Thread: Purgatory: Is this unitarian or trinitarian? Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
The phrase "He too finds no love", when applied to God, it seems to me that it is unitarian, and not trinitarian. Not to mention that it goes against God's transcendence to assume that God seeks for love, or that God being Love there is another kind of love which God seeks...

I read a very beautiful poem by the late John Paul II, but this verse has been bugging me ever since. Of course, art doesn't need to be dogmatically sound for it to be good art!

This is the poem:

quote:
Girl Disappointed in Love

With mercury we measure pain
as we measure the heat of bodies and air;
but this is not how to discover our limits--
you think you are the center of things.
If you could only grasp that you are not:
the center is He,
and He, too, finds no love---
why don't you see?
The human heart--what is it for?
Cosmic temperature. Heart. Mercury.

My question is NOT about art, or about the poem as a whole, but about that particular verse. What do you think?

[ 06. July 2009, 14:47: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
 
Posted by Esmeralda (# 582) on :
 
I read that as meaning that God finds humanity not returning his love - as in 'When the Son of Man comes, will he find faith on earth?'. I don't think it's saying anything about the love within the Trinity.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
It's intentionally ambiguous. He could be Christ, or God the Father, or the Holy Spirit (though in English the Holy Spirit is not usually addressed as He, but "the Spirit"), or He as a general reference to God without being specific.

References to the Divine don't necessary have to specify any of the Persons of the Trinity in particular.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
What both Esmeralda and SPK said. I don't think "finds no love" necessarily implies love-seeking -- rather, humans don't reciprocate God's love. Likewise, referring to God by the singular pronoun "He" doesn't imply unitarianism -- could be any person of the Trinity or all three together. I think it's a pretty conventional way of speaking, at least in the West.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
References to the Divine don't necessary have to specify any of the Persons of the Trinity in particular.

This is true. And in fact many religions do that, without discerning between the persons. With Christianity, however, a greater clarity came, as far as "the Divine" is concerned, because of God's self-revelation at a small part of the Eastern Mediterranean...

While I appreciate the poetry, and all references to the divine no matter where they come from, I can't but see a man approaching the divine in unitarian terms.

If it is God, then He is not alone. The Son and the Spirit are in communion with Him. The same applies for either the Son or the Spirit. And an ultra-personal Trinity-He is by definition unitarian.

I see that those already posted are in agreement with each other. I'd like to understand that better. All clarifications are most welcome!
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Look at the Song of Songs, it's all about seeking love both from the Bridegroom and the Bride. I don't see why God can't seek love from his creation. He just doesn't need it. And I don't see speaking of God as One on occasion makes a unitarian. It might be problematic if one doesn't see the Persons in God at all. This was not one of JPII's flaws.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
The Trinity as "He": in this He there be three divine persons, Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

We don't refer to the Trinity as "They" typically, and for most of us that would probably imply tritheism rather than trinitarianism.

I really don't understand what the problem is here. Is it linguistic -- something different between Greek and other languages? Or is it finding some cause for worry when there really isn't any cause for worry?
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
True. English does not refer to the Trinity as "They". I'd be surprised if John Paul II composed poetry in English. I think he'd go for Polish or Latin.

Please, let's not have another "Unitarianism" debate. [Help]

English refers to God, without further clarification, as He. If you wish to specify that you are referring to God the Father, then you would say that He referred to the Father in a passage's context. Similarly if this poem were meant to refer to Christ, then Christ would have to be mentioned explicitly.

If this is not the way that Greek addressed the Divinity, great. This poem raises no theological alarm bells in English, as expected from a Papal composition.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
This poem raises no theological alarm bells in English

Oh, but it does. Just not to you... It's not an issue of language, but of theology. Anyway, I don't think we can get further than that, so I'd like to thank you all for your contributions.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
I really don't understand what the problem is here.

I rather think it is the Orthodox churches trying to persuade themselves that the other Christian churches really aren't Christian and never were.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Or perhaps a particular Orthodox churchman trying to convince himself that Western Catholics and protestants are all deeply heretical.
 
Posted by moonlitdoor (# 11707) on :
 
Possibly a poem is not the best place to look for an explicit theology, as poems can often be understood in various ways.

A series of addresses by Pope John Paul II on the Trinity can be found Pope John Paul on the Trinity which gives his thoughts more fully.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Geez, Andreas, God is both One and Three. If the poet only had addressed Christ, would you complain about him dissing the Father and the Holy Spirit? Or would you opine that Jesus was treated as a separate deity like the Mormons consider him?

[Roll Eyes] It's one fricking poem. If you want theological depth either go to a four hour Orthodox liturgy, or read the Bible cover to cover and crack open several volumes of writings by the Church Fathers.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
This poem raises no theological alarm bells in English

Oh, but it does. Just not to you... It's not an issue of language, but of theology. Anyway, I don't think we can get further than that, so I'd like to thank you all for your contributions.
[Disappointed]

John Paul II is the last person I would ever suspect of heresy.

No, that poem is fine. The theology is fine.

And wut ken said.
 
Posted by cosmic dance (# 14025) on :
 
Indeed, one could even suspect you of being a wee bit tendentious, Squiggle Andrew
 
Posted by cosmic dance (# 14025) on :
 
Indeed, one could even suspect you of being a wee bit tendentious, Squiggle Andrew
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
No! [Eek!]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Actually no, the theology is not fine. Speaking of the Trinity as one personal He is the definition of unitarianism.

I should have known better than ask a question about that here. Oh well.
 
Posted by dj_ordinaire (# 4643) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Actually no, the theology is not fine. Speaking of the Trinity as one personal He is the definition of unitarianism.

No, it isn't. The definition of Unitarianism - if such a thing could be attempted - would be closer to the belief that God the Father alone is Divine and that Christ is merely a prophet or a chosen one, perhaps amongst many. A person who believes in the Divinity of Christ is not a Unitarian, however often you may insist that they are.

And, whatever criticisms one might have of the late Holy Father, a failure to believe in our Lord's Divinity was certainly not one of them.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
That would be Islam, or Bahai...

Not unitarianism. Unitarianism means there is one God-He, and that's what that verse said.

I don't think Protestants and Catholics are full blown Sabellians or Noetians... However, the more time I spend here, the more I get to realize that Protestant and Catholic theology are not as clearly trinitarian as Orthodox theology has been from the beginning.

There is always some sort of confusion between the persons, which is probably best demonstrated in talk of an ultra-personal God-He.

The very misunderstanding of the creed itself, expressed by a Catholic priest in these boards is most telling: I believe in one God doesn't refer to the Father, but to the entire Trinity...

This is confusion stemming from unitarian foundations.
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
Andrew

Your insistence on always having the Trinity as separate persons makes you sound to us as a Tri-Theist

Jengie
 
Posted by dj_ordinaire (# 4643) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
That would be Islam, or Bahai...

No, that would be Unitarianism. As professed by those who call themselves Unitarians, and worship as such. Trust me on this - I've met them, visited their chapels, read their literature and their hymnals. These are Unitarians, and were I to suggest that the late Pope was of their number, I suspect they would be ... surprised, shall we say?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Actually no, the theology is not fine. Speaking of the Trinity as one personal He is the definition of unitarianism.

Which english pronoun would you use?

"He" is the correct singular male pronoun. To use "they" would imply more than one God. How many Gods are there?

[ 19. November 2008, 11:32: Message edited by: Marvin the Martian ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
JJ

Three persons, yes, but not divided with themselves, or separated from each other. I am not insisting on separation, I'm insisting on actual personhood for all three divine persons.

dj

unitarianism can have many meanings. If a liberal Protestant group today calls itself unitarian and thinks Jesus was a nice man that's besides the point.

Unitarianism in the theology of the ancient church (i.e. before liberal let's all shake hands and may the Force be with you) has to do with One God-He. The issue of Christ is irrelevant. Judaism is unitarian because it accepts one divine person alone, but so is sabellianism, even though they thought Christ was divine.

MtM

I don't mind the grammar... It's about more than grammar though, isn't it? To pray to one person and call that the Trinity that's just not Christian. The extent to which someone accepts the persons is also irrelevant (the sabellians for example accepted the distinctions, but as masks, as personas, and not actual persons...)

As for the charge of "three Gods"... As far as I can tell, it has been used with two meanings in mind, in Christendom:

First, it was brought as a charge against the Orthodox, by those who thought Christ is the first creature, by those who thought the Holy Spirit is created, and by those who didn't accept the Son and the Father are different persons.

From what I gather, this is the way you are using it today. Which sounds very odd if we assume you fully accept at least Nicea...

Second, it has been brought as a charged by the Orthodox against an obscure Monophysite group who thought the three divine persons have three different divine natures. But I doubt you had that in mind.

To sum up: we, as a church, had that discussion before, when all those ancient Saints, were accused of being tritheists.

Why do we need to repeat that now? Why hasn't the Orthodoxy of the ecumenical councils been internalized by big groups such as the Catholic or the Protestant churches?

[ 19. November 2008, 11:46: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
but if you always address them as separate how does your language show the oneness?

Jengie
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Not separate! Different! Different persons does not mean separate persons.

Again, it's not an issue of grammar... By all means, use the grammar you prefer, the question is what you mean by the words you use, not the words themselves... they are not the issue.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
There's a doxology in English which goes in part "to God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost be ascribed as is His most just due..." In other words, the Trinity is explicitly being wrapped into the pronoun He. Andrew, don't be so concrete for pity's sake! One could take you seriously if you argued that the use of a singular pronoun in referring to a triune God could create a danger of unitarian doctrine. That would be reasonably arguable. However, to infer that everyone else holds unitarian conceptions of God because they refer to the Trinity in the singular is showing a severe failure to appreciate that language can be used as a shorthand that still encapsulates a complex and multi-faceted meaning. You simply seem to most others here to have a need to prove to yourself that everyone outside the Orthodox Church holds a completely heretical theology.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
I don't mind the grammar... It's about more than grammar though, isn't it?

No, I don't think it is.

quote:
To pray to one person and call that the Trinity that's just not Christian.
I pray to one God. That God being the Trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit. The pronoun I use when referring to the one God is "He". There isn't another pronoun that does the job properly.

You still haven't said which word you use. If you're so convinced that "he" is wrong, tell us what's right!

quote:
As for the charge of "three Gods"... As far as I can tell, it has been used with two meanings in mind, in Christendom:

First, it was brought as a charge against the Orthodox, by those who thought Christ is the first creature, by those who thought the Holy Spirit is created, and by those who didn't accept the Son and the Father are different persons.

From what I gather, this is the way you are using it today. Which sounds very odd if we assume you fully accept at least Nicea...

Is Christianity monotheist or isn't it? If it is, then "He" is the correct english pronoun to use when referring to God (some also accept "She", but let's not get into that on this thread!).

All your talk of persons, creatures and createdness seems to me to be a huge fog of obfuscation. Let's cut to the chase. How.Many.Gods.Are.There?

[ 19. November 2008, 12:20: Message edited by: Marvin the Martian ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

In Greek, the word trinity is a she. Does this mean we think of a female person or feminine characteristics? That would be silly.

So, I do not have problems with how you are using grammar. LSK look carefully in this thread, and you will see that there is a difference of theology rather than language.

You don't have to make an ad hominem attack. Anyway, communication is most difficult, and I think perhaps I should just leave it there.

By the way, and for the record, I didn't want to mention who the verse's author was, or what the poem said, but I thought it would be nice to give the credit where it is due, and share a beautiful poem with the Shipmates.

quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I pray to one God. That God being the Trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Why don't you accept the creed of the first and the second ecumenical council? Is that rejection of the creed widespread or is it just you?

[ 19. November 2008, 12:21: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Lietuvos, those of us who have only the basic Orthodox catechism to rely on frequently avoid making any attempt to eff the ineffable. We just
believe, and consider the Most Holy Trinity to be a Mystery.

In every Divine Liturgy, we proclaim: "The Father, The Son, The Holy Spirit {excuse the use of the word "the" for each Person--English does not work well without it): The Trinity, One in Essence and Undivided." That's about as far as one can go in the English language, and if it's not clear, join the club. Of course it's not clear: it's a Mystery.

Demeaning a dead Pope is a practice that only brings scorn to the Orthodox, alas, but perhaps we deserve the training in humility that we receive when we bring scorn upon ourselves without understanding how easy it is to do that.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LM

you don't have "only the basic Orthodox catechism". You have decades of non-Orthodox Christianity, and from the discussions we had in the past, the impression I get is that you still bring that with you.

As for the dead Pope, that's just silly. I don't demean anyone. As for his theology, I don't know about you, but I was never in communion with him, and for me this means much.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, you've already made up your mind that Western Christians, whether Catholic or protestant (and now apparently even Western coverts to the OC)don't have a proper trinitarian theology. There can't be any productive discussion, because you won't budge from your pre-judgements. You look for obscure proofs in the ways that language is conventionally used and refuse to accept explanations that run contrary to your presuppositions. Clearly only you have the truth! What's the point of bothering with the opinions and insights of us heretics?
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
I pray to one God. That God being the Trinity of Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

Why don't you accept the creed of the first and the second ecumenical council? Is that rejection of the creed widespread or is it just you?
Huh? I don't reject the Nicene Creed at all. Does it not begin with the words "I believe in one God", and then go on to describe the Trinity?
 
Posted by dj_ordinaire (# 4643) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
In every Divine Liturgy, we proclaim: "The Father, The Son, The Holy Spirit {excuse the use of the word "the" for each Person--English does not work well without it): The Trinity, One in Essence and Undivided." That's about as far as one can go in the English language, and if it's not clear, join the club. Of course it's not clear: it's a Mystery.

Quite true. Who would doubt that the late Pope would happily assent with those words? Or indeed try to read into his poetry the notion that he would not?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK, more attacks... That's a pity you know. I haven't made up my mind beforehand on anything. Discussing in these boards for thousands of posts however do form one's mind.

quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Huh? I don't reject the Nicene Creed at all. Does it not begin with the words "I believe in one God", and then go on to describe the Trinity?

No, it begins with the words "I believe in one God the Father" and then goes on to say "And in one Lord Jesus Christ" and "And in the Spirit the [i.e. that is] Holy". It's a very different thing. Which is why I thought you rejected the creed... Now you seem to accept its authority, but read it in a way different than what the original authors actually intended it to be read... Is that widespread? I remember ken saying that nobody reads it that way, but then I have seen at least one doing that in these boards...

[ 19. November 2008, 13:27: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by cor ad cor loquitur (# 11816) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
What do you think?

quote:
I see that those already posted are in agreement with each other. I’d like to understand that better. All clarifications are most welcome!
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher’s Kid:
This poem raises no theological alarm bells in English

Oh, but it does. Just not to you... It’s not an issue of language, but of theology. Anyway, I don’t think we can get further than that, so I’d like to thank you all for your contributions.
quote:
I should have known better than ask a question about that here. Oh well.
quote:
You don't have to make an ad hominem attack. Anyway communication is most difficult, and I think perhaps I should just leave it there.
quote:
you [Leetle Masha] don’t have “only the basic Orthodox catechism”. You have decades of non-Orthodox Christianity, and from the discussions we had in the past, the impression I get is that you still bring that with you.
§Andrew, can you see that these threads are going to be unsatisfying both for you and for other posters if you (1) try to shut down a conversation after only a few posts in which people don’t agree with you; (2) persistently deny other posters’ ability even to participate in the conversation that you have invited them to; (3) interpret other posters’ comments, when they disagree with what you have said or how you have put it, as ‘ad hominem attacks’?

I am fairly sure that this isn’t your intent, but these threads consistently come across like the following snippet of dinner party conversation:
quote:
“I would really like to hear everyone’s views about Barack Obama’s transition plans. What do you think? Please share your insights. All perspectives welcome!”

“He seems to be assembling a strong team…”

“You just don’t get it, do you? I shouldn’t have expected you to understand. We should talk about something else.”

“But Rahm Emmanuel…”

“Of course you aren’t an American anyway, so what could you know? Why did I even start this discussion?”

As to the substance of how to read the Creed, I would welcome evidence (not simply another assertion that yours is the only correct reading) that your parsing of the creed is in fact what the original authors intended.

This issue has come up many times on the Ship, and various Orthodox posters -- you and Cyprian come to mind -- have asserted that there is only one way to read the Creed that is consistent with the original authors. Yet some learned people I have asked about this say that both readings are consistent with the grammar and with ancient sources.

Like Prince Charles, I am all ears. Please point to sources or authorities that can clear this up.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Dear Lietuvos,

quote:
What's the point of bothering with the opinions and insights of us heretics?
I keep on, since I believe in our hope that some day we may regain our voices in the face of these persistent onslaughts. We too are Orthodox Christians, even you, Lietuvos, in a very real sense, and we are all accused of things we are by no means guilty of.

Andrew, it is true that I have only the catechism. I have not the "ancestry", the paradosis (tradition, small t), nor the ability to quote at length from the Church Fathers and use their work as proof-texts on a par with the Scriptures, and I am glad of it. Indeed I have learnt, year by year, that to be able to regurgitate enough material to carry on these senseless nitpicking arguments, creating controversies and ambiguities over and over, parading all my expertise to the cyber-world, would only increase my own spiritual pride. That's my excuse. What's yours?

Your constant posts designed to teach me humility and to make me keep silence or else agree with your own erudition really are to no avail. They only drive others away from your influence, you know. One or two agree with your posts from time to time. The rest tend, more often than not, I think, to ignore them now, because no one else's views really matter, do they?

M

[ 19. November 2008, 13:46: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Huh? I don't reject the Nicene Creed at all. Does it not begin with the words "I believe in one God", and then go on to describe the Trinity?

No, it begins with the words "I believe in one God the Father" and then goes on to say "And in one Lord Jesus Christ" and "And in the Spirit the [i.e. that is] Holy". It's a very different thing. Which is why I thought you rejected the creed...
So does "One God" refer only to the Father in your view? Are Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit part of God, separate from God, distinct from God or what? when you affirm that there is only One God, what do you mean by that and where do the other two persons of the Trinity fit in?

quote:
Now you seem to accept its authority, but read it in a way different than what the original authors actually intended it to be read... Is that widespread?
I read it in a way which is consistent both with monotheism and the concept of the Trinity. I'd be interested to hear how your reading encompasses both, because I sure can't see it from your posts here.

And you still haven't said which pronoun you use to describe God yet.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
Like Prince Charles, I am all ears.
And like my martyred namesake, the Queen of Scots, my head has been chopped off all too often--but you, dear Cor, keep somehow grafting my head back on!

Thank you, I hope.

Mary
Jengie, your pm box is full, but I'll play you a favourite tune to show my appreciation for your posts: All people that on earth do dwell
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Andreas, to many of us, your insistence that the Deity be referred to always and only in the guise of the Three persons smacks of disrespect of the One.

Actually, this might explain much in how Muslims feel about Christianity if in the East they are mostly talking to Christians with your emphasis. How could they not take away the belief that we are a bunch of polytheists?

This reminds of a comment made in a novel set in the fifth century that visits Constantinople in passing. It said that citizens of that great city will swear by either the Three or the One and they'll fight to the death over it.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Lyda*Rose, no man has ever seen God. In heaven, we shall see God face to face, and we shall behold God's glory, full of grace and truth. Until that time, we shall beat each other's brains out. [Roll Eyes]

Mary
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
So it seems. [brick wall]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Oh well.... The song in my heart will go on.

I dedicate this one to Triple Tiara, with whom we all might, some day, be able to sing with both lungs:


Sing it and preach it, Leonard Cohen!

Mary
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
I once heard about some guy who was telling people to baptize in the name (rather than "names") of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.

I suspect he was a unitarian too.
 
Posted by cor ad cor loquitur (# 11816) on :
 
Well, FCB, since we've been told that Judaism is unitarian, and since the guy I think you are referring to was Jewish ... he was obviously unitarian.

Or something like that.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Cor ad cor loquitor

I'm not going to bring forth the documents of those who actually participated in the ecumenical councils to show what they meant. It's very clear for whoever reads them. This is not Florence, and I'm not going to try and convince you about anything. I'm interested in what you have to say about yourself, and I was under the impression that this was reciprocal, that you were also interested in what I believe, because you found some worth engaging with each other.

Mary

Time and time again you compare me with non-Orthodox, and you give credit to their version of Christianity, saying quite clearly that you don't agree with mine. Frankly, I don't see any point of agreement between the two of us; there is no communion.

And it's not an issue of elaborate studies. One doesn't have to be versed in anything; ordinary people can express their faith clearly. You are doing that, and I am doing that. The fact remains that we disagree in trinitarian theology, in the most basic thing that is the creed. And my evaluation of that disagreement has to do with your background. Perhaps I'm mistaken. So what? It's only a discussion in an online forum. If I'm being silly, forgive my silliness and move forward.

Marvin

It's not about my view... Many times we hear in these boards "we all accept the Creed". Well, I don't think we do. The history of the creed is very clear, as is the theology that comes with it. It begins with things like Paul's "there is one God the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ". This is where the Creed comes from. That's the faith of the first Christians as evident in all the proto-Christianic documents we have available, and as elaborated by the fathers of the ecumenical councils that affirmed the creed.

I thought, in my naiveté, that this is a very important issue, and that it would actually be of service if I brought that up.

I don't know how to respond to the tensions and the attacks and the talking past each other (I'm not referring to you personally).

As for what my view is, just read the Creed carefully, knowing that the first line refers to God the Father. I don't have a different view to what the Creed actually says. Think about the Creed, and let's discuss it.

Lyda*Rose

Muslims and Jews were not stupid. And the Christians they were familiar with were not ignorant either. Judaism has been rejected as unitarian, and its monotheism has been found lacking. The Christians really believed in three divine persons, and that was unacceptable by the Jews. It's very obvious that the view of "one divine person alone" is incompatible with the view of "three divine persons".

Again, the charge of tritheism is very old... This is what all those Orthodox Saints who spoke clearly about the Church's faith were accused of. It's no wonder the accusation comes again today. It's surprising though that it comes by people who say they revere and accept the faith of those ancient Saints though.

I blame it to the little study common people actually do of those ancient men and women. If we think we are Christians, then there is no need to learn from those before us, because we already know...

cor ad cor loquitor

Christ was not a Jew. Christ came to the Jews. Do the Kings receive taxes from their sons or from their people? You cannot make the son one of the people. If Christ was a Jew, then the Jews are right and you should become one too.

I don't know where this notion comes from. Perhaps it's collective guilt after all those centuries of Catholic abuse against the Jews. I don't know.

[ 19. November 2008, 17:34: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Oh look. Is this an excommunication?

Heigh, ho....

Whatever,
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, if everyone else here - Catholic, Protestant, and Orthodox - is telling you that they perceive this to be a manufactured or artificial controversy over words rather than essential understanding of doctrine, how is it that you alone are right?

Really, how dare you presume to make window's into men's souls and challenge their professed belief in the Symbol of Faith?

When you can declare yourself to be out of communion with one of your Orthodox sisters over some presumed - but unproven - obscure difference in understanding of the Oecumenical Creed, then that is a very fiddley sort of communion indeed.

Listen guy, none of us has a monopoly on truth. I, for one, tend to be more persuaded by consensus of reasonably informed views.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Oh, well, Lietuvos, I think I'll just the putative decretals be. It's not worth it. Archaeologists will have a laugh about it a thousand years from now.

Mary

[ 19. November 2008, 18:08: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Erm, I meant to type "let the putative decretals be"... trying to save time is not always the best thing to do, unfortunately. Sorry to have missed the edit window.

Back to your regularly scheduled....

M
 
Posted by Wilfried (# 12277) on :
 
I don't think sectionAndrew has answered the very simple question yet, just what pronoun does one ordinarily use in Greek to refer to God?

In English, an ordinary (doctrinally sound Trinitarian) person, in ordinary conversation, when not in the midst of a theological disquisition on the Trinity, might say "I prayed to God last night, and he answered my prayers."

So, just what word would your ordinary, everyday Greek Orthodox person use for "he" in the above example?

As pointed out, Andrew would object to "they" (tritheistic), "it" (God is not impersonal), "she" (heaven forefend), and simply "God" to avoid all pronouns (cause the feminist priestess wannabees do it). So just what should we say?
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
I think that he will say that he only prays to God in one of his Persons, never to God as a unity (if to Andreas he has any unity). That still leaves us with how he would refer to God when not praying.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
ISTM that, if my own experience is any guide, Trinitarian Christians usually direct prayer explicitly to a particular Person of the Trinity when praying theologically. Hence, some of my prayer before Mass is directed to the Father, because the action of the Mass is offered to God the Father. Likewise, in the moments around reception of the Holy Communion, I will be praying to Christ, the eternal Son, who I am about to receive. Contrariwise, non-theological prayer is for me more likely to be directed to God as a unity of the three Persons, e.g. "God, help me!" This doesn't mean that I'm negating my belief in a God who is a Trinity of Persons, but rather that in my needful supplication I am expressing the equal truth of the unity of the three divine Persons -- as a Christian, the supplication is for these three divine Persons, one God, to help me.

This is just an example, and different individuals will address the three Persons with different titles. I'm just trying to touch on the subjective sense of what can be meant when we speak of or to "God", as opposed to a specifically identified divine Person.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Wilfried:
I don't think sectionAndrew has answered the very simple question yet, just what pronoun does one ordinarily use in Greek to refer to God?

I will reply by appealing to the Scriptures, because that seems to be the lowest common denominator here. The Scriptures do not refer to an ultra-personal God-He that is the Trinity. They refer to God the Father as God-He, no doubt about that, and I affirm that.

The issue is not how we refer to God, but what we mean by that "God". Is it the one God the Father of the Scriptures and the Creed, or is it an ultrapersonal Trinity which use is not justified by the Scriptures or the Church fathers?

You can also refer to Christ as God-He, but that's a different God-He than God the Father. They are three divine persons, and parts of an ultrapersonal God-He that is somehow the Trinity.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
They are three divine persons, and parts of an ultrapersonal God-He that is somehow the Trinity.

errr..... And NOT parts of an ultrapersonal God-He...
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Where then does that leave the concept of Trinity, other than as a collective noun for three Persons who are apparently separate (which is what your formulation seems to imply)?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Where then does that leave the concept of Trinity, other than as a collective noun for three Persons who are apparently separate (which is what your formulation seems to imply)?

Trinity means just that: three. Not a mysterious three-unity. The ancient word used "triada" means three, like all others words of the kind "pentada" meaning five, dodekada, meaning twelve, and so on. It's not a magical many-unity.

Which of course doesn't imply separation. I have said that before, that difference is not separation, but you don't seem to take that into account. If you substitute separation with difference, your explanation is just right. That's what the term Trinity means.

Please, you can't have it both ways though. Either we disagree on theology, in which case I am free to say the verse is unitarian, or we don't and it's just me heresy hunting. Now the differences in theology become clearer to you, I hope you will take that into account next time you reply to something I'm saying.

I understand that this must be difficult for you, and perhaps it's unfair that I bring that up. Perhaps it would be better if I didn't speak at all in the first place. I don't know. In any case, I don't want enmity and harm to take place because of our discussion. Peace.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Let me try to refine that: the Three share a single "substance" or essence. Further, these Three are intimately related, in that one is eternally "begotten" of the other, whilst the third eternally "proceeds" from the other one or two (depedning on your acceptance of the filioque, but let's not get off on that tangent just yet). The point is these Three are One in substance, if different in Person. This is, to my mind, an extraordinarily subtle thing, and in the end, this side of Eternity, the eternal begetting of the Son and the eternal procession of the Spirit are very much a mystery of the faith, really beyond intellectual grasp.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I'm not going to convince you about the opposite. All I ask is that you respect that for me it's a crucial issue, and that my salvation depends on it. I'm not making any inferences from that about other people, or other people's salvation... All I want you to acknowledge is my right to make that judgement about how important this issue is for myself.

I don't think you are unreasonable men. I think that perhaps we haven't been able to build trust between each other, and there is some tension going on. I'm sure that if the tension goes away, you will accept that we may see things differently, and that I am free to decide for myself how crucial this is (or isn't) for me and with whom I share the same faith (or not).

Now, that said, you bring to the discussion an extra-biblical word. Fine, I don't have a problem with that. Are you sure we mean the same thing when we say substance or essence though? Because I suspect we don't.

[ 19. November 2008, 19:57: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
My last post was cross-posted with Andrew. What I'm trying to get at here is the intimacy of the three divine Persons, who are of a single substance. In other words, I'm trying to emphasise the aspect of unity that typifies the One God Who is a Trinity of Persons. I'm trying to highlight the tension between this Trinity of Persons and Unity of Substance -- this is not unitarianism, but the core of Trinitarian belief, as I understand it.
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras, I suspect Andrew would not agree that God is one substance, since many in the East have never accepted that we in the West mean by "substance" what they mean by "ousia," despite our claims that it really really really is what we mean. I suspect he would rather say that God is three substances. But he can speak for himself on this one.

Of course, my mind is still reeling from the whole "Jesus was not a Jew" thing.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Let me take a stab at trying to understand, without rancor and without getting defensive, what Andreas is trying to say.

As a practical matter, in relating to Deity, Andreas, are you saying that the only way to address Deity and think of Deity is in one or other of the Persons? The Unity doesn't have a "personality" to address or get close to understanding. The Persons are the way Deity gets personal with us.

Am I at all warm (close to the idea)?
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
As a practical matter, in relating to Deity, Andreas, are you saying that the only way to address Deity and think of Deity is in one or other of the Persons? The Unity doesn't have a "personality" to address or get close to understanding. The Persons are the way Deity gets personal with us.

If that is all he is saying, then I pretty much agree with him (except for that whole Pope-being-a-unitarian thing).
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
While awaiting Andrew's response, I just want to throw in that while ordinarily we relate at any one moment in time to a particular Person of the Trinity, there are obviously contexts - both liturgical and prayers of the less reflective sort - where we address the Trinity in a simultaneous or near simultaneous fashion. The concluding doxology of the Eucharistic prayer would be an example, as would petitions in litanies for the Holy Trinity, One God [to] have mercy.
 
Posted by Wilfried (# 12277) on :
 
quote:
I will reply by appealing to the Scriptures...
You have not answered my very simple question. Just what does a Greek person say in the simply example I gave above? Surely Greeks talk about God without parsing each time just what they think about him (oops, unitarianism again) in his (and again) three persons, etc. etc.?

quote:
...because that seems to be the lowest common denominator here...
No, the lowest common denominator is our normal, everyday lived relationship with God, and our normal, everyday language we use when talking about him (and yet again, oy, a trinity of unitarian heresies!). You yourself point out the JPII wrote a poem, not a theological treatise, which does not require parsing out of fine points of Trinitarian theology with every jot and tittle. So again I ask my very simple question, just what would a Greek use for "he," as in, "I asked God to help my sick cat, and he cured her."
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
As a practical matter, in relating to Deity, Andreas, are you saying that the only way to address Deity and think of Deity is in one or other of the Persons? The Unity doesn't have a "personality" to address or get close to understanding. The Persons are the way Deity gets personal with us.

Am I at all warm (close to the idea)?

Well, we can use many ways to relate to the Divine. I'm not judging anyone, and I'm not saying "my way or the highway". Buddhism uses some ways, Hinduism uses others, Islam and Judaism use others, Christianity uses other ways...

I respect every person's relationship with God.

I brought that issue here, because of our common claim to Christianity and the Creed of the ecumenical councils. If no such common ground existed, I wouldn't have brought that up. I'm not all for intruding in other people's religiosity, which I respect highly no matter where it comes from.

In my view, for the Church that is founded on Christ, the theology is very clear: There is one God, the Father, and one Lord Jesus Christ, and one Holy Spirit. There is one, and one from one, and another one from the one. This is not difficult, and it does not require a PhD in ancient metaphysics to understand.

Yes, in my view, the clearest approach to the Divine is that view which is the result of God's revealing Himself to mankind through Jesus Christ in the Holy Spirit. It's an issue of clarity and confusion.

So, for Christianity, in my view, it's not OK to approach the Divine in an impersonal way (as eastern religions do), or in an ultra-personal way (as Protestantism and Catholicism sometimes seem to be doing).

Let me put it differently:

Theology is very important for another reason, because it is linked with mankind. For this Orthodox, all humans are called to be one, the way the three divine persons are one. Not, it is very apparent and obvious that Lyda and I can't merge into one ultra-personal "being". Our oneness will be one of union, or communion, and not one of unity. We are two persons, with one essence, and furthermore, we are called to be in communion with each other.

"May they be one, as we are one".

Is this more helpful now?

quote:
Originally posted by FCB:
Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras, I suspect Andrew would not agree that God is one substance, since many in the East have never accepted that we in the West mean by "substance" what they mean by "ousia," despite our claims that it really really really is what we mean. I suspect he would rather say that God is three substances. But he can speak for himself on this one.

There is one divine substance. I don't deny that. I do suspect we don't mean the same thing when we use that term though.

For me, there is also one human substance. Only one. All of us share in one human substance, we are all co-essential with each other. Likewise, the Son is co-essential to the Father, as the creed says.

Essence doesn't mean some magical or deeply metaphysical thing. It's another word for nature, and nature exists in persons, and not in the abstract. It's not a substance in the modern English meaning of the word.

quote:
Of course, my mind is still reeling from the whole "Jesus was not a Jew" thing.
Was Christ under the Law or not? For me, Christ is the Law-Giver, the Lord of the Law, and He wasn't "a Jew", but the very salvation of the Jews coming to the Jews and through them to the whole world. He was "the light coming into the world".

If you were right, then he would have paid the money required for the temple. Instead of paying from his own money, He said that it is not right that the children pay taxes to their Father the King, but servants are to pay the taxes. He was not the latter; He was and is the former.
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
Andrew,

Given your understanding of "substance," I would have to say you're a tritheist. . . but I think we've been on this roller coaster before and it always takes us back to the same place.

As to defining "Jew" as "one who is under the Law": by this definition none of the Patriarchs would count as Jews, since they all lived ante legem. Paul certainly considered himself a Jew -- "a Hebrew of Hebrews," to be exact -- and he wasn't under the Law.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
There are many kinds of Law... After all, Paul speaks of a change in Law... Anyway. Just think about what your thesis means for that example I mentioned earlier, about Jesus not paying the tax from his own pocket and the reply he gave...

As for the tritheist charge, I don't mind you evaluating my theology as heretical. I would really appreciate though that you understand that it's also my right to make an evaluation of things, and say that this person doesn't have the same faith I do, or this is in my view unitarianism.

quote:
Originally posted by Wilfried:
So again I ask my very simple question, just what would a Greek use for "he," as in, "I asked God to help my sick cat, and he cured her."

Yes, that would be "He". But no, that would not be an ultra-personal Trinity, but God the Father. "There is one God, the Father, and one Lord Jesus Christ" kind of thing.
 
Posted by moonlitdoor (# 11707) on :
 
Of course you are entitled to evaluate Pope John Paul's thinking as unitarian if you choose. But I think it is worth your looking beyond that poem as I said earlier.

In the first of the pieces by John Paul, which I linked to, he writes

quote:

After having reflected in the past few years on each of the three divine persons — the Son, the Spirit and the Father — in this Jubilee Year we intend to take a comprehensive look at the glory common to the Three who are one God "not in the unity of a single person but in the Trinity of one substance" (Preface for the Solemnity of the Holy Trinity).

That may be a different understanding of the Trinity from yours, but to describe it as unitarian seems to me an odd use of the word.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
I knew this thread was in danger of a death-spiral of Trinitarian debate. It seems I was right.

[Disappointed]

Why Andrew feels compelled to make the West a theological punching-bag I'll never know.

I'm comfortable with my trinitarianism, and I really don't care what squiggleAndrew thinks. Methinks he do with a few recitations of the Athanasian Creed.

Oh well, here's a song to rebut Andrew with:

"God in Three Persons; Blessed Trinity!" Holy, Holy, Holy

[Angel] [Angel] [Angel]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Getting a little closer, I guess. It's amazing to me that you think "getting" the Trinity is so easy. Anyway this is the best I can do at the moment. I really believe that we have more of a language and cultural difference separating our understandings than you think. Both sides seem to think the other side is just being willful in misunderstanding.

Andrew:
quote:
So, for Christianity, in my view, it's not OK to approach the Divine in an impersonal way (as eastern religions do), or in an ultra-personal way (as Protestantism and Catholicism sometimes seem to be doing).
This might explain a lot about why saints are so important for Orthodox to talk to. Despite the Incarnation, it seems we (humans) have little common ground in which to speak to Christ personally. Saints are at least human people.
 
Posted by Major Disaster (# 13229) on :
 
This thread is an exercise in mischief, which causes pain and division, that befits the one who is called diabolos in Greek.

Andrew decided, on no evidence other than his fantasy, that the "He" of Karol Wojtyła's poem is the Triune God. I would ask him to prove that is so, or to refrain from mad speculation about the theology of someone he never knew or studied in the course of his medical training.

Secondly, he has not answered the question of the pronoun he uses in prayer to God. That persistent evasion answers the question itself. He has contempt for the people he invited to consider this topic, and apart from posturing to show his superiority, will not speak the truth with humble simplicity.

St John of Damascus, in his Exact Exposition of the Orthodox Faith, puts the matter rather more clearly here .

Lastly I wonder, if Andrew says prayers in the morning at all, whether he says the standard prayer to the Holy Trinity by St Basil the Great, Archbishop of Caesarea in Cappadocia, which consistently uses the single pronoun while addressing the Trinity explicitly:
"Risen from sleep, I thank Thee, o Holy Trinity...&c."

This thread is really mischievous, and as a witness of Orthpdox belief and praxis resembles something one might regret stepping upon while out for a walk of fresh air.

Please,for the love of Christ, don't get entangled in such conversations. He says it's important to him. Leave him to it, which I am happy to do.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
moonlitdoor

I think it's more an issue of confusion (as opposed to clarity) than an issue of full-blown unitarianism. I understand that the person of the Pope plays an important role in Western Christianity, but I didn't intend to evaluate him and his thoughts personally. If hard pressed, I'd say he had probably a confused view.

Lyda

I don't think this is accurate, because beside the impersonal and the ultrapersonal there does exist the personal relationship with the three divine persons... Remember, we relate with persons, not impersonal or ultrapersonal entities!

Major Disaster

First of all, I didn't evade. You probably missed it, but I did give a clear and full reply to that question.

As for the prayer you quoted, I'd like to ask you, in the language the prayer was written, what's the answer to the question "You Who?". The answer would be "She, the Trinity", and that's an issue of grammar, where the plurality of three is signified by the female gender, and NOT an ultrapersonal entity God-He.

I apologize if my posts aren't as irenic as they try to appear.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Thanks MD. The exposition by St John of Damascus gives a view quite contrary to my understanding of Andrew's contentions and quite consistent with my understanding of the Trinity as taught in Western Catholicism.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
Andrew, English does do grammatical gender like Greek does, or most other European languages do. In English, referring to something as female does not signify it is plural, just as referring to something as male does mean that it is singular. Gender does not communicate those concepts in English.

Summary of English and grammatical gender.

Please stop reading foreign concepts into English. Your constant harping about "God-He" has no basis in the English language. God is referred to using personal descriptors. God is not an inanimate object or a lowly beast, for which which "it" is used.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Dear All

Major Disaster's description has been bugging me. Please, forgive me.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
There are of course differences between "east" and "west" in trinitarian doctrine but in order that this thread might not explode into something else let me just say that theology cannot be extracted in this manner from one brief poetic extract.

I might be tempted to break my own rule in one respect though. It seems to me that the west starts by theorising ... "We are monotheists, so what's this "three" thing? The east starts by reflecting on experience / encounter ... "we know the Father, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit ... so how do we still speak as monotheists?

The west's answer? Intra-divine personal relations.
The east's answer? By sharing one ousia.

[ 19. November 2008, 23:39: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Thank you, Father Gregory! That condenses many things I've read into something manageable.

I ask with trepidation: are we so far apart that there is no meeting?

ETA: I mean East and West meeting, not about people having some kind of meeting with Deity.

[ 20. November 2008, 00:19: Message edited by: Lyda*Rose ]
 
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Was Christ under the Law or not?

Galatians 4:4, NRSV: "But when the fullness of time had come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law."
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Father Gregory

Except that it's not the West per se... Because there are many many early Western Saints who are just like their Eastern counterparts... Like Ambrose, or Ireneus, or Hippolytus, or Hillary, or Justin...

The issue is different...

k-mann

Was Christ a servant or not? He explicitly says he is not one of the subjects, yet the Jews were the subjects of the King that is God...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Yes Andrew but I was talking about the later medieval west. I should have made that clear. I am talking about the way that Aquinas and his successors handle the Augustinian legacy of intra-trinitarian relations as being coterminous with the hypostases themselves. This has always struck me as incoherent (or just plain false). It's a bit like the Cheshire Cat in Alice ... smile only, no cat.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Lyda*Rose

We are not so far apart if we recognise the dangers of Augustine's psychological analogy and his thinking about the vestigial Trinity (throw in the filioquist Spirit as the "bond of love" as well to that brew). On the Orthodox side we need to guard against ANY suggestion that the hypostases are 3 divine beings.

The difficulty we all face (from different starting points - ante) is in making clear what an hypostasis actually is. "It's" not merely a relation but neither is "it" a mode of being nor an individual entity. Somethings are perhaps better left unsaid. The sense of this after all comes from worship not the school room or the debating chamber.

[ 20. November 2008, 08:52: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Father Gregory

I agree with those comments....

Of course, we have to be very clear that humans aren't supposed to be individual entities... "may they be one as we are one"! Individualism does not equate with personhood.

Lyda

your question is really important... my personal answer would be that communion in the faith is based on the same degree (or the same potential) of clarity...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Individualism certainly does not equate with personhood but personhood FOR US is manifested in and between human agents in a radically different manner than that which applies to the divine hypostases.

[ 20. November 2008, 09:21: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
But the potential is the same...

As for the word, prosopon, it comes from the Greek word for face. We gave such an important value to our faces, that we came to use that word for our person. (hence the difficulty some had with the persona - mask... because it's a face of some sort, but not an authentic one...)

Really, I stand by what I said to Lyda earlier... theology is supposed to be easy, exactly, as Father Gregory said, because it's supposed to be experiential. It's not an issue of deep metaphysical or magical discussion where only a select few can take part.

There is one God the Father... and one Lord Jesus Christ...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I of course accept your comments about prosopon and potential. (The Cappadocians reworked the idea somewhat though of course ... masks can be misleading if only it can be read in a modalist or Sabellian fashion ... whoops He is Father ... oh no, hang on, he's swapped masks, He's the Son now etc.)

Although I have tried to be irenic and inclusive theologically here I do think think that there is a problem for us in the west tending to start from the a priori principle of one God in a rather abstract and theoretical manner (even philiosophical or metaphysical) and then trying to accommodate the Trinity to that. Rather, we should start with the datum of Christiamn experience and then articulate how even with that on board we are still monotheists (the how and why of that). The Trinity is to be encountered first not theorised.

[ 20. November 2008, 09:31: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
typo ... 2nd line after only insert "because."
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I'm in full agreement with that.

As for masks, language eventually made that prosopeio, and retained prosopo for face and person [Big Grin]
 
Posted by seasick (# 48) on :
 
I think the question of how we articulate our monotheism is interesting. I'm not hugely familiar with Orthodox liturgy, but from what little I do know it seems that the Western doxological style of "... through Jesus Christ our Lord, who liveth and reigneth with thee and the Holy Ghost, ever one God, world without end..." which recurs frequently in our liturgy is almost unknown in the Eastern rites. How is the idea of one God played out in the Orthodox liturgies?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Try Paul: "there is one God the Father... and one Lord Jesus Christ". What's clearer than that??? I don't get it!
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
It seems to me that the west starts by theorising ... "We are monotheists, so what's this "three" thing? The east starts by reflecting on experience / encounter ... "we know the Father, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit ... so how do we still speak as monotheists?

The west's answer? Intra-divine personal relations.
The east's answer? By sharing one ousia.

It strikes me that both questions you give there are valid - they are, after all, trying to solve the same conundrum but from opposite sides. Much like one side trying to calculate 3x1 and the other trying to calculate 1x3. But obviously with a much more complicated and complex issue! And it's not immediately obvious to me how the two answers are significantly different either - they both affirm the Oneness of God while also affirming the three persons of the Trinity, after all.

Andrew's description of "oneness" being a form of communion, in much the same way as humans can be one, is at least understandable. But it does beg the question: does that mean there is only one human, in several billion persons? It may of course be that he would say there is indeed only one humanity, with billions of human persons, but logically that would mean "God" is being used to describe the species (or essence) of the divine persons: it follows that to say "there is one God" is analogous not to the statement "there is one human" but to the statement "there is one humanity".

Am I anywhere near?

If so, I can understand the confusion on both sides about the other's belief. For better or worse, it is true that many (most?) of us in the western world have a very individual mindset - we start from the individual and work up to the groupings. For us, to say "we are one" in reference to shared beliefs/communion/etc doesn't mean we actually are united as one being. So when we say - and earnestly believe - that there is one God, we think of that in terms of there being one divine individual. It's natural that - as Fr. G so eloquently states - our reconciliation of the Trinity will start from there and attempt to work out how one can also be three.

Obviously I cannot speak for the eastern mindset, but if it indeed starts from the communal and works from there to the individual then much of this is explained. From such a mindset it would not be too difficult to imagine there being one God made up of three persons, because the word "one" doesn't actually mean the same thing in this context! It refers not to individuality but to communality - it is not the "one" of "I am one person" but the "one" of "there is one Church".

Of course it should be obvious that to a western mindset this appears to be tritheist, just as the western understanding appears to the eastern mindset to be unitarian. But actually they're both valid approaches to the theology of the Trinity within their own mindsets, and it should be apparent from this thread if nothing else that to insist on one phrasing (be it western or eastern) is never going to be helpful.

Indeed, is it possible that both sides are in fact saying the same thing, but filtered through their own mindset? That while the words are different the concept itself is identical? And that even though all of us see the other as heretical, that is because we are seeing it through our own mindset filters and not theirs?

Of course, it's equally possible that I was actually nowhere near five paragraphs ago. In which case all this wonderful thought and flowing prose is for naught [Waterworks] [Biased]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
Woah, lots of crossposts.
 
Posted by seasick (# 48) on :
 
quote:
§Andrew said:
Try Paul: "there is one God the Father... and one Lord Jesus Christ". What's clearer than that??? I don't get it!

If I just took that, I would probably end up as some sort of Arian.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by seasick:
If I just took that, I would probably end up as some sort of Arian.

Why? Can something created ever be Lord?
 
Posted by seasick (# 48) on :
 
That's a huge theological question, the answer to which is not apparent simply from the text. In the sense we use Lord of the Son (or of the Father or of the Holy Spirit for that matter), no it can't, but that text doesn't tell me that. It is not as simple as saying just read Paul (or whoever).
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Of course it's not just "read Paul"... I'm not sola scriptura... It's not about getting meanings out of texts, but about living the same faith as Paul's and so on...

Anyway, the Scripture's approach is Orthodoxy's approach. And it reflects on the Creed.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I really, really want what you say to be true Marvin. I think I might be happier to concur if we could deal with some of the things that both traditions would definitely have problems with.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Marvin, how on earth can it be the same thing, when you say that you think in terms of there being one individual, when this is the definition of unitarianism?

As for there being one human being, that's what the traditional explanation, from the Scriptures, of the fathers that took part in the ecumenical councils. It's by abusing language that we speak of many humans...

Like fr. Gregory, I'd like agreement to exist despite differences in approach, but frankly, and I have tried very hard, I don't see it. I suspect that there is fundamental disagreement on the trinity, as there is fundamental disagreement on all kind of other things...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Andrew

I think you are overstating this a weeny bit.

West and East are committed to the belief that God is not Us-Writ-Large .... in other words not a BIG individual and not a BIG communion of persons.

In principle there is nothing wrong in starting with the unity and proceeding to the triune hypostases provided that primacy is accorded to both the revelatory and experiential chartacter of Christian trinitarian theism.

Once that has been agreed the issues can be worked on from both sides of the mountain ascending to the summit as it were. There doesn't have to be a winner and a loser on the directional process of the argument ... or at least it seems to me.

[ 20. November 2008, 10:51: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Marvin, how on earth can it be the same thing, when you say that you think in terms of there being one individual, when this is the definition of unitarianism?

Andrew, I have tried very hard to explain that such thinking is a product of my western mindset, and I have even pointed out that from your eastern mindset it will naturally appear to be heretical. I have, furthermore, attempted to understand how you approach the issue, in the hope that by so doing I may come to appreciate what you actually mean when you phrase something a certain way rather than simply reading it through the filters of my own mindset and judging it accordingly.

It would be nice if you could at least attempt to do the same.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I agree Marvin. It's difficult but we must TRY! [Angel]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
In principle there is nothing wrong in starting with the unity and proceeding to the triune hypostases provided that primacy is accorded to both the revelatory and experiential chartacter of Christian trinitarian theism.

Once that has been agreed the issues can be worked on from both sides of the mountain ascending to the summit as it were. There doesn't have to be a winner and a loser on the directional process of the argument ... or at least it seems to me.

My point precisely Father [Big Grin] .
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Father Gregory

I agree there doesn't have to be a winner and a loser... In fact, I think that approaching this with winning in mind is a very mistaken approach that will eventually lead nowhere.

That said...

I understand your concerns about individualism. But please, do understand my concerns as well... The Greek word for individual is "atomo", atom... And this word has been applied to the three divine persons, they are three atoma. Which is why the ancient fathers have been charged with tritheism. Not because they were misunderstood, but precisely because they were understood... There really are three divine persons!

Marvin,

I try to understand how you approach the issue and see that outside my cultural lenses. My disagreement comes after I do this, and not because I read you under my cultural prejudice...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I am not making a judgement on that yet ... if he so desires I should like to hear more from Marvin on this. I should like to think that I could learn something.

[ 20. November 2008, 11:01: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Don't be harsh. I'm discussing here for a couple of years. And I'm not giving up on trying to communicate properly...

[ 20. November 2008, 11:02: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I wasn't being harsh Andrew but I do think that sometimes some of your reactions are too definite, too conclusive in your assessment of the position of others. Not everyone sings from the same script in the west.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I'm not saying everyone thinks the same. After all, I spoke of confusion... and there are degrees of confusion.

Marvin explained how in his view the two approaches are different, and then he went on to make the assertion that both are valid approaches. No justification about that. When the description that preceded that statement made it clear that we are talking about different things... OK, because of the gravity of the situation, I can empathize with your hope that we don't differ after all...

Anyway, Marvin,

one more thing. We do not begin with communities. We begin with the one person of God... the Father... That's the Creed. Not "we believe in one communion of persons". How does this fit with your description? [Confused]

[ 20. November 2008, 11:18: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
if he so desires I should like to hear more from Marvin on this.

I'm happy to do so, but I think it behooves us all to bear in mind the differences in mindset and the great potential for misunderstanding that can result.

The crux of my thesis is that (as I see it) the west affirm that there is one God made up of three Persons, while the east affirms that there are three Persons (or hypostases, though I confess I've never really understood that word) which are one God.

So our theologies both describe the same overall structure, but due to the difference in angle of approach we actually sound quite different to each other. Your mountain analogy is most apt.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
while the east affirms that there are three Persons (or hypostases, though I confess I've never really understood that word) which are one God.

[brick wall]

Stay with me for a while. There is one God, the Father, and one Lord Jesus Christ. No mention of three persons which are one God. One God, the Father.....

OK?

See how Paul's saying is retained in the Creed:

I believe in one God the Father... and in one Lord Jesus Christ....

As for the hypostasis thing... It means someone that exists in himself. It's what's foundational, what really exists. I exist. Not an abstract human nature. The person is what is foundational.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Marvin explained how in his view the two approaches are different, and then he went on to make the assertion that both are valid approaches. No justification about that.

Allow me to (attempt to) explain. The two approaches are different because they come from two different mindsets, but they are both valid because they both describe the same thing - the Trinity.

They are different not because of where they lead to, but because of where they start from.

quote:
one more thing. We do not begin with communities. We begin with the one person of God... the Father... That's the Creed. Not "we believe in one communion of persons". How does this fit with your description? [Confused]
I was descibing mindsets when I wrote that, not theologies (though each feeds off the other in our societies). Thus I was describing, as an example, the way we view our social communities - not even necessarily religious ones. It was an illustration to explain my perception of our mindsets, nothing more.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
OK, this makes sense. Now take into account my last post and apply your thoughts in our theologies. [Biased]

ETA: for my part, I think your explanation of the Eastern view is... Western... and this is why it does come in agreement with the Western view you described... It works out because both are Western, not because the actually Orthodox view works out with the non-Orthodox view... If you know what I mean.

[ 20. November 2008, 11:33: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Stay with me for a while. There is one God, the Father, and one Lord Jesus Christ. No mention of three persons which are one God. One God, the Father.....

OK?

See how Paul's saying is retained in the Creed:

I believe in one God the Father... and in one Lord Jesus Christ....

OK. I accept that. But can you see how - from a western perspective - that looks like a denial either of monotheism or of the divinity of Christ? It needs unpacking so that we westerners can understand how it avoids both heresies.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
ETA: for my part, I think your explanation of the Eastern view is... Western... and this is why it does come in agreement with the Western view you described... It works out because both are Western, not because the actually Orthodox view works out with the non-Orthodox view... If you know what I mean.

Well, if I've got it wrong then all this is just so many wasted pixels. And I thought we were making progress [Frown]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
OK. I accept that. But can you see how - from a western perspective - that looks like a denial either of monotheism or of the divinity of Christ? It needs unpacking so that we westerners can understand how it avoids both heresies.

When the ancient Orthodox said the Word is uncreated, the non-Orthodox ancients replied so you are ditheists.

The Orthodox ancients responded not by explaining within the context of the non-Orthodox how they are not ditheists, but by pointing out that the context of the non-Orthodox is mistaken and it should change, and if changed, then it can be shown why it's monotheism and not ditheism.

For example, the non-Orthodox said: "look, you are saying that there are two human persons, and then you say but there are not two humans. That's illogical, so you are wrong".

The Orthodox responded: "you are mistaken to speak of two humans in the first place. Human denotes the human nature and it is an abuse of the language to speak of two humans. Now, it might be OK to abuse language like that for us humans, but if you think your context is accurate, then you will think monotheism is actually tritheism and so on"...

That's how discussion went.

But I agree with father Gregory. We should stick with worship. There is one God the Father , from whom all things, and we in Him, and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom all things, and we through Him...

We don't have to deal with demonstrations... The Creed is very clear... "and in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, Light from Light, true God from true God, begotten not created, co-essential with the Father, through whom all things were made"...

No need for "one God that is Trinity" or "one Trinity that is God"...

Why go beyond the Scriptures and the Creed?
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Throwing a related issue in here, which perhaps is a primarily Western way of getting at the Trinity, ISTM that some understanding of what we are talking about when we say the Son/Logos is eternally begotten of the Father, and that the Spirit eternally proceeds from the Father (through the Son or not)is important to our understanding of what we mean when we speak of the Triune God who has shared substance in three hypostases/persons. ISTM that the ideas of begetting and procession, which are entirely creedal, are tied up with so-called intra-Trinitarian relations. What thoughts do others have on the role and meaning of these concepts in our understanding of the Trinity?
 
Posted by Jenn. (# 5239) on :
 
Andrew what you seem to be saying is that we all need to become greek in order to understand anything about God. And until we become greek we are automatically wrong because our brains are not greek enough to get anything right.

Can you not see how that appears offensive?

(substitute "not western" for greek in that paragraph if you want - it has the same effect)
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
When the ancient Orthodox said the Word is uncreated, the non-Orthodox ancients replied so you are ditheists.

The Orthodox ancients responded not by explaining within the context of the non-Orthodox how they are not ditheists, but by pointing out that the context of the non-Orthodox is mistaken and it should change, and if changed, then it can be shown why it's monotheism and not ditheism.

Makes me wonder why I bother. It really does.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Well, if I've got it wrong then all this is just so many wasted pixels. And I thought we were making progress [Frown]

Welcome to the club [Devil]

I'm saying your explanation of the Eastern view is not accurate, because we begin with one person... that of the Father... and not with one communion of persons. Which is why I bring up the Creed (or Paul's saying) over and over again...

Now, you might ask all sort of questions about why we are not heretics, and that would be valid, but my intent was not to convince anyone that I'm not a heretic, or to convert others to my point of view... but to reach a point of mutual understanding even if that means to agree to disagree!

quote:
Originally posted by Jenn.:
Andrew what you seem to be saying is that we all need to become greek in order to understand anything about God. And until we become greek we are automatically wrong because our brains are not greek enough to get anything right.

I'm not saying that. That would be very wrong... You do get something about God. That's not the question. The issue is about the clarity and about whether communion can exist or not. From where I stand, there doesn't seem to exist communion in that area. To put it differently: I don't think in the faith expressed here by many Shipmates the same faith expressed by the Scriptures or the ecumenical councils. What would you make out of this?

[ 20. November 2008, 11:54: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by moonlitdoor (# 11707) on :
 
I have 2 questions


first : When we talk about revelation and experience being the starting points, how precise an idea of the Trinity can experience give us ? I understand that we experience the three persons, but I am not sure what experience could show me exactly how to describe the way they make up a Trinity.

second : When Orthodox talk about God having essence and energies, and the essence being unknowable, but us knowing God in the energies, is that just the Father or all three of the persons ? If it is just the Father, are the other two knowable in their essence, or don't they have an essence ?
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
This is a little bit like the quasi-truth that speaking another language isn't just a different way of speaking but a different way of thinking -- superficially true, although I think developmental and cognitive psychology, as well as psycholinguistics, have shown it's not true at a deep level.
 
Posted by Jenn. (# 5239) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:

quote:
Originally posted by Jenn.:
Andrew what you seem to be saying is that we all need to become greek in order to understand anything about God. And until we become greek we are automatically wrong because our brains are not greek enough to get anything right.

I'm not saying that. That would be very wrong... You do get something about God. That's not the question. The issue is about the clarity and about whether communion can exist or not. From where I stand, there doesn't seem to exist communion in that area. To put it differently: I don't think in the faith expressed here by many Shipmates the same faith expressed by the Scriptures or the ecumenical councils. What would you make out of this?
That despite professing "One holy catholic and apostolic church" you want nothing of the sort? If we can't be in communion simply because I am not greek and you are, and I can't become greek, then that automatically gives us two churches.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
To put it differently: I don't think in the faith expressed here by many Shipmates the same faith expressed by the Scriptures or the ecumenical councils.

Whereas I maintain that it is the same faith, but only expressed differently. After all, the expression is not the faith.

We're climbing the same mountain from different sides, but you maintain that only those on the east side are truly aiming for the summit. Or so your posts read.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by moonlitdoor:
I understand that we experience the three persons, but I am not sure what experience could show me exactly how to describe the way they make up a Trinity.

Let me put it this way.... You see Christ healing people and forgiving sins. You know he is not God the Father, but someone else... I mean, He says so Himself, you see Him relating with God the Father. But by his divine energies, you realize that He is, well, divine. So, you come up with the conclusion that there are two divine persons and not one, and that one is God the Father and the other is His Son.

You just described the Trinity when you spoke of three persons! That's what trinity means... three. Don't dwell more on that...

Of course, that doesn't exhaust theology... The three persons live selflessly in each other, and so on, which is part of experience "if you obey my commandments we will come and dwell in you"... and so on.

quote:
Originally posted by Jenn.:
That despite professing "One holy catholic and apostolic church" you want nothing of the sort? If we can't be in communion simply because I am not greek and you are, and I can't become greek, then that automatically gives us two churches.

I profess that the one holy catholic and apostolic church is the Orthodox Church... and I am not in communion with you and you are not in communion with me... I know this is painful, but that's reality... I do think there are many churches, only one being the one church of the creed, and that we are not all somehow -without realizing it- parts of the one church...

I understand this is hurtful, and I am sorry about that, but I can't pretend that it's not there as long as that's what I see... And it's not about you not being Greek, but about you not being Orthodox...

People like Hillary of Poitiers or Ambrose of Milan or Ireneus of Lyons weren't "Greek" either, yet their theology is Orthodox...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Except that St. Irenaeus of Lyons was Greek actually ... from Smyrna, a disciole of St. Polycarp.

I applaud Andrew your conservatism in your refeence to the Creed but, nonetheless, it is not incorrect to say that we believe in the God-Man Jesus Christ or that we worship and invoke the Holy Spirit who is God. Classically and conservatively here you are referring to the monarchy of the Father which is shared neither by the Logos nor the Spirit. I think it would be more proper to say that the unity of God is based on these principles:-

(1) The monarchy of the Father.
(2) The consubstantial Godhead, that is the one divine nature shared equally by all the hypostases.
(3) The perichoresis of love (circumincessio) where the hypostases mutually indwell.
(4) The unity of action of the Trinity in so far as all hypostases act coordinately as one God in each and every movement and action for and within the Cosmos.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I am sorry but I have got to post this again as I missed my edit window.

Except that St. Irenaeus of Lyons was Greek actually ... from Smyrna, a disciple of St. Polycarp.

I applaud Andrew your conservative accuracy in your reference to the Father in the Creed but, nonetheless, it is not incorrect to say that we believe in the God-Man Jesus Christ or that we worship and invoke the Holy Spirit who is God. Remember that it was St. Basil characteristically who emphasised the equal doxology ascribed to the hypostases in worship when dealing with the Trinity against Arians and Pneumatochians (deniers of the divinity of the Spirit).

Classically and conservatively here you are, I believe, referring to the monarchy of the Father which is shared neither by the Logos nor the Spirit. I think it would be more proper to say that the unity of God is based on these principles:-

(1) The monarchy of the Father.
(2) The consubstantial Godhead, that is the one divine nature shared equally by all the hypostases.
(3) The perichoresis of love (circumincessio) where the hypostases mutually indwell.
(4) The unity of action of the Trinity in so far as all hypostases act coordinately as one God in each and every movement and action for and within the Cosmos.

The west (from the late medieval period onwards) tended to take the unity for granted and then proceeded to try and account for the hypostatic differentiations. The danger, I believe, is that in negelecting the experiential aspect of the divine economy it eroded the distinctiveness of each hypostasis.

As I have said before though ... this approach is not doomed provided that the revelatory and experiential data remain the first point of reference and not some abstract theoretical metaphysical substitute.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
In point of fact, it seems to me that real, implicit unitarianism as a danger and actuality in the West comes not from the sort of somewhat sophisticated theological distinctions we are discussing here, but rather from a popular undestanding of a monotheistic Father-God, who somehow has a Son, Jesus Christ, who is in some sense subordinate to his Father, and then you have the even less understood Holy Spirit flying about (like a birdie or a breeze), which is sort of seen as the Father-God making Himself into a ghost and invading our temporal space. I truly think you run onto this sort of foggy, ill defined adoptionism of the second person of the Trinity and modalism of the third hypostesis quite a lot in American protestantism, and I'd be willing to bet that it's hiding out amongst less well-catechesised Catholics as well. This is always a danger amongst those denoms that either have little formal doctrine or poor catechesis.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Spot on Lietuvos. I have noticed this in the UK as well.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Father Gregory:
quote:
Classically and conservatively here you are, I believe, referring to the monarchy of the Father which is shared neither by the Logos nor the Spirit. I think it would be more proper to say that the unity of God is based on these principles:-

(1) The monarchy of the Father.
(2) The consubstantial Godhead, that is the one divine nature shared equally by all the hypostases.
(3) The perichoresis of love (circumincessio) where the hypostases mutually indwell.
(4) The unity of action of the Trinity in so far as all hypostases act coordinately as one God in each and every movement and action for and within the Cosmos.

I could totally sign on with that description of the Trinity.

Watch Andreas come and tell us that you are being unitarian, you convert, you. I mean, if I can agree with it, there must be something wrong.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Irenaeus was Greek speaking, not Greek; they were all Romans [Biased]

Anyway. I agree with the comments you made, but I do think there is a reason why those things aren't part of the Creed...

Yes, they are a communion of persons, but we should be careful how we apply that word "God" in English because of the lack of a definite pronoun...

Again, let's reflect on the Scriptures.

Apostle John puts it best in his gospel's prologue... There really is a reason why the distinction of persons was taken for granted and for the most part Orthodoxy fought with Arianism rather than Sabelianism or whatever...

In the beginning there was the Word (observe the definite article), and the Word was with the God (definite article again; it's clear that for John God is the Father), and (here is were everything gets messed up in English) God (no definite article) was the Word (poetically put after the word God, although it comes before it in meaning...)

So, we have this person, the Word, who is in a relationship with the one we call God, and the Word is divine....

Christ's divinity is retained, while it is made clear that He is not "the God"...

Not sure how all this sounds in English, but the way they are written in ancient Greek is very clear-cut.

So, yeah, because the Word or the Spirit are divine, we can and indeed do call them "God", but this does not negate the fact that "there is one God, the Father"!

Which is why in common language, if we prayed to "God" to save a sick friend of ours, that prayer would be directed at God the Father AND NOT at the Trinity... and we would pray to "Christ" for Christ's help and so on... that's what a common man would do... just like in the Scriptures...

Please, guys, do take this explanation into account.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Andrew:
quote:
So, yeah, because the Word or the Spirit are divine, we can and indeed do call them "God", but this does not negate the fact that "there is one God, the Father"!

Which is why in common language, if we prayed to "God" to save a sick friend of ours, that prayer would be directed at God the Father AND NOT at the Trinity... and we would pray to "Christ" for Christ's help and so on... that's what a common man would do... just like in the Scriptures...

Please, guys, do take this explanation into account.

Yay! Two theological Orthodox posts in a row that I can almost [Biased] understand and even agree with. I must say that one thing I've gotten out of this thread is that it is right to direct prayers to the Persons, not to the rather amorphous Substance. And I'll start doing that consistently.

ETA: I'm beginning to thing that things spun out of control for a while on this thread because first we were arguing over poetry, but mostly because you, Andreas, felt very strongly that we were thinking about the Divine so incorrectly that you argued so forcefully for the Persons that you sounded as tritheistic to us as we sound unitarian to you.

[ 20. November 2008, 16:48: Message edited by: Lyda*Rose ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, I truly wish I didn't feel compelled to post this, but your explanation seems to me to undermine the equality of the three divine persons.

I'm rather worried about the issue of direct (and for that matter indirect) articles, because as you know not all languages have them. For our purposes, crucially Latin does not and a modern functioning example of a national language which also lacks them is Lithuanian. Surely a proper grasp of theological concepts can't be dependent on the existance of articles in a language (I actually don't think that's what you're trying to say).

[ 20. November 2008, 16:51: Message edited by: Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Lyda, that would be something good coming out of this thread.

Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras, I agree that linguistic analysis is not important.... Which is why I insist on plain Paulian language that there is one God the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ. Most of the time, in Greek, we retain that ancient use of words.

However, while none is more divine than the other, there is one God the Father... He is the beginning for the other two persons... which is why we call Him mainly just God... A false "equality" could lead to three persons without beginning, and that would be true tritheism...

You are right though... I entered language talk only because I had to point out what John says, and John wrote in a particular language...
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Well, actually, while God the Father is the source of the Logos and the Spirit, isn't it the case that all three are co-eternal, so the word "beginning" doesn't really seem right in that context. Neither the Son nor the Spirit were made/created, but rather generated from the Father eternally (one "begotten", the other "proceeding"), so there never was a time (rather inaccurate, though, to use the word "time") when the Logos and the Spirit were not. I think it's just a matter of your choice of words, but to speak of the beginning of the Son and Spirit undermines the co-equality of the Trinity.

Talking of this, I'm still waiting for comment on the correct understanding of the "begetting" of the Son and the "procession" of the Spirit, as these concepts are intimately tied up in an understanding of the Triune God.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras

I don't think procession and begetting are part of the things we can understand. They are not human concepts. What we know is that there is a difference in the way the two divine persons come to exist from the one God.

Why do you think it's relevant that here?

Dear Protestant friends

I am a bit surprised particularly with your responses in this thread. The Scriptures are very clear in these matters. Why drag scholastic post-Schism Catholic philosophical theology here?

"We know... that there is no other God but one" Paul says (1 Cor 8.4)... and he identifies that one God with the Father (1 Cor. 8.6). That's our monotheism. We believe in one God the Father.

I understand questions like Marvin's that can arise from the traditional faith of the church... But I cannot understand why you fall for scholastic metaphysical baggage that's not to be found in the Scriptures. The connections between Protestantism and Catholicism never cease to amaze me. [Biased]

[ 20. November 2008, 18:11: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
But Andrew, you're being ironical there. Classical, magisterial protestanism is the direct child of Western/Roman Catholicism, obviously. Our best-known explication of the Trinity and Christology is the Quicunque Vult/Athanasian Creed, which predates scholasticim but is certainly a Western document, probably dating to the 5th C, though the earliest extant copy is of 9th C origin. The reason I mention the Athanasian Creed - which is accepted as a Symbol of the Faith in the RCC (though no longer used liturgically) and which is authoritative in Lutheranism and historically in Anglicanism - is that I believe its formulations are contrary to the ones you articulate. I can't escape the conclusion that the language you use casts the Son and Spirit as inferior to the Father, and I can't accept that as orthodox trinitarianism. I wonder what you think of the writing of John of Damascus, linked by Major Disaster, because his explication of the Trinity seems consistent with my understanding of the Triune God, but inconsistent with how you articulate the trinitarian relationships.

Oh, I just wanted to add that some of us, while out of formal communion with the See of Peter, nonetheless accept all of the Holy See's dogmatic teachings -- we Anglo-Papalists, you know.

[ 20. November 2008, 19:08: Message edited by: Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras ]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Andrew:
quote:
Dear Protestant friends

I am a bit surprised particularly with your responses in this thread. The Scriptures are very clear in these matters.

Spoken like a true Protestant from the little break-away church down the street. [Biased]

What I mean is that when a person points to a complicated concept articulated in the Bible and says it's "very clear", that only means that interpretation is clear in the speaker's mind.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

There are many issues there...

First of all, why the Athanasian creed and not the actual creed of the ecumenical councils? I don't get it. This is an honest question.

Secondly, why would this baggage be part of people who accept as one of their faith's tenets the sola scriptura? It's like the filoque... The Reformers just retained it, even though it wasn't to be found in the Scriptures...

As for St. John, I pointed to the first (and the second) ecumenical council exactly because they gave us the creed... I didn't respond to Major Disaster's point, because I think it would make it even more difficult for you to follow. Which is also why I didn't bring any texts from the other church fathers, even though I could do that, especially from those who took part in the ecumenical councils.

In that book Major Disaster quoted from, St. John has a chapter on the things we say about God. And since Major Disaster pointed to something St. John said about God, I'd think it's natural that we take into account that particular chapter, where St. John becomes even more explicit...

Well, there, St. John, consistent with Orthodox theology explains that "God" denotes one divine energy, that of the Godhead. I doubt you had divine energies in mind when you read the link Major Disaster pointed you to. I think it was a mistake, justified perhaps by the polemical climate of this thread, which I regret, but Major Disaster added to the confusion, because he didn't explain to you that St. John used the word God in that chapter to speak of one divine energy, while you have been using it to speak about something else.

I hope you see now why I avoided replying to that point (not to mention the shock that Major Disaster saw the devil in my face, for which I repent). It would unnecessarily complicate things.

One more thing. You say my language casts the Son as inferior to the Father. Then what would you say about the language of the Scriptures? While it's not an issue of inferiority, it's very clear that there is one God, the Father. His monarchy (as father Gregory said) is not to be overlooked, else trinitarian monotheism false apart into unitarianism!

Lyda

Still... this does not justify pseudo-metaphysical talk of trinity-unity-i-don't-know-what... overlooking what the Scriptures actually say! Yes, by all means, interpret the Scriptures, but the feeling I get is that the Scriptures are put aside, and we bring forth unclear metaphysical and extra-scriptural understandings to address this particular issue!

[ 20. November 2008, 19:25: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
I have never, I don't think, heard anyone contend that the Church's Trinitarian and Christological doctrines can be clearly and fully deduced from Scripture, but rather that these express the mind of the orthodox catholic Church as set forth in the cumulative tradition of the writings of the fathers, the acts of the councils, and the language of the liturgy. The doctrines must not be contrary to scripture, but elaborate on the canonical books of the NT.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Believe me, as an Orthodox, we don't go beyond the Scriptures in anything. I understand this might sound strange, especially to a Protestant (or a Catholic who thinks there is development in doctrine...), but that's my view, and as far as I can see, it's the view of the ancient and not-so-ancient fathers as well...
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, surely you realise that classical protestants aren't sola scriptura, and certainly not Anglicans. True, holy scripture is said to contain all things necessary to salvation, but that's a formula that's rather stupid if treated in a reductionist way. The Apostles, Nicene, and Athanasian Creeds are also accepted and this is justified partly on their putative compatability with scripture.

As to the filioque, let's leave that alone presently for purposes of this discussion. Frankly, I'm not sure most RCs and magisterial protestants even feel that strongly about it's retention, and some of us would be happy to be rid of it, though we believe that it can properly be understood as the Spirit proceeding from the Father through the Son, rather than from the Father and the Son.

I cite the Athanasian Creed because, although not the product of a Council, it provides what we generally see as a fuller explication than given by Nicaea and Chalcedon, respectively, regarding the Trinity and the divine and human natures of Christ.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Andrew, surely you realise that classical protestants aren't sola scriptura, and certainly not Anglicans.

No I didn't realize that [ETA: assuming by classical Protestants you mean the Reformers and those sharing in their thought]. I thought their intention was that they would be sola scriptura, even though they had much baggage they didn't realize they had, and in my evaluation their interpretation of the Scriptures was missing the mark...

As for the pseudoathanasian creed it's really problematic to say it explains things fuller than Nicea. I am amazed why you guys seem to easy to go beyond the credo of the first and the second ecumenical council. Be it the filioque or the pseudoathanasian creed, you just don't seem to accept the centrality of the ecumenical council's creed.

Anyway, we got at a very strange point, were Paul's theology wouldn't be good enough for Protestantism and we would need a pseudoathanasian creed or something extra-scriptural to correct Paul and give a fuller explanation of theology. Can't you see that this is very problematic?

Moreover, the "developments" you seem to accept are incompatible with Paul... When you pray to God and you have in mind some ultra-personal Trinity and Paul prays to God and addresses the Father, then can't you see this is very problematic? It's a different God each party prays to!

[ 20. November 2008, 19:46: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, this is becoming like a dog chasing its tail -- we're going around in circles. I think I should allow someone else to contribute so that there's perhaps another angle of approach here.

I do have a question that I think might further clarify things just a bit: why is it any less plausible to pray simultaneously to all three divine persons than to direct a prayer to any of the three alone. In the litany we might say "God the Father...have mercy on us; God the Son...have mercy on us; God the Holy Ghost...have mercy on us; Holy Trinity, one God, have mercy on us." In the last clause, we address the three persons collectively. What's the problem, if we are not in our faith confusing the persons nor dividing the substance?
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Believe me, as an Orthodox, we don't go beyond the Scriptures in anything. I understand this might sound strange, especially to a Protestant (or a Catholic who thinks there is development in doctrine...), but that's my view, and as far as I can see, it's the view of the ancient and not-so-ancient fathers as well...

What about venerating saints? I don't say it's against scripture but that the practice is not at all "very clear" in the Bible. In fact, I can't see it described there in the way the Orthodox practice it now.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

I don't have a problem if you choose to address the three persons together. As long as we keep in mind that we are addressing three He, and not one. That was my only objection.

Lyda

other than the fact that the Scriptures are written by... Saints and they explain how... Saints dealt with God and the people and how they interceded for the people etc etc [Razz]

I don't want to get you convinced about anything. My only concern is that we communicate properly and understand each other even if we disagree. It would be huge if I could explain to you that there is no Scriptural extra-Scriptural division in the way I view Orthodox theology... It's all Scriptural. I don't expect you to agree with me, and I don't argue about that. Just to explain where I come from.

Orthodoxy: Scriptural Christianity at its best [Biased]

P.S. St. John in that book mentioned by Major Disaster himself says that we don't go (and can't go) beyond what's in the divine scriptures about God...
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
...
In the beginning there was the Word (observe the definite article), and the Word was with the God (definite article again; it's clear that for John God is the Father), and (here is were everything gets messed up in English) God (no definite article) was the Word (poetically put after the word God, although it comes before it in meaning...)

So, we have this person, the Word, who is in a relationship with the one we call God, and the Word is divine....

Christ's divinity is retained, while it is made clear that He is not "the God"...

Not sure how all this sounds in English, but the way they are written in ancient Greek is very clear-cut.

So, yeah, because the Word or the Spirit are divine, we can and indeed do call them "God", but this does not negate the fact that "there is one God, the Father"!

Which is why in common language, if we prayed to "God" to save a sick friend of ours, that prayer would be directed at God the Father AND NOT at the Trinity... and we would pray to "Christ" for Christ's help and so on... that's what a common man would do... just like in the Scriptures...

Please, guys, do take this explanation into account.

Frankly, in English that sounds heretical, Anomoeanist to be specific.

quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew: Dear Protestant friends

I am a bit surprised particularly with your responses in this thread. The Scriptures are very clear in these matters. Why drag scholastic post-Schism Catholic philosophical theology here?

"We know... that there is no other God but one" Paul says (1 Cor 8.4)... and he identifies that one God with the Father (1 Cor. 8.6). That's our monotheism. We believe in one God the Father.

I understand questions like Marvin's that can arise from the traditional faith of the church... But I cannot understand why you fall for scholastic metaphysical baggage that's not to be found in the Scriptures. The connections between Protestantism and Catholicism never cease to amaze me. [Biased]

[Killing me]

Shipmates, it happened. Let it be here recorded for all time that §Andrew called upon Protestants to aid him in an argument.

Will I aid him? No!

Of the many things the Magisterial Protestants and Catholics disagreed over, the Trinity was not one of them. John Calvin had Michael Servetus burned to death on the stake for denying the doctrine of the Trinity.

As for the debate on definite articles:

[brick wall]

Stop reading Greek grammar into English. People a whole lot smarter then you have worked on the various English bible translations, and the first passages of John are one of the most beautiful pieces of prose in English.

Speaking of Protestants, the flowing translation of John and the word "beautiful" are both the work William Tyndale, one of the first English Reformation martyrs.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I know there is much common ground between Catholics and Protestants. I didn't know that you guys wouldn't have a problem admitting extra-scriptural teachings and understandings.

If anything, it has been most informative.

As for that ancient heresy... the church's reply was the creed of the second ecumenical council. It's really us talking past each other here... I said, explicitly, that the Son is not of a different nature than the Father, and you say I sound like those who taught the Son is of a different nature than the Father... Sigh.

By the way, I don't have a problem with the English translation of John... but I do not make my understanding out of the translation... Rather, I approach the beautiful translation with the Orthodox theology in mind. Else, you might think John says "X was with Z and X was Z", when that's not what John is saying...

[ 20. November 2008, 21:51: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
I might be tempted to break my own rule in one respect though. It seems to me that the west starts by theorising ... "We are monotheists, so what's this "three" thing? The east starts by reflecting on experience / encounter ... "we know the Father, the Lord Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit ... so how do we still speak as monotheists?

The west's answer? Intra-divine personal relations.
The east's answer? By sharing one ousia.

I don't think that's where the West starts. I think the West starts from Romans 1:20 - 'ever since the creation of the world God's eternal power and divine nature, invisible though they are, have been understood and seen through the things that he has made', and also the Shema - 'hear O Israel the Lord your God, the Lord is One'.
That is the West starts with the revelation of God as one to the gentiles and also to the Jews. And then from there it goes on to speak of Jesus.

It's a mistake to talk of scholasticism as if it were neo-scholasticism. Neo-scholasticism reads Aquinas as if the intellect were merely the faculty that manipulates propositions, but that's not what Aquinas thought. The beatific vision is not a proposition.
(Mind you, even in the soil of neo-scholasticism the West produced Bartolome de las Casas and Teresa of Avila and John of the Cross.)
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
In Romans 1.20 Paul refers to God the Father... as evident by what's before and what follows afterwards...
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
Speaking of Nicaea and Constantinople, § Andrew, you really ought to be hit over the head with the word "homoousios" until you come to an orthodox understanding of it.

Ponder, Reflect, and Inwardly Digest.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
Speaking of Nicaea and Constantinople, § Andrew, you really ought to be hit over the head with the word "homoousios" until you come to an orthodox understanding of it.

Ponder, Reflect, and Inwardly Digest.

[Overused]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
Speaking of Nicaea and Constantinople, § Andrew, you really ought to be hit over the head with the word "homoousios" until you come to an orthodox understanding of it.

Ponder, Reflect, and Inwardly Digest.

[Overused]
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:

Indeed, is it possible that both sides are in fact saying the same thing, but filtered through their own mindset? That while the words are different the concept itself is identical? And that even though all of us see the other as heretical, that is because we are seeing it through our own mindset filters and not theirs?


Not really familiar with all this argument.

I've seen the difference described as the "monarchy", I don't like that word, prefer cause, being attributed either to the essence or to the Father.

I think, was it Lydia?, touched on an aspect I'd like elaborated on. I don't see the Trinity as referring to "One God" which I think is the monarchy as essence view, but describing the Christological relationship, which, I think, is what Andrew means by stressing God the Father as cause.

Course I could be wrong.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Myrrh

Thank you for that. The characteristic aspects that distinguish the Father as a hypostasis are those that speak of a timeless source for the Word and the Spirit. We cannot safely use the word "origin" for this as that would infer a beginning (contra Arius). It's more like a direction, an order.

[ 21. November 2008, 06:51: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
Speaking of Nicaea and Constantinople, § Andrew, you really ought to be hit over the head with the word "homoousios" until you come to an orthodox understanding of it.

Ponder, Reflect, and Inwardly Digest.

I have read extensively the writings from those fathers.

When that term was brought up, a huge debate erupted, not because the term was wrong, but because the term was not to be found in the Scriptures as such. If the Church was not like what I describe, that debate wouldn't have taken place.

It was only because the meaning of that fancy word you quoted was explained by pointing to the scriptures and not to metaphysics or philosophy, that it was finally accepted.

It's really amusing to find Protestants fighting so hard for Catholic metaphysics.

You know, when the Orthodox discussed with the Catholics in Florence, an Orthodox delegate was heard saying in frustration "Aristotle, Aristotle, Aristotle, all they talk about is Aristotle and Plato... What's wrong with those people? Why don't they speak about Paul, John, Matthew, Moses, David, Job, Isaiah, Athanasius, Chrysostom, Basil...." It's the same discussion here all over again.

Your insistence to do away with the few sayings of Paul I provided makes me very sad.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Perhaps from this thread, Andrew, you will have learnt that you have been making a false distinction between Western Catholic and magisterial protestant thought regarding basic Christian doctrine.

Thanks for the anecdote from Florence. Just how old are you anyway?

[ 21. November 2008, 10:22: Message edited by: Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

I thought you really meant that sola scriptura thing. Now I know you mean it only when you disagree with the Catholics. But I'm sure another Protestant will come to say that you are wrong, and that there do exist genuine sola scriptura types...

Anyway.

Lyda & SPK

The tyranny of fancy words

Theology uses common words, because it's supposed to be used by common people. All those Greek words that now sound fancy are actually common words.

Don't get confused because they sound fancy in Greek. Prosopon, for example, is just a face, and, by extension, a person. And so on.

Taking a common Greek word and using it as if it was a fancy word in English is very problematic.

So, SPK, don't just throw "homoousio" as if that somehow justifies your view. It doesn't. That fancy word was used to mean "of the same nature". The magic is gone now we used simple and ordinary English words. Oh well.

The Father and the Son are of the same nature, just like Christ and the rest of us men are of the same nature. Nothing fancy there. No deep philosophical metaphysical talk only an expert would understand.

The question was: Does the fact that God's Son is another person than God make him any less divine? Or does this mean there are two kinds of divinity? And the answer was no, the Son is as divine as the Father, just like a man's son is as human as his father.

I suspect there is a deep confusion going on about these things. For example, and to borrow from Lyda's expression, God could be seen as one amorphous substance which is somehow both Father, Son and Holy Spirit. All this esoteric talk of "essence" points just to that. And this happens when the ecumenical councils taught the exact opposite of this!

So, let's put fancy words aside, and let's speak like ordinary people.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, sure there are sola scriptura types -- Baptists would be a typical example (though even there, the more highly educated of their clergy will probably be conversant with classical patristic theology as it is generally understood in the West). You also make a serious mistake lumping all Western non-Roman Catholics into the same artificial "protestant" category. The Anglican churches include a large number of Anglo-Catholics and not a few Lutherans view themselves and their church as Evangelical Catholic.

You seem to be introducing a non-standard term "nature" in place of the standard English word "substance" to talk of the shared Godhead of the three divine persons. This isn't an arbitrary thing. When used theologically, ousia is rendered into English as substance.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
First of all, I am aware that your position is rather a minority position in the Anglican Communion. This has been made clear by other Anglicans' responses in other threads. I don't mind plurality. I do want that we are straightforward with each other. OK, you made it clear that you aren't sola scriptura. I do think Luther, for example, wouldn't be ready to admit that he has all sort of extra-biblical baggage from Catholicism (despite the fact that he did carry that baggage with him!). Perhaps I'm naive, but I think those who speak for sola scriptura actually believe they are doing that.

As for the English terms... it's not an issue of words or terminology. Do you mean by substance what the ancients meant by ousia? If yes, I don't have any objection. But I suspect that many people mean something like Lyda's "amorphous" God that is somehow Father, Son and Holy Spirit. In which case the use of the word is mistaken as it doesn't render what the ancients meant.

Guys, this is not supposed to be about complex terms and difficult meanings. I saw an ultra-persona He, and I responded by saying there are three He and not one. I got back the reply that this is tritheism. If that's someone's evaluation of ancient orthodox scriptural and patristic christianity, I don't mind. I do mind though using words as one sees fit without any continuity with the faith of the scriptures and the ecumenical councils.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Please Andrew don't use "guys" too much ... to English ears it's an Americanism that often stets one's teeth on edge.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
§ Andrew, you can huff and puff all you want, but you are still pushing a heterodox reading of the Nicene Creed. Don't talk to me about homoousisos, I know what it means. The problem is that it appears you don't.

Your lack of knowledge of Protestantism is obvious. Let's deal with that right now. The Reformation is divided into two camps: The Magesterial Reformation, and the Radical Reformation. The Magesterial Reformation generally changed the national churches in the West, while the Radical Reformation produced the Mennonites and the like.

The Magesterial Reformation included the Lutherans, the Anglicans, the Zwinglians and the Calvinist Churches, which includes the Presbyterian Churches in England and Scotland. The Zwinglians and the Calvinists later united and are known as the Reformed Churches. None of these groups ever disagreed with Roman Catholicism on the Trinity, not then, and not now. The major disagreements were over eccelisiology, eucharistic theology, and the theology of salvation.

Furthermore, all of the churches I just named accept second-order theology like the Trinity. They are just more insistent, to greater or lesser degrees, that higher theology be rooted in the Bible. The Eucharistic debates started because many thought that Western Church beliefs had become too far removed from biblical support.

If you think I seek your approval for anything, you are quite wrong. Your recent appeals to Protestants are nothing short of hypocritical. Your theology is dubious at best, and heretical at worst. Please refresh yourself with that the Church Fathers actually taught. Reading John Calvin's Institutes of the Christian Religion is also a good way to become familiar with the fundamentals of Christianity, especially the theology of the Reformed Churches.

[ 21. November 2008, 14:13: Message edited by: Sober Preacher's Kid ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Again, we aren't communicating properly. I know they didn't disagree. The issue is whether they admitted to extra-scriptural background or not. Quite different issue than what you are talking about.

Sigh.

As for who knows what the ancients said and who doesn't, that's just more cat fighting. I'm not entering that arena.

[ 21. November 2008, 14:24: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
SPK: [Overused]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

this isn't productive, you know that?

Instead of discussing this further, we end up with assertions... You shouldn't be scared of there being three divine persons. They are not intra-anything. There really are three divine persons.

This is getting immature. I know I shouldn't hold anyone to high standards, but it's a pity we can't hold a serious discussion.

I understand though that such a challenge to the central dogma of your Christian faith, the trinity, must be hard to deal with. And perhaps I should have kept silent, I don't know. I don't like it though when silence is interpreted for agreement, and we end up with a we are all the same. We aren't. Not that this should be binding to anyone. There is no need to get defensive. If we all get defensive, nothing constructive will take place.

I'm not appealing to your past. Why get trapped there? I hope for a different discussion than:

Andreas: This is not the scriptural way.
SPK: But this is what the Catholics taught in the middle ages!

Instead, I would rather see us discussing about the Scriptures, and if you prefer even about the ancient fathers (just as long as we don't proof-text at each other... that would be immature and just silly).

[ 21. November 2008, 14:58: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
Again, we aren't communicating properly. I know they didn't disagree. The issue is whether they admitted to extra-scriptural background or not. Quite different issue than what you are talking about.

Sigh.

As for who knows what the ancients said and who doesn't, that's just more cat fighting. I'm not entering that arena.

Still the wrong question, the question ain't whether we allow for extra scriptural background or not. All Protestants do, even those who claim they don't. It is what weight and understanding it is given and there is NO SIMPLE way to work that out.

For instance our "SOLA SCRIPTURA" fellow Christian put a lot more reliance on certain stuff you seem to enjoy spouting than the more liberal and nuanced amongst us. If you want to find a protestant who believes Moses wrote the five books of the Law, Paul wrote all writings attributed to Paul and Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were all written by who it is historically claimed they were, then go to those who proclaim loudly "SOLA SCRIPTURA" and they will answer the affirmative.

Therefore if you want to talk about secondary background, we ask what background and where from. Yes we accept some but we expect it to stand up to at least as severe a scrutiny as we put the Bible too.

Actually if you want to check this out go back and read Calvin's Institutes. You might learn something of the church fathers you did not know already, as Calvin just loves quoting them.

Jengie

[ 21. November 2008, 15:03: Message edited by: Jengie Jon ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
I wonder why it is, Andrew, that it's only when you present your understanding of the Trinity that it takes on this Mormon-like tritheistic imagery. We never seem to get that from other Orthodox shipmates. That might suggest that there's something wrong with your conceptualisation.

Even if shipmates like Fr Gregory feel that your presentation still falls within orthodox terms, they themselves don't present matters in the same way. You claim to present the doctrine of the Fathers, but I wonder if you ever question your own understanding of what the fathers have written.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Even if shipmates like Fr Gregory feel that your presentation still falls within orthodox terms, they themselves don't present matters in the same way.

I suspect that much of that is due to the language barrier. Translating from greek to english (and vice versa) while retaining the precise original meaning is tricky even for the experts, and I do not think Andrew is counted among their number.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

There might be many reasons for that. This isn't fair to anyone if we discussed each person's stance... Don't you see that this is immature?

I understand what you are implying. And there is not much I can do about that, could I? What do you suggest I do?

JJ

The fathers were quoted by Protestants against the... Orthodox. Patriarch Jeremiah, I think, was mature enough to leave discussion at that. Getting your hands on texts outside of your tradition and trying to proof-text against those to whom these texts are part of their tradition is fruitless and immature. Sometimes you have to know when the other party can hold a discussion with you.

Marvin

I don't think it's an issue of language. I can't say anything more though; see my response to LSK.

By the way, could you carry on your thoughts from where you left them a few posts ago?
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
MtM, it's difficult to know, I think. Andrew expresses himself very well in basic English. I don't know, however, if he appreciates the subtle shades of meaning around particular terms and grammer in English. However, he insists that we don't need to resort to metaphysical concepts and that theological conceptualisation should be simple and straightforward. I don't know if the problem is that his English expression comes off as concrete, or if his conceptualisation is actually excessively concrete regarding the Trinity. To me, the evidence seems to suggest more the latter. If he would just agree that for those of us who subscribe to the Nicene Creed, we hold the same trinitarian faith (I'm again leaving aside the question of the troublesome and unhappy filioque) than there wouldn't be a problem. However, Andrew insists on discovering the putative original intent behind the words and there he seems to insist on an impossible degree of mental homogeneity in order for believers to be "in communion". Frankly, I think this latter idea - the demand for complete homogeneity of subjective understanding - is pathological, possibly delusional.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

I don't think we accept the same creed, unless we mean the same things when we say the same things. Saying the same things alone is not enough.

It's evident (perhaps you'd like to challenge that) that you and me don't share the same trinitarian faith. If that's just me being heretical, that's little damage to you. But if I'm actually correct then there is a lot of work to do before the two of us could come into communion...

[ 21. November 2008, 15:27: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
The thing that I have trouble with in your explanations of the Trinity, Andreas, is your corollary between human individuality and Divine individuality.

As I understand what you've said: for humans humanity as a whole is the "humaness" of persons. Both you and I are not "humanity", but belong as part of it. We are each human beings. Then you say that for the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, Divine substance is the whole, while each of them are the Persons within that whole. My problem is that if belonging to humanity puts me in the category of being a human being, how does belonging to the Divinity make the Father "God" and the other two persons not? Is "God" just a title, with no other significance?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Lyda

Let me explain.

You are human, right? You are 100% human, you are not part of something, you are the real deal. The same applies to me. We are not parts of a larger "human nature", we are both fully human.

God is fully God. He is not part of a larger "God". He is the real deal. His Son, being, well, His Son, is fully God as well. This is what we mean when we say "light from light, true God from true God". So, you CAN call Christ God, and indeed we do so, PROVIDED we mean what I said above and not something else!

Is it any clearer now?
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
*Whack*

Homousious!

There, get is now? You left out that bit. "Of one Being with the Father!"

I do not worship multiple gods. I worship the One True God, Triune, Almighty, Omnipotent, All-Loving and Ever-Present.

This educational session with the Stick of Orthodoxy has been brought to you by the Nicene Fathers, who find Arianism and Tritheism deplorable in all their forms.

Tritheism and Arianism make the Council Fathers cry.
[Waterworks]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
... this is not supposed to be about complex terms and difficult meanings.

Yes, but then you go on to do some talkign about difficult meanings.

quote:

I saw an ultra-persona He, and I responded by saying there are three He and not one.

I'm honestly not sure that that is meant to mean.

Or how you square it with "Hear O Israel, the LORD thy God, the LORD is one!"

It is obviously permissible to call God One. Even Jesus did it.

quote:

I got back the reply that this is tritheism.

I wouldn't have thought that there were any real tritheists in the world. It sounds a strange idea. But if there were then what you wrote sounds very much lime what they might say.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Thanks, Andreas. I think that was what I was looking for.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Lyda

You are welcome!

SPK

All humans are homoousians as well. So what? Are we all one ultra-personal Man? Gosh!

ken

The charge of tritheism historically speaking has been raised in two cases:

First, against the Orthodox, by those who didn't accept the Son and the Spirit being uncreated, because the Orthodox professed faith in three divine persons.

Second, by the Orthodox, against some Monophysites, who said that there are three divine natures, and that each divine person has a different divine nature.

Go figure out which category I fall under...

As for God being one... Of course He is one... Paul says that explicitly... For us there is one God, the Father.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Andreas:
quote:
As for God being one... Of course He is one... Paul says that explicitly... For us there is one God, the Father.
:sigh:

Back to where I started.

So "God" as in the One God of monotheism is the Father. If the Son and the Spirit are of the same "God" substance, why are not they "Gods" the way persons of the human substance are called human beings? I could call you "Andreas, the Human" since you are of human substance, but that doesn't stop there being a bunch of other humans around of the very same substance.

So I just can't seem to see how Christianity can then be monotheistic in your view.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Because it is wrong to speak of "human beings" in the first place. That's the reply those great fathers during the time of the councils gave, since that question was raised by those who didn't share their faith...

Theology and anthropology (don't be afraid of the fancy term... anthropos just means human) are linked together...

Let me put it differently...

Read Christ's prayer in John 17... It's very beautiful and clear. Observe how he addresses the Father, and how he calls us in their oneness... My only point is that there isn't anything more to that prayer, there isn't anything pseudo-metaphysical or mysterious beyond-us, but it's all part of what's supposed to be ordinary life. "we in them, and they in us".

If the Son and the Father are one in a "metaphysical" way that's beyond us, then what on earth does it mean Christ's praying that "we become one just like they are one"? Will I somehow merge with Lyda? No! That's silly. I will still be a person other than Lyda, yet, at the same time, be one with her.

[ 21. November 2008, 18:24: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
If he would just agree that for those of us who subscribe to the Nicene Creed, we hold the same trinitarian faith (I'm again leaving aside the question of the troublesome and unhappy filioque) than there wouldn't be a problem. However, Andrew insists on discovering the putative original intent behind the words and there he seems to insist on an impossible degree of mental homogeneity in order for believers to be "in communion". Frankly, I think this latter idea - the demand for complete homogeneity of subjective understanding - is pathological, possibly delusional.

I don't think it's Andrew's discovery, but from the little I've read of the argument it's a given that Orthodox and RCC/Protestants don't see the Trinity in the same way. I think Andrew has put it simply as the difference between the way you understand the creed, 'One God, the Father etc.' and Orthodox 'One God the Father, etc.' is a difference. If you're going to accept arguments about an extra i or not, (not that I know the arguments particularly well), then you can't be dismissive of the comma...

I think the filioque could be relevant here in exploring the difference, because if the OneGodImpersonalEssence is the cause then it doesn't make any difference that the Spirit proceeds from the Son, but wouldn't that mean the Spirit also proceeds from the Spirit? Or has that created a duality in the Trinity? I seem to recall something about the Spirit being the Love between Father and Son in the RCC? So is this an introduction of two causes?

Also, it seems two Greek words were tranlated by one in the Latin in the 4th century which is thought to have given rise to the confusion.

εκπορεύεται proceeding forth/out of and πέμπεται sent forth by, both translated by the Latin procedure, so the first relates only to the ontological relationship in the Trinity and the second to Providence. Hm, maybe not so much a help, not sure what that's saying..

OK, back to OneGodEssence, OneBeing, - if this is the cause, is this saying that the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit are 'of the cause'?

Myrrh
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
No Western trinitarian is saying that the God-essence (I don't like this term) is impersonal. Transpersonal, perhaps, only in that the One God exists co-eternally and co-equally as Three Persons. Remember, we neither confuse the persons nor divide the substance. The three divine persons are interpenetrating but distinct.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Remember, we neither confuse the persons nor divide the substance.

Except that for the ancients this applies to humanity as well... Our persons shouldn't be confused, and our substance shouldn't be divided. I suspect however that this is not something you had in mind.

It's not the words and phrases used, but the meaning we apply to them that matters.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Right, Andrew, I think you've made that point several times.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Myrrh

The Spirit as the vinculum amoris (bond of love) first appears in (yes, you guessed it!) ... Augustine.

A reflection on trinitarian theology in the light of Arius ...

I think that Arius felt constrained to resist oneness in being / essence / substance between the Father and the Son because he took the subordination of the Son to the Father in the divine economy as indicating a corresponding ontological dissimilarity. I bring this up because Arius distorts an EARLIER formulation of the Trinity. Allow me to explain for Andrew's contributions seem to reflect this earlier approach.

Andrew's "one God the Father" although faithful to the formulation in the Nicene Creed and although certainly susceptible of an Orthodox interpretation does carry an inherent weakness if it goes on to deny that the Word and the Spirit are also contribute to the oneness of God in the ontology of the Trinity NOT by adding their own distinctive essence (tritheism) but by the mutual indwelling of all 3 hypostases (circumincessio). This the creed of Nicaea does not address. It didn't have to do that. Only when the Cappadocians Fathers have had a good go at resolving some of these issues does the doctrine of the Trinity become clearer.

Where is the shadow of Arius in all of this?

The monarchy of the Father combines the subordination of the Son (and the Spirit for that matter) in the divine economy with the directional precedence in the eternal begetting of the Logos and the spiration of the Spirit in and from the Father ALONE, ie., against then of course the filioque.

Andrew's characterisation, whilst Orthodox, strikes me as a little odd in that it seems to refelect this more primitive articulation of the Trinity (as indeed does the opening phrasing of Nicaea 1). From this earlier characterisation of the Father as God, Arius made his classical category confusion of economy and essence in a tripartite hierarchical ranking of the persons. There can be no hierarchy of BEING in God ... to which later trinitarian theology attests more explicitly .... or so at least it seems to me.

[ 21. November 2008, 21:56: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:

JJ

The fathers were quoted by Protestants against the... Orthodox. Patriarch Jeremiah, I think, was mature enough to leave discussion at that. Getting your hands on texts outside of your tradition and trying to proof-text against those to whom these texts are part of their tradition is fruitless and immature. Sometimes you have to know when the other party can hold a discussion with you.

You can't have your cake and eat it.

Firstly I am not talking of Protestant vs Orthodox conversations. Calvin never intended Orthodox to read his Institutes. He expected fellow Protestants too, so he is not trying to be a better Orthodox the Orthodox by using secondary sources. So I am saying "Here is a Protestant writing to Protestants, see how he use the writings of the church fathers". You must agree that is very different.

Before you ask, it is directed specifically at Protestants not the whole Western Church. Also consider how often do Orthodox writers since the 15th Century write for a Protestant audience?

Secondly if we acknowledge secondary sources as valid sources then they are no longer solely your sources but our sources. Sources Protestants share with Orthodox, not the sole the possessions of the Orthodox. Just as I don't say to a Catholic who quotes Calvin "unhand him, he's Protestant". You cannot say to us "unhand the Church Fathers they are Orthodox". Protestants are not sole arbiters of Calvin, Luther, Hus, Zwingli, Farel, Knox or any other Reformers legacy. Nor can Orthodox be sole arbiters of the Church Father's legacy.

If your legacy is rich and everyone Christian should draw on it, then you should not shout foul every time another Christian does.

Jengie
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Father Gregory is of course right in what he wrote... I would only say one thing different.

Strange as it might sound in modern ears, circumincessio was not the solution to the arian controversy, because it wasn't denied by the heretics.... What was denied was the Son's (and the Spirit's) being uncreated.

Which is why the answer to the arian controversy (and the controversies that followed) is the Creed of the first (and the second) ecumenical councils and not additional theological deliberations!

That's the only correction I'd make to what father Gregory said!

Jengie Jon

There is use and there is... abuse. Now, I don't expect you to agree with me, but I do expect you to recognize my right to view the early Reformers' use of some patristic quotations as abuse, rather than as lawful use...

[ 21. November 2008, 22:29: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I accept that correction. [Smile]
 
Posted by Anglican_Brat (# 12349) on :
 
Good god, not another debate about the inner relations of the Godhead.

Can't we Christians simply accept the doctrine of the Trinity and resist the urge to speculate on the precise workings of the Godhead?

The Father is God. The Son is God. The Holy Spirit is God.

That is good enough for me.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Anglican_Brat, I tend to agree and have been thinking all afternoon how absurd this whole discussion must seem to the Blessed Trinity -- as if we stupid creatures could grasp the nature of the Godhead with any accuracy at all. What we propose are models for what God is like, given what we have seen. Our best model is the Nicean-Chalcedonian model of Godhead and Christology. It is undoubtedly, at best, very far stepped down from the divine Reality.
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Amen.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Although there is truth in that you know that is what annoys us Orthodox about you Anglicans ... just as soon as we get somewhere with you in dialogue you leave the pitch in a harumph of spiritual superiority ... I suspect because such clear thinking challenges you too much NOT because God is offended by us debating the implications of the Incarnation for monotheism. [brick wall]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Well, Fr Gregory, I wasn't necessarily leaving, just stating my misgivings about a debate that seems more about words than realities.

Are we getting somewhere? ISTM that we have been at an impasse and that this impasse is due in no small part to a refusal to believe that Western Christians could possibly hold orthodox beliefs. If we affirm the Creed and the declaration of Chalcedon regarding the natures of Christ, then we are unquestionably reading these wrongly and benightedly, so that our understanding is heterodox. If we properly explicate the Creed, then we are still failing to grasp the proper patristic anthropology and philosophical categories. I'm sorry, Father, but this strikes one as so much OC chauvinism. And as a former Anglican cleric, you really ought to know better.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Lietuvos

Did you not notice what had happened when Andrew agreed with my last post? I had actually managed to close the gap somewhat between you and him but rather than gauge the importance of this we had a "down tools" response. Yes, I know precisely what I am dealing with here. Rather than a celebration of apophatic theology (remember who it is who emphasises that?) this reluctance to debate I think reflects a certain Christian anti-intellectualism in the west. Long words, call him "smart arse," (not you of course ... another thread).
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Although there is truth in that you know that is what annoys us Orthodox about you Anglicans ... just as soon as we get somewhere with you in dialogue you leave the pitch in a harumph of spiritual superiority ... I suspect because such clear thinking challenges you too much NOT because God is offended by us debating the implications of the Incarnation for monotheism. [brick wall]

Spiritual superiority? My "amen" was acknowledgment of the fact that as humans with limited language resources to describe the Ultimate, there comes a point that as refined as we could get in speaking of eternal things, trying to understand some of them completely is as difficult as trying to grasp quantum without the proper math. "Now I see in a glass darkly..." and all that. I don't think Paul was feeling particularly spiritually superior when he said that. And I'd take a look in the mirror before hurling charges of "spiritual superiority" at us Anglicans.

And I certainly don't think the Father, Son, or Holy Spirit is offended by people discussing the issues as best they can. I doubt L.S.K. does either.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Father Gregory, I agree with the content of your post of yesterday addressed to Myrrh (the one touching in part on Monarchianism and Arius). I just don't see what more there is to say at this point.

I don't understand what you mean by "down tools" response.

As to anti-intellectualism, is it disingenuous to admit, at the end of the day (one of those most annoying expressions in the English language)the limitations of our intellects as regards the resolution of certain questions?
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Precisely, Lyda*Rose. I was sitting here quietly applauding the courage and debating skill, clear evidence of considerable intellectual ability, from every person who even dared to enter that thread, excluding myself, since I bear the august title of Giant Flaming Ass.™

I do have enough intelligence/intellect to have realised, finally, that the thread is far better off without posts from the likes of me!

Best wishes,

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
This is not an issue of intellectual discussion. This is an issue of worship...

It is very different to address your worship to the divine persons and quite different to address one's worship to an "amorphous" substance that is the Trinity.

What I find particularly problematic is the change of meanings. The divine nature is indeed beyond all words, thoughts, anything. But to say there are three divine persons, this does not say anything about their nature. To say "discussion on the Trinity is about the divine nature" presupposes that the three persons are relations within that nature, which is a mistake.

Same for "precise workings of the Godhead". To think this is what we are discussing is to miss the point.

All this "the trinity won't care" could be said for every single issue that led to an ecumenical council, with the anathemas this meant and the lives it costed. These things are very important, and, believe it or not, for some people their salvation depends on them.

And if we get a "how absurd this whole discussion must seem to the Blessed Trinity" for discussing the issues of the first ecumenical council, what would your response be if we ever got to the fifth ecumenical council. The entire church history looks pretty silly that way, and we get to appear very enlightened, when it is we that are mostly in the dark here...
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
errr..... I meant SIXTH ecumenical council, not fifth (although the fifth is in itself pretty impressive....)
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, I don't think any theologically orthodox Western Christians are worshipping an amorphous Trinity. We worship Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Only those with heterodox ideas that amount to modalism (and hence a type of implicit but unacknowledged unitarianism) worship what might be called "an amorphous Trinity-God". There are formulations that one hears these days popularly amongst some Western clerics, such as the invocation of "God: Creator, Redeemer, Sanctifier", which suggests possible modalism and hence pseudo-Trinitarianism. But such tendencies are not the teachings of the Western Church, whether Catholic or Magisterial Protestant.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
For one thing, Lietuvos, it seems to me that somehow, Americans in particular have conveyed, wittingly or unwittingly, to Europeans that as a
nation, we have a rather narrow mindset. Our mega-churches and televangelists are very vocal, and they're the ones Europeans see on tv.

I got some free software the other day, hoping I could see tv from Greece without having to pay extra for it to the satellite company. Unfortunately, the only free tv from Greece that I could find on the free download player was a grainy thing with a Pentecostalist preacher going on and on in Greek.

Some of my Greek friends at church told me that pentecostalism is a fast-growing group in Greece, largely from watching the Greek version of "God TV".

But it seems to me that perhaps some people have got quite the wrong impression of all of us "Westerners", and perhaps that impression comes, more than anyone cares to admit, from the media.

Best wishes,

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

I was quoting Lyda's

quote:
I must say that one thing I've gotten out of this thread is that it is right to direct prayers to the Persons, not to the rather amorphous Substance. And I'll start doing that consistently.
Father Gregory

I have been thinking about what you called a bit odd way to articulate the Trinity... and I think that for me it's not odd precisely because in Greek when we refer to God we mean God the Father most of the time... We say God, and mean the Father, and Christ, and mean Christ...

Leetle Masha

I doubt Greeks know anything about American Christianity. If the media started to show how e.g. Pentecostals worship in America, and make a point that many people in high places accept that as normal worship, I think the entire Greek people would get scared and think you are nuts... (I say scared, because nutcases shouldn't have that much power, and your nation is indeed very powerful, in the secular sense)

As for Pentecostalism in Greece, it is considered a cult... When you hear it's fast growing, you should keep in mind that that's a Greek evaluation of growth... I mean, when there were zero Pentecostals, the existence of a few is huge... even though in absolute numbers they are almost negligible...
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, in the American context when I hear people refer to "God" meaning God the Father, and refer separately to Christ or Jesus Christ, and to the Holy Ghost, I worry that many times they aren't Trinitarians at all but Arians. This is because they may not even have the most basic understanding of the Trinity as three divine persons of one subtance and as mutually indwelling or interpenetrating. Actually, I'm afraid that in our protestant cultural context that is where sola scriptura gets one in practice. I don't know if you can understand how this can be the case, but for starters it has to do with extraordinarily poor catechesis, I think.
 
Posted by moonlitdoor (# 11707) on :
 
quote:

orignally posted by Father Gregory

such clear thinking challenges you too much

Whose clear thinking are you referring to, Father Gregory ? It seems that Andrew cannot be in communion with western Christians, among other reasons, because he doesn't accept their description of the Trinity and they don't accept his. However he can be in communion with you, although western Christians think that your description of the Trinity is the same as theirs.

Which isn't what I would call all that clear.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
The fact remains, Andrew, that if Greeks get scared watching the Snake-Handlers of North Alabama on tv, they don't look at any form of protestantism with a very open mind either, as evidenced by most, not all, of your posts on this thread.

You weren't present on a memorable Christmas in 1977--I imagine you weren't even born yet--when I took off my shoes, walked to the door of an Orthodox Church, turned round, renounced all the errors of the West publicly (including the errors I'd never believed in the first place). You do not know me. And yet, on this very thread, you just about excommunicated me without benefit of anybody's omophorion but your own imaginary one. Did you apologise? By no means! I don't mind, because I can see so easily how you react to all of us who are not just like you. It's ok. You'll see, later on, that you must treat us with the same respect that you demand for yourself.

See, that's the only way to get on in dialogue. If name-calling is part of legitimate debate, so be it, but when the name-calling is unjustified, it really doesn't encourage participation. Just my humble opinion.

I admire your expertise and intelligence in so many ways, and I do respect the fact that you too have suffered a few "hard knocks". Believe me, there will be more of those in store for all of us.

But I think we need to look at each other in Christ's light, not the dim vision of our own viewpoints. At least we need to do that occasionally, before we drive away people who really want to learn from us and be our friends.

Mary
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
To clear one thing up, I never thought that the Godhead was actually "amorphous", just that when I prayed to "God", it tended to be a lazy appeal to Whoever was listening. As I said, this thread has made me aware of the error of praying like that. It makes for fuzzy theology that does lean a little unitarian. But forgive me, Andreas, the way you speak of the Three still sounds a little tritheistic. The way Father Gregory explains the Trinity, it doesn't. Same Orthodoxy. I still think there is a little bit of a language difference thing going on, although you dispute that.

ETA: Well said, moonlitdoor.

[ 22. November 2008, 15:44: Message edited by: Lyda*Rose ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Lyda*Rose, after 3 solid years of practice in the English language, administered to Andrew by the brightest and best on the Ship (though sometimes, I admit, "taught to the tune of the hickory-stick"), I think he's quite fluent. One time, he posted on another thread, "The Orthodox Church sucks". You can't get much more fluent than that, in either English or Anglo-Saxon.

What's not fluent is the ability to express Orthodox truth without confusion. Thus, from that confusion, we all find our posts pretty much deliberately misunderstood, mischaracterised and actually condemned without a fair hearing.

That is the shame of these debates, and that is why I so often give up on trying.

If we only asked ourselves, we who are Orthodox, "How many Orthodoxen are coming to the debates where I hold sway by sheer force of posting-volume?" "How many people want to sit at my feet and learn from me?"

It's a question I ask myself nearly every day, and it's a question that the belligerence in the posts we've been reading begs.

Yesterday or the day before, I noticed that Andrew had included, in one of his posts, the "shining example" of a toffee-nosed Bishop of Achata, who opined that the West was so theologically and spiritually retarded that the West was frankly incapable of internalising much about the Trinity, beyond the very most basic teachings of the Orthodox Church. Very wisely, either Andrew or somebody coaching him, got that anecdote edited out of his post with lightning speed. So Perhaps, Perhaps....

Best wishes,

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

OK, we established the cultural context... I understand why poor initiation into the Christian faith can cause problems...

Now, let's get to the pressing issue of what we mean by the common words we use...

You agreed that we are using substance with different meanings. Then how can the faith be the same? And if it's not the same, how do we proceed from there?

LM

I didn't "excommunicate" you. I remember our talks about the Trinity in the past. Instead of referring to our common fathers, the Saints who shaped history by taking parts in ecumenical councils, I remember you quoting from a Catholic scholar who said essence and nature aren't the same thing. (which just comes to support what I said about some Western Christians, by the way!)

Major Disaster pointed to St. John Damascene a few posts ago. That Saint, quite explicitly says "essence and nature are the same thing". How did you expect me to evaluate the things you said, when I was saying (AT LEAST THAT'S WHAT I THOUGHT I WAS DOING, based on my reading of them) the same things the fathers said, and you said no that's not correct and pointed to what some Catholics say...

That's a side issue, but I mention it to show that we have discussed about these issue for a long time before this thread.

In what you have said, I don't recognize my faith. Why is it that wrong to say so? Because we are both Orthodox? If we disagree in the faith, I think the good thing to do is to address that issue directly.

I want to engage with you with frankness. If I hurt you, attribute that to silliness, and forgive me. But don't leave the issue without bringing everything to light first. I know, this might sound stubborn, but I think persistence works!
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, I'm not sure I said definitively that we are using the term substance with different meanings, though I did say at one point that you were using a term "nature" that isn't a standard English theological term in this context AFAIK. What about this, however: by "one substance" applied to the Trinity, we mean that consubstantial (I realise that's tautological) Godness that the Three Divine Persons share. The one substance is the shared sameness amongst the three, while the respective personhoods speak to the separateness that co-exists in the Triune God.

I'm sure the above could be cleaned up, but I'm trying to take a quick stab at what I mean by substance in term of the Godhead. I'm rushed at the moment as I've got to leave for the station shortly to catch a train to New York City.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
In the foregoing, "separateness" should probably be changed to "distinctiveness" or "distinctive identities"
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
As I said, this thread has made me aware of the error of praying like that. It makes for fuzzy theology that does lean a little unitarian.

That's ALL I said. Nothing more. Quite explicitly I said I don't think Catholicism and Protestantism are full-blown unitarians, but the problem is this unclarity which is a bit unitarian.

That's all I have been saying in this thread, and all I have been arguing against.


quote:
But forgive me, Andreas, the way you speak of the Three still sounds a little tritheistic. The way Father Gregory explains the Trinity, it doesn't.
We can discuss this further. I'd like to share with you how I see your objection.

Perhaps I shouldn't do it, but what the heck.

It reminds me of the discussions I have read by the fathers of the first and the second ecumenical councils with those who didn't accept the Son being uncreated. It's the same argument, with the same logic behind it: If they are three, and they are all uncreated, then there are three Gods.

The answer to that concern was NOT to bring forth some magical pseudo-metaphysical formula, a paradox if you want... They didn't say "they are three in one" or whatever...

The fathers replied in a VERY different tune... saying that it is wrong to count persons of the same nature... that it is wrong to speak of "many humans" in the first place.

I KNOW this sounds bizarre to you, and I empathize, but unless we have a clear understanding about what those people actually said, how can we say we have the same faith they had?

Which leads me to...

quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
Yesterday or the day before, I noticed that Andrew had included, in one of his posts, the "shining example" of a toffee-nosed Bishop of Achata, who opined that the West was so theologically and spiritually retarded that the West was frankly incapable of internalising much about the Trinity, beyond the very most basic teachings of the Orthodox Church. Very wisely, either Andrew or somebody coaching him, got that anecdote edited out of his post with lightning speed. So Perhaps, Perhaps....

The story goes like this:

The famous Byzantinologist Hélène Ahrweiler was teaching in the Sorbonne, during the sixties, about Byzantium. The lecture halls were full of students, but they didn't have a clue what Byzantium was. They were like "is it something you eat?"

So, to show them what Byzantium was, and to explain why it's important that they studied it, and that it wasn't a waste of time or something trivial she said:

"What is Byzantium? Well, in the 11th century, the Archbishop of Achrida sent an epistle to the Patriarch of Constantinople. He wrote: "Those Latins, if they even get to understand something about the Trinity, that should be enough for them. You shouldn't be asking more from them, since you know how low their spiritual level is" This is Byzantium!" she said... And the students listened to her, because if France's past for example was like that compared to Byzantium, then it's something that we would get benefited if we studied it.

My thought is that we are not in a vacuum here. Each brings many centuries of history with him... and we should be able to address our background and our baggage. Not to get defensive, but to be frank so as to shape our future in a positive way.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
If I hurt you, attribute that to silliness, and forgive me.
Oh, I do forgive you, Andrew, but not for your "silliness", as you call it. I do not think you are indulging in harmless silliness, as your posts have always indicated to me a basic insistence on your point of view and your point of view alone. If our experiences don't match your own exactly, it is we who are "out" and you alone who are "in". So your apology, beginning with a self-defensive "if", doesn't quite make the grade.

You claim, after many condemnatory posts in answer to my quotes of scholars--Catholic or not--that I am in error even to post from their works. That shows your narrowness, Andrew. A toff doesn't make a good missionary. Ask the Indian sub-continent if you don't believe me.

Try to listen a bit sometimes--I got off the thread in the vain hope that it'd give some others time to voice their opinions, but you had a day when you were on here, throwing posts at people by the dozens, before anyone could even catch up on the thread! Fifty-six posts as of midnight last night, your time.

Other people really have to scramble to defend their points of view, when someone who can post as fast as you can--and not one-liners either--takes control! And in your haste, you do mislead. I hope that's not deliberate on your part, but by your insistence on statements you make that are very misleading if not incorrect, you are going to find yourself dividing, not only Orthodox from Catholics and Protestants, but Orthodox from other Orthodox. You're working, right now, as hard as you can, to declare that I am not in communion with you. That is a very serious charge. I have to tell you that I think it is entirely unjust. I would not say that of you, in spite of the many things you've said about Orthodoxy on these threads.

Mary
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
The famous Byzantinologist Hélène Ahrweiler was teaching in the Sorbonne, during the sixties, about Byzantium. The lecture halls were full of students, but they didn't have a clue what Byzantium was. They were like "is it something you eat?"
Stop right there. Lecture halls at the Sorbonne are not filled with people who think Byzantium is something you eat. And you will not win any friends who are alumni of the Sorbonne by saying such a thing. They will know right away that you're only insulting them because they're Catholics.

Sorry I got your toffee-nosed bishop's diocese wrong. Achrida, not Achata. Pity that. The beaches at Achata are gorgeous.

Best wishes,

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Leetle Masha

I read what you wrote. You still do not address the issue.

And frankly, I don't understand what good is it that you won't say we have a different faith, if we have a different faith...

As for Sorbonne, it wasn't me speaking, but the Byzantinologist, who came to be (probably the first woman) chancellor to that University. So, hold your horses. History is history.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Very sorry, but if this turns out to be a triple post, it's for the reason that Andrew is still misrepresenting the West and the scholarship that comes out of the West.

He insists,

quote:
I didn't "excommunicate" you. I remember our talks about the Trinity in the past. Instead of referring to our common fathers, the Saints who shaped history by taking parts in ecumenical councils, I remember you quoting from a Catholic scholar who said essence and nature aren't the same thing. (which just comes to support what I said about some Western Christians, by the way!)
I was quoting Etienne Gilson, one of the foremost philosophers in all of Europe. What Gilson said I still say: if you call God's essence His [i]nature, what do you do when you encounter Chalcedon teaching that the Second Person of the Trinity, Jesus Christ, is known in two [i]natures[i] without confusion?

We say the Holy Trinity is one in essence and undivided. Then we say that Christ is known in two natures. There is no conflict in those statements, because we know that the Three Divine Persons are one in Essence, while the Second Person is known in two Natures. If we say that the Three Divine Persons are one in [i]Nature
, which of course they are, we then have to explain how Jesus Christ is known in two natures!

That's not Catholicism. It's correct use of language.

And when you say, Andrew, that someone is "not in communion", that means they are ex-- out of-- communion. Excommunicated. Don't ever do that again. You have no idea whether people are in communion or not, since you are neither their bishop nor their spiritual father.

Mary
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Sorry about code...editing time expired while I was checking for clarity.

M
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Now you provide with a full quote, rather than your old "nature and essence are not the same".

Again, I prefer St. John's "the holy fathers say nature is the same as essence".

Starting from those "holy fathers" I get the teaching that when those in the councils said there is one divine substance, they also thought there is one human substance, that Christ is co-essential with the Father, yes, but, at the same time, He is co-essential with us as well.

So, you can't get a "thing" that's somehow both the Father, the Son and the Spirit, just as you don't get such a unitarian "thing" for mankind. If we have a different understanding of what having one essence means, then we are not of the same faith with the holy fathers.

This is a serious matter, which is why you see me being persistent.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Indeed it is a serious matter, because by that post you are doing several things:

1. Condemning my right to post in language you don't approve of.

2. Excluding me from the debate by requiring it be only on your terms: the Fathers.

3. Worst of all, you say "you can't get a thing"....and then go on to insist that even the Fathers in their definition of "essence" refer to a thing, namely that unitarian notion of "Trinity" you claim we teach, when we do nothing at all like that.

When you stop doing what you're doing right now, people will pay more attention to you. But when you insist that ousia and physis are the same word, you are the one being the unitarian, not we. If the Fathers had wanted essence and nature both to mean nature, they'd have used the word "physis" both times and we'd have had a horde of monophysites you'd not be able to count!

Mary
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Sorry for the double post, but I think I've found the locus of our disagreement here.

Andrew says of Christ:

At the same time, He is co-essential with us as well.

What is our essence, our being? It is being creatures of God. Christ is begotten, not created.

Is God's essence finite, or infinite? Infinite.
Is our essence finite, or infinite? Finite.

Mary

[ 22. November 2008, 19:45: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
§ Andrew, the word "things" is incredibly imprecise in English. Legal writers, especially the ones charged with rendering the french Civil Codes in Louisiana and Quebec avoid the word "things" to translate the French term "objets" (which abounds in those codes) for that reason.

Second, your contentions about Trinitarian theology really fail when we get to Chalcedon. Leetle Masha's quote on Chalcedon is extremely orthodox. The fact is Chalcedon cannot be understood without the ontological foundations of Nicaea. This is why your arguments hold no water.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
And SPK, this all further goes to prove that you and I are worshipping exactly the same God.

Andrew is too, but he just isn't telling us about God the way we tell about God. What little we think we might possibly know, that is.

I can't go on doing this. But flogging him with the homoousios bat doesn't seem to be working very well, does it. He's all physis, that kid! I betcha he's got 6-pack abs! [Biased]

We love ya, Andrew...we're just tryin' to teach you two words: ousia and physis. Now, I know you already know those words. And I know for a fact that you know they are two different words.

When you say the Nicene Creed the next time, notice where they are placed, and maybe you'll see why they're in the Creed in the places where they are.

Finis

Mary
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Note: the Incarnation is where the human nature comes in:

And was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary....

it is that precise point where we declare that we believe that Jesus took on Himself our human nature!

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Leetle Masha's point about the Sorbonne students of our day is important. In the past few decades Byzantium has been studied much, and from a point where it was hardly known it became better known. Still, much scholarship needs to get done, but we are obviously on the right path.

Like the history of Kingdoms, the history of religion needs to get studied as well. I think your problem is a lack in proper education about these things. The fathers who actually spoke on the matter are not widely studied... For the most part, we assume we know what they said (since this has to be what we believe)... and for the most part, Saints like Augustine or the scholastics shaped the way non-Orthodox Christianity thinks about Christianity.

There is a long way to go. For the time being, we aren't in communion with each other. Perhaps someday, when what the fathers actually taught gets studied extensively, the world will be a richer place.

I fear I can't say something more to that, without quoting from all the fathers who spoke on these issues. If someone's interested, I think studying what those people actually said (and yes, I know this isn't the most easy thing to do in English... since their works are not widespread) is the best way to go forward.

I have read extensively what those people wrote, the things about which they gave their lives for. And from that study, worship, and experience I said what I said, and I stand by it.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
I think your problem is a lack in proper education about these things
Ah. I see. You have had that proper education, then?

Give me a break, Andrew.

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
You say that becoming Orthodox is a life-long process, and that we learn as we move forward, and that there is much we don't know, but the moment someone questions what you think you know, no, that can't happen...

Right...

From the very book Major Disaster pointed us to:

quote:
for instance, Peter and Paul are not counted separately in so far as they are one. For since they are one in respect of their essence they cannot be spoken of as two natures
Again, St. John is very clear: "for the holy fathers, nature is the same with essence". That's what someone brought into that faith and educated in all things with regards to Christianity has to say.

You choose to differ. You make an assertion that matches nothing I have encountered in the fathers. And I have studied them extensively. So, I don't accept what you are saying, because to do so would be to violate everything I know as true about these things. If I'm mistaken, by all means, correct me. I truly believe what you are saying, that we can get educated further and further,

[ 22. November 2008, 21:16: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
You make an assertion that matches nothing I have encountered in the fathers. And I have studied them extensively.
As you have told us all repeatedly. And still, you do not know the meaning of the word ousia and the word physis.

You can keep your gnosis, thank you very much. Jesus said, "Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and thy neighbour as thyself." I can't find where He ever said "Thou shalt go through the entire edition of Migne's Patrologia Graeca. Then, thou shalt translate it into English exactly the way somebody calling himself § Andrew does, or thou canst not be My disciple!"

You are plenty smart, §Andrew. No doubt smarter than I am. Still, I have been made a member of the Orthodox Church, same as you have. I've managed to read a little bit from the Fathers, not always in your "translation", of course.

So I try to think with the Church. If thinking with the Church is not thinking with you, then we've got Trouble with a capital T, or so you tell us. The penalty is that you and I are not "in communion". Yet I also am Orthodox.

My, what a situation. I'm not going to lose any sleep over it. I suggest you get some rest too, and maybe you'll feel better in the morning.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
Second, your contentions about Trinitarian theology really fail when we get to Chalcedon.

Why?

Here's what St. John said in that book Major Disaster pointed us to:

quote:
This, indeed, we have learned, that the Godhead was united to humanity in one of its subsistences, and it has been stated that God took on a different form or essence, to wit our own.
How's that any different from what I'm saying? The Son, being one in essence with the Father and the Spirit, was united with humanity, by taking on a different essence, that is the human essence.

How's St. John's saying any different to what I said?

When you drop any metaphysical baggage the term "essence" has, we will arrive to pure Nicea and pure Chalcedon.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
ok. This is what you claim St. John of Damascus said:
quote:
for instance, Peter and Paul are not counted separately in so far as they are one. For since they are one in respect of their essence they cannot be spoken of as two natures
Read that again. When you read it the second time, maybe it will be clearer. Peter is a man. Paul is another man. Although they are both men, you cannot separate their finite being into two, unless they are conjoined Siamese twins and you are a very, very good surgeon.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I didn't do any translating... Just copied/pasted from the site MD pointed us to.

That small quotation is about us humans having one and the same essence, the human essence. So, it's wrong to say Paul and Peter are two "humans", because they are of one essence. The right thing to say is that they are two human persons.

Same thing with three divine persons - one divine essence.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
You are confused by the translation and perhaps the original copy, then. "Human Persons" is fine, if you want to use the same expression Pope John Paul II, with his philosophy of personalism, was always using. It does not change the difference between essence and nature.

You still don't get it, and I don't have any more time. Please bear in mind that it is okay for St. John of Damascus to use essence and nature as synonyms if he wants to, but we must understand what he means when he does that. I don't think you understand yet what he actually meant. It's because of the English that is used in that translation. But I'm not going to be bothered with this any more.

Say whatever you please, I'm Orthodox. I have no idea who you are or where you're coming from, except you say Athens. Fine. I'm from Pennsylvania. I'm just one human person, an Orthodox Christian, and you needn't worry about me so much. Please concern yourself more with the people you are misleading.

Mary

[ 22. November 2008, 22:10: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
I suggest you get some rest too, and maybe you'll feel better in the morning.

I feel I have been harsh with you Mary. If what I say is accurate, it's an issue of education about what the ancients said and taught, and I shouldn't have been that harsh with you. I apologize to you personally for that.

[ 22. November 2008, 22:51: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
No Western trinitarian is saying that the God-essence (I don't like this term) is impersonal. Transpersonal, perhaps, only in that the One God exists co-eternally and co-equally as Three Persons. Remember, we neither confuse the persons nor divide the substance. The three divine persons are interpenetrating but distinct.

Just when I think I'm beginning to grasp the difference..

I think I need to re-read all this.

I'm not sure I agree that the filoque shows a not personal essence as the cause - see below quote from RCC - because when taken together like this there is a hierarchy of procession, from the Father a procession to the Son in begetting and from both proceeds as one spiration the Holy Spirit.

But it's really weird, to me, used as I am to the cause of the Son and the Holy Spirit to be One God the Father.


quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Dear Myrrh

The Spirit as the vinculum amoris (bond of love) first appears in (yes, you guessed it!) ... Augustine.

Me ol chuck again!

I need some time to work through the rest of your post, and with Andrews comment.


Essence/Nature
Perhaps I haven't yet read enough explanations from both sides, but so far I see both RCC and Orthodox using essence and nature interchangeably

Such as here:
quote:

In God there are three Persons, the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost. Each of the three Persons possesses the one (numerical) Divine Essence.
In God there are two internal divine processions.
The Divine Persons, not the Divine Nature, are the subject of the internal divine processions (in the active and in the passive sense).
The Second Divine Person proceeds from the First Divine Person by generation, and therefore is related to Him as Son to Father.
The Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and from the Son as from a single principle through a single spiration.
The Holy Ghost does not proceed through generation but through spiration.
The relations in God are really identical with the Divine Nature.
The Three Divine Persons are in one another.
All the ad extra activities of God are common to the three Persons.
(DOGMAS Of The Holy Roman Catholic Church)

quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
ok. This is what you claim St. John of Damascus said:
quote:
for instance, Peter and Paul are not counted separately in so far as they are one. For since they are one in respect of their essence they cannot be spoken of as two natures
Read that again. When you read it the second time, maybe it will be clearer. Peter is a man. Paul is another man. Although they are both men, you cannot separate their finite being into two, unless they are conjoined Siamese twins and you are a very, very good surgeon.
Their nature is one, fully human, in that they can't be separated but are one. One essence in two persons; which are finite and can be separated, siamese twins are two persons conjoined, not one person.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
I forgive you, Andrew, wholeheartedly, and I do read those Church Fathers as much as I can, believe me. I'm not nearly so well-educated as you are, I'm sure. American schools don't teach patristics. In my uni studies, I did manage to take a couple of theology courses along with an enormous curriculum of French, Spanish, Gothic, English, Greek, Latin, sociology and physics. I was at uni 8 years and I have a Master's in Romance Languages, Classics and minor in English. I'm a "Phi Beta Cr*phead", as we humourously call our Honors grads over here who make Phi Beta Kappa.

I always said you were smart. Share your extensive knowledge with a bit more kindness and a bit less nastiness, and I'm sure, once you can understand even the most complex of English (and that translation, trust me, is very hard to understand even for a native speaker of English!), you'll be much less likely to mislead people. But it comes across as very arrogant indeed when you insist that your interpretation is the only correct Orthodox one. That creates only bad feeling and ultimately, schism or heresy or both. So, for my sake--please be more careful, okay?

And please let other people have their say before you jump all over them. Sometimes, your jumps might be a bit too hasty, and some day you may find that you've condemned a patriarch or an abbot of a big monastery somewhere.

Mary
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Hi Myrrh,

I can see how you'd get that idea about essence and nature, but since the very life of a human person is in his essence, his very being, if you separate his essence he will die. (I'd rather not get into cloning!) You're probably right, Siamese twins is not a very good analogy since they are both human persons in the first place, though conjoined. But they can be separated, as I understand it, if they don't share too many vital organs--I read somewhere that a doctor managed to separate conjoined twins, who shared a liver.

In the human nature, God creates unique beings, each one different yet each one a human person.

Mary
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
I was quoting Etienne Gilson, one of the foremost philosophers in all of Europe. What Gilson said I still say: if you call God's essence His [i]nature, what do you do when you encounter Chalcedon teaching that the Second Person of the Trinity, Jesus Christ, is [i]known in two [i]natures[i] without confusion?

I'm not sure what problem Gilson sees here. What is wrong with saying that the second person of the Trinity has two essences? There may be a reason, but I'm missing it.

If Gilson is using essence to mean substance, then I don't think he ought to do that.

As I understand it, essence is opposed to existence. If something exists, it has a way of existing which is its essence. (We can think about essences that don't exist, but saying that the essence either does or doesn't exist is a philosophical mistake - since it implies the existence of essences that don't exist. I've been reading a book by David Burrell who argues that this was an important insight by Aquinas for our relationship to God.)

Substance crosses the existence/essence boundary. Something is a substance if it remains itself. It has accidents if it can change and still remain itself, since the accidents are what change.

A nature is the kind of thing something is, which it shares with everything else which is the same kind of thing. Natures don't exist in themselves: they are the manner of existence of existing things. (Which seems to me the same as essence.)

Now when in the west we say God is one substance, we don't mean that God is something amorphous in addition to the three persons. What we mean is that the three persons do not exist without each other. It is possible, given any two created persons, that they might or might not exist separately. But the three persons of the Trinity exist with each other necessarily.

So I'd want to add a point to Father Gregory's description of the Trinity.
If we think of the persons of the Trinity as three of the same kind of thing - three instances of the same nature - as if there could be one or two or four or twenty, then we're making a mistake. The three persons are not three instances of any nature. The nature of God is necessarily to be three: one begetting, one begotten, one proceeding.
So there could not be two sons. It would be meaningless to say that God could have begotten two sons. Whatever is begotten by the Father is the son, therefore to say 'God could have begotten two sons' is merely to say 'God could have begotten the son twice', which is nonsense.
Nor could there be two spirits.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
That's very good, Dafyd, and I appreciate it very much because it does a great job of differentiating essence and substance. I never say substance.

The reason Gilson wanted it made clear that ousia and physis are two different words is complex, but I think Gilson, and I following him, saw essence as indivisible, involving life itself.

If we say that essence and existence are opposed, all the more reason not to divide essence. If, as Sartre claimed, existence is prior to essence, I'm in deep trouble, since I cannot be an existentialist. Shoot, I couldn't even bear process theology!

I was just trying to stay with the Vincentian canon, not to get too deep into the philosophy of it all. If I've made a mistake and essence and nature really are identical, I still don't understand why they're two different words when the definition of Chalcedon requires that there be something about nature that makes it possible for one Divine person to have two natures. If we say that in the Incarnation Christ took to Himself another essence, in addition to the divine essence Christ already had, being the only-begotten Son of the Father, and eternal, begotten from all eternity, why would He do that? Two essences would be two beings! Chalcedon clearly said two natures without mingling or confusion.

It wasn't clear to the Monophysites, I think because they did not understand Christ's Person. They were afraid that if Christ had two natures, He'd be two Persons (as the Nestorians seemed to think).

Mary
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
The reason Gilson wanted it made clear that ousia and physis are two different words is complex, but I think Gilson, and I following him, saw essence as indivisible, involving life itself.

Assuming that 'ousia' translates 'substance' and 'physis' nature, then the two are very definitely different. 'Ousia' refers to the entity, and 'physis' to what the entity is.
So I would think that 'essence' would tend to translate 'physis' rather than 'ousia'.

The problem is that Latin words don't necessarily translate the Greek words with the same etymology.

I'm not really sure here though.

quote:
If we say that essence and existence are opposed, all the more reason not to divide essence. If, as Sartre claimed, existence is prior to essence, I'm in deep trouble, since I cannot be an existentialist. Shoot, I couldn't even bear process theology!
When I say 'essence' and 'existence' are opposed, I mean that they're opposed in thinking about them, not in reality.

While Thomas Aquinas and Sartre both think existence is prior to essence, I think they mean different things by that. Thomas thinks of essence as a manner of existing: the way in which God creates us. Sartre seems to think of essence as something entirely separate from existence, and opposed to it in reality, so that for Sartre essence somehow traps or confines existence if existence doesn't somehow break free.

quote:
If I've made a mistake and essence and nature really are identical, I still don't understand why they're two different words when the definition of Chalcedon requires that there be something about nature that makes it possible for one Divine person to have two natures. If we say that in the Incarnation Christ took to Himself another essence, in addition to the divine essence Christ already had, being the only-begotten Son of the Father, and eternal, begotten from all eternity, why would He do that? Two essences would be two beings! Chalcedon clearly said two natures without mingling or confusion.
If you're using 'essence' for 'ousia', then yes, I agree with you. I didn't think that was how 'essentia' was used in Latin theology, but I don't know the primary sources in English, let alone in the original.

quote:
It wasn't clear to the Monophysites, I think because they did not understand Christ's Person. They were afraid that if Christ had two natures, He'd be two Persons (as the Nestorians seemed to think).
I'm not sure that there were ever really monophysites in the sense that the Chalcedonian definition rejects. As I understand it, there were some people who over-reacted to Nestorius, and thought that the Chalcedonian definition was conceding far too much to him. Thus the Oriential Orthodox churches think that the Chalcedonian definition logically implies Nestorianism. But they wouldn't assert a mixture or confusion of natures, which I think is what the Chalcedonians were trying to avoid doing.

[ 23. November 2008, 01:00: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
I'm not really sure here though.
I think Gilson probably was making the distinction between essence and "substance" exactly the way you said, Dafyd--"substance" would blur the distinction between essence and nature, probably rather obviously with its Latin prefix denoting "under". Gilson had read the Fathers, and he also knew Greek. His main objective was to get back past Cajetan to "the Thomism of St. Thomas", he said. If you want further info, you can always see the original book I have used for years:

Letters of Etienne Gilson to Henri de Lubac, with commentary by Henri de Lubac (San Francisco: 1988) or the French original, Lettres de M. Etienne Gilson adressées au P. Henri de Lubac et commentées par celui-ci (Paris: Les Editions du Cerf, 1986).

I think I'd rather not go into this any deeper, since I'm not a theologian. Gilson's ideas just made such good sense to me when I was trying to become familiar with the Definition of Chalcedon and I was getting mixed up because everybody, including the Catholic translators into French of the Nicene Creed, was using "nature" as a synonym. To those translators, who translated the Latin "consubstantialem" (homoousios) as "de la même nature" (of the same nature), Gilson directed the distinction between ousia and physis. I spoke to my spiritual father about the two words, and he agrees with Gilson completely. My spiritual father, a very well-respected Orthodox priest who has received several distinctions from the Greek Orthodox Church in the U.S., always helps me if I get into theological trouble.

Mary
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
Hi Myrrh,

I can see how you'd get that idea about essence and nature, but since the very life of a human person is in his essence, his very being, if you separate his essence he will die. (I'd rather not get into cloning!) You're probably right, Siamese twins is not a very good analogy since they are both human persons in the first place, though conjoined. But they can be separated, as I understand it, if they don't share too many vital organs--I read somewhere that a doctor managed to separate conjoined twins, who shared a liver.

In the human nature, God creates unique beings, each one different yet each one a human person.

Mary

In human nature God created us male and female in His image and likeness. He didn't created us separate persons except as expressions of that nature.

That's our human nature, our essence. Christ became fully human, not because he was male, but because he became man(kind)in also taking for his essence/nature humanity; so fully human and fully divine.

I wonder if the later Palamas v not, has contributed to a confusion here in the different takes on essence?

In that there we're talking about the distinction between essence and energies which is not the same context as a common essence/nature of a thing intrinsic as in say different persons. The common essence/nature of God is divinity as the common essence/nature of gold ornaments is gold.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Good question, Myrrh...I really have no idea how the confusion started if it didn't start from claiming that ousia and physis were synonyms and could be used interchangeably.

Wish I could be of more help, but I'm completely burnt out on this one!

Mary
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
I think it could simply be a confusion of context, nothing more. The difference in the RCC/Orthodox arguments about the Trinity say 'the Orthodox begin with the persons and establish unity and the RCC begin with the simple unity and establish persons', but, what I'm seeing is that the RCC take the Trinity to define God and the Orthodox take the Trinity to define Christ - that's two utterly different categories.

Same with essence/nature - without interpreting through different contexts the essence of a thing is its nature, as gold is to ornaments, so divinity to God so humanity to human beings.

"Man" used to be understood as "humanity" - it seems only recently that this has been contrasted solely with female which by extension gives the impression that Christ's incarnation is solely in its specialness 'male', and from that only a particular male God and so on. Where "man" is retained as "mankind" that individualisation doesn't occur, Christ became human without seed (no extraneous imput), out of the fully human to become human as we become human.

This carries all the combinations of relation between God and man(kind) - created in image and likeness male and female the difference is between uncreated and created, so our emphasis on God become created. In this we see Mary the Mother of God as the bridge between the uncreated and the created, between God and mankind, between divinity and humanity, standard Orthodox teaching, and standard at Nicaea and Chalcedon which by two natures meant simply both human and divine and this is the simple meaning of essence, a category distinction.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
The only context I'm referring to is:

The Nicene Creed

The Definition of Chalcedon


Mary
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
All I'm saying is that "essence", "substance" and "nature" all refer to the same thing, that which defines the thing - as the nature etc. of "the same thing" here is a noun.


quote:
(Nicaea-Constantinople)


We believe in one God, the Father Almighty, Maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible. And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, the only-begotten, begotten of the Father before all ages. Light of Light; true God of true God; begotten, not made; of one essence with the Father, by whom all things were made; who for us men and for our salvation came down from heaven, and was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary, and became man. And He was crucified for us under Pontius Pilate, and suffered, and was buried. And the third day He rose again, according to the Scriptures; and ascended into heaven, and sits at the right hand of the Father; and He shall come again with glory to judge the living and the dead; whose Kingdom shall have no end.


And [we believe] in the Holy Spirit, the Lord, the Giver of Life, who proceeds from the Father; who with the Father and the Son together is worshipped and glorified; who spoke by the prophets. In one Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church. I acknowledge one baptism for the remission of sins. I look for the resurrection of the dead, and the life of the world to come. Amen.

quote:
(The Definition of the Council of Chalcedon) (451 A.D)


Therefore, following the holy fathers, we all with one accord teach men to acknowledge one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, at once complete in Godhead and complete in manhood, truly God and truly man, consisting also of a reasonable soul and body; of one substance with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time of one substance with us as regards his manhood; like us in all respects, apart from sin; as regards his Godhead, begotten of the Father before the ages, but yet as regards his manhood begotten, for us men and for our salvation, of Mary the Virgin, the God-bearer; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, recognized in two natures, without confusion, without change, without division, without separation; the distinction of natures being in no way annulled by the union, but rather the characteristics of each nature being preserved and coming together to form one person and subsistence, not as parted or separated into two persons, but one and the same Son and Only-begotten God the Word, Lord Jesus Christ; even as the prophets from earliest times spoke of him, and our Lord Jesus Christ himself taught us, and the creed of the fathers has handed down to us.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
..as the nature of "the same thing" here is noun.


Myrrh
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
If I've made a mistake and essence and nature really are identical, I still don't understand why they're two different words when the definition of Chalcedon requires that there be something about nature that makes it possible for one Divine person to have two natures.

He is not one divine person, He is one person who is fully divine and fully human, two natures in one person.


quote:
If we say that in the Incarnation Christ took to Himself another essence, in addition to the divine essence Christ already had, being the only-begotten Son of the Father, and eternal, begotten from all eternity, why would He do that?
To become fully human, to come into creation.


quote:
Two essences would be two beings! Chalcedon clearly said two natures without mingling or confusion.
There's an old Hindu teaching about Hamsa the Swan whose discernment was of such a high order that he could separate out only the milk to drink from a mixture of milk and water..


quote:
It wasn't clear to the Monophysites, I think because they did not understand Christ's Person. They were afraid that if Christ had two natures, He'd be two Persons (as the Nestorians seemed to think).
I still don't know what the Monophysites meant - this explanation seems to be saying they were calling one nature which the description in Chalcedon gives as person, but complains of other differences without specifying them.

quote:
(Comments received)

The distinct Monophysite doctrines derive from the fifth century discussions on the nature of Christ. It was the Monophysite position that Christ was one person of one (mono) nature (physic), the divine nature absorbing the human nature. In the context of the debate, Monophysitism was opposed to Nestorianism, which said that Christ had two natures but that they were separable.

It is also not the case that the teaching of the Oriental Orthodox churches is that the divine nature absorbs the human nature. I could provide hundreds of quotations illustrating that the fathers of the Oriental Orthodox have always confessed that Christ is fully and perfectly human and fully and perfectly Divine. The Oriental Orthodox have never confessed 'one nature', but have always confessed, using the words of the great and divinely inspired St Cyril that Christ is 'one incarnate nature or hypostasis of the Word'. This has never meant that Christ is simply divine or that the humanity is defective in any way but it confesses that in Christ there is a perfect union between his perfect and complete humanity and his perfect and complete Divinity. Eutyches was undoubtedly a confused individual but from the 5th century onwards anyone in the Oriental Orthodox churches who professes a Eutychian christology has been disciplined and even excommunicated from the Church.


The council formulated what came to be called the Chalcedonian Creed, which says Christ is "of one substance with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time of one substance with us as regards his manhood." Rejecting this creed, most of the Armenian, northern Egyptian, and Syrian churches broke away from the main body of the Christian church.

This statement is also not true. Oriental Orthodox do not object to the phrase you have published. We have always confessed that Christ is of one substance with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time of one substance with us as regards his manhood. St Dioscorus, deposed at Chalcedon, taught the same doctrine. What is objected to is the Nestorian influence in the Chalcedonian statement and in Leo's Tome. Eastern Orthodox are normally very careful to state that the Chalcedonian statement was not a new Creed since this is precluded in Orthodox teaching. In fact Oriental Orthodox do consider that a new creed was promulgated against the teaching of Nicaea and this is another reason it is not accepted.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Thanks for going to all that trouble to post those lengthy texts, Myrrh. When I saw that phrase that said Christ was one in "substance" with us as regards His manhood, I had to go and look up "substance". "Substance" in Greek is "hypostasis".

So that's why we're always so reluctant to use "substance" as a synonym for "essence". I looked in my Latin Dictionary, the big fat Lewis and Short one, and the Latin for "ousia" is "essentia".

Best wishes, Mary
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
Yeah, I think the problem here would go away if we didn't get so bent out of shape by the words used, both councils were using words handily to explain the connection between human and divine in Christ. Not expressing some esoteric meaning about essence, or substance or nature. Not describing God.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
At the very beginning of this whole discussion, I thought I ought not to participate in it, because God, being illimitable, is of course indescribable. When one "describes" something, one draws a circle around it, thus limiting it.

That said, though, I think when we say essence we ought to refer it to "ousia" as the word homoousios serves to say "of one essence" with the Father--in the Creed.

And I think we ought to say physis when we refer to the two natures of Christ mentioned in the Definition of Chalcedon.

The Fathers can do anything they wish, but I think we should stick to the terms used in the two documents that have the most to do with the Holy Trinity and the Person of Christ: the Creed and the Definition of Chalcedon, at least for the very limited scope of this particular discussion.

Your Mileage may vary.

Mary

[ 23. November 2008, 04:38: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
And here is the Definition of Chalcedon:

Greek in left-hand column, English in right-hand column

"in two natures" [en duo physein] is found in Greek about halfway down in the second section of Greek text.

Mary
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Here, in the words of St. John of Damascus, is the way I have felt throughout this discussion, especially when we lost all our clarity:

And this is a clear translation, from the end of "On Heresies"

On the Trinity:

"There is nothing created, nothing of the first and second order, nothing lord and servant;
but there is unity and trinity
- there was, there is, and there shall be forever - which is perceived and adored by faith -
by faith, not by inquiry, nor by searching out, nor by visible manifestation;
for the more He is sought out, the more He is unknown, and the more He is investigated, the more He is hidden.

"And so, let the faithful adore God with a mind that is not overcurious. And believe that He is God in three hypostases, although the manner in which He is so is beyond manner, for God is incomprehensible. Do not ask how the Trinity is Trinity, for the Trinity is inscrutable."
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
His main objective was to get back past Cajetan to "the Thomism of St. Thomas", he said.

No kidding...

The great fathers have been considered ignorant and primitive in these matters, and instead of them, Augustine and the Scholastics were elevated. Abbot Placide speaks about that clearly. When, as a Roman Catholic, he expressed an interest in the great fathers of the ecumenical councils, the others were telling him that he needs to read some serious stuff.

They thought theology was primitive in antiquity, with the exception of Augustine, and then, the serious work was done with the scholastics.

Of course, he didn't listen to them, continued studying, and eventually was baptized into the Orthodox Church.

The problem with Aquinas is that he says all sort of things that are different from what the fathers actually said. This is one more point of difference.

It's very awkward that you are taking the creed and the definition of Chalcedon outside of their context. We cannot understand them outside of their proper context, which is what those fathers actually taught.

So, it is a matter of education. Of course, I understand the difficulties. I'm not naive to think that the influence of the non-Orthodox theology can suddenly change... There are many centuries that need to get undone. Till then...
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Yes, it's a matter of education. And in my opinion, as you describe it, I think I'll pass.

You are really clever at getting people whose ideas you don't like, Andrew, out of your way.

I knew it was a bad idea to post on this topic. I enjoy reading what people write, but I'm losing my taste for it.

M
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
You are saying I'm misleading people, when I don't expect anyone to take my word for what I'm saying.

What I expect people to do is engage with me so that we can understand each other better. That's one thing.

The other thing I do is to point people to the fathers, so that they can read for themselves and find out what the truth of these matters is.

I insist on Scriptural theology, and on the theology of the ecumenical councils. I think it has been established that there is a difference between how the Scriptures and the Creed address God, and how many address God today. I think that it would be very interesting if those that take that different route examine their reasons for doing so, and get acquainted with the teachings of the ecumenical councils.

It's sad that because you disagree with me, you think I'm misleading anyone or whatever. Agreeing to disagree is very important you know. Oh well.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
I think with this one paragraph, Andrew has just closed this thread

quote:
So, it is a matter of education. Of course, I understand the difficulties. I'm not naive to think that the influence of the non-Orthodox theology can suddenly change... There are many centuries that need to get undone. Till then...
You suggest we "agree to disagree", Andrew. I have, I think, a better idea. Here's my better idea--I am going to take this young man's posts for what they're worth.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
On a more general note...

I think it's problematic not to use English words when discussing the trinity. Why refer to things such as "hypostasis" or "ousia" and not use English words for them? I reckon this adds to the pseudo-metaphysical stuff, and it is not helpful at all.

The problem with translations is that all the "magic" will be gone, and this will challenge current understandings deeply.

I have the privilege of being able to access what the Greek-speaking fathers said, because of the continuity in language between them and me. It is very important that the fathers get easy to access translations in everyday language.

Migne's attempt was superb, and I applaud his efforts. Yet, it is necessary for our times that something like Migne's effort gets done in everyday English, instead of Latin.

I will make a separate post to illustrate what I mean, but I warn you, it will not be an easy read.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, you seem to think that Western Christians should repudiate the dogmatic theology developed by the scholastics and by the magisterium of the Holy See. It ain't gonna happen - not for me who am a Roman Catholic in terms of my dogmatic theology, nor for other Christians who are committed to the faith as it has been taught in the West. We, in fact, don't repudiate the theology of the Orthodox Church, but seek synthesis of Western and Eastern theologies. We think it's possible to reach a mutual understandig of what can acceptably be meant by the filioque (though I'd be happy to get rid of it as a creedal proposition)and the doctrine of original sin. We see a lot of this in terms of shades of meaning, whilst you anyway seemingly tend to see our ideas as diametrically opposed to one another. In any event, while some in the West will make the journey to the Orthodox Church, most of us will stay committed to the Roman Catholic Church or to the ecclesial communities that stem directly from the papal jurisdiction.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
On second thoughts, I will not give that example, because it would be a difficult read, and I don't want to give the impression that I want to score points with LM. I understand, I think, where she is coming from, and although I disagree with her passive-aggressive style, I don't want to score points with her.

So, I won't provide with direct quotes from the fathers, although, if anyone is interested, we could discuss that as well...

I will give an example however, on a more general point, about words and terms...

St. John lived in the eighth century. Personally, I'd point you to earlier fathers, because it was them who took part in the first and the second ecumenical councils, but since St. John Damascene was already mentioned... He was learnt in all things, because of the continuity in Orthodox education...

Anyway, he says that the pagan philosophers said there is a difference between physis and ousia, but the holy fathers didn't agree, and they thought physis is the same with ousia.

Not only that, but he says very clearly that to say "all horses are of the same nature", is the same with saying "all horses are of the same essence". In fact, he uses that term, "omoousios" which was used in the Creed for the Son being of the same essence with the Father...

He goes on to explain that all angels are of the same essence, and that what is common is what we call essence, or nature etc etc...

In fact, he goes even to call three "existences" the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, three "yparxeis". And he says hypostasis and atom and person are the same... Greek word for atom today is translated in English as individual.

So, the sketch of the theology St. John (and the fathers in general) give is rather different than the theology you think the ecumenical councils actually taught.

My point is this:

How can we get to know what the councils actually taught? By studying what those who took part in them wrote. We shouldn't assume they taught what we think they taught, because of the little degree to which they have been studied.

I understand this poses many questions... "But, aren't we Christians? What does this mean for our Christianity and the faith we have been brought up with?"

All these questions are important and painful and difficult to answer. But that's the point of dialog. We have an opportunity here. Let's not miss it.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Andrew, you seem to think that Western Christians should repudiate the dogmatic theology developed by the scholastics and by the magisterium of the Holy See. It ain't gonna happen

I think that what's important is that we all get acquainted with what those ecumenical councils taught. Then we see what happens. If the ancients disagree with the scholastics and the "magisterium of the Holy See", then this brings forth interesting questions and dilemmas.

Some will say that the fathers were primitive, and that scholasticism is superb. I don't doubt that. In fact, the ancient fathers have been ignored for a very long time.

Others will think "hey, what's going on? I thought we really accepted the Creed of the second ecumenical council... Or Chalcedon... I want to be with that theology, and not with a theology that says different things than that..."

There are many options... But the important thing is first to get to know the foundations of Christianity...

As far as I can tell, these issues have been resolved during the hesychast controversies, when that kind of Christianity has been deemed incompatible with... Christianity. But before we go to the 14th century, let's start with the Creed...
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Andrew pontificates:
quote:
I don't want to give the impression that I want to score points with LM. I understand, I think, where she is coming from, and although I disagree with her passive-aggressive style, I don't want to score points with her.
No worries.
 
Posted by cor ad cor loquitur (# 11816) on :
 
quote:
Andrew, earlier on this thread...
I'm not going to bring forth the documents of those who actually participated in the ecumenical councils to show what they meant. It's very clear for whoever reads them. This is not Florence, and I'm not going to try and convince you about anything.

I'm interested in what you have to say about yourself, and I was under the impression that this was reciprocal, that you were also interested in what I believe, because you found some worth engaging with each other.

I think it has been established that there is a difference between how the Scriptures and the Creed address God, and how many address God today. I think that it would be very interesting if those that take that different route examine their reasons for doing so, and get acquainted with the teachings of the ecumenical councils.

All these questions are important and painful and difficult to answer. But that's the point of dialog. We have an opportunity here. Let's not miss it.

I don’t think you have the slightest interest in ‘dialog’, Andrew. Or if you do, you seem incapable of carrying on anything like a dialogue – for example, trying to understand why someone else might have a different point of view for some reason other than that they are stupid, spiritually blind or uneducated. And you haven’t established, other than by assertion, that there is ‘a difference between how the Scriptures and the Creed address God, and how many address God today’. As so often you have made a statement, pretty much ignored what others have had to say, and declared yourself victorious.

But hope springs eternal, so here is another question for you and for others.

I was struck by something at the end of Mass this morning. The priest blessed us, saying ‘Benedicat vos omnipotens Deus, Pater, et Filius, et Spiritus Sanctus’. In English: ‘May almighty God bless you, the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.’

Especially in the English translation, this seems to be referring to the one God, but not identifying him as the Father.

Am I misreading the liturgy here? Or is this simply more 'evidence' that Catholicism is unitarian?
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
Actually Andrew, we have established that Christians today of all stripes have a genuine orthodox and conventional understanding of the Trinity, while you have a unconventional and heterodox understanding of both the Trinity and the Fathers.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cor ad cor loquitur:
As to the substance of how to read the Creed, I would welcome evidence (not simply another assertion that yours is the only correct reading) that your parsing of the creed is in fact what the original authors intended.

First of all, my intention is not to convince you that my view is accurate. I want you to understand what I am saying and where I'm coming from, and I to understand what you are saying and where you are coming from, while agreeing to disagree and respecting each other's integrity.

However, we have reached a point, when this is no longer possible... The portrait of mine that I'm having a view of my own creation, while the rest of Christianity doesn't agree with me is deeply problematic... because it doesn't allow dialog to continue.

So, how can we resolve this?

What would it take for you to begin taking me seriously?

I started with Paul's saying, about there being one God the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ, because this is the basis for all creeds that were composed later.

I could show by appealing to the early fathers, before the first ecumenical councils, how this structure was followed. And I can appeal to the fathers of the ecumenical councils to show what they meant with the creed they put forth.

Is this what you have in mind? Would that make you better disposed towards me?

Really, how do you want this to work? What do you want me to do? And how on earth will this be easy, if I have access to the ancient Greek texts, which, of course, you could find easily online, but there is no easy way of accessing English translations for the texts?

Tell me how you want me to proceed. I'm open to suggestions.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Allow me to try Andrew.

There is nothing wrong of course with the opening phrases of the Nicene Creed in relation to the Father (God) and Jesus Christ (Lord) BUT it does go on to say (of Christ) ... Light from Light, true God from true God. So in your emphasising of the distinction between God (the Father) and Christ (the Lord) you APPEAR to be doing something Arian ... ironic considering that the later phrasing additions were to combat Arius. (I was hinting at this in that earlier post when I referred to your explanation as "odd" ... you only picked me up on that later).

When St. Paul used "Lord" of Christ he was being a LITTLE restrained in the same way that St. Basil was being a LITTLE restrained in "On the Holy Spirit" when defending His homoousios against the Pneumatomachians (deniers of the Spirit's divinity for those who don't know).

The reticence of St. Paul and St. Basil has to do with the problematic of the novel terminology ... not the thing in itself, ie., the consubstantial divinity of the Son and the Spirit respectively.

Interestingly of course nobody "finished off" the Creed in a parallel fashion as to the Spirit ... the primitive unadorned reference there remained in the Creed (apart from "Lord" and "Giver of Life").

Anyway, it's your abrupt termination of both the creed and subsequent patristic reflection which strikes me (and others) as odd. From what you write eleswhere I am sure that you are not a semi-Arian BUT it does come over that way when you seem reluctant to extend the word "God" unequivocally to the Son in the same way as it used of the Father.

If you are worried about losing the monarchy of the Father here, don't. The monarchy has nothing to do with the hierarchy of essence (or else we definitely would be in Arian territory and St. Paul would be a subordinationist as well in this regard). Rather it has to do with the ordering, the ranking of function whereby the Son finds His timeless generation from the Father and as to the Spirit .... His timeless spiration from the Father.

The Father is the only hypostasis who is not generated or spirated ... hence the (awkward in English) reference in our worship to the "Unoriginate Father." THAT'S His monarchy.

[ 23. November 2008, 16:49: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Father Gregory

I don't disagree with what you are saying... although I would differ with you on one thing: Paul's calling Christ Lord is huge... because this is something that clearly denotes divinity, so I don't think he was restrained at all... The same with the Holy Spirit... "Kai eis to Pneuma to Agion, to Kyrion...." This little word, "Lord", is huge, in the context of the Scriptures of course!

So, no, I'm not concerned about the monarchy, and, of course, I'm not semi-arian or whatever...

The problem is different. Please, follow me here:

There is this beautiful dialog, in Migne's Patrology under Athanasius the Great, on the trinity.

The dialog is held between "an Orthodox, and an Anomoean Arianist", or so the title says.

At one point, their discussion goes like this:

quote:
Orthodox: Hypostasis means to be, and divinity means "what to be".

Anomoean: Gimme an example.

Orthodox: Like Peter, and Paul, and Timothy, they are three hypostasis, but one humanity.

Anomoean: So, you are talking about three gods!

Orthodox: According to the Divine Scriptures, they are not three either! "Because in Jesus Christ, there is neither male nor female, neither Greek nor Jew, neither free man nor slave, but we in Christ are all one"

Anomoean: Come on! Aren't they three, Paul and Peter and Timothy?

Orthodox: Yea, they are three, but not three humans!

Anomoean: How come?

Orthodox: There are three humans if they have their heart anomoean (if they are not of the same heart; a wordplay with his opponent's view that the Father and the Son are anomoean, or "not similar"). For example, a Greek, a Jew, and a Christian. They are three humans.

But when they are of the same heart, and there is no schism among them, they might be three hypostasis, but they are one man in the Lord, having one soul and one heart. And they are three in number, but not because they are of a different nature, or heart.

Anomoean: I call those who are three three.

Orthodox: I call them three if they are in schism. If they become according to the Divine Scriptures educated with the same mind, and the same opinion, I call them one new man.

Anomoean: This is spoken so for humans. For God things are different.

Orthodox: If for those who are divided bodily , when there is no schism between them, the Scriptures call them one man and one, this applies even more to those who have no body, and are immaterial!

Either say they are in schism, so that we can say there are three gods, the one willing this the other that, or there is no schism, and one God the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit, as one man those that have their foundations in Christ, as it is written.

This is the problem. Many asked in this thread, but if they are really three, why not say they are three gods? Well, that's the answer, but it's not what some people expect!

What in English is called "individual" (without the modern notions of selfish individualism of course!) is what the ancients called hypostasis. But this is very hard to accept, because this magical pseudo-metaphysical idea of an "essence"-God that's somehow both Father, Son and Holy Spirit is so deeply ingrained...

The above dialog would never take place with the non-Orthodox I came to know from these boards. They would go like "it's a mysterious paradox, one in three and one and three at the same time. It's a matter of faith, and we can't go much beyond this", and all that!

REMEMBER, I'm NOT accused of semi-arianism, BUT of tritheism!

And what's at stake here is the beautiful trinitarian theology, but also the salvation of man, as described by our Lord Jesus Christ in the Gospel according to John... "may they be one, just like we are one".
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
Hang on its you who started throwing the accusations around Andrew. If you are going to accuse Western Christianity of Unitarianism you must expect us to accuse you of tri-theism. In other words you built that accusation into the OP.

Jengie
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Jengie

Saying that the theology of the Orthodox fathers is different (or might be different) to the theology of many Western non-Orthodox is not me challenging your integrity.

It's because we end up with people challenging my integrity that we are at an impasse, and I welcome all suggestions on how we can resolve that issue.

I don't doubt that you are expressing the faith of a wider community, that there is much you have received which you confess, and so on. On the other hand, I'm being portrayed as making up my own trinitarian theology, and even misleading people... This goes beyond theological differences, and it's an impediment to discussion.

So, how can we resolve this?
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
No but suggesting what is a conventional western formulation and saying it is Unitarian, is. I should remind you the Orthodox do not OWN the church fathers any before the Great Schism belong equally to the Eastern and Western Church.

Jengie
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
I get the trihypostatic thing Andrew but what about your apparent reluctance to use the word "God" of Jesus Christ, (I know about "Lord" and the implication).
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
No reluctance whatsoever, father Gregory... Light from light, true God from true God... Again, people don't say "ah, you are semi-arian"... people say "this is tritheism!".

Jengie, I'm not challenging your personal integrity... I'm most definitely challenging theologies expressed by various churches, but I'm not making an attack against your character.

I want a way out of this impasse, and your suggestions would be most welcome about how to proceed from here.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Please be patient with me. A little way back you said that when people say "God," the Orthodox connect that to the Father. Actually you said "THE God" as if that made a difference. Please explain in relation to the use of this word (with or without "the") to the Son ... and for that matter to the Spirit.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
OK, I'll do as you ask.

Starting from the theology of the Scriptures and the Creed... when we say God, in Greek, most of the time, we mean God the Father. "God, help me!" would be a prayer directed at the person of God the Father.

Of course, there is one God the Father... and He has a Son... And since the Son is God's Son, and not God's creature, He is God. There is no doubt about that. My child would be human...

So, it's true God from true God... or, as Apostle John puts it...

The Word was with God, and the Word was God... like saying my child was with me, and my child was human.

Everything God the Father is, God the Son is as well... incomprehensible, uncreated, infinite, immaterial, etc etc etc

So, it is very proper to say for example "let us worship Christ, our God". No semi-arianism there.

I think it's because God the Father is the cause for the Son and the Spirit that the Scriptures and the Creed calls Him God... and because the Son became man, we call our Lord Christ...

So, in ordinary language, in Greek, when praying to the Father we would use the word "God", and when praying to the Son we would use the word "Christ", or "Lord"... just like in the Scriptures...

Did I reply to the question you posed?
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Thank you for the clarification Andrew. That's helpful ... and, of course, I agree.
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cor ad cor loquitur:
I don’t think you have the slightest interest in ‘dialog’, Andrew. Or if you do, you seem incapable of carrying on anything like a dialogue – for example, trying to understand why someone else might have a different point of view for some reason other than that they are stupid, spiritually blind or uneducated. And you haven’t established, other than by assertion, that there is ‘a difference between how the Scriptures and the Creed address God, and how many address God today’. As so often you have made a statement, pretty much ignored what others have had to say, and declared yourself victorious.

But hope springs eternal, so here is another question for you and for others.

I was struck by something at the end of Mass this morning. The priest blessed us, saying ‘Benedicat vos omnipotens Deus, Pater, et Filius, et Spiritus Sanctus’. In English: ‘May almighty God bless you, the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.’

Especially in the English translation, this seems to be referring to the one God, but not identifying him as the Father.

Am I misreading the liturgy here? Or is this simply more 'evidence' that Catholicism is unitarian?

Yes I'd say it was more evidence. As I said coming into this, I don't really know the arguments here, but what I've found in exploring it is this and so find myself agreeing with Andrew - not because he quotes the 'fathers' but because his is the doctrine I've grown up with and the base of Orthodox thinking about and relationship to God.

Exploring this further here I think the view you have as RCC/Protestant appears to be from taking the creed to be a definition of God, so you've ended up with One God who is the Father and Son and Holy Ghost as you say above, perhaps from "hear o Israel", but the creed doesn't say this, it says One God the Father, full stop, and it doesn't say this because the creed has nothing at all to do with defining God but everything to do with describing Christ's relationship to God. These are two different contexts.

If you think this defines One God, then I can see how you could end up dissecting each mention of substance, essence, nature as if these are somehow telling you something about this one God that you're supposed to believe. But, if you see it in context of the reason for its existence then its simply a clarification of Christology, and the use of these words simple descriptions of kind. This is what is important here - why and how we understand Christ to be for us as God and mankind. This is statement of our faith - not in One God, that's a given, but in Christ.

I'm surprised any Orthodox could argue that this is a description of One God, (since we never teach God can be described, let alone defined.. [Smile] ), but for the Orthodox God is always personal, never an abstact concept or simple or "essence" or whatever the phrase of the theology or philosophy of the day.

In the Creed there is no reference to One God apart from One God the Father - because this is Christ's relationship we have as our faith. I suppose this is like some of the other doctrine changes I find between us, but however long you've had it that the Creed means this, we haven't, we agree with Andrew.

How else can Orthodox teaching on the incarnation make sense? Why we understand the Mother of God the way we do? OK let me expand on that, not as the RCC have her as different from us or as some have it any virgin will do for God to implant himself in a womb, but fully as we are - because for us the key to understanding Christ is as in the Creed, that from Her He got his full humanity, from the woman that she was as created creature like us. God the uncreated entered into creation fully.

What I see lacking in the understanding of that event from the One God definition thinkers is the cosmic view we have of God in the uncreated and created which precedes the explanation of our faith, seeming to have excluded Mary the Mother of God as having any significance in the Creed and as elaborated on in Chalcedon by not understanding Her importance in relation to Christ obtaining a fully human nature.


Myrrh
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Myrhh, you start off well enough, but please don't make suppositions about Western belief as regards the Theotokos and her role in Christology. I don't understand how you can say that RC and protestant Christians don't appreciate that it was from the BVM that the human nature was taken fully into the Incarnate Word, being one Christ who is both fully divine and fully human. This is most certainly our faith! What are you trying to say?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Father Gregory

I would be really surprised if we didn't agree...

Now, let's get to there actually being three persons and how's that received by the non-Orthodox theologies. Because I know I'm not making things up.... what I am saying I got from the fathers and the worship of the Orthodox Church...

Myrrh

That's helpful, thanks!

LSK

In my view, the mistake is to either see Mary as a vessel for Christ to come, a tube that brought something of great importance, if you like, or see her as a very important person but because God made her that...

For the Orthodox Mary is very important because of her personal choices... She grew into justice and sanctity by her own free will... And God responded to that with the Incarnation. "And the King shall desire your beauty".
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Andrew

Following on your invitation ...

I think that the greatest weakness of subsequent western trinitarian theology is that it denied ANY hypostatic differentiations and personal ontologies beyond the eternal generation and spiration which allegedly THEMSELVES fully accounted for the hypostases. So, the Father and the Son become the Father-Son relation, the Father and the Spirit become the Father-Spirit relation and the Son and the Spirit become the Son-Spirit relation. Integrate these component relations and you have the hypostases as simply the modal relations of an abstracted a priori unity.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
That's my evaluation as well....

A couple of years ago, I was very surprised to read Aquinas confusing between ways of existence and the persons themselves... I thought, this can't be... This can have huge consequences for those following that theology...

In my view, in very practical terms, this means that today we have people accepting nominally all the ancient formulas, like calling the three divine persons persons... BECAUSE they can't deny the ancient words (since that would mean to overthrow the entire church teachings on the matter)... BUT in practice the power of the words, the meaning of the words, is denied, changed to something else, less offending to our sensitivities about what's orthodox and what isn't...

In other words, you won't find anyone denying formally that there are three divine persons, but a lot of people's worship (coming from a non-Orthodox context, or not being properly catechized about these things) actually leads to that effect... despite formal assurances for the opposite.

Would you agree with this evaluation?

[ 24. November 2008, 07:06: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Absolutely. That was my experience in Anglicanism. Of course all the usual formulae were there ... "Glory to the Father and to the Son and to the Holy Spirit ...." but when you moved away from chapel and got down to what people really thought of the Trinity and christology it was usually (and quite generally, not exceptionally) a mish mash of neo-Nestorianism, modalism, unitarianism etc. These folks continued to worship (for the most part) in traditional ways but their personal beliefs seemed to bear hardly any relation to that. What made this possible I think was the basic assumption that "God" or "Lord" should generally be used in prayers as touching upon God" (tautologous really) but praying to the Son and Spirit as God seemed to be "taking things a bit too far."
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, Western theology absolutely emphasises the crucial importance of Mary's free choice to respond to God's call, such that by her free will she became the Mother of God. Now, the dogma of the IC may muddle this free choice for you, I don't know. I don't want to get into the IC at this point, but the thing to be emphasised is that Mary's active role in the Incarnation is absolutely crucial for theologically orthodox Western Christians.

Fr Gregory, you are relating the same badly catechesised laity who have modalist, quasi-unitarian ideas that we talked about earlier, even though these laity attend churches in which the traditional trinitarian worship takes place. Spending my time in advanced A-C places with a lot of theologically minded pedants, I don't suppose I run onto that much personally amongst my own co-religionists. That's only significant in that it means that Western Christians don't have to have heterodox ideas about God and Christology within their own traditions.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
Andrew and Father Gregory, I think the problem is that the monotheism of a three divine persons doctrine is not a thing that is readily grasped. Coming to even a faint appreciation of it is difficult though the attempt is more than worthwhile - even if like me you find you can only take a few baby steps in the right direction.

Even after you get started, it is not clear (well, it's not to me) what's going on when you try to pray to the Father or to the Son or to the Holy Spirit as God. How does the Divine Unity operate in such circumstances? Yet we can't pray to a nature. Prayer is relational and requires personhood. Different people might take different approaches. One person might say that praying to the Father following the example of and trusting in the mediation of the Son by the power of the Holy Spirit is the normal way of Trinitarian prayer. Another might address all prayers to the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. Another might pray to Jesus alone as the mediator between God and humans. Another might pray to God meaning the Persons of the Trinity collectively. And so on... I don't think any of these could be condemned as heretical.

I don't often pray to the Holy Spirit exclusively. This is because I understand the Holy Spirit to be hidden in a way the Father and the Son are not, and if that's heretical you can blame Lossky [Biased] and not Anglican teaching. Primarily then I pray to the Father or to the Son as seems appropriate but there are times when I try to leave the choice of addressee up to the Persons of the Trinity itself.

If Orthodoxy has an answer to the question "Why, in any given circumstances, should I pray to one specific Person and not the other Two" I'd be interested to hear it. It's a lack of answers to this question that results in the problems you've observed. Or perhaps it's that the most compelling answers Anglicans encounter are the example of Christ in praying to the Father and the "to the Father with the Son in the Spirit" way of speaking and so prayer to the Father seems more natural. Poor catechism, true reflection of the doctrine of the Father as Source or the result of holy mystery? I don't know.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

I didn't speak about her "yes" to the Archangel. I spoke about what led to God sending the Archangel in the first place... She was asked to become the Mother of God because of who she was, because of the course her entire life had taken, because of all the choices she made, starting from her retaining our baby innocence, to growing in reverence of God, sanctity, justice, love, humility... and all the virtues...

It's because of the choices she had been taking that God "desired her beauty"... But anyway. Let's get back to the Trinity.

By the way, it's not just ordinary lay-persons we are talking about here. Perhaps you didn't notice, but the name of Thomas Aquinas has been mentioned... It's about non-Orthodox Western theology... as opposed to it simply being a matter of discipline to that theology...

By all means, let's discuss why you think I'm being tritheistic (if that's what you think) and what this means about our respective traditions...

I think it's important that we resolved that theological issue... there are more issues to be resolved... for example what the Incarnation means and who Christ is... I suspect there is a whole bag of disagreements concerning Christ's wills... But that discussion can only take place much later...

Let's establish first some mutual trust... and then let's discuss about how our churches view trinitarian theology...

ETA: I'm expecting comments from the others who participated in this thread, of course.... Cross-posted with GreyFace...

[ 24. November 2008, 11:09: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Couple more thoughts -- what we don't want to offend against is the monotheistic principle and true monotheism. The doctrine and mystery of the Trinity walks a very fine line between the heresies of unitarianism on the one hand and polytheism on the other.

Regarding Mary's free choice as this is understood in the West, in recent history this is underscored by a movement that sees the Theotokos as "Co-Redemptorix", something that might be an innovation to the faith of the Church if it were ever formally dogmatised, but which in sentiment very much emphasises Mary's free and active role - the free and active role of her humanity - in the Incarnation. I also don't think that talk of Mary being God's chosen vessel negates this, as the omniscient God knows from eternity how Mary will respond to this unique calling. The IC would seem to throw this out of balance, however. It emphasises predestination over free will, arguably. IMO, the Western appreciation of Mary's free will and the dogma of the IC haven't been adequately reconciled, or if they have, I'm unaware of the arguments. The IC historically, however, was supposed to have been a Christological doctrine rather than primarily a Marian one.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Even after you get started, it is not clear (well, it's not to me) what's going on when you try to pray to the Father or to the Son or to the Holy Spirit as God. How does the Divine Unity operate in such circumstances?

First of all, what divine unity???

Secondly, let's say you were alive during Jesus' times and you came to meet the Master. And you wanted to ask Him to do something. Wouldn't you ask Him in a direct and personal way? Would you pose all those questions about that "Divine Unity"?

If you would, then what prevents you from doing that now? He is present mystically.


quote:
I don't often pray to the Holy Spirit exclusively. This is because I understand the Holy Spirit to be hidden in a way the Father and the Son are not, and if that's heretical you can blame Lossky [Biased] and not Anglican teaching.
Don't trust academic theologians [Biased]

Seriously now, in the Orthodox worship, one of the most beautiful prayers is directed at the Holy Spirit: "Heavenly King, Comforter, the Spirit of Truth..."


quote:
Primarily then I pray to the Father or to the Son as seems appropriate but there are times when I try to leave the choice of addressee up to the Persons of the Trinity itself.

If Orthodoxy has an answer to the question "Why, in any given circumstances, should I pray to one specific Person and not the other Two" I'd be interested to hear it.

First of all, don't you see that it's a bit strange to pray "to whoever might be hearing"? Prayer is not supposed to be about me speaking in the air, in case someone hears. It can be that, but it can also be the place where the meeting between God and man takes place... So, for the meeting to take place, we can't have the unclarity of "I'll leave it to them" get in the way of direct communion with God!

quote:
Or perhaps it's that the most compelling answers Anglicans encounter are the example of Christ in praying to the Father and the "to the Father with the Son in the Spirit" way of speaking and so prayer to the Father seems more natural. Poor catechism, true reflection of the doctrine of the Father as Source or the result of holy mystery? I don't know.
This is NOT what I objected to. By all means, pray to God through Christ in the Holy Spirit! My objection had to do with praying to this He, that is somehow both the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit... There is no other "He" than the three "He", the "He" of the Father, the "He" of the Son, the "He" of the Holy Spirit. They are three persons and there isn't an ultra-personal "He" that encompasses them all, or somehow is three-in-one...

I'll leave it to Father Gregory to give a better reply to your questions, GreyFace... I know this post might be a bit boring... but I thought I'd give it a try.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Greyface (cross posted with Andrew)

This is helpful * - Andrew has addressed some of my concerns also - (even if it does not yet address the collapse of the hypostases into "their" relations. I put their in inverted commas because if this were true (sic) the hypostases would not have any personal ontologies, merely relations! How can you relate to something that doesn't actually exist once you have said that the existence IS the relation?!

Concerning the Spirit and Lossky. The humility of the Spirit is that his work is to transform us into little-Christs. This does not involve any rarity of invocation. Each every act of Orthodox worship begins with His invocation ...

"O Heavenly King the Comforter, the Spirit of Truth; you are everywhere present and fill all things, Treasury of blessings and Giver of Life. Come and dwell in us and cleanse us from every stain and save our souls O Good One."

[ 24. November 2008, 11:32: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
First of all, what divine unity???

The unity they have as a result of the divine nature. Don't read too much into the U word. I'm not confounding the persons, I'm just using English.

quote:
Secondly, let's say you were alive during Jesus' times and you came to meet the Master. And you wanted to ask Him to do something. Wouldn't you ask Him in a direct and personal way? Would you pose all those questions about that "Divine Unity"?
If you would, then what prevents you from doing that now? He is present mystically.

I agree but that doesn't answer the question of when it's appropriate to ask Jesus, when to ask the Father and when to ask the Spirit, does it?

quote:
First of all, don't you see that it's a bit strange to pray "to whoever might be hearing"?
Yes but that's not quite what I meant.

Put yourself in the shoes of a patient who goes to see a team of three doctors. He describes his symptoms and asks for help, and communicates with whomever chooses to speak to him. Is that an invalid or rude form of communication? And I consider the union (again, please be charitable, this is not theologically precise language) of Divine Persons to be of a different order to that of three random doctors.

quote:
Prayer is not supposed to be about me speaking in the air, in case someone hears. It can be that, but it can also be the place where the meeting between God and man takes place... So, for the meeting to take place, we can't have the unclarity of "I'll leave it to them" get in the way of direct communion with God!
When you speak of God here, which Person do you mean? That's the question to which I'm referring. So it seems legitimate to address the Holy Trinity collectively open to the possibility that each of the Divine Persons may do as he pleases in response. See what I mean?

quote:
This is NOT what I objected to. By all means, pray to God through Christ in the Holy Spirit! My objection had to do with praying to this He, that is somehow both the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit...
Ah, in that case I quite agree. I have encountered people who confuse the Holy Trinity with a Divine Person, just as I've encountered people who refer to the Holy Spirit as "it." It's not orthodox Anglicanism though in the slightest. And when one encounters it in a sermon, at least it's a good indicator that one's time might be better spent mentally rehearsing the next hymn than listening to the rest of it [Razz]

quote:
I thought I'd give it a try.
Much appreciated.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
GF

I think it's important to stress that addressing one person doesn't mean the other two aren't present mystically and that communion doesn't take place between man and them... "We will come to dwell in those that keep my commandments"...

When I approach God, I do so only because Christ taught me and revealed God to me, and only because the Holy Spirit enlightens me to do so...

When I approach Christ, I do it because He is God's Messiah, coming to the world to save us, and I recognize Him as the Messiah and the Lord because of the Holy Spirit...

When I approach the Holy Spirit, I do that only because Christ sent Him to me, so that we can worship the Father "in Spirit and in Truth"...

When you approach One, you are not separated from the other Two...

That said...

I have one question:

What do you mean by there being three divine persons and how's that monotheism and not tritheism for you?

[ 24. November 2008, 12:11: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by cor ad cor loquitur (# 11816) on :
 
I wonder if one way to progress this discussion might be to compare passages from the principal liturgies of both ‘western’ and ‘eastern’ churches to see how they speak of the Trinity.

For a ‘western’ source I would suggest the Roman Missal simply because it has been through a fairly rigorous theological vetting by various groups in the Vatican. The Anglican liturgies seem more diverse – for example, I have heard the following at the beginning of an Anglican eucharist:
quote:
Priest: Blessed be God: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.
People: And blessed be his kingdom, now and forever

which some interpret as modalist. I am guessing that the compilers of this Anglican liturgy were drawing from the opening words of the Divine Liturgy:
quote:
Eυλογημένη η Βασιλεία του Πατρός και του Υιού και του Αγίου Πνεύματος, νυν και αεί και εις τους αιώνας των αιώνων.
usually translated
quote:
Blessed is the kingdom of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, now and for ever and from all ages to all ages.
which is very different.

To turn to the Roman Missal, what about this prayer:
quote:
Súscipe, sancta Trínitas, hanc oblatiónem, quam tibi offérimus ob memóriam passiónis, resurrectiónis, et ascensiónis Iesu Christi, Dómini nostri, et in honórem beátæ Maríæ semper Vírginis, et beáti Ioánnis Baptístæ, et sanctórum Apostolórum Petri et Páuli, et istórum, et ómnium sanctórum: ut illis profíciat ad honórem, nobis autem ad salútem: et illi pro nobis intercédere dignéntur in cælis, quorum memóriam ágimus in terris. Per eúndem Christum Dóminum nostrum. Amen.
In English:
quote:
Accept, holy Trinity, this offering which we make to you in remembrance of the passion, resurrection and ascension of our Lord Jesus Christ, and in honour of blessed Mary ever Virgin, of blessed John the Baptist, of the holy Apostles Peter and Paul, of those whose relics rest here, and of all the Saints. To them may it bring honour, and to us salvation; and may they, whose memory we keep on earth, be pleased to intercede for us in heaven. Through the same Christ our Lord. Amen.
How does addressing the Trinity in this way come across to Orthodox ears? A Catholic commentator on the above prayer says: "This beautiful prayer ... reminds us firstly that all our worship is offered to the One God, who is a Trinity of Persons: Father, Son and Holy Spirit."

[ 24. November 2008, 12:24: Message edited by: cor ad cor loquitur ]
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Myrhh, you start off well enough, but please don't make suppositions about Western belief as regards the Theotokos and her role in Christology. I don't understand how you can say that RC and protestant Christians don't appreciate that it was from the BVM that the human nature was taken fully into the Incarnate Word, being one Christ who is both fully divine and fully human. This is most certainly our faith! What are you trying to say?

I'm trying to say that extra doctrine about Mary alters perception of the Creed, as the OneGod definition does.

The RCC have Mary as a special creation different from us because without Original Sin, other Protestants have her only as a virginal vessel for a convenient entry of God into the world and so on, (the divine person entering), and these things change the perception of what we see the Creed attesting and so complicating it beyond its brief.

These elaborations of doctrine imposed on the Creed detract from the simple profundity of its statement about Mary, which is cosmic. The uncreated God entered created humanity (and so all creation, inextricably bound Himself into creation) incarnate of Her human body and person, from the whole of it which was just as we are - so that's why she's so special for us. Why we say she's the bridge between God the uncreated and mankind the created, Herself the ladder by which God descended into creation. In some Unburnt Bush icons shown holding the ladder (which Jacob saw).

It's this tendency to impose other doctrine which creates the confusion, I've seen arguments about the use of 'by' and 'of' in the Creed which are even more complicated than the arguments here about whether essence and nature are the same or different.

We need to keep this simple or we miss the profound message of our faith, to put aside for a moment any doctrines we may have about Mary in the reasons for Christ's incarnation such as saving us from OS damnation or to be the perfect blood sacrifice for our sins and take it back to the beginning, that we're the "created" in the image and likeness of God the "uncreated" and take our understanding of Mary in the Creed from there; of Her in the nature of mankind already created the bridge between the uncreated God and the rest of creation.

Is all the Creed is saying about Her.

Myrrh


(Theotokos the Unburnt Bush Icon)
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Cor ad Cor Loquitur

Comparing liturgical doxologies and the like is an excellent way forward.

I do think that the Anglican formula is modalist or at least it can be more easily read that way.

As to the missal ...

I am racking my brains to try and remember if I have ever come across the word "Trinity" in any service of the Orthodox Church. I don't think I have. Invariably we invoke or praise in full, that is "THE Father, THE Son and THE Holy Spirit." Mashing it together as Trinity (which after all is only a convenient shorthand) carries within it the danger of not being clear how one is praying. It's not a HUGE issue for me (in the particular sense here of finding the Roman form defective) but I DEFINITELY prefer in worship to stick to the accuracy of the ancient forms ...

(1) The ordered precedence of prayer to the Father, through the Son and in the Spirit.
AND / OR
(2) Prayer to each hypostases separately or together, (separately assumes together anyway).

But "Trinity"? No I don't think so. It's not really very trinitarian! [Biased]

[ 24. November 2008, 13:18: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
I've never understood the opening trinitarian invocation for the Eucharistic orders in the American 1979 BCP as modalist! Blessed be the Three Persons of The Triity in One God. That's what it's saying -- inferring modalism is just perverse!

[ 24. November 2008, 13:27: Message edited by: Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
But Lietuvos ... that is different from what Cor ad Cor Loquitur quoted.

I have remembered one reference to "Trinity" ... in Justinian's hymn in the Liturgy ... referring to the Logos as "one of the Holy Trinity" but that is a simple descriptive statement not an invocation.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Right, I'm telling you my understanding of "Blessed be God: Father, Son and Holy Spirit. And blessed be His kingdom, now and forever." If there's modalism there, it's inferred and quite apart from what a properly catechesised American Anglican should think when she/he hears and says this versicle and response at the opening of a Eucharist. One God, Three Divine Persons. The Trinity in Unity and the Unity in Trinity. One substance, three persons.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Dear cor ad cor loquitur

I'm not going to disagree over words. Please, explain what you mean by those words, and I will give you my view on that.

As for calling upon the Trinity I wouldn't have a particular problem per se, but it would be the three divine persons together I would bring in mind, or, like father Gregory put it:

quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Mashing it together as Trinity (which after all is only a convenient shorthand)

So, I can accept it as a convenient shorthand... What do you mean by that word? Because viewing that Trinity as a personal "He" is problematic and not Orthodox!

LSK

But what do you mean by "one substance three persons" if you don't use the word substance as in the phrase "one substance, 6+ billion persons" (with regards to humanity).

Same question I asked GreyFace:

What do you mean by there being three divine persons and how's that monotheism and not tritheism for you?
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Thank you for the clarification Lietuvos. I only said that it COULD be read in a modalist fashion as constructed but I am pleased to hear that with properly catechised persons it is not.

There is one more reference liturgically in Orthodoxy to "Trinity" and I am grateful to Mary for pointing this out. It goes before the Creed ... note again though that it is declaratory and not a direct response to God in prayer.

quote:
"Let us love one another, that with one accord we may confess:
"Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, the Trinity, one in Essence and undivided."



[ 24. November 2008, 14:29: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
And what's even more interesting is the lack of a definite article in the original ancient Greek text... So it's more like "a trinity", rather than "the Trinity"...
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Really Andrew? Now that is interesting!

The relative avoidance of the word "Trinity" in our liturgical texts could be because we insist on God as encountered ... explicitly by each hypostasis in his own right and as a communion of persons according to the measured and received biblical formulae. One of St. Basil's arguments for the divinity of the Spirit of course was derived from the hallowed liturgical doxology. It's how we encounter God not how we "put him together."
 
Posted by cor ad cor loquitur (# 11816) on :
 
Andrew, we are condemned to using words in a debate like this. And it is perfectly fine to disagree.

Fr Gregory, I have come across a few more references to the Trinity. I am on shakier ground here, because my Greek was Attic, never as strong as my Latin, and what little I have left is very rusty. But it sure looks as though there are some definite articles here.

Of course “Τριάς” means “three”, and perhaps the sense Andrew alludes to comes through if you substitute “three” for “Trinity” in what follows – the Holy Three.

quote:
Η Αγία Τριάς διαφυλάξει τον λαόν Αυτής εν ειρήνη, πάντοτε, νυν και αεί, και εις τους αιώνας των αιώνων.

May the Holy Trinity preserve the people in peace always, now and for ever and from all ages to all ages.

Οι τα Χερουβείμ μυστικώς εικονίζοντες, και τη ζωοποιώ Τριάδι τον τρισάγιον ύμνον προσάδοντες, πάσαν νυν βιοτικήν αποθώμεθα μέριμναν.

Let us who mystically represent the Cherubim and chant the thrice-holy [Trisagion] hymn to the life-giving Trinity, now lay aside all earthly care.

Είδομεν το φως το αληθινόν, ελάβομεν Πνεύμα επουράνιον, εύρομεν πίστιν αληθή, αδιαίρετον Τριάδα προσκυνούντες, αύτη γαρ ημάς έσωσεν.

We have seen the true Light; we have received the heavenly Spirit; we have found the true faith. We worship the undivided Trinity: for the same has saved us.

I have put that last phrase in boldface because the Trinity appears to be the subject of a verb – or is it a participle? And what is the number (singular or plural) of έσωσεν? Like the old grey goose, my grammar ain’t what it used to be…
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I have spoken about it earlier... The Trinity (like the Parliament) in Greek is of the feminine gender, a she. If I say "the Parliament votes for this law", I will be using the feminine gender, in the singular, like I will do if I say "the Trinity saved us".

Which is why the Greek text you provided us with reads: "because she saved us". We don't refer to an ultra-personal female figure!

Thank God that in Greek the trinity is a she, because if it was a he, then you wouldn't even believe me if I said that we didn't use that in a personal way, but only as a shorthand!

"The Parliament voted" does not mean that there exists an entity other than the collection of the entities that are the members of the Parliament... It's not another "He" than the "He" of the members of the parliament!
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Thanks for this cor ad cor loquitur. I guess I was looking for direct invocations and doxologies and overlooked the rest. You are quite right. It is not as if it is a "smelly" word for us ... quite the opposite! I think it's just that we tend not to use it as a composite word in prayer.

[ 24. November 2008, 16:40: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
And what's even more interesting is the lack of a definite article in the original ancient Greek text... So it's more like "a trinity", rather than "the Trinity"...

Latin doesn't have articles at all, so that's really a non-sequitur. If you asked St. Peter's pastorate in Rome to make that distinction, they couldn't, because it would be beyond the capabilities of the their language to do so.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
No, but for a language that did have articles would the omission be significant ... here particularly being the case. A bit conjectural I know but my Greek isn't good enough to know.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Three points [ETA] & one question:

First of all, when we are discussing ancient texts, we should understand what they are really saying, even if this means that we have to understand how the language in which the text was written works... with all the nuances... The absence of the article in that verse matters, as does the absence of the article in John's prologue (and the Word was God).

Second, it's not about words... but about the meanings of the words. We can use the same words and mean different things... Agreement or disagreement does not depend on the words we use, but on the meanings we give to the words.

Third, it is quite possible to have the Orthodox faith in Latin, or in English. Father Gregory is an example of that... You can read John's prologue, for example, and understand it in an Orthodox way, if you are a bearer of Orthodox theology... You don't have to know the nuances of the ancient Greek language to be Orthodox. The Latin speaking fathers like Ambrose or Hillary are quite revealing... Just look at the way Hillary spoke of the Trinity. Impressive. 100% Orthodox. Not only I don't find Hillary problematic, but I find him very refreshing, like all authentic Saints.

[ETA] Question: What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons, and why this isn't tritheism to you?

Father Gregory, by the way, you are quite right about the observation. The absence of article in that particular verse just demonstrated the point you made on the term being declaratory in intent.

[ 24. November 2008, 16:51: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
I blame the media:

Hillary spoke of the Trinity.

Would that she had!

I know, you were referring to St. Hilary of Poitiers, but I couldn't help saying this.

You've been very kind to the posters in here, lately, Andrew, and your post where you compared your views to Fr. Gregory's had extraordinary clarity, so much so that I can say I agree with it.

It's all in the terms we use.

I do worry just a bit still about this constant referral to the Greek. You've asked us to use "simple words" in our own language, but our own language, not to mention our education, seem to be inadequate just about every time we try.

Is there any point in trying to be Orthodox if one doesn't know Greek thoroughly?

[ 24. November 2008, 17:13: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
I also see clearly, Andrew, that you credit Fr. Gregory with an adequate understanding of Orthodox theology. Very good.

quote:
Father Gregory, by the way, you are quite right about the observation. The absence of article in that particular verse just demonstrated the point you made on the term being declaratory in intent.

Then, what about the prayer that closes the Trisagion:

"O all-holy Trinity, have mercy upon us."

Now, I don't have a Greek liturgy book here, but I'm quite sure that the adjectival "all-holy" would agree with the noun Trinity (triada). I even know that word. What I would like to know is whether that direct invocation of the Trinity is all right to pray or not? Does it sound unitarian to you?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
The question is simple Mary. What do you mean by saying there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you.

Discussion only goes to Greek if someone asserts that he is of the same faith with the Greek-speaking fathers of the Scriptures, the ecumenical councils, and the Creed. To examine whether someone accepts the first and the second ecumenical councils, we can't take one's word for it. We have to compare what one says with what those Greek speaking fathers actually taught.

ETA: Cross-posted... I see you are still evading. That's a pity. You aren't taking into account anything I or father Gregory said about what the word trinity means and how it's used.

[ 24. November 2008, 17:31: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, that strikes me as non-responsive. Mary asked a question. Why don't you answer it clearly instead of with riddles.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I have answered that question a few posts ago.

The Greek prayer to which LM pointed speaks about the trinity, in Greek, in the feminine grammatical gender, in singular, as we would speak of let's say the Parliament.

See my posts here, and here.

I ask again: What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you.

[ 24. November 2008, 17:43: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Yes I am taking it into account, and I do believe it. I am just not trying to find English words that will suit you, that's all.

Father Gregory said:


quote:
I think that the greatest weakness of subsequent western trinitarian theology is that it denied ANY hypostatic differentiations and personal ontologies beyond the eternal generation and spiration which allegedly THEMSELVES fully accounted for the hypostases. So, the Father and the Son become the Father-Son relation, the Father and the Spirit become the Father-Spirit relation and the Son and the Spirit become the Son-Spirit relation. Integrate these component relations and you have the hypostases as simply the modal relations of an abstracted a priori unity.
I agree with every single word of that, and I have publicly renounced every single error that Fr. Gregory enumerates there. Lietuvos and Cor have also averred that they too believe what Fr. Gregory says. So despite your insistent denials, we all do have common ground here. Please do not paint everyone from "the west" with that same tar-brush of "amorphous Trinity". There is nothing amorphous about our belief there. We just don't claim to have the total understanding of the Trinity the way you do, but that comes from our humility, rather than from our lack of education.

Unfortunately, in the translation used by most Orthodox English-speaking churches in the U.S., the "Hapgood Translation", p. 120, gives one of the dismissal hymns this way:

"We have beheld the true Light; we have received the heavenly Spirit; we have found the true Faith. Let us bow down in worship to the Trinity Undivided, for He )(my italics) hath saved us."

I know, only because Cor gave a quote of this lovely hymn, that the actual pronoun used means "the same", not "He". That is to say, the pronoun refers to "Trinity".

Mary
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?

You can speak about all the hymns you like. I don't mind. The word used in that prayer is "she". The Trinity. She. The Parliament. She. Get it?

I don't mind explaining all the examples you like. I won't forget my question to you though. What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Yes, Sir, I GET IT! I posted the prayer to show you that even a great saint, St. Tikhon who blessed and okayed Isabelle Hapgood's translation, didn't seem to mind that she had put a "He" where you demand a "She". That "He" that Hapgood used came only from common English usage, and from the fact that calling the Trinity "She" in English would fall on English-speaking ears, at least in the 1920s, as wrong. In this day and age, of course, the theological modernism and relativism that is so unpopular and unorthodox would just love it if you changed the translation to read "She".

As to what I believe about the Holy Trinity, I believe the same that the Orthodox Church has always believed, and I do not have to articulate in in words.

Your post is not fair to those of us who are reticent about declaring the truths of the Orthodox Church in our own unworthy words. We are not theologians. We are not seminary graduates.

Let those declarations be made by Fr. Gregory, and we will assent to them, unless the highly unlikely event occurs in which Fr. Gregory's thought is judged by a higher authority than that of a Greek layman, to be in error.

Mary

[ 24. November 2008, 18:06: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I don't know why you (pl) seem not to be taking into account my posts...

For example, I explain how the trinity is called "she", and what that means, and I draw a parallel with the Greek word for "Parliament"... and then LSK says I didn't address LM's concern...

I say that I have no problem with addressing the Trinity as "Trinity" WITH THE QUALIFICATION that we bear in mind it's a shorthand and nothing more, and LM says "here's a hymn that does what you say we shouldn't do!"

Or, now, I said the language used doesn't matter as long as the understanding is Orthodox... and LM says something like "but St. Tikhon okayed a "he"...

That said...

I want to address another issue... These things being "difficult"...

If you read the history of the controversies you will find out that the entire Christian population of the Kingdom was involved... You went to the bakery and people started to argue about these things. It was not an issue of academics and philosophers, but of ordinary people, because these things are NOT supposed to be difficult.

Ordinary words were used for the same reason.

The fathers that convened in the councils were not the great philosophers of their times. Some of them were. But many were ordinary people. The Faith is an issue of each one of us. Not a philosophical problem for great thinkers to solve.

The word "person", or that fancy word "hypostases" aren't difficult to understand. I am a person. You are another person. He is another person. Three persons.

Nothing complex there.

So, I re-iterate my question:

What do you (pl.) mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?

[ 24. November 2008, 18:13: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
The reason I seem not to be taking into account your posts, Andrew, is that your posts are too frequently ambiguous and also insulting.

Why should I, who have been a member of the Orthodox Church since 1977, who have affirmed every belief required by the Orthodox Church, submit to an inquisition conducted by you, Andrew? You who have said that the Orthodox Church sucks! You lost all your credibility months ago with that one short sentence, and again and again by your repeated efforts to undermine the witness of your Church and your fellow Orthodox Christians.

How many other Orthodox Christians besides Fr. Gregory, whose herculean effort to help you toward some clarity is greatly appreciated, Myrrh and I have joined in your microscopically analytical discussions? Don't you think there might be a reason for that?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
You must be kidding me...

Again and again you have attacked my character, engaged in mud sliding against me, and tried to imply all sort of things so that you spread all sort of gossip against me, and you are now making this post? You must be joking!
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
Andrew, I have been fighting with you on these boards for several years. The respect you have shown is evident.

If you do not want me on your thread, you have accomplished that, but you have lost an Orthodox Christian. I have never attacked your character, but I do not trust you because of your past behaviour. I trust those who allow me to have a say on these boards, and they are growing fewer and fewer. You have treated one other Orthodox poster on here with supreme rudeness, one who made but one post objecting to your tactics.

You simply cannot tolerate other Orthodox Christians, because they might be right about one or two things. I feel very sorry that you take my posts the way you do, but if there's nothing else you'll do, I will have to leave you completely alone. This was my final try at getting through to you, and you blew it.

Mary
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?

You can speak about all the hymns you like. I don't mind. The word used in that prayer is "she". The Trinity. She. The Parliament. She. Get it?

I don't mind explaining all the examples you like. I won't forget my question to you though. What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?

Actually this is very unclear to me. English does not have grammatical gender in the way that Greek does. Gender in English speech is entirely determined by the subject, and other then determining which form of third-person pronoun (masculine, feminine, or neuter) is used, has no impact on meaning.

"Parliament" is a mass noun. It is a corporate body, which is both plural and singular at the same time. Therefore we say "Parliament is in session right now". Parliament may have multiple parts, but it has one will.

Calling the Trinity "She" is absurd in English. The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit when are addressed as male either individually or collectively. There is nothing female in that group to use a female pronoun for.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
SPK, I understand the fixation on the gender of words in classical languages and the insistence on the agreement of any modifiers attached to the words, but I draw the line at saying that nouns with adjectives agreeing are determinative of Church dogma.

If we did as has been suggested, call the Holy Trinity "She", the Wiccans and the U.S. Feminist theologians would be begging to be chrismated in the Orthodox Church!

Then, some of us would have a real problem. This linguistic hair-splitting is as nothing in comparison to the intolerance, mostly on nationalistic grounds, of some Orthodox Christians for other Orthodox Christians.

A lot of my trouble on these boards, by the way, has come from the accident of birth that made me an American. But these boards are not always a political popularity contest, thank God. Just this one thread, it seems.

Mary [Frown]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
SPK

If in English you are using "He" for bodies, for many persons together, then by all means use "He" for the Trinity. But if you are not doing that, then using it for the Trinity would mean something different other than what the word "trinity" actually means.

By the way, how do you understand "there are three divine persons" and why isn't this tritheism to you?

LM

Nobody said you are not welcome here. I have already attempted that we resolved all it is that you have against me. It's very obvious that you are playing games with the words you are using, implying things against my character and my person, but I don't hold that against you. If you want us to resolve these issues, I'm here for you. We can discuss openly, sincerely, and with respect for each other despite our disagreements.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
You have been flinging unfounded accusations against me, Andrew, ever since you came on these boards. And you know it. And everyone else has seen you do it.

Why are you still doing it, if you want me to feel welcome?

But never mind that. What I would really like to see is you tolerating other people's point of view for one or two posts before you start fighting with them.

That business about the Parliament is another red herring. Just stop with the minutiae and I'll be happy.

And stop requiring me to submit to your evaluation of my Orthodoxy. That is my spiritual father's job, and although you obviously have the ambition to be spiritual father of anyone who enters one of "your" threads, you have no epitrachelion, nor epigonation, unless you are some Greek prelate's way to get on line. If so, tell us who you really are.

It is so very hard to believe that one as young as you can be so sure of supreme proficiency in patristics. You're hardly dry behind the ears yet!

[ 24. November 2008, 19:05: Message edited by: Leetle Masha ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, I think we've already been over the ground of how our conception (speaking for the Western Christians here)of three divine persons is not tritheism. It isn't tritheistic because we believe and confess that these three share a single divine substance, that each is God and that the three persons are in intimate relationshp, mutually interpenetrating and indwelling. The Son is God, of eternal generation from The Father, and the Holy Spirit is God, of eternal spiration from the Father (again leaving aside in what sense the procession of the Spirit involves the agency or being of the Son).

Now, I know that answer doesn't satisfy you because you will want to know what exactly I mean by person.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

your description begs two questions:

What you mean by substance, and

What you mean by person.

So, yeah, I think it's only reasonable that I ask you to explain what you mean by those words. I explained what I mean by them. Your turn. Else the description isn't of much use, is it?

My question was a bit different, however. I started by the common phrase "there are three divine persons", and I asked what you understand this phrase to mean, and then, after you explained that, how, in your view, this isn't tritheism.

That's all I asked.

I explained the answer I give to that question. See for example the dialog here, under Athanasius' name in MIgne's Patrology.

I have been replying to all sort of questions. I think it would be constructive if you (pl.) gave your answer to the one question I posed. I got even more questions back. I answered. I asked my question again. I think it's an important question.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
It's not only an ambiguous question, Lietuvos, it's a loaded question that is being used to evaluate the "Orthodoxy" (small or large O) of anybody and everybody.

Only an ordained Orthodox priest, with the emblems of qualification to hear confessions, can actually do that. So if someone says on this thread that someone else's beliefs are heterodox, we usually depend on the ordained priest to make that judgement.

I have detailed all my beliefs to my spiritual father, and he has pronounced me to be Orthodox. He does not ask such loaded questions, of course, nor does he demand a c.v. as a qualification to discuss the Creed and the Definition of Chalcedon.

I keep hoping these discussions will help us all find some common ground, but I guess the requirements for agreement on this thread are too steep. It's our "education", dontcha know, that stands in our way.

Mary
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Andrew, I'm very reluctant to use specific terms to try to describe the quality and "thingness" of personhood that exists x3 in the Triune God. We are talking about three distinctions, three who are each eternal, three who are each almighty, three who are each God; yet not three gods but one God together. It is the nature of God to be these Three. God is One and God's Substance - God's "existance" - comprises these Three; and each of these three does not exist in isolation, but with the other two persons. In this sense, though God is three persons, God is indivisible. The persons cannot be understood without reference to the one substance - the one reality of Deity - whilst the one reality of Deity cannot be understood properly except in reference to the Three Persons.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
SPK

If in English you are using "He" for bodies, for many persons together, then by all means use "He" for the Trinity. But if you are not doing that, then using it for the Trinity would mean something different other than what the word "trinity" actually means.

By the way, how do you understand "there are three divine persons" and why isn't this tritheism to you?

...

What LSK said about the Three Persons and their mutual indwelling. They share a fundamental threeness and oneness, in that they act together and share a single Divine Will. All three exist simultaneously and act separately, yet in perfect harmony due to their fundamental, overarching "God-ness". The Trinity is not three gods who act in opposition or disharmony to each other.

Anyway, excellent point about language Leetle Masha. Like all English-Canadian school kids, I took French lessons in elementary and high school. The first thing you realize about French is that it has this baffling concept called grammatical gender which has nothing to do strictly with being sexually male or female. As English doesn't work that way, it takes a lot of getting used to.

Question: Why is "my family" considered female in French?
Answer: It just is. Welcome to French.

English has done away with grammatical gender of the kind Andrew is used to in Greek. That's just they way it is.
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
Actually it is far easier to understand. We use "he" rather than "it" for God simply as "it" is slightly coarser. You would not want to imply the Godhead is less than a person now would you. It is a mark of respect and nothing more.


Jengie
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jengie Jon:
Actually it is far easier to understand. We use "he" rather than "it" for God simply as "it" is slightly coarser. You would not want to imply the Godhead is less than a person now would you. It is a mark of respect and nothing more.

I wonder if Andreas gets that? I mean really?

Just to be clear - in English there is no grammatical gender. "He" means male and "She" means female. As simple as that.

However, in English, it is also rude or insulting to refer to a person as "it". (Or indeed anything to which we conventionally attribute personality including animals in general, countries, and sometimes even machines such as moving vehicles and in particular ships - languages are funny like that)

So we are in a bind when talking about God. Either we say "it", which seems rude to us, and also implies that God is not a person - it would be something that a deist or an agnostic might say, but not a Christian or other theist. Or else we choose to use either "he" or "she". Which is more personal but really does contain the misleading implication that we think God is male or female. As you have seem arguments about.

But there really is no choice that works out for everybody.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
See my comment to that, in reply to SPK, here.

[ 24. November 2008, 21:40: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Let's all get together VERY CLOSE, earlobe touching earlobe and .....

>

>

>

bang our heads together.

By the authority committed to my office (not to my person) ...

Love one another and LISTEN (no one excepted and including me).

I am not trying to be a Host BUT IN THE NAME OF GOD,

ENOUGH! [Votive]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
This was my answer to Andrew's question.

I thought it was the sort of answer he wanted, because he had said that the answer lay in the Fathers.

If he wanted more, I cannot give more, because I am not capable of defining dogma for the Orthodox Church.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
Very sensible, Father. [Overused]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
SPK

If in English you are using "He" for bodies, for many persons together, then by all means use "He" for the Trinity. But if you are not doing that, then using it for the Trinity would mean something different other than what the word "trinity" actually means.

By the way, how do you understand "there are three divine persons" and why isn't this tritheism to you?

...

What LSK said about the Three Persons and their mutual indwelling. They share a fundamental threeness and oneness, in that they act together and share a single Divine Will. All three exist simultaneously and act separately, yet in perfect harmony due to their fundamental, overarching "God-ness". The Trinity is not three gods who act in opposition or disharmony to each other.

Thanks for your post SPK, you express this better than I did.

[Overused]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
What LSK said about the Three Persons and their mutual indwelling. They share a fundamental threeness and oneness, in that they act together and share a single Divine Will. All three exist simultaneously and act separately, yet in perfect harmony due to their fundamental, overarching "God-ness". The Trinity is not three gods who act in opposition or disharmony to each other.

I don't think that there's any overarching 'God-ness' in the Trinity. There's nothing more to the Trinity than the three persons. But each person is such that they are necessarily part of the Trinity. There is no conceptual space in which we can imagine the Father as not Father of the Son.

(If you don't think these things through then Aquinas' distinction between persons as independent substances and persons as relations looks like it's downgrading the reality of person. But Aquinas always has in mind the super-eminent reality of God. The problem with the Orthodox account as it is being expounded on these boards is that it looks as if the words 'three' and 'person' are being used univocally for three human persons, three martian persons, three angelic persons, and three divine persons. As if we could understand the three persons of the blessed Trinity as material contingent beings as we are.)

A question for the orthodox here:
are the persons of the Trinity part of the essence of God or part of the activity (=energies) of God. If they're only part of the activities of God, then you would appear to have modalism. If they're part of the unknowable essence, then how can we know that they are three and not one? After all Father Gregory says that we can experience them, and we can't experience the essence of God.
Probably I'm misunderstanding the essence/energy distinction, but I would like to know how.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Dafyd

In trinitarian theology 1+1+1 does NOT = 3. Are there 3 "1's" (hypostases)? Yes there are. Together, are there 3 Gods? No there are not. Are the persons personal? Yes they are. Are the 3 persons individuals? No they are not.

You simply cannot use counting and atomism to characterise the tripersonal unity. Moreover the energies of God are not activities or actions. The energies of God are God tripersonally US-WARD. The essence of God is God tripersonally GOD-WARD. Manifested and Unmanifested correlate respectively. What applies to one (the essence) applies to the other (the energies) and vice versa but ALWAYS under the schema that I have already presented, (back to the top, as they say on a web page).

PS ... your exoneration of Aquinas is meaningless ... literally without meaning.

[ 25. November 2008, 00:53: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by cor ad cor loquitur:
quote:
Accept, holy Trinity, this offering which we make to you in remembrance of the passion, resurrection and ascension of our Lord Jesus Christ, and in honour of blessed Mary ever Virgin, of blessed John the Baptist, of the holy Apostles Peter and Paul, of those whose relics rest here, and of all the Saints. To them may it bring honour, and to us salvation; and may they, whose memory we keep on earth, be pleased to intercede for us in heaven. Through the same Christ our Lord. Amen.
How does addressing the Trinity in this way come across to Orthodox ears? A Catholic commentator on the above prayer says: "This beautiful prayer ... reminds us firstly that all our worship is offered to the One God, who is a Trinity of Persons: Father, Son and Holy Spirit."
One thing: This might go either way. I don't know how old this prayer is, but 'you' is both plural and singular. (But it used to be 'thee' in singular.) And if we go further; 'your' is (originally) only plural and not singular. Traditionally, singular 'your' is 'thy.' So that prayer might not say much in this regard.
 
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
You can speak about all the hymns you like. I don't mind. The word used in that prayer is "she". The Trinity. She. The Parliament. She. Get it?

No. Because that only shifts the problem. Why is it problematic to speak of a "personal God-He" (whatever that's supposed to mean), but not problematic to speak about a "personal God-She"?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
In trinitarian theology 1+1+1 does NOT = 3. Are there 3 "1's" (hypostases)? Yes there are. Together, are there 3 Gods? No there are not. Are the persons personal? Yes they are. Are the 3 persons individuals? No they are not.

We agree on this bit certainly.

quote:
You simply cannot use counting and atomism to characterise the tripersonal unity. Moreover the energies of God are not activities or actions. The energies of God are God tripersonally US-WARD.
This is an action or so it so it seems to me.

quote:
The essence of God is God tripersonally GOD-WARD.
This was probably the bit I was missing. I'd got the impression that absolutely nothing could be said about the essence.

quote:
PS ... your exoneration of Aquinas is meaningless ... literally without meaning.
You haven't tried to find any meaning in it, so what do you expect?
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Dafyd

ENERGIES

What I am trying to exclude here is action at a distance by confessing that the Energies ARE the tripersonal hypostases manifesting one God in creation itself; ie., not acting ON creation from without but IN creation from within. Traditionally the Orthodox have said that the Energies are Uncreated (by being God). Is this your position?

AQUINAS

This is your contribution:-

quote:
I don't think that there's any overarching 'God-ness' in the Trinity. There's nothing more to the Trinity than the three persons. But each person is such that they are necessarily part of the Trinity. There is no conceptual space in which we can imagine the Father as not Father of the Son.

(If you don't think these things through then Aquinas' distinction between persons as independent substances and persons as relations looks like it's downgrading the reality of person. But Aquinas always has in mind the super-eminent reality of God.

How does the "super-eminent reality of God" rescue the plain meaning of the hypostases as combinatorial relations of two? If by "super eminent" you mean the "hyper-transcendent" ESSENCE then fair enough but I still don't see how that saves Aristotle from collapsing the hypostases into a relationality which has no underpinning in personhood.

[ 25. November 2008, 08:21: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by k-mann:
No. Because that only shifts the problem. Why is it problematic to speak of a "personal God-He" (whatever that's supposed to mean), but not problematic to speak about a "personal God-She"?

When we say "class, don't forget to have your homework ready for tomorrow" we don't address an ultra-personal entity, but we are using that term merely to address the persons of the students in the class.

If you are using the term trinity that way, I have no problem with it, although, if you want my personal opinion, I call the trinity it in English. I don't know if that says anything to you.

I don't get why if you don't use "he" for other collective bodies, you use it only for the trinity, if you don't refer to something ultra-personal.

That said...
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Let's see where we are here....


First, I'm charged with tritheism, but then people say "we all believe the same" [Confused]

Then, there is no explanation of what the terms person and essence mean.

This I find problematic.

In Greek you can't get more clearer than that. The words prosopon (person), hypostasis (the one that exists on a foundational level), atom (individual), yparxis (existence) have been used to describe what we mean by "three divine persons".

Instead of that, in this very thread you spoke of one existence that is "God", an overarching "God-ness", that the Godhead is not less than a person (what does this mean????) , someone even said that God is by necessity three persons!

You can't have it both ways. Either what I said sounds tritheistic to you, or it doesn't and we are of the same faith. Confusing this issue further by not explaining the words you are using isn't helpful!

I explained very clearly what I mean with the words I use. One human substance/essence/nature... 6+ billion persons/hypostases/individuals/existences...... That's the way the ancient discussions went...

I also pointed to Paul and John...

Feel free to share your thoughts...
 
Posted by cor ad cor loquitur (# 11816) on :
 
(takes deep breath)

Shall we look at the Litany of the Saints?
quote:

Kyrie, eleison.
R. Kyrie, eleison.
Christe, eleison.
R. Christe, eleison.
Kyrie, eleison.
R. Kyrie, eleison.
Christe, audi nos.
R. Christe, audi nos.
Christe, exaudi nos.
R. Christe, exaudi nos.
Pater de caelis Deus,
R. miserere nobis.
Fili Redemptor mundi Deus,
R. miserere nobis.
Spiritus Sancte Deus,
R. miserere nobis.
Sancta Trinitas, unus Deus,
miserere nobis.

Lord, have mercy.
Christ, have mercy.
Christ, hear us.
Christ, graciously hear us.
Father of heaven, God, have mercy on us.
Son and Saviour of the world, God, have mercy on us.
Holy Spirit, God, have mercy on us.
Holy Trinity, one God, have mercy on us.


 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
There is something I'd like to point out before I begin addressing particular points... The difference between the creed of the first ecumenical council and that of the second is not in the "one substance"... That's in both councils. That's not what resolved the issue... If Wikipedia is to be trusted, the difference is a) calling Christ TRUE God from true God and b) expounding the verse that refers to the Holy Spirit. Which is very revealing... not just "God from true God", but "true God from true God"... which resolves the ancient controversy in a clear way... Anyway.

quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
A question for the orthodox here:
are the persons of the Trinity part of the essence of God or part of the activity (=energies) of God. If they're only part of the activities of God, then you would appear to have modalism. If they're part of the unknowable essence, then how can we know that they are three and not one? After all Father Gregory says that we can experience them, and we can't experience the essence of God.
Probably I'm misunderstanding the essence/energy distinction, but I would like to know how.

I'll give it a try...

We are human. Our operation is human... i.e. it has the limits that come with being human... I can't create mountains, for example... the human operation goes hand in hand with the human nature... i.e. if an operation is human, this means the nature is human... So, by the operation we get to realize which nature is which.

Take Christ for example... "I'm thirsty"... that's human. "Your sins are forgiven"... that's divine.

We begin with the persons. Always. Not with natures, nor with energies.

We have the person of Christ. And he shows both human and divine energies. This means that He is both human and divine.

Each theophany begins with someone (the person) revealing himself to a human. Take all those descriptions in Moses for example. We have the Word interacting with Moses. Moses meets with a person other than the one God, and that person's energies are divine, therefore this person is divine in nature.

That's a brief sketch.

So, the persons are NEITHER parts of the nature, NOR parts of the energies. Does this make sense?

quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
The problem with the Orthodox account as it is being expounded on these boards is that it looks as if the words 'three' and 'person' are being used univocally for three human persons, three martian persons, three angelic persons, and three divine persons. As if we could understand the three persons of the blessed Trinity as material contingent beings as we are.

That the use is univocal doesn't mean we apply our being matter to the divine persons... A person is just "someone". A human person, yes, it's a material someone, with flesh, bones, and blood, and all that. An angelic person doesn't have flesh and blood, but it's still a person... A divine person isn't created at all, but it's still a person.

You shouldn't go from the univocal use to attributing the characteristics of our nature to other natures... It doesn't work that way.

quote:
Originally posted by cor ad cor loquitur:
Shall we look at the Litany of the Saints?

OK... I was under the impression that you guys said something like:

Lord have mercy (to the Father)
Christ have mercy (to the Incarnate Son)
Lord have mercy (to the Spirit)

but OK...

I don't have a problem with the words in that prayer.

What do you mean however when you say "one God" in that prayer? And what do you mean when you say "there are three divine persons"? How do you understand those words?
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leetle Masha:
SPK, I understand the fixation on the gender of words in classical languages and the insistence on the agreement of any modifiers attached to the words, but I draw the line at saying that nouns with adjectives agreeing are determinative of Church dogma.

If we did as has been suggested, call the Holy Trinity "She", the Wiccans and the U.S. Feminist theologians would be begging to be chrismated in the Orthodox Church!

Then let's do it!

What I think had been lost in the West is the feminine, and specifically the power of the feminine which for the Orthodox is celebrated in the Mother of God, and this outpouring among the Wiccans and Pagans of the present day can only be to the good, the Trinity isn't male.

Found this while looking for icons of the Unburnt Bush which is an interesting read.

(John of Damascus, Holy Matter and the Mother of God by M. Sophia Compton)

quote:
Originally posted by GreyFace:
Ah, in that case I quite agree. I have encountered people who confuse the Holy Trinity with a Divine Person, just as I've encountered people who refer to the Holy Spirit as "it." It's not orthodox Anglicanism though in the slightest. And when one encounters it in a sermon, at least it's a good indicator that one's time might be better spent mentally rehearsing the next hymn than listening to the rest of it [Razz]

Isn't the Holy Spirit referred to by "it" in the Greek NT? The Holy Spirit is feminine, Wisdom, She, in the OT.


quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?

You can speak about all the hymns you like. I don't mind. The word used in that prayer is "she". The Trinity. She. The Parliament. She. Get it?

I don't mind explaining all the examples you like. I won't forget my question to you though. What do you mean when you say there are three divine persons and why this isn't tritheism to you?

Actually this is very unclear to me. English does not have grammatical gender in the way that Greek does. Gender in English speech is entirely determined by the subject, and other then determining which form of third-person pronoun (masculine, feminine, or neuter) is used, has no impact on meaning.

"Parliament" is a mass noun. It is a corporate body, which is both plural and singular at the same time. Therefore we say "Parliament is in session right now". Parliament may have multiple parts, but it has one will.

Calling the Trinity "She" is absurd in English. The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit when are addressed as male either individually or collectively. There is nothing female in that group to use a female pronoun for.

As this shows. We've ended up here with One God who is Male in three parts.

(And with one will which is problematic for us.)


Myrrh
 
Posted by Liverpool fan (# 11424) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
I also pointed to Paul and John...

Leave The Beatles out of this.

Liverpool fan, who will at some point post a post which has turned out to be very educative in a non-facetious way.
 
Posted by Major Disaster (# 13229) on :
 
Cor ad Cor loquitur suggested

I wonder if one way to progress this discussion might be to compare passages from the principal liturgies of both ‘western’ and ‘eastern’ churches to see how they speak of the Trinity.

For a ‘western’ source I would suggest the Roman Missal simply because it has been through a fairly rigorous theological vetting by various groups in the Vatican. ..


to which Fr Gregory replied:

Dear Cor ad Cor Loquitur

Comparing liturgical doxologies and the like is an excellent way forward.


and §Andrew responded:
Dear cor ad cor loquitur

I'm not going to disagree over words. Please, explain what you mean by those words, and I will give you my view on that.

As for calling upon the Trinity I wouldn't have a particular problem per se, but it would be the three divine persons together I would bring in mind, or, like father Gregory put it:
quote:

Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Mashing it together as Trinity (which after all is only a convenient shorthand)

So, I can accept it as a convenient shorthand... What do you mean by that word? Because viewing that Trinity as a personal "He" is problematic and not Orthodox!


Having followed this thread from the beginning with considerable pain and distress at the energy directed against persons rather than towards clarifying ideas and winning their sympathy towards the truth, I once again enter the discussion to put my earlier question more explicitly, in the context and spirit of the now developing mutual understanding, that we are not simply arguing about words. I hope we are trying to clarify the most important thing of all: our understanding, within our limits, of God as revealed to us. In the spirit of finding a way forward, therefore:

How are we to understand the following prayer, which is attributed to Saint Basil the Great in the slavonic books, and is said as part of Morning Prayers by normal Orthodox Believers?
I give it in Greek, and then a standard English translation which retains the distinction of singular and plural in the second person.

ΕΥΧΗ ΠΡΩΪΝΗ - ΕΥΧΑΡΙΣΤΗΡΙΟΣ ΜΕΘ' ΙΚΕΣΙΑΣ
 
Εκ του ύπνου εξανιστάμενος ευχαριστώ σοι Αγία Τριάς, ότι διά την πολλήν σου αγαθότητα και μακροθυμίαν, ουκ ωργίσθης εμοί τωι ραθύμωι και αμαρτωλώι, ουδέ συναπώλεσάς με ταις ανομίαις μου, αλλ' εφιλανθρωπεύσω συνήθως και προς απόγνωσιν κείμενον, ήγειρας με εις το ορθρίσαι και δοξολογήσαι το κράτος σου.  Και νυν φώτισον μου τα όμματα της διανοίας, άνοιξον μου το στόμα τού μελετάν τα λόγιά σου και συνιέναι τας εντολάς σου, και ποιείν το θέλημά σου, και ψάλλειν σοι εν εξομολογήσει καρδίας, και ανυμνείν το πανάγιον όνομά σου, του Πατρός και του Υιού και του Αγίου Πνεύματος, νυν και αεί και εις τους αιώνας των αιώνων. Αμήν.
As I rise from sleep, I thank Thee, O Holy Trinity, for through Thy great goodness and patience Thou wast not angry with me, an idler and sinner, nor hast Thou destroyed me with mine iniquities, but hast shown Thy usual love for mankind; and when I was prostrate in despair, Thou hast raised me up to keep the morning watch and glorify Thy power. And now enlighten my mind's eye, and open my mouth that I may meditate on Thy words, and understand Thy commandments, and do Thy will, and hymn Thee in heartfelt confession, and sing praises to Thine all-holy name: of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, now and ever, and unto the ages of ages. Amen.

My purpose in raising this again, after the discussion has advanced seven pages or more, is not to score points but to bring an example from basic, daily Orthodox prayer life, which appears to do what §Andrew calls problematic and not Orthodox.
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
MD, thanks for posting that great prayer! It's a good reminder to talk to God more than we talk about Him, at least for us idlers and sinners.

So many mentions of the Holy Trinity, so easy to forget!

M
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Major Disaster

I don't have a problem with using the word Trinity as a shorthand for the three divine persons, as long as we keep in mind that it is an ordinary word meaning three together, like three eggs, or whatever. It's not a magical word which means "three yet one at the same time or whatever it's a paradox"

I'm wondering why you raise this here since I already explained that this use is OK with me and that I have no problem with it.

What I do have a problem with is calling upon someone "God" who is somehow all three divine persons... There is no other "someone" than the three "someone" of the divine persons. No ultra-personal God. That was my objection.

So, I do not have a problem with the Great Basil. In fact, if we read his work against the heretics of his day, we will see him making the same arguments I made in this thread... starting from saying that the teaching of the Holy Spirit is pure and simple... to saying that all humans are "omoousians".... etc etc

So, to sum up:

a) Please take into account what I have said about the word Trinity. You will see that I didn't object on us using that word in our prayers.

b) Please take into account what Basil himself taught about these issues... His teachings are the context for his prayers.

c) I have explained what my faith is, and I hope I did so with great clarity. Now, you are free to challenge me on what I believe, and I expect you to explain what you believe as well.

I explained how I understand essence, and nature, and person, and hypostasis, and individual, and existence... I have explained how the three divine persons are not in schism with each other and how they live in each other... I also explained how there is no such thing as an "ultra-personal" "God" which we can address as if we address one person, that is somehow all three divine persons.

What are your thoughts about those things?

[ 25. November 2008, 14:54: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
Andrew, I can't adequately explain why it's not tritheism other than to say that it's something about the particular divine nature such that any divine person who has it will be one with the others. Divine persons are united in their nature and purpose and capability and action in a way that three gods would not be.

I believe this is what the fathers were getting at in saying the mono- in monotheism is not numerical. I'm not convinced about those who used the one-ness of human nature as an analogy though.

Is that enough to be getting on with? This is a work in progress for me. Increasingly I'm less worried about tritheism, though, as I think that would imply opposition or competition or division in the divine nature, something which I don't think any Christian believes.

On this question of appropriate pronouns, although I largely agree with Ken I think western thought is occasionally prone to using language that's too imprecise. For me, it's fine to use "it" for trinity but I'd tend to use "they" instead because that better conveys what trinity means to me. The divine nature isn't God, and God isn't a committee. Each of the divine persons is fully God. When somebody says God is a trinity, my heresiometer twitches.

Having said that, I have no problem with a statement that says "God is like this..." because by default the G word means the Father, and according to the doctrine of the Trinity that also says what the Son and the Spirit are like in context. This is the reason I would find it wrong to call God "it" - because God is a person. And he has a Son who is true God, and a Spirit who is true God.

Having said all that too, I don't go looking for a stake and a box of matches when somebody refers to the trinity as God. Dig a bit deeper and you'll almost certainly find it's sloppy language or unexamined assumptions or a different way of approaching the mystery, not the beginning of a modalist takeover.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Myrrh:
Isn't the Holy Spirit referred to by "it" in the Greek NT? The Holy Spirit is feminine, Wisdom, She, in the OT.

Only just spotted this Myrrh, sorry.

That's not the point. The revealed doctrine, or for the Daves around the traditional opinion of the Church is that the Holy Spirit is a Divine Person and we don't refer to persons as "it" in English unless we want to be insulting. So if I hear somebody calling the Holy Spirit by the I word, it sounds to me like they're either being rude or they're denying the Personhood of the Spirit - insert my usual disclaimer about jumping to conclusions etc.

I've got no axe to grind regarding the choice of masculine or feminine pronoun.

[ 25. November 2008, 15:15: Message edited by: GreyFace ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
GreyFace, I don't want to move beyond the second ecumenical council... because if we are having problems here, wait to see the problems we will have once we get discussing "one divine will" and "no γνώμη in Christ"....

I agree with much of what you wrote... BUT...

...the problem for me is this: that the three divine persons are in communion with each other is not a result of their nature... and this has important implications for us... because we are called to be one "exactly as" they are one. So, if you explain their "oneness" in any way that does not allow for us becoming one as they are one this just overthrows the whole gospel.

[ 25. November 2008, 15:35: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Major Disaster (# 13229) on :
 
Andrew, I read your posts with care, I learned to refine my thinking under the relentless barrage of your questions, and I am very grateful to you. I agree that there can be no question of any call upon the Trinity-as-super-person, an individual with which or whom one relates, being orthodox Christianity.

However, you said yourself that Trinity-He is problematic and not Orthodox. The thread started with that premise, quoting "He too does not find love," and finding that to be unitarian. This was taken as typifying the unitarianism of western Christianity, causing much painful discussion and protests from LSK SPK and others, including Orthodox Christians.

I understood through the discussion, that you allow Trinity as a shorthand for the three Persons, and that "God" as an address is for you the Father, and that is how you understand it is used in the Creed. I accept that, and agree.

But in this prayer, the Trinity is NOT shorthand for the Three, or else it would naturally use the second person plural. It uses the singular repeatedly, and then names the Three as the name of One, quite deliberately and explicitly. I think it a good example of true and orthodox belief and prayer, using language in a way that you claimed to be unacceptable. I am not trying to score points, although I hope this will cause you to modify your high demands for orthodoxy.

As to asking me what I believe, I fear my answer will be the profession of Faith of the First two Councils, as further defined and elucidated by the subsequent Holy Councils of the Church. I fear my ignorance, and inability to express the Truth, and will try not to be drawn into showing prowess in this most important of areas, where I see but in a glass darkly, yet believe with all my strength what the Church believes and proclaims.

This prayer has been a problem for me; but I say it sincerely because I have it from the Church, and I believe in the Church.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Major Disaster, I ask that you allow me to speak openly about what you wrote.

quote:
Originally posted by Major Disaster:
However, you said yourself that Trinity-He is problematic and not Orthodox. The thread started with that premise, quoting "He too does not find love," and finding that to be unitarian. This was taken as typifying the unitarianism of western Christianity, causing much painful discussion and protests from LSK SPK and others, including Orthodox Christians.

This makes things much clearer. So, thanks for that! I have only one reservation, which I will share below, but if my reservation gets lifted, I will accept the "He too finds no love" as OK.

Now, to my reservation:

quote:
But in this prayer, the Trinity is NOT shorthand for the Three, or else it would naturally use the second person plural.
This is not accurate, as I have tried to explain in many posts. Exactly because it's a shorthand we do NOT use the second person plural. The word, grammatically speaking is in the singular, in the feminine gender, which is why the singular number is used.

It's much like the Greek word for parliament... "Edoxe ti vouli kai to dimo"... "It seemed good to the parliament and the city"... The "vouli" is like the "triada" (trinity), in the singular, in the feminine gender... denoting the members of the parliament.

So, it's NOT because of a mystery of oneness other than the oneness of communion into which we are called also "to be one" that the singular number is used.

If you used it that way, I wouldn't object. But it seems that you don't and so my objection remains.

I asked to be allowed to speak openly. Here's why:

quote:
This prayer has been a problem for me; but I say it sincerely because I have it from the Church, and I believe in the Church.
This reminds me of "faith seeking understanding". Having acquainted myself with the Orthodox teachings throughout the centuries, this does not sound Orthodox at all in my ears. Faith always follows knowledge and experience. First we know and experience God and then comes the faith of God. Faith that seeks knowledge and does not come as a result of knowledge is rejected in strong terms by the Orthodox Saints.

I hope you forgive me for saying this much.

[ 25. November 2008, 16:00: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:

ENERGIES
What I am trying to exclude here is action at a distance by confessing that the Energies ARE the tripersonal hypostases manifesting one God in creation itself; ie., not acting ON creation from without but IN creation from within. Traditionally the Orthodox have said that the Energies are Uncreated (by being God). Is this your position?

I have no position on the energies / essence distinction. It seems to me in so far as I understand it to be an attempt to have the apophatic cake and eat it. Obviously I am in no particular position to make that judgement on the basis of the primary sources, but I note that Rowan Williams who is more intelligent, wiser and holier than either of us, and knows more about Eastern Orthodox theology, doubts that the distinction can be rendered coherent.

The distinction between God acting on or God acting in creation is merely verbal. God is not spatially located in relation to creation.

quote:
AQUINAS

This is your contribution:-

quote:
(If you don't think these things through then Aquinas' distinction between persons as independent substances and persons as relations looks like it's downgrading the reality of person. But Aquinas always has in mind the super-eminent reality of God.
How does the "super-eminent reality of God" rescue the plain meaning of the hypostases as combinatorial relations of two? If by "super eminent" you mean the "hyper-transcendent" ESSENCE then fair enough but I still don't see how that saves Aristotle from collapsing the hypostases into a relationality which has no underpinning in personhood.
ITYM Aquinas not Aristotle, unless the slip is Freudian.
By super-eminent I mean that God's existence is God's essence, an opinion that Aquinas shared with the Islamic and Jewish neo-platonists (and which I believe they got from John Damascene - but I doubt the Orthodox would dissent from the claim). (Remember my point that the West starts with the revelation of one God to the Gentiles?) It follows that as you say God is not three individuals: the three persons share the same essence which is the same existence.

Aquinas doesn't start from the claim that the persons are relations. He starts from the observation that the Father generates the Son. The only generation we are aware of which is not a creation of a distinct individual (which would be Arianism) is an intentional communication/attitude. Hence it is proper to understand the Son as the intellect/word (as in John Damascene the two signify the same). And the intellect is a relation.

Relations can of course be self-relations: you only need one thing for a self-reflexive relationship.

If you're an Anglo-American empiricist, then of course you assume that the only real reality is individuals, and relations can be reduced to properties of individuals. But that raises too many aporiae. Hegel responding the aporiae of Hume and Leibniz and Kant came to the conclusion that relations such as intellect are in fact fundamental reality.
But Aquinas in defining fundamental being not as static self-identity but as the divine activity of self-creation had got there first. And I think Aquinas' solution is better than Hegel's in that Hegel tends to deny material reality a genuine place. Hegel ignores the role of contingency in created existence: no relation in created existence can be fundamental since either term could exist without the other. Hegel would look to Aquinas rather too much like a neo-Platonist.

Now I think it's true that if you take Aquinas out of context it looks as if he's denying any genuine reality to the persons. But you oughtn't to do that: in Aquinas, as much as any thinker, you can't understand his positions without seeing how he got there. Aquinas' definition of the persons as relation needs to be understood in terms of his fundamental doctrines of God as existence as such, and that all language for God is analogical.
 
Posted by Major Disaster (# 13229) on :
 
If it doesn't sound orthodox to you, I am not surprised, particularly, but I suspect you are using both Faith and Knowledge in a different sense from the normal primary meaning in English. I really don't want to engage in a debate over words and their meanings in different languages.

I can see what you mean concerning the Prayer to the Trinity using the second person singular in an analogy with the Parliament. It is a valuable insight for which I am grateful.

My life experience has been that I have never known anyone completely. I believe that this is the case for other people, and there is much evidence that we are each a mystery to one another. I have never thought that this side of death I shall "know as I have been known" by God, and have willingly taken many decisions on faith and trust. Vindication of trust, or disappointment come later, and never complete the picture in the sense implied by the tag fides quaerens intellectum which you render as faith seeking knowledge, or earlier, faith seeking understanding.

Faith that seeks knowledge and does not come as a result of knowledge is rejected in strong terms by the Orthodox Saints.

Does this mean that neither faith nor knowledge grow as a person grows?
I think the desire to grow in knowledge is not rejected by St John of Damascus in the work I linked to, or St Cyril of Jerusalem, in his Catechetical Instructions, nor by the Cappadocian Fathers in their teaching on the Trinity, or St Athanasius on the Incarnation, for a start. Else why would they have written? If you reply that this is for refutation of the heterodox I shall wonder why the latter's knowledge of God was so deficient that their faith was perverted, since I understand the relationship with God to be not initiated by the human person, only reciprocated out of free choice.

You have written freely and I see no malice in what you wrote. I have nothing to forgive in this. But you said you would accept Karol Wojtyla's 1938 poem with one reservation, which you then tied to my use of God-He, deduced from my confessed earlier difficulties with the prayer I cited. You should simply accept that you don't, cannot know who Karol Wojtyla's He is, since there is no means of identifying the He of the poem. That was the substance of my objection to your OP when I first posted on this thread, and you have given no satisfaction on this. His poem is quite independent of anything I may have said, and the author was used undeservedly as a pillory to launch your argument. You cannot hurt J-PII now, so I leave the matter to your conscience, as I have no standing to forgive a slur on him and his Faith.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Dafyd

For all that I respect Abp. Rowan I am afraid that you can't trump me with him. I do not build my own doctrine but rather that of the saints and faithers of the Orthodox Church.

Although St. Gregory Palamas was the first to articulate this distinction between essence and energies systematically he remained an existential theologian and traced the distinction back within the Tradition of the Church but articulated in different ways at different times. If this distinction is not made then any contrast of God's transcendence and immanence is merely semantic. Aquinas (not Aristotle, sorry) does not work within theological framework nor does he start from the Church's experience of God but rather builds on an Augustinian framework and pushes the equivalence of the hypostases to the point where they effectively disappear leaving merely the smile of the Cheshire Cat beaming down moggiless.

No amount of "you need to see how he got there" (I know how he got there and it was a wrong turning) or all theological language is analogical (it isn't - we have had this before about "Father" as a Divine Name) will rescue the Angelic Doctor from the plain sense of his conclusion to which you yourself have attested.

[ 25. November 2008, 23:52: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by k-mann (# 8490) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
I call the trinity it in English. I don't know if that says anything to you.

This is your problem exactly. You enforce greek grammar onto english. English doesn't have gender like greek or french. And calling the Trinity it is also wrong, as the word 'it' often denotes a lifeless thing. (And I might be considered modalistic by you, but I fail to see how your view isn't tritheistic.)
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
...

Now, to my reservation:

quote:
But in this prayer, the Trinity is NOT shorthand for the Three, or else it would naturally use the second person plural.
This is not accurate, as I have tried to explain in many posts. Exactly because it's a shorthand we do NOT use the second person plural. The word, grammatically speaking is in the singular, in the feminine gender, which is why the singular number is used.

It's much like the Greek word for parliament... "Edoxe ti vouli kai to dimo"... "It seemed good to the parliament and the city"... The "vouli" is like the "triada" (trinity), in the singular, in the feminine gender... denoting the members of the parliament.

So, it's NOT because of a mystery of oneness other than the oneness of communion into which we are called also "to be one" that the singular number is used.

If you used it that way, I wouldn't object. But it seems that you don't and so my objection remains.

I asked to be allowed to speak openly. Here's why:

quote:
This prayer has been a problem for me; but I say it sincerely because I have it from the Church, and I believe in the Church.
This reminds me of "faith seeking understanding". Having acquainted myself with the Orthodox teachings throughout the centuries, this does not sound Orthodox at all in my ears. Faith always follows knowledge and experience. First we know and experience God and then comes the faith of God. Faith that seeks knowledge and does not come as a result of knowledge is rejected in strong terms by the Orthodox Saints.

I hope you forgive me for saying this much.

Andrew, I am at a complete loss as to how you can type such excellent English and communicate on the level that you do without understanding the grammatical rules and structure of English. You've obviously taken the time to learn English. When I learned French, grammatical gender was one of the first things I learned.

Whatever grammatical constructs Greek uses to describe the Trinity are of no consequence in English. There is no direct translation for Greek grammatical gender. English just doesn't have that concept in the language. "It" is used to describe lower lifeforms. A bug is an It. My dog is a She. The Trinity is most definitely a He.

This is why nobody cares at all what gender the word Parliament is in Greek.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
OK, here I am posting once again on this thread, over which I felt I had become quite bored, due to the impossibility of moving beyond minutae. We native English speakers, I think, Andrew, are very unsure whether a problem lies in a serious failure you may have to grasp English grammatical concepts, or whether your ideas about the Trinity are so idiosyncratic that we can't embrace them. Again, my perception is that the Reformed and Anglican Christians, Roman Catholics, Fr Gregory, and all the Orthodox with the exception of you and more equivocally Myrrh seem to be talking in basically the same terms. There has got to be something wrong when I can agree with Fr Gregory's assertions but not yours. I keep coming back to the way you decribe the persons of the Trinity, which turns them into something I find unacceptabley anthropomorhised and concretised. I reject a concept of the three divine persons that makes them into divine versions of you, me and Myrhh (or whomever). The formulations of the first two oecumenical councils and Chalcedon make such an analogy heretical, as does the common sense that God is infinite and not subject to the limitations of time, space, and DNA that characterise the human species. I reject the idea that the same categories may be meaningfully used to describe humanity and the Triune God. That we only use some of the same words is an artifact of human limitations and our languages. I keep reading your descriptions and coming away with something that sounds all too much like three gods and which I find completely unacceptable in terms of my understanding of orthodox Christianity and more broadly of monotheism. The Trinity are not persons just like you, me and some other human individual. Any patristic anthropology that claims to make physical human reality into something it isn't, in order to compare it to the divine, is also unacceptable. Theology and anthroplogy don't stop in 800 AD or at any other arbitrary point. In the end, I can't accept either your pretensed biblicism or your version of patristic orthodoxy.
 
Posted by GreyFace (# 4682) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sober Preacher's Kid:
"It" is used to describe lower lifeforms. A bug is an It. My dog is a She. The Trinity is most definitely a He.

I'm sorry but this is not true. I never refer to the Trinity as He. It implies a singular Personhood that I do not think Christian doctrine justifies. I appreciate that we want to say the Persons of the Holy Trinity are united in a way in which a team of footballers are not (and it would be odd to refer to such a team as he even if they were all male) but there's nothing in Christianity to imply that this results in the Trinity being another Person best referred to by personal pronouns.

So it's my contention that we don't have adequate pronouns, and therefore the Trinity is not definitely a He. A They is better in my opinion but Andrew's right.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
k-mann & SPK:

What GreyFace said.

k-mann & LSK:

This is why huge controversies erupted in the fourth century... Because to some the Orthodox view of the Trinity looked tritheistic. Not because they couldn't understand each other... but exactly because they understood each other and disagreed with each other...

As St. John says, there are three existences... Not one.

I don't understand how all these centuries later you don't take the ancient explanations into account. For which I cannot but blame the limited exposure to the actual fathers some societies had/have.

Father Gregory

I have read some saying that the God of non-Orthodox Christianity... is more like a platonic/neo-platonic version than a Christian one... Hellenism under a Christian name...

At the moment, I don't feel qualified enough to speak about that... Which is why I stick to what I know... But Dafyd's Aquinas shared the same opinion with the neo-platonic (i.e. UNITARIAN) philosophers of Islam (i.e. UNITARIAN) and Judaism (i.e. UNITARIAN) sounds very strange to say the least.... Especially if you take into account the fathers' saying that Judaism is as much mistaken in its doctrine on God as Greek polytheism is!

By the way, Palamas didn't say anything more than what the fathers of the first and the second ecumenical council said... They spoke so much of God's energies, that Palamas wouldn't even be known if the controversy didn't erupt in his times...

Major Disaster

I feel maybe I shouldn't have spoken about that matter... There are many many issues to be discussed before we reached there...

Yes, I agree with you, we grow in knowledge and faith... and I think this is natural... As we get to know God further and further our faith in HIm grows...

I think that it is admirable and honorable to seek to grow in knowledge... Anyway, too early to discuss this issue...

As for the poem, it's not just the poem. In the very last page of the thread I got two people saying my views are tritheistic to them. So, from my point of view, I'm more than justified to raise this issue, because there is something there... Besides, I explained that to whomever the poem is addressed, that verse is still problematic...

[ 26. November 2008, 09:42: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Andrew

re St. Gregory Palamas ... yes of course I accept that .... this goes back at least as far as Moses and the Unburned Bush but it was arguably St. Gregory who first attempted a more systematic approach. For this reason alone I find his writing dense and difficult to read.

Dear Lietuvos

It's interesting that as an Englishman with a very robust trinitarian personalist theology and although I scream blue murder if anyone refers to the Holy Spirit as "it" - it doesn't worry me at all to refer to Trinity as "it" for the word does not function as a NAME but as a collective noun; hence my earlier comment about the indefinite article useage in many early Greek texts. So, we can say in English, "a crowd of shoppers flooded the store; IT was a sight to behold." Here "IT" refers to the "crowd" without in anyway suggesting impersonality to that which the collective noun refers. So we can say "a Trinity of hypostases." We can also say "The Trinity" but only as a "catch-all" for Father, Son and Holy Spirit. The unity of the Trinity is predicated on other things. To include the word Trinity itself as "He" is to mislead ... I follow Greyface's explanation to the letter on that.

[ 26. November 2008, 10:51: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Father Gregory, I'm not sure why you addressed me about the applicaiton of pronouns for the Trinity, as I hadn't particularly taken up that matter. Were you misattributing that to me? Either you meant to be responding to someone else or you were trying to respond obliquely or by analogy to a point that I had made (if so, I'm not sure to which).
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
One last comment on the Trinity from reading something that Rowan wrote - "Another Augustinian teaching, born of his clash with the Pelagians, is that salvation rests on the grace of God alone, not at all on the exercise of human freedom. The Orthodox, for their part, insist both that God is "sovereign" and that humans are free to embrace the love of God offered in Christ. When Catholic or Arminian or Calvinist theologians accuse the Orthodox of having it both ways, the Orthodox simply agree, and insist that God is mystery, beyond our knowing."

Two things, as previously I think the Christians in the West are looking at the Creed as a definition of God, neatly boxed for understanding, but here I'm reminded also a static thing. Orthodox relate to God synergistically, a movement of will between God and man (an interaction producing an effect greater than the sum of its parts as described in COD) and so the Trinity described in the Creed is a movement, capturing the moment in time of Christ's incarnation which is not a static definition of God but a moment of interaction in living experience.

For us this is a jumping off point into where it leads, backwards and forwards for example as before in seeing Mary as epitome of humanity from whom Christ gets his fully human nature as is ours, God joins in our journey, and also, the moment the uncreated God became fully part of His creation already full of His uncreated energies, now in created participation.

Where a Westerner would want to pin this down and circumscribe it into something the mind can grasp the Orthodox just goes with it knowing God can never be grasped by the mind, but is known in personal experiencing - a theologian is one who prays. Orthodox prayer is noetic, knowledge of God understood through the nous, the eye of the soul also called the heart.

quote:
(Nous)Nous (adj. noetic) in Orthodox Christianity is the eye of the soul. Just as the soul of man, is created by God, man's soul is intelligent and noetic. St. Thalassios wrote that God created beings "with a capacity to receive the Spirit and to attain knowledge of Himself; He has brought into existence the senses and sensory perception to serve such beings."[1] Eastern Orthodox Christians hold that God did this by creating mankind with intelligence and noetic faculties. Angels have intelligence and nous, whereas men have reason, nous and sensory perception. This follows the idea that man is a microcosm and an expression of the whole creation or macrocosmos; it is through the healed and corrected nous and the intelligence that man knows and experiences God.

In this belief, soul is created in the image of God. Since God is Trinitarian, Mankind is Nous, Word and Spirit. The same is held true of the soul (or heart): it has nous, word and spirit.
......The nous as the eye of the soul, which some Fathers also call the heart, is the center of man and is where true (spiritual) knowledge is validated. This is seen as true knowledge which is "implanted in the nous as always co-existing with it."[2]

Myrrh
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Lietuvos

[Hot and Hormonal] Sorry!. That was in reply to Sober Preacher's Kid. Mea culpa.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Myrrh, I found the second and third paragraphs of your most recent post extremely interesting to contemplate. I think it leads into a matter that I've been thinking about a lot. Although God is outside of time, He entered time and space in the Incarnation, in which the human nature in the person of Jesus was taken into the eternal Logos, the two natures perfectly "fused" in the one Christ, both God and man, this Christ ascending into heaven. Hence the human nature exists within God in a way that it seemingly did not prior to the Incarnation in time: the second person of the Trinity carried the human nature into the life of the Trinity. Where before there was the Father, Word and Spirit beyond time and space, and humankind within time and space, since the Incarnation - an event in which the Timeless crosses over into time - now there is the Father, the one Christ who is both fully divine and fully human, and the Spirit. Moreover, as the Trinity are of one mind, one will and in perfect indwelling communion, the human nature is fully comprehended by the other two persons of the Trinity through the agency of the Son. Is it not correct, then, to say that God Himself has changed - or transformed Himself - as a result of the Incarnation?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
But Dafyd's Aquinas shared the same opinion with the neo-platonic (i.e. UNITARIAN) philosophers of Islam (i.e. UNITARIAN) and Judaism (i.e. UNITARIAN) sounds very strange to say the least...

And you wonder why we laugh when you say you want to debate honestly?

No, I didn't say that. What I said was that Aquinas starts from the revelation to the Jews and the Gentiles. (You've claimed in the past that Plotinus had a genuine experience of God, so that shouldn't be exactly controversial with you.)

That is not at all the same as saying that he shared their opinion on the holy trinity.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Dear Lietuvos

I don't apply to God things that belong to the created nature..... By speaking of persons I don't say ANYTHING ABOUT GOD... your criticism is only meaningful if you think the persons are intra-trinitarian relations, or that the trinity is the divine essence...

Likewise, it is not true to say that the nature of God changed with the Incarnation..... It's not a "thing" so that it can change. On the contrary, what changed is our human nature that has been taken by the Son IN A DIVINE MANNER.

Don't know how helpful this post is...

Dafyd

You said that Aquinas shared the opinion that God's essence is God's existence with the neo-platonic Muslim and Jewish philosophers....

Besides, Judaism is rejected by the church fathers of the ecumenical councils because it is mistaken as far as the teaching of God is concerned.... (Not the Judaism of the Just of the Scriptures.... but what that has come to be known as Judaism, which is unitarian)

As for Plotinus I expressed a private opinion.... Elder Sophrony who is much better experienced in these things says that man sees all kinds of light, and that at some point man even sees his own intellect and confused that with God... and worships himself as the divine One.... becoming a self-idol.... So, I don't know how safe it is to go beyond what the Church has taught about salvation...
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
For all that I respect Abp. Rowan I am afraid that you can't trump me with him. I do not build my own doctrine but rather that of the saints and faithers of the Orthodox Church.

I'm not trumping you with him. You asked me what my position on the essence and the energies was, and I explained why I don't have one.

quote:
Although St. Gregory Palamas was the first to articulate this distinction between essence and energies systematically he remained an existential theologian and traced the distinction back within the Tradition of the Church but articulated in different ways at different times. If this distinction is not made then any contrast of God's transcendence and immanence is merely semantic.
I fail to see what is wrong with treating any contrast of God's transcendence and immanence as merely semantic. If you're not still haunted by pictures of God as a bearded old man who is either out there somewhere or in there somewhere, then there isn't really a problem. (If you've ever tried to think about four dimensional geometry, that might be a help. Not that God is in an additional dimension, but that it helps see that three dimensional thinking just doesn't necessarily apply.)

quote:
Aquinas (not Aristotle, sorry) does not work within theological framework nor does he start from the Church's experience of God but rather builds on an Augustinian framework and pushes the equivalence of the hypostases to the point where they effectively disappear leaving merely the smile of the Cheshire Cat beaming down moggiless.
An Augustinian framework is certainly based within the church's experience of God. (Eastern Orthodox theologians seem rather embarrassed by the fact that Augustine is clearly an experiential theologian.)

It's true that, to use Rowan Williams' terms, Aquinas is primarily a communicative theologian, not a celebratory theologian. That is his intent is as much apologetic, building on common ground with those outside the church, as it is with exhibiting the faith of the church from ground not shared with believers. That means that his starting point in exposition is not the same as his starting point in his personal faith.

It occurs to me that if someone shares the experience of the church wants to bring someone who doesn't do so to share the experience of the church, they really have no other option.

quote:
No amount of "you need to see how he got there" (I know how he got there and it was a wrong turning) or all theological language is analogical (it isn't - we have had this before about "Father" as a Divine Name) will rescue the Angelic Doctor from the plain sense of his conclusion to which you yourself have attested.
We differ about where 'there' is that Aquinas got to.
You say that you know he got to the wrong place because he took a wrong turning.
And yet the only evidence you give that he must have taken a wrong turning is that he got to the wrong place.

That is a vicious application of the hermeneutic circle.

This was your conclusion regarding 'Father' as a Divine Name:
quote:
None of the arguments proffered ... all of which have some merit ... have convinced me that the invocation of God as Mother is licit in the Christian Church. One (but only one) basic reason is really quite simple and I leave you with that.

It is what I have received and as you know Orthodox set great store by hand me downs and not DIY's.

I take that as a recognition that none of your arguments had any apologetic value.

Aquinas is clear that the words he uses do not express his position if they are taken as if they refer to created things. The most you can say of his position is that he oughtn't to have used those words. To say that he was mistaken in thinking that his words didn't express his position is just uncharitable.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dafyd

You have admitted by Aquinas "reduces" the hypostases to intra-trinitarian relations and you have stated that his method had as its aim the establishment of a bridgehead of rationality and discourse with those not having the experiential aspect of faith. THAT was the wrong turning. Not that he wanted to establish a bridgehead nor yet that it should be rational but that it could start from a place other than an existential encounter with the Trinity.

Moreover the distinction between God's transcendence and immanence is exactly congruent with the distinction between his essence and his energies. Remove that distinction and analogical thinking is all you have left (and a certain suspicion of mystical theology). Every now and again someone arises in the west to blow that away. Almost without exception such persons are initially rejected and then posthumously assimilated and defanged ... St. John of the Cross, St. Teresa of Avila ... although some remain rejected being too inedible to swallow ... Eckhardt, Fenelon, de Chardin.

[ 26. November 2008, 23:28: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
Myrrh, I found the second and third paragraphs of your most recent post extremely interesting to contemplate. I think it leads into a matter that I've been thinking about a lot. Although God is outside of time, He entered time and space in the Incarnation, in which the human nature in the person of Jesus was taken into the eternal Logos, the two natures perfectly "fused" in the one Christ, both God and man, this Christ ascending into heaven. Hence the human nature exists within God in a way that it seemingly did not prior to the Incarnation in time: the second person of the Trinity carried the human nature into the life of the Trinity. Where before there was the Father, Word and Spirit beyond time and space, and humankind within time and space, since the Incarnation - an event in which the Timeless crosses over into time - now there is the Father, the one Christ who is both fully divine and fully human, and the Spirit. Moreover, as the Trinity are of one mind, one will and in perfect indwelling communion, the human nature is fully comprehended by the other two persons of the Trinity through the agency of the Son. Is it not correct, then, to say that God Himself has changed - or transformed Himself - as a result of the Incarnation?

Well I think so, can't see how it could be otherwise in a synergistic relationship, or what the point would be of the incarnation if not.

In Orthodox terms God is panen-theistic, His uncreated energies (which cannot be separated from His essence, the uncreated energies are God), in everything, so we can't be separated from God wherever we are in creation because God isn't separated from it, so is in time and space, but what we have in the incarnation is the pivotal moment when God entered mankind already created by Him in image and likeness making the reverse journey possible for us - the, God became man so man could become God - this movement must affect us both and it did in Christ for God. I know some say God was above all that somehow untouched by the fully human experience, but again, then why bother?

I haven't really thought this through, it's sort of on the periphery of my mind, but I think perhaps there could be a confusion between Gnostic type disentaglement from the world and the calmness of gaining control of one's passions - the first thinks creation an evil to become free of and liberation in spirit and not matter and I think the second can't be achieved without actively loving creation as God does - and it seems to me to say God hasn't been changed is in danger of becoming a Gnostic view which, and OK I haven't read enough of him, makes me a bit uncomfortable with Palamas and those who split, appear to split, God's essence off from His energies.

Sorry for the ramble, too many commas.

Myrrh
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
I think this once again gets us back to seeing how Christ is uniquely the bridge between God and Man, the deification of the human nature.

I also agree with the conception that, as I might put it, God is the substrate of all being, or the One "in Whom we live and move and have our being", as an Anglican liturgical prayer puts it. But still beyond time and space, in that God is, of course, unlimited by the time-space continuum to which we human creatures are presently limited.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
You said that Aquinas shared the opinion that God's essence is God's existence with the neo-platonic Muslim and Jewish philosophers....

I also said that the Muslim philosophers were taught that opinion from the Eastern Orthodox.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Almost without exception such persons are initially rejected and then posthumously assimilated and defanged ... St. John of the Cross, St. Teresa of Avila ... although some remain rejected being too inedible to swallow ... Eckhardt, Fenelon, de Chardin.

Eckhardt was a Dominican and a Thomist.
He was prosecuted by the Franciscans, who rejected Thomism and analogical language. Rather like you. If there was a problem with Eckhardt, it's that he was an ultra-Thomist, not that he was un-Thomist.

The people who rejected John of the Cross and Teresa of Avila also rejected analogical language.
I don't know enough about Fenelon to comment.

Mind you, if you think Pierre Teilhard de Chardin is Orthodox, there goes any claim to be expounding the faith of the Fathers.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
LSK

humans are not limited in space&time... We are limited all right, but that's not our limit... exactly because there is a part of us (A CREATED PART OF US) that exists outside the four dimensions most of us are acquainted with...

Dafyd

other than

a) explicitly denying the filioque
b) explicitly saying that there are three divine existences
c) explicitly affirming icons and actually using them as necessary in worship

St. John Damascene looks exactly like Aquinas...

And other than rejecting explicitly neoplatonism, he looks exactly like those neoplatonic philosophers of the unitarian monotheistic religions...

They all had two arms, two legs, one head, one tongue... Very similar indeed.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Dafyd

I know who these men were! I am not suggesting that there were no Franciscan scholastics and no Dominican mystics. Neither am I saying that these were Orthodox. All I AM saying is that Aquinas' approach (quite irrespective of which order or tradition in which he stood) is defective in that he represents a certain rationalising strand within the medieval west which is rather ill at ease with experiential theology.
 
Posted by seasick (# 48) on :
 
quote:
Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras said:
or the One "in Whom we live and move and have our being", as an Anglican liturgical prayer puts it.

...or rather whichever poet is quoted in Acts 17...
 
Posted by Myrrh (# 11483) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras:
I think this once again gets us back to seeing how Christ is uniquely the bridge between God and Man, the deification of the human nature.

Well.. minefield alert for Myrrh.. The unique bridge to God re deification of man is the Mother of God. Certainly in Christ we have a unique fast-track to that, but Orthodox don't begin with the premise that we're at all separated from God (the Augustinian model) and with Paul that we don't need anything extraneous to ourselves to full communion with God, as Abraham didn't have the law but had faith and walked as friend of God, - which is where Christ's teaching leads.

God is the living presence in creation for us (Grace the uncreated energy of God, which is God, in all things) as beings created in image and likeness to be in ourselves the bridge between the uncreated God and creation. We're created with a particular relationship to God which isn't at all Augustinian (which begins with a robotic re grace, a created thing not God's being, and will, and continues with damnation and separation which, as JohnPaul II explains, is the loss of God's friendship) and really, the lot has to be junked to appreciate the Orthodox view, which is the view of the early Church. This should help: (The Image And Likeness Of God by Dr. Darren J. Torbic) (and here I'm in full agreement with Palamas).

Man in Orthodox view is a microcosm of God, the centre of existence, which as this bridge between God and creation we're created in both camps as it were, there isn't an impassable block between man and God as Abraham shows, and as Christ reminds, God is God of the living not of the dead.

So, we can't really say Christ is the unique bridge to God if by that we're referring to a particular doctrine of separation, nor re deification if we mean something not achievable before, but we can if by that we mean specifically his incarnation for all mankind to be in direct and immediate relationship with God (as in the resurrection icon, all mankind in Adam and Eve brought into direct living relationship with God, on all in the tombs bestowing life).


quote:
I also agree with the conception that, as I might put it, God is the substrate of all being, or the One "in Whom we live and move and have our being", as an Anglican liturgical prayer puts it. But still beyond time and space, in that God is, of course, unlimited by the time-space continuum to which we human creatures are presently limited.
As above, we're not limited, we weren't created to be limited. Neither is God not in time and space because we don't have creation separated from Him. God in panen-theistic terms is inseparably in everything, there wouldn't be anything if God wasn't in it. We really don't have any separation between man and God as our base as principle.

So, minefield alert, in panen-theistic terms the direction in creation is God in everything but not everything in God (which is panthesistic) so that hymn is post incarnation for all mankind, and of course as Christians experienced in our particular relationship through Christ, and that, the incarnation, the turning point articulated in the Creed.

As an aside, the first time I came across the idea of God as substratum was in studying Advaita Vedanta which I was told has been passed on from teacher to taught in India for the last ten thousand years since its entry there.

In this teaching God is Brahman, which is the infinite and eternal substratum in creation and referred to as That. That is infinite and eternal existence, consciousness and bliss, and the substratum of all creation.

The teaching is That thou art, (one of the Mahavakyas which means great saying), in teaching the relationship of the jiva, the individual, to Brahman - "That Brahman thou art".

Not one's body or the mind, but that I which exists in us in all three states of waking, dreaming and deep sleep as substratum, the infinite and eternal consciousness which is Brahman. When we wake from deep sleep the I which says, 'I had a good sleep' - That I is Brahman. Tat Tvam Asi - That Thou Art, That infinite and eternal consciousness thou art.

And in the words of another of the Mahavakyas a statement of the Jiva in relation to Brahman has similarity with something you're already familiar with - Aham Brahman; I am Brahman, I am That.

Myrrh
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I'd like to ask both those that contributed in this thread and those that are reading without posting:

Have we done any progress, or is it too early to say? How do you evaluate the discussion so far?
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Well, I've lapsed into some theological speculations or propositions that interest me, in the absence of any evident coming together between you, Andrew, and the rest of the Western protestant and Catholic Christians here. You also seem to differ with some of the Orthodox who have been posting. Fr Gregory's style seems to be to recognise apparent points of agreement between the two of you and to be agnostic about any actual disagreements, as opposed to nuances of the language that you use.

My own view is that we seem to approach each other, only to find possible agreement dashed when language gets too specific.

As I have already stated, I think your insistence on a completely homogenous subjective understanding between us of things that I believe are beyond the possiblity of human knowing in ordinary circumstances is a doomed and unreasonable requirement.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
All I AM saying is that Aquinas' approach (quite irrespective of which order or tradition in which he stood) is defective in that he represents a certain rationalising strand within the medieval west which is rather ill at ease with experiential theology.

It may be worth pointing out that Aquinas was one of those "persons are initially rejected and then posthumously assimilated and defanged" by the rationalising strand in the medieval west. One of the major developments within twentieth century Roman Catholic theology was the recovery of Aquinas from the rationalising strand that was neo-scholasticism.

There is a slight tendency, it seems, to think that the discursive reason must be discarded not redeemed.

quote:
You have admitted by Aquinas "reduces" the hypostases to intra-trinitarian relations
Normally, if I say 'Father Gregory has admitted that Aquinas' doctrine of the Trinity "is perfectly compatible with Eastern Orthodoxy"' the presence of the quote marks indicates that I am quoting Father Gregory's precise words. They ought not to be used to indicate that I am foisting onto Father Gregory an opinion that far from admitting he has been vigourously rejected.

I forbear to speculate about the motives that might lead me to misrepresent you in this way. No doubt you can think of some.

quote:
and you have stated that his method had as its aim the establishment of a bridgehead of rationality and discourse with those not having the experiential aspect of faith. THAT was the wrong turning. Not that he wanted to establish a bridgehead nor yet that it should be rational but that it could start from a place other than an existential encounter with the Trinity.
So what you're saying is that we should establish a bridgehead with those who don't have the experiential aspect of faith where they already have an existential encounter with the Trinity. Now possibly you can explain how someone who already has an existential encounter with the Trinity doesn't have the experiential aspect of faith? Presumably you are not going to invoke Augustine's psychological model of the Trinity?
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dafyd

Why do we always seem to be talking across each other? Anyway, I am sorry about the quotes ... I will be more restrained in my use of them. Let's try and see where we are up to.

You said (to paraphrase) that Aquinas could be read as downgrading the hypostases to intra-trinitarian relations and I said that this is the only reasonable reading. You then went on to say that I wasn't allowing for his understanding of the supereminent aspect of God and I then said that I didn't know how that addressed my concerns and therefore lacked meaning. You then drew my attention to what Aquinas was trying to achieve by the curtailment of assumptions in relating the Trinity for those unfamiliar with the idea and I then said that in achieving that aim he should rather have dealt with the existential aspects of encountering the Trinity. Now I may have got this summary terribly wrong but that is where I think we are up to now. Do you agree? If not, please edit.

[ 28. November 2008, 08:10: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
And other than rejecting explicitly neoplatonism, he looks exactly like those neoplatonic philosophers of the unitarian monotheistic religions...

They all had two arms, two legs, one head, one tongue... Very similar indeed.

So you're thinking that if someone disagree with somebody on one point they must disagree on all points, and if they agree on one point they must agree on all points.

Don't be absurd. Incidentally, if you could say where St John says that there are three 'existences' that would be helpful. Because I all I find him saying is that there are three 'subsistences', which in this particular context is not the same thing at all.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I will attempt an evaluation of the dialog later. In the meantime:

quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
So you're thinking that if someone disagree with somebody on one point they must disagree on all points, and if they agree on one point they must agree on all points.

If one rejects the entire framework of neoplatonism, yes, one disagrees with the neoplatonics. They might agree on apples being yummy, or whatever, but their worldviews are radically different.

As for Aquinas, if Aquinas says existence is essence, and Damascene says person is existence, then they disagree on a fundamental teaching about God... Their theology, and it is theology we are discussing here, is different.

As for there being three existences, three "υπάρξεις", you can read de sancta trinitate, verse 40, here.
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
Andrew,

Your Greek is far better than mine, but I am not sure that the most natural English translation for υπάρξεις is "existences" (normally, "existence" or "substance" would translate "ousia"). In figuring out the most natural translation, it is worth noting that Basil uses "hyparxis" as a synonym for "hypostasis," which would normally be translated in English as "subsistence." And Aquinas is quite explicit that is speaking of the persons of the Trinity as three "subsistences" he intends what the Fathers mean be "hypostases." So on this point at least Aquinas would seem to agree with John of Damascus (and Basil).

As to Fr. Gregory's claim that Thomas represents a "rationalising" tendency in Western theology, I think this is to badly misread what he is about, though I will admit that it is a misreading that was vigorously promoted by those who considered themselves his advocates in the 19th and 20th centuries.

Specifically with regard to the Trinity, Thomas is quite clear that it is a mystery that cannot be known via human reason. All reason can do with regard to the trinity is to show (against pagan, Jewish and Muslim objections) that belief in it is not irrational, and to offer some dim analogies that might (and I stress might) allow us, in the flash of a trembling glance, to have some sense of what we are talking about, before we fall back into our ordinary reasoning processes.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
FCB

υπάρχω, means I exist. Ύπαρξη, is therefore the existence. For the Orthodox Saints, person, hypostasis, individual, existence, they are all the same... so, it is very understandable why St. Basil (for example) speaks the way you say he does...

The difference with Aquinas, to the extent that I understand Dafyd, is that the ancients equated existence NOT with essence (ousia), but with person... So, for Aquinas St. John would be tritheistic, and for St. John Aquinas would be unitarian... exactly because they have a different understanding of what a person is...

The problem is not linguistic but theological... Of course υπάρξεις is a synonym for υποστάσεις. The problem arises when the divine essence is though to be some sort of being... (like we say "three human beings")

I am aware that there are attempts by Catholic theologians today to re-interpret Aquinas... and I am very supportive of those attempts. I have heard about French Catholic theologians and so on... I also agree that the mystery of the trinity is not explained here... what is explained (and can be explained) is the dogma... NOT the mystery... and I think there is some dogmatic difference between Catholicism and Orthodoxy.

[ 28. November 2008, 13:20: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
FCB

On second thoughts... Perhaps there IS some sort of misunderstanding... which is why I insisted on all sides explaining what they mean with those terms we are using...

As for my evaluation on how the discussion goes so far...

With great relief I see that some of the initial frustration is gone... which is a good thing... Also, we seem to communicate in a more efficient way what we mean, but there is much road ahead since there are still some words that need to get explained...

Unfortunately, there is not much I can point you to in the English language... because the ancient Greek-speaking fathers have been ignored for quite some time... I understand the language and the cultural barrier, and I respect the fact that there are difficulties...

If only we could resolve that as well... then the other side could appreciate that I'm not making things up, but there is a tradition of two thousand years before me... which tradition I try to internalize...

We are talking about centuries of theology here, and centuries of alienation from each other (and even from our own traditions!), but nevertheless I value any progress that we can make. There are other issues I'd like to talk about, like icons, or Christ having no γνώμη, and what this means about our views of the Incarnation... but I think under the current circumstances it would be best if I just sticked with one issue rather than bringing everything on the table!
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
Well, Andrew, all I can say is that Aquinas thought he agreed with John of Damascus.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Oh, I know that [Big Grin]

Like I know he thought he understood St. Dionysios the Areopagite...

But let us not forget that like we now speak of a pseudo-Aristotle of the Renascence, there is also heavy criticism (at least from the Orthodox side; I'm not following what current scholarship has to say on the matter in the West) about the misinterpretations of the few Greek-speaking Saints that were known in the West at that time...

And that's just the tip of the iceberg. More (and much greater and graver) issues are raised by some Orthodox theologians... But I can't bring everything on the table, because that would be too much for the time being.

[ 28. November 2008, 13:44: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:

quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
So you're thinking that if someone disagree with somebody on one point they must disagree on all points, and if they agree on one point they must agree on all points.

If one rejects the entire framework of neoplatonism, yes, one disagrees with the neoplatonics. They might agree on apples being yummy, or whatever, but their worldviews are radically different.
So why does taking one doctrine from an author mean that your entire framework is the same?
Both John and Aquinas reject the theory of emanation; they both believe in the theory of creation. The neo-platonists believed that the existence of God was other than the existence of everything else, although having a doctrine of emanation they did not properly follow that through.
John agrees that God is above existence; Aquinas agrees that God's existence is not created existence.

quote:
As for Aquinas, if Aquinas says existence is essence, and Damascene says person is existence, then they disagree on a fundamental teaching about God... Their theology, and it is theology we are discussing here, is different.
As it emerges from your discussion with FCB, it looks to me that the correct translation of uparxe (sorry, can't type the greek characters) is 'existent' ie 'existing thing', not 'existence'.

Now Aquinas would agree that the three persons are existents, for they are real, provided that we do not think that they are existents in the same sense as other existents - for they are above (created) existence.

Aquinas does not think that essence is the same as existence in the created order, just as he does not think that power and love are the same as existence in the created order. But in God all these things are identical, for God is simple and not compound. God does not have power and love and wisdom as something apart from God's existence, as if God could change in power or wisdom, but God's existence is all these things.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
You said (to paraphrase) that Aquinas could be read as downgrading the hypostases to intra-trinitarian relations and I said that this is the only reasonable reading. You then went on to say that I wasn't allowing for his understanding of the supereminent aspect of God and I then said that I didn't know how that addressed my concerns and therefore lacked meaning. You then drew my attention to what Aquinas was trying to achieve by the curtailment of assumptions in relating the Trinity for those unfamiliar with the idea and I then said that in achieving that aim he should rather have dealt with the existential aspects of encountering the Trinity. Now I may have got this summary terribly wrong but that is where I think we are up to now. Do you agree? If not, please edit.

You've left out a couple of steps.

I asked you where you thought Aquinas was going wrong in his reasoning, and you said it was because he was not starting from the experience of the Church.
And that was why I said he was engaged in communicative theology rather than celebratory theology.

Now, saying that Aquinas ought to have started from the experience of the Church... (which Church?) attempts to explain why Aquinas went wrong, but it does not say where he went wrong.

So we have four questions in play here:

1) When Aquinas says the procession is a relation and therefore in God is a person, is he reducing the persons to relations, or is he elevating the relations in God to persons?

2) If Aquinas was wrong to come to his conclusion, where exactly in his chain of reasoning did he make the mistake?

3) Is Aquinas' method, to start with what can be known of God through reason outside the church, necessarily mistaken?

4) Is it possible to use existential aspects of encountering the Trinity as a basis for discussion with those who have not encountered the Trinity?

To which Aquinas' answer to the first is that he uses 'relation' to mean the divine procession and generation. He might equally use the word 'origin' for 'relation', except that 'origin' does not imply an orientation towards another and 'relation' does. Origins are a type of relation.

I think it's compatible with Eastern Orthodoxy to say that the persons are differentiated not by any difference in nature, but by their origins?

Consider that material things, with which we are directly acquainted, subsist in matter - and so are differentiated by matter as well as by nature and origin - but that the divine persons subsist in nothing but themselves.
Now that the divine persons subsist in nothing but themselves is not a limitation upon them. To say that they are not differentiated by matter is not to reduce their differences. To say that they are not differentiated by nature is again not to reduce their differences. So to say that created persons differ in matter, nature and origin, but that the divine persons differ only in origin is not to reduce the divine persons to relations without real terms.
Likewise, to say that in created things we can distinguish between their origins and what they are, but that in the divine persons we cannot, is not to say that the divine persons are less real. (The identity of existence and essence in God, between whether God is and what God is, is what I meant by God's supereminent reality.)

If the above is sound, and I can't see where you would object, then I don't think any answer to the other three points is necessary here. The post is too long already.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Neatly expressed Dafyd and the crux of the issue.

quote:
1) When Aquinas says the procession is a relation and therefore in God is a person, is he reducing the persons to relations, or is he elevating the relations in God to persons?

2) If Aquinas was wrong to come to his conclusion, where exactly in his chain of reasoning did he make the mistake?

3) Is Aquinas' method, to start with what can be known of God through reason outside the church, necessarily mistaken?

4) Is it possible to use existential aspects of encountering the Trinity as a basis for discussion with those who have not encountered the Trinity?

Re 1. Person precedes relation. Christ prays to the Father. The Father sends the Spirit. The prayer and the outpouring are subsequent to the persons. That which is true in the divine economy is true also in the Godhead.

Re 2-4 (Which belong together). Reason has its proper place in apologetics but one cannot derive the Trinity from first principles outside the experience of the Church. This is where Aquinas betrays his dependence on Augustine. There are no vestiges or analogies of the Trinity in the subjective faculties of the human ... memory, intellect, will. To suppose such is to begin a process in which the three hypostases are collapsed into an alleged single personhood (as it must with the human subject).
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Dafyd

If Aquinas says that there are really three who exist, then why do I sound tritheistic to some here and not... Aquinas?

What's your opinion on the explanation of the Orthodox dogma I have given in this thread?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
I have another question... so that I can see if I get you clearly:

Dafyd & FCB

about "existence"... It was said that the three divine persons are of one existence according to Aquinas... Would you say that about humans as well? Because if you would, then I understand why you would think it's more like ousia, than person. If you wouldn't then I think we have found something important here.
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
I'm not entirely sure that I understand the question, but if you are asking whether the unity of nature of the three divine persons is identical to the unity of nature of three human beings, then I would say no (a point that I think I've made clear on a number of occasions). As Dafyd pointed out, all the transcedentals (unity, goodness, truth, etc.) are predicated analogically of God and creatures. But perhaps I don't understand your question.

As to Fr. Gregory's remark on the priority of of person over relation, I guess I don't see the need to give priority to one over the other, even on the level of the economy. After all, Jesus is precisely because he is from the Father. Conceptually, it seems to me that one could start from either end -- person or relation -- and arrive at the same place. There are advantages and disadvantages to both. Certainly in the order of discovery the disciples encountered Jesus prior to coming to knowledge of his relationship to the Father (i.e. that he is the eternal Son). But the order of discovery is not always best suited to the order of understanding, so I think there may well be times when beginning with the relations of origin might be advantageous. I am, in the strict sense of the term, fairly an-archic in my approach to theology -- i.e. I don't think there is one right starting point that is required in all times and all places.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
My question is this:

If Aquinas says "there is one divine existence" but also thinks that there is not "one human existence", this means that it's not a translation issue (existence = ousia or hypostasis?) but a theological issue....

I leave the issue of the analogy aside (briefly: "there is no similarity whatsoever between the created and the uncreated") and the issue of thinking about God ("God is impossible to express and even more impossible to think about" St. Gregory Theologian, correcting Plato), and I focus on "existence".

What do you mean by that word? I am asking because I'm considering what Dafyd said, about me misunderstanding and it being an issue of translation... I'm suspecting that what for Aquinas was one existence, for Damascene was three (which would mean they don't agree theologically), but I'm open to being corrected (which would be a very good thing).

a) what is "existence"
b) if the three divine persons are of one existence, would you say all human persons are also of one existence?

And one other thing... I'm having some difficulty here, because at one point some seem to think I'm being tritheistic, but at another point efforts are made to show we really believe the same things after all. I'd be grateful if we could resolve that, because it confuses me...

c) if the athanasian dialog I posted here sounds tritheistic to some, i) what would make it monotheistic and ii) how's that not unitarian?

[ 29. November 2008, 15:57: Message edited by: §Andrew ]
 
Posted by FCB (# 1495) on :
 
Sorry, but it is impossible (at least for a Thomist) to leave the issue of analogy aside (and, btw, to say that something is predicated analogically of God and creatures is not to say "there is no similarity whatsoever between the created and the uncreated") and discuss the meaning of the word "existence" as it applies to God and creatures.

As to some of the other points: my claim was that Aquinas and John of Damascus agree, not that you and I agree. As near as I can tell, your view is tritheistic (in result if not in intent) and mine is not. I don't think you've changed your position, and I don't think I've changed my view of your position.

As to the "Athanasian" dialogue you quoted, if it is in fact by Athanasius, all I can say is that even Homer nods. Being a father of the Church and a saint does not make one immune to unfortunate theological formulations (as witnessed by the "Apollinarian" phrases one can find in Athanasius's De Incarnatione). I suspect at this point, however, that we would have such different views on the development of doctrine that my claim that Athanasius could formulate unfortunate doctrinal statement would be either highly offensive or incomprehensible to you.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Neither offensive, nor incomprehensible, kind FCB. Fear not!

I'm just afraid that there is such a deep gap between the two of us, that only God could bridge it. It is beyond human abilities.

Peace.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
If Aquinas says that there are really three who exist, then why do I sound tritheistic to some here and not... Aquinas?

It's because you seem to think that that's all to say on the matter; you think that the unity is merely verbal.
Also because you deny that we can get to the Trinity from the unity. If you think that Western Christianity is unitarian, it seems that you have a different belief.

You quote Athanasius and Gregory of Nyssa, saying that the three persons are just like three human persons - but that's not actually all that Athanasius and Gregory say.
Athanasius points out that the three divine persons don't have bodies and so don't circumscribe each other that way.
Gregory points out that they only have one power, one operation, one goodness, etc, and so on, while many men have many operations. (And indeed, Gregory goes on to say that his arguments about nature are directed at those who incorrectly believe that 'God' means the nature and not the operation.)
Athanasius and Gregory both say, if you read them correctly, that they call three human persons one human as a manner of speaking, but that they call the three persons of the Trinity one God properly.
Likewise, Gregory also shows that it is only the difference in cause that makes the persons of the Trinity while in the case of humans the differences also include material existence, and all the other differences of quality.

So to say that the three divine persons are no more one than three human persons is false.
 
Posted by Lietuvos Sv. Kazimieras (# 11274) on :
 
Thank you, Dafyd.

[Overused]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
about "existence"... It was said that the three divine persons are of one existence according to Aquinas... Would you say that about humans as well?

No, I would not say that about humans. Why?

You exist. And I exist. And George W Bush exists. Now if George W Bush had never been born we would still be here. And if I'd never been born that wouldn't affect your existence. We each have a different existence. For any human being other than your ancestors, you might still have existed had they not existed. And even in the case of your ancestors, when they die and cease to exist you still exist. And vice versa.
God's creative act that creates each human being is independent.

Now the Father and the Son and the Spirit all exist together. There's no Father without the Son and no Spirit or Son without the Father. As the Father exists so the Son and the Spirit exist. So their existence is not independent: they share one existence.

Now, do you see why I say that there's a difference?
And if you disagree with what I say, what do you think is wrong with it?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Re 1. Person precedes relation. Christ prays to the Father. The Father sends the Spirit. The prayer and the outpouring are subsequent to the persons. That which is true in the divine economy is true also in the Godhead.

I'd feel rather more confident that we stood a chance of getting somewhere if I had some indication that you'd read my counterarguments.

That 'person precedes relation' is clearly not true of those relations we call origins. The Son clearly does not precede the generation of the Son from the Father. Likewise, the Spirit does not precede the procession of the Spirit from the Father.
I'm not even sure that Aquinas would call the Son praying to the Father a relation or the Father's sending of the Spirit relations.
Aquinas seems to define a relation as a definitional property of one thing that involves reference to another thing.

quote:
Re 2-4 (Which belong together). Reason has its proper place in apologetics but one cannot derive the Trinity from first principles outside the experience of the Church. This is where Aquinas betrays his dependence on Augustine. There are no vestiges or analogies of the Trinity in the subjective faculties of the human ... memory, intellect, will. To suppose such is to begin a process in which the three hypostases are collapsed into an alleged single personhood (as it must with the human subject).
Going to back to Major Disaster's citation of John Damascene, John defines the Son as the Word. (I assume that is logos, which is also intellect, yes?) I can't see why John's procedure is acceptable and Aquinas's is not?

Anyway, where's your evidence that the psychological analogy must result in collapsing the three persons into one?

Fr Gregory: it's what happens in Aquinas.
Me: but it doesn't happen in Aquinas.
Fr Gregory: it must be happening incipiently, because he starts from Augustine's psychological analogy.

Again, it's a vicious hermeneutic circle.

[ 29. November 2008, 21:25: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Dafyd

Obviously when I say "person precedes relation" I do not mean in time; I mean that the person is the first term such that the relation is predicated anteriorly on the existence of the persons relating. The Son has no beginning in time (contra Arius) but the Son and the Father are in relation such that there is a Father and a Son that relate. Likewise with the Spirit.

Concerning Augustine and the psychological analogy ... I am saying that once one thinks that the Trinity can be spoken of analogically from the unity of the human person then the hypostases necessarily become relational aspects of a single divine person and precisely not persons (plural) which is the necessary data of the Christian experience of God ... 3 persons yet not 3 gods. One God yet not one divine hypostasis.

[ 29. November 2008, 21:46: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Obviously when I say "person precedes relation" I do not mean in time; I mean that the person is the first term such that the relation is predicated anteriorly on the existence of the persons relating.

I never thought you did mean in time - stop evading.
Your statement after the semicolon is only a grammatical truth about our language. And it's not entirely true even then. When you call the Son 'the Son' you refer to the Son by the relationship; the relationship is not predicated at all, anteriorly or otherwise.

quote:
Concerning Augustine and the psychological analogy ... I am saying that once one thinks that the Trinity can be spoken of analogically from the unity of the human person then the hypostases necessarily become relational aspects of a single divine person and precisely not persons (plural) which is the necessary data of the Christian experience of God ...
You said that before. Do you have anything new to add?
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
I mean that the person is the first term such that the relation is predicated anteriorly on the existence of the persons relating.

Which is exactly why we call the persons "hypostasis".... it is the "first term"... what is foundational... what we begin from... I have heard that there was a debate on whether the essence was the hypostasis or the person, and the answer to that debate is today's equation of person with hypostasis...

Contra the Hellenic Philosophy, we do not begin with an abstract "One".... That's what Plato or Plotinus does... In Christianity we begin with the Revelation of God to Man... When, for example, we have Christ raising the dead, that's a direct experience of the Person of Christ, energizing the divine energy because of His divine essence... That's the ordo theologia of the Orthodox. We always begin with the person, because it is the Person that reveals Himself to us.

quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Now the Father and the Son and the Spirit all exist together. There's no Father without the Son and no Spirit or Son without the Father. As the Father exists so the Son and the Spirit exist. So their existence is not independent: they share one existence.

This is a rejection of the Father's monarchy... If the Father exists because of the Son, then the Father is not the sole cause of the Trinity, but essentially, there is no cause, than some sort of a blind (impersonal) necessity in the Trinity...

The Father causes the Son (outside time or ages) and He is the Father of the Son... but not because of the Son.

As for us having bodies... I didn't say the divine persons have bodies. Having a body is not part of the definition of a person... Angels do not have bodies either. Would you say there is one Angel?

I never denied that we have bodies. But EVEN THAT, will not prevent us from becoming one "exactly like" they are one... because it's not the body that divides us, not the absence of a body that would unite us.

The anthropological implications of the oneness of God you are proposing here are disastrous: there can be no salvation of man, because we have bodies or whatever, which the three divine persons do not have.... our union is not possible, and therefore our salvation, in Christian terms, impossible as well.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
What Andrew said (in response to you Dafyd). [Overused]
 
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
What Andrew said

You and Andrew are going round in circles, I think because you are committed to the artificial notion of a God about which nothing can be known but yet must known experientially in order to, er, be known. It's epistemological gibberish.

There is only value in claiming something is real if we have some means other than our own interpretation of experience to support it. If there is no verifiable support, the only reasonable conclusion is that is a product of our mind. Saying as you do that you 'just know' it's more is fideism and has no positive value.
 
Posted by PataLeBon (# 5452) on :
 
If the Father can exist outside of the Son and Spirit (AKA, if they did not exist anymore, he still could...)

Then are we still only talking about one God (as the Trinity would imply - the Three in One and One in Three)? And if so, why, when he can be permanently divided? Otherwise it seems that we are implying the One and Two in One etc...

And Dave, I've been thinking that if it is impossible to explain God outside of Church, then how can one believe that anyone can be converted from non-belief in God to belief?
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Hypotheticals. How can we debate hypotheticals? As it is we have Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

As far as "explaining God" is concerned ... who said anything about that? I merely said that it is not possible to construct the Trinity from first principles or analogical pseudodata (the Augustinian vestiges of the Trinity). We can explain what we have encountered and what we have believed ... but that's an invitation not a cogent reason by itself to know the same thing existentially without a step of personal knowledge (by which some use the word "faith.")

I have never in all my years of priesthood ... Anglican and Orthodox, 26 years now ... I have NEVER seen a person argued into the kingdom of God. You can render something plausible by argument but not "real" in the existential sense.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
Now the Father and the Son and the Spirit all exist together. There's no Father without the Son and no Spirit or Son without the Father. As the Father exists so the Son and the Spirit exist. So their existence is not independent: they share one existence.

This is a rejection of the Father's monarchy... If the Father exists because of the Son, then the Father is not the sole cause of the Trinity, but essentially, there is no cause, than some sort of a blind (impersonal) necessity in the Trinity...

The Father causes the Son (outside time or ages) and He is the Father of the Son... but not because of the Son.

I did not say that the Father exists "because of" the Son. Of course, the Father is the cause of the Son and Spirit. There's not any impersonal necessity in the Trinity.

But because the Father exists the Son exists. If the Father isn't the sufficient cause of the Son, if the Father also has to decide to beget the Son, then in effect you're saying that the Father creates the Son - you just won't use the word.
The Father begets the Son freely by existing.

quote:
As for us having bodies... I didn't say the divine persons have bodies. Having a body is not part of the definition of a person... Angels do not have bodies either. Would you say there is one Angel?
It would be helpful if you argued against arguments that other people have put forward and not against arguments that they haven't put forward.

Angels have individual essences and operations. (I do not pretend to know anything about angels.) But the three divine persons share one essence and operation.

The problem though is although you say that the divine persons don't have bodies, as far as I can tell you think that this makes absolutely no difference to the way in which we talk or think about them.

quote:
I never denied that we have bodies. But EVEN THAT, will not prevent us from becoming one "exactly like" they are one... because it's not the body that divides us, not the absence of a body that would unite us.

The anthropological implications of the oneness of God you are proposing here are disastrous: there can be no salvation of man, because we have bodies or whatever, which the three divine persons do not have.... our union is not possible, and therefore our salvation, in Christian terms, impossible as well.

Jesus does not say 'that they may be one in every way that we are one'. You've decided to add the word 'exactly' to support your interpretation, but that's not in the text.

Anyway, here is Athanasius, Statement of Faith:
quote:
Neither can we imagine three Subsistences separated from each other, as results from their bodily nature in the case of men, lest we hold a plurality of gods like the heathen. But just as a river, produced from a well, is not separate, and yet there are in fact two visible objects and two names. For neither is the Father the Son, nor the Son the Father. For the Father is Father of the Son, and the Son, Son of the Father. For like as the well is not a river, nor the river a well, but both are one and the same water which is conveyed in a channel from the well to the river, so the Father’s deity passes into the Son without flow and without division. For the Lord says, ‘I came out from the Father and am come’ (Joh. xvi. 28). But He is ever with the Father, for He is in the bosom of the Father, nor was ever the bosom of the Father void of the deity of the Son. For He says, ‘I was by Him as one setting in order’ (Prov. viii. 30). But we do not regard God the Creator of all, the Son of God, as a creature, or thing made, or as made out of nothing, for He is truly existent from Him who exists, alone existing from Him who alone exists, in as much as the like glory and power was eternally and conjointly begotten of the Father.
I draw your attention especially to the first sentence, in which Athanasius says that because of our bodily natures the three divine persons are not 'exactly like' us.
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
But the three divine persons share one essence and operation.

From the text you linked us to, just one sentence BEFORE the part you quoted:

quote:
For neither do we hold a Son-Father, as do the Sabellians, calling Him of one but not of the same essence, and thus destroying the existence of the Son.
The phrase "one essence" does not mean what you think it does. (which is why in the creed we don't say one essence, but same essence... think about what the quote above means) What you said, is what that text you linked to rejects, just one sentence before what you quoted to "support" your claim!

For the fathers, all humans are of the same essence. In MIgne's Liber de definitionibus, under Athanasius, it is explained what essence is, and why we say there is one divine essence...

And if you don't believe me, just look at the way the controversy on Christ's wills and operations was resolved. All humans are of one operation... and of one will...

You are making a distinction, between the one divine operation, and the many human operations that is just not there.

What is different is not the operation being one... it is one in both cases. What's different is the union, so we end up with the dialog I posted earlier... "I call one those that are of one heart".

That's what it's all about. Else, if the operation or the essence was like a rope being held by all three persons, that would be unitarianism, as the very text you quoted from says!

Anyway, this isn't getting us anywhere. The chasm is so big, and communication is so difficult... Sigh.
 
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by PataLeBon:
And Dave, I've been thinking that if it is impossible to explain God outside of Church, then how can one believe that anyone can be converted from non-belief in God to belief?

Well, yes. I don't happen think that simple belief/non-belief is a good way of looking at this, but Andrew and Father Gregory seem to delight in making becoming Orthodox a logical impossibility.
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
I have never in all my years of priesthood ... Anglican and Orthodox, 26 years now ... I have NEVER seen a person argued into the kingdom of God. You can render something plausible by argument but not "real" in the existential sense.

That might be because you're defining 'the kingdom of God' in such a way as to make it impossible. This sounds like you think you can judge who's in and who's not, but of course you'll claim you don't. It's this kind of inconsistency that makes me think Orthodoxy only holds together if you avoid the rigorous theological and philosophical questions you're trying to answer here.

[ 01. December 2008, 12:39: Message edited by: Dave Marshall ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dave

quote:
That might be because you're defining 'the kingdom of God' in such a way as to make it impossible. This sounds like you think you can judge who's in and who's not, but of course you'll claim you don't.
Oh pardon me! I won't speak. I am obviously a knave or a fool. How wonderful it must be to be you with YOUR insight. Thanks a bunch. [Mad]
 
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
I won't speak.

Course you will. But getting all huffy won't change the fact that if you define the essence of Orthodoxy/the kingdom of God as experiential, you effectively exclude the possibility of useful rational discussion about either.

[ 01. December 2008, 17:08: Message edited by: Dave Marshall ]
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Why isn't experience a worthwhile endeavour for you Dave? Do you think that "thinking" is superior? Do you think that "experience" is hermetically sealed against all rational discourse, a vortex of the fundamentalist? What an astonishing and ludicrous idea ... oh but I forgot ... you tend to solipsism don't you so subjectivity is a private enterprise. Don't you allow for experience being shared?
 
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on :
 
I'm with you all the way on the primacy of experience, Fr. G. I just don't see how you get from that to the requirement of a single, definitive-for-all-time logico-verbal formulation that preemptively defines everyone's experience. (Especially a formulation depending on obsolete philosophical constructs like "essence" and "substance," which were originally invented to explain the material world but would never be used for that these days.) But maybe that's Andrew more than you.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
Dear Timothy the Obscure

quote:
I'm with you all the way on the primacy of experience, Fr. G. I just don't see how you get from that to the requirement of a single, definitive-for-all-time logico-verbal formulation that preemptively defines everyone's experience.
You don't because the words were not chosen to create, define and delimit the experience but rather make sense of the preceding experience.

Words are understood as they are used. What keeps them in use is a certain fittingness to the task. To me, they are still fit, although I dislike the Latinate derivation of substance (as in "substance abuse" [Big Grin] ).
 
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Why isn't experience a worthwhile endeavour for you Dave? Do you think that "thinking" is superior? Do you think that "experience" is hermetically sealed against all rational discourse, a vortex of the fundamentalist? What an astonishing and ludicrous idea ... oh but I forgot ... you tend to solipsism don't you so subjectivity is a private enterprise. Don't you allow for experience being shared?

Who said anything about experience 'not being a worthwhile endeavour', whatever that means? And I've no idea how you get 'tend to solipsism' from what I've posted.

Shared experiences are what make the world go round. They build relationships and allow people to know each other. But they don't reliably describe anything. They generate a mass of biased, subjective impressions that at best only reflect people and places at the time and in the contexts in which they were experienced.

To get information anyone can rely on we use empirical methods and cross-reference our results to catch the errors. We don't read the diary of a medieval monk to find out how to build a computer. Neither, I suggest, does it make sense to assume that a history of interpretations of experiences, selected because they fit a pattern claimed by some ancient to reflect ultimate truth (he just knew it was God), actually correlates with reality.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
quote:
Shared experiences are what make the world go round. They build relationships and allow people to know each other. But they don't reliably describe anything.
(my emphasis)

This is why we will never agree here Dave. You and I have mutually exclusive models of cognition.

Mind you it also means by your own reckoning that I needn't take too seriously anything you say either. Since this will inevitably be based on your own experience (or lack of it) that also won't reliably describe anything either. That's the problem with all the variants of non-realism. They disinvent themselves.

[ 02. December 2008, 07:17: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
 
Posted by §Andrew (# 9313) on :
 
Dear Timothy

I didn't say it defines experience. We can't use words to describe what actually exists. We can't do that with nature (as modern science affirms) and we can't do that with metaphysics (as modern philosophy affirms). Orthodoxy has been saying that for the past few thousand years, but anyway.

This doesn't mean that the dogma itself can't be described in a clear way...

Also

I have heard a very nice metaphor.

It's like having someone who is blind from birth, and someone else explaining to him that there are two doors, one red and one blue. If you open the red door you find salvation, but if you open the blue door you find damnation. Red is a warm color, but not warm in the sense your tea is warm. And blue is a cold color, but not cold in the sense ice is cold. You will understand when you get to see.
 
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Mind you it also means by your own reckoning that I needn't take too seriously anything you say either. Since this will inevitably be based on your own experience (or lack of it) that also won't reliably describe anything either.

Um, I'd hope no-one takes anything I might say about my 'experience of God' as if it were reliable evidence. I wouldn't. What we can do is pool ideas about how to make best sense of actual, known, testable reality, including how Christian tradition can help with that.

'Experience of God' (if it's identified as different to any other human experience) can only be an unverifiable subjective interpretation. Criteria for evaluating such experiences that are in fact other people's interpretations of their own similar experiences only perpetuate and reinforce an essentially arbitrary tradition. If those traditions are useful, fair enough. But that's no good reason to believe they represent, are reliable evidence for, any ultimate reality or truth.
quote:
That's the problem with all the variants of non-realism.
I'd be interested to know how you think my views are a variant of non-realism. You seem to be confusing your own assertion of a reality that is completely 'other' and what can actually be shown to be real.
 
Posted by Father Gregory (# 310) on :
 
quote:
including how Christian tradition can help with that.

Ahhhh! At last!!! (And don't you dare mention the word "Orthodoxy" ... because I haven't).
 
Posted by Dave Marshall (# 7533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Father Gregory:
Ahhhh! At last!!!

Don't get carried away. You make it sound like that's not always been my position.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by §Andrew:
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
But the three divine persons share one essence and operation.

From the text you linked us to, just one sentence BEFORE the part you quoted:

quote:
For neither do we hold a Son-Father, as do the Sabellians, calling Him of one but not of the same essence, and thus destroying the existence of the Son.
The phrase "one essence" does not mean what you think it does. (which is why in the creed we don't say one essence, but same essence... think about what the quote above means) What you said, is what that text you linked to rejects, just one sentence before what you quoted to "support" your claim!

The reason I didn't quote that previous sentence is that I didn't think for a moment that you'd believe I was disagreeing with it.
I was working with the idea that 'essence' is pretty much the same as 'nature'.

Anyway, as you say, for some reason or other we're not going to get anywhere.
 


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