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Source: (consider it) Thread: Kerygmania: Romans 6 and Baptism
Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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quote:
Originally posted by m.t-tomb:
However, it does occur to me that if baptism really is the NT equivalent of circumcision (a rite that the NT overtly and unashamed does spiritualise) then is is possible that Christian baptism might also be understood in similarly figurative (anti-typological) terms.

Yes, and that is certainly what Calvin believed. But here I part company with the great man. It's another of those ingenious reconstructions that I can't actually see is there in Scripture.

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daronmedway
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Posted by Gordon Cheng:
quote:
"Commitment to ongoing discipleship" is the Christian life, but again, is this a water baptism thing? I understand how it might be used in that way in our prayer books, but I don't see the same emphasis in Scripture.
How about Matthew 27.19-20?
quote:
...go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you.
Make disciples, baptise disciples, teach disciples. Are you really saying that Christ's command to make disciples, baptise those disciples, and teach those disciples are three separate and categorically unrelated tasks?

[ 26. April 2006, 22:18: Message edited by: m.t-tomb ]

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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No, that's fair enough Numps, but I just don't think that Mt 28 is about water baptism. It's about making disciples (that's the main verb in the Greek), explained then as including them into the name of the F,S, and HS (ie they become Christians) and then continuing to teach them.

It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

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daronmedway
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So you do in fact agree that there is a commitment to ongoing discipleship implicit within Christ's understanding of baptism and that entry into the New Covenant is also presented by Jesus in terms of immersion into his death and resurrection? ISTM, that you are saying that the Christian life is a baptised life. A life 'immersed' in God through Christ by the power of the Holy Spirit. This much we do agree upon.

But to assert that Jesus wouldn't have instituted a parabolic (or even kerygmatic) act to ratifiy such an immersion is also to go beyond scripture. In fact it flies in the face of Christ's ordaining the Lord's Supper as a kergymatic (Luther said it was preaching!) and parabolic act that proclaims the soteriological centrality of the cross.

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Josephine

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
[b]Josephine[b], I certainly meant no deliberate misrepresentation, but I apologize for my misrepresentation. It was unintentional.

Thank you, Gordon.

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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Ah well, I have a few questions about the supper of the Lord as well, but that is another thread.

I supposed Jesus could of if he wanted to, but I don't think Mt 28 is where he does.

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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quote:
Originally posted by m.t-tomb:

But to assert that Jesus wouldn't have instituted a parabolic (or even kerygmatic) act to ratifiy such an immersion is also to go beyond scripture. In fact it flies in the face of Christ's ordaining the Lord's Supper as a kergymatic (Luther said it was preaching!) and parabolic act that proclaims the soteriological centrality of the cross.

Something odd happened—I posted and Josephine's post appeared, with my name on the Boards Home page!

Try again: Jesus could certainly have done this, whether he did is what I am questioning. I can't really see why he would need to, and as I said it seems weird to institute water baptism as his final act. Still, Jesus can do weird if he wants to, it comes with being Lord of all creation. I'm just not convinced he did.

Did Jesus ordain a supper as kerygmatic? That's another thread I guess.

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John Holding

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by m.t-tomb:
[qb]
Jesus could certainly have done this, whether he did is what I am questioning. I can't really see why he would need to, and as I said it seems weird to institute water baptism as his final act. Still, Jesus can do weird if he wants to, it comes with being Lord of all creation. I'm just not convinced he did.


And here, I think, is where some of us find your thought processes hard to follow.

You can't see why Jesus would need to -- on what basis? You know more about it than he did, or than the people to whom he spoke and with whom he acted, and who were actually there?

It seems weird (to you) that he would institute water baptism -- but why? On this thread at least you've started from the basis that he couldn't have meant water basis, not concluded that. Lots of things seem weird to me -- but many of them are real and true and happened. Your own judgement that because something is weird to you, it probably didn't happen, is more realiable than anyone else's because?


You're not convinced he did institute water baptism -- but you have given no reason except your own feelings.

Obviously it is perfectly respectable to question things -- but it normally is considered reasonable to have reasons for your questions.

You are essentially saying, so it seems to me, that based only on reason and external logic, not based on anything actually in scripture but rather based on what is not in scripture, your private opinion trumps all the theologians of the past, including apostles and others who actually knew Jesus and told others what he had said and done. You are arguing from silence, saying that we must assume Jesus did nothing and said nothing except what was recorded in scripture. That seems a mighty stark and barren basis on which to erect a revolutionary re-interpretation of scripture. And puts a lot of weight on the infallibility of your personal logic and the scope of your own mind.

John

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Grits
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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

Why would you find that any more bizarre than a ritualized food ceremony, aka Communion? That's what He had to leave us -- His words, His actions, the memorials to remember them by. What better way to be totally reminded of His death, burial and resurrection than to go through it ourselves?

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:
It seems weird (to you) that he would institute water baptism -- but why? On this thread at least you've started from the basis that he couldn't have meant water basis, not concluded that. Lots of things seem weird to me -- but many of them are real and true and happened. Your own judgement that because something is weird to you, it probably didn't happen, is more realiable than anyone else's because?


You're not convinced he did institute water baptism -- but you have given no reason except your own feelings.

At least not in that post. I've argued my actual reasons further back in this thread. Look, honestly, as I said, Jesus can do whatever weird thing he wants to. If he chose to turn the moon over Sydney a nice shade of green as a personal conduit of grace for anyone who looked at it whilst wearing dark glasses, I would accept that without question, if there was a word of scripture to back it up.

But my actual reasons for thinking that Mt 28 isn't about water is something I've touched on briefly here when I said

quote:
originally posted by me:
However. Is it true that baptism always involves water? If you were a follower of John the Baptist, this was clearly so, as he only ever did one sort of baptism. That Jesus and his followers knew of this is indisputable, since Jesus (at least) experienced this water baptism.

However again. John the Baptist clearly expected that the nature of Jesus' baptism would not involve water. So in Mt 3:11-12 John insists


quote:

originally posted by John the Baptist:
11 “I baptize you with water for repentance, but he who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire. 12 His winnowing fork is in his hand, and he will clear his threshing floor and gather his wheat into the barn, but the chaff he will burn with unquenchable fire.”

Given the expectation set up by this passage, together with the complete absence of any baptizing activity by Jesus himself (John 4:2), it is not unreasonable to tread cautiously before we ascribe large quantities of H2O to the activity of baptism. Whether or not water was used after John, Jesus' own attitude to baptism seems to indicate that it was symbolic or metaphorical. He called on his disciples not to baptize, or to baptize with water, but to baptize into (Gk eis the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (Mt 28:19).

We can expand on this discussion if you like, but I didn't say more at the time because of our Romans 6 focus.

So I certainly wouldn't reject a word of God in scripture just because it felt weird, and you would be quite right to pick me up on it if I did.

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

Why would you find that any more bizarre than a ritualized food ceremony, aka Communion? That's what He had to leave us -- His words, His actions, the memorials to remember them by. What better way to be totally reminded of His death, burial and resurrection than to go through it ourselves?
The bizarreness of it doesn't bother me in the least, really. As I just explained to John.

However I don't really think what we call "Communion" is an idea found in Scripture either, so I'm not sure the analogy works particularly well for me in any case.

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mousethief

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And up to this point, I thought Gordon was using the same New Testament that I am. Just goes to show.

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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Uh oh. I knew I was asking for trouble when I said that.

"Move to strike, your Honour"

"Upheld. The jury will disregard any testimony relating to Mr. Cheng's views on the Supper of the Lord".

Please? [Big Grin]

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Grits
Compassionate fundamentalist
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I guess I just don't think it's bizarre. I think it's very representative of the way Jesus taught. He was a very illustrative teacher, and I think He viewed His parables, sermons and actions all as "visual aids" of a sort. I think the institution of a "ritual" (as you call it) of baptism in water is totally Jesus. And totally scriptural.

However, I don't believe Romans 6 is really all about baptism, and I would not use it as my text if I were teaching someone about baptism. I think it is more about being united in Christ by putting off the old man of sin. Baptism is just one part of that.

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Psyduck

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Gordon Cheng:
quote:
However I don't really think what we call "Communion" is an idea found in Scripture either,
How about:
quote:
I Cor. 10 :16 The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not a participation in the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not a participation in the body of Christ?
The AV even renders κοινονια as "communion" - the Vulg. has "communicatio". But I'd say that the "idea" of communion - and therefore of "Communion" - is there in "participation". And in a way which also, because it discloses Paul's attitude to the ordinances, rather militates against your view of baptism as well. But in case I'm doing you a disservice, what is your understanding of the deployment of bread and wine in the early church - and for that matter, of the "Communion" which isn't found in the NT? I'm asking because, again, I think there is likely to be a parallel between your understanding of that and baptism, and I suspect that you'd agree.

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daronmedway
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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
quote:
Originally posted by m.t-tomb:

But to assert that Jesus wouldn't have instituted a parabolic (or even kerygmatic) act to ratifiy such an immersion is also to go beyond scripture. In fact it flies in the face of Christ's ordaining the Lord's Supper as a kergymatic (Luther said it was preaching!) and parabolic act that proclaims the soteriological centrality of the cross.

Try again: Jesus could certainly have done this, whether he did is what I am questioning. I can't really see why he would need to, and as I said it seems weird to institute water baptism as his final act. Still, Jesus can do weird if he wants to, it comes with being Lord of all creation. I'm just not convinced he did.
Jesus' final command was to institute evangelism - the making of disciples; a miracle that (according to your view) may or may not have been ratified by water baptism. If baptism really was a sovereign act of God (in the sane way that Paul describes a spiritualised circumcision) then why does Jesus say that this baptism is something that we are to do? But didn't Jesus say:
quote:
"All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, and they will be spiritually baptised in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and you will teach them to obey everything I have commanded you.
Our authority for making disciples is a derivative authority; it is derived from Christ's authority that he had been given. Our practice of water baptism is also derivative; it is derived from the fact that Jesus' disciples baptised in water those who had been called to him by the Father.

I'm beginning to think that you are reading a categorical disconnection between Christ's earthly ministry and his post-resurrection ministry into the NT. It is a form of dispensationalism.

ITSM, that - by virtue of the resurrection - the disciples were more likely to focus on continuity of praxis rather than inventing a new, completely spiritualised, and totally insubstantial understanding of baptism.

For example did the disciples take Jesus example of footwashing literally? O was it just an acted parable? Is the meaning of an acted parable always to be disconnected from the act itself? Or can the act itself be integral to the meaning?

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Psyduck

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Sorry to double post - Gordon, just decoded your immediately previous post. If you don't want to continue on these lines, fair enough.

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Barnabas62
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m t tomb

I think you inadvertantly reversed the order of "Jesus" and "didn't". But that is another fine analysis (man, you have been cooking with gas on this theme).

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daronmedway
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Oops! You're right, Jesus didn't say:
quote:
"All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, and they will be (spiritually) baptised in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and you will teach them to obey everything I have commanded you.
He directly commanded the disciples to baptise them. In what sense the disciples have the abilty t bring about spiritual baptism? I guess Gordon will say proclamation.
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craigb
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I think the passage about baptism in Mathew 28 is more about the Spiritual baptism of the Baptism in the Holy Spirit, more so then water baptism.

While water baptism is an important part of Peters theology, the baptism of the Holy Spirit is also a big part of it, when you look at the story in Samaria, also when Paul asks the Disciples if the recieved the Holy Spirit when they believed shows that the Apostles believed it to be a tangible experience, and not just a cognitive one of being told they had it.

Blessings craig b

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Pyx_e

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A couple of intresting tangents have cropped up, may I commend you all on staying focused and suggest that if anyone want to start a new thread(s) they are free to do so.

Pyx_e, Host.

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Alan Cresswell

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
No, that's fair enough Numps, but I just don't think that Mt 28 is about water baptism. It's about making disciples (that's the main verb in the Greek), explained then as including them into the name of the F,S, and HS (ie they become Christians) and then continuing to teach them.

It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

This is really the nub of your argument ISTM. Here, as in Romans 6, you see the "plain meaning of Scripture" (which is "go and splash water around") as indicating something else entirely. Yet this is a really big argument from silence. You have yet to present any convincing examples of the use of the word 'baptism' (except in places where it's clearly allegorical, and a metaphor derived from a common experience of an initiation into the Church if not getting wet) which don't involve water.

I'd have expected that if Jesus at this point wasn't refering to baptism using water he'd have made it clear. He clearly knew his disciples sometimes had difficulty grasping what he said, so would have made extra clear what was meant. Yet, a few days later we have Peter telling a crowd of people very familiar with baptism as a rite involving water "go and be baptised", without any hint that there's a missing bit of his speech which reads "but don't worry about finding some water because Jesus told us baptism is nothing to do with water". And, again we see the same thing at the house of Cornelius. And, of course, Philip doesn't correct the Ethiopian when he says "here's water, baptise me".

There is every indication that in those first few months and years after the Ascension that the Church consistently interpreted Jesus' words "go and baptise" as meaning "take 'em to the river and dunk 'em in". Any other understanding has to appear from the complete absence of anything in Scripture.

And, of course, if we conclude (as I'm forced to do from reading Acts) that Peter, Philip et al got people wet when they became Christians then I find it very hard to believe that Paul thought something radically different. I'm afraid I'm not one who subscribes to the view that Paul invented practically a whole new gospel from what Peter et al preached, though I know the hypothesis is popular in some quarters.

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Alan Cresswell

Mad Scientist 先生
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quote:
Originally posted by craigb:
I think the passage about baptism in Mathew 28 is more about the Spiritual baptism of the Baptism in the Holy Spirit, more so then water baptism.

While water baptism is an important part of Peters theology, the baptism of the Holy Spirit is also a big part of it

I addressed this hypothesis earlier, just over half way down page 1. Maybe you could respond to anything in that post you disagree with?

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Barnabas62
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<meander warning>

Recognising the need to stay in bounds, I think Alan's recent and earlier post have summarised very well what a lot of us have been saying in connection with Romans 6 and baptism. But the view from Down Under (which I do not want to misrepresent) did remind me a little bit of some important 2nd century church history, so (with apologies in advance to Pyx_e) I'll make the point briefly.

Here is an extract from Elaine Pagels' summary of the ancient conflict with the gnostics in her book "Beyond Belief". Pagels is not writing as an orthodox Christian (she isn't that) but as a serious commentator on gnosticism and early church documents. She's not everyone's cup of tea - but I think she illuminates these ancient events well.


quote:
"Such teachers pointed out ... Jesus saying that he had "another baptism to be baptised with" and they explained that this means that those who advance on the spiritual path are to receive that second baptism.

Furthermore, they said this higher baptism marks a major transition in the initiate's relationship with God ....Prolemy calls this second baptism apolutrosis, which means 'redemption' or 'release', alluding to the judicial process through which a slave becomes legally free.

When we look back to our examples of 'evil interpretation' we can see that Iranaues's characterisation, however hostile, is accurate"

Irenaeus saw all this stuff as elitist, divisive, and leading people away from the faith once given. This playing around with the "inwardness" and "outwardness" of baptism has historically led people into dangerously elitist thinking. One might almost say "hot water".

<meander over>

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craigb
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G"day Alan,

I read your post, well made by the way.

let me ponder a bit more and I will get back to you.

Blessings craig b

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That saved a wretch like me!I once was lost, but now am found; Was blind, but now I see... The Lord has promised good to me,His word my hope secures;He will my shield and portion be,As long as life endures.

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Carys

Ship's Celticist
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quote:
Originally posted by m.t-tomb:
Carys said:
quote:
This is in fact the point from which this entire thread started as I cited this passage as an example of where I thought evangelicals brought their prior pre-suppositions (about the non-sacramental nature of baptism in this case) to their reading of the text and thus misunderstood what appears to me as a sacramentalist to be the plain meaning of the text!
With respect, I'm about as evangelical as they come and I don't have a problem with sacraments; sacramenatalism perhaps, but not sacraments. It's perfectly possible to hold an evangelical view of the sacraments that isn't contrary to Anglican doctrine: in fact I'd venture to say that historical Anglican sacramental doctrine is evangelical.
My apologies. I missed out a some there! Also, apologies for being slow in apologising; I read that comment as I was about to go out so didn't have time there and then and then I'd not managed to go back and find it having been so engrossed in reading the newer posts! Actually, does what I've said in response to Grits below make my point more clearly?

On your last point in the bit I quoted, I'd say that historical Anglican sacramental doctrine is evangelical in the sense of being scriptural, but I'm not sure we'd necessarily agree entirely about what is historical Anglican sacramental doctrine! But that's a tangent.

quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
No, that's fair enough Numps, but I just don't think that Mt 28 is about water baptism. It's about making disciples (that's the main verb in the Greek), explained then as including them into the name of the F,S, and HS (ie they become Christians) and then continuing to teach them.

It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

As others have asked, why? Christianity isn't just a spiritualised religion but one in which the material is important. It is incarnational. That is why I see it as inherently sacramental because the incarnation was the proto-sacrament. Thus I see nothing bizarre about Jesus instituting a `ritualized aquatic ceremony'. He gave us baptism because he knows that we are flesh and blood. Oh, and given some of his last words to his disciples before his death instituted a ceremony with bread and wine, it seems quite likely to me (but you'd differ given your views on Communion). Again, it is your presuppositions which are colouring your reading of the text.

quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
However, I don't believe Romans 6 is really all about baptism, and I would not use it as my text if I were teaching someone about baptism. I think it is more about being united in Christ by putting off the old man of sin. Baptism is just one part of that.

I would use it as one of my texts if talking about baptism, but the reason it came up as the basis of this thread is that it is one of my key texts for showing that even those who claim to be operating with sola scriptura bring their understandings, tradition if you like, to their reading of scripture, because how one understands this passage seems as much related to what one already thinks about baptism as what the text itself says. I think this thread as adequately proved my point!

Carys

[ 27. April 2006, 22:19: Message edited by: Carys ]

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
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quote:
Originally posted by Carys:

It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

As others have asked, why? [/QB][/QUOTE]

And as I've already answered, it doesn't matter. It doesn't affect my argument either way, as I can live with bizarre, unexplainable, mysterious and even divine in my religion. It was not a part of forming my views, which have altered over the years. Please stop telling me my presuppositions are shaping the way I read the text. My original presuppositions were sacramentalist in nature.

("I wish I'd never mentioned it. I'm going to get rid of the stupid shed"

"Then you'd be Arthur "no-sheds" Jackson"


--highly obscure Python ref)


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Carys

Ship's Celticist
# 78

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
quote:
Originally posted by Carys:

It would seem to me quite bizarre if Jesus' final words to his disciples on earth concerned some ritualized aquatic ceremony.

As others have asked, why?
And as I've already answered, it doesn't matter. It doesn't affect my argument either way, as I can live with bizarre, unexplainable, mysterious and even divine in my religion. It was not a part of forming my views, which have altered over the years. Please stop telling me my presuppositions are shaping the way I read the text. My original presuppositions were sacramentalist in nature.
Ok, I'll change presuppositions to reading your ideas of baptism into this text, wherever your ideas of baptism have come from. I'm not sure I've followed why you moved away from sacramentalist presuppositions to your current position which seems to be utterly bizarre and non-concordant with scripture, tradition or reason!

Carys

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
# 8895

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The outline of the argument is there in my post on page 1 of this thread, and I'd be happy to expand on any part of it, although I've (with varying degrees of success) tried to limit myself to the Romans 6 passage we're discussing.

Part of the difficulty in approaching the discussion, I would suggest, is that we give such overwhelming weight to our own sacramental traditions without reflecting on the relative infrequency and paucity of references to baptism in the New Testament. When we do come to the New Testament, our traditions and our lexicons take precedence and tend to fill in the blanks whenever we come to the word "baptism".

Which is probably just as insulting to your sense of your own objectivity as your comment was to mine [Biased]

However the evidence that Alan Cresswell and others have already summarized from Acts is, I think, the best biblical evidence we have to think that there was a primitive Christian tradition of water baptism that continued unbroken from the day of the apostles. My own reading is that, like some of the practices imposed upon Gentiles by Jerusalem council in Acts 15, these traditions are dispensable. You can't move from the narrative "is" to the sacramentalist "ought" without committing a naturalistic fallacy.

That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.

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Carys

Ship's Celticist
# 78

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
The outline of the argument is there in my post on page 1 of this thread, and I'd be happy to expand on any part of it, although I've (with varying degrees of success) tried to limit myself to the Romans 6 passage we're discussing.

Part of the difficulty in approaching the discussion, I would suggest, is that we give such overwhelming weight to our own sacramental traditions without reflecting on the relative infrequency and paucity of references to baptism in the New Testament. When we do come to the New Testament, our traditions and our lexicons take precedence and tend to fill in the blanks whenever we come to the word "baptism".

Which is probably just as insulting to your sense of your own objectivity as your comment was to mine [Biased]

No. Well, at least, I don't find that insulting to my sense of my own objectivity because I don't claim it. That's my whole point!

quote:


However the evidence that Alan Cresswell and others have already summarized from Acts is, I think, the best biblical evidence we have to think that there was a primitive Christian tradition of water baptism that continued unbroken from the day of the apostles. My own reading is that, like some of the practices imposed upon Gentiles by Jerusalem council in Acts 15, these traditions are dispensable. You can't move from the narrative "is" to the sacramentalist "ought" without committing a naturalistic fallacy.

Why? On what basis do you think that the tradition is dispensable?

quote:

That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.

Huh?

Carys

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O Lord, you have searched me and know me
You know when I sit and when I rise

Posts: 6896 | From: Bryste mwy na thebyg | Registered: May 2001  |  IP: Logged
Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
# 8895

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quote:
Originally posted by Carys:
Why? On what basis do you think that the tradition is dispensable?

There are traditions handed down at the Jerusalem council Acts 15 that are dispensable. Abstaining from "things polluted by idols" may be dispensable, depnding on what things. Abstaining from what has been strangled and from blood is certainly dispensable, as is a lot of stuff to do with Moses. Dispensing with tradition is an honourable tradition, and we see the Pharisees continually complaining about Jesus doing just this in the gospels. Acts 10 shows Peter, in response to a dream, unilaterally dispensing with a universal Christian tradition concerning food laws (although he could have figured it out from Jesus dispensing with this in Mark 7:19, in fact if Peter dictated Mark's gospel it is not surprising that Mark 7:19 is there).

All of which is to say that there is nothing about the universal practice of the primitive Christian church that, in and of itself can't be ditched. We don't have to meet at the temple daily. we don't have to meet anywhere daily. We don't have to hold all our goods in common. And so on.

Now applied to baptism, that means that even if we can establish that water baptism was a universal practice of the primitive church in Acts, we don't have license to go from that universal practice in and of itself to imposing it as a duty for all Christians, especially when there is so much evidence that it relates to a Jewish but non-Mosaic ritualistic precursor; one that has already had a "use-by" date set on it by the words of John the Baptist.

quote:
Huh?

Carys

"Huh?" yourself. Or is this a ritualistic precursor to the Toronto Blessing (=> [Killing me] )

[Biased]

[ 28. April 2006, 00:00: Message edited by: Gordon Cheng ]

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
# 8895

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quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
<meander warning>

Here is an extract from Elaine Pagels' summary <snip> She's not everyone's cup of tea .


<meander over>

Indeed. This Roman Catholic writer is less than impressed by what he's found. It's a rather damning article. Pagels telling us what Irenaeus said about what Gnostic writers said that might be similar to what some people say today is a bit too Mills and Boon for mine.

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Grits
Compassionate fundamentalist
# 4169

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I think the "huh?" must mean that your statement:
quote:
That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.
is fairly unsupportable. Which epistles are YOU talking about?

And as far as baptism being a "tradition", I disagree. Tradition has almost an inherent human quality, and I don't consider anything instituted by Christ to be tradition... including the Lord's Supper. (Sorry, Pyx_e, dear -- I couldn't help myself.)

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
# 8895

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quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
I think the "huh?" must mean that your statement:
quote:
That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.
is fairly unsupportable. Which epistles are YOU talking about?

Hi Grits

Vegetarian diets and special days are in Romans 14:1-6 .

*There are a few circumcisions floating about in Galatians and Philippians, but not in a positive sense.

*Limiting meat from the diet for religious reasons is in 1 Corinthians 8 and 10.

*Special diets, new moon festivals and Sabbaths are mentioned in Colossians 2:17.

*Special diets are mentioned in 1 Timothy 4:3.

*Food, drink and washings most likely relating to the Mosaic law are mentioned in Hebrews 9:10, where it is explained why these practises are only pointers to true Christian spirituality.

They are all mentioned in connexion either with endorsed Christian practices, or practices that are being commended as things that Christians might or could or should take part in. In each case, there is no expectation that these received traditions would be passed on to new generations of christians, and in some cases there is explicit warning that such practices may be spiritually dangerous.

So we find that various tradtions, some Jewish, some not, are routinely if not frequently picked up as topics for comment by various epistle writers.

My point, therefore, was to show that it is possible that a tradition may be broadly or even universally practised in the primitive church, made reference to in the epistles, and yet with no necessary expectation that such traditions might be continued.

I am suggesting (on the basis of other arguments already touched upon in this thread) that water baptism may well be one of those traditions which we ought not to feel any compulsion to pass on.

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Psyduck

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# 2270

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Gordon Cheng:
quote:
I am suggesting (on the basis of other arguments already touched upon in this thread) that water baptism may well be one of those traditions which we ought not to feel any compulsion to pass on.
So what is binding? And why? What "isn't tradition" in the Christian faith?

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Grits
Compassionate fundamentalist
# 4169

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
Vegetarian diets and special days are in Romans 14:1-6 .

But it's not like they're being ordained or commanded here, Gordon. In fact, they are used as characteristics of having a weak faith.
quote:
*There are a few circumcisions floating about in Galatians and Philippians, but not in a positive sense.
You're right. Circumcision is mentioned quite a bit (mostly in Romans, actually), but it's being used as an example of the old law and a way of showing that it no longer holds significance if one is in Christ.
quote:
*Limiting meat from the diet for religious reasons is in 1 Corinthians 8 and 10.
*Special diets, new moon festivals and Sabbaths are mentioned in Colossians 2:17.
*Special diets are mentioned in 1 Timothy 4:3.[/quote}
Gordon, just because these things are mentioned or referred to in the Bible doesn't mean they're things we're supposed to do. They are merely used as cites or examples.
[quote]*Food, drink and washings most likely relating to the Mosaic law are mentioned in Hebrews 9:10, where it is explained why these practises are only pointers to true Christian spirituality.

Yes, but you must notice that they are all OLD TESTAMENT practices, which are, of course, all "pointers" to the new law of Christ. Baptism, however, is a New Testament deal.

I still consider baptism to be a commandment -- one of Christ's commandments -- not merely a "tradition".

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Barnabas62
Shipmate
# 9110

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
<meander warning>

Here is an extract from Elaine Pagels' summary <snip> She's not everyone's cup of tea .


<meander over>

Indeed. This Roman Catholic writer is less than impressed by what he's found. It's a rather damning article. Pagels telling us what Irenaeus said about what Gnostic writers said that might be similar to what some people say today is a bit too Mills and Boon for mine.
I think there is a lot in the critique of "The Gnostic Gospels" but I was quoting from "Beyond Belief", written over 20 years later, much more considered and, in this case, clearly supporting Inenaeus's criticism of the gnostics. The point of my argument was that even someone who is not orthodox (and has certainly in the past been critical of Irenaeus) sees clearly from the history that the downplaying of water baptism in favour of some "deeper, more spiritual" understanding can be both elitist and divisive.

Come on Gordon! You normally keep up better than that. Pagels continues to have concerns about the development of orthodoxy. That is stil her point of view (one I do not accept). But she is not blind to the elitist, divisive excesses of some of the gnostics. Which included mucking about with water baptism.

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Nunc Dimittis
Seamstress of Sound
# 848

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quote:
Now applied to baptism, that means that even if we can establish that water baptism was a universal practice of the primitive church in Acts, we don't have license to go from that universal practice in and of itself to imposing it as a duty for all Christians, especially when there is so much evidence that it relates to a Jewish but non-Mosaic ritualistic precursor; one that has already had a "use-by" date set on it by the words of John the Baptist.

Gordon, confirm for me: do you actually believe in sacraments?

For all your posturing as a "Cranmerian", could I remind you that Cranmer was if not the writer, then highly influential in the writing of that Article of religion that speaks of "two sacraments ordained by Christ"?

Your arguments here about baptism, and elsewhere about the Lord's Supper actually cause me great personal distress. It distresses me that your idea of truth is a faith that is completely void of tangible experience of God's grace, completely predicated only on an intellectual faith, and harmful at best, idolatrous at worst if laden with symbols and sacraments.

I also find it distressing that you think 2000 years of tradition is merely "human" and therefore worthy of being disgarded as inessential.

That you see fit to dismiss such things as the observance of Lent, fasting, regular prayer, intercessions of the saints, the use of penance, anointing, healing etc etc I don't like, but can at least understand from within your worldview.

That you see fit to find ways of getting rid of sacraments altogether as "unBiblical" I find incomprehensible.

I also think it does a great disservice to us as humans made in the image of God. It's not for nothing God gave us the five senses. It's not for nothing God had to assume human flesh and physicality. And it's not for nothing we believe we will be resurrected from the dead.

If there are no such things as sacraments - ordained by Christ himself, God Incarnate - then you leave me a world devoid of the touch of God.

And my heart breaks.

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Barnabas62
Shipmate
# 9110

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Nunc Dimittis puts into words something I was wondering as well. Are you sceptical about sacraments per se? Or is it sacraments as interpreted traditionally that receive your questioning attention?

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Alan Cresswell

Mad Scientist 先生
# 31

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
Now applied to baptism, that means that even if we can establish that water baptism was a universal practice of the primitive church in Acts, we don't have license to go from that universal practice in and of itself to imposing it as a duty for all Christians, especially when there is so much evidence that it relates to a Jewish but non-Mosaic ritualistic precursor; one that has already had a "use-by" date set on it by the words of John the Baptist.

In one sense you might have a point, "we've always done it" is no reason in itself to continue with any practice. I happen to think that on the issue of baptism you're wrong to conclude that it's passed it's "use-by date". But, that's almost certainly a different discussion entirely. And, probably one better suited to a different board as we'd then be talking about developments that post-date the Scriptural record of early Christian Tradition.

But, am I reading you right in accepting that baptism (in and/or with water) was a wide-spread practice in the early church? Some of your last few posts (not just the bit I've just quoted) do seem to suggest that, though you're still not convinced it was a universal practice, you're more willing to accept that it was common and wide spread.

Which brings us back to Romans 6. If there was a wide spread or near universal practice of water baptism, it would therefore surely make sense that Paul is here refering to that practice - even if he's expanding upon the meaning of that baptism beyond what might have been understood at the time.

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Gordon Cheng

a child on sydney harbour
# 8895

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Grits: Water baptism is however, on my view, an Old Testament practice that, like a number of Old Testament practices, eg meeting at the temple, was legitimately carried on into the New Testament era for a time.

When I say it was an OT practice, I mean not that it was ordained there, but that it was developed in the OT era for use then, and was eminently suited to John the Baptist's purposes of preparing people for the coming of Christ. He picked up and used the practice for his own purposes, and it's not in the least surprising that Christianity, beginning as a 100% Jewish religion, did the same.

On sacraments: I have a certain reticence (although not refusal) concerning the use of the vocabulary, as it is found nowhere in Scripture. However if you insist on the point (and for your consolation Nunc) I am of the view that the whole of creation and everything in it is a sacrament, for the one who's been regenerated by the Spirit. Only the Word, however, conveys grace to the unregenerate. The point of connection to the senses is the ear, since "Faith comes through hearing." (Or the eye, if you can't hear, or the touch, if that is how you receive all your words from the world).

I believe I am closer to Cranmer on this than most would like, but that is for another thread.

quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
But, am I reading you right in accepting that baptism (in and/or with water) was a wide-spread practice in the early church? Some of your last few posts (not just the bit I've just quoted) do seem to suggest that, though you're still not convinced it was a universal practice, you're more willing to accept that it was common and wide spread.

Yes that's it Alan.

quote:
Alan:
Which brings us back to Romans 6. If there was a wide spread or near universal practice of water baptism, it would therefore surely make sense that Paul is here refering to that practice - even if he's expanding upon the meaning of that baptism beyond what might have been understood at the time.

Ah! Romans 6! well done.

There would almost certainly be some sense in which Paul was referring to water baptism in Romans 6, as if people don't understand what baptism is at all, then he might as well have used the word 'xvfdjsk' for all the good it would have done them. But even if water baptism wasn't practiced by Roman Christians, they might have seen similar practices in other religions from which they'd been converted, and they might have read or heard of it in Mark's gospel (or Q, for those who are into that sort of thing).

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daronmedway
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# 3012

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quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
I think the "huh?" must mean that your statement:
quote:
That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.
is fairly unsupportable. Which epistles are YOU talking about?

And as far as baptism being a "tradition", I disagree. Tradition has almost an inherent human quality, and I don't consider anything instituted by Christ to be tradition... including the Lord's Supper. (Sorry, Pyx_e, dear -- I couldn't help myself.)

But Paul speaks very highly of tradition. In 2 Thes 2.15 he exhorts the flock to...
quote:
...stand firm and hold to the traditions that you were taught by us, either by our spoken word or by our letter.ESV
So it seems that traditions were actively taught by Paul, presumably because 'tradition' - when correctly applied - is a superb means of communicating truth over an extended period of time. In fact tradition, in and of itself, is no bad thing.

As to what these 'traditions' are? I don't know. Could one be water baptism? [Biased] The NIV translates them as 'teachings'; the YLT 'deliverances'; Wycliffe 'traditions'; the NASB 'traditions'; the KJV 'traditions'. Perhaps someone who knows their Greek could shed some light on this?

[ 28. April 2006, 09:45: Message edited by: m.t-tomb ]

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Alan Cresswell

Mad Scientist 先生
# 31

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
There would almost certainly be some sense in which Paul was referring to water baptism in Romans 6

OK, so you do accept that "baptism" in Romans 6 involves water. It's just that Paul is saying that (water) baptism is more than just getting wet. In modern usage, Christian Baptism symbolises a sharing in the death and resurrection of Christ (depending on your position on the nature of sacraments, that could be either that in baptism we do in some sense 'die and rise again', or that becoming a Christian involves a 'death and resurrection' which is symbolised by baptism). That, of course, draws directly from Romans 6. Whether Paul was using an understanding of baptism that was already in use (and, the "can you be baptised with my baptism?" passage in Mark would indicate that the idea isn't unique to Paul) or inventing (under divine inspiration) a new understanding in addition to the already accepted meaning of baptism is a question we probably can't answer.

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Carys

Ship's Celticist
# 78

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quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
I think the "huh?" must mean that your statement:
quote:
That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.
is fairly unsupportable. Which epistles are YOU talking about?
Something like that. I was aware of those things to which he referred* as being mentioned by Paul, but they struck me as being very different from Baptism, but it was nearly half-midnight here and I couldn't work out how to respond and so wanted Gordon to spell his logic out. I'm fairly sure I've gone `huh?' at Gordon before now, although generally followed by some attempt at explaining why I'm completely bemused by his logic.

*And as a vegetarian am always amused by the reference to my weak faith! But more seriously, my reasons for being vegetarian are very different from those of the people about whom Paul was talking there.

quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
They are all mentioned in connexion either with endorsed Christian practices, or practices that are being commended as things that Christians might or could or should take part in. In each case, there is no expectation that these received traditions would be passed on to new generations of christians, and in some cases there is explicit warning that such practices may be spiritually dangerous.

So we find that various tradtions, some Jewish, some not, are routinely if not frequently picked up as topics for comment by various epistle writers.

But as others have pointed out they were Jewish (or other religious?) practices which were no longer necessary in the light of the coming of Christ. I don't agree with your idea that baptism is OT in scope either. Yes, the Jews had the concept which John the Baptist drew on, but the early Church went further than this and gave it new significance. I've finally got round to looking at Mark 7:3 which you've cited a lot on this thread and remain uncnovinced of its link to baptism. Yes, the Jews had ritual washings, but that is not necessarily the same as baptism. As Psyduck argued early in this thread βαπτιζω is not primarily about washing and the verb used in the Greek of Mark 7:3 is νιψωνται so I think you are making too much of the link to baptism. Just becase it involves water doesn't make it baptism!

quote:

I am suggesting (on the basis of other arguments already touched upon in this thread) that water baptism may well be one of those traditions which we ought not to feel any compulsion to pass on.

For reasons that seem flimsy at best to me.

It seems far more likely that baptism is part of `τας παραδoσεις ας εδιδαχθητε of 2 Thes 2:15 to which m. t-tomb. refers in his recent post. Tradition `handing on' is there is Paul, in that passage and also in 1 Cor 15:3 where he says `παρεδωκα ...' `I delivered/handed on to you' which is the verb which relates to tradition which English annoying doesn't have.*

*Welsh has traddodi to go with traddodiad which is very useful.

quote:
Originally posted by Nunc Dimittis:
I also think it does a great disservice to us as humans made in the image of God. It's not for nothing God gave us the five senses. It's not for nothing God had to assume human flesh and physicality. And it's not for nothing we believe we will be resurrected from the dead.

If there are no such things as sacraments - ordained by Christ himself, God Incarnate - then you leave me a world devoid of the touch of God.

And my heart breaks.

Exactly. I tried to make this point early when I talked about the incarnation as the proto-sacrament, but Gordon didn't come back to me on that part of my post. Today is the anniversary of my baptism and so I went to Mass in celebration of this fact, but unfortunately the church to which I went doesn't have a stoup and so I couldn't cross myself with the holy water in memory of my baptism which was a disappointment to me. However, part of my prayer while I was there was giving thanks for the physicality of our faith.

Carys

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Grits
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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
Grits: Water baptism is however, on my view, an Old Testament practice that, like a number of Old Testament practices, eg meeting at the temple, was legitimately carried on into the New Testament era for a time.

When I say it was an OT practice, I mean not that it was ordained there, but that it was developed in the OT era for use then, and was eminently suited to John the Baptist's purposes of preparing people for the coming of Christ. He picked up and used the practice for his own purposes, and it's not in the least surprising that Christianity, beginning as a 100% Jewish religion, did the same.

Upon what do you base this theory?

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daronmedway
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Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
quote:
That there should be a (very) few references to baptisms in the epistles is hardly surprising; just as it is not surprising to find references to New Moon festivals, circumcision, special days, and vegetarian diets.
Out of those four - for the purposes of this debate - I'd like to draw your attention to circumcision. Circumcision for Paul is most certainly not an irrelavance; neither is it an OT anachronism. It is the very means by which a person becomes regenerate. Romans 2.28-29 says:
quote:
For no one is a Jew who is merely one outwardly, nor is circumcision outward and physical. But a Jew (by which Paul means both Jewish and Gentile Christians) is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter.
Circumcision for Paul is about regeneration; it is not a physical rite that can be abandoned, it is a spiritual reality that must be universal. The physical rite of circumcision is a vital part of the law that points to Christ who is "righteousness to everyone who believes." Rom 10.4. Christians literally are "the circumcision"; circumcision isn't irrelevant but Paul does re-spiritualise it.

My point, however, is this:

quote:
The main reason that this great Reformed tradition endorses the baptism of infants of believers is that there appears to be in the New Testament a correspondence between circumcision and baptism. Just as circumcision was given as a sign to the "children of the covenant" in the Old Testament, so baptism - the new sign of the covenant - should be given to the "children of the covenant" today. For example, in Colossians 2:11-12 there seems to be a connection between circumcision and baptism: "In Him [Christ] you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ; having been buried with Him in baptism . . ." So for the sake of the argument, let's grant that there is some correlation between circumcision and baptism.John Piper: How Do Circumcision and Baptism Correspond?
So it would seem that Paul correlates OT circumicsion with NT baptism, but it must also be noted that Paul correlates a spiritualised circumcision (see Rom 2.29) with what he calls 'baptism'.

The question is this? Does Paul's spiritualised circumcision (regeneration) correlate directly to a spiritualised baptism? In other words are spiritual circumcision and 'spiritual' baptism conceptually inter-changable (Gordon's Argument)?

Or is this spiritualised circumcison (regeneration) ratified, sealed and corroborated by a physical rite of baptism (Psyduck et al's argument).

I go for the second option for the following reason. Paul spiritualises OT rite of physical circumcision (the rite of entry into a covenant relationship with God). He quite rightly says that a covenantal relationship with God is established when a person's heart is circumcised i.e. when they become spiritually regenerate.

In Paul's theology circumcison (now spiritualised) remains as his 'metaphor' of choice for regeneration. This is why he gets so upset over the continued use of the physical rite as a sign of regeneration!

So - this being the case - it is completely unnecessary for Paul to spiritualise water baptism in order to make it mean exactly the same thing as spiritual circumcision.

No, what Paul does is this: he endorses water baptism as the physical ratification, seal and corroboration of a inner spiritual circumcsion i.e. regeneration. Therefore water baptism replaces outward, physical circumcision as the visible, physical sign of entry into the New Covenant.

So, here we have it. Water baptism is the outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual circumcision. Water baptism replaces physical circumcision as the visible component of entry into the covenant. This in effect means that water baptism is the sacrament of spiritual circumcision and therefore cannot in itself be spiritualised.

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Gordon Cheng

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quote:
Originally posted by Carys:
I've finally got round to looking at Mark 7:3 which you've cited a lot on this thread and remain uncnovinced of its link to baptism. Yes, the Jews had ritual washings, but that is not necessarily the same as baptism. As Psyduck argued early in this thread βαπτιζω is not primarily about washing and the verb used in the Greek of Mark 7:3 is νιψωνται so I think you are making too much of the link to baptism. Just becase it involves water doesn't make it baptism!

I'm very sorry, I've been meaning to cite Mark 7:4.

My bad.

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John Holding

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quote:
Originally posted by Gordon Cheng:
There would almost certainly be some sense in which Paul was referring to water baptism in Romans 6, as if people don't understand what baptism is at all, then he might as well have used the word 'xvfdjsk' for all the good it would have done them. But even if water baptism wasn't practiced by Roman Christians, they might have seen similar practices in other religions from which they'd been converted, and they might have read or heard of it in Mark's gospel (or Q, for those who are into that sort of thing).

Well, I'd like to know which religions from which Roman converts were likely to come indulged in practices similar to baptism. There is a sense in which all religions have cleansing rituals, some of which included sprinkling with water (or blood). But which religions except Judaism really had a "similar practice" with a significance, like the Jewish one, that is beyond simple purification? Religions active in Rome of the 4os and 50s, that is, or in the lands from which large numbers of slaves might have been imported.

As for suggesting that converts in Rome in the 40s and 50s might have read about baptism in Mark -- you're the first person (in this context I certainly won't say "scholar") who has ever suggested such an early date for Mark, or even Q (if it existed at all, as you rightly pointed out).

And BTW, your use of the word "read" in this context I find revealing -- it demonstrates an altogether anachronistic approach to how people learn, how they believe, how they know, and how they pass on what matters to them.

John

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mousethief

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And even if Mark had been written by (say) 50 AD, that doesn't mean that copies of it had been printed and distributed to all the local bookshops in the Roman Empire just so people could read it and decide they wanted to convert to Christianity.

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Gordon Cheng

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quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:

And BTW, your use of the word "read" in this context I find revealing -- it demonstrates an altogether anachronistic approach to how people learn, how they believe, how they know, and how they pass on what matters to them.

What? I said

quote:
read or heard
.

Just fill me in on the other mysterious way people absorb words without reading or hearing again? They must do things differently in Canada.

And I don't suggest an early date for Mark. In both the post you quoted, and in an earlier post, I suggest that there was some precursor—perhaps Q, perhaps the apostle Peter himself.

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