Source: (consider it)
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Thread: Purgatory: Christus Victor
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Freddy
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# 365
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Johnny S: As I said, it depends on how you use the word 'pre-requisite'.
Yes, I understand. Otherwise it looks like a works-based approach. quote: Originally posted by Johnny S: Our salvation is entirely based on the finished work of Jesus Christ, and not at all on our 'works', not even the 'work' of repentance. However, in order to receive the gift we have to admit that we need it in the first place. Repentance is our response to the gospel.
Is admitting that we need it something that we are able to do? Wouldn't that be cooperating, and therefore contributing to our own salvation? And if God can give us the power to do that, why can't He give us the power to keep the commandments? quote: Originally posted by Johnny S: You shouldn't be so shocked by all this - it is classical reformed theology. After all what was Martin Luther's first thesis nailed to that famous door?
In case you've forgotten : quote: When our Lord and Master, Jesus Christ, said "Repent", He called for the entire life of believers to be one of repentance.
If you are claiming that classic PSA undermines repentance as a biblical priority then you are barking up the wrong tree.
I'm aware that reformed Christianity from Martin Luther on down has spoken emphatically about repentance. But in adopting a salvific formula that relies on faith rather than on obedience to God it absolutely undermines it.
My point is that PSA does not take sin seriously, since you can be saved while remaining a sinner. Christus Victor, by contrast, equates salvation with overcoming evil in your life. The two are the same thing. You are only saved insofar as you refrain from sin.
-------------------- "Consequently nothing is of greater importance to a person than knowing what the truth is." Swedenborg
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Freddy: Is admitting that we need it something that we are able to do? Wouldn't that be cooperating, and therefore contributing to our own salvation? And if God can give us the power to do that, why can't He give us the power to keep the commandments?
This is the classic debate over election and has little to do with atonement theories. Two millennia hasn't made much progress - I could equally ask, 'how would it be 'keeping' the commandments if God 'made' us do it?
quote: Originally posted by Freddy: My point is that PSA does not take sin seriously, since you can be saved while remaining a sinner. Christus Victor, by contrast, equates salvation with overcoming evil in your life. The two are the same thing. You are only saved insofar as you refrain from sin.
I don't really know where to start with this!
Where on earth do you get 'you can be saved while remaining a sinner' from? If you mean 'carrying on in sin' then the PSA metaphor of dying with Christ to sin and rising with him to new life points to exactly the opposite. (PSAers take it objectively rather than subjectively - but they still adhere to it! ) However, if you mean 'stop sinning altogether' then I think you're on your own with that one.
'You are only saved insofar as you refrain from sin' - likewise, where do you get this from? What about past sin? (Like the Thief on the Cross?) What about future sin? George Whitfield once exclaimed, "I even sin when I'm praying!" Romans 4: 8 is a great comfort to me - Clearly Freddy you must reach a level of sanctification that is way beyond us mere mortals.
I think you are moving off topic from atonement models to a discussion of justification and sanctification. I would argue that they are different things but inextricably linked.
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
Hi Everyone, I'm the bloke who wrote the article referenced at the beginning of this thread Penal Substitution vs Christus Victor
I thought I might be able to clear up some of the confusion that seems to be going on. It seems that there is a kind of polarization being set up between PSA and CV (which is in part my fault for the title I chose). Here are some thoughts:
CV does not reject substitutionary atonement (SA). In fact SA is the major linchpin of CV.
SA is not the same thing as PSA. PSA offers one specific explanation of how SA works. Many people here on this thread have advocated SA and said they were advocating PSA, but actually their explanation did not fit with PSA. Again CV affirms SA. Just not the PSA version. Specifically, SA says Christ died vicariously and substitutionally, "for us" (CV says yes). PSA says that this was to satisfy wrath and justice through punishment. (CV says no)
Finally, CV does not say that God simply forgives sin, or that we can simply stop. If that were the case then Jesus need not have died. What CV says is that from a legal standpoint (justice) God could have forgiven sin, but that our problem is deeper and requires healing (recreation), so Christ needed to die in the sense of liberating us from bondage and healing us from spiritual cancer.
I have a lot more to say, but I'll stop here for now.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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MSHB
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# 9228
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: Hi Everyone, I'm the bloke who wrote the article referenced at the beginning of this thread Penal Substitution vs Christus Victor
Hmm. Looking at your article... I don't see the OT sacrifices as being about substitutionary anything, at least not originally. Animals were killed, because that is how you turn them into food. (Just like a field of wheat doesn't become bread unless you reap, crush and bake the grain.) These "violent" activities are not some kind of substitutionary punishment, but simply what you have to do if you are to prepare food, starting with living plants or animals.
Killing an animal is not startling if you are a hunter-gatherer or a farmer. It is only startling if you are a city-dweller and not used to seeing the slaughter of domesticated animals or hunted prey in your daily working life.
The sacrifices were feasts. The things brought to the "holy table" were foods made from animals or plants. We can see the same thing happening apart from formal sacrifices. The Prodigal Father killed a fatted calf for his penitent son - not as a substitutionary punishment, but because roast veal was a luxury, a great way to celebrate at the return of his missing son. So too Abraham killed a calf when the three "men" (angels) passed by, as an act of hospitality. He wanted to give them the best. It was to show them honour.
And the people of Israel brought food - from their domestic animals and plants - to honour God as their King. Just as you might hold a great banquet to honour a visiting monarch - even waiting like Abraham while the visitor ate, - so too the Israelites held great banquets for God, letting the savour of the food waft up to the heavens as they burnt all the best pieces, and sometimes all the pieces, for God (well He wasn't going to eat it as we do!) Sometimes they were allowed to share in the feast, sometimes it was for God alone, while the offerer waited by like Abraham waiting on his guests.
Any "substitutionary" aspect I see as added later, reading new (secondary) symbolism into an old action that was primarily practical, just a physical necessity for turning animals and plants into common food.
So first of all I see sacrifices as a feast to honour God, whether the food was wholly devoted to him (by fire), or was presented before God (wave or heave offering) and then shared by the offerers (or some combination of the two). Any substitutionary symbolism I see as "later" and secondary. That is not to say that it is unimportant, but we should not lose sight of the fact that sacrifices were fundamentally positive - celebrations, feasts to honour the King of Kings - not some kind of punitive or substitutionary killing.
You cannot make an omelette without breaking eggs. You cannot eat roast veal without killing calves. But the killing was just an act of preparation, the point was to present something luxurious to honour God - roast veal, roast beef, roast lamb. These were great luxuries in those days. A special treat.
-------------------- MSHB: Member of the Shire Hobbit Brigade
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Freddy: My point is that PSA does not take sin seriously, since you can be saved while remaining a sinner.
Hi Freddy,
Maybe you need to unpack this more, but it sounds like you are saying that God (does not) saves us while we are yet sinners. This is the whole point of saving someone. You can't save a person from drowning after they have climbed out of the water. I am not a fan of PSA, but it does not claim that one can just go on sinning. What I think PSA is in contradiction with is not repentance, but forgiveness. Saying that God demands satisfaction before he will forgive is the opposite of saying God forgives.
quote: Christus Victor, by contrast, equates salvation with overcoming evil in your life. The two are the same thing. You are only saved insofar as you refrain from sin.
Maybe I am misunderstanding you here too, but it sounds like you are saying that CV is about our overcoming evil. It is about God overcoming evil and liberating us out of its bondage. There is a big difference. What you are talking about sounds more like the debate between works and grace (tending towards Pelagianism).
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by MSHB: quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: Hi Everyone, I'm the bloke who wrote the article referenced at the beginning of this thread Penal Substitution vs Christus Victor
Hmm. Looking at your article... I don't see the OT sacrifices as being about substitutionary anything,
Hi MSHB,
I do not see any sense of appeasement happening in the sacrifices, but it does seem clear that the writers of the NT did see a vicarious aspect in the sacrifices. In the NT the main motif used to understand Christ's death is Isa 53, which draws a comparison between the suffering servant who suffers "for us" unjustly and a guilt offering.
As an aside: temple sacrifice is not really central to CV (nor is it to PSA) so I'm not sure why you are focusing on it (it is in the NT and primitive church one of many issues, and probably a minor one at that).
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
Hi there - thanks for your replies to Freddy ... perhaps he will see now that his comments about repentance are not directed at PSA ... maybe.
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: What CV says is that from a legal standpoint (justice) God could have forgiven sin, but that our problem is deeper and requires healing (recreation), so Christ needed to die in the sense of liberating us from bondage and healing us from spiritual cancer.
Maybe this is just semantics but the above is not a million miles away from saying 'God could have forgiven sin, but our problem is deeper and requires justice' (as well as healing / recreation ... etc.)
How is 'God could have forgiven, but ...' significantly different from PSA?
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Johnny S: Hi there - thanks for your replies to Freddy ... perhaps he will see now that his comments about repentance are not directed at PSA ... maybe.
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: What CV says is that from a legal standpoint (justice) God could have forgiven sin, but that our problem is deeper and requires healing (recreation), so Christ needed to die in the sense of liberating us from bondage and healing us from spiritual cancer.
Maybe this is just semantics but the above is not a million miles away from saying 'God could have forgiven sin, but our problem is deeper and requires justice' (as well as healing / recreation ... etc.)
How is 'God could have forgiven, but ...' significantly different from PSA?
I agree that it is "not a million miles away".
PSA specifically does not say "God could have forgiven but...". It insists that justice demands satisfaction in punishment and that God cannot justly acquit us without paying that satisfaction. CV in contrast says "Had it been a case of a trespass only, and not of a subsequent corruption, repentance would have been well enough" (Athanasius, On the Incarnation, ch 7). In other words, sin reflects not jsut what we do, but who we are, and so we need a change in identity, a new birth. So the difference is one of paradigm: PSA is a legal paradigm, while CV is more of a "physical" or medical paradigm. Does that make sense?
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape: OK, for the sake of brevity.
[*]Most people believe that PSA is often not taught well in our churches, and PSAers are often keen to divide popular presentations of PSA from a truely biblical understanding of the doctrine. The degree to which PSA is a stumbling block in churches is hotly debated.
This part has me confused. Is anyone really denying that some people have a very negative understanding of the cross that has damaged their trust in God's love based on a (possibly mistaken) understanding of PSA? This seems to me to be undeniable. The only question is whether this negative picture reflects a misunderstanding of PSA, or whether PSA itself is wrong.
Am I missing something here?
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: PSA specifically does not say "God could have forgiven but...". It insists that justice demands satisfaction in punishment and that God cannot justly acquit us without paying that satisfaction. CV in contrast says "Had it been a case of a trespass only, and not of a subsequent corruption, repentance would have been well enough" (Athanasius, On the Incarnation, ch 7). In other words, sin reflects not just what we do, but who we are, and so we need a change in identity, a new birth. So the difference is one of paradigm: PSA is a legal paradigm, while CV is more of a "physical" or medical paradigm. Does that make sense?
It makes sense, I'm not sure what the significant difference is.
ISTM both PSA and CV portray God as wanting to forgive, however they both have a 'but'.
Why could I not say, 'God could have forgiven, but sin is so serious that he had to do something about it'? - that seems to be expressing both CV & PSA (according to your post).
Of course they are different paradigms, but you won't find a PSAer denying that we need a new identity and the new birth. IME PSAers want all biblical atonement models.
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: This part has me confused. Is anyone really denying that some people have a very negative understanding of the cross that has damaged their trust in God's love based on a (possibly mistaken) understanding of PSA? This seems to me to be undeniable. The only question is whether this negative picture reflects a misunderstanding of PSA, or whether PSA itself is wrong.
Am I missing something here?
Nope, I think you've got it bang on. No one is denying that there are some warped views of God's love around, and some might be influenced by teaching about PSA. As you say, the debate is (or should be ) over whether that is down to PSA itself or a mistaken view of it.
IMHO a lot of the 'heat' comes from this issue. Undoubtedly some people have been hurt by conevo churches in the past. However, it is hard to remove the layers to see precisely what was at the cause. (Ogres are like onions .)
I have frequently got confused about what it is that we are actually arguing about (now that is a picture of the church! ). I have met quite a few people who are frustrated with the PSA Only position. However, I've not read or met anyone who in any way speaks for conevos who actually wants PSA Only - all I come across is a desire to include all biblical atonement models, and balance them with each other. OTOH I have met several who want CV to be supreme as an umbrella model which subsumes all the others and removes PSA altogether. Now, I may well be way off beam here and am quite willing to be corrected, but ISTM that this debate is really over CV Only rather than PSA Only.
Have I got this completely wrong?
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Johnny S: It makes sense, I'm not sure what the significant difference is.
The two paradigms end up having some profoundly different consequences actually.
quote:
Why could I not say, 'God could have forgiven, but sin is so serious that he had to do something about it'? - that seems to be expressing both CV & PSA (according to your post).
Yes, in the same way that a Christian and a Buddhist could both say they are "religious". But there is a lot more to it of course.
quote:
I have met several who want CV to be supreme as an umbrella model which subsumes all the others and removes PSA altogether. Now, I may well be way off beam here and am quite willing to be corrected, but ISTM that this debate is really over CV Only rather than PSA Only.
Have I got this completely wrong?
I think you are on to something. I would agree that CV should be seen as an umbrella concept, and that PSA should be removed. But I would want in that to include ALL biblical atonement models. The reason I would want to make CV central is that rather than having a hodgepodge of metaphors (some mutually contradictory), it gives a comprehensive and broad view that allows us to see how all work together with a lot more depth than the scattered approach does. Part of that model would include an understanding of substitutionary atonement as central to the whole picture which retains all of the biblical elements of substitution, and loses the nasty bits of PSA that you would likely not miss.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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daronmedway
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# 3012
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: [QUOTE]Originally posted by Jolly Jape: [qb] OK, for the sake of brevity.
<snip>
Am I missing something here?
Yes. A conversation that Jolly Jape and I (and others) had for the last 9 pages or so.
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sharktacos
Shipmate
# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Call me Numpty: quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: [QUOTE]Originally posted by Jolly Jape: [qb] OK, for the sake of brevity.
<snip>
Am I missing something here?
Yes. A conversation that Jolly Jape and I (and others) had for the last 9 pages or so.
Numpty, I thought you made some good points in the earlier conversation, and agreed with a good deal of what you were saying. Would you care to elaborate what specifically you are referring to here?
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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Jolly Jape
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# 3296
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Posted
Back to the fray!
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos
I think you are on to something. I would agree that CV should be seen as an umbrella concept, and that PSA should be removed. But I would want in that to include ALL biblical atonement models. The reason I would want to make CV central is that rather than having a hodgepodge of metaphors (some mutually contradictory), it gives a comprehensive and broad view that allows us to see how all work together with a lot more depth than the scattered approach does. Part of that model would include an understanding of substitutionary atonement as central to the whole picture which retains all of the biblical elements of substitution, and loses the nasty bits of PSA that you would likely not miss.
This is pretty much how I see it, too.
quote: Originally posted by JohnnyS
ISTM both PSA and CV portray God as wanting to forgive, however they both have a 'but'.
Why could I not say, 'God could have forgiven, but sin is so serious that he had to do something about it'? - that seems to be expressing both CV & PSA (according to your post).
Actually I don't think that is what CV is saying. It is saying that God does, and has, forgiven our sin already, but that forgiveness is not enough to bring us to eternal life. Rather we need to be healed, re-created into a new order, no longer subject to the law of sin and death. Of course, it is a new spiritual state; until we die or the eschaton comes we are still in fallen, decaying bodies. But the essential us is re-created in union with Christ, to be clothed in a new body like that of Him at the end of time.
-------------------- To those who have never seen the flow and ebb of God's grace in their lives, it means nothing. To those who have seen it, even fleetingly, even only once - it is life itself. (Adeodatus)
Posts: 3011 | From: A village of gardens | Registered: Sep 2002
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Johnny S
Shipmate
# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape: This is pretty much how I see it, too.
Well then, please tell Seeker that when she comes back from holiday!
Seriously, it is helpful to understand what it is that we are discussing. In debates like over Steve Chalke's book conevos are first of all attacked for believing monstrous things and then lambasted again for having a go at Steve. I don't mind taking at the heat, but it might as well be deserved.
Right then, the issue is - CV Only (as in remove PSA completely and subsume all other models under the umbrella of CV). Okay, that is something I can get my teeth into.
quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Actually I don't think that is what CV is saying. It is saying that God does, and has, forgiven our sin already, but that forgiveness is not enough to bring us to eternal life. Rather we need to be healed, re-created into a new order, no longer subject to the law of sin and death. Of course, it is a new spiritual state; until we die or the eschaton comes we are still in fallen, decaying bodies. But the essential us is re-created in union with Christ, to be clothed in a new body like that of Him at the end of time.
Yep, I still don't quite understand this bit. How is this not universalism? And what part does repentance and faith play?
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Jolly Jape
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# 3296
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Posted
quote: Originaly posted by Johhny S quote: quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Actually I don't think that is what CV is saying. It is saying that God does, and has, forgiven our sin already, but that forgiveness is not enough to bring us to eternal life. Rather we need to be healed, re-created into a new order, no longer subject to the law of sin and death. Of course, it is a new spiritual state; until we die or the eschaton comes we are still in fallen, decaying bodies. But the essential us is re-created in union with Christ, to be clothed in a new body like that of Him at the end of time.
Yep, I still don't quite understand this bit. How is this not universalism? And what part does repentance and faith play?
Well, as for whether it is universalism or not, in a sense I have to argue this from a position which is not my own. Of course, as you know, I am a "weak (empty hell) universalist". However, I think that the position is not of necessity universalist. As I see it, repentance is the fruit of accepting our prior forgiveness, and is a gift given to us by the Holy Spirit as He unites us with Christ (sorry, Freddy). Faith is the means by which we appropriate the benefits of the victory that Christ has won for us. I would argue that this faith is not just our faith, but Christ's faith as well, so I would reject a simple "sinners prayer" type mechanism as being normative, but that's just me - Others would probably disagree.
-------------------- To those who have never seen the flow and ebb of God's grace in their lives, it means nothing. To those who have seen it, even fleetingly, even only once - it is life itself. (Adeodatus)
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape: However, I think that the position is not of necessity universalist. As I see it, repentance is the fruit of accepting our prior forgiveness, and is a gift given to us by the Holy Spirit as He unites us with Christ (sorry, Freddy). Faith is the means by which we appropriate the benefits of the victory that Christ has won for us. I would argue that this faith is not just our faith, but Christ's faith as well, so I would reject a simple "sinners prayer" type mechanism as being normative, but that's just me - Others would probably disagree.
As you know (too) I agree with you (sorry again Freddy) that the initiative in all this is God's. However, given that God already forgives us and (as it were) nothing stands between us, why on earth wouldn't God grant that gift to everyone? I can't see what is stopping this position collapsing into strong universalism.
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: In debates like over Steve Chalke's book conevos are first of all attacked for believing monstrous things and then lambasted again for having a go at Steve.
You know I read Chalke's book to see what all of the fuss is about. What he says is "The fact is that the cross isn't a form of cosmic child abuse". He is referring to the famous assertion by feminist theologian Joanne Carlson Brown and her paper "Divine Child Abuse", as many others have.
In the end his arguments are rather sloppy, and the whole debate seems to devolve into characterizations on both sides. From what you have been saying, I don't really see our views as being that far off. I agree with a lot of what you say about SA, I just don't think you've grasped CV yet, and there is a lot of depth there.
quote: How is this not universalism? And what part does repentance and faith play?
Why would it be universalism? CV was the central view of the church for the first 1000 years. It ain't universalism.
Another thing to understand is that Atonement theories are quite different from the Gospel. The Gospel is about what we need to do to be saved (by grace through faith). The Atonement is about what God did to make grace available. So regardless of whether one opts for CV or PSA or SA or whatever, this has nothing to do with things like repentance or faith (which are of course essential).
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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Jamat
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# 11621
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Posted
This discussion goes to the nub of the matter which is what is our standing before God and how precisely do we know. Universalism does seem to be implied by CV as expounded here and with it comes the issue of why be a Christian? Why indeed have a belief system at all if none of it matters since Hell, if it exists is empty.
I have no consistent access to computers ATM so sorry to backtrack to JJ's reply to my last post.
Freddy in no way demonstrated that the word redemption means victory. He asserted it and he is entitled to his view. In common parlance it means and has always been understood to mean 'ransom' or the buying back of something in pawn.
A literal hermeneutic is one which must take account of context and does not negate metaphor when same is indicated. The literalness of my view of the 'blood ' of Christ is in fact metaphorical. I just believe, literally that the shed blood was the actual mechanism by which the price was paid for my soul. I have never seen the literal blood and don't expect to.
The 'word' as written has in my view, power to transform us if we let it. If however, we decide in advance that it can't mean something that it plainly states, then we have to gloss it. Perhaps we do all do this. However, the triangulation of the 'Word', the HS and the church go a way towards keeping us straight here. Peter says no prophecy is to be privately interpreted. Is CV such a view? Its problem to me is a tendency to make God palatable to our humanitarian sensibilities. Thus it is in my view far more open to the charge of being anthropomorphic.
Interesting that you should state that CV demands the utter destruction of sin. The problem though is that sin is part of our very nature. For it to be destroyed, and us preserved, PSA is the only consistent way since it allows judgement of the sin but allows God's love of trhe sinner. CV (and you may be right, perhaps I don't understand it fully,) cannot show HOW we are united through the HS with the risen Christ. Paul states simply that Christ dies for our sin thereby undergoing the judgement due to us. This seems to be stated and restated through his epistles. Gal 3:13 says Christ became a curse for us. How on earth could it mean anything except that Christ was subject to God's righteous judgement because our sins and sinfulness were imputed to him?
The need for conversion you believe in? But you don't necessarily believe in praying the 'sinners prayer'? What then is conversion? A mental assent to perfection as personified in Christ? If so, how does this enable the radical recreation that Christ states we need in John 3?
Did Jesus teach PSA? He did not teach any systematic theology as we know it. He was a Jewish rabbi who proclaimed himself as the promised messiah and proved it through his signs. His teaching was primarily addressed to Jews under Mosaic law and pharisaic interpretation of same. However, he did say at one point that the 'son of man came to give himself a ransom for many.' Quite PSA in a sense don't you think?
The 'God is angry despot that needs appeasing' problem seems to me to show the problem of CV. God as he reveals himself is angry, is a despot and needs appeasing; does he? Well this is human viewpoint. God ain't one of us. We cannot afford to judge him as we would judge one of ourselves. His ways are not ours nor his thoughts ours. Could it be that in our struggle to comprehend him we have presumed to pass judgement on him? To me this is the issue that drives CV.
Have I actually read this thread? I perhaps haven't read some posts as closely as I might. but I have been on this thread since about Pg 2. I appreciate JJ how you always take the time to comment point by point and endeavour to shed light rather than heat on the issues as you see them. Could you possibly be wrong though? quite simply wrong? PSA as she is generally understood is the basis of both Catholic and Reformed thinking about Christ. Show me one tradition that does not assume it as a given?
-------------------- Jamat ..in utmost longditude, where Heaven with Earth and ocean meets, the setting sun slowly descended, and with right aspect Against the eastern gate of Paradise. (Milton Paradise Lost Bk iv)
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David Castor
Apprentice
# 11357
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Posted
quote: However, he did say at one point that the 'son of man came to give himself a ransom for many.' Quite PSA in a sense don't you think?
Actually, if anything, this quote seems to endorse CV. The idea that God could hold himself to ransom is rather silly, in my opinion. [ 11. July 2007, 01:37: Message edited by: David Castor ]
-------------------- Come visit "The Ministry of Incompetence" at http://ministryofincompetence.blogspot.com
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: given that God already forgives us and (as it were) nothing stands between us, why on earth wouldn't God grant that gift to everyone?
The issues is that forgiveness is not for God simply a matter of willingness (God loved us while we were sinners) but restoration of relationship. That requires two parties. Additionally forgiveness is just one of many metaphors Scripture uses to describe redemption. Others are cleansing, new birth, ransom... these imply together that there is some sort liberation from death and the bondage of sin together with a new identity in Christ that involve our participation and relationship with God. So the idea that God would just write us a blank "that's ok do whatever you want" check just does not square with Scripture nor with experience.
I want to stress that one should not confuse Palagianism with Christus Victor. One is a heresy and the other was the primary understanding of the primitive church for the first millennium of its history. Christus Victor most certainly does not say that everything is OK between us and God. It stresses that sin is a bondage the leads to death that we need to be set free from.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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David Castor
Apprentice
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Posted
Actually, I think that the logical conclusion of PSA is universalism - notwithstanding the fact that universalist PSAers are a small group indeed. If Christ's death pays the penalty for sin, why can't it pay the penalty for everyone's sin? How does repentance actually make this transaction efficacious? If someone paid your fine, it would still be paid whether you said thankyou or not.
-------------------- Come visit "The Ministry of Incompetence" at http://ministryofincompetence.blogspot.com
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Universalism does seem to be implied by CV as expounded here and with it comes the issue of why be a Christian?
But it doesn't (see above). In fact it strongly implies that we are to follow Christ in the way of the cross which involves (in the Christus Victor model) a life of humility, servanthood, and love of enemies.
quote: Freddy in no way demonstrated that the word redemption means victory.
The word redemption refers the the slave market, and for a Jew in the time of Jesus would immediately connote and image of their exodus out of slavery in Egypt and their feeling of being in exile in pagan Rome. So it would in other words connote the themes of liberation from bondage which is exactly the theme of Christus Victor. Same goes for the term "ransom".
<i>Its problem to me is a tendency to make God palatable to our humanitarian sensibilities. </i>
Some aspects of it are. One can say the same of PSA. But since CV is an ancient view going back to 150AD it also contains much that steps on our (post)modern toes. So it is important to wrestle through all of CV, not just the parts that fit well with our (post)modern view. Similarly substitutionary atonement is a rather important part of CV that has a tendency to be brushed over today but is a vital part of the picture.
quote: Interesting that you should state that CV demands the utter destruction of sin. The problem though is that sin is part of our very nature. For it to be destroyed, and us preserved, PSA is the only consistent way since it allows judgement of the sin but allows God's love of trhe sinner.
Again CV contains substitutionary atonement which is opperating as you describe PSA here. This quote from Martin Luther is helpful. Luther begins by describing the problem of sin in Christus Victor terms:
"When the merciful Father saw that we were being oppressed through the Law, that we were being held under a curse, and that we could not be liberated from it by anything..."
then shifts into substitutionary atonement,
"...He sent His Son into the world, heaped all the sins of all men upon Him, and said to Him: “Be Peter the denier; Paul the persecutor, blasphemer, and assaulter; David the adulterer; the sinner who ate the apple in Paradise; the thief on the cross. In short, be the person of all men, the one who has committed the sins of all men. And see to it that You pay and make satisfaction for them."
and then explains this in the context of Christus Victor,
“Let us see how Christ was able to gain the victory over our enemies. The sins of the whole world, past, present, and future, fastened themselves upon Christ and condemned Him. But because Christ is God He had an everlasting and unconquerable righteousness. These two, the sin of the world and the righteousness of God, met in a death struggle. Furiously the sin of the world assailed the righteousness of God. Righteousness is immortal and invincible. On the other hand, sin is a mighty tyrant who subdues all men. This tyrant pounces on Christ. But Christ’s righteousness is unconquerable. The result is inevitable. Sin is defeated and righteousness triumphs and reigns forever.”
(from Luther's commentary on Galatians 3:13)
quote: How on earth could it mean anything except that Christ was subject to God's righteous judgement because our sins and sinfulness were imputed to him?
It does mean that, but it means more: Isa 53 says that Christ bore not only our transgressions, but also our suffering and infirmity, meaning that God in Christ took on all that might separate us from him - shame, abuse, grief, pain, doubt, helplessness, fear, so that nothing might separate us from the love of God.
quote: "he did say at one point that the 'son of man came to give himself a ransom for many.' Quite PSA in a sense don't you think?
As i explained two posts ago this is clearly a CV theme. Jews would not have seen the Roman cross as a fulfillment of justice, but as a curse.
quote: PSA as she is generally understood is the basis of both Catholic and Reformed thinking about Christ.
This is not actually true. PSA is the foundation of Calvinism. It is not the view of Luther, nor was it ever the view of the Catholic Church.
quote: Show me one tradition that does not assume it as a given?
Christianity for the first 1000 years, the Eastern Orthodox Church, (both CV) and as I said above Lutheranism, Methodism, and Catholicism do not espouse PSA.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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daronmedway
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# 3012
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by David Castor: Actually, I think that the logical conclusion of PSA is universalism - notwithstanding the fact that universalist PSAers are a small group indeed. If Christ's death pays the penalty for sin, why can't it pay the penalty for everyone's sin? How does repentance actually make this transaction efficacious? If someone paid your fine, it would still be paid whether you said thankyou or not.
Not if you understand that a person must be in Christ and therefore be crucified with him. Some people think that the substitutionary death of Christ is something that happened 'over there' so to speak: the logic of this view is universalism. This isn't the case, because for Christ's death to be meaningfully substitutional one must understand that one was in Christ dying with him. In other words Christ's death was, and is, the means by which you understand yourself, in a very real sense, to have died.
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: for Christ's death to be meaningfully substitutional one must understand that one was in Christ dying with him. In other words Christ's death was, and is, the means by which you understand yourself, in a very real sense, to have died.
This is quite biblical, but does not make sense with the logic of PSA which says that Christ is punished instead of us. So while the above view fits with SA (and with the Bible) it does not fit with PSA.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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Johnny S
Shipmate
# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: quote: for Christ's death to be meaningfully substitutional one must understand that one was in Christ dying with him. In other words Christ's death was, and is, the means by which you understand yourself, in a very real sense, to have died.
This is quite biblical, but does not make sense with the logic of PSA which says that Christ is punished instead of us. So while the above view fits with SA (and with the Bible) it does not fit with PSA.
How can you have a Substitutional model that is not about Christ dying in our place (instead of us)? I thought that was what substitution meant?
I think you are being a little naive about how atonement models work in your sweeping generalisations about the origins of relative models. We are discussing the relative merits of different models now, it is actually very hard to demonstrate and delineate the evolution of those models. For example there is clear evidence of PSA in the early church fathers. You are trying to make a grey issue (the dominance of certain models) very black and white. It just doesn't 'fit' with Church History.
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Jolly Jape
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# 3296
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Posted
Just to try and clarify the universalist tangent, I accept that there are fewer problems with universalism under a CV rather than a PSA schema, but Numpty's excellent post above (with which I agree) is true both for PSA and for CV. What is true of the one is also true of the other. I am a weak universalist, and also a proponent of CV, but I hold these positions for quite different, and I believe thoroughly scriptural reasons. Belief in the one is not consequential of belief in the other. I very much suspect that most CVers are non-universalist, so I don't think it can be demonstrated that the one is the logical conclusion of the other.
-------------------- To those who have never seen the flow and ebb of God's grace in their lives, it means nothing. To those who have seen it, even fleetingly, even only once - it is life itself. (Adeodatus)
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape: Just to try and clarify the universalist tangent, I accept that there are fewer problems with universalism under a CV rather than a PSA schema, but Numpty's excellent post above (with which I agree) is true both for PSA and for CV. What is true of the one is also true of the other. I am a weak universalist, and also a proponent of CV, but I hold these positions for quite different, and I believe thoroughly scriptural reasons. Belief in the one is not consequential of belief in the other. I very much suspect that most CVers are non-universalist, so I don't think it can be demonstrated that the one is the logical conclusion of the other.
I believe you JJ, but is that because you are right or just because you are (like all of us are to some degree) being inconsistent? It could be that most CVers are non-universalist (at the moment) because they haven't yet reached the end of the trajectory of thought.
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Jolly Jape
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# 3296
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Johnny S: quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape: Just to try and clarify the universalist tangent, I accept that there are fewer problems with universalism under a CV rather than a PSA schema, but Numpty's excellent post above (with which I agree) is true both for PSA and for CV. What is true of the one is also true of the other. I am a weak universalist, and also a proponent of CV, but I hold these positions for quite different, and I believe thoroughly scriptural reasons. Belief in the one is not consequential of belief in the other. I very much suspect that most CVers are non-universalist, so I don't think it can be demonstrated that the one is the logical conclusion of the other.
I believe you JJ, but is that because you are right or just because you are (like all of us are to some degree) being inconsistent? It could be that most CVers are non-universalist (at the moment) because they haven't yet reached the end of the trajectory of thought.
Well, of course, I believe I'm right !
Seriously though, what think you of the following argument, which I would guess would be used by non-u CVers.
Suppose that you are ill of a disease which, if untreated will prove fatal, but is curable with appropriate medication. The efficacy of the treatment is undoubted, but if you refuse to take the meds prescribed for you, then you will die.
Of course, this argument could equally be used by PSAers, which I why I would argue that there is no inherent link between universalism and any particular objective view of the atonement.
The debate re universalism is about how effective God is in persuading us to take the meds, rather than about the efficacy of the cure. Even (at least, weak) universalists agree that "taking the medication" (ie having our sinful nature transformed) is a prerequisite for eternal life.
-------------------- To those who have never seen the flow and ebb of God's grace in their lives, it means nothing. To those who have seen it, even fleetingly, even only once - it is life itself. (Adeodatus)
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daronmedway
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# 3012
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: quote: for Christ's death to be meaningfully substitutional one must understand that one was in Christ dying with him. In other words Christ's death was, and is, the means by which you understand yourself, in a very real sense, to have died.
This is quite biblical, but does not make sense with the logic of PSA which says that Christ is punished instead of us. So while the above view fits with SA (and with the Bible) it does not fit with PSA.
I think it does. Paul quite clearly said that he had been crucified with Christ: this can only refer to some form of mystical union with Christ in his death. However, Paul is perfectly clear that Christ's death was also in some sense substutionary. So, IMO, these two truths must held in tension: for the atonement to effectual we must be in mystical union with Christ crucified as our substitute. We must participate in Christ's death in order to render our death unnecessary, and indeed double jeopardy.
Any model of substitutionary atonement (penal or otherwise) that does not specify mystical union with Christ as the means by which the benefits of the passion are appropriated is, IMO, sub-biblical. It is not enough to stand back an watch Christ suffer and say, 'That is being done for me'; we must understand that in some sense it is being done to us as well as for us.
Penal substitution only makes sense if one recognises one's mystical union - and one's very real presence - with Christ in the crucifixion event. It is not possible for Christ to die 'for our sins' unless we are in some sense present with and in Christ as he dies. Jesus did not take the blame for our sins in the sense that God punished him for something he didn't do. Jesus took the blame for our sins in the sense that he came with us - or, to look at it from another angle, took us with him - to the cross and experienced, as temporal reality, the wage for sinfulness that we brought with us.
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Jolly Jape
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# 3296
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Posted
quote: Any model of substitutionary atonement (penal or otherwise) that does not specify mystical union with Christ as the means by which the benefits of the passion are appropriated is, IMO, sub-biblical. It is not enough to stand back an watch Christ suffer and say, 'That is being done for me'; we must understand that in some sense it is being done to us as well as for us.
Penal substitution only makes sense if one recognises one's mystical union - and one's very real presence - with Christ in the crucifixion event. It is not possible for Christ to die 'for our sins' unless we are in some sense present with and in Christ as he dies. Jesus did not take the blame for our sins in the sense that God punished him for something he didn't do. Jesus took the blame for our sins in the sense that he came with us - or, to look at it from another angle, took us with him - to the cross and experienced, as temporal reality, the wage for sinfulness that we brought with us.
I agree that mystical union is absolutely at the heart of what moves the atonement from the cosmic to the personal. I don't think that the Atonement needs to be expressed penally for the above argument (with much of which I agree) to be valid. We die with Christ, we are raised to new life with Him . [ 11. July 2007, 14:40: Message edited by: Jolly Jape ]
-------------------- To those who have never seen the flow and ebb of God's grace in their lives, it means nothing. To those who have seen it, even fleetingly, even only once - it is life itself. (Adeodatus)
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daronmedway
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# 3012
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Posted
That's the verse, among others, to which I'm referring. But how does that explain Colossians 2.13-14: quote: 13And you, who were dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses, 14by canceling the record of debt that stood against us with its legal demands. This he set aside, nailing it to the cross.
A question: according to this passage what was nailed to the cross? And how was it nailed to the cross; in other words, by what 'vehicle' was it so nailed?
[Cross Posted: Reply to Jolly Jape] [ 11. July 2007, 16:47: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: I think it does. Paul quite clearly said that he had been crucified with Christ: this can only refer to some form of mystical union with Christ in his death. However, Paul is perfectly clear that Christ's death was also in some sense substutionary.[?QUOTE]
You have demonstrated that the idea of substitution being "with" is Biblical, and that also that Christ's death is substitutionary for Paul (meaning "for us"). But As I said before this does not fit with PSA which says that Christ's death is "instead of", which you seem to be denying since "with" and "instead of" are opposites.
It seems to me that you are arguing for substitutionary atonement rather than penal substitution.
[QUOTE]Any model of substitutionary atonement (penal or otherwise) that does not specify mystical union with Christ as the means by which the benefits of the passion are appropriated is, IMO, sub-biblical.
I would agree.
quote: Jesus took the blame for our sins in the sense that he came with us - or, to look at it from another angle, took us with him - to the cross and experienced, as temporal reality, the wage for sinfulness that we brought with us
I agree again, but that is not penal substitution. That is recapitulation.
Seems that, so far, we are agreeing on what Christ's death means as far as substitutionary atonement goes, and that the disagreement is over the terminology. I don't recognize penal substitution in what you are describing.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
Johnny S,
quote: How can you have a Substitutional model that is not about Christ dying in our place (instead of us)? I thought that was what substitution meant?
Well I think Numpty has explained how quite well already. But no, substitution does not necessarily imply "instead of", that is the specific interpretation of PSA. Substitution as a theological term can also mean "for us" or "with us" or "as us".
quote: I think you are being a little naive about how atonement models work in your sweeping generalisations about the origins of relative models. We are discussing the relative merits of different models now, it is actually very hard to demonstrate and delineate the evolution of those models. For example there is clear evidence of PSA in the early church fathers.
The only time I have heard a theologian claim this is in the book "Pierced for Our Transgression". Nearly every other theologian and biblical scholar has said quite the opposite, so this point is anything but clear. having read the Church Fathers myself I think it is a rather absurd argument that does not hold up upon examination.
quote: You are trying to make a grey issue (the dominance of certain models) very black and white. It just doesn't 'fit' with Church History.
Am I? What I said was in response to the assertion that there was no atonement tradition within Christianity at all that was not based on PSA. I said in response that the predominant model for the first 1000 years was CV. There were currents of other models, for instance in Tertullian or Cyprian, but note the "greyness" of saying "predominant" as opposed to claiming that "only" PSA exists. The fact is that CV was the dominant model and that part of the Church Father's understanding of CV involved elements of punishment for sin and substitution. However to find PSA in that as the authors of "Pierced" do, involves cherry picking rather than a reading of what the Father's actual point is. [ 11. July 2007, 17:15: Message edited by: sharktacos ]
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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daronmedway
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# 3012
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Posted
sharktacos wrote: quote: I don't recognize penal substitution in what you are describing.
Well, I'm looking at it from another angle and from where I'm standing I can see it quite clearly. What I'm saying is this: if I am to accept that Jesus's death is (at least in part)penal (and I do) then it must be because he is acting as the vehicle for an alien unrighteousness. I believe that alien unrighteousness to be me. If I am not in Christ then his death cannot be penal. If I am in Christ then his death must be penal. Why? Because, in Christ, I am receiving the due penalty for my sin. I am a sinner, I deserve to die. [ 11. July 2007, 17:16: Message edited by: Call me Numpty ]
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Call me Numpty: sharktacos wrote: quote: I don't recognize penal substitution in what you are describing.
Well, I'm looking at it from another angle and from where I'm standing I can see it quite clearly. What I'm saying is this: if I am to accept that Jesus's death is (at least in part)penal (and I do) then it must be because he is acting as the vehicle for an alien unrighteousness. I believe that alien unrighteousness to be me. If I am not in Christ then his death cannot be penal. If I am in Christ then his death must be penal. Why? Because, in Christ, I am receiving the due penalty for my sin. I am a sinner, I deserve to die.
That makes sense, and I agree, including the penal elements.
What I would say is 1) this is a different understanding of penal then the classical legal instead of punishment view that is classically associated with PSA.
2) there is more do Christ death "in us" and "as us" then simply the penal. Christ takes on our guilt, but also takes on the damage of sin done to us, takes on our pain, suffering, and injustice.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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sharktacos
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# 12807
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Posted
quote:
2) there is more do Christ death "in us" and "as us" then simply the penal. Christ takes on our guilt, but also takes on the damage of sin done to us, takes on our pain, suffering, and injustice.
To say this more starkly: Christ on the cross became both the rapist and the raped. Meaning he took on the worst of our guilt and evil, and he also carried the most severe abuse and injustice that can be done to us so that nothing, not the sin we do and not the sin done to us, could separate us from love. To be fully biblical we need both of those elements in our understanding of substitution.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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daronmedway
Shipmate
# 3012
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: quote:
2) there is more do Christ death "in us" and "as us" then simply the penal. Christ takes on our guilt, but also takes on the damage of sin done to us, takes on our pain, suffering, and injustice.
To say this more starkly: Christ on the cross became both the rapist and the raped.
No. That's just nonsense, and if that's really what some so-called proponents of PSA believe then I feel very sorry for them. And I'd rather align myself with the likes Karl and Seeker than with someone who could posit such asinine pop-theology. Christ was never a sinner; never.
quote: Meaning he took on the worst of our guilt and evil, and he also carried the most severe abuse and injustice that can be done to us so that nothing, not the sin we do and not the sin done to us, could separate us from love.
This sentence has no logical relationship to the previous one whatsoever. God the Father did not under any circumstances abuse the Son or treat him unjustly. Christ mystically took us to a painless punishment and died in our stead but not in our absence; he did not become a sinner so that God could legitimately kill him. He did not become the object of wrath from who we are spiritually detached; he allowed us to hide in him in order that we might survive God's wrath.
quote: To be fully biblical we need both of those elements in our understanding of substitution.
Granted, but I'm not sure that you understand how propitiation actually works.
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Jolly Jape: Suppose that you are ill of a disease which, if untreated will prove fatal, but is curable with appropriate medication. The efficacy of the treatment is undoubted, but if you refuse to take the meds prescribed for you, then you will die.
Of course, this argument could equally be used by PSAers, which I why I would argue that there is no inherent link between universalism and any particular objective view of the atonement.
The debate re universalism is about how effective God is in persuading us to take the meds, rather than about the efficacy of the cure. Even (at least, weak) universalists agree that "taking the medication" (ie having our sinful nature transformed) is a prerequisite for eternal life.
I quite like the analogy but I'm not sure what light it sheds on PSA vs. CV. I'll need to think about it a bit more. My instinctive reaction is that CV tends towards universalism because I can't envisage a situation where a victory is won in a manner that 'taking the medication' is a genuine choice. A penal understanding treats us as 'people' and therefore I can just about visualise the possiblity of people accepting or rejecting the 'medicine'.
However, maybe you can come up with examples... I need to think some more!
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: Johnny S,
quote: How can you have a Substitutional model that is not about Christ dying in our place (instead of us)? I thought that was what substitution meant?
Well I think Numpty has explained how quite well already. But no, substitution does not necessarily imply "instead of", that is the specific interpretation of PSA. Substitution as a theological term can also mean "for us" or "with us" or "as us".
I know that there is debate over what 'Christ died for us' means ... hence 'for us', 'with us' or 'as us'. However, I think it is disingenuous to keep calling it 'substitution' since the term in English has always had some sense of 'instead of' - that is after all what a substitute is. If you think that this model is wrong then fine - suggest another one - however, I think it is disingenuous to carry on claiming that it is substitutionary when there is no substitution. To me this is classic POMO thinking a word is now taken to mean something completely different to what it used to mean but everyone is supposed to be happy because it is still the same word!
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: What I said was in response to the assertion that there was no atonement tradition within Christianity at all that was not based on PSA.
Who said that?
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: I said in response that the predominant model for the first 1000 years was CV. There were currents of other models, for instance in Tertullian or Cyprian, but note the "greyness" of saying "predominant" as opposed to claiming that "only" PSA exists.
Please, PLEASE, read through this thread and count the number of times when anyone has claimed anything remotely PSA Only. In fact I haven't read the 'Pierced for our transgressions' book but in the 2 minutes I spent skimming through it managed to read a paragraph which very specifically stated that they were not PSA Only.
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: The fact is that CV was the dominant model and that part of the Church Father's understanding of CV involved elements of punishment for sin and substitution. However to find PSA in that as the authors of "Pierced" do, involves cherry picking rather than a reading of what the Father's actual point is.
I don't follow you. Are you saying that the Church Father's taught Substitutionary atonement and they also contained elements of punishment for sin but they knew nothing of what we could call PSA? I can quote Eusebius or Cyril if you want me to.
I could equally ask you what answer you think the Church Father's would give to the following question - "Does God punish sinners?"
I'm not claiming that the Church Father's taught a fully developed 21st century PSA, only that they taught nothing that is incompatible with it. [ 11. July 2007, 21:54: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
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sharktacos
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Numpty I am thrown off by how rude your post to me was. "Asinine...nonsense...illogical..." If you would like to re-post with a bit of civility and respect then I will respond. Other wise I will put you on my ignore list. I simply have no room for that. Your choice.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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sharktacos
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Johnny S,
quote: I think it is disingenuous to keep calling it 'substitution' since the term in English has always had some sense of 'instead of' - that is after all what a substitute is.
You need to understand that there is the way a word is used in common English, and then there is how it is used in theology. A good example is the word "satisfaction". In common usage today it means "gratification" as in the Rolling Stones song. However this is not what it means in a theological context. There it means "compensation" or "restitution". I am here using the term "substitution" as it is classically defined in its theological sense. I am not making up the definition, nor am I being "pomo", that is just simply what the term means and has meant for a long time in this particular theological context.
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: What I said was in response to the assertion that there was no atonement tradition within Christianity at all that was not based on PSA.
Who said that?
Jamat did.
quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: I said in response that the predominant model for the first 1000 years was CV. There were currents of other models, for instance in Tertullian or Cyprian, but note the "greyness" of saying "predominant" as opposed to claiming that "only" PSA exists.
Please, PLEASE, read through this thread and count the number of times when anyone has claimed anything remotely PSA Only.
I never said they did. I merely stated the context of my statement which you had responded to.
quote: Are you saying that the Church Father's taught Substitutionary atonement and they also contained elements of punishment for sin but they knew nothing of what we could call PSA?
Pretty close. I am saying that the dominant view of the Church Fathers was CV, and that CV contains elements of substitution and elements of penalty, but is not PSA. And I am saying that PSA specifically did not exist before Calvin.
quote: I can quote Eusebius or Cyril if you want me to.
Go right ahead. Please give references as to where the quote is from.
quote: I could equally ask you what answer you think the Church Father's would give to the following question - "Does God punish sinners?"
They would say sinners deserve punishment, but God desires mercy.
quote: I'm not claiming that the Church Father's taught a fully developed 21st century PSA, only that they taught nothing that is incompatible with it.
I quoted Athanasius in a post above saying something that clearly is in conflict with PSA (just do a find for his name). I could also give you quite a few quotes from Luther that conflict with PSA. I would say that PSA clearly conflicts with the view of the early church.
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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Jamat
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quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: [ quote: PSA as she is generally understood is the basis of both Catholic and Reformed thinking about Christ.
This is not actually true. PSA is the foundation of Calvinism. It is not the view of Luther, nor was it ever the view of the Catholic Church.
quote: Show me one tradition that does not assume it as a given?
Christianity for the first 1000 years, the Eastern Orthodox Church, (both CV) and as I said above Lutheranism, Methodism, and Catholicism do not espouse PSA. [/QB]
So John Wesley preached CV did he? I wonder if the hymns his brother wrote were CV too "'His blood can make the foulest clean..his blood availed for me.."
I was raised Catholic and pretty well knew the mass off by heart. We eat his body and drink his blood. Why I wonder is this necessary? To me it is not that Christ isn't the victor over sin and evil. Of course I believe he is. The issue is the mechanism by which the victory comes and by which we benefit from it. We benefit because He was judged for our sin, it was the sacrifice he made on calvary for us. What was this sacrifice if not a penal substitution? We participate because as we exercise our faith in Christ, God sees our sin was judged when Christ was. Having been forgiven we are also freed from the nature that restricted us so our sin and our sinfulness are both addressed. We are radically recreated or born again and we have the potential to be genuinely holy. Can there be any substitution that is not penal? Can there be holiness without a penalty being paid for sin? Could anyone but the perfect lamb have paid the penalty? In Revelation the only one found worthy to open the was the lamb who presents as having been slain.
-------------------- Jamat ..in utmost longditude, where Heaven with Earth and ocean meets, the setting sun slowly descended, and with right aspect Against the eastern gate of Paradise. (Milton Paradise Lost Bk iv)
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Jamat
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quote: Originally posted by David Castor: Actually, I think that the logical conclusion of PSA is universalism - notwithstanding the fact that universalist PSAers are a small group indeed. If Christ's death pays the penalty for sin, why can't it pay the penalty for everyone's sin? How does repentance actually make this transaction efficacious? If someone paid your fine, it would still be paid whether you said thank you or not.
Do you mean by this that one who thinks, as I do, that Christ took the judgement of my sin on the cross and who believes that I must actively appropriate the benefits of this through faith am in fact without knowing it, a universalist? The problem with your last sentence is assuming any appropriation can be automatic. You are free to accept or free to reject. [ 12. July 2007, 03:43: Message edited by: Jamat ]
-------------------- Jamat ..in utmost longditude, where Heaven with Earth and ocean meets, the setting sun slowly descended, and with right aspect Against the eastern gate of Paradise. (Milton Paradise Lost Bk iv)
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Jamat
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quote: Originally posted by Call me Numpty: quote: Originally posted by David Castor: Actually, I think that the logical conclusion of PSA is universalism - notwithstanding the fact that universalist PSAers are a small group indeed. If Christ's death pays the penalty for sin, why can't it pay the penalty for everyone's sin? How does repentance actually make this transaction efficacious? If someone paid your fine, it would still be paid whether you said thankyou or not.
Not if you understand that a person must be in Christ and therefore be crucified with him. Some people think that the substitutionary death of Christ is something that happened 'over there' so to speak: the logic of this view is universalism. This isn't the case, because for Christ's death to be meaningfully substitutional one must understand that one was in Christ dying with him. In other words Christ's death was, and is, the means by which you understand yourself, in a very real sense, to have died.
Which is precisely taught in Romans 6 if anyone cares to tead it. As we were with him in the likeness of his death, so we shall be with him in the likeness of his resurrection [ 12. July 2007, 03:52: Message edited by: Jamat ]
-------------------- Jamat ..in utmost longditude, where Heaven with Earth and ocean meets, the setting sun slowly descended, and with right aspect Against the eastern gate of Paradise. (Milton Paradise Lost Bk iv)
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Jamat
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quote: Originally posted by David Castor: quote: However, he did say at one point that the 'son of man came to give himself a ransom for many.' Quite PSA in a sense don't you think?
Actually, if anything, this quote seems to endorse CV. The idea that God could hold himself to ransom is rather silly, in my opinion.
In paying a ransom for many, Jesus was accepting a transference of sin onto himself which was undeserved. Through this mechanism as outlined in Is 53, he bore our sins and carried our issues. In Gethsemane his agony came about as a consequence of a turning away of the father from him as he gave himself up to be judged for the sin of the world. How is this model not perfectly consistent with everything we read in the scripture? [ 12. July 2007, 04:08: Message edited by: Jamat ]
-------------------- Jamat ..in utmost longditude, where Heaven with Earth and ocean meets, the setting sun slowly descended, and with right aspect Against the eastern gate of Paradise. (Milton Paradise Lost Bk iv)
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Jamat
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quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: CV ..... is about God overcoming evil and liberating us out of its bondage.
And precisely how this occurs is the problem bit if you take away the idea that Christ was judged in our place
-------------------- Jamat ..in utmost longditude, where Heaven with Earth and ocean meets, the setting sun slowly descended, and with right aspect Against the eastern gate of Paradise. (Milton Paradise Lost Bk iv)
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daronmedway
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quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: Numpty I am thrown off by how rude your post to me was. "Asinine...nonsense...illogical..." If you would like to re-post with a bit of civility and respect then I will respond. Other wise I will put you on my ignore list. I simply have no room for that. Your choice.
quote: Originally posted by Call me Numpty: quote: Originally posted by sharktacos: quote:
2) there is more do Christ death "in us" and "as us" then simply the penal. Christ takes on our guilt, but also takes on the damage of sin done to us, takes on our pain, suffering, and injustice.
To say this more starkly: Christ on the cross became both the rapist and the raped.
No. That's just nonsense, and if that's really what some so-called proponents of PSA believe then I feel very sorry for them. And I'd rather align myself with the likes Karl and Seeker than with someone who could posit such asinine pop-theology. Christ was never a sinner; never.
OK, I’m sorry to have offended you. Let me rephrase.
I disagree with that statement because it simply doesn’t make sense. I'd rather align myself theologically with critics of PSA than with a theology that is posited in such a two-dimensional and biblically inaccurate manner. Christ did not become a rapist: never.
I stand by the rest which can be read here.
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David Castor
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quote: Originally posted by Jamat: quote: Originally posted by David Castor: quote: However, he did say at one point that the 'son of man came to give himself a ransom for many.' Quite PSA in a sense don't you think?
Actually, if anything, this quote seems to endorse CV. The idea that God could hold himself to ransom is rather silly, in my opinion.
In paying a ransom for many, Jesus was accepting a transference of sin onto himself which was undeserved. Through this mechanism as outlined in Is 53, he bore our sins and carried our issues. In Gethsemane his agony came about as a consequence of a turning away of the father from him as he gave himself up to be judged for the sin of the world. How is this model not perfectly consistent with everything we read in the scripture?
But in what sense is this actually a *ransom*?
-------------------- Come visit "The Ministry of Incompetence" at http://ministryofincompetence.blogspot.com
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sharktacos
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Jamat,
quote: So John Wesley preached CV did he?
Methodism, generally speaking goes with the "Moral Government" view of the Atonement outlined by John Milley. Milley specifically rejects PSA.
quote: I was raised Catholic and pretty well knew the mass off by heart. We eat his body and drink his blood. Why I wonder is this necessary?
According to Thomas Aquinas, it has to do with Christ doing penance for our original sin. Again, Aquinas specifically rejects the PSA formula:
"If we speak of that satisfactory punishment[i.e. penance], which one takes upon oneself voluntarily, one may bear another's punishment... If, however, we speak of punishment inflicted on account of sin, inasmuch as it is penal, then each one is punished for his own sin only, because the sinful act is something personal."(Summa Theologica FS, Q. 87-A8)
quote: What was this sacrifice if not a penal substitution?
It was a ransom. A sacrafice of love. Bearing injustice and suffering. A recapitulation. A liberation. An overcoming of evil with good...
quote: Can there be any substitution that is not penal?
Yup. Isa 53 talks about this. Christ bears our "sorrow" and our "infirmity". Just look at who Jesus calls to himself throughout the Gospels: the sick, the least, the children, the heavyladen, prisoners, a woman "kept in bondage by Satan", the poor. See a pattern? He died for them too.
quote:
Can there be holiness without a penalty being paid for sin?
Here you lost me. Why would inflicting a penalty make something holy?
-------------------- The Rebel God blog http://sharktacos.com/God/
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