Thread: 1 Samuel 15:3... Kill both man and woman, child and infant... Board: Chapter & Worse / Ship of Fools.
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Posted by Simon (# 1) on
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Verse nominated by the famous rachel
"This is what the LORD Almighty says... 'Now go and strike Amalek and devote to destruction all that they have. Do not spare them, but kill both man and woman, child and infant, ox and sheep, camel and donkey.'" (1 Samuel 15:3, in context)
The famous rachel comments: I have enormous difficulty reconciling the vengeful God of this verse, who sends his people out to slaughter an entire nation, including children and babies, with any possible notion of a "good" or "loving" God.
Hatless comments (on a similar verse, Joshua 6:21): It's the donkeys.
How much of a problem is this verse? Click "Vote Now" to cast your vote!
[ 03. August 2009, 20:07: Message edited by: Simon ]
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
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For anyone interested, there is a thread called "The problem of Genocide" in Kerygmania that was devoted to discussing 1 Samuel 15.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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This is an example of the most basic "contradiction" in the Bible. You know, the kind of contradiction that doesn't exist according to those who favor "plain reading". quote:
"This is what the LORD Almighty says... 'Now go and strike Amalek and devote to destruction all that they have. Do not spare them, but kill both man and woman, child and infant, ox and sheep, camel and donkey.'" (1 Samuel 15:3
Versus quote:
38 "You have heard that it was said, 'An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth.' 39But I say to you, Do not resist the one who is evil. But if anyone slaps you on the right cheek, turn to him the other also. 40And if anyone would sue you and take your tunic,[g] let him have your cloak as well. 41And if anyone forces you to go one mile, go with him two miles. 42 Give to the one who begs from you, and do not refuse the one who would borrow from you.
43 "You have heard that it was said, 'You shall love your neighbor and hate your enemy.' 44But I say to you, Love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, 45 so that you may be sons of your Father who is in heaven. For he makes his sun rise on the evil and on the good, and sends rain on the just and on the unjust. 46 For if you love those who love you, what reward do you have? Do not even the tax collectors do the same? 47And if you greet only your brothers,[h] what more are you doing than others? Do not even the Gentiles do the same? 48 You therefore must be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect.
To make these two Biblical excerpts jive takes some serious weaseling. I'm sure such weaseling has been done numerous times. Maybe the point would be to slaughter Amalek, then pray for their souls (did the Hebrews believe in souls?) in Godly charity?
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on
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A Hellion comments.
It's kind of obnoxious to use the Ship as analogy for the Bible, but there you are, Lyda... the Psalm is a Hellish cry for not just justice but vigaresh*. Jesus's words are a Purgatorial breakdown of why vengeance and 10-fold repayment don't work.
Having said that, I myself would not have a problem if that particular (biblical) thread were Oblivionated.
*Vengeance plus interest.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Kelly Alves:
A Hellion comments.
It's kind of obnoxious to use the Ship as analogy for the Bible, but there you are, Lyda... the Psalm is a Hellish cry for not just justice but vigaresh*. Jesus's words are a Purgatorial breakdown of why vengeance and 10-fold repayment don't work.
Having said that, I myself would not have a problem if that particular (biblical) thread were Oblivionated.
*Vengeance plus interest.
This is not the thread "Dash all your little ones against a rock!" I completely understand the matter of feelings expressed in the psalm. Poetry is a proper place to express feelings. I posted on that thread that I'm actually glad that wasn't cleaned up and out. Feeling anger and hatred is human, just not a nice part of being human.
To me, someone in Hebrew history ranting about their overwhelming anger and sadness at the horrors they endured is not a matter of Divine teaching contradicting Divine teaching even if scripture is God Breathed. God ordering a massacre of the enemy, then Christ teaching how to we are to treat our enemies entirely differently is such a contradiction, IMO.
Posted by Simon (# 1) on
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Yes, I'm with Lyda on this. It's one thing for a poet to give vent to his feelings of revenge (in Psalm 137), but something else for a political leader to give an order to the military for genocide in the name of God. If you believe that every time the Old Testament has that formula, "The Lord said", it really is God speaking and not just some manipulative leader claiming it, then there's a huge amount of explaining to do. It would be good to hear someone with a conservative viewpoint justifying "God's command" to destroy the people of Amalek.
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on
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Sorry got my verses confused.
{after re-reading properly) In which case, yeah, Lyda, you've got it. I tend to read it as a military leader telling his soldiers what he wants them to hear, but taking him at his word makes it a very dangerous verse.
[ 02. August 2009, 03:13: Message edited by: Kelly Alves ]
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Simon:
It would be good to hear someone with a conservative viewpoint justifying "God's command" to destroy the people of Amalek.
I don't know if I qualify as someone with a conservative viewpoint, but I do believe 1 Samuel 15 is part of revelation from and by God, so I'll pretend that I'm qualified to respond to your challenge.
I think any revelation from God, because of God's infinite nature, will always present only an approximate view of him. Also, I think any revelation he gives is adapted to the abilities and stage of development of the people to whom it is addressed at the time. I think we are ready to hold a view of God today that is much better at approximating a true view of him than the OT view, but neither our view nor the OT view is/was/can be complete or completely accurate.
I don't think God actually did anything like ordering the killing and destruction of anyone. But since the people living at that time had such trouble learning the most basic step of simple obedience to simple rules, he allowed them to believe that he rewarded the obedient and punished the disobedient. Because of the stage of development they were in as a society, and thus as generally as individuals, they needed to focus on learning basic obedience. Since fear was effective (although far from the ideal), he allowed them to see him in terms that were based on fear and reverence and he offered them a covenant that was based on reward and punishment. As part of this, he offered them a story that was written as though he himself gave the command for destruction of a people that were one of their bitterest enemies. He allowed them to believe this view of him because it was the best approximation that they were at all ready to accept. (If the view of people in the ANE presented in the OT stories are at all accurate, they had a lot of trouble handling even the simplest of instructions for any length of time.)
While I think that the simplistic view of God presented in 1 Samuel 15 is not accurate, I do think it was necessary as a first step in a long journey of development from less accurate views to more and more accurate views. It is also the kind of view we might start out with as young children when we need to learn simple obedience to the Ten Commandments. It is not the ideal, end-goal kind of view, but it can be useful and even unavoidable as a first step. In the end, no view that we can hold of God is anything more than an approximation of reality. The view presented in the stories of the OT is a first approximation. The view presented in the NT fills in the OT view with a better, more accurate approximation, but even so, it is still an approximation. And it doesn't invalidate the OT view, but rather builds on it and fills it in the same way our view of the world as adults is built on and fills in the view we had of it as a child.
Actually, I think it is a measure of God's mercy that he is willing to accept from us, if we absolutely insist on it, a view of him based on fear and external obedience as a substitute for one based on love and true devotion.
Posted by The Revolutionist (# 4578) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Simon:
It would be good to hear someone with a conservative viewpoint justifying "God's command" to destroy the people of Amalek.
Marcus Honeysett, a "conservative" Christian blogger, outlined a few thoughts on the subject on his blog, which I agree with: "What about the Amalekites?". It attracted some attention from atheists blogs, which (unfairly and misleadingly) declared that he was "defending genocide".
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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I'm sorry but your level of conservatism won't do at all for this task, wehyatt. The moment you said, "While I think that the simplistic view of God presented in 1 Samuel 15 is not accurate...", you wandered into liberalville. Tch, tch.
According to "plain readers" of the Bible, that is. I think you make quite a bit of sense.
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
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quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
It attracted some attention from atheists blogs, which (unfairly and misleadingly) declared that he was "defending genocide".
If the complete destruction of an entire nation isn't genocide, what is? And if he's not defending it in that link, what is he doing?
Saying "oh, they were evil and had been for years" doesn't justify ordering their complete eradication to the last living thing. Especially as the Amekalites could presumably have said exactly the same thing about the Israelites...
Posted by BillyPilgrim (# 9841) on
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That is indeed IMO a terrible and frightening verse. Those among us who are not wedded to inerrancy may chose to ask whether the genocide actually occurred, and may conclude that if it did it was retrospectively justified by the author of the book in question.
[tangent]I remember singing Verdi's setting of Psalm 137 in the Royal Albert Hall (in the original Welsh) , and thinking "If I were a Welsh-speaking Babylonian, I'd start running now"![/tangent]
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
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quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
Marcus Honeysett, a "conservative" Christian blogger, outlined a few thoughts on the subject on his blog, which I agree with: "What about the Amalekites?". It attracted some attention from atheists blogs, which (unfairly and misleadingly) declared that he was "defending genocide".
Thanks for the link. When I decided to nominate this verse, I spent a little time looking for commentarues on it, but I hadn't seen this one.
Unfortunately, Honeysett's comments only make me feel worse about this verse. Having been taught to see the Old Testament as presenting the patterns which will be fulfilled in the New Teastament, having read Honeysett's words, I now see this verse as prefiguring God's final judgement - and the sending of lots of people to Hell. If my heart cries out against the slaughter of the Amalekites, how much more should it loath the idea that a "loving" God will condemn the majority of humanity to eternal torment.
This is the kind of stuff which means I can't be a conservative evangelical anymore. I've sat through numerous sermons which have blithely skipped over Biblical massacres and genocides. (I nearly nominated Esther 9:16 instead, but decided this one bothered me more). I just can't understand why these verses don't worry people. I've had a quick look at the results of the poll so far, and apparently about a third of those who have voted are not in any way worried by this verse. Why not, guys?
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
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I agree that this is one of the most difficult bits of the Bible.
Understanding the Amalekites a bit does help - they were the nation who had set themselves totally and irrevocably against God and Israel. Even as late as Esther, Haman (who seems to be descended from Agag, king of the Amalekites at the time of 1 Sam 15) is busy trying to exterminate all the Jews. No reason is given for his absolute hatred of them.
I agree, furthermore, that the commanded destruction of the Amalekites is a picture of the future destruction of all of those who set themselves irrevocably against God.
Hell as eternal conscious torment is possibly a medieval oversimplification. I discuss this here and here. And yes, rachel, I realise this is partly responding to a question you asked me about 15 years ago...
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
And yes, rachel, I realise this is partly responding to a question you asked me about 15 years ago...
I know... and you to some extent seem to have found a new answer, whereas I'm aware I have returned to the same old questions.
Posted by Sarah G (# 11669) on
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Again, not a conservative here. Just making observations that I'm hoping might be helpful- because this is a difficult passage.
Always remember it functions as a story, and people die in stories. No-one gets upset when they do. If you see the Bible as CCTV, you will have more of a problem.
Killing was the modus operandi at the time. If you were a small people, fighting for survival, attempting to absorb or accommodate your enemies was a bad idea. When the chance came, they would wipe you out. Compare Exodus 1. Even thought the Israelites had come voluntarily, and had no grudge against the Egyptians, the latter were worried enough to order the slaughter of male babies.
Sometimes enemies can be fought by people in offices firing smart bombs at unmanned radar stations. Much of the time it has historically been Total War- destruction of the civilian power base as a military means. Commanders in the field have frequently decided that the civilians of the enemy power should be attacked in order to save the lives of their own fighting forces. In recent times we saw Dresden, Hiroshima, the bombing of the Ba'ath party headquarters.
Now the morality of each of these is debatable. But take that kind of military thinking, and transfer it to the kind of survival tribal warfare the Israelites were engaged in. Then completely destroying an implacable enemy makes a kind of military sense. Given the morality of the times. In a story. In a story. That's part of a bigger story...
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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Okay, your target has arrived. Conservative theologically--an inerrantist, actually. Bite me. (Seriously, I hope not)
I'm not going to pretend this verse or its like don't bother me. They do. Of course they do.
And I could trot out a whole lot of rationalizations / explanations / mitigations, but truly, it wouldn't make any difference to you. Or in the end, to me.
So what do I do with it?
Well, (deep breath), I trust God on it. (cop out! cop out! they snigger)
No, really. There are a few things that are just never going to be answered to my satisfaction on this earth, and this is one of them. It bothers me. It bothers me a whole lot.
But I know God (or rather, he knows me). I've always known him to be faithful and trustworthy and merciful and true. And so I trust that there IS an explanation for this verse, and a good one, even if I don't know what it is.
I hope some day I'll find out.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Sarah G:
Again, not a conservative here. Just making observations that I'm hoping might be helpful- because this is a difficult passage.
Always remember it functions as a story, and people die in stories. No-one gets upset when they do. If you see the Bible as CCTV, you will have more of a problem.
Killing was the modus operandi at the time. If you were a small people, fighting for survival, attempting to absorb or accommodate your enemies was a bad idea. When the chance came, they would wipe you out. Compare Exodus 1. Even thought the Israelites had come voluntarily, and had no grudge against the Egyptians, the latter were worried enough to order the slaughter of male babies.
Sometimes enemies can be fought by people in offices firing smart bombs at unmanned radar stations. Much of the time it has historically been Total War- destruction of the civilian power base as a military means. Commanders in the field have frequently decided that the civilians of the enemy power should be attacked in order to save the lives of their own fighting forces. In recent times we saw Dresden, Hiroshima, the bombing of the Ba'ath party headquarters.
Now the morality of each of these is debatable. But take that kind of military thinking, and transfer it to the kind of survival tribal warfare the Israelites were engaged in. Then completely destroying an implacable enemy makes a kind of military sense. Given the morality of the times. In a story. In a story. That's part of a bigger story...
This is as close to a "justification" as I dare get. It's similar with the more frequent use of the death penalty in a culture where prisons just aren't possible (and what ones may exist probably have high mortality rates anyway). Fighting non-total war can mean total war later on.
Survival is a seriously ugly business sometimes. We're very lucky that we live with enough resources that sharing and live-and-let-live is comparatively easy (though we still struggle with it, and often achieve this state of being by exploiting people who can't reach us directly).
Though that still leaves the question: Why the livestock?
Posted by HenryT (# 3722) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
...Though that still leaves the question: Why the livestock?
I can see two possible interpretations of that:
- You're not going to profit from this war, it's not "business as usual", no taking spoil
- It's all a sacrifice
But the counter-argument to the last is that neither camels nor donkeys were normally sacrificial animals.
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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I'm sure in this case the phrase would be "make a cherem of", aka "devote to the Lord" or "devote to destruction." It carries the idea of "nobody's going to use or profit from X again" and can be applied to good things and to unclean things as well. Not like the usual sacrifices, which had to be clean and perfect.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Custard:
Understanding the Amalekites a bit does help - they were the nation who had set themselves totally and irrevocably against God and Israel. Even as late as Esther, Haman (who seems to be descended from Agag, king of the Amalekites at the time of 1 Sam 15) is busy trying to exterminate all the Jews. No reason is given for his absolute hatred of them.
Hmmm.... I don't think I buy this. I'm not sure the Amalekites "set themselves totally and irrevocably against God and Israel" before Israel started trying to massacre them. After Israel attempted to wipe out the entire nation, it's perhaps unsurprising that the Amalekites didn't fancy worshipping their God. Also, if even the babies need killing, this seems to suggest that the Amalekites were born rotten in God's eyes, which since God allegedly created them, appears to be no fault of their own.
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Okay, your target has arrived. Conservative theologically--an inerrantist, actually. Bite me. (Seriously, I hope not)
I'm not going to pretend this verse or its like don't bother me. They do. Of course they do.
And I could trot out a whole lot of rationalizations / explanations / mitigations, but truly, it wouldn't make any difference to you. Or in the end, to me.
So what do I do with it?
Well, (deep breath), I trust God on it. (cop out! cop out! they snigger)
No, really. There are a few things that are just never going to be answered to my satisfaction on this earth, and this is one of them. It bothers me. It bothers me a whole lot.
But I know God (or rather, he knows me). I've always known him to be faithful and trustworthy and merciful and true. And so I trust that there IS an explanation for this verse, and a good one, even if I don't know what it is.
I hope some day I'll find out.
Don't worry - I won't bite you. I'm glad that the verse bothers you, though.
My problem with your approach is that the only way one can decide whether to trust someone - God in this case - is to learn about their character. If we take the Bible as a good source of information about God's character, then we pick up a very mixed picture of him. I certainly wouldn't want to place my trust in the deity in this verse.
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by the famous rachel:
My problem with your approach is that the only way one can decide whether to trust someone - God in this case - is to learn about their character. If we take the Bible as a good source of information about God's character, then we pick up a very mixed picture of him. I certainly wouldn't want to place my trust in the deity in this verse.
So how do you learn about God's character then?
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
I'm sure in this case the phrase would be "make a cherem of", aka "devote to the Lord" or "devote to destruction." It carries the idea of "nobody's going to use or profit from X again" and can be applied to good things and to unclean things as well. Not like the usual sacrifices, which had to be clean and perfect.
Another possibly wacky idea I had this morning was that it would make it very clear that this war wasn't a "for-profit" operation, that Israel wasn't just fighting for spoils. The other evidence for this I can think of is the guy in Joshua who ruined the whole operation by making off with some golden trinket from the city of...Jericho, I think?
Again, it still doesn't make the Israelites (or God) look particularly nice by 21st century standards, but there's a moral logic to it. Wars over plunder, as the Roman Empire illustrated, never really end until the plunderer overextends himself or herself and collapses into anarchy. The cherem guarantees that war will be limited because, frankly, who wants to have to do that every single time they win a battle? Could these be William T Sherman ethics?
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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It was Achan, and yes, it was Jericho.
Rachel,
quote:
My problem with your approach is that the only way one can decide whether to trust someone - God in this case - is to learn about their character. If we take the Bible as a good source of information about God's character, then we pick up a very mixed picture of him. I certainly wouldn't want to place my trust in the deity in this verse.
True--and yet it's different when the deity in question gets up and comes alive off the page, so to speak. Then you're not dealing with just the troubling verse, but you've got the whole rest of the Bible, the experiences of other Christians ancient and modern, and your own interactions with him. Which gives you a much fuller and clearer picture of what he's really like than focusing on a single passage or even a few dozen of them. More data is always better.
The conclusions I've come to from all of this are that God is good, that he is holy (and cannot abide evil, loathes it with the passion of ten thousand burning suns), that he is equally passionate about people for some odd reason, and that it really, REALLY matters to him what we choose and think and do.
That a lot or maybe all of this springs from love, but not the sweet sickly kind--rather a fierce whole-hearted commitment kind of love that can be more tender and unfathomable than a mother with a sick baby but at other times more blazingly furious than your dad's after you've taken the car out without permission and smashed it all to hell (hospitalizing your little brother in the process). But for all that, you know that if you hold fast, weather the storm (and repent!) you will eventually be reconciled to him, because he does in fact love you--heck, he wouldn't be so angry with you if he didn't, and you hadn't endangered what he loves (you and the bro).
I feel like I ought to try to paint the other side, the much more comforting loving, merciful, etc. side, but frankly I don't think I could do it. That's even farther beyond my comprehension, and way beyond my writing. And that is what I'm left with in the end--that someone is passionately in love with me and with all of us, that he won't sit on his hands and let us all go to hell in a handbasket or any other device of our own choosing, and that if and when threats of punishment don't work (usually), he is willing to put his own life on the line to haul us out and bring us back to himself.
Under those circs I'm just not prepared to sit in judgment on his actions half-understood by me--better off trusting him. Otherwise it's like a bee analyzing Niagara Falls.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
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LC, what was "loving" (to the Amalekites) about what was done to the Amalekites?
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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I never said that was loving. I said I was going to trust God about it.
Posted by Simon (# 1) on
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So are we saying that God didn't love the Amalekites?
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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No, I'm not saying that. I'm saying I'm going to trust him about it.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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LC, let me get this straight - are you saying, "I'm going to trust him about it"?
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
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Oooh, tough one. Let me think about that one.
Posted by LutheranChik (# 9826) on
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Because I don't have a theological need to make this text come out right, I treat it as an outrageous example of our sinful human natures, which even try to rationalize genocide by inventing a divine benediction upon it.
That said, I think that in itself is why this is a useful text for us today: It's a mirror that holds up to us our own dark, ugly, atavistic urge toward tribal aggression, something that still lurks just under the surface of even the most self-perceived sophisticated and cosmopolitan of us.
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
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quote:
Originally posted by LutheranChik:
That said, I think that in itself is why this is a useful text for us today: It's a mirror that holds up to us our own dark, ugly, atavistic urge toward tribal aggression, something that still lurks just under the surface of even the most self-perceived sophisticated and cosmopolitan of us.
This is one thought I often have. If the Bible didn't have some incredibly gory bits, given what I understand of ancient history, I'd be seriously questioning its accuracy. It also reminds us not to think too highly of ourselves. Like it or not, nearly every so-called "nation" in the earth has bits like this in its history. You can't build a nation without obliterating a few people, it seems.
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
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Hopefully not too off topic:
1) Thanks for the pointer to the Keryg thread, which was great and I completely missed.
2) I wonder if a meta-justification for verses like this is to put a stumbling block in the way of literalists! It could be taken as a pointer to the real nature of the bible, as a number of people comment above. For that reason alone, I'm glad it's still there - so we can disagree with it.
- Chris.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
True--and yet it's different when the deity in question gets up and comes alive off the page, so to speak. Then you're not dealing with just the troubling verse, but you've got the whole rest of the Bible, the experiences of other Christians ancient and modern, and your own interactions with him. Which gives you a much fuller and clearer picture of what he's really like than focusing on a single passage or even a few dozen of them. More data is always better.
The conclusions I've come to from all of this are that God is good, that he is holy (and cannot abide evil, loathes it with the passion of ten thousand burning suns), that he is equally passionate about people for some odd reason, and that it really, REALLY matters to him what we choose and think and do.
Whilst I like the picture of God you paint here, it's not necessarily the picture I see from a broad but fairly literal reading of the Bible, and from the teaching I've had from evangelical churches down the years, based on their bible knowledge.
Whilst God's character as presented in the Bible is a bit too large a topic for this board, it's perhaps worth saying that the picture of God I often find in my mind these days, when discussing the Bible in a literalist way, is one of a spoilt toddler who has far too much power to do damage during the tantrums he has when he doesn't get his own way!
Unfortunately, verses like this are part of how that picture has formed in my mind. However, so are some much bigger topics - like penal substitionary atonement for example. However, PSA isn't easy to extract from one verse, whereas my Toddler God is pretty well represented by 1 Samuel 15:3 and other, similar bits of the old testament.
Johnny S asks how I am going to understand God's character without the Bible, and of course that's probably impossible. However, I'm forced to look for a different attitude to my interpretation of the Bible these days, otherwise I'm left with a God who I can't trust and don't want to worship.
Sorry - as may be obvious, I'm re-evaluating everything and have been for a while. Hence I've not been posting much, as all my thinking keeps coming back to these sorts of questions, and nobody wants to read my continual rehashing of these issues. Actually, I don't want to chop any verses out of the Bible - but some days I could live without the puzzles that verses like this cause me!
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on
:
I have to say, most of my thinking about the objectionable bits in the OT is informed by the Prophets, esp. Isaiah, Jeremiah and Amos. Somehow the picture I get of God from reading them is particularly clear, and gives me a sense of how he can be holy, good and yet intensely passionate about his people's evil actions. And yet remain intensely passionate about his love for them.
quote:
"How can I give you up, Ephraim?
How can I hand you over, Israel?
How can I treat you like Admah?
How can I make you like Zeboiim?
My heart is changed within me;
all my compassion is aroused.
I will not carry out my fierce anger,
nor will I turn and devastate Ephraim.
For I am God, and not man—
the Holy One among you.
I will not come in wrath.
(Hosea 11:8-9
Posted by Carys (# 78) on
:
It's not 1 Sam 15:3 that I have the biggest problem with but verses 9 and 11:
quote:
7 Then Saul attacked the Amalekites all the way from Havilah to Shur, to the east of Egypt. 8 He took Agag king of the Amalekites alive, and all his people he totally destroyed with the sword. 9 But Saul and the army spared Agag and the best of the sheep and cattle, the fat calves [b] and lambs—everything that was good. These they were unwilling to destroy completely, but everything that was despised and weak they totally destroyed.
10 Then the word of the LORD came to Samuel: 11 "I am grieved that I have made Saul king, because he has turned away from me and has not carried out my instructions." Samuel was troubled, and he cried out to the LORD all that night.
Not only does God command the wholesale destruction he repents of making Saul king when he doesn't do as he was told. Though the fact Saul doesn't seem to have acted out of mercy but out of a desire to keep the best bits makes that slightly less hard to deal with; if God had got annoyed at Saul for being merciful, I'd've had really, really big problems, but is stands I'm still quite worried.
Carys
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Carys:
It's not 1 Sam 15:3 that I have the biggest problem with but verses 9 and 11:
quote:
7 Then Saul attacked the Amalekites all the way from Havilah to Shur, to the east of Egypt. 8 He took Agag king of the Amalekites alive, and all his people he totally destroyed with the sword. 9 But Saul and the army spared Agag and the best of the sheep and cattle, the fat calves [b] and lambs—everything that was good. These they were unwilling to destroy completely, but everything that was despised and weak they totally destroyed.
10 Then the word of the LORD came to Samuel: 11 "I am grieved that I have made Saul king, because he has turned away from me and has not carried out my instructions." Samuel was troubled, and he cried out to the LORD all that night.
Not only does God command the wholesale destruction he repents of making Saul king when he doesn't do as he was told. Though the fact Saul doesn't seem to have acted out of mercy but out of a desire to keep the best bits makes that slightly less hard to deal with; if God had got annoyed at Saul for being merciful, I'd've had really, really big problems, but is stands I'm still quite worried.
Carys
I've been thinking, for a while, about starting a thread about the OT attitude toward monarchy. Samuel warned them beforehand that kings were a bad idea, and God seemed very opposed, though He (and this particularly area makes God seem very male to me) relented and gave them what they wanted. Saul was clearly a disaster and David was a mixed bag of nuts, while the entire "Kingdom of Israel" project was a bit of a farce (and still seems to be).
How that changes any readings of Samuel or Judges, I'm not sure, but I guess it's relevant.
Posted by archangel0753 (# 14945) on
:
"I've been thinking, for a while, about starting a thread about the OT attitude toward monarchy."
Well isn't this the origin of some of the contradictory statements? There isn't just one; there are a number of attitudes towards monarchy in the OT.
One thinks that monarchy is a really bad idea: the other nations have kings, but Israel has the Lord their God. It comes out in Samuel, some of the psalms and the prophets. Another attitude is that monarchy as in David / Solomon is a great idea, but that it loses the plot after those two (with a couple of celebrated exceptions, plus some messianic / apocalyptic references). A third attitude is that monarchy per se is not only a great idea, but the monarch effectively becomes God's regent on earth (for example Psalm 72).
It's an ongoing debate in the OT without any resolution , even after the Exile.
Kevin
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by archangel0753:
It's an ongoing debate in the OT without any resolution , even after the Exile.
There's a really wonderful resolution that happens about 600 years after the Exile though....
Posted by TiggyTiger (# 14819) on
:
One of my church leaders said that the wholesale slaughter thing showed 'the righteousness of God'. I didn't even want to get into a discussion about that - I felt sick.
Posted by TiggyTiger (# 14819) on
:
One of my church leaders said that the wholesale slaughter thing showed 'the righteousness of God'. I didn't even want to get into a discussion about that - I felt sick.
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on
:
My mother is an inerrantist, and here's how she explains this:
Israel is told to wipe out all the Amalekites because God, in God's mercy, knows that all they'll do is end up in hell anyway (needless to say, she believes in a literal, eternal hell of conscious torment and all that). Totally destroying them means no more will be born, thus ultimately reducing the population of hell.
I think she would say that the reason even the babies have to be killed is that (and I should note she would assume babies go to heaven) even if they grew up amongst the Israelites, they would likely be resentful of what happened to their families and culture of origin, and so would not worship the Israelite's God, and, yes, end up in hell - them and their future children.
So for her, it's a matter of God's justice (destroying evildoers) and God's mercy (preventing future evildoers from even being born).
And I also imagine she would agree with the whole bit about destroying the livestock and possessions because Israel shouldn't profit off of the war; but also, I'm pretty sure she would consider the possessions of such evildoers to be somehow tainted by their evil and thus potentially dangerous for the Israelites to keep. Obviously, that would apply less to camels than to idols. Killing the livestock would be part of the whole object lesson, and camels don't have souls, so who cares? She might also figure if they were so evil, who would want to keep their stuff? (Similar to the thought-experiment I've heard, Would you wear Hitler's sweater?)
(In my mother's defense, if she were to meet an Amalekite, she would offer him or her every hospitality.)
[ 06. August 2009, 23:57: Message edited by: churchgeek ]
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
It is of course worth remembering that, being sinful ourselves, we don't have the faintest conception of what an awesome thing God's holiness actually is.
If I had even the foggiest idea about God's holiness, I rather suspect I'd feel a lot worse about my own sin and the ways I reject God. I don't know if I'd feel happier about the deaths of the Amalekites, but I'd feel a lot less inclined to argue that I didn't deserve the same.
Posted by TiggyTiger (# 14819) on
:
Well I f**king wouldn't!
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
It is of course worth remembering that, being sinful ourselves, we don't have the faintest conception of what an awesome thing God's holiness actually is.
If I had even the foggiest idea about God's holiness, I rather suspect I'd feel a lot worse about my own sin and the ways I reject God. I don't know if I'd feel happier about the deaths of the Amalekites, but I'd feel a lot less inclined to argue that I didn't deserve the same.
I suspect that all depends on how one defines "holiness", "sin/sinfulness", and "deserve", but that may not be a can of worms to open on this particular thread.
Posted by Sarah G (# 11669) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
This is as close to a "justification" as I dare get. It's similar with the more frequent use of the death penalty in a culture where prisons just aren't possible (and what ones may exist probably have high mortality rates anyway). Fighting non-total war can mean total war later on.
Survival is a seriously ugly business sometimes. We're very lucky that we live with enough resources that sharing and live-and-let-live is comparatively easy (though we still struggle with it, and often achieve this state of being by exploiting people who can't reach us directly).
Though that still leaves the question: Why the livestock?
As a military consideration, it is denying the enemy an economic base. No agriculture means the tribe won't grow, and would have to disperse.
But hang on a minute. Weren't they all supposed to be dead anyway?
In the OP, the mission was total genocide. According to 1 Samuel 15:10f, Saul's mistake was to spare the livestock (rather than failing in the massacre), and in vv8,20 the Amalekites destruction was confirmed. Yet not long after, David is raiding them in chapter 27; and in chapter 30, we meet an Amalekite raiding party which, after being slaughtered, still had 400 men left. Goodness knows what size their full army was, or what the Amalekite population was, but it had hardly been close to extinction.
Now it may be possible to remove the historical contradictions, but I suggest that trying to do so may not be the way forward. It's a story. In chapter 15, repeated in chapter 28, the problem was Saul's disobedience to God. In chapters 27 and 30, it is an account of the destruction of God's enemies.
As I faintly see it, the issue with the OP verse is not a question of how our all-loving Jesus could order the slaughter of sweet, innocent babies. It's a question of how these smaller stories fit into the big story.
Posted by TiggyTiger (# 14819) on
:
Maybe the Amalekite raiding party were away raiding when all the other Amalekites were slaughtered. Perhaps it was a full-time job being a raider. :-)
Posted by archangel0753 (# 14945) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sarah G:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
[qb]
But hang on a minute. Weren't they all supposed to be dead anyway?
This is only a problem if you assume that any (or most) of this happened anyway. This kind of text is the written form of centuries of orally 'explaining how we got to be where we are today'.
For my money, these accounts are about the way the writers viewed their current situation (and how they accounted for it); they're not what we call 'history' today.
Kevin
Posted by bush baptist (# 12306) on
:
The text doesn't say that it's God's command anyway -- it says Samuel says it was God's command. Judges got things wrong, kings got things wrong, from time to time prophets get things wrong -- why assume that Samuel got everything right?
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by bush baptist:
The text doesn't say that it's God's command anyway -- it says Samuel says it was God's command. Judges got things wrong, kings got things wrong, from time to time prophets get things wrong -- why assume that Samuel got everything right?
IIRC, Samuel wasn't exactly a stellar character either. Part of the reason kings became popular was because the "Judges" system had become corrupt.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by bush baptist:
The text doesn't say that it's God's command anyway -- it says Samuel says it was God's command. Judges got things wrong, kings got things wrong, from time to time prophets get things wrong -- why assume that Samuel got everything right?
Unfortunately verses 10 and 11 seem to imply that Samuel got it right:
" 10 Then the word of the LORD came to Samuel: 11 "I am grieved that I have made Saul king, because he has turned away from me and has not carried out my instructions." Samuel was troubled, and he cried out to the LORD all that night."
Here it seems to say specifically that the instructions to slaughter the Amalekites came from God.
That said, I think Samuel is traditionally believed to have written the early chapters of 1 Samuel, so he could just be writing the story in a way which makes himself look good. Whether that's an acceptable suggestion depends on your overall attitude to the bible. If we treat all the nasty bits of the old testament as being the product of human beings writing with ulterior motives, we certainly make our lives easier, but we also essentially chuck away quite a lot of text!
Rachel.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
I think it's ok to treat bits of the Bible as people writing with ulterior motives. Nehemiah, for example, seems to present itself as written by Nehemiah to justify the way he acted, and ask God to look kindly on him as a result.
That doesn't mean that the book wasn't inspired by God, and it doesn't mean it doesn't have things to teach us. Of course the Bible has dual authorship, both human and divine, of the same passage, at the same time.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
Back to the passage though....
v33 makes it clear that the commanded destruction is direct retribution for the actions of the Amalekites - they killed children, so their children will be killed.
There's also the issue in this passage of full deliverance. If Saul does not kill all the Amalekites (as he doesn't), Israel will need saving from them again and again and again (David, Esther, etc) because the Amalekites always hate the Israelites. Partial destruction of the Amalekites only means partial deliverance and peace for a while. Full destruction means full and permanent deliverance.
If Saul had obeyed God, future wars and slaughters would have been averted.
I guess the question could be put like this: If you met Stalin (substitute evil person of your choice) when he was a child, and you knew for certain everything he would become, all the evil and harm he would do, and all the people he would kill, and so on, would it be permissible to kill him to prevent that?
If God commanded it, and if you had someone who did hear God perfectly and reliably (which is how the author of 1 Sam presents Samuel - he is the prophet like Moses from Deut 18...), and you were certain that God had commanded it, would it be right to obey?
I think that's pretty much exactly what's happening here...
Posted by bush baptist (# 12306) on
:
Just ducking back for a minute to an earlier, point, Custard! The famous rachel said:
quote:
If we treat all the nasty bits of the old testament as being [only] the product of human beings… we certainly make our lives easier, but we also essentially chuck away quite a lot of text!
Well -- true.
But pursuing the possibility I raised, last-ditching, just to see if it can work...
at least the text doesn’t say that Saul was turned away specifically for not killing the innocent, just for his reaction to Samuel's instructions. And in his disobedience to Samuel’s (mistaken) instructions, Saul showed both his lack of mercy, in killing all the despised, and his cupidity, in reserving the valuable commodities, including Agag. (And his unwillingness to take responsibility, in claiming that it was the people who urged him to keep the sheep etc -- what a weasel!)
Saul’s actions in response to the instructions did show his unfitness to be king. And Samuel might well have spent a sleepless night, knowing that the whole event was wrong, but unable to articulate exactly why. And so the "failed to obey" instructions line.
There! given it a shot.
But returning to your interpretation, Custard -- I'm not sure the Amalekites were doomed for what they might have done in the future -- the other texts (Deuteronomy 25:17-19, amongst others) say that it was what they had done in the past. In either case, though, it leaves me glumly thinking about Psalm 78, where the whole history of Israel is said to be " a parable... dark sayings of old which we have heard and known, and our fathers have told us."
Dark sayings and a parable that I don't understand.
Posted by TiggyTiger (# 14819) on
:
I think that's pretty much exactly what's happening here...
Well no, because that would be one person or baby whom you know for sure will be directly responsible for evil on a mass scale, whereas this is thousands of people, many of whom are entirely innnocent. In fact most of them - includig the donkeys and other furry creatures. Of course you know why they kept the sheep? ;-)
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
Back to the passage though....
v33 makes it clear that the commanded destruction is direct retribution for the actions of the Amalekites - they killed children, so their children will be killed.
There's also the issue in this passage of full deliverance. If Saul does not kill all the Amalekites (as he doesn't), Israel will need saving from them again and again and again (David, Esther, etc) because the Amalekites always hate the Israelites. Partial destruction of the Amalekites only means partial deliverance and peace for a while. Full destruction means full and permanent deliverance.
If Saul had obeyed God, future wars and slaughters would have been averted.
I guess the question could be put like this: If you met Stalin (substitute evil person of your choice) when he was a child, and you knew for certain everything he would become, all the evil and harm he would do, and all the people he would kill, and so on, would it be permissible to kill him to prevent that?
If God commanded it, and if you had someone who did hear God perfectly and reliably (which is how the author of 1 Sam presents Samuel - he is the prophet like Moses from Deut 18...), and you were certain that God had commanded it, would it be right to obey?
I think that's pretty much exactly what's happening here...
Hmmm...
I think that you're aware that even the Stalin analogy is a more difficult ethical question than you're implying. Also, as TiggyTiger suggests, it seems an inappropriate analogy anyway. Perhaps a better ananlogy would be the Troubles in Northern Ireland. If, in early 1922, someone had killed off all the protestants in Northern island, and their babies and pets, and turned all of the island of Ireland over to the Catholics, we might have prevented a lot of terrorist atrocities. However, that would not make such an action morally right.
The reason I think that this is a fair analogy, is that, as I said earlier - I suspect a significant part of the Amalekites hatred of Israel sprang from Israel's repeated attempts to wipe them off the face of the earth. Israel does not appear to have been blameless in this conflict, any more than either the protestants or the catholics were blameless in the Northern Ireland situation.
The big difference between the Troubles and our passage however, is that unlike in Northern Ireland the passage makes it very clear whose side God is on. That really seems to be the main difference between the two warring tribes here - and it's a rather worrying difference, because God (presumably) created the poor Amalekites, before deciding they weren't the tribe de jour, and getting his favourite humans to wipe them out. I'm definitely back with a toddler-God here, kicking over his blue toy soldiers, because today he likes the green ones better.
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by the famous rachel:
I think that you're aware that even the Stalin analogy is a more difficult ethical question than you're implying.
Yes, it's a tricky one. But it's easier to come down on the side the Bible seems to come down on than with alternatives.
quote:
The big difference between the Troubles and our passage however, is that unlike in Northern Ireland the passage makes it very clear whose side God is on.
I agree that's the big difference. But I think that's a pretty huge difference, because rebellion against God is an objective evil and having your ancestors from Ireland isn't.
If we look at it from a big picture point of view, God didn't choose Israel because he didn't like the other nations. He chose Israel to be the means by which he blessed the whole world (as per Chris Wright, Genesis 12:3b, etc).
The Amalekites weren't Canaanites - they were descended from Esau (Gen 36:12) and as such weren't one of the nations that Israel was going to attack. It also means that they'd normally be under the protection of the laws in Deut 20, which always allow the possibility of the city surrendering and being allowed to live. Slaughter is only for when they don't surrender...
In Exodus 17:8, just after Israel have come up out of Egypt, the Amalekites, for no obvious reason, attack the Israelites. In other words, they choose to put themselves in direct opposition to God's plan to bless all nations.
In Judges 3, 6 and 7 they invade Israel, seemingly unprovoked. 1 Samuel 14 is the first recorded time when Israel attacks Amalek. Yes, it is because of their past actions.
I think what I want to argue is that their past actions as a nation have demonstrated that their future actions would continue to do the evil of opposing God's plan, and that is a possible reason why the children are to be killed (contra the normal practice of Deut 20). Another of course is because that was what the Amalekites did.
God's stated plan isn't to bless Israel and use them to destroy all the other nations. It is to bless Israel, and use Israel as a channel of blessing to all the other nations. Some nations get on board with that (e.g. the Gibeonites). Some nations directly oppose it (e.g. the Amalekites).
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
More hmmm....
Custard, you know the bible better than me, so I probably shouldn't argue, but I'm not sure your post holds water:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
The Amalekites weren't Canaanites - they were descended from Esau (Gen 36:12) and as such weren't one of the nations that Israel was going to attack. It also means that they'd normally be under the protection of the laws in Deut 20, which always allow the possibility of the city surrendering and being allowed to live. Slaughter is only for when they don't surrender...
I'm not sure the Amalekites are descended from Esau. They turn up in Genesis 14:7 as a tribal group, and I don't reckon Esau has been born at this point. I know that Esau has a son called Amalek, but I'm not sure how he can be the father of the Amalekites, unless there are two lots.
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
In Exodus 17:8, just after Israel have come up out of Egypt, the Amalekites, for no obvious reason, attack the Israelites. In other words, they choose to put themselves in direct opposition to God's plan to bless all nations.
My problem here is the "no obvious reason". The Bible doesn't give a reason, but that doesn't mean there wasn't one. In the abscence of textual evidence we can only speculate what that reason as, but one possibility is that the Amalekites thought - rightly or wrongly - that the Israelites were invading there territory. Given that there is no evidence that the Amalekites had any knowledge of God it seems unfair to accuse them of "put[ting] themselves in direct opposition to God's plan to bless all nations", when they may have been just trying to defend their homeland. It's difficult to put yourself in direct opposition to a plan you know nothing about.
Also, the Israelites emerge distinctly better from the encounter in Exodus 17 than the Amalekites. They totally destroy the Amalekite army. Then God declares his undying hatred of the Amalekites. Not exactly gracious in victory, is he?
Your argument really seems to be trying to justify God's action after the fact, working on the assumption that since he's God, this action must be right. My argument comes down to something equally simple: genocide is wrong, therefore this action was wrong - whether or not it involved God. I'm not sure there's any middle ground here.
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by the famous rachel:
I'm not sure the Amalekites are descended from Esau. They turn up in Genesis 14:7 as a tribal group, and I don't reckon Esau has been born at this point. I know that Esau has a son called Amalek, but I'm not sure how he can be the father of the Amalekites, unless there are two lots.
Actually, no. In Gen 14, the land of the Amalekites is mentioned as an area, but without any Amalekites around. If Genesis was written during the early monarchy (which there's quite a bit of circumstancial evidence for e.g. Gen 36:1), it makes perfect sense to talk about that area as the land of the Amalekites, in the same way that we might say that the Persians were a civilisation that was based in Iran.
[coding/excess quoting]
[ 13. August 2009, 09:14: Message edited by: Marvin the Martian ]
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
Oops - sorry about the last 2/3 of that last post, which was just me quoting Rachel, but without having done the code properly. Could a kind host please delete everything from the second quoted section onwards?
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
Could a kind host please delete everything from the second quoted section onwards?
Happy to oblige
Marvin
Kind Host
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by the famous rachel:
Your [Custard's] argument really seems to be trying to justify God's action after the fact, working on the assumption that since he's God, this action must be right.
I know this isn't your choice of words, but these were Israel's actions, not God's. The account was also composed by them, after the fact. It might have been their understanding that it was mandated by God, but it might also be that their understanding was flawed - especially if you think the the immutable character of God is ill-represented by such actions.
I suppose it depends how directly you feel that God communicated to Israel, as distinct from how it was recorded.
- Chris.
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by The Revolutionist:
It attracted some attention from atheists blogs, which (unfairly and misleadingly) declared that he was "defending genocide".
If the complete destruction of an entire nation isn't genocide, what is? And if he's not defending it in that link, what is he doing?
Quite. To do him credit, he does at least implicitly acknowledge that it would be wrong to claim God's blessing for genocide today, although his reasoning for that is frankly laughable, but any amount of strawman-building and special pleading about how uniquely evil the Amalekites were still leaves him defending genocide.
Incidentally, the blog's now been taken down, and I had to read it in Google cache. It's been replaced by a self-justifying whine about nasty people deliberately distorting his words "to suggest that I, or Christians in general, defend genocide". He claims to have clearly stated that he doesn't in the offending blog, but I've read it several times, and I can't see where. The very best he can claim is that he says nowadays, under the New Covenant, it's out of our hands.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
Actually, no. In Gen 14, the land of the Amalekites is mentioned as an area, but without any Amalekites around. If Genesis was written during the early monarchy (which there's quite a bit of circumstancial evidence for e.g. Gen 36:1), it makes perfect sense to talk about that area as the land of the Amalekites, in the same way that we might say that the Persians were a civilisation that was based in Iran.
Thanks - that's a reasonable explanation, although it's difficult to know if it's correct.
Even if I - for now - accept your explanation of the origin of the Amalekites, I'm not sure that this helps. Your argument was that under Deuteronomy 20, the Amalekites didn't need to be slaughtered, they could just have surrendered their property without a fight and been spared. Hence, I guess you would argue that they shouldn't have attacked the Israelites in Exodus 17, because if the Israelites had attacked the Amalekite cities, the Amalekites could have surrendered and been spared. I have two problems with this:
(1) The Amalekites probaby hadn't read Deuteronomy 20
(2) If the Amalekites had read Deuteronomy 20 they probably wouldn't have considered it a fair deal.
The other problem here with arguing from Deuteronomy 20 is that verses 16 and 17 of that chapter are another example of God commanding genocide, and sadly in that case there is no getout clause for the unfortunate Hittites, Amorites, Canaanites, Perizzites, Hivites and Jebusites. In fact, I would cheerfully nominate Deuteronomy 20:16 for the worst verse in the Bible as well, but if I do I'll sound like a one-note opera.
Sanityman - I know that there are other ways of looking at this verse, which assume God didn't command the genocide. However, Custard and I are having a discussion from within a particular view of the Bible, which tends to assume the authors of the Bible were both honest and accurate. I'm more comfortable with your explanation to be honest, but I worry about how much of the Bible we need to treat in this fashion, and whether it leads to us making God in our own image, by simply picking the verses we like.
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by the famous rachel:
Even if I - for now - accept your explanation of the origin of the Amalekites, I'm not sure that this helps. Your argument was that under Deuteronomy 20, the Amalekites didn't need to be slaughtered, they could just have surrendered their property without a fight and been spared. Hence, I guess you would argue that they shouldn't have attacked the Israelites in Exodus 17, because if the Israelites had attacked the Amalekite cities, the Amalekites could have surrendered and been spared. I have two problems with this:
(1) The Amalekites probaby hadn't read Deuteronomy 20
(2) If the Amalekites had read Deuteronomy 20 they probably wouldn't have considered it a fair deal.
Deuteronomy 20 is set a good 40 years after Exodus 17...
The Israelites were never meant to take land from the Amalekites - like the Edomites in Numbers 20, the Israelites weren't a threat to them. They aren't in any of the lists of people Israel was meant to attack.
Incidentally, I'm writing up some of my thoughts on this at slight greater length on my blog.
I agree too that the Canaanites are a similar but different case, and I think they need a slightly different set of arguments, but the Canaanite genocides tend to be discussed more in the literature. See here for a recent paper discussing the ethics of the Canaanite genocide, for example.
Posted by TiggyTiger (# 14819) on
:
I find it a bit odd to be discussing the ethics of ANY genocide!
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by TiggyTiger:
I find it a bit odd to be discussing the ethics of ANY genocide!
Quite.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
Deuteronomy 20 is set a good 40 years after Exodus 17...
Sorry - I was being slightly facetious. My point was that in ancient times, if you saw a huge group of people from another tribe coming through or worryingly near your territory, it's unlikely that your response would be to check up on their religious rules on who should be massacred and who shouldn't. You'd probably attack first and ask questions later. Instinctively, people react strongly - sometimes rashly - to perceived threats to their homes, loved ones and land. This may suggest they are misguided and silly - and possibly also violent and unpleasant. However, it doesn't actually make them evil and utterly in opposition to God's good plan.
I'll try and read the links you posted later. I'm at work now, and had probably better get back down to it shortly.
Rachel.
Posted by Kid Who Cracked (# 13963) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
quote:
Originally posted by TiggyTiger:
I find it a bit odd to be discussing the ethics of ANY genocide!
Quite.
Indeed. But if you're going to use the Bible alone as proof of anything, it seems that you should be able to have some valid explanation of such passages.
Posted by LutheranChik (# 9826) on
:
I'm just shaking my head at the compulsion to make the Bible "come out right" by engaging in whatever tortured logic makes genocide sound sensible. Y'all really think that "The Bible says it, I believe it, that settles it" makes faith-based genocide okay?
Thanks for making pomo agnosticism sound even more appealing than it is already.
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Kid Who Cracked:
But if you're going to use the Bible alone as proof of anything
That's Ok then, coz I'm not.
Posted by Matt Black (# 2210) on
:
The only way this passage 'works' for me is to either treat it (a)as inspired by God but not literally, historically true (ie: it's an analogy of the need for each Christian to totally extirpate all sin from our lives) or (b) literally, historically true but not inspired by God (ie: the genocide happened but Samuel was mistaken in what God said to him). What I can't integrate into my being is (c) that it historically happened and it was ordered by God as being an action that was to be literally executed.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by LutheranChik:
Y'all really think that "The Bible says it, I believe it, that settles it" makes faith-based genocide okay?
Actually, no. I don't think anything makes faith-based genocide OK. However, I'm trying to work through the logic of the conservative evangelical perspective. Currently, I don't think it holds water. Nonetheless, wanting to engage in the related discussion doesn't necessarily make me stupid or heartless.
Rachel.
[Edited for spelling]
[ 17. August 2009, 19:29: Message edited by: the famous rachel ]
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by LutheranChik:
I'm just shaking my head at the compulsion to make the Bible "come out right" by engaging in whatever tortured logic makes genocide sound sensible. Y'all really think that "The Bible says it, I believe it, that settles it" makes faith-based genocide okay?
Nope - that's why I'm wrestling with it.
I see it a bit like getting a weird result in a scientific experiment. It doesn't mean we should ditch the whole of known science - we need to do some work to see if it can be made to fit in with what we already know first, and see if it was due to gas leaking in or a loose connection in the meter or something like that.
In the same way, I guess I see passages like 1 Samuel 15 as a bit like a rogue data point. It doesn't fit in with what I expect, but I don't think that necessarily means that I have to ditch my views on the inspiration of Scripture or the character of God.
What we need is to do a bit of work to see if it can be reconciled with what else we know. And that's what I'm trying to do, and I honestly think it can.
I've now got to the point where I'm fairly sure the command is about destroying Amalek identity rather than all of the Amalekites...
Posted by Sarah G (# 11669) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
What we need is to do a bit of work to see if it can be reconciled with what else we know. And that's what I'm trying to do, and I honestly think it can.
I've now got to the point where I'm fairly sure the command is about destroying Amalek identity rather than all of the Amalekites...
Is right.
This was a period when wars worked very differently to nowadays. If you were locked into a war with another tribe, and you got the chance, you wiped them out. They will most certainly do the same to you if they got the chance. Putting your enemies in a position where they can't hurt you again was a prerequisite for survival, rather than a moral choice.
We need to be wary of reading C21 ideas of war into a BC tribal warfare situation.
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on
:
Right.
So is genocide objectively bad, then?
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
Right.
So is genocide objectively bad, then?
Define "genocide".
The paper I linked to argued that the Biblical "genocides" are actually corporate capital punishment.
I tend to argue that they're protecting God's plan to bless the world. And when people attack it, those people get at least one opportunity (individually and corporately) to repent and quit their attack, and if they don't, God acts to protect his plan.
I don't know if that (especially since such events are always in the context of war) counts as genocide or not. It doesn't seem to involve dehumanisation or lack of mercy or love (all of which I do think are objectively wrong).
I don't think the action commanded in 1 Samuel 15:3 is objectively wrong. And yes, the main reason I think that is because God commands it, but I think there are adequate possible justifications for it.
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on
:
So it would have been OK for Hitler to exterminate the Jews if he warned them and called it "corporate capital punishment"?
No, you can't really be saying that. Can you?
[ETA: Mind you, I like the idea of wholesale slaughter not involving a lack of mercy or love. Rather like Monty Python's "lightly killed" crunchy frog.]
[ 18. August 2009, 15:03: Message edited by: The Great Gumby ]
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
So it would have been OK for Hitler to exterminate the Jews if he warned them and called it "corporate capital punishment"?
No, you can't really be saying that. Can you?
Nope.
You might want to think about these different scenarios.
Scene 1: A nutter with a gun shoots a load of innocent people in a shopping mall.
Scene 2: Said nutter gets sentenced to death and killed by a state executioner, duly appointed for that purpose.
Scene 3: A policeman knows that there is a nutter planning to shoot people at the mall. So he follows the nutter and waits until the nutter pulls his gun out. The policeman then shoots and kills the nutter before he can open fire.
Scene 1 is what Hitler did.
I'm arguing that scenes 2 and 3 are much closer to what happened in 1 Samuel 15 and elsewhere.
Posted by The Great Gumby (# 10989) on
:
Riiiight. So Hitler was an evil nutter, whereas this is "the nice sort of genocide", where a friendly policeman comes along, shoots a guy because he looked like he might have been holding a gun, then guns down all his family, friends, and then - aw, hell with it - just nukes the bastard's whole country into oblivion to be on the safe side. And that's OK because it's just capital punishment on a global scale.
Forgive me if I remain unconvinced.
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
The policeman argument seems to rely on corporate responibility of a people being the same as individual responsibility for an act of murder (or attempted murder). I just don't see that you can hold the powerless people of a nation to blame for the actions of the rulers of that nation, and therefore I don't think the analogy holds. They're not being justly punished, they're "collateral damage" in today's euphemism du jour.
...Oh, except they're not: they were killed deliberately, and in cold blood. I'm not sure the "nutters" here are the Amelekites.
- Chris.
Posted by Sarah G (# 11669) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
Right.
So is genocide objectively bad, then?
Ah, you're taking the same term, and assuming it functions the same way now as it did then.
In the 21st century, genocide is bad. End of.
In the context of BC tribal warfare, where it is a case of "If your tribe remains viable, they will do their best to wipe us all out", the morality is rather less clear. They're going to try to kill your family.
Think Hannibal Lecter. If he took a murderous dislike to you, you would, in this day and age, accept rather uneasily the idea of him being alive in a high security prison.
In BC times, you would kill him before he got to you.
Posted by Sarah G (# 11669) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by sanityman:
The policeman argument seems to rely on corporate responibility of a people being the same as individual responsibility for an act of murder (or attempted murder). I just don't see that you can hold the powerless people of a nation to blame for the actions of the rulers of that nation, and therefore I don't think the analogy holds. They're not being justly punished, they're "collateral damage" in today's euphemism du jour.
...Oh, except they're not: they were killed deliberately, and in cold blood. I'm not sure the "nutters" here are the Amelekites.
- Chris.
But we're not talking here about the modern sort of war fought by professional armies in which minimising civilian suffering is an expected behaviour. We're talking about total war.
There have been periods in history when the former was the main type of conflict. In First World countries today, there is a requirement that non-combatants should not be involved.
But for other long periods, the civilian population has been rightly viewed as an important resource for providing the means to wage war. Where that is the case, military leaders have viewed the destruction of civilian resources as being legitimate. Civilians will be “killed in cold blood”. The Second World War was fought with that as a basic premise on both sides- the Blitz, Dresden, Hiroshima. Attitudes have changed to civilian casualties down the centuries depending on the nature of the conflict being fought.
Indeed, those of us who are not going through puberty will have seen a shift in our lifetimes. With the expansion of use of satellite guided missiles, the attitude to collateral civilian damage changed between the First and Second Gulf Wars.
Now in BC tribal warfare, it was total war. If you left your enemy with the capacity to build the means to wage war, they were going to do so in your direction at some point in the future. And in 1 Samuel 30, the Amalekites did just that, destroying Ziklag.
(More generally, but vitally, I find myself forgetting above that the whole thing functions as a story.)
[ 18. August 2009, 21:21: Message edited by: Sarah G ]
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sarah G:
quote:
Originally posted by sanityman:
The policeman argument seems to rely on corporate responibility of a people being the same as individual responsibility for an act of murder (or attempted murder). I just don't see that you can hold the powerless people of a nation to blame for the actions of the rulers of that nation, and therefore I don't think the analogy holds. They're not being justly punished, they're "collateral damage" in today's euphemism du jour.
...Oh, except they're not: they were killed deliberately, and in cold blood. I'm not sure the "nutters" here are the Amelekites.
- Chris.
But we're not talking here about the modern sort of war fought by professional armies in which minimising civilian suffering is an expected behaviour. We're talking about total war.
There have been periods in history when the former was the main type of conflict. In First World countries today, there is a requirement that non-combatants should not be involved.
But for other long periods, the civilian population has been rightly viewed as an important resource for providing the means to wage war. Where that is the case, military leaders have viewed the destruction of civilian resources as being legitimate. Civilians will be “killed in cold blood”. The Second World War was fought with that as a basic premise on both sides- the Blitz, Dresden, Hiroshima. Attitudes have changed to civilian casualties down the centuries depending on the nature of the conflict being fought.
Indeed, those of us who are not going through puberty will have seen a shift in our lifetimes. With the expansion of use of satellite guided missiles, the attitude to collateral civilian damage changed between the First and Second Gulf Wars.
Now in BC tribal warfare, it was total war. If you left your enemy with the capacity to build the means to wage war, they were going to do so in your direction at some point in the future. And in 1 Samuel 30, the Amalekites did just that, destroying Ziklag.
(More generally, but vitally, I find myself forgetting above that the whole thing functions as a story.)
Of course, the proportion of civilians dead as a percentage of total war dead has been rising for every major conflict since about WW1, so nothing new there - as you say, we explictly targeted civilians in WW2.
However, what I thought we were talking about was morality, and just stating historical precedent as justification doesn't work. Destruction of opposing tribes may have been understandable or even standard practice, but that doesn't mean it's a moral way to behave any more than I think there's an equivalence between Jesus Christ and Genghis Khan.
The question was: is genocide ever justified, not whether it was commonplace. My point was that individual responsibility is different in kind than corporate responsibility, especially if those individuals have no say in the culpable actions in question. That makes wholesale "capital punishment" immoral.
- Chris.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by The Great Gumby:
Riiiight. So Hitler was an evil nutter, whereas this is "the nice sort of genocide", where a friendly policeman comes along, shoots a guy because he looked like he might have been holding a gun, then guns down all his family, friends, and then - aw, hell with it - just nukes the bastard's whole country into oblivion to be on the safe side. And that's OK because it's just capital punishment on a global scale.
Forgive me if I remain unconvinced.
Except you don't seem to understand my argument.
I've argued that the Amalekites were given the opportunity to get out of there - the only people who were left at the time of the slaughter were the people who wanted to be there rather than surrender to Israel.
I've argued too that we're not talking about one individual within the Amalekites being set on the destruction of God's plan to bless the world. It is the whole nation that has set itself on a collision course with God. So people have the choice either to get out of that nation and change their identity, or to be destroyed.
Posted by Leaf (# 14169) on
:
Originally posted by Custard: quote:
So people have the choice either to get out of that nation and change their identity, or to be destroyed.
Some choice.
Actually what really blows my mind is the God portrayed a few verses later, in verse 10: God is pissed off that Saul spared the lives of King Agag and some sheep, while being pleased that everything and everyone else was put to the sword. I suppose Saul's disobedience is the perceived point here, but really! What kind of God is this?
BTW my favourite way of coping with the portrayal of God in the historical books is a paraphrase of Karen Armstrong's: The way in which people perceive God "grows up" in the course of the Bible. Not that God changes (who can know?) but that human understanding changes. These verses in 1 Sam. reveal a very early understanding of God as a horrible psychopathic little tribal god. However, the understanding of God changes and expands... from a God of one tribe, to a God of twelve tribes, to a God of all nations.
Posted by Sarah G (# 11669) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by sanityman:
Of course, the proportion of civilians dead as a percentage of total war dead has been rising for every major conflict since about WW1, so nothing new there - as you say, we explictly targeted civilians in WW2.
However, what I thought we were talking about was morality, and just stating historical precedent as justification doesn't work. Destruction of opposing tribes may have been understandable or even standard practice, but that doesn't mean it's a moral way to behave any more than I think there's an equivalence between Jesus Christ and Genghis Khan.
The question was: is genocide ever justified, not whether it was commonplace. My point was that individual responsibility is different in kind than corporate responsibility, especially if those individuals have no say in the culpable actions in question. That makes wholesale "capital punishment" immoral.
- Chris.
Genocide is a very emotive word that almost seems to demand the reaction, “Of course it's wrong!”. I'm not so sure it's as simple as that. Is there a word equivalent to “killing” that can be used of tribes?
If I reasonably believe my life is in immediate danger and kill someone as a result, it isn't generally taken as wrong, because it is viewed as self-defence. It's called “killing”, rather than “murder”. I am arguing that Israel's action was the national equivalent of killing, rather than murder.
Once Israel set off on a course to fight the Amalekites, they had to finish the job, or deal in the future with a tribe that would be destroying villages, killing their people, and ultimately trying to wipe Israel out.
Nations go to war with nations. Individuals are part of the nation, and cannot in what I have described as total wars be regarded separately. In total war, effective war is only waged by including the individuals that make up the civilian power base as one of your military targets. Unless you are fighting very asymmetric warfare, you have no moral choice to make. You must attack the civilian power base, or they will generate military means for the enemy nation.
(Non-combatant genocide is a requirement of the nuclear deterrent. No nation possessing the bomb has yet declared the possibility of its use immoral. We are in effect as a nation saying genocide could be acceptable.)
(And again, I forget it is a story)
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sarah G:
Genocide is a very emotive word that almost seems to demand the reaction, “Of course it's wrong!”. I'm not so sure it's as simple as that. Is there a word equivalent to “killing” that can be used of tribes?
I agree that "genocide" is an emotive word, but I'm not sure that English has another word for "mass ethnic killing." If it did, I suspect it would acquire negative connotations almost at once.
quote:
If I reasonably believe my life is in immediate danger and kill someone as a result, it isn't generally taken as wrong, because it is viewed as self-defence. It's called “killing”, rather than “murder”. I am arguing that Israel's action was the national equivalent of killing, rather than murder.
And my original point was that individual self-defence is a bad analogy with nation-on-nation extermination. You have stated that it was pragmatic, or necessary, for tribes to behave like that. Whilst it may be true on some level, I maintain that killing babies lest they grow up to be soldiers is not just or moral behaviour.
quote:
In total war, effective war is only waged by including the individuals that make up the civilian power base as one of your military targets. Unless you are fighting very asymmetric warfare, you have no moral choice to make. You must attack the civilian power base, or they will generate military means for the enemy nation.
You seem to imply that a state of (total) war abrogates the requirement to behave morally. I'd be interested to know the reasoning behind that. The historical reality (that this is how nations have in fact behaved) is not contested.
quote:
(Non-combatant genocide is a requirement of the nuclear deterrent. No nation possessing the bomb has yet declared the possibility of its use immoral. We are in effect as a nation saying genocide could be acceptable.)
Yes. This should probably give us an awful lot more pause for thought than it does. We are able to commit genocide on a scale which makes the Amelekites look like small potatoes. Some Christians agree.
quote:
(And again, I forget it is a story)
Agreed. What do you think we should learn from the story? (genuine question).
- Chris.
PS: this is probably getting a bit far from the C&W mandate. If anyone's interested, I'd be happy to start a thread in Purg about the morality of total war, and individual vs. corporate justice..?
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
I know not everyone's going to agree with this, but this is where I ended up in my thoughts about the Amalekites...
Jesus is made the True Amalek
As the Bible goes on, it becomes clear that the enmity to God and his plans which was so clear in the Amalekites is found in each individual person. We all try to resist God's plan, to reject our part in it and oppose Jesus' lordship. And the Bible calls that sin. But in one of the most shocking verses of the Bible, we read this.
quote:
God made him who had no sin [i.e. Jesus] to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
2 Corinthians 5:21, NIV
Jesus became the personification of all opposition to God. He was made the true Amalek as well as the true Israel. He became the one who had to be killed so that God could bless the whole world. And he did that for us, for those who reject him and oppose him, so that we can know what it means to be part of God's true people.
That is the true and lasting significance of the sentence to destruction in 1 Samuel 15. It is the sentence that God himself in the person of Jesus chose to take on himself for us. Jesus becomes the person whom God destroys so that we can become the people whom God defends.
Posted by Leaf (# 14169) on
:
But Custard, isn't a key part of your idea the voluntary nature of Christ's sacrifice? That he took this upon himself willingly? Surely having the ability to choose, to be a moral agent, is crucial. Is that also true of the Amalekite children and infants? Did they have an option?
Of course not. Under the patriarchal tribal system, they were simply part of the collective; there seems to have been little opportunity to exercise individual choice.
If anything, through the course of the Bible, we see a movement away from killing something else which stands for our sin (sheep, Amalekites) and toward individual choice and responsibility for battling sin within. The ultimate choice being Christ's, who chose to sacrifice his life for the sins of others.
Posted by Custard. (# 5402) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Leaf:
But Custard, isn't a key part of your idea the voluntary nature of Christ's sacrifice? That he took this upon himself willingly? Surely having the ability to choose, to be a moral agent, is crucial. Is that also true of the Amalekite children and infants? Did they have an option?
I agree that Christ chose to become a sacrifice.
Did the Amalekite children and infants have a choice? The heads of their households clearly did.
Let's look at what 1 Samuel 15 says happened.
- v1-3 Samuel tells Saul to attack
- v4 Saul musters the men. 200,000 of them (though there are difficulties with Hebrew numbers in the OT). That probably takes quite a long time, and the Amalekites would have heard about it. Standing armies, of course, hadn't been invented.
- v5 Saul goes up to the Amalekite city
- v6 Saul tells all the Kenites to leave the city, and lets them out. The Kenites seem to be living in the same city as the Amalekites.
- v7 onwards Saul attacks the Amalekites.
Now, if I was an Amalekite, unless I really really hated Israel, I'd have got out of this city somewhere around v4. And even if I was still there by v6, I'd have told my wife and kids to be Kenites for a bit and get out to safety.
Even though the passage said Saul killed all the people except Agag, there's still plenty who seem to escape to fight again. So it's more likely that it's "killed everyone" in the sense of "didn't take prisoners" rather than "hunted absolutely everywhere".
OT scholar John Goldingay points out "When a city is in danger of falling, people do not
simply wait there to be killed; they get out... Only people who do not get out, such as the city's
defenders, get killed."
So yes, I think the women and children had a choice. They could run away.
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
In the hope that it's of interest: after thinking a bit more about the nature of my problem with this passage, I've started a thread in Purgatory about divine commands to do otherwise unconscionable acts.
- Chris.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Custard.:
So yes, I think the women and children had a choice. They could run away.
Three problems:
1. By running away, they would certainly be leaving their livestock to be slaughtered. (God commanded that oxen, sheep etc should be destroyed) and they would probably anticipate all other property they left behind being destroyed too. As a women in the ancient world, being left as a widow with no possessions is not a great recipe for survival. You're really saying:
quote:
So yes, I think the women and children had a choice. They could die slowly rather than quickly.
2. Even if running away didn't have disastrous consequences, there would clearly be some people for whom it still wasn't an option. In your version, it seems that if a sick woman with a baby heard that the Israelites were coming to attack the city, but failed to run away because she was too weak and unwell, she and her infant deserved to die.
3. This isn't about whether some of the Amalekites might or might not have made it to safety under some interpretations of the passage. This is about God's express desire, and God definitely suggested that every Amalekite should be killed. He didn't suggest giving them a chance to run away. This is meant to be an all-knowing, all powerful deity. Is "go kill the lot of them" really the best he could come up with?
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Sarah G:
This was a period when wars worked very differently to nowadays. If you were locked into a war with another tribe, and you got the chance, you wiped them out. They will most certainly do the same to you if they got the chance. Putting your enemies in a position where they can't hurt you again was a prerequisite for survival, rather than a moral choice.
[...]
Now in BC tribal warfare, it was total war. If you left your enemy with the capacity to build the means to wage war, they were going to do so in your direction at some point in the future.
Is that true, though?
The Biblical narratives in the Judges/Kings period describe wars fought for territory, for resources, for slaves, to avenge insults, to defend allies, for dominance and for tribute. They describe wars of conquest, set-piece battles, sudden raids and border skirmishes. Wars fought with the intent of annihilating the enemy are the exception rather than the rule. Particularly the sort of total destruction that extends to portable livestock (this, you steal, in the ordinary course of tribal war).
I see a clue to understanding the ‘genocide' verses in Acts 17:26-27 (St Paul speaking in Athens):
quote:
From one man he made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth; and he determined the times set for them and the exact places where they should live. God did this so that men would seek him and perhaps reach out for him and find him, though he is not far from each one of us.
God is seen as the dominant force in global politics and history - nations rise and fall, and God can and does influence this to bring about his own good purposes. If God is the cause why you don't tend to meet many Amalekites nowadays, the reason is that more people are seeking and finding salvation than they would do otherwise.
One way in which nations cease to exist is by being on the losing side in war. We need not suppose that God approves of war (in general) to allow that he might well use the fact that human societies tend to fight to advance his own plans. If it is necessary for the salvation of the world that Israel survive and Amalek perish, or that Rome rather than Carthage should shape the course of Western civilisation, then it might be right for God to give the victory accordingly. It might even be right for this to take the form of a command to go to war - if God is omnipotent, he must be in some way involved in every human death, and no more responsible for death in warfare than death by disease or from age. If the Amalkite culture had gone wrong, and so badly wrong that God had to bring it to an end, it seems to me not inherently more problematic to do it by war rather than by any other means.
That need not imply a particular moral defect in all the individual Amalekites (or even any of them) making them especially worthy of punishment. God might well have been pleased with the efforts some of them had made to do right within the context of a poisonous culture, and regarded the infants as being as innocent as those of any other nation, but still have found it necessary to end the life of that society.
That's as far as I can get to justify it. Then I hit this problem: granted all that, what should the individual Israelite soldier have done when ordered to stick his knife into a baby? Can that soldier possibly have been so certain that the command was divine, and that God was right to give it, that to obey would have been righteous? Surely not. I can, intellectually, accept that God has the authority to use and to ordain bodily death for his good purposes, and that he has the wisdom to know when it is necessary and right to do so. I don't accept that human beings do (or that any prophetic word or show of power could prove a seemingly wicked command to be divine - the devil can do such things).
So even if the giving of the command can be justified, I don't see that obedience to it ever could. It would always be better to say "Lord, I do not know whether this word is from you, but I do know that you would have me do right, and that to kill the innocent is not right. Therefore I will not believe of you what seems to be evil. There is nothing that could make me certain that the command is yours, and if I am not certain, then I must disobey. If I am wrong, forgive me".
And I don't think that God gives commands which it would be a sin to follow.
But, of course, Saul appears not to have had any such misgivings (he is happy do do the murders, he just wants to keep the loot). Maybe he is, in this limited respect, no more a moral agent than a lethal bacterium. We don't (generally) find that it causes a theological crisis if God uses an amoral bacterium to kill someone not personally known to us (maybe we should, but we don't), so perhaps we shouldn't find it a problem if he uses an amoral king in the same way.
I don't expect that to satisfy anyone else. It doesn't satisfy me. But I think that, if I was commited to scriptural inerrancy, I would at least start on these lines, rather than by assuming that some sort of national guilt ever makes it right to execute toddlers.
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
So even if the giving of the command can be justified, I don't see that obedience to it ever could. It would always be better to say "Lord, I do not know whether this word is from you, but I do know that you would have me do right, and that to kill the innocent is not right. Therefore I will not believe of you what seems to be evil. There is nothing that could make me certain that the command is yours, and if I am not certain, then I must disobey. If I am wrong, forgive me".
I think this is the crux of the issue. A God that uses existing human wickedness to further His own ends is very different from an "ends justify the means" God. If this wasn't in the Bible, but instead in some other contemporary history, would anyone even try to justify it?
- Chris.
Posted by Pre-cambrian (# 2055) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by sanityman:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
So even if the giving of the command can be justified, I don't see that obedience to it ever could. It would always be better to say "Lord, I do not know whether this word is from you, but I do know that you would have me do right, and that to kill the innocent is not right. Therefore I will not believe of you what seems to be evil. There is nothing that could make me certain that the command is yours, and if I am not certain, then I must disobey. If I am wrong, forgive me".
I think this is the crux of the issue. A God that uses existing human wickedness to further His own ends is very different from an "ends justify the means" God. If this wasn't in the Bible, but instead in some other contemporary history, would anyone even try to justify it?
I don't think this stands up logically or morally. If it is true that it is not right to kill the innocent, then it is equally true that it is not right to issue the order to kill the innocent. God can't have a get out of gaol free card because he's God.
Put in entirely human terms we prosecute the person who commissions a murder as well as the one who pulls the trigger. The godfather can't get off by protesting he was only using "existing human wickedness" because the gunman had form.
There was a reference to the Nuremberg Defence earlier on, but this would be like not only rejecting the Nuremberg Defence itself but lauding those who gave the orders.
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Pre-cambrian:
quote:
Originally posted by sanityman:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
So even if the giving of the command can be justified, I don't see that obedience to it ever could. It would always be better to say "Lord, I do not know whether this word is from you, but I do know that you would have me do right, and that to kill the innocent is not right. Therefore I will not believe of you what seems to be evil. There is nothing that could make me certain that the command is yours, and if I am not certain, then I must disobey. If I am wrong, forgive me".
I think this is the crux of the issue. A God that uses existing human wickedness to further His own ends is very different from an "ends justify the means" God. If this wasn't in the Bible, but instead in some other contemporary history, would anyone even try to justify it?
I don't think this stands up logically or morally. If it is true that it is not right to kill the innocent, then it is equally true that it is not right to issue the order to kill the innocent. God can't have a get out of gaol free card because he's God.
Put in entirely human terms we prosecute the person who commissions a murder as well as the one who pulls the trigger. The godfather can't get off by protesting he was only using "existing human wickedness" because the gunman had form.
There was a reference to the Nuremberg Defence earlier on, but this would be like not only rejecting the Nuremberg Defence itself but lauding those who gave the orders.
I think I explained myself rather badly .
I wasn't suggesting that God condoned human wickedness - merely that he wasn't thwarted by it, but, once it had happened in opposition to his wishes, he would use it to further his purposes that good might come out of evil. I think there's a difference between this God, and a God who commands the evil deeds in the first place.
The crucial thing I was referring to was Eliab's contention that it would not be right to accept such orders (we're back to Nuremberg again!). Which is the bit that matters for us, really.
- Chris.
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Pre-cambrian:
I don't think this stands up logically or morally. If it is true that it is not right to kill the innocent, then it is equally true that it is not right to issue the order to kill the innocent. God can't have a get out of gaol free card because he's God.
I agree with that.
But, don't we in fact accept that God has, in general, a right to cause death - death of individuals and death of nations? Everyone dies. God, being omnipotent, is involved in each death. He, at least, consents to it. Every believer knows this, and is able to reconcile that, somehow, with his faith. We take it on trust, I think, that it is somehow better for a fallen, sinful world to be set up thus, with death in it, than if there were no end to this life.
And if God can morally cause death, it is no more problematic for him to do so indirectly, at human hands, than in any other way.
What is problematic is that God should command someone to do a wicked act. That's what I think he doesn't get a free pass about. And that's why my tentative answers to the problems of this verse don't satisfy me.
Posted by Pre-cambrian (# 2055) on
:
But what in reality is the difference between causing death and killing?
If on the one hand there is "God has a right to cause death", but on the other hand there is "Thou shalt not kill". That seems to me to suggest, to put it mildly, a difference in standards. Isn't God saying "do as I say, not do as I do"? And why, therefore, should anybody respect him?
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Pre-cambrian:
Isn't God saying "do as I say, not do as I do"? And why, therefore, should anybody respect him?
Isn't that true for a parent that tells their 8-year-old child they can't drive the car?
- Chris.
Posted by the famous rachel (# 1258) on
:
I've been thinking a bit about God causing - or at least allowing - all deaths.
Reminding ourselves of this does cast a different light on the passage, I guess. Unfortunately, my limited thinking on this issue has brought me back to what - in a conservative evangelical worldview - this verse tells us about the character of God. God appears to have had no better plan for the Amalekites than their destruction. He created them, placed them in that place and time, and then destroyed them mercilessly. In the same way - again with a conservative evangelical worldview - there are untold millions who God creates without the opportunity to accept Christ, who then die (as and when God ordains) and receive eternal damnation, of whatever flavour your denomination prefers.
If the old testament is full of signposts to the new testament, then I guess we shouldn't be surprised if it signposts the worst of it as well as the best.
I'm not sure why I'm trying to figure this out within an evangelical worldview! Too much time in evangelical churches, I guess, and this thread isn't the place to rethink my entire view if the bible
All the best,
Rachel.
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
But, don't we in fact accept that God has, in general, a right to cause death - death of individuals and death of nations? Everyone dies. God, being omnipotent, is involved in each death. He, at least, consents to it.
There is a really big moral difference between not acting to prevent someone dying and actively killing them (or ordering someone to do it for you).
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on
:
This passage of Scripture - and similar passages (e.g. Joshua 6:21 & Numbers 31:17) - is not one that admittedly sits very easily with my understanding of the nature of God. However, I will attempt to explain how this does not undermine my faith in God or belief in the Bible, but I don't expect my thoughts will satisfy some people.
Firstly, those from an atheistic / naturalistic viewpoint may use these passages as a justification for rejecting the God of the Bible. From what I have read of the views of such people, I imagine that even if the Bible were more sanitised they would still find reason to not believe. Are they really offended at God because of these events or are these events merely the pretext for their rejection of him? That is a question that only they can answer.
Furthermore, naturalism, as a philosophy, does not exactly provide a basis for opposing genocide. After all, if one tribe feels that it aids their survival to wipe out another tribe, what is wrong with that according to the ethics of natural selection? So no atheist can scorn the ethics of the Bible without also damning his own philosophy.
I think we need to look at how we view the role of the Bible in our lives. Is the Bible merely a textbook - a manual for good practice? Or is it a revelation of a person?
Jesus said to the Pharisees: "You search the Scriptures, for in them you think you have eternal life; but these are they which testify of me." John 5:39
Suppose we were all able to conclude that the Bible does not justify genocide. So what? So an ancient book tells us what we believe already, namely, that genocide is wrong. Will that suddenly bring us into a relationship with God? I think not.
I'm generalising, but it seems to me that both fundamentalists and a certain kind of "liberal" Christian attempt to use the Bible as a repository of principles of good practice, and then the latter is disappointed that the Bible doesn't comply and the former uses all sorts of tortured arguments to make it comply. My question is: does it need to comply?
Suppose I extracted from the Bible a nice neat set of moral principles by which I live my life. Does that make me a believer? Would that make God real to me?
Given all the repetition and ambiguity in the Bible, not to mention the multitude of variant readings, you would think that God could have done a much better job of editing and general tidying up, don't you think? But he didn't - and clearly for a reason. The fundies and some liberals may want a set of laws to live by. But I see the Bible as an account of God's dealings in the messy reality of life. It's realistic, not idealistic.
I don't exactly know why God commanded the slaughter of the Amalekites. We would really need to know the full context. That is not to say that we should not attempt to understand this event. Those of us who realise that we don't know everything are on a journey, and on this journey I am trying to draw from this passage some understanding of God's ways.
There is the idea of justice applied to corporate entities. There is the question of the necessity of justice in certain extreme situations, and if the judge is forced to take certain undesirable measures, can he really be held morally responsible for those actions, if his hand has been forced by evildoers operating within a certain "corporate context"? (An example of this would be a warmonger attacking another nation from behind a human shield of innocent people. If those innocent people have to be attacked, it is the oppressor who is responsible for their lives, even though he did not kill them. I know full well that this is not the case in this biblical account, but it is just an example of the idea of the necessity of corporate justice.)
Can we, from our individualistic western democratic humanistic vantage point, really understand what was at stake at the time? In our secular mindset we play down the importance of spirituality, so how can we appreciate the devastating effects of idolatry on Israel, and how such influence from other nations required drastic action? Those who sit in judgment on God would do well to analyse their own philosophical presuppositions to discover if they themselves really have a sound moral basis for making ethical judgments.
I am not saying that the idea of corporate justice in any way provides a satisfying answer; it is extremely difficult to understand. But what really worries me is the idea that I can get to the point where I can easily understand everything that's written in God's book. If God were so easy to understand would he really be God? That's not evasion, it's just reality.
But though God may be difficult to understand, the alternative to faith in God provides no answers, as far as I am concerned.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by the famous rachel on 2009-08-03:
I just can't understand why these verses don't worry people. I've had a quick look at the results of the poll so far, and apparently about a third of those who have voted are not in any way worried by this verse. Why not, guys?
Since reading these discussions, I've been trying to think of a way to explain all my votes that I'm not in any way worried by these verses, by comparing how I view the Bible to an autostereogram. In particular, I've been wondering if they can be made using a series of coherent pictures rather than the usual nondescript dots or blobs and just this weekend, I encountered this one.
At first glance, it looks like nothing more than multiple series of ordinary-looking picture fragments of things like people, tigers, and sharks. Each fragment makes some sense on its own, but there is no apparent reason for the arrangement of them all together in a single whole.
However, if someone tells you that you can see a completely different image of a free-floating 3D shark by focusing on a point about a foot behind the screen, you might give it a try and (I hope) see the hidden image for yourself. (If you have trouble, you can try closing your eyes while looking at the picture, focusing on an imaginary spot in the distance, and then opening your eyes without changing your focus to see if your brain successfully combines the two overlapping images from each eye to pull the 3D image out.)
This provides a nice way of illustrating how I think the stories in the Bible like 1 Samuel 15 can simultaneously present multiple, differing views of God. Although the literal meaning of the text portrays God as sometimes angry, violent, and vengeful, I think there is a internal, symbolic meaning that portrays him as infinitely loving and merciful without the slightest trace of anger, violence, or punishment. This is why I can believe this story is part of the Word of God, written by him and teaching us about him as a loving God: the literal meaning was adapted to people at that time so that they would consider it holy and learn the necessary basics from it, while the symbolic meaning is universal for all people and for all time, presenting us with a very different view from what is presented in the literal story. This difference in views is what I think the autostereogram illustrates so well.
So, to answer your question about why I, for one, am not worried about 1 Samuel 15:3, I think that just like removing any one series of picture fragments in the autostereogram will remove part of the 3D shark, removing this verse, or any other verse, will take away from the symbolic meaning, which is what provides us with a way to approach God directly and personally, and get to know him as infinite love itself.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
So where does this "fragment" fit in with the symbolic meaning of God being a God of love, exactly? I think it fits in better with the 3D shark. Chomp!
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on
:
I've been puzzling about the autostereogram metaphor, wehyatt. My first thought was that it's more like looking at a photographic negative and trying to see a positive, but I'm not sure I understand you properly. In an autostereogram, the background image is irrelevant, and can be just repeating noise. I'm sure you weren't trying to say that the Bible is a load of repetitive nonsense! ;D
The bits that I'm getting are that it's necessary to stick at it, as the image doesn't immediately "come out." I'm less sure I understand the bit about one story not mattering in the grand scheme of things - seems to be straining the metaphor here. If the Bible was all like 1 Sam 15:3, I'm don't think the argument would hold?
On the positive side, the shark was the first autostereogram I've actually got to work for me, so many thanks for posting it!
- Chris.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
So where does this "fragment" fit in with the symbolic meaning of God being a God of love, exactly? I think it fits in better with the 3D shark. Chomp!
Yes, I see what you mean, but not surprisingly, that's not quite what I had in mind!
I think God's primary goal for each of us is to draw us as near to him as we allow him. What creates the obstacles to that goal is all our tendencies to be selfish and materialistic. Being one of Israel's more pernicious enemies, I see the Amalekites as representing the most selfish part of each of us, and I see God's command to destroy them completely as representing his desire to destroy those worst tendencies in us. He can't destroy them directly because we have to freely choose to do it in cooperation with him. However, we generally don't cooperate completely because we like to keep our core selfishness (King Agag) and all the little bits that seem innocuous to us (the best of the sheep, etc.), thinking that surely God can't expect us to completely stop being selfish!
So the literal story has to do with individuals and divinely commanded genocide, but I see the symbolic sense as having to do with me as a single individual at war, by God's command, with my own hellish inclinations. The purpose of his command is to draw me near so he can give me joy.
quote:
Originally posted by sanityman:
In an autostereogram, the background image is irrelevant, and can be just repeating noise. I'm sure you weren't trying to say that the Bible is a load of repetitive nonsense! ;D
I'm glad you liked the autostereogram. You're right that it can use random background images or noise, but I chose this particular one as a rather crude analogy for several reasons:
- It shows how the emergent image is independent of the "literal" picture fragments and how each series of fragments contributes in a unique way to the emergent image.
- It shows how the "literal" fragments are still visible even while you are observing the emergent image.
- It's a way to show that if clever people can do this kind of thing with pictures, then surely God can easily do something analogous with Bible stories.
- It shows how seeing the emergent image and understanding how it all works explains the otherwise odd anomalies in the "literal" fragments. Also, it's a happy coincidence that the autostereogram uses repetition in a way that is very much analogous (in my view) to the way the Bible uses apparently unnecessary repetition.
Also, while the autostereogram doesn't show why God would have chosen to use the particular stories we find in the Bible, it does provide an analogy for explaining how he could have chosen the literal stories to serve as a means for some other purpose than the symbolic meaning. I happen to think that his purpose was to get the people of the time to accept the stories as his holy Word, to preserve them for future generations, and to obey the rules he included in them.
Note that there limits to this analogy:
- The symbolic meaning is not all-or-nothing like the emergent image in the autostereogram - it is always imprecise, although there is no inherent limit to how far we can progress in seeing it.
- The symbolic meaning is highly subjective: What I do see in it is an image of God as I already know him. This subjectivity means that I can't take the symbolic message as authoritative or use it to coerce or even persuade anyone else. If they see the same image, that gives us something to discuss, but if not, I can't point to any particular part to try to prove that I'm right.
In the end, seeing a symbolic sense allows me to see most of Bible as the Word of God, written by God to teach us about all aspects of our relationship with him, and in a way that makes me completely comfortable with all the apparent contradictions and parts that may otherwise be difficult to reconcile with a belief in a loving God.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
I happen to think that his purpose was to get the people of the time to accept the stories as his holy Word, to preserve them for future generations, and to obey the rules he included in them.
I would add that I see the Gospels as having the same kind of symbolic meaning, but with the literal stories in them having far more similarity to the symbolic meaning within them than is the case in the Old Testament. I think the reason for this is because people in New Testament times had matured spiritually and were ready to properly handle a more direct revelation.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
- It shows how the emergent image is independent of the "literal" picture fragments and how each series of fragments contributes in a unique way to the emergent image.
Note that there limits to this analogy:
- The symbolic meaning is highly subjective: What I do see in it is an image of God as I already know him. This subjectivity means that I can't take the symbolic message as authoritative or use it to coerce or even persuade anyone else. If they see the same image, that gives us something to discuss, but if not, I can't point to any particular part to try to prove that I'm right.
I think you've just killed the analogy right there.
This seems to be just how dispensationalists read the book of Revelation - as if a secret message is encoded in all the noise of John's imagination on speed ... or magic mushrooms.
Either way there is too great a dissonance between what the original readers saw in the text and what we are supposed to see.
I don't expect total congruence between readers then as now but surely there has to be some kind of continuity?
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I think you've just killed the analogy right there.
Oh dear! And here I was trying to eliminate all the killing!
quote:
This seems to be just how dispensationalists read the book of Revelation - as if a secret message is encoded in all the noise of John's imagination on speed ... or magic mushrooms.
I can see why it would seem to be somewhat like the dispensationalist approach, but what I'm describing differs in two fundamental ways (if I understand dispensationalism correctly). First, dispensationalism seems to me to be looking for a code that is like what a person would come up with to hide the real meaning or interpretation. What I am describing is a way to look at the Old and New Testaments as divine revelation that uses a consistent and natural symbolism.
The emergent image in the autostereogram is independent of the picture fragments, but the author can choose to connect the two in any way that suits his or her purpose. In the case of God's revelation, I think he consistently connects the inner meaning with the literal text by a kind of symbolism that people often use in everyday language, like when we use "heart" to refer to emotion or "seeing" to refer to intellectual comprehension. The general rule is that the symbolic meaning of an element of the literal text plays a similar role in the overall spiritual message that the literal element plays in the overall literal message. For example, God's command to kill all the Amalekites in the literal text of 1 Samuel 15 symbolically describes his desire for us to completely reject our selfish tendencies symbolized by the Amalekites.
Second, dispensationalists look for a literal fulfillment that they expect to occur in this world, but the symbolic meaning always has to do with spiritual things (like love and faith). In Rev 1:10, it says "I came to be in the spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a great voice ...." I take this as a strong hint that the prophecies would be fulfilled "in the spirit" as well.
quote:
Either way there is too great a dissonance between what the original readers saw in the text and what we are supposed to see.
I don't expect total congruence between readers then as now but surely there has to be some kind of continuity?
I'm puzzled by your choice of original readers as the reference point instead of the author. What the original readers of Old Testament prophecies saw had very little consonance with what Christians see in them. In fact, this is why I think there is so much difference between the "plain reading" of Scriptures and the symbolic meaning: God adapted the literal text of each revelation for the people of the time, but the symbolic meaning is for people of all time.
BTW, being divine revelation, I think the inner message is a perfect and objective description of God and our relationship to him - the subjectivity I refer to is from our limited ability to see what he describes and from the fact that our limited and flawed beliefs necessarily determine our starting point for trying to see it.
I don't expect my analogy of an autostereogram to convince anyone, I'm just hoping it might help explain to someone like the famous rachel why I'm completely comfortable with texts like 1 Samuel 15 and believe that they are divine revelation.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
I'm puzzled by your choice of original readers as the reference point instead of the author. What the original readers of Old Testament prophecies saw had very little consonance with what Christians see in them.
Says who?
We can argue 'til the cows come home over sensus plenior but clearly there was more than 'very little consonance'. The NT writers seems pretty to keen to quote the OT to back up their understanding of Jesus. Sure Jesus changed everything. Certainly the Christians brought a new perspective to the OT texts. But they used OT scriptures to (try to) persuade Jews that Jesus was the Christ. I'm the one who's puzzled as to how that is possible if there is 'very little consonance'.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
Indeed you are right, there was very much consonance in that they had a common acceptance of the OT as divinely authoritative, and I accept your correction. What I had in mind was the new perspective you refer to and the fact that the NT writers were trying to persuade the Jews of something that did not already fit with their traditional expectations of the Messiah, although I don't pretend to know a lot about the subject.
As for the continuity you think should exist between the original readers and modern readers, I suspect that this issue boils down to a question I've had in mind since reading IngoB's post in "God told me to do it" a few weeks ago, where he says that Christians "have the final and definite revelation through Christ."* Since I believe that the Second Coming has already taken place and involved a new divine revelation, it would make sense that I see no particular requirement for continuity with earlier readers of the Old and New Testaments. If this is why you object, then I understand. Otherwise, I don't and I'm hoping you can explain it to me some.
* I'm curious about how widespread this idea is among Christians in general and I'd like to know if it's based on specific Scriptural passages. It's a new idea to me and I would like to know more about it, although it might be more appropriate as a thread of its own. Any background on it would be much appreciated.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
IngoB's post in "God told me to do it" a few weeks ago, where he says that Christians "have the final and definite revelation through Christ."
That is quite a common idea. From places like Matthew 5: 17 and Luke 24: 27, 44. Jesus is the fulfilment of all scripture - it is all about him.
Of the course there are various opinions on exactly how much continuity / discontinuity there is between the OT & NT. As far as Protestants are concerned there is a rough spectrum with the Reformed Anglicans, to the right, emphasising the covenantal continuity moving towards the anabaptists, to the left, stressing the discontinuity. But all would agree that there is continuity and discontinuity.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
Since I believe that the Second Coming has already taken place and involved a new divine revelation, it would make sense that I see no particular requirement for continuity with earlier readers of the Old and New Testaments.
That is very similar to the JWs and a common example of the sociological phenomenum known as cognitive dissonance. Throughout 2000 years of church history many Christians have struggled with the delay in Christ's return. Again and again disillusionment sets in forcing some to give up hope while others to spiritualise away Christ's return. Thus our faith is protected from the harsh scoffing of those who point out that he is taking his time.
Jesus said, "I'll be back," and he said that it would be impossible to miss it when he did return. An invisible, subjective return just doesn't cut it for me.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
That is very similar to the JWs and a common example of the sociological phenomenum known as cognitive dissonance.
You disappoint me. I know you're capable of discussing things from a broader perspective than that and I was hoping you would.
quote:
An invisible, subjective return just doesn't cut it for me.
I know enough not to expect anything different, but I do enjoy an intelligent discussion of the ideas.
quote:
That is quite a common idea. From places like Matthew 5: 17 and Luke 24: 27, 44. Jesus is the fulfilment of all scripture - it is all about him.
Yes, I agree about Jesus fulfilling all scripture (we're talking about the OT, right?), but I don't see how that implies that there was to be no further revelation. When I read passages like John 16:12-13:
quote:
I have yet many things to tell you, but you are not able to bear now. But when that One comes, the Spirit of Truth, He will guide you into all Truth ...
and John 16:25:
quote:
I have spoken these things to you in allegories. An hour comes when I will no longer speak to you in allegories, but I will reveal the Father plainly to you.
I naturally see them as prophecies to be fulfilled in new revelation. I think I can see how you would consider them to be fulfilled already (i.e. without any new revelation), but are there scriptural indications that they have been fulfilled? Do you see no room in them for the possibility of fulfillment in new revelation? I'd be interested in a quick summary from you (or anyone) if you care to take the time.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
You disappoint me. I know you're capable of discussing things from a broader perspective than that and I was hoping you would.
I remember a friend of mine responding a bit like this when our Church History lecturer set us an essay on "What caused the Reformation?" He simply wanted to reply - "God did." Which would have led to a very brief essay.
To discuss some of the sociological and technological changes that led to the reformation does not necessarily call into question whether or not God's Spirit was behind it.
The same is true when discussing the return of Christ. I'm quite happy for all aspects of my faith to be looked at from all sorts of perspectives. Indeed by bringing in the sociological issues I'm deliberately try to encourage a 'wider perspective'.
I'm sorry if this offends you (that is not my intent) but such a defensive reaction is, of course, typical of cognitive dissonance!
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
Yes, I agree about Jesus fulfilling all scripture (we're talking about the OT, right?), but I don't see how that implies that there was to be no further revelation. When I read passages like John 16:12-13:
quote:
I have yet many things to tell you, but you are not able to bear now. But when that One comes, the Spirit of Truth, He will guide you into all Truth ...
and John 16:25:
quote:
I have spoken these things to you in allegories. An hour comes when I will no longer speak to you in allegories, but I will reveal the Father plainly to you.
I naturally see them as prophecies to be fulfilled in new revelation. I think I can see how you would consider them to be fulfilled already (i.e. without any new revelation), but are there scriptural indications that they have been fulfilled? Do you see no room in them for the possibility of fulfillment in new revelation? I'd be interested in a quick summary from you (or anyone) if you care to take the time.
I think you missed a nuance in my response earlier. Jesus fulfils all scripture. This does not necessarily discount further revelation (although cessationists would argue otherwise) but it does rule out further revelation that flatly contradicts previous revelation.
The New Covenant makes the Old one obsolete by way of fulfilment not by way of contradiction. So the OT cultic and dietary requirements are fulfilled in Christ. Protestants tend to see a trajectory throughout scripture (or like phases of the moon which become progressively revealed) so that what is new does not deny what was former.
However, you seem to be using revelation in a very different way.
Moses says God = black.
Jesus says God = white.
Jesus came last, so Jesus is right. It sounds much more like the Medinan / Meccan priority debate in Islam than a Christian way of handling the debate.
Hence why this verse in 1 Samuel 15 is so problematic. Jesus (and even subsequent revelation) brings fresh insight but if (and it is of course the big 'if') God commanded the genocide of a people in the past then the new revelation can only change how we view it as opposed to writing it off as a mistake.
[ 19. September 2009, 05:12: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Indeed by bringing in the sociological issues I'm deliberately try to encourage a 'wider perspective'.
I'd be happy to hear about what leads you to your assertion of cognitive dissonance, I just don't feel particularly encouraged from the assertion all by itself.
I'd be more interested to hear what you have to say about continuity because I don't think I'm understanding the term the same way you mean it. My education in mainstream Christian theology and terminology is very limited to say the least, and I'm enjoying the chance to catch up some through the Ship. However, your point about continuity seems to be an important one to you and I don't think I understand it yet. For example, I am wondering if you see any difference between continuity with original readers and continuity with contemporary (or even future) readers. I'm also wondering how much it's an end goal vs. a starting point, or perhaps both simultaneously.
quote:
Jesus fulfils all scripture. This does not necessarily discount further revelation (although cessationists would argue otherwise) but it does rule out further revelation that flatly contradicts previous revelation.
[This cessationist view is what is new to me and what I'm curious about. Anyone care to fill me in?]
But to get back more on-topic, I'm sure it will be no surprise to you when I say that I see the new revelation I mentioned as further fulfillment rather than flat contradiction. We have a large amount of doctrine that addresses how people always understand divine truth only as an approximation, and how there are discreet degrees or levels we advance through as we progress in our understanding (both individually and collectively).
This leads us to the idea that divine truth in the lowest degree appears as it does in the OT, like commandments and rules with material rewards and punishments. In a higher degree, it appears more as moral law with spiritual rewards and punishments as it does in the NT. And in a yet higher degree, it appears more as spiritual law or pure theology with no rewards or punishments, just inherent consequences. (Note that I'm not saying the OT and NT present no theology or that the OT presents no moral law - we need morality and theology at every stage of our development.) Higher levels are better approximations, but each level is still only an approximation.
So to me, the view I've been presenting is not a contradiction of previous revelation, it's a further fulfillment.
When we are very young children, we have to start with the idea of rewards (from our parents) for following the Ten Commandments and punishments if we don't. As we grow older, we can learn that it's more a matter of salvation or damnation whether we obey them or not. But ideally, we eventually learn that following them is just inherently good and to everyone's benefit and not following them is bad and causes us to hurt other people. We're not contradicting our earlier view so much as filling it in with a better and more complete understanding, so that each step builds on the previous one.
I understand you don't see it the same way I do and that you see my view as contradicting the OT and NT, but I'm not just blithely replacing them.
quote:
... but if (and it is of course the big 'if') God commanded the genocide of a people in the past then the new revelation can only change how we view it as opposed to writing it off as a mistake.
Well, that's certainly something we can agree on.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
However, your point about continuity seems to be an important one to you and I don't think I understand it yet. For example, I am wondering if you see any difference between continuity with original readers and continuity with contemporary (or even future) readers. I'm also wondering how much it's an end goal vs. a starting point, or perhaps both simultaneously.
I see truth as objective. So, because we are all finite and culturally bound we will all perceive that objective truth slightly differently, but there must a fair bit of continuity between all readers.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
This cessationist view is what is new to me and what I'm curious about. Anyone care to fill me in?
To put it very simplisticly - BB Warfield and others have argued that the spiritual gifts of the NT (e.g. 1 cor. 12), and especially including the gift of prophecy (hence further revelation), ceased after the NT period and certainly with the formation of the canon of scripture.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
This leads us to the idea that divine truth in the lowest degree appears as it does in the OT, like commandments and rules with material rewards and punishments. In a higher degree, it appears more as moral law with spiritual rewards and punishments as it does in the NT. And in a yet higher degree, it appears more as spiritual law or pure theology with no rewards or punishments, just inherent consequences. (Note that I'm not saying the OT and NT present no theology or that the OT presents no moral law - we need morality and theology at every stage of our development.) Higher levels are better approximations, but each level is still only an approximation.
I understand you here but cannot see the continuity between each level.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
So to me, the view I've been presenting is not a contradiction of previous revelation, it's a further fulfillment.
When we are very young children, we have to start with the idea of rewards (from our parents) for following the Ten Commandments and punishments if we don't. As we grow older, we can learn that it's more a matter of salvation or damnation whether we obey them or not. But ideally, we eventually learn that following them is just inherently good and to everyone's benefit and not following them is bad and causes us to hurt other people. We're not contradicting our earlier view so much as filling it in with a better and more complete understanding, so that each step builds on the previous one.
Okay, so please demonstrate how you do this with the text in question for this thread - 1 Samuel 15: 3. You appear to be saying that God did tell the Israelites to kill women and children but he changed his mind later. I've probably misunderstood you but I can't see how you are not just saying that subsequent revelation contradicts earlier revelation.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Okay, so please demonstrate how you do this with the text in question for this thread - 1 Samuel 15: 3. You appear to be saying that God did tell the Israelites to kill women and children but he changed his mind later. I've probably misunderstood you but I can't see how you are not just saying that subsequent revelation contradicts earlier revelation.
Think of it this way. The command is to destroy the enemy, completely. No if, ands, or buts.
Later revelation says the same thing, but leads you to re-examine who and what the true enemy is.
The two are perfectly consistent. It is also true that the first message is barbaric by the standards of the second. Leading us to understand that Israel did not have a clear picture.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Think of it this way. The command is to destroy the enemy, completely. No if, ands, or buts.
Later revelation says the same thing, but leads you to re-examine who and what the true enemy is.
The two are perfectly consistent. It is also true that the first message is barbaric by the standards of the second. Leading us to understand that Israel did not have a clear picture.
Nice one Freddy - that would have made for a great defence at the Nuremberg trials.
Perhaps Hermann Goring or Martin Bormann should have just said, "Sorry, we were mistaken about who the enemy was."
Posted by DagonSlaveII (# 15162) on
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I simply see it this way:
1. God > Man. Man is > than all the meat he eats, animal flesh he wears. This is generally not considered genocide.
2. You're dealing with a very different Israel than Christ's Israel. They tended to wander from God to god, and were easily contaminated with polytheism, and were in no way Pharisaical at that time. All other beliefs systems damaged that bond between God and Israel (not unrepairable, mind you).
3. God's on the other side of that veil (as well as here), and what he does with the spirits of the recently departed is his business. Killing the flesh wouldn't be murder for a spirit, but conversion from a fleshly being to a spiritual one. I'd assume that if he orders someone killed, he's got something in mind for them on the other side--and it would be his business, not mine.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
You appear to be saying that God did tell the Israelites to kill women and children but he changed his mind later.
I think the disconnect might be that the story as divine revelation is (to us) not about historical accuracy or about accountability of historical individuals. It's about our current and on-going individual relationship with God.
To say that Israel did not understand the real enemy is not to excuse them or explain away their behavior. It's more that the reason why God gave them 1 Samuel 15 in its literal form as part of his divine revelation is that that was the closest they could come at that time to understanding who the enemy of God was. They needed it to be personified before they would accept it as a holy commandment.
I would put it this way (if you'll bear with me).
To give an approximate summary of the truth God wants us to learn (and live by) from 1 Samuel 15, I think the basic message is "You should stop being selfish."
A rational adult who asks "why" can understand how selfishness directly opposes the ability for God to have them participate in the purpose of creation, which is done by helping other people be happy and being able to receive happiness from God as a direct result.
An average thirteen year old who asks "why" is not likely to be persuaded to fight selfishness with much enthusiasm by such a rational discussion. They are more likely to respond to the idea that in the long run they will be miserable if they don't and happier if they do. Or perhaps that they will end up in hell if they don't or heaven if they do (at least in our theology).
I think this shows up in the New Testament in a story like Mark 10:17-31 where Jesus is asked "what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?" and his answer includes "Go, sell what things you have." Now I happen to think that this incident probably did actually happen much the way it is described, but the historical accuracy is irrelevant to seeing it as divine a message about the need to give up self for the sake of eternal life. I think the reason it takes the literal form it does is because the people of Jesus' time were just ready to see that the real obstacle to a relationship with God is a self-centered life, although even that astonished the disciples (verses 24 and 26). It seems to me that they were still stuck in the idea that God would enrich you if you followed all the rules and impoverish you if you didn't.
An average four year old who asks "why" is only likely to respond to the idea that playtime can continue if no more toys are taken from other children, but that otherwise it will end. Or perhaps they would respond to the idea of resisting the devil as a personification of their selfishness.
I think this shows up in the Old Testament in a story like 1 Samuel 15, where God is described as commanding the extermination of the Amalekites. I think this story probably has a lot of elements that are based on historically accurate elements (e.g. the main characters), but its role as the literal form of divine revelation is not tied in any way to its historical accuracy. Whether or not it's historically accurate, we can still see in it a message about the need to give up self, as long as we can see the Amalekites as a personification of selfishness. The point is that God included the story in his divine revelation, not that God actually commanded the killing. The story needed to be something that Israel would respond to at the time it was written, but it didn't need to be completely accurate historically in every detail.
So the same truth appears in different forms as it is adapted to the ability of the people who need to hear it. Yet the same, higher approximation of truth can be seen in a symbolic way, even in those different literal forms. I don't imagine it's the kind of continuity you look for, but it is a way to see it all as consistent and free of contradictions as divine revelation.
I look forward to your response.
BTW, thank you for your explanations of continuity and cessationism.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
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It's a bit ironic considering the thread and board this is on, but after thinking so much about 1 Samuel 15, it kind of getting to be one of my favorite OT stories.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
To say that Israel did not understand the real enemy is not to excuse them or explain away their behavior. It's more that the reason why God gave them 1 Samuel 15 in its literal form as part of his divine revelation is that that was the closest they could come at that time to understanding who the enemy of God was. They needed it to be personified before they would accept it as a holy commandment.
But your analogy just doesn't work.
It hardly constitutes good parenting if, before your child is able to grasp abstract concepts of sin etc., you teach them to kill people instead.
"Well done little Timmy, now go and wipe your sword and Daddy will explain when you are older why it is really a bit more complicated."
The process you describe of progressive revelation makes sense but it simply does not fit this instance of genocide. How can genocide ever be justified as part of a long-term teaching plan?
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
How can genocide ever be justified as part of a long-term teaching plan?
It can't be justified as part of any teaching plan.
You seem to be implying that the original readers would have been encouraged to kill more than they otherwise would after reading something like 1 Samuel 15. However, I don't think they needed any encouragement at all, given how they seemed to be quite ready to kill each other, let alone a hated enemy.
As I understand it, they even had trouble feeling compassion for their Jewish neighbor next door because they were culturally trained to see blessings as a sign of God's favor and misfortune as a sign of his disfavor - if God wasn't showing compassion, who were they to do any different? It seems to me that expecting them to feel compassion for deadly enemies like the Amalekites would have been way beyond their capabilities.
To anthropomorphize, I'd liken it to God asking them collectively "OK, what's the most evil thing you can think of?" and them answering "the Amalekites!" I can see God mumbling to himself something like "you've got a loooong way to go, but OK" and then launching into a story/myth to show them how they needed to totally reject that thing they saw as the most evil. It's not that he was teaching them to kill (they were already doing that plenty on their own), it's that he was teaching them how to respond to evil using the only terms they knew.
I base this view of the Amalekites on Deuteronomy 25:17-18, which describes the Amalekites as attacking their "feeble ones" from behind, on 1 Samuel 15:33 where Samuel accused the king of the Amalekites of "bereaving women of children", and on 1 Samuel 30:1-2, which is the story about the Amalekites raiding Ziklag and capturing all their women while David and his men were away. I know this last verse comes chronologically after 1 Samuel 15, but I think it illustrates the reputation the Amalekites had, which was that they favored the nastiest kind of raiding rather than straight-forward, open warfare.
I think if God had tried to teach them about having compassion for the Amalekites and forgiving them, they would have rejected God completely instead of accepting such preposterous ideas.
I also think God accepts from each of us a sincere effort to resist and reject our own individual substitutes for true evil every step of our spiritual journey, because we can no more identify true evil in a perfect way than the people of the Old Testament could.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
You seem to be implying that the original readers would have been encouraged to kill more than they otherwise would after reading something like 1 Samuel 15.
Yes, of course. How else can you read it?
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
However, I don't think they needed any encouragement at all, given how they seemed to be quite ready to kill each other, let alone a hated enemy.
This doesn't make sense. God was quite happy to have 'do not murder' as one of the Ten Commandments.
To tell the Israelites 'do not murder' is one thing. To tell them to 'kill all the Amalekites' is another. If they didn't need any encouragement, then why encourage them since it is a universally evil thing to do?
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
I think if God had tried to teach them about having compassion for the Amalekites and forgiving them, they would have rejected God completely instead of accepting such preposterous ideas.
Here it is again. A fair summary of the OT is that it entirely consists of God telling them preposterous ideas - like no murder, adultery, lying, stealing etc. - things that the people never got or achieved. They failed to keep all the others, why couldn't God tell them not to kill as well?
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
I also think God accepts from each of us a sincere effort to resist and reject our own individual substitutes for true evil every step of our spiritual journey, because we can no more identify true evil in a perfect way than the people of the Old Testament could.
I agree with this but it is only relevant to our discussion if morality is entirely relative. If genocide is always evil then your argument doesn't stand.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
If genocide is always evil then your argument doesn't stand.
Sure it does. Don't misunderstand the message here. This doesn't rehabilitate these ancient perpetrators of genocide. Genocide is always evil. Murderers are murderers.
But killing in combat has always, in all cultures, been justified by circumstances. Even in the Old Testament, and even in the Joshua stories about the blatantly aggressive conquest of Canaan, most of the actual battles are described as Israel defending itself from the attacks of the enemy. Killing in self-defense is excused everywhere. Amazingly there are relatively few stories, such as this one in Samuel, where the aggression is described as such.
The point, though, is not to vindicate the murderers by saying that God told them to do it. The point is to interpret what happened so that the actions of "God's people" can be seen to be in harmony with God's will, and therefore to have a positive message. That positive message is "destroy evil" and has been happily understood that way by generations of Christians and Jews.
We come along thousands of years later and say "Wait a minute! A good God wouldn't really order genocide!" This is a good point, and definitely one that needs to be explained. But it misses the point in not grasping that these brutal stories have always fit into a larger message about good triumphing over evil.
Morality tales from every culture commonly include punishments that go beyond real-life morality. Storybook and cinematic villains generally die in nasty ways, and readers and viewers seldom complain.
The fact that the Israelites were real people and that God either did or did not actually order genocide does make it much more troubling than what Spiderman did to the Green Goblin. But the context and interpretation is very much the same.
Personally, I resolve this dilemma by believing that although these things actually happened more or less the way that they are reported in the Bible, God Himself did not actually order these killings. He merely permitted Israel to believe that He had and permitted it to be described that way in the biblical account. He did this because this was in accord with the cultural expectations of the time, and because the universally understood theme of the triumph of good over evil could be served in that way.
The end result, as is the case for virtually everything in this "Chapter & Worse" section, is a story with an overall positive message but which falls apart on close inspection.
All this means, in my opinion, is that none of this is as simple as it appears. Unfortunately, simple messages are the only ones that work when dealing with bronze and iron age communities.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Sure it does.
Hey, is wehyatt your sockpuppet or something Freddy? Or is this tag-team wrestling?
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Morality tales from every culture commonly include punishments that go beyond real-life morality. Storybook and cinematic villains generally die in nasty ways, and readers and viewers seldom complain.
Come on Freddy, when does God kill them or ask for their deaths in these stories? Bad people meet a sticky-end stories are in all cultures, but that is not the same as 'God told the Israelites to kill them.'
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Personally, I resolve this dilemma by believing that although these things actually happened more or less the way that they are reported in the Bible, God Himself did not actually order these killings. He merely permitted Israel to believe that He had and permitted it to be described that way in the biblical account. He did this because this was in accord with the cultural expectations of the time, and because the universally understood theme of the triumph of good over evil could be served in that way.
We always end up here Freddy - I'm glad that God permitted you to believe that about Israel ... if you want I'll tell you what he really thinks though!
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I'm glad that God permitted you to believe that about Israel ... if you want I'll tell you what he really thinks though!
Isn't that just the issue? We are three-millennia removed from whatever happened in these stories. You have no way to know what God really thinks or what really happened.
To me the priority is that there is a rational explanation and a good, morally consistent God.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Isn't that just the issue? We are three-millennia removed from whatever happened in these stories. You have no way to know what God really thinks or what really happened.
To me the priority is that there is a rational explanation and a good, morally consistent God.
Consistent with what? Your definition of morality?
Why bother with scripture at all then? We call these stories 'sacred writings' because we believe that in some sense they are special revelation.
How do you see 1 Samuel 15 as revelation in anyway different to Shakespeare or The Beano?
[ 23. September 2009, 06:01: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Consistent with what? Your definition of morality?
Self-consistent. Consistent with the words of Jesus. Not my definition, but rather the definition that emerges from Scripture taken as a whole.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Why bother with scripture at all then? We call these stories 'sacred writings' because we believe that in some sense they are special revelation.
That's right. Their ultimate author is a single loving God. So it is important that they be understood in a way that supports that belief.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
How do you see 1 Samuel 15 as revelation in anyway different to Shakespeare or The Beano?
God is the ultimate author. That is, God inspired whoever wrote these accounts to write them in the way that they did and using the words they used.
Unlike Shakespeare these verses are God speaking to the reader.
But these words need to be understood rightly, and the reader needs to draw a message from them that is consistent with the rest of Scripture. The idea that God could actually order genocide is not consistent with what Jesus teaches, even though it is quite consistent with things Jesus says in some of His parables.
The overall message is that good triumphs over evil. The question for the reader is both "Which side are you on?" and "You need to trust the Lord in order to overcome evil in your own life."
Posted by Pre-cambrian (# 2055) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
But these words need to be understood rightly, and the reader needs to draw a message from them that is consistent with the rest of Scripture. The idea that God could actually order genocide is not consistent with what Jesus teaches, even though it is quite consistent with things Jesus says in some of His parables.
The overall message is that good triumphs over evil. The question for the reader is both "Which side are you on?" and "You need to trust the Lord in order to overcome evil in your own life."
Unless you are saying that Jesus's parables don't constitute part of Jesus's teaching, which would be quite unusual amongst Christians, you are contradicting yourself in one sentence. If ordering genocide is consistent with what is said in some of the parables, then ordering genocide is consistent with Jesus's teaching. That has some pretty far-reaching consequences, not least for your beliefs that "loving" is the determining quality of God and that the overall message is that good triumphs over evil.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Pre-cambrian:
Unless you are saying that Jesus's parables don't constitute part of Jesus's teaching, which would be quite unusual amongst Christians, you are contradicting yourself in one sentence.
And you have a problem with that?
I am referring to parables such as the following, where the fictional protagonists react aggressively and violently against those who oppose them:
The parable of the Great Supper:
quote:
Matthew 22:6 And the rest seized his servants, treated them spitefully, and killed them. 7 But when the king heard about it, he was furious. And he sent out his armies, destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city. 8
The man without a wedding garment:
quote:
Matthew 22:12 So he said to him, ‘Friend, how did you come in here without a wedding garment?’ And he was speechless. 13 Then the king said to the servants, ‘Bind him hand and foot, take him away, and[a] cast him into outer darkness; there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’
The wicked vinedressers:
quote:
Matthew 21:40 “Therefore, when the owner of the vineyard comes, what will he do to those vinedressers?”
41 They said to Him, “He will destroy those wicked men miserably, and lease his vineyard to other vinedressers who will render to him the fruits in their seasons.”
42 Jesus said to them, ...44 And whoever falls on this stone will be broken; but on whomever it falls, it will grind him to powder.”
The unforgiving servant:
quote:
Matthew 18:34 And his master was angry, and delivered him to the torturers until he should pay all that was due to him.
35 “So My heavenly Father also will do to you if each of you, from his heart, does not forgive his brother his trespasses.”
The point is that these little stories, appearing mostly in Matthew, don't seem to reflect a completely loving and gentle mindset.
So is Jesus contradicting His "love your enemies" teachings? That's not the way I read it, but what do I know?
[ 23. September 2009, 21:53: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
The point is that these little stories, appearing mostly in Matthew, don't seem to reflect a completely loving and gentle mindset.
So is Jesus contradicting His "love your enemies" teachings? That's not the way I read it, but what do I know?
And what about the things he did - like all that violence in the temple and cursing the fig-tree? (Symbolic of the destruction of the temple which included a lot of killing of innocent people when it happened.)
I'm not saying that we read the gospels entirely in the light of these incidents either, just that there is no secret code planted in the gospels that tells us which bits to accept and which to reject the way you seem to be reading them.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I'm not saying that we read the gospels entirely in the light of these incidents either, just that there is no secret code planted in the gospels that tells us which bits to accept and which to reject the way you seem to be reading them.
I think that there is, and that it isn't especially hard to see it.
Jesus neither rejects all forms of violence nor embraces them. Each of His statements need to be seen in the context of the rest - just as with any communication. It may be a little challenging to see why He cursed the fig tree, or said the things above in parables, all the while preaching forgiveness.
It is similarly hard to see why Jehovah is described as demanding genocide. But it isn't that hard.
Throughout the course of Christian and Jewish history few have even commented on these things until relatively recently. I have seldom noticed the average church-goer even wondering about these issues - not that they would have coherent answers if challenged. But I think that most people pretty easily accept all kinds of variations of the "good conquers evil" formula.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
... there is no secret code planted in the gospels that tells us which bits to accept and which to reject the way you seem to be reading them.
The thing is, we accept these passages as divine revelation from and by God, which can't accurately be described as rejecting them.
There are apparent inconsistencies in the Gospels and in the Bible in general that we all have to deal with one way or another. How we approach them has a lot to do with what we believe about their authorship, which is as much a starting point as it a conclusion (if not more). If I believe that they were written by God through human agents, that will lead me to look for a very different kind of resolution than if I don't see God as the real author.
The way you make a categorical assertion that there is no symbolic meaning of the kind we see leads me to guess that you don't see God as the real author, at least not in the same way we do. Is this the case? From your posts, you seem like someone who has given this a lot of careful thought: how do you see the authorship of these passages? How do you approach an apparent inconsistency like Jesus' teaching about loving our enemies and his parables about violent treatment of them?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Throughout the course of Christian and Jewish history few have even commented on these things until relatively recently.
Exactly. The Bible has become a mirror in which we view our own cultural mores. That is the end result of POMO.
I agree that there is a trajectory throughout the bible (some form of progressive revelation) but it cannot be stored in some secret code - it must be equally accessible to every generation who reads it.
[ 25. September 2009, 03:09: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
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quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
If I believe that they were written by God through human agents, that will lead me to look for a very different kind of resolution than if I don't see God as the real author.
I believe this too, but therefore it must rule out any kind of hidden code put there by God - that denies the human authorship. The text must make sense to the culture in which it was first written.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
The way you make a categorical assertion that there is no symbolic meaning of the kind we see leads me to guess that you don't see God as the real author, at least not in the same way we do. Is this the case? From your posts, you seem like someone who has given this a lot of careful thought: how do you see the authorship of these passages? How do you approach an apparent inconsistency like Jesus' teaching about loving our enemies and his parables about violent treatment of them?
Traditionally (although obviously with some range of views) Christians have viewed scripture as having, in some sense, two authors - inspired by God but written entirely consciously by human authors. As I said above, this means that God does not encode things in the bible. There will be 'seeds' - ideas that are only partially grasped but later fully realised - but there will be nothing that is entirely new, a complete and total contradiction of what went before. Hence Jesus' words about fufilling rather than abolishing the OT.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
I agree that there is a trajectory throughout the bible (some form of progressive revelation) but it cannot be stored in some secret code - it must be equally accessible to every generation who reads it.
Why impose that requirement? The Bible is written in a way that is more accessible to some than others, and to some generations than others. The wise see wisdom in it, the foolish see only foolishness. The Psalmist says:
quote:
Psal, 18:25 With the merciful You will show Yourself merciful;
With a blameless man You will show Yourself blameless;
26 With the pure You will show Yourself pure;
And with the devious You will show Yourself shrewd.
27 For You will save the humble people,
But will bring down haughty looks.
The Bible gives us what we bring to it.
I don't think the "code" is anything that complicated. Words and phrases are used in certain ways in the Bible in repeating patterns and contexts. An intelligent person who becomes very familiar with the Bible as a whole will intuitively recognize most of it without even realizing it.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Why impose that requirement? The Bible is written in a way that is more accessible to some than others, and to some generations than others. The wise see wisdom in it, the foolish see only foolishness.
Yes, but that discrimination is based only on an attitude of heart. some form of 'secret code' means that intelligence is necessary to crack the code.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
An intelligent person who becomes very familiar with the Bible as a whole will intuitively recognize most of it without even realizing it.
But God is impartial. Personally I don't see any difference in your sentence above to saying, "Any white person who becomes familiar with the bible ..."
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
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quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
... this means that God does not encode things in the bible.
Your post seemed reasonable when I read it, but the more I thought about it, the more I realized that I really don't understand. If you have the patience to respond to some more questions, I'm hoping you can explain (and I mean that sincerely). I know this discussion has dragged on to the point where hardly anyone cares to read it, but I think we pretty much have this board to ourselves now and I think the subject is important enough to warrant pursuing it further (if you care to).
You say (or imply) that you believe that scripture is inspired by God. I don't understand what this would mean if there is nothing more to the text than what author was aware of. I imagine you have done plenty of preaching - haven't you had people draw valid insights from your sermons that you did not have in mind when you wrote them? If a brilliant playwright wrote an inspired, serious drama, couldn't the audience draw insights from it that go well beyond what the playwright was consciously thinking of while writing it? Isn't that why we call such a play inspired?
I understand that the biblical text must have made sense its contemporary readers (in general), but if it was inspired by God, then why is it impossible that the texts hold more of a message than the authors were aware of?
Perhaps we mean something very different by God's inspiration. Do you see scripture as being in a unique category, above and beyond works of "normal" human inspiration? If not, then I think that would explain our differences. But if so (and your point about revelation not contradicting itself makes me think we mean something at least somewhat similar), then what does God's inspiration mean if it doesn't mean there's something more to the text beyond what the author consciously put into it?
As for your objection about the message requiring intelligence, wouldn't divinely inspired text contain enough for everyone to keep learning from, no matter how intelligent they are and no matter how much they study it? There are already parts of the Bible that are nearly impossible for readers to make any sense of unless they are very intelligent, capable, and able to devote a lot of effort to the task. Or unless they depend on the efforts of such scholars. This is especially true of things like the visions of Daniel and other prophecies. Wouldn't such texts contain more than the author was aware of? Some texts are easy enough for just about everyone to understand, such as "You shall not murder." But doesn't even that reveal more to the intelligent scholar than to the average reader or to the simple-minded? How about Isaiah? Doesn't that take more intelligence to understand? God may be impartial, but that does not mean the Bible is uniformly meaningful to everyone.
You may be referring to the non-prophetical parts of scripture, but as you point out, Jesus is the fulfillment of all scripture. Doesn't that make all of the Old Testament a prophecy of a sort, one that was not completely understood by its authors? Luke 24:27 says "And beginning from Moses, and from all the prophets, He explained to them the things about Himself in all the Scriptures." Was he not explaining things that the original authors did not have in mind? Or are you saying that there is nothing beyond the author's original thoughts, except for the final fulfillment in Jesus (which I can understand since Jesus brought new revelation)?
I can see why you would believe that a story like 1 Samuel 15 does not contain more than meets the eye. But I can't see why you believe that it's impossible for it to do so. Could the author not have had in mind a literal illustration of God's intolerance of evil, and with God's inspiration then worded it in such a way that it also contains deeper illustrations of the same principle? Not by what you refer to as a "secret code," but by the imagery of the literal story itself?
Also, since you object so strenuously to the apparent contradiction you see between the text of God's command to destroy the Amalekites in verse 3 and the symbolic meaning that I'm suggesting can be also be seen, I'd be interested to know how you reconcile the text with other passages about how merciful and loving God is, and with the New Testament message about loving your enemies.
I hesitate to hit that "Add reply" button, but I am very interested in understanding your views, and I know I don't quite get it yet.
[ 26. September 2009, 05:23: Message edited by: wehyatt ]
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
Your post seemed reasonable when I read it, but the more I thought about it, the more I realized that I really don't understand.
That's because you haven't got the code.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
You say (or imply) that you believe that scripture is inspired by God. I don't understand what this would mean if there is nothing more to the text than what author was aware of.
I didn't say that. I said earlier that there may well be a sensus plenior to scripture. What I said was that any 'deeper' meaning cannot contradict the author's intent.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
I imagine you have done plenty of preaching - haven't you had people draw valid insights from your sermons that you did not have in mind when you wrote them?
All the time. Often better than my insights!
Not contradictory though.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
I understand that the biblical text must have made sense its contemporary readers (in general), but if it was inspired by God, then why is it impossible that the texts hold more of a message than the authors were aware of?
This is where the notion of 'secret code' comes in. I'm quite happy with texts holding more of a message than the human author was consciously aware of. However, a code is different. The only connection between the deciphered message and the original message is the letters used. However, I am arguing that (for it to be divine revelation with genuine human authorship) there must also be a connection with meaning too.
e.g.
If the text of 1 Samuel said, "God ordered David his assistant to exterminate states - killing in lines, liquidating in groups."
And then I pointed out that the first letter of every word spells out ... God hates killing .... then I could argue that the secret code undermines the original authorial intent.
However, we have no evidence at all of the early Christians reading the OT like that. There are some pretty strange uses, I agree, but I don't see anyone using the OT to say the direct opposite of what the original author meant.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
As for your objection about the message requiring intelligence, wouldn't divinely inspired text contain enough for everyone to keep learning from, no matter how intelligent they are and no matter how much they study it? There are already parts of the Bible that are nearly impossible for readers to make any sense of unless they are very intelligent, capable, and able to devote a lot of effort to the task. Or unless they depend on the efforts of such scholars.
Absolutely - but this also demonstrates why the notion of secret codes must be ruled out. Of course a learned theology professor goes far deeper into the text than a 5 year old child, but my point is that the message they both gain should not be mutually incompatible.
So when my children read that, "God so loved the world" they marvel at the width of God's love that he should love the whole world. I, on the other hand, knowing some Greek and some background knowledge know that 'kosmos' in John's gospel is not so much about the size of the world but how it is set against Jesus and God the Father. So I see that the emphasis is more on the marvel that God should love the whole world when it is so bad rather than because it is so big! Now, does that mean that my children do not understand God's love? Not at all. Their deduction is a good one, just there is more there.
So I'm not saying that everyone will get the same out of the bible, just that there should be a connection between different readings.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
Could the author not have had in mind a literal illustration of God's intolerance of evil, and with God's inspiration then worded it in such a way that it also contains deeper illustrations of the same principle? Not by what you refer to as a "secret code," but by the imagery of the literal story itself?
Ummh, possibly - although that would only make sense if the literal illustration was just that ... i.e. that God did order this genocide.
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
Also, since you object so strenuously to the apparent contradiction you see between the text of God's command to destroy the Amalekites in verse 3 and the symbolic meaning that I'm suggesting can be also be seen, I'd be interested to know how you reconcile the text with other passages about how merciful and loving God is, and with the New Testament message about loving your enemies.
The short answer is that I can't reconicle them, not fully. I mean that. This passage genuinely troubles me and I have no neat answers. While it is impossible to live with wholescale logical contradictions everywhere, I have learnt to live with some dissonance. I try to let the voices of scripture speak for themselves and not be too quick to neatly harmonise them - while I do still hold onto their being ultimately one voice to scripture, namely God's voice.
The longer answer involves stuff mentioned on this thread already. The Amalekites had been given hundreds of years to repent and God was using the Israelites to judge them. I don't like that but that is what the text says. I don't see any support for genocide here though - God uses nations as instruments of judgment and holds them accountable for their actions at the same time ... Assyria in Isaiah 10 is a prime example of that.
Also I hold to a PSA framework and so I am able to see God acting both in judgment and love at the cross ... hence it is logically possible for 1 Samuel 15 to be true and for God to be merciful and loving towards those who repent, and also patient towards everyone.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Why impose that requirement? The Bible is written in a way that is more accessible to some than others, and to some generations than others. The wise see wisdom in it, the foolish see only foolishness.
Yes, but that discrimination is based only on an attitude of heart. some form of 'secret code' means that intelligence is necessary to crack the code.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
An intelligent person who becomes very familiar with the Bible as a whole will intuitively recognize most of it without even realizing it.
But God is impartial. Personally I don't see any difference in your sentence above to saying, "Any white person who becomes familiar with the bible ..."
By "intelligent" I do primarily mean an attitude of heart. As we read in Luke:
quote:
Luke 10:21 In that hour Jesus rejoiced in the Spirit and said, “I thank You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that You have hidden these things from the wise and prudent and revealed them to babes.
By "babes" Jesus meant the ordinary, the simple, the trusting, the open.
He in fact specifically criticized the so-called intelligence of the religious authorities:
quote:
John 9:41 Jesus said to them, “If you were blind, you would have no sin; but now you say, ‘We see.’ Therefore your sin remains.
Matthew 23:24 Blind guides, who strain out a gnat and swallow a camel!
Matthew 16:3 Hypocrites! You know how to discern the face of the sky, but you cannot discern the signs of the times.
In other words, these people didn't get it, even though they were the learned authorities.
So by "intelligent" I don't mean scholarly but perceptive - someone who "gets it".
If you get it you will see that God is a God of love, that He is infinitely fair and merciful, and that descriptions of any apparent lack of mercy in the Bible cannot be taken at face value.
Not that there is a "secret code" so much as that there is a point of view and a systematic use of imagery to convey meaning adapted both to the wise and to the simple.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
If you get it you will see that God is a God of love, that He is infinitely fair and merciful, and that descriptions of any apparent lack of mercy in the Bible cannot be taken at face value.
So close, and yet so far.
I was right with you up to this last statement.
It's not that I disagree with your description of God as a God love or of his great mercy.
Rather it is the massive leap you make from saying all that stuff and then going straight to the definitive statement of revelation that relatives all others ... and you do it without passing go and without collecting £200.
Where does Jesus say (or indeed anywhere in scripture) that the statement you make about God relativises all other statements?
[ 26. September 2009, 12:34: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Where does Jesus say (or indeed anywhere in scripture) that the statement you make about God relativises all other statements?
The way that you understand God does indeed relativise all statements. Everything hinges on Him.
John points this out when he says:
quote:
1 John 4:8 He who does not love does not know God, for God is love.
That is, if you don't understand that God is love, you miss the point of Scriptural statements such as I Samuel 15:3. And if you don't love you won't understand that God is love, or what that even means.
Jesus frequently points to the people's misunderstanding of Scripture along these same lines. Hosea said:
quote:
Hosea 6:6 For I desire mercy and not sacrifice, And the knowledge of God more than burnt offerings.
Jesus rues the people's lack of understanding of Hosea's words:
quote:
Matthew 12:7 But if you had known what this means, ‘I desire mercy and not sacrifice,’ you would not have condemned the guiltless.
If they had understood the relative importance of this statement, and how it fits with the many statements that seem to support and even demand sacrifices, they would not have been in the sorry condition they were in.
Again, this goes back to what the Psalmist said about our understanding of God:
quote:
Psalm 18:25 With the merciful You will show Yourself merciful;
With a blameless man You will show Yourself blameless;
26 With the pure You will show Yourself pure;
And with the devious You will show Yourself shrewd.
Your view of God really depends on you.
The many statements that Scripture makes cannot be reconciled when taken at face value. So either you nullify them by denying their source in God, or you interpret them according to assumptions you make about the meaning of Scripture.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
The way that you understand God does indeed relativise all statements. Everything hinges on Him.
John points this out when he says:
quote:
1 John 4:8 He who does not love does not know God, for God is love.
That is, if you don't understand that God is love, you miss the point of Scriptural statements such as I Samuel 15:3. And if you don't love you won't understand that God is love, or what that even means.
Er, Freddy, in the very same letter John says:
quote:
This is the message we have heard from him and declare to you: God is light; in him there is no darkness at all.
1 John 1 verse 5
So already you have 'God is light' to put alongside 'God is love'. There is no one simple factor that defines everything else in scripture. Or at least, as you say, God is that one thing, but there is no one defining characteristic for God. There are several that we have to hold together - e.g. God is love, God is light, God is holy (1 Peter 1) ... just for starters.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Your view of God really depends on you.
The many statements that Scripture makes cannot be reconciled when taken at face value. So either you nullify them by denying their source in God, or you interpret them according to assumptions you make about the meaning of Scripture.
So there is no such thing as revelation. You are saying that scripture is just a mirror where we see God's image as our reflection?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
So already you have 'God is light' to put alongside 'God is love'. There is no one simple factor that defines everything else in scripture. Or at least, as you say, God is that one thing, but there is no one defining characteristic for God.
That's right. The point is that God's qualities are not mutually exclusive. They come together to form a single whole. So it's possible to have a more complete or a less complete concept of God.
A more complete concept involves understanding that God does not order genocide even though His Divine Word says that He did.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Your view of God really depends on you.
So there is no such thing as revelation. You are saying that scripture is just a mirror where we see God's image as our reflection?
Revelation is more complex than simply words on a page. God actually interacts with each person individually as we interact with the written Word of God.
There is certainly revelation, and we can legitimately point to the consistent teachings of Scripture as revelation from God. But the message that we grasp and the lessons that we draw from it depend on our own interaction with it - our personal and private interaction with God.
This is why Jesus explained His reasons for speaking in parables the way that He did. He said:
quote:
I speak to them in parables, because seeing they do not see, and hearing they do not hear, nor do they understand. 14 And in them the prophecy of Isaiah is fulfilled, which says:
‘ Hearing you will hear and shall not understand,
And seeing you will see and not perceive;
15 For the hearts of this people have grown dull.
Their ears are hard of hearing,
And their eyes they have closed,
Lest they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears,
Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn,
So that I should heal them.’
16 But blessed are your eyes for they see, and your ears for they hear; 17 for assuredly, I say to you that many prophets and righteous men desired to see what you see, and did not see it, and to hear what you hear, and did not hear it.
It sounds like Jesus doesn't want to heal them for some reason. But I think the meaning is that they don't want to be healed. The point is that understanding, hearing and sight depend on our own willingness to receive.
So, yes, revelation is like a mirror where we see what we bring to it. But it is a very complex sort of mirror. It takes into account that apart from God we are nothing, and it enables us to see what we otherwise would never know.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
A more complete concept involves understanding that God does not order genocide even though His Divine Word says that He did.
Freddy we are just going round in circles here - we hit this earlier on the thread.
Who says a more complete concept involves this?You obviously don't get it from scripture because you've failed to demonstrate why it must be so from scripture.
You clearly have objective criteria that you appeal to above scripture - where do they come from?
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Who says a more complete concept involves this? You obviously don't get it from scripture because you've failed to demonstrate why it must be so from scripture.
Yes I have demonstrated why it must be so from Scripture. It is clearly implied by the quote from Psalm 18:
quote:
Psalm 18:25 With the merciful You will show Yourself merciful;
With a blameless man You will show Yourself blameless;
26 With the pure You will show Yourself pure;
And with the devious You will show Yourself shrewd.
A complete concept of God, if there is such a thing, would see God as He really is.
He's not genocidal.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
You clearly have objective criteria that you appeal to above scripture - where do they come from?
My Swedenborgian faith certainly contributes to this, as does your Baptist faith for you.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Yes I have demonstrated why it must be so from Scripture. It is clearly implied by the quote from Psalm 18:
Sigh.
No you haven't. You've just given yet another proof text of what God is like. You've admitted that some hold in tension with one another. You have not justified why some should trump the others.
I'm not arguing that God is genocidal. I'm just saying that none of your reasons for saying so actually come from the bible.
Of course we are all influenced by our backgrounds and our traditions. But if the reason you think God is not genocidal is just because Swedenborg said so then admit to that.
Posted by wehyatt (# 14250) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
The only connection between the deciphered message and the original message is the letters used. However, I am arguing that (for it to be divine revelation with genuine human authorship) there must also be a connection with meaning too.
Your objections seem to boil down to two related issues: that any deeper meaning must be connected to the literal meaning and that therefore the deeper meaning cannot contradict the literal meaning. If someone were to suggest to me that God encrypted a secret message inside the literal text so that the text had nothing to do with the secret message and that one needs the secret key, then I would have a similar reaction. I would see no value in such a view for helping me understand either the text or God.
However, our view of God's inspiration for divine revelation is pretty much the opposite. I would say that not only does the text need to make sense to the culture in which it was first written, the culture itself actually determines the literal text because it is a cultural expression of the deeper meaning.
Our view is based on seeing the effect of God's inspiration in revelation as being similar to what happens commonly when two people communicate. If one person is trying to present an idea that is unfamiliar to the listener and that is difficult for the listener to understand, then the listener very naturally translates the concepts into terms he or she already understands. This happens, for instance, when a parent tries to express to their young child how much they love them and the child responds with something like "you mean you love me more than ice cream?"
With any concept that God wants to give to us in revelation, the effect is similar. It's not that God is encoding the concept as a secret message, it's that the human recipients translate it into terms they understand. When God was giving the Ten Commandments to the Israelites, the idea of them being something holy and from God was translated into the cultural terms of being written on a mountain because a mountain was up high and inaccessible. It might have actually happened that way, or it might not have. Either way, we see the story as divine revelation because it is a universal divine message (for all people and all time) illustrated symbolically by a story that expresses that message in a cultural context.
And when God inspired the author of 1 Samuel 15 about the idea of entirely rejecting evil, it was translated into a divine command to destroy the Amalekites. But it was not God doing the translating, it was the author receiving the inspiration. The reason we still consider it divine revelation is that we believe God inspired the author to write it in a way so as to preserve the deeper meaning in the story's symbolism.
Today, we can argue about whether 1 Samuel 15 contradicts the idea of a loving God who could never endorse genocide, but at that time, I don't think that the Israelites would have had the slightest question that it was in full agreement with what God desired. To them "God wants us to fight against evil" meant "God wants us to kill the Amalekites" so that's how they translated it. A revelation of the same message from God to a different culture would have been translated by that culture into a different form, and if that culture was better able to understand the message it would not have taken the form of a divine command for genocide.
So our comfortableness with the apparent contradiction between 1 Samuel 15:3 and our view of God is not because we see an arbitrary symbolic message that is unconnected to the literal message. It's because we see it as a divine message within a story that made perfect sense as an adaptation of that message for and by the people of the time.
I know I won't persuade you to agree, but I do hope you can see that we're not talking about arbitrary symbolism and that calling it a code the way you mean is inaccurate.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by wehyatt:
This happens, for instance, when a parent tries to express to their young child how much they love them and the child responds with something like "you mean you love me more than ice cream?"
No.
We've been here before on this thread.
The analogy of progression is good, but you cannot get from "God says go and kill all those people" to "God does not say go and kill all those people" using this as an analogy. This is a means justifies the end argument. If genocide is wrong (objectively) then I can't see how God would ever command it.
Unless of course your view is that God didn't really say that to them, they only thought he did. But then you have the same problem as Freddy - namely that you could not be certain that the writers heard correctly when they wrote that God is love.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
you cannot get from "God says go and kill all those people" to "God does not say go and kill all those people" using this as an analogy. This is a means justifies the end argument. If genocide is wrong (objectively) then I can't see how God would ever command it.
That's right. God never commands things that are objectively wrong. I'm sure of that.
Did He command the extermination of the Amalekites? He couldn't have.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Unless of course your view is that God didn't really say that to them, they only thought he did. But then you have the same problem as Freddy - namely that you could not be certain that the writers heard correctly when they wrote that God is love.
Why is that a problem? If God doesn't command genocide then there are any number of explanations as to why this incident would have been reported the way that it was. They are so obvious that few have ever questioned this biblical account until recently.
The fact that this particular incident is not strictly accurate does not then throw everything in the Bible up for question. If you think that the only alternative views are either 1) the literal accuracy of every statement or 2) doubt about every statement, then you have a tough row to hoe.
[ 28. September 2009, 09:50: Message edited by: Freddy ]
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Of course we are all influenced by our backgrounds and our traditions. But if the reason you think God is not genocidal is just because Swedenborg said so then admit to that.
You don't have to be a Swedenborgian to think that God is love.
The premise of this thread is that it is repugnant to think that God ordered Israel to kill "both man and woman, child and infant." Don't you think that this is a pretty common Christian view?
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
Sorry guys, I think we've come to the end of the road with this one. We're just going round in circles and I keep recognising the scenery.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Did He command the extermination of the Amalekites? He couldn't have.
For the umpteenth time you are just asserting that. He couldn't have because it doesn't fit with the bits of scripture you like. What criteria do you have for choosing your bits? ... you don't say.
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
You don't have to be a Swedenborgian to think that God is love.
The premise of this thread is that it is repugnant to think that God ordered Israel to kill "both man and woman, child and infant." Don't you think that this is a pretty common Christian view?
Of course it is a common view.
However, this thread is not discussing stuff that Christians tend to think. It is specifically addressing a troublesome verse in the bible. Christians hold many different views on many different issues. So what? I find it repugnant too. And?
None of this changes one iota the fact that you still haven't come up with a biblical reason why you accept some parts of the bible and not others. How do you know that the 'God is love' passages are not the ones that are wrong?
Now many people do not need a biblical reason to reject 1 Samuel 15. They are quite happy to admit that they place the bible under human reason and morality. (Tradition is a bit problematic since, according to you, this passage has only fairly recently become so problematic.)
So I'm not expecting you to accept my evangelical presuppositions. All I'm saying is that this verse is only problematic to those who try to reconcile all of scripture together. It is easy to come to terms with for those who can just dump the bits they are uncomfortable with.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
Sorry guys, I think we've come to the end of the road with this one. We're just going round in circles and I keep recognising the scenery.
Don't say that. I think we're making great progress.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Did He command the extermination of the Amalekites? He couldn't have.
For the umpteenth time you are just asserting that. He couldn't have because it doesn't fit with the bits of scripture you like. What criteria do you have for choosing your bits? ... you don't say.
I go with the Bible as a whole. My criteria are many passages like the ones I have quoted.
Again, God couldn't have ordered genocide because the just, loving and merciful God that the Bible teaches about wouldn't do such a thing.
The difficulty comes because in the ancient mind the victory over evil and its destruction overlapped with things that we would call needless cruelty and even genocide.
It's not as if we have a biblical story in which someone catches God out behind the shed furtively committing genocide while He thought no one was watching.
Instead the stories present His actions as supremely honorable and just - causing us to scramble to work out how they are just and honorable according to the larger biblical concepts of these things.
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
None of this changes one iota the fact that you still haven't come up with a biblical reason why you accept some parts of the bible and not others. How do you know that the 'God is love' passages are not the ones that are wrong?
Yes I have come up with a good biblical reason for intepreting some parts of the Bible in the light of other biblical teachings. This reason is the testimony of Scripture as found in many many passages, which form a complete picture of the message - as opposed to a few references that seem to throw a wrench into our neat little system of beliefs.
I know that the "God is love" passages are not the ones that are wrong because they are consistent with the nature of God as presented in many many passages.
I equally know that God doesn't commit genocide, that He doesn't really ask us to cut off our hands or poke out our eyes, that He doesn't endorse revenge, or for that matter ask for burnt offerings.
I know this because the passages that seem to say those things are easily seen to be inconsistent with the larger message, and also because simple interpretations of those passages are easily seen to be consistent with them.
It's not really that hard. In the Bible people frequently face enormous consequences for things that seem either trivial or not their fault at all. It's a clear pattern, and the explanation just isn't that difficult.
Posted by Johnny S (# 12581) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
I know that the "God is love" passages are not the ones that are wrong because they are consistent with the nature of God as presented in many many passages.
Okay, I give up.
If you can't see that you are using a circular argument then there is no point proceeding.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Johnny S:
If you can't see that you are using a circular argument then there is no point proceeding.
I don't think that it is all that circular.
I'm just interpreting minority passages, or anomalous passages, in the light of majority passages.
This is not the same as dismissing or discounting them.
I am not saying that the writer of I Samuel was not inspired by God or that what he writes is simply wrong. Instead I am saying that these passages can be taken in a number of different ways, and it is possible to take them in ways that are consistent with the majority.
So while it is certainly more literally accurate to take I Samuel 15:3 as a description of an order to commit genocide, it is also possible to take it as a reasonable command to completely destroy the hated enemy. Which is surely the way the writer viewed it - as have most readers since that time.
And we can just as surely know that the writer had a skewed view of reality. But that doesn't matter for us, because the message for us is mostly that good overcomes evil, as the Bible testifies on almost every page.
The point is that every passage in the Bible must be reconciled with every other, that this is possible without dismissing any passages, and the message is always that God is good, that love is the answer, that good triumphs over evil, and that in the end peace will reign.
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on
:
Freddy: quote:
So while it is certainly more literally accurate to take I Samuel 15:3 as a description of an order to commit genocide, it is also possible to take it as a reasonable command to completely destroy the hated enemy.
Which is still genocide with a more positive spin.
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on
:
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
Which is still genocide with a more positive spin.
Yep. The subjective point of view of the participants is an important aspect of the biblical narrative.
Posted by BWSmith (# 2981) on
:
All the passages about Israel killing other peoples are balanced out with the horrible destruction of Israel itself in the exile.
The overall message of the OT is that the killer ends up being killed and is only restored through the power of God.
Hence, Jesus' words to Peter - whoever lives by the sword dies by the sword.
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