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Source: (consider it) Thread: Kerygmania: I don't believe all of the Bible
bib
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There is much in the Bible which means a great deal to me, but there are other parts that I find too incredulous or at times offensive to accept. For example the story of Jonah and the whale. Who in their right mind could believe that Jonah was swallowed whole by a whale, spent a few days in the whale's stomach and then emerged completely unscathed? No, this is complete rubbish! What things in the Bible do other shipmates find they can't take on board?

[ 07. April 2017, 23:21: Message edited by: Moo ]

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mousethief

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"Rubbish"? No it's not rubbish. It's a novella. I assume you are not a fan of speculative fiction.

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Anglican_Brat
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quote:
Originally posted by bib:
There is much in the Bible which means a great deal to me, but there are other parts that I find too incredulous or at times offensive to accept. For example the story of Jonah and the whale. Who in their right mind could believe that Jonah was swallowed whole by a whale, spent a few days in the whale's stomach and then emerged completely unscathed? No, this is complete rubbish! What things in the Bible do other shipmates find they can't take on board?

It's rubbish if you see Scripture as a collection of factual claims meant to be taken literally.

I view Scripture primarily as narrative intended to shape faith. I have no problem accepting that the Spirit can use the imaginative and mythical genres to inspire and craft faith.

Referring to Jonah, I am more amazed that a puny, little prophet who enjoys being passive-aggressive towards the Almighty can convince the blood-thirsty and haughty Assyrians to have a Road to Damascus experience than a person who survives living in a whale for three days.

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Alan Cresswell

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I would say that there's a difference between "believe all of the Bible" and "believe a particular interpretation of the Bible". In the case of Jonah, there having actually been a big fish is an interpretation. You can ditch that interpretation (as, indeed the vast majority of evangelical Christians, let alone Christians from other traditions, have done) and still believe the narrative.

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bib
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I can certainly see that many of the stories in the Bible are meant as parables or allegories and are subject to interpretation. However I have a very sincere but gullible friend who insists that everything in the Bible is factual and cannot be questioned. There seem to be many people such as her and I think their beliefs create a stumbling block for many young people who are seeking to learn about Christianity.

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Brenda Clough
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If you throw the phrase 'Bible contradictions' into a search engine you can kick up web pages devoted solely to places where Scripture contradicts itself.
The fact is that in a work of this length, written by so many authors over so many years, there is no way that there will not be contradictions and difficulties. Either you fall at this barrier, or you grasp that there is more to Scripture than its word-for-word meaning.

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BroJames
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quote:
Originally posted by bib:
… I have a very sincere but gullible friend who insists that everything in the Bible is factual and cannot be questioned. There seem to be many people such as her and I think their beliefs create a stumbling block for many young people who are seeking to learn about Christianity.

I agree, and along with her are those who assume that everything in the Bible is intended to be read as factual and beyond being questioned. But who know contradictory facts and say, therefore, that the Bible must be wrong.

Both have the same sensitivity to possible literary genres as the critic who wonders whether Wordsworth's daffodils are dancing the waltz or the polka, or indeed the critic who points out that daffodils have no feet and cannot dance, and the whole poem must therefore be a weird opiate induced hallucination.

[ 07. October 2016, 14:04: Message edited by: BroJames ]

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Sipech
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One potential way to break things to them gently is via the use of the book of Job. It's clearly grouped with the books of poetry. Plus, ask them to consider how an author would know the details of the conversation between Satan and God.

Then compare the style of the dialogue with other works of philosophy (for more modern, Hume's Dialogues or more ancient, Plato's Republic). Show them that seen this way, Job is a work of pre-Socratic philosophy exploring the problem of evil, rather than an account of an historical tragedy and the fallout from it.

In my experience, that tends to go down slightly better than looking at Exodus or any of the gospels. Though maybe asking them to read Hume may not go down too well.

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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by Brenda Clough:
If you throw the phrase 'Bible contradictions' into a search engine you can kick up web pages devoted solely to places where Scripture contradicts itself.
The fact is that in a work of this length, written by so many authors over so many years, there is no way that there will not be contradictions and difficulties. Either you fall at this barrier, or you grasp that there is more to Scripture than its word-for-word meaning.

There you go with that facts and reasoning thing again. It'll never sell, I'm telling you.

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cliffdweller
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quote:
Originally posted by Sipech:
One potential way to break things to them gently is via the use of the book of Job. It's clearly grouped with the books of poetry. Plus, ask them to consider how an author would know the details of the conversation between Satan and God.

Then compare the style of the dialogue with other works of philosophy (for more modern, Hume's Dialogues or more ancient, Plato's Republic). Show them that seen this way, Job is a work of pre-Socratic philosophy exploring the problem of evil, rather than an account of an historical tragedy and the fallout from it.

In my experience, that tends to go down slightly better than looking at Exodus or any of the gospels. Though maybe asking them to read Hume may not go down too well.

I usually begin with the Psalms-- specifically Ps. 18. I'll ask if they believe Psalm 18 is true. Then I will ask if God is a literally a rock-- a hard, inanimate, unfeeling object. Of course he is not. The obvious truth that pretty much every Christian agrees is that Psalm 18 is wonderfully true if taken figuratively, and not at all true if taken literally.

This breaks down nicely the stumbling block of whether or not something can be true w/o being literally true. From there it's pretty easy to talk about literary genres and how other parts of the Bible besides the Psalms also include poetry, parables, and other sorts of figurative language.

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HCH
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Responding to the title: Who does? In an case, does anyone ever believe in all of Scripture equally?
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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by HCH:
Responding to the title: Who does? In an case, does anyone ever believe in all of Scripture equally?

I think everybody has a hierarchy, although for some it may be more unconscious. The Orthodox definitely start with the Gospel of John, then the other gospels, then the letters attributed to John, then the other epistles, then the Psalms, then it gets fuzzy for me. I believe the bottom of the list is the apocalyptic books. I may be wrong there.

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SvitlanaV2
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quote:
Originally posted by bib:
I can certainly see that many of the stories in the Bible are meant as parables or allegories and are subject to interpretation. However I have a very sincere but gullible friend who insists that everything in the Bible is factual and cannot be questioned. There seem to be many people such as her and I think their beliefs create a stumbling block for many young people who are seeking to learn about Christianity.

But this position isn't a stumbling block for your friend, is it? She believes in a way that makes sense to her. Others will believe in a way that makes sense to them.

If young people want to learn about Christianity they need to realise quickly that Christians don't all agree about how the Bible should be understood and interpreted. I suppose it's this diversity of perspectives that's the problem; pluralism makes religious faith less credible, so some scholars say. But there's no way around that, because that's the world we live in.

Christians with a more subtle approach to the Bible need to be more outspoken and more convincing than the others on the public stage. In a world where many competing voices are trying to draw attention to themselves you have to make yourself heard.

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Al Eluia

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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by HCH:
Responding to the title: Who does? In an case, does anyone ever believe in all of Scripture equally?

I think everybody has a hierarchy, although for some it may be more unconscious. The Orthodox definitely start with the Gospel of John, then the other gospels, then the letters attributed to John, then the other epistles, then the Psalms, then it gets fuzzy for me. I believe the bottom of the list is the apocalyptic books. I may be wrong there.
Personally, I'd put the "begats" at the bottom.

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Nigel M
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quote:
Originally posted by bib:
... For example the story of Jonah and the whale. Who in their right mind could believe that Jonah was swallowed whole by a whale, spent a few days in the whale's stomach and then emerged completely unscathed? No, this is complete rubbish!

I'd say that you are quite right; no one should read it that way. In fact, I doubt anyone in the ancient near east read (or heard) it that way either, because they were not stupid; they did not believe that people who were swallowed / eaten by fish or mammals came out alive later.

Something else is going one here. I have a theory about that ‘something else’. To cut to the chase, something like this: for “big fish” read Sheol. In other words “being swallowed by a big fish” is a metaphor, a more literal translation of which would be “as good as dead”. There is no big fish.

The reasons I think this is the case are as follows. First, the text...
quote:
Jonah 1:17ff (2:1ff in the Hebrew Masoretic Text and LXX Greek translation).

Yahweh appointed a big fish (dag = דָּג) to swallow Jonah and Jonah was in the stomach of the fish three days and three nights. Jonah prayed to Yahweh his God from the stomach of the fish and said,
“I called out to Yahweh from my distress
and he answered me;
from the belly of Sheol [= שְׁאוֹל]I cried out for help
and you heard my prayer.
You threw me into the deep waters,
into the middle of the sea;
the ocean current engulfed me;
all the mighty waves you sent swept over me.
I thought I had been banished from your sight,
that I would never again see your holy temple!
Water engulfed me up to my neck;
the deep ocean surrounded me;
seaweed was wrapped around my head.
I went down to the very bottoms of the mountains;
the gates of the netherworld barred me in forever;
but you brought me up from the Pit, Yahweh, my God.

A few things to say about this passage.

First, Jonah does not refer to the fish in his prayer. He refers to Sheol, the netherworld, the pit. All these are terms to denote the underworld of the dead, part of the cosmology available to people in the ancient near east.

Second, Jonah marks out his descent to the bottom, not to a fishes’ stomach. He is going down (a theme that started with his ‘going down’ from his home to Joppa at the beginning of the book – and he has been ‘going down’ ever since) to the underworld. You can’t get much lower than that. He's not mid-ocean in a mammalian esophagus.

Third, his prayer has quite an overlap with a number of Psalms, one in particular is of interest here: Ps. 69, part of which runs:
quote:
Save me, O God! For the waters have come up to my neck!
I sink in deep mire, where there is no foothold;
I have come into deep waters, and the flood sweeps over me. …
Deliver me from sinking in the mire!
Let me be delivered from my enemies and from the deep waters.
Let not the flood sweep over me, or the deep swallow me up,
or the pit close its mouth over me.

Note the use of language similar to that in Jonah: sinking in the ocean, the deep swallowing him up, the pit slamming its mouth close on him. The metaphor of being swallowed up by the underworld is key here. It is a metaphor that occurs elsewhere in the bible and seems to have been a common way of describing the process of death.

Fourth, the Greek Septuagint translator seems to have recognised that ‘fish’ is not really ‘fish’ in Jonah. The usual word to translate fish from Hebrew into Greek is ichthus [= ιχθυς], but in Jonah the translator opted for another word, ketos [= κητος]. That is the word used to translate the ‘great sea creatures’ (tannînîm gedolîm) in Gen. 1:21, ‘Leviathan’ (livyatan) in Job 3:8, and Rahab in Job 9:13. it is a word reserved for what we would call mythological creatures. It is as though the LXX translator understood perfectly well what was going on in Jonah; he knew this was not a literal reference to a big fish, rather it was a metaphorical reference to an overwhelming power threatening death at the least.

Fifth, In Matthew 12:38-40 Jesus counters his debaters as follows:
quote:
Then some of the scribes and Pharisees answered him, saying, “Teacher, we wish to see a sign from you.” But he answered them, “An evil and adulterous generation seeks for a sign, but no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah. For just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
That is from the ESV, but the term used in Greek for ‘great fish’ is the same as in the LXX: ketos [= κητος]. Also, being ‘in the heart of the earth’ sounds much more like a synonym (or syno-phrase?) for being in the pit, in Sheol, in the underworld. It makes better sense of Jesus’ meaning to see that he understood Jonah to be referring to death, not to a literal swallowing up by a whale (or any 'big fish').

Sixth, there is a possible linguistic link to the god Dagan from the ancient near east (particularly in Mesopotamia), where Dagan was the divine judge of the dead and jailer in the underworld. The Hebrew word dag (= דָּג) in Jonah 2 may have a deliberate play on that divine name,


So, if that is the way Jonah’s encounter with a big fish would have been understood by the author and original audiences, what do we do with it? It’s an issue in translation. The problem affects modern readers whether they take the tale of Jonah to be a historically literal narrative, or a parable. Enough has been said all over the place about the tensions with a literal reading so I won’t go on about that here. I have, however, wondered about the reading that takes the tale of Jonah to be a parable. Usually in that take, the reader assumes that the fish is a ‘literal’ fish, too; literal in the sense that the parable teller is telling a story about a fish that swallowed Jonah – not a ‘real’ event historically, but a ‘real’ event nevertheless in the narrative story.

My take would be that it is not a literal fish in any reading – save metaphorically. Why put such a bizarre event as a fish-swallowing early on in a parable, when the bizarre is supposed to happen at the end (which it does in Jonah)?

Now we come to the translation tension. Biblical translators usually baulk at taking too many liberties with their work and perhaps that is a good thing. But if the author and audience of Jonah’s tale heard the phrase and without batting an eyelid understood it to mean being caught by the netherworld (and any associated deity), then should we continue to use a literal translation? At the least should there not be plenty of footnotes for modern readers to alert them to what is going on in a text? Or better, translate the metaphor from its figurative setting to a new figurative setting in the receptor language (English here) in such a way that the connoted meaning is brought out as it was in the original. If there is no useful figurative term in the receptor language that suits, then just go for “as good as dead” or something more literal.

However it is done, anything that removes the inevitable and distracting conclusions drawn by readers today about the biblical text would be helpful!

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BroJames
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While there is much that I agree with in what you say, Nigel, removing the fish/ sea monster that swallows Jonah also makes a hash of the storm, the ship and the sailors which/who are not merely decorative adjuncts to the tale.
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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by bib:
... For example the story of Jonah and the whale. Who in their right mind could believe that Jonah was swallowed whole by a whale, spent a few days in the whale's stomach and then emerged completely unscathed? No, this is complete rubbish!

I'd say that you are quite right; no one should read it that way. In fact, I doubt anyone in the ancient near east read (or heard) it that way either, because they were not stupid; they did not believe that people who were swallowed / eaten by fish or mammals came out alive later.


Okay, I'll bite. (yes, I see what I did there.)

I do take the story literally, which will doubtless make me look an idiot in the eyes of most here, but that's okay. You knew me to be so already. [Razz]

No, seriously. It is entirely possible to have an acted-out parable where the real-life events carry a heavy symbolic freighting. Jesus did it with the fig tree. Heck, he did it with his own passion. So I have no trouble with the fish being both real and being a symbol of something else (=death, Sheol) as well.

In the case of Jonah and the fish and etc. I note first of all that the fish is not the main point of the story, but is almost an accident. The main point is the contrast between the quick faith response of the Ninevehites and the lazy, grudging response of the Lord's own prophet Jonah.

Why do I think this story historical, then? Well, primarily because Jesus refers to Jonah as a real person, and in particular to the fish swallowing bit ("the sign of Jonah"). The way he references it (as a sign) assumes its reality. And I cannot blithely assume he was just mistaken, given my understanding of his deity and humanity.

There are also a couple of fleeting references to Jonah in the historical books that are completely and totally bland and boring, which is not what I'd expect of a fictional character. I'd expect either no references at all, or else something as extraordinary as the careers of Elijah and Elisha--something more in keeping with the weirdo vibe of the Book of Jonah. But no, it's such boring stuff that I can't recall the content off hand.

(Okay, I stopped being lazy and looked it up. It's just boring stuff about land boundaries, here:

quote:
2 Kings 14:25

He restored the border of Israel from Lebo-hamath as far as the Sea of the Arabah, according to the word of the Lord, the God of Israel, which he spoke by his servant Jonah the son of Amittai, the prophet, who was from Gath-hepher.

Jesus also references Jonah when he warns the people of his generation that Jonah's hearers will condemn them for not listening on Judgement Day. Again, this presupposes that the story is in fact true, and the characters real people.

And I really think either the whole of it needs to be taken either as an account of something-that-happened, or else as a parable. I don't think we can have it both ways--that there are any safe dividing lines in the book where we can say, "Well, this bit is a parable, but the other bits are meant to be stuff that really happened." There's just nothing (bar our own incredulity) to mark those bits off as parabolic. I would expect something more or less along the lines of "There once was a man" or "The kingdom of heaven is like" or "Once upon a time..." No. No such verbal formulas. Which again leads me to default to "the author meant us to take it as a report of real events."

Nigel, you said "In fact, I doubt anyone in the ancient near east read (or heard) it that way either, because they were not stupid; they did not believe that people who were swallowed / eaten by fish or mammals came out alive later." In a kind of backhanded way you have illustrated my point--certainly they were not stupid; they knew, just as we know, that people eaten by fish etc. die; which is why this story is worth retelling in the first place--because it is a highly improbable, even miraculous event. We tell stories about the improbable, not the probable; nobody sits down to write a book about the man who was swallowed up by a bus and disgorged later downtown. Who would be interested? Who would listen?

No, if they went ahead and told the story as truth (see my arguments above), that in itself testifies that they recognized it as an extremely unlikely occurrence--and yet gave credence to it.

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Golden Key
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Re Jonah:

I don't have a problem with it being fact. I also don't know what did/n't happen.

My problem is with God planning to destroy Nineveh. IMHO, that's Ogre God* territory. But God also gave them a chance, and they took it.

Fiction or not, it has some good details. Like the sailors, wanting to survive the storm, using divination to find out what was up. IIRC, all signs pointed to Jonah. When they found out he was running from his god, they were terrified, and reluctantly threw him overboard. (Was that Jonah's idea?) And the storm stilled. Now, *that's* a good story.

I also liked the compassion lesson for Jonah, at the end. Though I felt sorry for the gourd plant. (I think it did survive, though?) And having a prophet stuck inside, causing acid reflux, probably wasn't much fun for the whale/fish/whatever, either.

Not to mention the sailors--or Jonah, for that matter. {Slight tangent: Just occurred to me that Jonah is somewhat like Rincewind in the Disc World books. If he senses there's a reason to run, he's off!}
[Cool]

*LC: Not trying to push your buttons, re a past Hell convo. It's just my perspective, FWIW.

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Nigel M
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On the historicity of Jonah, the usual arguments against include:

[1] The nature of the narrative (i.e. it is parabolic in nature)
[2] Sensationalism, especially with the account of a the big fish
[3] Jesus’ reference to Jonah is as a sign and therefore doesn’t make any point about its historicity. A sign can function in the presence of a fiction just as well as in the presence of fact
[4] The existence of an historical Jonah as a prophet does not, on its own, authenticate the contents of a later work; pseudepigraphical texts existed for some time, attributing authorship to an older hero (or even actually, anyone who gets a one-off mention in the bible)

I’ll come back to [1] in a bit, but as for the others:

[2] Not a good argument really; stranger things have happened and all that. Just because one has never seen someone survive consumption by a big fish doesn’t mean that a piano is not about to fall on one’s head.

[3] I agree with that one as far as it goes. Jesus’ reference to what happened to Jonah as a ‘sign’ can function independently of the historical nature of the sign’s referent, but by the same token (or sign!) it does not rule it out. So not really an argument against historicity as such; it just does not take us near enough to call it out as either history or something else.

[4] I’d agree with that, too, but obviously again it does not rule it out. It comes down to the nature of the contents of a work, I think.

So [2] to [4] do not really work, it seems to me, as arguments against the historicity of Jonah’s narrative. Back up to [1]. I go along with the idea that Jonah is being told as a parable. The structure of the piece lines up nicely with parables – particularly the annoying bit at the end that parables often had to throw hearers off balance and destroy any cosy conclusion.

This, though, does not actually negate an historical background. Parables work because they deal with real life, real expectations, and real counter-expectations. Jesus told a story about a man who went out to sow and this mere fact works as a fact because men did indeed go out to sow. Just because we don’t have an account of what the prophet Jonah did throughout his life doesn’t mean that people at the time of the book’s dissemination did not know a lot more background than we have at our disposal.

So actually I would agree that the events in the book of Jonah may well have had a basis in history. It can’t be ruled out. The telling of the event, though, seems to me to fit better the genre of parable and if that is the case then I would expect the peak of the narrative to be at the end, with the twist. An event with a big fish earlier on in the narrative does not have a resolution in the peak in the same way, say, as the murder of the servants and master’s son in the parable of the vineyard (Matt. 21:33-46) acts to set up an expectation that is undermined in the ending twist. The fish event seems in tension with the development and at odds with the reference to Sheol. Hence the resolution it seems to me that works best is the one that takes the fish as a metaphor for Sheol (or death).

Taking the fish out of the story by substituting it for a more prosaic reference doesn’t really destroy the flow of the tale. The ebb of Jonah’s journey downwards from the beginning of the tale, through the storm, over the side and to the bottom of the sea, can carry on through Sheol – being as good as dead (or even really dead?) - back up to the surface to land again, without reference to a fish.

Having said that, however, to take BroJames’ point, there is a ‘big fish’ in the tale. Even if it is being used figuratively it adds something to the tale. That is the translational conundrum we have. Do we take the reference over literally (i.e. a big fish in one language is just a big fish in another), or should we try to work out a reference that takes over the connotation? There may have been a time when Greek mythology was more ingrained among more people when a reference to Hades as god of the underworld may have worked here, but that really could only have worked with people who had been educated in the Classics. So we may be doomed to footnotes.*


* Like this. For allegory as a reflection of Jonah, see Key, Golden. Getting Away from it All: Rincewind as an Allegory of the Parable of Jonah. Discworld: Pumpkin Patch Publications, 2016.

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Nigel--

[Killing me] re the footnote. Well done, sir!

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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by Al Eluia:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by HCH:
Responding to the title: Who does? In an case, does anyone ever believe in all of Scripture equally?

I think everybody has a hierarchy, although for some it may be more unconscious. The Orthodox definitely start with the Gospel of John, then the other gospels, then the letters attributed to John, then the other epistles, then the Psalms, then it gets fuzzy for me. I believe the bottom of the list is the apocalyptic books. I may be wrong there.
Personally, I'd put the "begats" at the bottom.
I'm sure some of them were on top.

quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Why do I think this story historical, then? Well, primarily because Jesus refers to Jonah as a real person, and in particular to the fish swallowing bit ("the sign of Jonah"). The way he references it (as a sign) assumes its reality. And I cannot blithely assume he was just mistaken, given my understanding of his deity and humanity.

I don't see how his reference means he believed in the story literally. One could quite easily say, "It's like when Harry Potter was living under the stairs in his aunt's house. They were shamed by the letter from Hogwarts and let him have a room of his own. Just so, shame can make people do what's right when no other persuasion will. We must do what's right because it's right, and not wait to be shamed into it." If a pastor said this in a sermon, you wouldn't think, "He's flipped. He thinks that's real and it's just a novel."

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The pity of Jonah is that its graphic telling has tended to obscure its revolutionary purpose.

To my mind the book of Jonah is a parable because it builds up to the question God asks at its conclusion:" Should I not have concern for the great city of Nineveh, in which there are more than a hundred and twenty thousand people who cannot tell their right hand from their left—and also many animals?”

IMO Jonah is subversive because it challenges some of the basic assumptions at the heart of the Jewish religion by presenting us with a God who treats humanity equally. Jewish exceptionalism and its peculiar notions chosenness are brought into question. Of all the books in the OT it is probably the closest to the NT.

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[Overused] Amen Kwesi
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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by Golden Key:
Re Jonah:

I don't have a problem with it being fact. I also don't know what did/n't happen.

My problem is with God planning to destroy Nineveh. IMHO, that's Ogre God* territory. But God also gave them a chance, and they took it.

Fiction or not, it has some good details. Like the sailors, wanting to survive the storm, using divination to find out what was up. IIRC, all signs pointed to Jonah. When they found out he was running from his god, they were terrified, and reluctantly threw him overboard. (Was that Jonah's idea?) And the storm stilled. Now, *that's* a good story.

I also liked the compassion lesson for Jonah, at the end. Though I felt sorry for the gourd plant. (I think it did survive, though?) And having a prophet stuck inside, causing acid reflux, probably wasn't much fun for the whale/fish/whatever, either.

Not to mention the sailors--or Jonah, for that matter. {Slight tangent: Just occurred to me that Jonah is somewhat like Rincewind in the Disc World books. If he senses there's a reason to run, he's off!}
[Cool]

*LC: Not trying to push your buttons, re a past Hell convo. It's just my perspective, FWIW.

You're not pushing my buttons. You're not shitting on the thread by declaring that there is nothing whatsoever to talk about and why are you bothering your head about it, which is what set me off that time. Discussion is good!

As for the poor fish, yes, I once wrote a Jonah reader's theatre piece where the fish gets a chance to moan about its situation. (I think the fish got the worst part of that deal, what did it ever do to deserve Jonah?)

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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Why do I think this story historical, then? Well, primarily because Jesus refers to Jonah as a real person, and in particular to the fish swallowing bit ("the sign of Jonah"). The way he references it (as a sign) assumes its reality. And I cannot blithely assume he was just mistaken, given my understanding of his deity and humanity.

I don't see how his reference means he believed in the story literally. One could quite easily say, "It's like when Harry Potter was living under the stairs in his aunt's house. They were shamed by the letter from Hogwarts and let him have a room of his own. Just so, shame can make people do what's right when no other persuasion will. We must do what's right because it's right, and not wait to be shamed into it." If a pastor said this in a sermon, you wouldn't think, "He's flipped. He thinks that's real and it's just a novel."
You see, my understanding of a sign is not a simile or an analogy. It is a real happening that is directed by God to communicate something (see the usage in the Gospel of John) and has an overlapping domain with "miracle." So it's Jesus' word "sign" that is getting me. I can't see him applying that word to Harry Potter, the Odyssey, or any other fictional narrative given the other usage I've observed.

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mousethief

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Fair enough, although in the context in which he is using it, I think it could be defended that the word sign as applied to Jonah has the first-century equivalent of scarequotes around it.

The only sign they'll get is the "sign" of Jonah.

Is Jonah's whale episode called a "sign" anywhere else? If there were a longstanding tradition of calling the fish thing a "sign" that Jesus was tapping into, that would be something else entirely, if you could also show that "sign" was never used metaphorically.

Ultimately of course we will end up agreeing to disagree. [Two face]

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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
On the historicity of Jonah, the usual arguments against include:

[1] The nature of the narrative (i.e. it is parabolic in nature)
[2] Sensationalism, especially with the account of a the big fish
[3] Jesus’ reference to Jonah is as a sign and therefore doesn’t make any point about its historicity. A sign can function in the presence of a fiction just as well as in the presence of fact
[4] The existence of an historical Jonah as a prophet does not, on its own, authenticate the contents of a later work; pseudepigraphical texts existed for some time, attributing authorship to an older hero (or even actually, anyone who gets a one-off mention in the bible)

I’ll come back to [1] in a bit, but as for the others:

[2] Not a good argument really; stranger things have happened and all that. Just because one has never seen someone survive consumption by a big fish doesn’t mean that a piano is not about to fall on one’s head.

Yes, I agree with you.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:


[3] I agree with that one as far as it goes. Jesus’ reference to what happened to Jonah as a ‘sign’ can function independently of the historical nature of the sign’s referent, but by the same token (or sign!) it does not rule it out. So not really an argument against historicity as such; it just does not take us near enough to call it out as either history or something else.

Please see my reply to Mousethief just above. It would be interesting to do a formal word study on the term.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:



[4] I’d agree with that, too, but obviously again it does not rule it out. It comes down to the nature of the contents of a work, I think.

Surely. I was not offering the other reference as proof that the events of Jonah happened, but rather pointing out that it's a bit odd to have such a prosaic single reference to the main character in the same body of work as the fish tale. I take it you're imagining a scenario where someone composes a fishy tale and grabs an obscure prophet's name for the protagonist? Okay, I suppose that could happen. Though the pseudepigrapha etc. I'm aware of normally go for well-known types--Adam and Eve, Daniel, Mary, whatever. Not some barely noticeable guy buried deep in Kings. I think the point is the name recognition--an attempt to add interest and/or authenticity. But of course these are only my speculations.

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:


So [2] to [4] do not really work, it seems to me, as arguments against the historicity of Jonah’s narrative. Back up to [1]. I go along with the idea that Jonah is being told as a parable. The structure of the piece lines up nicely with parables – particularly the annoying bit at the end that parables often had to throw hearers off balance and destroy any cosy conclusion.

This, though, does not actually negate an historical background. Parables work because they deal with real life, real expectations, and real counter-expectations. Jesus told a story about a man who went out to sow and this mere fact works as a fact because men did indeed go out to sow. Just because we don’t have an account of what the prophet Jonah did throughout his life doesn’t mean that people at the time of the book’s dissemination did not know a lot more background than we have at our disposal.

So actually I would agree that the events in the book of Jonah may well have had a basis in history. It can’t be ruled out. The telling of the event, though, seems to me to fit better the genre of parable and if that is the case then I would expect the peak of the narrative to be at the end, with the twist. An event with a big fish earlier on in the narrative does not have a resolution in the peak in the same way, say, as the murder of the servants and master’s son in the parable of the vineyard (Matt. 21:33-46) acts to set up an expectation that is undermined in the ending twist. The fish event seems in tension with the development and at odds with the reference to Sheol. Hence the resolution it seems to me that works best is the one that takes the fish as a metaphor for Sheol (or death).

Taking the fish out of the story by substituting it for a more prosaic reference doesn’t really destroy the flow of the tale. The ebb of Jonah’s journey downwards from the beginning of the tale, through the storm, over the side and to the bottom of the sea, can carry on through Sheol – being as good as dead (or even really dead?) - back up to the surface to land again, without reference to a fish.

Having said that, however, to take BroJames’ point, there is a ‘big fish’ in the tale. Even if it is being used figuratively it adds something to the tale. That is the translational conundrum we have. Do we take the reference over literally (i.e. a big fish in one language is just a big fish in another), or should we try to work out a reference that takes over the connotation? There may have been a time when Greek mythology was more ingrained among more people when a reference to Hades as god of the underworld may have worked here, but that really could only have worked with people who had been educated in the Classics. So we may be doomed to footnotes.*


* Like this. For allegory as a reflection of Jonah, see Key, Golden. Getting Away from it All: Rincewind as an Allegory of the Parable of Jonah. Discworld: Pumpkin Patch Publications, 2016.

I think you and I are far closer than perhaps you realize (or perhaps you do). I agree that the fish carries the symbolic resonance of the underworld--in fact, I would go further and say I think it likely that Jonah actually did die inside that fish and was raised later. There's nothing to rule it out, and it would further underline the "sign" connection Jesus points to. Not that the question is important (except perhaps to Jonah personally).

I have no trouble with anybody preaching on the role of the fish with regards to Sheol/the grave/etc. The Lord regularly uses real events, as well as fictional parables, to convey more than one level of meaning. I'm rather addicted to typology in the Old Testament, as I find this kind of rhyming meaning fascinating.

The only thing that disturbs me in your proposal is perhaps something I have misunderstood. I would not mess with the text itself, which was what I thought you were suggesting. First on the grounds that it's unwise to mess with the Scriptures, of course; but second, on the grounds that the fact we have a fish (rather than a straightforward reference to death) is because it serves at least one purpose the bland reference wouldn't.

Some of those purposes might be: a) to get people interested (everybody likes a sea monster!), b) to appeal to the visceral shivers we all get at the thought of being not just killed but EATEN; c) it also allows the writer to show God controlling even the wild uncontrollable creatures of the fearful deep (not a comfortable environment for most Jews); d) this suggests also God's ability to control and direct death, even against its own nature; and I've doubtless missed a bunch more.

So not just on Scriptural grounds but also on literary ones I would be strongly against losing the fish. (If nothing else, think of the children's storytelling it would impoverish!)

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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Fair enough, although in the context in which he is using it, I think it could be defended that the word sign as applied to Jonah has the first-century equivalent of scarequotes around it.

The only sign they'll get is the "sign" of Jonah.


It's not impossible, of course, but generally I try to avoid assuming air quotes or sarcasm unless there's a huge boulder in the way of taking the saying straight. For example, in the cases of the Canaanite woman/dog episode, or the unscrupulous manager story. But here? It seems to me insufficient.


quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Is Jonah's whale episode called a "sign" anywhere else? If there were a longstanding tradition of calling the fish thing a "sign" that Jesus was tapping into, that would be something else entirely, if you could also show that "sign" was never used metaphorically.

You know, I can't think of anybody else referencing Jonah at all, at least in Scripture. There may be something in the fathers, but if so it would most likely derive from Christ's own usage and thus be no evidence.

I just took a break to troll through the Bible on Biblegateway, and in all the usage of the word "sign" (OT and NT) I can find no reference to anything fictional, legendary, mythic, or parabolic. Indeed, a large proportion of the usage tends to come very close to "evidence." Which is about as far from nonreal mere symbolism as you can get.

quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Ultimately of course we will end up agreeing to disagree. [Two face]

No doubt!

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ThunderBunk

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Lamb Chopped, I'm sorry but that's absolutely 180 degrees from anything approximating to a reasonable approach to the use of texts in a culture.

Objective evidence is only, exclusively of importance in anything other than a practical/scientific context to post-enlightement, therefore protestant, western cultures. Where the question being asked of the text is not "what is this thing I am looking at/that is staring at me? What do I do with it? Will it kill me?", metaphorical, allegorical, etc. uses of the text were its primary uses, and still are in many cultures. There's no need to signal that use, because that's what the text is there for. Treating it as a literal description of anything would have struck its author and its first-century reader as a frankly perverse thing to do.

Ignorance of the cultural uses of texts is one of the main things that keeps me away from reading about 99% of biblical commentary. The bible is fundamentally made up of texts, and until one understands how they work, commenting on it seems to me unwise.

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ThunderBunk

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quote:
Originally posted by ThunderBunk:
Lamb Chopped, I'm sorry but that's absolutely 180 degrees from anything approximating to a reasonable approach to the use of texts in a culture.

Objective evidence is only, exclusively of importance in anything other than a practical/scientific context to post-enlightement, therefore protestant, western cultures. Where the question being asked of the text is not "what is this thing I am looking at/that is staring at me? What do I do with it? Will it kill me?", metaphorical, allegorical, etc. uses of the text were its primary uses, and still are in many cultures. There's no need to signal that use, because that's what the text is there for. Treating it as a literal description of anything would have struck its author and its first-century reader as a frankly perverse thing to do.

Ignorance of the cultural uses of texts is one of the main things that keeps me away from reading about 99% of biblical commentary. The bible is fundamentally made up of texts, and until one understands how they work, commenting on it seems to me unwise.

Apologies that was somewhat intemperate, though it was tempered.

One of the main reasons why I don't tend to visit Kerygmania that much is that I find the discussion does not take into account the two fundamental facts which my academic training (as a textual linguist and theorist of literary translation) make me most sensitive to: that the bible is in fact a record of a whole culture, and contains material written over a long period in a whole series of genres, and that this material has been reworked over time for different audiences, and many of the narratives probably perform in the context in which they are presented now totally different functions from the function for which they were originally written.

The fact that my academic career failed to happen will hopefully explain why I have so much pent-up passion on the subject, which produces explosions like my original post.

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Lamb Chopped
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Well, we're a pair then, as my doctorate in English and my theological/Greek/Hebrew training has failed to open any doors in academia. So no worries.

I must confess that I don't understand what you are saying in your first post (and suspect you don't understand mine either). I've done textual studies. Of course the Bible is a library-full of texts, and of course those reflect a culture (or several, really). Why would that fact invalidate the question of whether a described event in fact occurred?

ETA: I have 30 years' experience living in a partly literate partly oral third world culture (transplanted to the US, yes, but they brought their textual uses with them). And these people at least appear to use texts for the full range of human activities, whether representational or symbolic or both.

[ 30. October 2016, 13:20: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]

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ThunderBunk

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quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Well, we're a pair then, as my doctorate in English and my theological/Greek/Hebrew training has failed to open any doors in academia. So no worries.

I must confess that I don't understand what you are saying in your first post (and suspect you don't understand mine either). I've done textual studies. Of course the Bible is a library-full of texts, and of course those reflect a culture (or several, really). Why would that fact invalidate the question of whether a described event in fact occurred?

ETA: I have 30 years' experience living in a partly literate partly oral third world culture (transplanted to the US, yes, but they brought their textual uses with them). And these people at least appear to use texts for the full range of human activities, whether representational or symbolic or both.

In that case, I understand your method of approaching the bible even less. What made me see red was when you said that you could see no triggers in the text not to take it literally. Why should there be any? And in any case, why could/should they not be there when you can't see them? It's entirely possible, for example, that in the culture of original writing/reception, all stories about being swallowed by large marine creatures functioned as allegories of death, or that stories about Nineveh were ways of talking about something else - power, etc. for example. In either case, that knowledge would then be held at cultural, rather than textual level, and no sign would be visible to the reader of the individual text. On the other hand, they would almost certainly be a member of a small receiving/interpreting community, to whom the interpretative tools needed would be a natural part of their culture.

It's also baffling to me why anyone, particularly one of your learning, would make the assumption narratives should have as their natural purpose the retailing of information about the apparent subject. Narratives have always performed a huge variety of functions: why such the ones selected for, or which ended up in, the bible have that particular function?

[ 30. October 2016, 13:39: Message edited by: ThunderBunk ]

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Kwesi
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On the more general issue regarding belief in the bible or not it is necessary first of all to decide what the bible is saying. (This is the hard bit which fundamentalists by and large ignore in their scriptural laziness). Only then can one decide whether one agrees or disagrees with what it is saying.

Most people, I guess, believe in some parts more than others. I don't believe, for example, that the God revealed in the life of Christ would command a genocide, but I do believe in faith, hope and love. Others (anticipating Martin60) might have a different opinion!

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agingjb
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The "God revealed in the words of Jesus" insists on condemning those who don't measure up (like calling people fools) to an eternity of pain. Genocide? A mere nothing by comparison.

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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by ThunderBunk:
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Well, we're a pair then, as my doctorate in English and my theological/Greek/Hebrew training has failed to open any doors in academia. So no worries.

I must confess that I don't understand what you are saying in your first post (and suspect you don't understand mine either). I've done textual studies. Of course the Bible is a library-full of texts, and of course those reflect a culture (or several, really). Why would that fact invalidate the question of whether a described event in fact occurred?

ETA: I have 30 years' experience living in a partly literate partly oral third world culture (transplanted to the US, yes, but they brought their textual uses with them). And these people at least appear to use texts for the full range of human activities, whether representational or symbolic or both.

In that case, I understand your method of approaching the bible even less. What made me see red was when you said that you could see no triggers in the text not to take it literally. Why should there be any?
Generally speaking, when a person intends to speak sarcastically, poetically, jokingly, ironically, or otherwise "on the slant," they make sure there is a sufficient signpost so that hearers/readers can interpret what they are saying correctly. This may lie in the situation itself (for example, if I roll my eyes and say "damn Vietnamese drivers," you will interpret me correctly if you realize that I am married to the Vietnamese man who taught ME to drive, and he regularly teases me with American jokes.).

If there is no sufficient signpost in the situation itself, people normally post the sign themselves--either by tone of voice, or by rolling their eyes, or in some other widely understood way of signalling "don't take this straight."

When I look at the words of Christ, I see no such signposts. I am therefore obliged to give serious consideration to the possibility that he might have been speaking "straight."

I am aware of no human cultures where people fail to do this. If you know of one, please tell me.

quote:
Originally posted by ThunderBunk:


And in any case, why could/should they not be there when you can't see them? It's entirely possible, for example, that in the culture of original writing/reception, all stories about being swallowed by large marine creatures functioned as allegories of death, or that stories about Nineveh were ways of talking about something else - power, etc. for example. In either case, that knowledge would then be held at cultural, rather than textual level, and no sign would be visible to the reader of the individual text. On the other hand, they would almost certainly be a member of a small receiving/interpreting community, to whom the interpretative tools needed would be a natural part of their culture.

This is entirely possible but also very improbable. That ancient culture has been studied to death--and it is one of the major springs of our own Western cultures. So we're not talking about some isolated jungle tribe where ancient cultural traditions could bloom and die without ever making it to the notice of the wider world. That the ancient Jews, or first century Jews, could have had some culture-wide signal for irony etc. that nevertheless has eluded all the rest of the world for thousands of years to this day--no, I just can't see it. I'm at the point where I'd choose to believe an impossible-probable over such an improbable possible.

quote:
Originally posted by ThunderBunk:


It's also baffling to me why anyone, particularly one of your learning, would make the assumption narratives should have as their natural purpose the retailing of information about the apparent subject. Narratives have always performed a huge variety of functions: why such the ones selected for, or which ended up in, the bible have that particular function?

The retailing of information is and always has been a major purpose of human communication. And not just "watch out for the wolf over there," but also "let me tell you the story of the night you were born." People enjoy story-telling. I know of no culture which does not tell stories.

To be sure, this is not the only purpose of communication; but when I come across a text that looks like a story, and smells like a story, and quacks like a story, well, I'm going to take it that it is a story. It may have secondary purposes (probably does; most stories do). But there's nothing wrong with examining the story as a story either.

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BroJames
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Basically, I agree that there tend to be signs for a text that should not be read literally, and/or should be read with irony. OTOH, irony, especially in ancient texts is widely agreed to be hard to spot. A notorious example is 1 Corinthians 4.8-12.
quote:
Already you have all you want! Already you have become rich! Quite apart from us you have become kings! Indeed, I wish that you had become kings, so that we might be kings with you! For I think that God has exhibited us apostles as last of all, as though sentenced to death, because we have become a spectacle to the world, to angels and to mortals. We are fools for the sake of Christ, but you are wise in Christ. We are weak, but you are strong. You are held in honour, but we in disrepute. To the present hour we are hungry and thirsty, we are poorly clothed and beaten and homeless, and we grow weary from the work of our own hands. When reviled, we bless; when persecuted, we endure;
There is fairly widespread agreement that Paul is speaking ironically, and that he moves into non-ironic discourse, but the boundary is not absolutely clear, and there are few if any purely textual or rhetorical markers which indicate that irony is present, or where it ends.
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mousethief

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quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
To be sure, this is not the only purpose of communication; but when I come across a text that looks like a story, and smells like a story, and quacks like a story, well, I'm going to take it that it is a story. It may have secondary purposes (probably does; most stories do). But there's nothing wrong with examining the story as a story either.

From this it does not in the least follow, however, that the story is meant to express what we call history.

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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
To be sure, this is not the only purpose of communication; but when I come across a text that looks like a story, and smells like a story, and quacks like a story, well, I'm going to take it that it is a story. It may have secondary purposes (probably does; most stories do). But there's nothing wrong with examining the story as a story either.

From this it does not in the least follow, however, that the story is meant to express what we call history.
Certainly. But I was responding here to ThunderBunk's points on whether texts should be considered narrative, and not the other thread question of whether this particular narrative is history or not.

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Er, this is what I've been up to (book).
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Lamb Chopped
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BroJames, yes, that's a great example of an ironic / sarcastic passage, and I agree with you that boundaries may not be absolutely clear. The case you cite does have a lovely big signpost in the opening bit:

quote:
Already you have all you want! Already you have become rich! Quite apart from us you have become kings! Indeed, I wish that you had become kings, so that we might be kings with you
where it is quite obvious that they are not yet in fact kings, and that Paul of all people would never agree that certain Christians would "make it" to a state of eternal perfection and happiness without the rest of the Church along with them. The rest of the letter makes it abundantly clear that Paul sees some major flaws in their state, so when he states the contrary "Already you have all you want! Already you have become rich and are kings!" it's pretty clear we have to take this as sarcasm, particularly when he follows it up with "indeed, I wish..." In fact, I think this passage is perhaps better signposted than many--the one that comes to mind as slippery to me is the Lord's encounter with the Canaanite woman. Just how far in that conversation does the "slant" go? I tend to see it starting with his silence and walking past her, and ending when he abruptly turns to praising her faith. But on this very Ship we've had umpteen threads where many see no irony at all, and others see it only in the actual "dog" statement. So yes, the textual boundaries can be a bit sloppy.

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Er, this is what I've been up to (book).
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mousethief

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Where, outside of Jesus' "the only sign you're gonna get is the sign of Jonah" is Jonah, or the three-day-ness of his intestinal fortitude, called a sign? Do we have any indication the people previously thought of it as a sign? Or is this the first time it occurred to them to think of it as a sign?

If it was a sign, what was it a sign of? If the people already knew it was a sign, then Christ is redirecting the sign to himself. But what was it a sign of before that?

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Lamb Chopped
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Not sure who that question is directed to, or what exactly you're driving at, but I imagine that nobody in particular called it a sign before Christ did so. But that wouldn't be too surprising because God seems to have a habit of being willfully obscure (did I say that? oops) and then asking us why we didn't understand him...

So I'd say this is wholly in character for him.

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Martin60
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Back to Jonah, if I may. I'd LOVE it ALL to be true, remarkably crafted as it is, reflecting the cultures of Israel and Assyria beautifully. Because if it were, that's not the point. The point is the evolving understanding of God as merciful beyond His chosen people.

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Gramps49
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Jonah is not a historical book--fact is, it is considered a book of wisdom.

There are certain clues that suggest the story is a parable

Jonah being swallowed by a big fish (not a whale)

Jonah going to the center of Ninevah--everyone hearing the message of Jonah, immediately converting (even the cattle)

Jonah being despondent retreats from Ninevah. God allows a plant to sprout, grow to maturity, and then withers and dies all within the space of a day.

The point of the parable through is about the universality of God--God is just not the God of Israel, but of all nations.

A story does not have to be factual but still tells a truth.

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Honest Ron Bacardi
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Gramps49 wrote:
quote:
Jonah is not a historical book--fact is, it is considered a book of wisdom.
That's one POV. In fact it used to be my POV, but I changed my mind.

When it comes to assigning the book of Jonah to a genre, it's a toughie. It's the one you would do last, not first. If you go looking you can find scholars willing to assign it to pretty well every genre going. So not much help there. The problem with calling it Wisdom is that the Jewish classification of the scriptures actually has a section for wisdom books, and Jonah isn't in it. The early church seemed to agree. That ought at least to give some pause for thought.

So far as it being a book of history is concerned, the most obvious objection would be that it contains elements that give it an almost "wonderland" character. But having elements that you or I may not be willing to accept as passing the test of historicity is no argument against the genre being historical, for a couple of reasons -
- firstly, the historicity test is not predicated on what you or I think may have been factual, but what the writer may have thought factual, and
- secondly, Jewish writings habitually use narrative techniques that incorporate non-factual tropes. Examples would be the use of parables, midrash (especially the variant where a subnarrative explains a passage of a main narrative) and apocalyptic, where the explanation of significance is coded into the main narrative.

My own opinion (which FWIW is not that strongly held) is that the genre is indeed historical, but makes extensive use - maybe we could say overwhelming use - of narrative techniques to make points about the real significance of what the writer probably deems is a rather minor figure in Jewish history.

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Kwesi
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Honest Ron Bacardi
quote:
The historicity test is not predicated on what you or I think may have been factual, but what the writer may have thought factual,
Surely, that is not the case? The writer of Jonah may have believed he was describing historical events, but that does not make them so, does it? He could be mistaken, delusional or whatever. What you and I and others think is very important in determining its provenance as history or whatever. Isn't that what justifies this discussion?
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Alan Cresswell

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The whole book could almost be a midrash on the single reference to Jonah in 2 Kings.

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Gee D
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quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
Honest Ron Bacardi
quote:
The historicity test is not predicated on what you or I think may have been factual, but what the writer may have thought factual,
Surely, that is not the case? The writer of Jonah may have believed he was describing historical events, but that does not make them so, does it? He could be mistaken, delusional or whatever. What you and I and others think is very important in determining its provenance as history or whatever. Isn't that what justifies this discussion?
One way of thinking about Jonah is not that it is a book of history or wisdom, but that it is the author's description of a dark night for his soul, so dark that it was as if he were in the belly of a large fish, this being prefaced by his cries for mercy.

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Lamb Chopped
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quote:
Originally posted by Kwesi:
Honest Ron Bacardi
quote:
The historicity test is not predicated on what you or I think may have been factual, but what the writer may have thought factual,
Surely, that is not the case? The writer of Jonah may have believed he was describing historical events, but that does not make them so, does it? He could be mistaken, delusional or whatever. What you and I and others think is very important in determining its provenance as history or whatever. Isn't that what justifies this discussion?
If you read a bit more carefully, you'll see that HRB was discussing the historicity in terms of intentions of the genre, not the events described therein. The question at stake is whether the author intended readers/hearers to accept what he wrote as a historically true narrative. This says nothing about whether or not he was lying or mistaken.

To give you a parallel example, Trump's retelling of various events concerning Hillary Clinton are definitely historical in genre--it's clear he expects us to believe they really happened. Nevertheless, any fact-checker can tell you that he's using that genre improperly--in other words, lies and exaggeration.

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Er, this is what I've been up to (book).
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Kwesi
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Lamb Chopped
quote:
To give you a parallel example, Trump's retelling of various events concerning Hillary Clinton are definitely historical in genre--it's clear he expects us to believe they really happened.
Are you serious?!
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Lamb Chopped
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What--about Trump expecting people to actually believe him? Yes, of course I'm serious. And what's really serious is the fact that so many people DO in fact believe him, and are voting today. [Help]

The man is misusing the genre he's working in (which is essentially snippets of biography couched in the larger context of campaign speeches and tweets). His primary target is of course Hillary Clinton, but he does the same crap with others such as Alicia Machado.

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Er, this is what I've been up to (book).
Oh, that you would rend the heavens and come down!

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