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Source: (consider it) Thread: biblical inerrancy
Leprechaun

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quote:
Originally posted by Callan:
Now consider 2 Samuel Chapter 24 which tells us that God instructed David to take a census and then used this as an excuse to punish Israel. The same story is told in 1 Chronicles 21, except that the author of Chronicles attributes the inspiration for the census to Satan. Now clearly these accounts cannot both be right. If Satan inspired David then the author of 2 Samuel got it wrong. If God instigated the census then 1 Chronicles must be in error.

Callan, I think the seeming "contradiction" in this story has been discussed already in this thread. And the Judas "contradiciton" has also been discussed on the literality thread. There are perfectly feasible answers to these questions, but I will admit wanting to find them relies on one being previously committed to the Bible being inerrant (in my case beacuse of the character of God).
JJ and Papio, I will reply to your very interesting posts when I have had time to think! [Ultra confused]

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GreyFace
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I haven't contributed to this debate for a while, but something struck me, reading the last few posts.

Lep, I appreciate your eloquent defence of the inerratist position. You're not included in this, but feel free to answer anyway.

Fish fish, I get the feeling you're someone who thinks that science and Christianity are in opposition. Would you say that was true? If so, why do you apparently regard the Genesis creation account as not literal? Is it that you separate the myth genre from the historic one and assign Genesis to the former?

If that's the case, are you sure you haven't simply done that because your reason tells you that Genesis can't be literally true, either because of the inconsistency between the creation accounts or because science tells you so?

I'll throw another one in - if you accept the truth in the mythological sense of Genesis, why can't historical accounts that contain historical errors be mythologically inerrant, i.e. true in the truths they're intended to convey?

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mousethief

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What Callan said. [Overused]

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
and what is it that you don't like about the Hindu scriptures that leads you to doubt its inspiration? Or the Koran? Or the Buddhist path to enlightenment?

Because they don't tell me about Jesus, the Son of God!

And it's Jesus' attitude to the scriptures which also give me such confidence in them (as per discussion above...)

quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
quote:
ISTM that you have more faith in science to reveal its truth to us than in God to reveal his!!!
I don't think you can draw this inference from my posts, and regard it as an unhelpful caricature of what I actually believe.

That was a joke! Sorry!!!
[Yipee]

quote:
Originally posted by Grey Face:
Fish fish, I get the feeling you're someone who thinks that science and Christianity are in opposition. Would you say that was true?

No - I don't think that. I actually come from a scientific background, and it took me ages to become a Christian. i did, in the end, by treating Jesus "scientifically" - investigating the evidence and drawing the conclusion that he was who he claims to be.

But, now as a Christian, when science and scripture seem to conflict, who do I believe? I have to work hard to make sure that a passage is making a scientific claim, and not using poetic language etc - genre is very important in understanding the Bible. (So, your example of Genesis - I'm not convinced Genesis 1 is claiming to be a physics text book about how the creation took place so much as who did it - if this is the case, then I can take it literally in believing God created - and without being in conflict with the chemical equations which explain exactly how it happened).

But, I think it scientific to accept the Bible as solid empirical evidence along side rocks, chemicals, equations etc. This is becuase of who I believe Jesus to be (Son of God) and the way he treats the Bible (as (it seems to me) innerant and authoritative). Since he is the Son of God, and since I submit to him, then the Biblical evidence carries more weight than the scientific theories in a case of conflict between Bible and boffin.

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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
and what is it that you don't like about the Hindu scriptures that leads you to doubt its inspiration? Or the Koran? Or the Buddhist path to enlightenment?

Because they don't tell me about Jesus, the Son of God!
Why should that matter? Try to answer non-circularly.

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by Mousethiefovich:
quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
Because they don't tell me about Jesus, the Son of God!

Why should that matter? Try to answer non-circularly.
In a sense its something I can't avoid. I believe Jesus is the Son of God largely because the Bible tells me - and the Bible tells me Jesus had a hgh view of scripture. There is evidence external to the Bible which seems to confirm Jesus as divine, which gives weight to accepting the circularity of the argument. But it is still circular, I agree.

In my defence, as has been pointed out more fuly above,

1. A sort of circular argument is necessary when one appeals to a supreme authority for otherwise it is not that supreme authority!

2. We all use a circular argument to justify whatever position we hold.

So my argument is not unique. What matters is if I am right or wrong. If Jesus is SoG, and if he treated the scriptures as innerant (as I believe), then who am I to say to him that they are not innerant? It may not make sense to view them as innerant when I look at them cold. But when I accept Jesus' treatement of the scriptures., I can't avoid innerancy.

If I assume there are errors in the text, then I have to explain why Jesus didn't sit down with his disciples and correct them - "look chaps, that bit is terribly mistaken." Or "Can I just ammend the ful stop there, and the odd word here?" Rather, he said not a jot of it was to be changed. So, if he's the Son of God, and so if he knows what he's talking about, then I'm going to submit to his superior knowledge. And where there are apparent erros, I must assume they are not in fact errors because Jesus didn't think them errors. And so if there is a reasonable explanation of the errors, I'll accept that it. The reason for accepting that argument is not simply cos I want to prove innerancy (with some masochistic intelect delight!), but because Jesus accepted innerancy, and so I want to too. Its follwoing Jesus rather than the Biblolatry I've been accused of. If he says jump, I'll jump. He's God. And I'm not.

I know many of you don't think Jesus accepted innerancy. But I've yet to hear any reason to chnage my mind on this I'm afraid!

[ 05. March 2004, 08:01: Message edited by: Fish Fish ]

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AB
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quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
If I assume there are errors in the text, then I have to explain why Jesus didn't sit down with his disciples and correct them - "look chaps, that bit is terribly mistaken." Or "Can I just ammend the ful stop there, and the odd word here?"

Would they need to know? Not if truth can still be expressed through flawed text.

quote:
Rather, he said not a jot of it was to be changed.
Beeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeep, he said the Law, not the Bible whole.

quote:
And where there are apparent erros, I must assume they are not in fact errors because Jesus didn't think them errors. And so if there is a reasonable explanation of the errors, I'll accept that it.
Ok, But where, other than "not one jot of the Law" does Jesus seem to take an innerrant position. Simply quoting text "as is" is not proof that Jesus took inerrancy as standard, he may simply have been using familiarity as a vessel for his message. Fish Fish, you may proof text all you like for this one.

[Smile]

AB

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Jolly Jape
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FF

Apology accepted,

Cheers [Smile]

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Leprechaun

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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
Beeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeep, he said the Law, not the Bible whole.

AB

actually AB, he said he did not come to abolish the law and the prophets. Most people I have read seem to take the view that this refers to the whole Old Testament. (although I am willing to take correction from better read people than myself here)
Certainly it is a pretty wild interptetation to say that Jesus valued the Torah more than the rest of the OT, rather most people who say that Jesus did not stand by the OT say from Matthew 5 that it was the law he wanted to alter, by fulfilling the spirit of the prophets.

There's other stuff, but I'll have to come back later....

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
Beeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeep, he said the Law, not the Bible whole.

AB

actually AB, he said he did not come to abolish the law and the prophets. Most people I have read seem to take the view that this refers to the whole Old Testament. (although I am willing to take correction from better read people than myself here)
Certainly it is a pretty wild interptetation to say that Jesus valued the Torah more than the rest of the OT, rather most people who say that Jesus did not stand by the OT say from Matthew 5 that it was the law he wanted to alter, by fulfilling the spirit of the prophets.

There's other stuff, but I'll have to come back later....

Actually, to be fair, Jesus did say "Law" when refering to the last little stroke:

quote:
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." (Mat 5:17-18)
But he says this in context of affirming the prophets, and saying "I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." which is equally affirming of the fact that he won't correct the prophets at all.

And I agree with Lep (who is in my view innerant!) that "Law and Prophets" does mean the whole OT.

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Jolly Jape
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Fish Fish:

You wrote
quote:
What matters is if I am right or wrong. If Jesus is SoG, and if he treated the scriptures as innerant (as I believe), then who am I to say to him that they are not innerant? It may not make sense to view them as innerant when I look at them cold. But when I accept Jesus' treatement of the scriptures., I can't avoid innerancy.

But I'm certainly not convinced that either acceptance of inerrancy is as important as you seem to believe, or that Jesus treated the scriptures as inerrant, in the way in which we mean the expression. Certainly he had a high view of scripture. I would claim that I have a high view of scripture. That is not the same as inerrancy.

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dyfrig
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But the scriptures in a sense are actually a secondary source about Jesus. The primary source is the experience of the Church through the ages - the scriptures are a record of that, but they are not the only or primary record.

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
Fish Fish:

You wrote
quote:
What matters is if I am right or wrong. If Jesus is SoG, and if he treated the scriptures as innerant (as I believe), then who am I to say to him that they are not innerant? It may not make sense to view them as innerant when I look at them cold. But when I accept Jesus' treatement of the scriptures., I can't avoid innerancy.

But I'm certainly not convinced that either acceptance of inerrancy is as important as you seem to believe, or that Jesus treated the scriptures as inerrant, in the way in which we mean the expression. Certainly he had a high view of scripture. I would claim that I have a high view of scripture. That is not the same as inerrancy.
So why doesn't he correct what is in error rather than make statements such as Matthew 5:16-17?!! I see nothing in what Jesus says and does to back up your interpretation. I sounds rather like you are arguing from silence! So, can you back up your theory with evidence? (Scientific!) If not, I see no reason to change!! [Smile]

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by dyfrig:
But the scriptures in a sense are actually a secondary source about Jesus. The primary source is the experience of the Church through the ages - the scriptures are a record of that, but they are not the only or primary record.

But again, thats not how Jesus treated scriptures, as mere secondary, error filled reports of the Jewish "church". So why should I act differently to Jesus?

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GreyFace
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quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
[QUOTE]I actually come from a scientific background, and it took me ages to become a Christian.

But, now as a Christian, when science and scripture seem to conflict, who do I believe?

But, I think it scientific to accept the Bible as solid empirical evidence along side rocks, chemicals, equations etc. This is becuase of who I believe Jesus to be (Son of God) and the way he treats the Bible (as (it seems to me) innerant and authoritative). Since he is the Son of God, and since I submit to him, then the Biblical evidence carries more weight than the scientific theories in a case of conflict between Bible and boffin.

Could you give an example of a situation in which science and scripture seem, to you, to be at odds, then?

There are enough YECcies about that I don't have to look hard usually, but you don't appear to be one. Yet you apparently see a conflict between the conclusions of geology and the Bible, which as far as I can see can only mean that you take the creation story as literal truth and not mythological truth. Please explain what you meant by this.

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Leprechaun

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Just to change tack slightly, I want to come back to some stuff that Papio and JJ raised earlier on.
I think the line of discussion went something like this.

Me: We need God's word to be true if we are to entrust ourselves to him.

JJ and Paps: God's Word (Jesus) is true, therefore we can trust Him.

Big oversimplifying of stuff there, so come back and correct if need be.

On reflection I think this rests on a division between God's living word and written word that I'm not sure the Bible itself justifies.
So the way we find out about God's living word (Jesus) is through the written words (themselves interestingly described as living) breathed out by God. The Bible itself never seems to draw a line to say that we should view one differently than the other, in terms of God speaking to us.
So I say - we need to trust God's written word
You say - we trust his living word, revealed in the written word.
I say (now) - the whole of the written word sees itself as a witness to the living word. Jesus himself insisted that the OT was about him, and he existed to fulfil it. In Hebrews where the writer is saying that God speaks to us primarily through Jesus, his justification is a whole lot of things that from the OT.
there seems to be an inextricable link between the living truth presented in Jesus and the propositional truth presented in the Scriptures. Both turn out to be living truth - because the scripture itself is all revelation of the living word Jesus.

If the Bible itself is so insistent that this link is so clear, that it is through the living word of Scripture that God speak to us of and through the living word of his son, who are we to say that we trust one and not the other? Who are we to draw a line between the written word (imperfect, at fault, untrustworthy because it is tainted by people) and the living word Jesus who,we will trust?

I have expressed that really badly, but I can't think of how to say it better...come back to me, and I'll keep thinking and maybe I can explain it better!

Cheerz
L.

[edited because I inadvertently signed my real name - eek!]

[ 05. March 2004, 09:24: Message edited by: Leprechaun ]

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AB
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quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
actually AB, he said he did not come to abolish the law and the prophets. Most people I have read seem to take the view that this refers to the whole Old Testament. (although I am willing to take correction from better read people than myself here)

As Fish Fish has pointed out, Jesus is only referring to the Law when he points out that not one jot will change. Yes, he mentions the "Law and the prophets" at the start of that block, which you correctly identify as referring to the OT, yet he specifically only mentions the Law when pointing out that not one bit is out of place. Why would he do that, if already referring to the Law and the prophets? Perhaps because he was referring to a clause only applying to the Law?

AB

[ 05. March 2004, 09:29: Message edited by: AB ]

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Leprechaun

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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
As Fish Fish has pointed out, Jesus is only referring to the Law when he points out that not one jot will change. Yes, he mentions the "Law and the prophets" at the start of that block, which you correctly identify as referring to the OT, yet he specifically only mentions the Law when pointing out that not one bit is out of place. Why would he do that, if already referring to the Law and the prophets? Perhaps because he was referring to a clause only applying to the Law?

AB

The logical conclusion of this argument AB is to suggest that Jesus wanted to change the prophets but not the law. As I was trying to point out, this would be an extremely radical interpretation, as the normal "Jesus changed the OT" argument is that Jesus changed the law to fulfil the spirit of the prophets.
It may be that you want to use Matthew 5 to advance this radical position, that it was in fact the prophets that Jesus wanted to alter, I would be interested to understand your thesis. [Biased]

My own view is that Jesus regards both as authoritative, but specifically highlights the law as what he is about to say in the Sermon on the Mount could be misinterpreted to mean that he disagrees with the law. That's just my view.

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
actually AB, he said he did not come to abolish the law and the prophets. Most people I have read seem to take the view that this refers to the whole Old Testament. (although I am willing to take correction from better read people than myself here)

As Fish Fish has pointed out, Jesus is only referring to the Law when he points out that not one jot will change. Yes, he mentions the "Law and the prophets" at the start of that block, which you correctly identify as referring to the OT, yet he specifically only mentions the Law when pointing out that not one bit is out of place. Why would he do that, if already referring to the Law and the prophets? Perhaps because he was referring to a clause only applying to the Law?

AB

because he says this in context of affirming the prophets, and saying "I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." which is equally affirming of the fact that he won't correct the prophets at all.

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dyfrig
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quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
But again, thats not how Jesus treated scriptures, as mere secondary, error filled reports of the Jewish "church". So why should I act differently to Jesus?

There's nothing "mere" about a secondary source, L.

Show me how Jesus uses and treats scripture.

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AB
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//sigh

Lep, there is no radical agenda. I don't think Jesus came to abolish or change the prophets, he makes that very clear. Similarly he says that he hasn't come to abolish the Law, and that not a bit of it should change. My point is that he simply and legally doesn't make that claim of the prophets, thus any inference of inerrancy from this passage can only be claimed over the Law. The prophets can, potentially (based on this passage), contain errors and this passage sheds no light on Jesus' view of that on either side.

So I re-ask Fish Fish, where does Jesus suggest an inerrantist view of the Bible (not just the Law)?

AB

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Leprechaun

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quote:
Originally posted by dyfrig:
quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
But again, thats not how Jesus treated scriptures, as mere secondary, error filled reports of the Jewish "church". So why should I act differently to Jesus?

There's nothing "mere" about a secondary source, L

Show me how Jesus uses and treats scripture.

D,
I think you may think it is me who made this point, judging my the "L" in your post. It was not.

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Jolly Jape
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FF, you wrote:
quote:
So why doesn't he correct what is in error rather than make statements such as Matthew 5:16-17?!!
Why doesn't he correct the errors - I don't think it ever entered his head that people would be exercised by such questions. They really weren't, and aren't, germaine to his mission, IMHO. Of course, what was actually in Jesus mind at the time is not accesible to us, and I accept that my explanation is as likely or unlikely to be correct as yours. Nevertheless, I think that the overwhelming evidence is that Jesus held the Scriptures with a lightness of touch which doesn't suggest an inerrant position. This is not to say he didn't regard them as authoritative, or have a high view of them, merely that he used them creatively.

Why did he say "Not a jot or tittle..." Context, context, context. There is a good deal of exegetal work to be done on that passage, particularly on what he meant by "until everything is accomplished" That's probably a job for Kerygmania, but I think the standard evangelical take (TM) is that this refers to His death and resurrection. What is certain, however, is that He immediately launches into a series of examples where he directly contradicts the Law. Now, I can accept that the teaching on, say, adultery is a mere refining interpretation, but when he actually deals with the woman caught in adultery, he overturns the law by preventing her from being stoned. What does this mean then, is He being inconsistant, contradicting himself. Not at all; he is using scripture creatively. His point is not that he wants his listeners to obey they law, but that he wants them to exceed the law. In a very real sense, for Him, the Law is not the point.

As to whether I am arguing from silence, I suppose that, in a way I am. But then, so are you. To me, it is natural, to assume that the Bible is authoritative and generally self consistant, but I have no reason to believe it is inerrant, and a deal of evidence that it is not. I find nothing in Jesus' silence on the matter to lead me to doubt that view. You, however come from a position where inerrancy is assumed, and find nothing in Jesus view of the scriptures that contradicts that. The difficult passages you can get round with some creative exegesis. Nothing wrong with that. I can exegete creatively with the best (see above) [Two face] . It's just a question of which position has us jumping through fewer hoops.

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Ponty'n'pop
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# 5198

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Dipping back in, conscious that I may again be misunderstanding...

quote:
On reflection I think this rests on a division between God's living word and written word that I'm not sure the Bible itself justifies.
So the way we find out about God's living word (Jesus) is through the written words (themselves interestingly described as living) breathed out by God. The Bible itself never seems to draw a line to say that we should view one differently than the other, in terms of God speaking to us.

I disagree. The Bible itself, and the lives of Christians throughout centuries of experience, are littered with examples of us finding out about God's Living Word (Jesus) by means other than the written word. The experience of the early church setting aside strict requirements of Jewish law is evidence of (requirements of) the written word and the (requirements of) the Living Word being viewed differently, the latter clearing winning through.

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Jolly Jape
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Lep, good post of 10:22

I a sense, I agree with much of your description of Scripture. Once again, I find a tremendous emotional resonance in what you say. Though I didn't come to faith through reading the scriptures, they have been very important in my life, and, in a very real sense, I do love them. They live for me, too, by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. The weight of saying that they are not inerrant is not to say that they are at fault or untrustworthy. I'm quite happy to trust them, to rely on them in what they claim. I just don't think that they claim, or even imply, inerrancy, and in making that claim for them, I don't think we are doing them any favours.

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To those who have never seen the flow and ebb of God's grace in their lives, it means nothing. To those who have seen it, even fleetingly, even only once - it is life itself. (Adeodatus)

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
What is certain, however, is that He immediately launches into a series of examples where he directly contradicts the Law.

No he doesn't - the sermon on the mount is not a contradiction of the law - it pushes the law more deeply. We discussed this a few pages ago, so I'll not go over that again.

The woman caiught in Adultery - again, Jesus does not contradict the law. He doesn't at all belittle it. Rather, he challenegs hypocritical; application of the law - those who apply it to others and not themselves first. Its the people at fault not the scriptures.

So, again, Jesus accepts the authority of the Bible. Again, I see nothing in anything he says to show he does not take the Bible as innerant. His teaching never criticises the Bible, and accepts it as totally true, every bit (Mat 5 etc.). So I am NOT arguing from silence!!! But it seems to say "Why doesn't he correct the errors - I don't think it ever entered his head that people would be exercised by such questions. They really weren't, and aren't, germaine to his mission, IMHO." is your humble oppinion - but there's, I would argue, no evidence to back up your humble oppinion! [Biased]

quote:
Originally posted by AB:
So I re-ask Fish Fish, where does Jesus suggest an inerrantist view of the Bible (not just the Law)?

AB

As I've said three times now!!! - Matthew 5:16-17 - He defends the law as inerant, but also says of the prophets "I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." which is equally affirming of the fact that he won't correct the prophets at all. And I agree with Lep when he says to say Jesus accepts the law as innerant but not the prophets would make a fascinating thesis. I'd buy a copy!!!

[ 05. March 2004, 11:10: Message edited by: Fish Fish ]

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AB
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quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
As I've said three times now!!! - Matthew 5:16-17 - He defends the law as inerant, but also says of the prophets "I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." which is equally affirming of the fact that he won't correct the prophets at all. And I agree with Lep when he says to say Jesus accepts the law as innerant but not the prophets would make a fascinating thesis. I'd buy a copy!!!

FFS Fish Fish, explain how not "not abolishing but fulfilling" means that they are without errors. Surely he can fulfill the message of the prophets without them being completely error free - there are hundreds of posts explaining so in this thread, but I want you to explain from this passage how Jesus is claiming inerrancy for the prophets. The Law I'll give you, he claims that explicitly, but I want you to show me how that covers the prophets too.

Go on, I'm all ears.

AB

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Ponty'n'pop
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# 5198

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FF says:
quote:
The woman caiught in Adultery - again, Jesus does not contradict the law. He doesn't at all belittle it. Rather, he challenegs hypocritical application of the law - those who apply it to others and not themselves first. Its the people at fault not the scriptures.
This isn't quite right either. Jesus does contradict the law inasmuch as he refuses to enforce it. If Jesus, as God, demanded that the law be enforced, he could have stoned the woman himself - he's the only one there who was sinless after all.

I'm not disagreeing that this particular story is about hypocrisy, but taking it at at face value, Jesus is also saying that whilst adultery is still wrong, stoning as a punishment for adultery is outdated, if for no other reason than the hypocrisy which would be implicit in that penal system. He has de facto suggested a change to the letter of the law whilst at the same time retaining and reinforcing the moral code on which it was based.

I repeat: If Jesus hadn't changed law he would have stoned her himself.

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dyfrig
Blue Scarfed Menace
# 15

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quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
quote:
Originally posted by dyfrig:
quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
But again, thats not how Jesus treated scriptures, as mere secondary, error filled reports of the Jewish "church". So why should I act differently to Jesus?

There's nothing "mere" about a secondary source, L

Show me how Jesus uses and treats scripture.

D,
I think you may think it is me who made this point, judging my the "L" in your post. It was not.

[bangs head gently on desk in despair] Sorry, L. It was of course FF.

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Leprechaun

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quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
As to whether I am arguing from silence, I suppose that, in a way I am. But then, so are you. To me, it is natural, to assume that the Bible is authoritative and generally self consistant, but I have no reason to believe it is inerrant, and a deal of evidence that it is not. I find nothing in Jesus' silence on the matter to lead me to doubt that view. You, however come from a position where inerrancy is assumed, and find nothing in Jesus view of the scriptures that contradicts that. The difficult passages you can get round with some creative exegesis. Nothing wrong with that. I can exegete creatively with the best (see above) [Two face] . It's just a question of which position has us jumping through fewer hoops.

JJ,
I will reply to your other post later - interesting stuff.
On this. I think where this argument came from was referencing the Joshua (and other judgment passages in the OT). The argument being advanced by some (and I think, looking back, by you) was that the revelation of God in Jesus is "so different" that we cannot possibly accept that (Joshua) passage is true.
I think it was originally me who introduced the argument that Jesus did not contradict the OT with reference to this discussion. This was not a proof text based argument (which it seems to have now turned into, and is quite frankly, doing my head in, for those of you who are involved in it [Mad] ) but rather to say this: If Jesus is to be viewed as so radically different to the God of the OT as you suggest, it is fair to expect him to explain this, or at least advert to it at some point in his ministry. But there is not even the slightest suggestion that Jesus views God's acts of judgement in the OT as inconsistent with himself. Quite the opposite in fact.

So i don't know about FF, but did not introduce this line of thinking so as to say "Jesus explicitly tuaght inerrancy" but merely to undermine the "Jesus is too different from the God of Joshua, for Joshua to be a true picture of God" argument. Yes it is an argument from silence, but IMO, the silence is deafening! [Smile]

I hope that clears up at least where I stand on this.

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Leprechaun

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quote:
I repeat: If Jesus hadn't changed law he would have stoned her himself.
Or indeed taken the punishment in her place. But that is a different discussion. [Razz]

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Callan
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# 525

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Originally posted by Ponty n'Pop:

quote:
I'm not disagreeing that this particular story is about hypocrisy, but taking it at at face value, Jesus is also saying that whilst adultery is still wrong, stoning as a punishment for adultery is outdated, if for no other reason than the hypocrisy which would be implicit in that penal system. He has de facto suggested a change to the letter of the law whilst at the same time retaining and reinforcing the moral code on which it was based.
To which I'd add, that Jesus says "let him who is without sin cast the first stone". Not "let him who has never committed adultery cast the first stone". So it's not merely an accusation of hypocrisy but a searching critique of the concepts of law and judgement. Which I'd suggest doesn't exist in the Pentateuch, for example.

Originally posted by Leprechaun:

quote:
There are perfectly feasible answers to these questions, but I will admit wanting to find them relies on one being previously committed to the Bible being inerrant (in my case beacuse of the character of God).
But doesn't this invalidate your position? In a sense you are coming to scripture with the belief that the character of God would lead him to give us a set of inerrant scriptures. If study of the scriptures leads us to discover errors - if neither of the examples I gave satisfied, then how about the attribution to Jeremiah in Matt 27:9 of a prophecy actually found in Zechariah 11:13 - then surely, we can say that God's character does not lead him to give us a set of inerrant scriptures. Insisting that he does so tells us what you want God to do, rather than what he actually has done.

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Alan Cresswell

Mad Scientist 先生
# 31

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quote:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:
the written words (themselves interestingly described as living) breathed out by God.

I'm assuming a reference to 2Tim3:16 (all Scripture is "God-breathed"). Perhaps it would be better covered by a thread in Kerygmania, but my views on this verse are maybe appropriate here.

I don't think "God-breathed" necessarily means breathed out by God (a phrase that comes very close IMO to being spoken by God directly ... something that the clear differences in styles from human authors would contradict). When I read that phrase I'm always reminded of Adam, formed from the dust of the earth, into whom God breathed to give life. I would much rather read 2Tim3:16 as "breathed into by God, to give life to the words of Scripture". Interestingly, if we follow the analogy with Adam then it's clear that Gods life in Adam didn't make him either perfect (God needed to also create Eve as a companion) nor inerrant (otherwise why would he have been able to fail in listening to the serpent).

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Jolly Jape
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P&P wrote:

quote:
This isn't quite right either. Jesus does contradict the law inasmuch as he refuses to enforce it.
More than that. There was no wiggle room in Lev. 20:10. The adulterous couple had to be put to death. I agree with everyone else here that the primary target of Jesus teaching here was the heart-condition of the accusers, but it does rather suggest that he had more in mind than a simple reinterpretation of the Law.

Callan
quote:
If study of the scriptures leads us to discover errors then surely, we can say that God's character does not lead him to give us a set of inerrant scriptures. Insisting that he does so tells us what you want God to do, rather than what he actually has done.

[Overused] Respect!! [Overused]

Lep: I think I agree with you on the proof-texting thing!! (Damn, that's twice in a week)

There's a little line that I've noticed but not picked up on in a couple of your posts.
quote:
But there is not even the slightest suggestion that Jesus views God's acts of judgement in the OT as inconsistent with himself.
I wondered if you had any specific examples in mind.

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
FFS Fish Fish, explain how not "not abolishing but fulfilling" means that they are without errors. Surely he can fulfill the message of the prophets without them being completely error free - there are hundreds of posts explaining so in this thread, but I want you to explain from this passage how Jesus is claiming inerrancy for the prophets. The Law I'll give you, he claims that explicitly, but I want you to show me how that covers the prophets too.

Go on, I'm all ears.

AB

I don't think it as explicit as the claim for the law, but implied. But

1. Interpreting scripture is not usually restricted to the passage, but open to the whole Bible to interpret the passage - so its not always possible to explain some passages from the passage alone. However...

2. The context is Jesus moving onto his teaching of the Law (not the prophets) - thats why he explicitly reafirms the innerancy of the law so people don't think (as is argued her often) that he's come to change it.


quote:
Originally posted by Ponty'n'pop:
I repeat: If Jesus hadn't changed law he would have stoned her himself.

I agree (as usual! [Biased] ) with Lep - Jesus knows he is about to die in her place.


quote:
Originally posted by Huge-Grey-Bearded Face:
Could you give an example of a situation in which science and scripture seem, to you, to be at odds, then?

Man created by evolution? The Bible seems to be clear there was a 1st man - so I accept there was. But this is straying into another thread and not innerancy I think.

quote:
Originally posted by Huge-Grey-Bearded Face:
There are enough YECcies about that I don't have to look hard usually, but you don't appear to be one. Yet you apparently see a conflict between the conclusions of geology and the Bible, which as far as I can see can only mean that you take the creation story as literal truth and not mythological truth. Please explain what you meant by this.

I'm not sure what YECcies are? Re the creation story - I try and take it to be true in the sense of the genre it is written in - it seems poetic, but teaching truth about who did it all. That's my current assesment - but I'm open to change on this interpretation. But, again, thats another thread I guess, and not innerancy.

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Jolly Jape
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Alan, there is an existing thread on 2Tim 3:16 here

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AB
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Fish Fish, glad that to have cleared up that matter. So we can't use Matt 5 to promote inerrancy of the whole Bible alone. Good stuff, that was the point I was trying to make! [Big Grin]

Lep, sorry to piss you off - I was geting riled and carried on the argument because of it, so forgive me.

AB

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Fish Fish
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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
Fish Fish, glad that to have cleared up that matter. So we can't use Matt 5 to promote inerrancy of the whole Bible alone. Good stuff, that was the point I was trying to make! [Big Grin]

So, from these two verses we have Jesus strongly affirming both law and prophets and affirming the innerancy of the law. How can you even begin to beleive that Jesus taught half the Bible was innerant, and yet believing the rest to be errant but didn't bother to correct or teach this? I'm sorry, that makes Jesus an inconsistant and naive fool.

No, Jesus knew people took the Law and Prophets as incontrovertaby the word of God - he affirmed this explicitely for the law in Mat 5:16-17, knowing his teaching on the law might lead some to think he was correcting the law, and affirms the prophets (even though he doesn't then go on to teach from them), and does nothing at all to correct them. The case for innerancy has never seemed stronger to me!!!

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GreyFace
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# 4682

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quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
quote:
Originally posted by Huge-Grey-Bearded Face:
Could you give an example of a situation in which science and scripture seem, to you, to be at odds, then?

Man created by evolution? The Bible seems to be clear there was a 1st man - so I accept there was. But this is straying into another thread and not innerancy I think.
You've totally lost me again. The Bible says there was a first everything, as I read it, including man. Why could this not have been God creating him through evolution? Now, I have issues with this but they're not the Bible vs Science issues, more issues of reasoning. I don't think we're in the other Dead Horse yet, I'm still digging out why you're happy to consider Genesis to contain non-historical truth yet the prophets have to be bang-on historically inerrant.

I was more interested in your throw-away about geology allegedly saying that God doesn't make mountains. In my world-view, that's garbage. God makes mountains using the processes that geologists have discovered. Do you disagree? If so, where's the conflict?

quote:
Originally posted by Fish Fish:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by Huge-Grey-Bearded Face:
I'm not sure what YECcies are? Re the creation story - I try and take it to be true in the sense of the genre it is written in - it seems poetic, but teaching truth about who did it all. That's my current assesment - but I'm open to change on this interpretation. But, again, thats another thread I guess, and not innerancy.

Sorry, YEC = Young Earth Creationism, i.e. (one of) the creation account(s) in Genesis literally true, Earth et al made in 6 days, age of universe 6000 years. Or 10000, or 4000 depending on who you talk to.

You're obviously not one, and you accept the genre argument, which to a YECcie makes you an inerrantist. Welcome to the club. I agree with your interpretation of this bit, by the way :-)

Now, in what way can the creation myth be considered inerrant? I present the hypothesis that you can only consider it inerrant by regarding the truths it conveys as being non-literal, and looking at the truths it conveys as separate from the literal facts of the story. So if you argue with a YECcie about it, you'll be the one claiming that you have a high view of the Bible, yet being called an inerrantist and (rightly in my opinion) placing your reason above what the Bible's plain reading says. Nevertheless you and I both know that your interpretation comes from several sources, not least your appreciation of science as the study of how God's creation works, your high view of scripture, and the tradition of the church.

Interesting position to be in, wouldn't you say?

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AB
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Well, Fish Fish, since you seem to want to carry this on [Biased]

The situation. We have Jesus teaching that the law is inerrant, yes? And we have this in a teaching block about the law and the prophets, yes? Yet he didn't extend the explicit inerrancy claim to the prophets, yes?

So far so good, I think.

Now why, FF, didn't he extend it to the prophets? He could have. Infact he could have left out mentioning the law again, leaving his statement to cover both, but he didn't, why?

As for Jesus being niave - doesn't have to be. If we are talking genres, how about the Law being a covenental pact with the Lord, whereas the Prophets aren't. One could certainly see how that there is a case for needing the Law to be inerrant that simply isn't there for the prophets.

So I ask again, FF, where does Jesus indicate that scriptures are inerrant?

(for the spectators, yes I know we are arguing from silence, and I am completely fine with someone taking an alternative pov, I just want Fish Fish to accept it too).

AB

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Leprechaun

Ship's Poison Elf
# 5408

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quote:
Originally posted by Jolly Jape:
More than that. There was no wiggle room in Lev. 20:10. The adulterous couple had to be put to death. I agree with everyone else here that the primary target of Jesus teaching here was the heart-condition of the accusers, but it does rather suggest that he had more in mind than a simple reinterpretation of the Law.

Yes. As I said above, substitutionary atonement. But we've been there....



Callan
quote:
If study of the scriptures leads us to discover errors then surely, we can say that God's character does not lead him to give us a set of inerrant scriptures. Insisting that he does so tells us what you want God to do, rather than what he actually has done.

I think you may be doing what more liberal shipmates on the ship have often accused me of doing - assuming the Bible can be read without any interpretative framework. My question is whether we SHOULD read the Bible assuming, from the character of God and his process of inspiration, that what he reveals is inerrant.
Conservative Evangelical Heresy warning - the Bible doesn't actually say absolutely loads about itself, but it says plenty about the God who spoke it, which should certainly effect our hermeneutic. I don't think admitting there is an interpretative process undermines my point - this whole thread is about finding the right interpretative process.
quote:

Alan's new name wrote:


I don't think "God-breathed" necessarily means breathed out by God (a phrase that comes very close IMO to being spoken by God directly ... something that the clear differences in styles from human authors would contradict).

Nope. Don't buy that I'm afraid, many times in the minor prophets we have something not written in the first person, but called the word of the lord, or coda'd with "thus says the Lord." The fact that this is the case does not stop it being the word of God.

quote:

JJ again
Lep: I think I agree with you on the proof-texting thing!! (Damn, that's twice in a week)


We must stop this. It is ruining my reputation.
quote:


There's a little line that I've noticed but not picked up on in a couple of your posts.
quote:
But there is not even the slightest suggestion that Jesus views God's acts of judgement in the OT as inconsistent with himself.
I wondered if you had any specific examples in mind.
Good point.Well without my standard conservative evangelical "find a biblical curse" concordance to hand, the one that springs to mind is the "woe to Capernaum" where Jesus says what happens to that place will be WORSE than what happens to Sodom and Gomorrah. Oh, and all the OT parallels in his threats to the churches in Revelation.

But as I said it is largely an argument from silence. So its kinda hard to give examples... [Razz]

quote:

The lovely AB wrote:
Lep, sorry to piss you off - I was geting riled and carried on the argument because of it, so forgive me.

Oh please don't worry. I contributed to the discussion too.

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Papio

Ship's baboon
# 4201

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Fish Fish, you said:

quote:
If I assume there are errors in the text
I think this is part of our misunderstanding. From my perspective, I am not assuming it. I am acknowledging it.

Leprechaun - I will respond to you more fully when I am feeling less guilty about the amount of time I spend on the ship when I have research to do. [Biased]

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Callan
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# 525

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Originally posted by Leprechaun:

quote:
I think you may be doing what more liberal shipmates on the ship have often accused me of doing - assuming the Bible can be read without any interpretative framework. My question is whether we SHOULD read the Bible assuming, from the character of God and his process of inspiration, that what he reveals is inerrant.
Conservative Evangelical Heresy warning - the Bible doesn't actually say absolutely loads about itself, but it says plenty about the God who spoke it, which should certainly effect our hermeneutic. I don't think admitting there is an interpretative process undermines my point - this whole thread is about finding the right interpretative process.

I agree with you that all of us approach the Bible with an interpretive framework whether we be catholic or protestant, liberal or conservative. However, I think the point is that the Bible speaks to us and we respond to it and that there is an element of dialogue. The Bible should challenge our presuppositions.

To take an example which will resonate with you - I know a liberal clergyman who preaches the most awful sermons because whatever text he preaches on he manages to drag his own theological presuppositions out of it. His mind is a sort of mincing machine into which the Bible is fed and out of which pops a sermon reflecting one of his half a dozen main theological concerns. (He is, by the way, an excellent priest and has slain the dragon ego completely, unlike yours truly).

In the same way, if we insist that it is the nature of God's character to provide an infallible text in the face of the evidence then we are treating scripture in much the same way as my liberal friend, albeit from the opposite end of the spectrum. Which isn't to say you can't regard scripture as authoritative. Neither Luther or Calvin were inerrantists, for example (Calvin spotted the example of Matthew's confusion between Zechariah and Jeremiah, let me confess) and I'm not convinced that Paul was to be honest (compare Galatians to Ezekiel or Leviticus).

I think that scripture is the Word of God in the same sense that the elements at Holy Communion are the body and blood of Christ. Scripture is, at the same time, a miscellaneous collection of religious texts which contain errors and truth, wonder and wickedness and also the Word of God in the same way that the elements are the body and blood of Christ and bread and wine. But insisting on an inerrant text is like the medieval belief in exsanguinating hosts. Quite simply it will not bear the interpretative weight which is put upon it.

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How easy it would be to live in England, if only one did not love her. - G.K. Chesterton

Posts: 9757 | From: Citizen of the World | Registered: Jun 2001  |  IP: Logged
mousethief

Ship's Thieving Rodent
# 953

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quote:
Originally posted by Callanovsky:
Originally posted by Leprechaun:

I agree with you that all of us approach the Bible with an interpretive framework whether we be catholic or protestant,

You picked a strange week to ignore the existence of the Orthodox. [Biased]

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This is the last sig I'll ever write for you...

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Callan
Shipmate
# 525

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You mean they're not just Anglo-Catholics who use a lot of Church Slavonic in their liturgies? [Biased]

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How easy it would be to live in England, if only one did not love her. - G.K. Chesterton

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ken
Ship's Roundhead
# 2460

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quote:
Originally posted by AB:
We have Jesus teaching that the law is inerrant, yes? And we have this in a teaching block about the law and the prophets, yes? Yet he didn't extend the explicit inerrancy claim to the prophets, yes?

One of the problems here is that "the Law" might not have, in that context, meant only the written Torah. One of the dispoutes between the Pharisees and the Saducees was over the Oral Law that later became a source for Talmud.

As Jesus and the early disciples seem on the whole to have been nearer to the Pharisees than the Saducees (& Paul at least was proud to call himself a Pharisee) he might have been meaning this.

Or, on the other hand, he might have been saying "even though we are Pharisees we still should only follow that which is written, not the oral Torah".

I have no idea. It coudl be that Jesus's words are in the context of disputes going on at the time in which "the law and the prophets" had some sort of technical meaning that would be obvous to his hearers but not to us. I don't know.

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Ken

L’amor che move il sole e l’altre stelle.

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Chapelhead*

Ship’s Photographer
# 1143

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quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by AB:
We have Jesus teaching that the law is inerrant, yes? And we have this in a teaching block about the law and the prophets, yes? Yet he didn't extend the explicit inerrancy claim to the prophets, yes?

One of the problems here is that "the Law" might not have, in that context, meant only the written Torah. One of the dispoutes between the Pharisees and the Saducees was over the Oral Law that later became a source for Talmud.
‘Torah’ can, as you say, have a number of meanings (at least five). However, the reference to ‘not the least stroke of a pen will disappear from the torah’ suggests a written torah. The phrase 'the law and the prophets' also suggests the torah as OT scripture.

Noticeably, however, Jesus does not say “the torah, the prophets and the writings”, possibly because the final form of the Jewish scriptures had not been established at this point and the canon of scripture at the time comprised just the first two sections. So determining whether Jesus had any particular view on the ‘Writings’ is hard to say. And certainly he wasn't talking about our complete Bible.

In any case, I don’t see how 'not one jot will disappear from the law' equates to 'the law is inerrant and perfect'.

Personally, on Biblical inerrancy some of the questions I find interesting are

  • Did Abraham know and use the personal name of God?
  • What is the reason for keeping the Sabbath day?
  • Who killed Goliath?
  • How much did David pay for the land on which he hoped to build the temple?
  • Did Mary and Joseph take Jesus to Egypt after his birth or not?
  • When did Jesus cleanse the temple (both when in his ministry, and on what day of the week)?
  • Was Jesus crucified on Passover day, or the day of preparation for the Passover?
  • Did one of the thieves crucified with Jesus believe in him at the end?
  • What was the last thing Jesus said from the cross?
  • Who discovered the empty tomb?


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Benedikt Gott Geschickt!

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Grits
Compassionate fundamentalist
# 4169

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quote:
Originally posted by Onionhead:
Personally, on Biblical inerrancy some of the questions I find interesting are...

I'm not sure I understand your list of questions. Are you saying the answers provided in the Bible are incorrect? Or unexplained?

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Lord, fill my mouth with worthwhile stuff, and shut it when I've said enough. Amen.

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Chapelhead*

Ship’s Photographer
# 1143

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quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
quote:
Originally posted by Onionhead:
Personally, on Biblical inerrancy some of the questions I find interesting are...

I'm not sure I understand your list of questions. Are you saying the answers provided in the Bible are incorrect? Or unexplained?
I'm suggesting that the Biblical answers to these questions are, apparently, contradictory.

Taking the first question, Exodus 6:3 says that God was not known by His name to Abraham, but Genesis 13:4 and 15:7 has Abraham knowing God's name.

Now I am perfectly happy to accept that I don't understand the Bible well enough to appreciate the perfectly reasonable explanations of why these apparent contradictions are all correct, but if I go down that route I find myself at a point where I have to say that what the Bible seems to be saying and what it really means are so different that I might as well not read it because I can never hope to understand it.

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Benedikt Gott Geschickt!

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Grits
Compassionate fundamentalist
# 4169

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I guess I have always taken claims of "contradiction" with a grain of salt. IMO, having two (or more) tellings of the same incidence does not provide contradictions, it provides more information and clearer interpretations.

And I don't really see anything contradictory in your list. This:
quote:
Taking the first question, Exodus 6:3 says that God was not known by His name to Abraham, but Genesis 13:4 and 15:7 has Abraham knowing God's name.
I'm not getting at all, since Genesis 13 and 15 are referring to Moses knowing God as Lord, not Abraham.

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Lord, fill my mouth with worthwhile stuff, and shut it when I've said enough. Amen.

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