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Source: (consider it) Thread: French protestant church votes in favour of blessing same-sex couples
Steve Langton
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by orfeo;
quote:
If you can't express yourself clearly, it does you no favours to come back with statements like "Don't be daft!" when I'm trying to figure out what the fuck you're talking about.

Sorry on this one. I think I made the classic Aspie mistake of not realising the possibility that you might read my comment in a different 'tone of voice' to that in my mind as I wrote. This was intended as a fairly light-hearted 'Don't be daft' as in of course I believe in sexual attraction and regard that as a normal Christian idea, and wasn't sure how you'd got from my comments to the idea that I had other beliefs.
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Teufelchen
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
...I'm old-fashioned enough to seriously dislike the manipulation by which the beautiful word 'gay' has been reduced from dozens of delightful meanings to have only the one meaning of 'homosexual'. Unfortunately we're unlikely to ever get the proper meaning of the word back - but why shouldn't I protest a little?

And further, I am rather challenging the current usage and its implications; that seems to me to justify the questioning punctuation. In the comment about 'gay' and 'straight' not being Christian categories the inverted commas were partly about that but mostly just the normal picking out of the words I was commenting on.

It comes across us not believing queers when we relate our own experiences about our own identities.

And why are you protesting the change in meaning of the word 'gay' and not, say 'nice'? Words do not have specially defined 'proper meanings'; no committee, no king, no angel hands down their definitions. They are defined by how we use them. Language changes. Your discomfort with that is neither the fault nor the problem of gay people.

t

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leo
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo
quote:
Equating gays with paedophiles etc. is an old trick and is highly insulting and dismissive.
So why are YOU using an argument which implicitly makes that comparison?? Think about it....
I don't understand

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Pomona
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by teufelchen;
quote:
There's a world of difference between "this is a Christian view, one of several possible ones" and "all views are equally possible for Christians, and equally valid".

Your habit of writing 'gay' in quote marks every time is very annoying. People's identities are not conditional on your theology validating them.

On the first, point taken; I still don't like the kind of discussion-stifling response that tries to treat everything as a matter of opinion rather than engaging with the actual issues of where it is right or wrong/true or false. I'd rather get on with the substantive arguments than be distracted by the "that's just your opinion" game.

On the second, I'm old-fashioned enough to seriously dislike the manipulation by which the beautiful word 'gay' has been reduced from dozens of delightful meanings to have only the one meaning of 'homosexual'. Unfortunately we're unlikely to ever get the proper meaning of the word back - but why shouldn't I protest a little?

And further, I am rather challenging the current usage and its implications; that seems to me to justify the questioning punctuation. In the comment about 'gay' and 'straight' not being Christian categories the inverted commas were partly about that but mostly just the normal picking out of the words I was commenting on.

Why can't gay meaning homosexual be a beautiful word?

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Consider the work of God: Who is able to straighten what he has bent? [Ecclesiastes 7:13]

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Pomona
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Sorry for the double post, but Steve - as an example, you know best how it feels to be Steve Langton. You have first-hand, direct experience of it. Therefore when someone wants to know how it feels to be Steve Langton, it would be best to ask you and not just assume or go to other sources. In the same way, gay people know the most about what it means to be gay.

Trust me when I say that being gay does not equal having 'gay sex' (which is, you know, just sex the same as straight people have, no need to call it gay sex). LGBT people can separate sex from identity to the same degree as straight people can - for some they are very separate, for some not at all, for most people somewhere in-between. If you maybe tried to think of gay people as being just like straight people (because they are), that might help.

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Consider the work of God: Who is able to straighten what he has bent? [Ecclesiastes 7:13]

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Steve Langton
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by teufelchen;
quote:
And why are you protesting the change in meaning of the word 'gay' and not, say 'nice'? Words do not have specially defined 'proper meanings'; no committee, no king, no angel hands down their definitions. They are defined by how we use them. Language changes. Your discomfort with that is neither the fault nor the problem of gay people.
Actually in this case the change does appear to be a change deliberately manipulated by and on behalf of 'gay' people, rather than a natural change, and therefore does seem top be the 'fault' of gay people. Go look at a thesaurus to find all the things 'gay' used to mean and for which, for all practical purposes, it can no longer be used now that it has become so associated with homosexuality. Instead for many people it has actually become a word to use to mean something is pretty yukky (as in 'Euggh - that's gay!')- though I wouldn't use it that way myself.

by Pomona;
quote:
Why can't gay meaning homosexual be a beautiful word?
I'd assume that was the intention - that is, to hijack a word with joyous associations to replace all the negative words like 'bent/queer/etc'. I don't feel it's worked quite as intended, and has caused a great deal of confusion on the way. Ideally 'gay' should mean all the things it used to without being limited to one particular usage in an attempt to imply that all those previous meanings apply to the one usage. I don't object when a word changes naturally - I'm not happy when there is rather clear manipulation.

All this is a bit of a tangent distracting from expressing my wider views on the matter....

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Steve Langton
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by leo;
quote:
I don't understand
OK, come at it from a different end - paedophiles also often say that God 'made them' as they are. Do you agree with them?

And why would I assume God 'made' anyone to 'be' what God himself has declared to be sinful?

(And BTW, I've not said much here of my own opinions - don't be too ready to assume what those are)

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orfeo

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
I am saying that when that transition is made from 'being' to 'doing' the issue has changed.

And I, and others, have told you repeatedly that "gay" is a reference to 'being', not 'doing'.

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Steve Langton
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by orfeo;
quote:
And I, and others, have told you repeatedly that "gay" is a reference to 'being', not 'doing'.
So you're actually agreeing with me - can I point out that I made that very distinction in a DH thread some months back; and I don't just mean I contributed that to a thread, I mean I started a thread to discuss that very point. Why weren't you and the 'others' helping out with the discussion there?
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orfeo

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Probably because there were other things you said in that thread that I completely disagreed with.

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Teufelchen
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by teufelchen;
quote:
And why are you protesting the change in meaning of the word 'gay' and not, say 'nice'? Words do not have specially defined 'proper meanings'; no committee, no king, no angel hands down their definitions. They are defined by how we use them. Language changes. Your discomfort with that is neither the fault nor the problem of gay people.
Actually in this case the change does appear to be a change deliberately manipulated by and on behalf of 'gay' people, rather than a natural change, and therefore does seem top be the 'fault' of gay people. Go look at a thesaurus to find all the things 'gay' used to mean and for which, for all practical purposes, it can no longer be used now that it has become so associated with homosexuality. Instead for many people it has actually become a word to use to mean something is pretty yukky (as in 'Euggh - that's gay!')- though I wouldn't use it that way myself.

by Pomona;
quote:
Why can't gay meaning homosexual be a beautiful word?
I'd assume that was the intention - that is, to hijack a word with joyous associations to replace all the negative words like 'bent/queer/etc'. I don't feel it's worked quite as intended, and has caused a great deal of confusion on the way. Ideally 'gay' should mean all the things it used to without being limited to one particular usage in an attempt to imply that all those previous meanings apply to the one usage. I don't object when a word changes naturally - I'm not happy when there is rather clear manipulation.

If it's so clear, I'm sure you'll be able to produce some reliable sources demonstrating that this 'manipulation' was a deliberate campaign on the part of the gay community.

But it looks to me like you're accusing a sinister 'gay agenda' of bringing about a change you don't like, and then using that accusation as your explanation for not liking it.

t

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Nick Tamen

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
I'd assume that was the intention - that is, to hijack a word with joyous associations to replace all the negative words like 'bent/queer/etc'.

The word "gay" has had sexual connotations for centuries, though originally a "gay man" was a womanizer and a "gay woman" was a prostitute. It has had connotations of homosexuality since at least the late 19th Century; as early as 1938, it was used in a Hollywood movie ("Bringing Up Baby") to mean homosexual. What you are decrying is the natural progression of language.

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Steve Langton
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Occasional uses notwithstanding, well into my lifetime 'homosexual' was not the primary meaning of 'gay' and it could be and was regularly used in the wider senses without the titters and innuendo which such usage later attracted. A 'gay bachelor' would primarily, as you say, mean a womaniser rather than a homosexual. I don't pretend to understand or be aware of all the details of how things changed; but it does seem that the change started from the gay community and I recall - though wasn't making notes at the time - occasions when homosexuals were quite pushy in seeking the use of the word 'gay' as a description.

I don't regard this as 'sinister' - but nor do I feel it was realistically the 'normal progression of language'. And like it or not, it has had the effect of driving out pretty much all the previous usage. Which is all I intend to say about this tangent.

by orfeo;
quote:
Probably because there were other things you said in that thread that I completely disagreed with.

Given how little I actually said myself among the over 400 posts on that thread, I'd be interested to know what those were. I do recall ending up with the feeling that nobody had actually refuted my OP in the slightest.
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LeRoc

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Occasional uses notwithstanding, well into my lifetime 'homosexual' was not the primary meaning of 'gay' and it could be and was regularly used in the wider senses without the titters and innuendo which such usage later attracted. A 'gay bachelor' would primarily, as you say, mean a womaniser rather than a homosexual.

There's no innuendo in being a womaniser?

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leo
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo;
quote:
I don't understand
OK, come at it from a different end - paedophiles also often say that God 'made them' as they are. Do you agree with them?

And why would I assume God 'made' anyone to 'be' what God himself has declared to be sinful?

(And BTW, I've not said much here of my own opinions - don't be too ready to assume what those are)

Paedophilia abuses and harms people.

Consenting homosexuals do not.

So there is no comparison.

And I don't believe that God declared homosexuality as sinful. Scripture does not envisage or mention two people in love. The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.

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Invictus_88
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quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Paedophilia abuses and harms people.

Consenting homosexuals do not.

So there is no comparison.

And I don't believe that God declared homosexuality as sinful. Scripture does not envisage or mention two people in love. The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.

Just so we know how the land lies:

Sins. Are sins 'sins' because they harm people? Or are things 'not sins' because they no not harm people? Or is there simply an incidental correlation between "sinful things" and "things which harm people"?

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Nick Tamen

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Occasional uses notwithstanding, well into my lifetime 'homosexual' was not the primary meaning of 'gay' and it could be and was regularly used in the wider senses without the titters and innuendo which such usage later attracted.

That may well be your experience, but it is not mine. I am 54 years old, and I can clearly recall that in the 70s in my culture (the American South), the primary meaning of "gay" was "homosexual." It was rarely used with any other meaning except by elderly people or perhaps in a phrase such as "the Gay 90s" or "Don we now our gay apparel." In regular conversation, it was never used to mean "bright" or "happy" or "carefree."

quote:
I don't pretend to understand or be aware of all the details of how things changed; but it does seem that the change started from the gay covgmmunity and I recall - though wasn't making notes at the time - occasions when homosexuals were quite pushy in seeking the use of the word 'gay' as a description.
Yes, a too-often stigmatized group of people who were ridiculed and even punished for being themselves, and who were regularly the butt of slurs and insults, decided what words they wanted to use to describe themselves. But this specific word they chose already had the meaning; they didn't impose it on the word.

[ 07. June 2015, 18:48: Message edited by: Nick Tamen ]

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The first thing God says to Moses is, "Take off your shoes." We are on holy ground. Hard to believe, but the truest thing I know. — Anne Lamott

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SvitlanaV2
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quote:
Originally posted by Nick Tamen:
I am 54 years old, and I can clearly recall that in the 70s in my culture (the American South), the primary meaning of "gay" was "homosexual."

The USA is different from the UK, of course. American usage tends to influence British usage rather than the other way round, although there are exceptions.

Since we're on the tangential topic of vocab, can anyone tell me if the term 'gay' was being used to mean 'homosexual' in the South of England in the 70s?

I remember my French teacher telling the class in the mid 80s that the French didn't use their equivalent, 'gai', in the modern English fashion, but as an adult I understand that now they they do. Or rather, they use the English word - but since the two words are so similar the French must surely be reluctant to use 'gai' to mean anything else. Would French Protestants use the term in this way, I wonder?

[ 07. June 2015, 20:36: Message edited by: SvitlanaV2 ]

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Palimpsest
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Occasional uses notwithstanding, well into my lifetime 'homosexual' was not the primary meaning of 'gay' and it could be and was regularly used in the wider senses without the titters and innuendo which such usage later attracted. A 'gay bachelor' would primarily, as you say, mean a womaniser rather than a homosexual. I don't pretend to understand or be aware of all the details of how things changed; but it does seem that the change started from the gay community and I recall - though wasn't making notes at the time - occasions when homosexuals were quite pushy in seeking the use of the word 'gay' as a description.

I don't regard this as 'sinister' - but nor do I feel it was realistically the 'normal progression of language'. And like it or not, it has had the effect of driving out pretty much all the previous usage. Which is all I intend to say about this tangent.


Gay was used in the twentieth century, often as slang or coded to mean Homosexual or libertine. It was deliberately used in the late 60's and early 70's as part of the name of groups and newspapers to mean Homosexual.

The fact that various people found homosexuality so odious that they stopped using other unrelated meanings of the word gay when it was widely used to mean homosexual just accelerated a language transition. But as a musician said when his German girlfriend complained that there were no good bagels to be had in Berlin, "Whose fault is that?" The withering of other uses was caused by intolerance of homosexuals.


People reuse or alter meanings of words all the time in English. Just because you didn't use it one way doesn't mean others weren't using it.If you only provide ugly phrases to describe people, they'll either redefine the meaning of those phrases or pick another word and redefine it even if *you* don't like it. Poor you.

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Curiosity killed ...

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There's a Kinks song from 1967 called David Watts, which includes the lyric "he is so gay and fancy free" and was deliberately using the word in the current sense and playing on the older sense at the same time. It's an in joke about a producer who was definitely homosexual and was interested in Dave Davies, Ray's younger brother.

The 1967 Sexual Offences Act legalised homosexual acts in the UK. Previous to that act there was a history of using euphemisms and ambiguity as protection - eg artistic, friend of Dorothy. From the 1920s on there are other examples of ambiguous usage, but by the early 1970s gay was used in the sense of homosexual.

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Palimpsest
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quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
[Since we're on the tangential topic of vocab, can anyone tell me if the term 'gay' was being used to mean 'homosexual' in the South of England in the 70s?

Gay News was founded in London in 1972.
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SvitlanaV2
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That's all interesting and helpful. I suppose one could then ask when and how the word moved out of its subculture entered the mainstream vernacular. Pop songs would be a part of that.

As for homophobia causing the word to lose its original meaning, I'm sure that's partly true, but the desire to avoid ambiguity would have surely hastened the change. The two meanings are likely to be used in very similar contexts, which doesn't help. 'Dyke' could be equally problematic for homophobic reasons, yet AFAIK it remains in use to refer to a wall that regulates water levels (though perhaps not in American English?).

[ 07. June 2015, 21:53: Message edited by: SvitlanaV2 ]

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Nick Tamen

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quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
The fact that various people found homosexuality so odious that they stopped using other unrelated meanings of the word gay when it was widely used to mean homosexual just accelerated a language transition. But as a musician said when his German girlfriend complained that there were no good bagels to be had in Berlin, "Whose fault is that?" The withering of other uses was caused by intolerance of homosexuals.

Exactly.

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SvitlanaV2
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Perhaps people mainly want their meaning to be clear.
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Arabella Purity Winterbottom

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Dyke doesn't have quite the same resonance. It was in heavy use by lesbians when I was first out (the early 1980s) but only used as a derogatory remark by others (including gay men). I hardly hear the term at all these days, which may reflect the lack of rivers and lakes that require engineering in NZ.

Gay, on the other hand, was used of all homosexuals in public discourse, much to the disgust of the more separatist lesbians. These days what I hear is "lesbians and gay men," or just "gay people."

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Palimpsest
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"Dykes" also was engineering slang for Diagonal Wire Cutters. It's not used much anymore, but that may be a result of the tool becoming less prevalent.

People reacted quite strongly to the gay use; but it's hard to claim that other uses were avoided to avoid ambiguity, "Gay" has had a minor career as a schoolyard insult "that's so gay" referring to people, clothing, haircuts and objects. It has drifted down from college to high school to middle school and even elementary school as a term of general abuse. If the intent was to avoid ambiguity, there would be alternative words to replace the other meaning of gay. It's not like Jovial has made any big comeback.

I always get a laugh at those who lament the loss of the secondary meaning as merry. Gay is replacing "Homosexual" which is a clumsy Greek Latin hybrid. Those fond of language should approve. It would not surprise me if the other uses come back as the Homophobic reaction dies down.

And then there's the word "Fabulous"...

[ 08. June 2015, 05:44: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]

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Palimpsest
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quote:
Originally posted by SvitlanaV2:
That's all interesting and helpful. I suppose one could then ask when and how the word moved out of its subculture entered the mainstream vernacular. Pop songs would be a part of that.

Seeing a Newspaper named "Gay" on the street pushes the mainstream vernacular. As pointed out by others, it's been in use for a long time. The difference in the 60's on was that there was a theory about being out and proudly claiming a name rather than continuing euphemisms. I don't see pop songs as leading the use of Gay. It was much to common to simply gender switch; the female Diva is singing a song about losing a man; the gay listener identified.
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Steve Langton
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by leo

quote:
The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.
And I wonder if your list of 6 includes the text - words of Jesus himself - that I would regard as pretty definitive....

Right now I'm more concerned with that little phrase 'open to interpretation'; I had a little exchange above with John Holding on a similar point....

Look, everything is 'open to interpretation' - but that doesn't make every interpretation equally good and equally valid. It is still necessary to do the work of showing that the interpretation is solidly founded. And in this particular area there are a lot of 'interpretations' which could more accurately be described as ludicrous straining of the text by people who just don't want to accept the obvious.

I repeat; 'interpretations' have to be properly justified - simply to make glib comments about 'open to interpretation' does not in itself prove the validity of the interpretations.

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Baptist Trainfan
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
It is still necessary to do the work of showing that the interpretation is solidly founded.

Yes, but even that is, itself, open to interpretation! What I mean is that some scholars, based on good evidence and research etc., will say that a meaning of a passage is acceptable; others will disagree. My feeling is that you are most unlikely to accept any of the pro-SSM exegetes' interpretations because - like most of us - you will have made a priori assumptions about the limits of acceptability.

(I accept that there will be wacky interpretations of Biblical passages that everyone thinks are wrong. I'm not referring to those. But what I am attacking is the common Evangelical belief that "liberals simply don't take the Bible seriously" as I think that some of them take it very seriously indeed!)

[ 08. June 2015, 11:14: Message edited by: Baptist Trainfan ]

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Alan Cresswell

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo

quote:
The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.
And I wonder if your list of 6 includes the text - words of Jesus himself - that I would regard as pretty definitive....
Which words of Jesus would those be? Because He never (in anything recorded in the Gospels) makes any reference to homosexuality at all.

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orfeo

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quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo

quote:
The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.
And I wonder if your list of 6 includes the text - words of Jesus himself - that I would regard as pretty definitive....
Which words of Jesus would those be? Because He never (in anything recorded in the Gospels) makes any reference to homosexuality at all.
I suspect Steve has in mind the bit where Jesus talked about a man leaving his father and mother and joining his wife... and then thumped the table and yelled AND ONLY HIS WIFE! for emphasis.

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leo
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo

quote:
The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.
And I wonder if your list of 6 includes the text - words of Jesus himself - that I would regard as pretty definitive....I repeat; 'interpretations' have to be properly justified - simply to make glib comments about 'open to interpretation' does not in itself prove the validity of the interpretations.
1) Jesus did not say anything about homosexuality.

2) The Hebrew in the Leviticus text about abomination is corrupt so each translator maskes his (and it is usually his, not her) interpretation.

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leo
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quote:
Originally posted by Invictus_88:
quote:
Originally posted by leo:
Paedophilia abuses and harms people.

Consenting homosexuals do not.

So there is no comparison.

And I don't believe that God declared homosexuality as sinful. Scripture does not envisage or mention two people in love. The 6 'clobber texts' are open to interpretation.

Just so we know how the land lies:

Sins. Are sins 'sins' because they harm people? Or are things 'not sins' because they no not harm people? Or is there simply an incidental correlation between "sinful things" and "things which harm people"?

There's more to it than that. Sin - hamartia = missing the mark - what makes us less than fully human.

Abusing people makes us, and them, less human.

Love and relationship is likely to make us more human.

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Steve Langton
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by leo;
quote:
Jesus did not say anything about homosexuality.
Given what else he said, he didn't need to. Clearly your list of clobber texts doesn't include Jesus' words - or the bit of the OT he very emphatically quoted.
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Steve Langton
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by orfeo
quote:
I suspect Steve has in mind the bit where Jesus talked about a man leaving his father and mother and joining his wife... and then thumped the table and yelled AND ONLY HIS WIFE! for emphasis.
Almost right; but go back to what hequoted about why that happens - and don't go adding unnecessary bits; table-thumping totally redundant, just pay serious attention to the actual words he did say.
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Steve Langton
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by Baptist Trainfan;
quote:
My feeling is that you are most unlikely to accept any of the pro-SSM exegetes' interpretations because - like most of us - you will have made a priori assumptions about the limits of acceptability.
Actually one of the things that makes Aspies like me good 'absent-minded professors' is that we generally don't make a priori assumptions as much as others do, and we tend to be unusually aware of when arguments are being messed about by that kind of thing.

As a 60s student I'm if anything pre-disposed to accept 'liberal' ideas (and for what it's worth, I have as much trouble with fellow Christians who are shocked at my 'liberalism' as those who find me 'fundamentalist'). Aspies come with a concern for 'is it true?'

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orfeo

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by orfeo
quote:
I suspect Steve has in mind the bit where Jesus talked about a man leaving his father and mother and joining his wife... and then thumped the table and yelled AND ONLY HIS WIFE! for emphasis.
Almost right; but go back to what hequoted about why that happens - and don't go adding unnecessary bits; table-thumping totally redundant, just pay serious attention to the actual words he did say.
I have. My point, actually, is that you shouldn't add bits either. You shouldn't add bits that say that the why is only achievable by a man and a woman.

The bit of Genesis he's quoting from simply doesn't say "for this reason a man and a woman will go at it like rabbits and make lots of babies". If you think that becoming "one flesh" is about inserting a penis into a vagina, and that this is the function of marriage, then I feel very sorry for you indeed.

[ 08. June 2015, 23:10: Message edited by: orfeo ]

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Steve Langton
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by Alan Cresswell;
quote:
Because He never (in anything recorded in the Gospels) makes any reference to homosexuality at all.
OK, I suppose this is the 'argument from silence', and everyone is supposed to say "...and since Jesus doesn't refer to it we can assume he's totally happy about anything we come up with...."

Reality check; even if true (and I'm not sure it is really true) all that this would actually prove would be that Jesus doesn't mention it.

And in that case we simply wouldn't know whether he doesn't mention it because he would agree with our modern views, or whether he doesn't mention it because he totally agrees with the traditional view.

Of course if he did agree with the traditional view, he wouldn't need to mention it. On t'other hand, if he was disagreeing with the traditional view, surely he would very positively need to mention that fact - it would be quite important...!!

This is, after all, the Son of God who was quite happy to use that position to point out that the OT law ('Moses') allowed divorce because of the hardness of human hearts, but made rather clear that his followers should be stricter. This the the Son of God who rewrote the Pharisaic version of the Sabbath laws, one of the original Ten commandments. Why among all that would he simply not mention that 'gay sex is OK'?? - unless, of course, he didn't think it OK...?

However, there is also the weight of what he did say. It is true that he was willing to eat with prostitutes and other sinners, as the Pharisees wouldn't, and he clearly rated Pharisaic self-righteousness a greater problem than sexual pecadillos. But we should not forget that his last word to the woman caught in adultery was "...and sin no more". He was not saying such conduct was actually right or God indifferent to it. Indeed what he does say implies a high reverence for marriage as God's ideal and no compromise about the wrongness of other sexual expression.

So there he is being asked a question about marriage and divorce, and where does he go for an answer? He goes to a text that says "God 'made them male and female'" and expounds it in terms of that complementary partnership being the meaning of marriage. It is more than a small stretch to go from that to the idea that 'same-sex marriage' is even contemplated by Jesus, let alone approved!

As a thought experiment, suppose that there was a Pharisee like Saul/Paul there, a 'Hebrew of the Hebrews' but from a diaspora setting such as Tarsus, and he were to ask about the pagan custom of SSM - is it really credible that Jesus says "Oh yes, that's fine!"? Surely it is massively more likely that he goes back to the same OT text again and repeats "God made them male and female"?

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leo
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo;
quote:
Jesus did not say anything about homosexuality.
Given what else he said, he didn't need to. Clearly your list of clobber texts doesn't include Jesus' words - or the bit of the OT he very emphatically quoted.
That's because he didn't quote any of them.

But he DID have a lot to say about wealth.

If Christians issued as many condemnations of the (mis)use of wealth as they did of gay people, that would be good.

But, if course, the churches daren't alienate middle class Westerners.

[ 09. June 2015, 14:48: Message edited by: leo ]

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Steve Langton
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by leo;
quote:
That's because he (Jesus) didn't quote any of them.
Um; I didn't say Jesus did quote any of the 'clobber texts', However, see my latest post in an exchange with orfeo and Alan Cresswell, the words Jesus DID say that are clearly more than a bit relevant....

Anabaptists like me would tend to agree on the wealth bit. But that doesn't actually change the implications of the biblical teaching on the rights and wrongs of sexual conduct. It is not good interpretation to say that because the wealth (and power) bits are more important we can just disregard the stuff about sex; Jesus is LORD in all areas.

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Carex
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
by leo;
quote:
Jesus did not say anything about homosexuality.
Given what else he said, he didn't need to. Clearly your list of clobber texts doesn't include Jesus' words - or the bit of the OT he very emphatically quoted.
But He did said some very specific things about loving one another, and about addressing our own faults before we condemn others for theirs.

It would seem important to include this in the "given what else he said" part when choosing how we respond to others.

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Alan Cresswell

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
I suppose this is the 'argument from silence', and everyone is supposed to say "...and since Jesus doesn't refer to it we can assume he's totally happy about anything we come up with...."

Reality check; even if true (and I'm not sure it is really true) all that this would actually prove would be that Jesus doesn't mention it.

You're right. It would be proof of nothing, and therefore it would be impossible to say anything definitive. Which was my point, you had said "the text - words of Jesus himself - that I would regard as pretty definitive". Since there are no words of Jesus (recorded) that address the issue there is no definitive words of Jesus to reference.

What you gave us was nothing at all. Which words of Jesus? And, since they didn't reference homosexuality therefore we would need to understand the chain of interpretation that lead you to make a definitive statement. You provided neither the text nor your interpretation. You now have, of course, and that gives us something to discuss.

quote:
And in that case we simply wouldn't know whether he doesn't mention it because he would agree with our modern views, or whether he doesn't mention it because he totally agrees with the traditional view.
Or, He doesn't mention it because it was not an issue at the time. Jesus doesn't tell us anything about whether we should use genetic modification to improve crop yields, nuclear power to generate the electricity our modern life style demands or whether women should be allowed to vote. There was no way such things would have come up in conversation in Roman Palestine, and if He did talk about such things His disciples would have been even more confused than they were already.

quote:

Of course if he did agree with the traditional view, he wouldn't need to mention it. On t'other hand, if he was disagreeing with the traditional view, surely he would very positively need to mention that fact - it would be quite important...!!

Or, at the time, it would not have been important at all and so He didn't mention it.

quote:
However, there is also the weight of what he did say. ... we should not forget that his last word to the woman caught in adultery was "...and sin no more". He was not saying such conduct was actually right or God indifferent to it. Indeed what he does say implies a high reverence for marriage as God's ideal and no compromise about the wrongness of other sexual expression.
And, the relevance of someone committing adultery, being unfaithful in a relationship, to the question of whether faithful monogamous relationships are OK is what, exactly? Adultery is wrong, breaking the commitments of faithfulness within a marriage is very damaging to the relationship and beyond. I don't actually know many gay Christians who would disagree. But, why should agreeing with that be something that prevents two men (or two women) getting married, intending to live together faithfully? Or, are you saying that because people sometimes sin and have affairs that therefore no one should ever get married?

quote:
So there he is being asked a question about marriage and divorce, and where does he go for an answer? He goes to a text that says "God 'made them male and female'" and expounds it in terms of that complementary partnership being the meaning of marriage.
In response to a question about marriage between a man and a woman, He goes back to that text. And, of course, that text also has relevance to same-sex marriages as well, the idea that marriage is a commitment to another person, complementary, forming a new family unit etc are all perfectly true no matter who the couple are.

Another point is, of course, that He was challenging deeply held beliefs about the nature of marriage. Was a women mere property that her husband could divorce and leave destitute at a whim? Addressing that inequality in the understanding of marriage was much more important and urgent at the time than the modern questions of marriage equality where women already have equal rights within a marriage, and it's other forms of marriage which are treated unequally.

quote:

It is more than a small stretch to go from that to the idea that 'same-sex marriage' is even contemplated by Jesus, let alone approved!

Yes, it is a big stretch. But, I for one am not taking that step. As far as I am aware, Jesus never contemplated marriage equality. He never sat down and thought about it. He never approved of it, nor did He disapprove.

quote:
As a thought experiment, suppose that there was a Pharisee like Saul/Paul there, a 'Hebrew of the Hebrews' but from a diaspora setting such as Tarsus, and he were to ask about the pagan custom of SSM - is it really credible that Jesus says "Oh yes, that's fine!"? Surely it is massively more likely that he goes back to the same OT text again and repeats "God made them male and female"?
For a start, of course, that would be entirely hypothetical as there was no concept of marriage equality anywhere at the time.

But, given a choice between:
1) a marriage in which two men care for, support, love and respect one another and remain faithful
2) a marriage between a man and a woman in which the husband treats his wife as little more than a slave, with no rights, no respect, and can be divorced and left destitute on the street at a whim
Well, I know which one I expect Jesus to choose.

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Steve Langton
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by Alan Cresswell
quote:
Or, He doesn't mention it because it was not an issue at the time. Jesus doesn't tell us anything about whether we should use genetic modification to improve crop yields, nuclear power to generate the electricity our modern life style demands or whether women should be allowed to vote. There was no way such things would have come up in conversation in Roman Palestine, and if He did talk about such things His disciples would have been even more confused than they were already.
Of course GM foods and nuclear power didn't 'come up in conversation in Roman Palestine', given that they were of course unknown. The issue of the proper relationships between men was hardly an 'unknown' in an age when homosexuality was relatively common among Gentiles up to and including Emperors. Agreed it wouldn't be discussed much in a society/culture (Judaism) which of course recognised the Levitical prohibition on gay sex. But these two situations are anything but comparable. SLOPPY THINKING, ALAN.
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Arethosemyfeet
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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
Actually one of the things that makes Aspies like me good 'absent-minded professors' is that we generally don't make a priori assumptions as much as others do, and we tend to be unusually aware of when arguments are being messed about by that kind of thing.

As a 60s student I'm if anything pre-disposed to accept 'liberal' ideas (and for what it's worth, I have as much trouble with fellow Christians who are shocked at my 'liberalism' as those who find me 'fundamentalist'). Aspies come with a concern for 'is it true?'

Please stop trying to use Asperger's to justify or support your views. I have Asperger's too and while I share a concern for truth I don't think your claim to be less vulnerable to assumptions stands up to scrutiny. Your neurological state is an irrelevance to your views on human sexuality, and your assumption that Jesus would agree with you because there is no record of him saying otherwise is an argument from silence, however you frame it.

The authors of the New Testament never encountered committed gay couples intent on building shared lives. They encountered adulterers (in a culture that pretty much forced people into heterosexual marriages) and people who engaged in same-sex sexual activity for pagan religious purposes. I would hope and expect that, faced with the fact of same-sex relationships so clearly filled with the fruits of the spirit, neither Jesus nor Paul would have any more problem with them than with opposite-sex ones (recalling, of course, that Paul was none too keen on people marrying at all).

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John Holding

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quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
I would hope and expect that, faced with the fact of same-sex relationships so clearly filled with the fruits of the spirit, neither Jesus nor Paul would have any more problem with them than with opposite-sex ones (recalling, of course, that Paul was none too keen on people marrying at all).

Excellent point, and one I have made from time to time in the last decade or so.

I know actual real people who are gay and married to each other. (I hope you do too, Steve, given the arguments you seem to be making, which need to be based in concrete reality rather than abstract theory if they are to be taken seriously.) To take one couple in particular, they were together for several years until able to have a civil marriage. Five years ago and ten years later i was at their marriage blessing (specifically authorized by our bishop). They continue to live together faithfully.

They have essentially raised two nephews whose father (D's brother) is currently working on his third or fourth wife. Both nephews are credits to them ... and, so far as I know, believers.

Moreover, if I had to name a married couple who show forth the gifts of the Spirit as listed by Paul, they would be at the top of my list (as would at least one other married gay couple, as well as several opposite sex couples).

Seems to me that if we deny the clear fact that God has blesses these guys, and showered the gifts of the Spirit on them, then we are calling God a liar. And I don't do that.

John

[ 09. June 2015, 22:46: Message edited by: John Holding ]

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orfeo

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Thank you John.

This is what really drives me crazy about the constant implication hovering in the air that same-sex couples aren't "real" couples. It requires ignoring actual same-sex couples that are out there proving their capability.

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Palimpsest
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I'm always amused by those who cite Leviticus as a reason to condemn same sex marriage but who still manage to eat bacon for breakfast.

The words "Pharisees and hypocrites" come to mind, but that is unfair to Pharisees.

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Curiosity killed ...

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
However, there is also the weight of what he did say. It is true that he was willing to eat with prostitutes and other sinners, as the Pharisees wouldn't, and he clearly rated Pharisaic self-righteousness a greater problem than sexual pecadillos. But we should not forget that his last word to the woman caught in adultery was "...and sin no more". He was not saying such conduct was actually right or God indifferent to it. Indeed what he does say implies a high reverence for marriage as God's ideal and no compromise about the wrongness of other sexual expression.

The story of the woman caught in adultery is one of the less convincing pieces of evidence about Jesus as the more ancient Bible manuscripts do not include John 7:53-8:11. It was almost certainly not originally a part of St John's Gospel. Where the story comes from is a source of much speculation. It is the sort of story that should be a report of something Jesus did and a scribe somewhere added it in to their version but who knows if it was really Jesus, someone else or what.

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Ad Orientem
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quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
However, there is also the weight of what he did say. It is true that he was willing to eat with prostitutes and other sinners, as the Pharisees wouldn't, and he clearly rated Pharisaic self-righteousness a greater problem than sexual pecadillos. But we should not forget that his last word to the woman caught in adultery was "...and sin no more". He was not saying such conduct was actually right or God indifferent to it. Indeed what he does say implies a high reverence for marriage as God's ideal and no compromise about the wrongness of other sexual expression.

The story of the woman caught in adultery is one of the less convincing pieces of evidence about Jesus as the more ancient Bible manuscripts do not include John 7:53-8:11. It was almost certainly not originally a part of St John's Gospel. Where the story comes from is a source of much speculation. It is the sort of story that should be a report of something Jesus did and a scribe somewhere added it in to their version but who knows if it was really Jesus, someone else or what.
That's a cop out, that is if you accept it as being part of the scriptures. If you do, then you have to deal with it.
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Alan Cresswell

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quote:
Originally posted by Steve Langton:
The issue of the proper relationships between men was hardly an 'unknown' in an age when homosexuality was relatively common among Gentiles up to and including Emperors. Agreed it wouldn't be discussed much in a society/culture (Judaism) which of course recognised the Levitical prohibition on gay sex. But these two situations are anything but comparable. SLOPPY THINKING, ALAN.

No, relationships between men were known. Although it should also be recognised that in a lot, probably the vast majority, of cases the relationships in the Roman era were radically different to the relationships today. In the Roman era these relationships were almost always adulterous (since at least one of the men would be married - which may be a reflection on a society that forced gay men to marry a woman for social reasons), often involved prostitution (in many cases associated with Roman religious practice), and often involved minors or non-consenting slaves.

To consider such forms of relationship as relevant to the discussion of marriage equality is also sloppy thinking.

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