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Source: (consider it) Thread: Purgatory: Filioque - thoughts on validity?
Pontifical
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Hello, Andreas,

quote:
I think that if this was the case, then the Romans and the Greeks would have solved the matter when it arose.

The document gave me the impression that in retrospect they want to change their position in a way so that they don't appear to change their position, something like "look, we always believed that, it was all a misunderstanding."

I'm afraid you can't really say this, Andreas; if you want to argue with what the Roman position on this issue is, then I'm afraid that's PRECISELY what you must do: argue with the ROMAN position! You can't dispair if you suddenly realise that the position is actually the same as the Orthodox position, and insist therefore that that can't possibly be the case! To do so would be something akin to tilting at windmills...

My point all along has been that 99% of the Filioque debate has been pure politics. And I don't only mean from the Orthodox side, either. The Latins are just as bad; politics can be a very powerful and entrenched thing.

But you seem to have determined that the Latin position is NOT and CAN not be the same as the Orthodox, and therefore my reasoning must be wrong, because it seems to suggest that this discrepancy is due to a simple misunderstanding? Politically speaking, I'm not sure that the Greeks were in any mood to be considering union with the Latins in the difficult situation of that time, and who can blame them? But I'm NOT convinced that this was down to the filioque.

quote:
The first time I read that "proceed" is not a translation for "ekporevomai" was from the document the pope composed a few years ago.
But the Nicean Creed in Greek reads:

quote:
kai eis to pneuma to hagion, to kurion, (kai) to zoopion, to ek tou patros ekporeuomenon...
Which, as we know and agree, is talking about procession in the ontological sense of having-ones-being (literally "the-one-coming-out from the Father). We are NOT saying or suggesting that ekporeusthai CANNOT be translated as "procedere" in Latin; we are simply saying that, as has undoubtably always been the case (dare I suggest that this has been believed in at all times in all places and by all of the Faithful?! [Biased] ) proeinai (which, as we know CAN be said of the Holy Spirit from the Son) can ALSO be translated as procedere! Given that the word in the Latin creed can be translated as both ekporeusthai AND proeinai, this seems to explain the whole controversy to me. And the rest, as they say, is politics...

I hope you don't want it to be otherwise... The West has never claimed that Christ is a second principle (aitia) in the Trinity... As I quoted from St. Augustine:

quote:
and God the Father alone is He from whom the Word is born, and from whom the Holy Spirit principally proceeds.
I hope this goes some way to resolving the issue.

Best wishes,

Ian.

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El Greco
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quote:
Originally posted by Pontifical:
proeinai (which, as we know CAN be said of the Holy Spirit from the Son) can ALSO be translated as procedere! Given that the word in the Latin creed can be translated as both ekporeusthai AND proeinai, this seems to explain the whole controversy to me.

Again, the first time I came upon the word "proeinai" is when I read that document by the pope. I have not found it in the ancient documents, and I want you to exaplain what you mean by that word.

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Pontifical
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Thank you once again, Andreas:

quote:
Again, the first time I came upon the word "proeinai" is when I read that document by the pope. I have not found it in the ancient documents, and I want you to exaplain what you mean by that word.
Well, I should like to tell you that it is infact used in the ancient texts, even (I would venture to add) those specifically relating to this topic; so much so, that I am surprised that you have not read them?

For example, St. Cyril of Alexandria, writing in his Thesaurus says:

quote:
"The Spirit proceeds (proeisi) from the Father and the Son; clearly, he is of the divine substance, proceeding (proion) substantially in it and from it"

St Cyril of Alexandria, Thesaurus

Now the "proeinai" verb is clearly used here in this EXPLICIT context, so I hope that satisfies you as to its use in the old texts.

As to its meaning, proeinai was always used to suggest, well I suspect that "sending of the Holy Spirit from Christ" which you spoke of in an earlier post. I think Metropolitan John (Zizioulas) of Pergamon puts it better than I do(understandably - that's why he's a Metropolitan!) when he says:

quote:
It is historically true that in the Greek tradition a clear distinction was always made between ekporeuesthai and proeinai, the first of these two terms denoting exclusively the Spirit's derivation from the Father alone, whereas proeinai was used to denote the Holy Spirit's dependence on the Son owing to the common substance or ousia which the Spirit in deriving from the Father alone as Person or hypostasis receives from the Son, too, as ousiwdws that is, with regard to the one ousia common to all three persons (Cyril of Alexandria, Maximus the Confessor et al). On the basis of this distinction one might argue that there is a kind of Filioque on the level of ousia, but not of hypostasis.
Which seems to me to have expressed my sentiments in a somewhat more polished fashion. I hope this explains things. This is, as we know, the position of the Latin Church (from this document you keep mentionning, and also from Maximus the COnfessor). It was also the position of the Alexandrian Church from Athanasius, and it is the position (iuxta John of Pergamon) of the Orthodox Church.

I hope this clarifies things.

Pontifical.

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The Scrumpmeister
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Thank you all for this thread. I have been following with interest and am very interested (and satisfied) by the ekporeuesthai/proeinai distinction.

I believe it was Trisagion (apologies for possible misattribution) who highlighted this on an earlier thread about the same subject, and this was very helpful to me then.

The question, then, is one of authority. If "and the Son" is added in Latin to the Creed and understood in the proeinai sense, then the question would be on what authority is the sense of procedere as used in that phrase of the Creed changed from its original ekporeuesthai sense, which, I suppose is a whole different thread about authority.

Is that a fair summary or have I misunderstood?

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El Greco
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Dear Ian, Metropolitan John, influenced by Heidegger, has developed a theology of the person which is the issue of a debate.

You say that you want to show the unity in essence. I ask you this: in this meaning, would you say also that the Son proceeds from the Spirit? Why / why not?

Now, I have not read Cyril's document, so I have to read it first before I tell you my opinion on it. Also, because I know that many documents have been forged, especially for controversies like the isssue of filioque, I will have to depend on sources from the Patriarchate where St. Cyril taught and lived. If they assure me that the reference you make is in their copies of the book as well, then I will read the context to understand what he means.

Let me repeat, that the theology in that document says two things: Christ sent the Spirit (nobody disputes that!) and the Spirit takes his being from the Father and the Son because there is one essence. This is why I want an answer in this question: From what you have written it seems to me that one could speak also of the Son proceeding (proeinai) from the Spirit. Is this what you are saying?

[ 09. February 2006, 12:24: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]

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GreyFace
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quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
If "and the Son" is added in Latin to the Creed and understood in the proeinai sense, then the question would be on what authority is the sense of procedere as used in that phrase of the Creed changed from its original ekporeuesthai sense, which, I suppose is a whole different thread about authority.

Is that a fair summary or have I misunderstood?

I don't know. Do we need the authority of a Council to translate the Creed?
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Pontifical
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quote:
The question, then, is one of authority. If "and the Son" is added in Latin to the Creed and understood in the proeinai sense, then the question would be on what authority is the sense of procedere as used in that phrase of the Creed changed from its original ekporeuesthai sense, which, I suppose is a whole different thread about authority.
Well, yes and no, in my opinion; question of authority in terms of adding filioque, yes. As to "changing the sense." The sens was not changed actively. It's just that I think it fair to say that in exclusively Latin lands, centuries after the original council, it is fair to say that most Latins probably were unaware that their "procedere" had been rendered by ekporeusthai in the original Greek. And since proeinai in the greek would equally transmit a Truth - albeit quite different - about the Holy Spirit (one true of the Father and the Son, as St Cyril says), this is why they added it.

Pontifical.

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Pontifical
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Dear Andreas,

Thank you for your message. Again, we are at odds!

quote:
Let me repeat, that the theology in that document says two things: Christ sent the Spirit (nobody disputes that!) and the Spirit takes his being from the Father and the Son because there is one essence. This is why I want an answer in this question: From what you have written it seems to me that one could speak also of the Son proceeding (proeinai) from the Spirit. Is this what you are saying?

I am saying nothing. I am simply stating what the Roman Church says, following St. Cyril of Alexandria, St. Maximus the Confessor, St. Augustine, St. Athanasius, St. Hilary of Poitiers, the 2nd Council of Lyons, the 4th Lateran Council, St. Tarasius, the 2nd Council of Constantinople, St. Ambrose, St. Leo the Great, the modern Catechism of the Catholic Church, not to mention that document you keep mentionning; now, finally: we do not, have not and will not state that the Son is a second aitia in the Trinity; this is false.

You once said to me:

quote:
If I am not to judge whether something represents what I have said, then who is
I agree; but I think that this is your problem. You seem to have decided that it is true that the Roman Church's view, whatever it is, is wrong with respect to the Orthodox Church's position. So consequently, you won't accept my arguments (based, I add, on writings of Latin Fathers, Greek Fathers, the Patriarch of Constantinople (St. Tarasius) and the 7th Ecumenical Council). And you won't accept that the Latin argument is not what you say it is, to the extent that you accuse the Latins of having forged documents to support their 'heretical' position:

quote:
Also, because I know that many documents have been forged, especially for controversies like the isssue of filioque, I will have to depend on sources from the Patriarchate where St. Cyril taught and lived.
I find this incredible. These documents were written centuries before the so-called filioque crisis arose. A bit of forward planning on the Latins' part, I'd say, if it were true!

The Latins (beginning with St. Augustine) concretely state that the Father is the only principle in the Trinity. Correct me if I am wrong, but this should satisfy you that whatever we mean(t), it cannot have been that the Son is a second principle. Therefore the re-translation of procedit (well, procedentem, actually) in the Latin translation of the Creed into ekporeuomenon is logically impossible, since this is PRECISELY what this would imply. Sadly, this is what you keep saying that we meant! I am lost here. There is a certain circular motion going on!

Well, I fear I shall stop posting here: I have learned what I can from this discussion, and valuable it is too.

Best wishes to all,

Pontifical.

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El Greco
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Dear Ian

Is Maximos's document authentic? It is said to be forged.

You are saying that I should accept it because you confess only one source. I ask you what you mean by it and you don't explain the meaning.

Moreover, I think that the entire theology of the divine energies which are uncreated and in which man can share, is a more important issue of difference.

Good luck!

Andreas

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
If "and the Son" is added in Latin to the Creed and understood in the proeinai sense, then the question would be on what authority is the sense of procedere as used in that phrase of the Creed changed from its original ekporeuesthai sense, which, I suppose is a whole different thread about authority.

Is that a fair summary or have I misunderstood?

I don't know. Do we need the authority of a Council to translate the Creed?
No, GreyFace. That isn't what I meant.

It seems, from what has been said above (and I agree entirely with what you have said about language), that the verb procedere is entirely correct as far as translation goes. However, it carries a secondary sense which the verb it is translated from does not carry. That's just the nature of language, and is fine, so long as it is understood in the sense of the original.

My question is whether any additions made to the Creed based on this second sense of the word, which, in the Creed, is an accidental by-product of the translation, have any authority, and if so, how?

I realise this doesn't necessarily fall within the scope of this thread, as it has the potential to branch into wider issues of authority.

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GreyFace
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quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
It seems, from what has been said above (and I agree entirely with what you have said about language), that the verb procedere is entirely correct as far as translation goes. However, it carries a secondary sense which the verb it is translated from does not carry. That's just the nature of language, and is fine, so long as it is understood in the sense of the original.

Not quite.

The point is that using procedere is not precisely correct. It is just the best that can be done in a world in which Latin does not transliterate precisely from Greek, and the word carries additional meaning whether we want it to or not.

Not having filioque in the Latin version can be and I assume was, seen to those unaware of the Greek nuance to mean that the Son categorically does not proceed (in the second sense) from the Father, so neither filioque nor filioque-less translations in the West translate the Creed adequately. It has been suggested that under the threat of a resurgence of a form of Arianism, the additional meaning that is carried by filioque was worth it in order to avoid the denial of second-sense filioque that leaving it out implies.

quote:
My question is whether any additions made to the Creed based on this second sense of the word, which, in the Creed, is an accidental by-product of the translation, have any authority, and if so, how?
Hmmm. I see what you mean. Does it matter? What we're really concerned about here is, is it true? Does the Spirit proceed (second sense) from the Son or not? Then if we're agreed that he does, can we express this in a form that does not cause translation difficulties?
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El Greco
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quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Hmmm. I see what you mean. Does it matter? What we're really concerned about here is, is it true? Does the Spirit proceed (second sense) from the Son or not? Then if we're agreed that he does, can we express this in a form that does not cause translation difficulties?

Well, is He? To say if He really is, you have first to explain what this second meaning of the verb proceed you are talking about is!

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mousethief

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I've been trying to follow this but I think I got lost somewhere. We now seem to have a proceed-1 and a proceed-2; the former being the idea given by the original Greek word in the creed, the latter by a different (and shorter) Greek word which is not in the creed. We are saying that the Latin word used to translate proceed-1 in the creed can also carry the meaning of proceed-2, although the original greek of proceed-1 cannot.

But what does proceed-2 mean? Is this referring to action in history? People seem to want to argue that because Jesus "sent" the Spirit (e.g. in John where he breathes on the disciples and says "receive the HS") therefore the Spirit proceeds (proceed-2) from the Son. Is that correct?

Doesn't the Holy Spirit also "send" the Son? The blessed Virgin becomes pregnant with our Lord when the SPirit "overshadows" her; in the creed we say that "she became incarnate of the Holy Spirit". If proceed-2 refers to action in time, then clearly the Son "proceeds" from the Holy Spirit every bit as much as the Holy Spirit "proceeds" from the Son.

Awaiting correction by wiser heads....

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mousethief

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oops [Hot and Hormonal] "HE became incarnate of the Holy Spirit" not SHE. [Hot and Hormonal]

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El Greco
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Mousethief, the document the pope composed seems to imply that this is not what "proceed" in the creed means! Can you read the document, English being your mother tongue, and tell me what you understand?

http://agrino.org/cyberdesert/statement.htm

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
It seems, from what has been said above (and I agree entirely with what you have said about language), that the verb procedere is entirely correct as far as translation goes. However, it carries a secondary sense which the verb it is translated from does not carry. That's just the nature of language, and is fine, so long as it is understood in the sense of the original.

Not quite.

The point is that using procedere is not precisely correct. It is just the best that can be done in a world in which Latin does not transliterate precisely from Greek, and the word carries additional meaning whether we want it to or not.

Yes. My bad. I ought to have said that, in translating, procedere was found to be the verb "of best fit", and which carried the sense of the Greek as accurately as was possible.

quote:
Not having filioque in the Latin version can be and I assume was, seen to those unaware of the Greek nuance to mean that the Son categorically does not proceed (in the second sense) from the Father, so neither filioque nor filioque-less translations in the West translate the Creed adequately. It has been suggested that under the threat of a resurgence of a form of Arianism, the additional meaning that is carried by filioque was worth it in order to avoid the denial of second-sense filioque that leaving it out implies.

quote:
[QUOTE][qb]My question is whether any additions made to the Creed based on this second sense of the word, which, in the Creed, is an accidental by-product of the translation, have any authority, and if so, how?
Hmmm. I see what you mean. Does it matter?
In tems of the doctrine of the Trinity, no, and I'm very grateful for the clarity brough by this discussion about that. However, in relation to how Christians arrive at and set down what they believe, I think so.

quote:
What we're really concerned about here is, is it true? Does the Spirit proceed (second sense) from the Son or not? Then if we're agreed that he does, can we express this in a form that does not cause translation difficulties?
It appears that we can agree that Holy Spirit does indeed proceed (proeinai) from both Father and Son, but is this what the Creed is talking about? I would say no.

I can see how this understanding was indeed locally useful at one time so as to combat the resurgence of a particular heresy rearing its ugly head again, but I'm not sure that this alone warrants a permanent change in the Creed so that it no longer refers to the eternal origin of the Spirit. You and Pontifical have bth sugested that those who introduced the change may not have been consciously aware of the difference in Greek verbs - a fair point, and I'm sure that the concept of economy could even be extended to make a temporary acceptance of filioque under those particular circumstances acceptable, (in light of Arianism and all), but for there to be a permanent change in the Creed of the verb ekporeuesthai to proeinai would require the necessary authority.

AIUI, the question, therefore, is one of whether or not Rome has this authority, and I think we know what the answers are from different sides of the fence, so there isn't much point going over that one. [Biased]

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The Scrumpmeister
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Apologies for my crap typing which resulted in the numerous spelling errors in the above post. [Hot and Hormonal]

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El Greco
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from the document:

quote:
"The eternal order of the divine persons in their consubstantial communion implies that the Father, as the 'principle without principle,' is the first origin of the Spirit, but also that as Father of the only Son, he is, with the Son, the single principle from which the Spirit proceeds" (Council of Lyons II, DS 850)."
The Greeks do not accept a second origin. I think that the Roman Catholic document implies a second origin, and this is not the Orthodox faith

quote:
The Western tradition expresses first the consubstantial communion between Father and Son, by saying that the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son (Filioque). "This legitimate complementarity, provided it does not become rigid, does not affect the identity of faith in the reality of the same mystery confessed." (Catechism of the Catholic Church no.248).
Why not express first the consubstantial communion between Emitter and Spirit, by saying that the Son is born from the Father through the Spirit?

Also:

quote:
If it is correctly situated, the Filioque of the Latin tradition must not lead to subordination of the Holy Spirit in the Trinity. Even if the Catholic doctrine affirms that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son in the communication of their consubstantial communion, it nonetheless recognises the reality of the original relationship of the Holy Spirit as person with the Father, a relationship that the Greek Fathers express by the term ekporeusis.
The Greek fathers never expressed a relationship by the term ekporevomai. They expressed the origin and source.

[ 09. February 2006, 15:14: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]

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Pontifical
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Oh well,

"Never say never again," the film producers said to Sean Connery that time.

I'm sorry, Andreas, but I find you irresistably provocative. Here are my answers to your points:

quote:
Is Maximos's document authentic? It is said to be forged.

I can't argue with a moving target; if all you are going to do is dicredit my sources, then there's not much more to say. No surprises there.

quote:
You are saying that I should accept it because you confess only one source. I ask you what you mean by it and you don't explain the meaning.

In all charity, I do not understand the first sentence. As to the second sentence, I have explained it at least twice; perhaps my English was a little dodgy. Let me try again... I mean exactly what you meant earlier when you were discussing the active part that Christ plays in the "sending" of the Spirit, and in the Spirit being the Spirit of Christ, and the Spirit of the Father. As when Christ himself says:

quote:
And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said: "Receive the Holy Spirit!" John 20:22
I think we can say here that the Holy Spirit proceeds (proeisi) from the Son. This (proeinai) is what St. Cyril of Alexandria (and others - Augustine, Leo the Great, Hilary of Poitiers - I'm not going to quote them all here, but I can if requested) mean by proeinai when they confess that the Holy Spirit proceeds (proeisi) from the Father and the Son, but that the Father is the only cause (aitia) in the Trinity, arche anarche; and so that the Holy Spirit proceeds (ekporeusthai) from the Father alone. Can you not see that these people make both claims?????? How can it be that they are suggesting that the Holy Spirit proceeds (ekporeusthai) from both Father and Son?

quote:
Moreover, I think that the entire theology of the divine energies which are uncreated and in which man can share, is a more important issue of difference.
Difference between what? Before you said to me:

quote:
For me the issue of filioque is not the most important difference. I think that we have spent centuries talking about it because it is easy to define this issue.
And what's more, I have spent hours of muscle power explaining to you why the Ortiental Orthodox and Latin ideas on the procession (ekporeusis) of the Holy Spirit are the same.

Now, to move to your last post:

quote:
The Greeks do not accept a second origin. I think that the Roman Catholic document implies a second origin, and this is not the Orthodox faith
I think that what you think the RC document implies and what the RC document actually implies are rather different. The RC document I can see bends over backwards to say that the Monarchical structure of the Trinitarian theology must be maintained, which to my mind leaves absolutely, categorically and definitely no room for the sort of implication you imply.

The Latins do not accept a second origin; to do so would be to say that the Son were aitia, and another arche anarche. The document expressly condemns this, and to proove yet again that this is a linguistical problem, not a theological one, Latin Rite but Greek Language churches would have to use the Creed without any "kai tou uiou" additions, becuase this would precisely implicate Christ as aitia, which is forbidden:

quote:
Being aware of this, the Catholic Church has refused the addition of kai tou Uiou to the formula ek tou Patros ekporeuomenon of the Symbol of Nicaea-Constantinople in the Churches, even of Latin rite, which use it in Greek.
As we have discussed ad nauseam, this limitation is not there if I want to add "filioque" to "qui ex patre procedit", because this would work using proeinai. If I wanted to translate "ex patre filioque procedit" into Greek, I'd actually have two options:

...ek tou patros kai tou uiou ekporeuomenon (which would be heretical, as we have AMPLY stated above).

...ek tou patros kai tou uiou proeisi (which would be perfectly valid, as we see from the writings of the Greek/Latin Fathers.

Finally:

quote:
The Greek fathers never expressed a relationship by the term ekporevomai. They expressed the origin and source.

Here I'm afraid you're just being syntactically fussy, this time in English. This is all a bit much, really. Of course, in laymen's terms (which is what most of us are, after all) it is possible in English to say that the Greek Fathers expressed a relationship by this term; the relationship between Father and Holy Spirit expressed by the verb ekporeusthai is one precisely of source and origin. Nothing more. And, before you interject, no the Latins are not saying this about the Son. And no, this is not the same idea as proeinai would convey. And no, I don't know what the Koine Greek is for relationship, and frankly, I don't think it matters IN ENGLISH.

To respond to general points:

(1) No, the Latins were not intending ekporeusthai when they added filioque to the Creed. They were intending proeinai.

(2) Yes, this does mean that, the Latins' perception of what the Creed meant had changed compared to what it had originally meant. This is, however, a practical consequence of the existence of a text in translation, in a rather large empire, most of which does not speak Greek, or have any need to. It could and should have been sorted out by an Ecumenical Council. Here's hoping...

(3) This means that when the Latins added filioque, they were adding it to a Creed, which when back-translated into Greek, would have had to be translated as proeinai: NOT ekporeusthai. We know this since elsewhere they are adamant that this claim cannot and must not be asserted. This is the case because it is not possible, by using the one word procedit in Latin, to differentiate between the two translations in Greek.

With abundant apologies for the length of this post; I have a big chest, with much to get off it!

Blessings,

Pontifical.

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El Greco
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Dear Ian

Thank you very much for your reply. It is very clear.

This is the first time I read a Roman Catholic saying that the filioque refers to the Spirit being sent to the people of Christ, in a way similar to Christ being sent in the Virgin's womb.

I will ask Trisagion and Triple Tiara if they see things the same way you do.

If this is the case, then the entire issue is well, a non-issue. It's resolved.

Now, I want to ask you about this, since in my opinion it is much more important than the filioque issue. Easterns confess that God's Grace is uncreated; the He imparts His uncreated energies in us. For example, the sight the Apostles saw during the Transfiguration, was a light uncreated, a vision which God reveals to His people, in a way, it is God Himself. This light (to speak for one of the uncreated energies of God), is the same light Moses saw in Horeb, and it has been seen by Orthodox people throughout the centuries. What's your take on that? Can we know God through his uncreated energies?

(a bad summary, I know, but maybe you know the issue and no summary is needed)

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El Greco
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
I will ask Trisagion and Triple Tiara if they see things the same way you do.

I want to thank Trisagion and Triple Tiara for their replies.

They said that they have the same understanding, i.e. that the answer to the question "because of Whom does the Spirit exist?" is "because of the Father alone" and that their use of the "filioque" is about the sending of the Holy Spirit to the people of Christ by Christ, just like the Holy Spirit sent Christ in the Virgin's womb.

Their understanding that the filioque refers to the economy and not to the eternal relations of origin in the Trinity is welcome.

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IngoB

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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Their understanding that the filioque refers to the economy and not to the eternal relations of origin in the Trinity is welcome.

I'm sure it is welcome to you. It is however not the Roman Catholic point of view. I have no way of judging what Trisaigon and Triple Tiara communicated privately to you. But if they indeed stated that the filioque only refers to the economy, but not to the eternal relations of origin in the Trinity, then they are simply in error as far as RC doctrine is concerned. Further, I'm losing track of what precisely Pontifical is saying concerning the eternal relations. But if he is saying that the filioque is not about eternal relations at all, then I'm sad. For the last thing the RCC needs is highly erudite misinformation spoken in her defense...

The official position is clearly laid out in the
quote:
Catechism of the Catholic Church:
The Father and the Son revealed by the Spirit

243 Before his Passover, Jesus announced the sending of "another Paraclete" (Advocate), the Holy Spirit. At work since creation, having previously "spoken through the prophets", the Spirit will now be with and in the disciples, to teach them and guide them "into all the truth".68 The Holy Spirit is thus revealed as another divine person with Jesus and the Father.

244 The eternal origin of the Holy Spirit is revealed in his mission in time. The Spirit is sent to the apostles and to the Church both by the Father in the name of the Son, and by the Son in person, once he had returned to the Father.69 The sending of the person of the Spirit after Jesus' glorification70 reveals in its fullness the mystery of the Holy Trinity.

245 The apostolic faith concerning the Spirit was confessed by the second ecumenical council at Constantinople (381): "We believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord and giver of life, who proceeds from the Father."71 By this confession, the Church recognizes the Father as "the source and origin of the whole divinity".72 But the eternal origin of the Spirit is not unconnected with the Son's origin: "The Holy Spirit, the third person of the Trinity, is God, one and equal with the Father and the Son, of the same substance and also of the same nature. . . Yet he is not called the Spirit of the Father alone,. . . but the Spirit of both the Father and the Son."73 The Creed of the Church from the Council of Constantinople confesses: "With the Father and the Son, he is worshipped and glorified."74

246 The Latin tradition of the Creed confesses that the Spirit "proceeds from the Father and the Son (filioque)". The Council of Florence in 1438 explains: "The Holy Spirit is eternally from Father and Son; He has his nature and subsistence at once (simul) from the Father and the Son. He proceeds eternally from both as from one principle and through one spiration. . . . And, since the Father has through generation given to the only-begotten Son everything that belongs to the Father, except being Father, the Son has also eternally from the Father, from whom he is eternally born, that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Son."75

247 The affirmation of the filioque does not appear in the Creed confessed in 381 at Constantinople. But Pope St. Leo I, following an ancient Latin and Alexandrian tradition, had already confessed it dogmatically in 447,76 even before Rome, in 451 at the Council of Chalcedon, came to recognize and receive the Symbol of 381. The use of this formula in the Creed was gradually admitted into the Latin liturgy (between the eighth and eleventh centuries). The introduction of the filioque into the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed by the Latin liturgy constitutes moreover, even today, a point of disagreement with the Orthodox Churches.

248 At the outset the Eastern tradition expresses the Father's character as first origin of the Spirit. By confessing the Spirit as he "who proceeds from the Father", it affirms that he comes from the Father through the Son.77 The Western tradition expresses first the consubstantial communion between Father and Son, by saying that the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son (filioque). It says this, "legitimately and with good reason",78 for the eternal order of the divine persons in their consubstantial communion implies that the Father, as "the principle without principle",79 is the first origin of the Spirit, but also that as Father of the only Son, he is, with the Son, the single principle from which the Holy Spirit proceeds.80 This legitimate complementarity, provided it does not become rigid, does not affect the identity of faith in the reality of the same mystery confessed.
---
68 Cf. Gen 1:2; Nicene Creed (DS 150); Jn 14:17, 26; 16:13.
69 Cf. Jn 14:26; 15:26; 16:14.
70 Cf. Jn 7:39.
71 Nicene Creed; cf. DS 150.
72 Council of Toledo VI (638): DS 490.
73 Council of Toledo XI (675): DS 527.
74 Nicene Creed; cf. DS 150.
75 Council of Florence (1439): DS 1300-1301.
76 Cf. Leo I, Quam laudabiliter (447): DS 284.
77 Jn 15:26; cf. AG 2.
78 Council of Florence (1439): DS 1302.
79 Council of Florence (1442): DS 1331.
80 Cf. Council of Lyons II (1274): DS 850.

Let's be clear then that the tension between the Father's monarchy and the filioque is not resolved by escaping into economy. The economy precisely reveals the eternal relations for the Latins. Rather the tension is resolved in that the Son has all He is from the Father, hence the Son has also the "proceeding of the Holy Spirit" from the Father. In that sense then it is equivalent to say that the Holy Spirit comes "through" the Son from the Father, or that He comes from Father and Son as one principle. But it is the Holy Trinity in eternity we are talking about!

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They’ll have me whipp’d for speaking true; thou’lt have me whipp’d for lying; and sometimes I am whipp’d for holding my peace. - The Fool in King Lear

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El Greco
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Dear IngoB

I'm sure Trisagion and father Triple Tiara will speak for themselves. Perhaps sending them a private message first would be a good thing to do.

Like Pontifical said, the term proceed can be read with two ways. You quote what the council of Florence said, but you forget that this quotation has been authoritatively explained by the Papal document mentioned in one of the above posts.

In the quotes you make, it is written that the economy reveals us the Trinity. Like Father Triple Tiara said, it has been revealed that the Spirit is sent by the Son to mankind, just like the Son is sent by the Spirit in the Virgin's womb. You seem to miss the Spirit's sending the SOn and stress the Son's sending the Spirit. You also seem to make assumptions about what this means, assumptions which the quotation from the Catechism made does not seem to share. Because it is written that the Son's sending the Spirit shows the consubstantiality of the three divine persons, just like the Spirit's sending the Son can be said to show the same thing.

I must confess that before hearing to what Pontifical, Triple Tiara and Trisagion had to say, I was under the same impression you are right now. But after listening to what they believe in, I confess that I do not share that impression any more.

Besides, what you seem to propose is not a monarchy, but a duarchy (two sources in the Trinity) which is already rejected by the Pope.

I guess our discussion can develop through a dialogue between your ideas and the idea expressed by Pontifical, father Triple Tiara and Trisagion.

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Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.

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Triple Tiara

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Okay, since I am the father in the trinity that andreas refers to ( [Big Grin] ) I shall respond first.

First off, I am SO delighted to be at one with andreas. Thank you for your courtesy andreas, and for taking on board what has been said to you.

Secondly, I have not usually spoken about monarchy and economy, but I am happy to be informed and to learn about these concepts as inherent in the debate.

My understanding, as borne out I believe by the quotations from the CCC above, is as follows. This is substantially what I wrote to andreas.

The definitive version of creeds, encyclicals, documents, liturgy etc in the Roman Catholic Church is usually the latin text. The debate on the translation of the liturgy, and thus the Creed, into the English language has at times tried to highlight the subtlety of saying "filioque procedit" by suggesting translating that as "proceeds from the Father through the Son". However, that has not happened and the debate still continues. I think this is because of the Western desire to indicate some relationship between the Son and the sending of the Spirit at Pentecost, following the promise of Jesus that the Spirit would be sent. Bear in mind that this also immediately preceeds the affirmation of belief in the Church and one can see how there is an attempt to emphasise the relationships between all these entities in which we express belief. Since the Spirit is referred to in our profession of belief in the Son, so there is a necessity to see some relationship between the Son and the Spirit when it comes to the Spirit. That is the origin of simply adding -que to filio , which I personally think is too crude as it stands. I believe our Orthodox brethren have been right in pointing that out to us. I believe it needs correcting. However, being a Western Catholic, I think simply to assert that the Spirit proceeds from the Father is too stark and misses an important element of the relationship between the sending of the Spirit at Pentecost and the role of the Son in breathing that Spirit upon the Church. The Son is not the origin of the Spirit, but he does have some role in the procession of the Spirit.

What will the CDF have to say to me? I believe the document to which andreas refers as a papal document is one from the Pontifical Council for Christian Unity, where similar points were made. Such documents are never issued before passing through the CDF. Pope John Paul II referred to the document in a homily at which the ecumenical patriarch was present, saying that the Father is the sole origin and one source of the Trinity and that that was substantially what the Latin version of the Creed also intended.

So IngoB, I think your own words should be heard by you: For the last thing the RCC needs is highly erudite misinformation spoken in her defense...

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IconiumBound
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I am sorry to have to say that this is close to the argument about the origin of the chicken or the egg. How can we, who can't adequately explain the Trinity, presume to know who came/ whom from whom?

My real question is does it really matter?

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Triple Tiara

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It matters so much that the Church split right down the middle 1000 years ago, and has never recovered.

It's not quite chicken and egg, more like dove and egg, don't you think? [Big Grin]

[ 11. February 2006, 13:37: Message edited by: Triple Tiara ]

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by IconiumBound:
I am sorry to have to say that this is close to the argument about the origin of the chicken or the egg. How can we, who can't adequately explain the Trinity, presume to know who came/ whom from whom?

The Christian Faith is based on divine revelation. Of course we aren't going to understand every detail of God, but when something is revealed by God, it seems rather inconsistent with the nature of Christianity to then ask how we can presume to know it.

How can we presume to know about the Incarnation, Resurrection, Sacraments, salvation in Christ? We know it by faith in God's revelation.

quote:
My real question is does it really matter?
Yes. Yes, it does.

If the Truth God reveals to his Church doesn't matter, (and it is the place of no human to state that it doesn't), especially where the nature of the God we claim to worship is concerned, then Christianity rather loses any sort of meaning and we may as well give up now.

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IconiumBound
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I am not proposing to ignore the elements of Christian faith; the Incarnation, Crucifixion and Resurrection of Jesus. They have been attested to in Scripture and experienced by believers for two centuries. Likewise the Holy Spirit has been experienced over the same time in various ways. And He will continue regardless of what we think about His source.

But does it really matter to argue about the source, method, orimportance of His coming? Aren't we engaging in the endless "futile and silly speculations, understanding that they only give rise to quarrels" (2Tim:2:23).

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El Greco
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IconiumBound, from the eastern point of view, Christianity's being a monotheistic religion depends upon an orthodox understanding of who the source in the Trinity is.

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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
Let's be clear then that the tension between the Father's monarchy and the filioque is not resolved by escaping into economy. The economy precisely reveals the eternal relations for the Latins. Rather the tension is resolved in that the Son has all He is from the Father, hence the Son has also the "proceeding of the Holy Spirit" from the Father.

You're arguing in a circle. One could go on to say: the Holy Spirit has all He is from the Father and the Son, hence the Holy Spirit also has "proceeding of the Holy Spirit" from the Father, hence the Holy Spirit proceeds from Himself.

Just because the Son has all He is from the Father, doesn't mean the Son has all the Father is. That's a very simple logical error.

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by IconiumBound:
I am not proposing to ignore the elements of Christian faith; the Incarnation, Crucifixion and Resurrection of Jesus. They have been attested to in Scripture and experienced by believers for two centuries. Likewise the Holy Spirit has been experienced over the same time in various ways. And He will continue regardless of what we think about His source.

The nature of God is itself an element of the Christian Faith, and it is this that gives birth to the possibility of the Incarnation, Resurrection, &c. The nature of the Holy Trinity, so far as it has been revealed, is as much a part of Holy Tradition and revealed Christian Truth as are the other doctrines mentioned - and they found their foundation in it.

To be respectfully frank, I'm not sure I see the merit of posting to a thread to question whether the discussion being engaged in there is of significance. If I were to see a thread that I thought wasn't particularly worthwhile, (and I've seen a few), I would just ignore it.

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What Triple Tiara said.

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quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
...and they found their foundation in it.

find, even.

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El Greco
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quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
To be respectfully frank, I'm not sure I see the merit of posting to a thread to question whether the discussion being engaged in there is of significance.

Yes, but through dialogue new understandings can emerge.

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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
To be respectfully frank, I'm not sure I see the merit of posting to a thread to question whether the discussion being engaged in there is of significance.

Yes, but through dialogue new understandings can emerge.
True but "this isn't important" isn't very conducive to dialogue.

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
To be respectfully frank, I'm not sure I see the merit of posting to a thread to question whether the discussion being engaged in there is of significance.

Yes, but through dialogue new understandings can emerge.
That's precisely my point!

What IconiumBound seems to be saying (and I offer my apologies if I have misunderstood) is that this particular dialogue in which we are engaging is not worth having.

[Mousethief beat me to it. [Smile] ]

[ 11. February 2006, 16:01: Message edited by: Back-to-Front ]

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If Christ is not fully human, humankind is not fully saved. - St John of Saint-Denis

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El Greco
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quote:
Originally posted by Jonathan the Free:
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
...I hope everything will be clear eventually

I hope so too. I am really struggling to follow this thread.
It seems that with Pontifical's help we made things clear in the end. I want to thank Ian, father Triple Tiara and Trisagion for their contribution.

Jonathan, GreyFace, and everybody else, what do you think as far as the outcome of this thread is concerned?

[ 11. February 2006, 16:04: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]

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El Greco
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quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
What IconiumBound seems to be saying (and I offer my apologies if I have misunderstood) is that this particular dialogue in which we are engaging is not worth having.

In my opinion IconiumBound says that as far as he is concerned, the issue does not have important implications for his faith. We can discuss upon the implications the issue has for our faith, so we can shed some light and discuss with him about it. The way I see it, every contribution, even the absence of contribution is an invitation to dialogue.

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
quote:
Originally posted by Back-to-Front:
What IconiumBound seems to be saying (and I offer my apologies if I have misunderstood) is that this particular dialogue in which we are engaging is not worth having.

In my opinion IconiumBound says that as far as he is concerned, the issue does not have important implications for his faith. We can discuss upon the implications the issue has for our faith, so we can shed some light and discuss with him about it. The way I see it, every contribution, even the absence of contribution is an invitation to dialogue.
Fair enough. If that's your reading of things, then you're more charitable than I am. It came across to me as, "Why are you wasting time even bothering to discuss this?", especially so at this point:

quote:
Originally posted by IconiumBound:
Aren't we engaging in the endless "futile and silly speculations, understanding that they only give rise to quarrels" (2Tim:2:23).



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If Christ is not fully human, humankind is not fully saved. - St John of Saint-Denis

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El Greco
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Yes, this is my reading of things, especially because he used "we" in the quote you made.

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The Scrumpmeister
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quote:
Originally posted by Triple Tiara:
What will the CDF have to say to me? I believe the document to which andreas refers as a papal document is one from the Pontifical Council for Christian Unity, where similar points were made. Such documents are never issued before passing through the CDF. Pope John Paul II referred to the document in a homily at which the ecumenical patriarch was present, saying that the Father is the sole origin and one source of the Trinity and that that was substantially what the Latin version of the Creed also intended.

Thank you for this, TT.

This blows many of the anti-RCists out of the water in certain factions at our end.

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IngoB

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quote:
Originally posted by Triple Tiara:
So IngoB, I think your own words should be heard by you: For the last thing the RCC needs is highly erudite misinformation spoken in her defense...

Yes, and would you like to say this as well to John Paul II?
quote:
John Paul II "The Holy Spirit Proceeds from the Father and the Son, November 20, 1985 – General Audience:
The Holy Spirit is "sent" by the Father and Son, as he also "proceeds" from them. For this reason he is called "the Spirit of the Father" (e.g., Mt. 10:20; 1 Cor 2:11; also Jn 15:26), but also "the Spirit of the Son" (Gal 4:6), or "the Spirit of Jesus" (Acts 16:7), since it is Jesus himself that sends him (cf. Jn 15:26). Therefore the Latin Church professes that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son (qui a Patre Filioque procedit) while the Orthodox Churches profess from the Father through the Son. He proceeds "by way of will," "in the manner of love" (per modum amoris). This is a sententia certa, that is, a theological doctrine commonly accepted in the Church's teaching and therefore sure and binding.

This conviction is confirmed by the etymology of the name "Holy Spirit," to which I alluded in the previous catechesis—Spirit, spiritus, pneuma, ruah. Starting from this etymology "the procession" of the Spirit from the Father and the Son is described as "spiration"—spiramen—a breath of Love. <...>

Therefore, by means of generation, in the absolute unity of the divinity, God is eternally Father and Son. The Father who begets loves the Son who is begotten. The Son loves the Father with a love which is identical with that of the Father. In the unity of the divinity, love is on one side paternal and on the other, filial. At the same time the Father and the Son are not only united by that mutual love as two Persons infinitely perfect. But their mutual gratification, their reciprocal love, proceeds in them and from them as a person. The Father and the Son "spirate" the Spirit of Love consubstantial with them. In this way God, in the absolute unity of the divinity, is from all eternity Father, Son and Holy Spirit.


John Paul II "The Spirit and the Filioque Debate, November 7, 1990 – General Audience":
At this last Council we find a statement which has the value of a historical clarification and at the same time of a doctrinal declaration: "The Latins state that by saying that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and from the Son they do not mean to exclude that the Father is the source and the principle of all divinity, that is, of the Son and the Holy Spirit. Nor do they wish to deny that the Son learned from the Father that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Son; nor do they hold that there are two principles or two spirations. Rather they assert that one only is the principle and one only the spiration of the Holy Spirit, as they have asserted up to now" (cf. Conciliorum Oecumenicorum Decreta, Bologna 1973, p. 526).

That was an echo of the Latin tradition which St. Thomas had well defined theologically [3] by referring to a text of St. Augustine, according to which " Pater et Filius sunt unum principium Spiritus Sancti " [4] .

The problems on the order of terminology seem thus to be resolved and the intentions clarified, to the extent that each party, the Greeks and the Latins, during the sixth session (July 6, 1439) were able to sign this common definition: "In the name of the Holy Trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit, with the approval of this sacred and universal Council of Florence, we establish that this truth of faith must be believed and accepted by all Christians: and thus all must profess that the Holy Spirit is eternally of the Father and the Son, that he has his existence and his subsistent being from the Father and the Son together, and that he proceeds eternally from the one and from the other as from a single principle and from a single spiration" (DS 1300).

---
[3] cf. Summa Theol., I, q. 36, a. 3

[4] De Trinitate, V, 14: PL 42, 921

John Paul II "The Spirit Is Source of Communion, July 29, 1998, General Audience":
In particular, on the specific problem of the Filioque concerning the relationship between the Holy Spirit and the Word who proceed from the Father, it is possible to maintain that the difference between the Latin and Eastern traditions does not affect the identity of the faith "in the reality of the same mystery confessed" but its expression, constituting a "legitimate complementarity" which does not jeopardize but indeed can enrich communion in the one faith (cf. Catechism of the Catholic Church, 248; Apostolic Letter Orientale lumen, 2 May 1995, n. 5; Note of the Pontifical Council for Promoting Christian Unity, 29 June 1995: The Greek and Latin Traditions Regarding the Procession of the Holy Spirit, L'Osservatore Romano English edition, 20 September 1995, p. 3).

Oh dear, JP the Great even uses the "Holy Spirit as Personified Divine love" argument.

But let's turn the that Note written by the Pontifical Council for Promoting Christian Unity, what sensational novelties does it contain?
quote:
Pontifical Council for Promoting Christian Unity "The Father as the Source of the Whole Trinity: The Procession of the Holy Spirit in Greek and Latin Traditions":
The doctrine of the Filioque must be understood and presented by the Catholic Church in such a way that it cannot appear to contradict the Monarchy of the Father nor the fact that he is the sole origin (arche, aitia) of the ekporeusis of the Spirit. <...>

We are presenting here the authentic doctrinal meaning of the Filioque on the basis of the Trinitarian faith of the Symbol professed by the second Ecumenical Council at Constantinople. We are giving this authoritative interpretation, while being aware of how inadequate human language is to express the ineffable mystery of the Holy Trinity, one God, a mystery which is beyond our words and our thoughts. <...>

The fact that in Latin and Alexandrian theology the Holy Spirit proceeds (proeisi) from the Father and the Son in their consubstantial communion does not mean that it is the divine essence or substance that proceed in him, but that it is communicated from the Father and the Son who have it in common. <...>

In the same way, if in the Trinitarian order the Holy Spirit is consecutive to the relation between the Father and the Son, since he takes his origin from the Father as Father of the only Son,6 it is in the Spirit that this relationship between the Father and the Son itself attains its Trinitarian perfection. Just as the Father is characterised as Father by the Son he generates, so does the Spirit, by taking his origin from the Father, characterise the Father in the manner of the Trinity in relation to the Son and characterises the Son in the manner of the Trinity in his relation to the Father: in the fullness of the Trinitarian mystery they are Father and Son in the Holy Spirit.7

The Father only generates the Son by breathing (proballein in Greek) through him the Holy Spirit and the Son is only begotten by the Father insofar as the spiration (probole in Greek) passes through him. The Father is Father of the One Son only by being for him and through him the origin of the Holy Spirit.8

The Spirit does not precede the Son, since the Son characterises as Father the Father from whom the Spirit takes his origin, according to the Trinitarian order.9 But the spiration of the Spirit from the Father takes place by and through (the two senses of dia in Greek) the generation of the Son, to which it gives its Trinitarian character. It is in this sense that St. John Damascene says: "The Holy Spirit is a substantial power contemplated in his own distinct hypostasis, who proceeds from the Father and reposes in the Word" (De Fide Orthodoxa I, 7, PG 94, 805 B, ed. B. Kotter, Berlin 1973, p.16; Dialogus contra Manichaeos 5, PG 94. 1512 B, ed. B. Kotter, Berlin 1981, p. 354).10

What is this Trinitarian character that the person of the Holy Spirit brings to the very relationship between the Father and the Son? It is the original role of the Spirit in the economy with regard to the mission and work of the Son. The Father is love in is source (2 Cor 13:13; 1 Jn 4:8.16), the Son is "the Son that he loves" (Col 1:14). So a tradition dating back to St Augustine has seen in the Holy Spirit, through whom "God's love has been poured into our hearts" (Rom 5:5), love as the eternal Gift of the Father to his "beloved Son" (Mk 1:11, 9:7; Lk 20:13; Eph 1:6).11

The divine love which has its origin in the Father reposes in "the Son of his love" in order to exist consubstantially through the Son in the person of the Spirit, the Gift of love. This takes into account the fact that, through love, the Holy Spirit orients the whole life of Jesus towards the Father in the fulfilment of his will.

---
[6] Cf. Catechism of the Catholic Church, no.248.

[7] St. Gregory of Nazianzus says that "the Spirit is a middle term (meson) between the Unbegotten and the Begotten" (Discourse 31, 8, Sources Chrétiennes, no.250, p.290). Cf. also, in a Thomistic perspective, G Leblond, "Point of view on the procession of the Holy Spirit," in Revue Thomiste, LXXXVI, t.78, 1978, pp.293-302.

[8] St. Cyril of Alexandria says that "the Holy Spirit flows from the Father into the Son (en to Uiou)," (Thesaurus, XXXIV, PG 75, 577A).

[9] St. Gregory of Nyssa writes: "The Holy Spirit is said to be of the Father and it is attested that he is of the Son. St. Paul says: 'Anyone who does not have the Spirit of Christ does not belong to him' (Rom 8:9). So the Spirit who is of God (the Father) is also the Spirit of Christ. However, the Son who is of God (the Father) is not said to be of the Spirit: the consecutive order of the relationship cannot be reversed" (Fragment In orationem dominicam, quoted by St. John Damascene, PG 46. 1109 BC). And St. Maximus affirms in the same way the Trinitarian order when he writes: "Just as the Thought (the Father) is principle of the Word, so is he also of the Spirit through the Word. And, just as one cannot say that the Word is of the voice (of the Breath), so one cannot say that the Word is of the Spirit" (Quaestiones et dubia, PG 90, 813 B).

[10] St. Thomas Aquinas, who knew the De Fide Orthodoxa, sees no opposition between the Filioque and this expression of St. John Damascene: "To say that the Holy Spirit reposes or dwells in the Son does not exclude his proceeding from the Son; for we say also that the Son dwells in the Father, although he proceeds from the Father (Summa Theologica, Ia, q.36, a.2, 4um).

[11] St. Thomas Aquinas, following St. Augustine, writes: "If we say of the Holy Spirit that he dwells in the Son, it is in the way that the love of one who loves reposes in the loved one" (Summa Theologica Ia, q.36, a.2, 4um). This doctrine of the Holy Spirit as love has been harmoniously assumed by St. Gregory Palamas into the Greek theology of the ekporeusis from the Father alone: "The Spirit of the most high Word is like an ineffable love of the Father for this Word ineffably generated. A love which this same Word and beloved Son of the Father entertains (chretai) towards the Father: but insofar as he has the Spirit coming with him (sunproelthonta) from the Father and reposing connaturally in him" (Capita physica XXXVI, PG 150, 1144, D-1145 A).

Now, I'm sure we can play endless games with words here. But the Latin doctrine is that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son in eternity. Full bloody stop. No official document says otherwise, plenty say so. That this is not at odds with the Father's monarchy and that it can be harmonized with Eastern teachings (in the opinion of the Vatican, not necessarily of the Orthodox) is great. That this teaching should be expounded so that this becomes clear is prudent. But interpreting the exact opposite of what is said into words is just not on. What, pray, is ambiguous in the words: "The Holy Spirit is eternally from Father and Son; He has his nature and subsistence at once (simul) from the Father and the Son. He proceeds eternally from both as from one principle and through one spiration."?

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They’ll have me whipp’d for speaking true; thou’lt have me whipp’d for lying; and sometimes I am whipp’d for holding my peace. - The Fool in King Lear

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El Greco
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You miss the point that eternity is something created. Therefore, the statements you quote can be seen as applying to economy and not the origin for the Spirit. Besides, the very documents you quote say clearly that the Father is the only cause for the Spirit. You seem to be saying that the Son is a cause also for the Spirit. But this interpretation is rejected clearly by the texts you quote. I think that the latin/enlgish language having no word (As far as I know) for God's αϊδιότητα, makes it difficult for you to understand that eternity is something created. The Holy Spirit created eternity and acts within eternity. Eternity does not bind the Holy Trinity.

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Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.

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Pontifical
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Good Evening,

And a very blessed 6th Sunday of the Year to you all.

Well, I think that, finally, this topic has come up with quite a useful thread, instead of the usual backbiting and sniping; I'm pleased to concur with Andreas that this has been quite an eye-opener for me. I always thought that the two ideas were extremely close, and that it was mis-understanding that had resulted in schism - now I think I understand why.

I'm afraid, IngoB, that the Doctrinal Note on the Holy Spirit, as it is called (the "Papal" document you refer to is sadly not papal, Andreas! We don't need Papal documents for EVERYTHING, you know!! [Biased] ) is the most current piece of specific teaching that we possess on the topic NOT of the Holy Spirit in general, but particularly of the Filioque clause, and (perhaps more relevantly) the furore that it has caused - in my view, unnecessarily:

quote:
We are presenting here the authentic doctrinal meaning of the Filioque on the basis of the Trinitarian faith of the Symbol professed by the second Ecumenical Council at Constantinople.
I confess that I haven't had the chance to read all of your posts, but I hope that you (IngoB) are not suggesting that the Holy Spirit takes his being from the Son? I think this is what both East (judging by Andreas' comments, reading of the Eastern Father's quotes on the subject and 1,000 years of Schism) and West (judging on the specific document quoted above, and a correct reading of the catechism) would condemn as heresy. Heresy because, as Andreas rightly says, it is not possible to make a "cause" (aitia) out of Christ in the Trinity.

Now, you (IngoB) are right to suggest that the Catholic church's idea of processio is more than just economy: there is too an eternal point of view to it. But this is not, and CAN not be that "Christ is too a co-cause" of the Holy Spirit. As far as I read the document this is as follows:

(1) The Father is the eternal arche anarchos (uncaused cause, literally 'beginning without a beginning') of the Trinity.

(2) The Son is eternally generated from the Father by filiation - that is, He has His very Being from the Father - the Greeks occasionally even term this "ekporeusis", emphasising that the Son is, indeed, taking His Being from His Father.

(3) The Holy Spirit is eternally generated (ekporeuetai, same root as ekporeusis) from the Father by Spiration (probale, in Greek).

As far as having having Their Being is concerned (ekporeusis), this is the sum total of what we can validly say about the Son and the Spirit - even if we say that eternally speaking the Son proceeds from the Holy Spirit, we CANNOT and MUST not say that this is by ekporeusis; this is why the RC Church says:

quote:
Being aware of this, the Catholic Church has refused the addition of kai tou Uiou (and the Son) to the formula ek tou Patros ekporeuomenon (the-One-having-His-Being from the Father) of the Symbol of Nicaea-Constantinople in the Churches, even of Latin rite, which use it in Greek. The liturgical use of this original text remains always legitimate in the Catholic Church.

Doctrinal Note on the Holy Spirit, my emphasis

SO: what precisely is the nature of the eternal processio of the Holy Spirit from the Son?

There is one sense in which the ekporeusthai sence of processio connects the Spirit and the Son: the 7th Council of the Church affirms that:

quote:
"to Pneuma to agion, to kurion kai zwopoion, to ek tou Patros dia tou Uiou ekporeuomenon”

... the Holy Spirit, the Lord and Life-maker, the One-having-His-Being from the Father through the Son.

So we see that eternally speaking, although the Holy Spirit takes His Being entirely from the Father, this is through the Son. How? Well, because if the Son is generated from the Father, begotten from the Father, then this is by the breathing of the Holy Spirit from Him. And if the Holy Spirit is spirated by the Father, this is by His being breathed through the Son. So, if it were not an inopportune term - which sadly it is -, we would say that the generation of the Son and the Spiration of the SPirit are sort-of "cotemporaneous" - but this is happening out of time, so never mind!

quote:
The Spirit does not precede the Son, since the Son characterizes as Father the Father from whom the Spirit takes his origin, according to the Trinitarian order.9 But the spiration of the Spirit from the Father takes place by and through (the two senses of dia in Greek) the generation of the Son, to which it gives its Trinitarian character.

Doctrinal Note on the Holy Spirit, my emphasis

The up-shot is, that just as there has never been a time when the Son was "to be begotten", so there has never been a time when the Holy Spirit was "to be Spirated". So even in eternity, the Holy Spirit only is as One Spirated, breathed through the Son. In this sense it can be said that even eternally speaking, the Holy Spirit proceeds (ekporeuetai) from the Father alone, and that he proceeds (proeisi) from the Father and the Son. In this way, we see that although the Spirit takes His Being from the Father alone - and NOT from the Son - so he proceeds (in the sense of proeisi) from the Father and the Son. This is the Faith of the Latins, as far as I can tell. This is also backed up by the Conciliar documents quoted above in various places:

e.g.

quote:
the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father and the Son, not as from two principles but as from one single principle(tamquam ex uno principio); not by two spirations, but by one single spiration."

Second Council of Lyons, Canon 1

Now, the proceeds here is clearly proeisi, since if it were ekporeuetai, then it would have to be "as from two principles", which is explicitly not. Now, that the Father and the Son are half-a-principle each is something I sincerely doubt. Likewise, half a spiration each is not a likely prospect either, is it? The only logical conclusion is that the Holy Spirit is Spirated and so has his being (ekpoeruetai) from the Father, so the Father is Spirating, the Son is being breathed through and so the Holy Spirit is proceeding (proeisi) from both, all the while proceeding (ekporeuetai - I wish Western languages had two words too) from the Father alone.

I hope this is clear.

I have to say, Andreas, that I am beginning to see a certain, Eastern point of view:

quote:
You ask what is the procession of the Holy Spirit? Do you tell me first what is the unbegottenness of the Father, and I will then explain to you the physiology of the generation of the Son, and the procession of the Spirit, and we shall both of us be stricken with madness for prying into the mystery of God. (St Gregory the Theologian: Oration 32:8)
Finally:

quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:

For the last thing the RCC needs is highly erudite misinformation spoken in her defense...

I hardly dare differ...

With apologies for (1) a lengthy post this time; (2) a stroppy post last time (I hope you haven't got any scratches, Andreas! [Yipee] ) and (3) anywhere I have been unclear.

And so to bed.

With blessings to you all,

Pontifical.

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mousethief

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Pontifical, you've done something that I didn't think anybody would ever do: you've explained the filioque in a way that makes it make sense, AND, that doesn't conflict with (at least my own understanding of) Orthodox dogma.

Thank you! [Overused]

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Triple Tiara

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Pontifical

Write to:

S.E. il Prefetto
C.D.F.
Piazza sant Uffizio
Roma

or alternatively:

The Pontifical Council for Promoting Christian Unity
via dell'Erba
Roma


They may have a job for you!!!! [Big Grin] [Overused]

[ 13. February 2006, 00:16: Message edited by: Triple Tiara ]

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I'm a Roman. You may call me Caligula.

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IngoB

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quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You miss the point that eternity is something created.

It isn't. The eternity I'm referring to is not some infinite stretch of time, but rather the life of the Trinity itself, which is obviously uncreated.

quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
You seem to be saying that the Son is a cause also for the Spirit.

Where? I'm saying that the Son is also the origin of the Holy Spirit, which is what "proceeds" asserts, and that eternally not just temporally. As the Council of Florence normatively states "thus all must profess that the Holy Spirit is eternally of the Father and the Son, that he has his existence and his subsistent being from the Father and the Son together, and that he proceeds eternally from the one and from the other as from a single principle and from a single spiration." The "cause" of the single spiration is the Father, according to his monarchy, but the existence and subsistent being of the Holy Spirit then proceeds from both.

quote:
Originally posted by Pontifical:
I confess that I haven't had the chance to read all of your posts, but I hope that you (IngoB) are not suggesting that the Holy Spirit takes his being from the Son? I think this is what both East (judging by Andreas' comments, reading of the Eastern Father's quotes on the subject and 1,000 years of Schism) and West (judging on the specific document quoted above, and a correct reading of the catechism) would condemn as heresy.

Let me then repeat the (heretical?) words of the Council of Florence again, normative for the Latins, signed by the Greeks: "the Holy Spirit <...> has his existence and his subsistent being from the Father and the Son together". What makes this statement compatible with the monarchy of the Father is "that <the Holy Spirit> proceeds eternally from the one and from the other as from a single principle and from a single spiration", which allows for the Father being the "principal cause" of the spiration. However, we cannot simply say that "the Holy Spirit has His being from the Father". The correct statement is rather "the Holy Spirit has His being from the Father and Son", precisely as the Council says. The apparent tension here is precisely resolved by the reciprocity of love, as John Paul II says "The Son loves the Father with a love which is identical with that of the Father. In the unity of the divinity, love is on one side paternal and on the other, filial." The Holy Spirit has His being from Father and Son because their perfect love must be mutual, they are Father and Son only in the Holy Spirit. The being of the Holy
Spirit is mutual love, not one-directional love, since it's perfect. Hence it cannot be otherwise than that the Holy Spirit indeed is from both Father and Son. This does not take away from the Father begetting the Son and thereby making possible, causing, this unitive love. If there were no Son, there could not be a Holy Spirit uniting Father and Son. Hence the Father is the principle, cause, source, etc. of the Holy Spirit. This does not diminish the Son's love for the Father, which gives being to the Holy Spirit (only) together with the Father's love.

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mousethief

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You're not going to make a lot of Orthodox friends, quoting Florence. [Disappointed]

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Triple Tiara

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IngoB, I'm not really sure where you are going, other than from one corner of a triangle to the next and then back again, all the while protesting that you are not.

You are saying you are not saying what Pontifical is saying, and that neither is the Church. Is this just to make the point your own way? Because from what you write you are saying pretty much the same thing as Pontifical, as is the Council of Florence. Except you want to bang a few Greek heads in the process.

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IngoB

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quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
You're not going to make a lot of Orthodox friends, quoting Florence. [Disappointed]

I'm apparently not making many RC friends (here...) with that either. Frankly, I couldn't care less. RCs are bound by this Council, and the very words I cited also are quoted in the Catechism (CCC 246, see my post above).

I agree completely with John Paul II: 'it is possible to maintain that the difference between the Latin and Eastern traditions does not affect the identity of the faith "in the reality of the same mystery confessed" but its expression, constituting a "legitimate complementarity" which does not jeopardize but indeed can enrich communion in the one faith', as cited above. But to pretend that the differences just aren't there in order to make everybody feel happy is a bad idea. True unity cannot be based on falsehoods.

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They’ll have me whipp’d for speaking true; thou’lt have me whipp’d for lying; and sometimes I am whipp’d for holding my peace. - The Fool in King Lear

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