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Source: (consider it)
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Thread: Is Standardized Spelling Elitism?
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Leorning Cniht
Shipmate
# 17564
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Posted
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
OK, so if we're agreed that a) standardised pronounciation is not practicable
Agreed.
quote:
and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they pronounce words..
But of course we infer things about people based on their accents - we identify their regional origins, and to some extent social background. And this is perfectly fine.
The problematic thing is, for example, assuming that someone who speaks with a broad regional accent is stupid or uneducated.
Posts: 5026 | From: USA | Registered: Feb 2013
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L'organist
Shipmate
# 17338
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Posted
...or that someone who speaks RP English is 'posh' and has a privileged lifestyle with plenty of money.
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Rara temporum felicitate ubi sentire quae velis et quae sentias dicere licet
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mousethief
Ship's Thieving Rodent
# 953
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Posted
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
In fact, I'd argue that, within the U.S., pronunciation is becoming more standardized all the time.
The Northern Cities Vowel Shift proves this wrong, at least as an absolute.
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Posts: 63536 | From: Washington | Registered: Jul 2001
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Porridge
Shipmate
# 15405
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Posted
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
In fact, I'd argue that, within the U.S., pronunciation is becoming more standardized all the time.
The Northern Cities Vowel Shift proves this wrong, at least as an absolute.
Doesn't this phenomenon rather prove the opposite? That a swathe of the population which originally sported different short a sounds now pronounce said vowel similarly, i.e. are developing a "standardized" accent?
Noted, though, that New England, save Connecticut, has failed to join up. That's New England for you.
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mousethief
Ship's Thieving Rodent
# 953
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Posted
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
Doesn't this phenomenon rather prove the opposite? That a swathe of the population which originally sported different short a sounds now pronounce said vowel similarly, i.e. are developing a "standardized" accent?
That's now how I read it. I read it as a vowel shift. A real change from the way the vowels were pronounced 50-100 years ago, but which the vast majority of the nation's population is not falling in line with.
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Posts: 63536 | From: Washington | Registered: Jul 2001
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Porridge
Shipmate
# 15405
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Posted
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
. . . I read it as a vowel shift. A real change from the way the vowels were pronounced 50-100 years ago, but which the vast majority of the nation's population is not falling in line with.
. . . yet.
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Spiggott: Everything I've ever told you is a lie, including that.
Moon: Including what?
Spiggott: That everything I've ever told you is a lie.
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mousethief
Ship's Thieving Rodent
# 953
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Posted
I see this is an evidence-free argument zone. ![[Disappointed]](graemlins/disappointed.gif)
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Posts: 63536 | From: Washington | Registered: Jul 2001
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Porridge
Shipmate
# 15405
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Posted
Well, it is if you're not going to accept your own evidence. What does your link show? That people who once spoke differently from one another began to speak like one another, apparently as the result of speaking together more often than they used to. If that's not the development of a new standard for pronunciation for those particular people, what is it?
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Spiggott: Everything I've ever told you is a lie, including that.
Moon: Including what?
Spiggott: That everything I've ever told you is a lie.
Moon: That's not true!
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