and opportunities lost as a result of my late payment. But not punitive damages and not to make a profit at my expense.
So I agree with you this far - that the moneylender's contract may be unjust if it allows him to charge the agreed rate of interest - that includes an allowance for profit - on any shortfall in the borrower's payments.
In other words, if I borrow money until payday at an agreed rate of interest and make the payments as agreed, that's fine. If I take the same loan and fail to make the payment, the lender is entitled to some compensation for delay in getting back both principal and agreed interest. But the lender is not entitled to assume my consent to the same rate of interest being applied after payday. What's wrong with his contract is if it seeks to profit him by my failure to honour the agreement instead of merely compensate him for it.
Maybe that's what is meant by "usury" ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by zippycatholic (# 18312) on
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Russ:
Setting aside whether or not you agree with the doctrine (or, if you prefer, with my understanding of the doctrine), you aren't expressing it accurately.
[ 22. February 2015, 14:00: Message edited by: zippycatholic ]
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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Hi zippycatholic.
The impression I'm getting is that you're not really all that interested in what natural moral law - accessible by reason - has to say about the morality of charging interest. That what's important to you is what Thomas Aquinas and Benedict XV say about the morality of charging interest. Is that impression mistaken ?
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
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I was about to start a thread on Pope Francis' Jubilee Year of Mercy, but I realised that my question forms part of this long running topic. The papal document Misericordiae Vultus has announced that on 8th December this year will begin the Year of Mercy. He wants to physically open a door at St Peter's and request every diocese to do the same in pursuit of the Church's welcome to all. Mercy has been at the heart of the many sermons and musings of Pope Francis, so this can come as no surprise.
Yet reaction to the announcement has been mixed. Michael Sean Winters of the National Catholic Reporter said, "This is the best papal bull ever...sadly, for too long the Church itself has failed to give mercy the centrality of focus it deserves and which Jesus Christ requires. This is the core of the Pope Francis revolution."
On the other hand, the traditionalist blog Rorate Caeli said, "We can only ask what depths of leniency (or laxity) he wants the Church to plumb in the name of mercy."
So is this papal bull, and the Year of Mercy it announces a genuine attempt to bring people in to the mercy of Christ, or is it an attempt to water down the harder teachings of the Church to accommodate the secular age? Or, in other words, is it part of the titanic struggle to which this thread refers.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
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I'm naturally predisposed to assume that anything opposed by Rorate Caeli is likely to be a good thing.
Posted by Callan (# 525) on
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Originally posted by PaulTH:
quote:
So is this papal bull, and the Year of Mercy it announces a genuine attempt to bring people in to the mercy of Christ, or is it an attempt to water down the harder teachings of the Church to accommodate the secular age? Or, in other words, is it part of the titanic struggle to which this thread refers.
As Ambassador Kosh would say: <thunk, tinkle, whirr> Yes.
Posted by Fr Weber (# 13472) on
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I think what both the NCR and Rorate Caeli are failing to see is that the mercy of amnesty is conditioned by the requirement of obedience. In other words, you're welcome to come back at any time, but you have to be repentant in the true sense--not just sorry for your sins, but committed to avoiding them in the future.
I think Pope Francis understands that perfectly well. He may be willing to suspend certain disciplinary requirements, but doctrinally he's just as Catholic as Benedict XVI was.
Posted by Russ (# 120) on
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quote:
Originally posted by PaulTH*:
is it part of the titanic struggle to which this thread refers.
I get the depressing sense that anything that any Pope or bishop does to try to improve things, to try to make the Catholic Church better or more successful or effective (by whatever standard) will be seen as part of the "titanic struggle" - that it becomes a lens for interpreting every conceivable action.
If there are two coherent views of what the Chirch should be, then any action can be parsed as either actively reinforcing that division, or passively reinforcing it by doing something within one paradigm instead of addressing the big issue, or as trying to bridge the divide.
But that may be unduly pessimistic....
Best wishes,
Russ
Posted by PaulTH* (# 320) on
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The Polish bishops have vowed to resist any changes at the family synod coming up in October. Mgr Jozef Kloch, spokesman for the Polish bishop's conference says, "There’s no support for change in Poland." In the same article, we read,
"In a survey published on March 10 by the government-owned Public Opinion Research Centre, up to three-quarters of the Poles surveyed said they disagreed with their Church’s stance on homosexuality, contraception and extramarital relationships, and favoured changes to Catholic teaching on issues such as divorce and clerical celibacy."
Poland is a country where it's nigh impossible to be anything but a Catholic, and the Church is still deeply rooted in the national psyche. Yet the country's faithful are saying something very different from what their leaders are saying. There may be no support for change among the bishops, but it doesn't extend to the man or woman in the pews.
But to get the measure of the Polish bishop's conference, one only has to listen to its president, Archbishop Stanislaw Gadecki, who urged “people with homosexual tendencies” to undergo therapy. I sincerely hope there's a struggle for the soul of the Church under way.
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