Thread: What about performers? Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
Let me be clear: I believe that bakers shouldn't be allowed to refuse to bake a cake for the wedding of a gay couple.

But what about performers? I am a musician myself, and I can remember one time that I refused a performing contract for religious reasons. It was to play in a shopping centre to receive Santa Claus / Father Christmas.

I do think that musicians have more freedom than bakers, they have more possibilities to choose who they will have a contract with. I can well imagine that a gospel singer can refuse to perform at a stag night where there are strippers present. I also think (s)he can refuse to perform at a Muslim wedding.

So, can a gospel singer refuse to perform at a gay marriage? I'm not entirely sure, but I lean towards yes.

But where would we draw the line? Is a wedding photographer a performer? Is a baker a performer? (Sometimes, cake making can be an art.)
 
Posted by Amanda B. Reckondwythe (# 5521) on :
 
A performer can always say, "Sorry, but I have another engagement that day." I suppose a photographer could too. But I can't imagine a baker saying, "Sorry, I have another cake to bake that day."
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
I guess that would be the pragmatic answer. But I'm interested in the moral / legal aspects of this.

There is something different between a musician and the venue that contracts him/her, and a baker and a client. But I don't know exactly what. And a photographer seems to fall somewhere in between.
 
Posted by *Leon* (# 3377) on :
 
This is an interesting question that I hadn't thought of.

I wonder whether it matters if there's a religious dimension to the performance. So, for example, Gospel music has a clear connection with Christianity, and you can easily argue that a Gospel singer is in some sense a Christian minister. Hence, maybe they should have the commonly-assumed right of Christian ministers to refuse to minister in situations contrary to their belief. But maybe that right wouldn't exist for a secular performer of classical music.

Alternatively, some musicians might argue that their performance responds to the atmosphere of the event and to their relationship to the event. As a result, they could warn people to expect a poor performance in events they didn't feel comfortable with. (However, I'm imagining few people in the wedding performer market can reasonably make that argument)
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
I think the biggest question for me morally would be whether people tend to assume that a performer supports the values of the place where she performs. Certainly no one assumes that some anonymous baker who made their cake must agree with their marriage. The performer, on the other hand, is less anonymous, and I'd guess that to some degree people do presume performers won't play at places antithetical to their beliefs. If so, then the performer has very good reason to say no to an event for religious or political reasons.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
ISTM, it is contextual. A wedding band will likely be seen exactly the same as a wedding baker. Their personal views will not be a factor for most of the guests. A performer at a political event will be seen as endorsing the message of that event. Whereas the baker of a cake for that event remains invisible.
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
I really don't think there SHOULD be a line. I read a very interesting piece a couple of days ago about the supposed Biblical and Christian justification for segregation and apartheid.

For a child of the 80s it was utterly baffling to me that someone could sincerely argue that their freedom of religion was being violated by requiring them to serve or mix with black and ethnic minority people.

I see exactly the same argument being played out again, people are uncomfortable and are hiding that discomfort behind the shield of religion. They need to get over it. The law was imposed on the South to end segregation and the law needs to be imposed on Christians who offer service to others to end the endorsement of homophobia and discrimination directed towards LGBT people.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It sounds to me like what you are saying is that those people were NOT sincere, but were rather lying ("hiding discomfort behind a shield") and therefore were not entitled to any right of refusal.

This concerns me, because your logic chain goes like this: that because it baffles you, therefore it must be a lie, and therefore it deserves no legal protection. That's a really dangerous direction to head in, as others can easily turn the same logic on us. Better to overprotect than to underprotect, IMHO. Regardless of how personally abhorrent or baffling one may find it.

I can think of any number of religious issues that outsiders to that group would consider purely insane (for example, for certain Christian groups, the need to use wine in communion even during Prohibition days). That doesn't make them non-religious issues, or any less deserving of protection.

[ 26. February 2015, 19:44: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
Surely there has to be a line somewhere. I know I certainly wouldn't be willing to perform at a KKK rally or for the Mob, if I were a performer.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
*Leon*: I wonder whether it matters if there's a religious dimension to the performance.
Perhaps. When we refused to play for Santa Claus, it was in an orchestra that was connected to a church. We felt that it wouldn't fit if the church was against the over-commercialisation of Christmas, while the church's orchestra was playing at an event that celebrated the commercialisation of Christmas.

I'm not sure if it would be easy to tie up this argument legally though.

quote:
Gwai: The performer, on the other hand, is less anonymous, and I'd guess that to some degree people do presume performers won't play at places antithetical to their beliefs.
I'm going to play the Devil's Advocate for a bit now. What if it is a well-known baker with a very specific style of wedding cakes? When people see such a cake, they immediately know it is him. Then he wouldn't be anonymous anymore.

quote:
Macrina: I really don't think there SHOULD be a line.
So, what you are saying is that a performer SHOULD perform every time (s)he is asked? That would be pretty hard to argue. I've said 'no' when asked to perform numerous times. For many reasons: too busy, I didn't find the festival interesting, etc. I don't even have to say why I don't want to perform.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Gwai: Surely there has to be a line somewhere. I know I certainly wouldn't be willing to perform at a KKK rally or for the Mob, if I were a performer.
Exactly. The KKK and the Mob aren't the best examples, because they are forbidden. But I wouldn't perform for a xenophobic right-wing political party (such as exists in my country) either.

And that's is true for religious and non-religious performers.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
Surely there has to be a line somewhere. I know I certainly wouldn't be willing to perform at a KKK rally or for the Mob, if I were a performer.

I wouldn't be willing to make those people a cake, either.
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
It sounds to me like what you are saying is that those people were NOT sincere, but were rather lying ("hiding discomfort behind a shield") and therefore were not entitled to any right of refusal.

This concerns me, because your logic chain goes like this: that because it baffles you, therefore it must be a lie, and therefore it deserves no legal protection. That's a really dangerous direction to head in, as others can easily turn the same logic on us. Better to overprotect than to underprotect, IMHO. Regardless of how personally abhorrent or baffling one may find it.

I can think of any number of religious issues that outsiders to that group would consider purely insane (for example, for certain Christian groups, the need to use wine in communion even during Prohibition days). That doesn't make them non-religious issues, or any less deserving of protection.

Lying requires conscious knowledge of your deceit. I don't think that people who are uncomfortable with LGBT people are lying when they say they have religious objections in order to try to hide their homophobia, rather I think they are in an uncomfortable phase of having to confront life long opinions which are suddenly being held up by others as gravely wrong. I do not condemn them for feeling uncomfortable but I don't pander to it either.

I found it baffling that the Bible was used to justify racism because I have had no exposure to the Bible being used in that way. Most Christians have now got wise to the fact it cannot be used in that way . People felt they had a firm scriptural basis for racial and ethnic segregation and discrimination, they feel they have a firm scriptual basis for refusing services to LGBT people - both are claiming that forcing them to do this is religious discrimination, both are wrong.

Religion deserves protection under equality laws in exactly the same way that race or sexuality do, but we have to be clear about exactly what it is that we are protecting and why.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Lamb Chopped: I wouldn't be willing to make those people a cake, either.
But that's the thing: I think you would have to. If a Mob boss (or the president of a xenophobic party) would enter your bakery and ask for a cake, you'd have to sell him a cake.
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
Macrina: I really don't think there SHOULD be a line.
So, what you are saying is that a performer SHOULD perform every time (s)he is asked? That would be pretty hard to argue. I've said 'no' when asked to perform numerous times. For many reasons: too busy, I didn't find the festival interesting, etc. I don't even have to say why I don't want to perform.
No what I am saying is that you should not be allowed to refuse to perform on the basis of your objection to a particular characteristic that person has. There's a whole world of difference between refusing because you don't like the set list offered or the accommodation available or its inconvenient etc and refusing because your client is say a Black Muslim.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Macrina: No what I am saying is that you should not be allowed to refuse to perform on the basis of your objection to a particular characteristic that person has. There's a whole world of difference between refusing because you don't like the set list offered or the accommodation available or its inconvenient etc and refusing because your client is say a Black Muslim.
Maybe, but how would you tell the difference? Like I said, I think there is a difference with a baker here. A baker has to serve everyone who comes into his shop and wants to buy a cake. He can't say to a black muslim "I have no time". A musician can. He can refuse to perform for a black muslim, without saying that this is the reason.

And once again, suppose there is a gospel group that is against gay marriage. I condemn their position, but I'm not entirely sure if we can force them to perform at such a marriage. There is a difference between a performer and a shop keeper that I can't quite put my finger on.
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
I was having this conversation with a Catholic friend of mine who was making the argument that it is religious discrimination to force participation. I asked her if the baker could bake a blank cake, she said no it would still be participation, and so we go into the ridiculousness of parsing sin down to mixing eggs and flour.

You're right, you can't tell if someone is discriminating solely because of a protected characteristic. Anyone can discriminate if they want to because they are racist or homophobic but they can't say that that is the reason or make it clear that it is or else they are breaking the law. It's not ideal but it's the best we've got and if we suspect that this is their foundation we can take them to court to try and prove it.

The gospel group against gay marriage are just as wrong (on legal grounds) to refuse their services on the grounds of the characteristics of their client as any other group would be. I suppose for me the difference between the baker and the musician is simply that one is a luxury and the other is not.

Taken to the extreme you can survive without music you can't survive without food. It scares me that if you allow discrimination on the basis of sexuality for people of religious faith then you are setting yourself up for a world where someone can be declined a job or a home because offering them this would be 'supporting their lifestyle and endorsing sin'. That said I don't think that my fellow LGBT people should necessarily deliberately go about goading people to get cases into the courts.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Macrina: The gospel group against gay marriage are just as wrong (on legal grounds) to refuse their services on the grounds of the characteristics of their client as any other group would be.
Okay, that's your opinion. I'm not entirely convinced by it.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
There is a difference between a performer and a shop keeper that I can't quite put my finger on.

A performer is personally involved in the event while a shop keeper isn't personally involved at all. Something between the two might be someone providing a service during the event which requires them to be present but only in the background in a less active role, like handling the lighting.
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
Macrina: The gospel group against gay marriage are just as wrong (on legal grounds) to refuse their services on the grounds of the characteristics of their client as any other group would be.
Okay, that's your opinion. I'm not entirely convinced by it.
To be fair, it is not only my opinion it is also law under a fair amount of Equality legislation. But I am quite happy to live and let live with regard to you being unconvinced by it [Smile]
 
Posted by Adeodatus (# 4992) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
So, can a gospel singer refuse to perform at a gay marriage?

I'm not sure. We'll have to wait for the first gay couple ever to like gospel music.

It may be some time....
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
Le Roc--

Maybe the difference is whether the hired person has to be present?

Let's say a stunt-kite flyers club wants to hire someone for their annual dinner dance. The person they want to hire loves small birds, has been in bird clubs since childhood, and was always taught that stunt kites are evil and dangerous--both for birds and stunt-kite flyers.

A musician might not want to do a live performance. Would it make a difference if the "evil stunt-kite flyers" group skipped the musician altogether, and used the musician's latest CD?

A baker might not want to bake a cake. But the baker doesn't have to be at the "evil stunt-kite flyers" dinner-dance.

A caterer might not want to be there. OTOH, everyone needs to eat, even "evil stunt-kite flyers".

An owner of an event space might not want to rent it to "evil stunt-kite flyers". The owner doesn't have to be there for the event; but the group will be in the owner's space.

What about a restaurant? They mostly serve anyone who comes in.

How should all that play out?


Re what someone said about just trying to get a blank cake: I've wondered about that, too. Maybe the baker could have a large selection of cake toppers (wide variety of occasion themes), candied letters, etc. If people for the wedding cake topper are sold separately, then the purchaser can pick out the appropriate ones. If the baker won't carry them, maybe another store could. Might that arrangement accommodate all parties enough?
[Ultra confused]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
W Hyatt: A performer is personally involved in the event while a shop keeper isn't personally involved at all. Something between the two might be someone providing a service during the event which requires them to be present but only in the background in a less active role, like handling the lighting.
I think that another person who might fall in that gray area is the wedding photographer. He isn't performing on a stage, in fact the best of them are those who can make themselves invisible. Would they be allowed to refuse to 'perform' at a gay marriage?

quote:
Macrina: To be fair, it is not only my opinion it is also law under a fair amount of Equality legislation. But I am quite happy to live and let live with regard to you being unconvinced by it [Smile]
I'm not trying to be antagonistic towards you, I'm just exploring something here. My reasoning is more or less like this. I was a semi-professional musician for some time (I had other income too). I would choose my performances very much based on whether I thought I'd feel a connection with my audience. For me, it is important that the audience appreciates my music, but also that I'd feel at home with them and with the venue, to be able to perform for them. Now if I reserve the right to choose on this basis for myself, I can't very well withhold it from a gospel group that is asked to perform at a gay wedding and says "we wouldn't connect with the audience".

quote:
Adeodatus: We'll have to wait for the first gay couple ever to like gospel music.

It may be some time....

Haha, I happen to know such a couple.

quote:
Golden Key: Maybe the difference is whether the hired person has to be present?
It could be. I found your restaurant example interesting, let's expand that some more.

Suppose a church has some kind of Community Hall that they rent out to the general public (not just church members) for wedding receptions etc., in order to get some income. If this is the case, I think they can't refuse to rent it to a gay wedding reception.

In this case, my experience is that someone from the church needs to be present, if only to open and lock the doors, perhaps to keep an eye on things. And what about waiting staff for example?
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
LeRoc,

No worries, I didn't interpret it as antagonism. I understand where you're coming from it's just that I really do think if we give people an 'out' within the legislation then the legislation will become essentially useless in doing its job. People will be able to refuse all manner of service in line with their prejudice be that religiously or personally founded and then claim that they are protected by the 'out' in the legislation.

I would really hope that the best compromise would be that LGBT groups do not set out to deliberately antagonise religious groups (by say trying to hire religious choirs just to trap them in the law and sue them) until attitudes have had time to adjust to the fact that all people have rights under the law to service.

There is a reason this is a dead horse. I don't view disagreement with me as a personal affront or as any indication of your views over this particular horse.
 
Posted by Snags (# 15351) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
Surely there has to be a line somewhere. I know I certainly wouldn't be willing to perform at a KKK rally or for the Mob, if I were a performer.

The difference being that there is equalities legislation to cover sex, age and sexuality. There isn't, in the same way, to cover political belief. So legally you have a situation where any business can refuse service to anyone they like (or don't!) unless that is trumped by equalities laws. So no "because you're a girl", no "because you is black", and no "because you're on the other team".
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
I think that another person who might fall in that gray area is the wedding photographer. He isn't performing on a stage, in fact the best of them are those who can make themselves invisible. Would they be allowed to refuse to 'perform' at a gay marriage?

Just to throw a couple more examples in the mix:

What about a baker who is willing to bake a wedding cake for any gay or straight couple, but who wants to refuse service to someone who wants a depiction of something like bestiality or masturbation? Or one who wants to refuse to portray a gay wedding service as a Christian religious service? I can support the idea of requiring them to provide their service to everyone equally, without regard to race, religion, or orientation of their customers, but I also think I'd support the idea of allowing them to refuse service based on the details of the particular service being requested. Even so, that line could get very blurry.

On the other hand, how about a legitimate cuddling service? (Try googling "cuddling service".) Should they only employ cuddlers who are willing to cuddle with someone of either sex, or should the cuddlers be free to limit their clients to one particular sex?
 
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on :
 
This question reminds me of one of the participants - a mezzo-soprano - in a summer opera workshop back in the last century. She announced to everyone that she was a Christian, and would never do anything on stage that contravened her religion. And yet she wanted to be an opera singer .... [Killing me]

So, of course, we all started asking her questions like, "Would you dress as a man?" and "Would you kiss a woman?" and "Would you summon the Devil?" It turned out she didn't really know much about the operatic repertoire for her voice type, much of which consists of "witches, bitches and britches". I guess her answers were all no, because I never heard of her again after that summer.

The only gig I've ever felt uncomfortable about was my very first gig, and at the time it didn't bother me, 'cause, hey, it was my first gig. Now, I sometimes wonder if I contributed to human suffering by singing for a Christian Science congregation.
 
Posted by Arabella Purity Winterbottom (# 3434) on :
 
Tangent
I can't imagine it coming up here. Most of the lesbians I know have at least 3-4 lesbian friends who will fall over themselves to play guitar for their weddings. Likewise my gay friends have plenty of musician friends who will play and sing for a sandwich and champagne. I've sung a number of the latter.

I can't actually imagine a situation in which a lesbian or gay man would need to hire musicians unknown to them.

And I'm sorry to burst your bubble Adeodatus, but I'm very fond of classic gospel, as are all the members of my homo group (like a home group, only more fabulous). We also like all forms of pre-20th century music.
Tangent over
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Call me grouchy, but...

Most of us can get a pretty fair idea of what the occasion is (and who it is for) at the time the initial approach is made to see if we can play/sing/ bake or decorate cake/ whatever.

If you don't like the sound of it, take instant dislike to the person/people who make the approach - again, whatever - you just make your excuses* and decline.

You do this without feeling the need to unburden yourself of your prejudices or foibles, just say you can't take the job because* and back out.

Whether you wish the happy gay couple well or wish them to roast in the eternal fires of hell is your opinion and they, and the world, don't need to know about it.

* another engagement/ clashes with family celebration/ too far to travel/ hoping to be on holiday - you get the drift
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
I agree L'Organist.

In an ideal world I'd like it if everyone had fundamental respect for the lives and choices of others even if they themselves did not actively agree and endorse those things. Unfortunately, as these and many other cases show, we do not. I remain in favour of laws which forbid active discrimination but I am not going to advocate prosecuting thought-crime for suspected discrimination if people can make reasonable excuses for declining which do not rest on extolling their prejudices.
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Snags:
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:
Surely there has to be a line somewhere. I know I certainly wouldn't be willing to perform at a KKK rally or for the Mob, if I were a performer.

The difference being that there is equalities legislation to cover sex, age and sexuality. There isn't, in the same way, to cover political belief. So legally you have a situation where any business can refuse service to anyone they like (or don't!) unless that is trumped by equalities laws. So no "because you're a girl", no "because you is black", and no "because you're on the other team".
Legally that is certainly true, but I was thinking morally because we all live in various countries with various rules on the topic. And if I can refuse ethically to refuse to play for the KKK because I find them abhorrent, then why can't J refuse to play for my gay wedding because she finds me abhorrent.* Practically yes I agree that only a foolish person or a crusader would give their actual reason. (Particularly to the Mob!) One would just say one couldn't for x reason. That's the other reason to focus on the ethics, I guess.

*Ignoring the fact that IRL I'm married because let's not complicate things here
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
Macrina, I'd agree if I didn't live in a country with a lot of history of people unable to get service because of their race or sexuality. The U.S. has places with enough concentration of bigotry that I don't think we can afford to legally support people refusing service.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
The US is not unique in this, Gwai. Wish it were.
 
Posted by Macrina (# 8807) on :
 
But if someone says 'I'm sorry I have a prior engagement that day' and you suspect it's not because of that but because you are a racial or sexual minority how do you deal with that other than dragging someone through the court system to find out if they really HAD arranged to have pizza with their friend?

I am uncomfortable with the idea that we can prosecute people for thoughts they do not voice.
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
The US is not unique in this, Gwai. Wish it were.

No, but I speak only from the country I do know as I know it is somewhat different in different countries.

Macrina, I think in that case you're just stuck without their service usually.

[ 27. February 2015, 18:06: Message edited by: Gwai ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Macrina: No worries, I didn't interpret it as antagonism. I understand where you're coming from it's just that I really do think if we give people an 'out' within the legislation then the legislation will become essentially useless in doing its job.
And I can understand where you are coming from. Yes, you're totally right. If you give performers an 'out' on this one, other people will look for an 'out' as well.

There are two things in conflict here: the fact that we shouldn't discriminate LBGT people, and the freedom an artist has to choose where (s)he will perform (a kind of freedom a shopkeeper doesn't have). This is what I am struggling with.

One thing is: if an artist refuses to perform, he doesn't need to explain why. When I was a musician, some times I just said "No sorry, I'm not interested", and that's it. No further explanation or justification is needed, and I don't think it would be easy to demand such a justification.

This is true even if the artist tells a white lie. Sometimes when I was asked to perform in a place that I didn't like, I would say "I'm already busy that day". Telling a white lie like that isn't against the law. And even if you'd drag me through the courts, it would be up to you to prove that I wasn't busy. Good luck with that.

So, suppose that a gay couple calls a band to ask them to play at their wedding. If they answer "We won't play for homo's", then yes you can drag their arses through court all the way to China. Rightly so, and I'll be cheering for you to win.

But if they say "No, we're not interested" or "No, we're busy that day", first I don't think there is a lot you can do. And second, they're not necessarily homophobes for saying that. We don't know, and I don't think they have an obligation to justify anything beyond that.

I think this is even true if they consistently refuse to play at gay venues. I'm sure that Iron Maiden has never played at a gay bar, but are they homophobes because of that? I'm not sure.

quote:
W Hyatt: What about a baker who is willing to bake a wedding cake for any gay or straight couple, but who wants to refuse service to someone who wants a depiction of something like bestiality or masturbation?
I don't know how much I have to say about this about the OPer, but we already have some threads in DH where we discuss things like this about the baker. If the Hosts are Ok with it, I would like to focus in this thread specifically on whether there is a difference between a baker (shop-keeper) and a performer in this.

[ 27. February 2015, 18:52: Message edited by: LeRoc ]
 
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on :
 
Does presence enter in? One of the differences between the wedding singer and the baker is the wedding singer is at the event; the baker might come set the cake up, or they might not. If a mobster wanted to come into your shop and buy a cake, you'd be selling someone a cake. If you were a singer, you'd have to put your person at their function as part of the bargain. You would have no control, however, as to whether they played your CD at their function (assuming all other license issues were above board), and while you might not be thrilled that they were playing your music, it wouldn't be the same as your going there yourself.

I think the CD is more analogous to the cake. Both are products. The food service workers (caterers, meat slicers, etc.) are more like the singer than the baker is. Are caterers required to do any event someone is able to pay for?
 
Posted by Keromaru (# 15757) on :
 
I keep thinking of Rush Limbaugh.

I don't recall anybody raising a stink about anyone contributing a cake or decorations or such to his wedding a few years back. I DO remember an outcry about Elton John performing there, considering Rush's views on gay people.

Don't really have much to add than that example, I'm just curious where that fits in.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by churchgeek:
Does presence enter in?

Not, IMO, for a wedding singer. As I mentioned earlier, people do not associate acceptance with such. Unless it is something like the Limbaugh/John thing. RL is high profile and his views on homosexuality are well documented.
quote:
Originally posted by Keromaru:
I keep thinking of Rush Limbaugh.

I don't recall anybody raising a stink about anyone contributing a cake or decorations or such to his wedding a few years back. I DO remember an outcry about Elton John performing there, considering Rush's views on gay people.

Well, Elton John is batshit crazy. I can forgive him for singing at that wedding, I cannot forgive him for what he did to the Lion King.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
churchgeek: Does presence enter in?
I'm not sure, some people on this thread have suggested that. But I don't know if a rule "You can refuse to be present at a gay event" would work.

First, it still sounds rather discriminatory. And second, what about a business that rents space for parties etc.? If we had this rule, the waiting staff could simply refuse to show up if the space was rented for a gay wedding reception. I don't think that's what we want either.

I agree with you about the analogy between the cake and the cd.
 
Posted by Belle Ringer (# 13379) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Elton John is batshit crazy. ... I cannot forgive him for what he did to the Lion King.

What did he do?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
The soundtrack. Though, I will concede the stage version manages to wrest some of the awful out of it.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Surely, all of this - baking, photography, music - depends on how you've held yourself out in the first place. That's what I've said in previous threads, and I still think it's true.

If you advertise yourself in a certain way, as a business available to the public, then you're going to start running into trouble if you start refusing to provide your services to certain members of the public based on what you think of them morally.

Whereas if you've always conveyed that your services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that you're not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, then you'll be fine.

It's not the rejection of a customer that gets people into trouble. It's the inconsistent rejection of a customer.
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
Or the all too obvious consistency in rejection of certain groups specifically?

(Years ago I did a temp gig for a company that would not hire anyone coloured [any shade of brown or black]. It was never said officially, but I found out and answered the question my temp agency had as to why certain people were never interviewed or employed who looked otherwise good on paper. Other reasons were given each time. That raised another question: do you putting anyone forward to roles at this company, or do you decide not to embarrass otherwise perfectly good candidates who will never get accepted? It was certainly one of the reasons I didn't apply to stay there permanently.)
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: If you advertise yourself in a certain way, as a business available to the public, then you're going to start running into trouble if you start refusing to provide your services to certain members of the public based on what you think of them morally.

Whereas if you've always conveyed that your services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that you're not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, then you'll be fine.

This is more or less how I see it too. I don't know how easy it would be to tie up this distinction legally, but if you say it can be done it would work for me.

quote:
Curiosity killed ...: Or the all too obvious consistency in rejection of certain groups specifically?
I'm not too sure either.

Suppose a band has a meeting in January and they say to eachother: "This year we're going to do the theatre tour, we already have requests in 5 cities. We're going to try to be on a couple of jazz festivals. And maybe this project will come up with regional tv where we'll be playing with a well-known artist."

Now, if a gay bar calls them in March and asks them to perform, they can say no because it doesn't fit in what they thought about for this year. Even when five gay bars call them. The band has the right to make their planning in accordance with their artistic and commercial perspectives.

You could say that they've rejected a certain group specifically. But I'm not convinced they've done anything bad.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
It shouldn't become an issue, though. If notes were compred bewteen th bars and some though an issue was there, all that would be necessary would be to show your calendar.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Suppose a band has a meeting in January and they say to eachother: "This year we're going to do the theatre tour, we already have requests in 5 cities. We're going to try to be on a couple of jazz festivals. And maybe this project will come up with regional tv where we'll be playing with a well-known artist."

Now, if a gay bar calls them in March and asks them to perform, they can say no because it doesn't fit in what they thought about for this year. Even when five gay bars call them. The band has the right to make their planning in accordance with their artistic and commercial perspectives.

You could say that they've rejected a certain group specifically. But I'm not convinced they've done anything bad.

The problem would be if a straight bar called them the day after the first gay bar - and the band rearranged their schedule to fit the straight bar in. If they turn down all bars that ask, they are fine.
 
Posted by ChastMastr (# 716) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
If you advertise yourself in a certain way, as a business available to the public, then you're going to start running into trouble if you start refusing to provide your services to certain members of the public based on what you think of them morally.

Whereas if you've always conveyed that your services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that you're not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, then you'll be fine.

It's not the rejection of a customer that gets people into trouble. It's the inconsistent rejection of a customer.

This makes the most sense to me. [Overused]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: It shouldn't become an issue, though. If notes were compred bewteen th bars and some though an issue was there, all that would be necessary would be to show your calendar.
I'm not sure. I don't think we can force the band to show their calendar. And I also don't think it would help much.

Suppose that the band rejects a performance in a gay bar on March 1. The gay bar calls this discrimination and somehow they get the band to show their calendar. The calendar shows that the band didn't have a performance planned for March 1.

Does this mean that it was discrimination? The band can have a million reasons not to play that day. Some members play in other bands, some may have family obligations, etc.

And once again, I don't think the band even needs to explain or justify anything. It is upon the gay bar to show that there was discrimination.

Moreover, I think that the band has the freedom to plan their musical year. If their planning says theatre tour, Jazz festivals and a television gig, and this planning doesn't include gay bars, then that's their prerrogative.

quote:
JoannaP: The problem would be if a straight bar called them the day after the first gay bar - and the band rearranged their schedule to fit the straight bar in.
I admit that this would look icky. But even here I think it would be difficult to make a case for discrimination. It may be that the band heard that at the straight bar an important producer would be present who might give them a record deal. So they decided to rearrange their schedule for that opportunity.

It may seem that I'm defending artists' rights to discriminate against LGBT people here, but I'm not. I simply don't think that you'd have a case.

quote:
JoannaP: If they turn down all bars that ask, they are fine.
I don't think that works either. A friend of mine is a folk singer in the Netherlands. A couple of years ago, she decided to sing in Irish pubs around the country. So she accepted gigs from Irish pubs, but rejected request from other bars (including gay bars). Was she discriminating? I don't think so.

quote:
ChastMastr: This makes the most sense to me. [Overused]
To me too.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
The problem would be if a straight bar called them the day after the first gay bar - and the band rearranged their schedule to fit the straight bar in. If they turn down all bars that ask, they are fine.

Maybe the straight bar owner was a friend, and the band went the extra mile for him. Maybe it was a bar that served particularly good beer. Maybe the band member that couldn't make it yesterday has his schedule rearranged and is now free.

Unless you come out and say "I don't play for / photograph / whatever $DEROAGATORY_EPITHET", it's pretty hard to prove discrimination.

In other words, if you're a bigot, be a liar too, because it's too easy to catch an honest bigot.
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:


quote:
JoannaP: If they turn down all bars that ask, they are fine.
I don't think that works either. A friend of mine is a folk singer in the Netherlands. A couple of years ago, she decided to sing in Irish pubs around the country. So she accepted gigs from Irish pubs, but rejected request from other bars (including gay bars). Was she discriminating? I don't think so.


Was she asked to perform at a gay Irish bar? That might have been the clincher.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Sioni Sais: Was she asked to perform at a gay Irish bar? That might have been the clincher.
I agree, that would have been interesting. I'm sure that this particular folk singer friend I was talking about would have accepted the invitation, and she'd loved it. But alas, I don't think there are gay Irish bars in the Netherlands (I could be wrong).
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Re not being able to force the band to show their calendar or their planning: the thing is, if the performer has a good, non-discriminatory reason for saying no, it's in their own interest to provide the reason - and hopefully clear up whatever discriminatory impression was created.

There will always be some people who shout "DISCRIMINATION!" no matter what, because they equate any adverse outcome with discrimination, but you'd hope most reasonable people would be open to an explanation being provided.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It might be in their own interest--but the reasoning comes uncomfortably close to that of bad cops who say "if you were really honest and aboveboard, you'd be happy to let us search your house (car, etc.) without asking for search warrant."
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
Does the distinction that LeRoc's groping for have anything to do with expectations of sincerity? That is, we expect performers to be sincere in what they're expressing (*) (**), and we hire performers at a wedding to be as sincerely happy for the bride and groom as can be reasonably expected of complete strangers.

(*) Allowing for songs written from the point of view of fictional characters, and so on, for which sincerity is more complicated but still holds.
(**) Apart from bands put together by Simon Cowell.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: Re not being able to force the band to show their calendar or their planning: the thing is, if the performer has a good, non-discriminatory reason for saying no, it's in their own interest to provide the reason - and hopefully clear up whatever discriminatory impression was created.
LOL, I've never played in a band that had a 'calendar'. Gigs would come up and musicians would put them in their own calendars (if that). Many professional musicians play in 3–4 bands to make a living, so it's often a complete mess of ever-changing appointments.

Even if they had, I'm not sure if it would make much difference.

quote:
Dafyd: Does the distinction that LeRoc's groping for have anything to do with expectations of sincerity? That is, we expect performers to be sincere in what they're expressing (*) (**), and we hire performers at a wedding to be as sincerely happy for the bride and groom as can be reasonably expected of complete strangers.
I'm not sure if I'm groping for anything (or anyone), but you do have a point here.

(I'm suddenly thinking of a bride who asks her musician ex-boyfriend to play at her wedding, as an act of revenge.)
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Does the distinction that LeRoc's groping for have anything to do with expectations of sincerity? That is, we expect performers to be sincere in what they're expressing

Well, this is an interesting thought.
AS I said earlier, I think this is event dependent. I do not think anyone looks at a wedding singer with any expectations other than quality of performance.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: Re not being able to force the band to show their calendar or their planning: the thing is, if the performer has a good, non-discriminatory reason for saying no, it's in their own interest to provide the reason - and hopefully clear up whatever discriminatory impression was created.
LOL, I've never played in a band that had a 'calendar'. Gigs would come up and musicians would put them in their own calendars (if that). Many professional musicians play in 3–4 bands to make a living, so it's often a complete mess of ever-changing appointments.
Don't blame me, I'm not the one who came up with that hypothetical. It was already running when I got here.
 
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Does the distinction that LeRoc's groping for have anything to do with expectations of sincerity? That is, we expect performers to be sincere in what they're expressing

Well, this is an interesting thought.
AS I said earlier, I think this is event dependent. I do not think anyone looks at a wedding singer with any expectations other than quality of performance.

I spent a my time as a wedding singer a) giving the best performance I could and b) afterwards, trying to find who the hell had my fucking money.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Does the distinction that LeRoc's groping for have anything to do with expectations of sincerity? That is, we expect performers to be sincere in what they're expressing

Well, this is an interesting thought.
AS I said earlier, I think this is event dependent. I do not think anyone looks at a wedding singer with any expectations other than quality of performance.

I think usually the only person who is paid to show up at a wedding and is expected to express, with or without sincerity, anything about the presumably happy couple, their relationship and so on is the celebrant.

There is now settled precedent in the UK that government registrars can't opt out of officiating at weddings of gay couples because they have scruples. Maybe the next registrar court case is going to be "he wasn't cheerful enough and I think it's because he's a bigot."

PS. Soror Magna: It's the bride's cousin. Wait, no - the groom's cousin. No, I don't know what he looks like. He's wearing a suit, if it helps.

[ 09. March 2015, 02:21: Message edited by: Leorning Cniht ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: Don't blame me, I'm not the one who came up with that hypothetical. It was already running when I got here.
Okay, I got that now.

quote:
Leorning Cniht: I think usually the only person who is paid to show up at a wedding and is expected to express, with or without sincerity, anything about the presumably happy couple, their relationship and so on is the celebrant.
Hm, this must be a cultural difference then. In the Netherlands, the performer at a wedding party (usually a guy with a keyboard) has very much a role as entertainer too. He asks the bride and groom (or bride and bride or groom and groom) to the dance floor, he says things like "and here's another song for the happy couple", he makes jokes about the couple, guests request songs and relay anecdotes about the couple to him that he tells over the microphone ...

He doesn't just play and collect his paycheck, there is much more interaction with the couple and the guests than that. And I dare to say that this is at least as important as the quality of his musical performance.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Hm, this must be a cultural difference then. In the Netherlands, the performer at a wedding party (usually a guy with a keyboard) has very much a role as entertainer too. He asks the bride and groom (or bride and bride or groom and groom) to the dance floor, he says things like "and here's another song for the happy couple", he makes jokes about the couple, guests request songs and relay anecdotes about the couple to him that he tells over the microphone ...

He doesn't just play and collect his paycheck, there is much more interaction with the couple and the guests than that. And I dare to say that this is at least as important as the quality of his musical performance.

But how is this not also part of the performance?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: But how is this not also part of the performance?
That's what I'm trying to say: in the Netherlands, these things are very much part of the performance of a wedding artists. Which to me seems to be different from what some people on this thread have been saying.

A wedding artist who performs like this isn't just looking for the highest quality of his music; that might even be less relevant than his performance as an entertainer. He isn't just picking up his paycheck either, he at least pretends to care about the couple.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Pretends.

This is what I meant. Every performer has moments of pretense. Everyone performing for people they do not care for. Caring about every client is not in the job description.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: This is what I meant. Every performer has moments of pretense. Everyone performing for people they do not care for. Caring about every client is not in the job description.
The thing is: this kind of performers doesn't have a job description. If they offer their services on the basis of negotiation and consideration (thank you orfeo), they have every right to refuse to perform for people they don't care for. Yes, sometimes they may choose to pretend, but just as well they may choose that they don't feel like pretending.

But anyway, my post was a reaction to Leorning Cnight who said "I think usually the only person who is paid to show up at a wedding and is expected to express, with or without sincerity, anything about the presumably happy couple, their relationship and so on is the celebrant." In my experience this isn't true, and these things are expected from the performer as well.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
I think that if I were getting married, I'd want anyone I hired to be there to be at least neutral about the occasion. If there were something they loathed, whatever and for whatever reasons, it would probably leak out of them in some way.

In some circumstances, maybe disapproving performers, caterers, and photographers would be the only ones available. I'm not sure what should be done then. But weddings are often powder kegs, anyway, and the added stress of hirees who loath you just might be a spark.
 
Posted by jbohn (# 8753) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Soror Magna:
I spent a my time as a wedding singer

<snip>
quote:
afterwards, trying to find who the hell had my fucking money.
There's a reason I generally don't do weddings... [Biased]

(full disclosure: I don't perform for a living - that gives a whole lot more latitude to refuse gigs...)
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
I think that if I were getting married, I'd want anyone I hired to be there to be at least neutral about the occasion. If there were something they loathed, whatever and for whatever reasons, it would probably leak out of them in some way.

In some circumstances, maybe disapproving performers, caterers, and photographers would be the only ones available. I'm not sure what should be done then. But weddings are often powder kegs, anyway, and the added stress of hirees who loath you just might be a spark.

ISTM, most people don't even consider this as a factor. They look at the product (cake, photos, demo tape of performance, etc.) and say "I want that". They either assume that a person servicing weddings lovesdoingweddingsbecausetheyarethemostmagicalthingsever! or don't even consider their feelings at all.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Got it in one, lilBuddha:

Couples who hire others (or use their services) for weddings aren't interested in them as people but as performers or providers of the particular function or object.

And that is not unreasonable: if I hire a violinist for a party I want to know that they can play the instrument well - frankly it doesn't cross my mind whether or not they care about celebrating my 60th birthday/ SSM/ gender reassignment/ whatever because they're not coming as a guest but as a player or provider of a service. I don't expect them to share views with me or my guests: I expect them to be there on time, suitably dressed, sober and able to perform.

IMO we can argue about this one until hell freezes over - possibly after that too - but you'll never find agreement between those who seem to feel they have a right for everyone present at a function to share their innermost feelings and values, and others who (perhaps more pragmatically) take the view that the feelings of the people who are performing the task/ supplying the service are irrelevant.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: ISTM, most people don't even consider this as a factor. They look at the product (cake, photos, demo tape of performance, etc.) and say "I want that".
Yes, I definitely think there is a cultural difference hear.

In the Netherlands, most people will barely listen to the demo of the wedding performer. It's possible that they don't even have musical knowledge to make an informed decision about the quality of his music.

I'm talking about Marietje who works at the checkout of the Spar supermarket, who is going to marry Jan who operates a fork lift at a transport company. Through friends, they receive a business card from Henk with his Magical Keyboard™, and they decide to have a talk with him.

Maybe they listen to his demo a bit, but what they really want to know during this talk with Henk is: how is his personality? Can he get the party going? Does he connect with the kind of guests we're inviting?

They aren't really interested in whether Henk can play Paradise by the Dashboard Lights in a technically perfect way on his keyboard. They want to know, if through playing this song and through his personality, he can get people to the dance floor.

Now, you and me are not Marietje and Jan. We probably wouldn't think of hiring Henk with his Magical Keyboard™ for our weddings. We probably would have other criteria for hiring a wedding performer. But we're not the majority. Marietje and Jan are, at least in my country.

And I don't think you can dismiss them easily because it isn't what you would do.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:

They aren't really interested in whether Henk can play Paradise by the Dashboard Lights in a technically perfect way on his keyboard. They want to know, if through playing this song and through his personality, he can get people to the dance floor.

Yes, and Henk can do this without caring about the couple. It is just a different aspect of the performance.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: Yes, and Henk can do this without caring about the couple. It is just a different aspect of the performance.
Of course, Henk's heart isn't running over with emotion for all the couples he plays for. He's basically a nice human being who wishes all couples well, and that's it. And quite possibly, he cares for some couples more than for others.

But suppose that in the following week, Rogier and Annabelle have a talk with Henk, asking them to perform at their wedding party. Rogier and Annabelle are very posh people, and their party will be filled with people discussing philosophy while nibbling on a shrimp cocktail.

In this case, Henk will probably say: "Thank you for asking me, but I feel that this isn't really my kind of thing, and that this probably isn't the kind of crowd I'll connect with. It could possibly lead to embarrassing moments, both for me and for your guests. So I hope you won't mind that I'll pass on this one. I wish you all the best in your marriage, and I hope you'll find a perfomer who fits in better with your kind of party."

I think that Henk is perfectly in his rights to refuse on these grounds.

But if we grant this right to Henk, I don't feel that we can deny the right to Hans the Gospel Singer  of preferring not to perform at a gay wedding party for the same reasons. Once again, he doesn't have to explain or justify his refusal; a "No, thank you" is all he needs to say.
 
Posted by Soror Magna (# 9881) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
... In the Netherlands, most people will barely listen to the demo of the wedding performer. It's possible that they don't even have musical knowledge to make an informed decision about the quality of his music.

I'm talking about Marietje who works at the checkout of the Spar supermarket, who is going to marry Jan who operates a fork lift at a transport company. Through friends, they receive a business card from Henk with his Magical Keyboard™, and they decide to have a talk with him. ...

The majority of my wedding gigs came from the church where I was also a paid soloist. The happy couple would meet with the minister and the organist, and decide on the order of the service, readings, vows, etc. The couples might have some specific ideas about their wedding music, but most of the time they chose from our organist's menu of standard wedding processionals, recessionals, hymns and solos, and the choice of a male or female singer. Both minister and organist held veto power over the service and music in the church, so no "Seduce Me Tonight" or "You're Having My Baby" (yes, actual suggestions from real couples). The organist and I would rehearse as needed, and I usually saw the happy couple for the first, last and only time during the ceremony. The process wasn't all that different from ordering the reception food from a hotel's catering menu, for example, or selecting a florist's wedding package.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Soror Magna: The majority of my wedding gigs came from the church where I was also a paid soloist.
Yes, your experience is very different from the Marietje and Jan I described.

Marietje and Jan don't pay for a soloist to perform at their church wedding, they have a party at Bennie's Food Barn™, which also rents space for these events. And they ask Henk with his Magical Keyboard™ to perform, because when they had a conversation with him, they felt he had the right kind of personality to get their party going.

You are not Henk with his Magical Keyboard™, I get that. You are a different kind of performer, and you play at a different kind of weddings.

But there are many Marietjes and Jans and Henks with keyboards in my country, and I have a more than fleeting suspicion that there are many people like this (although with different names) in your country too.

I can't accept your experience as the standard by which all people in your country have their weddings.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
Re choosing wedding vendors that don't loathe you:

I did some poking around on wedding-related sites.

From Wedding Paper Divas, re hiring a photographer:

quote:
#5. And speaking of which, he'll be by your side just about as much as anyone in the party, and then some—how well do your personalities mesh? Will his presence be an asset or a burden? Truly, a wedding photographer's charm and ability to put everyone at ease is as important a skill as the actual photography.
From an article on hiring a caterer, at The Nibble:

quote:
Chemistry with the caterer is very important.

(snip)

Ask who will be the day-to-day and on-site contact for your event. Be sure you feel comfortable with this person. You want an event manager who seems to be enjoyable to work with, appears to be competent and client service-oriented and inspires confidence that you will feel relaxed and able to mix with your guests.

I'm not saying that wedding vendors should become your best friends forever--just that it's important to be able to get along with them. And if they loathe something about you (sexual orientation, ethnicity, religion...), then you're courting at least small disasters by hiring them. Who needs that kind of stress?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
I'm not saying that wedding vendors should become your best friends forever--just that it's important to be able to get along with them. And if they loathe something about you (sexual orientation, ethnicity, religion...), then you're courting at least small disasters by hiring them. Who needs that kind of stress?

But this is really a distraction from the point, I think.
If your reasonable summary had always been the case, there would still be segregated everything. This is not about everybody loving everybody, but about setting and maintaining standards.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
lilbuddha--

I was responding to your and L'Organist's assertions that few or no people would care about how the vendors felt about the event and the people involved. Those wedding-oriented articles (and there are lots more out there) say that it's crucial.

We've been talking about vendors who are openly discriminatory. If a vendor were legally forced to take a wedding they didn't approve of, that disapproval is apt to leak out somewhere. The couple deserves to have vendors who at least have a neutral attitude.

This could also apply to other events--a stereotypical stag party, for example. Some caterers wouldn't want anything to do with it. If they were forced to take the job, they'd likely look very uncomfortable and even disgusted. Not good for anyone involved, IMHO.

I know that many people have sacrificed a good deal to gain various civil rights I'm grateful...and I wouldn't wish their experiences on anybody. I've worked in various hostile environments, and the extreme stress was damaging.

I just think that--for weddings, at least--forcing vendors to take jobs they find offensive may be massively counter-productive.

But I bet it would be a great time for someone LGBT-friendly to start performing, baking, catering, planning, photography, and other businesses. And then other more exclusive businesses might become more open, to deal with the competition.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Golden Key

I'm beginning to suspect this is another pond thing.

Here in the UK we don't yet (thank God) have a universal attitude towards a wedding that the whole thing is a massive production that MUST BE PERFECT - although there are worrying signs it is creeping up on us.

Here you still find examples of the 'trad' English country wedding: home-made dress; bridesmaids walk in after bride; ceremony in church at 2pm; reception in the garden as an up-market tea party with champagne; couple either leave at 6pm or there is a barn dance. You make your own cake (or mum does) and the local bakery ices it, the ladies of the church flower guild decorate the church, etc, etc, etc.

All lower key, much lower cost and, dare I say, lower stress.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
Out of curiosity, who plays the music at the barn dance? What is expected of him/her? How is this person contracted?
 
Posted by Amorya (# 2652) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Out of curiosity, who plays the music at the barn dance? What is expected of him/her? How is this person contracted?

Usually they're found by word of mouth, you want a folk band that does weddings. They'd be expected to arrive in good time, set up equipment, be ready to play and call a ceilidh at the agreed time, take down the equipment afterwards. Price would be in the three figures range, with travel expenses added on.

Most such bands would be doing it in addition to a day job. They wouldn't have a price list and set of services offered, it'd be a more casual "Do you fancy a gig in Warwickshire on Sat 11th?". There's all kinds of reasons why a gig might be turned down: another booking, poor/distant location, too little money offered, a perception that the client will be difficult to work with…
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by L'organist:
Golden Key


Here you still find examples of the 'trad' English country wedding: home-made dress; bridesmaids walk in after bride; ceremony in church at 2pm; reception in the garden as an up-market tea party with champagne; couple either leave at 6pm or there is a barn dance. You make your own cake (or mum does) and the local bakery ices it, the ladies of the church flower guild decorate the church, etc, etc, etc.

I am proud to say my son and future DIL are doing this.

She made the invitations herself. The bridesmaid dresses were £30 each off ebay (they are gorgeous). Her Mum is doing all the flowers for Church and bride's bouquet. A friend is doing the photos

They are having a 2pm wedding followed by a hog roast. Only 80 guests all told.

Future DIL says it's called a 'do-it-yourself wedding' and is all the rage amongst her friends.
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Out of curiosity, who plays the music at the barn dance? What is expected of him/her? How is this person contracted?

At a typical Scottish wedding, you'd discuss the music for the bride and groom's first dance, which would be something which was significant to them, but after that you'd let the band get on with it. Most people know the same standard dances - Gay Gordons, Eightsome Reel, Strip the Willow, Dashing White Sargeant, and you'd expect all four at some point.

You'd expect the band to be able to second-guess from the age / ability of the guests etc whether to do the less well known dances and what to play for a slushy old-fashioned waltz. (I've been to a wedding where one of the waltzes was to "the Old Rugged Cross" and I suspect that wouldn't be a winner at all weddings, although it went down a treat at that particular wedding dance.)

You'd expect them to be able to keep the dance floor busy. And if the groom's father fancied himself as Frank Sinatra and wanted a shot of the mike to belt out "My Way" you'd expect them to know how to deal with him tactfully.

Most people will pick a band because they've been to a wedding at which they played, and they liked them.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:


We've been talking about vendors who are openly discriminatory. If a vendor were legally forced to take a wedding they didn't approve of, that disapproval is apt to leak out somewhere. The couple deserves to have vendors who at least have a neutral attitude.

This could also apply to other events--a stereotypical stag party, for example. Some caterers wouldn't want anything to do with it. If they were forced to take the job, they'd likely look very uncomfortable and even disgusted. Not good for anyone involved, IMHO.

I just think that--for weddings, at least--forcing vendors to take jobs they find offensive may be massively counter-productive.

We say that we like a doctor to have a good bedside manner. Why does not the argument you set out apply equally to a doctor who believes that same-sex practices by patients - or perhaps by the patient's mother - to be wrong and sinful?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Gee D: We say that we like a doctor to have a good bedside manner. Why does not the argument you set out apply equally to a doctor who believes that same-sex practices by patients - or perhaps by the patient's mother - to be wrong and sinful?
Because a doctor usually isn't a free-lancer where the decision to enter in a contract which each new patient is subject to negotiation and consideration. I know that systems that assign patients to doctors are complex and dependent on the health system of each country, but within these rules in principle they have to treat each patient that comes in their practice.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
I'm only acknowledging the personal dimension--that attitudes can affect experience and outcome.

As to doctors: I've had some particularly troublesome, nasty, and arrogant ones. One in particular--a specialist--was widely known for that, and drove everyone crazy. If I'd known that ahead of time, I would've asked to be referred to someone else. As it was, the doc's attitude did interfere with his treatment of me. Similar situation with some other docs: they were so sure that they were right about everything that they didn't listen about various symptoms and side effects. In some cases, I tried for years to get through to them, and I eventually wound up going to other docs. Lather, rinse, repeat. Quite common for people who have complicated or mysterious health problems.

My experience has always been that I get better treatment and results if I have even a little bit of a personal connection with someone--even better if our "vibes" are compatible. That goes for medical people, pharmacy staff, store clerks...and on, and on.

Lots of people try to get certain kinds of health care professionals: particular gender, LGBT friendly, compassionate to people who've been through particular experiences, etc. Often, a call to the receptionist or a medical referral line can be a big help.

Look, we're talking about important situations, and I don't have any answers. I just think that the personal aspect is an important component.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
That last post should've been addressed to Gee D.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
I agree that the personal element is essential. What I'm asking though is why those posting on this thread are prepared to give more slack to performers at a wedding than those on the 2 mothers thread were prepared to give to a doctor.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
Ok, but you quoted me, so I thought your question was directed at me.

IIRC, I've acknowledged the complications of the various situations--baby doctor, included.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
And I'm guessing that the one-time encounter with performers vs. ongoing medical care makes a difference in the discussion--though that could go both ways.

A performer might arguably to get their biases out of the way for one performance; OTOH, it's a special occasion, and things need to be right. A doctor, by virtue of being in a caring profession, might be able to put aside biases--but they'd have to do that for every appointment, over many years.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
L'organist--

quote:
Originally posted by L'organist:
Golden Key

I'm beginning to suspect this is another pond thing.

Here in the UK we don't yet (thank God) have a universal attitude towards a wedding that the whole thing is a massive production that MUST BE PERFECT - although there are worrying signs it is creeping up on us.

(snip)

All lower key, much lower cost and, dare I say, lower stress.

The perfection thing is pushed in the media, and throughout the culture. Bridal gown deep-discount sales can turn into actual brawls. And you might search on "bridezilla".

The simple weddings you mention sound like the ones at my childhood church--except it was fundamentalist, so no alcohol nor dancing. At least some of the dresses were homemade. Cakes, I'm not sure, But no meals. A reception, downstairs in the church basement. Just punch, coffee, cake, maybe some cookies, mixed nuts, and those little pillow-shaped mints. No musicians at the reception, IIRC. Generally, the only gift for an attendee would be a keepsake--either some dry rice (wrapped in pretty mesh), or a bit of wrapped cake.

Since at least half of the couple was a church member, I'm not sure if there was any charge for using the church. Might have been on a "love offering" basis.

I've never understood spending thousands of dollars on a wedding. If you're providing a dinner and putting up out-of-town guests in a hotel, then maybe. Or if you have a huge crowd. Personally, I'd rather have a pretty, but inexpensive wedding. Any other available money could go towards a house.

[ 13. March 2015, 06:43: Message edited by: Golden Key ]
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Another 'pond thing' is the wedding favour (or gift for attendee, as you put it) which isn't part of the British wedding tradition.

Here the wedding present is given by the guest to the happy couple - either something from a list or just whatever they think the couple need. There has been a move towards people asking for cash but that is considered very tacky and non-U.

Similarly we don't have the nonsense of rehearsal dinners and the like.

Some oldest son of some friends married in the USA and they were horrified by the expense, the needless invented dinners and suchlike, and the fact that people getting married at 12noon were expected to wear dinner jackets - and sported ready-made bow ties too [Eek!]
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Sorry Golden Key, my post was prompted by yours but I was not expecting a reply just from you.

This thread seems be much more tolerant of anti-LGBTn performers at weddings than was a recent thread on a doctor who was said to have refused to treat a girl with 2 mothers; I am wondering why, especially given the brief and fleeting nature or the performers' role and a possibly much longer doctor/patient relationship.
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
Originally posted by L'organist:

quote:
Another 'pond thing' is the wedding favour (or gift for attendee, as you put it) which isn't part of the British wedding tradition.
It is in this part of Britain - I had one of the favours from my grandparents wedding cake in 1932 - a silver horseshoe charm - sewn onto my wedding dress, my parents still have one of the favours from their wedding cake in 1962, I made the favours for mine in 1989. The favour from my best friend's wedding (small blue elephant) in 1990 is on a shelf close by me as I type this. I've never been at a wedding at which the guests didn't get favours. They needn't be expensive, but they should reflect something about the bride and groom.
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
// Tangent
Originally posted by Golden Key:

quote:
I've never understood spending thousands of dollars on a wedding. If you're providing a dinner and putting up out-of-town guests in a hotel, then maybe. Or if you have a huge crowd. Personally, I'd rather have a pretty, but inexpensive wedding. Any other available money could go towards a house.
I had a fairly standard Scottish wedding -church service in the early afternoon, 100 people for a sit-down three course dinner, with another 50 coming for the evening ceilidh dance. Virtually every wedding I've been to has been the same. The idea is that this wedding sets you up for your married life. Twenty six years on, many of our wedding presents are still in daily use - the Le Creuset casseroles, the canteen of cutlery, our fridge-freezer, our food mixer, our most-thumbed recipe books, the crystal vase, the painting of the church where we married, our coffee table. I can tell you, 26 years on, who gave us that barometer, that gravy boat, and those wine glasses.

My parents are still using some of their wedding presents 52 years on.

It's a family / community thing - it costs a fortune, but everybody has a meal, a dance and the couple are set up with all manner of household stuff.

I do a lot of genealogy and it's a question you can ask very elderly people, to jog their memories - who gave you what at your wedding?

// End tangent
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
{tangent}

NEQ--

Household gifts for the couple are traditional in the US, too. Gift registries are common, so the couple can get what they need, rather than 3 toasters and 15 crock pots (slow cookers). Although, from what I've seen in the occasional article, there's sort of a branch trend to give other things. Lots of people have lived on their own, or together, before marriage, and have all their household stuff. So guests might pitch in for something else, like money towards a house or maybe paying off student loans, or donate to a charity.

Long time since I was last at a wedding. It was the fanciest I'd ever been to, but much less fancy than many I've heard of. AFAIK, most Americans don't have the money for a fancy wedding Some find ways to cut costs, improvise, and make do. I suspect many couples and/or families go into deep debt.

PS A ceiledh sounds fun! [Smile]

(/end tangent)

[ 14. March 2015, 02:38: Message edited by: Golden Key ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:

I suspect many couples and/or families go into deep debt.

Never understood that. Finances are a big reason for marriages ending, so starting one this way? [Eek!]
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
(tangent)

lilbuddha--

I think a good chunk of it is due to the idea that it's the best and most important day in the bride's life. (Media greatly reinforces that.) That attitude maybe makes sense in a culture where women have little freedom, and likely will never have anything for themselves again. I think that's less true in the US than it used to be, but some people still believe it.

(/end tangent)
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Out of curiosity, who plays the music at the barn dance? What is expected of him/her? How is this person contracted?

(I may never be forgiven for this).

At Christian weddings, the band is expected to obey the words of Jesus, as interpreted by Adrian Plass.

quote:
"I have come that they might have life, and have it in a-barn-dance".
But seriously, folks. You want a caller, a good fiddle player and a willingness to enter into the general sweatiness of such occasions. I've got this hilarious picture in my mind's eye of a barn dance, either at a hetero or gay wedding bash, where some of the couples are same sex, some opposite sex. And you get to that bit in "Strip the Willow", where the couple goes down the aisle lined on both sides by other couples. Each one of them dancing briefly with all of the other people on their respective side of the line. So you don't know til you get there whether you'll be swinging around with a member of the same sex or the opposite sex. Now that could be a huge lot of chaotic fun - even more than the usual level of chaos.

And, perhaps even more seriously, you can't actually manufacture joy. When my grandchildren get married, I just want them to have a joyful day, not get stressed out by grim determination to make it perfect in every way. You don't want unwilling "ghosts" at such feasts, if you can avoid it.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
Perhaps my experience is shaped more by theater performers than church wedding singers, but there's a traditional latitude given to performers even if they've signed a contract. It's too easy for a diva to get a sore throat and be unable to perform or to do a lousy job. On the other hand, there are a lot of jobs where as long as the person is professionally competent, I don't care what they think as long as they do the job.

Of course if a performer openly told me they didn't want to perform at a gay wedding, I'd be sure to let all my friends, gay and straight know, because they probably don't want to hire such a person.

In addition, Medicine falls in the category of things you can't do without a license. To me part of the contract Doctors have with the public is that their licenses give them a monopoly as a service provider, so they are obliged to provide service. I'd feel the same way about performers if it was a union only venue and all the union members refused to perform.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
What about the other way around--if you're hiring performers, and *you* turn out to have something against *them*? Should the rules be the same?

Let's say you're holding an afternoon audition for a wedding reception band. You want light, New Orleans jazz. They all can and do play that well. But:

--Group 1's members all cross-dress. You don't know if they're trans-gendered, transvestites, or just like a great costume. It doesn't bother *you*; but you can name half a dozen attendees who won't approve and won't keep that to themselves. And that's not counting the in-laws.

--Group 2's members are all men with very long beards. They don't work Fridays. With that and the beards, you're thinking they might be Muslims. The bride is an Iraq war vet, with occasional PTSD. The other bride's grandparents are vitriolic televangelists.

--Group 3 is perfect--except they're staunch vegans, they require a vegan lunch, and you secretly think veganism is laughable.

--And Group 4 is perfect for you in every way.

The groups audition in this order, and you don't know anything about them beforehand.

Are you required to hire any of them? Does it matter if you tell them why or why not?
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Palimpsest, that was an interesting argument. At the moment, I don't agree with your conclusion - I would want to have a doctor with whom I was comfortable and who was comfortable with me, while contact with a wedding performer is fleeting - but I can see where you're coming from.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
In Washington State we've hit this with Pharmacists. They want the right not to dispense morning after abortion pills if their religious beliefs find it abhorrent. This can be a problem in rural areas where the next pharmacist is many miles away.
At the same time they're all quite opposed to letting people get prescription drugs by mail. They claim it's necessary that they evaluate other medicines the customer might take for bad side effects, but their attempts to do so are pretty laughable. I've gotten warnings about side effects from their computer systems for cross compatibility effects on drugs I stopped taking a decade earlier. They said; oh.... we're changing systems and the old data came up without a blush of shame.

It's great if you can get reasonable advice from a pharmacist, but you shouldn't be hostage to their religious scruples.

To bring this back to the current dead equine, in some places you need to make a cake served at a public function in a licensed kitchen. It's unreasonable to require that and not require commercial bakers to pick and choose which customers they will serve.

[ 16. March 2015, 15:27: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
Originally posted by Barnabus62:

quote:
I've got this hilarious picture in my mind's eye of a barn dance, either at a hetero or gay wedding bash, where some of the couples are same sex, some opposite sex. And you get to that bit in "Strip the Willow", where the couple goes down the aisle lined on both sides by other couples. Each one of them dancing briefly with all of the other people on their respective side of the line. So you don't know til you get there whether you'll be swinging around with a member of the same sex or the opposite sex. Now that could be a huge lot of chaotic fun - even more than the usual level of chaos.
I was at a ceilidh last month at which there was a large group from the University Overseas Students Society. None of them had done ceilidh dancing before, which added an element of chaos from the start. Added to that, the Muslim students were dancing with members of the same sex. The Strip the Willow was, as you can imagine "a huge lot of chaotic fun."

The Muslim women were not only coping with being "birled" by one arm but were managing to use the other hand to adjust their headscarves.
[Overused]
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
I wish I'd been there!

We were at an amazing ceilidh a few years ago which formed the basis of the evening celebration of a wedding in Edinburgh. Must have been 200 people there. It knocked spots off the by now almost traditional evening affair at English weddings, with a DJ doing his best to strike sparks of the sort of unwilling which seems to be typical of all ages gatherings.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Palimpsest, that was an interesting argument. At the moment, I don't agree with your conclusion - I would want to have a doctor with whom I was comfortable and who was comfortable with me, while contact with a wedding performer is fleeting - but I can see where you're coming from.

Well, I'd rather have a doctor that I didn't think was a stupid bigot. That would make me more comfortable. But there are places where the choice is no doctor or the stupid bigot. In that case, I'd probably use the stupid bigot, although as little as possible. Wedding performers are less essential to life.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
I am sure that none of us wants a stupid bigot to treat us, or to perform at our wedding. Realistically though, there are still quite a few anti-gay people out there in a range of jobs and professions. When it comes to medical treatment I'd prefer a sympathetic bedside manner, but I'd go for the better skills every time.

As to the pharmacy point. In country areas here, pharmacies can be few and far between. As a matter of law, and someone prepared to spend the time can correct me, I don't think there's an obligation on a pharmacist to stock the morning after pill and further I doubt that such a failure offends any of the anti-discrimination provisions. If a baker does not make mixed strawberry and chocolate cakes for anyone, he is not breaching any law by refusing to make one.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
The annual bush dance is the largest gay and lesbian event in Canberra.

The fact that it's gay AND lesbian means that for any progressive dance or Strip the Willow you'll find yourself dancing with people of the opposite sex from time to time. The numbers are such that the lesbians tend to find they are dancing with boys a lot of the time.

I like lesbians as dance partners. The complete lack of any sexual tension is refreshing. [Big Grin]

EDIT: Oh, and the same band has played at these dances for years and years. They keep getting hired and keep turning up.

[ 17. March 2015, 06:07: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Well, I'd rather have a doctor that I didn't think was a stupid bigot. That would make me more comfortable. But there are places where the choice is no doctor or the stupid bigot.

And this is the exact point of anti-discrimination laws. ISTM, these laws are a large factor in the reduction of general racism.
quote:

Wedding performers are less essential to life.

Less essential to being alive, but definitely affects the quality of life. We humans are more than our basic body function.
And thinking in terms of you wouldn't want that person anyway, misses the point. Think of where women's rights would be without laws, where minority rights would be without laws.
Law has brought things forward and keeps things from regressing too far.
So fuck the discomfited pastry maker and stuff the uncomfortable performer. You shall not inhibit my progress further.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: So fuck the discomfited pastry maker and stuff the uncomfortable performer. You shall not inhibit my progress further.
So what is exactly the rule you want to propose about performers? "Performers aren't allowed to refuse when asked to perform at a gay event"?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
The rules that are in place for everything else. That if a performer demonstrable indicates that they are not performing because of the clients orientation, they are penalised.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: The rules that are in place for everything else. That if a performer demonstrable indicates that they are not performing because of the clients orientation, they are penalised.
I don't think this is going to work. And I don't think these rules are in play for everything else.

Suppose that a performer is asked to play at a gay event. As already indicated in this thread, there are lots of reasons why he might refuse:
All of these are valid reasons for a performer to refuse to play, if they are free-lancer. The rule that is in place for everyone else is: a free-lancer can refuse to play for any reason, or for no reason at all.

Suppose that Adam and Steve ask Hank the Keyboard Player to perform at their wedding. He refuses, and they sue him. The judge asks Hank: "why did you refuse to play?" Hank answers (through his lawyer): "I wasn't in the mood." That's where it ends. There is no case. As a free-lancer, Hank has the right to refuse for that reason, just like any other free-lancer. What is the judge supposed to do, look inside Hank's head if he really refused for homophobic reasons? The term 'tought crime' has been mentioned on this thread already.

And another thing: what about innocent until proven guilty? You are putting the burden of proof on the performer here. He has to prove that he's innocent. That's a complete inversion of the justice system.

I would like to punish every performer who refuses to play at a gay event for homophobic reasons. As far as I'm concerned, they're arseholes, and they deserve it. But if they're free-lancers, I don't see how it's going to fly juridically.

[ 17. March 2015, 17:59: Message edited by: LeRoc ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Isn't there a basic question here of whether it's a good idea to be in any kind of 'service' industry if you're the sort of person who engages in judgement of the people you're providing services to?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Suppose that Adam and Steve ask Hank the Keyboard Player to perform at their wedding. He refuses, and they sue him. The judge asks Hank: "why did you refuse to play?" Hank answers (through his lawyer): "I wasn't in the mood." That's where it ends. There is no case. As a free-lancer, Hank has the right to refuse for that reason, just like any other free-lancer. What is the judge supposed to do, look inside Hank's head if he really refused for homophobic reasons? The term 'tought crime' has been mentioned on this thread already.

But this is rubbish. You might as well suggest that the judge asks Hank: "did you kill her" and Hanks answers "no", and then suggest that's where it ends. What is the judge supposed to do, look inside Hank's head to find out if he's lying?

People try this kind of argument on the Ship quite frequently, and it's never true. It is never true that a court required is to accept evidence at face value when there are reasons for a person to not be truthful. Almost every kind of court case, civil or criminal, provides incentives for self-serving evidence. To suggest that this means we're all stuck and a court case is impossible is just wrong.

And it has nothing to do with "thought crime". The question is one of motive. Again, you might as well suggest that murder has something to do with "thought crime" because you have to determine whether killing was intentional.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: But this is rubbish. You might as well suggest that the judge asks Hank: "did you kill her" and Hanks answers "no", and then suggest that's where it ends. What is the judge supposed to do, look inside Hank's head to find out if he's lying?
In this case, the judge can do something. She can look at evidence, call witnesses etc. She doesn't need to rely on Hank's testimony to determine if he's a murderer. If his testimony is all she has and he denies, then there is no case.

But if Hank refuses to perform at a gay wedding, firstly refusing to perform somewhere isn't a crime (offence ..., whatever) in principle for a free-lancer. It might be if he refused for homophobic reasons. But unless Hank has put "I won't play for queers" on his Facebook page, I don't think there is much she can do if he just says "I wasn't in the mood to play that evening". Even if witnesses say that he has made some anti-gay slurs in the past, I don't think that's enough to convict him for discrimination in this case.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: But this is rubbish. You might as well suggest that the judge asks Hank: "did you kill her" and Hanks answers "no", and then suggest that's where it ends. What is the judge supposed to do, look inside Hank's head to find out if he's lying?
In this case, the judge can do something. She can look at evidence, call witnesses etc. She doesn't need to rely on Hank's testimony to determine if he's a murderer. If his testimony is all she has and he denies, then there is no case.

But if Hank refuses to perform at a gay wedding, firstly refusing to perform somewhere isn't a crime (offence ..., whatever) in principle for a free-lancer. It might be if he refused for homophobic reasons. But unless Hank has put "I won't play for queers" on his Facebook page, I don't think there is much she can do if he just says "I wasn't in the mood to play that evening". Even if witnesses say that he has made some anti-gay slurs in the past, I don't think that's enough to convict him for discrimination in this case.

I would have thought it was fairly obvious that Hank's behaviour in other, similar situations will be the subject of the inquiry and that the accuracy/credibility of his claims in the particular case will be judged in that light.

After all, why is he being sued in the first place? You created a very bare bones scenario of "he said no, the gay people sue", but in real life there is always going to be a context around that. Something must have happened to give the impression that he was saying no for a bad reason.

Hank is not the only person who is going to be giving evidence, and I think your proposition that the case is going to be nothing more than whatever comes out of Hank's mouth is deeply unrealistic.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
You seem to have made a 180 degree turn since this post where you said "Whereas if you've always conveyed that your services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that you're not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, then you'll be fine", and I'm having difficulty adjusting to the change.

What kind of other evidence than Hank's testimony do you think could convict him? I already mentioned his Facebook page. And if someone would overhear him muttering "I won't play for those queers" in the bathroom and the judge would accept that as evidence, perhaps there would be a case too.

But short of that, if Hank refuses to play saying "I'm not in the mood" and doesn't say anywhere explicitly that this is because it is a gay event, I think you'd have a hard case to make.

My opinion continues to be (in line with your earlier post), if Hank offers his services to the general public, conveying that he'll play for anyone who comes along, then he's discriminating when he refuses to play at a gay event.

But if he's always conveyed that his services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that he's not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, then he's fine (I've used your words so far) for saying no when asked to play at a gay event, except if we can prove that he has stated explicitly that his refusal is because the gay nature of the event.
 
Posted by Golden Key (# 1468) on :
 
Um, at the bottom of page 2, I posted a question about whether customers *buying* items/services should have to live up to the standards we're discussing.

Any takers?

Thx.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Golden Key: Um, at the bottom of page 2, I posted a question about whether customers *buying* items/services should have to live up to the standards we're discussing.
To be honest, I think that's an interesting question but I feel that this would be the subject of another thread (I don't know if the Hosts agree with me). And if you'd open one, maybe you'd get more response.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
What about the other way around--if you're hiring performers, and *you* turn out to have something against *them*? Should the rules be the same?

I do not think it is quite the same thing legally, but morally, maybe.
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:

Let's say you're holding an afternoon audition for a wedding reception band. You want light, New Orleans jazz. They all can and do play that well. But:

Open auditions for a wedding band?!
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:

--Group 1's members all cross-dress. You don't know if they're trans-gendered, transvestites, or just like a great costume. It doesn't bother *you*; but you can name half a dozen attendees who won't approve and won't keep that to themselves. And that's not counting the in-laws.

I'd hire them anyway. But then, anyone attending my wedding would be likely to expect anything.
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:

--Group 2's members are all men with very long beards. They don't work Fridays. With that and the beards, you're thinking they might be Muslims. The bride is an Iraq war vet, with occasional PTSD. The other bride's grandparents are vitriolic televangelists.

The bride might be a consideration, but this is not the same as "them furiners is all evil". And fuck the grandparents.
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:

--Group 3 is perfect--except they're staunch vegans, they require a vegan lunch, and you secretly think veganism is laughable.
If the budget allowed, no worries.
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Golden Key:
[QB]
--And Group 4 is perfect for you in every way.

The groups audition in this order, and you don't know anything about them beforehand.

Are you required to hire any of them? Does it matter if you tell them why or why not?

In your examples, only the bride with PTSD would even be close to an issue. And if she were that fragile, I'd keep the ceremony very simple and might not include performers anyway.
A note though: The performers appearance is part of the service so hiring is truly different to providing service.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
You seem to have made a 180 degree turn since this post where you said "Whereas if you've always conveyed that your services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that you're not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, then you'll be fine", and I'm having difficulty adjusting to the change.

Not at all. The two are entirely consistent, because the point in both that previous post and my current ones is that the evidence is not confined to what happened in one, single event.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
I got interrupted while wanting to edit that post a bit to expand it.

I think we may be confusing two separate questions: one is about the legal principle to apply, the other is about the evidence available to work out which side of the dividing line that Hank is on. "Unless Hank has said something" isn't a legal principle, that's about the evidence available in a particular case.

Whereas the point of my earlier post was more to do with legal principle: consistency is evidence, yes, but it's more directly relevant to the basic legal principle that it's not discrimination unless you treat gays (or whatever group) differently to how you treat other people.

Heck, maybe Hank says nasty things about everyone.

[ 18. March 2015, 05:09: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
What about the other way around--if you're hiring performers, and *you* turn out to have something against *them*? Should the rules be the same?

I do not think it is quite the same thing legally, but morally, maybe.

It's certainly not legally the same. Anti-discrimination laws do apply to offers of ongoing employment, but not to accepting provision of services.

Not least because the implications are truly mind-boggling. If there are 20 bakeries in town, and I pick one to buy a cake from, does anyone really want to raise the possibility that the other 19 can sue me?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: I'd hire them anyway. But then, anyone attending my wedding would be likely to expect anything.
This isn't about what you would do.

quote:
orfeo: Whereas the point of my earlier post was more to do with legal principle: consistency is evidence, yes, but it's more directly relevant to the basic legal principle that it's not discrimination unless you treat gays (or whatever group) differently to how you treat other people.
My mind works on the basis of concrete examples (you can see this by the fact that I always name the people in my hypothetical examples [Biased] )

Suppose someone asks Hank to perform at a gay event and he says no. Could you give a concrete (hypothetical) case of what would constitute evidence that he has treated gays differently to how he treats other people?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Suppose someone asks Hank to perform at a gay event and he says no. Could you give a concrete (hypothetical) case of what would constitute evidence that he has treated gays differently to how he treats other people?

I can, because I know something like this has actually been done.

After Hank has said no to someone, that someone's sister/friend etc rings up and asks Hank to perform in similar circumstances - the same night, for example. If Hank says yes to an alternative event that is very similar except for being "not gay", he's going to have some explaining to do.

I just recently read about something like this happening in real life (the actual occurrence was a while ago). Two Aboriginal women turned up in a town and went to a hotel asking for a room for the night. They were told there were no vacancies. They left, went to a phone booth, and called the same hotel. They got a booking for the night. You can imagine the expression on the hotelier's face when they went back to check in.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: After Hank has said no to someone, that someone's sister/friend etc rings up and asks Hank to perform in similar circumstances - the same night, for example. If Hank says yes to an alternative event that is very similar except for being "not gay", he's going to have some explaining to do.
We've been through this already on this thread.

So, Hank is a freelance performer. On Friday afternoon, Jack the owner of "The Pink Unicorn" calls him and to asks him to perform at his bar on Sunday. Hank says "I'm not in the mood".

On Friday evening, John the owner of "The Straight Jacket" calls him and asks him to perform at his bar Sunday. Hank says yes.

Now suppose that Jack find out that Hank did perform at John's bar, and he decides to sue Jack. Has Hank discriminated gay people? Not necessarily. In fact, I could just cite Leorning Cniht's earlier post here. Maybe John is a friend, and Hank went the extra mile for him. Maybe John's bar serves particularly good beer. Maybe Hank had a drink in John's bar earlier, and he just loved the vibe of the people there. Maybe Hank had a migraine on Friday afternoon that resolved itself on Friday evening. Maybe Hank had a dream Thursday night where a ghost came to him saying "Don't play in bars that have a U in their name this Sunday!"

All of these are valid reasons for Hank to say no to Jack and yes to John. He can just give any of these explanations to the judge and as far as I'm concerned, he walks free.

quote:
orfeo: I just recently read about something like this happening in real life (the actual occurrence was a while ago). Two Aboriginal women turned up in a town and went to a hotel asking for a room for the night. They were told there were no vacancies. They left, went to a phone booth, and called the same hotel. They got a booking for the night. You can imagine the expression on the hotelier's face when they went back to check in.
But there is a difference between a hotel and a free-lance performer, that's exactly what this thread is about.

A hotel advertises itself in a certain way, as a business available to the public, so it's going to start running into trouble if it starts refusing to provide its services to certain members of the public based on what it thinks of them morally.

Whereas Hank has always conveyed that his services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that he's not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, so he'll be fine.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: After Hank has said no to someone, that someone's sister/friend etc rings up and asks Hank to perform in similar circumstances - the same night, for example. If Hank says yes to an alternative event that is very similar except for being "not gay", he's going to have some explaining to do.
We've been through this already on this thread.

So, Hank is a freelance performer. On Friday afternoon, Jack the owner of "The Pink Unicorn" calls him and to asks him to perform at his bar on Sunday. Hank says "I'm not in the mood".

On Friday evening, John the owner of "The Straight Jacket" calls him and asks him to perform at his bar Sunday. Hank says yes.

Now suppose that Jack find out that Hank did perform at John's bar, and he decides to sue Jack. Has Hank discriminated gay people? Not necessarily. In fact, I could just cite Leorning Cniht's earlier post here. Maybe John is a friend, and Hank went the extra mile for him. Maybe John's bar serves particularly good beer. Maybe Hank had a drink in John's bar earlier, and he just loved the vibe of the people there. Maybe Hank had a migraine on Friday afternoon that resolved itself on Friday evening. Maybe Hank had a dream Thursday night where a ghost came to him saying "Don't play in bars that have a U in their name this Sunday!"

All of these are valid reasons for Hank to say no to Jack and yes to John. He can just give any of these explanations to the judge and as far as I'm concerned, he walks free.

Sure. As evidence. This is not the same as what you said before, which is that he could just say to the judge "I wasn't in the mood" and that would be that. You are now saying that he will have to give EXTRA explanation as to what the difference was.

You seem determined to argue that there's no way Hank can get in legal trouble. Of course he can. He can say "I wasn't in the mood" and the judge can say "I don't believe you." Which is exactly what will happen if Hank has no extra evidence to explain what the difference between the 2 gigs was.

[ 18. March 2015, 07:03: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Whereas Hank has always conveyed that his services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that he's not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money, so he'll be fine.

This, too, is evidence. You seem to think that the case just shouldn't happen. What will actually happen is that, if there is evidence from the gay couple that Hank appears to have done something discriminatory, Hank will then provide evidence that, actually, HE has advertised himself in a certain way.

You can't just assert as a blanket statement that all performers fall into that advertising category, so Hank won't have to show that he falls into that category!
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
If I'm hiring someone to provide a service on a particular day, I'll normally shortlist possibles, ring first to check on availability and once that's determined, obtain quotes. If someone tells me they aren't available, I never ask "why not?", figuring that's their business.

I don't think you can compel anyone to enter into a contract when you are the buyer. Contracts are an agreement between two parties. If you have reason to believe that a contractor is behaving outside any laws which govern proper commercial practice, then you can report them. And if guilty, they can get fined, or have their freedoms to trade restricted or even taken away if possible.

Personally, I would never seek to compel an unwilling supplier to agree to a contract. The most important aspect of all contracts is initial goodwill. Without that, you won't get the whole-hearted commitment to delivery of service. Whatever the piece of paper might say, you are setting yourself up to be screwed, legally, by someone who is likely to understand his business better than you do.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
I don't think you can compel anyone to enter into a contract when you are the buyer. Contracts are an agreement between two parties.

Correct, at a basic level. Nevertheless the law will punish a person for refusing a contract on certain grounds.

And in some cases it goes further than that. In at least some places, the default position is that barristers can't refuse a case just because they don't want it.

For example in New South Wales:

quote:
A barrister must accept a brief from a solicitor to appear before a court in a field in which the barrister practices if:

the brief is within the barrister’s capacity, skill and experience;
the barrister would be available to work at the time required and is not already committed to other work which would prevent them from working in the client’s best interests;
the fee is acceptable (the barrister is obliged to disclose the proposed fee in the same way as a solicitor); and
the barrister is not obliged or permitted to refuse the brief. Situations in which a barrister is obliged to refuse a brief include where there is a conflict of interest.

Taken from here.

You can't compel someone. The law sure as hell can. In fact the entire point of laws is to make people do things they don't otherwise want to do - otherwise we just wouldn't bother having laws at all (this is a point that the Ship has been making me think of amazingly often in the last week or so, because an awful lot of folk on here seem to think that "rule of law" should just be "rule of conscience".)

[ 18. March 2015, 10:26: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: You seem determined to argue that there's no way Hank can get in legal trouble. Of course he can. He can say "I wasn't in the mood" and the judge can say "I don't believe you." Which is exactly what will happen if Hank has no extra evidence to explain what the difference between the 2 gigs was.
Suppose once again that Hank is on trial for murder. The judge asks him "Did you kill that person?" Hank says no and the judge doesn't believe him. Then it is up to the prosecution to give evidence that Hank is guilty of murder. It isn't up to Hank to prove that he's innocent.

Likewise, in this case, when the judge asks him "Why didn't you play at Jack's place?" (which once again isn't a crime per se) and Hank answers "I wasn't in the mood". Then it is up to the prosecution to give evidence that Hank is guilty of discrimnation. It isn't up to Hank to prove that he's innocent.

The prosecution needs to prove that he's guilty, Hank doesn't need to prove that he's innocent. IA very most definitely NAL, but this seems to me to be the basis of our justice system. Innocent until proven guilty.

Of course, in this case the prosecution will say "But Hank did say yes when John later asked him to perform at the same day." But I don't think that this by itself is enough evidence that he's guilty either. Like I said in my earlier post, Hank can have had a gazillion reasons why he said no to Jack and yes to John that have nothing to do with homophobia. And once again, it's up to the prosecution to prove that his reason for refusing was homophobia.

quote:
orfeo: This, too, is evidence.
Of course. In this example, I have assumed that Hank has always conveyed that his services are a matter of negotiation and consideration, and that he's not automatically available to anyone who walks in the door with money. I've shortened this by saying "He's a free-lancer".

If he wants to, it is quite easy for Hank to show that he's a free-lancer. At least in my country, there is a different tax regime for free-lancers than for people with a salary. So all Hank needs to do is show a tax receipt of his last performance.

And once again, Hank doesn't need to prove anything here. The prosecution does.


(I'll be away for the rest of the day and perhaps for several days without an internet connection. If you want to post again, then my reply may take a while.)
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
LeRoc, there is no prosecution. We're not talking about criminal law.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
orfeo

I'm quite happy for laws to provide some general pressure on contractors to behave equitably when hiring out their services.

My point was the specific one. Any such contract may look good on paper, but a forced contractor is going to give you the absolute minimum you can prove you are entitled to. I'd rather start any contract with good will in place, leave lawyers for the doleful situation if that has broken down later and you're pursuing a case for compensation. If somebody doesn't want to make a cake, or play at a ceilidh, or whatever, by all means pursue any evidence you've got re prejudiced treatment as a separate matter. But it's in your best interests to get somebody else who wants the job.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
I agree. You can't make people like working for you, and that'll affect performance even if subconsciously, and it's better to have someone else who is enthused.

But that assumes there actually is someone else that can offer what you want. There might not be.

Heck, I can understand that problem because there's a close analogy with my own experience with churches. I'm a gay Christian who basically likes rigorous Bible teaching and things that you would tend to find in an 'evangelical' church. Which means that the vast majority of churches that would supply the kind of 'service' I want (pun intended) have to be ruled out on the grounds that they wouldn't have me - or rather, would only have me for the purpose of 'curing' me.

When it comes to churches there's no recourse and I wouldn't want there to be, but it's maddening. And it'd be no less maddening with any kind of commercial goods and services. My range of choice shouldn't be restricted by someone's prejudice. The contract is supposed to be about my desire for their skills, not their desire for me to align with their values.

And frankly, if we were talking about race I doubt we'd be even having this conversation.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
Lamb Chopped: I wouldn't be willing to make those people a cake, either.
But that's the thing: I think you would have to. If a Mob boss (or the president of a xenophobic party) would enter your bakery and ask for a cake, you'd have to sell him a cake.
I've only just noticed this earlier part of the conversation.

It's unlikely that you would have to. It's only true if disagreement with political opinion is a forbidden ground of discrimination.

Which it isn't necessarily in the context of providing goods and services. Maybe it is in some places, but most anti-discrimination acts deal with things like race, sex, age, sexuality and other innate qualities. Not opinions.

If you refuse to serve the leader of the KKK at a bakery, it's not because of his race. If you refuse to perform music at a rally for a xenophobic party, it's not because of anyone's race. It's because of political opinions about race.

[ 18. March 2015, 14:04: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm dealing more with whether I OUGHT to have to, not whether I can be legally compelled (which is a simple matter of fact and may vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction). IMHO non-essential services like cake baking don't belong on the list of things the law ought to be compelling. There are just too many ways that can be abused, and it's damnably hard to prove motives as well. What if the one wanting my non-essential goods or services is coming to me simply because it's an easy form of harassment? (For example, because he is my abusive ex (or my daughter's ex!) and wants me to make him a series of engagement/ shower /wedding cakes; or she is my racist neighbor and has the creativity to patronize my bakery on a weekly basis, all the while making racist remarks about gooks moving into our neighborhoods (which remarks are protected by Amendment 1, but I don't want to be forced to listen to them on a weekly basis by my contractual obligations to take a frigging order); or he is the local Villain-in-Chief for any of a zillion reasons (sells political offices; eats people's cats; abuses barely legal girls; what the hell ever) and has decided to use us as his bakery-of-choice for his monthly and highly publicized Evil Political Events, taking care to let the media types know exactly who is making the cakes (Yeah, dude, I don't want your advertising, shut up already). And one more real life scenario--what do I do when the customer who is so unaccountably attached to my baking style is also the person who raped my assistant baker's wife and has just gotten out of prison for it? Must my assistant baker put up with this asshole's face every week?

Seriously, it's so easy to abuse a statute that requires people to serve ALL customers, and it's so very hard to protect either employees or owners if you take away "We reserve the right to refuse service to anybody." (For that matter, what the hell do I do about my Vietnamese cashier who has to serve my racist neighbor and listen to all her evil remarks in the course of taking the mandated orders, and who then turns around and sues the pants off ME for allowing a "hostile working environment" to exist? It could happen, legally, in my state. The fact that the harasser is a customer makes no difference to the employer's liability.

[ 18. March 2015, 19:50: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
No anti-discrimination law says that you must do something. It only says that your reason for refusal mustn't be a certain characteristic.

Not one of the scenarios you're raising is because of a person's sex, race, sexuality or any of the usual grounds.

It is not racism to refuse to serve a racist. I can't be any clearer. It is not homophobic to refuse to serve a homophobe.

[ 18. March 2015, 21:29: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
If you refuse to perform music at a rally for a xenophobic party, it's not because of anyone's race. It's because of political opinions about race.

And if you refuse to bake a cake for a gay rights organization in Northern Ireland, it's not because of anyone's sexuality, it's because of political opinions about sexuality?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: LeRoc, there is no prosecution. We're not talking about criminal law.
I AM NOT A LAWYER!!! AND I AM NEITHER A NATIVE SPEAKER OF ENGLISH, NOR FAMILIAR WITH THE JURIDICAL SYSTEMS IN ENGLISH-SPEAKING COUNTRIES!!! I HAVEN'T GOT A FUCKING CLUE ABOUT THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN CIVIL AND CRIMINAL LAW!!!

Whenever I use a word like 'crime', I use it loosely to mean 'something that breaks the law'. Maybe in this case I should have used a word like 'felony' or something. I don't know. Whenever I use a word like 'prosecution', I use it loosely to mean 'whoever accuses the guy in a courtroom'. I don't know who does that in a specific cas.

It is fucking irritating when I'm in a discussion with you — and you are a lawyer &nmdash; and instead of replying to a post I've made an effort to compose, you just correct me on a wrong use of juridical terms.

We're not in a courthouse.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
If you refuse to perform music at a rally for a xenophobic party, it's not because of anyone's race. It's because of political opinions about race.

And if you refuse to bake a cake for a gay rights organization in Northern Ireland, it's not because of anyone's sexuality, it's because of political opinions about sexuality?
You are making a religio-politic-douchebagious statement.
But, yes. Whether that is your intention or not.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
You are making a religio-politic-douchebagious statement.
But, yes. Whether that is your intention or not.

This is why I find the NI case more interesting then all the other bakeries, photographers, wedding singers and the like. Ashers bakery declined to bake a cake with the slogan "Support Gay Marriage" for an organization called "queerspace". The refusal seems to be based on the content of the message, rather than the sexuality of the purchaser. The Equality Commission brought a case (which is still ongoing) based on the right of people not to be denied service based on their (presumed) sexuality.

In other words, their case is that this is about the sexuality and not about the political opinion about sexuality.

This seems like a bit of a stretch to me, particularly where the service being campaigned for (marriage) is currently explicitly denied to gay people on the grounds of their sexuality by the NI government, of which the Equality Commission is a quango.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
Forget about the courthouse. If I may go back to my example, Hank is a free-lance performer. He has made clear (on his website or wherever) that the offer of his services are subject to consideration and negotiation.

What I'm interested in is: when has he done something wrong? Orfeo has said things like (I'm paraphrasing here) "He has done something wrong if he treated gay people differently than other people" or "He has done something wrong if people have evidence against him", but that's just to vague for me.

Hence my question, when has Hank done something wrong?
  1. If he's asked to perform at a gay event and he sais no.
  2. If he's asked to perform at a gay event and he sais no, and he doesn't have solid evidence of the reason why he refused.
  3. If he refuses to perform at a gay event a couple of times (how many?) in a row.
  4. If he refuses to perform at a gay event, but at the same day he performs at a 'straight' event.
  5. Something else?

 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: LeRoc, there is no prosecution. We're not talking about criminal law.
I AM NOT A LAWYER!!! AND I AM NEITHER A NATIVE SPEAKER OF ENGLISH, NOR FAMILIAR WITH THE JURIDICAL SYSTEMS IN ENGLISH-SPEAKING COUNTRIES!!! I HAVEN'T GOT A FUCKING CLUE ABOUT THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN CIVIL AND CRIMINAL LAW!!!

Whenever I use a word like 'crime', I use it loosely to mean 'something that breaks the law'. Maybe in this case I should have used a word like 'felony' or something. I don't know. Whenever I use a word like 'prosecution', I use it loosely to mean 'whoever accuses the guy in a courtroom'. I don't know who does that in a specific cas.

It is fucking irritating when I'm in a discussion with you — and you are a lawyer &nmdash; and instead of replying to a post I've made an effort to compose, you just correct me on a wrong use of juridical terms.

We're not in a courthouse.

Sorry, I was too brief. I should have expanded the point, which is that because it's not a prosecution, most of what you said about proving things isn't correct.

As to your complaint that something is just too vague for you: well, sorry, but that's just how it's going to have to be. Laws have to be general because they have to apply to absolutely every single situation, millions upon million of people interacting with each other.

You simply can't know the answer in any given situation until you know about the situation in detail. To deal with any of your hypotheticals properly and provide a concrete answer is going to involve asking you another 50 questions about exactly what Hank said and did and what other people said and did. In short, it's going to mean running an entire court case and I doubt either of us wants that.

[ 19. March 2015, 01:35: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
No anti-discrimination law says that you must do something. It only says that your reason for refusal mustn't be a certain characteristic.

Not one of the scenarios you're raising is because of a person's sex, race, sexuality or any of the usual grounds.

It is not racism to refuse to serve a racist. I can't be any clearer. It is not homophobic to refuse to serve a homophobe.

Yes, I get this. The trouble is, if you're going to make certain motivations off limits legally, how are you going to prove those motivations? (or given the political climate in some places, how are you going to disprove the accusation by the would-be client? I've had people attribute racism to me when the real problem was a dislike of assholes. But trying to prove a negative is darn hard.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Let's say that I have a milkbar, and sell soft drinks. For my own reasons, I refuse to stock Coca Cola. No-one can force me to. It's not even a breach of the anti-discrimination laws here for me to refuse to stock it even if it's the only soft drink someone with a particular illness/disability can drink. Of course it would be a breach if I did stock it but refused to sell it to that person on the basis of the disability. Does that help Lamb Chopped?

Similarly, a baker can refuse to make and sell a marble cake if the baker never makes such a case. If the baker specialises in them however, he can't refuse to sell one on any of the proscribed grounds - and those grounds do not here* include the particular political beliefs of the would-be purchaser.

*That may be a proscribed ground in another state/territory here, or where you live.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Yes, I get this. The trouble is, if you're going to make certain motivations off limits legally, how are you going to prove those motivations? (or given the political climate in some places, how are you going to disprove the accusation by the would-be client? I've had people attribute racism to me when the real problem was a dislike of assholes. But trying to prove a negative is darn hard.

You don't have to prove a negative, people are innocent until proven guilty. Motivation is already an issue in law - at the other end of the spectrum murder requires motive. There are different levels of proof - confession, reported speech, circumstantial etc.

If the denier-of-service says "I don't serve filthy fags" then that's a clue. If they shrug and say "Sorry too busy" then they've been wise. If they see 20 heterosexual couples with a breezy smile and usher them into bridal suites, but refuse to look up from their paper whenever same sex couples approach the counter then that's evidence. Smart homophobes have no need to fear the legislation, it's only the daft ones that are going to get caught.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Yeah, I kind of don't get why people start saying "how do you prove something about a person's motives/mental state" because perfectly standard laws about things like murder also require proof of what's in a person's mind. There's nothing novel here.

It's inferred from behaviour. Simple as that, really.

And no, it's not "proof" in the kind of cast-iron sense that would require mind-reading or hooking someone up to an EEG. It's either beyond reasonable doubt for crimes or, as here, it's on the balance of probabilities. Basically, it comes down to which is the more likely explanation given what people said and did.

[ 19. March 2015, 06:28: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: As to your complaint that something is just too vague for you: well, sorry, but that's just how it's going to have to be. Laws have to be general because they have to apply to absolutely every single situation, millions upon million of people interacting with each other.
I'm sorry, but this just won't work here.

I'm very much a layman, but I think that one of the things the law should do is to try to be able which behaviour is acceptable, and which behaviour is subjectable to punishment. I realise that there is always room for interpretation and the dividing line isn't always as clear cut as we'd theoretically expect it to be, but the law should at least try to do this. Otherwise, the road lies open to arbitrariety.

A number of people on this thread said that no-one should discriminate against gays, neither the baker nor the performer. Great. I completely agree with this. What I'm asking is how this works out in practice.

In the case of the baker, it is clear to me. He should serve everyone who walks into his shop. Excellent. A big thumbs-up from me.

But in the case of the free-lance performer, whose services are on the basis of consideration and negotiation, this isn't so clear. We can't simply say "A performer should play to everyone who asks". Free-lance performers don't work this way. I can tell, I'm one. They say no sometimes, for very subjective reasons. And as far as I'm concerned, he doesn't need to justify his reasons when he says no.

So, in relation to being asked to play at a gay event, which behaviour of the performer is acceptible and which behaviour is discrimination, susceptible to punishment? So far, the answer I got from you is "It depends on what evidence people have against him, and if the judge doesn't believe him when he says that he hasn't discriminated, he has to provide evidence that he hasn't."

I'm sorry, but this answer just doesn't cut it. It goes against at least two or three basic principles of justice I can think of, 'innocent until proven guilty' not being the least of them. This is just arbitrary. This is nowhere near a fair justice system.

It's okay if you can't give me an answer to my question. I hope someday I'll find someone who can, either on or off the Ship.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Haven't we covered this? I don't think the baker is obliged to cook for everyone that walks in. They are prefectly entitled to decline certain jobs, just as the performer is entitled to decline certain jobs.

If I want to complain that I've been discriminated against by either I need to show some evidence. If the baker is clearly a grouchy and particularly diva-ish character who wants to be approached a particular way over a cooking deal then I am going to find it hard to show discrimination over a particular idiosyncratic decision. If on the other hand the baker cooks for everyone else with a smile but shouts at black people then we have a case. Likewise the performer.

It is likely easier for the performer to justify pickiness in selecting a customer given the nature of the job.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
LeRoc, if you're going to say something like "innocent until proven guilty" and demand that I respond to it and justify why I'm departing from that principle, the only way I can respond is to tell you that "innocent until proven guilty" applies to criminal law.

You cannot then yell at me again for giving you this answer. Okay?

[ 20. March 2015, 05:32: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
PS As for much of what else you've said, I've already tried to explain to you the difference between a legal principle and applying that legal principle to a specific case and its specific facts. Legal principles are vague. They have to be.

I understand that you like concrete facts, but you're simply not giving anywhere NEAR enough facts in any of your scenarios to give you a nice, firm definitive answer either "yes, that's discrimination" or "no, that's not discrimination". Or even more difficult, "yes, that would prove discrimination" or "no, that wouldn't prove discrimination".

It doesn't matter how unsatisfied you are with this response, you are simply asking for something that is impossible. I cannot set out for you a 5-step procedure or even a 35-step procedure for "how to run your music performing business so as not to ever be accused of discrimination". I can only set out a 1-step procedure, which is "start by not actually discriminating against people the law says you shouldn't discriminate against".
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
mdijon: If on the other hand the baker cooks for everyone else with a smile but shouts at black people then we have a case. Likewise the performer.
Yes, I get this part. If the performer says "I won't play for queers" anywhere (for example on his Facebook page), then he's guilty. Likewise, if for example the owner of a gay bar asks him to perform and the performer starts insulting him (analogue to "the baker shouts at black people"), he is too. If the performer says any explicit anti-gay things, he's guilty. Good.

What I'm interested in, is the cases where the performer just says "No, thank you". Is there any way in which he can still be found guilty if he does that?

(I realise that 'found guilty' is probably a term from criminal law too. What I mean is that he loses in court.)

quote:
orfeo: I understand that you like concrete facts, but you're simply not giving anywhere NEAR enough facts in any of your scenarios to give you a nice, firm definitive answer either "yes, that's discrimination" or "no, that's not discrimination". Or even more difficult, "yes, that would prove discrimination" or "no, that wouldn't prove discrimination".
Okay, so I'll turn it around. Is there any scenario, short of the performer explicitly verbally insulting gays, where his discrimination could be proven?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
What I'm interested in, is the cases where the performer just says "No, thank you". Is there any way in which he can still be found guilty if he does that?

If there is evidence showing that he said yes to someone straight in the same situation, then it's possible to infer that the difference between being straight and being gay was the difference between saying Yes and saying No.

If the performer then comes up with evidence of another reason, then that will probably be the end of it. But if the performer offers no other credible explanation, there's a good chance that he'll lose.

And no, "I wasn't in the mood", on its own, is unlikely to be seen as a credible explanation. We're talking about someone who is a professional, who performs for money (otherwise none of this ever comes up in the first place). Claiming you turned down a job because you weren't in the mood is going to at the very least raise an eyebrow. Is such a claim credible? At the very least it's going to be poked and prodded at, eg by testing whether this case of being "not in the mood" was a one-off.

[ 20. March 2015, 09:23: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: Claiming you turned down a job because you weren't in the mood is going to at the very least raise an eyebrow. Is such a claim credible?
You probably don't realise how weird jazz musicians are (yes, that includes me). This claim is entirely credible to me. In fact, I turned down a gig for this exact reason last weekend.

Last Friday, I played in a jam session. Someone came up to me and asked me to perform on Sunday (not related to anything gay-specific) and I said no. I had a lot of personal stuff to sort out in my head last weekend, and I'd already promised myself that on Saturday and Sunday I'd just relax and think some things through.

Of course, I have a day-time job, and music represents more of a hobby and some extra income to now. But this also happened sometimes when music was my profession years ago. And from talking with other jazz musicians, I feel that I'm not the only one. Sometimes you just want to reserve a weekend for yourself where you don't want to play.

quote:
orfeo: If there is evidence showing that he said yes to someone straight in the same situation, then it's possible to infer that the difference between being straight and being gay was the difference between saying Yes and saying No.
Shit, I promised myself I wouldn't give scenarios anymore, but here I go.

Suppose that I had decided for myself that 14–15 March would be my 'quiet weekend'. Someone asks me to play at a gay event on Sunday 15, and I say no. Then someone asks me to play at a very similar non-specific gay event on Sunday 22, and I say yes.

Basically, what you're saying is that I'd potentially be in trouble. What kind of evidence can I give for not wanting to play on March 15?

Perhaps it would be good if in the beginning of the year I'd made a calendar where I'd already planned in 14–15 March as a quiet weekend. But this isn't how it works. This isn't how jazz musicians tick. In fact (going back to real life again), the decision that 14–15 March would be a quiet weekend for me I more or less subconsciously on Thursday 12.

So, what am I to do in such a case? Tell the judge about my existentialist problems?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
What kind of evidence can I give for not wanting to play on March 15?

Whatever the reason actually was.

I don't see why you can't tell the judge about your existentialist problems. If you don't come across as being evasive, you'll probably be believed. It's a heck of a lot better than saying "I wasn't in the mood" and then clamming up and not elaborating.

[ 20. March 2015, 10:50: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
Should the artists who boycotted South Africa's Sun City in the 1980s because of apartheid been compelled to perform there if invited to do so?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Should the artists who boycotted South Africa's Sun City in the 1980s because of apartheid been compelled to perform there if invited to do so?

We've been through this. Boycotting racists is not racism.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Should the artists who boycotted South Africa's Sun City in the 1980s because of apartheid been compelled to perform there if invited to do so?

So, one cannot boycott hate because that is hateful itself?
Excuse my whilst I go purchases shackles for my wrists, apologies for the all the struggle to be free. Didn't realise I was hurting those poor, oppressors so.

[ 20. March 2015, 16:32: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
The question is whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against - yes or no?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
You can boycott anything you like. That is not the point of this thread though. The performers discussed so far are not being asked to perform at a gay pride event.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
So could they boycott gay weddings?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Not the same thing.
First, not sure there is such a thing as "gay" marriage. There is marriage. There is equality and non-equality.
Second, a wedding is not a political event or a cause. You know, the thing the word boycott is meant to address. And again, but not likely for the last time, a wedding performer is not making a statement pro or con. It is simply not part of the function. No one gives a rat's arse about their politics any more than one wonders if the flowers were arranged with love, hate or indifference.
Third, why is not performing at an event because the participants are gay any different to not doing so because they are black?
Still amazed the lengths people will justify oppression for things which have no substantive effect on them.

[ 20. March 2015, 17:28: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
The question is whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against - yes or no?

Surely the answer is Yes. But if the boycott leads one to discriminate against a group protected by the law, then one should be prepared to face the consequences of choosing to break the law.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
The question is whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against - yes or no?

Stupid question to answer yes or no to. It depends on the thing.

It's a bit like asking "is it legal to refuse to do something". Yes if you are being asked to buy a drink at a bar, no if you are being asked to pay a speeding fine by a proper authority.

Likewise is it legal to boycott something you feel strongly about? Yes if the thing you feel strongly about is drinking alcohol, buying expensive clothes or wearing blue clothes, no if the thing you feel strongly about is not discriminating against protected groups, arranging appropriate health and safety measures at work or purchasing insurance before you drive a car.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Le Roc, you keep referring to freelance performers. Quite what do you mean by that? In one sense, I am freelance. I am self employed and although I don't sing for my supper, I speak for it. Every time I accept a brief, it is a matter for negotiation and consideration to use your phrase.

Ethically I must accept any brief offered to me, provided I am free to carry out the work, it is within an area of my expertise, and my usual fee is offered. But as well as that, I cannot refuse a brief on any of the grounds proscribed by anti-discimination laws.

Orfeo, I think you and Le Roc are often at cross purposes because you're looking at a point from the position of a common-lawyer, while Le Roc comes from a different background. For example, he speaks of a judge calling a witness as a part of the usual course of things, whereas that is something that happens once in a hundred years in a common-law system. He does not seem to understand that you (and I and most posters) work where there is a totally different conception of the legal system. He works as if there is a code which is the answer to every problem; we work where the law sets out a framework in which the problems are resolved by a judge. And so forth.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
The question is whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against - yes or no?

Stupid question to answer yes or no to. It depends on the thing.

It's a bit like asking "is it legal to refuse to do something". Yes if you are being asked to buy a drink at a bar, no if you are being asked to pay a speeding fine by a proper authority.

Likewise is it legal to boycott something you feel strongly about? Yes if the thing you feel strongly about is drinking alcohol, buying expensive clothes or wearing blue clothes, no if the thing you feel strongly about is not discriminating against protected groups, arranging appropriate health and safety measures at work or purchasing insurance before you drive a car.

Matt did not ask if it was legal to boycott something; he asked if it was possible. The two are not synonymous.

[/pedant mode]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
The question is whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against - yes or no?

That is far too vague a question to give an answer to. Can you not attend a KKK rally? Can you refuse to perform at a gay wedding? Can you refuse giving medical treatment to a black man? Can you refuse to work with a woman because she belongs in the home?

Can you ignore laws you believe are wrong?

Not only does it depend on what it is you "feel strongly against" (not least whether it is truly a "something" or actually a "somebody"), it depends on what the heck you mean by "boycott".

I don't know what it is about the Ship in the last couple of weeks, but there seem to be a hell of a lot of people basically wanting to suggest that conscience is the ruler of all, and that the law can't ever say, no matter what "Tough Shit. You've got to do it whether you want to or not."

What is really amazing to me, though, is that this is happening in the context of a... of a website that people often think of as Christian. Where the heck did this philosophy come from? I don't recall Christian preaching being "do what you want to do". Indeed, I seem to remember a lot of talk about it sometimes being difficult, about how God would sometimes require things of you that weren't what you wanted but were for the best. About taking up crosses. About obedience.

Not about throwing tantrums the second anyone makes the slightest suggestion that maybe you can't just do what you want, whenever you want.

Right now I have this image in my head of a parent telling a kid, "be nice to your brother", and the kid is throwing a tantrum and shouting "NO! I don't WANNA! He's mean and he's horrible and he smells!". There's this constant feedback that's saying some of you just don't want to have to live in a society, where you might have to actually try to get along with other people and where just a small proportion of ways of saying "you're horrible and you smell" are out of bounds.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
Matt did not ask if it was legal to boycott something; he asked if it was possible. The two are not synonymous.

[/pedant mode]

[/pedant defence mode] I can't make any sense of the idea that he was simply asking about practical possibility, and I think "can I do x" is commonly used for "is it legal/allowed". Therefore in context I think even a pedant would have to apply common sense.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:

I don't know what it is about the Ship in the last couple of weeks, but there seem to be a hell of a lot of people basically wanting to suggest that conscience is the ruler of all, and that the law can't ever say, no matter what "Tough Shit. You've got to do it whether you want to or not."

Any of us can believe that a particular law is "an ass and an idiot" and also believe in the principle of proper enforcement of the law as it stands. Acting out of conscience may simply be an exercise of a personal freedom in the full knowledge of the consequences. What is clearly wrong is to deny law and order authorities the general right to act on the law as it stands, simply because we don't agree with a particular aspect of it. We stand up, and take our lumps. Whether the law remains in force, or gets changed by reform, is another matter.

If we have this misfortune to live in a draconian society which suppresses freedoms in general and uses extreme punishments for minor offences, the options would appear to be insurrection, martyrdom or keeping your head down. But we aren't talking about acts of conscience in that kind of society. At least I don't think we are.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Gee D: Le Roc, you keep referring to freelance performers. Quite what do you mean by that?
I'm not sure if freelance is the right word. What I'm talking about is musicians who don't get a monthly salary, but who get paid for every performance. So they need to look out for gigs and negotiate them. In the Netherlands, there is a simplified tax category for freelance performers.

I was a professional musician from when I was 19 until when I was around 23 (I still play, but now more as a hobby). During that time, I was in three 'fixed' jazz groups that would rehearse every week etc. For these groups I still got paid per performance. Next to that, I was offered a lot of one-off gigs, in jazz cafés, at parties ... Most of them I would accept, but some I turned down.

I didn't have a secretary and a calendar and a planning ... I would play with the bands, in between I would go from jazz café to jazz café (often in a haze of beer, weed and sex) , and if a gig was offered to me, I would decide on a whim if I'd accept it or not. How much I needed the money was a factor of course, but also whether the gig was interesting or simply whether I was in the mood.

Orfeo says in his example that I should just explain to the judge the reason why I turned down a performance. Well, most of the time I wouldn't have a clear reason for that. "I'm not in the mood this weekend" is definitely a reason for which I've turned down gigs. It doesn't get any clearer than that.

quote:
Gee D: Ethically I must accept any brief offered to me, provided I am free to carry out the work, it is within an area of my expertise, and my usual fee is offered.
I don't know what a brief is, are you a lawyer too? I guess it is different for lawyers, because everyone who goes to court has the right to a lawyer. There is no ethical rule that says that every party has the right to a musician (although I feel there should be [Smile] )

quote:
Gee D: I think you and Le Roc are often at cross purposes because you're looking at a point from the position of a common-lawyer, while Le Roc comes from a different background.
The fact that most of my juridical knowledge comes from watching old Perry Mason episodes probably doesn't help much either.

quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
What kind of evidence can I give for not wanting to play on March 15?

Whatever the reason actually was.

I don't see why you can't tell the judge about your existentialist problems. If you don't come across as being evasive, you'll probably be believed. It's a heck of a lot better than saying "I wasn't in the mood" and then clamming up and not elaborating.

If I were to try and explain why I didn't perform last Sunday, I guess most I could come up with is some incoherent rambling. Part of me also believes that my personal problems are none of the judge's business.


During my time as a musician, I've never been asked to play at a gay bar or something like that. Once a rich, flamboyant gay man who saw himself as a bit of a Mecenas asked us to perform at his birthday. Most of his guests were (rather exuberantly) gay, so I guess that comes closest.

If I were asked to play at a gay event, I'd be thrilled and I'd go out of my way to make room in my (non-existing) agenda for it. This isn't about that.


What I'm defending is the right of a freelance musician to turn down a performance without having a clear reason for it. Because that's what they do sometimes.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
If I were to try and explain why I didn't perform last Sunday, I guess most I could come up with is some incoherent rambling. Part of me also believes that my personal problems are none of the judge's business.

My guess is that if it the consistent account of a witness or two that you made most of your decisions high, drunk and based on incoherent whims with no reason to suspect a discriminatory motive then there's very little chance of a successful action on grounds of discrimination. Of course you might open yourself to other legal sanction in the process of making that known.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
mdijon: My guess is that if it the consistent account of a witness or two that you made most of your decisions high, drunk and based on incoherent whims with no reason to suspect a discriminatory motive then there's very little chance of a successful action on grounds of discrimination.
I'm never drunk or high, but I did make most of my decisions about one-off gigs based on a whim.

What I want to say is: this comes with the territory of being a freelancer. You don't have the advantages of a fixed salary, but you have freedom. That's the trade-off. And freedom means being able to make decisions on a whim, without having a clear reason for them.

To me, it makes no difference if a freelancer often makes decisions on a whim or if he only does this occasionally (for the rest of his decisions he has a system). It doesn't matter to me either if he has witnesses to show how often he makes decisions on a whim. Taking decisions on a whim is a freelancer's right.

quote:
mdijon: Of course you might open yourself to other legal sanction in the process of making that known.
It's the Netherlands I'm talking about, so this is no problem.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Originally posted by LeRoc:

quote:

What I'm defending is the right of a freelance musician to turn down a performance without having a clear reason for it. Because that's what they do sometimes.

And how is this threatened? Where is there a law that says a performer must perform for everyone who asks unless the time requested is already booked?
And in most, if not all, places which have anti-discrimination laws, prosecution of them requires proof of violation, not lack of proof of not violating.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
lilBuddha: And how is this threatened?
Well, on this thread Orfeo has said that — under the circumstances given in his example — Hank should provide a clear explanation of why he turned down a performance. That's my point, freelance musicians aren't always able to give clear explanations for this.

quote:
lilBuddha: Where is there a law that says a performer must perform for everyone who asks unless the time requested is already
That's what I'm trying to find out. I'm trying to get an idea of what the Law says about this on this thread, but the answer I get is "the Law is necessarily vague".

quote:
lilBuddha: And in most, if not all, places which have anti-discrimination laws, prosecution of them requires proof of violation, not lack of proof of not violating.
Apparently, that isn't valid in this case. According to Orfeo, it is up to Hank to provide satisfactory evidence of his innocence here. And "innocent until proven guilty" doesn't count.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
According to Orfeo, it is up to Hank to provide satisfactory evidence of his innocence here.

No. That isn't what I said. Only after someone has provided at least some evidence of his wrongdoing.

Look, I'm trying very hard not to get into technical discussions about evidentiary onuses and so on, but a case like this will be decided on the basis of probabilities. As I've said, Hank is going to have to provide an alternative explanation, once the person complaining of discrimination has shown that it looks like Hank discrimianted.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: No. That isn't what I said. Only after someone has provided at least some evidence of his wrongdoing.
But still, at least some of the burden of proof is upon him.

quote:
orfeo: As I've said, Hank is going to have to provide an alternative explanation, once the person complaining of discrimination has shown that it looks like Hank discrimianted.
There is a difference between "prosecution of them requires proof of violation, not lack of proof of not violating" (which is what lilBuddha said) and "prosecution of them requires proof of not violating, but only if the accusation has shown that it looks like Hank discriminated" (which is what you are saying). In this case, that difference is rather substantial.

What I've been arguing extensively is that many times, Hank won't be able to provide a clear explanation of why he's turned down a gig. That's not how it works with freelance performers (not at least with the kind of performer I am). But I don't believe that he's necessarily discriminated because of this.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
I don't believe he's necessarily discriminated by turning down a gig either. You can't just make a statement that he has in thin air, out of context of exactly what happened in a specific situation.

[ 21. March 2015, 22:45: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: I don't believe he's necessarily discriminated by turning down a gig either.
Let me be more clear. I don't believe he's necessarily discriminated by turning down a 'gay gig', playing at a similar 'straight gig' and not having a clear explanation of why he's turned down the 'gay gig'.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Look, LeRoc, all I can say is that never mind the law, life simply doesn't come with the guarantees you're looking for. You can't guarantee that you'll never have an argument with a customer. You can't guarantee that, even if you generally try to be nice and get along with people, you'll never come across someone that you clash with and who sees things differently from the way that you do.

You only have to look at Hell here on the Ship to see this, and to see what happens as other Shipmates take sides in an argument. Often nearly everyone comes down on one side of the argument, sometimes they split. But the fact is you've usually got 2 people who both think they are in the right when the argument first becomes visible to the rest of us. And you often have a person who still thinks they're in the right even when 95% of Shipmates have told them they were in the wrong.

The only way you can have complete protection from ever having to defend yourself and your actions is to sit and home, never do anything, and never talk to anyone.

It's not as if this is the only possible way for a performer to get in trouble. This whole conversation has gone on without discussing, for example, what might happen with an unhappy customer who refuses to pay.

[ 21. March 2015, 22:59: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Yes, Le roc, I am a lawyer, but unlike Orfeo I am as self employed as you are - I have no guarantee of any work, no holiday pay, no sick leave, no long service leave, nothing. Why should you be able to pick and choose for whom you work?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
mdijon: My guess is that if it the consistent account of a witness or two that you made most of your decisions high, drunk and based on incoherent whims with no reason to suspect a discriminatory motive then there's very little chance of a successful action on grounds of discrimination.
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
To me, it makes no difference if a freelancer often makes decisions on a whim or if he only does this occasionally (for the rest of his decisions he has a system). It doesn't matter to me either if he has witnesses to show how often he makes decisions on a whim. Taking decisions on a whim is a freelancer's right.

You are misreading me. I'm not arguing you have to do that, I'm responding to the particular details you posted and illustrating how a defence against an allegation of discrimination might work.

If you usually decide everything in a cold calculating fashion and then suddenly take one particular decision on a whim then clearly the defence I outlined isn't going to work. But that doesn't mean your right to decide on a whim is under threat. You'll need a different defence, that's all.

Now it might start to look a bit odd if you usually look only at the bottom line, but the one case of a gay wedding you are invited to play for you get all idiosyncratic and claim to have just had a funny mood.

On the other hand if it can be shown that you have previously lived your life in a way the suggests an absence of homophobia you are back in with a defence.

You might argue this invades your right to privacy about decision making - it does but that is often what happens when a crime is alleged.

If some money has been stolen from a shop and you are asked what you were doing in the street outside the response "none of your business I'm entitled to loiter in public if I want" is going to draw more attention than "purchasing this here laptop from the shop next door officer, here's the receipt, the shopkeeper can support my story."

None of this is a threat on your right to be in a public space, but once an allegation of a crime is made certain questions become pertinent and a line of defence is handy.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Why should you be able to pick and choose for whom you work?

I thought one could do that (note to pedants, in the sense of it not being illegal) as long as one wasn't being discriminatory in the picking and choosing. Clearly one takes a commercial risk by doing so (and if word gets out that you erratically turn down cases presumably there are other doors to darken).

Unless there is some ethical code or other regulatory code designed to protect vulnerable defendants and/or plaintiffs in need of representation whose cases would be considered "undesirable"?
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
As noted in my post yesterday at 8.56, there are ethical rules about declining briefs. And of course, I was meaning that the picking and choosing could only be on grounds which did not offend the anti-discrimination legislation where you live.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Thanks, read that now. Are those ethical rules imposed by law, regulatory body, or a professional sense of ethics? I've not heard of that before for lawyers (but then I have very little experience and no expertise in law). I was under the impression that lawyers could refuse to take a case that they thought was unlikely to have merit, for instance.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: Look, LeRoc, all I can say is that never mind the law, life simply doesn't come with the guarantees you're looking for.
In my relationship with the State, there are some rules that are pretty basic to me. "The State will strive not to punish the innocent" is a rather important example of this.

The State has the power to do some rather unpleasant thing to me. The police can imprison me, a judge can punish me ... Yet I seek to trust them. This rule is an important basis on which this trust is built.

So yes, I'd like to see some pretty solid guarantees of that. And I want these guarantees to be imbedded in the system.

This is also different from having a discussion on a bulletin board. It is exactly because 95% of the people may be wrong that I'd like to have this kind of protection.

quote:
mdijon: You are misreading me. I'm not arguing you have to do that, I'm responding to the particular details you posted and illustrating how a defence against an allegation of discrimination might work.
I understood that. Let me try to be more clear.

I'm probably using terms of criminal law again, but I believe that someone can only be convicted if his guilt has been proven beyond reasonable doubt. I don't know if an equivalent principle applies in civil law (and what the relevant terminology would be), but I believe that the judge should only rule that Hank has discriminated if there is no reasonable doubt that he did.

What I'm trying to say is: to me, "I wasn't in the mood" is always a reasonable ground for a freelance performer to turn down a performance. I have done so on occasion, and I'm definitely not the only one.

This continues to be true even if Hank is normally a very reliable performer. Even in this case, it's possible that he had a "Sod it!" week just this once. Things like this happen, and he's entitled to that.

What I'm saying is that in my view, if Hank says "I wasn't in the mood", this is enough for him to have sown reasonable doubt. And discrimation can't be proven anymore.


What would be interesting to know is if there is a case where a freelance performer has been found guilty for not performing for a minority group (without explicitly insulting this group verbally) in any of your countries. I would be very interested in knowing the circumstances of that.

quote:
Gee D: Yes, Le roc, I am a lawyer, but unlike Orfeo I am as self employed as you are - I have no guarantee of any work, no holiday pay, no sick leave, no long service leave, nothing. Why should you be able to pick and choose for whom you work?
I'm not entirely sure which point you want to make here. I already acknowledged that there is a difference between freelance lawyers and freelance performers — something I've learned from this thread and find interesting.

(PS I'm not a self-employed musician anymore. I was in the past.)
 
Posted by Leaf (# 14169) on :
 
LeRoc, you are not a lawyer and neither am I. With that caveat:
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc: I'm probably using terms of criminal law again, but I believe that someone can only be convicted if his guilt has been proven beyond reasonable doubt. I don't know if an equivalent principle applies in civil law (and what the relevant terminology would be), but I believe that the judge should only rule that Hank has discriminated if there is no reasonable doubt that he did.
Yes, you are using terms of criminal law. You are also applying too high of a standard: "beyond reasonable doubt" is different from, say, preponderance of evidence. "Beyond reasonable doubt", as this helpful wikipedia article points out, is the highest standard of the burden of proof in Anglo-Saxon jurisprudence and typically only applies in criminal proceedings. Hank would have had to have been filmed by witnesses wearing an "I Hate Gayz" t-shirt while kicking an LGTBQ person and burning a rainbow flag, in order to be convicted according to your proposed standard.

You can be convicted of a lot less on a lot of lower standards, as the article points out. They generally have to do with other evidence: some credible evidence, substantial evidence, preponderance of evidence, clear and convincing evidence.

quote:
What I'm trying to say is: to me, "I wasn't in the mood" is always a reasonable ground for a freelance performer to turn down a performance. I have done so on occasion, and I'm definitely not the only one. <snip> What I'm saying is that in my view, if Hank says "I wasn't in the mood", this is enough for him to have sown reasonable doubt. And discrimination can't be proven anymore.
"I wasn't in the mood" by itself is exceedingly unlikely to be sufficient evidence before a judge to convict Hank of discrimination. Your standard is too high. If your standard were applied to murder cases, all a person accused of murder would have to do is say, "I didn't do it" and you would say, "Aha! Reasonable doubt! Let him go." A person denying that they committed an offense is not sufficient to make it all go away if there is other evidence against him or her.

If Hank walked into a bar and said, "Goddamn faggots wanted me to play for them, I told them to shove it," that could be used as other evidence that Hank was not merely exercising his artistic or commercial privileges. The more such evidence could be provided, the more likely Hank could be found guilty of discrimination.

I don't know which level of burden of proof applies in discrimination, but it sure ain't anything like the anecdote you are working with.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Leaf: "I wasn't in the mood" by itself is exceedingly unlikely to be sufficient evidence before a judge to convict Hank of discrimination. Your standard is too high. If your standard were applied to murder cases, all a person accused of murder would have to do is say, "I didn't do it" and you would say, "Aha! Reasonable doubt! Let him go." A person denying that they committed an offense is not sufficient to make it all go away if there is other evidence against him or her.
Hank didn't say that he didn't commit the offence here. He didn't say "I didn't discriminate". He said "I wasn't in the mood to play". To me, there is a difference. Let me try to explain.

Consider three performers, Harry, Hank and Hugh.

Harry is a very reliable performer. Normally, he always plays when people ask him. But on Tuesday 17 March, he has a Sod it! moment. He says to himself: "This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one". On Thursday 19, someone calls and asks him to perform at a 'straight' (non-specifically gay) bar on Sunday 22. Harry says "No, thank you."

Hank is a very reliable performer. Normally, he always plays when people ask him. But on Tuesday 17 March, he has a Sod it! moment. He says to himself: "This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one". On Thursday 19, someone calls and asks him to perform at a gay bar on Sunday 22. This is the first time Hank has been asked to play at a gay bar. He says "No, thank you." He doesn't say anything explicitly anti-gay, neither before, during or after this phone call.

Hugh is a very reliable performer. Normally, he always plays when people ask him. On Thursday 19, someone calls and asks him to perform at a gay bar on Sunday 22. This is the first time Hugh has been asked to perform at a gay bar. If it were a 'straight' bar, he would have performed but Hugh hates gays and says "No, thank you." He doesn't say anything explicitly anti-gay, neither before, during or after this phone call.


Now, I think we all agree that Harry hasn't done anything wrong. I think we also agree that Hugh is guilty, at least morally. I'd like to see him punished.

But the difficult case is Hank. I don't know about you, but as far as I'm concerned, he's innocent. I don't think you could morally justify that Harry is innocent and Hank is guilty. Should we force Hank to perform? He didn't discriminate against gays: he would have turned down the offer if it were a 'straight' bar too.

But the thing is: he can't prove that. All 'evidence' he has in his favour is him saying "I wasn't in the mood to play". What people on this thread are saying is that this isn't enough, and that he would be found guilty. It is this that I have problems with.

And another thing: the only difference between Hank and Hugh is what was going on inside their heads. I think that this is why people on this thread have used the term 'thought crime'.

[ 22. March 2015, 18:10: Message edited by: LeRoc ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
D'oh! I just thought of something.

Suppose they are all in court. Hank (the one from my last example), the owner of the gay bar who accused him, their lawyers and the judge.

Hank says: "I'm sorry, I really wasn't in the mood to play that weekend. But I have nothing against gay people, and I'd be more than happy to perform for you another day. In fact, if you want to we can make an appointment right now."

Would the judge be happy with that? Still, the only 'evidence' Hank has is "I wasn't in the mood".
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: Look, LeRoc, all I can say is that never mind the law, life simply doesn't come with the guarantees you're looking for.
In my relationship with the State, there are some rules that are pretty basic to me. "The State will strive not to punish the innocent" is a rather important example of this.

The State has the power to do some rather unpleasant thing to me. The police can imprison me, a judge can punish me ... Yet I seek to trust them. This rule is an important basis on which this trust is built.

So yes, I'd like to see some pretty solid guarantees of that. And I want these guarantees to be imbedded in the system.

But what exactly has this got to do with "the State"? It's not "the State" that's taking Hank to court, it's a cranky customer. This isn't about a relationship with the State, it's a dispute between two people.

This is exactly why your move towards criminal language all the time is of a concern, because you keep treating this like a criminal trial. Yes, "the State" creates laws in the first place, and "The State" might provide the judge to decide a dispute, but in the individual case it's not "the State" trying to punish Hank. The police aren't involved. It's got nothing to do with them.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
But the thing is: he can't prove that. All 'evidence' he has in his favour is him saying "I wasn't in the mood to play". What people on this thread are saying is that this isn't enough, and that he would be found guilty. It is this that I have problems with.

And another thing: the only difference between Hank and Hugh is what was going on inside their heads. I think that this is why people on this thread have used the term 'thought crime'.

1. No, that is not the only evidence in his favour. Frankly, if Hank is stupid enough to stand up in court and utter one, single sentence and nothing else, then he deserves to lose the case. You yourself wrote several sentences of context setting for us... but then you suggest that Hank has only one thing to say in court. Why?

2. That is not what "thought crime" means. The fact murder, manslaughter and completely accidental killing all have the same physical outcome does not mean that murder is "thought crime".
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: But what exactly has this got to do with "the State"? It's not "the State" that's taking Hank to court, it's a cranky customer. This isn't about a relationship with the State, it's a dispute between two people.
But it is the judge who will decide what will happen to Hank. The judge is provided by the State; certainly in Hank's eyes it will feel like the State is punishing him.

I don't know what the judge can do if she feels that Hank has discriminated. I guess she can give him a fine?

I'd also appreciate if you could try to answer the question in my latest post.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:

I don't know what the judge can do if she feels that Hank has discriminated. I guess she can give him a fine?

If the judge is fining Hank, it's because this is a criminal trial, for which proof beyond reasonable doubt would be required.

Probably, that's not what this is. Probably it's the gay bar making a civil claim of discrimination against Hank, and if Hank loses, the judge is going to award damages to the gay bar.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: You yourself wrote several sentences of context setting for us... but then you suggest that Hank has only one thing to say in court. Why?
Okay, so Hank says: "I've always been a very reliable performer. But that Tuesday I thought to myself 'Sod it! This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one.' So when the owner of the gay bar called me on Thursday and asked me to perform at his bar on Sunday I said 'No thank you'." This is the context setting I wrote, but I don't think it will make a whole lot of difference in court as compared to "I wasn't in the mood". Or will it?

quote:
orfeo: That is not what "thought crime" means. The fact murder, manslaughter and completely accidental killing all have the same physical outcome does not mean that murder is "thought crime".
But in this case, what went on inside Hank's head is the only thing that determines whether he's (morally) innocent or guilty. That counts as a thought crime to me. What would your definition of a thought crime be?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Leorning Cniht: Probably it's the gay bar making a civil claim of discrimination against Hank, and if Hank loses, the judge is going to award damages to the gay bar.
And I assume that it is Hank who is going to pay those damages? In this case, it will undoubtedly feel to him that he's punished by the State.

And if he really is innocent (as I believe him to be in my last example), it would definitely affect my trust in the State and in the legal system.

As much as I'd like to defend the rights of gay people, to me punishing an innocent person wouldn't be right.
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
LeRoc --

Before a case will be heard, there has to be some evidence that Hank is homophobic beyond his simply saying to the gay bar owner that he's not in the mood. The gay bar owner's case will be thrown out if the only evidence he adduces is that Hank said he didn't want to play that night. The gay bar owner will have to produce some evidence that Hank is lying when he said he wasn't in the mood, and probably a pattern of refusing to play for gay clients.

Hank has to ask for more more evidence of his supposed homophobia to be brought. If it is, then he will have to produce further evidence that he is not.

As for "the State" -- God help us all if we confuse a judge or a judicial system with "The State", at least in the area of civil as opposed to criminal law. In my country, the courts are currently the only thing standing between the people and what you would probably describe as "The State".

John
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: That is not what "thought crime" means. The fact murder, manslaughter and completely accidental killing all have the same physical outcome does not mean that murder is "thought crime".
But in this case, what went on inside Hank's head is the only thing that determines whether he's (morally) innocent or guilty. That counts as a thought crime to me. What would your definition of a thought crime be?
No, that's not true. What he DID, combined with what he thought, will determine whether he's in the wrong. In exactly the same way that murder requires both killing and intent to kill.

A "thought crime" is when you get punished for thinking something without any action involved. But you can think whatever filthy thoughts about homosexuals or women or black people you like, so long as your actual actions don't discriminate.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
D'oh! I just thought of something.

Suppose they are all in court. Hank (the one from my last example), the owner of the gay bar who accused him, their lawyers and the judge.

Hank says: "I'm sorry, I really wasn't in the mood to play that weekend. But I have nothing against gay people, and I'd be more than happy to perform for you another day. In fact, if you want to we can make an appointment right now."

Would the judge be happy with that? Still, the only 'evidence' Hank has is "I wasn't in the mood".

Because you're making it the only evidence. What happened to THIS bit?

quote:
But on Tuesday 17 March, he has a Sod it! moment. He says to himself: "This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one".
That is more than just saying "I wasn't in the mood". And why did Hank have a Sod it! moment? What was going on that made him decide he wanted a break on that weekend?

All of that would give Hank credibility. You keep stripping all of that background and context away.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
John Holding: The gay bar owner will have to produce some evidence that Hank is lying when he said he wasn't in the mood, and probably a pattern of refusing to play for gay clients.
I agree that this is how it should be. But this isn't how I interpret what Orfeo has said.

This is how I understand it: according to him, Hank saying that he wasn't in the mood isn't sufficent evidence. It is up to Hank to provide something more. (Yes yes I know, the gay bar should provide evidence first. But after this, according to him at least this part of the burden of proof seems to lie upon Hank.)

In the way I tried to formulate my example, there is no pattern of Hank refusing to play for gay clients. This is the first time he's been asked to do this. Would this mean that he's off the hook?

quote:
John Holding: As for "the State" -- God help us all if we confuse a judge or a judicial system with "The State"
Yes, you're probably right. Maybe instead of 'the State', I should have said 'the judicial system'. My bad, I'm very weak on concepts, especially because this isn't my area of expertise.

But what I'm asking — sincerely — of Orfeo and of other people is: please bear with me. My knowledge of juridical terms is zero, especially in English. But I'm trying to understand something here. If I'm using the wrong word in a paragraph, by all means correct me for using that word. I'll be pleased with that, and I'll fully admit that I was wrong. But please also try to pay attention to the rest of what I was trying to say in the paragraph. It's a drain of energy when you try to formulate an argument, and someone only reacts to one word of it (even if they're right that this word is wrong).

quote:
orfeo: No, that's not true. What he DID, combined with what he thought, will determine whether he's in the wrong. In exactly the same way that murder requires both killing and intent to kill.
I tried to formulate this example very carefully. In this example, Hank and Hugh DID exactly the same thing. They both said "No, thank you" when the owner of the gay bar called on Thursday, asking them to play on Sunday. You may even assume it was the same owner of the same gay bar, if you like.

The only difference is between what Hank and Hugh thought. Yet according to me, Hank is morally innocent but Hugh is morally guilty. (I'd like to hear if you agree with that.)

quote:
orfeo: A "thought crime" is when you get punished for thinking something without any action involved. But you can think whatever filthy thoughts about homosexuals or women or black people you like, so long as your actual actions don't discriminate.
This is what I'm trying to found out. Do you think that Hank's actions discriminated here?

quote:
orfeo: Because you're making it the only evidence. What happened to THIS bit?.
It was included in this post. Literally. But I really thought — perhaps naively — that this post might provide a way out of the conundrum. But unfortunately, you only reacted to the last paragraph of it. Could I ask you to look at the whole post again?

In fact, I'll even formulate it again, taking your comment into account. Suppose that Hank says in court "I'm sorry, I really wasn't in the mood to play that weekend. On that Tuesday, I said to myself: 'This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one'. I guess I had some kind of Sod it! moment; I can't really explain why. So when Jack called me on Tuesday, asking me to perform on Sunday, I said 'No, thank you'. But I have nothing against gay people, and I'd be more than happy to perform for him another day. In fact, if he wants to we can make an appointment right now." Would this be ok?

quote:
orfeo: And why did Hank have a Sod it! moment? What was going on that made him decide he wanted a break on that weekend?
I don't know, perhaps nothing. Do people always have reasons for having Sod it! moments? I've had plenty of them without a clear reason.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Could I ask you to look at the whole post again?

In fact, I'll even formulate it again, taking your comment into account. Suppose that Hank says in court "I'm sorry, I really wasn't in the mood to play that weekend. On that Tuesday, I said to myself: 'This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one'. I guess I had some kind of Sod it! moment; I can't really explain why. So when Jack called me on Tuesday, asking me to perform on Sunday, I said 'No, thank you'. But I have nothing against gay people, and I'd be more than happy to perform for him another day. In fact, if he wants to we can make an appointment right now." Would this be ok? [/QB]

I expect so, yes.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
The question is whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against - yes or no?

That is far too vague a question to give an answer to. Can you not attend a KKK rally? Can you refuse to perform at a gay wedding? Can you refuse giving medical treatment to a black man? Can you refuse to work with a woman because she belongs in the home?

Can you ignore laws you believe are wrong?

Not only does it depend on what it is you "feel strongly against" (not least whether it is truly a "something" or actually a "somebody"), it depends on what the heck you mean by "boycott".

I don't know what it is about the Ship in the last couple of weeks, but there seem to be a hell of a lot of people basically wanting to suggest that conscience is the ruler of all, and that the law can't ever say, no matter what "Tough Shit. You've got to do it whether you want to or not."

What is really amazing to me, though, is that this is happening in the context of a... of a website that people often think of as Christian. Where the heck did this philosophy come from? I don't recall Christian preaching being "do what you want to do". Indeed, I seem to remember a lot of talk about it sometimes being difficult, about how God would sometimes require things of you that weren't what you wanted but were for the best. About taking up crosses. About obedience.

Not about throwing tantrums the second anyone makes the slightest suggestion that maybe you can't just do what you want, whenever you want.

Right now I have this image in my head of a parent telling a kid, "be nice to your brother", and the kid is throwing a tantrum and shouting "NO! I don't WANNA! He's mean and he's horrible and he smells!". There's this constant feedback that's saying some of you just don't want to have to live in a society, where you might have to actually try to get along with other people and where just a small proportion of ways of saying "you're horrible and you smell" are out of bounds.

But what the law says is right or wrong changes. To return to my Sun City example, in 1980s South Africa the law said it was perfectly OK to discriminate on the grounds of race. Now it doesn't. The laws of the pre-Christian Roman Empire at times required everyone to sacrifice to Caesar - are you seriously suggesting the early Christians were wrong to disobey those laws? Therefore, "because the law says so" is quote rightly not necessarily the end of the discussion; what is legal at a given time may not be what is moral.
 
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
what is legal at a given time may not be what is moral.

True. Treating black people well was moral prior to slavery being abolished. Treating women well was moral prior to women being given the right to vote. Treating gay people well was moral prior to gay people being allowed to marry. Treating other people well has always been moral regardless of whether the law requires it.

However, your suggestion that there should be a legal exemption allowing anyone who has strongly-held opinions to opt out of treating other people well... [Roll Eyes] Do you seriously want the law to say "if you feel strongly about something you're allowed to disregard any laws on the subject"? Do you seriously think that would work as a law? Imagine what chaos would ensue if people could do anything they liked with the simple justification of "well I had strong feelings on the subject".

Let me assure you that some gay people have very strong feelings about the anti-gay Christians who have persecuted them for decades. I suggest that you wouldn't like the outcome if you gave those people the legal right to act on those feelings... But I guess what you were meaning was that Christians who have strong feelings get an exemption from laws about treating other people well when it comes to the treatment of gay people, but that gay people with strong feelings don't get any exemption from laws about treating others well when it comes to the treatment of Christians.

[ 23. March 2015, 09:42: Message edited by: Starlight ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
But what the law says is right or wrong changes.

...whereas your parents were completely consistent?

And are you suggesting people's moral positions don't change? They certainly do. Look at me: I went from thinking there was something terrible about me being gay to being perfectly fine with it. And in fact it's moral change across society that frequently precedes legal change. The law plays catch-up.

The fact that the law changes is no basis for saying that you can somehow then ignore what it says. You cannot run a society on personal consciences without serious problems, for the simple reason that personal consciences differ.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
As for early Christians disobeying early laws: I will bet you a large sum that what they didn't do is expect to get away with it. They might have, if forced to answer for their actions, have said that they could not in good conscience obey the law, but I doubt very much that they then said "so it's really unfair if you punish me for not sharing your value system".

These days, people want to have the best of both worlds. They want to call on the law when it aids them, and then they want to start talking about their personal consciences if the law is against them.

[ 23. March 2015, 09:58: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
The laws of the pre-Christian Roman Empire at times required everyone to sacrifice to Caesar - are you seriously suggesting the early Christians were wrong to disobey those laws? Therefore, "because the law says so" is quote rightly not necessarily the end of the discussion; what is legal at a given time may not be what is moral.

Your original question was "whether one can boycott something which one feels strongly against". I and others had interpreted that as asking whether it was legal to or not.

I think you are asking is it moral to boycott something which one feels strongly about. The answer is the same - it depends. The law is part of the assessment but not the only part. If we are talking about driving at 40mph then the law is a very big part of deciding what is moral, if we are talking about rape then the law isn't so important. (Although it happens to align on the side of morality in most of the world).
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: I expect so, yes.
Hallelujah! Finally we're getting somewhere [Smile]

Just a question: do you think that Hank saying he was prepared to perform at the gay bar on another date made a difference here? Because Hugh (the bad guy from this example) could also have said (in contrast to Hank, he would be lying): "I'm sorry, I really wasn't in the mood to play that weekend. On that Tuesday, I said to myself: 'This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one'. I guess I had some kind of Sod it! moment; I can't really explain why. So when Jack called me on Thursday, asking me to perform on Sunday, I said 'No, thank you'."
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Starlight:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
what is legal at a given time may not be what is moral.

True. Treating black people well was moral prior to slavery being abolished. Treating women well was moral prior to women being given the right to vote. Treating gay people well was moral prior to gay people being allowed to marry. Treating other people well has always been moral regardless of whether the law requires it.

However, your suggestion that there should be a legal exemption allowing anyone who has strongly-held opinions to opt out of treating other people well... [Roll Eyes] Do you seriously want the law to say "if you feel strongly about something you're allowed to disregard any laws on the subject"? Do you seriously think that would work as a law? Imagine what chaos would ensue if people could do anything they liked with the simple justification of "well I had strong feelings on the subject".

Nope. That's not what I was asking: for the record, I am asking a specific question as to whether it is (or should be) allowable to opt out of performing at a gig to which one - for moral reasons - objects.
quote:
Let me assure you that some gay people have very strong feelings about the anti-gay Christians who have persecuted them for decades. I suggest that you wouldn't like the outcome if you gave those people the legal right to act on those feelings... But I guess what you were meaning was that Christians who have strong feelings get an exemption from laws about treating other people well when it comes to the treatment of gay people, but that gay people with strong feelings don't get any exemption from laws about treating others well when it comes to the treatment of Christians.
I have no argument with any of that.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
But what the law says is right or wrong changes.

...whereas your parents were completely consistent?

And are you suggesting people's moral positions don't change?

In the relationship between law and morality, I am here talking about moral absolutes - as Starlight said, it has always been wrong to discriminate against women, blacks, etc, whether or not individuals' moral positions change on that subject.
quote:
The fact that the law changes is no basis for saying that you can somehow then ignore what it says. You cannot run a society on personal consciences without serious problems, for the simple reason that personal consciences differ.
Granted.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: I expect so, yes.
Hallelujah! Finally we're getting somewhere [Smile]

Just a question: do you think that Hank saying he was prepared to perform at the gay bar on another date made a difference here? Because Hugh (the bad guy from this example) could also have said (in contrast to Hank, he would be lying): "I'm sorry, I really wasn't in the mood to play that weekend. On that Tuesday, I said to myself: 'This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one'. I guess I had some kind of Sod it! moment; I can't really explain why. So when Jack called me on Thursday, asking me to perform on Sunday, I said 'No, thank you'."

Yes, it's relevant. However, I am finding these examples more and more unreal, because you are inside all of your character's heads.

In real life we have to judge people from the outside. We don't get told whether they are telling the truth or lying. We have to figure that out.

[ 23. March 2015, 11:19: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
In the relationship between law and morality, I am here talking about moral absolutes - as Starlight said, it has always been wrong to discriminate against women, blacks, etc, whether or not individuals' moral positions change on that subject.

Then why do you have to ask your question in the first place?

Seriously, you seem to be tying a logical knot. You seem to be claiming that we all know exactly which kinds of discrimination are not permissible, but at the same time you're asking whether an individual person is permitted to engage in a form of choice - a boycott - based on their own, personal disagreement on something.

How exactly did this disagreement arise, in a universe of moral absolutes?

And even asking whether someone is "allowed" to boycott raises a heap of questions. What do you mean by "allowed"? By their own morality? Of course. That's circular. By someone else's morality? Well, can someone else's morality differ with these moral absolutes? By the law? You've just told me you're not talking about the law.

At this point I'm mystified by just what kind of response you expect. It's already been said to you, there is no law that prevents you from boycotting racists. I can't give you some kind of broad-ranging answer beyond "it depends", for exactly the same reason I couldn't give LeRoc a more definite answer. Your generic question is in fact far more generic than anything LeRoc asked.

[ 23. March 2015, 11:26: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Leaf (# 14169) on :
 
LeRoc: The way in which you have constructed the narrative for yourself seems to look like this: Hank vs. The State.

You have added more detail to suit yourself, as orfeo points out: Hank is actually innocent of discrimination, and The State (ooh, a scary word, looking like a big concrete prison) is his opponent.

Your narrative is missing the actual key components of how this would work in real life. In real life, the narrative would include:

Hank, whom we don't know if he is innocent or guilty;
Hank's prospective client, whom we don't know is pursuing this out of motives good or bad;
all the evidence;
the judge, acting as referee of a trial and decision maker on behalf of the State. Insofar as the State is democratically elected and its legislature passes laws reflecting the will of its people, l'etat, c'est nous - the State is us.

A judge who heard from the prospective client, "He said he didn't feel like it," - with no other supporting evidence - would throw it out. There would not be enough evidence against Hank.

That's how it works out in reality rather than in the existential novel version of Hank vs The State.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
In the relationship between law and morality, I am here talking about moral absolutes - as Starlight said, it has always been wrong to discriminate against women, blacks, etc, whether or not individuals' moral positions change on that subject.

Then why do you have to ask your question in the first place?

Seriously, you seem to be tying a logical knot. You seem to be claiming that we all know exactly which kinds of discrimination are not permissible, but at the same time you're asking whether an individual person is permitted to engage in a form of choice - a boycott - based on their own, personal disagreement on something.

How exactly did this disagreement arise, in a universe of moral absolutes?

And even asking whether someone is "allowed" to boycott raises a heap of questions. What do you mean by "allowed"? By their own morality? Of course. That's circular. By someone else's morality? Well, can someone else's morality differ with these moral absolutes? By the law? You've just told me you're not talking about the law.

At this point I'm mystified by just what kind of response you expect. It's already been said to you, there is no law that prevents you from boycotting racists. I can't give you some kind of broad-ranging answer beyond "it depends", for exactly the same reason I couldn't give LeRoc a more definite answer. Your generic question is in fact far more generic than anything LeRoc asked.

Yeah, I see what I've done there [Frown] . I kind of was trying to ask,in a very cack-handed way, "what's the difference in principle between someone refusing to perform at a legal racist event, and someone refusing to perform at a legal gay wedding, other than 'the first refusal we would heartily approve of and the second we would heartily abhor - plus it might now amount to unlawful discrimination'?"

[ 23. March 2015, 15:25: Message edited by: Matt Black ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
One supports hate and the other supports tolerance?
If the agenda of one prevails, it actively makes life more difficult for large groups of people and if the other does it has no substantive effect on its opponents?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
I think you are essentially asking whether the state has any right to make a moral judgement in enacting laws. The idea that laws ought to be entirely arbitrary in some characteristic without any moral judgement is not going to play out well if you take it to its logical conclusion.

The state is allowed to say that it doesn't regard racists as a protected group, but does regard gay people as a protected group.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
That's the second leg of my objection - what the law says.
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
One supports hate and the other supports tolerance?

And that's the first leg, which boils down to a matter of personal opinion in essence - you and I think that apartheid was abhorrent but there were presumably - indeed obviously - those in South Africa who thought it was a Jolly Good Idea™.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Apartheid hurt one group* of people and preferenced its supporters. Regardless of one's "opinion" on the right or wrong of it.
Supporting legislation which prohibits equal rights in marriage hurts one group and preferences its supporters**.
So there is this similarity.
Oh, wait, your argument is slightly different.
You are saying that gays being allowed to marry hurts its opponents like apartheid hurt black people.

*One in the minds of the supporters
**also in the minds of the supporters.
 
Posted by Starlight (# 12651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
what's the difference in principle between someone refusing to perform at a legal racist event, and someone refusing to perform at a legal gay wedding, other than 'the first refusal we would heartily approve of and the second we would heartily abhor

This is a good question (which has a good answer).

We can all see, I hope, that if everyone in our society decided to be nasty to black people, then this would make life hell for black people. If every restaurant they went to, there was a significant chance that the owner would kick them out rather than serving them... if in most of the jobs they tried to get they were rejected because they were black... if, when they tried to make friends with coworkers after they finally managed to get a job, half the people wouldn't talk to them.

We can see how the cumulative effects of this nastiness targeted at them might take a toll on their psyche and cause them stress and anxiety. We wouldn't be surprised to hear that a person in that situation might come to suffer from depression or contemplate suicide. Unfortunately chronic stress in itself has negative medical consequences ranging from a greater risk of heart attack and stroke, to slower healing, to increased risk of developing mental illnesses. These people also tend to turn to alcohol and smoking as coping mechanisms to try and deal with the stresses of life. These general cumulative effects of stress suffered by minorities due to discrimination are known as minority stress and are a fairly serious problem. The clearest form of harm is typically the much higher suicide rates among these groups of people, but much higher rates of death from smoking and alcohol are also measurable.

I think most people should be able to agree that there is a clear moral case for wanting to prevent this sort of cumulative harm occurring to people, especially in the case where the person hasn't done anything to deserve it. eg if their only crime is "being black in my general direction". This is why discrimination against these minority groups is immoral - because the cumulative effects (and occasionally the individual effects) cause serious harms to them. That is why we have non-discrimination laws.

But we don't want to go around limiting freedom unnecessarily. So the compromise is to protect from discrimination only those people who are highly likely to suffer the cumulative effects of discrimination. Thus we get the notion of "protected" groups: eg you can't discriminate against a black person on the grounds that he's black. Whereas you can discriminate against people wearing bow ties if you don't like bow ties, because other people aren't discriminating en masse against such people, and wearing a bow tie is an easily reversible choice anyway, so basically there's no danger of any life-threateningly cumulative discrimination against bow tie wearers.

The following things are typically considered (eg by the US Supreme Court) when trying to decide whether a particular group of people ought to be protected from discrimination:
The clear harms of allowing cumulative discrimination have to be balanced against the harms to freedom that occur when actions and choices are restricted. However, just as we say it's immoral to murder someone, and we want to restrict the freedom of people to be able to murder others, so too it's immoral to murder someone by driving them to suicide through repeated nastiness and so we want to be able to restrict the freedom of people to do this. This estimate (see the Abstract on page 5) from 2003 suggested that over 2000 gay people per year in Canada die prematurely due to homophobia, primarily from suicide, smoking, and alcohol. So the effects of discrimination are pretty severe. For those interested in an overview of the negative health effects of discrimination on gay people, I recommend reading this.

So to answer your question directly Matt, racists don't really meet the criteria listed above. Racists are typically part of the politically powerful majority, who makes others suffer rather than gets discriminated against, and racism is often entirely voluntary, and I see no reason to believe that cumulative discrimination is causing the deaths of racists in any large numbers. Furthermore racism in and of itself does actually cause harm to people, so opposition to it seems justifiable. Whereas discriminating against blacks or gay people seems to be posing a life-threateningly-serious danger of cumulative harm to people who have a long history of suffering such harm.

[ 23. March 2015, 19:19: Message edited by: Starlight ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: Yes, it's relevant. However, I am finding these examples more and more unreal, because you are inside all of your character's heads.
I'm the Master Puppeteer. Mwahahahaah!

But to me, it makes sense. Somewhen, somewhere there will be a character who looks a lot like Hank. Somewhen, somewhere there will be a character who looks a lot like Hugh. I am interested in knowing what would happen to them.

quote:
orfeo: In real life we have to judge people from the outside. We don't get told whether they are telling the truth or lying. We have to figure that out.
This is because you are looking at it from the point of view of the judge and the other professional people in the courtroom. I'm looking at it from the point of view of Hank.

At least, now I realise that if Hank is innocent, even if he has little evidence of anything else, there is something that he can prove. He can prove that he's sincere when he says "I have nothing against playing in gay bars in principle", by offering to play at the gay bar at another date (and keeping that promise, of course).

Checking with my own morals, I still think that too big of a part of the burden of proof lies on him in this case. I'm rather surprised by this, and judging by some of the reactions on this thread, I'm not the only one.

Another thing I'm having trouble with, is that the only difference between Hank (who turned down the gig at the gay bar because he had a Sod it! weekend) and Hugh (who turned it down because he hates gays) is what happened in their heads.

But I don't think we'll be able to resolve this on this thread, so I'd be ok to let that go for now.

quote:
Leaf: and The State (ooh, a scary word, looking like a big concrete prison)
I already said some things about my use of the word the State. Whatever fantasies you have in your head by my use of that word are up to you.

quote:
Leaf: In real life, the narrative would include:

Hank, whom we don't know if he is innocent or guilty;

My examples are "What if"s; I don't see why this is so difficult to understand.

When I did the theory course for my driving exam, with many rules we learned we asked questions "But what if the driver had done this-and-this, would he still be punished?" I think that these questions are very useful to understand how the rules work.

The same thing with my examples on this thread. They are "What if"s. If you cannot deal with "What if" hypothetical situations, then I guess this discussion is done.

What I'm afraid of, is if the rules about non-discrimination are applied to freelance performers in the way some people on this thread say the are, that innocent people will be punished. That's why I start out my examples (a priori) with an innocent person (at least he is in my view) and ask "What would happen to him?" This seems to me to be a perfectly valid method to try to understand more about the subject of non-discrimination applied to freelance performers.

The reason for asking these questions is, that if there aren't enough guarantees in place that innocent people won't be punished (I know that a 100% guarantee doesn't exist), then it would signigicantly reduce my trust in the State, the legal system, the institutions, society, whatever. Which term I use isn't terribly important to me.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
I kind of was trying to ask,in a very cack-handed way, "what's the difference in principle between someone refusing to perform at a legal racist event, and someone refusing to perform at a legal gay wedding, other than 'the first refusal we would heartily approve of and the second we would heartily abhor - plus it might now amount to unlawful discrimination'?"

In other words, "how dare the law make a moral judgement"?

Like I said before: tough shit. Laws do impose morality. A law saying it's not okay to kill people is imposing morality. A law saying it's not okay to just take whatever you want from whoever you want is imposing morality.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Checking with my own morals, I still think that too big of a part of the burden of proof lies on him in this case. I'm rather surprised by this, and judging by some of the reactions on this thread, I'm not the only one.

What's the alternative, though? That people simply aren't answerable for their actions?

It is in fact already quite difficult to establish a case of discrimination. Most people who suspect discrimination don't even have the basic evidence that would be needed to make there be a case to answer.

You seem to be troubled by the whole idea that an innocent person would ever have to explain themselves, but there's no way around that without mind-reading or predicting the future like in Minority Report.

And you wouldn't want the alternative, where Hank doesn't get a chance to explain himself and is just found guilty.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
Consider three performers, Harry, Hank and Hugh.

Harry is a very reliable performer. Normally, he always plays when people ask him. But on Tuesday 17 March, he has a Sod it! moment. He says to himself: "This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one". On Thursday 19, someone calls and asks him to perform at a 'straight' (non-specifically gay) bar on Sunday 22. Harry says "No, thank you."

Hank is a very reliable performer. Normally, he always plays when people ask him. But on Tuesday 17 March, he has a Sod it! moment. He says to himself: "This weekend I just want to lie on the couch, watch porn and smoke a large one". On Thursday 19, someone calls and asks him to perform at a gay bar on Sunday 22. This is the first time Hank has been asked to play at a gay bar. He says "No, thank you." He doesn't say anything explicitly anti-gay, neither before, during or after this phone call.

Hugh is a very reliable performer. Normally, he always plays when people ask him. On Thursday 19, someone calls and asks him to perform at a gay bar on Sunday 22. This is the first time Hugh has been asked to perform at a gay bar. If it were a 'straight' bar, he would have performed but Hugh hates gays and says "No, thank you." He doesn't say anything explicitly anti-gay, neither before, during or after this phone call.


Now, I think we all agree that Harry hasn't done anything wrong. I think we also agree that Hugh is guilty, at least morally. I'd like to see him punished.

But the difficult case is Hank. I don't know about you, but as far as I'm concerned, he's innocent. I don't think you could morally justify that Harry is innocent and Hank is guilty. Should we force Hank to perform? He didn't discriminate against gays: he would have turned down the offer if it were a 'straight' bar too.

But the thing is: he can't prove that. All 'evidence' he has in his favour is him saying "I wasn't in the mood to play". What people on this thread are saying is that this isn't enough, and that he would be found guilty. It is this that I have problems with.

And another thing: the only difference between Hank and Hugh is what was going on inside their heads. I think that this is why people on this thread have used the term 'thought crime'.

LeRoc,

IANAL but I think you are underestimating how hard it would be for the owner of the gay bar to get either Hank or Hugh before a judge. In the UK at least (and I know even less about other jurisdictions), discrimination is a civil matter so, if the bar owner felt that Hank or Hugh had discriminated against him, he would have to persuade a lawyer that there was a reasonable chance of winning enough damages to make it worth their effort to take on the case. The owner could not just report the matter to the police and leave it up to them to see it through court. Hugh may be morally guilty but there is no way he would be punished for politely turning down one gig (and nor should he be IMHO).

I understand that these are just hypothetical cases but I think they are too far from reality to be useful.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: What's the alternative, though? That people simply aren't answerable for their actions?
The alternative that would be morally correct to me is this: it's up to the people who accuse Hank not just to prove that he has accepted offers from 'straight' venues but turned down an offer from a gay venue (which I admit is already very hard to do). It's also up to them to prove that he specifically did this because it was a gay venue. Which is nearly impossible, unless Hank has specifically said that he won't play at gay venues.

There are many other reasons why Hank may have turned down the offer from the gay venue, even if he normally accept offers from 'straight' venues. On this thread, we have intensively discussed one of these possible reasons. I have a couple of other examples on my sleeve, but maybe I won't need them anymore.

When Hank turned down the offer from the gay venue, he may have done this because it was a gay venue, but he may have done this for many other reasons. To me, it is up to the people who accuse him to prove that it was the former, and not up to Hank to prove that it wasn't.

Hank may still explain himself in court if he wants to of course, if only to make the accusers' task more difficult. But to me, he doesn't need to prove anything in these explanations.

I realise that this will be insatisfactory, because it means that many performers will get away with discriminating against gay venues. But I don't see how it can be any other way, not without breaking some important rules of the State of Law.

quote:
JoannaP: In the UK at least (and I know even less about other jurisdictions), discrimination is a civil matter so, if the bar owner felt that Hank or Hugh had discriminated against him, he would have to persuade a lawyer that there was a reasonable chance of winning enough damages to make it worth their effort to take on the case.
Ah, in Brazil it is relatively easy to get a Pro Deo lawyer, even if you're the accusing party.

Just checking: I think it will be easier in the case of the baker than in the case of the performer? If the baker's shop is full with people, and he sells everyone a cake except the ostensively gay guy, and the other customers are willing to testify about that, it would be easier to bring the baker to trial, right?

People on this thread have said that (freelance) performers should be made to pay when they discriminate, just like bakers. Yes, I'd like that too. But I think it will be much more difficult to achieve that with a freelance performer than with a baker. And I think that it should be more difficult, because making it easier would mean breaking some basic rules of the State of Law.

quote:
JoannaP: I understand that these are just hypothetical cases but I think they are too far from reality to be useful.
I agree that these cases may have been far removed from reality. But discussing them has helped me to understand a bit more about the difference between a baker and a performer when it comes to discrimination. So I thank the people who took the time to reply to them.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: What's the alternative, though? That people simply aren't answerable for their actions?
The alternative that would be morally correct to me is this: it's up to the people who accuse Hank not just to prove that he has accepted offers from 'straight' venues but turned down an offer from a gay venue (which I admit is already very hard to do). It's also up to them to prove that he specifically did this because it was a gay venue. Which is nearly impossible, unless Hank has specifically said that he won't play at gay venues.
But that is, in fact, the law. Well, the first half of what I've quoted is. The second half, I'll deal with later in this post.

I've been trying to get away from talking about legal burdens and evidentiary burdens, but I can't think of another way to talk about it.

The law is exactly this - that at the end of the case, the people complaining have to show, on the balance of probabilities, that Hank discriminated against gays - that he treated them differently because they were gay. That's their legal burden.

But it's not a one step process. Everything I've been saying to you about Hank having to say something and explain his actions has been about the practical way a case works. He'll have to say something to explain himself because there's evidence that he did discriminate and the inference that anyone outside Hank's head would draw is that he did discriminate.

This is fair precisely because no-one can see inside Hank's head. He is in the unique position of being able to explain his thinking.

So Hank then provides evidence that, actually, he didn't really discriminate and there's another explanation for his actions. This isn't because the law has formally required him to prove this, it's because of the practical reality that, if he doesn't say something, then the evidence the other side has presented might be enough for a judge to conclude that Hank did the wrong thing.

The only problem I have with what you've said is about how you think Hank's intentions should be "proved". Forget Hank, what about your other characters who flat out lie? Why should they get away with anything so long as they don't directly confess?

Again, I refer to murder: we simply do not say that the only way we can conclude there was intent to kill is when someone says "I intended to kill". You're reminding me of the 'Cell Block Tango' from the musical/film Chicago: would you really not convict a woman of murder when she says her husband ran into her knife multiple times? But that's the thinking you're running with: that we cannot infer that her claim is nonsense. You are effectively saying that we cannot work out, from the presence of multiple stab wounds, that in fact she stabbed her husband repeatedly even though she claims that her husband ran into the knife repeatedly.

[ 24. March 2015, 01:33: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Sorry, just to be clear: "second half" should really say "last sentence". It is only the last sentence that I quoted from your post which I disagree with.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
People discriminate all the time in all sorts of illegal ways. They usually get away with it because they don't talk about it. In fact, they may not even think about it.

The cases that usually go to court are usually ones where the person doing the discrimination proudly describes it. In a few cases, it's possible to demonstrate clear racial bias. This was done last year where the testers sent a bunch of resumes to different companies, where the only difference in a pair of resumes was a typically black name.

So things may progress to the point where people don't proudly talk about how they discriminate against gays, but still do it, just like race. That tends to help slowly extinguish the attitude.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
...which boils down to a matter of personal opinion in essence - you and I think that apartheid was abhorrent but there were presumably - indeed obviously - those in South Africa who thought it was a Jolly Good Idea™.

Precisely. Just as orfeo says, the law has to make moral judgements which are down to opinions. It is my opinion that murder and paedophilia are wrong. If you keep asking "why is that" of justifications for moral judgements you always get down to "it just as". (Or God, about which there isn't general agreement).

All laws and governments require arbitrary moral judgement which the state enacts. There isn't anything else.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
I wouldn't say all moral/legal judgements are arbitrary. The basic ones are those which allow society to exist. Who is allowed to be killed, abused and stolen from and in which amounts and ways. Obviously there are variations in application and interpretation, but for societal stability they need be accepted by the majority of the society. Actively or passively.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
I'm not sure I follow why any of that makes them non-arbitrary.

Admittedly there are certain themes one can draw on - not doing harm to society, not killing people etc - which one can identify and so totally arbitrary is probably overstepping.

What I mean to say is that at heart there isn't really any objective basis to these decisions other than a consensus about what is right and moral.

I don't think it's right to kill the innocent because... well, it just isn't.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Arbitrary is generally not applied to a consensus, which is what rule of law is.
No murdering is a developed, reasoned condition of society. Not arbitrary.
quote:
subject to individual will or judgment without restriction; contingent solely upon one's discretion: an arbitrary decision.
decided by a judge or arbiter rather than by a law or statute.
having unlimited power; uncontrolled or unrestricted by law; despotic; tyrannical: an arbitrary government.
capricious; unreasonable; unsupported: an arbitrary demand for payment.


 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
OK but what influences that societal consensus in the first place. You say it is reasoned - on what basis is the reasoning?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
If anyone can kill anyone, your society will not grow.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
It wouldn't have to be all or nothing. We could allow murder in certain very trying circumstances. One could have a perfectly stable and growing society even if the elderly and unproductive were less protected by law.

[ 24. March 2015, 18:31: Message edited by: mdijon ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
We always have had allowable killing. Murder is unlawful killing. Unregulated. That is what is destructive. Infanticide has been a part of stable cultures in the past. Protecting the elderly after their useful period as active hunters or gatherers is considered a step towards a larger society. But now, when information is preserved and accessed differently, we could easily change this with little substantive effect on our progress. But really, the dawn of (relatively) cheap books made this a possibility. We haven't because it has become part of our society and because we don't need to.
It is part of a progression our culture has made and could be/have been different, but that does not make it arbitrary.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
I'm happy to drop the term arbitrary, what I would say is that the utilitarian reasons you are giving are all arguable either way and I would imagine not what makes most people think that murder is right or wrong.

As you say infanticide is perfectly compatible with stable and growing societies, but most people today think it is wrong and will still think it is wrong even if shown cast iron proof that allowing infanticide would improve the quality of society and be a utilitarian good.

Why? I can't come up with anything more satisfying than it is just wrong.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I'm happy to drop the term arbitrary, what I would say is that the utilitarian reasons you are giving are all arguable either way and I would imagine not what makes most people think that murder is right or wrong.

But I think it is what makes people think it right or wrong. Why was infanticide OK then, but not now? Resource. As resources became more plentiful, we could care for greater numbers, the weak, etc. This then became part of our culture. It feels as if it is inherent, and the potential is, but so is the potential for worse.
We are compassionate in times of plenty, we are brutal in times of want. We can see this in our world now, imagine what it was like in the past. Imagine what it will be like if we suck our planet dry.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
If the ingredients for infanticide are established in NSW, that still reduces murder to manslaughter - just as while self-defence is a complete defence, excessive self-defence operates to reduce murder to manslaughter. Murder carries a maximum of life imprisonment, while the maximum for manslaughter is 25 years. Not sure of other states. I can't recall last seeing a report of an infanticide decision, and that's probably because a prosecutor would proceed on the manslaughter charge on its own, not even as an alternative to murder, and there would be a plea of guilty. They must be very sad cases for all to deal with.

[ 25. March 2015, 05:24: Message edited by: Gee D ]
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
Thanks, Starlight; that's kind of the answer I was looking for. Makes sense.

However:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
I kind of was trying to ask,in a very cack-handed way, "what's the difference in principle between someone refusing to perform at a legal racist event, and someone refusing to perform at a legal gay wedding, other than 'the first refusal we would heartily approve of and the second we would heartily abhor - plus it might now amount to unlawful discrimination'?"

In other words, "how dare the law make a moral judgement"?

Like I said before: tough shit. Laws do impose morality. A law saying it's not okay to kill people is imposing morality. A law saying it's not okay to just take whatever you want from whoever you want is imposing morality.

Back we go again, then: what about the apartheid laws? Happy to say "tough shit" about them?
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
I'm happy to drop the term arbitrary, what I would say is that the utilitarian reasons you are giving are all arguable either way and I would imagine not what makes most people think that murder is right or wrong.

quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
But I think it is what makes people think it right or wrong. Why was infanticide OK then, but not now?

I don't think it was ever OK. There may have been some cultures that practiced it but I bet you could find a plurality of opinion about it and many cultures that didn't think it was OK. Some may have been aided by resource but I don't think you can draw an easy correlation between resources available and view of morality of infanticide.

In any case, to push my point on you seem to be advocating a completely utilitarian view of morality here. That isn't shared by everyone in society, and furthermore where does the axiomatic view that utilitarianism is right come from? Doesn't that require "it just is?". At some point in determining morality we have to get axiomatic.
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Back we go again, then: what about the apartheid laws? Happy to say "tough shit" about them?

Orfeo is saying that it is necessary to have laws that impose morality - there's no other way of running a state. I suppose one could say "tough shit" about apartheid - that the price one pays for international recognition of states is that some states will do some pretty terrible things that can't quickly be changed. Although of course apartheid was eventually changed.

What's the alternative Matt?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Thanks, Starlight; that's kind of the answer I was looking for. Makes sense.

However:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
I kind of was trying to ask,in a very cack-handed way, "what's the difference in principle between someone refusing to perform at a legal racist event, and someone refusing to perform at a legal gay wedding, other than 'the first refusal we would heartily approve of and the second we would heartily abhor - plus it might now amount to unlawful discrimination'?"

In other words, "how dare the law make a moral judgement"?

Like I said before: tough shit. Laws do impose morality. A law saying it's not okay to kill people is imposing morality. A law saying it's not okay to just take whatever you want from whoever you want is imposing morality.

Back we go again, then: what about the apartheid laws? Happy to say "tough shit" about them?
Legally, or morally?

The answers are vastly different. You don't have to agree with the judgements the law makes. But this gets back to asking, just what do you mean by being "allowed" to act on your conscience? If your conscience dictates that you break the law, then go ahead, but you can't do that and then demand also that you get away without any consequence. That's the choice.

You can also, of course, work at getting the law to change.

I don't know why you are so keen on apartheid laws, particularly. What exactly is it that you think that example demonstrates? They seem to represent the exact opposite of the situation we were talking about prior to your involvement in the discussion. At heart, this discussion has been asking, "can the law tell me not to discriminate". Apartheid is about whether the law can discriminate.

Which raises a completely different set of questions - not least of which, where does the external standard come from that says the law IS discriminating, in the negative, bad sense?

[ 25. March 2015, 10:50: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
To put my position very simply, I think whether a law is valid and whether a law is good are two utterly different questions.

The reason I say "tough shit" is because you don't get a free pass to disobey a valid law just because you personally don't think the law is any good. More than that, giving you a free pass would completely and utterly destroy the rule of law.

[ 25. March 2015, 10:56: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: He'll have to say something to explain himself because there's evidence that he did discriminate
Maybe we need to talk about semantics first, because sometimes it seems to me that we mean different things when we say "Hank has discriminated". I think that we need to get this straight before continuing to discuss this further.

What exactly do you mean, when you say "Hank has discriminated" in this case?

a) Hank normally plays at straight events, but he turned down the offer to play at a gay event (for whatever reason)

b) Hank normally plays at straight events, but he turned down the offer to play at a gay event, because it is a gay event

I would call case b) discrimination. Case a) might or might not be discrimination; the accusation would have to prove that it was. For example, if Hank were very sick on the day of the gay event (and he could prove that), it wouldn't be discrimination.

Do you understand it in this way too?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: He'll have to say something to explain himself because there's evidence that he did discriminate
Maybe we need to talk about semantics first, because sometimes it seems to me that we mean different things when we say "Hank has discriminated". I think that we need to get this straight before continuing to discuss this further.

What exactly do you mean, when you say "Hank has discriminated" in this case?

a) Hank normally plays at straight events, but he turned down the offer to play at a gay event (for whatever reason)

b) Hank normally plays at straight events, but he turned down the offer to play at a gay event, because it is a gay event

I would call case b) discrimination. Case a) might or might not be discrimination; the accusation would have to prove that it was. For example, if Hank were very sick on the day of the gay event (and he could prove that), it wouldn't be discrimination.

Do you understand it in this way too?

Yes.

In one sense of the word, you "discriminate" every time you make a choice. But legally, "discrimination" means that you made a choice for a specific reason.

I don't think "discrimination" is the problem here, actually. I suspect the problem here is more to do with what works as "evidence". I didn't say Hank had discriminated (which is a conclusion for the judge at the end of the case). I said there was evidence he had discriminated.

Evidence is not proof. Evidence is simply anything that could rationally tend to prove or disprove the legal case.

Evidence that is weak - that only works if you make some inferences - is still evidence. When it comes to Hank's or Hugh's motives, you're keen on strong evidence like a confession out of their own mouths. What I'm saying to you, though, is that it's not true that this the only kind of evidence. It's possible to construct a case from circumstances.

[ 25. March 2015, 11:31: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: In one sense of the word, you "discriminate" every time you make a choice. But legally, "discrimination" means that you made a choice for a specific reason.
Okay, we're on the same page here.

quote:
orfeo: I don't think "discrimination" is the problem here, actually. I suspect the problem here is more to do with what works as "evidence". I didn't say Hank had discriminated (which is a conclusion for the judge at the end of the case). I said there was evidence he had discriminated.
Yes, I've been thinking about this too. I tend to confuse the words 'evidence' and 'proof' in my mind a bit. I even think that I would translate them as the same word in Dutch (bewijs). Or maybe it is because I was trained as a scientist?

Anyway, I may have misunderstood some of your earlier posts on this thread because of my confusion over the word 'evidence'. When you said things like "Hank needs to show evidence" before on the thread, I interpreted it as "Hank needs to prove beyond doubt that his reason for not performing is true", while he only needs to show evidence that there is a reasonably likely reason (other than discrimination) for not performing.

And to me, in the case of a freelance performer, "I wasn't in the mood" (which would need to be elaborated in a couple more sentences, but it really comes down to this) is always a reasonably likely reason for not performing. So in practice, it will be very difficult to prove that a freelance performer has discriminated, unless he explicitly said so.

Okay, I get that now.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mdijon:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Back we go again, then: what about the apartheid laws? Happy to say "tough shit" about them?

Orfeo is saying that it is necessary to have laws that impose morality - there's no other way of running a state. I suppose one could say "tough shit" about apartheid - that the price one pays for international recognition of states is that some states will do some pretty terrible things that can't quickly be changed. Although of course apartheid was eventually changed.

What's the alternative Matt?

Ultimately if one considers the law to be immoral, there is civil disobedience eg: Gandhi with the salt tax or violent resistance eg: ANC
 
Posted by mdijon (# 8520) on :
 
Yes. But having the possibility of civil disobedience and protest doesn't mean we are in an alternative system, we still rely on governments to pass laws with and have to accept the consequences of civil disobedience.

I don't think anyone is arguing that one has to regard all laws as moral without question, simply that we need a system with laws that entail moral judgements and that there's no "yes or no" fits all answer about whether it is licit/moral/possible to disobey them.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
When you said things like "Hank needs to show evidence" before on the thread, I interpreted it as "Hank needs to prove beyond doubt that his reason for not performing is true", while he only needs to show evidence that there is a reasonably likely reason (other than discrimination) for not performing.

Aha! Yes. [Smile]
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
orfeo: Aha! Yes. [Smile]
Okay, apologies for my misunderstanding.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Ultimately if one considers the law to be immoral, there is civil disobedience eg: Gandhi with the salt tax or violent resistance eg: ANC

Still having a problem here, Matt.
To me, apartheid = anti-marriage equality. Not in scale,* but in spirit. Both are saying you are not equal because of what you are. Both penalize being something which does not harm others.
I can show examples of how apartheid hurt people regardless of one's belief in its morality.
Can you demonstrate how allowing marriage equality will hurt its opponents?

*repeating that I said "not in scale"

[ 25. March 2015, 17:05: Message edited by: lilBuddha ]
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:
quote:
orfeo: Aha! Yes. [Smile]
Okay, apologies for my misunderstanding.
It's fine. You're having this conversation in a second (or third) language, which is something I could never manage, and without a legal background.

The law should be understandable by everyone. If it's difficult to understand that reflects poorly on the law, not on the people.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
Ultimately if one considers the law to be immoral, there is civil disobedience eg: Gandhi with the salt tax or violent resistance eg: ANC

Still having a problem here, Matt.
To me, apartheid = anti-marriage equality. Not in scale,* but in spirit. Both are saying you are not equal because of what you are. Both penalize being something which does not harm others.
I can show examples of how apartheid hurt people regardless of one's belief in its morality.
Can you demonstrate how allowing marriage equality will hurt its opponents?

*repeating that I said "not in scale"

I suppose that the argument advanced by them is twofold: one is that it undermines the fabric of the society in which they have to live and, secondly, that there might be situations created by said law where they are required to act against their conscience eg: conservative Christian registrars having to officiate at same sex weddings.

Now, I make no comment on the merit of either argument other than to say that I don't agree with them, that they have of course been 'done to death' on this board many a time and that, possibly, the second one has more weight than the first, but I mention them as views which are genuinely and sincerely held by those who have them. We can of course say to them, "but you're wrong", but is that not merely stating our opinion and saying that our views should be given greater weight than theirs?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Matt Black:
We can of course say to them, "but you're wrong", but is that not merely stating our opinion and saying that our views should be given greater weight than theirs?

The idea that all opinions are of equal weight is bunkum. Usually, it's an idea expressed by people who don't want to acknowledge that opinions need to have a foundation in facts to have credibility.

There are reasons, for example, why the split of opinion on human-caused climate change is 97-3 rather than 50-50. It has to do with facts. 50-50 is what you get for a random distribution such as created by a coin toss. People don't form their opinions on most things on the basis of coin tosses. They use evidence.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
Fair comment
 
Posted by Callan (# 525) on :
 
Originally posted by Matt Black:

quote:
secondly, that there might be situations created by said law where they are required to act against their conscience eg: conservative Christian registrars having to officiate at same sex weddings.
I would have more sympathy with this if I were aware of a case where a conservative Christian registrar had objected to the blessing of a heterosexual marriage because it was clearly adulterous. Not being funny, but people engage the services of a registrar, rather than a priest, because either they think that the Christian definition of marriage is irrelevant, because they are not Christians, or because their marriage doesn't square with the Christian definition thereof and cannot persuade a priest to marry them. A Christian registrar who objects to performing the nuptials for a gay couple is really in the position of a pianist in a whorehouse who won't play 'New York, New York' because they don't approve of Frank Sinatra's connection to the mob. If their conscience was that pernickety they wouldn't have taken the job in the first place.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
There is the other point that presumably their terms and conditions of employment require them to perform legal marriages; if the definition of what a 'legal marriage' is changes due to government legislation or judicial decision, then technically their terms and conditions haven't changed.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
And there should be no dilemma.
Morals are not part of a registrars job description. Nor is there any requirement to approve of the couple. Their job is to ensure the paperwork is correct and perform their duty.
If this is too much for their "moral" sensibility, then they have an option.
 
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on :
 
Nor is there any issue for this particular lawyer when it comes to, for example, preparing Wills for gay married couples or civil partners; I am happy to take the pink pound as much as I am any other! [Biased]
 


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