Thread: What constitutes fair tax? Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.


To visit this thread, use this URL:
http://forum.ship-of-fools.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic;f=70;t=029634

Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
The UK news has given a fair amount of attention recently to the £130m that is to be paid by Google to HMRC for previously underpaid tax. [source:Guardian]

One of the phrases that gets used a lot in the discussion is about Google (and other large corporations) "paying their fair share". But how much is fair?

Those behind the Fair Tax Mark are decidedly woolly when it comes to trying to quantify what is otherwise an inherently subjective notion.

Plus, how much of the prominence of this is solely due to the fact that Google is a household name. Many of the large corporations in the UK aren't. How many of the FTSE 100 can you honestly say you know much about or have had dealings with?

It's quite easy being on the political right, as the ideology of a low tax society is at least quantifiable, even though it comes at the expense of underfunded public services. But the left's idea of fair tax seems harder to pin down. It's all the harder given the amount of obfuscation allowed in the financial reporting regulations (trust me, I'm a charted accountant!) that results in half-baked reporting in the media and unanswered questions when it comes to tax related matters.

So what do shipmates think constitutes fair tax (or is the idea not as good as low tax)?
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
To me, there are two versions of "fair tax". One relates not specifically to the level of tax but to the comparative effects of that taxation on those who pay (or, not if they can 'legally' get away with it). The other is the question of what rate taxation is set at, and whether the government is justified in collecting and spending that amount of tax income. The second question really is one of political theory - how big a government should be, to what extent public services should be paid for from taxation or by those who directly benefit etc. So, I'm not going to go there.

So, on whether the comparative effects of tax are fair ...

Imagine a scenario where there is a small family owned retailer and a large multinational retailer. Both make a profit on their operations in the UK. Obviously the small retailer only has business in the UK, and pays the tax set by the UK government on their profits. The multinational retailer has business in other countries and is able to move money around such that some (or even most) of the profits made on sales in the UK get registered in another country where the tax rates are lower, and hence pays a smaller proportion of tax on their UK operations than the small retailer. That is what I would consider unfair - the multinational organisation using access to overseas divisions to pay proportionately less tax than the small retailer who does not have access to those sort of financial mechanisms.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
The newspapers here are going through one of their periods of attacking those with high incomes for the amount of tax they pay. For Google and some others, the answer is as Alan Cresswell says, the ability they have for transfer pricing. Others are more complicated, but in no instance has there been a suggestion of any evasion of tax payable; at the most, the line taken is that a taxpayer has taken steps lawfully to minimise the tax paid. As far as I know, there's no obligation on anyone to arrange their affairs to pay more tax. I certainly don't and I'd be very surprised if anyone on these boards does either. If a government considers that a particular method should not be allowed, the answer is to pass amending legislation.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
In essence, a fair tax would be a sum of money, when levied across the population, which would pay for the things those people want to see paid for.

It then just comes down to how that tax is distributed, and what is taxed.

To my mind, given that everyone needs a minimum of x to live on, that amount x is not taxed. Everything above x is. You can then put in an incremental tax so that x<2x is taxed at a lower rate than 2x<3x.

Businesses can be taxed on profit or turnover. I'd argue that if the company banks its profits in the country, those get taxed. If it offshores them, tax the turnover.

There's also inherited wealth, which tends, over time, to concentrate money in the hands of the few. So there'd be a wealth tax on property and land.

People need to believe that they are taxed fairly, and that everyone pays a fair share. My marginal rate after my tax-free allowance amounted to just over 27%. Google's was 3%. I don't think that's fair, and I'll be writing to my MP to indicate that.
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
I think there are deeper questions underneath the matter of fair tax.

One is about levels of pay. These are not completely arbitrary, but the logic that determines them is opaque. Governments sometimes raise the minimum wage by passing a law, and market forces do not rebel or send the world into a spin, nor does unemployment rocket. So what was keeping the going rate lower? Top wages seem to owe a lot to fashion, and certainly not to solid evidence of worth.

What we all get is our pay less our taxes, so questions of fairness belong to the more general question of how we are rewarded in society. Tax is a part of that.

The other big underlying question I can see is about how we understand 'mine' and 'ours'. Income tax is unpopular because the government takes a slice of the money I earned and was enjoying regarding as mine. I got paid 1000 last month, but now 300 has gone, it's not fair.

This ignores the fact that my 1000 pay only has any meaning within the society that we create by our taxation and spending. I have no real money that can buy real things apart from the whole society that we make up (in both senses). Nor does the government exist as some other entity that can be seen as opposed to me. The government is us.

What is mine is the school across the road, the police who guard the street, and the pharmacy with drugs for free or cheapish, as much as the stuff on my house insurance or the numbers in my bank account.

Tax is one of the ways we shift wealth around. Paying tax shouldn't be thought of as a loss.
 
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on :
 
Obama: you didn't build that.
 
Posted by *Leon* (# 3377) on :
 
The debate about corporation tax payment in the UK annoys me a lot. As far as can see, most people seem to be complaining that Corporation Tax isn't VAT.

It's fairly obvious that a lot of the value Google generates form the UK is as a result of real work being done outside the UK. therefore it seems quite obvious that a lot of the profit can legitimately be booked outside the UK. Specifically, Google's ability to make loads of money from advertising is dependent on a search engine and advert platform that are largely developed in California. Now, I know that in Google's case those profits end up in Bermuda, not California, but that's a matter for American taxmen to worry about, not UK ones. The change is they're now booking the work involved in selling advertising to the UK, not to Ireland. Most people who are arguing for Google paying more tax seem to ignore the possibility that any of the value should be booked outside the UK.

Another target, Amazon, has a very obscure tax structure. However all the strange products that are exchanged between different parts of the company to make this work are actually successful products that are sold to the general public.

In general, I feel there needs to be a sensible debate about what kinds of taxes multinationals are expected to pay. Working out what, simplistically, is the correct level of corporation tax for a multinational to pay is not obvious even assuming they aren't doing anything that could be described as tax avoidance. We should either come up with taxes where the amount to be paid makes sense, or put up with the fact that the amount paid doesn't make sense.

[ 28. January 2016, 14:09: Message edited by: *Leon* ]
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:

So what do shipmates think constitutes fair tax (or is the idea not as good as low tax)?

One obvious feature of a "fair" tax is a level playing field - if you are taxed at a similar level to your competitors, the government isn't providing any of you with an unfair advantage.

Alan mentions this in his point about multinationals: arrangements that permit Multinational (UK) Ltd. to license its branding from Multinational Holdings (Tax Haven) Ltd. and so migrate profits to a low-tax country aren't fair.

The multinational case is complicated in that the unfairness is generated by a combination of governments rather than by one government by itself.

My opinion of taxation is quite straightforward - the tax system is a way of dividing up the costs of all the necessary functions of government amongst those who can afford to pay for it; it follows that attempts to misrepresent your wealth (by finding tax loopholes etc.) aren't fair.

Another aspect of tax fairness is really spending fairness. If I like apples and you like oranges, and you can get enough of your citrus buddies together to provide tax-funded oranges to everyone, that's not fair either.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by *Leon*:
The debate about corporation tax payment in the UK annoys me a lot. As far as can see, most people seem to be complaining that Corporation Tax isn't VAT.

No, most seem to be complaining that Google seems to be able to determine its own tax rate.

quote:
It's fairly obvious that a lot of the value Google generates form the UK is as a result of real work being done outside the UK. therefore it seems quite obvious that a lot of the profit can legitimately be booked outside the UK. Specifically, Google's ability to make loads of money from advertising is dependent on a search engine and advert platform that are largely developed in California. Now, I know that in Google's case those profits end up in Bermuda, not California, but that's a matter for American taxmen to worry about, not UK ones. The change is they're now booking the work involved in selling advertising to the UK, not to Ireland. Most people who are arguing for Google paying more tax seem to ignore the possibility that any of the value should be booked outside the UK.
Not sure I follow this: Google as a corporation is not based in the UK, therefore the question is how much business is done in the UK and therefore how much tax should be paid on that business. It seems pretty obvious that Google is getting paid for advertising British companies to British customers, so I'd think that the proportion of business advertising to British customers from companies outside of the UK would be quite small.

quote:
Another target, Amazon, has a very obscure tax structure. However all the strange products that are exchanged between different parts of the company to make this work are actually successful products that are sold to the general public.
As I understand it, the problem with Amazon/Ebay is that Chinese companies send packets of products to be sent to customers via British warehouses. These are often significantly cheaper even than online retailers who have bought the products from Chinese factories because they're not paying VAT or corporation tax in the UK - they certainly should be paying VAT and probably should be paying corporation tax if they're supplying customers with products which are already in the UK rather than sending them from China to order.

quote:
In general, I feel there needs to be a sensible debate about what kinds of taxes multinationals are expected to pay. Working out what, simplistically, is the correct level of corporation tax for a multinational to pay is not obvious even assuming they aren't doing anything that could be described as tax avoidance. We should either come up with taxes where the amount to be paid makes sense, or put up with the fact that the amount paid doesn't make sense.
This seems to discount the fact that the corporations want to pay as little tax as possible whilst benefiting from the supply of services by the state. At some point they have to realise that supplying products to British customers (for example) is a drain on British public finances (for example paying for the roads they use to distribute products) so having a sneaky nominal "head office" in Luxembourg to avoid paying tax isn't going to wash any longer.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
*Leon*,

There is no difference between selling a camera on Amazon and selling advertising on Google. Neither product was made in the UK, but both generate revenue from the sale in the UK. Google has its expenses in the US and that is where it can deduct those, but it generates profit elsewhere as well and it is not unfair to pay tax on that.
 
Posted by Schroedinger's cat (# 64) on :
 
Fair tax is a complicated system in a world where the internet is as prevalent as it is. Trans-national organisations are bound to use whatever tricks they can to have their tax burden settled in a low-tax place, and identifying what of their money comes from what other country is complex.

But to take the question a little more theoretically, a company should pay corporation tax on money it takes in a country (the UK). What they are actually doing is hiding that profit in another country, and that is wrong. Because Corporation Tax is based on profits, they can adjust the profits to ensure they are low, while still making sack-loads of money.

Starbucks is probably an easier company to consider. It pays no tax in the UK, but it must be making a profit, otherwise it would leave - they are not known for their charity. They are clearly taking a lot of money in the UK, given their presence every 6 shops, and that money should be appropriately taxed.

The real problem is that we have tax laws based on geographical boundaries, while business is no longer bound by these. The only answer would be a degree of harmonisation of tax legislation, some restrictions on business activity, and/or new taxation systems that depend on money taken, not profit. Given that 10% of the GDP of the world goes through the Netherlands because of a particular tax loophole, how likely is it that they will want to harmonise tax systems and close that loophole?

The core issue is that it should be a fair tax system for everyone. The problem currently is that a small business taking a million pounds a year can be paying more tax than a huge multinational taking several millions a day in the same business. That is not fair tax.

It should also be fair for the receivers of tax benefits, which should mean the welfare beneficiaries (of all sorts, including pensions), rather than the multimillionaire business leaders. I am a supporter of a high level of taxes (I am a lefty after all), because that is what is needed to support the less well off. People and businesses should pay into this proportional to how much money they actually make in the country - not how much their accountants can pretend they have actually made.
 
Posted by no prophet's flag is set so... (# 15560) on :
 
It gets complicated. We have an area of the province where an oil company is driving lots of heavy equipment on local roads, damaging them. Should they pay for usage? The taxation system inordinately benefits this company who does not pay their share of costs for road maintenance, repair and construction. I'm actually of the mind that everyone should pay a per km or mile fee on all vehicle trips, with vehicles rated to cost more or less based on fuel use/enviro damage and wear and tear on roads.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Which is why the quickest way to get transnational companies to pay tax is to levy something against a percentage of their turnover. "But we make no profit" then becomes irrelevant.

The only way to avoid the turnover tax is to incorporate within the tax jurisdiction. Then it's profits that get taxed, and to encourage companies to do that, you could make the overall tax-take lower.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

The only way to avoid the turnover tax is to incorporate within the tax jurisdiction. Then it's profits that get taxed, and to encourage companies to do that, you could make the overall tax-take lower.

In a lot of these cases, the company is incorporated within the tax jurisdiction, but offshores its profits by purchasing image and branding rights, supplies etc. from an offshore parent at what are essentially arbitrary prices.

To achieve the "correct" level of tax, you need to make Amazon (UK) behave as though it were completely independent of Amazon (Netherlands) or Amazon (US), and then tax its profits.

Nobody can do that. It's possible to prevent the most obvious abuses, but no more than that.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Then they're not really incorporated in the country. A General Anti-Avoidance Rule would rule the off-shoring of profits illegal, and levy a tax bill based on turnover.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Then they're not really incorporated in the country. A General Anti-Avoidance Rule would rule the off-shoring of profits illegal, and levy a tax bill based on turnover.

But to rule the offshoring of "profits" illegal, you have to determine a reasonable purchase price for the thing that the domestic company is importing from its foreign sibling. Which isn't always easy.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
Then they're not really incorporated in the country. A General Anti-Avoidance Rule would rule the off-shoring of profits illegal, and levy a tax bill based on turnover.

Would that mean that off-shoring turnover would also be illegal? Once that is in place could the amount on which tax is due be calculated fairly?
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
Here's another challenge for "fair" taxation.

We often see examples of a big multinational company intending to build a new factory to build cars, or semiconductors, or whatever other widget they have. Said company could build the factory in one of several localities, and so the local governments fall over themselves offering tax breaks and subsidies to attract the new factory.

Attracting a big employer is clearly a good thing for the locality. It's rational for the locality to offer bribes to attract the big employer, and the locality shows significant net benefit even so.

But it's not "fair". The big employer is using all the same local resources as anyone else, but not paying its fair share of the costs.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
We often see examples of a big multinational company intending to build a new factory to build cars, or semiconductors, or whatever other widget they have. Said company could build the factory in one of several localities, and so the local governments fall over themselves offering tax breaks and subsidies to attract the new factory.

The EU has rules regarding the level of state aid a country can give as 'sweeteners'.

It's not perfect, and IANAL, but you seem to be offering naught but a counsel of despair. Where there's a will, there's a way: all too often, the will is absent - I'd like to know why that is.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
*Leon*,

There is no difference between selling a camera on Amazon and selling advertising on Google. Neither product was made in the UK, but both generate revenue from the sale in the UK. Google has its expenses in the US and that is where it can deduct those, but it generates profit elsewhere as well and it is not unfair to pay tax on that.

I'm pretty sure that if Ricardus UK Ltd exports nasal hair tweezers to Poland, then although I am technically making money out of Polish people, I am not liable to pay Polish corporation tax. While I can quite believe that Google doesn't pay enough UK tax, I don't think the amount of products sold to British people can be counted as evidence for what it should pay.

The problem AIUI is when Ricardus UK Ltd 'buys' intangibles off Ricardus Luxembourg sàrl at an artificial price as a means of transferring profit into a tax haven.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Exporting an item is different than setting up shop to sell that item, which is essentially what Google does.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
As far as I know, there's no obligation on anyone to arrange their affairs to pay more tax.

Well, I choose not to take full advantage of the tax system and so pay more than I could probably get away with - I'm in the position of being a reluctant landlord of a house where the rental income is less than the mortgage interest so could technically offset the extra loss against my tax liability from my employment but I choose not to because it feels like cheating. I wouldn't be able to do it if the house was empty and I was eating the whole loss but can if I'm recouping some of it by renting the house out? It's nonsense. Plus the government is already paying the rent as the tenants are getting LHA.
 
Posted by ExclamationMark (# 14715) on :
 
With Google and other such large corporations, it's not so much the tax they pay as it is the feeling that the Government are much too cosy with them.

In my dealings with HMRC (personally, on behalf of others and in the corporate world), I've found them to be unbending, unhelpful and liable to interpret "guidelines" in a manner only likely to suit themselves. The argument over whether they could round up or round down was a classic of its genre.

It makes interesting reading to get a copy of the info that HMRC hold on you - they are legally bound to produce it in under 28 days (Data Protection rules). It includes not just your tax figures and records of income but a lot of other information, soem of which is their written and recorded comments about you. In both my (and other records), I've found significant inaccuracies which have resulted in cases being upheld for breaches of Data Protection.

It doesn't appear from wehat we see and/or read that Google et al, have the same kind of experiences.

I don't trust HMRC as a result of experience - I question everything and claim everything. y delay in responding to my enquiries egts an invoice from me with a notional charge of £60 per day until resolution - applying HMRC practice to itself. It may not result in any cash but it sure gets them moving!
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
It is reported that Italy made Google pay many times what the UK agreed.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
As far as I know, there's no obligation on anyone to arrange their affairs to pay more tax. I certainly don't and I'd be very surprised if anyone on these boards does either. If a government considers that a particular method should not be allowed, the answer is to pass amending legislation.

I'm sure that I couldn't arrange to have my salary paid other than through PAYE (ie, deduction by employer). Most in the UK are in this situation. Successive governments have closed loopholes for individuals and done nothing about those used by corporations.
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
Some questions for companies "arranging" their tax affairs:
Who paid for the roads and rail that get your employees to work?
Who paid for the drains and sewers that run under your buildings?
Who paid for the basic education of your employees?
Who pays for the police and armed forces that give you a secure environment to work in?

Answer those questions, please - and then pay your sodding taxes!
 
Posted by hatless (# 3365) on :
 
I agree that Google should pay more tax, and we should, together with other countries, find accurate ways to measure what they earn and owe. But, there are many ways of paying tax.

Google's biggest bill must be its wages, and every employee pays income tax. Much of their wages will be spent, incurring sales tax and various excise duties as well as profits at the supermarket, pub and taxi rank, on which further taxes are paid. The government gets to tax money nearly every time it changes hands.

Arguably tax rates matter less than the velocity of money.

But tax also has a symbolic function. We tax bad things like fags, and give relief for good things like being a friend of the schools orchestra. We like the new rich kids at Google to be made to pay. I think that's what this is really about.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by hatless:
I agree that Google should pay more tax, and we should, together with other countries, find accurate ways to measure what they earn and owe. But, there are many ways of paying tax.

Google's biggest bill must be its wages, and every employee pays income tax. Much of their wages will be spent, incurring sales tax and various excise duties as well as profits at the supermarket, pub and taxi rank, on which further taxes are paid. The government gets to tax money nearly every time it changes hands.

Even if labour is their biggest cost (I have no idea) this is irrelevant. Employees pay income tax on their income, whether a company makes a profit or not. Whilst there might be a tangential link between employee costs and profitability (possibly a higher proportion of labour costs when a company is more profitable, but not necessarily), corporation tax is paid on profits. Therefore if Evil Corp is not paying corporation tax on the profits they are earning in the UK, then there is a loss to the public exchequer over-and-above what Evil Corp employees are paying in income tax.

Therefore this excuse that "ah but we're employing x million British workers" doesn't wash.

quote:
Arguably tax rates matter less than the velocity of money.
Not really. What matters is that some large corporations want the benefits of trading in particular jurisdictions without the full costs of doing so. They're playing a game, and you're seeking to let them off the hook whilst our NHS hospitals struggle to pay their bills.

quote:
But tax also has a symbolic function. We tax bad things like fags, and give relief for good things like being a friend of the schools orchestra. We like the new rich kids at Google to be made to pay. I think that's what this is really about.
Bullshit. This is about an attitude by some a the very top of our society that asserts they're too rich/important/prestigious to dirty themselves with paying tax.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839

...is probably the stupidest philosophy I've ever heard, because it incentivises people to maximise their needs while minimising their ability.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
Some questions for companies "arranging" their tax affairs:
Who paid for the roads and rail that get your employees to work?
Who paid for the drains and sewers that run under your buildings?
Who paid for the basic education of your employees?
Who pays for the police and armed forces that give you a secure environment to work in?

Around here, many such things are paid for by local councils. Now, I live in one council area where the council tax rate is quite low, but work in another where the council tax rate is comparatively high (for an otherwise identical house). So I'm not contributing any tax money towards the council-funded facilities that enable me to earn my money.

Do you think the council where I work should have the right to tax me as well as the one where I live? I am, after all, earning my money there. Am I freeloading off their provision while taking all of my earnings to a different council area where the tax take is lower?
 
Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mr cheesy:
This is about an attitude by some a the very top of our society that asserts they're too rich/important/prestigious to dirty themselves with paying tax.

I think you're imputing an attitude that doesn't really exist in the head offices of large corporations.

The key concern for management is the return to shareholders. That is enshrined in law (Companies Act 2006, s172t). Whether or not one likes to engage in sophistry about the nature of tax, it remains an expense. It is on the face of the income statement and higher tax reduces the return to shareholders.

So along with trying to increase revenue and gross profit margins, it is standard to try to look to reduce overhead costs, of which tax is just one.

That's the law as it stands. I don't agree that that's the way it should be, but when we discuss tax reform and ways to make it better, it helps to be able to diagnose the problems precisely.

This is why I don't find Adeodatus' comment of "pay your sodding taxes" to be constructive. It would only be appropriate if there was a single, clear number that a company would have paid had they not taken any measures to reduce their liability which could then be compared to the amount actually paid.

But the start of the problem is not even with the amounts paid, it is the lack of clarity that prevents such a calculation even being done.

Plus, as hatless rightly points out, tax can be used as an incentive (either to pay less tax) or a disincentive (to pay more). For example, I've advocated encouraging companies, when employing people, to favour those who are currently unemployed rather than those moving from job to job.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839

...is probably the stupidest philosophy I've ever heard, because it incentivises people to maximise their needs while minimising their ability.
...is probably the stupidest interpretation of an eminently reasonable maxim I've ever heard, because it assumes people are simply suckling pigs looking for a teat to drain.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:
I think you're imputing an attitude that doesn't really exist in the head offices of large corporations.

The key concern for management is the return to shareholders. That is enshrined in law (Companies Act 2006, s172t). Whether or not one likes to engage in sophistry about the nature of tax, it remains an expense. It is on the face of the income statement and higher tax reduces the return to shareholders.

Corporations are not above the (tax) law. An individual who attempted to do this may well find that they're charged under tax evasion laws, there is no reason why a corporation should not also have the law properly applied to them.

quote:
So along with trying to increase revenue and gross profit margins, it is standard to try to look to reduce overhead costs, of which tax is just one.
Corporations may indeed attempt to bend, break, rewrite or ignore laws in particular jurisdictions. This doesn't mean that we should let them.

quote:
That's the law as it stands. I don't agree that that's the way it should be, but when we discuss tax reform and ways to make it better, it helps to be able to diagnose the problems precisely.
That's one law. Other laws apply. In this case, the law relating to paying of tax.

quote:
This is why I don't find Adeodatus' comment of "pay your sodding taxes" to be constructive. It would only be appropriate if there was a single, clear number that a company would have paid had they not taken any measures to reduce their liability which could then be compared to the amount actually paid.
No, sorry, this is very clear. The corporations do not want to pay the taxes on profits earned in the UK by trying on clever corporate structures designed only to avoid it. They're not the victims here, they're the ones trying to get the benefits from trading in the UK without having to pay their way.

quote:
But the start of the problem is not even with the amounts paid, it is the lack of clarity that prevents such a calculation even being done.
Even if things were absolutely clear, they'd be looking for ways to pay less than they should - because as you say they're only accountable to their shareholders and are looking for ways to reduce externalities. Which in this case includes finding ways to avoid paying for the things they use - like roads.

quote:
Plus, as hatless rightly points out, tax can be used as an incentive (either to pay less tax) or a disincentive (to pay more). For example, I've advocated encouraging companies, when employing people, to favour those who are currently unemployed rather than those moving from job to job.
Ridiculous nonsense.
 
Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mr cheesy:
Corporations are not above the (tax) law. An individual who attempted to do this may well find that they're charged under tax evasion laws, there is no reason why a corporation should not also have the law properly applied to them.

You are at risk here of conflating avoidance with evasion. I engage in tax avoidance personally by paying into a pension, having an ISA and giving by gift aid. I doubt I'm the only one here. Where there is evasion, of course an individual or a company is liable to prosecution. The issue at hand is how far does avoidance (which is absolutely legal, nomatter how much one may find it immoral or distasteful) go, before it becomes evasion. It's a grey area.
quote:
That's one law. Other laws apply. In this case, the law relating to paying of tax.
I never advocated not paying the taxes that are due. It simply remains the case at the moment that there a number of legal ways in which you can reduce the amount that is due. In fact, quite a significant part of tax legislation exists to close previous loopholes. For example, when an individual is subject to capital gains tax on shares, the shares they are deemed to have sold first are those that they buy in the next few days. It sounds bonkers at first, but it's designed to curb short-selling.
quote:
No, sorry, this is very clear.
Then please show your workings which tells you exactly how much Google would have paid had they not avoided any tax. If it is as clear as you say, this should not be a problem for a tax genius such as yourself.
quote:
Ridiculous nonsense.
Would you care to elaborate on why you think this is so?
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
Some questions for companies "arranging" their tax affairs:
Who paid for the roads and rail that get your employees to work?
Who paid for the drains and sewers that run under your buildings?
Who paid for the basic education of your employees?
Who pays for the police and armed forces that give you a secure environment to work in?

Around here, many such things are paid for by local councils. Now, I live in one council area where the council tax rate is quite low, but work in another where the council tax rate is comparatively high (for an otherwise identical house). So I'm not contributing any tax money towards the council-funded facilities that enable me to earn my money.

Do you think the council where I work should have the right to tax me as well as the one where I live? I am, after all, earning my money there. Am I freeloading off their provision while taking all of my earnings to a different council area where the tax take is lower?

Until the Coalition started slashing council grants in 2010, more than 50% of what councils spent was paid for by grants from central government (and therefore from national-level taxation), and only 25% was raised by council tax, so I'm afraid your argument doesn't hold water.
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839

...is probably the stupidest philosophy I've ever heard, because it incentivises people to maximise their needs while minimising their ability.
Ability does not equal whether one can be bothered to work; need does not equal want.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839

...is probably the stupidest philosophy I've ever heard, because it incentivises people to maximise their needs while minimising their ability.
...is probably the stupidest interpretation of an eminently reasonable maxim I've ever heard, because it assumes people are simply suckling pigs looking for a teat to drain.
It also ignores the basic reality of our society and the nature of humanity. We live in a cooperative society which depends on multiple levels and types of work and interaction. It is reasonable to expect that those whose situation* and/or abilities allow them greater reward share with those whose situation* and/or abilities do not.


*Situation is a greater factor of who has and who has not than many of those who have will admit.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Originally posted by Sipech,
quote:

Then please show your workings which tells you exactly how much Google would have paid had they not avoided any tax. If it is as clear as you say, this should not be a problem for a tax genius such as yourself.

It doesn't take a genius to deduce that 3% is less a rate than what the vast majority of people pay and less than we could possibly arrange to pay without being completely destitute.

[ 29. January 2016, 16:38: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:
You are at risk here of conflating avoidance with evasion. I engage in tax avoidance personally by paying into a pension, having an ISA and giving by gift aid. I doubt I'm the only one here. Where there is evasion, of course an individual or a company is liable to prosecution. The issue at hand is how far does avoidance (which is absolutely legal, nomatter how much one may find it immoral or distasteful) go, before it becomes evasion. It's a grey area.

No I'm not and no it isn't.

quote:
]I never advocated not paying the taxes that are due. It simply remains the case at the moment that there a number of legal ways in which you can reduce the amount that is due. In fact, quite a significant part of tax legislation exists to close previous loopholes. For example, when an individual is subject to capital gains tax on shares, the shares they are deemed to have sold first are those that they buy in the next few days. It sounds bonkers at first, but it's designed to curb short-selling.
Google is trying to use clever lawyers to negotiate the tax that is due. In other words, they think they can pay less than the tax rate everyone else pays.

quote:
Then please show your workings which tells you exactly how much Google would have paid had they not avoided any tax. If it is as clear as you say, this should not be a problem for a tax genius such as yourself.
It isn't about being a "tax genius", it is purely about the facts as as they're reported - which suggest that Google should have paid multiple times what they've negotiated. Given that they pay a lot more in other countries it seems reasonable to think that these estimates are somewhere near the truth.


quote:
quote:
Ridiculous nonsense.
Would you care to elaborate on why you think this is so?
What, you want me to comment on why I think your idiosyncratic suggestion to penalise corporations for employing people who are already in work in preference to those who are unemployed is nonsense?

For a start, the only power any employee has with his employers to negotiate wages lies in the fact that he/she can tell them where to stick his job and walk out. If one artificially reduces the value of an employee that is in work, this reduces his negotiating power and will likely lead to reduced pay.

Second, employees who are unemployed may for a large number of reasons be better than those who are unemployed (for example one may be continuing to learn new skills whilst in work but be getting left behind whilst unemployed - clearly that's not everyone, but an example). So suggest that employers are not only incentivised to employ the unemployed but disincentivised to employ people who are already employed is to force companies to take on people who may not be suitable.

It's a stupid idea. Why would anyone agree to this?
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sioni Sais:
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
As far as I know, there's no obligation on anyone to arrange their affairs to pay more tax. I certainly don't and I'd be very surprised if anyone on these boards does either. If a government considers that a particular method should not be allowed, the answer is to pass amending legislation.

I'm sure that I couldn't arrange to have my salary paid other than through PAYE (ie, deduction by employer). Most in the UK are in this situation. Successive governments have closed loopholes for individuals and done nothing about those used by corporations.
It used be called PAYE here, but is now PAYG (for Pay As You Go). Now doubt, someone was paid to think of the new name and acronym. But of course that only applies to employees, not to those of us who are self employed. Even for employees, those who have investments need to pay tax on the income from investments and are of course under no obligation to pay any more tax than the law requires.

Mr Cheesy, you say:

Corporations are not above the (tax) law. An individual who attempted to do this may well find that they're charged under tax evasion laws, there is no reason why a corporation should not also have the law properly applied to them.

and at face value that must be correct. I am not aware that the UK tax authorities are any less diligent than those here and if no proceedings have been taken against Evil Corp, I'd assume that tax is not being evaded, but legitimately avoided. Big difference, and not all that subtle. What Sipech is saying is 100% correct.

Arethosemyfeet, that is your choice. Do you depreciate the consumable fittings (eg carpet, blinds, paint, fences, dishwasher, hot water system) you supply with the rental property, or deduct the agent's commission? If so, why not depreciate the cost of the money you have borrowed to finance your investment? It's called negative gearing, and while it's the subject of much debate here from time to time, there seems little likelihood that any government will move against it.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
I am not aware that the UK tax authorities are any less diligent than those here and if no proceedings have been taken against Evil Corp, I'd assume that tax is not being evaded, but legitimately avoided. Big difference, and not all that subtle.

Or the difference is a matter of opinion, and the company concerned can hire more lawyers than the budget HMRC have to expend on the case.

In which case the company may well make an offer, and HMRC may chose to take it.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
I am not aware that the UK tax authorities are any less diligent than those here and if no proceedings have been taken against Evil Corp, I'd assume that tax is not being evaded, but legitimately avoided. Big difference, and not all that subtle.

Or the difference is a matter of opinion, and the company concerned can hire more lawyers than the budget HMRC have to expend on the case.

In which case the company may well make an offer, and HMRC may chose to take it.

You may be right in your first paragraph about the UK tax authorities, but that is certainly not the case here. The difference between the concepts of avoidance and evasion is very straightforward; agreed that in particular instances it can become difficult to determine just which side of the line a particular course falls. Settling is not common here, seeking a court ruling is the preferred course for both sides.

[ 29. January 2016, 23:59: Message edited by: Gee D ]
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Exporting an item is different than setting up shop to sell that item, which is essentially what Google does.

Well, Google's argument is that the shop is based in America, because that's where the coders are.

FWIW I do think this argument is qualitatively different from the Vodafone and Starbucks cases, in that coders are real people who draw real quantifiable salaries, whereas Starbucks' case was based on buying 'branding' from other bits of the group at arbitrary prices, and Vodafone's case was IIRC based on intra-group lending at arbitrary interest rates which were then offset against tax.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
It isn't about the coders, but the product. They effectively have shops and products in many countries.
BTW, their coders might be in the US, but that which they create is assigned to Bermuda. They do not pay a reasonable share anywhere.
Google isn't interested in logic, they are interested in paying as little tax as legally possible.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
ell, Google's argument is that the shop is based in America, because that's where the coders are.

Factually incorrect - there are Google programmers working in many different places around the world. And, AFAIU, none in Bermuda where the corp is apparently registered for tax purposes.

quote:
FWIW I do think this argument is qualitatively different from the Vodafone and Starbucks cases, in that coders are real people who draw real quantifiable salaries, whereas Starbucks' case was based on buying 'branding' from other bits of the group at arbitrary prices, and Vodafone's case was IIRC based on intra-group lending at arbitrary interest rates which were then offset against tax.
I think there is a difference, but not a massive one. Google does not provide tangible products, but it doesn't really matter: if they were producing widgets from factories in the USA (or as with their model from components assembled in various factories around the world), they are still seeking to provide those widgets to British customers for use in the British market. If they were selling tangible widgets, it wouldn't be much different to Starbucks.

The only difference here, it seems to me, is that those selling tangible products have to come up with more imaginative tax dodges than those selling intangible internet services - in that those selling tangible products have to come up with complicated licensing systems to transfer the profits to low-tax jurisdictions.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839

...is probably the stupidest philosophy I've ever heard, because it incentivises people to maximise their needs while minimising their ability.
Ability does not equal whether one can be bothered to work; need does not equal want.
So if the individual cannot decide what his abilities and needs are, who can? Should the State decide what work we do and how much we will get paid for it? And in what world is that a better solution than the one we have now?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
And in what world is that a better solution than the one we have now?

The one where people starve for the want of a job.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:

Arethosemyfeet, that is your choice. Do you depreciate the consumable fittings (eg carpet, blinds, paint, fences, dishwasher, hot water system) you supply with the rental property, or deduct the agent's commission? If so, why not depreciate the cost of the money you have borrowed to finance your investment?

At the moment HMRC say that because it operates at a net loss (just on the basis of rental income minus mortgage interest) I don't need to fill in a self-assessment form. I don't pay any tax on it, but I don't offset any of the losses against my tax liability for other things. Basic fairness seems to me that if I run any sort of attempted profit making venture then I should pay tax if it makes a profit but I don't see why the tax man should help me out if it loses money
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:

You may be right in your first paragraph about the UK tax authorities, but that is certainly not the case here.

I'm not sure where 'here' is so couldn't possibly comment. Suffice to say that a lot of these sorts of cases tend to circle around which jurisdictions profits are booked in - and I know of no major economy in which this hasn't been an issue.
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
As far as I know, there's no obligation on anyone to arrange their affairs to pay more tax. I certainly don't and I'd be very surprised if anyone on these boards does either. If a government considers that a particular method should not be allowed, the answer is to pass amending legislation.

This is fine and entirely correct, assuming that the government are unbiased and not influenced by one group over another.

The reason it breaks down is because of the wealthy and powerful and able to have a far greater voice in government and hence the rules are written in such a way that favours large corporations. The regulation do not exist in a vacuum. To some extend, they are written by the corporations.

If you're bored, look up how much Corporation Tax has fallen in the UK since 2010...

I think the idea of taxing turnover has some merit. In general, I think it right to tax prophet rather that turnover - it supports business in lean times, it is effectively income that is taxed and some companies will have high turnover with very small margins.

Moreover, tax on profits makes re-investment tax-deductable and hence (as long as you don't keep slashing corporation tax) promotes business investment, which is what our economy so desperately needs.

Thinking about it though, some mechanism for multinations whereby, proper registration in the UK would allow them to be taxed on profits, whilst not fully incorporating in the UK means a tax on turnover seems to have some merit as a way forward.

AFZ
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by alienfromzog:
In general, I think it right to tax prophet rather that turnover

You'd get a lot of businesses claiming that they're herdsmen and dressers of sycamore trees.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
One problem with taxing profit is that profit is very easy to hide.
 
Posted by Doublethink. (# 1984) on :
 
What if shareholder dividend had to be calculated gross annually (you could not pay 0 dividend unless you were declared bankrupt), but paid net annually, after a percentage corporate tax e.g. 10% ? This doesn`t solve your geography problem but it removes the competition between tax and dividend.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
And in what world is that a better solution than the one we have now?

The one where people starve for the want of a job.
Better to starve as a free man than eat as a slave.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Marvin the Martian: Better to starve as a free man than eat as a slave.
And what gives you the right to decide this for someone else?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
And in what world is that a better solution than the one we have now?

The one where people starve for the want of a job.
Better to starve as a free man than eat as a slave.
I think you're struggling with the concept of a 'job' here, which is usually defined as a set amount of labour given in return for monetary remuneration.

I mean, I suppose you could classify tens of thousands of civil servants, and many tens of thousands more who work for local government, as 'slaves', but personally I'd find that a bit of a reach.

But that's the problem with libertarians: they always think they're included in the chosen few, whereas the only freedom they'll really ever have is the freedom to starve at the side of the road.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink.:
What if shareholder dividend had to be calculated gross annually (you could not pay 0 dividend unless you were declared bankrupt), but paid net annually, after a percentage corporate tax e.g. 10% ? This doesn`t solve your geography problem but it removes the competition between tax and dividend.

You want to tax dividends in place of profits? But then you say that you're not allowing companies to pay zero dividend. I think none of this makes any sense, but I could be missing your point.

(Lots of companies go through phases of not paying dividends, and it's not because they're bankrupt. Retaining profit in the company in order to drive growth is a perfectly normal and reasonable thing for companies of all sizes to do - whether it be a small business or a multnational PLC.

Apple, for example, didn't pay any dividends between 1995 and 2012. It preferred to keep the money invested in making new stuff, and given that its stock price increased by a factor of 80 or so over that period, its investors were probably pretty happy with that choice.)
 
Posted by no prophet's flag is set so... (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
One problem with taxing profit is that profit is very easy to hide.

What most us who own companies do is keep money in a company and get a tax accountant to tell us how to pay it out. Thus realising the lowest tax. Some lower tax is justified if you take risks and provide jobs. But how much. I got 13% tax net last year on income if it was personal would have been more than three times this.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet's flag is set so...:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
One problem with taxing profit is that profit is very easy to hide.

What most us who own companies do is keep money in a company and get a tax accountant to tell us how to pay it out. Thus realising the lowest tax. Some lower tax is justified if you take risks and provide jobs. But how much. I got 13% tax net last year on income if it was personal would have been more than three times this.
Some might be, but rarely is that actually assessed.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

But that's the problem with libertarians: they always think they're included in the chosen few, whereas the only freedom they'll really ever have is the freedom to starve at the side of the road.

as those they helped enrich lock the golden gates against them.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
And in what world is that a better solution than the one we have now?

The one where people starve for the want of a job.
Better to starve as a free man than eat as a slave.
Is it? Fucking easy to say when one isn't starving.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink.:
What if shareholder dividend had to be calculated gross annually (you could not pay 0 dividend unless you were declared bankrupt), but paid net annually, after a percentage corporate tax e.g. 10% ? This doesn`t solve your geography problem but it removes the competition between tax and dividend.

The dividends paid on the small number of shares I own (de-mutualised building society) get taxed as income. I'm not sure why it would make a difference if those were paid annually rather than 2 or 4 times a year.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by no prophet's flag is set so...:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
One problem with taxing profit is that profit is very easy to hide.

What most us who own companies do is keep money in a company and get a tax accountant to tell us how to pay it out. Thus realising the lowest tax. Some lower tax is justified if you take risks and provide jobs. But how much. I got 13% tax net last year on income if it was personal would have been more than three times this.
I can't think of any reason why business taxes and income taxes need to be comparable. Though, for a small business (especially the self-employed) where profits made effectively form the income for the owner(s) the line is blurred.
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by alienfromzog:
In general, I think it right to tax prophet rather that turnover

You'd get a lot of businesses claiming that they're herdsmen and dressers of sycamore trees.
[Killing me]
oops
[Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
Talking of dividends, one of the stupidest parts of the British tax system is that it is cost effective for (fairly) well-off self-employed people to avoid tax by paying themselves a dividend.

I am not an accountant and I can't remember the amount where this becomes worth doing; but if one is self-employed, one declares one's entire profit for tax. Accountants commonly advise those whose work is going well to become a limited company and pay themselves a dividend instead of a wage.

So what happens is that the new limited company pays you the minimum possible (I forget what this is, but IIRC is below what would be the minimum wage) and then at the end of the year you pay yourself the dividend.

The tax advantage is that you are only paying National Insurance on the wage (which is the minimum possible - so not very much) and the tax on the dividend is much lower than it would be if you were fortunate enough to be into the 40% tax band (I think it might be a flat 20%).

The end result is that a lot of essentially self-employed people who would be paying the higher rate actually pay less NI and tax than people earning considerably less.
 
Posted by Doublethink. (# 1984) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink.:
What if shareholder dividend had to be calculated gross annually (you could not pay 0 dividend unless you were declared bankrupt), but paid net annually, after a percentage corporate tax e.g. 10% ? This doesn`t solve your geography problem but it removes the competition between tax and dividend.

The dividends paid on the small number of shares I own (de-mutualised building society) get taxed as income. I'm not sure why it would make a difference if those were paid annually rather than 2 or 4 times a year.
Perhaps I should have said a frequency of not less than once per year.

If you were taxing dividend not profit, then it would make sense to require some form of minimum dividend to be paid.

I am not saying this is a fully worked out idea, I was merely trying to think through a way of trying to create a system where maximising shareholder return did not automatically result in reducing the tax take. Also, taxing dividend side steps the issue of artificially created losses.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
And what gives you the right to decide this for someone else?

In the context of me arguing against a system whereby nobody would have the right to decide for themselves, that's a pretty silly objection.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
I think you're struggling with the concept of a 'job' here, which is usually defined as a set amount of labour given in return for monetary remuneration.

I'd change it to "freely given". If you don't have a choice about doing the labour, it doesn't matter how much you're getting paid - and in a "From each according to their ability, to each according to their need" society where "Ability does not equal whether one can be bothered to work; need does not equal want" that choice would not exist.

quote:
I mean, I suppose you could classify tens of thousands of civil servants, and many tens of thousands more who work for local government, as 'slaves', but personally I'd find that a bit of a reach.
If the government was forcing them to do that work with no possibility of them deciding that they'd rather do something else at any point in their lives, then it's no reach at all.

quote:
But that's the problem with libertarians: they always think they're included in the chosen few, whereas the only freedom they'll really ever have is the freedom to starve at the side of the road.
I currently have the freedom to decide which line of work I want to be in, and if I wanted to I could walk out of this office right now and spend the rest of my life painting pictures of gerbils and trying to sell them to other people. If that qualifies me as one of "the chosen few" then so be it, because that's all I'm advocating here.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
Don't worry, Marvin. I won't let you starve to death.

Unless you think it's an imposition on your liberty, of course...
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
None of us is entirely free to choose what we do to make a living, and none of us is entirely forced into a particular job. I would love to continue doing what I'm currently doing, I'm good at it, I enjoy it, but I'm not free to do that when government cuts makes obtaining the money to pay my salary and cover other costs is next to impossible.

I could, of course, find another similar job. But, even then I'm not free to do any job I want. There needs to be a vacancy, it needs to be in a location that is reasonably convenient for family life, it needs to pay enough for me to live on.

I'm not free, neither am I a slave.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Marvin the Martian: In the context of me arguing against a system whereby nobody would have the right to decide for themselves, that's a pretty silly objection.
When you argue that everyone should be able to decide for themselves, but at the same you're happy to decide on behalf of other people, that seems rather inconsistent to me. I might even say hypocritical.

[ 01. February 2016, 09:25: Message edited by: LeRoc ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
None of us is entirely free to choose what we do to make a living

Actually, we are. It's just that if we choose to do something that nobody else wants to pay us for (painting pictures of gerbils, say) then we won't earn any money.

Freedom of choice doesn't mean freedom from the consequences of those choices, and considering said consequences when choosing doesn't make the choice any less free.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
None of us is entirely free to choose what we do to make a living, and none of us is entirely forced into a particular job. I would love to continue doing what I'm currently doing, I'm good at it, I enjoy it, but I'm not free to do that when government cuts makes obtaining the money to pay my salary and cover other costs is next to impossible.

I could, of course, find another similar job. But, even then I'm not free to do any job I want. There needs to be a vacancy, it needs to be in a location that is reasonably convenient for family life, it needs to pay enough for me to live on.

I'm not free, neither am I a slave.

It seems to me that this is where laissez-faire economics fails to match reality. In principle, all economic actors in a given situation would make the best possible economic choices. In practice they don't for many different reasons.

Of course, as a highly skilled academic, Alan is constrained by a certain collection of non-economic factors he outlines above. But for many others further down the pile, people are both free and not free at the same time, it is not binary.

To take the well discussed example of a single mum living in a tower block on the edge of a big city. We all might agree that she is free to walk out from the shitty cleaning job where her boss exploits her. She may well be free to move elsewhere in the city or the country to maximise the economic impact of her income. In practice she may well not be able to do those things for a range of other reasons - there may be a range of other ties and chains that mean she is stuck in that condition without any hope of change.

IME it is often those in a privileged position of being able to travel, who have a range of jobs constantly available to them and who have never failed to achieve their dreams in life who assume that everyone else is in the same situation. Such people often appear to assume that their fortunate position is due to their own hard work and that other's bad situation is due to poor choices. In reality everyone is obviously where they are in life due to a range of factors, with luck and good/bad choices thrown into the mix.
 
Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
None of us is entirely free to choose what we do to make a living

Actually, we are. It's just that if we choose to do something that nobody else wants to pay us for (painting pictures of gerbils, say) then we won't earn any money.

Freedom of choice doesn't mean freedom from the consequences of those choices, and considering said consequences when choosing doesn't make the choice any less free.

No, we absolutely are not. I'm not free to be a fighter pilot, because I'm very short-sighted. I'm not free to be a surgeon, because I have no medical qualifications.

I am free to be a chartered accountant, because I am qualified for that, though it's no guarantee that I will get such a job.

Going back to an earlier point on dividends, that's a classic question on the ICAEW tax exams. They present you with a scenario and ask if it is advisable for an individual to establish a limited company and pay themselves through dividends. Sometimes it is, sometimes it isn't.

That said, I'm never in favour of it from a moral perspective, though quite a few people I know (including christians) do opt to be contractors and send invoices, rather than join the payroll.

Though it's better than the old tax loophole (now closed) whereby individuals would incorporate a limited company, give themselves a loan from that company and would later write off that loan as a bad debt, which would then be tax deductible from the point of view of corporation tax. It was particularly popular amongst the Manchester United team of the early/mid 90s.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
None of us is entirely free to choose what we do to make a living

Actually, we are. It's just that if we choose to do something that nobody else wants to pay us for (painting pictures of gerbils, say) then we won't earn any money.

Freedom of choice doesn't mean freedom from the consequences of those choices, and considering said consequences when choosing doesn't make the choice any less free.

But, though we may be free to do that are we also then free to allow our kids to starve to death? You're right. We aren't free from the consequences of our choices, and that in itself constrains our choices. Which gives us freedom within boundaries (and, those boundaries are a combination of legal ones, not being free to earn a living robbing banks, and personal ones).

Within the context of the "from each according to his ability" this means that there are constraints in which there is an expectation to use that ability to generate income (reinforced by not getting included in the "to each according to his need" in the same way as those without ability). If I was in charge of the world I would define "income" in this context more broadly than just making money - so, for example, an artist should be able to contribute to society without an expectation of making monetary profit on the art he produces.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:


That said, I'm never in favour of it from a moral perspective, though quite a few people I know (including christians) do opt to be contractors and send invoices, rather than join the payroll.


When working as a contractor there are other reasons for incorporation - including limited liability, genuine business expenses as well as pension arrangements.

And yes there are people who take money as dividends rather than income - but this to my mind is just an argument for equalizing the tax treatment of both of these.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
But, though we may be free to do that are we also then free to allow our kids to starve to death? You're right. We aren't free from the consequences of our choices, and that in itself constrains our choices. Which gives us freedom within boundaries (and, those boundaries are a combination of legal ones, not being free to earn a living robbing banks, and personal ones).

The consequences only constrain our choices to the extent that we care about them. There are plenty of people who do, in fact, earn a living through crime - and as long as they accept the risk of arrest and imprisonment as an occupational hazard they are free to do so.

quote:
Within the context of the "from each according to his ability" this means that there are constraints in which there is an expectation to use that ability to generate income
Whether you want to or not? What would be the consequences of a choice not to generate income to the best of your ability?

quote:
(reinforced by not getting included in the "to each according to his need" in the same way as those without ability).
I'm not entirely sure I understand what you mean here.

quote:
If I was in charge of the world I would define "income" in this context more broadly than just making money - so, for example, an artist should be able to contribute to society without an expectation of making monetary profit on the art he produces.
But who gets to decide which people can be artists? And at what stage of their lives?
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
None of us is entirely free to choose what we do to make a living

Actually, we are. It's just that if we choose to do something that nobody else wants to pay us for (painting pictures of gerbils, say) then we won't earn any money.

Freedom of choice doesn't mean freedom from the consequences of those choices, and considering said consequences when choosing doesn't make the choice any less free.

And you Marvin, are free to decide for yourself to pay no tax at all. Just turn in your job today and you'll have no income that can be taxed. That's a free choice and no one is stopping you taking it.

The whole concept of "From each according to his ability, to each according his need" can goes back to "No man is an Island" by John Donne nearly 400 years ago, although it is there in the Means Test too.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sioni Sais:
And you Marvin, are free to decide for yourself to pay no tax at all. Just turn in your job today and you'll have no income that can be taxed. That's a free choice and no one is stopping you taking it.

This is true. And frankly, when I woke up at 6am on this grey Monday morning I briefly considered it!

quote:
The whole concept of "From each according to his ability, to each according his need" can goes back to "No man is an Island" by John Donne nearly 400 years ago, although it is there in the Means Test too.
Longevity is no guarantee of worth.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mr cheesy:
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
ell, Google's argument is that the shop is based in America, because that's where the coders are.

Factually incorrect - there are Google programmers working in many different places around the world. And, AFAIU, none in Bermuda where the corp is apparently registered for tax purposes.

Ok, I had missed the Bermuda connection. I withdraw my comments ....
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink.:

If you were taxing dividend not profit, then it would make sense to require some form of minimum dividend to be paid.

I am not saying this is a fully worked out idea, I was merely trying to think through a way of trying to create a system where maximising shareholder return did not automatically result in reducing the tax take. Also, taxing dividend side steps the issue of artificially created losses.

One thing I was wondering was whether it would be feasible to tax on the basis of return on investment rather than profit - for the reasons you describe.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
I can't think of any reason why business taxes and income taxes need to be comparable. Though, for a small business (especially the self-employed) where profits made effectively form the income for the owner(s) the line is blurred.

Well, yes, that's the reason. A lot of self-employed people look quite similar to employees. The existence of IR35 and so on is testament to this.

If all you had were big companies and workers, with nobody in the middle, then you could make your argument, but that's not the case. There's almost a continuum of economic activity between a normal employee on the one hand and a large company on the other. If no prophet's tax bill changes by a factor of two or three depending on the details of how he structures his paperwork, it suggests to me that there's a problem there.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
Well, yes, that's the reason. A lot of self-employed people look quite similar to employees. The existence of IR35 and so on is testament to this.

If all you had were big companies and workers, with nobody in the middle, then you could make your argument, but that's not the case. There's almost a continuum of economic activity between a normal employee on the one hand and a large company on the other. If no prophet's tax bill changes by a factor of two or three depending on the details of how he structures his paperwork, it suggests to me that there's a problem there.

This is all true - some people go to the same desk every day in the same building and are treated as self-employed rather than employed.

But this isn't the point I was making above, which was comparing the tax situation of someone who is self-employed and the same single person enterprise who has been incorporated (and pays themselves a dividend).

As a general point, I'd say that the way the British system is set up encourages everyone to be employing accountants to reduce their tax - and that this is entirely socially acceptable. Whilst accepting that the HMRC takes a dim view of contractors-who-are-really-employees, it is entirely normal for accountants to advise self-employed clients in some circumstances to incorporate to reduce NI and pay less tax on their dividends.

I'm not blaming accountants here, it is probably immoral not to tell their clients that it is possible to arrange their finances in a tax efficient way. And accountants get a bad stick when they're usually just trying to keep on top of a stupidly-complex tax system and idiotic clients who expect miracles. And yes, I accept that there are differences in terms of liability of being incorporated versus being a sole trader. Ultimately I think this is probably a small difference for many people who in practice are just working on their own in either model.

But I think this is a wider moral position. What does it say about us, as a society, when everyone who can looks for ways to reduce their tax?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
The consequences only constrain our choices to the extent that we care about them. There are plenty of people who do, in fact, earn a living through crime - and as long as they accept the risk of arrest and imprisonment as an occupational hazard they are free to do so.

So if the government were to decide what job you could do, and imprison anyone who did something other than their allocated job, then as long as you accept the risk of arrest and imprisonment as an occupational hazard you're free to do whatever job you like?
 
Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
I can't think of any reason why business taxes and income taxes need to be comparable. Though, for a small business (especially the self-employed) where profits made effectively form the income for the owner(s) the line is blurred.

Well, yes, that's the reason. A lot of self-employed people look quite similar to employees. The existence of IR35 and so on is testament to this.

If all you had were big companies and workers, with nobody in the middle, then you could make your argument, but that's not the case. There's almost a continuum of economic activity between a normal employee on the one hand and a large company on the other. If no prophet's tax bill changes by a factor of two or three depending on the details of how he structures his paperwork, it suggests to me that there's a problem there.

It is for this reason that I would advocate the rate at which a company pays tax as being dependent on their revenue, even though I don't agree with the likes of Nigel Lawson about that tax being levied on the profits chargeable to corporation tax (PCTCT).

i.e. if you have two companies who have a PCTCT of £50k, but one had £0.5m revenue and the other had £100m revenue, it doesn't seem right that they pay the same rate of tax.

Further to this, one of the sources of obfuscation is the disparity between the tax rules and financial reporting rules. If these two could be harmonised, then it would be a lot easier to see how a company's PCTCT is determined.

As an aside, when I was doing my accountancy training, I was talking to a senior manager whose work specialised in "high net worth individuals". I asked him if the amount he ever charged his clients for his advice was greater than the amount they saved in tax as a result of that advice. His response was to stick his middle finger up at me!
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
The consequences only constrain our choices to the extent that we care about them. There are plenty of people who do, in fact, earn a living through crime - and as long as they accept the risk of arrest and imprisonment as an occupational hazard they are free to do so.

So if the government were to decide what job you could do, and imprison anyone who did something other than their allocated job, then as long as you accept the risk of arrest and imprisonment as an occupational hazard you're free to do whatever job you like?
I suppose so, in the same way that every slave in history has been free to try to escape their situation. But it would be a pretty limited form of freedom. Would you want to live in such a society?
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:

i.e. if you have two companies who have a PCTCT of £50k, but one had £0.5m revenue and the other had £100m revenue, it doesn't seem right that they pay the same rate of tax.

Consider two shops. One sells staple goods in a mature, competitive market and has a wafer-thin profit margin on each item sold. The second sells a luxury good with a factor of two or so markup on each item sold, but makes few sales.

Both shops make the same profit. The bulk retailer has much more revenue. Why should the bulk merchant pay more tax?
 
Posted by no prophet's flag is set so... (# 15560) on :
 
Taxation is fascinating re small business. One company owns real property, i.e. buildings etc. It leases space to 2nd company which pays bills and receives income. Individual income is billed by 3rd company which pays people. In total dollars, my companies pay lots of tax. In percent of earnings, not so much. It got alot more profitable under our previous Conservative gov't.

The one that gets me is that because large corporations pay less tax now, they can set social policy via sponsorships. Thus we have a major telecom company funding institutional programs for mental health when the gap is clearly accessibilty to personal help. I am also concerned that universities are serving corporate interests as tax based funding has declined to less than 50% from more than 90%. It is unlikely that an endowed chair by a uranium company or bank wilk do other than support the industries for example.
 
Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:

i.e. if you have two companies who have a PCTCT of £50k, but one had £0.5m revenue and the other had £100m revenue, it doesn't seem right that they pay the same rate of tax.

Consider two shops. One sells staple goods in a mature, competitive market and has a wafer-thin profit margin on each item sold. The second sells a luxury good with a factor of two or so markup on each item sold, but makes few sales.

Both shops make the same profit. The bulk retailer has much more revenue. Why should the bulk merchant pay more tax?

A mature, competitive market has, by definition, high barriers to entry. So the bulk goods retailer is benefitting from a society that allows them to make a large turnover. That benefit should have a cost associated with it.

The other company in your example, is far less likely to have the economies of scale of the bulk retailer and is in a riskier market. If their goods are luxury, then they must have a higher price elasticity of demand. So they are inherently a less stable business, but a good economy needs entrepreneurial elements. It's a fine balance between encouraging such elements and allowing those same incentives to be misused by more established companies.

On top of this, if one supplier is providing staple goods and the other luxury, then it likely that the luxury goods provider is contributing through VAT, whereas the staple goods may be (depending on the precise nature of the hypothetical goods) zero rated, meaning the company claims back more in VAT than it pays out.

Of course, there are wider considerations, and these few reasons may not satisfy your objections, but that's off the top of my head.

The general principle I had in mind was that if a large corporation (say, Tesco) had huge revenues, but made very little profit it, I'm not sure it's right that they should effectively be rewarded for poor management.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:

The general principle I had in mind was that if a large corporation (say, Tesco) had huge revenues, but made very little profit it, I'm not sure it's right that they should effectively be rewarded for poor management.

A competitive market will reduce profits. If Tesco, say, has huge revenue but little profit, it isn't so much because of mismanagement as because of Sainsbury's, Asda, Aldi and Lidl. People who buy staples from supermarkets tend to be price sensitive.

People who frequent boutique cheesemongers, on the other hand, aren't. If they were price-driven, they'd be in the supermarket rather than buying hand-crafted speciality cheeses.
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:

The general principle I had in mind was that if a large corporation (say, Tesco) had huge revenues, but made very little profit it, I'm not sure it's right that they should effectively be rewarded for poor management.

A competitive market will reduce profits. If Tesco, say, has huge revenue but little profit, it isn't so much because of mismanagement as because of Sainsbury's, Asda, Aldi and Lidl. People who buy staples from supermarkets tend to be price sensitive.

People who frequent boutique cheesemongers, on the other hand, aren't. If they were price-driven, they'd be in the supermarket rather than buying hand-crafted speciality cheeses.

Tesco have had some specific issues recently but generally supermarkets operate on small margins for their core business.

AFZ
 
Posted by sharkshooter (# 1589) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink.:
What if shareholder dividend had to be calculated gross annually (you could not pay 0 dividend unless you were declared bankrupt), but paid net annually, after a percentage corporate tax e.g. 10% ? This doesn`t solve your geography problem but it removes the competition between tax and dividend.

Dividends are already paid after tax - because they are paid from retained earnings, which has already been taxed in the hands of the corporation. That is why shareholders pay less tax on dividends than employees do on salaries and wages.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I suppose so, in the same way that every slave in history has been free to try to escape their situation. But it would be a pretty limited form of freedom. Would you want to live in such a society?

You were maintaining that some forms of constraint aren't really constraints at all. The only principle I could see that determined which was which was whether they supported your argument.

I might not want to live in such a society (it depends on how well it actually embodies the slogan in question); I would prefer any reasonable approximation to a society in which large numbers of people are regularly unable to afford to feed their family properly.

In any case, if we're assuming that the government is genuinely meeting the criterion of 'from each according to his ability' (as opposed to some Stalinist dystopia that merely claims to do so) we can assume that the government is taking into account people's interests as part of its assessment of ability. Also, that the amount of work being done is being shared more evenly than in our society, and that the amount of unnecessary work is being cut, and that therefore people are doing less than forty hours per week. In which case,
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Longevity is no guarantee of worth.

Longevity is the foundation of the average rich person's wealth. Longevity of one's family wealth, of one's connections, one's company, etc. For all the rubbish of "personal" achievement, longevity is a primary factor.

quote:

From each according to his ability, to each according his need

It is so commonplace that it ceases to amaze me that so many Christians argue against these Christ like words.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
quote:
Originally posted by Doublethink.:
What if shareholder dividend had to be calculated gross annually (you could not pay 0 dividend unless you were declared bankrupt), but paid net annually, after a percentage corporate tax e.g. 10% ? This doesn`t solve your geography problem but it removes the competition between tax and dividend.

Dividends are already paid after tax - because they are paid from retained earnings, which has already been taxed in the hands of the corporation. That is why shareholders pay less tax on dividends than employees do on salaries and wages.
OTOH, I actually give up my time and the fruits of my labour to earn a wage. What do shareholders do? Typically a shareholder in one corporation is another corporation, but in the UK at any rate the majority of individual wealth invested in shares in inherited rather than earned.
 
Posted by Sipech (# 16870) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sioni Sais:
Typically a shareholder in one corporation is another corporation, but in the UK at any rate the majority of individual wealth invested in shares in inherited rather than earned.

The Office for National Statistics has some interesting figures for this. Over half of the UK stock market is owned by overseas investors, with UK individuals (who I assume are the heirs you refer to) owning 12% of the £1.7tn pot.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:
Over half of the UK stock market is owned by overseas investors, with UK individuals (who I assume are the heirs you refer to) owning 12% of the £1.7tn pot.

That is just direct holdings, include holdings via companies incorporated in the UK and that figure goes up to 46%. There will also be plenty of inherited wealth that owns shares via companies incorporated in other countries and often indirectly via investments in hedge funds and the like.

You can see an allusion to this here:

"The majority of shares by value are held in multiple-ownership pooled accounts"

and compare the statements about unit trusts (9%) and pension funds (3%).

[ 02. February 2016, 17:50: Message edited by: chris stiles ]
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:
Over half of the UK stock market is owned by overseas investors, with UK individuals (who I assume are the heirs you refer to) owning 12% of the £1.7tn pot.

That is just direct holdings, include holdings via companies incorporated in the UK and that figure goes up to 46%. There will also be plenty of inherited wealth that owns shares via companies incorporated in other countries and often indirectly via investments in hedge funds and the like.

You can see an allusion to this here:

"The majority of shares by value are held in multiple-ownership pooled accounts"

and compare the statements about unit trusts (9%) and pension funds (3%).

I guess the bottom line is that no one knows who owns these shares, and moreover no one's asking. Would it be rash to deduce that some "overseas investors" are our own dear "Non-Doms"?
 
Posted by no prophet's flag is set so... (# 15560) on :
 
There was a study in the 1970s in Dauphin, Manitoba which paid anyone living below the poverty line monthly cheques to boost their income, no questions asked. Single mothers could afford to put their kids through school and low-income families weren't scrambling to pay the rent each month.

Paid for via taxes. Only new mothers and teenagers worked substantially less. Hospital use declined 8.5%

So maybe fair taxation is that which guarantees everyone a minimum income, no questions asked. Link and Wikipedia link.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:
So what do shipmates think constitutes fair tax

Have read with interest so far. My tuppenceworth as follows:

Fairness is justice and justice is proportionality.

The difficulty seems to be that we have two models of government action, and therefore at least two ideas of what the tax we pay should be proportional to.

One model is that government is a way by which we buy collectively those services that it's harder to buy individually. Like roads, for example.

If you and your neighbours got together to buy widgets in bulk, then you'd expect that whoever organised the collective action would divide the total cost by the number of widgets delivered to come up with a net price per widget, and everyone would pay that price for as many widgets as they got. That's fair - payment for the scheme in proportion to the benefits that each person got from it.

Such a scheme would be something people choose to join in from reasonable self-interest.

If we complain that a small business pays more tax than a multinational but gets less benefit from government services, that's the sort of unfair that we're pointing to.

So if we pay for roads by a tax on motor fuel, so that mileage driven on those roads is highly correlated with - proportional to - the amount that each person pays, then that seems pretty fair. With any perceived unfairness being related to the ways that that correlation breaks down. (e.g. one vehicle may have similar fuel consumption but heavier axle weight than another and therefore "consume" more road maintenance resources for the same distance driven).

The other model is that government is a way of looking after other people. Don't think roads, think health service and social welfare payments.

If you and your neighbours got together to contribute to disaster relief following an earthquake in another country, you might indeed adopt the idea "From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." You might ask everyone to contribute a certain amount, proportional to their disposal income. And distribute the money in a way that gives more to those worse affected by the disaster. Two different sorts of proportionality, which therefore both seem eminently fair.

Such a scheme would be something people would join from concern for others rather than for what they get out of it themselves.

You might choose not to do it that way, for a number of reasons:

a) No-one deserves an earthquake, but some of the other conditions that charitable giving seeks to remedy might be to a greater or lesser extent under the control of those involved. In such cases your neighbours might want to give the money to those most deserving, those who are most completely innocent of bringing about their own problems.

b) taken literally, the principle assumes infinite scalability - that giving someone twice as much as money if their need is twice as great is achieving the same relative benefit for each. Where there is non-scalability - half a house or half a medical procedure may achieve nothing - it may be thought better to give a few people what they need rather than everyone a mere fraction.

c) it's not clear why in this example the collective has to specify a level of contribution rather than leaving everyone to give what they think fit.

As long as taxation is seen as contributions to a general fund which does everything, including both of these types of spending, it will never be seen as fair.

The only fair system is a road fund with charges based on road use, an education fund where everyone pays over their working life for the years for education that they've individually received, and similar separate funds, charged appropriately, for each element of government expenditure that is for the good of those paying. And then a social security fund for the relief of poverty which is for the good of others and where different notions of fairness therefore apply.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
The only fair system is a road fund with charges based on road use, an education fund where everyone pays over their working life for the years for education that they've individually received, and similar separate funds, charged appropriately, for each element of government expenditure that is for the good of those paying.

Which is clearly bollocks at the first examination, since everyone benefits from roads, whether they use them personally or not (since food and services are delivered down them), and everyone benefits from an educated workforce (since we all see a doctor at some point).

Putting the burden for paying for these things solely on a subset of individuals is the opposite of fair.
 
Posted by mr cheesy (# 3330) on :
 
Of course this is common Tory thinking - why should I pay for all those other buggers when I don't use schools, damage the roads, etc.

The problem is that any insurance broker can show you why this doesn't work. The only way that premiums can be affordable is when everyone pays a small amount for coverage (varying by risk). OK you might say that someone should have to pay back the investment the state has made individually in their education over a lifetime, but what about everyone else? Should someone only have a heart operation in their 60s if they have enough time left to pay back the operation costs?

And of course those who swallow this Tory garbage are the first in line to complain about [perceived] cuts to their healthcare (often when they've taken out far more than they've put in), to use the benefits of free public transport (not paid for), and depend on state pensions which are entirely paid for by working people.

And then they have the gall to say that the immigrants are causing the problem, when in reality those hard-working tax-payers are the only thing keeping them in slippers.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Unless, of course, those who are deemed to directly benefit pass those charges down the chain.

So, road hauliers pay more for the benefit of using roads, and therefore charge more to the people they move goods for. And, hence everyone pays more for home delivery of internet purchases and for their supermarket shop.

And, doctors get paid enough to pay off their debts for their education (which would be considerably more than the current tuition fees, and presumably should include everything from age 3 if we were being consistent). Those increased salary costs would then be offset by charging people who want to see their GP.

It would be "fair". But, it would also be a social disaster, undermining any element of social cohesion to be replaced by rampant individualism. And, it would be an injustice to the poor for whom the increase in costs would not be matched by reduced tax demands.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
It would be "fair". But, it would also be a social disaster, undermining any element of social cohesion to be replaced by rampant individualism. And, it would be an injustice to the poor for whom the increase in costs would not be matched by reduced tax demands.

The system I'm suggesting would divide the "public purse" into a set of smaller purses, and one of those - the social security fund - would (being about helping others rather than about buying services for oneself) operate on something like an ability/needs basis, being explicitly redistributive. Aiming for mercy as well as justice, if you will.

Such a system doesn't get around the need to decide the level or scale of that redistribution, which could be a lot or a little. The relative impact on different people of moving to such a system would therefore depend on the scale of redistribution before and the scale of redistribution after - it's not a characteristic of the system. All the system does is make the transactions more explicit.

I don't see why operating such a system should turn everyone into rampant individualists. Private spending is not personal spending - people spend part of their disposable income on their families and friends, on voluntary charitable donations, on kickstarting worthwhile endeavours, etc.

But I agree that the question of how to split the costs of a government service is an essentially divisive question. A zero-sum game. A society whose political discourse was entirely focussed on such questions, to the neglect of collective goals, could be said to lack social cohesion. This is something to get as near right as possible and move on from.

How is such a tax system - that makes it transparently obvious that everyone is paying their fair share and then that those who can are helping out those in need - socially divisive ?

quote:
hatless said:
The government is us.

What is mine is the school across the road, the police who guard the street, and the pharmacy with drugs for free or cheapish, as much as the stuff on my house insurance or the numbers in my bank account.

Tax is one of the ways we shift wealth around. Paying tax shouldn't be thought of as a loss.

The government should be us. Us acting collectively to do what we can't do individually.

But in practice it seems to degenerate into "Us and Them". Not only when We look at our pay packet and see what a huge slice of what We've earned They've decided to take away. But also when We think some project is a good idea and that They should pay for it.

That disconnect - the lack of perceived connection between the money going out and the valued government-provided services being received - fuels much dissatisfaction.

Without transparency, people are prey to all sorts of myths about on the one hand why we seem to pay so much and on the other hand why the government won't come up with the money to do what we think they obviously should do.

Much of the debt crisis of recent years was caused by governments borrowing to maintain the illusion that we can have both low taxes and a high level of services and welfare payments.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:

voluntary charitable donations

This is the problem with such schemes as you propose. Right now, we have the government involved and private, voluntary contribution and the need is not met. So voluntary contribution is neve going to be sufficient.
It is the lie by which conservative politics does a reverse Robin Hood.
 
Posted by alienfromzog (# 5327) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
Much of the debt crisis of recent years was caused by governments borrowing to maintain the illusion that we can have both low taxes and a high level of services and welfare payments.

You were doing quite well up to this point. The problem with the above statement is that (despite being oft repeated) it is simply and demonstrably untrue. For reference, I would highly recommend Mark Blyth's book - chapter 3, I think.

The problem with the rest of your argument, even though you put it well is that it doesn't work in the real world for 2 reasons that I can see.

1. People don't behave like that. The UK government introduced a gimic to give income tax payers a breakdown on what their money is spent on. The effect of this - which I am sure was the intention - is to make people think government is too big. Make Tax a burden rather than the price we pay for a civilized society. All the government spending data was in the public domain anyway. This is a form of propaganda - giving people BIG numbers (billions) without any context.
2. The government is a major actor in the economy. Government spending has big effects. By virtue of so-called multipliers it can be very beneficial to the wider economy. You can't label things as neatly as you say. For example there is pretty good evidence that the best way to protect many middle class jobs would be to increase benefits.*

AFZ

*happy to show my working.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Giving benefits reduces people being on benefits, charity can be cheaper than refusing to give. Need an example? Try Utah giving homes to the homeless. Not only less expensive than refusing to help, similar programmes have helped people turn there lives around and become productive payers of tax. And this happened in a region that makes Tories look like Marxists.

[ 07. February 2016, 17:08: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:

Much of the debt crisis of recent years was caused by governments borrowing to maintain the illusion that we can have both low taxes and a high level of services and welfare payments.

Nope, this has as much basis in fact as the MMR vaccine scare if you just want to go on debt levels in this country alone the debt/GDP ratio was lower at the start of the crisis than it was when Labor took power.

The crisis was caused by various unsustainable financial bubbles bursting.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Thank you ever so much, chris styles. Now you will have created the theory that taxes cause autism.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
But I agree that the question of how to split the costs of a government service is an essentially divisive question. A zero-sum game.

Actually, no, it is not a zero-sum game. There is evidence that solutions in which the richer contribute more than the poorer do, and are therefore closer to equality, result in more overall benefit. The rich do not lose as much as the poor gain.
Even in financial terms, the economy is stimulated by higher government spending (up to a point, but a point considerably higher than we're spending in the UK at the moment), which means that the zero-sum game does not apply.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
But I agree that the question of how to split the costs of a government service is an essentially divisive question. A zero-sum game.

Actually, no, it is not a zero-sum game. There is evidence that solutions in which the richer contribute more than the poorer do, and are therefore closer to equality, result in more overall benefit. The rich do not lose as much as the poor gain.

Hi Dafyd. Could you explain this a little more ? If we're talking about a spending programme (roads, education, whatever) that is of an agreed size and whose cost needs to be paid from taxes/charges in some way, it seems obvious that the first-order effect is that every €1 more that one person pays is €1 less that another has to pay. Is that not a zero-sum situation ?

Sure, there are second-round effects. But my understanding is that those have to do with how different groups of people behave if they have more or less money. If I spend my marginal income on imported consumer goods, my having to pay an extra €1 in taxes/charges doesn't hurt the economy here much at all. Whereas if you spend your marginal income on labour-intensive local services, then you having to pay €1 less in taxes/charges is a stimulus to the local economy because that € circulates. Is that what you're arguing ?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
The second-round effects are the effects.

Simply put: poor people spend their money, rich people save it. The more money poor people have, the more goods and services they buy. The more money rich people have, the more they save and invest in non-productive goods and services.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
A zero-sum game.

Actually, no, it is not a zero-sum game. There is evidence that solutions in which the richer contribute more than the poorer do, and are therefore closer to equality, result in more overall benefit. The rich do not lose as much as the poor gain.

Could you explain this a little more ? If we're talking about a spending programme (roads, education, whatever) that is of an agreed size and whose cost needs to be paid from taxes/charges in some way, it seems obvious that the first-order effect is that every €1 more that one person pays is €1 less that another has to pay. Is that not a zero-sum situation ?
If you're looking only at the first-order effects like that, then, yes, but that would be silly.

If a customer who lives at one end of the road drives down the road to the shop and buys things, then the shop has benefitted from the road without using the road in the first-order. So restricting calculations of costs to the first-order effects misses the point.

In addition, the financial transaction by which the customer buys things from the shop is not a zero-sum game. Nor is building and maintaining a road a zero-sum game.

There's other points to consider. If you're levying tolls or taxes for using the roads, at what level of generality are you levying tolls? The most option that best fulfils the criterion of only charging users at a first-order level is to toll for only the particular roads used. But the administrative costs and inconvenience might very well outweigh the 'fairness'. The time spent stopping at a tollbooth to pay might very weigh greater than the cost of the toll.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
The second-round effects are the effects.

Simply put: poor people spend their money, rich people save it. The more money poor people have, the more goods and services they buy. The more money rich people have, the more they save and invest in non-productive goods and services.

The main effect of putting more money in the pockets of those who have month left at the end of the money is that they spend more, stimulating demand and that acts as an economic multiplier, because those involved in producing the goods and providing the services also have more in their pay packets. A *very* beneficial effect of that, which Mr Osborne has missed consistently and spectacularly, is that extra wages generates extra tax for the Treasury. Zero-hours contracts and part-time jobs don't do that.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
The second-round effects are the effects.

Simply put: poor people spend their money, rich people save it. The more money poor people have, the more goods and services they buy. The more money rich people have, the more they save and invest in non-productive goods and services.

I find hard to believe that rich people commonly take money out of circulation by hiding it under the mattress. Doesn"t putting money into stocks and shares (or on deposit in banks which then loan it out to small businesses) lead to knock-on second-order benefits in the same way ?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Russ: I find hard to believe that rich people commonly take money out of circulation by hiding it under the mattress. Doesn"t putting money into stocks and shares (or on deposit in banks which then loan it out to small businesses) lead to knock-on second-order benefits in the same way ?
The problem is that it's becoming more and more difficult for the very rich to find out what to do with their money. Since the people on the lower end aren't earning more, they aren't buying more, so there isn't much money to be made in stocks or small businesses.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Maybe not cash in the mattress, but using excess wealth to buy works of art isn't really all that different (especially if it's then locked up in a vault somewhere).

If a small business needs a loan to expand then it's only going to convince a bank to lend that if they have a growing market - regardless of how many rich people put their money in the bank. If, on the otherhand, a large number of people had extra cash in their pocket and spent it on things then those small businesses would find their markets expanding and the banks would be happier to lend money - which also means they could afford to raise interest rates for savers, enticing the rich to put their money in the banks rather than invest in art.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
]I find hard to believe that rich people commonly take money out of circulation by hiding it under the mattress.

The flip side of a lack of consumer led growth is that the 'best' place for the rich to invest is assets - which lead to asset bubbles (Alan's point is technically correct, art is one very small sink - the bigger store of money becomes increasingly unsustainable property bubbles - see prices in London, Dubai and so on).

quote:
Doesn"t putting money into stocks and shares (or on deposit in banks which then loan it out to small businesses) lead to knock-on second-order benefits in the same way ?
To a point, however these businesses can only grow in response to customer demand, which means they are dependent on money in the pocket of consumers growing year on year, or they are effectively competing for a increased piece of a fixed pie.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Maybe not cash in the mattress, but using excess wealth to buy works of art isn't really all that different (especially if it's then locked up in a vault somewhere).

It is to the people they're buying it from.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Usually other very rich people, who use that money to buy another work of art from some other rich guy.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
I find hard to believe that rich people commonly take money out of circulation by hiding it under the mattress.

Case in point: Google. They make billions in profit. Do they pay tax in the country where they make their profit? No. Do they take their profit back to the US where they pay tax on it? No. Do they take their profit back to the US where they pay dividends on their shares with it? No.

They bury it in Bermuda, where it does precisely and exactly nothing. Money is sucked out of the system, and never recirculates.

"But Google's not a person," I hear you opine. True, but what Google does is a snapshot of what every other billionaire (and to a large extent, millionaire) is doing.

So, if the mattress is an off-shore account, yes: that's exactly what they do.
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

"But Google's not a person," I hear you opine.

SCOTUS/ Citizen's United would apparently opine otherwise.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cliffdweller:
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

"But Google's not a person," I hear you opine.

SCOTUS/ Citizen's United would apparently opine otherwise.
You can't hang Google.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
I find hard to believe that rich people commonly take money out of circulation by hiding it under the mattress. Doesn"t putting money into stocks and shares (or on deposit in banks which then loan it out to small businesses) lead to knock-on second-order benefits in the same way ?

It depends.

The attractiveness of an investment depends both on its return and also on its liquidity. Liquidity is the ease and speed with which you can disinvest, either because you need to spend the money now, or because you want to put it into something more attractive.
(A savings account that you can't withdraw money from without a month's notice is lower liquidity than a current account, which has lower liquidity than money under the mattress.)
While liquidity is attractive to investors, it is not economically useful. For a business to make use of an investment, it has to be able to count on the investment sticking around. The more it's able to rely on the investment - the less liquid the investment - the more it is able to use it constructively. The business can't do much with an investment if it might have to hand it back at an instant's notice at any time.

If there are lots of investors, each wielding comparatively little clout, that tips the investment market towards the needs of the businesses, meaning the push for liquidity is reduced. If there are few investors, each of whom has a lot of money at their disposal, that's an investor's market, which means that there's a large push for liquidity.

Another factor is that in an investor's market (a few investors each command a large slice of the available investable money) they can negotiate higher rates of returns. It is easier to get high rates of returns in the short-term by cutting costs, and at the extreme, stripping assets. (Growing income is more difficult and takes longer.) But cutting costs and stripping assets are not economically productive activities.
 
Posted by simontoad (# 18096) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by Adeodatus:
"From each according to their ability, to each according to their need." - Louis Blanc, 1839

...is probably the stupidest philosophy I've ever heard, because it incentivises people to maximise their needs while minimising their ability.
Ability does not equal whether one can be bothered to work; need does not equal want.
So if the individual cannot decide what his abilities and needs are, who can? Should the State decide what work we do and how much we will get paid for it? And in what world is that a better solution than the one we have now?
There are other things that act on individuals when they decide what actions to take in life. It's not all about the tax system. I find social status is quite a powerful motivator for some people, for example.

Please sir, we want some more.

[ 13. February 2016, 01:28: Message edited by: simontoad ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Motivation =\= success.
The laws of the conservation of wealth play against that rubbish.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Usually other very rich people, who use that money to buy another work of art from some other rich guy.

So how does a rich man buying a work of art from an artist, or from a middleman (a gallery or dealer), or from another collector (a private individual) stop the money from circulating ? Why is a poor man buying meat or beer from the producer, or from a supermarket or other retailer, any different ?

Seems to me that money circulates whatever you do with it. Unless you do nothing with it - maintain greater personal liquidity by holding more cash in your wallet (or elsewhere in the house). Or move it abroad in some way. Which presumably boosts the economy in whatever part of the globe you move it to ?
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Usually other very rich people, who use that money to buy another work of art from some other rich guy.

So how does a rich man buying a work of art from an artist, or from a middleman (a gallery or dealer), or from another collector (a private individual) stop the money from circulating ? Why is a poor man buying meat or beer from the producer, or from a supermarket or other retailer, any different ?
I'm struggling with the idea that you don't realise that there are exponentially more poor people than there are rich people.

Rich man buys painting worth £1million. 1 million poor people spend an extra £1 on their weekly shop.

It's not difficult. Really it's not.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Also, money circulating isn't the same as it getting spent on goods and services. Art dealers, of course, take a small fee for arranging the sale of works of art - fees that will end up in the pockets of consumers and the tax man. But the majority of the value of that work of art just circulates.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
There's an important economic sense in which the spending of money on artworks isn't considered circulation.

The velocity of circulation of money (AKA the velocity of money) is usually "the frequency at which the average unit of currency is used to purchase newly domestically-produced goods and services within a given time period." So except for new creations (surely a small fraction of the trades on the art market) the buying and selling of art for "investment" is just the exchange of one store of value for another, with no effect at all on GDP; sales of used goods aren't counted as production.

So for the purpose of trying to figure out how rich peoples' purchases affect economic activity, it seems we can ignore things like art. But we're still left with the question of what happens to the million pounds which are now in the hands of the rich person who sold the art...

[ 13. February 2016, 13:54: Message edited by: Dave W. ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Typically, a person selling one investment property will then put that money into another. There may be some transfer loss, but the bulk stays locked up. The rich don't stay rich by letting go of that money.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
I actually think that a lot of money of rich people is in banks — and it stays there. It isn't invested anywhere. In most industrial countries, interest rates are near zero. Banks don't want more money.

That's because the people on the middle and the poor end aren't spending more, so there's nowhere to invest.

The solution of course is for governments to raise taxes on the very rich and invest it. In crumbling infrastructure. In clean energy. Heck, even in building a base on the moon.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Did you pay no attention to the little recession we are still climbing out of? Banks with a lot of money flowing through them were deep into the problem.
It is true that many bank buildings don't have a lot of physical cash kept within, but money is their business. They make money with the money you store there, they make money with the money you invest through them.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: They make money with the money you store there, they make money with the money you invest through them.
Except they're not doing that now. If they were making money through investment, they'd offer higher interest rates in order to get more money to invest.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
lilBuddha: They make money with the money you store there, they make money with the money you invest through them.
Except they're not doing that now. If they were making money through investment, they'd offer higher interest rates in order to get more money to invest.
Not how it works. What banks want is to manage rich folks investments.
The average person doesn't keep enough in a bank to matter for shit. They do, however, constantly have their money flowing through the bank. And a snapshot of that is part of the bank's worth. The bank's perceived value is what they use to invest and grow. So your Nan's pennies sitting in a bank are nothing. But her pounds, reals, dollars flowing through it are worth something.
Simple calculation, compare your annual income v. the savings you have sitting untouched. You, LeRoc, might be an exception. But most people save a fraction of the money they make. But nearly every penny they do make goes into a bank before they spend it.

ETA: It helps to understand money is not a physical thing, but a perceived value.

[ 13. February 2016, 16:08: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
I'm reasonably certain that it is how it works. Before deregulation, banks needed to be able to (mostly) balance the books - their assets (cash deposited) were supposed to equal their liabilities (lendings).

At some point, their debts became assets and the cash deposits became liabilities. So they used their debts to leverage more debt, off the central banks and each other. The money we deposit with them is now a risk, because we can take it out, but they don't actually need our deposits any more: instead, what they want is our debt - our loans and financing and mortgages.

The banking crisis happened because the value of those debts was artificially inflated and traded amongst each other for more debt, until it was realised that the debt they were trading was worthless. The banks collapsed.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
I think Doc Tor has it. LilBuddha is talking gobbledigook.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
I think Doc Tor has it. LilBuddha is talking gobbledigook.

Doc Tor did not refute anything I said. He added to it.
I never said what I was describing was the sum total of the picture.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:

The banking crisis happened because the value of those debts was artificially inflated and traded amongst each other for more debt, until it was realised that the debt they were trading was worthless. The banks collapsed.

They bundled bad debt with "good" debt and gave the bundles the credit rating of the good debt. The ratio of bad to good increased to the point where it was no longer sustainable.

[ 13. February 2016, 16:35: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Typically, a person selling one investment property will then put that money into another. There may be some transfer loss, but the bulk stays locked up. The rich don't stay rich by letting go of that money.

In this scenario, though, there's still a million in cash out there - it's just in the hands of the seller of the last asset. It's not any more "locked up" than when it fell into the hands of the first rich person.

On bank balance sheets - here's an article describing the composition of bank assets and liabilities. These aren't really subject to change in the way Doc Tor suggests; an asset is either something the bank holds (like cash) or is owed (like an outstanding loan to a home or business owner, or a government bond) and a liability is something the bank owes (like the value of customer deposits or money the bank itself has borrowed from somewhere else.)

The balance sheet balances by definition; liabilities must equal assets plus shareholder equity, or (equivalently) shareholder equity is the excess of assets over liabilities. If the value of a loan the bank has made decreases (e.g. small business owner loses all the money and can't repay) the shareholder equity automatically decreases by the same amount; if that turns negative, the bank itself is bankrupt.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Typically, a person selling one investment property will then put that money into another. There may be some transfer loss, but the bulk stays locked up. The rich don't stay rich by letting go of that money.

In this scenario, though, there's still a million in cash out there - it's just in the hands of the seller of the last asset. It's not any more "locked up" than when it fell into the hands of the first rich person.

This conversation is shifting around a bit too much. An investment like a painting isn't the same as an investment in a stock market. But both of them keep money in higher economic circles. And that is the basic point.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
an asset is either something the bank holds (like cash) or is owed (like an outstanding loan to a home or business owner, or a government bond) and a liability is something the bank owes (like the value of customer deposits or money the bank itself has borrowed from somewhere else.)

The 'cash' that a bank holds is the profit they've made from lending other people's money, and that is a small fraction of the total 'assets', most of which is made up of debt.

So, yes. That's pretty much what I said.

It's not depositors who bring a bank down by suddenly demanding all their money back (though that eventually happens). It's that the bank suddenly finds itself with worthless debts.

Also, there is no 'good' debt: the worth of the debt is entirely dependent on the asset used to back it, which may go tits up at any time. It's always a gamble. It was once thought that property was a safe bet. Oh, how we laughed.

As a result, around £1 trillion was given to UK banks solely to prop up their balance sheets until the debts they held became assets again. It would have been far better for the economy and for people to have had that vast sum used to wipe out their debts.

That wouldn't have suited the banks, of course, so it didn't happen.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
an asset is either something the bank holds (like cash) or is owed (like an outstanding loan to a home or business owner, or a government bond) and a liability is something the bank owes (like the value of customer deposits or money the bank itself has borrowed from somewhere else.)

The 'cash' that a bank holds is the profit they've made from lending other people's money, and that is a small fraction of the total 'assets', most of which is made up of debt.

So, yes. That's pretty much what I said.

I think you're mixing up categories here. Cash on a balance sheet isn't necessarily profit, it's just the amount of cash the bank has at any given time. If I deposit $20 cash in my checking account at Bank of America today, they'd increase the cash amount in their assets column by $20, but they'd also increase the deposit amount in their liabilities column by $20. They'd clearly have more cash, but it doesn't represent any kind of profit. BoA had $582B in cash at the end of 2014, but their net income for the year was only $4.8B.
quote:
It's not depositors who bring a bank down by suddenly demanding all their money back (though that eventually happens). It's that the bank suddenly finds itself with worthless debts.

I agree - this is what I was attempting to describe in the last part of my previous post.
quote:
Also, there is no 'good' debt: the worth of the debt is entirely dependent on the asset used to back it, which may go tits up at any time. It's always a gamble. It was once thought that property was a safe bet. Oh, how we laughed.

If a "bad" debt is one that isn't paid back, it seems to me that a "good" debt is one that is paid back; by this view, most debts are good debts - i.e., debts that borrowers make good on.

On rich peoples' investments - actually, I think investing in art has a lot in common with most investment in stocks. Cash moves from buyer to seller, and the ownership of an asset moves the other way. In both cases the buyer hopes for future appreciation (and in the case of stocks, often for dividend income, though there are prominent exceptions) but the change in ownership doesn't have anything to do directly with economic activity (in the GDP sense).

In either case, the cash hasn't been locked up or destroyed - it's no less available for any other use than before the trades occurred.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
On rich peoples' investments - actually, I think investing in art has a lot in common with most investment in stocks. Cash moves from buyer to seller, and the ownership of an asset moves the other way. In both cases the buyer hopes for future appreciation (and in the case of stocks, often for dividend income, though there are prominent exceptions) but the change in ownership doesn't have anything to do directly with economic activity (in the GDP sense).

Actually, I would expect that people buying shares for dividend income would be very unusual. I've just received the dividend statement for the small number of shares I own in a de-mutualised building society. The share value is currently about £2.70, on which I have dividend of 3.7p per share (out of which the taxman took his share). So, someone buying shares would need to receive about 100 dividend payments before they've recovered the purchase price. Even with 2 or 3 dividend issues per year that would need to be a very long term investment.

Of course, it's much quicker to make money on shares by buying them cheap and selling them when the price goes up. It's just a risky way to make money.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Actually, I would expect that people buying shares for dividend income would be very unusual.

Doing exactly this is a known investment strategy known as "dividend dogs", and can often - in the long term - beat any rise in share price (since there are also falls in any portfolio).

If I was to invest in the stock market (I have very little capital, and therefore don't), it's what I'd do. Returns of the top dividend payers are in the region of 4-6%, which is currently much better than sticking it in a bank.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
That's probably why, with the exception of those shares I was given when my bank de-mutualised, my very limited investments have been through managed funds where I don't need to worry about such things.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
That's probably why, with the exception of those shares I was given when my bank de-mutualised, my very limited investments have been through managed funds where I don't need to worry about such things.

Something I suspect that many posters here have forgotten. A very high proportion of the monies invested by funds, lent by banks and used to finance trade are the superannuation funds and bank accounts created by the people pushing their trolleys around the supermarkets, sitting next to you on the train to work and so forth. They are much more responsible to the population at large than were the privately wealthy of past years.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
They are much more responsible to the population at large than were the privately wealthy of past years.

You'd like to think that. In reality, they don't give a shit, and just see us as blood bags to drain at will.

Almost every transaction we do, whether it's paying into a pension, or life insurance, or a mortgage, or a bond, or some other investment or loan is automatically top-sliced to the bank's benefit. If they don't think they're making enough money from us, they simply increase the charges.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
They are much more responsible to the population at large than were the privately wealthy of past years.

Oh no they are not just the opposite.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:

Something I suspect that many posters here have forgotten. A very high proportion of the monies invested by funds, lent by banks and used to finance trade are the superannuation funds

We already had this one page back, see Sipech's post.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

On rich peoples' investments - actually, I think investing in art has a lot in common with most investment in stocks.



See my previous point about assets and asset bubbles.

quote:

In either case, the cash hasn't been locked up or destroyed - it's no less available for any other use than before the trades occurred.

Except that as a greater proportion of money flows into inflating assets rather than the pockets of consumers we end up with asset bubbles and debt crisis' (as some sectors over-borrow and then are unable to grow).
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

actually, I think investing in art has a lot in common with most investment in stocks. Cash moves from buyer to seller, and the ownership of an asset moves the other way.

There is a difference - having a ready market in its shares and a decent valuation is useful for a company if it wishes to raise funds by an additional equity offering, for example.

By contrast, the fact that a picture painted by some dead guy sold for a large sum of money is completely irrelevant to anyone who doesn't own a dead-guy picture or wish to purchase a dead-guy picture.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Doc Tor:
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
They are much more responsible to the population at large than were the privately wealthy of past years.

You'd like to think that. In reality, they don't give a shit, and just see us as blood bags to drain at will.

Almost every transaction we do, whether it's paying into a pension, or life insurance, or a mortgage, or a bond, or some other investment or loan is automatically top-sliced to the bank's benefit. If they don't think they're making enough money from us, they simply increase the charges.

And who are these banks? The capital for most came originally from the super-wealthy of the day, then trickled down. But since WW II there have been enormous changes. The majority of the shareholding now is by such bodies as your superannuation fund. Chris Stiles reminds us that Sipech made this point pages ago. Most seem to have forgotten that.

The link lilBuddha gives does not work for me, but any organisation where the ultimate funding is as wide spread as it now is, is much more responsible to the wider community than in the days when it came from Boston Brahmins, or the Ford Motor Company was owned virtually entirely by the Ford family.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Chris Stiles reminds us that Sipech made this point pages ago. Most seem to have forgotten that.

I think you should read that link again - which kind of undermines your point even before you get to the problems of accountability raised in previous posts [*] - 54% of UK shares are held by entities outside the UK, a lot of the rest is held by hedge funds (pension and insurance funds make up 3 and 6% respectively, unit trusts are another 9%).

[*] Activist groups that go after mutual funds are a thing - but not particularly prevalent outside the US.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
And who are these banks? The capital for most came originally from the super-wealthy of the day, then trickled down. But since WW II there have been enormous changes.

All the statistics say otherwise. The top 1% own just as much wealth (in the US) as they did in 1922. Globally, the top 1% own fully one half of the world's wealth. We are going backwards in terms of wealth equality.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

actually, I think investing in art has a lot in common with most investment in stocks. Cash moves from buyer to seller, and the ownership of an asset moves the other way.

There is a difference - having a ready market in its shares and a decent valuation is useful for a company if it wishes to raise funds by an additional equity offering, for example.
But this isn't especially relevant to the question of "what happens to the money when a rich person buys stock". I haven't seen statistics of the volume of FPOs (follow-on public offerings) but I'm pretty sure it's tiny compared to the total volume of trades. For example: the number of GE shares outstanding increased by 70 million in the year to the end of 9/15, but the total volume traded was nearly 10 billion shares - about 140 times as much.

When a rich person (or anyone) buys stock, nearly all the time the cash is just going to the previous owner of existing shares. The money isn't going to the company for economically productive investment (like buildings or equipment), but neither is it "locked up" as a result of the trade.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:

The link lilBuddha gives does not work for me,

The link I provided was to an article about overdraft fees and how they are a multi-billion pound/dollar industry. They intentionaly structure fees to generate revenue. Let us take overdraft fees. Where they can, banks will arrange withdrawals to maximise those fees.
Say you have 100 in your account. And use your card for the following amounts. 5, 25, 10, 20, and 15 for total of 75. You then use a your card for 50. For a total of 130. All the charges present to the account the same day. This should be a single fee penalty.
Instead, the bank re-arranges them to process the largest first. This results in your account being assessed 3 overdraft fees for the same amount being withdrawn from your account on the same day. Those affected are those who can least afford to be affected.
This is but one example, and is perhaps the most egregious.
Could you provide some evidence that banks are on our side? Banks are less likely to be owned by families, as are large corporations. Why, even we peasants can own stock. But who do you think the directors of those institutions listen to? Whose welfare do they have in mind? Henry down at the pub who proudly owns 50 shares or the interests who own 500,000?

[ 14. February 2016, 21:43: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Most likely to the managers of the fund into which Henry and his employer pays his superannuation money.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Most likely to the managers of the fund into which Henry and his employer pays his superannuation money.

"Insurance companies held an estimated 6% and pension funds an estimated 3% by value at the end of 2014, continuing the downward trends in these sectors seen in recent years."
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
What I can't understand is the manner in which motives are being attributed to these impersonal bodies. By and large, they are not owned by the senior staff, although they may have some shareholdings as a part of their remuneration. The directors fall into the same category. Here at least, with substantial money by govt policy directed into superannuation for employees, the major movers are ultimately on behalf of ordinary workers.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
This is a misunderstanding on a par with attributing benign motives to malaria-carrying mosquitoes, simply because they bite a lot of people.

Governments encouraging people to take out private pensions is - without a very high degree of regulation and standards (which we don't have) - is just opening another feeding channel for the financial industry. for most moderate savers, fees and charges reduce the size of the pot you end up with at the end by over half.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Which impersonal bodies do you mean?

If it's pension funds then they have a clear aim - to maximise returns to provide cash to members on retirement. Insurance schemes are similar. Also investment funds (in the UK, ISAs and similar) exist to grow for the benefit of those who have invested in them. There will be particular features of each individual scheme that will direct the choices fund managers make to meet those demands (eg: whether a scheme has an ethical policy against investing in some industries, or for investing in others, etc), but overall their purpose, their motive, is defined.

It's the personal investors that may be harder to pin down in terms of motive. Why do some people hold onto the shares received when building socities demutualised, and others sold them on as quickly as possible? Do people with the option of buying shares choose those with highest dividends, those with what htey expect to be biggest chance of significant increase in value, because they want to support a particular company, or maybe get to be at the company AGM and have a say in the way it's run?
 
Posted by cliffdweller (# 13338) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Which impersonal bodies do you mean?

If it's pension funds then they have a clear aim - to maximise returns to provide cash to members on retirement. Insurance schemes are similar. Also investment funds (in the UK, ISAs and similar) exist to grow for the benefit of those who have invested in them.

Would that it were as clean as that.

The fact is, these investment vehicles are managed by people, and those people may or may not have other motives-- including their own self-interest. Many, if not most, exist as much to create wealth for the managers as they do for the investors. One way you'll see this is with lots and lots of trading that creates marginal returns for the investor which but lots of income in the form of transaction fees for the fund manager-- often the transaction fees being greater than any increased revenue from the trade. There are ways around that, of course, but it goes to the point that it's not all rosy altruistic investment-helpers.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Aye, nothing is simple. But there are checks in the system. A financial institution where trading practices increase profits for the firm but result in lower returns for investors compared to similar products offered by other institutions will lose customers as investors choose the products with the better record in gains for them.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Aye, nothing is simple. But there are checks in the system. A financial institution where trading practices increase profits for the firm but result in lower returns for investors compared to similar products offered by other institutions will lose customers as investors choose the products with the better record in gains for them.

Will they? Investing is gambling and gamblers don't tend to truly see odds as much as they do potential reward. And there are always more suckers, erm, investors being born.
 
Posted by Doc Tor (# 9748) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Aye, nothing is simple. But there are checks in the system. A financial institution where trading practices increase profits for the firm but result in lower returns for investors compared to similar products offered by other institutions will lose customers as investors choose the products with the better record in gains for them.

Given that most people are saving for their pensions for 30-40 years, and the costs of closing one pension, opening another, and transferring the money between them are so punitive as to virtually wipe out any gains made, no one I know has ever changed providers midstream.

When we got a mortgage, we opened an endowment. We closed it five years back when it had eight years left to run, because we discovered that we were effectively paying them to lose us money. There was no mis-selling as such, just simple greed and/or incompetence. The company involved seemed to be determined to pay everyone who worked for them out of their clients' money before considering their clients.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Pensions are one small part of the market. Another example might be ISAs. Again, it would be unusual to cash in an ISA to reinvest elsewhere, but if you get another wad of cash you want to invest it can go elsewhere. If your financial advisor tells you that 80% of the market has performed better than the fund you currently have invested in, will you add to it or take his advise to put your next investment in one of the other funds? A fund manager is going to need to take on new investments to maintain a long-term revenue stream, and that isn't going to happen if he can't present his products as being at least comparable to the competition.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Aye, nothing is simple. But there are checks in the system. A financial institution where trading practices increase profits for the firm but result in lower returns for investors compared to similar products offered by other institutions will lose customers as investors choose the products with the better record in gains for them.

Will they? Investing is gambling and gamblers don't tend to truly see odds as much as they do potential reward. And there are always more suckers, erm, investors being born.
And, a lot of people invest very cautiously. My financial advisor spent a lot of time working out what products best fitted my requirements - which included how much of a risk taker I was (not very!), so my ISA portfolio contains a fairly safe balance of UK shares, non UK shares, government bonds and cash. I could have gone for higher risk options, with more shares and less cash/bonds, or vice versa. Each individual transaction carries a fairly high risk, but for a fund investing in a range of shares it is possible to minimise the impact of one of the transactions going belly up (though, it also means you water down the benefit of shares in a company going through the roof).
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
And, a lot of people invest very cautiously.

Yes, some do.
There are also many people who place their monies into a retirement fund and trust the sales pitch they first received. One must take an active role beyond selecting a competent adviser.
But, no matter how thoughtful and cautious, any investment has risk.
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:

Each individual transaction carries a fairly high risk, but for a fund investing in a range of shares it is possible to minimise the impact of one of the transactions going belly up (though, it also means you water down the benefit of shares in a company going through the roof).

But what fund strategy is safest changes. Indexed funds, once sold as nearly bulletproof, have proven susceptible to failure.
A large risk is will your fund be right-side up when you wish to retire?
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Which impersonal bodies do you mean?

If it's pension funds then they have a clear aim - to maximise returns to provide cash to members on retirement. Insurance schemes are similar. Also investment funds (in the UK, ISAs and similar) exist to grow for the benefit of those who have invested in them. There will be particular features of each individual scheme that will direct the choices fund managers make to meet those demands (eg: whether a scheme has an ethical policy against investing in some industries, or for investing in others, etc), but overall their purpose, their motive, is defined.

It's the personal investors that may be harder to pin down in terms of motive. Why do some people hold onto the shares received when building socities demutualised, and others sold them on as quickly as possible? Do people with the option of buying shares choose those with highest dividends, those with what htey expect to be biggest chance of significant increase in value, because they want to support a particular company, or maybe get to be at the company AGM and have a say in the way it's run?

I agree with you - the funds are legal persons but not natural, is the point I was making.

As to Doc Tor - it is not encouragement, it is compulsory for employers to pay a minimum contribution for superannuation. At the moment, it's just under 10% of salary. An employee is encouraged by taxation benefits also to contribute. Being self-employed, I can choose my own arrangements, but I must make payments for my secretary.
 
Posted by Ricardus (# 8757) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Will they? Investing is gambling and gamblers don't tend to truly see odds as much as they do potential reward. And there are always more suckers, erm, investors being born.

Well, there's a crucial sense in which investment isn't gambling. The average return for a gambler will always be zero, if there are no overheads and no house, or negative. Conversely in the long-term stocks have not only risen on average, but risen more than the average of any other investment.

This is why sticking pins randomly into the stock market listings is a viable investment strategy - provided you have enough pins and the distribution is truly random, you should get the market average, and in the long term this should be a positive number.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ricardus:
in the long-term stocks have not only risen on average, but risen more than the average of any other investment.

In the long term, stock markets have risen, not every single stock.
In the long term markets have risen, but inside that long term there are dips. And if you need you money during one of those dips, you are SOL.
Investing is gambling. Yes, careful management and a reasoned strategy can certainly increase your odds, but odds they still are.
Of course, the alternative is to save enough money that its decreasing value does not bring it to below what you will need. And this is not something attainable for a sizable portion of the populations.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Whipping back to a comment above from Sioni Sais that you cannot hang Google. Perfectly true, but like many truths it's only part-way there. Even the most barbaric of the US states that retains the death penalty no longer hangs people. In the same way as those states have now tried othr methods, Google can be executed, not by hanging, but by the appointment of an administrator followed by subsequent liquidation and ultimate de-registration.Just as dead as McVeigh, not hanged either.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
In the long term, stock markets have risen, not every single stock.
In the long term markets have risen, but inside that long term there are dips. And if you need you money during one of those dips, you are SOL.

Which is an important qualifier in itself - the US market took nearly 25 years to recover from the crash of 1929 - so depending on where you invested and cashed out you would have got differing results as an individual investor in the index.

The second qualifier is that we are looking at a stretch of economic history that reflects a tiny part of human history, and the indexes we pick have a flavor of survivorship bias about them - at the turn of the 20th century, Argentina and/or Germany would have seemed like good bets for the next century and both went on to experience catastrophic financial shocks - which would have made them dicier investments on the part of an individual investor.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

When a rich person (or anyone) buys stock, nearly all the time the cash is just going to the previous owner of existing shares. The money isn't going to the company for economically productive investment (like buildings or equipment), but neither is it "locked up" as a result of the trade.

That was my sense of it - that money circulates regardless.

But having shot down the idea that redistribution boosts the economy, presumably there are other ways in which a tax system can be designed to support economic growth for the benefit of all ?

Moving on from "fair tax" to "good tax" more generally ?
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
But having shot down the idea that redistribution boosts the economy

Who shot it down? I seem to have missed it crashing in a small fireball, quite the opposite in fact (unless you mean redistribution that takes from the poor to give more to the rich).

Economies (at least, modern western economies) are boosted by people spending money on goods and services. Anything which puts money in the hands of people who are going to spend it will boost the economy. So, adjusting tax thresholds and levels to increase the take-home pay of lower income workers (even if that is at the expense of the take home pay of higher earners) will boost the economy. Spending money on schemes that employ people to bring wider benefits to society (construction of infrastructure is a claasic example) boosts the economy - both by taking people out of the unemployment line and giving them a wage to spend, and through the benefit of whatever job they have. Spending more money on education (so that, longer term, there is a skilled workforce) and health (so that the current workforce spends less time sick) boost the economy.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
It's fair to say that money "just circulates" but the people involved can change and the pace at which money circulates can change too.

If more people receive money then prosperity is shared out and the tax base grows. Moreover, if money moves faster, as a consequence of more people buying goods and paying for services, which increases demand for goods and services, then the economy grows.

I'm not sure how often this needs to be stated.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Russ:
But having shot down the idea that redistribution boosts the economy, presumably there are other ways in which a tax system can be designed to support economic growth for the benefit of all ?

I am not seeing how Dave W's point has shot down the idea that redistribution boosts the economy. Indeed, I rather think his point supports the idea, in that money circulating between the already wealthy does not stimulate any new production.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
For what it's worth (and IANAE, i.e. I am not an economist) I think my point (such as it is) is just that buying financial assets (or art) doesn't make a difference one way or the other as far as real economic activity is concerned.

But that still leaves open the question of what happens to the cash the rich person receives (either directly or from another person in exchange for an asset), and what kind of activity could be fairly described as "locking it up"?

One straightforward (if unlikely) example would be actually storing physical cash in a safe. In this case, Scrooge McDuck has amassed a substantial claim to goods and services, but he's withholding it - current economic activity suffers as a result.

Depositing it in a bank doesn't seem to be the same thing; banks keep a small fraction of the cash they receive in vaults for daily operations, but their main purpose for taking deposits is to make interest-bearing loans. (If they buy financial assets, that's irrelevant to productive economic activity for the same reason as before.) If the loan is for personal consumption or to start or expand a business, the money supports economic activity. (If it's for a residential mortgage on an existing home, that's not a productive economic activity in the GDP sense, but providing financing so people can buy homes doesn't necessarily sound like a nefarious way for rich people to employ their money.)

So for the most part it seems to me that money received by rich people should get spent one way or another; I don't see a drag on the economy due to a "locking up" mechanism. There are plenty of other arguments for why having a high level of income inequality is bad, but low growth doesn't seem to be a persuasive one.

(One potential exception - during a recessionary period like 2008-2010 when large numbers of people and businesses are trying to cut spending and increase savings at the same time that banks are sitting on cash and afraid to lend, a fiscal stimulus directed towards the poor would seem more effective than one aimed at the rich since the former are compelled to consume where the latter aren't.)
 
Posted by RuthW (# 13) on :
 
The poor are always compelled to spend more than the rich. Poor people typically spend all of the money they make, because they have to. Rich people don't.

I've seen article after article saying that one of the main reasons the current economic recovery has been so sluggish is that workers haven't benefited from it in the form of higher wages and so haven't spent money, which slows our consumer-driven economy. Naturally, I can't dig one up at the moment, but I'll post a link when I find one.
 
Posted by RuthW (# 13) on :
 
Robert Reich interview on PBS:

quote:
... no economy can continue to function when the vast middle class and everybody else don’t have enough purchasing power to buy what the economy is capable of producing without going deeper and deeper into debt. Seventy percent of the entire economy is basically consumer spending. And if consumers don’t have the wherewithal to spend because all the money’s going to the top, and the people at the top only spend a very small fraction of what they earn, then the economy is almost inevitably destined to slow.

 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:


So for the most part it seems to me that money received by rich people should get spent one way or another; I don't see a drag on the economy due to a "locking up" mechanism. There are plenty of other arguments for why having a high level of income inequality is bad, but low growth doesn't seem to be a persuasive one.

You're right, it wasn't a drag on the economy. On the other hand it doesn't contribute one jot to economic growth. In the last few years Britain has seen increased income inequality and little or no economic growth.

[ 19. February 2016, 09:09: Message edited by: Sioni Sais ]
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by RuthW:
Robert Reich interview on PBS:
quote:
... no economy can continue to function when the vast middle class and everybody else don’t have enough purchasing power to buy what the economy is capable of producing without going deeper and deeper into debt. Seventy percent of the entire economy is basically consumer spending. And if consumers don’t have the wherewithal to spend because all the money’s going to the top, and the people at the top only spend a very small fraction of what they earn, then the economy is almost inevitably destined to slow.

I've seen similar things, but I'm not convinced this explains slow growth (outside of specific contractionary conditions) and I'd like more details about how this is supposed to work. What is it that the rich do with their money which doesn't get translated into economic activity? (I'm not saying there isn't an answer - I just haven't seen one yet.)

Also, there are reputable, leftish economists are skeptical about the relationship between inequality and low growth - e.g. Paul Krugman:
quote:
I’ve been using the case of research on inequality and growth as an example of an issue where liberals need to be careful not to let wishful thinking drive their conclusions; it would fit perfectly with our world view if inequality were not just a bad thing but also bad for the economy, which is a reason to bend over backwards to avoid accepting that conclusion too easily.
[...]
It’s important to realize that the absence of any clear relationship is a big win for progressives: right-wingers always claim that any attempt to reduce inequality will hurt the feelings of job creators and kill growth, but there’s not a hint of that problem in the data. But not much evidence that failure to reduce inequality kills growth, either. And I personally am making an effort not to be greedy — not to claim that a drive against inequality, which I view as crucially important for social and political reasons, is also the cure for lots of other things.


 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

I've seen similar things, but I'm not convinced this explains slow growth (outside of specific contractionary conditions) and I'd like more details about how this is supposed to work. What is it that the rich do with their money which doesn't get translated into economic activity?

Of course it gets translated into economic activity of some kind - the question is what kind. Additionally, the speed at which moves is important - money funnelled into a series of asset bubbles can move quite slowly, whilst only really generating fractional service fees (paid out in wages to the managers and so on).

Additionally, longer term economic growth in this era is really driven by innovation in consumer goods - and innovation being expensive, it tends to rely on the mass market.

[ 19. February 2016, 12:43: Message edited by: chris stiles ]
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

I've seen similar things, but I'm not convinced this explains slow growth (outside of specific contractionary conditions) and I'd like more details about how this is supposed to work. What is it that the rich do with their money which doesn't get translated into economic activity?

Of course it gets translated into economic activity of some kind - the question is what kind.
OK, what's inferior about the "kind" of economic activity supported by rich people's spending?
quote:
Additionally, the speed at which moves is important - money funnelled into a series of asset bubbles can move quite slowly, whilst only really generating fractional service fees (paid out in wages to the managers and so on).

On the contrary, money used to purchase financial assets moves nearly instantaneously. One moment rich person A has cash and rich person B has stocks; seconds later, their situations are reversed. The cash is still as available to support productive economic activity as it would be in the hands of poor person C; the stock purchase did nothing to slow that down.
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

On the contrary, money used to purchase financial assets moves nearly instantaneously. One moment rich person A has cash and rich person B has stocks; seconds later, their situations are reversed. The cash is still as available to support productive economic activity as it would be in the hands of poor person C;

[Ignoring for a moment the fact that asset bubbles in recent years have typically been in commodities and property rather than stocks] How does the cash get into the hands of C, you appear to have handwaved over that step.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:

On the contrary, money used to purchase financial assets moves nearly instantaneously. One moment rich person A has cash and rich person B has stocks; seconds later, their situations are reversed. The cash is still as available to support productive economic activity as it would be in the hands of poor person C;

[Ignoring for a moment the fact that asset bubbles in recent years have typically been in commodities and property rather than stocks] How does the cash get into the hands of C, you appear to have handwaved over that step.
I can't have handwaved over a step to an endpoint I never proposed. I'm saying I haven't heard an explanation for why rich people's income does less to support economic growth than poor people's income.

[You can ignore the exact nature of the asset for more than a moment - in each case, the cash is transferred from the new owner to the previous owner nearly instantaneously.]
 
Posted by chris stiles (# 12641) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
[QB]
I'm saying I haven't heard an explanation for why rich people's income does less to support economic growth than poor people's income.

Because they spend less than poor people would in aggregate. Their excess income being used to increase over time their share of economic assets (of which the most obvious years has been property) which they are then able to use to further increase their income via rent seeking.
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by chris stiles:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
[QB]
I'm saying I haven't heard an explanation for why rich people's income does less to support economic growth than poor people's income.

Because they spend less than poor people would in aggregate. Their excess income being used to increase over time their share of economic assets [snip]
That's just it - I don't see how the excess income is "used" to buy assets, in the aggregate sense. In aggregate, rich person A and rich person B haven't used rich person A's income to buy assets - and that seems to be the case for nearly all transfers of assets.
 
Posted by Russ (# 120) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sioni Sais:
It's fair to say that money "just circulates" but the people involved can change and the pace at which money circulates can change ..

..if money moves faster, as a consequence of more people buying goods and paying for services, which increases demand for goods and services, then the economy grows.

I'm not sure how often this needs to be stated.

You're right. The money may well move on faster.

And over the part (half ?) of the economic cycle where growth is held back by lack of demand, then such an increase in velocity will indeed help to grow the economy.

Conversely, over that part of the economic cycle where the demand for goods is running ahead of the supply, and growth in production is held back by shortage of credit for investment, taking away people's savings to boost the spending of others would seem counterproductive.

Not so much a case of needing to say it often, more a case of needing to distinguish a valid economic argument - velocity of money - from various less-valid propositions.
 


© Ship of Fools 2016

Powered by Infopop Corporation
UBB.classicTM 6.5.0