Thread: Homosexual relations and "otherness" Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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It's been almost two years since the last thread I started on homosexuality and time to see if I've recovered enough to start another one.
On the Vicky Beeching thread, Starlight quoted Robert Gagnon, regarded apparently as the best exegete of the conservative view on homosexuality, saying this of Beeching: quote:
Her error lies in thinking that she can rectify any deficit in her feminine self by absorbing in another woman what she perceives to be lacking in herself.
DISCLAIMER: in an effort to pre-empt the bile that usually follows the mention of Gagnon's name here, I'm not seeking to defend him (and certainly not that personal attack). I'd never heard of him before plumbing the depths of DH. But it seems to me he is probably the best exponent of the kind of views prevalent in the wider sea I'm swimming in.
Starlight describes Gagnon's statement as "psychobabble"; it certainly isn't exegesis. But it does sort of resonate with a concern I have (had?) intuitively, as expressed by me (responding to orfeo on the incest thread) thus: quote:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Given that there are studies indicating that same-sex couples get on better with each other in a number of respects and this is probably because they are more similar to each other, it's hard to see why one would prefer difference (...)
I don't know about 'preferring', but I think 'otherness' is an important ingredient, and one that biology goes at least some way - I do not say the only way - to providing, out of the box as it were.
Again, Gagnon was not exegeting in that quote. "Otherness" is not mentioned in it explicitly, but I get the feeling that he might be arguing with "otherness" in mind.
Could it be that in the beginning, we are presented with Adam and Eve to embody "otherness" (as well as similarity) in relationships? Is "otherness" important? And if it is important, how important is biological gender in contributing to it?
I'm honestly trying to think things through here (with your help), not defend a position. I can no longer content myself with being "homosexually agnostic"; this issue is coming to find me, I am certain of it.
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
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I think there is far more variation of persons within each gender than there is between them. My skills do, in many ways, complement my wife's. The differences do not, however, run along the lines of stereotype - my wife is better with tools, DIY, electronics, while I'm better at cooking. On the other hand I deal with money and my wife does the bulk of the laundry. Our complementarity doesn't really have a lot to do with gender, beyond the fact that I'm only attracted to women (my wife has a broader interest), it has to do with our individual traits and characteristics.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Yes, differences and complementarity do not fall exclusively or perhaps even predominantly along gender lines. Some straight couples are destructively fusional.
Nevertheless, there in Genesis as in life, we have Adam and Eve, the two different genders, leaving, cleaving, all that. Assuming we think the text has something to say to us today, what might it be saying?
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
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Eutychus,
The teaching of genesis is God creating the universe. Parable, not science. If one sticks to the literal, then incest is the Bible's preferred method of procreation.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
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Eutychus,
I've seen some quite reasonable people (eg Alistair) struggle over the years with this idea. Some people hold to a sort of "complementarian" theology, where the woman and man are both thought to add something essential to the relationship by virtue of their masculinity and femininity, with the two together being complementary. The reaction of such theology to the existence of same-sex relationships is to take the view that the relationship is going to be "missing out" on either masculinity or femininity by having two lots of the same thing and none of the other. This is often expressed as the idea that it's like marrying the "self" (ie the same gender) rather than the "other" (ie the other gender).
And that all sounds reasonable to a lot of people. The thing is though, once you actually look at empirical reality, you realize that same-sex relationships work just fine. Studies seem to consistently find that gay couples are happier than straight couples. They report being more satisfied, not less satisfied, with their relationships than straight couples on average.
And if you ask psychologists who study relationships they will tell you that this is not surprising, because one of the best predictors of successful relationships is similarity. The more similar two people are, the better they can empathize with each other - the better they understand the other person's point of view, the better they realize what the other person is feeling, the better they understand what the other person is going through and what they really want. And empathy turns out to be key to success in relationships, because it leads to better resolutions of disputes and less disputes in general. For this reason it's generally best to marry someone (gay or straight) whom you have a lot in common with, not simply to give you more activities to do together, but because you'll get on better and have a more successful relationship. Also the sex tends to be better in same-sex relationships (especially for women) because women know what women like and guys know what guys like.
There's a famous book whose title has become a proverb (in English at least) titled "Men are from Mars, Women are from Venus". This proverb refers to the fact that the differences between how men and women think are commonly a source of strife in relationships due to miscommunication and problems with empathy. A common stereotypical example that is often used to depict miscommunication between the sexes in straight relationships is when woman gets upset by something the man does that is inconsiderate, the man after some time eventually notices she's upset and asks her what's wrong, and she replies "well if you can't work it out, I'm not going to tell you" and stalks off in a huff leaving the man scratching his head before rolling his eyes and muttering "women" in a disgusted tone.
So the whole idea of masculinity and femininity being complimentary and necessary in relationships is just wrong in practice. As a result, psychologists who deal with scientific realities don't bother to use words like "otherness" etc, because all these ideas don't actually correspond to anything true or real. That's why I labelled it "pscyhobabble" - it's an attempt to do psychoanalysis in a way that is not based on evidence.
The whole notion of "otherness" I find to be more than a bit silly anyway, because if I as a guy have a relationship with another guy then he is "the other". He is not me, and to me I am the self and he is the other. By marrying a guy and not a girl I am still marrying another person, I am definitely not marrying myself. So to be told that there is no "otherness" in my relationship would make me roll my eyes, of course there is plenty of otherness. Also, in practice, some girls are quite masculine and some guys are quite effeminate, and people's interests and hobbies don't often perfectly align with stereotypical gender roles - there is much more difference within the genders than between them - marrying someone of the same sex doesn't necessarily mean you're marrying someone similar to you and marrying someone of the opposite sex doesn't necessarily mean marrying someone very different to you.
From a purely theological point of view, I don't at all accept the notion that anything in the creation account is meant to deliberately imply that "otherness" is important. God's motivation for making Eve female is obvious (he wanted them to have children to populate the world) and is not portrayed as psychological (nowhere does it suggest God was thinking 'now I better make Eve female because psychologically Adam will need to have 'otherness' in his relationship). I would in fact tend to read it strongly in the opposite manner of implying the importance of similarity. Adam meets each and every animal but finds none of the adequate to be his mate, presumably since none of them are sufficiently similar to him given that God's subsequently successful solution to the problem is to clone Adam's rib into another human. I would say there are two lessons from that story, both of which favour same-sex unions:
1) Eve's validity as a mate for Adam rests in her being more similar to him than the rest of the animals are. Nothing in the story suggests that any differences she might have from Adam have any fundamental role in qualifying her to be his mate.
2) God seems to have been happy for Adam to choose his own mate by searching through all the living beings looking for one that Adam personally found to be suitable. God's only concern was that "it is not good for the man to be alone". That seems to reasonably suggest that God's will is that gay people shouldn't be alone and that they can search to find a mate that satisfies them.
tl;dr: The notion of needing sexually complementary "otherness" in relationships is just plain nonsense.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
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Eutychus, as I've said before (I'm not sure whether it was to you or not), the story of the creation of Eve emphasises her similarity to Adam, not her difference. The very point of her creation is that she is 'flesh of his flesh', and like him in a way that the animals were not. This makes her a suitable companion when the animals were not.
I simply don't see how it's possible to get a theology of otherness out of a narrative that actually emphasises the exact opposite.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
The teaching of genesis is God creating the universe. Parable, not science. If one sticks to the literal, then incest is the Bible's preferred method of procreation.
I would certainly tend to see it as more of a parable than science, but either way, I think details matter (we just may not agree on which details and how they matter!).
Even on a literalist reading, the Bible skips lightly over where Cain got his wife, whereas it highlights the "male and female" aspect more than once.
To me (and especially if we read this more metaphorically or 'parabolically') that suggests the latter is there for a reason, whereas the implicit incest is more of a 'plot inconsistency' as it were. It's tangential to what the narrative is saying.
I'd say this is borne out by how Jesus uses this passage. He never says anything like "as it is written, Cain bonked Eve (or a sister) to produce descendants". He does say "male and female he created them".
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
So the whole idea of masculinity and femininity being complimentary and necessary in relationships is just wrong in practice.
But masculinity and femininity are not the same as biological gender, which is what I asked about. Indeed, above I conceded that quote:
differences and complementarity do not fall exclusively or perhaps even predominantly along gender lines
and the reason you offered for male and female in Genesis isn't about masculinity and femininity, either - it's about biological gender, too: quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
God's motivation for making Eve female is obvious (he wanted them to have children to populate the world)
Indeed - and I cannot get around the observation that this is an incontrovertible difference between gay and straight sexual relations. The set of "couplings which can produce babies" is exclusively a subset of "heterosexual couplings".
Even if complementarity, masculinity, femininity and even some aspects of gender do not fall solely along the lines of male and female, there is a difference at the level of biological gender, and it's a difference that is still with us.
Orfeo, it may well have been you who originally pointed out to me the emphasis on "similarity" in Genesis 2; it's a powerful point, and you and Starlight are right that it is certainly there.
I would venture to suggest, however, that so is difference, at this fundamental level of biological gender.
In Genesis 2:23, as I understand it the Hebrew says Adam (the human) declares "she will be called Ish-a (female) because she was taken from Ish (male, i.e. "person of the male sex"). In Gen 2 God didn't make an asexual, non-differentiated "Adam 2", or another Ish; he made Ish-a. quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
1) Eve's validity as a mate for Adam rests in her being more similar to him than the rest of the animals are.
You argued earlier that God's motivation in making Eve was that he wanted this first couple to have children. Given that God didn't make us capable of asexual reproduction, Eve's validity as a partner resided in her biological difference, too. quote:
2) God seems to have been happy for Adam to choose his own mate by searching through all the living beings looking for one that Adam personally found to be suitable
Taking the narrative at this level, do you think there was any doubt as to the final outcome? I think it's just a little piece of theatre to highlight the archetypal suitability of the final outcome - someone the same, yet different. quote:
God's only concern was that "it is not good for the man to be alone". That seems to reasonably suggest that God's will is that gay people shouldn't be alone and that they can search to find a mate that satisfies them.
You can't argue (as you did earlier) that God's intent in setting this whole thing up was for Adam and Eve to procreate, and simultaneously argue that the same text demonstrates it is God's will for gay people to find a satisfactory mate.
(I'm not saying that is not God's will in any circumstances, just that I don't think you can argue it very convincingly from Genesis).
[ 23. August 2014, 07:31: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
In Genesis 2:23, as I understand it the Hebrew says Adam (the human) declares "she will be called Ish-a (female) because she was taken from Ish (male, i.e. "person of the male sex"). In Gen 2 God didn't make an asexual, non-differentiated "Adam 2", or another Ish; he made Ish-a.
You don't appear to realise that the etymology lesson supports my thesis, not yours. You're so focused on the addition of one letter, you haven't noticed that the point is to give a similar name because of the connection, instead of a totally separate name with no connection.
Would you say that an actor and an actress are completely different things? An aviator and an aviatrix? English has actually lost most of its gender-based words, as we've come to the conclusion that it's the acting that matters, not the gender of person doing the acting.
I'm relearning German at the moment, and it still has -in as a gendered ending for many words (or at least, the source I'm using is telling me that's how it is). But the course I'm using makes sure I realise that both "Lehrer" and "Lehrerin" are valid translations for "teacher".
But you seem to be determined to say "look! look! There's an 'a' on the end! She's completely different". No, if she was completely different she wouldn't have got a name that emphasises her Ish-ness. A name that deliberately emphasises her similarity and minimises the importance of her difference down to a single letter.
[ 23. August 2014, 07:47: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
But you seem to be determined to say "look! look! There's an 'a' on the end! She's completely different". No, if she was completely different she wouldn't have got a name that emphasises her Ish-ness. A name that deliberately emphasises her similarity and minimises the importance of her difference down to a single letter.
I don't think the number of letters is the point, orfeo. And I've never denied her similarity.
What I am disputing is the minimal importance of her difference, for reasons outlined above.
I take your point about similarity. But it's not true to say, or imply, that difference is absent from the text.
Back in a minute for a tangent on the "carnival of the animals".
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'd say this is borne out by how Jesus uses this passage. He never says anything like "as it is written, Cain bonked Eve (or a sister) to produce descendants". He does say "male and female he created them".
Jesus cites the passage to argue against divorce, his emphasis being on the "become one flesh" part, to not break what God has joined. He quotes the entire verse about leaving one's father and mother of course, but no one thinks that leaving one's father and mother is essential in marriage, despite the fact that Jesus quotes it, because it's not what he was talking about. The man and wife bit is also quoted, but again, not what Jesus was talking about.
Also rather importantly, the vast majority of churches allow divorce in some way, shape or form. (does yours?) Appealing to Jesus' Mark 10:7-8 quotation of the creation account in Jesus' argument against divorce seems rather hypocritical if done by someone who ignores precisely that teaching of Jesus. Telling gay people that they absolutely have to follow that teaching of Jesus which is not actually about homosexuality but only very incidentally touches on it, is a rather hypocritical double-standard if straight people are ignoring that very same verse's teaching against divorce which is actually the main point of the passage:
"We blatantly ignore Jesus' explicit teachings against divorce, but in the very passage that we're ignoring there happens to be a indirect reference to something that can be possibly interpreted as being against homosexuality, so you would be totally wrong to ever ignore that! You'd be ignoring Jesus! Jesus said it, you can't ignore Jesus!"
quote:
I cannot get around the observation that this is an incontrovertible difference between gay and straight sexual relations. The set of "couplings which can produce babies" is exclusively a subset of "heterosexual couplings".
Okay. What on earth does it matter?
As a matter of basic observable fact, gay couples around the world are getting happily married, happily having sex together, happily and successfully raising kids together. So you've managed to identify a difference between gay and straight couples... okay... but that difference doesn't actually matter a single iota. To be relevant to anything, you'd have to find some way that difference was important.
Also I would note that various scientists are working on artificial reproductive techniques that would let two gay people have biological children together. I'd say maybe in 10 years this might be feasible. Does that solve the problem? Or is your focus only on being able to have children together through sex with each other? And if so, isn't that a rather unjustifiable focus on sex? What does it matter where the children come from? And what about infertile heterosexual couples, such as couples who marry when they are old?
quote:
You can't argue (as you did earlier) that God's intent in setting this whole thing up was for Adam and Eve to procreate, and simultaneously argue that the same text demonstrates it is God's will for gay people to find a satisfactory mate.
Presumably if Adam had found a mate that could not biologically have led to reproduction, God could have acted to alter their biology to allow reproduction if that were God's desire.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
2) God seems to have been happy for Adam to choose his own mate by searching through all the living beings looking for one that Adam personally found to be suitable.
I just wanted to come back to this in a sort of meta-tangent.
meta-tangent/
Starlight, I don't expect this was your intention, but your gloss on the "parade of animals" text could give an unfortunate impression of 'cruising'.
It also reminded me of the argument of some LGBT people that sexuality is a free choice to be exercised and/or experimented with, not an orientation to be endured or enjoyed.
[The latter stance is, however, the overwhelming impression I'm getting from the Homosexuality and Christianity thread (I'm half way through, long past the point where people are saying "nobody can be expected to read all 22 pages of it"). On it, the gay consensus seems to be "made that way" as Joan the Outlaw-Dwarf puts it, neatly but perhaps usefully sidestepping the nature/nurture debate to make the point that she doesn't feel she can or should change her orientation].
I think one of the conservatives' concerns (and this is perhaps again behind Gagnon's unfortunate turn of phrase quoted in the OP) is that the "free choice" argument is likely to lead to a consumerist approach to sexuality and relationships; at a certain age, one gets to enter a sort of supermarket of sexual partners and orientations and choose from a smorgasbord of what I think is right for me... without any consideration of the other.
I think this scenario is a long way from christianity, and plenty of arguments are marshalled against contemporary views of sexuality in general and homosexuality in particular along these sorts of lines.
But this is not at all what the Genesis 2 parade of animals is trying to say (and I don't really think you are either).
It's not about Adam looking at a lineup and picking the best (I don't think God would have been happy if Adam had plumped for the giraffe, or the aardvark, half way down the line, especially given God was - as you say - aiming for procreation).
It's highlighting (I would say humourously) the fact that none of the options were the right one: that's the whole point.
The "supermarket of sexuality" stance is certainly not the overwhelming impression I get from gay posters here, who for the most part appear to be arguing for acceptance of committed, monogamous relationships, but it's certainly out there, and probably not helping in the search for common ground.
/meta-tangent
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Jesus cites the passage to argue against divorce, his emphasis being on the "become one flesh" part, to not break what God has joined.
Yes indeed. And at the same time, he notes the possibility of divorce under Mosaic law and doesn't rule it out. quote:
Also rather importantly, the vast majority of churches allow divorce in some way, shape or form. (does yours?)
Yes. quote:
Telling gay people that they absolutely have to follow that teaching of Jesus which is not actually about homosexuality but only very incidentally touches on it
I for one have never said that (which exact "teaching" did you have in mind, anyway?), any more than I say to divorcees that they are beyond the reach of the church or cannot remarry.
quote:
quote:
I cannot get around the observation that this is an incontrovertible difference between gay and straight sexual relations. The set of "couplings which can produce babies" is exclusively a subset of "heterosexual couplings".
Okay. What on earth does it matter?
I'm not sure I can articulate clearly why I might think it matters, but I think it's important to concede it is a difference, and it's one which is, by your own admission, present in how you understand the Genesis 2 narrative. quote:
So you've managed to identify a difference between gay and straight couples... okay... but that difference doesn't actually matter a single iota. To be relevant to anything, you'd have to find some way that difference was important.
I'll need to get back to you on this - feel free to prod me if I forget - but as things stand there is at least one significant difference in the French Civil Code, post-gay marriage. quote:
Also I would note that various scientists are working on artificial reproductive techniques that would let two gay people have biological children together. I'd say maybe in 10 years this might be feasible. Does that solve the problem?
Perhaps I am [3], a natural law nut after all*. Intuitively, I'd say this takes humanity places it shouldn't go. quote:
And what about infertile heterosexual couples, such as couples who marry when they are old?
At least until your scientific scenario comes to pass, and choosing my words carefully, I'd say that while it is not a necessary or sufficient reason for marriage, the potential for procreation is at least part of most marriages. quote:
Presumably if Adam had found a mate that could not biologically have led to reproduction, God could have acted to alter their biology to allow reproduction if that were God's desire.
See my previous post about the parade of animals. This sounds like rather a desperate argument to me.
A final thought for now. Quoting the Matthew passage has actually made me open my Bible. I note that in this passage (Mt 19:8) Jesus says of divorce "but it was not this way from the beginning".
As far as I'm concerned, this debate, like many others, is all about dealing with a situation that "was not that way from the beginning" in such a way as to accept and rejoice in people as they are made - whilst also acknowledging how things "were in the beginning" and not losing sight of what they might be telling us in the broader scheme of things.
*I almost called this thread simply "[3]" but resisted the temptation in the light of my own pleading for intelligible thread titles.
[ 23. August 2014, 09:00: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
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Eutychus, if homosexuality hasn't been there since the beginning, why the proscription in Leviticus*? If homosexuality wasn't there from the beginning, the Levitical priests wouldn't feel the need to make a law against it, would they? And that's dated a few centuries before Christ.
* And I know the stuff about small remnant needing to procreate and homosexuality was a problem in that situation.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Eutychus, if homosexuality hasn't been there since the beginning, why the proscription in Leviticus*?
Leviticus was rather a long time after the beginning - as evidenced by its provisions for divorce, too. I don't understand your point.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Eutychus,
quote:
the gay consensus seems to be "made that way"
Scientific surveys asking gay people how much choice they felt they had in their sexuality tend to find about 9 in 10 gay people report feeling they had little or no conscious choice in their sexual orientation. Straight people tend to report the same thing. It's worth thinking about this question yourself - at what age did you make the decision to be attracted to girls and not guys, or did you simply find yourself liking women and never bothered to question that too hard?
For the vast majority of people, who we find attractive and who we don't find attractive isn't something we have any choice over. Rather we simply see someone and think "he/she looks hot". Nor is there any known successful way to reliably change which gender we find attractive, and most psychological associations around the world caution against such attempts as they almost never work and are commonly psychologically damaging.
quote:
at a certain age, one gets to enter a sort of supermarket of sexual partners and orientations and choose from a smorgasbord of what I think is right for me... without any consideration of the other.
Um, yes, it's called "dating"? I am not sure what "the other" is referring to here.
quote:
(I don't think God would have been happy if Adam had plumped for the giraffe
Well that is speculative... the text doesn't really say that. God certainly appears to validly offer Adam the giraffe as an option for a mate. There's no suggestion that God is trying to trick Adam into sinning by choosing a mate that God disapproves of. (Such very snake-like behaviour comes in the next chapter, and isn't God doing it) I would accept a reading, however, that said God offers Adam the giraffe as an option for a mate in the sure knowledge that Adam's not going to take that option, and God makes this offer as a means of teaching Adam about the animals and leading Adam on a journey of self-discovery to learn what's right for Adam (ie God knows the giraffe isn't right as a mate for Adam, but Adam needs to learn this himself). But I struggle with a reading that says that if Adam had really genuinely accepted the giraffe as a mate then this would have been in some way sinful, since God seems to have really made the offer and it would not be transgressing a command of God so how can it be a sin?
quote:
The "supermarket of sexuality" stance is certainly not the overwhelming impression I get from gay posters here, who for the most part appear to be arguing for acceptance of committed, monogamous relationships, but it's certainly out there, and probably not helping in the search for common ground.
The vast majority of gay people, in my observation, would just like to live "normal" lives in the sense that they want to find someone to share their life with and do so. Although many of those in the age range 16-28 would like to have sex with as many people as possible as often as possible, exactly like their straight peers in the same age group!
However, when the dominant Christian culture rejected gay peoples rights in the mid 20th century and drove openly gay people into their own little subculture, those gay people were told by Christians that marriage was not for them and some of them took that lesson to heart, reasoning that if they were to be denied committed relationships then they would seek to find themselves alternate sorts of relationships to those Christian ones they were being denied. As a result a subculture of sexual promiscuity got promoted among some gay groups as 'better' than the monogamous Christian model. This subculture of promiscuity still has a significant influence, though it is waning significantly as gay rights make progress, since the progress has resulted in a massive influx of 'normal' gay people. So in my view, the irony of it is that Christians have gotten upset at the subculture they themselves are responsible for creating, but which is now a subculture that is declining due to the rise of the equal rights that the Christians opposed.
quote:
I'm not sure I can articulate clearly why I might think it matters, but I think it's important to concede it is a difference,
I do indeed concede there is a difference between gay and straight couples. Gay couples have two people of the same sex, whereas straight couples have one of each! That's the only difference that's really relevant to anything, and it's not relevant to much!
When it comes to the issue of children, gay and straight couples have different options (which depend on age also), and it is always a personal decision for any couple what they want to do about having or not having children or how many they want to have or whether they want to adopt or whether they want to seek medical assistance. It's not our place to tell other people what decisions they ought to make concerning having children. When the Prop 8 cases (trying to ban gay marriage) were going through the courts in California a few years back, it was noted by the judges that an estimated 30,000 children under 18 were being raised by same-sex couples in California at the time. So gay couples are very definitely raising children on a regular basis! (The judges noted in their rulings, after reading expert testimony from many medical and scientific organisations, that denying the parents of these children the right of marriage has a negative impact on the children as they benefit from married parents)
quote:
quote:
Also I would note that various scientists are working on artificial reproductive techniques that would let two gay people have biological children together. I'd say maybe in 10 years this might be feasible. Does that solve the problem?
Intuitively, I'd say this takes humanity places it shouldn't go.
Medical professionals intervene regularly to help infertile couples have children, by playing around with eggs and sperm in test-tubes. When a couple who has been trying and failing to have children for years gets successful treatment and a pregnancy results, it's a cause for celebration.
There's nothing particularly dodgy from a scientific standpoint about same-sex couples having biological children: Their DNA combined makes a perfectly legitimate child just like the combined DNA of a straight couple. There would be nothing biologically unusual about the child itself in any way, shape, or form, and completely no way to tell by studying the child that it's parents were of the same gender. It could be argued that this sort of thing already happens naturally in cases where one of the parents is intersex and has some sort of unusual condition where their body's sexual organs don't match their genetic gender properly. (Although I note that combining the DNA of two lesbians could never result in a male child as they have no Y chromosome between them, so lesbians would only ever get biological female children, unless they could/did splice in a Y chromosome from a 3rd-party male donor. And two gay men would get male biological children with 2/3rds probability and female ones with only 1/3rd probability.)
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Eutychus, if homosexuality hasn't been there since the beginning, why the proscription in Leviticus*?
Leviticus was rather a long time after the beginning - as evidenced by its provisions for divorce, too. I don't understand your point.
That the first record we have for setting standards for sexual relationships has provisions for both divorce and homosexuality. (Well, there's also not committing adultery in Exodus, in the Ten Commandments.)
Posted by Cottontail (# 12234) on
:
There are two accounts of the creation of humans. In Genesis 1, we read, quote:
So God created humankind in his image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.
Immediately after this, we have the command, "Be fruitful and multiply".
Then in Genesis 2, we have the differing account of God musing, "It is not good that the man should be alone", and his making of a suitable partner for Adam out of his own side. The interesting thing is that Genesis 2 does not once mention procreation. In this account, the point of creating men and women is companionship, and mutual help, and physical and spiritual union - becoming "one flesh". None of these seem impossible for same-sex relationships.
Meanwhile, in Genesis 1, which does mention procreation, there is even less emphasis on any difference between men and women. In fact, you wouldn't know from the account that there is any substantive difference at all: God has made humankind, not two separate entities called 'men' and 'women'. When the account finally gets to 'otherness' - "male and female he created them" - the effect is not a highlighting of their difference, but a flattening of it. The point is that both male and female are made in the image of God, and not the male only; the point is that both male and female are human. The 'otherness' here is humanity's otherness to God, and not to each other - and even our otherness to God is flattened by how we bear the image of God. Sameness and difference are alike built into all our relationships, it seems.
So it seems to me that you can only get to the 'marriage is for one man and one woman because only they can procreate' by conflating the two accounts and making both say something that neither said. The procreation passage barely mentions maleness and femaleness, and makes no substantive difference between them. The passage that does stress their otherness (alongside their sameness) does not mention procreation at all. The link between male-and-female couplings and procreation may be a natural one, but it is not a link made by the text.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
the gay consensus seems to be "made that way"
Scientific surveys asking gay people how much choice they felt they had in their sexuality tend to find about 9 in 10 gay people report feeling they had little or no conscious choice in their sexual orientation.
For the purposes of this discussion, I'm very happy to go along with that, because whatever I think about homosexual relations, I don't think I can stretch my christian ethics to cater for a smorgasbord "my choice" approach to sexual orientation right now.
Bear in mind, though, that even if I can come to a mutually acceptable position on same sex couples that take this view, that would on the basis of your figures still leave a constituency of 10% of individuals, a significant minority, that will feel outcast and discriminated against if they don't get equal treatment. I hope you can see this might be a problem, albeit a minority one. quote:
quote:
at a certain age, one gets to enter a sort of supermarket of sexual partners and orientations and choose from a smorgasbord of what I think is right for me... without any consideration of the other.
Um, yes, it's called "dating"? I am not sure what "the other" is referring to here.
The exact way you summarised the Gen 2 account was quote:
searching through all the living beings looking for one that Adam personally found to be suitable
The animals are not portrayed in the slightest as having a say in the matter in the narrative, and your summary thus necessarily focuses on Adam: it's all about his personal fulfillment, with no consideration of whether his partner - the "other" - might similarly be fulfilled by the relationship with him.
Unfortunately such an egocentric attitude may well characterise dating in general, but I don't think it's a good one, neither do I think it can be justified on the basis of this narrative. quote:
I would accept a reading, however, that said God offers Adam the giraffe as an option for a mate in the sure knowledge that Adam's not going to take that option
In which case, the giraffe was never really a viable option, was it? quote:
But I struggle with a reading that says that if Adam had really genuinely accepted the giraffe as a mate then this would have been in some way sinful, since God seems to have really made the offer and it would not be transgressing a command of God so how can it be a sin?
I think we are getting way off the point here. I haven't said anything about "sinfulness" or otherwise.
You yourself said quote:
God's motivation for making Eve female is obvious (he wanted them to have children to populate the world)
To suggest, in the face of this assertion, that had Adam chosen the giraffe God would somehow have re-engineered the giraffe to allow for procreation (the Vquex springs to mind), is to my mind desperate special pleading and completely missing the point of the narrative.
quote:
Gay couples have two people of the same sex, whereas straight couples have one of each! That's the only difference that's really relevant to anything, and it's not relevant to much!
When it comes to the issue of children
The issue of children (nice unintentional pun!) and the available options for producing them is where there is a difference. It's one that comes right down, for now at least, to where I started this: that of biological gender. And even if one day that is no longer a prerequisite, that is "how it was in the beginning".
(Please note I'm not trying to make a moral judgement in any of this, I'm asserting what I see as a fact, irrespective of whether you think it's an important one or not). quote:
There's nothing particularly dodgy from a scientific standpoint about same-sex couples having biological children: Their DNA combined makes a perfectly legitimate child just like the combined DNA of a straight couple. There would be nothing biologically unusual about the child itself in any way, shape, or form, and completely no way to tell by studying the child that it's parents were of the same gender.
I think the issue here is not what is scientifically possible but what is desirable and ethical (irrespective of the orientation or gender of the parents), and I'm not convinced that this can be settled on an all-or-nothing basis for all forms of medically assisted procreation. quote:
It could be argued that this sort of thing already happens naturally in cases where one of the parents is intersex and has some sort of unusual condition where their body's sexual organs don't match their genetic gender properly...
Perhaps (I am completely unqualified to tell), but can we agree that these and the other instances you cite are extreme, exceptional scenarios?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
Eutychus, if homosexuality hasn't been there since the beginning, why the proscription in Leviticus*?
Leviticus was rather a long time after the beginning - as evidenced by its provisions for divorce, too. I don't understand your point.
That the first record we have for setting standards for sexual relationships has provisions for both divorce and homosexuality. (Well, there's also not committing adultery in Exodus, in the Ten Commandments.)
I still don't see your point. Do you think homosexuality was there in the beginning, or do you think it was "male and female" in the Garden?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
There are two accounts of the creation of humans. In Genesis 1, we read, quote:
So God created humankind in his image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.
Immediately after this, we have the command, "Be fruitful and multiply".
Then in Genesis 2, we have the differing account of God musing, "It is not good that the man should be alone", and his making of a suitable partner for Adam out of his own side. The interesting thing is that Genesis 2 does not once mention procreation. In this account, the point of creating men and women is companionship, and mutual help, and physical and spiritual union - becoming "one flesh". None of these seem impossible for same-sex relationships.
Meanwhile, in Genesis 1, which does mention procreation, there is even less emphasis on any difference between men and women. In fact, you wouldn't know from the account that there is any substantive difference at all: God has made humankind, not two separate entities called 'men' and 'women'. When the account finally gets to 'otherness' - "male and female he created them" - the effect is not a highlighting of their difference, but a flattening of it. The point is that both male and female are made in the image of God, and not the male only; the point is that both male and female are human. The 'otherness' here is humanity's otherness to God, and not to each other - and even our otherness to God is flattened by how we bear the image of God. Sameness and difference are alike built into all our relationships, it seems.
So it seems to me that you can only get to the 'marriage is for one man and one woman because only they can procreate' by conflating the two accounts and making both say something that neither said. The procreation passage barely mentions maleness and femaleness, and makes no substantive difference between them. The passage that does stress their otherness (alongside their sameness) does not mention procreation at all. The link between male-and-female couplings and procreation may be a natural one, but it is not a link made by the text.
I have, on another one of the recent threads on this topic (one can never keep track of exactly which thread in this hamster-wheel experience one has written one's best thoughts), I have happily conceded that heterosexual couples have the edge when it comes to procreating.
I just can't understand why anyone treats procreation as the be-all and end-all of being a couple. Especially when no-one ever seems to raise the slightest objection to the existence of heterosexual couples that either don't have children, do not intend to have children, or are physically incapable of having children.
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
What I was trying to respond to, obviously unsuccessfully, was this point
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
As far as I'm concerned, this debate, like many others, is all about dealing with a situation that "was not that way from the beginning" in such a way as to accept and rejoice in people as they are made - whilst also acknowledging how things "were in the beginning" and not losing sight of what they might be telling us in the broader scheme of things.
The books of the Pentateuch are dated to more or less the same time, whichever way you look at the dating*, so I'm not sure how you decide which books are "in the beginning" for this argument, particularly when you acknowledge that Genesis is parable and story to tell the way life came about, rather than inerrant fact. So why can't we use other books of the Torah to tell us how thing are in the "broader scheme of things"? Isn't this looking at other sources from the same time?
* written by Moses in 12th century BCE or 5th Century BCE Yehud Medinata
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Eutychus,
I don't really have anything further to add, but I do just want to clarify that I don't think a "my choice" approach to sexual orientation has ever actually existed as a real thing - as in I don't personally believe (from reading the scientific literature) that there are any substantial number of people for whom sexual orientation is a conscious choice.
There are, of course, bisexual people (who definitely exist!) who find themselves sexually attracted to both male and female people, and they have a conscious choice in the sense of which of those attractions to pursue in terms of relationships. However they have no conscious choice about who they find to be sexually attractive.
Bisexual people can often get confused by survey questions and answer in ways not intended by the person asking the question. Past experience shows that if someone declares that they've experienced sexual orientation to be a "choice", what they almost always mean is that they are bisexual and have experienced attractions to both males and females, and have had to choose which of the people they are attracted to to have relationships with (ie choose a 'gay' or a 'straight' relationship). So I personally think that the 10% of gay people who claim, when filling out surveys, that they have had a high degree of conscious choice in their sexual orientation are just misunderstanding the question and are bisexual (this usually becomes apparent in follow-up interviews). So I wasn't trying to ask you to stretch your ethics to that final 10% who "chooses" homosexuality, because I think that final 10% is just an error in the survey data and doesn't actually exist. The point I was trying to make was simply that the vast majority of all people, gay people included, do not experience sexual attraction as a conscious choice, they simply live their lives and find themselves attracted to some people and not to others.
Although all that said, clearly bisexual people do exist, and if your position with regard to them is that you are okay with gay people having gay relationships because they didn't have a choice, but that you aren't okay with bisexual people choosing to pursue gay relationships rather than straight ones given that straight ones are actually a serious option for bisexual people... then I guess that makes a certain degree of logical sense as a position, though it's not something I've seen widely espoused before. I guess people would ask: If it's okay for gay people to be gay, and it's okay for straight people to be straight, why isn't it okay for bisexual people to choose which one they want?
[ 23. August 2014, 11:17: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
There is some research looking at fluidity in sexual orientation, which particularly seems to apply to women - all the research I found was looking at women as they seem to have a more fluid sexuality.
Bisexuality was discussed here
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I just can't understand why anyone treats procreation as the be-all and end-all of being a couple. Especially when no-one ever seems to raise the slightest objection to the existence of heterosexual couples that either don't have children, do not intend to have children, or are physically incapable of having children.
Actually, from what I understand, in many parts of Bible-belt America, procreation is actually really really heavily emphasized and couples that don't or can't have children are quite seriously ostracized. I get the impression that for a lot of the (fairly poor, fairly uneducated) people in that general region, having children is considered by them as the greatest achievement of their lives. And they really view having manged to have children as a seriously great achievement that they can pat themselves on the back for, or think they deserve some sort of medal for managing to have a child. Hence their response to gay couples not being able to have biological children is contempt and scornful laughter. Because to them having children really is that important.
In other parts of the world, where "oh, I'm pregnant" is more likely to be followed by the word "opps", gay people not being able to have biological children is not seen as a significant problem, and is often seen as coming with the built-in bonus of a permanent infallible contraceptive device, which large numbers of straight couples are envious of and would pay large amounts of money for if it could be commercialized.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
Meanwhile, in Genesis 1, which does mention procreation, there is even less emphasis on any difference between men and women (...) The link between male-and-female couplings and procreation may be a natural one, but it is not a link made by the text.
You yourself said, emphasis mine quote:
In Genesis 1, we read, quote:
So God created humankind in his image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.
Immediately after this, we have the command, "Be fruitful and multiply".
If that's not a "link made by the text", I don't know what is. It's the very next verse! quote:
In fact, you wouldn't know from the account that there is any substantive difference at all: God has made humankind, not two separate entities called 'men' and 'women'. When the account finally gets to 'otherness' - "male and female he created them" - the effect is not a highlighting of their difference, but a flattening of it.
I submit that if that were true, there would be no point mentioning it at all. The text could just stop at "God has made humankind". quote:
So it seems to me that you can only get to the 'marriage is for one man and one woman because only they can procreate'
I'm not trying to "get there". For now, I'm observing that that is how it is portrayed in the beginning - although it's not the whole story. quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I have happily conceded that heterosexual couples have the edge when it comes to procreating.
I just can't understand why anyone treats procreation as the be-all and end-all of being a couple.
Sure, I'm reading you loud and clear on that, orfeo. And for the record, if you ever have the good fortune to get married, I would be honoured to attend (although you'd probably be happier off without me being there and it would most probably be impracticably far to travel!).
Two points in response:
- firstly, I think the "edge" that you acknowledge comes down to a difference. Where I've got to on this is not that this makes hetero couples procreating inherently morally superior, but simply that there is a difference - a difference which I think at least some SSM proponents would like to gloss over - and that it might matter.
On the same point, it sounds to me as though Starlight would like to see (or at least envisages the possiblity of) gay couples using technology to replicate, as nearly as possible, heterosexual reproduction. That sounds like he is very keen to eliminate this "edge" as though the issue of procreating was an important one. Which is not what I hear you saying.
- Secondly, no, procreation isn't the be-all and end-all. But if children appear on the scene, by any means, it becomes an important factor; and the secular law in my country certainly makes provision for children in any marriage ceremony, irrespective of the age (or, now, gender) of the couple. And procreation remains the only natural outworking of how things were in the beginning (again, observation, not implied moral superiority). quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
The books of the Pentateuch are dated to more or less the same time, whichever way you look at the dating*, so I'm not sure how you decide which books are "in the beginning" for this argument
Even assuming the narratives were all written at the same time, they clearly show circumstances in the beginning which then changed over the internal timeline of the narrative.
I think part of this conversation which we haven't had yet is to do with whether those circumstances "in the beginning" have anything to say to us which is important to apply, or at least bear in mind, today. Our opinions may differ on that. quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
If it's okay for gay people to be gay, and it's okay for straight people to be straight, why isn't it okay for bisexual people to choose which one they want?
Assuming that they stick to their choice (see my assumption below) I think the answer to that one depends on whether the situation as it was "at the beginning" has anything to say to us about which is preferable. quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
There is some research looking at fluidity in sexual orientation, which particularly seems to apply to women - all the research I found was looking at women as they seem to have a more fluid sexuality.
I'm not sure if that's a blessing or a curse!
For the purposes of this discussion (and now that Starlight has 'explained away' the remaining 10%
) I'm assuming an aspiration to same sex marriage envisaged as a lifelong, monogamous commitment. If anyone wants to mount a defence of alternative relationship lifestyles, with or without reference to Scripture, or debate the "made/choice" aspects of sexual orientation, can I plead for it to go on another thread, unless you can persuade me it's relevant here? Thank you.
[ 23. August 2014, 12:16: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Where I've got to on this is not that this makes hetero couples procreating inherently morally superior, but simply that there is a difference - a difference which I think at least some SSM proponents would like to gloss over - and that it might matter.
Whether it matters depends on the goal.
The difference matters for precisely ONE purpose: procreation. Multiplying. That's what Cottontail is saying to you.
Well, actually it might matter for some other purposes. We segregate the sexes for sport because we recognise the fact that men and women, on average, have some different physical capabilities. But in the sphere of relationships, the difference matters for procreation. As far as I can see it fails to matter for any other relational purpose.
What's the alternative? Are you really proposing some sort of chromosomally-linked relational capacities such that male-male interactions, male-female interactions and female-female interactions are so inherently different that only male-female couples are capable of living together and committing to one another? Or is it that you think that sexual intercourse so fundamentally changes the nature of human relationships that THEN people of the same sex are suddenly incapable of relating to each other in the correct fashion?
The whole of anti-discrimination law is pretty much built on the notion of declaring in which situations a difference is relevant and in which situations a difference is not. I should know, I did my honours thesis on this. Sex discrimination law doesn't suddenly turn men into women or vice versa, it says that in a whole variety of situations - employment for example - the difference isn't relevant. Race discrimination law doesn't change the colour of a person's skin, it says that in a lot of situations the colour of a person's skin doesn't matter.
It's obvious that a same-sex couple is different from an opposite-sex couple. That in itself is no kind of evidence that the difference matters. There is precisely one situation in the which the difference clearly does matter, and that's when it comes to trying to conceive children. If you want to convince me that the differences between men and women matter for any other purpose, you're going to have come up with some evidence - and you're probably going to have to tear down a considerable amount of feminism and sex discrimination law to do it.
[ 23. August 2014, 12:32: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Where I've got to on this is not that this makes hetero couples procreating inherently morally superior, but simply that there is a difference - a difference which I think at least some SSM proponents would like to gloss over - and that it might matter.
Whether it matters depends on the goal.
The difference matters for precisely ONE purpose: procreation. Multiplying. That's what Cottontail is saying to you.
Whoah. I think that the difference (biological gender) allows procreation. As to whether that's the only reason it matters, I'm not sure. I need to clarify my thinking a bit more. And get out of here for a while.
Posted by Cottontail (# 12234) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
Meanwhile, in Genesis 1, which does mention procreation, there is even less emphasis on any difference between men and women (...) The link between male-and-female couplings and procreation may be a natural one, but it is not a link made by the text.
You yourself said, emphasis mine quote:
In Genesis 1, we read, quote:
So God created humankind in his image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.
Immediately after this, we have the command, "Be fruitful and multiply".
If that's not a "link made by the text", I don't know what is. It's the very next verse!
What I am saying is that where procreation is mentioned, just at the point where one might expect the text to highlight the difference between male and female, it does in fact play the difference down. Male and female is a true distinction, but here it is a strangely muted one. There is a big difference between saying that God created humans as male and female so that they are able to procreate, and saying that the whole point of God creating males and females is so that they can procreate. Human beings are more than their procreative abilities, and those who do not procreate have not somehow failed to fulfil their purpose. Maybe God just made us male and female because he loves men and he loves women, and glories in both their existence.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
In fact, you wouldn't know from the account that there is any substantive difference at all: God has made humankind, not two separate entities called 'men' and 'women'. When the account finally gets to 'otherness' - "male and female he created them" - the effect is not a highlighting of their difference, but a flattening of it.
I submit that if that were true, there would be no point mentioning it at all. The text could just stop at "God has made humankind".
I submit that there is a very big point indeed in mentioning it. Given the historically inferior status of women in ancient society, as documented throughout the Bible and continuing into our own time (not helped by the traditional translation of humankind' as 'man' or 'mankind'); and given the Church Fathers' frequent documented assertions – based on this same part of the Bible – that women are an inferior copy of men and to the extent of not being made in the image of God at all – given all that, I can see a very big point indeed in emphasising that "God created humankind in his image … male and female he created them." I am very very glad the text includes that.
Which gives rise to another worry. Not that I am saying this is your intention, but those who emphasise the 'otherness' between male and female very frequently go on in the very next move to define what that difference is. And lo and behold, the difference is that women are weaker than and subordinate to men! So forgive my edginess when a man starts talking about the 'otherness' of men and women. I know you are not coming from that position, but it's there, and I can see it, and you need to be aware of it.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
So it seems to me that you can only get to the 'marriage is for one man and one woman because only they can procreate'.
I'm not trying to "get there". For now, I'm observing that that is how it is portrayed in the beginning - although it's not the whole story.
That it is 'not the whole story' is in fact the whole point.
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
And that all sounds reasonable to a lot of people. The thing is though, once you actually look at empirical reality, you realize that same-sex relationships work just fine. Studies seem to consistently find that gay couples are happier than straight couples. They report being more satisfied, not less satisfied, with their relationships than straight couples on average.
Playing devil's advocate for a moment: I think happiness is not actually the point. One of the Eastern Orthodox on the ship (I believe Josephine) said somewhere that marriage is in Eastern Orthodox terms a podvig: a spiritual discipline. Part of the point of marriage is that one occasionally struggles to accommodate one's wishes to one's partner's. (James Joyce voiced a similar thought when he said he couldn't admire Jesus unreservedly since Jesus had never gone through the discipline of being married to a woman.) To that extent, too much similarity is a bad thing in a marriage.
There are other reasons for thinking that happiness is not the only criteria for a successful relationship. (For example, would you prefer not to grieve over your partner when they're gone?)
Of course, abandoning the devil's advocate pose, nothing in the above requires that any difficulty arises out of the two people being different sexes.
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
To me (and especially if we read this more metaphorically or 'parabolically') that suggests the latter is there for a reason, whereas the implicit incest is more of a 'plot inconsistency' as it were. It's tangential to what the narrative is saying.
can you not see the inconsistency of this reasoning?
It chooses a bit actually there as irrelevant. Yet a bit which must be inferred is vital?
quote:
Indeed - and I cannot get around the observation that this is an incontrovertible difference between gay and straight sexual relations. The set of "couplings which can produce babies" is exclusively a subset of "heterosexual couplings".
Be fruitful and multiply, our species has proven very obedient here. So why does this imply that each and every one of us must contribute? And if we should, does this not also condemn the infertile? The celibate?
And, to the general argument, why the fuck are we discussing Adam and Eve? If that part of the bible is parable, then an over reliance on inference is irresponsible.
If one believes the bible to be a science text, then we have a different argument entirely.
Back to the parable. We tell stories to illustrate points all the time. But we most often tell them within the context of our cultures. The skeleton (words) of the story might be the same in Mogadishu, Paris, London and New York; but the flesh (context) which fills it in will create a different creature.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
And that all sounds reasonable to a lot of people. The thing is though, once you actually look at empirical reality, you realize that same-sex relationships work just fine. Studies seem to consistently find that gay couples are happier than straight couples. They report being more satisfied, not less satisfied, with their relationships than straight couples on average.
Playing devil's advocate for a moment: I think happiness is not actually the point. One of the Eastern Orthodox on the ship (I believe Josephine) said somewhere that marriage is in Eastern Orthodox terms a podvig: a spiritual discipline. Part of the point of marriage is that one occasionally struggles to accommodate one's wishes to one's partner's. (James Joyce voiced a similar thought when he said he couldn't admire Jesus unreservedly since Jesus had never gone through the discipline of being married to a woman.) To that extent, too much similarity is a bad thing in a marriage.
There are other reasons for thinking that happiness is not the only criteria for a successful relationship. (For example, would you prefer not to grieve over your partner when they're gone?)
Of course, abandoning the devil's advocate pose, nothing in the above requires that any difficulty arises out of the two people being different sexes.
That devil's advocacy appears to be the same reasoning that says, in life in general, God requires that we must suffer. it is his will. That if everything is going well, somehow that is a bad thing and God will come along and rectify it as soon as possible.
I've never quite understood how that reasoning works, although I recognise it's been a widely held view in some parts of Christian history. I suspect it's partly derived from Job - although of course Job doesn't really say that God wants Job to suffer, only that God allows it.
It's a fascinating line of thought, though, the proposition that God forbade same-sex relationships because he foresaw how well they'd work.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
I'll take these one at a time as time allows. quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
What I am saying is that where procreation is mentioned, just at the point where one might expect the text to highlight the difference between male and female, it does in fact play the difference down. Male and female is a true distinction, but here it is a strangely muted one.
I'm sorry, but I can't find any objective support for "played down" or "strangely muted". As far as I can see, difference is simply there, and multiplying is the very next sentence. quote:
There is a big difference between saying that God created humans as male and female so that they are able to procreate, and saying that the whole point of God creating males and females is so that they can procreate.
I agree there is a big difference, and I've never made the latter assertion. quote:
I submit that there is a very big point indeed in mentioning it. Given the historically inferior status of women in ancient society, as documented throughout the Bible and continuing into our own time (not helped by the traditional translation of humankind' as 'man' or 'mankind'); and given the Church Fathers' frequent documented assertions – based on this same part of the Bible – that women are an inferior copy of men and to the extent of not being made in the image of God at all – given all that, I can see a very big point indeed in emphasising that "God created humankind in his image … male and female he created them." I am very very glad the text includes that.
So am I, but you can hardly say that it was inserted retrospectively to counter what the Church Fathers taught! Still less if you want to argue simultaneously that they based their arguments on this very same part of the Bible! quote:
those who emphasise the 'otherness' between male and female very frequently go on in the very next move to define what that difference is. And lo and behold, the difference is that women are weaker than and subordinate to men!
I see your edginess. I for one am not trying to turn complementarian on you.
However, I don't think disagreeing with what the complementarians and their like have done by abusing this text is sufficient grounds to claim that no biological gender difference exists or that if it does, it's devoid of significance.
I think I've agreed more than once here that 'otherness' does not break down uniquely, or even necessarily, in terms of gender.
Nevertheless I harbour a suspicion that "male and female" might be an important symbol (I do not say "a condition" or "a pre-requisite") of 'otherness', and that this might somehow be tied up with the fact (I do not say "moral advantage") that it takes a male and female to procreate.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
can you not see the inconsistency of this reasoning?
It chooses a bit actually there as irrelevant. Yet a bit which must be inferred is vital?
I don't follow you. What I was trying to say was that male and female were explicitly part of the Genesis account, whereas the incest is implicit. This means that it's not very convincing for me to claim incest as "the Bible's preferred method of procreation". If it were, it would be explicit. Does that make any more sense? quote:
Be fruitful and multiply, our species has proven very obedient here. So why does this imply that each and every one of us must contribute?
I haven't said that anywhere.
quote:
Back to the parable. We tell stories to illustrate points all the time. But we most often tell them within the context of our cultures. The skeleton (words) of the story might be the same in Mogadishu, Paris, London and New York; but the flesh (context) which fills it in will create a different creature.
I think that what you highlight here is the thorny issue of the extent to which we see these "stories" as foundational and enshrining values that transcend history and culture, and the connected issue of where the dividing line is between this transcendent content and the secondary context.
We will certainly differ on our answers; where I have got to on this can be summarised as follows:
- firstly, I think the universal constant throughout human history and culture that it takes a male and a female to reproduce is good evidence that "male and female" aspect of the narrative is content, not context (but remember, I have not drawn any moral conclusions or made any binding universal applications following this observation)
- secondly, if one should wish to reject the "male/female" distinction made in the narrative on the grounds of it being irrelevant, superseded context, then I think many of the other values which at least some people here see as foundational (such as lifelong monogamous committed relationships) are up for grabs too.
[ 23. August 2014, 17:07: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
This means that it's not very convincing for me to claim incest as "the Bible's preferred method of procreation".
Sorry, found this not clear on re-reading. I meant:
'I don't find it very convincing when you claim incest as "the Bible's preferred method of procreation".'
[ 23. August 2014, 17:11: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
can you not see the inconsistency of this reasoning?
It chooses a bit actually there as irrelevant. Yet a bit which must be inferred is vital?
I don't follow you. What I was trying to say was that male and female were explicitly part of the Genesis account, whereas the incest is implicit.
Male and female are explicitly part, but why does this meant nothing else is allowed? Genesis doesn't say God created anyone but Adam and Eve, so therefore incest happened to fill in the population. Creation is supposed to be the focus here, so why omit these details? Could it be that this thing so many get hung up on is not the focus of the allegory?
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Be fruitful and multiply, our species has proven very obedient here. So why does this imply that each and every one of us must contribute?
I haven't said that anywhere.
No, but this is the only purpose of limiting gender relationships.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
[QB]
and the connected issue of where the dividing line is between this transcendent content and the secondary context.
And determining what is primary and secondary, one should look at the overall context. And for Christians this leans heavily towards Jesus. Who tends heavily towards inclusion.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
- firstly, I think the universal constant throughout human history and culture that it takes a male and a female to reproduce is good evidence that "male and female" aspect of the narrative is content, not context
Why? People framed in the way they understood.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
- secondly, if one should wish to reject the "male/female" distinction made in the narrative on the grounds of it being irrelevant, superseded context, then I think many of the other values which at least some people here see as foundational (such as lifelong monogamous committed relationships) are up for grabs too.
Why?
First, polygamists have strong support in the Bible. Second, committed relationships are of positive benefit. Whilst limiting gender relations hurts significant chunk of the population.
[ 23. August 2014, 18:01: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
Posted by Cottontail (# 12234) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'll take these one at a time as time allows. quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
What I am saying is that where procreation is mentioned, just at the point where one might expect the text to highlight the difference between male and female, it does in fact play the difference down. Male and female is a true distinction, but here it is a strangely muted one.
I'm sorry, but I can't find any objective support for "played down" or "strangely muted". As far as I can see, difference is simply there, and multiplying is the very next sentence.
Yes and no. You agree that the difference is not highlighted. It is not announced with a fanfare, but merely stated as a fact. This is precisely what I mean by 'muted'. But the factualness of the announcement is what is so revolutionary, because the moral point being made here is that men and woman are created equal. Fact. Procreation is the second idea the writer turns to: it is a follow-on, and not the primary point. The writer is talking in fairly general, sweeping, whole-of-humanity terms here, and does not make any kind of comment on the one-man-one-woman paradigm. That comment is made in Genesis 2, but not here.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
I submit that there is a very big point indeed in mentioning it. Given the historically inferior status of women in ancient society, as documented throughout the Bible and continuing into our own time (not helped by the traditional translation of humankind' as 'man' or 'mankind'); and given the Church Fathers' frequent documented assertions – based on this same part of the Bible – that women are an inferior copy of men and to the extent of not being made in the image of God at all – given all that, I can see a very big point indeed in emphasising that "God created humankind in his image … male and female he created them." I am very very glad the text includes that.
So am I, but you can hardly say that it was inserted retrospectively to counter what the Church Fathers taught!
That is silly – I said nothing of the sort. My point is that the text of Genesis 1 has from the start countered the assumption of women's inferiority – an assumption that has survived to this day. The ancient redactors did not have to be inspired to see in front of their own eyes how the whole male-female thing was playing out. Though they may have been inspired to see how it would continue to play out in the future. quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I don't think disagreeing with what the complementarians and their like have done by abusing this text is sufficient grounds to claim that no biological gender difference exists or that if it does, it's devoid of significance.
I have claimed neither. I actually see an importance in 'otherness' – the 'I' and 'Thou' that exists first between us and God, and then between me and you. I can also see that gender may even be one of the primary 'Othernesses' we experience, hence its frequent employment in the Bible as an image of the relationship between God and us.
Where I draw back is from absolutising the metaphor, because that seems to me to be working the wrong way round. Jesus and the Church as Groom and Bride, for example: it is a good metaphor, a blessed metaphor, a worthy metaphor. It helps us understand what the relationship between Jesus and the Church is, by comparing it on key points to the marriage of a man and a woman. Check out Luther's theology of the 'wonderful exchange', for example, where all that God has is ours, and all that we have is God's.
But the metaphor is not the thing. It is culturally conditioned, for starters, where the 'bride' represents the weaker, sinful partner. Absolutise the metaphor – take it too far, reverse the direction of meaning, and make the parallels absolute - and you have just applied it directly to the young couple standing in front of you. Christlike Groom, sinful weaker Bride. (And many have done this in Christian history.)
A metaphor is by definition both similar and different to the thing it is representing. Its meaning shifts about, is hard to pin down. So yes, I would agree that male-and-femaleness is an important symbol of our sameness to and otherness from God. And yes, procreation is another aspect of the image of God that we bear, where we too are 'creators' of a sort, of life and of art. I see no harm whatsoever in using that symbol, and there is much we can continue to learn from it. It works, and it is blessed.
But absolutise that metaphor – make otherness and procreation a central and non-negotiable aspect of our Godlikeness – and suddenly those who do not procreate no longer bear that image. Suddenly those who do not 'pair up', or who pair with a person of the same sex, are only half human. Suddenly, every chimpanzee and stick insect bears more of the image of God than they do, because they too are male and female (most of them!), and they too procreate. Yes, that latter is an ad absurbum: but that's where you ultimately end up if you confuse metaphor with divine reality, rather than simply letting it offer its own little insights into God.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Male and female are explicitly part, but why does this meant nothing else is allowed? Genesis doesn't say God created anyone but Adam and Eve, so therefore incest happened to fill in the population. Creation is supposed to be the focus here, so why omit these details?
I still get the feeling we're talking past each other here. As far as I can see the fact that male and female are "explicitly part" means there's something more important there compared to incest, and indeed, that that is why incest - and who knows what else - was omitted. I haven't said "nothing else is allowed". quote:
And determining what is primary and secondary, one should look at the overall context.
I can only reiterate my observations that gender-different relations producing babies appear to be present in Gen 2, and a universal constant, while incest is not even explicitly mentioned in this passage. quote:
And for Christians this leans heavily towards Jesus. Who tends heavily towards inclusion.
Amen. But however inclusive we are, there will always be a subset of opposite-sex relations that will never be a subset of same-sex relations, which is the subset of couplings that produce babies.
(Also, tangentially, I think it's going to be much more difficult for most churches to be as "inclusive" of, say, promiscuous individuals who exercise what they see as their ability to choose, and change, their sexual orientation as they wish, as of, say, same-sex individuals committed to a monagmous relationship. Inclusiveness is going to run up against limits at some point). quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
- firstly, I think the universal constant throughout human history and culture that it takes a male and a female to reproduce is good evidence that "male and female" aspect of the narrative is content, not context
Why? People framed in the way they understood.
If it's contextual only, how do you think the narrative should be reframed now? quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
- secondly, if one should wish to reject the "male/female" distinction made in the narrative on the grounds of it being irrelevant, superseded context, then I think many of the other values which at least some people here see as foundational (such as lifelong monogamous committed relationships) are up for grabs too.
Why?
First, polygamists have strong support in the Bible.
Again, I don't understand the point you're trying to make and I'm not sure you've understood mine.
If everything can be dismissed as "context", then I don't think it's worth looking at the Bible for any idea of what relationships should be like at all. quote:
Whilst limiting gender relations hurts significant chunk of the population.
How, precisely, do you see me "limiting gender relations" here?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Also the sex tends to be better in same-sex relationships (especially for women) because women know what women like and guys know what guys like.
This would seem to imply that heterosexual couples are incapable learning what each other like. They start off not intuitively knowing what the other likes, and stay there. Like they never talk about sex, not even to say "wait, less of that" or "yes, that's nice." It also strongly suggests that the difference in sexes of the partners is the only, or at least the chief, consideration in learning what the other person likes. Two guys automatically know everything there is to know about each other's sexual turn-ons. Downplaying or totally eliminating the fact that we are individuals and not just interchangeable representatives of our sexes.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I don't think the number of letters is the point, orfeo. And I've never denied her similarity.
What I am disputing is the minimal importance of her difference, for reasons outlined above.
Because Hebrew is a language with feminine word endings. If it weren't, this passage wouldn't be included. It's rather a "just-so story" to explain the difference between two words. Hanging a lot of theology -- and you are hanging a LOT of theology -- on one of these Biblical etymology things, many of which are more puns than serious etymology, is not a responsible use of the text.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
At least until your scientific scenario comes to pass, and choosing my words carefully, I'd say that while it is not a necessary or sufficient reason for marriage, the potential for procreation is at least part of most marriages.
If it's not necessary, it can't be used to rule out SSM. (my emphasis)
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I submit that if that were true, there would be no point mentioning it at all. The text could just stop at "God has made humankind".
There are other points that could be being made. For instance "women are made in God's image just as much as men are." (which might be an important lesson for Dominionists!). Not saying this or any one other thing is the exact point. But that there could be other points.
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
That devil's advocacy appears to be the same reasoning that says, in life in general, God requires that we must suffer. it is his will. That if everything is going well, somehow that is a bad thing and God will come along and rectify it as soon as possible.
I don't see how that's implied. It takes for granted that it is difficult to lay down one's life for another. If that's never a problem for you, if you have reached spiritual perfection in this life, then you are a Boddhisattva, and thank you for gracing us with your presence. But I don't think that's what you're saying. Why is it so bizarre to acknowledge that this is difficult, and that marriage gives us a theatre in which to practice learning to overcome selfishness and learn to love others?
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Be fruitful and multiply, our species has proven very obedient here. So why does this imply that each and every one of us must contribute?
I haven't said that anywhere.
Then why does fertility make any difference at all in the question of SSM?
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I think the universal constant throughout human history and culture that it takes a male and a female to reproduce is good evidence that "male and female" aspect of the narrative is content, not context (but remember, I have not drawn any moral conclusions or made any binding universal applications following this observation)
But it only applies to, well, ability to reproduce, which you have conceded is not a necessary part of marriage. So on the question of SSM, it's irrelevant.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
Cottontail, I think we're pretty close to agreement in almost all you posted there
(plus, I'm tiring!)
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
But absolutise that metaphor – make otherness and procreation a central and non-negotiable aspect of our Godlikeness – and suddenly those who do not procreate no longer bear that image.
I hear what you're saying (and perhaps what you're not saying, for instance about singleness).
The bits of your statement here that I don't identify with are focus around "absolutise", "non-negotiable" and tagging on "procreation" as part of the package.
I think "otherness" is an important part of relationships in general, all the more so long-term sexual relationships. As to the role of biological gender and Adam and Eve in that, I can't get any further for now than my self-quote in the OP: quote:
I think 'otherness' is an important ingredient, and one that biology goes at least some way - I do not say the only way - to providing, out of the box as it were.
[ 23. August 2014, 18:42: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Cottontail (# 12234) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I can only reiterate my observations that gender-different relations producing babies appear to be present in Gen 2,
Once again, there is no mention of producing babies in Genesis 2. None whatsoever.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Hebrew is a language with feminine word endings. If it weren't, this passage wouldn't be included. It's rather a "just-so story" to explain the difference between two words.
It's not about the difference between two words but between two bodies. If you insist on seeing it as a "just-so story", the title is, I would suggest, not "how men and women came to be named differently" but "how men and women are both similar and different". Or, perhaps more provocatively, "how otherness first came about". quote:
If it's not necessary, it can't be used to rule out SSM.
I never said it could. I'm beginning to lose count of the number of people on this thread who seem to assume I'm trying to argue it can. quote:
Then why does fertility make any difference at all in the question of SSM?
Because "fertility" is a subset of hetero sexual relations and not of same-sex relations. That's a fact. I don't quite know for sure what I think about its implications, but what I do perceive is that it's an unwelcome fact for many SSM proponents.
quote:
But it only applies to, well, ability to reproduce, which you have conceded is not a necessary part of marriage. So on the question of SSM, it's irrelevant.
An official circular on the oh-so-secular French Civil Code, post gay-marriage, doesn't think it's irrelevant, but I must plead lack of time and brain energy to produce the evidence for now.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Cottontail:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I can only reiterate my observations that gender-different relations producing babies appear to be present in Gen 2,
Once again, there is no mention of producing babies in Genesis 2. None whatsoever.
I stand corrected.
To put this in context, Lilbuddha was arguing that incest was just as "foundational" by my reasoning as male and female. My response argued that multiplication, which we read as commencing with Adam and Eve, and "male" and "female", and "leaving and cleaving" and all that, are explicit in (being more careful here) the early chapters of Genesis
in a way that incest emphatically isn't. I hope that's clearer.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
it sounds to me as though Starlight would like to see (or at least envisages the possiblity of) gay couples using technology to replicate, as nearly as possible, heterosexual reproduction. That sounds like he is very keen to eliminate this "edge" as though the issue of procreating was an important one.
I am sympathetic towards all couples who would like to have biological children but cannot. This includes infertile straight couples, and includes those gay couples that would choose biological kids were it an option*. Child-bearing can be a very personal and meaningful issue for couples, and so I welcome any technology which allows otherwise infertile couples to get their wish of having biological children. It's a really important issue for those couples to whom it is really important, and it's not at all important to those couples that don't want kids or who are happy to adopt.
It is also an issue that gets repeatedly brought up to argue against same sex relationships, so I am keen to "shoot it down" as you say because letting arguments against same sex relationships stand hurts a loooooot of people.
* The other option for same-sex couples to have biological children, which I've always thought was likely to be my own preferred route to take should I choose to have children in the future, is for an opposite sex sibling of one of the same-sex couple to donate either sperm or egg (as appropriate). eg if my sister agreed to have my husband's child. The resulting child will share genetic material with both same-sex parents (50% with him, 25% with me, and the remaining 25% will be DNA from my family that is shared by my sister and my parents), and the child would then be the full genetic grandchild of both my parents and my husband's parents in the standard way. The only genetic difference between it and a standard biological child would be that it would only share 25% of its DNA with me rather than the usual 50%, however another 25% of it's DNA would be from my immediate family anyway and I personally feel like that counts. So when people say that same-sex couples can't have biological children I roll my eyes, because should I decide to have children in future with my same-sex husband my preferred option would indeed be for them to be our biological children and for them to share DNA with both of us, and this is quite satisfactorily achievable in the present day. (assuming the cooperation of at least one of our sisters) But it looks set to become even more easily achievable in the foreseeable future due to scientific developments.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
This would seem to imply that heterosexual couples are incapable learning what each other like. They start off not intuitively knowing what the other likes, and stay there. Like they never talk about sex, not even to say "wait, less of that" or "yes, that's nice."
Yeah it does. Which is sad. I would like to think that over the long term all couples should be able to learn what each other like. But unfortunately evidence suggests that over the short term at least, guys on average are terrible at knowing what women like and women are reluctant to tell their man that they're doing it wrong in the bedroom. And unfortunately a lot of women probably have good reason to not tell the guy he's doing it wrong because a lot of guys don't take criticism in that department very well. Also the women themselves may not realize that there is a better way to do things if they are as inexperienced as their partner is. Instead women often seem to just end up faking orgasms to make the men feel happy about their own performance. (Here (youtube) is a couple of people discussing this study's results and sharing their own opinions of why the think that women in straight relationships end up often having such unenjoyable sex)
It's sad. It's also why I strongly support detailed and extensive sex education at the high-school level. Because if people can be taught to have better sex lives, to communicate more freely with their partners about what they like and don't like, then people will have better happier relationships that last longer and are more fulfilling.
quote:
It also strongly suggests that the difference in sexes of the partners is the only, or at least the chief, consideration in learning what the other person likes. Two guys automatically know everything there is to know about each other's sexual turn-ons. Downplaying or totally eliminating the fact that we are individuals and not just interchangeable representatives of our sexes.
The differences between the sexes probably is the chief consideration as to what the other person likes - in the sense that the particular good spots and good ways of touching them will feel largely the same to all guys and to all girls. Individual differences are likely to be minor compared to that, but I imagine same-sex couples are more likely to share their own thoughts on what feels good during sex due to them assuming that it will feel good for their partner also, and thus by offering such information they probably feel like they're doing their partner a favour rather than offering criticism.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
(Also, tangentially, I think it's going to be much more difficult for most churches to be as "inclusive" of, say, promiscuous individuals who exercise what they see as their ability to choose, and change, their sexual orientation as they wish, as of, say, same-sex individuals committed to a monagmous relationship. Inclusiveness is going to run up against limits at some point).
There is absolutely no reason to equate bisexuality with promiscuity rather than serial monogamy.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
That devil's advocacy appears to be the same reasoning that says, in life in general, God requires that we must suffer. it is his will. That if everything is going well, somehow that is a bad thing and God will come along and rectify it as soon as possible.
I don't see how that's implied. It takes for granted that it is difficult to lay down one's life for another. If that's never a problem for you, if you have reached spiritual perfection in this life, then you are a Boddhisattva, and thank you for gracing us with your presence. But I don't think that's what you're saying. Why is it so bizarre to acknowledge that this is difficult, and that marriage gives us a theatre in which to practice learning to overcome selfishness and learn to love others?
It isn't at all bizarre to acknowledge that it's difficult. Nor is it bizarre to suggest that marriage provides an opportunity to work on our relational skills to a degree that we couldn't elsewhere.
What I wouldn't accept is any kind of reasoning that therefore, the more difficult the marriage is the better it suits God's purpose. That if we marry someone who is harder work for us, this is somehow better, spiritually, than marrying someone who we only argue with occasionally and who we understand better in the beginning.
That was the direction that Dafyd's 'devil's advocacy' reasoning was heading. That having greater differences was better. I certainly don't think it's implied merely by the proposition that marriage involves work. Dafyd was deliberately making an unnecessary further extension of that - that more work means a better marriage - to play devil's advocate.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
What I wouldn't accept is any kind of reasoning that therefore, the more difficult the marriage is the better it suits God's purpose. That if we marry someone who is harder work for us, this is somehow better, spiritually, than marrying someone who we only argue with occasionally and who we understand better in the beginning.
Fairy nuff. Marriage in general is a podvig. So is monasticism. So is having a roommate. So is having a boss, or coworkers. (There are other podvigs; I am giving examples in the "getting along with other people" range. And of course one can have more than one podvig; it's not a single thing like having "a cross." Indeed perhaps mistaking it with "a cross" is why some people (present company accepted) think of it as a hardship that should be as rigorous as possible.)
I assume that some podvigs suit some people better than others. Maybe it's better to say not that God wants you to have a hard podvig, or as hard a podvig as possible, but rather that God wants you to have a podvig (or podvigs) that will allow you to work on your idiosyncratic set of besetting sins.
But this seems to me to come dangerously close to the idea that God has a perfect route for your life, including where you work and live and whom you marry and so on, and if you deviate from it ever so slightly then you are thwarting (or at least thumbing your nose at) God.
Maybe it's just safest to say that God wants you to become more like Her, and marriage is one thing that can help you get closer to that goal, and leave it at that.
[ 23. August 2014, 22:25: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
That devil's advocacy appears to be the same reasoning that says, in life in general, God requires that we must suffer. it is his will. That if everything is going well, somehow that is a bad thing and God will come along and rectify it as soon as possible.
Mousethief can explain the theology of podvig better than I can. I was thinking it's closer to saying that it's more rewarding to overcome a challenge than to just be given things on a plate.
Though I think from what mousethief says, it's more that we need opportunities to learn charity, and it is harder to learn charity if the closest people we need to learn charity for are people with whom we have fewer disagreements.
(But as I said earlier, using it as an argument against same-sex relationships would require thinking that all differences other than sexual difference are spiritually insignificant, which doesn't seem to be the case.)
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I still get the feeling we're talking past each other here.
We might well be.
Let me take this to the fundamental issue I have here.
Reading the Bible, regardless of any position I have seen demonstrated, requires interpretation at many points. Context is used and explicit instruction is ignored by everyone. So why is your interpretation, one that is harmful to many people, the right or moral one?
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
There is absolutely no reason to equate bisexuality with promiscuity rather than serial monogamy.
Or indeed for equate it with anything that implies any number of partners. Bisexual people can be celibate, chaste or faithfully monogamous just like anyone else. My wife is bi.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
Child-bearing (...) is also an issue that gets repeatedly brought up to argue against same sex relationships, so I am keen to "shoot it down" as you say because letting arguments against same sex relationships stand hurts a loooooot of people.
I'm not bringing it up to argue against same sex relationships, but to point out that there will always be an option for child-bearing (natural reproduction) that is unavailable to same-sex couples, and that this constitutes a difference. Natural reproduction will forever be a subset of heterosexual couplings and never of homosexual couplings.
I keep insisting on this partly because I myself think that lurking in that fact somewhere there might be something important (which I can't articulate yet). In addition, this intuition is fuelled by my observation that this fact appears to be a singularly unwelcome one for SSM proponents, to the point of trying to bury it.
Starlight, on my first thread, referenced in the OP, the gaping holes in the bog-standard "gays can't have children so SSM must be wrong" argument became abundantly clear to me (and they never were before). I can see how frustrating it must be to hear badly thought-through arguments like this, against one's intimate convictions and aspirations, bandied about as gospel and feel powerless to correct them.
Many opponents of SSM have certainly hurt SSM proponents by failure to engage seriously with them on such an important subject, and to the extent that I've ever done so in the past, I apologise for what it's worth.
That said, and if you are to offer me the same courtesy in return, I have to pull you up on statements like this: quote:
The other option for same-sex couples to have biological children
I see what you mean, and I can see lots of advantages to the plan you outline, it could be a great idea - but by describing this in terms of "same-sex couples having biological children" you are making it sound identical, in terms of process, to something (natural reproduction) which is a physical impossibility. It could be described as a best approximation (would you be happy with that description, by the way?), but it is not the same, not least because you are involving another human being in the process.
I'm not saying you personally are doing this deliberately, but that linguistic shortcut to describe processes that are so different appears dubious to me, and unhelpful. More could be said - but not now!
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
There is absolutely no reason to equate bisexuality with promiscuity rather than serial monogamy.
You are right and I apologise for this shortcut of my own.
To clarify this little tangent, what I had in mind in the context was an aspiration to a lifelong, committed monogamous relationship (which I believe is something you yourself aspire to).
If someone of any orientation does not have this aspiration to a lifelong commitment, or indeed actively aspires to other choices, then I think full inclusion by a church (at least in terms of recognition of any marriage) is going to present greater challenges.
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
So why is your interpretation, one that is harmful to many people, the right or moral one?
I'm sorry lilBuddha, but I'm still not sure what you think my interpretation is.
Earlier on, I asked you quote:
How, precisely, do you see me "limiting gender relations" here?
I think I'd have a better idea of where you're coming from if you could answer that.
[x-post with arethosemyfeet. I hope my clarification to orfeo addresses your point too]
[ 24. August 2014, 06:43: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'm not bringing it up to argue against same sex relationships, but to point out that there will always be an option for child-bearing (natural reproduction) that is unavailable to same-sex couples, and that this constitutes a difference. Natural reproduction will forever be a subset of heterosexual couplings and never of homosexual couplings.
I keep insisting on this partly because I myself think that lurking in that fact somewhere there might be something important (which I can't articulate yet). In addition, this intuition is fuelled by my observation that this fact appears to be a singularly unwelcome one for SSM proponents, to the point of trying to bury it.
Lots of other people have spotted that same difference. When I first started discussing same sex relationships in a Christian context online about ten years ago, a few people pointed out that difference. Some people thought it might be an important difference but they had trouble explaining why, similar to you. I could personally never understand why anyone thought it might be relevant, and they were never able to find a good way of explaining why they thought it might be important or expressing that difference into some sort of argument for any particular position.
Over the years that I've been following arguments around the world about gay marriage closely (as I enjoy philosophy, politics and theology) and the fact that gay people can't procreate together in the usual way has been repeatedly mentioned and asserted as a reason that gay people should not be able to marry, because it's an obvious difference between gay and (some) straight marriages. As I've followed closely gay marriage getting legalized around the world, I've seen in country after country people say "but gay people can't have children!". This observation has been made by opponents of same-sex marriage two dozen times in US courts in the last year alone, and the judges' response has always ultimately been "so what?" A popular response recently has been to then argue that the State is in the business of regulating marriage solely because it is interested in seeing children raised well, and that therefore the State only has interest in the marriages of opposite sex couples (since they're able to procreate). Judges have tended to roll their eyes at that and point out that the State's interests in marriage are for many and varied legal reasons not solely children, that same-sex couples regularly raise children, and that many opposite sex couples are infertile and nobody supports the idea of making fertility tests a government prerequisite for marriage. And what we have seen time after time is there is no real reason why the procreative difference is relevant - no one in the world has been able to explain why it is relevant.
My personal observation of seeing that statement made again and again and again over the course of ten years is this: There is no follow up - there is nothing lurking in that premise that can be teased out - there is no further logical follow-on that expresses why that difference is important - for all intents and purposes that difference turns out to be unimportant. Nobody in 10 years in half a dozen western countries has managed to find any reasons why that observation should matter.
And if I, being relatively young (31), am getting bored of seeing it pointlessly repeated for a decade now, I imagine quite a lot of older gay people have been seeing that same observation being repeated for multiple decades, and it's still just as irrelevant now as it was then. My view is that you're more than welcome to ponder the implications of this difference! I'm just trying to be helpful and noting that from my own experience I can tell you now that no matter how hard you ponder and no matter how long for you'll never find any reason why that difference is relevant because if such a reason existed then somebody else would have thought of it decades ago.
A lot of conservatives around the world have been searching for "differences" over the last few decades in order to find reasons to disallow gay marriages. My all time favourite most amusing 'difference' was a Mexican congresswomen who apparently expressed the view that "A marriage should only be considered amongst people that can look at each other in the eye while having sexual intercourse". I've never been able to decide what's more amusing, that she thinks that criteria's relevant to marriage, or her complete ignorance of how gay sex works...
quote:
It could be described as a best approximation (would you be happy with that description, by the way?)
I am happy with the description "best approximation" yes. I don't tend to be overly fussy about using the right words as long as general meaning is conveyed clearly.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
Good post, Starlight. The meaning of marriage has changed, as society has. I suppose some conservatives decry that, and argue that God has decreed X, Y and Z, and you can't change that, and secular society is rushing down the hill to ruination.
That seems absurd to many people.
Posted by MSHB (# 9228) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
My all time favourite most amusing 'difference' was a Mexican congresswomen who apparently expressed the view that "A marriage should only be considered amongst people that can look at each other in the eye while having sexual intercourse". I've never been able to decide what's more amusing, that she thinks that criteria's relevant to marriage, or her complete ignorance of how gay sex works...
But ... but ... many heterosexual couples have sex in the dark and cannot see each other's eyes. Does that congresswoman think their marriages are invalid too? And what about blind people? The mind boggles.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
That's usually the amusing thing about these claims about gay folk - that it actually takes very little effort to apply the same claims to straight folk as well.
I think Starlight's right: I think if those people firmly opposed to same-sex marriage had something more solid to go on than 'but they can't procreate', then they'd use it. That they continue to roll out the same obviously fallacious ground (obviously fallacious because of the ease with which non-procreating heterosexual couples can be married) shows that they don't have anything better.
It is theoretically possible to construct an argument that morally, the only kind of acceptable marriage is a procreative one, but in most of the Western world people seem terribly reluctant to follow through on the logic of that view and condemn non-procreative heterosexual couples in the same that they condemn homosexual couples.
The only other way it seems to me that it's possible to legitimately challenge same-sex relationships is to find a way that men and women are inherently different so that only a relationship between the 2 different types of people is a proper relationship. Which is really what Eutychus is trying to do. The problem that he's up against, though, is in identifying a meaningful 'otherness' beyond the obvious physical capacities for sexual reproduction.
This is because we live in a world that no longer accepts much in the way of roles that are inherently male or inherently female. We've had decades and decades, now, of women demonstrating that actually it's the characteristics and abilities of the individual that matter. To try and articulate specific qualities of men or of women, one has to go back to pigeonholing people together based purely on their gender.
Which is why I mentioned feminism and sex discrimination law. If he's going to come with a reason why same-sex relationships aren't equally viable, Eutychus is ultimately going to have to come up with a statement of "otherness" that says, in some respect or other "women are like this and men are not", or "men are like this and women are not". In short, he's going to have to engage in stereotyping of straight men and women.
He'll be a braver man than I...
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
The only other way it seems to me that it's possible to legitimately challenge same-sex relationships is to find a way that men and women are inherently different so that only a relationship between the 2 different types of people is a proper relationship. Which is really what Eutychus is trying to do.
As far as I know my own mind, that's not what I'm trying to do. Let me try and put at least some of my cards on the table.
As I said, I feel I cannot afford to be agnostic on this matter because I am in a leadership position, as palimpsest argued on the relevant thread.
As I hinted at the end of my last thread here, my views on SSM have changed, and they have changed largely (although not exclusively) as a result of that last thread.
In caricatural terms, I have gone from protesting on orfeo's putative lawn to trying to wangle an invitation to his putative (same-sex) wedding.
In more serious terms, I now think the social argument for SSM is compelling, and while I didn't enjoy the tone of the debate at all, I largely have justinian to thank for that, again on the other thread.
I also think there is a "christian" argument to be made in favour of SSM. However, I personally am not happy with every aspect of how I have seen "christian" arguments presented. To be frank, I think there is disingenuousness on both sides. When people use phrases like "biological parents" to try and subsume two processes which are, to my mind, vastly different, I honestly find it just as suspect as I now find anti-SSM proponents arguing (as I once tried to, more or less) that "gay couples can't have children and straight couples can".
These issues reach too far down within our own psyches to be glossed over, especially when one has pastoral responsibilities. I can't fudge the issues and hope nobody notices - or at least I can't live with myself doing so.
In addition, the issue meshes with that of how one reads the Bible. I'm no literalist, but struggling to understand what Genesis 1-3 ought to mean today, by my own lights, in terms of marriage, is also challenging how I view Scripture and how I think it can legitimately be interpreted today.
If I am to find my own way through on this, and act accordingly, I have to be able to do so in all good conscience.
I suspect there is a good chance that of all the churches I am regularly in fellowship with where I am (which is quite a few across a fair spectrum), there is a good chance ours will be the first to be asked to bless a same-sex marriage. I would like to be able to say yes - but I would also like to do so on terms that are right for the couple in question, right for whoever officiates and right for our church.
For those willing to indulge me while I work this through, amid various other responsiblities and challenges, my thanks.
[ 24. August 2014, 12:56: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
To be frank, I think there is disingenuousness on both sides. When people use phrases like "biological parents" to try and subsume two processes which are, to my mind, vastly different, I honestly find it just as suspect as I now find anti-SSM proponents arguing (as I once tried to, more or less) that "gay couples can't have children and straight couples can".
I certainly wouldn't say I find every argument rolled out in favour of same-sex marriage compelling, any more than I find every argument I've seen to explain why the Bible isn't against homosexual relationships compelling.
I just find some of them compelling and none compelling in the other direction.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
I haven't said anything about "compelling" in the part you've quoted. I said there was evidence of disingenuousness on both sides, and gave an example. Do you dispute that?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
No, I thought that I was agreeing with you.
Posted by Net Spinster (# 16058) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'm not bringing it up to argue against same sex relationships, but to point out that there will always be an option for child-bearing (natural reproduction) that is unavailable to same-sex couples, and that this constitutes a difference. Natural reproduction will forever be a subset of heterosexual couplings and never of homosexual couplings.
Actually it will forever be a subset of coupling. Some people are incapable of reproducing so any couple they belong to whether same sex or opposite sex is incapable of reproducing, should they be prohibited from marrying?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
Actually it will forever be a subset of coupling.
That's true too, but it is also true that the set "couples that can reproduce" is a subset of the set "heterosexual couples" and that the set "homosexual couples" does not intersect with either. That may seem like hair-splitting, but in my country at least, and at least for now, it is a distinction that is deemed important enough to be reflected in the law on SSM. quote:
Some people are incapable of reproducing so any couple they belong to whether same sex or opposite sex is incapable of reproducing, should they be prohibited from marrying?
Not in my view, no.
[ 24. August 2014, 14:50: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
No, I thought that I was agreeing with you.
Sorry; crossed wires.
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'm not bringing it up to argue against same sex relationships, but to point out that there will always be an option for child-bearing (natural reproduction) that is unavailable to same-sex couples, and that this constitutes a difference. Natural reproduction will forever be a subset of heterosexual couplings and never of homosexual couplings.
Actually it will forever be a subset of coupling. Some people are incapable of reproducing so any couple they belong to whether same sex or opposite sex is incapable of reproducing, should they be prohibited from marrying?
I can't remember his name but one shipmate has said that I am not validly married because Figbash and I agreed that we did not want children.
Personally, I find the fact that post-menopausal women can be married by the RCC, but paraplegics cannot, utterly incomprehensible.
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on
:
One idea that I feel hasn't been touched enough on this thread is the bit about 'becoming one flesh' which to me implies that the act of sex produces a physical, emotional, and mental bonding and almost certainly with a spiritual aspect. Paul at one point implies that this does sort-of-work – but questionably – when the sex is immoral, e.g., with a prostitute. Now I will understand if atheist shipmates want to deride that, but it seems to me that 'becoming one flesh' must be regarded by Christians as rather a big deal. And it is not easy to avoid the conclusion that by quoting this passage about male and female becoming one flesh in that way, Jesus is rather affirming that this is intended as a male/female only thing...?
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
:
(Am I the only one who doesn't see Genesis 1–2 as a guide of how we should do sex?)
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
Steve Langton, I only see that as an argument for monogamy.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
I'll leave somebody else to interact with Steve Langton and instead, offer you a piece of French legislation (bear with me!).
What follows is from an official circular setting out how various provisions of the French Civil Code are to be applied to same sex marriage. The particular piece I want to quote relates to children, and more specifically the issue of filiation.
In brief, for natural births by women in a hetero married couple, filiation ("the legal relationship between parent and child") is de facto that a child's filiation is to the mother who bore it and, by presumption, to the mother's husband (unmarried fathers may acknowledge paternity of a child in certain circumstances).
The text reads as follows (section 1): quote:
le mariage entre deux personnes de même sexe n’emporte aucun effet en matière de filiation non adoptive.
Ainsi la filiation d’un enfant à l’égard d’un couple de personnes de même sexe ne pourra que résulter d’un jugement d’adoption.
Aucune reconnaissance par la compagne de la mère qui accouche n’est possible et la présomption de paternité ne peut être étendue à l’épouse de la mère qui accouche.
which I have rendered in English as follows: quote:
marriage between two persons of the same sex shall have no effect as regards non-adoptive filiation.
Thus, the filiation of a child with respect to a couple in which both persons are of the same sex is possible only by means of an adoption ruling.
No acknowledgement of paternity of the child by the partner of the mother who gives birth is possible, and the presumption of paternity shall not apply to the wife of the mother who gives birth.
In other words, the de facto filiation that applies between spouses and children born in a hetero marriage does not (currently) apply for children of a same sex marriage. One could imagine the "presumption of paternity" being extended to the non-childbearing partner, but no: the child can only be considered to be the child of both same-sex partners following an adoption ruling.
I have quoted all this to highlight the fact that in law, as unimpeachably secular a source as the French State treats the children born in a hetero marriage (including presumption of paternity of the father) differently to those born, by whatever means, during the course of a same sex marriage. There is a difference, and it is a difference that is inextricably related to biological gender and the potential thereof.
This also highlights that fact that even if the arrangements for filiation end up having the same legal value, it is misleading to lump them all together, for instance with shorthand like "biological parents". For hetero marriages, childbirth has an automatic effect, notably presumption of paternity*; within a same-sex marriage, it has no automatic effect for the non-childbearing partner; the simple formality of acknowledgement of paternity is not possible either. The only route is adoption.
Working through the implications of all this law in real-life circumstances could be cumbersome at best and distressing at worse (the range of options and scenarios for adoption in that one document alone is labyrinthine).
This sort of thing is, by the way, one of the reasons that, even though I'm now in favour of SSM (misleadingly branded here as "marriage for all"), I think the bright promise it holds out for same-sex couples at first sight is not quite all it is trumpeted as being. It does not give full equality before the law, because of biological gender.
==
*This being a subject I might return to subsequently.
[ 24. August 2014, 20:40: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on
:
by Le Roc;
quote:
(Am I the only one who doesn't see Genesis 1–2 as a guide of how we should do sex?)
Surprisingly (!) I see Genesis 1-3 as a guide to a great deal more - it's just that here, sex is the bit actually under discussion, not least because Jesus quoted the passage in a significant context.
by Curiosity Killed;
quote:
Steve Langton, I only see that as an argument for monogamy.
And the bit about the monogamous couple being 'male and female', both in the original quote and in Jesus' use of it, isn't relevant??
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Now I will understand if atheist shipmates want to deride that, but it seems to me that 'becoming one flesh' must be regarded by Christians as rather a big deal. And it is not easy to avoid the conclusion that by quoting this passage about male and female becoming one flesh in that way, Jesus is rather affirming that this is intended as a male/female only thing...?
Well, I'm an atheist so I'll gladly deride that. Not because it's a bunch of mystic mumbo jumbo but because it's a blatantly fallacious bit of reasoning.
Your argument goes like this:
- Jesus gave an example of a man and a woman becoming one flesh.
- Therefore Jesus says there is no other possible combination of people that can "become one flesh".
The second is a massive non-sequitur, jumping from A permits B to not!A means B is impossible.
Of course we return to the question of whether the same standard would be applied to straight couples. For example, could a straight couple get an annulment if on of the parties maintained there was no "spiritual aspect" to the union? How would anyone else tell?
[ 24. August 2014, 21:54: Message edited by: Crœsos ]
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I have quoted all this to highlight the fact that in law, as unimpeachably secular a source as the French State treats the children born in a hetero marriage (including presumption of paternity of the father) differently to those born, by whatever means, during the course of a same sex marriage. There is a difference, and it is a difference that is inextricably related to biological gender and the potential thereof.
In a situation of remarriage, the non-biological parent can adopt the other parent's children. Even if the parents are of different sexes. Therefore, the difference you cite is NOT inextricably related to biological gender.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'm not bringing it up to argue against same sex relationships, but to point out that there will always be an option for child-bearing (natural reproduction) that is unavailable to same-sex couples, and that this constitutes a difference. Natural reproduction will forever be a subset of heterosexual couplings and never of homosexual couplings.
Not for all different-sex couples. Some are infertile. There is a difference, but not an absolute one. A subset of hetero couplings maps onto homosexual couplings with respect to ability to reproduce with one another.
Has anybody, by the way, said why ability to reproduce with one another is so all-falutin' important?
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
If someone of any orientation does not have this aspiration to a lifelong commitment, or indeed actively aspires to other choices, then I think full inclusion by a church (at least in terms of recognition of any marriage) is going to present greater challenges.
Quite the opposite. In many churches, if you are in a SSM, you are perforce not welcome. If you are not, you may be welcomed, and then forgiven should you fall into sin the next time. Or the next. Or the next. In fact, these churches de facto prefer gays without (or who act as if they were without) an aspiration to lifelong commitment.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Has anybody, by the way, said why ability to reproduce with one another is so all-falutin' important?
No, nor do we see the principle being applied consistently. The aforementioned non-reproducing opposite-sex couples being one example. Another is married parents who have their children removed from their custody. If the state grants special treatment to married couples to encourage and support child raising, why doesn't being ruled an unfit parent come with a forcible divorce?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
In a situation of remarriage, the non-biological parent can adopt the other parent's children. Even if the parents are of different sexes. Therefore, the difference you cite is NOT inextricably related to biological gender.
It applies to hetero couples (but not to all of them) and to no same-sex couples.
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I'm not bringing it up to argue against same sex relationships, but to point out that there will always be an option for child-bearing (natural reproduction) that is unavailable to same-sex couples, and that this constitutes a difference. Natural reproduction will forever be a subset of heterosexual couplings and never of homosexual couplings.
Not for all different-sex couples. Some are infertile.
That's why it's a subset. quote:
A subset of hetero couplings maps onto homosexual couplings with respect to ability to reproduce with one another.
I'm gonna need a Venn diagram to understand that. quote:
Has anybody, by the way, said why ability to reproduce with one another is so all-falutin' important?
Nope, but I haven't said it's important, either. For now, I've just said it's a difference. I plead the need for more time.
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
If someone of any orientation does not have this aspiration to a lifelong commitment, or indeed actively aspires to other choices, then I think full inclusion by a church (at least in terms of recognition of any marriage) is going to present greater challenges.
Quite the opposite. In many churches, if you are in a SSM, you are perforce not welcome. If you are not, you may be welcomed, and then forgiven should you fall into sin the next time. Or the next. Or the next. In fact, these churches de facto prefer gays without (or who act as if they were without) an aspiration to lifelong commitment.
I don't think they'd like people actively promoting promiscuous lifestyles of any kind. My point stands: there are limits to inclusiveness.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Has anybody, by the way, said why ability to reproduce with one another is so all-falutin' important?
Nope, but I haven't said it's important, either. For now, I've just said it's a difference. I plead the need for more time.
As someone up thread has noted, the anti-SSM side has had several decades to come up with something and has failed. I don't know if you'll be any more successful.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
If someone of any orientation does not have this aspiration to a lifelong commitment, or indeed actively aspires to other choices, then I think full inclusion by a church (at least in terms of recognition of any marriage) is going to present greater challenges. quote:
Quite the opposite. In many churches, if you are in a SSM, you are perforce not welcome. If you are not, you may be welcomed, and then forgiven should you fall into sin the next time. Or the next. Or the next. In fact, these churches de facto prefer gays without (or who act as if they were without) an aspiration to lifelong commitment.
I don't think they'd like people actively promoting promiscuous lifestyles of any kind. My point stands: there are limits to inclusiveness.
You have moved the goalposts. Now you're talking about promoting promiscuity. As you can see, that was not in your original post. I'm not going to play the chasing-the-goalposts game. if you can't or won't answer what I actually said vis-a-vis what you actually said, then let's just let it drop.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
Actually it will forever be a subset of coupling.
That's true too, but it is also true that the set "couples that can reproduce" is a subset of the set "heterosexual couples" and that the set "homosexual couples" does not intersect with either. That may seem like hair-splitting, but in my country at least, and at least for now, it is a distinction that is deemed important enough to be reflected in the law on SSM.
It's actually the law on marriage we're interested in. That's the point. And if the law on marriage doesn't forbid the marriage of couples that can't reproduce, then yes, there is a great deal of hair-splitting going on when some couples that can't reproduce can marry, but some other couples that can't reproduce are refused marriage.
It's been said before on these boards by others, but now seems an appropriate time to say to you that I don't want the right to same-sex marry. I just want the right to marry.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
One idea that I feel hasn't been touched enough on this thread is the bit about 'becoming one flesh' which to me implies that the act of sex produces a physical, emotional, and mental bonding and almost certainly with a spiritual aspect. Paul at one point implies that this does sort-of-work – but questionably – when the sex is immoral, e.g., with a prostitute. Now I will understand if atheist shipmates want to deride that, but it seems to me that 'becoming one flesh' must be regarded by Christians as rather a big deal. And it is not easy to avoid the conclusion that by quoting this passage about male and female becoming one flesh in that way, Jesus is rather affirming that this is intended as a male/female only thing...?
Sorry, why on earth would you think that an act of homosexual sex doesn't produce "a physical, emotional, and mental bonding and almost certainly with a spiritual aspect"?
You can't have it both ways. You clearly don't think that heterosexual sex produces 'one flesh' in the sense that a couple are physically locked together and unable to separate again. Yet you think that one physical position involving penis-in-vagina produces 'bonding' but other physical positions don't? Is that what you think? Can you not see how fundamentally illogical that is?
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on
:
by Croesos;
quote:
Your argument goes like this:
Jesus gave an example of a man and a woman becoming one flesh.
Therefore Jesus says there is no other possible combination of people that can "become one flesh".
No, my argument doesn't go like that at all. Go back to the original texts and use your brain to understand their argument.
Posted by Steve Langton (# 17601) on
:
by orfeo;
quote:
Sorry, why on earth would you think that an act of homosexual sex doesn't produce "a physical, emotional, and mental bonding and almost certainly with a spiritual aspect"?
Actually I think the problem is that it does - but in a way not intended by God and therefore undesirable.
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
Eutychus - I can see a reasonable secular reason for adoption of children of SSM, and that's to do with ensuring that any rights of anyone involved in providing biological material for child are negated. I am not sure how far it has gone, but there was a lot of discussion about the rights of children to know who had donated the sperm for artificial insemination - so they could check for genetic markers or issues. For children of a heterosexual marriage, from what you have quoted, the law negates the rights of any extra-marital partners by assuming any child born within the marriage is that of the married couple.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by orfeo;
quote:
Sorry, why on earth would you think that an act of homosexual sex doesn't produce "a physical, emotional, and mental bonding and almost certainly with a spiritual aspect"?
Actually I think the problem is that it does - but in a way not intended by God and therefore undesirable.
Oh well, if you think homosexual sex is inherently immoral, I'm just going to say that I don't agree with you and not bother to reopen the entire debate about Romans 1 or various other passages.
The reason this thread is not traversing such territory is that it's focused on 'otherness', not 'wrongness'.
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I have quoted all this to highlight the fact that in law, as unimpeachably secular a source as the French State treats the children born in a hetero marriage (including presumption of paternity of the father) differently to those born, by whatever means, during the course of a same sex marriage. There is a difference, and it is a difference that is inextricably related to biological gender and the potential thereof.
In a situation of remarriage, the non-biological parent can adopt the other parent's children. Even if the parents are of different sexes. Therefore, the difference you cite is NOT inextricably related to biological gender.
But it is in that, when a married woman gives birth, if she is married to a man, he is automatically the child's parent, but if she is married to a woman, her wife has to sign adoption papers to have any legal rights as a parent of the child.
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
For children of a heterosexual marriage, from what you have quoted, the law negates the rights of any extra-marital partners by assuming any child born within the marriage is that of the married couple.
Isn't that the case in UK law as well?
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Go back to the original texts and use your brain to understand their argument.
Translation: If you don't agree with my interpretation, you are not using your brain.
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
In a situation of remarriage, the non-biological parent can adopt the other parent's children. Even if the parents are of different sexes. Therefore, the difference you cite is NOT inextricably related to biological gender.
But it is in that, when a married woman gives birth, if she is married to a man, he is automatically the child's parent, but if she is married to a woman, her wife has to sign adoption papers to have any legal rights as a parent of the child.
But that's not an inextricable right. That's a legal situation that could be changed by a court ruling or by legislation.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief: quote:
quote:
Quite the opposite. In many churches, if you are in a SSM, you are perforce not welcome. If you are not, you may be welcomed, and then forgiven should you fall into sin the next time. Or the next. Or the next. In fact, these churches de facto prefer gays without (or who act as if they were without) an aspiration to lifelong commitment.
I don't think they'd like people actively promoting promiscuous lifestyles of any kind. My point stands: there are limits to inclusiveness.
You have moved the goalposts. Now you're talking about promoting promiscuity. As you can see, that was not in your original post. I'm not going to play the chasing-the-goalposts game. if you can't or won't answer what I actually said vis-a-vis what you actually said, then let's just let it drop.
I still think your missing the point of my comment in its original context, and that this is a tangent. I think historically, as has been pointed out elsewhere, female couples ('Miss so and so and her companion') have had a much better ride in churches than male couples and perhaps even than sinngles.
[ 25. August 2014, 05:44: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
It's been said before on these boards by others, but now seems an appropriate time to say to you that I don't want the right to same-sex marry. I just want the right to marry.
Yes, and lest there be any doubt on that point, I support you in that right.
I know I'm dealing with a drafter of laws here. Can we agree that "right to marry" means "right to enter a socially recognised monogamous relationship entailing notions of commitment and faithfulness and various rights regarding kinship, property, succession and parenthood"? Have I left anything out? Ought I to remove anything? Would you seek to alter any of my wording?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
For children of a heterosexual marriage, from what you have quoted, the law negates the rights of any extra-marital partners by assuming any child born within the marriage is that of the married couple.
It doesn't so much negate them as require them to be asserted (and presumably justified). What I find interesting is the assumption.
I might be missing some other reasons, but what it tells me is that regardless of the hetero couple's ability to procreate and their sexual habits, the default position of the law is to assume they are both fertile and that the mother at least is faithful.
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
when a married woman gives birth, if she is married to a man, he is automatically the child's parent, but if she is married to a woman, her wife has to sign adoption papers to have any legal rights as a parent of the child.
But that's not an inextricable right. That's a legal situation that could be changed by a court ruling or by legislation.
That's my point. Married gay couples are not entirely equal under the law to married hetero couples in my instance, a) because the presumption of paternity does not apply b) they will have to go through - and win - some sort of adoption procedure before children in the household enjoy all the same rights as those in a hetero household.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
It's been said before on these boards by others, but now seems an appropriate time to say to you that I don't want the right to same-sex marry. I just want the right to marry.
Yes, and lest there be any doubt on that point, I support you in that right.
I know I'm dealing with a drafter of laws here. Can we agree that "right to marry" means "right to enter a socially recognised monogamous relationship entailing notions of commitment and faithfulness and various rights regarding kinship, property, succession and parenthood"? Have I left anything out? Ought I to remove anything? Would you seek to alter any of my wording?
Can we agree that non-procreative couples currently enjoy that right? As part of the law of marriage?
That was rather more the point. It's simply not true that marriage law makes a distinction between couples with reproductive abilities and couples without them. And now that French law allows SSM, it is still not true that French law makes a distinction between the rights of procreative couples and non-procreative couples. It makes a distinction between heterosexual couples and homosexual couples.
You've observed the fact that some couples on one side of that divide are capable of straightforward biological reproduction, and that no couples on the other side of that divide are, but so what? That doesn't make reproduction the basis of the divide or relevant to the divide.
It makes about as much sense as thinking that because a law divides fruit into citrus and non-citrus, it's actually all about oranges and that being an orange is somehow significant. It's not, beyond the fact that being an orange brings a piece of fruit into the classification that's actually cared about, which is citrus.
Meanwhile, a variety of other non-orange fruit also falls within that same category. It's simply not accurate to say that the law distinguishes between oranges and non-oranges, or that the fact that oranges are citrus is somehow terribly significant. If the law had wanted to make being an orange significant, it could have talked about oranges.
[ 25. August 2014, 06:57: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Can we agree that non-procreative couples currently enjoy that right? As part of the law of marriage?
Yes indeed. quote:
And now that French law allows SSM, it is still not true that French law makes a distinction between the rights of procreative couples and non-procreative couples. It makes a distinction between heterosexual couples and homosexual couples.
Yes, but one that has its roots in the procreative potential of the couple. If there were no procreative potential, no distinction would need to be made. quote:
You've observed the fact that some couples on one side of that divide are capable of straightforward biological reproduction, and that no couples on the other side of that divide are, but so what? That doesn't make reproduction the basis of the divide or relevant to the divide.
I think it is relevant when it comes to the archetype of marriage, but I haven't thought this aspect through yet to my own satisfaction.
[ 25. August 2014, 07:10: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
Usually there's a certain slant in family law to protect children. So I would have thought that the adoption of children into a SSM was to do with protecting the child from being removed from that relationship without agreement. And that's why the surrogate mother or sperm donor has to lose any parental rights through adoption or parental orders.
I can think of situations for heterosexual relationships where this happens:
In the UK there is exact parity with parental orders for all relationships if there is some genetic relationship. Adoption only happens if the child has not a genetic relationship with either parent.
So it doesn't look any different to similar situations in heterosexual relationships to me.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
So it doesn't look any different to similar situations in heterosexual relationships to me.
There is a difference with children born to a mother in a heterosexual relationship. The child has filiation with the mother and her husband, who is presumed to be the father, with no legal procedure required apart from registration of the birth.
quote:
So I would have thought that the adoption of children into a SSM was to do with protecting the child from being removed from that relationship without agreement.
I had come to the opposite, speculative conclusion: that the requirement for adoption was to allow the judge to get a good look at the circumstances in which the sperm donor or surrogate motherhood was arranged.
As things stand, as I understand French law, a sterile husband in a hetero marriage is de facto assigned presumption of paternity, no adoption necessary. Why do you think a same-sex partner is not (genuine open question)?
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on
:
In the UK, the same parental order applies for sperm donation or egg donation - it's on the link. Maybe the French are not happy thinking through the ways marriages can be fruitful and multiply when the man is infertile?
And yes, the parental orders and adoption orders have requirements for checking the situation.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
I'm not sure (and have not had time to investigate) what a "parental order" is exactly, but it still sounds to me like something rather more than de facto presumption of paternity.
I think the reason is to do with archetypes.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I have quoted all this to highlight the fact that in law, as unimpeachably secular a source as the French State treats the children born in a hetero marriage (including presumption of paternity of the father) differently to those born, by whatever means, during the course of a same sex marriage. There is a difference, and it is a difference that is inextricably related to biological gender and the potential thereof.
Er... so you've found a bit of French law that may need fixing. So what?
Here in NZ our adoption laws still need to be updated to deal with civil unions properly: Married same-sex couples can adopt jointly, but gay or straight couples who have opted for a "civil union" rather than a "marriage" can't adopt jointly and one spouse has to adopt the child then have the other apply for guardianship... it's bonkers, and a historical result of the adoption law being written before civil unions existed, and because Christians at the time civil unions were passed were against allowing same sex couples to adopt. (The fact that gay people as individuals have always been able to adopt children, and that they now can adopt jointly as married couples due to the recognition of gay marriage, seems to have slipped under the radar of a lot of Christians here.)
Laws often end up having such silly inconsistencies that are there for convoluted historical reasons. (Another thing the conservative Christians here were panicking about was a historical piece in the existing marriage legislation that said questioning a legally valid marriage was an offence... they were worried they'd be fined under that section if they questioned the validity of same sex marriages once same-sex marriages were legalized. Unfortunately that paragraph got removed when gay marriage was allowed... ~sigh~ I would have been amused to seeing conservatives fined "an amount not exceeding $200" for denying the validity of same sex marriages, which was probably a truly massive amount of money in the 1950s when that law was passed...)
I can see though a possible reason for (something similar to) the French rule in the sense of keeping things simple: The doctor writes the (presumed) biological parents of the child on the birth certificate. And if someone wants to change or challenge that - eg the husband asserts that his wife has cheated on him and he's not the real father; or if there's a previous agreement that the women is having the child as a surrogate for a male same-sex couple - they can then apply to do so. I have no idea whatsoever what NZ law is in relation to guardianship from birth, but I suspect if it's anything like our adoption laws then it's so archaic that it has spiderwebs covering it.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
And now that French law allows SSM, it is still not true that French law makes a distinction between the rights of procreative couples and non-procreative couples. It makes a distinction between heterosexual couples and homosexual couples.
Yes, but one that has its roots in the procreative potential of the couple. If there were no procreative potential, no distinction would need to be made.
What procreative potential? When my uncle married his wife, he knew it was medically impossible for him to have children. No-one asked him to verify his procreative potential. A good thing, too, as he had none.
Are you seriously saying that you just look at a man and a woman together and think 'they can have babies'? Regardless of medical condition or age? Is your grasp of the practical realities of procreation that limited? Do you think the law's grasp of the practical realities of proceation is that limited?
You're assuming that it 'has its roots' in the procreative potential of the couple because you've noticed that procreative couples are AMONG those allowed to get married. I've already pointed out to you with a citrus-laden analogy how fundamentally problematic this is.
If the law actually wanted to link marriage capacity with procreation capacity, it would be remarkably easy to do so. It's not as if it relies on some new-fangled modern medical science either. People have understood what menopause means for a very, very long time.
[ 25. August 2014, 08:53: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I have no idea whatsoever what NZ law is in relation to guardianship from birth, but I suspect if it's anything like our adoption laws then it's so archaic that it has spiderwebs covering it.
This circular isn't an old law. It dates from immediately after SSM was introduced.
It explicitly rules against the presumption of paternity for same-sex partners.
And it highlights that no matter how many situations there are in which various legal provisions are in order to cover adoption, and no matter how appropriate these may be, adoption or parental orders or anything of the sort won't be required in some circumstances.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
Orfeo, in haste:
I think that the archetype of marriage is a hetero couple procreating. Lots of couples don't conform to that archetype, but lots do, and I suspect lots more do.
Whether/how this is important or not is something I'm still processing.
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I have no idea whatsoever what NZ law is in relation to guardianship from birth, but I suspect if it's anything like our adoption laws then it's so archaic that it has spiderwebs covering it.
This circular isn't an old law. It dates from immediately after SSM was introduced.
It explicitly rules against the presumption of paternity for same-sex partners.
And it highlights that no matter how many situations there are in which various legal provisions are in order to cover adoption, and no matter how appropriate these may be, adoption or parental orders or anything of the sort won't be required in some circumstances.
Eutychus, your post sets out the law in France, but Starlight was referring to the law in NZ. That reference seems to me to mbe much closer to the law here than does the circular to which you refer, which is peculiarly the law in France. But even though the general system of law in NZ is very similar to the law o=in the various Oz states, it is not the same; nor is it the same in the sort of detail being discussed here.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Orfeo, in haste:
I think that the archetype of marriage is a hetero couple procreating. Lots of couples don't conform to that archetype, but lots do, and I suspect lots more do.
Whether/how this is important or not is something I'm still processing.
It hasn't been important for several centuries at least, I would think, if the law is any guide. Just because many heterosexual couples CAN have children, do you think they MUST for their marriage to be valid?
Here's the thing about archetypes: they're not real people.
[ 25. August 2014, 12:05: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
I'm happy to find out that St John Chrysostom agrees with me. I always did like John...
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
There's also the point that in England at any rate, the married woman was a non-person, or in legal language, feme covert, whereas a single woman (feme sole), had certain legal rights, e.g. to own property.
The married woman was in effect subsumed into her husband, legally at any rate.
I don't know how much this was seen as biblical or not, but I suppose it is intensely patriarchal.
Times change!
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
Incidentally, I was pondering the OP again, and particularly the quote from Gagnon, that Vicky Beeching might be making up a 'deficit in her feminine self', via another woman.
It's pretty amazing that someone should parrot such sub-psychoanalytic stuff, but it does reflect (rather poorly) the old idea that gays and lesbians lacked something. For example, with male gays, they lack the penis belonging to their father, (who was absent), therefore seek it out in other men.
This theory of homosexuality is so creaky now it has cobwebs on it, but it was never empirically based. It became a sort of joke that many men you met in therapy had absent fathers, and dominant mothers, and they were all resolutely straight.
It also seems to subsume otherness into biology, but anyway Starlight has discussed that in some fine posts.
I suppose there is some kind of problem for some Christians here, especially if they compute gay as 'non-other', and if God intended marriage as a celebration of otherness. That's all baffling to me.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Just because many heterosexual couples CAN have children, do you think they MUST for their marriage to be valid?
No. But I perceive that the majority of marriages to be heterosexual and include procreation, and I don't see that changing any time soon. That doesn't mean no other configurations are invalid, but I do think it tends to perpetuate the archetype. quote:
Here's the thing about archetypes: they're not real people.
No indeed; but I think it might be important to consider both. Where I'm at in this whole debate is about accommodating real people (of any orientation or gender) with regard to an archetype. Maybe the answer is to throw out the archetype, but I'm not convinced.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Eutychus, your post sets out the law in France, but Starlight was referring to the law in NZ.
Starlight was referring to the antiquated law in NZ and, as far as I can tell, implying that the law I quoted must be similarly outdated.
I responded that the law I quoted was brand new (2013), i.e. formulated to deal with the new SSM law. It is therefore not antiquated. On the contrary, it would have been an opportunity to change things, specifically with regard to presumption of paternity. It didn't. I wonder (non-rhetorically) why, but note that the current law reflects a biological reality when it comes to filiation.
[ 25. August 2014, 17:02: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I'm happy to find out that St John Chrysostom agrees with me. I always did like John...
I find he's sound on most things, as long as you keep him off the subject of Judaism.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Starlight was referring to the antiquated law in NZ and, as far as I can tell, implying that the law I quoted must be similarly outdated.
I was more trying to question your apparent assumptions that if French law does something a certain way:
1) that must be the right way of doing it
2) there must be no good alternatives
3) that the reasons the law has for doing the things it does must directly reflect the true realities of the world, and not at all be some sort of convoluted compromise that results from trying to balance many different competing concerns and interests.
I say this because you seemed to go in an overly credulous way from the observation that "French law says X" to a conclusion that X therefore directly reflected a valid truth about the world, as if French law were gospel.
By giving the examples of NZ laws on the subject, I was trying to illustrate to you that laws aren't gospel, that they can and do get it wrong, and that they don't necessarily reflect any sort of underlying reality.
I think your line of argument comes across particularly unconvincing to the rest of us non-French people because it ends up going essentially as follows:
You: "French law rules paternity in a particular way."
Us: "Okay, that's not how our countries' laws do it. But each to his own."
You: "France's way is the only right way to do it."
Us: "Why would you even think that? That's just silly."
You: "France's way of doing it must reflect some fundamental truth about the world and some truth about gay couples."
Us: "Why would France's particular way of doing things be any more a fundamental reflection of truths about the world than any other Western country's differing way of doing things? It seems more likely that the way any particular country does things is reflective of that own country's history and culture and the other laws it happens to have on its books."
Since France is internationally renowned for high rates of infidelity in marriage (I have no idea whether that reputation is justified) and as the saying goes "A French marriage is where a man marries one woman, the woman's sister, and the maid"... I would tend to suspect that any rules about paternity that France has which differ from the rest of the Western world, are rules that have been to a large degree shaped by its culture of infidelity.
I also wonder if, given the amount of controversy in France that surrounded the legalization of gay marriage, if perhaps while not caving to the religious conservatives on the basic issue of allowing gay marriage, that perhaps some sort of subtle compromise was done on issues relating to paternity that were aimed at making the State need to give explicit approval every time a gay couple wanted children (and perhaps to thus give religious conservatives a chance to butt in with objections during the 'adoption' process?) since gay people raising children seems to be something that religious conservatives often get flustered about.
[ 25. August 2014, 20:25: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
You caricature both my assumptions and my conclusions.
My main takeaway from looking at that piece of legislation was as follows:
a) once you get into the niceties of all the scenarios, the various configurations for same-sex parenthood are a veritable thicket
b) by contrast, the procedures for acknowledgement of paternity for a child born to a hetero married couple are a simple administrative formality; they require no legal procedure of any sort whatsoever.
Unless I've missed something, you haven't explained to me how NZ law differs here (specifically on point b above). You've described my recent law as "needing updating", but you haven't suggested how.
I suspect, despite your slight at French infidelity, that the main reason the law is as it stands is simply because the vast majority of children born to married hetero couples are the biological children of the couple, and that this is as true in NZ as in France.
All the other provisions are designed, with varying degrees of legal hurdles to cross, largely to regulate filiation of other children; they are instruments to achieve what you were happy to describe on page 1 as a "best approximation" to natural reproduction, within the context of marriage.
As an aside to this observation, I for my part perceive a persistent effort on the part of SSM proponents here to put all the emphasis on the marriage, and systematically minimise or discount the differences that arise when it comes to children and more particularly the issue of filiation.
This downplaying is all the more striking in that for most (not all!) marriages across the board, the issue (ha ha) of children is a major consideration (anecdotally, it seems many people living together get married when they want to "settle down and start a family") and in many if not most cases, those children will be produced by the married couple procreating.
The proportions might shift a bit, but I don't see that overall picture changing all that much any time soon. So it feels as if you are minimising something that is actually a major difference, both technically (the difference between a) and b) above) and in terms of sheer numbers (there is a lot more recourse to b) above than a)).
That doesn't mean all marrieds should have children or be disqualified from marrying if they can't, but it does signal a need for honest engagement on the topic, if necessary by sweating the details. I think we all agree that marriage is about more than children. But they are not a minor consideration, and neither is the route by which they arrive in the family.
==
As a postscript, my workload looks like it will be ramping up over the next few days, so I may not have time to interact quite so much or quite so extensively. I'm also reaching the limits of how far I have got in my thinking (or at least what I'm able to formulate here). I realise we are probably still going to have some areas of disagreement. I will however try and post a summary of where I've got to and why before too much time passes.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Just because many heterosexual couples CAN have children, do you think they MUST for their marriage to be valid?
No. But I perceive that the majority of marriages to be heterosexual and include procreation, and I don't see that changing any time soon.
Perhaps you will see it changing quite soon, if the figures for Generation X in this article are accurate.
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
:
Eutychus, just a small thing as I just got back from Greenbelt today - we really need to clarify the difference between sex and gender, and that they are different and not interchangeable terms. 'Biological gender' is not a thing! Sex is biological, gender is a social construct. Also this difference means that actually fertility is not exclusive to different-gender couples, since a same-gender couple where one partner is transgender is potentially fertile.
Posted by LQ (# 11596) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Net Spinster:
Actually it will forever be a subset of coupling.
That's true too, but it is also true that the set "couples that can reproduce" is a subset of the set "heterosexual couples" and that the set "homosexual couples" does not intersect with either.
As Jade has noted, actually it isn't.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
So it doesn't look any different to similar situations in heterosexual relationships to me.
There is a difference with children born to a mother in a heterosexual relationship. The child has filiation with the mother and her husband, who is presumed to be the father, with no legal procedure required apart from registration of the birth.
But again that's a legal situation, not a natural one. This doesn't prove any natural (i.e. not created by human society) "otherness" (or indeed even imply it) in any way shape or form.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
Just because many heterosexual couples CAN have children, do you think they MUST for their marriage to be valid?
No. But I perceive that the majority of marriages to be heterosexual and include procreation, and I don't see that changing any time soon. That doesn't mean no other configurations are invalid, but I do think it tends to perpetuate the archetype.
The vast, vast, vast majority of marriages in this world are between people of the same nation; a similar percentage are between people of the same race; so too the same religion (or lack thereof). So what?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
Orfeo: a link to a DINKs site? The article does not specify marriage, and is country-specific.
LQ: I don't see anything in that article about natural childbirth.
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
'Biological gender' is not a thing! Sex is biological, gender is a social construct. Also this difference means that actually fertility is not exclusive to different-gender couples, since a same-gender couple where one partner is transgender is potentially fertile.
Well of course, because you have just defined gender in such a way as for it not to relate to sex at all. Mail Online articles notwithsanding, I have to say that I can't manage that leap.
mousethief: are you really trying to argue that the legal situation doesn't reflect a natural fact of life?
Similarly, one difference with, say, inter-racial marriages (well, the fertile hetero ones) is that they have the potential to result in natural childbirth in a way SSM does not.
All this still looks to me like an attempt to brush over the obvious and inconvenient truth of natural childbirth.
Perhaps I am a natural law nut™ after all.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
mousethief: are you really trying to argue that the legal situation doesn't reflect a natural fact of life?
In order to support the argument that the law reflects a natural fact of life, you'd have to prove that it's a natural fact of life. Once you can do that, then why bring the law into it at all? If it's a natural fact of life then the law is irrelevant, and the argument should be supportable from the fact of life. Leave law out of it entirely.
Not everything that people claim is a natural fact of life really is. For instance it used to be a natural fact of life that black people were inherently inferior to white people. The law even supported it, as did the Bible. Until it didn't.
But this is all just playing. The ONLY real issue on the table right now is how to go from "a woman can't impregnate another woman" or "a man can't impregnate another man" to anything having to do with marriage. Everything else is just window dressing.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
Eutychus, just a small thing as I just got back from Greenbelt today - we really need to clarify the difference between sex and gender, and that they are different and not interchangeable terms. 'Biological gender' is not a thing! Sex is biological, gender is a social construct. Also this difference means that actually fertility is not exclusive to different-gender couples, since a same-gender couple where one partner is transgender is potentially fertile.
Well said. Judith Butler used to say that gender is a performance, well, a social performance.
I used to be in a gender study group, and the gradual loss of meaning of 'gender' made us despair. A lot of people just use it to mean sex identity today, and that's it. But it produces a lot of confusion.
[ 26. August 2014, 07:15: Message edited by: quetzalcoatl ]
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
As an aside to this observation, I for my part perceive a persistent effort on the part of SSM proponents here to put all the emphasis on the marriage, and systematically minimise or discount the differences that arise when it comes to children and more particularly the issue of filiation.
I don't quite know what to make of your repeated comments about us making a "persistent effort"... do you mean you would be more convinced if we said less? The fact that we express disagreement with ideas your expressing must mean there's something to them?? I can stop responding to you if you want...?
In practice the majority of male-male same sex couples choose not to raise children, whereas a significant number of female-female same sex couples do choose to have or adopt children. Since people on this board tend, as far as I can tell, to be predominantly male or past child-bearing age, there's probably very very few people here who are currently in same sex relationships and currently raising children in them. So that topic of conversation's probably just not very relevant to most people here, whereas the legalization of same-sex marriage is a lot more relevant to a lot of us.
And it seems to me that the issue you point to basically boils down to "same sex couples need to fill in more paperwork when having children". I might be a weird person for saying this, but I don't particularly object to filling out the occasional form and kind of enjoying working through my tax return (although I hear NZ tax returns are trivially simple compared to US ones, so enjoyment of that may vary by country, and probably enjoyment varies by whether you get a rebate or have to pay more tax!). What I hear you saying is that if I lived in France and wanted children I'd have to fill out some forms once the child were born, whereas if I was straight I'd have to fill out less forms (or possibly no forms? Though you must have birth certificates or something right?). I just can't see that having to do a little bit of paperwork is a serious thing. While you can repeat the statement that "Ah, but the very existence of that paperwork must illustrate some fundamental difference between gay and straight couples" all you like, I would point out that if in fact the only result of that 'fundamental' difference is a small amount of paperwork, then it's hardly a very fundamental difference is it?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
The main reason it's increasingly difficult to link marriage with having children is because an increasing number of heterosexuals are doing one without the other (and that observation applies in both directions). It's hardly a specifically homosexual strategy to treat the two issues as rather separate.
If a recent Australian fictional television show is any guide, it was still a great source of shame and trouble to have a child outside of marraige as late as the 1960s, and so the desire to have children was one driver of the desire to get married. But in recent decades that mindset has altered radically.
[ 26. August 2014, 08:39: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
I'm going to have to limit my participation here for a while at least. I realise I have left some questions unaddressed and there are more angles I want to look at. Let me try and draw a line for now (for me) by picking up one comment quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
I don't quite know what to make of your repeated comments about us making a "persistent effort"... do you mean you would be more convinced if we said less? The fact that we express disagreement with ideas your expressing must mean there's something to them?? I can stop responding to you if you want...?
I just can't make natural heterosexual procreation the same as any alternatives.
There is a fundamental difference in that it can occur naturally, without any medical intervention at all. It is in that respect unique, and has been a constant irrespective of social constructs of gender or advances in technology.
I cannot escape the sense that this uniqueness is significant.
All the more so in that, from my perspective at least, this constant reflects a state of affairs found "in the beginning" as related in the early chapters of Genesis.
"Significant" does not equate with "morally superior". But (at least for me) it means that it is something I have to bear in mind, and make sense (or the right "significance", if you like) of.
It may be that I have the significance wrong, or ill-defined. But if the constituency I find myself in is to accommodate same-sex marriage* with integrity, I have to consider this significance seriously. I can't just brush it aside even if others find themselves able to.
=
I have to pause this here for now. Thanks to those who have been patient and persistent enough to engage with me and to do so with courtesy. I very much hope to take this up again in due course and I really appreciate the opportunity to do so in this forum.
==
*As a postscript to orfeo's last comment, I think marriage as a social and legal institution inevitably makes provision for children because a large component of marriage law is to do with filiation and inheritance. The difference between marriage and cohabitation from my specific perspective is that marriage is a public event which could well entail a couple coming to my church and asking us to bless that marriage.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
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Are some Christians still seeking some kind of essentialist description, that will distinguish straight and gay people?
Hence in the OP the pseudo-Freudian allusion to Vicky Beeching's feminine deficit or something. Is this saying that lesbians fail somehow to leap the hurdle of otherness?
Therefore what? That otherness is a key divine gift, and lesbians and gays don't accept it?
One of the interesting things about sex and gender relations today is that it's via the latter that many people construct difference. But maybe this doesn't count as a genuine otherness.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Rats, couldn't resist answering this quote:
Originally posted by quetzalcoatl:
Are some Christians still seeking some kind of essentialist description, that will distinguish straight and gay people?
I think that is probably where Gagnon is coming from, yes. quote:
Therefore what? That otherness is a key divine gift, and lesbians and gays don't accept it?
I said ages ago on this thread that I don't think otherness is confined to "biological gender" (or "sex" to use Jade Constable's terminology), but for now, I do think otherness is an important and divinely ordained part of what relationships are all about. Others have said something similar to that.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
I suppose part of the revolution in gender studies was the insight, that while sex identity is biologically determined in various ways, gender identity is a social construction.
In other words, humans can play with gender, and do all the time; in the terms of the famous gender theorist, Judith Butler, it's a performance, or a kind of social theatre.
I'm just trying to match this with some idea of 'divinely ordained', and the biological sex angle is the obvious match (I was born male); whereas gender is human art really (I learned to be masculine and feminine in various ways). But isn't human art divinely ordained?
Oh, rats, as you said, I can see why I could never hack it as a Christian! The categories always start to slide around for me, and I like that.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
I forgot to say that the most radical gender theorists, whose names escape me, began to argue that sex identity itself was partly a social construction. Thus the category of 'woman' was 'deconstructed', and said to be artificial, a performance, and so on. Maybe some other posters know more about this, as I az forgit it. Obviously, this had purchase for some feminists, but not for others, who wanted to celebrate 'womanhood'.
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
:
Note on marriage laws:
Marriage laws began as a way of controlling weath and property. This is why it did not become a thing for commoners for quite a bit after it was for wealthy. And why, as mentioned up thread, a woman's rights vanished upon marriage.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Note on marriage laws:
Marriage laws began as a way of controlling weath and property. This is why it did not become a thing for commoners for quite a bit after it was for wealthy. And why, as mentioned up thread, a woman's rights vanished upon marriage.
Yes, I just thinking about that last bit, since 'coverture' (the law which destroyed a married woman's legal autonomy), in a sense destroyed otherness. Marriage was one person - the man.
This has been useful in arguments with homophobes, who tended to go on about 'traditional marriage', since traditionally the woman was an unperson. But then maybe they miss those days.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
"By marriage, the husband and wife are one person in law: that is, the very being or legal existence of the woman is suspended during the marriage, or at least is incorporated and consolidated into that of the husband: under whose wing, protection, and cover, she performs every thing; and is therefore called in our law-French a feme-covert."
Blackstone, 'Commentaries on the laws of England'.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I just can't make natural heterosexual procreation the same as any alternatives.
There is a fundamental difference in that it can occur naturally, without any medical intervention at all. It is in that respect unique, and has been a constant irrespective of social constructs of gender or advances in technology.
I cannot escape the sense that this uniqueness is significant.
But significant for what? For determining who can and cannot get married? Why? No such link has been argued for without special pleading, circularity, or dragging God into it, making it religiously sectarian and thus contrary to the first amendment protection clause.
Your inescapable sense is irrelevant to the question of who should or should not be able to marry.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
Indeed, the only reason it has significant 'uniqueness' is through defining the class of people via the very quality that is 'unique'.
But marriage law doesn't define the class of people that can marry by virtue of this 'unique' characteristic. Over the years it's defined them through all sorts of methods: age, race, and yes by sex as well, but it hasn't gone, for a long time at least, that further step of saying 'not only must you be the right pairing of male and female, but you must be a procreative male-female pair'.
There are all sorts of reasons why it's been a male-female pairing. For one thing, that's what the vast majority of people want. For another, homosexual behaviour was illegal for a long time, so of course one wasn't going to provide a mechanism for officially sanctioning homosexual sex. In those circumstances, only having heterosexual marriage was perfectly logical.
It is no longer logical. There is now nothing 'wrong' with homosexual sex that would make it something that the State shouldn't be seen to sanction.
It's not as if the rationale for marriage is a constant, non-evolving thing. Was it maybe once entirely about ensuring legal paternity and regularising property transfer down the generations? Sure. Has it stayed about that? No.
We certainly don't rely on it just for the sake of children. It is also frequently used to ensure flow of benefits between the 2 partners - now that women don't disappear into legal nothingness on their wedding day. It establishes the existence of a relationship without any further inquiry being needed. This is in fact one of the key reasons why same-sex couples regard it as better than being de facto partners. I don't know about elsewhere, but most (if not all) of the Australian jurisdictions have a whole series of criteria that have to be weighed up to decide that 2 people are de facto partners rather than just 'dating'. If you're married it's definitive.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
:
Very good stuff coming up here about the dynamic nature of marriage, not a static phenomenon at all. I was reminded of this today, while reading about that vestige in the marriage service - 'who gives this woman to be married to this man?'
I suppose many people leave that out, but it reminds us of a time when the woman was literally given as property from one man to another. I think Levi-Strauss defined this as 'the exchange of women', one of the binding factors in patriarchal society.
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
*As a postscript to orfeo's last comment, I think marriage as a social and legal institution inevitably makes provision for children because a large component of marriage law is to do with filiation and inheritance.
The question that's never answered by those positing this position is why children being raised by same-sex couples don't need/deserve similar provision? I've never seen this "marriage is important for kid, except for these kids, so let's have less of it" position explained in a coherent way.
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on
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Because we all need a mummy and daddy, that's why! God in his wisdom arranged that, so it is wrong to only have two mummies or two daddies.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
*As a postscript to orfeo's last comment, I think marriage as a social and legal institution inevitably makes provision for children because a large component of marriage law is to do with filiation and inheritance.
The question that's never answered by those positing this position is why children being raised by same-sex couples don't need/deserve similar provision? I've never seen this "marriage is important for kid, except for these kids, so let's have less of it" position explained in a coherent way.
Jumping back in here just to say that I have not disputed the need or deserving of similar provision for children of same-sex couples. Unless you can show me where I am - the bit you've quoted certainly doesn't say that.
Posted by LQ (# 11596) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
LQ: I don't see anything in that article about natural childbirth.
Well, it's in there:
quote:
MacDonald, who began transitioning from a woman to a man in 2008 but quit testosterone treatment when he became pregnant in July 2010 ...
The implication is that he had to interrupt HRT in order to carry and deliver his and his husband's child.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Sorry, you are correct; my mistake.
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Orfeo: a link to a DINKs site? The article does not specify marriage, and is country-specific.
LQ: I don't see anything in that article about natural childbirth.
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
'Biological gender' is not a thing! Sex is biological, gender is a social construct. Also this difference means that actually fertility is not exclusive to different-gender couples, since a same-gender couple where one partner is transgender is potentially fertile.
Well of course, because you have just defined gender in such a way as for it not to relate to sex at all. Mail Online articles notwithsanding, I have to say that I can't manage that leap.
mousethief: are you really trying to argue that the legal situation doesn't reflect a natural fact of life?
Similarly, one difference with, say, inter-racial marriages (well, the fertile hetero ones) is that they have the potential to result in natural childbirth in a way SSM does not.
All this still looks to me like an attempt to brush over the obvious and inconvenient truth of natural childbirth.
Perhaps I am a natural law nut™ after all.
It's not my definition, actually, but well-established. Gender and sex are completely different - they intersect for probably most people, but not for a significant minority. Hence some same-gender couples being able to reproduce with no outside help.
Also relatedly - it would help if we used 'different-gender couple' rather than 'heterosexual couple'. Many bisexual people are married to someone of a different gender, it doesn't make them straight.
Posted by Figbash (# 9048) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
Also relatedly - it would help if we used 'different-gender couple' rather than 'heterosexual couple'. Many bisexual people are married to someone of a different gender, it doesn't make them straight.
Are you not confusing 'heterosexual' as applied to a relationship, i.e. a relationship within which the individuals are of different sexes, from 'heterosexual' as applied to an orientation, i.e. a preference for individuals of the other sex? There is surely a (fine) distinction between a 'heterosexual couple' and a 'couple of heterosexuals', with the former implying nothing about the preferences of the individuals making up the couple.
'Heterosexual' (literal meaning: other sex) is, after all, an adjective, and so its impact on the meaning of a noun is a result of the combination of it, and of the noun. It does not have a single fixed meaning that it applies to everything, regardless of what that thing is, which is, I think, what you are saying. Like most words, it has little, if any, meaning in isolation.
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on
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If everybody just stayed out of each others bedrooms, we'd not need to worry so much about proper labeling, would we?
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Figbash:
Are you not confusing 'heterosexual' as applied to a relationship, i.e. a relationship within which the individuals are of different sexes, from 'heterosexual' as applied to an orientation, i.e. a preference for individuals of the other sex? There is surely a (fine) distinction between a 'heterosexual couple' and a 'couple of heterosexuals', with the former implying nothing about the preferences of the individuals making up the couple.
Or if my (male) cousin and I are walking down the street, we form a couple of heterosexuals, although our only relationship is cousinhood. The distinction is not so fine after all. It shows the silliness of arguments which use labels rather than substance.
Posted by Jade Constable (# 17175) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Figbash:
quote:
Originally posted by Jade Constable:
Also relatedly - it would help if we used 'different-gender couple' rather than 'heterosexual couple'. Many bisexual people are married to someone of a different gender, it doesn't make them straight.
Are you not confusing 'heterosexual' as applied to a relationship, i.e. a relationship within which the individuals are of different sexes, from 'heterosexual' as applied to an orientation, i.e. a preference for individuals of the other sex? There is surely a (fine) distinction between a 'heterosexual couple' and a 'couple of heterosexuals', with the former implying nothing about the preferences of the individuals making up the couple.
'Heterosexual' (literal meaning: other sex) is, after all, an adjective, and so its impact on the meaning of a noun is a result of the combination of it, and of the noun. It does not have a single fixed meaning that it applies to everything, regardless of what that thing is, which is, I think, what you are saying. Like most words, it has little, if any, meaning in isolation.
Actually as an LGBT person myself and from speaking to others, it's generally preferred that terms like heterosexual aren't applied to couples but only individuals. I'm not confusing anything.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
The question that's never answered by those positing this position is why children being raised by same-sex couples don't need/deserve similar provision? I've never seen this "marriage is important for kids, except for these kids, so let's have less of it" position explained in a coherent way.
Indeed, and judges have not been shy about pointing this out in court: quote:
US Supreme Court Chief justice Roberts, during oral arguments March 2013:
"there is an immediate legal injury or legal -- what could be a legal injury, and that's the voice of these children. There are some 40,000 children in California, according to the Red Brief, that live with same-sex parents, and they want their parents to have full recognition and full status. The voice of those children is important in this case, don't you think?"
[Defence lawyer reply:] "Your Honor, I certainly would not dispute the importance of that consideration."
quote:
The eventual majority decision of the US Supreme Court in the DOMA case, 2014, said that:
[Denying marriage to gay couples] "humiliates tens of thousands of children now being raised by same-sex couples" and "also brings financial harm to children of same-sex couples."
Or consider this summary of a appeals court trial from this week:
quote:
US Federal Appeals court judge, Richard Posner, Aug 2014, from summary of oral arguments here:
At one point, Posner ran through a list of psychological strains the children of unmarried same-sex couples suffered, including having to struggle to grasp why their schoolmates' parents were married and theirs weren't.
"What horrible stuff," Posner said. What benefit to society in barring gay marriage, he asked, outweighs that kind of harm to children?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
And I would like to say, again, that I personally have not disputed the need or deserving of similar provision for children of same-sex couples. Unless you can show me where I am - the post Croesos quoted certainly doesn't say that.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
Eutychus,
The idea of being able to have children being a "difference" between gay and straight couples came up this week in one of the US court cases about marriage. In particular, the State made the argument that the important difference is that straight couples can have children by mistake. Whereas gay couples, though they can raise children like straight couples can, can't do so by mistake. And we can probably all agree with that for the most part (with the exception of where a gay member of a same-sex couple is transgender and thus capable of reproduction by mistake in the usual way)
The particular case this week was amusing because the judge was all-out mocking the sheer ridiculousness of the arguments being made by the State's lawyers. With regard to the above "difference" between gay and straight couples of being able to have children by mistake, the State's lawyers tried to turn that into an argument against same-sex marriage in the following way:
1) When a couple has a child by mistake, the father may perceive the child as a financial and emotional burden, and decide he isn't interested in participating in the cost of raising the child, and so simply leave the relationship. This is undesirable for society as the child may not be sufficiently cared for and the mother may suffer.
2) The State and society has an interest in preventing this happening, so that's why we have marriage. The primary purpose of marriage and the laws surrounding it is to stop the man abandoning his unwanted child. This works by the State providing financial benefits to married couples which results in a financial incentive for the man to stay with his family rather than leaving; and marriage also works by getting him to commit to the woman prior to sex in order that once they start having sex (with the associated possibility of having children by mistake) that the man won't easily be able to abandon his commitments. (It's carrot and a stick in a sense, the marriage provides incentives to stay and difficulty to leave)
3) Gay people are different. Their relationships don't have the possibility of having children by mistake. In that sense their relationships are 'better' from a social perspective with regard to this difference, as they don't present the potential danger to society of unwanted children. Because gay relationships are superior in this sense and lack the capacity for having their relationship threatened by unwanted children, gay couples don't need the State to be providing them with incentives to stay together. So they don't need the benefits and responsibilities of marriage, because the carrot-and-stick of marriage is designed to keep straight men from leaving their partners when unwanted pregnancies occur.
I've seen this argument used in a number of US courts over the past year or so. It doesn't seem to get taken very seriously by judges. I don't think very many people in the world are prepared to take seriously the claim that the primary purpose for marriage is to guard against the possibility of unwanted children. It's also hilarious to hear lawyers who are defending bans of same-sex marriage describing gay relationships as "better" or "superior" to straight ones, and sounding keen to convince the judges how awesome same-sex relationships are and thus how gay couples don't need the benefits of marriage because their relationships are already awesome enough without them... it's very much self-parody.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
Duly noted. But it doesn't affect where my thinking's got to in this debate in the slightest (and no, I don't have time to develop it much more right now).
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
And I would like to say, again, that I personally have not disputed the need or deserving of similar provision for children of same-sex couples. Unless you can show me where I am - the post Croesos quoted certainly doesn't say that.
I question the need to re-invent the wheel. If marriage is about making sure children are provided for and same-sex couples are raising children, why not give them the "same provision" rather than a "similar provision"?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
And I would like to say, again, that I personally have not disputed the need or deserving of similar provision for children of same-sex couples. Unless you can show me where I am - the post Croesos quoted certainly doesn't say that.
I question the need to re-invent the wheel. If marriage is about making sure children are provided for and same-sex couples are raising children, why not give them the "same provision" rather than a "similar provision"?
In case you haven't noticed, some of my views have changed since I last discussed this here a couple of years ago.
I am now not opposed to SSM as it is practiced in France, not least because I have come to realise that no other solution here affords the same provision for children, neither does it for the spouses (for example for survivor benefits).
I am indebted, mostly to you and Justinian, for making me realise this, although I repeat I did not enjoy the experience.
I have nevertheless made a distinction here - in terms of practicalities and not importance or superiority - which appears to be tangential to many but which seems important to me, in how filiation may come about.
In those terms, one "same provision" that I cannot see happening for the forseeable future is that of a same-sex couple having a child in the same way as a different-sex couple may, without medical intervention of some kind.
To be absolutely clear, by that I mean that at least some opposite-sex couples can produce children naturally in a way that same-sex couples that have retained their original sex cannot*, and that this has practical and legal implications even if it does not have ethical or moral ones (NB I'm not committing myself either way on the latter at this point).
Others may dance around that issue all they like, or argue that it's irrelevant, but I am doggedly inisting that it is a fact to be acknowledged (and wondering off and on why there is so much reluctance to acknowledge it).
==
*Memorably defined by orfeo here on my previous thread as "a quick bit of heavy breathing round the back of the village"
[ 29. August 2014, 15:56: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
In those terms, one "same provision" that I cannot see happening for the forseeable future is that of a same-sex couple having a child in the same way as a different-sex couple may, without medical intervention of some kind.
To be absolutely clear, by that I mean that at least some opposite-sex couples can produce children naturally in a way that same-sex couples that have retained their original sex cannot*, and that this has practical and legal implications even if it does not have ethical or moral ones (NB I'm not committing myself either way on the latter at this point).
Others may dance around that issue all they like, or argue that it's irrelevant, but I am doggedly inisting that it is a fact to be acknowledged (and wondering off and on why there is so much reluctance to acknowledge it).
==
*Memorably defined by orfeo here on my previous thread as "a quick bit of heavy breathing round the back of the village"
Sorry, but you seem to be "danc[ing] around that issue". In most of the jurisdictions I'm familiar with, the law doesn't make a distinction between children that are adopted or conceived in vitro and children being raised by their non-medically-assisted biological parent. Nor does the law distinguish between couples raising their own biological offspring, offspring conceived with the aid of medical technology, or adopted children. Given that some families contain children belonging to different categories that could get quite sticky.
quote:
Well, your oldest was conceived an gestated 'naturally', so you've got a Class I marriage regarding her. Your next oldest was conceived in vitro, though, so we'll need the additional documentation for your Class II parenthood. And I see your youngest was adopted, so that falls into Class III. Let's see, I'm pretty sure I've got the right forms for that somewhere . . .
What exactly do you consider to be the "legal implications" of parenting a child conceived in vitro (for example), and why should these implications be different for opposite-sex couples than for same-sex ones?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
In most of the jurisdictions I'm familiar with, the law doesn't make a distinction between children that are adopted or conceived in vitro and children being raised by their non-medically-assisted biological parent. Nor does the law distinguish between couples raising their own biological offspring, offspring conceived with the aid of medical technology, or adopted children.
It doesn't distinguish between them once they are recognised as the children of the couple. Where it does distinguish is in the available routes to becoming recognised as the children of the couple: see here.
quote:
What exactly do you consider to be the "legal implications" of parenting a child conceived in vitro (for example), and why should these implications be different for opposite-sex couples than for same-sex ones?
See above. The legal difference is that as things stand, there is one circumstance for filiation, presumption of paternity, which will never apply to a same-sex marriage, for reasons of biology (re-reading LQ's link again carefully, I don't think it contradicts this).
Looked at another way, filiation is more complicated, legally, to varying degrees, in any scenario not involving presumption of paternity (I recognise this includes some circumstances invovling different-sex couples).
Leaving aside for a moment the question of whether this is significant or not, am I not right that there is a difference?
[ 29. August 2014, 20:01: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
See above. The legal difference is that as things stand, there is one circumstance for filiation, presumption of paternity, which will never apply to a same-sex marriage, for reasons of biology (re-reading LQ's link again carefully, I don't think it contradicts this).
Looked at another way, filiation is more complicated, legally, to varying degrees, in any scenario not involving presumption of paternity (I recognise this includes some circumstances invovling different-sex couples).
Leaving aside for a moment the question of whether this is significant or not, am I not right that there is a difference?
I'm not sure that there is. Paternity may be a biological standard, but presumption of paternity is a legal one and can be defined however. It's been noted by some previous posters that many jurisdictions assume the paternity for married couples as a matter of law, even in cases where this is known not to be so biologically (e.g. a married couple has a child using anonymous donor sperm). Why would this be notably more problematic for a same-sex couple than an opposite-sex one?
[ 29. August 2014, 21:13: Message edited by: Crœsos ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
:
French law, my translation, from the link above, in answer to your question as to whether there is a legal difference:
quote:
Thus, the filiation of a child with respect to a couple in which both persons are of the same sex is possible only by means of an adoption ruling.
This is not the case for different-sex couples: the relevant provisions have been introduced solely as a result of the legalisation of SSM.
Is there a difference?
[ 29. August 2014, 21:27: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on
:
Or, to put it another way in parallel to a similar comment on a different thread, every parent-child relationship that can happen with a same-sex couple and a child already has a legal analog under family law for married opposite-sex parents. It seems perverse to argue that because one particular legal relationship won't apply (child conceived in vivo by married couple intending to raise it) all the rest is inapplicable as well, especially since that legal relationship is also inapplicable to a certain percentage of opposite-sex couples and is not seen as any barrier or detriment to the legal standing of their marriages.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
It doesn't distinguish between them once they are recognised as the children of the couple. Where it does distinguish is in the available routes to becoming recognised as the children of the couple
...
Leaving aside for a moment the question of whether this is significant or not, am I not right that there is a difference?
So in your conception this difference is purely temporary and transient? You say that it "doesn't distinguish between them once they are recognised as the children of the couple" so has the difference stopped existing by that point in time? So this is a difference that lasts for say a month, or however long it takes to fill in the relevant paperwork and go through the legal adoption process, and then the difference stops existing?
FYI, I just checked the NZ birth certificate paperwork process and it's clear we do the opposite to France: If a same-sex married woman has a child then her wife gets written onto the birth certificate in the "Father" section (and a box gets ticked to show she's an "other parent" not a "father"). Similarly in cases where the straight husband is infertile and the couple have resorted to a sperm donor, the man who will be raising the child is written as the Father, not the sperm donor. The government seems to have no interest whatsoever in biological paternity, as the partners who will be raising the child are what gets entered on the birth certificate (and immediately have the associated legal rights as parents and guardians of the child).
I guess to me that reflects how I (and I think society) thinks about children, and why I'm finding it so difficult to take seriously your alleged 'difference': For all practical intents and purposes in day to day life what matters is who is raising a child. Where that child originally came from is completely irrelevant to anything much - some children are adopted, some are raised by step-parents, some were born by mistake, others were the result of infidelity, others were born out of wedlock, others were conceived in the 'natural' way by married opposite sex parents - and none of that makes one iota of difference in our societies and the only things that is relevant is who is raising the children in the present and are they doing a good job of it. The child could have been delivered by a stalk for all the difference it makes...
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
:
P.S. I see the UK implements filiation the same way as NZ:
"Female couples can include both their names on their child’s birth certificate when registering the birth"
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on
:
Starlight, I thought that children were delivered by storks 9 months or so after the stalk had been busy.
[ 29. August 2014, 23:34: Message edited by: Gee D ]
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on
:
The only thing that has been achieved by this discussion as to whether same-sex couples can have children is the proof of the idea that almost any argument against SSM is based on weaselling, dodgy arguments from Scripture which are irrelevant, and wishful thinking.
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
:
All of the above debate about what different countries do in relation to the parentage of a child just shows that some countries insist on legally having a father and mother to start with, and some don't.
Legal parentage, as others have pointed out, isn't about biological parentage. Sure, for many people the two coincide, but there are also plenty of people for whom it doesn't.
Legal parentage is about duties and responsibilities. Whether it's adoption or surrogacy or same-sex couples, I don't really see why we should insist that the only possible combination of people that can take legal care of a child when it's born is a man and a woman.
EDIT: Scrolling down that page from nearly 2 years ago, I see I said almost the same thing. Stop focusing on 'procreation' and start focusing on who is going to raise and take care of the child!!
[ 30. August 2014, 04:55: Message edited by: orfeo ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Originally posted by Starlight:
For all practical intents and purposes in day to day life what matters is who is raising a child. Where that child originally came from is completely irrelevant to anything much - some children are adopted, some are raised by step-parents, some were born by mistake, others were the result of infidelity, others were born out of wedlock, others were conceived in the 'natural' way by married opposite sex parents - and none of that makes one iota of difference in our societies
So a Matrix style scenario in which babies were grown in vitro to birth in a farm somewhere (before, presumably, being delivered by stork to their parents) would be just as acceptable?
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I don't really see why we should insist that the only possible combination of people that can take legal care of a child when it's born is a man and a woman.
Do you see me saying that anywhere?
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
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Originally posted by orfeo:
I don't really see why we should insist that the only possible combination of people that can take legal care of a child when it's born is a man and a woman.
Do you see me saying that anywhere?
I see you pointing to French laws that tend to suggest that this has to be the situation when a child is born. I don't know why you're pointing to them if you don't see something significant in the assumption that French law makes.
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Well, actually, I was just asking myself the same question, and I think it's because in the most recent exchange, Croesos steered me in that direction by asking for the legal difference*.
(I note that instead of admitting that the provisions in France do show a difference, I am confronted with other jurisdictions where they don't. Again, there seems to be a great reluctance to say even "ok, it's different where you are (but not in this jurisdiction, look)". If it's as trivial as everyone seems to be arguing, I find this odd).
I've also just got back off reading through the original thread, and it seems to me that we are starting to cover similar ground.
At this point I'm not keen to move the conversation further. I've been back on this thread to counter what I see as misrepresentations of what I've said, in particular the charge that I am currently opposed to SSM.
When I read the thread from two years ago, I at least can identify the aspects of the debate on which I have changed my mind, and others where I am expressing similar things now as I did then. I'm not ready to articulate that any more for now.
[*ETA sorry, I may have misunderstood this. I meant I went back down the "legal" road because of Croesos' question. I don't see French law saying what you're saying I say it says. Or something]
[ 30. August 2014, 07:09: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I see you pointing to French laws that tend to suggest that this has to be the situation when a child is born.
More clarification. These French laws are not talking about "the situation when a child is born" but the routes open to a married couple for recognition of a given child. Presumption of paternity for the husband of a father, or filiation by virtue of being the wife of the mother, is not an option.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
So a Matrix style scenario in which babies were grown in vitro to birth in a farm somewhere (before, presumably, being delivered by stork to their parents) would be just as acceptable?
I don't see that as being significantly different to current reproductive assistence where the doctors fertilize an egg in a test tube before implanting it in a womb, or where the prematurely born baby is put in an incubator that keeps it alive. We currently use technologies to assist in the conception and development of fetuses/babies, and it seems certain that in future as we develop better and more helpful medical technologies that we will use them even more. I imagine the successful development of an artificial womb would be greeted with happiness by many women whose own wombs are damaged or incapable of bringing a child to term.
Back before medicine, a massive amount of women and babies died in childbirth. We've come a long way thanks to technology assisting in the reproductive process.
What does it matter where the baby comes or what exact amount of time it spends in its mother's womb? IMO, all that matters is that the parents raise their children with love and care, and that the child grows up to be a good person. Whether the child is adopted or a product of artificial reproductive techniques doesn't matter one iota compared to the character of the person it becomes, the love it receives from its parents, and the quality of the life that it leads.
[ 30. August 2014, 07:34: Message edited by: Starlight ]
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
(I note that instead of admitting that the provisions in France do show a difference, I am confronted with other jurisdictions where they don't. Again, there seems to be a great reluctance to say even "ok, it's different where you are (but not in this jurisdiction, look)". If it's as trivial as everyone seems to be arguing, I find this odd).
But this is because you are trying to make arguments based on something a lot more significant than the current legal situation in a particular country.
If we're talking any kind of moral or natural law argument, then it's an argument that applies globally. If there's such a thing as a position that's 'correct' on these questions, then it's 'correct' in both France and New Zealand. The content of natural law can't be different in those 2 places. The creation did not occur differently in different locations.
So that's why you don't get a shrug of the shoulders and "oh well, the law's different in France". When you point to the laws in France, people conclude that you think the laws in France are not just different, but right. And if they're right, then it's an argument that that is what the law should be everywhere.
Arguing from Genesis makes the difference non-trivial.
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on
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orfeo: If there's such a thing as a position that's 'correct' on these questions, then it's 'correct' in both France and New Zealand.
If Natural Law is true, then if any position is correct in France, then this position turned upside-down is correct in New Zealand.
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on
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Originally posted by Starlight:
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Originally posted by Eutychus:
It doesn't distinguish between them once they are recognised as the children of the couple. Where it does distinguish is in the available routes to becoming recognised as the children of the couple
...
Leaving aside for a moment the question of whether this is significant or not, am I not right that there is a difference?
So in your conception this difference is purely temporary and transient? You say that it "doesn't distinguish between them once they are recognised as the children of the couple" so has the difference stopped existing by that point in time? So this is a difference that lasts for say a month, or however long it takes to fill in the relevant paperwork and go through the legal adoption process, and then the difference stops existing?
But what if the mother died in that month or however long it takes to fill in the paperwork? Would her wife have any right to bring up the child or would it be taken into care?
The difference may not matter in the vast majority of cases but does have the potential to be devastating in a very small number.
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
Jumping back in here just to say that I have not disputed the need or deserving of similar provision for children of same-sex couples. Unless you can show me where I am - the bit you've quoted certainly doesn't say that.
You also say that the fertile heterosexual couples who only needs minimal medical assistance to have a biological child need to have their relationship recognized in some special way that doesn't apply to same sex marriage but does apply to step parents, adoptive parents, and couples with no children.
The latter seems to contradict the former.
How are you going to make an equal provision for the children of a same sex marriage while also having a special provision for non same sex marriage?
This all seems desperate floundering looking for plausible justifications for a pre-determined conclusion. Are you seriously proposing that French Marriage Law is Natural Law that should be applied in your own country? Do you want eliminate the legal status of weddings officiated by clergy? Is that some superior natural law all countries should be following?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Do you want eliminate the legal status of weddings officiated by clergy?
There is no such thing here.
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on
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Originally posted by JoannaP:
But what if the mother died in that month or however long it takes to fill in the paperwork? Would her wife have any right to bring up the child or would it be taken into care?
Eutychus' explanation of French law suggested that even were the birth mother still alive there would still need to be a legal application made through appropriate channels for the wife to gain parental guardianship of the child. It would depend on the details of French law in the instances where the birth mother dies, but I suspect it would be unlikely that the mother's death would affect that process as the wife would still be able to demonstrate that she was legally married to the birth mother at the time of birth. But it is possible a different part of the legal system would handle the situation, as you are then dealing with a will (if one exists) and the division of the dead mother's property and responsibilities (including her new child). It is conceivable that the wishes of the child's biological father (if known) or the parents of the dead mother (if alive) might be taken into consideration at that time also.
Whereas it seems clearer that the situation in NZ or the UK would be to give the wife immediate custody of the child.
Interestingly, as far as I can tell, in both NZ and the UK, male-male couples can't be registered immediately as fathers as part of birth registration process, as the woman giving birth to the baby is the one who must be registered.
The fact that the woman giving birth is always and without exception the one registered has unfortunate implications in cases of surrogacy currently in both NZ and UK. If a couple (straight usually) is unable to bring a child to term due to problems with the wife's womb, then they can implant a fertilized egg in a willing 3rd party surrogate mother who then gives birth on behalf of the couple. But the surrogate at that point is the legal parent of the child despite it having none of her DNA whatsoever, so if that birth mother then says "well actually this seems like a nice baby, I'm going to keep it", at that point the genetic mother and father of the child have very little legal recourse as they are not recognized as parents or guardians.
This seems like a legal loophole that needs closing, and is especially surprising in NZ because cases of surrogacy need pre-approval from the government and there is a detailed legal process that needs to be followed to get the ball rolling in the first place, so the government already has numerous signed documents from all parties saying "surrogacy is occurring here", so to then give the birth mother legal control of the child upon birth and rely purely on the subsequent voluntary offer of adoption by her to the couple whose child it really is is just bizarre. It appears that this issue of the birth mother choosing to keep the child hasn't actually yet arisen in NZ and I would like to think that actually the courts would find in favour of the real parents.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
My main takeaway from looking at that piece of legislation was as follows:
a) once you get into the niceties of all the scenarios, the various configurations for same-sex parenthood are a veritable thicket
b) by contrast, the procedures for acknowledgement of paternity for a child born to a hetero married couple are a simple administrative formality; they require no legal procedure of any sort whatsoever.
Proving what? Hint: nothing.
quote:
Originally posted by quetzalcoatl:
I forgot to say that the most radical gender theorists, whose names escape me, began to argue that sex identity itself was partly a social construction. Thus the category of 'woman' was 'deconstructed', and said to be artificial, a performance, and so on. Maybe some other posters know more about this, as I az forgit it. Obviously, this had purchase for some feminists, but not for others, who wanted to celebrate 'womanhood'.
I have also read "feminists" who say that PIV-sex is wholly artificial and a completely invented and unintuitive use of human sexuality. In other words, idiots are everywhere.
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I have nevertheless made a distinction here - in terms of practicalities and not importance or superiority - which appears to be tangential to many but which seems important to me, in how filiation may come about.
To what end? What comes of this? What would or should change if this were widely known and accepted? Is this mere mental masturbation, or is there some practical point here?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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Originally posted by mousethief:
Is this mere mental masturbation, or is there some practical point here?
I've said all I feel the need to say for now about that here.
Posted by Lucia (# 15201) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
IMO, all that matters is that the parents raise their children with love and care, and that the child grows up to be a good person. Whether the child is adopted or a product of artificial reproductive techniques doesn't matter one iota compared to the character of the person it becomes, the love it receives from its parents, and the quality of the life that it leads. [/QB]
I agree that this is all really important stuff. However it seems that we can't quite completely forget about the biological parentage of a child. As they grow up it seems that people who come from happy, loving adoptive families often still want to know something about their biological roots. Also in the UK those born from sperm or egg donation are recognised as having a right to know something of their biological heritage, hence the removal of anonymity for sperm and egg donors allowing the child of such a donation to access certain information in the future if they wish. I don't know what the situation is in other countries. But who we are is a mixture of both genetics and nurturing, we can't pretend that the genetics of a person are totally irrelevant.
It seems to me that the law in some countries is more skewed towards trying to be accurate about biological parentage and in others is more skewed towards the social aspects of parentage. I guess both aspects of their parentage may be important to the individual in different ways and so I think it is good that information on both is available.
[ 31. August 2014, 14:15: Message edited by: Lucia ]
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on
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Is your hesitation because you need more time to think about something to do with filiation only an issue for male same sex marriages? Since typically lesbians have one of the couple bear the child does that eliminate this confustion you need to think about?
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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No.
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Is this mere mental masturbation, or is there some practical point here?
I've said all I feel the need to say for now about that here.
On page 2? And here you are still beating it on page 4?
[ 01. September 2014, 18:44: Message edited by: mousethief ]
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on
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Can you explain what the issue is about filiation in Lesbian marriages that you need more time to think about?
You keep pointing to this law as an obstruction. Laws are changeable. There may be one in France that doesn't treat same-sex marriages as the equivalent of the mixed sex marriages. So what? It will change after the injustice is realized. There's an ongoing controversy in the United States about placing Black children for adoption with White families. That doesn't mean inter-racial marriages are wrong.
Your whole objection reminds me of listening to Anglican Bishops talking about long facilitated conversations and committees appointed to discuss the shape of the table for discussions on same sex marriage. I hear this and say to myself "Now I know exactly the tone of voice of the Pharisees in the parable of the Good Samaritan".
Posted by Louise (# 30) on
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hosting
Can people beware of making this personal? This needs to be about the arguments and not about the poster who opened the thread - so don't let things creep into personal insults please.
thanks,
Louise
Dead horses host
hosting off
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Can you explain what the issue is about filiation in Lesbian marriages that you need more time to think about?
As far as I'm concerned, I've gone over that ground already. I'm not going to get drawn back in to even restating my position right now. I think I've articulated my thinking - and its pastoral context - as well as I can above, and I'm leaving my thoughts to develop a bit.
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