Thread: Kerygmania: The Gospel of John, a verse at a time. Board: Limbo / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Suggested System.

1/ You can say “stop” at any point.

2/ If you say “stop” you then have control of the thread (not in a hostly sense) until the reason you have stopped the thread is clear in your mind and tangents have been rounded up.

3/ You then post the next verse.

4/ The gap between verses must be at least 12 hours.

5/ If a verse has passed you may not stop the thread to go back to it, though you may (of course) quote it or future verses in your posts.

6/ You can stop the thread for any reason. Clarification, a request for a translation, to make a point, to share an insight, whatever. Once you have stopped the thread it is up to you to start it.

7/ There is no rush.

8/ For ease we are using this linked translation : Bible Gateway NIV

[ 29. August 2015, 01:46: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
John 1.1

quote:
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Thanks, Pyx_e.

Are we supposed to comment on these verses? [Confused]

If we do are we then responsible for starting the thread again. [Confused]
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Freddy if you have something to say or ask then post " Stop " and include in your post your question or response and let the study begin as others comment. When you (the stopee) are satisfied that your point has been covered simply post the next verse.

The twelve hour suggestion only applies to an verse that does not elicit a response. If a verse is generating posts long let it continue.

So at present I have the bible study, if this verse does not elicit a Stop I will post the next verse. If someone posts stop they then have the responsibilty to post the next verse (or verses) until someone else stops it, The stopper is in charge of the bible study until someone else says Stop .

P

[ 27. May 2006, 14:45: Message edited by: Pyx_e ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
OK. Well, there's plenty to say about the first verse.
quote:
Originally posted by Pyx_e:
John 1.1
quote:
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

The concept of "the Word" is fascinating to me. It is a concept that runs throughout the Bible.

The Word was with God and the Word was God. So Jesus was in essence with God from the start.

To my mind, this explains who Jesus is and what His mission was. The Word is God's Divine Truth. So Jesus came to bring light, or that truth, to the human race. This makes Him really simply God.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Am I correct in thinking that on this verse rests the premise of Jesus' co-equality with God, also Jesus' pre-existence before the incarnation ?

(What a wonderful idea for a thread, thanks Pyx_e.)
 
Posted by jinglebellrocker (# 8493) on :
 
Stop

I think anyone vaguely familiar with this passage knows that the Word refers to Jesus. As far as I know, that is the first time in scripture Jesus was given this title (with the possible exception of Luke 1:1-4). What did John mean by it? Was it as if in the beginning God said, "Let there be light!" and Jesus was the part of God that actually performed the creative action that made it happen?

What connection to these passages have with the Word, if any?
Luke 1:2
Luke 8:21
Luke 11:28
They use the same Greek word logos, but are they talking about the same thing?
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
jinglebellrocker

I dont think they are. My Greek/English expository dictionary points to LOGOS meaning

1) the expression of thought
. . a) embodying an idea
. . b) a saying or statement
. . c) discourse, speech or instruction

2) The Personal Word, a title of the Son of God

Much needs to be derived from the context.

I think the natural interpretation is that the Luke illustrations all belong to category 1) above. But there is a complication in that, by theological reflection, Jesus is seen very much as the "living Word" and "the Word made flesh". The Word Alive, if you like. The issue for interpretation is always that the Word was made flesh and we should discourage ourselves from turning him back into "mere" word (or words).
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Am I correct in thinking that on this verse rests the premise of Jesus' co-equality with God, also Jesus' pre-existence before the incarnation ?

(What a wonderful idea for a thread, thanks Pyx_e.)

Not entirely on this verse; compare Phillipians 2:5-7:

Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

6Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

7But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
6Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,

The NIV clarifies my understanding; 'in the nature' = in the image of God, as we all are made.

Agreed that the alternative version is consistent with Jesus' equality and pre-existence: but this is inconsisistent with the rest of scripture.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Nature and Image are not the same thing, not even close.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Oh ? Is this a translation issue ? [Confused]
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Good question. but it might be derailing this thread -- I'll start a new one.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Barnabas62:
Jesus is seen very much as the "living Word" and "the Word made flesh". The Word Alive, if you like. The issue for interpretation is always that the Word was made flesh and we should discourage ourselves from turning him back into "mere" word (or words).

I agree, Barnabas. We also need to be careful not to divorce what Jesus was too much from what "the Word" actually is.

A curious aspect of "the Word" is its role in creation. As we will soon read:
quote:
John 1.3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.
The reference seems to be to the fact that God is depicted in Genesis as creating by speaking:
quote:
Genesis 1.2 Then God said, “Let there be light”; and there was light….
9 Then God said, “Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land appear”; and it was so.

This is described by the Psalmist as creation by the Word:
quote:
Psalm 33:6 By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, And all the host of them by the breath of His mouth.
How does "the Word" create?

I think that we find a clue in Isaiah:
quote:
Isaiah 55.10 “ For as the rain comes down, and the snow from heaven,
And do not return there,
But water the earth,
And make it bring forth and bud,
That it may give seed to the sower
And bread to the eater,
11 So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth;
It shall not return to Me void,
But it shall accomplish what I please,
And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it."

The Word of God creates. It also accomplishes what He sends it to do. God's words are not just sayings. They are described as something that forms and gives life to the world. This is in keeping with the way that Jesus spoke about His own words:
quote:
Matthew 4:4 But He answered and said, “It is written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.’”

Matthew 24:35 Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will by no means pass away.

John 6:63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and they are life.

Jesus seems to mean that His words will change the world, restoring its life. The imagery used is also about bringing light where there is darkness.

So Jesus as the Word of God is the divine truth from God that created and formed the world and everything in it. Everything was created by and according to the divine truth from the divine love.

It also seems to me that most people think that, if anything is going to change and improve the world, the truth is going to do it. That is, that advances in our understanding of how the world works is what holds the key to improving our future.

This is what I see John saying in this first verse of the first chapter.
 
Posted by Pearl B-4 Swine (# 11451) on :
 
I have trouble with something not having a beginning, not to mention an ending...
Jesus, the physical human-form expression of God, was for ever 'with' God(The Word)and participated in forming everything that is. But what kind of identity or substance was Jesus before he got born of a human mother? What was he doing all that infinity of time before he was conceived? I like to think of Jesus as the part of God that does have substance, not just an abstract idea of "the Word". Hard to visualize the Body and Blood pre-existing the physical world.
I'll go away quietly if this is all too elementary for this discussion. Thanks.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Doesn't "Logos" refer to the "Divine Reason" of God?

In other words, the creative "stuff" of the universe, the glue - so to speak - that holds it all together? The Cosmic Order.

As in, the Great Antiphon, "O Sapientia": "O Wisdom, which camest out of the mouth of the most High, and reachest from one end to another, mightily and sweetly ordering all things: Come and teach us the way of prudence."

Isn't that what "logos" refers to?
 
Posted by LutheranChik (# 9826) on :
 
Yes, IMHO.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
I think there is a distinction betwen the logos of John 1:1 and the personification of wisdom that we see in Proverbs.

The logos of John 1 is co-eternal with God.The wisdom is the first of the created order in Proverbs and 'works' with God in the rest of the act of creation, but nevertheless is a part of the created order.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pearl B-4 Swine:
Jesus, the physical human-form expression of God, was for ever 'with' God(The Word)and participated in forming everything that is. But what kind of identity or substance was Jesus before he got born of a human mother? What was he doing all that infinity of time before he was conceived? I like to think of Jesus as the part of God that does have substance, not just an abstract idea of "the Word". Hard to visualize the Body and Blood pre-existing the physical world.

The nature of the Word as God is that of an immaterial Spirit. This Divine nature subsists in the Person of the Son. A person is a subject relating to themselves and to other beings, in this sense God can be spoken of as being three Persons. The Person of the Divine Logos did however assume human nature as Jesus. So we have human nature and Divine nature subsiting in the same Divine Person. Jesus had human nature but properly speaking was not a human person, but a Divine Person. This does not diminish His humanity, it elevates it, for divinization does not destroy the human person, but perfects it. Jesus acts with perfect human-ness precisely because He is a Divine Person.

Now, the fleshy body of Jesus clearly had a limited temporal existence: it was born and died within 30-odd years, two milennia ago. The union of human nature and Divine nature in the Divine Person of the Son could only have been temporal and temporary. Indeed, it could have occured only for five minutes of Jesus' life, rather than His whole life. But it was not so. We believe that from conception as fleshy body and human soul, during the three days in the tomb as human soul, and since then as resurrected spiritual body and human soul, Jesus human nature subsists in the Divine Person of the Son.

Finally, the question whether we should consider Jesus' human nature to have been present in eternity is a difficult one. I think Jesus' ascensions says that yes, in resurrected form this is so. Here it gets confusing, because eternity is so hard to imagine. Picture two parallel lines. One is infinite and lit up entirely, that's eternity. The other line is finite and dark but has a little light moving along it. That's time. Jesus ascension is like forging a little link between those two parallel lines, when the light of time passes a specific spot on the dark line. Along that link, Jesus' human nature "escapes" the dark line into the lit line. Now we can say that because that line is all light, Jesus' human nature is present throughout eternity. In the sense of being parallel to the time line within the eternal line, his human nature is present at a time before it was even created! On the other hand, we can locate the link along the dark line of time and we can say "That's when it happened, not earlier, not later."

The really nice thing is of course that this is our future! Jesus was only the first of many links between the lines, He came so that we would be able to enter eternal life, too. Or in other words: you are going to witness creation from eternity, if you die in Christ. That's certainly something to look forward to...
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
I find greatest understanding by contrasting human words with those of God.

Whereas ours are ephemeral, rooted in the hatred and lies which lead to death; God's Word is Life-giving, up-building in Love, and a-historical.

That Word was the Beginning, Middle and End.
 
Posted by Carabao (# 11146) on :
 
I think John is interacting with contemporary philosophical thought. Mr Wikipedia says, "The Stoics understood Logos as the animating power of the universe". Its very interesting that John should use a technical term from a worldview which he disagrees with. That's why sometimes 'Logos' is translated as Tao in Chinese Bibles.
 
Posted by rewboss (# 566) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Carabao:
I think John is interacting with contemporary philosophical thought. Mr Wikipedia says, "The Stoics understood Logos as the animating power of the universe". Its very interesting that John should use a technical term from a worldview which he disagrees with. That's why sometimes 'Logos' is translated as Tao in Chinese Bibles.

Yes, indeed, the Stoics knew "the Word" as the original creative power that brought the cosmos into being. John takes this idea and, rather like Paul talking about the "unknown god", says, "Now let me tell you all about this 'Word' and what it really is." He combines Stoic philosophy with Hebrew theology very elegantly: he begins with the words of Genesis 1:1 -- "In the beginning..." -- and goes on to suggest that the "Word" is what God spoke when he created the cosmos; and that in Jesus of Nazereth, the "Word" is expressed in human form. It's significant that in John's Gospel, miracles (which he calls "signs") are nearly always accompanied by sermons. Jesus's sermons are "the Word", and proof of that is that this "Word" demonstrates extraordinary powers, even to the extent of restoring life -- that which the Word had initially created.

Incidentally, the signs are only that: signs that Jesus is indeed the embodiement of the Word. They are used as a springboard to illustrate something profound -- the healing of a blind man is embedded in a discourse about the spiritual significance of light. Jesus, the Word, came to preach, not to perform cheap magic tricks.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by rewboss:
He combines Stoic philosophy with Hebrew theology very elegantly: he begins with the words of Genesis 1:1 -- "In the beginning..." -- and goes on to suggest that the "Word" is what God spoke when he created the cosmos; and that in Jesus of Nazereth, the "Word" is expressed in human form.

Thank you, Rewboss. I love how you put this. It nicely answers Pearl B-4 Swine's question as to where Jesus was before the Incarnation.
quote:
Originally posted by rewboss:
Jesus, the Word, came to preach, not to perform cheap magic tricks.

It is remarkable how true this is. He even stated that this was His purpose:
quote:
Mark 1:38 “Let us go into the next towns, that I may preach there also, because for this purpose I have come forth.”

Luke 24:46 ...it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead the third day, 47 and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name to all nations...

John 18.37 "For this cause I was born, and for this cause I have come into the world, that I should bear witness to the truth. Everyone who is of the truth hears My voice.”

This illustrates how central it is that He is the Word, come to re-form the world by the power of the divine truth.
 
Posted by rewboss (# 566) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by rewboss:
Jesus, the Word, came to preach, not to perform cheap magic tricks.

It is remarkable how true this is. He even stated that this was His purpose:
quote:
Mark 1:38 “Let us go into the next towns, that I may preach there also, because for this purpose I have come forth.”

An even clearer passage -- to my mind -- is John's account of the feeding of the 5,000. Right after this event, Jesus tries to slip away, but the crowd catch up with him. He answers them quite harshly: "I tell you the truth, you are looking for me, not because you saw miraculous signs but because you ate the loaves and had your fill" (Jn 6:26), before hosting a question-and-answer session on the Bread of Life.

Compare that with Matthew and Luke's account of the first temptation: to turn stones into bread. Jesus refuses on the grounds that "man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God" (Matth. 4:4).
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by rewboss:
He answers them quite harshly: "I tell you the truth, you are looking for me, not because you saw miraculous signs but because you ate the loaves and had your fill" (Jn 6:26), before hosting a question-and-answer session on the Bread of Life.

Compare that with Matthew and Luke's account of the first temptation: to turn stones into bread. Jesus refuses on the grounds that "man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God" (Matth. 4:4).

Great point. I'm sure that there are many similar examples. They illustrate the fact that He is the Word personified.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Jesus is the Word of Life and Salvation:

quote:
John 3:17
For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.


 
Posted by jinglebellrocker (# 8493) on :
 
Start
(in case anyone was waiting for me to do that)
 
Posted by jinglebellrocker (# 8493) on :
 
quote:
2He was with God in the beginning.



 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
A restatement of verse 1.
Innit ?


_________________________________________

Edited to add:

Stop

noelper as you commented on the verse it is your responsibilty to stop the verses coming and it is also your respnsibility to start the discussion of the next verse when you think this one exhausted. (As Jinglebellrocker did, many thanks JBR).

If we do not accept responsiblity for this then this htread will falter.

If in doubt re-read the OP.

Many thanks,

Pyx_e, Host.

[ 29. May 2006, 09:06: Message edited by: Pyx_e ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by jinglebellrocker:
quote:
2 He was with God in the beginning.

It does make you wonder what is meant by "with God" as opposed to "was God."

When God said "Let there be light" that voice and that saying was the Word of God. That
Word was "with" Him.

It surprises me, seeing this distinction in Genesis, or as recapitulated elsewhere, that people would see this as two persons. I would think that the more obvious distinction would be something like God's desire to create finding expression through His thought. His thought, or His wisdom, is then what is called the Word.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
The repetition of phrasing suggests that this section of the gospel is poetic. Certainly the first two verses form a chiasmus
code:
[b]John 1:1-2 [/b](ESV)  
a. In the beginning was the Word,
b. and the Word was with God,
b'. and the Word was God.
a'. He was in the beginning with God.



[ 29. May 2006, 02:12: Message edited by: Anselm ]
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
It does make you wonder what is meant by "with God" as opposed to "was God."

Three persons, one essence. It's a fumbling attempt to explain how Jesus and God can be the same, and yet not the same.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
It does make you wonder what is meant by "with God" as opposed to "was God."

Three persons, one essence. It's a fumbling attempt to explain how Jesus and God can be the same, and yet not the same.
Oh, OK.

Since when does a person need a whole new person to speak? I'm thinking that it would make more sense to think that the speech and the origin of the speech are in one person. [Paranoid]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Jesus was part of this grouping, however constituted :-

Genesis 1:26
quote:
Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness....
In a cyclical (as opposed to linear) view of time predicated in the bible, all the heavenly host seem to be present at the creation.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
In Genesis 1:1, "In the beginning God created...", the word for God is Elohim, which is plural.

Moo
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Moo and Noelper, it is true that Elohim is plural and that God says "let us." Jews have never thought that these imply a plurality of persons. But why would they be plural?

I just think that it is interesting that the nature of this plurality is apparently the distinction between the God who simply was and the God who spoke. Maybe a third is suggested in the statement "And the Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters" (Genesis 1.2).
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Freddy:

quote:
Jews have never thought that these imply a plurality of persons. But why would they be plural?
This is my own view, but John's gospel opens the way for expansion, if only because of the author's desire to forge the theological link between Old and New Testaments. I am unsure if the process aids my understanding of the Godhead, however. God as the Alpha and Omega I can deal with; God as the Son and the Holy Spirit becomes problematic.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
God as the Alpha and Omega I can deal with; God as the Son and the Holy Spirit becomes problematic.

So true! I easily relate to the idea that God is the beginning and the end, and all things in between. But I also struggle with the tri-personal imagery.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Start

(Having confessed my confusion about this gospel.... [Hot and Hormonal] )
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
3Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
This verse assures me that Love empowers the universe.

_____________________

Edited to add :

Stop

noelepr the thread is again yours to move to the next verse. If you commnet on the verse you stop the movement to the next one and you have to then post it when this verse is fully discussed.

Pyx_e Host.

[ 29. May 2006, 18:42: Message edited by: Pyx_e ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
I also love the fact that the speaking of the Word gives form to the universe. All things are formed by the Word of God.

So just as the Word formed everything in the beginning, so Jesus re-forms it at His coming.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Since when does a person need a whole new person to speak?

I don't think Jesus and the Father are two different persons out of necessity; they are two different persons because they are. This verse is trying to explain that.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Since when does a person need a whole new person to speak?

I don't think Jesus and the Father are two different persons out of necessity; they are two different persons because they are. This verse is trying to explain that.
I see. So God does not have to be a Trinity in order to function. He just happens to be a Trinity.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
God isn't subject to any necessity. Don't Swedenborgians believe that too?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
God isn't subject to any necessity. Don't Swedenborgians believe that too?

No. He is bound by His own laws, which follow from His essence, which is love and wisdom. Not that this has anything to do with the Trinity.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
You were the one trying to make God "need" to be a Trinity, not I.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
You were the one trying to make God "need" to be a Trinity, not I.

Oh. Sorry, Alexis. I wasn't meaning that. I was just asking idle speculative questions about the need for a Trinity. I wondered if it was tied to function somehow.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I don't think the Trinity has ever been argued for by "need" -- it's considered (by those who believe it) the best way of tying together all the scriptural passages about the father and the son and the spirit.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
The Jesus of the NT clearly depicts aspects of God, which are barely discernible in the OT. Specifically, the roles of Father and Comforter - as compared with that of Warrior and generally Scary Person. That the Unity/Trinity dichotomy became a source of conflict between religious denominations, reflects how little has been the understanding reached by gospel adherents. [Tear]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
In any case, this verse describes the Word in terms of something that it, or He, does:
quote:
3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
Or rather, God does it through the Word.

It makes me think of substance and form. God is the substance, and He creates by form. Yet the two are inseparable, one being impossible without the other.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
quote:
3Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
This verse assures me that Love empowers the universe.

_____________________

Edited to add :

Stop

noelepr the thread is again yours to move to the next verse. If you commnet on the verse you stop the movement to the next one and you have to then post it when this verse is fully discussed.

Pyx_e Host.

Does that mean that without noelper we can't move to verse 4?
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
quote:
4In him was life, and that life was the light of men.

 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
As a non-scientist, this verse explains the structure and order of the universe, in which I have been invited to play a small part, through faith.

_______________________________

Edited to add

Stop

neopler you have the thread.

[ 31. May 2006, 16:17: Message edited by: Pyx_e ]
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I wonder what exactly "in him was life" means. There's life in a dog or a cherry tree; presumably something beyond this mere biological fact is alluded to here?
 
Posted by Pearl B-4 Swine (# 11451) on :
 
Freddy, perhaps your good words can be turned a bit (I don't know how to do the quote thing, but I'll learn one day);
God is the inexhaustible storehouse of all forms, and spins off all formed substance by virtue of His limitless and undeniable Love.
G.M. Hopkins says ('Pied Beauty'): He fathers-forth whose beauty is past change: Praise him.
This next is a step backward, & I apologize, but I'm not quick enough to digest your ideas in here: maybe the plural form in the Genesis verse is a royal 'we' thing- expressing solemnity and respect? I know 0 about Hebrew language.
Thanks, all of you for addressing my earlier questions. I'm way out of my depth in this "school"; thanks for letting me stay !
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
The Source of all life ie the raison d'etre .
 
Posted by Pearl B-4 Swine (# 11451) on :
 
See? I'm already way behind.........sigh
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
I wonder what exactly "in him was life" means. There's life in a dog or a cherry tree; presumably something beyond this mere biological fact is alluded to here?

I think the idea is that whereas all created things receive their life from God, the Word has life in itself, since it, or He, is God.

John says something similar about Jesus:
quote:
John 5:26 For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has granted the Son to have life in Himself.
Even more than that, Jesus not only has life, He is able to give life:
quote:
John 5:21 For as the Father raises the dead and gives life to them, even so the Son gives life to whom He will.
It seems to me that all of this is mentioned as a testification that Jesus, as the Word, is God Himself.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Maybe all these ideas come together in John's theology, if we imagine the cosmic 'Big Bang' as the creative power of Life emanating from the Word, which God spoke at the beginning of linear time.

Which then continued to resonate into the great Amen, previewed in the Revelation. [Ultra confused]

(Any more comments to add ? Or is it Ok to start again ?)
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
{tangent alert}

Pearl B-4 Swine, I wanted to send you a PM explaining how to do quotes, but you do not alllow PMs.

If you would like to receive private messages from shipmates, go here to see how to access your profile. When you get to your profile, click on View/Update Profile. Scroll way down and you will find a place where you can tick a box that will allow PMs to be sent to you.

{/tangent alert}

Moo
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Maybe all these ideas come together in John's theology, if we imagine the cosmic 'Big Bang' as the creative power of Life emanating from the Word, which God spoke at the beginning of linear time.

Which then continued to resonate into the great Amen, previewed in the Revelation. [Ultra confused]

Great observation. Seems right to me.

No more observations here. Start when ready. [Angel]
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
I wonder what exactly "in him was life" means. There's life in a dog or a cherry tree; presumably something beyond this mere biological fact is alluded to here?

I'm interested in the two parts of the verse: in him was life, AND that life was the light of men. To me, the second says something about the first. When I think about "the light of men", I think about what we commonly understand as the differences between humanity and other forms of life--what humans have and zebras, say, do not. Some say "a soul"; some say "an intellect". I read the verse as alluding to the idea that Jesus had an abundance of those things: that in following Christ one connects more strongly to the better parts of humanity, just as humanity draws the better parts of itself from the nature of God.

This isn't me stopping the thread; I'm happy for it to go on. Just wanted to toss my nickel into the idea MT threw out.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
I wonder what exactly "in him was life" means. There's life in a dog or a cherry tree; presumably something beyond this mere biological fact is alluded to here?

As noelper suggested, it would seem to me that the phrase "in him was life" means that the Word was the source of all life. Though the second phrase "And that life was the light of men" would seem to indicate that this "life" was more than simply biological animation.
The theme of light in John's gospel would suggest that this light is revelation of, and relationship with, God.
Therefore the Word mediated access to the Divine.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
anselm:

quote:
The theme of light in John's gospel would suggest that this light is revelation of, and relationship with, God.
Therefore the Word mediated access to the Divine.

John amplifies the light hypothesis in this passage:

quote:

1 John 1 : 5-7

This is the message we have heard from him and declare to you: God is light ; in him there is no darkness at all. If we claim to have fellowship with him yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not live by the truth. But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin.

The contrast between light and dark becomes the joyful basis for a simple, almost childish differentiaion of God's Children, with Christ as the Head, speaking to the Father in our defence.

Amazing.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
5 The light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not understood it.


 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
understood, or overcome? Seems you always get a footnote giving that alternate reading.

In favour of the first, that's certainly the understanding Tolkien had, because he stuck it into the mouth of Galadriel:

"I say to you, Frodo, that even as I speak to you, I perceive the Dark Lord and know his mind, or all of his mind that concerns the Elves. And he gropes ever to see me and my thought. But still the door is closed!"

[ 01. June 2006, 14:19: Message edited by: Mousethief ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
understood, or overcome? Seems you always get a footnote giving that alternate reading.

That's right.
quote:
New King James Version:
5 And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend[a] it.
Footnotes: John 1:5 Or overcome

King James Version:
5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

New International Version
5 The light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not understood[a] it.
Footnotes: John 1:5 Or darkness, and the darkness has not overcome

New American Standard Bible
5 The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not [a]comprehend it.
Footnotes: John 1:5 Or overpower

American Standard Version
5 And the light shineth in the darkness; and the darkness apprehended it not.

I would go with comprehend or understood. The darkness was not able to receive the light.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
"I say to you, Frodo, that even as I speak to you, I perceive the Dark Lord and know his mind, or all of his mind that concerns the Elves. And he gropes ever to see me and my thought. But still the door is closed!"

I love this. The principle is that good understands evil, but evil can't understand good. I think it is a great truth.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
understood, or overcome? Seems you always get a footnote giving that alternate reading.

John is a bit of an expert in double meanings; the word he uses can have either sense and I wonder if here he uses it deliberately to mean both? Perhaps the English word "mastered" is a better translation?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Acceptance is the key to mastery and understanding of a given situation. By acceptance of the Man Jesus, we are invited to share in the Divine thought processes.

quote:

I Cor 2 :14-16

The man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually discerned. The spiritual man makes judgments about all things, but he himself is not subject to any man's judgment:
"For who has known the mind of the Lord
that he may instruct him?"

But we have the mind of Christ.


 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
6There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.

 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Stop

John immediately makes a Christological point that Christ was the Word and John (the baptiser) was a man sent by God.

P
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Pyx_e, I agree that this distinction seems to be emphasized. John clearly says "I am not He." So Jesus is the Word "which was with God and which was God."

[ 02. June 2006, 13:10: Message edited by: Freddy ]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
What I like about this verse is the (very subtle) move away from High Mysticism into storytelling. We are pondering the beginnings of the Universe and the Nature of God - and all of a sudden are brought back to Incarnational action.

It's sort of jarring, really, but very beautiful somehow. (I'm a total sucker for the Prologue, though.)
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
The distinction between the Word and the man, brings to mind Mary Magdalene's song from "Jesus Christ Superstar":

'I don't know how to love Him....And I've had so many men before in, oh, so many ways....He's just one more...'
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
quote:
7He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all men might believe.

 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
I've always wondered about the conflation of John the Baptist and John the Evangelist. The Evangelist seems to have been a follower of the Baptist, which underlines the notion of an eyewitness testimony - and indeed a 'special' relationship between Jesus and the writer.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
8He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.

 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
Stop

This is an interesting and somewhat subtle point: physical (natural) light is self-evident and doesn't require a witness to point out it's there unless we've become so used to the light that we no longer notice its presence and have fallen into taking it for granted.

It also resonates back to verse 4 In Him was life, and that life was the Light of men - so it clarifies what humanity had fallen into missing: life itself.
 
Posted by English Ploughboy. (# 4205) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Since when does a person need a whole new person to speak?

I don't think Jesus and the Father are two different persons out of necessity; they are two different persons because they are. This verse is trying to explain that.
I see. So God does not have to be a Trinity in order to function. He just happens to be a Trinity.
I always understood that God had to be a plurality of persons because he is a God of love and you always need an object for Godly love. The third person means that God was never alone even at the moment of Christ's dereliction on the cross.
 
Posted by English Ploughboy. (# 4205) on :
 
Sorry I did not see page 2 [Frown]
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
{Alert: Off Topic}

Just a quick note to say how much I'm enjoying this thread. Maybe one day I'll have something to say. Maybe not.

Jeff
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
Sorry for going to a previous verse, but Freddy's question seemed unanswered to me.

quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
It does make you wonder what is meant by "with God" as opposed to "was God."

Freddy, it makes sense in the Greek text.

Here's why:

The word used for "with" means to be in relation to. It shows relations between persons. It's like saying, so, we have this guy, the Word, and this other guy, the God, and, ya know, they are together, relating with each other.

Then he says that the Word was God, only, that God is not the same "God" he used before, when he said that "the Word was with God", because, in the first reference there is a definite article (so, the Word was with that guy God), but in the second reference there is no article.

In Greek this is exactly the same with me saying: "I am man". It shows what I am, but not who I am. The "who I am" is shown by the "I".

So, when we say that the Word was God, we mean exactly what we mean when we say "Freddy is man. I am with Freddy. I am man."


quote:
When God said "Let there be light" that voice and that saying was the Word of God. That
Word was "with" Him.

No, it wasn't [Biased]
 
Posted by Leetle Masha (# 8209) on :
 
quote:
No, it wasn't
<wink>

Yes, I'm afraid He was... "The same [Word] was in the beginning with God."

Leetle M.
worshipping the Undivided Trinity....
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
Was reffering to the FIRST "was", i.e. Freddy saying that the Word was that VOICE instead of the One Who uttered that voice.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by andreas1984:
Was reffering to the FIRST "was", i.e. Freddy saying that the Word was that VOICE instead of the One Who uttered that voice.

I'm fine with the Word being the One who uttered the voice.

And Andreas, thanks for explaining the "with God" and "was God."
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
oooh, Freddy, that's an exact 6,000 posts! cool!

Just wanted to say that I probably won't be able to post for about 24 hours, so if the thread needs to move forward in the meantime, Pyx_e would you grab the reins and do what needs be done? thanks!
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
No probs LMC.

Well Done Freddy! A very considered set of posts from a lovely fellow.

Anyway back to teh good stuff:

quote:
9The true light that gives light to every man was coming into the world.
or
quote:
This was the true light that gives light to every man who comes into the world

 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
LynnMagdaleneCollege:
quote:
...physical (natural) light is self-evident and doesn't require a witness to point out it's there unless we've become so used to the light that we no longer notice its presence and have fallen into taking it for granted.
Alternatively, it is invisible light; the mystical light, which vivifies all matter and is " the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen." Heb 11:1 KJV.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
oooh, Freddy, that's an exact 6,000 posts! cool!

I'm trying to catch up to Pyx_e, who joined a month before me and has been ahead ever since. [Yipee]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pyx_e:
No probs LMC.

Well Done Freddy! A very considered set of posts from a lovely fellow.

Anyway back to teh good stuff:

quote:
9The true light that gives light to every man was coming into the world.
or
quote:
This was the true light that gives light to every man who comes into the world

A question here: are you saying these are alternate translations?

If so, do you know which is favored? And if neither, how will we discuss them, since the emphasis in each is quite different?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
A question here: are you saying these are alternate translations?

If so, do you know which is favored? And if neither, how will we discuss them, since the emphasis in each is quite different?

A third alternative:
quote:
That was the true Light which, coming into the world, gives light to every man.
Translation is difficult. You have to learn to put up with a certain amount of ambiguity.

In all of the cases Jesus is the true light. He either came into the world to give light, or He came to give light to everyone who comes into the world. Either way the theology is the same.

Is it evident to everyone that the meaning of "light" has to do with Jesus' teaching of the gospel?

[ 08. June 2006, 02:54: Message edited by: Freddy ]
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Is it evident to everyone that the meaning of "light" has to do with Jesus' teaching of the gospel?

No. It seems to me the light is the life of God; divine energy, so to speak.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
I wonder whether what John is doing here is working through the OT categories and claiming Jesus as their fulfillment.
He starts with the Word, Light, Life from the creation account, moves onto Moses, passover etc etc?
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
"Gives light to EVERY man?" Am I flogging the dead horse of universalism when I note this?

[ 08. June 2006, 06:03: Message edited by: infinite_monkey ]
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
TM, in teh tanslation we are giving the second is included as a footnote.

P
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Freddy

quote:
Is it evident to everyone that the meaning of "light" has to do with Jesus' teaching of the gospel?

Yes, if we accept that the fundamental message from God as expounded in the life, death and resurrection of Christ, is that the Law of Love is transforming and life-giving.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
"Gives light to EVERY man?" Am I flogging the dead horse of universalism when I note this?

It might have been qualified by v.12 (i.e. it depends on receiving him) - though we haven't got there yet.
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Is it evident to everyone that the meaning of "light" has to do with Jesus' teaching of the gospel?

No. It seems to me the light is the life of God; divine energy, so to speak.
Can't it be "both/and" rather than "either/or" ?

I like your phrase, MT, "the light is the life of God" resonating with verse 4, "In him was life, and that life was the light of men." Very nice!
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LynnMagdalenCollege:
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
Is it evident to everyone that the meaning of "light" has to do with Jesus' teaching of the gospel?

No. It seems to me the light is the life of God; divine energy, so to speak.
Can't it be "both/and" rather than "either/or" ?

I like your phrase, MT, "the light is the life of God" resonating with verse 4, "In him was life, and that life was the light of men." Very nice!

Alexis I like what Lynn says here. I agree.

Isn't this a statement that one of Jesus' primary missions was to bring light where there is darkness? He seems to repeat this many times in John, and in the synoptics as well.

For that matter, it is a central theme of the prophecies:
quote:
Isaiah 9:2,6 "The people who walked in darkness Have seen a great light; Those who dwelt in the land of the shadow of death, Upon them a light has shined.

Isaiah 42:7 "To open blind eyes, To bring out prisoners from the prison, Those who sit in darkness from the prison house."

Malachi 4:2 But to you who fear My name The Sun of Righteousness shall arise With healing in His wings.

Numbers 24:17 "I see Him, but not now; I behold Him, but not near; A Star shall come out of Jacob

Isaiah 60:1 Arise, shine; For your light has come! And the glory of the LORD is risen upon you. {2} For behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, And deep darkness the people; But the LORD will arise over you, And His glory will be seen upon you. {3} The Gentiles shall come to your light, And kings to the brightness of your rising.

In any case, am I right to think that the light which "is the life of God; divine energy, so to speak" is also manifest in Jesus' teaching of the gospel?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Both are equally good to me. [Smile]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
I wonder whether what John is doing here is working through the OT categories and claiming Jesus as their fulfillment.
He starts with the Word, Light, Life from the creation account, moves onto Moses, passover etc etc?

That's an interesting thought. There's no doubt that the Gospel means to start that way, and I think you may be onto something here.

Moses, though, and Passover?
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
Moses, though, and Passover?

Christ, our passover, is sacrificed for us. Therefore let us keep the feast.

Also Orthodox hymnography for "Easter" (i.e. Pascha, i.e. Passover) is replete with equating Jesus with Passover.

And Moses himself said God would send a prophet like unto himself, and exhorted the people to listen to him when he finally arrove.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
Moses, though, and Passover?

Christ, our passover, is sacrificed for us. Therefore let us keep the feast.

Also Orthodox hymnography for "Easter" (i.e. Pascha, i.e. Passover) is replete with equating Jesus with Passover.

And Moses himself said God would send a prophet like unto himself, and exhorted the people to listen to him when he finally arrove.

But I thought Anselm was talking about John when he referred to Moses, not Paul?

ETA: Maybe he means later in John's Gospel. There is a section that relates allegorically to Passover.

[ 09. June 2006, 00:35: Message edited by: TubaMirum ]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Maybe John's introduction of the rite of baptism continues the OT parallel with Moses' crossing of the Red Sea ?

Baptism seems to be a clear departure from OT rituals, but is clearly linked to the foundational principles of Mosaic law ie repentance for the forgiveness of sins.
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
Jesus as the "Prophet Like Moses" is surely an important theme in John, but I don't see how the Red Sea crossing is related to the baptizing of Jesus. At this point, it is still clearly a baptism for repentance (not unMosaic, but not very "Exodus" either, is it?) and seems to be an indication of just how closely linked John's community was to the community of the Baptist.

I think it's significant that John is the only gospel in which we are told that Jesus actually baptized. It seems to have been a point of contention between John's community and other follwers of Jesus. Remember the passage in Acts where Paul goes to Ephesus (the home of the Johannine community) and discovers that they do not know the baptism of the Holy Spirit, only the baptism of John? Paul is shown to introduce the baptism of the Holy Spirit to this community, thereby (I believe) healing a rift that Luke thought it important to heal.

(Now, I think that John's community would have disagreed that they did not know the baptism of the Spirit, but Luke's agenda seems to have been the demonstration of unity through the gift of the Same Spirit...)

Anyhow, I think this reference to Baptism has more to do with group identity than the Mosaic comparisons in John. (But, as has been pointed out above, John often speaks on more than one level at a time....)

Pax
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Pax:

quote:
I don't see how the Red Sea crossing is related to the baptizing of Jesus. At this point, it is still clearly a baptism for repentance (not unMosaic, but not very "Exodus" either, is it?)
I mean the rite of baptism, to which Jesus Himself submitted, attested to it's significance in the journey of faith towards God - albeit there is little or no indication of previous practice in the inter-testamental period. The conflated Johns are making a very significant theological statement of a new beginning for the Word - which had always been present, nonetheless.

Although I wouldn't push the analogy too far, passing through water is an oft repeated theme of deliverance and new beginnings in the OT...the Flood, Red Sea and Jordan crossings, Jonah etc. Also in the prophetic link between Israel,the Messiah and salvation in Isaiah 43
quote:

1 But now, this is what the LORD says—
he who created you, O Jacob,
he who formed you, O Israel:
"Fear not, for I have redeemed you;
I have summoned you by name; you are mine.
2 When you pass through the waters,
I will be with you;
and when you pass through the rivers,
they will not sweep over you.
When you walk through the fire,
you will not be burned;
the flames will not set you ablaze.

3 For I am the LORD, your God,
the Holy One of Israel, your Savior;

In this context, John's baptism in the waters of the Jordan signifies the same separation that historical Israel underwent in the Exodus - to me anyway.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
I wonder whether what John is doing here is working through the OT categories and claiming Jesus as their fulfillment.
He starts with the Word, Light, Life from the creation account, moves onto Moses, passover etc etc?

That's an interesting thought. There's no doubt that the Gospel means to start that way, and I think you may be onto something here.

Moses, though, and Passover?

I haven't had much of a chance to follow this thought up with an actual look at the passage, but I was thinking of the reference in v.17 with regards to Moses and v.29 in reference to the Passover.

With regard to baptism, 1 Cor 9 suggests an understanding in the early church connecting baptism and the crossing of the Red Sea - in John's gospel though, and for the baptism of John generally, I suspect it may be more of a reference to the crossing of the Jordan into the Promised Land. Note that John the Gospeler emphasises the Jordan as the place of John the Baptist's work. I would hazard this is a Second Exodus - End of Exile theme.

Though this is all a bit ahead of the present verses.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
10He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him.

 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
This verse is so poignant. "The God who hung the stars hangs now dying on the tree" - or something like that. (Does anybody know that thing? I can't remember how it goes.)

It's really such a huge idea, isn't it? That the Creator of the Universe would come walk among us, unrecognized?
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
I have thought for some time that this reference is not to Jesus, but to Wisdom, who goes unrecognized in Proverbs 1...

Pax
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
(Sorry, I should have said Stop.

So there it is, and I will post the next verse when it's time. It's easy to forget the system.)
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
It's really such a huge idea, isn't it? That the Creator of the Universe would come walk among us, unrecognized?

It really is. This was God, and we not only didn't recognize Him, we actively rejected Him.

I would say, though, that realizing how we reject our Creator is a significant part of how He brought "the light."
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
It's really such a huge idea, isn't it? That the Creator of the Universe would come walk among us, unrecognized?

It really is. This was God, and we not only didn't recognize Him, we actively rejected Him.

I would say, though, that realizing how we reject our Creator is a significant part of how He brought "the light."

The Greeks (and I'm sure others) had this idea, too: that the gods would come to earth in disguise and human beings wouldn't know who they were.

But this is different, because this time God comes to live and die as a human being. That's what gives this story its amazing, shocking twist.
 
Posted by Mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Yes, Zeus or Apollo were never in a poopy diaper. Nor were they nailed to a cross or equivalent.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
What does John understand by "world"?
All creation? all humanity? world powers?

Because it seems that at various times in the gospel people DO recognise him. John the Baptist for example, evil spirits, creation itself obeys his commands when he feeds 5000, stills the storm - or is the point that it is revealed to them? [I just noticed v.12]

Is Israel, in it's failure as a nation to recognise it's messiah, representing all humanity, so that when Israel fails to recognise the creator among them, one could say that "the world" failed to recognise Jesus? Is the next verse an epexegetical comment on this verse?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Is Israel, in it's failure as a nation to recognise it's messiah, representing all humanity, so that when Israel fails to recognise the creator among them, one could say that "the world" failed to recognise Jesus? Is the next verse an epexegetical comment on this verse?

My view is that in one sense Israel represents all of humanity, and therefore the whole world. In a more particular sense, though, Israel is God's "own" - meaning "His church" or those who have His Word.

They stand for the ones who have the invitation to the wedding feast. If anyone responded to the call it should have been them.

In that sense the gospels, and Jesus, assign them "blame" for their apostacy and rejection of "the Son of the owner of the vineyard" when He came.

But as a representative of "the whole world" Israel is neither more or less culpable than anyone else. They just happened to be the ones who received the invitation. We all collectively did this thing - and each of us tends to do it even now. The message is that we all need to recognize our tendency to ignore and reject our Creator, and change our ways.

I think that it is often the case in Scripture that "the world" or "the earth" stands for "the church," meaning those who have "His Word" - as opposed to "the nations" or "the gentiles," who are those who do not.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Anselm:

quote:
Is the next verse an epexegetical comment on this verse?
It must be. Along with the rest of that paragraph. Otherwise an anti-Israel note is introduced - which is definitely not the writer's intent.

He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God — children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God.

Spiritual Israel have always been the apple of God's eye and of His own gracious choosing.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Since we're moving along anyway, I'll post the next verse:

quote:
11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him.

 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Spiritual Israel have always been the apple of God's eye and of His own gracious choosing.

That's right. So it was a big disappointment - like finding a leafy fig tree with no fruit, or trying to get fruit from the vinedressers and having no luck, or inviting people to a feast and having them not come, or like entrusting a fortune to servants, who then do nothing with it.

So the true Israel is made up of those who don't act like that, but are faithful and true.
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
It's also so poignant - the thought that God, taking on human flesh, was not received/recognized (generally speaking) by His own... I think it's one of those hints that Jesus can relate to us, in our sometimes-painful human experience.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
In my view, the entire political (small p ) structure of God's teaching is centred upon rejection and the overcoming thereof. Dispassionately speaking, Jesus would have died of a broken heart.
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
I can't remember where I read it, but I thought that this verse referred more to the coming of and rejection of Wisdom prior to the incarnation. (As in Proverbs 1)

Pax
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
In my view, the entire political (small p ) structure of God's teaching is centred upon rejection and the overcoming thereof. Dispassionately speaking, Jesus would have died of a broken heart.

Noelper, that says it very nicely. Jesus seemed to spend an inordinate amount of time complaining about this rejection - not just of Him, but of all prophets.

This really stood out in the 2003 film "The Gospel of John", a word-for-word version in which you realize that Jesus remonstrated against the religious authorities about this - seemingly unprovoked - almost from the beginning. We are so used to quoting the gentler and more inspiring parts that it is easy to overlook how prevalent this theme is right from the start.
quote:
Originally posted by Pax Christi:
I can't remember where I read it, but I thought that this verse referred more to the coming of and rejection of Wisdom prior to the incarnation. (As in Proverbs 1)

Pax, I think that's right. It seems like he is saying that God's people had continually rejected Him, so now He came into the world Himself, and they would reject Him again. Very much like the wicked vinedressers in Matthew 21.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Freddy
quote:

This really stood out in the 2003 film "The Gospel of John", a word-for-word version

They don't sell it ouitside the US. [Waterworks]

BTW I meant that rejection (and the salvic counter of 'Love your enemies') is the political message of both Old and New Testaments, culminating in the admission to the Kingdom of those who had formerly rejected the Creator and His Way - exemplified in the life and death Jesus.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Freddy
quote:

This really stood out in the 2003 film "The Gospel of John", a word-for-word version

They don't sell it ouitside the US. [Waterworks]
Really? You can't buy things on Amazon?
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
BTW I meant that rejection (and the salvic counter of 'Love your enemies') is the political message of both Old and New Testaments, culminating in the admission to the Kingdom of those who had formerly rejected the Creator and His Way - exemplified in the life and death Jesus.

Hmmm. Could you explain that?

Is it that we humans rejected God, so Christ came to reverse that rejection, but we rejected Him too. Yet He succeeded anyway, causing us to reject our former rejection, mend our ways, and return to God. Is that what you mean?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
quote:
Is it that we humans rejected God, so Christ came to reverse that rejection, but we rejected Him too. Yet He succeeded anyway, causing us to reject our former rejection, mend our ways, and return to God. Is that what you mean?
Umm... [Confused]

Yes ! [Big Grin]

(Will check Amazon )
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by PaxChristi:
I can't remember where I read it, but I thought that this verse referred more to the coming of and rejection of Wisdom prior to the incarnation. (As in Proverbs 1)

Pax

But isn't Wisdom a "She"?
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
TubaMirum
quote:
But isn't Wisdom a "She"?
Introducing a feminist note.... [Snore] [brick wall]

The French used to have a disorder relating to ' Unrequited Love', for females incarcerated in nut-houses..... Hence Jesus was the original feminist, in more ways than one. [Snigger]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
TubaMirum
quote:
But isn't Wisdom a "She"?
Introducing a feminist note.... [Snore] [brick wall]

The French used to have a disorder relating to ' Unrequited Love', for females incarcerated in nut-houses..... Hence Jesus was the original feminist, in more ways than one. [Snigger]

Um....the verse says "He."

Wisdom, as far as I know, is a "She" in the Hebrew Bible. This is "introducting a linguistic note."

Sheesh. Talk about
[brick wall] [brick wall]
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
[QB] Freddy
[QUOTE]
This really stood out in the 2003 film "The Gospel of John", a word-for-word version

They don't sell it ouitside the US. [Waterworks]

/tangent/
I'll swap you one for a copy of Manchester Passion, which you bloody well can't get INSIDE the U.S.
/end tangent/
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
QUOTE]But isn't Wisdom a "She"? [/QUOTE] In the Hebrew Bible, yes, but in the Fourth Gospel, Jesus is very much the incarnation of Wisdom. The identification of the two is so thorough that John can say "he" of Wisdom, because it was the Word/Jesus who was rejected in Her.

Pax
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Pax

quote:
The identification of the two is so thorough that John can say "he" of Wisdom, because it was the Word/Jesus who was rejected in Her.
I concur.

Could we agree to note that Jesus was far less anti-women than His Apostle Paul and subsequent Church leaders ? Which implies that His completeness in terms of representing the world, was absolute.
 
Posted by PaxChristi (# 11493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by noelper:
Could we agree to note that Jesus was far less anti-women than His Apostle Paul and subsequent Church leaders ?

//tangent alert//
This belongs on a new thread, but I think I can demonstrate that Paul was in fact, quite pro-women. Not the monster the "subsequent Church leaders" made him into. Would that be a worthwhile thread?
//end of tangent alert//

Pax
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by PaxChristi:
This belongs on a new thread, but I think I can demonstrate that Paul was in fact, quite pro-women. Not the monster the "subsequent Church leaders" made him into. Would that be a worthwhile thread?

That would be a very worthwhile thread. Go for it.

Moo
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
But this is different, because this time God comes to live and die as a human being. That's what gives this story its amazing, shocking twist.

Actually, there is nothing unique in that. Many ancient Mediterranean gods (handsome young men, especially) died and then resurrected from the dead.

[It's like the "son of God" thing. I heard it was not uncommon in Judea at that time for people to claim they were a "son of God". This does not mean anything.]
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Pax
quote:
This belongs on a new thread, but I think I can demonstrate that Paul was in fact, quite pro-women. Not the monster the "subsequent Church leaders" made him into. Would that be a worthwhile thread?
That would be enormously helpful to someone who has long puzzled over some of Paul's teachings - most especially because they flatly contradict the example set by Jesus.
[Confused]
 
Posted by universalist (# 10318) on :
 
Someone earlier in this thread mentioned Israel's "rejection" of God. Possibly, Israel (like many of us today) was rejecting wrong and slanderous images of God, presented by its religious leaders, and as presented by some of ours in the Church today. Such "rejection" would only be an honest thing...
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by PaxChristi:
I can't remember where I read it, but I thought that this verse referred more to the coming of and rejection of Wisdom prior to the incarnation. (As in Proverbs 1)

I can't see how this can be about the pre-incarnate wisdom. There has been no mention of wisdom so far, and indeed, I don't think John develops the theme of wisdom at all.
Also, when taken in context with the following verse
quote:
(ESV)
[11]He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. [12] But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God.

ISTM to more likely refer to the work of the incarnate Jesus that we see in the gospel.

Lastly, in Proverbs, Wisdom was created by God, whereas here in John the Word was co-eternal with God.
 
Posted by LynnMagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
What Anselm Said. [Biased]

I think Proverbs 8 makes it fairly clear that Wisdom is the first part of creation, whereas Jesus is Creator (along with the Father and the Holy Spirit; creation is attributed to the full Godhead). And yes, both Wisdom and Folly are presented in the feminine.
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
Well, in the times Proverbs were written, I doubt if people could actually use the word "begotten of" instead of "created by". I think it's just an awkward word, not to be taken literaly. The author might want to say what Christ meant when he said "my Father is greater than I", but he couldn't find quite the right word.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by universalist:
Someone earlier in this thread mentioned Israel's "rejection" of God. Possibly, Israel (like many of us today) was rejecting wrong and slanderous images of God, presented by its religious leaders, and as presented by some of ours in the Church today. Such "rejection" would only be an honest thing...

Yes, universalist, if that's what was going on. I'm not sure that this was the way that Jesus saw it:
quote:
Matthew 23:37 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the one who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not willing!
Jesus seems to blame the people for rejecting a loving God.

This is also the testimony of Moses:
quote:
Deuteronomy 9:7 Do not forget how you provoked the LORD your God to wrath in the wilderness. From the day that you departed from the land of Egypt until you came to this place, you have been rebellious against the LORD.
It is repeated in the historic period:
quote:
Judges 2:17 Yet they would not listen to their judges, but they played the harlot with other gods, and bowed down to them. They turned quickly from the way in which their fathers walked, in obeying the commandments of the LORD; they did not do so.
The early prophets dwelt on this theme:
quote:
Isaiah 65:2 I have stretched out My hands all day long to a rebellious people,
Who walk in a way that is not good,
According to their own thoughts;

As did the latter prophets:
quote:
Malachi 2:11 Judah has dealt treacherously,
And an abomination has been committed in Israel and in Jerusalem

I guess it could be true that Israel and Judah only rebelled against the wrong and slanderous images of God that they were presented with. This doesn't seem to be the slant that most of the texts give it.

When John talks about the rejection of the light he seems to be coming from the same place that Jesus came from when He said:
quote:
Matthew 23:34 Therefore, indeed, I send you prophets, wise men, and scribes: some of them you will kill and crucify, and some of them you will scourge in your synagogues and persecute from city to city,
So in saying "His own did not receive Him" it seems consistent to say that John is speaking of Jesus' rejection as well as alluding to a pattern that stretches back into history.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Freddy

quote:
I guess it could be true that Israel and Judah only rebelled against the wrong and slanderous images of God that they were presented with. This doesn't seem to be the slant that most of the texts give it.

Dating from the Golden Calf experience to the treatment meted out by the Pharisees and Saducees, the parable of the tenants and Jesus's denunciation of blind leaders, suggest to me that He perceived the religious leaders as primary source of apostasy. This is also borne out by the fact that few, if any, of the prophets were priests.
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
quote:
12 Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God

 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Stop.

Why do you think John specifies believing in his name, why not just believing in Jesus? How do you believe in a name?

Is there a reference here to OT ideas of the name of the Lord?
ie not misusing the Lord's name (from the 10 Commandments), Israel's profaning of the Lord's name in Ezekiel.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Because Jesus bears the same Name as God, Whose Nature / Being is :-

quote:
"The LORD, the LORD, the compassionate and gracious God, slow to anger, abounding in love and faithfulness, maintaining love to thousands, and forgiving wickedness, rebellion and sin. Yet he does not leave the guilty unpunished; he punishes the children and their children for the sin of the fathers to the third and fourth generation."
As it always has been and always will be.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Why do you think John specifies believing in his name, why not just believing in Jesus? How do you believe in a name?

It's interesting, because the idea of believing in Jesus' name seems to be limited to John and 1 John. The link noelper makes with the name of God is supported by John 17:11f where God's name and Jesus' name are linked and perhaps the name sums up the being, along the lines of the use of "I Am" in 8:58.

Another interesting point is that 'glory' is mentioned in the same context as the 'name' in those passages. Perhaps the link here is that just as 'glory' was a way of describing God's presence on earth, so also with 'name': Jesus represented God on earth and in so doing he was the proper image of God. So, maybe John is saying that receiving Jesus (i.e. believing in his name) is to adopt the proper image of God, becoming children and looking like the daddy.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
The identification of Jesus with God's Name and His Glory was previously stated:

quote:
Isaiah 42.8:
I am the Lord, that is my name;
my glory I give to no other,
nor my praise to idols.

This reading of the Name, defines the parameters of Jesus' instruction about prayer.
quote:
John 14: 13-14
And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. 4You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.

That is, unless we call upon compassion, slowness to anger, love, fidelity, forgiveness or deferred judgement [Eek!] our prayers will not be answered.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
It's also interesting that John uses the word τεκνα rather than υιοι which I was expecting.
Ie - John avoids using the Old Testament title of "Sons of God" to use a more generic "children of God".

Any thoughts as to why John may have done this? How is the phrase "Children of God" used in the rest of the gospel?
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Just a quick note/question continuing on the "Name" theme.

"Names" seem to be really, really important, especially in the Hebrew Bible. Names by themselves seem to signify a great deal. And - most importantly - when a person becomes "adopted by God" (and this is my own phrase), they often get a new name. Abram and Sarai become Abraham and Sarah. Jacob becomes Israel. (I know there are others, but I can't think of them right now.) The change of name signifies a change in orientation in some way

Is this somehow tied in here?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
It's also interesting that John uses the word τεκνα rather than υιοι which I was expecting.
Ie - John avoids using the Old Testament title of "Sons of God" to use a more generic "children of God".

Any thoughts as to why John may have done this? How is the phrase "Children of God" used in the rest of the gospel?

The use of ‘son’ language in John does seem to be limited to Jesus (though I note that the compilers of the KJV translate ‘τεκνα’ in v.12 as ‘sons’ – bless ‘em!).

Although Paul can use the phrase ‘children of God’ (Rom. 8:16f, 21 9:8; 9:8), he also speaks quite freely of Christians as ‘sons of God’ (Rom. 8:14, 19; Gal. 3:26). Perhaps he used that latter phrase deliberately as a springboard to encourage his readers to be conformed to the image of God; i.e., just as Jesus was God’s Son during his earthly life, so we now (also as sons) are to imitate him (c.f. Rom. 8:29). Could both phrases are near synonyms for Paul?

So why was John so reluctant to use the same phrase? Could it be that he was concerned to avoid the possibility that his readers might interpret him to say human believers are pre-existent? In other words, just because Jesus was God’s Son and was pre-existent (verse 14 looming on the horizon), it does not follow that we – his followers – were also pre-existent. This may be John’s way of steering around gnostic ‘primal man’ theories. It might also explain his use of μονογενηs in relation to Jesus (v.18 and 3:16) and the qualification of γενναω in respect of humans (v.13 and 3:3).

Nigel
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Anselm
quote:
Any thoughts as to why John may have done this? How is the phrase "Children of God" used in the rest of the gospel?

Surely has something to do with the fact that the KJV refers to the 'children of Israel' on 27 pages-worth of Bible Gateway references ? As compared with zero in the NIV....Ummm....doesn't it ? [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
John only uses the phrase "Children of God" in one other place, in
11:52 in the context of Caiaphas' prophecy that Jesus must die for the nation. The same word for "children" is used in 8:39 in the phrase "children of Abraham".

Perhaps "Sons of God" suggests national Israel and so John uses the term "Children of God" so as to suggests the wider, gentile gathering that will be included by the ministry of Jesus. Though John doesn't use the phrase 'sons of God' at all, reserving υιος for refering to Jesus as the 'Son of God' - a messianic title.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Earlier in the thread (under v.9) infinite_monkey asked whether the phrase, “the true light that gives light to EVERY man...” supported the theory of universalism.

Does the verse we have reached (v.12) counter that, at least as far as John in concerned? In other words, only those who receive Jesus are covered by salvation. Or is ‘salvation’ too much to read into the phrase “the authority to become children of God”?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Does the verse we have reached (v.12) counter that, at least as far as John in concerned? In other words, only those who receive Jesus are covered by salvation.

That's how I read it. Or at least that those who would receive Jesus if given the opportunity. Or that those who receive the light, wherever they may live, and live in a way that is consistent with what Jesus taught, are saved.

I think that it is true that this light is given to every person in a sense, whether Christian or not. Everyone is exposed in some way or other to God's truth. Almost everyone on earth is exposed to some kind of notion that there is a God, and that they should do good and avoid evil.

"The true light that gives light to EVERY man...” also expresses the idea, I think, that someday everyone will benefit from the truth brought into the world at the Incarnation.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Nigel M
quote:
Does the verse we have reached (v.12) counter that, at least as far as John in concerned? In other words, only those who receive Jesus are covered by salvation. Or is ‘salvation’ too much to read into the phrase “the authority to become children of God”?
No.
It makes partly concrete the mystical / mysterious process (demonstrated by verbalised inability to comprehend the phrase 'children of God') by which we are transformed from creatures who love the darkness, into ummm ... some other kind of spiritual being.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
The phrase to "believe in his name" comes up a few more times in John so I will consider it further as it comes up later.
Happy for the discussion to continue on.

Not sure where the "stop" is with others, but the next verse is very close to the present one anyway so someone can always re-stop it.
quote:
12Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God

 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Any thoughts about if there is a difference between the three negated options?
quote:
children born not of natural descent,
nor of human decision
or a husband's will

They seem awfully similar.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Anselm, that's what I think too.

The reference seems to be about the re-birth that Jesus discusses with Nicodemus in chapter 3:
quote:
John 3.3 Jesus answered and said to him, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.”
4 Nicodemus said to Him, “How can a man be born when he is old? Can he enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born?”
5 Jesus answered, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. 7 Do not marvel that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’ 8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but cannot tell where it comes from and where it goes. So is everyone who is born of the Spirit.”

I understand this to mean that accepting and living by the light that Jesus came into the world to bring causes a re-birth to happen inside of a person.

The nature of this re-birth is that what a person understands, believes, and practices forms a new will inside of him or her, replacing the old will that is born of "natural descent, of human decision, and of a husband's will." The person is then gradually re-born, a new birth brought about by God.

I think that this is the birth from God that this verse 13 refers to. I'd be interested if others have this same impression.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Any thoughts about if there is a difference between the three negated options?
quote:
children born not of natural descent,
nor of human decision
or a husband's will

They seem awfully similar.
Anslem,

I suspect John is trying to ram a point home here by repetition; a bit of drama to ensure his readers would understand he was talking about a creative act by God that links our new heritage to Him. I agree with Freddy that John uses chapter 3 to spell this out further - same verb to denote this 'birth' analogy (γενναω) and link to God (via spirit in chapter 3).

quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
The person is then gradually re-born, a new birth brought about by God.

That's a new interpretation on me, Freddy! My church upbringing taught the line that this was all about the one-off event of salvation at the beginning of the Christian life. So, I've had another look at the text in chapter 3.

Accepting that the Christian life is certainly one of growth and devleopment, I hesitate a bit about drawing on John 3 for it. My only concern is that birth is being presented somewhat as a one-off event: John 3:3 uses an aorist subjunctive form of the verb used for 'bringing forth' or 'being born'; which rather implies a singular activity rather than a process. Similarly, in verse 5 "enter the kingdom..." implies a one-off event of entering, rather than a process.

Having said that, it's clear from other passages in the Bible that we should grow once in the kingdom and children have to move off the milk and on to food.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
The person is then gradually re-born, a new birth brought about by God.

That's a new interpretation on me, Freddy! My church upbringing taught the line that this was all about the one-off event of salvation at the beginning of the Christian life. So, I've had another look at the text in chapter 3.

Accepting that the Christian life is certainly one of growth and devleopment, I hesitate a bit about drawing on John 3 for it. My only concern is that birth is being presented somewhat as a one-off event: John 3:3 uses an aorist subjunctive form of the verb used for 'bringing forth' or 'being born'; which rather implies a singular activity rather than a process. Similarly, in verse 5 "enter the kingdom..." implies a one-off event of entering, rather than a process.

Yes, maybe what I said is not the traditional interpretation. I may be wrong about it.

My thought, though, is that the light that Jesus came to bring is not something that makes instantaneous changes. The world has not become instantly better. He sent the disciples out and commissioned them to spread that light everywhere, which takes time.
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
( [Paranoid] At risk of incurring another diatribe from SteveTom [Paranoid] )

The physical manifestation of the spiritual truth of verse 13 lies in the fact that, following the act of conception, the process of gestation and growth is entirely internal to a foetus.

Every single cell divsion, the consequent growth into a fully formed child, and thence into an adult, occurs entirely independently of parents AND child. Nonetheless, each discrete division represents a complete and viable whole.

This awesome handiwork remains invisible - to the extent that we might not recognise it, unless revealed in the Light of the Word of Life.
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
Hosting

noelper, please will you stop making personal comments. If Steve Tom had written a diatribe (thunderous verbal attack) he would have been picked up on it by a host, he did not. Personal issues are dealt with in Hell, this is the second time I have pointed this out to you recently.

Would you also please curtail your use of emoticons, you use them a lot more than anyone else in Kerygmania and often you use them in a negative manner, toward other shipmates.

Pyx_e, Kerygmania Host

Hosting
 
Posted by noelper (# 9961) on :
 
Okay by me.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thinking a bit further on the link between these verses (1:12f) and John 3; is it possible that John saw a connection between being 'children of God' and 'seeing the Kingdom'?

The connection - if it exists - could come from the following:
'Receiving him' leading to 'becoming children of God' (1:12); matched with 'Being born from above/again' leading to 'seeing the Kingdom' (3:3).

If the link holds, then perhaps having authority to be God's children carries with it the power to see his Kingdom at work?
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Any thoughts about if there is a difference between the three negated options?
quote:
children born not of natural descent,
nor of human decision
or a husband's will

They seem awfully similar.
Could it be that this is covering (in reverse order listed);
Just a thought.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Could it be that this is covering (in reverse order listed);

Anselm,
Is that from relating the three clauses to the "those believing in his name" phrase, rather than " become children of God"? If the former, it would mean that God's call covers all types of people, not being concerned about their status, which is the way you read it, I gather? The alternative reading (which I had assumed) is that those who become children of God by believing in the Word do so not by the human way of birth. In other words, referring to the process, not the recipients. Your reading could work from the Greek order of clauses, which places "those believing in his name" just before verse 13.

A quick check of a few English translations shows uncertainty over where to put the 'believing' phrase in v 12: NIV, NET Bible and NRSV move it to earlier in the verse, whereas KJV, NASB and World English Bible retain the Greek order. The NIV translators make it clear where their preferences lie: they repeat the word 'children' at the beginning of v.13.

The Jerusalem Bible offers a third option - the translators apply the clauses in v 13 to the Word, i.e., Jesus was not born of natural descent... This translation seems unconvincing to me, though: the particle 'those' at the beginning of v.13 is plural, not singular (so also with 'born' at the end of the verse). In addition if Jesus/Word was the intended referent, it would imply that God brought forth Jesus at a specific point in time; a conclusion that was ruled out in the later church debates.

It seems that - unless anyone can assist further - this is one of those passages that could be taken in more then one way (and was that perhaps John's intent?).

Nigel
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
quote:
13children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God.

 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Is that from relating the three clauses to the "those believing in his name" phrase, rather than "become children of God"? If the former, it would mean that God's call covers all types of people, not being concerned about their status, which is the way you read it, I gather?

No, I read it as talking about the unique process of becoming a child of God as opposed to the three known ways that one became a part of a family in the ancient world.

Applied to the Old Covenant, it may be distinguishing the New Covenant "faith in Jesus" from the "descendants of Abraham according to the flesh", "converts to Judaism" and ..."Samaritans"? (not sure who may have been considered 'illigitimate' members of the Old Covt.)

As I say - I haven't really worked it through. It was just a thought off the top of my head (a place from which I often fly kites)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
And how will we know which way the wind blows if we don't fly kites?

Perhaps the three classes would have been the children of Abraham, the Gentile God-fearers and the rest - the wicked blown away like chaff!

I suspect the answer, if not in the wind, probably lies in the rest of John's gospel somewhere; he seems to use the Prologue as a springboard for his main themes. The nearest I can see from a quick flick through occurs in 8:31-47 where children of God, Abraham and the devil are mentioned.

[ 27. June 2006, 21:09: Message edited by: Nigel M ]
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pyx_e:
quote:
13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God.

I guess we have already been discussing this. Let me add that by "birth" here I understand a person being "made new" by God in a miraculous way.

A "new" person is called that because they have a new will given to them by God. The idea is according to what God said to Noah:
quote:
Genesis 8.21 Then the LORD said in His heart, “I will never again curse the ground for man’s sake, although the imagination of man’s heart is evil from his youth; nor will I again destroy every living thing as I have done.
22 “While the earth remains,
Seedtime and harvest,
Cold and heat,
Winter and summer,
And day and night
Shall not cease.”

That is, our native will prompts us to be self-centered and materialistic. But God does not curse or destroy us because of our natural desires. Instead He leads our internal states through alternations, which are like seedtime and harvest, cold and heat, summer and winter, and day and night.

My understanding is that this means that sometimes we have love for others, sometimes only for ourselves, sometimes we are enlightened, other times we are in darkness, sometimes we are planting seeds in our life, other times we are receiving the benefits of their harvest. These alternations make it possible for us to progress and to choose our direction in life.

So the native will is not altruistic, but a person can learn to become altruistic. This is a new will that is given to us by God. This is "re-birth" because we are what we love, and our loves and desires are our essential being.

This is how I understand the idea that "as many as received Him" are "born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."

[ 29. June 2006, 10:57: Message edited by: Freddy ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I think we may have exhausted verses 12 & 13 now. I'm not too sure who should be moving things along, so I will - though if anyone has anything else to add to the earlier verses, I'm sure we can accommodate!

quote:
14The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Stop

This is a cracker of a verse; there’s so much in it and so much has been said about it. Questions abound:

Can this verse rightly be taken as support for the Incarnation?

“...lived for a while...”: is there a play on words here by John? The verb for live (NIV) - σκηνοω - sounds close to ‘shekinah’ – God’s glory dwelling/pitching a tent among his people (John immediately goes on to say this glory has now been seen).

What is the ‘glory’ referred to here by John?

Why did John use the phrase, “the one and only”? What did he mean by it?

Is there a link to the exodus theme, with the Word associated with a second exodus?
 
Posted by Pearl B-4 Swine (# 11451) on :
 
No theology to offer; just wanted to say that the phrase "the world's Redeemer first revealed His sacred face..." reduces me to tears on Christmas Eve - as you all know, from the hymn 'Of the Father's Love Begotten'. I don't see how John can't be telling of the Incarnation here.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
15John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, "This was he of whom I said, 'He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.' "

 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, "This was he of whom I said, 'He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.' "

"He was before me" surely connects to
quote:
John 8:58 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”
Is it John recognizing His divinity, or just that He will fulfill the prophecies?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It certainly seems to be a statement about Jesus' pre-existence, repeated in v.30. The claim is that priority in time = priority in status, so even though Jesus was born after John he actually came before him. This line of argument (temporal priority) was popular: Paul makes use of it in his claim that faith outranks law, because Abraham's faith was recognised by God earlier in time than circumcision.

And as 8:58 points out, Jesus pre-dates Abraham!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Not sure who is down to move this on, but given the time lapse since last post, here goes:

quote:
16 From the fullness of his grace we have all received one blessing after another.

 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Stop

Who do you think John means by "we"?
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Stop

Who do you think John means by "we"?

Don't know Greek so may be out of my league. Hope it's OK to jump in. If there is a 'new exodus' theme here, The 'we' must refer to all who benefit from the 'tabernacling'or dwelling among us of v14. In the exodus the Israelites benefited from having God in their midst. It the new covenant, believers in the Christ have a parallel blessing to that available under Moses.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Who do you think John means by "we"?

In a general sense I think that he means all of humanity, since Jesus saved the human race from destruction.

In a particular sense he means those who know, love and obey Jesus, since they benefit most from His grace. The more they know love and obey Him, the more they benefit.
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Regarding "the fullness of his grace"

Who is the "he" - God or Jesus?

Is the 'fullness of grace' the Word-become-flesh & the revelation of God's glory, or is it that we can be called Children of God, or...?
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anselm:
Regarding "the fullness of his grace"

Who is the "he" - God or Jesus?

Is the 'fullness of grace' the Word-become-flesh & the revelation of God's glory, or is it that we can be called Children of God, or...?

The 'his' refers to both God and Jesus as in the context of the prologue the two are identified. v1 "The Word was God". I've always understood this as John's thesis statement.

The NASB reads "For of his fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace." literally, 'grace for grace'

So, all of the above.. a hyperbolic statement emphasising how much blessing a believer has in Christ?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I would assume that 'grace' in this verse refers back to v.14, where grace is connected to 'glory' and 'truth'. Interesting that whereas glory and truth are mentioned throughout the rest of John's Gospel, grace is not.

The NIV here in this verse tinkers around with the wording. Better translation would be: "for from his fullness we have all received, grace after grace."

Not sure what John uses to reflect 'grace' in the rest of his Gospel.
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:

(16) For of his fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace.
(17)For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realised throgh Jesus Christ

Hope it is OK to move on here. It is a while since anyone has posted. Also, these two verses seem to go together so does anyone object to them being discussed together?

John seems to be into the summary stage of his prologue here. There is an inference that his audience has agreed and experienced God's fullness through Christ in v 16.

V17 by mentioning moses seems to be creating a link to the exodus. Does anyone see John's portrayal of Christ as heralding a new, kind of spiritual exodus one involving a new revelation of grace and truth.?
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
V17 by mentioning moses seems to be creating a link to the exodus. Does anyone see John's portrayal of Christ as heralding a new, kind of spiritual exodus one involving a new revelation of grace and truth.?

Thank you, Jamac, for moving this forward.

There may be a link to the exodus. Certainly Christ talks about setting us free in chapter 8.

In talking about the Mosaic law isn't John saying that Christ gave us a new law? Whereas Moses' law is ancient and ritualistic, Jesus law is about mercy and reveals the truth much more clearly.
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
(As an aside I think that doing up to three verses at a time, for the sake of context, may help)

P
 
Posted by Tortuf (# 3784) on :
 
While the KJV uses the disjunctive "but," other translations imply an "and."

I think that John was setting forth the bona fides of Jesus by saying that His grace was at least as important as the Law. Also, John makes the point that grace is a gift specifically from Jesus and thereby sets up the proposition that Jesus is godly in nature. John wasn't writing for a group of people who grew up believing in Jesus, John was writing for people who needed to be persuaded that Jesus was important to them.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Verse 17 does indeed seem to fill out the “grace after grace” in verse 16 and “grace and truth” in verse 15: the Law was given through Moses, then grace and truth came into being through Jesus. Two things stand out for me: there is no hint of any negativity about the Law here - it was a grace from God; yet a greater grace/truth came via Jesus. The former (Law) was merely given, whereas the latter was inherent in Jesus himself in a way that the Law was not in Moses.

On the exodus link, how strong does this appear? There are four links to the past so far: creation, becoming God’s people, wilderness dwelling (the glory ‘tabernacled’, v.14) and Sinai (the giving of the Law). The actual exodus as such seems to be missing. I wonder if John was casting a wider net over Israel’s history in general?
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Verse 17 does indeed seem to fill out the “grace after grace” in verse 16 and “grace and truth” in verse 15: the Law was given through Moses, then grace and truth came into being through Jesus. Two things stand out for me: there is no hint of any negativity about the Law here - it was a grace from God; yet a greater grace/truth came via Jesus. The former (Law) was merely given, whereas the latter was inherent in Jesus himself in a way that the Law was not in Moses.

On the exodus link, how strong does this appear? There are four links to the past so far: creation, becoming God’s people, wilderness dwelling (the glory ‘tabernacled’, v.14) and Sinai (the giving of the Law). The actual exodus as such seems to be missing. I wonder if John was casting a wider net over Israel’s history in general?

All of the links you mention are thematically, 'exodus' links. I got the idea of John being concerned to portray Jesus as signalling a new kind of creation (the Christian) and a new destiny, or new exodus, for God's new people (the church,)from an Aussie Bible teacher named Rick Watts who is I think, presently in a Bible college in Canada. I must say it seemed to make sense of a lot of John's selections from Christ's life. The water into wine for instance at Cana definitely has a 'new creation' link. The feeding of the 5000 has a real echo of manna in the wilderness (an exodus link.)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I believe the exodus link was also made by Bultmann, who made the typological link between Jesus and Moses – a second salvation (exodus) with signs following, as it were. Jesus as the Passover lamb occurs later in chapter one, so it is possible that this was a theme that John had in mind.

My only concern is that there are so many other actions and words in the Gospel that do not seem to link to the exodus event. We have, for example, a possible representation of Jesus as the fulfiller of the meaning of the Feasts of Israel: Passover (chap. 6), Tabernacles (chap. 7), and Dedication (chap. 10). These could be caught in a sense by exodus, if we cast the meaning of ‘exodus’ widely enough, but we might lose the significance of exodus as a salvation event if we do. That was the only reason why I wondered if it was better to see the whole history of God’s working in his people’s history as being represented thematically in John.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Time to move things on again. Verse 18 (I’ll just do the one here as v.19 starts a new section). Three translations, because there are slightly different ways of interpreting this text:

quote:
No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known [NIV].

No one has seen God at any time. The only conceived Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has declared him [World English Bible].

No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son,‍ who is close to the Father’s heart,‍who has made him known [NRSV].


 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Boy, there are some differences there, aren't there.
quote:
18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.[NKJV]
Is it "God the one and only" or the "only begotten Son"? The Greek seems to say the former.

Is He "in the bosom of the Father", "at the Father's side", or "close to the Father's heart"?
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
V18 No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained him.
This is the NASB version with a gloss that 'only begotten God' is said by later manuscripts to read 'only begotten son'

Surely it means Christ, as only he as a member of the Godhead is ever described as 'begotten.'

The verse suggests a kind of peroration of John's thesis that God himself, the Father, was in fact revealed in Christ. It confirms the incarnation. In this gospel, Christ is primarily portrayed as the son of God. Comments?
 
Posted by Tortuf (# 3784) on :
 
I think this passage has two messages. The first is that Jesus is important, in that He is with God and therefore, on a level with God.

The second is that people can now have a new relationship with God. That is, God has never been seen before, but now Jesus brings God to us.

As with several other verses in the beginning of the Gospel, John is setting up themes for people to follow throughout the body of the Gospel.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Here is Young's Literal Translation's version of that verse.
quote:
God no one hath ever seen; the only begotten Son, who is on the bosom of the Father -- he did declare.
This is as close to the original as you can get if you don't know Greek.

Moo
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
This is as close to the original as you can get if you don't know Greek.

That's right, Moo. The NIV is way off in this instance, it seems.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Here is Young's Literal Translation's version of that verse.
quote:
God no one hath ever seen; the only begotten Son, who is on the bosom of the Father -- he did declare.
This is as close to the original as you can get if you don't know Greek.

Moo

Do we know what "on the bosom" means? Is that just an expression, like "right-hand man," or something similar? Or does it have to do with the heart? "A man after God's own heart"? Or "The Son God loves"?

And is it saying that Christ "declared" God - made him known to us in the flesh, since we couldn't see him?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
I think 'bosom' means intimacy. To me 'right-hand man' suggests function rather than relationship.

Moo
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
According to my Koine Greek dictionary the word means "in the chest" or "in the heart." Obviously there is an idiomatic expression involved.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Sorry, I wasn't clear. I didn't mean it literally meant intimacy. I meant that that's how I interpret it.

The Greek word is κολπος. It's the same word that occurs in the story of the rich man and Lazarus in Luke's gospel, chapter 16.
quote:
22"Now the poor man died and was carried away by the angels to Abraham's bosom; and the rich man also died and was buried.
Moo
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
I'm thinking of the thing from John later, at the Last Supper, where the disciple that Jesus loved rested on the bosom of Christ. (I've seen it translated that way, anyway.)

So there must be a strong connotation of love and friendship here, right?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Here is John 13:25.
quote:
He, leaning back thus on Jesus' bosom, said to Him, "Lord, who is it?"
The word used here is also κολπος

Moo
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I’m also intrigued by the last word in the verse (Gk form from: εξηγεομαι), from which we get the word ‘exegesis’.

It speaks of something more than merely recounting a description; it is to provide an authoritative explanation, ‘to make fully and clearly known’ as the Greek-English Lexicon of the NT (eds Louw, Nida et al) puts it. It could be that John ties Jesus in so closely to the Father in this verse for that reason: only someone so intimately involved could be so authoritative about God.

There’s a model in there somewhere – only those who are so closely bound up in studying the bible can hope to provide an authoritative exegesis. Or is the model that only those so intimate with God as Father can hope to properly exegete his word?

Or both...
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
That was a very helpful post Nigel.

Are we ready to move on?

quote:
v19 And this is the witness of John when the Jews sent to him priests and levites from Jerusalem to ask him "Who are you?"
v20 And he confessed and did not deny, and he confessed, "I am not the Christ." (NASB)

Is John (the writer John) concerned to clarify any misconceptions here about just who was and who was not the Messiah? Were people confused about the role of the Baptist and how it fitted with that of Christ?

I've heard it taught that those who accepted the baptism of John responded positively to Jesus' messianic claims and those who rejected the 'herald', rejected the 'king'
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There is a linked speculation: that the writer needed to make clear the Baptist's relative subservient role vis-a-vis Jesus, in order to convince the former's disciples to come over to the Jesus camp after the resurrection. Luke 3:15 would suggest that there was some anticipation around the Baptist being the Messiah.

His denial is pretty emphatic; in a book where the author enjoys word plays and allusion, here is a pretty strong "Read my lips: I'm NOT the Messiah - now gerroff and leave me alone!"

Sensitive, eh? Perhaps he should get off the fence with his witnessing/testimony!
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Is it OK to post again? Hope so, and here are the next three verses:

21 So they asked him, "What are you then? Are you Elijah?" nd he said, "I am not." "Are you the Prophet?" He answered, "No."

22 So they said to him, "Who are you, so we can give an answer to those who sent us? What do you have to say for yourself?"

23 He said: "I am 'the voice of one crying out in the desert, "Make straight the way of the Lord,"' as Isaiah the prophet said."

 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
Is it OK to post again? Hope so, and here are the next three verses:

21 So they asked him, "What are you then? Are you Elijah?" nd he said, "I am not." "Are you the Prophet?" He answered, "No."

22 So they said to him, "Who are you, so we can give an answer to those who sent us? What do you have to say for yourself?"

23 He said: "I am 'the voice of one crying out in the desert, "Make straight the way of the Lord,"' as Isaiah the prophet said."

This business of John the Baptist'
s id or CV gets a fair working over doesn't it?

My understanding is that the jewish leaders had a method of investigating a new movement. They sent observers who at first did not engage but just observed. if the movement was thought to be significant they sent them back, this time to actively enquire. The response of John suggests that what is recorded here is the second stage of enquiry.


The ref to the prophet clearly links to the statement by Moses that there will be another prophet "like unto Me" and also to the understanding of the Jewish leaders that Elijah, who did not die, would appear before the Messiah came. John denies being either of these identities doesn't he? Thus, the question is raised about just what he is doing.

In quoting Is 40:3 here is he giving a 3rd option showing is is in fact 'Elijah' but not literally. heis in fact doing the Elijah job of prefiguring Jesus' ministry. Or, is he unaware of his true function as the 'Elijah' figure which Jesus later confirms that he is?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The next few verses finish off this section (NIV translation):

24 Now some Pharisees who had been sent
25 questioned him, "Why then do you baptize if you are not the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?"
26 "I baptize with water," John replied, "but among you stands one you do not know.
27 He is the one who comes after me, the thongs of whose sandals I am not worthy to untie."
28 This all happened at Bethany on the other side of the Jordan, where John was baptizing.


Nigel
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
The next few verses (NAB):

quote:
29
The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world.

30
He is the one of whom I said, 'A man is coming after me who ranks ahead of me because he existed before me.'

31
I did not know him, but the reason why I came baptizing with water was that he might be made known to Israel."

32
John testified further, saying, "I saw the Spirit come down like a dove from the sky and remain upon him.

33
I did not know him, but the one who sent me to baptize with water told me, 'On whomever you see the Spirit come down and remain, he is the one who will baptize with the holy Spirit.'

34
Now I have seen and testified that he is the Son of God."

I have a question for anybody who might know: Does the "Lamb of God" usage here refer back to something in the Hebrew Bible, or is it new?
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
I always assumed that the Lamb of God reference has to do with the Passover Lamb which was sacrificed - there is certainly a fair amount in the New Testament that fits with this.
The Levitical cultus also involved the sacrifice of lamb quite a bit (though IIRC most of the sin offering lambs were supposed to be female).
The other possiible allusion may be to the incident of Abraham and Isaac
quote:
Genesis 22 (ESV)
[7] And Isaac said to his father Abraham, "My father!" And he said, "Here am I, my son." He said, "Behold, the fire and the wood, but where is the lamb for a burnt offering?" [8] Abraham said, "God will provide for himself the lamb for a burnt offering, my son." So they went both of them together.

Come to think of it, being a Lamb associated with God never really seem to imply that there was much to look forward to in the future!! [Eek!]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
But I mean, was this phrase ever used anywhere, or is this the first time it's ever seen? Were lambs meant for sacrifice called "lambs of God," for instance?

Or was there any prophetic use of this phrase? I'm thinking of all the stuff in Isaiah about the "suffering servant"; anything like that mentioning lambs? (Or did this language actually come up in that section of Isaiah itself?)

Something is nagging at my mind about this, but I can't figure out what it is.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
(Actually, your Isaac reference may be the very thing I'm thinking of.

But is there anything in the prophets, too, do you know?)
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
Closest I could come up with is a reference from the suffering servant song in Isaiah 53
quote:
Isaiah 53:7 (ESV)
He was oppressed, and he was afflicted,
yet he opened not his mouth;
like a lamb that is led to the slaughter,
and like a sheep that before its shearers is silent,
so he opened not his mouth.


 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
Does the "Lamb of God" usage here refer back to something in the Hebrew Bible, or is it new?

The phrase "Lamb of God" is used outside of the NT in document known as the Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs. The phrase occurs in two places, set out below. The problem is that we don't know if this work was penned by Christians or whether it pre-dates Jesus. Some of the terminology is Daniel-like, some very close to our John passage. It does reflect a view of the Lamb in more ram-like terms; a lamb that had no intention of taking sacrifice lying down, as it were. Some information on the document can be found by linking here.

The first reference occurs as part of a vision in the Testament of Joseph, 2:77:

[72] Hear ye, therefore, me vision which I saw. [73] I saw twelve harts feeding. And nine of them were dispersed. Now the three were preserved, but on the following day they also were dispersed. And I saw that the three harts became three lambs, and they cried to the Lord, and He brought them forth into a flourishing and well watered place, yea He brought them out of darkness into light. And there they cried unto the Lord until there gathered together unto them the nine harts, and they became as twelve sheep, and after a little time they increased and became many flocks. [74] And after these things I saw and behold, twelve bulls were sucking one cow, which produced a sea of milk, and there drank thereof the twelve flocks and innumerable herds. And the horns of the fourth bull went up unto heaven and became as a wall for the flocks, and in the midst of the two horns there grew another horn. And I saw a bull calf which surrounded them twelve times, and it became a help to the bulls wholly. And I saw in the midst of the horns a virgin wearing a many-coloured garment, and from her went forth a lamb; and on his right was as it were a lion; and all the beasts and all the reptiles rushed against him, and the lamb over came them and destroyed them. [75] And the bulls rejoiced because of him, and the cow and the harts exulted together with them. [76] And these things must come to pass in their season. [77] Do ye therefore, my children, observe the commandments of the Lord, and honour Levi and Judah; for from them shall arise unto you the Lamb of God, who taketh away the sin of the world one who saveth all the Gentiles and Israel. [78] For His kingdom is an everlasting kingdom, which shall not pass away; but my kingdom among you shall come to an end as a watcher's hammock, which after the summer disappeareth.


The second reference appears in the Testament of Benjamin, 3:

3. Do ye also therefore, my children, love the Lord God of heaven, and keep His commandments, and be followers of the good and holy man Joseph; and let your mind be unto good, even as ye know me. He that hath his mind good seeth all things rightly. Fear ye the Lord, and love your neighbour; and even though the spirits of Beliar allure you into all troublous wickedness, yet shall no troublous wickedness have dominion over you, even as it bad not over Joseph my brother. How many men wished to slay him, and God shielded him ! For he that feareth God and loveth his neighbour cannot be smitten by Beliar's spirit of the air, being shielded by the fear of God; nor can he be ruled over by the device of men or of beasts, for he is aided by the love of the Lord which he hath towards his neighbour. For he even besought our father Jacob that he would pray for our brethren, that the Lord would not impute to them the evil that they devised concerning Joseph. And thus Jacob cried out, My child Joseph, thou hast prevailed over the bowels of thy father Jacob. And he embraced him, and kissed him for two hours, saying, In thee shall be fulfilled the prophecy of heaven concerning the Lamb of God, even the Saviour of the world, that spotless shall He be delivered up for transgressors, and sinless shall He be put to death for ungodly men in the blood of the covenant, for the salvation of the Gentiles and of Israel, and shall destroy Beliar, and them that serve him.


I gather that J.C. O'Neill argues for a pre-Christian date for the documents. I don't have his work to hand, but the reference is: J. C. O'Neill, "The Lamb of God in the Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs," Journal for the Study of the New Testament 2 (1979): 2–30. Reprinted in Craig A. Evans and Stanley E. Porter, eds., New Testament Backgrounds (Sheffield: Sheffield Academic Press, 1997).

Nigel
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Thank you, Anselm and Nigel. Very interesting.

I'm trying to understand exactly what references John is making here; the Isaac story is definitely a resonance here, I think. The Twelve Patriarchs thing is fascinating, too. Where was this document found, Nigel?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
TubaMirum,

It has had a bit of a fragmentary history, this document. There are twelve segments to it (corresponding to the 12 Patriarchs) and I know that parts of that larger document (Levi and Naphtali) were found to have been in the Cairo Geniza during the 1890s and also among the Dead Sea Scrolls. These parts were written in Hebrew and Aramaic, but the rest have been found – to the best of my knowledge – only in Greek. Origen makes reference to it, so a version must have been around in some form by his time (early to mid-third century AD). There are a number of Greek manuscripts floating around from medieval times and translations were made into, e.g., Armenian.

There are some articles on the document that Answers.com threw up, but these carry the usual health warning on accuracy.

As always with these writings, it would be nice to have a complete version that could be dated with some accuracy, especially given the tantalising links with the John passage. Until we do, there will always be the suspicion that the ‘Lamb of God’ references came from a Christian who sneaked them in to what was otherwise a Jewish text when no one was looking!

Nigel
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Thanks again, Nigel. I wonder if there will be more archeological finds in the future, comparable to the Dead Sea Scrolls?

I would think so. If some things have been preserved, it would stand to reason that others might have been too. It would be very interesting, I agree, to see from what period this document dates!
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
In general, the imagery of sheep as representing the children of Israel is widespread. But so far as the Lamb of God imagery is concerned, there is also the imagery in 1 Enoch, right at the end of the Apocalypse of the Animals (90, v38).

This is a fascinating read and well worth it for other reasons (the A of the A that is) - especially if you want to see how apocalyptic language works. Israel is portrayed as sheep, but at the end:-
quote:
And I saw that a white bull was born, with large horns and all the beasts of the field and all the birds of the air feared him and made petition to him all the time. And I saw till all their generations were transformed, and they all became white bulls; and the first among them became a lamb, and that lamb became a great animal and had great black horns on its head; and the Lord of the sheep rejoiced over it and over all the oxen. And I slept in their midst: and I awoke and saw everything. This is the vision which I saw while I slept, and I awoke and blessed the Lord of righteousness and gave Him glory.
Enochian fragments are known from Qumran. Whilst I appreciate that this narrative may have more in common with the language of the book of Revelation, nevertheless it does also help to provide evidence of similar pre-existing use of the same (or very similar) imagery.

Ian
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Very interesting, once again.

I'll continue:

quote:
35 The next day John was there again with two of his disciples,

36 and as he watched Jesus walk by, he said, "Behold, the Lamb of God."

37 The two disciples heard what he said and followed Jesus.

38 Jesus turned and saw them following him and said to them, "What are you looking for?" They said to him, "Rabbi" (which translated means Teacher), "where are you staying?"

39 He said to them,"Come, and you will see." So they went and saw where he was staying, and they stayed with him that day. It was about four in the afternoon.


 
Posted by centurion (# 11759) on :
 
I would just like to say a few things about this verse:

--------------------------------------------------
Joh 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
--------------------------------------------------

The WORD which we have previosly said Uncreated eternally existing and emanating from GOD as the living Word/Logos formed all that is seen or unseen, that is not just all that is now, but all that has been, that will ever be, Life, material, immaterial (Spiritual Beings) Invisible forces, Visible beings, trees, planets, new suns that will come into existence or even new universes or new earths, this universe and this earth

Anything that will ever be seen or unseen was created by The Word. The WORD, himself pre-existing without beginning and without end eternally existing with the Father and the Holy Spirit the Pre-incarnation of Jesus Christ, GOD THE SON, the 2nd Person of the Trinity.

Thanks
Centurion
 
Posted by Spong (# 1518) on :
 
Why is the call of the disciples so different in John than in the synoptics? As was said earlier up the thread, the first 34 verses have really hammered home the position of John the Baptist as 'not the messiah' (though admittedly a lot more than a 'very naughty boy'...).

Here we have two of John's disciples leaving and following Jesus instead. Later, Jesus is told off for eating and drinking when John's disciples fasted, which suggests that the relationship might not have been as friendly as the earlier verses suggest. Is this really a split in the John the Baptist faction - with Jesus being the one who rejects the ascetic and separatist approach and argues (and acts) for one that eats with sinners?
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Spong:
Why is the call of the disciples so different in John than in the synoptics?

Have you noticed that it is the same group of Galilean disciples who end up back at the lake with Jesus in the last chapter of the book?

Assuming that is we read the two "other" disciples of 21.2 as being Andrew and Philip from chapter 2, as I suspect we are meant to.

I also suspect that we are meant to read that at least some of these people already knew Jesus from home when John the Baptist introduced them to him. John (the Evangelist) is writing to an audience assumed to be familiar with at least some of the stories we know from the Synoptics. And we are meant to know that Jesus is known to Peter and Andrew's family in Galilee. Or that's my pet theory anyway...

[fixed typo]

[ 09. September 2006, 22:42: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Time to move on a bit:

John 1:40-42 (NIV) -

40 Andrew, Simon Peter's brother, was one of the two who heard what John had said and who had followed Jesus. 41 The first thing Andrew did was to find his brother Simon and tell him, "We have found the Messiah" (that is, the Christ). 42 And he brought him to Jesus. Jesus looked at him and said, "You are Simon son of John. You will be called Cephas" (which, when translated, is Peter).
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 1:43-44 [NIV] -

43 The next day Jesus decided to leave for Galilee. Finding Philip, he said to him, "Follow me."
44 Philip, like Andrew and Peter, was from the town of Bethsaida.
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
John 1:43-44 [NIV] -

43 The next day Jesus decided to leave for Galilee. Finding Philip, he said to him, "Follow me."
44 Philip, like Andrew and Peter, was from the town of Bethsaida.

Interesting that the ones who respond to Christ are John's disciples. This confirms Johns ministry as a sort of gatekeeper I think. I've heard it said that the folk who embraced the Baptist's ministry also embraced that of the Lord.

Interesting too that There is a kind of 'codespeak' here; the disciples seek to follow the master with a question "Where are you staying?" This signals their intention.

Interesting too that the apostolic band contains sets of brothers. Surely not coincedental

Interesting too that it is the disciples who seek the discipler and not the other way round. This isn't a model of discipleship on often currently sees.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
Interesting too that the apostolic band contains sets of brothers. Surely not coincedental

What would you say is the significance of this? Is it just that news spreads faster in a family and if one brother 'signed-up' it was more likely that others in the family would too? Or is there something more to it than that?

Some churches grow biologically (younger couples growing their children in the church); is there a model, do you think, for spreading the gospel via family groups first?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
Interesting too that it is the disciples who seek the discipler and not the other way round. This isn't a model of discipleship on often currently sees.

Quite true. Though a fair number of church evangelists seem to persist in the idea that the 'mission week' should take place in a church building, presumably believing either that the church members are more in need of the gospel than anyone else (which could be true!), or that unbelievers will somehow wander in off the street and be saved. Perhaps they need a John the Baptist type figure out front of the church extolling the sandal laces of the preacher inside!
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
Interesting too that the apostolic band contains sets of brothers. Surely not coincedental

What would you say is the significance of this?

The apostolic band contains family, sure but it also contained a tax collector and a zealot. Zealots had a tendency to assassinate zealots.

On reflection I think Jesus choice is a microcosm of the huge range of potential adherents he would attract. Family members to sworn political adversaries.


quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
Interesting too that it is the disciples who seek the discipler and not the other way round. This isn't a model of discipleship on often currently sees.

Quite true. Though a fair number of church evangelists seem to persist in the idea that the 'mission week' should take place in a church building, presumably believing either that the church members are more in need of the gospel than anyone else (which could be true!), or that unbelievers will somehow wander in off the street and be saved. Perhaps they need a John the Baptist type figure out front of the church extolling the sandal laces of the preacher inside!

You know I never had a mentor in the faith a guru to follow. And I notice the lack of fathers. Even now If I saw a tremendous example of a father in the faith I'd want to sit at his feet like Mary did to Jesus. A pity that such people are so rare. Most of our leaders have their head but not the heart experience . It's one of the reasons I don't like church. I'm an internal leaver as they say.


{fixed code}

[ 27. September 2006, 11:57: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
Sorry, stuffed up code above

The apostolic band contains family, sure but it also contained a tax collector and a zealot. Zealots had a tendency to assassinate tax collectors.

On reflection I think Jesus choice is a microcosm of the huge range of potential adherents he would attract. Family members to sworn political adversaries.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
Even now If I saw a tremendous example of a father in the faith I'd want to sit at his feet like Mary did to Jesus. A pity that such people are so rare. Most of our leaders have their head but not the heart experience . It's one of the reasons I don't like church. I'm an internal leaver as they say.

Always going, but never leaving, is it, Jamac?!

I suppose the danger of putting faith in another human is that they might - being human - fail you. In addition, some people seem to put their faith in church structures and when those fail, their faith is also damaged. Perhaps the aim is to go straight to God, via Jesus, to avoid these dangers; by all means engage in church, listen to leaders, read the bible, but never just stop at those points; always revert to the Father.
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamac:
Even now If I saw a tremendous example of a father in the faith I'd want to sit at his feet like Mary did to Jesus. A pity that such people are so rare. Most of our leaders have their head but not the heart experience . It's one of the reasons I don't like church. I'm an internal leaver as they say.

Always going, but never leaving, is it, Jamac?!

I suppose the danger of putting faith in another human is that they might - being human - fail you. In addition, some people seem to put their faith in church structures and when those fail, their faith is also damaged. Perhaps the aim is to go straight to God, via Jesus, to avoid these dangers; by all means engage in church, listen to leaders, read the bible, but never just stop at those points; always revert to the Father.

Yes..Boo Hoo. Not about me though..apologies. Jesus I'm sure was never boring; but the church can be tedious...can't we?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Here's a thought: Philip, Andrew and Peter were all so fed up with the local synagogue that they jumped at the chance to found a new movement.

Reading into texts can be so much fun.
 
Posted by Jamac (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Here's a thought: Philip, Andrew and Peter were all so fed up with the local synagogue that they jumped at the chance to found a new movement.

Reading into texts can be so much fun.

Someone should write a Christmas play about that.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
John 1:45-51 NASB
45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We have found him of whom Moses wrote in the law and also the prophets wrote,Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph."
46 And Nathanael said to him, "Can any good thing come out of Nazareth?" Philip said to him, "Come and see."
47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to him and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite in whom is no guile!"
48 Nathanael said to him,"How do you know me?" Jesus answered and said to him, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you."
49 Nathanael answered him, "Rabbi, you are the son of God: you are the king of Israel."
50 Jesus answered and said to him, "Because I said to you that I saw you under the fig tree, do you believe? You shall see greater things than these."
51 And he said to him, Truly, truly I say to you, you shall see the heavens opened, and the angels of god ascending and descending on the son of man."

Hope it is all right to put forward this next passage for discussion.

The interesing idea in it is that Nathanael recognised Jesus very suddenly and on very little apparent evidence.
 
Posted by Ed Form (# 11859) on :
 
quote:
John 1:45-51...
The interesing idea in it is that Nathanael recognised Jesus very suddenly and on very little apparent evidence.

The passage has a number of allusions to Scripture which indicate that Nathanael had solid grounds for his exclamation. The first is the greeting Jesus used to him...

Verse 47.
Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom is no guile!"

This is a reference to Jacob whose name means 'one who supplants by guile' and whose name was changed to Israel which means 'God prevails'. The name-changing occurred after Jacob wrestled with the angel and prevailed and was declared to be a powerful prince with God [Genesis 32:28]. Nathanael was somewhat disturbed by this greeting because he asked...

Verse 48
...Whence knowest thou me?

The way this was said strongly suggests that Jesus had read Nathanael's mind accurately, not only had he discerned that Nathanael was a simple, guiless man, but also that he had been ruminating on the development of the character of Israel/Jacob immediately before his brother came to fetch him and Jesus' very obvious reference to the Peniel events really shocked him.

Jacob was actually on his way to find a wife from among his mother's kin when he met the angel, and the very next incident in John is the wedding at Cana, so it seems possible that this was Nathanael's marriage and that Nathanael had sat under the fig tree to contemplate his future, and that his thoughts had dwelt upon the example of Jacob who had his natural guile drummed out of him by hard experience so that he was molded into a godly prince - a fitting father for the chosen people.

Jesus next words contain another strong scriptural reference...

Verse 48
...Jesus answered and said unto him, Before that Philip called thee, when thou wast under the fig tree, I saw thee.

The idea of calling someone under a fig tree lead us into Zechariah 3:10...

In that day, saith the LORD of hosts, shall ye call every man his neighbour under the vine and under the fig tree.

The name of the town Cana means Vineyard, and they were in that neighbourhood so both plants were in evidence and Nathanael had initially doubted that any thing could come out of Nazareth [verse 46] - it means branch-town. So, when Jesus lead him to the great prophecy of Joshua the high priest, and the verse that says...

Hear now, O Joshua the high priest, thou, and thy fellows that sit before thee: for they are men wondered at: for, behold, I will bring forth my servant the BRANCH. [Zechariah 3:8]

...Nathanel recognised that he was in the presence of a man who could read minds and who had already been recognised as Messiah by his brother. His conclusion - that the elevation of Joshua to high honour as God's true priest was a symbol of this very man - resulted in his declaration...

Verse 49
...Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel."

Jesus then expressed pleasure that Nathanael was convinced by so small a demonstration of his powers and continued...

Verse 50-51

...You shall see greater things than these." And He *said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, you shall see the heavens opened, and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man."

This was another reference back to the inital Jacob/Israel ideas and contains a lovely prophecy of Jesus as the altar stone that Jacob set up and upon which the angels ascended and descended.

Ed Form
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ed Form:
quote:
John 1:45-51...
The interesing idea in it is that Nathanael recognised Jesus very suddenly and on very little apparent evidence.

The passage has a number of allusions to Scripture which indicate that Nathanael had solid grounds for his exclamation. The first is the greeting Jesus used to him...

Verse 47.
Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom is no guile!"

This is a reference to Jacob whose name means 'one who supplants by guile' and whose name was changed to Israel which means 'God prevails'. The name-changing occurred after Jacob wrestled with the angel and prevailed and was declared to be a powerful prince with God [Genesis 32:28]. Nathanael was somewhat disturbed by this greeting because he asked...

Verse 48
...Whence knowest thou me?

The way this was said strongly suggests that Jesus had read Nathanael's mind accurately, not only had he discerned that Nathanael was a simple, guiless man, but also that he had been ruminating on the development of the character of Israel/Jacob immediately before his brother came to fetch him and Jesus' very obvious reference to the Peniel events really shocked him.

Jacob was actually on his way to find a wife from among his mother's kin when he met the angel, and the very next incident in John is the wedding at Cana, so it seems possible that this was Nathanael's marriage and that Nathanael had sat under the fig tree to contemplate his future, and that his thoughts had dwelt upon the example of Jacob who had his natural guile drummed out of him by hard experience so that he was molded into a godly prince - a fitting father for the chosen people.

Jesus next words contain another strong scriptural reference...

Verse 48
...Jesus answered and said unto him, Before that Philip called thee, when thou wast under the fig tree, I saw thee.

The idea of calling someone under a fig tree lead us into Zechariah 3:10...

In that day, saith the LORD of hosts, shall ye call every man his neighbour under the vine and under the fig tree.

The name of the town Cana means Vineyard, and they were in that neighbourhood so both plants were in evidence and Nathanael had initially doubted that any thing could come out of Nazareth [verse 46] - it means branch-town. So, when Jesus lead him to the great prophecy of Joshua the high priest, and the verse that says...

Hear now, O Joshua the high priest, thou, and thy fellows that sit before thee: for they are men wondered at: for, behold, I will bring forth my servant the BRANCH. [Zechariah 3:8]

...Nathanel recognised that he was in the presence of a man who could read minds and who had already been recognised as Messiah by his brother. His conclusion - that the elevation of Joshua to high honour as God's true priest was a symbol of this very man - resulted in his declaration...

Verse 49
...Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel."

Jesus then expressed pleasure that Nathanael was convinced by so small a demonstration of his powers and continued...

Verse 50-51

...You shall see greater things than these." And He *said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, you shall see the heavens opened, and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man."

This was another reference back to the inital Jacob/Israel ideas and contains a lovely prophecy of Jesus as the altar stone that Jacob set up and upon which the angels ascended and descended.

Ed Form

Awesome.

So nathanael was meditating on the Jacob story under a fig tree.

The ladder from earth to heaven in his dream is obviously used by Jesus as a metaphor for his function as link between God and Man. In what sense do we see, and did Nathanael see, angels sacending and descending on the son of man?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Apologise for crappy spelling . Missed edit window
 
Posted by Ed Form (# 11859) on :
 
quote:
In what sense do we see, and did Nathanael see, angels sacending and descending on the son of man?
We must be very careful when pondering sayings like this; its too easy to always look for an event of transcending majesty, of the type we find in the transfiguration. In that case Jesus' promise that some of the disciples would see him coming in his kingdom was immediately fulfilled by a kingdom vision on the mountain top, but in this case the explanation is less dramatic, although this was, in fact an altogether more mighty and astonishing claim.

We need to look first at the way Jesus used the idea of heaven being opened and communicating with the Earth: these two verses from John 6 will give us a big clue...

Verse 33
For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.

Verse 38
For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

In both cases the verbs are present tense active; in other words the verses ought to be translated...

Verse 33
For the bread of God is he who IS COMING down from heaven, and IS GIVING life unto the world.

Verse 38
For I AM COMING down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

The action of coming down from heaven was the things that Jesus was doing, on Earth, at that very moment - God, by him, was giving gifts to mankind - and this is the sense in which Nathanael and his fellow disciples would see angels ascending and descending on the son of man. Jesus had been placed in charge of the angels and their work of mediating between God and man would now be depenent upon the wishes of Jesus. His qualification for obtaining this rank and privilege was that he was to be the very altar upon which God's mercy could be dispensed.

Ed Form
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
In what sense do we see, and did Nathanael see, angels ascending and descending on the son of man?

Given the background in the OT (and elsewhere) of locating God’s residence ‘on high’ – a theme consistent with the beliefs of other semitic religions in the region where high mountains were seen as the place for God’s residence – the imagery of God’s messengers ascending and descending would fit with the idea of God making his decrees in his court and the messengers then setting out to deliver them on earth. The particular image of the ziggurat fits here: steps to ‘heaven’ – the top, where God’s council sits and where God has his dwelling. Jacob’s designation of the site where he had his vision in Gen. 27 as “House of God” reflects this as well.

The resonance in John would then include the aspect of Jesus being appointed to carry out God’s judgement – given in heaven (on high) and now to be enforced on earth – and those decrees being delivered to Jesus to enforce. The translation of the preposition ‘epi’ in verse 51 in some English versions as ‘on’ can be misleading; here it takes the accusative and should more naturally be understood in the sense as motion towards the point where the object rests – i.e. to where Jesus is, not literally walking up and down ‘on’ him.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Can a lurker pick it up here? No posts for over a month - have you agreed to take a break? If not:

Ch2 Verse 1 On the third day there was a wedding in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there.

Verse 2. Jesus and his disciples had also been invited to the wedding. (NRSV)

Does anyone else find it odd that Jesus' mother is mentioned first? After the miracle I don't think we see her in this gospel again until the crucifixion. It's the third day of John's drama of the Passion, and that phrase "on the third day" must have resonated for his first readers as
they do with modern ones. It's a phrase full of hope - anticipating the triumph of the resurrection before Jesus is even arrested -but also full of tension....
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Hi pimple – thanks for picking this up again; I’m sure anyone is allowed to leap out of dark alleys to mug a thread if they want to. According to the original guidelines (in the OP) the person who opened the comment on a section should decide when it is time to move on and then post the next bit. However, things have lain a bit dormant for a while, possibly because everyone has been distracted somewhat by other discussions that arose at the time. At least one of the guidelines is that there is no rush!

The mention of Jesus’ mum in verse one may be a linguistic device John used to parade the key characters of his next episode up front before he gets going with the narrative itself. However, it may also be that the mother was actually involved in the wedding (its organisation perhaps?), whereas Jesus and his disciples were invitees; so mother rushes around ensuring everything is goes as smoothly as possible, whereas Jesus and Co. were out front with the other guests.

I’ve wondered about that “third day” phrase. Potential confusion arises when we try to count the days thus far: 1:19-28 could be day one; 1:29 starts the next day; 1:35 is day three; and 1:43 day four. So is 2:1 three days after that (7 days in all – a week)? If we push back a bit further to the beginning of John gospel and the comparison with Genesis 1, then is day one the start of the week? If that is John’s intention, then the wedding is on the Sabbath – the day of rest. Significances abound.
 
Posted by BWSmith (# 2981) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
In what sense do we see, and did Nathanael see, angels ascending and descending on the son of man?

According to NT Wright, the so-called Messianic Secret in Mark has three levels:

1) The prophet is also the King (messiah)
2) The kingdom will come through the suffering and death of the King (suffering servant/son of man)
3) The dying King is Israel's god in person (Temple presence in the flesh)

Since Nathaniel already recognizes the first level of secret (Jesus = King of Israel), it seems to me that ths final statement is a cryptic revelation of the other two secrets, since "son of man" is code for the suffering/vindication aspect of Jesus' vocation, and the "stairway to heaven" is code for "Bethel", which is "House of God", i.e. the Temple.
 
Posted by BWSmith (# 2981) on :
 
With regard to the Cana Wedding incident, I've had a theory for some time that the authors of John's gospel had Mark's gospel in front of them as they arranged their material.

Is there an obvious structural connection between the placement of this account and Jesus' statement about bridegrooms and wineskins in Mark 2, just after the calling of Levi?

quote:
John's disciples and the Pharisees were fasting; and they came and said to Him, "Why do John's disciples and the disciples of the Pharisees fast, but Your disciples do not fast?"

And Jesus said to them, "While the bridegroom is with them, the attendants of the bridegroom cannot fast, can they? So long as they have the bridegroom with them, they cannot fast.

"But the days will come when the bridegroom is taken away from them, and then they will fast in that day.

"No one sews a patch of unshrunk cloth on an old garment; otherwise the patch pulls away from it, the new from the old, and a worse tear results.

"No one puts new wine into old wineskins; otherwise the wine will burst the skins, and the wine is lost and the skins as well; but one puts new wine into fresh wineskins." Mark 2:18-22

(This kind of saying-narrative parallelism between gospels might be similar to what we see in Luke where Mark's action against the fig tree becomes a parable about a fig tree?)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
As far as the exact chronology is concerned, I'm confused too - but it seems to sort itself out later. There's the added complication that the days began in the evening ("And the evening andthe morning wre the first day...")

I don't know about the Johanine author having any one synoptic gospel with him at the time of writing. Maybe all of them (Maybe even all of them in his head!)

As well as the Marcan reference to the bridegroom which you quoted (have I got that right? I should have printed off your post before starting this), we have Luke's account of the rejection of Jesus at Nazareth:

When he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, he went to the synagogue ON THE SABBATH DAY, as was his custom. He stood up to read...the scrollof the prophet Isaiah....

"The Spirit of the Lord is upon me,/because he has anointed me/to bring good news to the poor... (Luke 4:16-18a)

Luke himself doesn't refer to the bridegroom here, but the Isaiah passage continues:

"....I will greatly rejoice in the Lord,/my whole being shal exult in my God;/for he has clothe me with the garments of salvation,/he has covered me with the robe of righteousness,/AS A BRIDEGROOM DECKS HIMSELF WITH A GARLAND/ AND AS A BRIDE ADORNS HERSELF WITH HERJEWELS
(Isaiah 61:1...10) All refs NRSV.

So the fact that Jesus' ministry effectively starts at a wedding is absolutely crammed with significance. No wonder he has to do something when the wine runs out! There is in the bridegroom reference also an allusion to the beginning of things. Thus the great Creation Psalm 19:

"The heavens are telling the glory of God....In the heavens he has set a tent for the sun,/WHICH COMES OUT LIKE A BRIDEGROOM/FROM HIS WEDDING CANOPY..."

I hope you'll excuse one or two typos. Is it possible to edit in the preview window? No(Otherwise I'm sure I'd run out of time.)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Just a quick note of apology. I just looked at the "rules" to refresh my memory and saw the ref. to the Bible Gateway (NIV). I'll use this in any future posts.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
On a bit?

2:3 When the wine was gone, Jesus' mother said to him, "They have no more wine."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I tied to comment on this yesterday, but the edit clock defeated me; so I'll be brief! The wine runs out. Jesus has a considerable dilemma. What sort of omen will the bride and groom - and everyone else, for that matter - for the success of the marriage, read into this disaster?

But it's not his responsibility, is it? The Steward is in charge. He needs to know what the situation is - before word gets around - and certainly before the bride and groom get wind of it. So what is Jesus to do? Take over? Wouldn't that blow it? He has to think - and act - fast.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
2:4 "Dear woman, why do you involve me?" Jesus replied, "My time has not yet come."

That last phrase would have been full of meaning for John's first readers. But what could it possibly have meant to Mary when he said it?

[ 07. December 2006, 21:41: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This particular verse ISTM tells us as much about the translator as it does about Jesus. The more usual "What's that to do with me, woman?" would I think have been perfectly acceptable in biblical times, and not taken as an infringement of the commandment to honour one's father and mother. It's quite likely that Joseph was dead by this time and Jesus would be the head of the family. But I love the way Mary deals with his objection. She just ignores it!

2:5 His mother said to the servants, "Do whatever he tells you."

So there!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
2:4 "Dear woman, why do you involve me?" Jesus replied, "My time has not yet come."

That last phrase would have been full of meaning for John's first readers. But what could it possibly have meant to Mary when he said it?

John uses the 'hour' word a few times in his gospel. On Jesus' lips it seems to refer to his death and resurrection - c.f. 7:30; 8:20; 13:1 and 17:1. Jesus escapes death in his ministry because his time had not yet come. It's pushing things a bit, though, to assume that Jesus was avoiding a miracle with wine at Cana in case he was killed and the time wasn't right! Stoned, perhaps, in more ways than one...

I'm sure BWSmith and Freddy, to name but two, can offer ideas on deeper meanings here.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, but why tell mum? Or are we to read it as an aside? Mary is told at the Annunciation, of course, that - hmm, just checked. Where is she forewarned of tragedy? - but she wouldn't have known its nature in advance, surely?
 
Posted by BWSmith (# 2981) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Yes, but why tell mum? Or are we to read it as an aside? Mary is told at the Annunciation, of course, that - hmm, just checked. Where is she forewarned of tragedy? - but she wouldn't have known its nature in advance, surely?

Naturally, asking Jesus to "give them wine" when "his time has come" has to be a reference to the Lord's Supper.

As such, this line probably shouldn't be taken as a journalistic record of direct quotes, but a literary wink from the authors of the gospel of John to an audience who may or may not know that Jesus' time comes with his own mother at the foot of His cross.

If you prefer to think of Jesus dropping clues to his vocation, there's certainly no historical reason to doubt that he knew from the start what the end was going to look like.

However, I don't think that adds anything positive to our picture of Jesus in this story, and I prefer to think of it as a literary foreshadowing device by gospel authors unconcerned with the desires of future readers wishing they were watching the "Jesus-cam" of actual events.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
All makes good sense to me, BWS.

2.6 Nearby stood six stone water jars, the kind used by the Jews for cermonial washing, each holding from twenty to thirty gallons.

"Ceremonial washing" doesn't quite cut it for me - and I'm nor even Catholic! "Ritual purification" sounds more impressive - and it's this - the quality of the jars - which I find more significant than the actual gallonage.

Whoever drinks from these is going to be purified, in some way? And not merely washed, surely. Am I being anachronistic in suggesting that this is going to be some sort of sacrament - that is, not just symbolic, but effective? Or am I reading far too much into it?

As for the quantity, I think the detail here just adds to the authenticity of he story. The point is surely not that the making of forty gallons of wine is forty times more of a miracle than making one? (Though I think we do all tend to think that way sometimes - think of the feeding of the five thousand!) While the fact is that if I could make one millilitre of wine from pure wter I'd soon be the richest man in the world!

Does anybody know just how the jars were used in the purification rite? It might not be significant, but while we're here...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
2:7 Jesus said to the servants, "Fill the jars with water; so they filled them to the brim.

I wonder what the servants were thinking? "What's he going to do next? Find a few bottles from somewhere and water the stuff down?" But he scotches that idea immediately, ordering the vessels to be filled to the brim.

What next? Can't you feel the servants' nervousness? One thing I'm fairly sure of is that it didn't turn bright red as they poured the water into the jars (as we saw in Rageh Omar's depiction on TV). That would have "blown it" and there wouldn't be any need to let the Steward know what was going on.

[ 10. December 2006, 18:35: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
2.6 Nearby stood six stone water jars, the kind used by the Jews for cermonial washing, each holding from twenty to thirty gallons.

2:7 Jesus said to the servants, "Fill the jars with water; so they filled them to the brim.


Does anybody know just how the jars were used in the purification rite? It might not be significant, but while we're here...

Not sure if this is a real match, but Mark 7:1-5 has some information on it.

I'm not sure if there was any holiness associated with the water used for cleaning per se; as far as I am aware, for example, there was no need for special prayers to be said over the water before people washed themselves. Nevertheless, there could be some significance in the fact that Jesus asked the servants to fill those particular jars and not the (now empty) containers that contained the wine. Perhaps a link back to 1:16f, with the fullness of grace being contrasted with the law?

[ 11. December 2006, 17:37: Message edited by: Nigel M ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks Nigel - and I'd missed the obvious point about the empty bottles. All three synoptic evangelists quote Jesus' saying about not putting new wine into old wineskins. Can I go on?

2:8 Then he told them, "Now draw some out and take it to the master of the banquet. They did so....

Quaking, I should imagine. In this short account of only ten verses John certainly knows how to crank up the tension. There's triple dramatic irony here. The servants think they are taking the maitre d a cup or glass of water (in fact the Good News version of the story says Jesus told them to draw off some of the water but it's not in the Greek - I've checked (with a crib). But they have no way of knowing that it has been changed into wine. We know that, and not just because John tells us but also (for most of us I guess) because we've hard the story orally many times before we ever read it in the Bible.

And the Master of Ceremonies? He would have assumed that he was being offered more of the same. Perhaps he wonders why the servant are looking nervous. But the other thing we know (with hindsight) is that he is not about to quaff another mouthful of bog standard vintage '31.

And that's why the first taste has to go to the man in charge. People like what they are used to. A sudden change in the menu without warning is going to make them suspicious - and
how are the bride and groom going to explain it?
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Yes, but why tell mum? Or are we to read it as an aside? Mary is told at the Annunciation, of course, that - hmm, just checked. Where is she forewarned of tragedy? - but she wouldn't have known its nature in advance, surely?

Jumping in the sandbox with the quote you might have been referencing. Since the water-into-wine marks the beginning of Jesus' public ministry, I always gloss the "my hour has not yet come" as "I'm not sure I'm ready to start this thing yet." You know--no turning back once this one hits the news. I imagine, regardless of how much of the divine Jesus had in him, this would have been a bit of a nail-biter on the human side of things.

Sorry to be a couple verses behind!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
T Nunc Dimittis - of course! (The sad bit at the end that's left out). No apologies needed for being behind - I'm trying to follow the OP's suggestion to leave at least 12 hours between verses, but I have a childish urge to get on with it ("Are we nearly there yet?")

2:9 ...and the master of the banquet tasted the water that had been turned into wine...

That incredibly casual throw-away line is only possible because John's readers know the story already. I'd love to see someone who hadn't come across it before reading the passage out loud, and watch their reaction at this point!

...He did not realize where it had come from, though the servants who had drawn the water knew.

A bit heavy-handed on John's part, perhaps. The point being that the master of the feast's subsequent words and actions are based on what he tasted and not on any foreknowledge whatsoever. This spikes the guns of anyone who might be tempted to suggest that the master of the feast was merely a superb diplomat...

...Then he called the bridegroom aside and said...

In a moment we'll rehearse what he said. But is it signifiant that he takes the bridegroom on one side? It is for me. It's often the way that Jesus works in his healing miracles - though Mark has him occasionally doing the big public charismatic thing.
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
But is it signifiant that he takes the bridegroom on one side? It is for me. It's often the way that Jesus works in his healing miracles - though Mark has him occasionally doing the big public charismatic thing.

I read that verse as the master of the banquet doing the "aside to one side", since he, not Jesus, speaks in the next verse.

Still, I agree with the point that Jesus does many of his miracles on this personal level. Since this was Jesus' first documented public miracle (he must have been messing with something beforehand, or Mom wouldn't have known he COULD fix the wine thing...), I imagine it was smaller-scale.

Shall we move on?

10and said, "Everyone brings out the choice wine first and then the cheaper wine after the guests have had too much to drink; but you have saved the best till now."

Or am I reading this wrong and that's Jesus talking? If so, he sounds a bit self-congratulatory to me...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
10and said, "Everyone brings out the choice wine first and then the cheaper wine after the guests have had too much to drink; but you have saved the best till now."

Or am I reading this wrong and that's Jesus talking? If so, he sounds a bit self-congratulatory to me...

Pant...pant....pushing legs on faster in attempt to keep up with pace of this thread...puff....puff....splutter....

No, I think (gasp) that you are correct (hack cough) that it is the steward (wheeze) speaking here (doubles over, hands on knees), given the Greek word order (falls to knees, blowing).

(Faint voice) Water. I need water...

GOD: Sorry mate – I only do wine.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Um, yes. By the barrel!

Thus God's gift to the bride and groom and all the revellers, perfomed through the Master of the Feast.

And John saw it in much larger terms, as God's first (incarnate) miraculous gift:

2:11 This, the first of his miraculous signs, Jesus performed in Cana of Galilee. He thus revealed his glory, and his disciples put their faith in him.

But not all of them, and not completely. There are frequent references throughout the gospel to disciples and others seeing the light for the first time. I prefer the more familiar (to me) expression "and (he/they/the disciples) believed. (him); simply because it's easier to find stuff in my steam-age concordance.

The importance of belief to John may be guaged by the fact that he uses the word "belief" and its various grammatical forms over 100 times.
By contrast, Mark uses the word scarcely a dozen times, and Luke even less. Why?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The importance of belief to John may be guaged by the fact that he uses the word "belief" and its various grammatical forms over 100 times.
By contrast, Mark uses the word scarcely a dozen times, and Luke even less. Why?

There's a strong sense that John uses the metaphor of a court room in his gospel; evidence (signs) are produced and witnesses are called upon, the reader is the jury (whoops - that's a bit of an anachronism; judge, perhaps?) who is called by the advocate to believe the evidence.

Might that account for the terminology?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
In part, certainly. But I think it's more than a dramatic convention. It's difficult to develop my next suggestion (not mine really - lifted from R.E.Brown) without pre-empting discussion on later chapters.

Brown points out that the Johanine church was riven with conflict between those who adopted John's high christology, various "heresies" (including gnosticism) and those who wanted to retain traditional Jewish values. He makes the unusual point that heresies (then as now?) don't always come from trendy modernists. Sometimes the traditionalists can't "keep up" and the developing church anathematises the stick-in-the-muds. As you may (or may not) guess, I love that approach!

So John is not just concerned with belief "pure and simple" (as if!) but with belief in the emerging, predominantly gentile, high christology which the miracles "prove".
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Sometimes the traditionalists can't "keep up" and the developing church anathematises the stick-in-the-muds. ... So John is not just concerned with belief "pure and simple" (as if!) but with belief in the emerging, predominantly gentile, high christology which the miracles "prove".

So that's why we are galloping through John 2! Keeping one step ahead of the Spanish Inquisition! And I thought it was to save my evangelical blushes regarding the mention of <mouthing the word:> alcohol (steps smartly aside to avoid lightening bolt...)

Of course, contextually, Jesus performed this miracle with Ribena.

"Glory" is another of those Johnnine words, isn't it? I've often thought about that 'gnostic' link, because there were (are?) those who argued that John was pretty esoteric himself - using words like 'glory' which spoke of otherwordliness, compared to Mark, say, who enjoyed Aramaic and down-to-earthiness (frolicking about naked, for example).

Is there a tension here, do you think? Is John really doing a job on gnosticism here?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Who's galloping? How long does anyone need to think about a single verse and a fairly non-controversial comment, before joining in the discussion?

Is there a tension here? You mean in the gospel, or on this thread? Anyone want to take it one from here? I'll go away for a bit, so as not to rush you...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Who's galloping? How long does anyone need to think about a single verse and a fairly non-controversial comment, before joining in the discussion?

Is there a tension here? You mean in the gospel, or on this thread? Anyone want to take it one from here? I'll go away for a bit, so as not to rush you...

No, although doctors say that I am young (and who am I to disagree with the experts?), there does come a time in a (young) man's life when he gets used to mulling over individual words, letting the savour oooooooooooze its way past individual taste buds, dripping down the gullet in a controlled, enjoy-every-second-of-this manner, allowing the gastric juices oodles of time to collect, organise and swamp the conglomerate mass, absorbing every ounce of natural, organic, goodness; dispersing it throughout the body in a growing, soothing, enveloping whole........


Pardon the gap. I just felt the need for breakfast. I’m back now.

I was only commenting on the sudden leap from the much slower approach to chapter one. I had reached the conclusion that the world would not end soon, because it would take at least 14,000 more years to complete the New Testament. I’m not fussed over the speed – take it away! Though I might want to pick up on comments relating to a couple of verses back, if people don’t mind. I’m a slow developer.

So – is the theory about John and the Gnostics (sounds like a ‘50s band) in tension? The sort of tension that requires a slow, gently rhythmic manipulating of the neck muscles, probing and lifting, squeezing them to their limits before controlling them in a bending, warping, mind-banging style; releasing them – oh, so slowly – back into renewed energetic shape, so that they are free to engage in the mode for which they were designed?

[ 17. December 2006, 08:18: Message edited by: Nigel M ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Oh, come on! The slow, easy passage through chapter 1? You were taking several verses at a time on occasion! The gentle pace was when people actually took time to discuss the text, not when everyone sensed that some new truth needed to be savoured for a week. And the "rules" are that anyone can say stop at ny time.

Nobody did. And nobody talked. Can you blame me fopr feeling paranoid? Lots of people on the ship know that I have a penchant for bizarre speculation. But I have not indulged it here. The threads on "miracles" and "belief" are elsewhere.

Since you can neither prove nor disprove the miracle at Cana; since you can neither debunk nor explain it, my approach has been with a genuine sense of wonder. And if that sense of wonder is tinged with speculation, I have kept it within reasonable bounds, I think, and not put up any Aunt Sally's for you to shoot down.
I don't think that is what this particular thread is for.

I'd be grateful if someone would say wht they think it is for, or should be for. If you want top treat it as a devotional exercise, I have no problem with that. Just be honest (That's not to suggest anyone has been dishonest - just uncomfortably quiet.

So now I've made it clear that I' not here with a sack of cats to set aong the pigeons, maybe my (imaginary?) jackals will slink off and scavenge elsewhere?

PS. Didn't quite get the cracks about the alcohol - I thought it was only primitive methodists who had a problem with that.
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
[HOSTING]


Pimple and Nigel, if y'all have questions about the purpose and tempo of this thread, it's best to take them to the Styx, where we can discuss the dynamic in depth.

If you are personally getting up each other's noses, take it to Hell. Either way, this conversation is becoming less directed at John and more directed at each other.

[/HOSTING]

[ 17. December 2006, 18:14: Message edited by: Kelly Alves ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK. No offence meant to Nigel - or anybody.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thanks Kelly - apologies to pimple; I really wasn't intending to upset anyone, just a warped sense of humour!

Still interested in the gnostic angle taken on John's gospel, but happy to move on into next passage if that's where we're going....
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
No apology needed, Nigel. I think everyone's going to be pretty busy over the nxt few days so I'll take it very slowly.

2:12 Afer this he went down to Capernaum with his mother and brothers and his disciples. 13 When it was almost time for the Jewish Passover, Jesus went up to Jerusalem.

From the reluctant miracle-worker at the wedding to the fire-and-brimstone prophet in the temple. What a change! There's going to be a lot of discussion from here on (I hope). But there's plenty of time.

[ 18. December 2006, 22:28: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I wonder if it took Mary's prompt at Cana to get things started? Was Jesus really waiting for 'his time' to begin in Jerusalem? It's interesting that John places this very provocative act up-front, compared to the other gospels.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Interesting point. And I've never really noticed this little interlude before - Everyone "knows" that Mary only appears at Cana and then at the crucifixion. But that's not quite true. After the wedding they all go en famille to Capernaum for a few days.

What happens there?

It's considered "bad form" to try to harmonise John with the synoptics but I wonder if the latter give us some imdication of what went on there? A small tangent worth exploring?

Why mention the trip to Capernaum at all? It may just be that John wants to take us straight to the heart of the matter, so to speak; his source mentions a trip to C. (and, surely, what happened there?) but it's not important to John's narrative, so he moves swifttly on to the temple scene. But I'm curious!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There should be some reason for a good author to mention something like this; it might be simply to indicate a break in the narrative, but then Capernaum was a centre of operations for Jesus - Matthew 4:13 suggests there was a family home there. Some of the disciples came from there. In chapter 6, John seems to treat the city as a bit of a bolt-hole where Jesus could escape from the crowds. A chance to draw breath and brief his disciples, maybe?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK, I'll put up the next two verses, which seem to be of a piece. (There's a whole thread somewhere on what happens afterwards, if people want to avoid too much repetition).

2:13 When it was almost time for the Jewish Passover, Jesus went up to Jerusalem. 14 In the temple courts he found men selling cattle, sheep and doves, and others sitting at tables exchanging money.

The Jewish Passover? Was there a non-Jewish Passover? Perhaps this indicates just how Gentile-oriented the Johanine community already was. The first hint of a "them and us" situation, though there was still a predominantly Jewish section of believers.

[ETA "a" to "void" !!]

[ 29. December 2006, 17:24: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
We nearly lost this thread again. Not sure if we are ready to move on yet? I'll wait a bit and see...

This episode (clearing the temple) comes as a climax to the confrontation plot in the first three gospels, yet John chooses to park it up front in his plan. Quite a contrast to the Cana sign we've just looked at. Is there a link?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Pushing on...

2:14 - In the temple courts he found men selling cattle, sheep and doves, and others sitting at tables exchanging money.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Keep it going, Nigel. I'm waiting to get a copy of R.E. Brown's commentary on John before I open my big mouth again.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
2:15 So he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple area, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money changers and overturned their tables.

A text for the church militant? Is violence permitted by this passage - and if so, in what circumstances?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It rather depends on whether Jesus was exercising his prerogative as God, or setting an example as a human being, doesn't it? Or maybe he just "lost it" on this occasion (that wouldn't be John's take, of course!)
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
It rather depends on whether Jesus was exercising his prerogative as God, or setting an example as a human being, doesn't it? Or maybe he just "lost it" on this occasion (that wouldn't be John's take, of course!)

I think it's important to note that the text does not say that Jesus hit any person or animal with the whip. What it says is
quote:
So he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple area, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money changers and overturned their tables.
I interpret this to mean he used the whip to drive the animals from the temple; you can drive animals with a whip without actually hitting them. When the owners of the animals saw them going out, they naturally followed their merchandise.

Moo

[ 19. March 2007, 12:11: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Grits (# 4169) on :
 
Thank you, Moo. I really get dismayed at the seemingly universal acceptance that Jesus went postal and was physically violent and harmful to others. I think He simply "took action." [Smile]
 
Posted by Grits (# 4169) on :
 
Can I post the next? (Never did quite understand all of Pyx_e's rules!)

v.16 To those who sold doves he said, "Get these out of here! How dare you turn my Father's house into a market!"
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I think it's important to note that the text does not say that Jesus hit any person or animal with the whip. What it says is
quote:
So he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple area, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money changers and overturned their tables.
I interpret this to mean he used the whip to drive the animals from the temple; you can drive animals with a whip without actually hitting them. When the owners of the animals saw them going out, they naturally followed their merchandise.
Moo,

I was going along with this until I looked up the passage following Grits' latest post - and saw that the grammatical structure seems to imply that Jesus drove them all (i.e. the people mentioned in the previous verse) out. The animals appear as an afterthought. The NASB translates the relevant section as:

quote:
“And He found in the temple those who were selling oxen and sheep and doves, and the money changers seated at their tables. And He made a scourge of cords, and drove them all out of the temple, with the sheep and the oxen...”
I suppose it depends on how one reads the “all” (pantas) and that sneaky little conjunction (te) in verse 15.

If the NASB and similar versions are correct, then although Jesus may not have physically touched anyone during the whipping, perhaps it was not foremost in the average trader’s mind that day to test Jesus’ pacifist tendencies!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Grits:
v.16 To those who sold doves he said, "Get these out of here! How dare you turn my Father's house into a market!"

I’m interested to know why John’s version of this differs from the other gospels’. The relevant passages are: Matt. 21:13; Mark 11:17 and Luke 19:46, all of which have Jesus saying, “...you have made it [my house] a den of robbers” (ignoring Matthew’s typical change of tense here).

Why a market, rather than a robber’s den? The latter links in nicely with Jeremiah 7:11 in both the Hebrew Masoretic and Greek Septuagint, whereas the former doesn’t have a clear link – at least not that I can think of.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
If the NASB and similar versions are correct, then although Jesus may not have physically touched anyone during the whipping, perhaps it was not foremost in the average trader’s mind that day to test Jesus’ pacifist tendencies!

At least in John He doesn't knock over tables and chairs, unlike in Matthew:
quote:
Matthew 21:12 Then Jesus went into the temple of God and drove out all those who bought and sold in the temple, and overturned the tables of the money changers and the seats of those who sold doves.
Somebody could have gotten hurt! [Disappointed]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:


I was going along with this until I looked up the passage following Grits' latest post - and saw that the grammatical structure seems to imply that Jesus drove them all (i.e. the people mentioned in the previous verse) out. The animals appear as an afterthought. The NASB translates the relevant section as:

quote:
“And He found in the temple those who were selling oxen and sheep and doves, and the money changers seated at their tables. And He made a scourge of cords, and drove them all out of the temple, with the sheep and the oxen...”
I suppose it depends on how one reads the “all” (pantas) and that sneaky little conjunction (te) in verse 15.

If the NASB and similar versions are correct, then although Jesus may not have physically touched anyone during the whipping, perhaps it was not foremost in the average trader’s mind that day to test Jesus’ pacifist tendencies!

I am not at home and don't have my Greek text with me. The translation quoted here says
quote:
So he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple area, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money changers and overturned their tables.
The phrase 'both sheep and cattle' suggests to me that 'all' refers to all the animals, not the people.

Moo
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
Oh, sorry, I guess that He did overturn tables in John. [Hot and Hormonal]

My understanding is that this is a different incident from the one recorded on or after Palm Sunday in Matthew, Mark and Luke. I'm sure I'm in the minority on this.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Regardless of precisely how "physical" Jesus' action was, it ws undoubtedly an expression of outrage and anger. Whether this justifies "righteous anger" in us must depend on the circmstances. I can't help thinking of those later on in the gospel who were outraged by a woman's infidelity. Did they think that the action in the temple marked Jesus out as a "sound" judge to take the woman to? Someone who wouldn't be "soft on crime"....?

[ 19. March 2007, 20:03: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I am not at home and don't have my Greek text with me. The translation quoted here says
quote:
So he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple area, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money changers and overturned their tables.
The phrase 'both sheep and cattle' suggests to me that 'all' refers to all the animals, not the people.

Moo

That was the NIV take on it, Moo; the translations come down on two sides on this. The NASB and NIV are examples of both. Assorted Greek and English versions of vv.14 and 15 can be found here.

The UBS critical apparatus doesn't indicate that there are any textual variants on the text itself at the relevant point, so it seems to be down to how one translates that conjunction: is it "both" (so limiting the driving out to just the animals), or "including/with" (so permitting the "all" to refer to the humans)?

One consideration is that this could be an example of the τε - και link: "not only...but also", which would favour the 'animals only' school of thought, though why John would want to compare/contrast sheep with cattle is a bit beyond me.

Could it be that some of the English translators have been constrained by the knowledge that this verse would cause difficulties for those holding pacifist views?

Nigel
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
My take is that Jesus did not need to physically threaten the traders to make them leave. When their animals were driven out, they were bound to follow.

I am not sure Jesus was a pacifist, but I strongly believe he was not given to gratuitous violence as a form of self-expression.

quote:
Originally posted by pimple
I can't help thinking of those later on in the gospel who were outraged by a woman's infidelity. Did they think that the action in the temple marked Jesus out as a "sound" judge to take the woman to?

I think it was another attempt to entrap Jesus. If he said she should be stoned, he would come across as harsh and vindictive. If he said she should go free, he was trashing the Law. Jesus side-stepped this one very well, as he did so many others.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, Moo. Time to move on?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thanks, Moo. Time to move on?

Whoops! It's probably down to me, isn't it, seeing as I posted first after the last move-on. So, John 2:17 [NIV]:-

quote:
His disciples remembered that it is written: "Zeal for your house will consume me."
The quote comes from Psalm 69:9 (in the NIV - some translations incorporate the Psalm heading as verse 1; for these the relvant verse = 10. In the Greek Septuagint the Psalm to look for is Psalm 68:10). The full Psalm covers over 35 verses and can be linked to here.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It's an odd allusion for John, isn't it? The tenor of the psalm is almost like Gethsemane - an interlude John conspicuously leave out.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
It's an odd allusion for John, isn't it? The tenor of the psalm is almost like Gethsemane - an interlude John conspicuously leave out.

The impression, I think, is that Psalm 69 describes Jesus' inner thought processes, and the anguish behind His radical actions.
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
It's an odd allusion for John, isn't it? The tenor of the psalm is almost like Gethsemane - an interlude John conspicuously leave out.

The impression, I think, is that Psalm 69 describes Jesus' inner thought processes, and the anguish behind His radical actions.
What, then, to make of the fact that this is one "aggressive" display by Jesus, early in his career according to John, coupled with the fact that the second half of Psalm 69 has a fair bit of smiting going on? (Did Jesus start out more on the Zealot side of things and "gentle down" over time once the Zealotry was clearly not working? Oy.)

One of the most significant schisms I see between Old and New Testaments is the rethinking of violence directed against others: I stake my faith on a Jesus who wouldn't be praying or living the second half of that Psalm. Does this pose a reconcilation challenge for others, or just me?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, there's a significant difference between the agony of Jesus in the garden at the thought of what is going to happen to him, and John's depiction of the agony of making difficult decisons. I think John's church needed more bolstering, more encouragement. The biggest concern must surely have been not the internecine struggles of the church but increasing unease at the apparent failure of Jesus to return in glory. When did the church first find its way round that problem?
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
Without entering into the debate of how Gesthimane is to be interpreted, I'd like to point out that this psalm (psalm 68 in LXX, verse 22) was also used in John 19.29.

Now, as far as the second part of the psalm, I don't see how it is any different than the Revelation of Jesus to John (for example 16.6), or Paul's second epistle to the people of Thessaloniki (1.6) . The just cry against the injustice they had to endure, and the unjust get condemned forever.

Last, but not least, it is true that the early Church's hopes were proven to be mistaken. In texts like the second epistle of "Paul" to the people of Thessaloniki, or the second epistle of "Peter", we see an attempt to re-interpret that hope. A day for the Lord is 1000 years for us (2 Peter, 3.8), the last day will not come soon (2 Thes. 2.2)

Unfortunately, we entered a state of denial, instead of re-examining what the Lord really said. After all, some eye-witnesses were still alive! A sad development that helped towards the formation of a religion out of -and in parallel with- the Way.
 
Posted by Freddy (# 365) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
What, then, to make of the fact that this is one "aggressive" display by Jesus, early in his career according to John, coupled with the fact that the second half of Psalm 69 has a fair bit of smiting going on?

Yes, the open desire for revenge in Psalm 69, and throughout the Old Testament, is out of keeping with Jesus' teaching.
quote:
Originally posted by infinite_monkey:
One of the most significant schisms I see between Old and New Testaments is the rethinking of violence directed against others: I stake my faith on a Jesus who wouldn't be praying or living the second half of that Psalm. Does this pose a reconcilation challenge for others, or just me?

As I see it, the Old Testament penchant for violence is spiritualized in the New Testament. Physical destruction at the hand of God or Israel is converted to the self-destruction of hell. Revenge is rejected, but is replaced by the idea that everyone receives what they give.

In the parables Jesus preaches the destruction of the wicked. But it is clear that the violence of those stories is figurative, and that in reality we are to seek peace.

I see a harmony between this kind of thinking in the Old and the New Testaments. The New Testament, though, is more sophisticated or mature, whereas the Old Testament simply goes with the impulse to ruin and destroy whatever falls under the category of "enemy."
 
Posted by infinite_monkey (# 11333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Freddy:
As I see it, the Old Testament penchant for violence is spiritualized in the New Testament. Physical destruction at the hand of God or Israel is converted to the self-destruction of hell. Revenge is rejected, but is replaced by the idea that everyone receives what they give.

Thanks for that, Freddy--it makes good sense.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I agree. Anyone want to put up the next verse and comment?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
OK - here it is. NIV again:
quote:

2:18 Then the Jews demanded of him, "What miraculous sign can you show us to prove your authority to do all this?"

A disturbance in the Temple could have attracted a massacre by [a] zealous Jews or [b] jittery soldiers. So this response to Jesus' bit of anti-social behaviour seems quite moderate by comparison. It's almost as though the Jews would have accepted Jesus' behaviour if he could prove his point. Or was this a Socratic trap?
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
They wanted to sell their freedom. Sell their freedom for security. And they ask this from the one person who asks for insecurity!

But God is too gentle and too noble to buy man's faith. Faith cannot be bought with miracles. Faith is deeply personal, a result of freedom!

I heard a parallel being drawn between selling our freedom (a phenomenon that is universal; people want to feel secure) and the Jews' choosing Barrabas over Christ in front of Pilate. Barrabas was offering them an ideology, an earthly vision. Christ was asking for maturity, for the giving of our own selves, for leaving all security aside to trust God and follow the Spirit. Instead of the earthly messiah, we got the suffering servant. Glory be to God!
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Wasn't this one skipped?:

quote:

17 His disciples remembered that it is written: "Zeal for your house will consume me."
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
(Oops, sorry. No, it wasn't, but I missed it.

Carry on.)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
(Oops, sorry. No, it wasn't, but I missed it.

Carry on.)

Do feel free to comment on it if you want to TM; it's part of the same episode and we're bound to be flitting back and forth as we go through sections....
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The Jews' question sounds like an artificial "set up" on John's part, to me. Not that they didn't ask such questions, but I think it's more a way of introducing the answer - which we haven't got to yet! There's a lot of dialogue in John where another evangelist might have said "Meanwhile the Jews (or the Scribes and Pharisees) thought in their hearts...."
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
(Oops, sorry. No, it wasn't, but I missed it.

Carry on.)

Do feel free to comment on it if you want to TM; it's part of the same episode and we're bound to be flitting back and forth as we go through sections....
Thanks, Nigel. I noticed last night at Tenebrae that the first reading was Psalm 69, which contains the "...Zeal for your house has eaten me up..." passage. That Psalm also later speaks of the narrator being thirsty, but being given vinegar to drink.

And I think in general that John was always tying the pieces of Jesus' life together to point to his mission and especially to the events of Holy Week.

In the first scene after the Prologue, he has John the Baptist point out Jesus as "the Lamb of God, who takes away the sins of the world." In the first part of Verse 2, he has Jesus turning water into wine - and staying three days at Cana, after which his disciples "believed on him." Now we have this scene, with the quote from Psalm 69 that references Jesus' words from the cross - and shortly he will say "Destroy this temple and I will rebuild it in three days."

And also John puts the cleansing of the temple at the beginning of Jesus' ministry, not the end. That must occur soon, although I can't remember exactly when it does.

I don't know exactly what this all means, but it seems clear that John is always trying to establish Jesus as Redeemer and Son of God - and as the fulfillment of Prophecy.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
TubaMirum. The cleansing of the temple is at the bottom of page six- we've passed it; but I don't see any reason not to refer to it further, to tie in with current verses. "One verse at a time" taken literally ends up being rather disjointed - and I'm sure John's intention was a continuous narrative, focused on Holy Week.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
And also John puts the cleansing of the temple at the beginning of Jesus' ministry, not the end. That must occur soon, although I can't remember exactly when it does.

I don't know exactly what this all means, but it seems clear that John is always trying to establish Jesus as Redeemer and Son of God - and as the fulfillment of Prophecy.

Which brings us back to that question: why did John place the temple cleansing episode so early in his gospel, when the other gospel writers have it close to the end, forming part of the climax to Jesus’ earthly ministry? This is assuming that John is referring to the same incident and that there were not two similar but separate events. Freddy noted this to be his take on it (posted on previous page).

There are some dissimilarities. The scriptural quotation is different: the synoptics have Isa. 56:7 and Jer. 7:11, whereas John refers to Psalm 69:9. John does quote Jesus, however, as criticising the stallholders for turning the temple into a market, which could be a rendering of the “house of prayer to den of robbers” saying.

Both sets of incidents occur in the run up to a Passover festival. In the synoptics this event occurs at the Passover where Jesus is arrested and crucified; John, however, has Jesus visiting Jerusalem a few more times (and at least one more Passover festival) before his end.

All four gospels record the religious leaders questioning Jesus’ authority; in the synoptics it occurs a day or two later, whereas John places it immediately after the temple cleansing (though there might be a time gap). The nature of the answer to the authority question is different: in the synoptics Jesus refuses to answer, instead he bounces the question back on those who confronted him by referring to John the Baptist. In John’s gospel, Jesus does answer – with a reference to the temple building itself.

It’s significant I think that John makes reference to ‘miraculous signs’ throughout his book. Most of them occur as signs that have already taken place, but in the current episode Jesus seems to postpone making one: rather than play the conjurer for the religious rulers, he gives a prophecy. Ultimately, John presents these signs as a way of encouraging belief in Jesus (John 20:31).

I wonder if John is playing off two sets of zeal? One is Jesus and his zeal supported by signs that show his glory, the other the zeal of the religious leaders who have no sign in support and end up killing Jesus. It’s a struggle for belief: will the readers choose to put their trust in the established and proven religious regime based on the Jerusalem temple, with all its rituals, or in Jesus? Putting the temple cleansing incident up front might be John’s way of signalling that very contest for peoples’ hearts.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Barnabas62 linked us some time back to a sermon on John which pointed out that his time-scale was completely different to that of the synoptics. He wasn't attempting a chronologically accurate account of Jesus' life, death and resurrection. Sorry I can't find the link - I don't remember which thread it was on.

[ 06. April 2007, 21:53: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
I'm sorry, you guys, that I'm missing points already made. I did go back to the previous comments, but somehow am not going deep enough into the page.

I think it's because I've followed the thread from the beginning, but can't seem to locate where I need to start again, as I've been away from it for awhile. Will try to be read more carefully in the future.

Thanks for your last posts, Nigel and pimple. They've reminded me of something, but I need to think more about it before I post again....
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'll move it on since I guess I was the one who commented first after last verse. I hope people don't mind if I put together the next three verses (while bearing in mind these are part of the section we've been looking at). It's a short dialogue that makes sense as one unit [NIV]:
quote:
2:19 Jesus answered them, "Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days."

20 The Jews replied, "It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?"

21 But the temple he had spoken of was his body.


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ah, but was it? Pace those who think the fourth evangelist "knew the mind of Christ" (which IMV makes him on a par with God).

Two questions come immediately to mind:
1. Are other interpretations possible/likely/allowed?

2. Could it be that the answer came before the question, in the mind of John? ("How do I make this theological point without interrupting the narrative?")

For me that would indicate competent authorship, but for others it would be telling lies.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
This is a truly beautiful passage, to me.

Again, Jesus makes it clear that worldly powers cannot and will not defeat him; that however long it takes for human beings to build (and destroy), God can accomplish the ultimate miracle in only three days. Again, he uses his own body as metaphor. Again, he says that God is bigger than religion and culture and location and anything one can name.

And He does this from a position of total weakness. He says, essentially: "The body you may kill; God's truth abideth still."

I like Pimple's questions, too. I've never really thought of John as historical; for me, it's an extended meditation on the meaning of the "Christ-event." (When you get an intro like the one here, in the Prologue, it's not hard to come to that conclusion. John is a Fabulous Tale - the Fabulous Tale, I guess.)

It's interesting, though, always, to think about "other interpretations." And yes, I think the answer came before the question. [Biased]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
(Another wonderful thing about the story of Jesus Christ is that for the most part, His miracles are not "earth-shattering."

No temples actually fall; no lightening comes from the sky; no pillars of cloud and fire; no striking of rocks to find water.

The miracles are very homely, in fact, and all about human life: healing sick people, feeding hungry people, catching fish, etc. Stilling the waves and the storm so that people can go about their lives - that is the most cinematic-dramatic miracle.

The true miracle is embedded in the Incarnation: that God came to live (and die) as a human being. The Temple is His body. John is always talking about the cosmic struggle between Light and Darkness and between Good and Evil - the struggle we can't see or take part in. That's the wonderful and amazing thing, for me.)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, TM. I too feel that the miracles that are most eloquent are not the Cecil B. de Mille sort. Though for the lucky recipients they may have felt earth-shattering enough!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The dialogue between Jesus and the Jews here follows a pattern that John uses elsewhere. Jesus is addressed by someone, he replies with an answer that throws his partner in the conversation to the extent that they come back with what looks to be a sulky "you-haven't-followed-the-rules-of-conversation" type of reply. Nicodemus in 3:1-5 and the Samaritan woman in 4:9-12 are examples that follow this structure.

The difference is that with Nicodemus and the woman, Jesus provided a rejoinder that seems to have caused them to become convinced in him. Here in chapter 2, however, he doesn't. John stops the conversation. Perhaps this is to signal the Jews' growing opposition as the narrative proceeds?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I've just noted another ambiguity - if such it is. Jesus says "Destroy this temple and..." Which seems to put his interlocutors on the back foot. Who's doing the destroying, in the Greek - is it clear?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Who's doing the destroying, in the Greek - is it clear?

The way it appears in the UBS text, it is Jesus answering the Jews directly ("Jesus answered and said to them..."), followed by the verb for 'destroy' in its second person plural aorist imperative form, which implies that Jesus was telling the Jews, "Youse destroy..." (struggling to find a second person plural form in UK English! Perhaps "You all destroy..." for some USA speakers?)

There might be an implied judgment against the Jews he was speaking to here: almost a "Carry on and finish off what your fathers started" statement of irony. Matthew 23:32 records a similar use of language in the context of killing prophets:
quote:

30 And you say, 'If we had lived in the days of our forefathers, we would not have taken part with them in shedding the blood of the prophets.' 31 So you testify against yourselves that you are the descendants of those who murdered the prophets. 32 Fill up, then, the measure of the sin of your forefathers! [NIV]


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ah - let him that is without sin first cast a stone against misery-guts Matthew - and Jeremiah gloating over the same part of the Decalogue! Sorry - nothing at all to do with John! (But why is there so much more talk of sin in the New Testament than the old?)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Perhaps the concept was presented using different words and phrases? Israel turning its back on God; Israel playing the harlot; disobeying God; not listening or paying attention; rejecting God's message; following after other gods; etc.

It all looks so much more communal, rather than individual.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Might as well post the next section?

John 2:22 - 25:

quote:
22 Therefore, when he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this, and they came to believe the scripture and the word Jesus had spoken.

23 While he was in Jerusalem for the feast of Passover, many began to believe in his name when they saw the signs he was doing.

24 But Jesus would not trust himself to them because he knew them all,

25 and did not need anyone to testify about human nature. He himself understood it well.


 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
(Wanted to add that I've never really noticed 24-25 before. Quite a statement there!)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
My version (NRSV) has "He needed no-one to testify about anyone, for he himself knew what was in everyone." Which is a bit stronger than a knowledge of human nature. It implies a supernatural knowledge of every individual mind.

There is an implication, in this passage (ISTM) that Jesus' purpose in going to Jerusalem is in that everyone should believe in his name. But he knew there were traitors among the believers? I keep hearing John - louder than Jesus.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Hope someone will ignore that last irrelevance and carry on some time... [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
No not irrelevant – opens up the question of inspiration (quickly steps aside before the entire thread is launched into Dead Horses...). Did John:
1] Speak for himself when he penned our verses 24-25;
2] Have inside knowledge from his time with Jesus during his ministry; or
3] Write what be felt inspired to write by God?

I tend to take a mix of [2] and [3] above.

Next – what do these verses (23-25) mean? What does John mean by the phrase people “believed in his name”? How does that tie in with Jesus not believing back, and not needing “man’s testimony”? Does it imply that people were capable of believing in Jesus one moment, but renouncing him later?
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
I have to agree that what I posted above seems like a bad translation; "human nature" is really a read that isn't there, apparently, in the original (although I suspect that that is what is meant anyway). Here's Young's literal translation:

quote:
22when, then, he was raised out of the dead, his disciples remembered that he said this to them, and they believed the Writing, and the word that Jesus said.

23And as he was in Jerusalem, in the passover, in the feast, many believed in his name, beholding his signs that he was doing;

24and Jesus himself was not trusting himself to them, because of his knowing all [men],

25and because he had no need that any should testify concerning man, for he himself was knowing what was in man.

This seems interesting to me, because there are two distinct "reads" of Jesus' reticence in revealing himself to human beings. The first is the one suggested here: that he knew about "human nature" (since he's 100% human himself!) and did not "trust" people.

The second is more interesting, I think, and is the origin, I bet, of the early view of Jesus' having "tricked" the Devil: he's keeping secret his identity in order that Satan will be unaware of who Jesus really is, so that he (Jesus) can conquer death by his own death.

This last thing makes more and more sense to me as time goes on, because of the repeated use of this concealment in every Gospel account.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks. I was going to ask whether these "denials" were more or less important to modern Christians than to John's readers. You seem partly to have answered that question in your last sentence. It's interesting that the denials appear in all the gospels. I still don't quite understand the significance of them then .
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Well, it's just an idea that's been crystallizing for me lately - probably because "Christus Victor" atonement makes more sense to me than any other read. And of course, I like a good yarn - and that's a humdinger, as they say. [Biased]

In that vein, though, take a look at this blog entry, and read Comment #3. It's about a reading of the early Temptation narrative in Mark, one that came from "Gregory" (I'm actually not sure which one, now that I reread this). But it looks at the theme of "concealment" in a similar way.

Just an idea, as I say. This reading from John actually goes the other way, though....
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for the blog link but it's not responding at the moment. I'll try again later.

[ 09. May 2007, 16:00: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Bad code above, that's why. Here's the fixed link.

Sorry....
 
Posted by the Ænglican (# 12496) on :
 
I'm speaking here of Gregory the Great's sermon on Matt 4:1-11 in his 40 Gospel Homilies. Essentially the "deception notion"--which was quite common among the early Fathers--was that Satan didn't know what he was getting himself in for and would not have slain Jesus had he known who he was. Thus, the Temptation has nothing to do with establishing Jesus's self-understanding (as it's often read today), but is Satan literally testing Jesus to find out who he is. Since Jesus conquers Satan by only human means--nothing miraculous--Satan is still left in the dark...

Of course, one of the exegetical problems with this is that--especially in Mark--all the demons know exactly who he is on sight...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Good blog. Thanks to both of you. All those links could keep me off the Ship for weeks. Was that the idea? [Biased]
 
Posted by Luke (# 306) on :
 
It's been a over a week, so here are the next few verses of a new chapter.
quote:
3:1 Now there was a man of the Pharisees named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews.
2 This man came to Jesus by night and said to him, “Rabbi, we know that you are a teacher come from God, for no one can do these signs that you do unless God is with him.”
3 Jesus answered him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God.” (esv)

Jesus, probably still in Jerusalem is approached secretly by one of the ruling Pharisees, Nicodemus, as opposed to your standard village Pharisee. Nicodemus seems to be on the verge of belief so Jesus challenges him and says if he wants to understand God properly he needs to be 'born again'.

The Kingdom of God is a major theme in the synoptics but not so much in John, so it's interesting to see it here in chapter 3. Nicodemus wants to know if God is with Jesus or not but Jesus seems to respond with a tangent about the Kingdom of God. This must mean there is a connection between knowing and understanding the signs of God and the Kingdom of God.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Luke:
Nicodemus wants to know if God is with Jesus or not but Jesus seems to respond with a tangent about the Kingdom of God. This must mean there is a connection between knowing and understanding the signs of God and the Kingdom of God.

It could be an example of how Jesus cuts through conversation niceties to get to the real issue; John records a number of other instances where Jesus apparently ignores the question and throws out a statement that unbalances the person he’s talking to. For example, there’s the reply to the Jews in 2:18-19 and the response to the Samaritan woman in 4:9-12. Here, could it be that Nicodemus had prepped his conversation and wanted to get to the point via a reasoned route, but Jesus swung him away before he could get into his swing? In which case perhaps Jesus knew that talk of signs would not answer Nicodemus' real issue.

And what do we make of that “born again” phrase? Is it “born from on high”, or "born from above”, or something different? How does it connect to the Kingdom of God phrase?
 
Posted by Og: Thread Killer (# 3200) on :
 
The born again is more of the same of what you have already pointed towards: Jesus moved the flow of the conversation from Nicodemus' fawning but still self aggrandizing "we know you are" towards a challenge along the lines of Unless you are this, you can not relate to the kingdom of God.

What is the this though?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think it's the new man born "of the spirit" and not relying on his Jewish birthright and tradition. "Born again Christian" is often nowadays a pejorative phrase, but for John that was the only sort of Christian with any hope of salvation. Of course, the phrase has now lost its original anti-Jewish overtones. Or has it?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I was interested to map NT Wright’s take on ‘Kingdom of God’ language to this passage in John. Wright’s analysis of the use of that phrase in the Judaism of this period is that the coming kingdom of God meant the end of Israel’s exile, the overthrow of a pagan empire and the exaltation of Israel, and the return of God to Zion to judge and save. It wasn’t, in other words, being understood at the time as an individualised interiorisation of a spiritual event, but rather as a national political restoration and regeneration: a public vindication by God of his people (or at least the righteous ones in Israel). I’m not sure if Wright deals with John 3 anywhere in his analyses; it would be interesting to see his take on it, because John’s presentation seems to imply an interior spiritual experience, although when we get to verses 16-17 we are definitely in ‘save the world’ territory.

Here in John 3 we have Nicodemus, a leader among the people and apparently sympathetic to Jesus. He starts the conversation by establishing his belief that Jesus’ message has validity – i.e. is supported by signs, an appropriate method of validation. Jesus then goes straight to the regeneration theme. If Wright is correct, then presumably here Jesus is saying that a new agenda regarding the Kingdom is being announced and it needs a different viewpoint (world view?) to be able to see it. Jesus himself is the embodiment of God’s return to Zion; he is the means for end of exile and the calling of the whole creation back to God. To understand this will require a transformation on the part of the hearer.

Incidentally, I wonder if chapter 3 begins a ‘flash-back’ to Jesus’ ministry? Chapter 2 ended with the confrontation in the temple, which the other gospels place near the end of Jesus’ life. Perhaps John places that event up front in his gospel to establish where the battle lines were drawn and over what issues (where Jesus got his authority from – validation of his message, in other words); then he does a back flip to present a series of events that deal with that very issue: validating Jesus, starting with Nicodemus’ visit. John, in this scheme, is not concerned with presenting everything in order of time, but in setting out what he sees as the key issues and then dealing with them with whatever episodes he deemed relevant. We catch up again with the Passover events again in chapter 12.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Incidentally, I wonder if chapter 3 begins a ‘flash-back’ to Jesus’ ministry? Chapter 2 ended with the confrontation in the temple, which the other gospels place near the end of Jesus’ life. Perhaps John places that event up front in his gospel to establish where the battle lines were drawn and over what issues (where Jesus got his authority from – validation of his message, in other words); then he does a back flip to present a series of events that deal with that very issue: validating Jesus, starting with Nicodemus’ visit. John, in this scheme, is not concerned with presenting everything in order of time, but in setting out what he sees as the key issues and then dealing with them with whatever episodes he deemed relevant. We catch up again with the Passover events again in chapter 12.

Wow, this is a really interesting idea, Nigel! Wonderful take!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Time to move on again? John 3:4 [NIV]
quote:
"How can a man be born when he is old?" Nicodemus asked. "Surely he cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb to be born!"
Up until now I had thought that Nicodemus was either being grumpy or was somewhat dim; he either didn't like Jesus' response to his conversation opener and decided to be picky on the literalistic level, or he was completely at sea over Jesus' use of the 'born' language. I thought that he (Nicodemus) might have circulated this encounter to the early church in a self-deprecating way to demonstrate how astute Jesus was compared to his own silliness.

Just looking at the verse now, I wonder if I have done Nick a disservice. Perhaps he did understand Jesus to be using birth figuratively and was quick enough to appreciate this point. His response would then read: “Ah! I see it requires a complete change of world-view to appreciate your concept of God’s Kingdom and its realisation. But look at my colleagues and me among the Jewish leaders – we’re all old men! How can an old dog learn new tricks? Surely we are past changing opinions now?”
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Interesting...that could well be John's point: never too late. My guess is that you are not an old man? [Biased]
 
Posted by pooka (# 11425) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
My guess is that you are not an old man?

[Killing me]

He might be an old woman!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There's a saying: Young people look forward, old people look back; middle-aged people just look tired. One day I'll be able to ask God why that is. I'm looking forward to that.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 3:5 -
quote:
Jesus answered, "I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit.

 
Posted by Mama Thomas (# 10170) on :
 
Nigel M has kindly alerted me that you have reached this verse on this thread, which I haven't been following. Here is my question from the thread I just started "You Must Be Born of the Water" perhaps a kind host can delete it if it is going to be discussed here:
quote:
The other night I was talking with an aquaintance who was baptised as a child but lately has been worshipping with one of those necktie/microphone groups.

He said that they are taught differently to what the church has believed and taught for two thousand years, that this verse in John 3 does not refer to baptism, but instead to simply being born.

I tried to argue with him, though I am not a biblical scholar, that that particular idiom "born of the water" is used no where to refer to simply being born. It doesn't follow that our Lord would create a new metaphor for human birth and then it be misunderstood until the 19th century, until The Founder of a Movement gets it right.

I also brought up angels, who "see the kingdom" but they weren't "born of the water". He said but the next verse refers to "what is born of flesh is flesh, what is born of the spirit is spirit," this linking "born of the water and thee spirit".

Well, what are Jesus and Nick talking about here?


 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I realise that we are going to need verse six as well, so here’s the two verses together (from the NIV):
quote:
Jesus answered, "I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit. Flesh gives birth to flesh, but the Spirit gives birth to spirit.
I’d better come clean (washed by water?!) and say that I have not been totally convinced that John 3:5 is a reference to baptism. But then again, I’m not really convinced by any other interpretation either!

I’ve come across six different interpretations of this “water” reference (and there may be more):
1] Water of baptism;
2] Physical birth of a baby;
3] Just another way of saying ‘Spirit’ (i.e., Holy Spirit);
4] Linked to the above – but translating ‘spirit’ (pneuma, πνευμα) as ‘wind’;
5] The ministry of John the Baptist; and
6] The Word of God.

I’ve listed them roughly in order of likelihood – if commentators are anything to go by. I should add that not a few commentators feel uncomfortable with the word ‘water’ in this verse and view it as a likely later addition, either by John (i.e. Jesus didn’t actually speak it) or someone after John. Frankly, this doesn’t help us much at the moment because it’s there, like it or not, and we have to deal with it. I’ll leave [1] above out of things for time being and look at the others.

Number [2]: this takes the context to be that Nick has just responded to Jesus with a reference to physical birth (verse 4 -"How can a man be born when he is old?" Nicodemus asked. "Surely he cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb to be born!"). So Jesus is confirming that a physical birth is at least necessary before a second stage is needed. The implication is that the first birth is the natural birth and ‘water’ refers to the water of the womb.

Number [3] has a venerable history. Commentators from Origen to Calvin and beyond concluded that there was just one thing being referred to and that this joint water-and-spirit reference was linked to the “born from above / born again” phrase (anothen ανωθεν - John being a master of double meanings, he might have used that word deliberately to mean both ‘from above’ and ‘again’).

Number [4] majors on the fact that both water and wind come ‘from above’. Reference is made to Isaiah 44:3-5 and Ezekiel 37:9-10 as examples of water and wind as life-giving symbols of the Spirit of God in his work among people. There’s a wider link here to the coming of the Holy Spirit in advance of the restoration of Israel and the re-establishment of God’s Kingdom on earth.

Number [5] takes ‘water’ to refer to the specific baptism by John the Baptist as a forerunner to Jesus’ ministry.

Number [6] draws in Ephesians 5:26: “...cleansing her [the church] by the washing with water through the word...” In other words, the Word of God makes the Church holy. Being born from above involves being taught the gospel.

I suspect the arguments used by those who favour [2] above against taking [1] as a reference to water baptism would major on what is takes to be ‘saved’ (or born again, converted, justified, brought into the kingdom, brought into the world-wide church....[insert favourite phrase]). Romans 5:1 states that we have been justified (or declared righteous) through faith and it could be said that if baptism were essential as well, then Paul would surely have mentioned it here. On the other hand, I note that in 5:9 Paul says we are justified (or declared righteous) by his blood, which adds something to mere faith....

Sorry - long post, but hopefully sets the context for the discussion.

Nigel
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus seems to be contrasting physical birth with a spiritual one- a radical change of heart and mind that effectively means a person starts out with a new life.

I don't know if it's significant in this matter that the fourth gospel was written some time after the Pauline epistles (and Luke/Acts) but there is a curious refernce to rebirth in the Holy Spirit in Luke's account of Paul at Ephesus (curious because Paul was not one who regarded speaking in tongues as de riguer for a validly reborn Christian:

ACTS 19 (NRSV): While Apollos was in Corinth, Paul....came to Ephesus, where he found some disciples. He said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you became believers?" They replied, "No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit." Then he said, "Into what were you baptized?" They answered, "Into John's baptism." Paul said, "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the one who was to come after him, that is, in Jesus." On hearing this, they were baptised in the name of the Lord Jesus. When Paul had laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied - Altogether there were about twelve of them.

So well before the fourth gospel was written there was, it seems, already a ritualised form of what Anglicans would now recognise as Confirmation, I think. Some charismatic groups - both catholic and protestant, have gone back to seeing speaking in tongues as "proof" that the thing has, um, "taken". I guess the Johanine community held the same view, since there's nothing to the contrary in the fourth gospel.

I hope that's not all too much of a tangent.

[ 07. June 2007, 22:00: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry - a simple error - nowhere in that Acts passage is the new baptism called a rebirth. And it seems not everyone regards that as a given. So I am not sure where that leaves us.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The issue seems to be wide open!

I can see why some struggle with this verse as being from Jesus rather than the later church. If it does refer to baptism by water, then we are stuck with the fact that nowhere else before his death does Jesus advocate water baptism as a requirement for entry into God’s Kingdom. As an ordnance, baptism was not yet in effect. In fact, if the thief on the cross was granted entry into paradise without baptism, then why would Nicodemus be told that baptism was essential? Equally, if Jesus wanted to stress the importance of baptism, then why not just say so – “I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is baptised and born of the Spirit.” These arguments seem to underlie the position of those who conclude that either John or someone after him inserted the ‘water’ reference into the text.

However, as Mama Thomas pointed out, the majority of the church Fathers (among others) see the reference to baptism by water. The earliest, I think, is Justin, who wrote: “For, in the name of God, the Father and Lord of the universe, and of our Saviour Jesus Christ, and of the Holy Spirit, they then receive the washing with water. For Christ also said, "Except ye be born again, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven” [First Apology, chapter 61]. Tertullian makes it clear that baptism is mandatory: For the law of baptizing has been imposed, and the formula prescribed: “Go,” He saith, “teach the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.” The comparison with this law of that definition, “Unless a man have been reborn of water and Spirit, he shall not enter into the kingdom of the heavens,” has tied faith to the necessity of baptism.” [On Baptism, chapter 13].

So I guess the question is, should Christian commentators seek to undercut the opinion of the Church Fathers? They were nearer the time, but then they could be reading into the texts something that made sense in a church context, rather than a pre-resurrection one. My own limited take is that I see no reason why the reference to water couldn’t have been made by Jesus and that it was a response to Nicodemus’ feeling that it was too late for an old man to revisit his beliefs (verse 4). Jesus is here saying that it can indeed happen, but it needs a new birth – a new start, something that happen only by the power of God through his Spirit.
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Could "water" be simply a metaphor - an allusion to "the repentence required for water baptism"? Could he be saying that the Kingdom is a two-way street? Repentance offered from the person, and the Spirit granted back from God?

Jesus spoke in parables all the time, after all. This is a longshot read, I'm sure - but Jesus wasn't a stickler for ritual, either, and as you say, did say that the thief would be with Him in Paradise without a water baptism.

I just can't get with the idea that only the baptized can find eternal life. Even the church acknowledges that's not true. And what's the quote I recently read here? "God has some that the Church has not, and the Church has some that God has not."

If not, I'm going to go with "water" representing physical birth. The rest of the passage seems to imply that, too.
 
Posted by Mudfrog (# 8116) on :
 
As the token Salvationist on the Ship I have to go with the born of water being natural (first) birth and the birth with the Spirit being the second birth.

I'm glad to hear that water baptism isn't necessary for salvation - that's the only reason we don't practice it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
Could "water" be simply a metaphor - an allusion to "the repentence required for water baptism"?

I feel more comfortable with the idea of figurative language, certainly, given Jesus' extensive preference for it - as you note TM re: parables. I'm still having a hard time associating this verse with literal baptism in any form. I guess we really need a dyed-in-the-wool baptist (not necessarily a Baptist...) who is willing to defend the position and can put up some arguments we can look at.

quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
I just can't get with the idea that only the baptized can find eternal life.

At the risk of incurring the wrath of pro-baptists across the Ship, I have to agree. As soon as we have to provide opt-out clauses for something (e.g., what about children who die unbaptised, etc), then it seems to me we lose the argument for it.
quote:
Originally posted by Mudfrog:
I'm glad to hear that water baptism isn't necessary for salvation - that's the only reason we don't practice it.

There was a thread on baptism, wasn't there, about a year ago? I tried searching on Purg, but couldn't find it. I'm pretty sure it ranged over a number of texts, but I can't remember whether it came to any conclusion - probably not!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mama Thomas:
He said that they are taught differently to what the church has believed and taught for two thousand years, that this verse in John 3 does not refer to baptism, but instead to simply being born. ...that particular idiom "born of the water" is used no where to refer to simply being born. It doesn't follow that our Lord would create a new metaphor for human birth and then it be misunderstood until the 19th century, until The Founder of a Movement gets it right.

That's the key issue, I think Mama Thomas, from this, isn't it? If the church has held a view over a particular text for so long, what possible validity can a different interpretation have, especially if it arises fairly recently (well, within the past few centuries, anyway). My particular Christian background (which has been somewhat eclectic over the years), is one that recognises that we have substantial material today that was not available to the early church, in terms of documents and processes etc. This material has helped to throw more light on the opinions and ways of expressing oneself from the time of Jesus. So I like to weigh all interpretations up to see which one is more likely.

Against this I also recognise the argument that the Holy Spirit superintended the process of theology that led to the Rule of Faith and canonisation. I like to think that the same Spirit is at work today, so the question for me is am I contradicting that Spirit if I contradict the teaching of the church? Big issue, eh? Probably for another thread.
quote:
Originally posted by Mama Thomas:
I also brought up angels, who "see the kingdom" but they weren't "born of the water". He said but the next verse refers to "what is born of flesh is flesh, what is born of the spirit is spirit," this linking "born of the water and the spirit".

It's the surrounding context of verse 5 that leads me to doubt that water baptism was the reference. This verse - v.6 - seems to back this up. There's a reference here to physical birth, I think, when Jesus talks about flesh and this contrasts with the need for a Spiritual 're-birth' before a person can see the Kingdom.

I am interested in your point about angels. I suspect an answer to that would be that angels are not 'flesh' either, so they are excluded from Jesus' remarks. What is your feeling about all this?
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Next? John 3:

quote:
5 Jesus answered, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.

6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

7 Do not marvel that I said to you, ‘You must be born again.’

8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but cannot tell where it comes from and where it goes. So is everyone who is born of the Spirit.”

Or have we already included these verses in the discussion?
 
Posted by Call me Numpty (# 3012) on :
 
Well, for what it's worth I think that verse 3 is reference to people that are influenced by the Holy Spirit; and not a reference to the Holy Spirit himself. In other words the wind is a reference to the Church not the Holy Spirit.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Could someone put up a plain English version of verse 8? If the original is untranslateable, amen, but I guess we don't have the original anyway. I suspect the problem was with Aramaic into Greek rather than Greek into English. But it's still Greek to me! [Smile]

[ 23. June 2007, 07:18: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I know what you mean! It’s finding a meaning in this verse and how it links in. Just to back up a bit, looking at the actual words - in terms of translating the verse there is nothing unusual about the actual words: they are well-known, commonly-used terms; there are no unusual variants to be found in the manuscripts of this gospel; and the English translations are pretty close to each other in their wording. For example: -
quote:
* The wind‍ blows wherever it will, and you hear the sound it makes, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit. [NET Bible];
* The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear its sound, but you cannot tell where it comes from or where it is going. So it is with everyone born of the Spirit. [NIV];
* The wind blows where it wishes and you hear the sound of it, but do not know where it comes from and where it is going; so is everyone who is born of the Spirit. [NASB];
* The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear its sound, but you do not know where it comes from or where it goes. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit." [ESV];
* The wind blows wherever it pleases; you hear its sound, but you cannot ell where it comes from or where it is going. That is how it is with all who are born of the Spirit. [Jerusalem Bible].

John seems to be making use of one of his double-meaning words in this verse. The word pneuma (πνευμα) is used at the beginning and end of the verse (in a genitive form at the end) and can be translated ‘wind’, ‘spirit’ or ‘Spirit’ (i.e., Holy Spirit). The English translators are all agreed that ‘wind’ is the imagery and ‘Holy Spirit’ the connotation. The imagery of ‘wind’ is also used in Ecclesiastes 11:5 –
quote:
As you do not know the path of the wind, or how the body is formed in a mother's womb, so you cannot understand the work of God, the Maker of all things. [NIV]
So it's a case of clear words, but what’s it all about?! I think Jesus is saying that you (i.e. Nicodemus and his colleagues) shouldn’t bother trying to understand the process of being born again / from above; that’s something God does. The evidence, however, of such a re-birth will be noticeable. The idea of evidence being available for all to see crops up elsewhere in the Johannine writings, e.g.:-
quote:
* No-one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. [1 John 3:9 NIV];
* Those who obey his commands live in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us. [1 John 3:24 NIV]; and
* We know that we live in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit. [1 John 4:13 NIV]


 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
Here's Young's Literal Translation:

quote:
5 Jesus answered, `Verily, verily, I say to thee, If any one may not be born of water, and the Spirit, he is not able to enter into the reign of God;

6 that which hath been born of the flesh is flesh, and that which hath been born of the Spirit is spirit.

7 `Thou mayest not wonder that I said to thee, It behoveth you to be born from above;

8 the Spirit where he willeth doth blow, and his voice thou dost hear, but thou hast not known whence he cometh, and whither he goeth; thus is every one who hath been born of the Spirit.'

I'm not sure if that's what you call "plain English" or not, though. [Biased]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, both of you. My literal mind was trying to make sense of not knowing where people born of the Spirit were coming from, or where they were going.

Well, now it's in black and white, it does make some sense [Biased] but I'm sure it's not what Jesus meant. Ithink Nigel has it - the phrase is, I think, elliptic - you're meant to get it without it being spelt out.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 3:9-10 (NIV):
quote:
9 "How can this be?" Nicodemus asked.
10 "You are Israel's teacher," said Jesus, "and do you not understand these things?


 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
It looks like the point here is to show that the Pharisaic teachings of the time were lacking the mystical element, and that they weren't enough to show people the way to the Kingdom?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Of which time? The evangelists's or Jesus'? Perhaps both?
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Of which time? The evangelists's or Jesus'? Perhaps both?

I was thinking Jesus', because this seems to be a theme in all the Gospels, but perhaps you're right that it's both....
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'll add the next verse...

John 3:11
quote:
I tell you the truth, we speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen, but still you people do not accept our testimony.[NIV]
Sudden shift into the first person plural here!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think it might take some digging to discover who "we" and "you people" are. It sounds like the beginning of a polemic in favour of the Johanine community's high christology. Rich seams to mine for proof-texting, perhaps...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Although much of the dialogue concentrates on the one-to-one conversation between Nicodemus and Jesus, Nic starts off by saying, "Rabbi, we know..." (in verse 2). The fact that Jesus uses the plural again in verse 11 ("we know) might indicate that these two were not alone: that their respective disciples were also present.

Or I guess this could be a rhetorical device to ensure there is more than one witness at this point - when Jesus refers to 'testimony': a key word and concept for John.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Although much of the dialogue concentrates on the one-to-one conversation between Nicodemus and Jesus, Nic starts off by saying, "Rabbi, we know..." (in verse 2). The fact that Jesus uses the plural again in verse 11 ("we know) might indicate that these two were not alone: that their respective disciples were also present.

Or the 'we know' could refer to general knowledge. I would never say, "I know the earth is round." I would always say, "We know the earth is round."

Moo
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Or the 'we know' could refer to general knowledge. I would never say, "I know the earth is round." I would always say, "We know the earth is round."

True, yes, it could be that; though I wonder - would Jesus would use that technique to emphasise his testimony? Presumably it might fall outside of the accepted general knowledge or acceptance? Still - given Nicodemus' credentials later on, perhaps he does agree here with Jesus against his fellow leaders.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Shall we go on?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Shall we go on?

Having just returned from a spate of "Man is the Master" activities vis-a-vis my PC, I'm somewhat glad to see that I haven't missed anything on this thread. I had a thought that everyone would have got passed the parousia by now. So now, where were we?

John 3:12
quote:
I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?

 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This I find difficult.

Is this Jesus speaking through John, or John speaking through Jesus? I'm inclined to think the latter, especially in the light of what looks like a Freudian slip in the next verse.

Also, John is very much concerned with belief - and a particular sort of belief at that. Jesus, I think, was much more concerned with righteous action than correct belief - or perhaps any belief.

Having said that, if nobody wants to engage with that view, I'm happy for the discussion to continue along more orthodox lines. I don't want to derail the thread by ruffling too many feathers.

[ 14. October 2007, 18:34: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by TubaMirum (# 8282) on :
 
I was just going to post asking about you, Nigel; glad to see you back! [Biased]

I think it's going to take me a few verses to get back in the swing of things, though, so I guess I'll pass on commenting on the verse itself.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TubaMirum:
I was just going to post asking about you, Nigel; glad to see you back!

Thanks TM! Good to be back!
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Is this Jesus speaking through John, or John speaking through Jesus?

I guess the answer to this in part depends on which side we come down on in the debate exemplified by C.K. Barrett -v- C.H. Dodd: Was John drawing his material from the same sources as the synoptics (especially Mark), or was he reliant on independent sources?

If the latter, then it's possible that John had first-hand material to hand, as it were. Stories from the time of Jesus still circulating - probably in oral form - that he could use. Even taking into account the fact that John uses events involving Jesus as a springboard for comment, especially concerning belief (as you point out), does this necessarily invalidate the historicity of the event itself? Perhaps 'belief' is John's shorthand for something that includes right action (rather than righteous action in the negative sense).

If John did draw on the same sources as the synoptic gospels, then the case for commentary is greater, I think, and it is easier to see things as "John speaking through Jesus." The question that would bug a number of Christians here would be, "Does this somehow reduce the importance of the book for my Christian life?" If it is 'only' John and not Jesus, does that reduce it to a lower level; something to be held in respect as one would any other early church theologian and commentator, but not really to be trusted on its own apart from other biblical material?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you, Nigel. I just got the impression that from the previous verse to to the end of the chapter John forgot himself and was writing in something like a prophetic trance. The whole piece is very much like the opening of the gospel.

The times I've sung "God so loved the world..." (from Stainer's Crucifixion) and been moved by it! Just as I am still moved by the opening of the gospel when used as the last biblical quote in the Festival of Nine Lessons and Carols.

But it always comes as a shock when I see it in black and white as the words of Jesus himself.
It's not. It's about Jesus, IMO. This doesn't invalidate either its message or its value as a hook for meditation and faith. Strict inerrantists might disagree one that point. But it's only my opinion.

I have seen devout christians adopting the same sort of prophetic attitude. I usually find this far less convincing than John's. John might forget where he is sometimes, but unlike these modern wanabe prophets, I don't think he forgets who he is. I hope I'm right there.

[ 16. October 2007, 13:58: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I'm sorry - Ive gone way ahead of the verse in question. I think I'll just shut up and listen for the next passage.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I just got the impression that from the previous verse to to the end of the chapter John forgot himself and was writing in something like a prophetic trance. ... it always comes as a shock when I see it in black and white as the words of Jesus himself. It's not. It's about Jesus, IMO. This doesn't invalidate either its message or its value as a hook for meditation and faith. Strict inerrantists might disagree one that point. But it's only my opinion.

It's always difficult, isn't it, to know just where to place the slider on the scale between what Jesus might have said and what John is saying. Personally I would probably pop it between v.12 and v.13 - which is probably a good time to add that verse to the discussion!:
quote:
John 3:13 No one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven – the Son of Man.
Perhaps John leaves off with Jesus asking the question at the end of v.12 ("...how will you believe if I tell you about heavenly things?"), then he moves into the commentary mode (or prophetic mode) to refer to the Son of Man.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Makes sense to me. I hope someone's going to carry this on. Whole books have been written about the Son of Man sayings. But I promised to shut up and listen....
 
Posted by NJA (# 13022) on :
 
Vine's dictionary points out that kai, the greek word translated "and" in born of water and spirit" really means "even". He gives various examples:-

Eph:1:1: . . .to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

There are not 2 separate groups, the saints are the faithful!

So, Jesus is likening the Spirit to water, as he does elsewhere.
There is one new birth not two:-
"That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit."

You are not "born again" of water when you get baptised then "born again" again of Spirit whe you receive the Spirit!

"Born again" literally means born from above.
The Spirit was shed forth from heaven (above) starting at Pentecost.
Getting down into water is not being born from above.

Jesus further clarifies in v8 by saying:-
"The wind bloweth (gr.:the spirit breathes) where it wills, and you hear the sound thereof, but cannot tell whence it comes, and whither it goes: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.

This refers to the fact that all were heard speaking in tongues when they received the Spirit, it doesn't fit water baptism.

Finally 1 Peter 1:3 says:- "begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,"

They were baptised in water long before Jesus rose from the dead, but Peter says they were begotten again (born again) by the resurrection.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Can you help me here, NJA? Which verse(s) are you commenting on?

[ 24. October 2007, 19:28: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Oh, goddit, sorry must learn ti keep up... [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by NJA:
Vine's dictionary points out that kai, the greek word translated "and" in born of water and spirit" really means "even". He gives various examples:-

Eph:1:1: . . .to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus

The trouble though is that it isn't really safe to take a usage in one context and assume it applies elsewhere. If we were to continue to apply the "even" (or "i.e.") interpretation to Ephesians 1:2, we would get -
quote:
..."Grace, i.e. [kai], Peace to you from God our Father, i.e. [kai], the Lord Jesus Christ"
which raises some strange linguistic and doctrinal issues!

We would have to take John 3:5 on its own terms, really. Is there a reason in the context of that passage that would support the interpretation "born of water, i.e., spirit"?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
On that Son of Man saying – we probably need the next two verses to help out on this, so putting 13 to 15 together -
quote:
John 3:13-15
No one has ever gone into [ascended to] heaven except the one who came from [descended from] heaven—the Son of Man. Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

I found 12 usages of the 'Son of Man' phrase in John through a search.
There seems to be a heavy emphasis on association with heaven, being raised, and having authority. It brings to mind the Son of Man picture in Daniel -
quote:
Daniel 7:13-14
"In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshipped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.

I wonder, given this, if the reference to being 'lifted up' in John 3:14 refers not to crucifixion (the conclusion I have come across on this more often than not), but to vindication: just as Daniel's Son of Man enters heaven after suffering, so Jesus is associated here with the vindicated Son of Man figure. Once he is vindicated, he is also given authority to vindicate his followers by giving them eternal life.

If so, then the reference to Moses lifting up the snake (Numbers 21:4-9) is a reference to exaltation, not crucifixion-type lifting. John, in other words, is making the point that humanity needed the exaltation/vindication of Jesus, not just his crucifixion, to have any chance of eternal life.

I think N.T. Wright makes the point somewhere that this Son of Man figure stands in for (or even is) all of faithful Israel.
 
Posted by churchgeek (# 5557) on :
 
Nigel, your ideas make even more sense if Joel Marcus, in his article, "Crucifixion as Parodic Exaltation," is correct in arguing that crucifixion was meant to put in their place people who had reached beyond their station. It was a mock enthronement! The early Christians, in proclaiming Jesus to be the Son of Man, etc., would have been quite easily rebuffed by anyone simply pointing out, "Wasn't that Jesus guy crucified?" I.e., the scandal of the cross required them to deal with it squarely and seriously. So from very early on they equated his crucifixion with his glorification - basically taking the parody out of the mix. That was, of course, only one tool in their kit, but a good one, I think.

But I think your observations also stand on their own. Especially if Jesus really did say such things during his lifetime, perhaps not knowing he would be crucified, but suspecting his actions would get him killed somehow. I also think that whether he knew he would be crucified or not, if this passage is referring to his exaltation and vindication, then it expresses a great faith in God* despite the impending condemnation and death.

*(by this I don't mean to suggest Jesus wasn't God; I fully believe he is)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 3:16-17 work well together:-
quote:
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.
I'm probably not the only one here who had this (especially verse 16) as a memory verse in Sunday School. Good idea, that; though can lead to unintentional lip-service and a lack of understanding.

So, what does it mean? Why did John introduce "one and only son" terminology here? Was it to recall similar words in 1:14 and 18 and if so, why? -
quote:
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth...
No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.


 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
John 3:16-17 work well together:-
quote:
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.
I'm probably not the only one here who had this (especially verse 16) as a memory verse in Sunday School. Good idea, that; though can lead to unintentional lip-service and a lack of understanding.

So, what does it mean? Why did John introduce "one and only son" terminology here? Was it to recall similar words in 1:14 and 18 and if so, why? -
quote:
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth...
No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.


Hope jumping in here does not cut across too much.

My understanding of 'only son' here is that it is best read as 'unique son'

The genesis of this is God's word to Abraham "Take your only son whom you love.." But Abraham had Ishmael then. The Hebrew is best translated 'unique'. Isaac was a stand alone choice, the one God chose. Jesus is the same.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
My understanding of 'only son' here is that it is best read as 'unique son'

The genesis of this is God's word to Abraham "Take your only son whom you love.." But Abraham had Ishmael then. The Hebrew is best translated 'unique'. Isaac was a stand alone choice, the one God chose. Jesus is the same.

I like the link between John 3:16 and Gen. 22:2 (and also verses 12 & 16) and the reference to 'unique.' The word used in the Masoretic Hebrew text is:
quote:
Gen.22:2 [NIV]
“Then God said, "Take your son, your only [yahid = יחיד] son, Isaac, whom you love...”

All the English translations I looked up here translate yahid as “only”; I know some would conclude that the writer of this unit might have been unaware of the Ishmael events and therefore meant to say “only” in the sense of an only child – and that this heightens the sense of doom when Abraham seems ready to sacrifice that very child. Loss of only child meant loss of family line and as a result loss of promise for Abraham. However, “unique” fits well here, given that Ishmael was out of the picture anyway, both physically and by way of promise.

It's interesting to note that the Greek translators of the Hebrew text did not use that word “only.” The Septuagint translations refer to Isaac as follows:-
quote:
Gen.22:2 [LXX - NETS]
“Take your beloved [agapetos = αγαπετος] son, Isaac, whom you love...”

The translators were either working from a different Hebrew text to the one that has survived in the Masoretic tradition, or they chose to translate things differently. The Hebrew word for love that is usually translated by agapetos is ahab (or ahabah = אהב / אהבה). I suppose it is just possible that a scribe misread the Hebrew word for “only”, but it's not an obvious similarity (יחיד versus אהב).

Anyway, if John did intend to reflect “only” in the same sense as Gen. 22:2, then this means he was used to reading the Hebrew text of the Jewish Scripture and not the Greek translations. That's significant in itself, given that many other OT references in the NT appear to reflect the Greek translations.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Moving on to John 3:18 [NIV] - for anyone to stop the thread and comment if they wish...
quote:

Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son.


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The unpleasant side of John? I don't think we need to dwell on it.The Johanine community had many conflicting factions through the decades of its development, and John was as uncompromising as Paul in his Christology. Saying "they are damned already" rather than "I/we damn them" may seem disingenuous to modern eyes and ears, but even today there are
heretic-hunters just beneath the skin of some
religious. Leave them alone. If they scare you, read Dawkins!"

[ 07. January 2008, 20:36: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Moving on to John 3:19-21 (NRSV) which I think you'll agree are all of a piece:

quote:
19 "... And this is the judgment, that the light has come into the world, and people loved darkness rather than light because their deeds were evil. 20 For all who do evil hate the light and do not come to the light, so that their deeds may not be exposed. 21 But those who do what is true come to the light, so that it may be clearly seen that their deeds have been done in God."
A difficult one - or rather three - for someone who's favourite gospel is not NO.4 to deal with. But I think I ought to try. John here is no longer talking here about beliefs, but about deeds, actions. Which makes it that much more powerful. But we are not told whose deeds and which particular actions, which makes it that much more sinister - the inference is "they know who they are" but the average reader doesn't, and it takes the scholarship of someone like R.E.BROWN even to make an educated guess.

A wholly sceptical take would be "those who do not come to Jesus must be evil. So they must do evil things. So they skulk in the dark so that they don't get found out." That's an a priori argument, I think, and not very helpful.

The biggest problem perhaps is that John claims these are Jesus' words, not his. I've always reagrded Jesus as being rather more plain-speaking.

Now perhaps someone would like to post something more positive about John's preoccupation with light and dark and the use he makes of these stark contrasts in order to bring people to faith in Jesus.

[ 15. January 2008, 07:47: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
A wholly sceptical take would be "those who do not come to Jesus must be evil. So they must do evil things. So they skulk in the dark so that they don't get found out." That's an a priori argument, I think, and not very helpful.

Perhaps another reading is that Jesus came into the world as light into darkness; what follows is the human reaction: those who prefer to hide their deeds have to move out of the light so that their deeds can remain hidden (i.e. they reject Jesus' offer of reconciliation). Those who accept that offer, move to the light (I have real trouble shaking the image of a moth here...).

On this reading it is people who judge themselves by the direction they move in - rejection or acceptance of the offer.

I've always been ambivalent about R. E. Brown's hypothesis concerning John's gospel. I note that he seemed to have backed off somewhat from his own suggestions later on in life; in his An Introduction to the NT he recognises the lack of evidence and warns that the word "perhaps" should be added to every sentence. This just might reflect the more general move away from focusing on the pre-history of a text to the text itself as we have it.

A key issue is - as you say - are these Jesus' words or John's? I'm quite happy with the idea that we have moved into John's commentary by this point in chapter 3. Do they reflect Jesus' teaching even if they are not words he might have actually used? I suppose if they were really off the wall the early Christians might not have accepted the work.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for your balancing positive post, Nigel. Shall we move on?

John 3:22-24 After this Jesus and his disciples went into the Judaean countryside, and he spent some time there and baptized. John also was baptizing at Aenon near Salim because water was abundant there; and people kept coming and were being baptized - John, of course, had not yet been thrown into prison. (NRSV)

It's remarkably modern-sounding prose. Does anyone know how far apart John and Jesus were at this time? I'm intrigued by the detail of water being plentiful where John was. Did he always baptize by total immersion, I wonder?

[ 29. January 2008, 20:06: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by NJA (# 13022) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Did he always baptize by total immersion, I wonder?

Of course, that's what the word "baptise" means.

It symbolises an end to the old way, a new start.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks. It's baptize, btw, in English. I think.

[ 31. January 2008, 12:27: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Though that's strange, isn't it. Etymologically it's an 's' in French and a 'z' in Latin according to my dictionary (I didn't know Latin had a zed. But there you go. We don't talk of 'baptizm' do we? So have it your way, by all means.)

[ 31. January 2008, 12:32: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Correcting a couple of misunderstandings. "Baptizo" is from Greek, which has the zeta. And the proper meaning of "baptizo" would be to "wash, pour, apply water to"--not necessarily total immersion. Indeed, given the normal depth of the Jordan River most of the year, it would be difficult to do total immersion unless you required people to lie down! (My understanding is that it runs about 3 feet or less--typical of a Mediterranean-climate watercourse, only deep when in flood--and therefore too dangerous to enter.)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks LC, maybe NJA would like to bring us back to the text - or post the next verse?
 
Posted by andreas1984 (# 9313) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
And the proper meaning of "baptizo" would be to "wash, pour, apply water to"--not necessarily total immersion.

I'm not that sure about that... In modern Greek vaptizo has the meaning of a total immersion, and this is supported also by the ancient practice of the church to use triple immersion for baptism... Even the ancients said that baptizing by triple immersion was an oral commandment of Christ...

So, if the practice of the first Christians was dropped in favor of full immersion, why would anyone do that?? It sounds more reasonable for the practice to have continued unbroken...

So, the modern day use of the verb plus the unbroken practice of the Orthodox, leads me to suspect that the verb meant the same thing back then as it does now...

ETA: also it connects well with "and water was abundant there"... there would be no reason to justify the selection of that place for baptisms by saying that water was abundant there unless he meant total immersion... Moreover, if you have full immersion in mind, it makes sense to say "baptized in water and Spirit" because we want to get totally immersed in the Holy Spirit, and not just come in touch with Him...

[ 01. February 2008, 12:50: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
NJA There you go! Want to take it on ferom there?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK. Moving on (stop me if I'm racing away too fast).

John 3:25-28 Now a discussion about purification arose beween John's disciples and a Jew [other ancient authorities read "The Jews"]. 26 They came to John and said to him, "Rabbi, the one who was with you across the Jordan, to whom you testified, here he is baptizing, and all are going to him." 27 John answered, No one canreceive anything except what has been given from heaven. 28 You yourselves are my witnesses that I said, I am not the Messiah [or "the Chrisr"], but I have been sent ahead of him.

I think that's enough for now - the following imagary about the bride and bridegroom will probably spark an interesting discussion on its own, in good time. The text above is from NRSV, with footnotes incorporated into the main text.

John is called Rabbi - in the sense of "teacher"?
I wonder what the discussion about purification was all about (or am I being totally dense? Was baptism an established for of purification already?)

"No one can receive...." I don't understand the thinking behind this particular phrase, here. Can anyone enlighten me?

[ 07. February 2008, 09:36: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Quick post - sorry that I haven't been able to interact much; Jan - Mar is very busy at work this year. Will try to post when able!

Cheers,
Nigel
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Looking foward to your return, Nigel. [Smile]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John (the Baptist) seems to have moved away to the north of the Jordan, up stream. He was in the same location with Jesus to begin with, then crossed over the Jordan (his disciples refer to Jesus as being on the other side of that river in v.26). Perhaps he did this deliberately, leaving the field (or stream) open for Jesus to minister in. Ironically this movement brings the Baptist closer to his nemesis, Herod Antipas, whereas Jesus' place further south and nearer Jerusalem was the focal point of his nemesis. Not sure if that is a plot point in the gospel or just a coincidence.

The principle behind that phrase, “No one can receive...”, crops up again in relation to Pilate in 19:11 - “"You would have no power over me if it were not given to you from above...” I wonder if this was a common saying (or principle that could be verbalised in different ways) at the time? All power comes from God, whether spiritual or political. It matches Paul's view of the origin of political power, too: the magistrates have their power only by virtue of the Lord. How they use it afterwards, I guess, is up to them; for good or evil.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you -yes, I think I see it now. John sees behind the "innocent" remark about Jesus. It's a challenge - by what authority does he (Jesus)do this (baptize)? John doesn't beat about the bush, but answers the unasked question - putting the trouble-maker gently in his place!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I've just come across a discussion of a theory on John's Gospel by Stephen D. Moore, Professor of New Testament and Chair of the Graduate Division of Religion at the Theological School, Drew University, Madison, New Jersey.

Professor Moore is a follower of the post-structuralist movement, exemplified most widely by Jacques Derrida. Moore seeks to 'deconstruct' John's Gospel - seeing how certain concepts are set up and then undone. One theme he lights on is that of 'water'. We have water as the means of purifying (baptism) and Jesus' statements about being born of water versus spirit. In chapter 4 we have Jesus telling a Samaritan woman that he has spiritual water to give.

Moore says that the author is setting up a fundamental division between material and spiritual realms. At the end, however, John (the author) has 'water' re-appear at the moment of Jesus' death in a way that deconstructs all that John had set up previously. First we have Jesus crying of thirst, then his spirit is given up, but then John records water flowing from Jesus' post-mortem side. Moore claims that this subverts what Jesus had said about spiritual exalting over material.

OK - Moore was playing with the text in a typically deconstructive way. It would be quite possible for someone else to draw comparisons with John's use of 'water' in his gospel. It doesn't have to mean that John somehow lost control of his gospel - that the text always wins out over the author - but interesting nevertheless I wonder if it took someone with that slant on life to have made the connection; perhaps a more plodding interpreter might not have done so.

Nigel
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, Nigel. Mostly over my head though. I'm a bit confused about who is deconstructing what, how and why, and what the difference is between deconstruction and analysis, if any. I'm going, on, but only on the understanding that anyone else can stop me or go back a bit.

quote:
John 3:29-30 "....He who has the bride is the bridegroom. The friend of the bridegroom, who stands and hears him, rejoices greatly at the bridegroom's voice. For this reason my joy has been fulfilled. He must increase, but I must decrease."
It would seem from this that John didn't just, so to speak, pass his hairy goatskin mantle to Jesus, but that the two were active independently for some time, each with his own coterie of followers (this may explain the confusion over the Magnificat , which fits the context of John's birth more appropriately than that of Jesus, from what I remember of my (limited) theological training.

I wonder how easy it was for John's followers to accept his acceptance of Jesus' ascendance?

[ETA John (the evangelist) does somewhat bowdlerise the traditional metaphor of bride and bridegroom here. The bride was usually Israel IIRC, and God was the bridegroom. There's no earthly reason why a mere friend of the bridegroom should be so overjoyed, is there?]

[ 24. February 2008, 14:25: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
John 3:31-36 (NRSV)

[Hurtling on, to stay ahead of the Genesis thread [Smile] ]
quote:
The one who comes from above is above all; the one who is of the earth belongs to the earth and speaks about earthly things. The one who comes from heaven is above all. He testifies to what he has seen and heard, yet no-one accepts his testimony. Whoever has accepted his testimony has certified this, that God is true. He whom God has sent speaks the words of God, for he gives the Spirit without measure. The Father loves the son and has placed all things in his hands. Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life; whoever disobeys the Son will not see life, but must endure God's wrath.
The inference in the last couple of sentences seems to be that those who do not believe in the Son are ipso facto disobedient. What also follows from this is that faith is divinely commanded. That doesn't sit very easily with grace being offered..

Either John is biting off more than he can logically chew, or I'm a devil - according to John. I plead not guilty.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
He testifies to what he has seen and heard, yet no-one believes his testimony.
John subverts that "no-one" in his next sentence. But who is the witness here, in John's mind? Jesus? John (the evangelist)? John the Baptist? If it's Jesus, John is saying that Jesus has seen and heard - what?

There's quite a lot of legal-sounding stuff in John. How would his own testimony stand up in court? Probably rather well, I think. I can imagine him as a flamboyant 50's advocate, wooing the jury with his eloquence, making them laugh (but only with derision) and cry, and leaving no doubt whatsoever in their minds that the man in the dock deserves heaven or hell (no less, no more) according to the circumstances.

[ 05. March 2008, 04:13: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
John (the evangelist) does somewhat bowdlerise the traditional metaphor of bride and bridegroom here. The bride was usually Israel IIRC, and God was the bridegroom. There's no earthly reason why a mere friend of the bridegroom should be so overjoyed, is there?

Sorry for delay - catching up!

If the 'friend' in the bride/bridegroom analogy is - roughly speaking - the bridegroom, then perhaps the Baptist is being equated to the best man who waits to hear that the groom (Jesus) has accepted his mission to Israel; he has become 'married' to the bride (Israel). Now the best man can relinquish his role and let the bride and groom get on with it, as it were.

Rather like the overwhelming joy of someone with a job in church who finally finds someone else who is willing to take over that job!
quote:
Originally posted by pimple - re John 3:31-36 :
Either John is biting off more than he can logically chew, or I'm a devil - according to John. I plead not guilty.

That's an apt analogy - John's gospel does seem to use the picture of a law court setting as a basis for his message. Testifying; signs (evidence) in support; "this is the verdict"; standing condemned; truth and falsehood. If that is the setting, then perhaps when he wanders from narrative to his conclusions (presumably he has by this point in the Baptist story), he is speaking from the vantage point of a lawyer explaining the ins and outs of the legal system. Or perhaps better, an advocate speaking to his audience who acts as the judge? The audience has to make its mind up - here John sets out the evidence, pleads the case and seeks to convince the judge (or jury) of the truthfulness of his case.

That means you are the judge!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
He testifies to what he has seen and heard, yet no-one believes his testimony.
John subverts that "no-one" in his next sentence. But who is the witness here, in John's mind? Jesus? John (the evangelist)? John the Baptist? If it's Jesus, John is saying that Jesus has seen and heard - what?
There's a similar saying in chapter 1:11-12 - "He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. Yet to all who received him...". I suspect John is reflecting a general attitude with the "no-one" bit, then gets more specific about the benefits associated with the few ("the one") who do "receive". If Jesus is the one who comes from above here, then he is the messenger from God, speaking God's message; a bit like an ambassador.

Back to the law court - John's starting point (a bit like Paul) is that the world already stands condemned; God already has the right to pass sentence. Verse 36 brings this out: the disobedient rebel already stands condemned of treason against God. It needs an act of belief to change that - putting loyalty back in the right direction, accepting the words of the advocate. The picture language does tend to flow across several boundaries in the gospel, I find.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks Nigel. It's odd, but when I read John, I think half of me can't shake off literalmindedness; partly perhaps because John himself is so careful to make his meaning absolutely clear, I absolutely misread him sometimes. Not always, but sometimes. [End of grudging tangent]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It would be an interesting exercise - and I bet someone has already done it somewhere - to cut out the bits where John (author, not baptist) engages in his soliloquies and to place them together, away from the narrative passages. There might be a debate about just where to draw the dividing line between narrative and exposition, but it would make it easier to get the gist of John's message.

If we leave the Prologue out of it for the moment, thus far I think we have had two relevant passages: the post-Nicodemus bit (3:16? - 21) and this post-Baptist section (3:31-36). What would we make of it if it was part of a sermon?
quote:
For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son. This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but men loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were evil. Everyone who does evil hates the light, and will not come into the light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. But whoever lives by the truth comes into the light, so that it may be seen plainly that what he has done has been done through God. The one who comes from above is above all; the one who is from the earth belongs to the earth, and speaks as one from the earth. The one who comes from heaven is above all. He testifies to what he has seen and heard, but no one accepts his testimony. The man who has accepted it has certified that God is truthful. For the one whom God has sent speaks the words of God, for God gives the Spirit without limit. The Father loves the Son and has placed everything in his hands. Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life, but whoever rejects the Son will not see life, for God's wrath remains on him. [NIV]
Similar themes in both sections. Then the question arises: do the narrative sections add to, alter or contradict these themes?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Very good sermon. Very interesting question. I'd really like to hear other people's response to it. I'd have put it the other way - does the sermon enhance the narrative (or is that a damn silly question?)

I respond more readily to the narrative, I think, though it wasn't always so. The opening verses of John's gospel are really awesome.

I don't like being preached at.When John delivers a homily, that's one thing. It's when he interrupts the narrative to make sure we get the message that I feel irked. I shouldn't, I know. It's not a modern novel, after all.

Another tangent. Many Passion Plays are based on John's Gospel. But you don't need the sermons
there and they are often left out. I saw one which started with a "blind" man on stage, awaiting the arrival of Jesus. He took up his position ten minutes before the official start of the play. The atmosphere was so highly charged that when "Jesus" was led on by his disciples there were already torrents of tears down my - and other people's - cheeks. Powerful or what?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
John 4:1-6 (NRSV) Now when Jesus learned that the Pharisees had heard, "Jesus is making and baptizing more disciples than John" - although it was not Jesus himself but his disciples who baptized - he left Judea and started back to Galilee. But he had to go through Samaria. So he came to a Samaritan city called Sychar, near the plot of ground that Jacob had given to his son Joseph. JKacob's well was there, and Jesus, tired out by his journey, was sitting by the well. It was about noon.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
All comment timed out by the edit clock. Back when I've learned to type accurately at two huindred words a fucki9ng minute.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And, it seems, I'm too old and tired even to flounce without tripping over my @!£* $*%! pajama cord. Happy Easter to you all. See you later.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Quadruple posting is almost a planking offence, I shouldn't wonder. Never mind. Taking it very gently (I still haven't learned how to cut and paste):

The opening verses of Chapter 4 introduce with consummate artistry the account of the fascinating encounter of Jesus with the Samaritan woman at Jacob's Well. Note the wealth of detail. This way of "grounding" the story in things essentially mundane is the very stuff of narrative writing.

I've borrowed a set of notes by a wise old Benedictine monk who lectures locally. I'll share as many of his insights as I can later on -keeping the copyright aspect in view, course. But a couple of personal notes first:

John's aside - to tell us that it wasn't actually Jesus himself who was baptizing - seems
to contradict the statement in the previous chapter that he was (the sort of thing I tend to latch on to too facilely). It's probably an enlargement - a development - rather than a contradiction. Maybe somebody read a draft of Chapter Three before he got around to editing Chapter Four and said "erm, actually, John, that's not strictly accurate..."

"O.K." says John, I'll note that in the next chapter (thinking 'bloody pedant' [but who's he to talk?])

However, if Jesus wasn't doing the baptizing (and why was this an important distinction to make, Nigel (or anyone else)?), then who baptized the disciples of Jesus? Were they all (or some of them) former disciples - of John
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It sounds to me that pimple had an interesting Easter. The incident of the errant pyjama in the early resurrection morn strikes me as worthy of further investigation. I tried several high street clothing stores, asking the delicate assistants if they had any @!£* $*%! pyjamas, but, alas, all my enquiries were routed to rather bulky uniformed gentlemen of the 'cast-them-out' persuasion.

Still, I will persevere.

Not sure why John clarifies Jesus' role in baptism here; what do others think? I'll have a ponder, too.

That thought on the background to this Samaritan woman episode made me think. As you say, a wealth of detail crammed into three verses. Jesus is on his way up to Galilee and is travelling through the region of Samaria and paused at Sychar, which was either part of the old city of Shechem or close by to it. Shechem was the first capital city of the northern kingdom and centre of the Samaritan religion (there are still some Samaritan believers there today in the modern equivalent, Nablus). We have a happy coincidence here with the Genesis thread – John mentions Jacob's well and the plot of land that Jacob acquired. This comes from:-
quote:
[Gen. 33:18-20 – NIV] After Jacob came from Paddan Aram, he arrived safely at the city of Shechem in Canaan and camped within sight of the city. For a hundred pieces of silver, he bought from the sons of Hamor, the father of Shechem, the plot of ground where he pitched his tent. There he set up an altar and called it El Elohe Israel.

[Joshua 24:33] And Joseph's bones, which the Israelites had brought up from Egypt, were buried at Shechem in the tract of land that Jacob bought for a hundred pieces of silver from the sons of Hamor, the father of Shechem. This became the inheritance of Joseph's descendants.

Not sure where in the OT mention is made of a specific 'Jacob's Well' in this location, but there is a well site near modern Nablus that is associated with this very well.

So John is setting us up here with a location packed full of religious symbolism and antiquity, together with the background friction of Jew versus Samaritan; the question John sets up: who really owns the heritage here? It's the sixth hour – High Noon and time for the issue to come to a showdown...

Fingers on the triggers?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Re the baptism--Jesus certainly did baptize, but in the same sense in which we say "Pastor X held a district meeting at Resurrection Lutheran last week." That is, Pastor X certainly signed off on it and possibly chaired it; but you just know there were scads of other people involved, such as the secretary who sent out the announcements, the youth setting up the chairs in the gym, the ladies who made cake and coffee, and the committee membes who made reports and wrote minutes.

Pastor X is overseeing the whole operation, but not carrying out every task individually. In the same way Jesus has authorized and is overseeing the baptisms, but he is not throwing water around with his own two hands--and for good reason, I think.

Already in Paul's letters we get a glimpse of a church divided because people are saying things like "I follow Paul" and "Well, I follow Peter." Sort of a "my spiritual father is better than yours, neener neener neener." Paul says right away that given the way they're making an issue of it, he's darn glad he didn't baptize more than a handful of people. Imagine the spiritual snobbery they'd be getting if people could say, "Well, I was baptized with the Son of God's own hands!"
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Good point, LC - and I imagine there was a wealth (if that's the right word) of spiritual one-upmanship in the Johanine community. Jesus showed the way by insisting on John baptizing him - and repeats the lesson during the final discourses (particularly at the foot-washing before the last supper).

[ETA uh. or was it after... ?]

[ 25. March 2008, 20:24: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
Before (or possibly in the midst of the seder). Foot-washing was something that happened when people entered a house and there was no lowly servant to do the job for the disciples that night and none of them were willing to humble themselves enough to take it on. John 13:4 indicates He got up from supper but then they continue the meal afterwards (13:26) so it is a bit blurry; I doubt if Jesus stood up and gave a long talk while standing there - He probably reclined once again and they continued the seder while He taught.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
Sorry to double-post but this fourth chapter of John is particularly significant to me on a personal level and I've spent a lot of time pondering it and mentally time-traveling in order to join a tired, dusty Jesus resting by the well in the heat of the noonday sun.

And consider what's about to happen: a woman is going to come alone in the heat of the day to draw water - why? Women typically walked together and drew water in the cool of the morning and the cool of the evening but she has given up being part of the community in that way; she's incredibly isolated.

As for the chapter breaks, they were added (sometimes quite arbitrarily, it seems to me!) in the middle ages so you can't blame John for saying Jesus baptized in chapter 3 and then saying, well, not Jesus but His guys in chapter 4, you know? [Biased]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I think Lamp Chopped's thought on the baptism is a good one: Jesus had the authority but the actual act was done by others. It follows that those baptised were disciples of Jesus, not the ones doing the actual baptism. Someone was counting, too: the Pharisees. That's one way to reckon risk - who has the most disciples? That's the one we need to keep an eye on. How do we know early enough? Watch and count at the baptising phase.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The story continues on the Samaritan Woman thread, where Moo has linked the whole of John 4. There's some very interesting discussion there. May I suggest we wait until that is over and continue here with Chapter 5 later?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
On second thoughts, Belle Ringer's thred deals specifically with the nature of the woman's (presumed) guilt. So perhaps we could discuss everything except that here. It's a very "meaty" story.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
So does that mean we continue?

There came a woman of Samaria to draw water. Jesus said to her, "Give Me a drink." For His disciples had gone away into the city to buy food. Therefore the Samaritan woman *said to Him, "How is it that You, being a Jew, ask me for a drink since I am a Samaritan woman?" (For Jews have no dealings with Samaritans.) - John 4:7-9

I find this wonderful, the 'compartment rupture' that takes place because this Jewish man spoke respectfully to a woman of Samaria. I find a lot of people don't know the fall of the Northern Kingdom and origin of Samaria and why the Jews wouldn't tolerate them but I assume folks posting on this thread are knowledgeable - or do we want to discuss it further?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I have certainly grown accustomed to reading this passage from the point of view of surprise: A Jewish man deigns to travel through Samaria instead of avoiding the territory by going around it (religious shock); and secondly this Jewish man talks to a woman (cultural shock). Both elements would have raised questions in the readers' minds about Jesus' integrity.

However, on reflection I wonder if there may not be another level going on here. We know this is a Samaritan woman; Jacob's well is mentioned in the introduction and the lady's home appears to be in Sychar (modern day Askar?), near to Shechem (modern day Nablus), which would put her home about a mile away from the well. She walks out at the hottest time of day (instead of the more comfortable morning or evening) to walk that distance just to get to this particular religiously significant well. Why?

I think that it would not have been uncommon for Galilean Jews to opt for the road through Samaria when they wanted to get to and from Jerusalem. Josephus mentions that “Samaria was already under the Romans, and it was absolutely necessary for those that go quickly [to Jerusalem] to pass through that country; for in that road you may, in three days' time, go from Galilee to Jerusalem” (Life of Flavius Josephus, para. 52). Far quicker than plodding around the side of Samaria. So the Samaritans were probably used to seeing the more relaxed Galileans travelling through their territory. I am sure that contact between the two groups was also not uncommon: there seems to have been no problem for Jesus' disciples, for example, to go into town to do a bit of shopping.

Given this, it seems to me that we have here a religiously devout Samaritan woman, who wished to avoid contact with the Galilean Jews crossing her territory. She does this by going to the well at a time of day when she hoped to avoid the travellers. She lives near Mount Gerizim at the foot of which is Jacob's well. Both of these are sacred sites – the former for the association with the 'chosen place' mentioned in the Torah, the latter for the association with the Patriarchs. This lady would be in a position (both geographically and spiritually) to feel superior to those oddballs from Galilee who made spurious claims about their heritage and Jerusalem.

So here we have the devout Samaritan, with all the cultural and religious baggage that had been taught to her, and the surprise is for her: an annoying Jew is there at the well. How does she respond to Jesus' reasonable request for a drink at that time of day? She draws herself up to her full height and seeks to put him down: “How can you Jew dare to ask me, a member of the real and only true Abrahamic and Mosaic religion, for something?” The next statement in verse 9 (“For the Jews had nothing in common with Samaritans”) suggests that it was not so much the male / female cultural distinction that was at issue here (although that was probably an issue to some extent), but rather the more religious distinction.

I see this encounter as being on a par with that of Jesus and Nicodemus. I think John uses both encounters to demonstrate how Jesus deals with the entrenched religious interpretations of the day that claimed priority in their descent from the Patriarchs and Moses. The same question seems to arise in both episodes: which route really carries the promise of eternal life?

This might bear on the other thread about this Samaritan woman and an interpretation that sees her as a prostitute. If the above reading is in any way correct, then it would follow that she was anything but a prostitute!
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
That's a very interesting take, Nigel-- hmmm, must ponder!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 4:10
quote:
Jesus answered her, "If you knew the gift of God and who it is that asks you for a drink, you would have asked him and he would have given you living water."
Interesting reply. Jesus says that the Samaritan did not know God's gift. What gift is that in this context? An oblique reference to Jacob's Well, with its running (living) water, perhaps? Or a link to the second clause – the gift being the one doing the asking?

If this was a truly religious Samaritan, Jesus' reply would suggest that she only needed to recognise the quality of the person talking to her; and she could do that if she would only overcome her prejudice against Jews. She was close, so close – but her blinkers were preventing her from seeing what she most wanted to see.
 
Posted by CuppaT (# 10523) on :
 
Just like you, Nigel, Chrysostom compares Nicodemus and the Samaritan woman. He does it at great length over several homilies and it is fascinating. She comes out way ahead. Nicodemus is shamed, as a matter of fact. I suppose he redeems himself later in helping Joseph of Aramithea at the Cross.

The Evangelist would certainly have known this lady's name as she was so famous, as he would have known the name of the man born blind, and lots of other peoples' names which he purposefully omitted. We should ask why he did so. Her name, by the way, is Photini or Photina, and in Orthodox tradition she is called Equal to the Apostles.

CuppaT
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
A very useful link, thanks Cuppa T. Interesting to note, too, that Chrysostom faced the same problems with his audience as we do today - too many distractions in the home that take people away from spending time interpreting Scripture. His parishioners may have been more attracted to draughts and dice, whereas today it is TV and Wii, but it's still true that what books there are in a home tend to be parked on the shelf for display, not for reading! Nice application of the text by Chrysostom.

I'll move things on a bit before I get ahead of myself...

John 4:11-14 [NIV] -
quote:
"Sir," the woman said, "you have nothing to draw with and the well is deep. Where can you get this living water? Are you greater than our father Jacob, who gave us the well and drank from it himself, as did also his sons and his flocks and herds?"

Jesus answered, "Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks the water I give him will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life."

Again - a good knowledge (and pride?) in the fact that the well had heritage that predated Jerusalem and the southern Jewish religion. It might be described as living water because it was on a running spring, not a stagnant pool. Jesus seems to be acknowledging the heritage, but only to use it as a springboard for a bigger point.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Moving it on...

quote:
John 4:13-15 [NIV]
Jesus answered, "Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks the water I give him will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life." The woman said to him, "Sir, give me this water so that I won't get thirsty and have to keep coming here to draw water."


 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
I am interested in Shipmates' understanding of what Jesus meant by 'spring of water' in his reply to the woman.

I know there are people who understand this as refering to the Holy Spirit, some even link it with another verse to validate the practice of 'speaking in tongues'. Others may see this as refering to Jesus' teaching only. What is your understanding of this term?
 
Posted by Evangelastic (# 11674) on :
 
Would Jesus have offered (past tense)her The Holy Spirit prior to Pentecost?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I suppose that the Holy Spirit (HS) could have been referred to on the basis that the HS was evident in times before Jesus, but later in his gospel John refers to that HS as being a 'second Jesus', so to speak, promised to the disciples after Jesus has gone away. It would run counter to that to say here that the HS was available to the Samaritan women at that point in time. However, John does record Jesus as elsewhere referring to the HS in watery terms:
quote:
John 7:37-39 [NIV]
On the last and greatest day of the Feast, Jesus stood and said in a loud voice, "If anyone is thirsty, let him come to me and drink. Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, streams of living water will flow from within him." By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified.

This is a theme Jesus might have picked up from the likes of:
quote:
Isaiah 55:1-3
"Come, all you who are thirsty, come to the waters;
and you who have no money,come, buy and eat!
Come, buy wine and milk without money and without cost.

Why spend money on what is not bread,
and your labor on what does not satisfy?
Listen, listen to me, and eat what is good,
and your soul will delight in the richest of fare.

Give ear and come to me; hear me, that your soul may live.
I will make an everlasting covenant with you,
my faithful love promised to David.

...and...
quote:
Ps. 36:9
For with you is the fountain of life;
in your light we see light.

...and possibly...
quote:
Isaiah 12:3
With joy you will draw water from the wells of salvation.

Interestingly, in the Samaritan woman episode Jesus does not make an explicit reference to a Scripture, as he does in John 7. This would be fitting here - the Samaritans did not recognise as Scripture any writing beyond the Torah, so making direct references to Isaiah would have been meaningless.

If Isaiah and Psalms were behind Jesus' use of the living water metaphor in John 4, then perhaps the HS was the intended reference? The reference would include ideas of salvation, reconciliation with God, peace and eternal life as well.

It would be really useful here to have a good idea of the religious beliefs of the Samaritans at that time; it would help with trying to see this from the woman's angle - what she might have understood by the HS and issues of covenant with God. It might explain why Jesus used 'living water' and 'spring of water' here. Any ideas, anyone?
 
Posted by CuppaT (# 10523) on :
 
I don't know; I'm clueless, and was just telling my priest so on this very passage recently. I don't see springs of living water welling up in me. I see tears, and hard things. He said maybe tears (of repentance and concern for others) were a part of the living water.

CuppaT
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pooks:
I am interested in Shipmates' understanding of what Jesus meant by 'spring of water' in his reply to the woman.

I know there are people who understand this as refering to the Holy Spirit, some even link it with another verse to validate the practice of 'speaking in tongues'. Others may see this as refering to Jesus' teaching only. What is your understanding of this term?
quote:
Jesus answered, "Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks the water I give him will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life."

The tenses are interesting; in His explanation, since Jesus is then speaking in the future tense, it could reference the Holy Spirit (and, as others have observed, the Holy Spirit 'fell' on people in the Hebrew scriptures but apparently didn't inhabit in the same way, post-Pentecost). My own take has been to think of it as salvation, as eternal life but there are so many places where I wish the disciples (and other folks) had come along and asked very specific questions of Him; He was usually willing to explain but didn't generally offer the explanations and waited to be asked (shades of "you have not because you ask not").

Good thoughts, Nigel. I do know that Israel and Judea are very much reliant upon rain ('the rain falls on the just and the unjust' doesn't speak of trouble on righteous and unrighteous but rather general blessing being given to both) and we can see that importance throughout scripture, looking at the wells the patriarchs dug (and re-dug), etc. So the idea of springs of 'living water' is very appealing. Herod the Great had massive cisterns at Masada and there were many cisterns in Jerusalem; it may also be a contrast to the kind of 'staleness' that water can take on when it's been still for too long?

quote:
Originally posted by CuppaT:
I don't know; I'm clueless, and was just telling my priest so on this very passage recently. I don't see springs of living water welling up in me. I see tears, and hard things. He said maybe tears (of repentance and concern for others) were a part of the living water.

If the living water bubbling up within you references your eternal life (rather than simply this temporal one), I think your priest's speculations are very possible, and perhaps all the more so if the living water is indeed the Holy Spirit or the life of the Spirit within us...

So often it seems to me the answer is "both/and" rather than "either this or that" - do you know what I mean? I've come to see verses of scripture more like a chord rather than a single note, with lots of overtones and resonances. Very rich stuff indeed!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
For that last pargraph [Overused]
(Which is not to say I didn't appreciate the rest of the post!)
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
Thank you for your replies, it is very helpful indeed. I also echo what Pimple said.

I guess the next question is why did the woman at the well seem to take what Jesus said so literally? I find her response baffling.

"Sir, give me this water so that I won't get thirsty and have to keep coming here to draw water."
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
I remember reading a speculation somewhere that the watering hole was public enough for her to suffer taunts from its other users. So whether or not she was being over-literal or just kind of flip, she was voicing her social isolation from her neighbors.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think that if it had been me, I would have been baffled but eager--a natural response to the kind of teaser he had just trolled in front of her. What has she got to lose by asking? And already she's seen that he's not like any of the other men, let alone Jewish men, she knows. He talks to her like a human being.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
I also wonder if there's a little sense of "put your money where your mouth is" - in the light of Nigel's post, earlier, that she may have felt spiritually proud, superior to the Jews (and look at the Jew she ends up dealing with [Eek!] ). After all, she has nothing to lose - why not see where this curious man takes the conversation (and I dare say, having been married 6 times, the woman was not afraid to converse with men).

ETA: pooks, pimple, thank you for your kind words [Hot and Hormonal]

[ 06. June 2008, 03:24: Message edited by: Lynn MagdalenCollege ]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
After all, she has nothing to lose - why not see where this curious man takes the conversation (and I dare say, having been married 6 times, the woman was not afraid to converse with men).


Well, yeah there's that [Big Grin]

Is it blaspemous to suggest she might have thought he was flirting?

Given the baffling way Jesus was acting, I wouldn't be surprised if her words articulated a variety of conflicting emotions-- the direct call on his words might have just be a quick way to find out where the conversation was heading, while at the same time incorporating whatever her issues might be.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
You know, I just got a flash image of the kind of ridiculous scene that Jesus-as-star would produce, giggling women, "oh He's so cute!"

"I just love His hair that way--"

Perhaps there was good cause for Isaiah 53:2 ~ He has no stately form or majesty that we should look upon Him, nor appearance that we should be attracted to Him.

Which is not to say that there wouldn't have been women who wondered about the possibility of a relationship with Him (and there would have been nothing wrong with Jesus marrying, other than the fact He came to lay down His life for all of us and marrying is a different kind of laying down one's life) and this Samaritan woman might well have wondered, "is this guy hitting on me?"
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It's a total tangent, but I've always wondered if he COULD give off those kinds of vibes. Not that I'm questioning his humanity, you understand. But at least to me, he comes off so much as a member of one's close family (liked or otherwise!) that the concept of marrying him -- [Eek!] . And not because he's God, but rather because he's my older brother. Interest. Just. Not. There.

But who knows?
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
But Lamb darlin' you're forgetting He's the Bridegroom and we're the Bride - in Heaven we may discover no one puts off the vibe like Him-- [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Earlier when we reached verse 10 CuppaT posted a
link to Chrysostom's thoughts on the passage.

The comparison and contrast with Nicodemus is interesting here. Both the Jewish administrator and the Samaritan woman have the course of their conversation thrown off balance: Nico was settling down to a nice evening's debate and had barely got beyond introductions when Jesus cut to the chase; similarly the Samaritan has her line of debate undercut.

Perhaps their responses are somewhat similar? Who, after all, likes having a decent theological debate interrupted with statements about God? Nico's reply appears sulky (“Oh, come on! A man re-enters his mum's womb for a second birth? Please! Stop being childish and treat this conversation seriously!”), perhaps the Samaritan at this point was unsettled by the direction the conversation was going and wanted Jesus either to stick to normal theological debate or, if not, to close the conversation as a waste of time. Jesus seemed to be claiming that he was greater than her ancestor, Jacob. Either he was mad, bad or – something more worrying... If so, then perhaps her response as akin to Nico's in that it tries to deflect the course of the conversation?

quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
...He's the Bridegroom and we're the Bride - in Heaven we may discover no one puts off the vibe like Him-- [Big Grin]

The relationship will, of course, be purely Platonic!
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
I wondered if Jesus' approach to 'evangelism' is one that the moderns would countenance. First of all, this guy went up to someone seemingly inappropriate and asked for a drink, then he claims that he has got a drink that you can have and never thirst again. [Roll Eyes] (Why the heck did you come here and ask in the first place? [Mad] ) Then when the woman replied, probably with a bit of hackle, by asking a challenging question, this guy then changes the subject and starts to talk about her life... I mean, if I were her, I would probably run off at this point like she did and not without some uncharitable thoughts either. (Ooops, that's the next verse.) I bet if he were posting on the boards here, he would probably get taken to Hell several times over for making wild claims, not answering the questions put to him and for outing a Shipmate.

But perhaps as Nigel has already pointed out, Jesus has a way of unsettling people with the unexpected then while they are still reeling from surprise, he gets to the point.
 
Posted by Pine Marten (# 11068) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
It's a total tangent, but I've always wondered if he COULD give off those kinds of vibes. Not that I'm questioning his humanity, you understand. But at least to me, he comes off so much as a member of one's close family (liked or otherwise!) that the concept of marrying him -- [Eek!] . And not because he's God, but rather because he's my older brother. Interest. Just. Not. There.

But who knows?

Continuing the tangent briefly, there's always another Messianic psalm, Ps 45, which starts:

You are the most handsome of men;
gracious speech flows from your lips...


[Biased]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
But Lamb darlin' you're forgetting He's the Bridegroom and we're the Bride - in Heaven we may discover no one puts off the vibe like Him-- [Big Grin]

[Killing me]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Who, after all, likes having a decent theological debate interrupted with statements about God?
This is SO going in the quotes file.
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
[Big Grin] This is one of the most fascinating tangents I've seen in a while...
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
He's the Bridegroom and we're the Bride - in Heaven we may discover no one puts off the vibe like Him-- [Big Grin]
The relationship will, of course, be purely Platonic!
It may be, but I'm not sure. Without getting too weird (--too late!), Jesus explains that in heaven we will neither marry nor be given in marriage but rather be like the angels (Matthew 22:24). I often hear married people say that doesn't apply to them because they're already married but that completely misses the point of the parable (the woman was married to seven brothers, successively - but in the resurrection she's not married to any of them (besides, it would be unfair for all eternity, to boot!). The image of God as Husband to Israel and Jesus as Husband to the church are repeated Biblical images; if it's really just Platonic, than why use this image over and over again?

quote:
Pooks said:
I bet if (Jesus) were posting on the boards here, he would probably get taken to Hell several times over for making wild claims, not answering the questions put to him and for outing a Shipmate.

But perhaps as Nigel has already pointed out, Jesus has a way of unsettling people with the unexpected then while they are still reeling from surprise, he gets to the point.

Clearly Jesus 'gets away' with stuff that most people wouldn't - power of charisma, power of His authority? I don't know. But I love the idea of calling Jesus Christ to Hell... of course, He's been there already and taken captivity captive... [Biased]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
...He's the Bridegroom and we're the Bride - in Heaven we may discover no one puts off the vibe like Him-- [Big Grin]

The relationship will, of course, be purely Platonic!
I am SO going to regret this, but...

Um, I really wouldn't want to start talking about "platonic" here. A purely Platonic marriage is no marriage at all in the view of most systems (legal, religious, etc.), or at least is annullable for lack of consummation if ever challenged. That runs counter to the idea that the marriage between Christ and the Church is the REAL marriage, the marriage par excellence, of which all human marriages are pale reflections. Even our hymns uh, touch on this, with all that stuff about "'Mid toil and tribulation and tumult of her war / She waits the consummation of peace forever more, / Till with the vision glorious her longing eyes are blest, / and that great Church victorious shall be the Church at rest." You connect the dots. But don't tell me about it.

No, really, though, surely there is some analogy to sexual intercourse in the Christian experience of God? No, I'm not talking physical, and not trying to be blasphemous. But 20 centuries of mystics can't ALL be wrong, can they?

I regret this already.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Re: Plato marries Christ and the Church...
quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
It may be, but I'm not sure.... The image of God as Husband to Israel and Jesus as Husband to the church are repeated Biblical images; if it's really just Platonic, than why use this image over and over again?

and...
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
...I really wouldn't want to start talking about "platonic" here. ...

Don't worry - I was only joking!

I'm not sure how to fit a Platonic world-view over that marriage metaphor. I suppose if it is a metaphor then the question shifts more to where 'marriage' as a picture has its boundary and where the reality it is trying to describe begins. Perhaps we are into the unknown part beyond the metaphor when we talk about sex and God.

When in doubt I retreat to the safety of Gen. 1-3, where the union is described more in functional terms - grafting on to 'image' (Gen. 1) the idea of responsibility (Gen. 1-2) to get 'what happens to one happens to both' (Gen. 3).

Perhaps Plato was right about the cave shadows (metaphorically speaking!).
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
I think there's another component here - we're not yet ready for love, our maturity isn't there yet. I'm sure all the parents on the thread know better than to explain the mechanics of "making a baby" to the pre-pubescent child who innocently asks how Mommy and Daddy manage to put that baby in Mommy's belly, anyway? (nothing quite like a 6 year old for nonplussed parental reactions!).

This really may be one of those places where it helps to remember we enter the kingdom like little children...

I daresay when we sit down at the wedding supper of the Lamb our sense of excitement and anticipation will be appropriate to what awaits, whatever it is. And yes, I suspect there is an aspect of the Platonic 'cave' description at work here.
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
I think it's down to me to move this on as I was the first to comment on the last verse.

quote:
John 4:16-18
16 He told her, "Go, call your husband and come back."

17 "I have no husband," she replied.

Jesus said to her, "You are right when you say you have no husband.
18 The fact is, you have had five husbands, and the man you now have is not your husband. What you have just said is quite true."


 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
What I love is his method of evangelism. He stays courteously away from sensitive areas in her life until she finally asks for it, i.e. "Give me some of that water..." And having touched the sensitive point, he then allows her to sidetrack him onto a "safe" religious topic, knowing darn well that she is still continuing to think about it. Nice guy. And FAR more gentle than most of our evangelists. Not even a note of condemnation in this verse--just a very simple observation.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
[small personally significant semi-tangent]
When my ex- blew up our marriage, I spent a year praying for reconciliation and restoration; I held fast, thinking three of us made a covenant (him, me, God) and two of us were still there so the covenant is still there, right? Apparently not; a year after the dramatic split I was at a Christian conference and attended a session on journaling as a tool for greater intimacy with God (I'd done a lot of journaling in my early 20s of the navel-examination sort and found it useless so I went, hoping to redeem the process).

It was pleasant and interesting as we worked through several techniques and then, end of the day, our leader presented something John and Paula Sandford do: prayerfully ask God for scripture addresses (e.g., "Is there something from Your word you want me to 'get' right now?"). As she was explaining what to do if you get Hezekiah 14 or Isaiah 9:37, I silently threw the question up to God and immediately received: John 4:17, Isaiah 32:6, Revelation 4:10. I jotted them down and waited until she stopped explaining then looked them up.
quote:
“I have no husband,” she replied.
Jesus said to her, “You are right when you say you have no husband.”

and I burst into tears. When I read the Isaiah passage I recognized my former husband in it, as much as it made me uncomfortable (I spent a really long time defending him--).
quote:
For the fool speaks folly, his mind is busy with evil: He practices ungodliness and spreads error concerning the Lord; the hungry he leaves empty and from the thirsty he withholds water.
I've shared that experience with close Christian friends, with my priest(s) and assorted ministers over the years and only one person ever recognized the passage from the address. "John 4:17?" she said, "that's Jesus and the Samaritan woman at the well, isn't it?" Kudos to my friend Laura.
[/semi-tangent]

So I confess that this verse, having been used profoundly and personally by God in my private life, is hard for me to read without the overtones and qualifiers that my experience brings to it.

In fact, the way God used it with me is rather the opposite of the meaning here, as we continue on to verse 18.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
[small personally significant semi-tangent]
When my ex- blew up our marriage, I spent a year praying for reconciliation and restoration; I held fast, thinking three of us made a covenant (him, me, God) and two of us were still there so the covenant is still there, right? Apparently not; a year after the dramatic split I was at a Christian conference and attended a session on journaling as a tool for greater intimacy with God (I'd done a lot of journaling in my early 20s of the navel-examination sort and found it useless so I went, hoping to redeem the process).

It was pleasant and interesting as we worked through several techniques and then, end of the day, our leader presented something John and Paula Sandford do: prayerfully ask God for scripture addresses (e.g., "Is there something from Your word you want me to 'get' right now?"). As she was explaining what to do if you get Hezekiah 14 or Isaiah 9:37, I silently threw the question up to God and immediately received: John 4:17, Isaiah 32:6, Revelation 4:10. I jotted them down and waited until she stopped explaining then looked them up.
quote:
“I have no husband,” she replied.
Jesus said to her, “You are right when you say you have no husband.”

and I burst into tears. When I read the Isaiah passage I recognized my former husband in it, as much as it made me uncomfortable (I spent a really long time defending him--).
quote:
For the fool speaks folly, his mind is busy with evil: He practices ungodliness and spreads error concerning the Lord; the hungry he leaves empty and from the thirsty he withholds water.
I've shared that experience with close Christian friends, with my priest(s) and assorted ministers over the years and only one person ever recognized the passage from the address. "John 4:17?" she said, "that's Jesus and the Samaritan woman at the well, isn't it?" Kudos to my friend Laura.
[/semi-tangent]

So I confess that this verse, having been used profoundly and personally by God in my private life, is hard for me to read without the overtones and qualifiers that my experience brings to it.

In fact, the way God used it with me is rather the opposite of the meaning here, as we continue on to verse 18.

I love your honesty.

There is something special and marvellous ,I think, about the way God the HS draws close to the Prov 31 woman who in fact has no husband. He surrounds them with a very special love; and what they say transmits it to others.

You are I think such a one.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
thank you [Hot and Hormonal]

I was afraid I'd brought the thread to a screeching halt by posting something entirely inappropriate. And, for anyone who found it entirely inappropriate, I do apologize and ask you to simply ignore me and carry on with the thoughtful discussion of John 4:16-18.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Certainly not inappropriate, LMC; I for one was in mulling mood on your post and these verses.

Unfortunately, mulling can take some time for me!
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
In the school where I teach, a Bib studs class is looking at John's gospel.

We considered 4:16 as; The woman, a social outcast, comes to the well at a time where she could avoid socialising and not be bullied, only to have a 'lost sheep' job done on her by the Lord himself.

How typical is that of our experience when so often we can't find him at times we are looking; and at times we are not... Well, he finds us.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege:
So I confess that this verse, having been used profoundly and personally by God in my private life, is hard for me to read without the overtones and qualifiers that my experience brings to it.

The thought that occurred to me when reading this (and which has sort of lain in mull mode since) concerns that very point: When something affects a person powerfully, how is it possible for them to step back from the personal impact in order to see a wider horizon?

The issue applies to any encounter that meets a person's specific and urgent need at a point in time. Here we are talking about a biblical verse that triggered the response , but the trigger could be pretty much any sensation that impacts our senses profoundly (a food, a personal encounter, a view from a mountain...). How can we avoid remembering the personal impact every time that particular trigger comes to mind? Perhaps we can not, perhaps time alone is able to dull its edge. When God speaks to an individual through a specific biblical verse is can be difficult to return to that verse and see it in any other way, even though there may be further personal significances to be gained from it.

It could be a bit like this Samaritan women, be she a social outcast (Jamat refers to that interpretation) or a devout believer in the Samaritan religion. If she had been swallowed up for years in believing that her religion had the right interpretation for her, then it would take a somewhat powerful jab for another interpretation to break through. Jesus provided that jab and gave her a new horizon.

Hmmm. Something along these lines might apply to the thread on fundamentalism and the overcoming of particular biblical interpretations.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
You're right; it's rather like expecting Christians to not have a strong positive response to the name of Jesus, nor have a negative response to the popular abuse of that name. Shoot, we even have that response with family (spouse or sibling or parents): I may or may not ultimately like a man named Craig but I'm always predisposed to like him because that's my brother's name...

Maybe it's just unrealistic to expect objectivity.

I do, however, fully recognize that God used this verse in my life in a way which is at odds with the plan meaning of the verse (well, 4:17-18) and I don't try to twist it around in the context of the chapter (!!).
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Harking back, then--I wonder a bit about the "You have no husband... the man you now have is not your husband" thing. I've not studied up on Samaritan culture, but I imagine it was much like that of the Jews, where an otherwise unmarried couple living together as man and wife would probably constitute a marriage (albeit an irregular one). There certainly was no central legal registry, licenses, etc. though there might have been a marriage contract (ketubah). So how can Christ speak so positively about "this man is not your husband"? The only answer that occurs to me is (sadly) that the man she "had" was in fact legally another woman's husband, and had deserted her without benefit of divorce. In which case it would be easy to see why she would be shunned.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
In 18, When confronted by her moral state by the Lord, This woman immediately began to argue theology. Does this ring any kind of a bell with us?

We like our faith from a distance, where it is in the realm of ideas and doesn't touch the essence of our behaviour.

I do wonder what would have happened in the story if she'd actually gone and returned with the bloke she was living with.

My guess is that when we come to Christ today, there is usually such a Holy Spirit question to negotiate. If we seek to avoid it, it is loving darkness rather than light and the divine encounter stops right there.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Harking back, then--I wonder a bit about the "You have no husband... the man you now have is not your husband" thing. I've not studied up on Samaritan culture, but I imagine it was much like that of the Jews, where an otherwise unmarried couple living together as man and wife would probably constitute a marriage (albeit an irregular one). There certainly was no central legal registry, licenses, etc. though there might have been a marriage contract (ketubah). So how can Christ speak so positively about "this man is not your husband"? The only answer that occurs to me is (sadly) that the man she "had" was in fact legally another woman's husband, and had deserted her without benefit of divorce. In which case it would be easy to see why she would be shunned.

How can Christ speak positively to the fact that this man she is currently living with is not her husband? The same way He knows she's had five husbands before him (and possibly other co-habitations; we don't know) - He is God incarnate and, even having set aside His blazing glory in order to walk among us, He is informed by the Holy Spirit, the ideal of how we as His followers should be inhabited and informed by the Holy Spirit.

Shoot, I had the Holy Spirit 'out' a multiple to me (person with dissociative identity disorder) and I'm just a regular Christian, so Jesus would have all the information available to Him, if it was pertinent.

There are many possible explanations of how she'd been through 5 husbands already and why she was now co-habitating but it was certainly true (she would have been very quick to say otherwise); it seems to me that she may have been sliding inexorably down toward prostitution, srabbling and fighting to change it but unsuccessful thus far.

If she was widowed repeatedly, people would begin to view her with suspicion or superstition. If she was divorced repeatedly, she is likewise judged by the community. How quickly was a woman disqualified as a suitable spouse! The Torah requires that priests marry virgins, not widows or divorcees, which is generally viewed as a judgment on widows and divorcees rather than God building a model or type of marriage to resonate with the image that He Himself was husband to Israel.

We humans are so fast to get it wrong, to pass judgments and jump to conclusions (and I look in the mirror as I say it - and I'm trying not to go there; I'm aware of the gravitational pull and try to resist it and I still do it) and then the community suffers because of this aspect of our fallen nature. I do link it with the fall ('the knowledge of good and evil' naturally leads legalism, judgments and condemnation).

So however she got here, she is isolated from the community and enforcing it herself (middle of the day trip to the well rather than cool of the morning, cool of the evening with all the other women). Jesus values her and treats her with respect, thus begins the process of restoration into the community - it's such a profound interaction.

Jamat, how is she arguing theology in verse 18 when it's Jesus speaking?
quote:
"...for you have had five husbands, and the one whom you now have is not your husband; this you have said truly."
But whatever verse you're referencing, the observation of our nature is true; it's like the old phrase about the preacher who hits too close to home, "he stopped preaching and started meddling!"

YES about the idea of a Holy Spirit question - but I'd actually posit we experience an ongoing series of these: "Will you let Me touch you here? Will you let Me bring light to this place?" I think there are two streams here: the invitations into initial relationship and the continuing invitations to draw closer.

When we've started with the Lord and expressed an intention with Him, He is very gracious and patient, keeps giving us opportunities to address an issue but if we consistently resist it, He may ultimately take us off the playing field rather than allowing us to continue running with a broken leg. I think that's rare (or maybe what's rare is the opportunity to be close enough to a person's life to see a correlation between resistant behavior and death [Eek!] ) but I know a couple of cases where it appears to have happened, where God limited further damage/injury by taking someone out.

The other situation we all experience: Today, if you hear His voice, do not harden your hearts as you did at Meribah, as you did that day at Massah in the desert, where your fathers tested and tried Me, though they had seen what I did. - God invites us into relationship but we know it will change us, change our priorities, maybe get in the way of our fun (big issue for me in my late teens as I resisted God)... do we harden our hearts? Or do we respond? Even reluctant conversion is conversion, after all:
quote:
C.S. Lewis said:
In Trinity term of 1929 I gave in, and admitted that God was God, and knelt and prayed: perhaps, that night, the most dejected and reluctant convert in all England

Lewis allowed himself to be drawn ever closer, ever deeper (higher up and farther in, as he puts it in Narnian terms). It's not how we start; it's how we finish.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Bit of a misunderstanding here. I'm not disputing Jesus' ability to know whatever he needed/wanted to know at any given time. I'm simply wondering if he would have regarded two unmarried people living together permanently as a marriage (as so many cultures do). I rather suspect he would, which is why I suspect there was some barrier to the couple being perceived as married, however irregularly--for example, a pre-existing spouse.

As for priests and marriage, IIRC priests were permitted to marry widows of priests as well as virgins (not sure about the divorcees). It was only the High Priest who was forbidden to marry any woman but a virgin. (The "widows of priests " thing was probably to ensure that, if she were in fact carrying an unsuspected pregnancy from her former husband, the child would still be of the priestly tribe and therefore permitted to serve as a priest along with his putative father.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
Yes, I misunderstood you (!! - it happens) - it is an interesting question but I do believe there are reasons other than the current relationship being adulterous which would lead Jesus to say, "the one you're living with now isn't your husband." He doesn't accuse her of adultery and He wasn't pulling His punches, so I still suspect he was looking at the intent of the hearts.

Leviticus 21 talks about the priests and marriage; verse 7 says "They shall not take a woman who is profaned by harlotry, nor shall they take a woman divorced from her husband; for he is holy to his God" when speaking of the priests in general.

But yes, it is specifically the high priest who cannot marry a widow and I'm not seeing any allowance for widow of a fellow priest... perhaps that's elsewhere...? (I'm intrigued by these things; it goes on to disqualify the disabled from the priesthood - God takes these 'types' very seriously).
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It's in Ezekiel 44:

quote:
21 No priest is to drink wine when he enters the inner court. 22 They must not marry widows or divorced women; they may marry only virgins of Israelite descent or widows of priests.
The prostitution/fornication or divorce thing is not too hard to understand, once we grant the idea that marriageable women had to be free of previous relationships (and alas, divorce is never really over, is it? [Frown] ). As I know from bitter family experience.

The restrictions on widows, as I said above, seem designed to prevent accidental mistakes about future priests' bloodlines. In the case of the high priest, the purity of his descent was so important that he was limited to choosing a virgin only; I suspect the widow of a high priest would have been acceptable but for the fact that she would undoubtedly be his near relative! (Hi, Mom)
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
LC, that's the future temple! (at least that's the way I've always read it; this is part of the prophetic vision Ezekiel has, taken in the Spirit to a not-yet existing Jerusalem and being walked about and measuring the temple at that time.

Babylon has destroyed the first temple. The second temple (built after the 70 years exile and this is taking place in the 25th year; later re-built by Herod the Great) doesn't match these measurements; I've always thought this to be the temple that will be present on the earth when the Lord returns, as referenced by verse 2 (He enters through the Golden Gate).

So are you reading this passage as impacting how the marriage laws for the priests were practiced (assuming they were trying to follow the law) or how they will be practiced?

Sorry, I realize this is a tangent (!! - duh!)
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
My comment about her arguing theology was actually i reference to vs 20.

19 The woman said to him,"Sir, I perceive you are a prophet."
20 "Our fathers worshiped in this mountain and you people say that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship."

If it is OK to move on, I think she is fudging the moral issue Jesus raised with 'religion-speak.'

This is something we are prone to I think. And then we wonder why he stops speaking to us!

Though in this case, he answers her red-herrig so it must be important. The primary point he ends up making is about the 'true' worship is a much greater thing than either side of the local debate could, at that time, understand.

21"Woman, believe me, an hour is coming when neither in this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, shall you worship the Father.
22You worship that which you do not know, for salvation is of the Jews.

23 "But and hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and in truth;for the Father seeks such people to be his worshipers."
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
Yes, thank you for clarifying!

She does rather do that slight-of-hand misdirection thing, "Hey! Look over there! You're a prophet! I've got a pressing religious question for you!!!"

She may well feel like she's been put uncomfortably on the spot and here she can put Him on the spot, linking their mountain with the patriarchs (Jacob's well and all) and perhaps feeling this might be something she can win.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I take this as another instance of his remarkable gentleness with a badly wounded soul. Yes, she's misdirecting, and he knows it full well; but he LETS her, and he gives her the dignity of a serious reply. Having made his point (about her life) he leaves it alone and moves straight into the Gospel. But I'm getting ahead of us.
 
Posted by Lynn MagdalenCollege (# 10651) on :
 
Indeed, LC-- as I look back on my own often-stumbling spiritual walk, I see Jesus being just as gentle and tender with me, kindly not pointing out what a jerk I {am, have been, as applicable}.

He really means this grace stuff...!
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
It is interesting how he so often redirects the emphasis of one of their assumptions.

To both Jews and samaritans, where one worshiped, was the issue.

To Jesus the issue was who worshipped. They had to be true worshipers. In other words ones who acknowledged his mission in the wider context of the revelation he was bringing in that time.

There was also the question of how one should worship. and he stated 'in spirit and in truthe'. This is really enigmatic in some ways.

For sure though, he was directing worship away from the temple system of sacrificing animals and making it into a more individual and internal concept.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
To both Jews and samaritans, where one worshiped, was the issue.

To Jesus the issue was who worshipped. They had to be true worshipers. In other words ones who acknowledged his mission in the wider context of the revelation he was bringing in that time. ...

For sure though, he was directing worship away from the temple system of sacrificing animals and making it into a more individual and internal concept.

And somewhat interesting that John did not replace Zion or Gerizim with 'church', or even some form of 'Johannine Community', when the opportunity presented itself here.

I've often wondered what John actually meant by the phrase 'Spirit and truth' here. Is he equating spirit with God or referring to a human spirit? Is truth the same here as in the "way, truth and life" phrase? Is John linking forward to the Spirit passages in chapters 14-16 and the truth exchange between Jesus and Pilate in 18:36-38?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
To both Jews and samaritans, where one worshiped, was the issue.

To Jesus the issue was who worshipped. They had to be true worshipers. In other words ones who acknowledged his mission in the wider context of the revelation he was bringing in that time. ...

For sure though, he was directing worship away from the temple system of sacrificing animals and making it into a more individual and internal concept.

And somewhat interesting that John did not replace Zion or Gerizim with 'church', or even some form of 'Johannine Community', when the opportunity presented itself here.

I've often wondered what John actually meant by the phrase 'Spirit and truth' here. Is he equating spirit with God or referring to a human spirit? Is truth the same here as in the "way, truth and life" phrase? Is John linking forward to the Spirit passages in chapters 14-16 and the truth exchange between Jesus and Pilate in 18:36-38?

I have always understood a practical rather than an expositional understanding of these words.

Essentially it goes it uses the following logic.

True believers are worshipers.

They worship by acknowledging the truth Christ has brought into their lives. In doing this the Holy spirit, who indwells bears witness with their human spirit, that they are in fact worshiping the true and the real God.

I've also heard pente expositions of 'in spirit' meaning in the power of the Holy Spirit which they interpret as being using 'tongues'.

In the same way, the word truth is often interpreted as referring to living in the light of Biblical revelation.

Thus what you end up with is a right hand /left hand definition of worship. It is an active energy based on a discerning knowledge of the Scripture, particularly on the revelation of God in Christ.
 
Posted by fusilli (# 2930) on :
 
Remeber too that 'spirit' is the same word as 'breath'. It is easy to 'worship' God in truth only - it is a dead, cerebral sort of worship. God can breathe life into such worship.

The breath of God puts God's life in us - God in us = enthusiasm (well that's what the root word means). I come from a pentecostal background where it is plainly also possibel to worship with enthusiasm and little regard for truth. Perhaps that is worship in 'spirit' but not in truth. Jesus brings truth to such worship.

I think Jesus is saying that true worship must be both - based on truth, inspired (breathed into) by the Spirit.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by fusilli:
Remeber too that 'spirit' is the same word as 'breath'. It is easy to 'worship' God in truth only - it is a dead, cerebral sort of worship. God can breathe life into such worship.

The breath of God puts God's life in us - God in us = enthusiasm (well that's what the root word means). I come from a pentecostal background where it is plainly also possibel to worship with enthusiasm and little regard for truth. Perhaps that is worship in 'spirit' but not in truth. Jesus brings truth to such worship.

I think Jesus is saying that true worship must be both - based on truth, inspired (breathed into) by the Spirit.

Absolutely!

However, my natural inclination as an English speaker is simply to interpret true as real and truth as valid or observable phenomena.

It doesnt work as applied to spiritual concepts which we can't empirically observe, but to me, what Jesus says here smacks of the distinction between the 'real' and the 'religious' or the theoretical.

To me what he seems to be saying is that our worship needs to touch our lives at a deep and real level.
 
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on :
 
I find this really difficult.This passage leaves the reader with a question about the nature of sacred space; Jesus being interested in the nature of the worship and the condition of the heart rather than the place of worship. But surely sacred space is necessary at times? The idea that there are no sacred places. I sort of believe that, and then other days I don't. Is it possible to say that sacred space is a necessary evil?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by fletcher christian:
But surely sacred space is necessary at times? ... Is it possible to say that sacred space is a necessary evil?

I've wondered about that from time to time, too. fc. The question I had was: "What happened to the land?" If 'Israel' flowed into 'church' (somehow) and God remained God, where did the land flow? Is there a geographical space as gift for the people of God now? Some options:-

[1] All earth (or even all creation) is now our space;
[2] No place is our space (Land was a different dispensation);
[3] Our space is where we are, but in a spiritual sense;
[4] The physical Church is our space;
[5] The land of Israel is our true destiny;
[6] some other category took over Land as gift.

Yes, I know; [6] above is cheating - it's the 'miscellaneous' section in any attempt to categorise something.

One option under [6] could be 'fellowship' (koinonia). Land was a gift for the people that provided them with security and provision. Does fellowship do that? Or do people clutter up the space?
 
Posted by fusilli (# 2930) on :
 
I understand it as follows (I think):

Sacred places were important in the OT, sometimes permanent places like the temple in Jerusalem, sometimes temporary like Shiloh or the bit of desert around the burning bush, as a 'means of grace'- places where God, who lives outside of 'space' in 'eternity', could be met.

What Jesus is saying is that this is now changing. Jesus death, resurrection and the coming of the Spirit means that all believers can know God because 'eternity' is accessible. Special places are no longer necessary.
 
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on :
 
I think you are right fusilli. I would plumb for Nigel M's no.1 - all of creation is now our sacred space. In Mark's gospel the ripping of the temple curtain and the flowing out of the glory of God into the world suggests the same thing. But what makes me slightly nervous of this, is the question of why we bother to build churches then? I know the community is the most important bit - a building cannot function without the people, but the building is also necessary and over a very short period of time, it also becomes very much a part of that community, and in turn the community can have a great affection for that particular place, as an area or building where they repeatedly found the presence of God as they gathered together.
I know that part of the reason why this question is so upsetting is because churches as buildings can be very special places and also very beautiful. But does the physicality of the building distract from the real business that went on when we discovered God in it?

[ 02. August 2008, 18:50: Message edited by: fletcher christian ]
 
Posted by fletcher christian (# 13919) on :
 
Sorry, maybe I am making a bit of a meal out of this. Maybe it is simply the idea that the temple housed God, after its destruction, God is to be found in all creation. I suppose that may have constituted a huge shift in the mind of any first century Jew
 
Posted by fusilli (# 2930) on :
 
I think buildings are a mixed blessing. They have their obvious uses but often take so much of the church's finances and energy, and cause so many relationship problems that the church is actually hampered from being what it is supposed to be and doing what it is supposed to do.

I lead a church that, in its 13 years' history, has never had its own building and never really missed having one.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Meanwhile, back from page four...

In the last episode, we left Yeshua ben-Elohim talking to Lady of Samaria about water. She said, “Sir, give me this water, so that I will not be thirsty or have to come here to draw water.”

Will he draw out the water more? Can the metaphor be plumbed to any greater depths? Well?

And now...

quote:
John 4:16-18 [NETS]
Jesus said to her, “Go call your husband and come back here.” The woman replied, “I have no husband.” Jesus said to her, “Right you are when you said, ‘I have no husband,’ for you have had five husbands, and the man you are living with now is not your husband. This you said truthfully!”

To what, or to whom, is Jesus referring here? An insight into adultery, divorce, or widowhood? Or does it not really matter in this context?

Has Lady of Samaria been rather coquettish earlier, playfully wiggling eyebrows at this stranger when she asked him to give her water? Was this why she said that she had no husband – a half-truth that let open possibilities? Is this why Jesus had to undercut her conversation and bring her back to the point of the conversation?

Or does this run counter to the context and she really is devout, but very unlucky in her relationships, a lady who had to keep 'coming back to the well' (had to seek one husband after another in desperation), as she tried to find continuity – a more contemporary Ruth, but with no Boaz?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
I have heard that the fact that she was at the well in the heat of the day suggests that she wanted to avoid the other women of the village, who fetched their water in the morning and evening.

This would make her somewhat of an outcast.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
She certainly sounds coy to me - but this may be because when reading her words I can hear a particular lady in a parish I once served in! Not good for exegesis. Maybe the conversation was not perfectly overheard - maybe more, or less, was said. What is the concensus regarding John's position here? Why did he include ths story? What does the story illustrate for him (and therefore, for John's community)?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The well in the middle of the day does sound like a hard time to be working. I'm not sure what this says about the woman here.

The “Strange man meets woman at a well and asks for a drink” ploy has been played out before in the Jewish Scriptures:-
quote:
Gen. 24:10-14 (NIV)
Then the servant took ten of his master's camels and left, taking with him all kinds of good things from his master. He set out for Aram Naharaim and made his way to the town of Nahor. He had the camels kneel down near the well outside the town; it was toward evening, the time the women go out to draw water. Then he prayed, "O LORD, God of my master Abraham, give me success today, and show kindness to my master Abraham. See, I am standing beside this spring, and the daughters of the townspeople are coming out to draw water. May it be that when I say to a girl, 'Please let down your jar that I may have a drink,' and she says, 'Drink, and I'll water your camels too' - let her be the one you have chosen for your servant Isaac. By this I will know that you have shown kindness to my master."

quote:
Gen. 29:1-12
Then Jacob continued on his journey and came to the land of the eastern peoples. There he saw a well in the field, with three flocks of sheep lying near it because the flocks were watered from that well. The stone over the mouth of the well was large. When all the flocks were gathered there, the shepherds would roll the stone away from the well's mouth and water the sheep. Then they would return the stone to its place over the mouth of the well. … While he was still talking with them, Rachel came with her father's sheep, for she was a shepherdess. When Jacob saw Rachel daughter of Laban, his mother's brother, and Laban's sheep, he went over and rolled the stone away from the mouth of the well and watered his uncle's sheep. Then Jacob kissed Rachel and began to weep aloud. He had told Rachel that he was a relative of her father and a son of Rebekah. So she ran and told her father.

quote:
Ex. 2:15-21
When Pharaoh heard of this, he tried to kill Moses, but Moses fled from Pharaoh and went to live in Midian, where he sat down by a well. Now a priest of Midian had seven daughters, and they came to draw water and fill the troughs to water their father's flock. Some shepherds came along and drove them away, but Moses got up and came to their rescue and watered their flock. When the girls returned to Reuel their father, he asked them, "Why have you returned so early today?" They answered, "An Egyptian rescued us from the shepherds. He even drew water for us and watered the flock." "And where is he?" he asked his daughters. "Why did you leave him? Invite him to have something to eat." Moses agreed to stay with the man, who gave his daughter Zipporah to Moses in marriage.

I wonder if John was harking back to these when he included this story in his Gospel? It's a device used to introduce a male to a female, leading to a betrothal. For one of John's first readers, reading this for the first time, would s/he have wondered about that?

Some commentators have pickup up on this point and have claimed that there is a sexual undertone to this passage. They draw the analogy between 'living water' and sex on the basis of:-
quote:
Jer. 2
1 The word of the LORD came to me: 2 "Go and proclaim in the hearing of Jerusalem:
" 'I remember the devotion of your youth, how as a bride you loved me
and followed me through the desert, through a land not sown. ...
13 "My people have committed two sins:
They have forsaken me, the spring of living water,
and have dug their own cisterns, broken cisterns that cannot hold water.”

quote:
Proverbs 5
3 For the lips of an adulteress drip honey, and her speech is smoother than oil;
4 but in the end she is bitter as gall, sharp as a double-edged sword. ...
8 Keep to a path far from her, do not go near the door of her house,
9 lest you give your best strength to others and your years to one who is cruel, ...
15 Drink water from your own cistern, running water from your own well.
16 Should your springs overflow in the streets, your streams of water in the public squares?
17 Let them be yours alone, never to be shared with strangers.
18 May your fountain be blessed, and may you rejoice in the wife of your youth.

It might be that this is another example of John's use of double meanings, but another interpretation would be to draw the comparison with the earlier episode with Nicodemus: a religious person in conversation with Jesus about getting into God's Kingdom. Jesus picks up on a pertinent fact – Nicodemus is old and the Samaritan women is at a well – and uses that as a springboard for making an apparently absurd claim.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's a meal and a half to chew over! Thanks.
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
That's a meal and a half to chew over! Thanks.

I don't know whether you are already familiar with it, but if not pick up a copy of Jack Miles' Christ: A Crisis In the Life of God. Among many other things, Miles discusses the episode of the woman at the well in a way that develops these themes elegantly. I don't know whether I buy his interpretation, but I know that I find it delightful. FWIW

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Whatever, the spin you can stick on the well story, Jesus'claim to be the living water that outclasses the Jacob's well water is his point. The Samaritan connection reinforces the ecumenical nature of his vision and the subsequent sign (If it is OK to move on) for the long-distance healing of the royal official's son is glossed by John as his second major sign. The first being the water to wine.

Is it OK to look at this miracle?

John clearly selected it from his store of memories as significant in the establishment of Jesus' identity as God's son. The fact that the official was desperate and maybe the fact of his identity as Antipas's official was a calculated attempt to get the King's attention. You could link this up with the Baptist's execution that was subsequent and the story enhances Herod's guilt. Or maybe not. Whatever, this was distance miracle. Jesus could perform a healing without being physically there. Then there is the 'faith ' issue in the story. Jesus berates the lack of faith but then proceeds to respond to the official's need. Was this a setup? a challenge for Jesus to prove himself. I think not seeing that it occurred away from the Jerusalem leadership. The response of the official seems typically human. he believed after he became convinced that the healing occurred. It is our response after a divine touch that has the capacity to impact our mind set and change our hearts.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Is the no faith/faith reversal a forerunner of Doubting Thomas? If we are moving on I think someone should put up the new verses - I haven't a bible with me at the moment.

TClune thank you - the book's on my library list.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
What's interesting in this verse by verse approach (or little section by little section) is that we can put ourselves in the shoes of the first readers/hearers of the gospel, hearing it for the first time. It might be possible to pick up things that John did by using the words he did in the way he did, in ways that we miss when reading with the end in view. It certainly is a tough discipline; I find myself saying, "Yes, I know all about that, we are told later what it means..." The 'first audience' approach, for example, means when we hear that the Samaritan woman went to the well at midday, we would ask, what would the first hearers have made of that? I suspect we ignore the point because we want to get to the living water bit! There may be something in there that John wanted his audience to pick up on.

The audience would have been told now of the Nicodemus exchange, the importance of truthful testimony, eternal life, (all in chapter 3) and the association with water (baptism - chapters 3 and the introduction to chapter 4). Then we get this story about the woman at the well, with its throw back to Jacob, wells, patriarchal betrothals... I've found it useful to hold my onward-galloping urge in check and stop at these points to consider what impact John was trying to lever on his audience in all this. Then I appreciate the plot twists all the more!

Who would like to post the next bit?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
John 4:19-22 (NRSV) The woman said to him, "Sir, I see you are a prophet. Our ancestors worshipped on this mountain, but you say that the people where people must worship is in Jerusalem." Jesus said to her, "Woman,believe me, the hour is coming when you will worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem. You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews...

I think it is fairly well established that John's readers would have witnessed, or remembered, the destruction of the temple.
This, along with the delayed second coming, would have made Christians nervous, perhaps?
Reassurance comes later in the passage. But while we are here, what did Jesus mean by "You worship what you do not know"?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I wonder if the way John writes this narrative hints at a focus yet to be made clear: Jesus has been leading the Samaritan woman through to the upcoming Messiah claim (due in a few verses!). Here Jesus has got her to the point of admitting he is a prophet, after his earlier statement, “If you had known the gift of God...” (verse 10), which rather pointed her attention to himself.

There's another good link here back to Nicodemus. Jesus tells the Samaritan that her people worship what they do not know; Jesus tells Nic that his people do not understand or accept Jesus' testimony (3:10-11 = “You are Israel's teacher," said Jesus, "and do you not understand these things? I tell you the truth, we speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen, but still you people do not accept our testimony”). Neither religious stance provides the true (effective) way.

I think John uses the same narrative technique in both sections to bring his readers to the same point. To this extent, the 'born-again' (Nicodemus) and 'living-water' (Samaritan) metaphors are secondary. They are simply devices used by Jesus (and recorded by John) to jolt his conversation partner along the route he wants them to go. It's interesting for me, because I grew up not a million miles removed from the evangelistic trait of focusing on the metaphors – the well-known “Have you been born again?” and “Are you taking living water?” type of approach. The over-emphasis on these parts of John's narrative has led to the metaphors becoming trite – in fact, they are pretty much dead and fail to achieve the impact they had when Jesus spoke, and John wrote, them.

It was the philosopher-linguist Wittgenstein who said when he took a U-turn in his life's work that a picture had held him captive. It's quite possible that pictures (metaphors) hold some Christians in captivity, too!

Back to the well: “You (plural) worship what you do not know.” Having had a go at Jerusalem's leaders in chapter 3, I suppose it is only fair that Jesus critiques the religious Samaritan leaders, too. I don't know how the Samaritans saw God – whether they emphasised transcendence over immanence, which would make Jesus' statement rather factual rather than polemical. In any event, he has undercut both Samaritan and Judean ground by pointing to another focus of worship, away from mountains.

One thing that occurs to me on the dating of John: as far as I know, the Samaritan practice of worshipping at Mount Gerizim continued unabated when the Jerusalem temple was destroyed. Would this not point to John having written this passage before AD 66-70? Otherwise, the point of comparing one centre of worship with the other in favour of a third option (spirit and truth) rather falls flat, I would have thought. If the temple was no more, would there have been any point in wasting ink in making the comparison?
 
Posted by tclune (# 7959) on :
 
As always, a most thought-inspiring post, Nigel! Let me just respond to the throw-away line at the end--

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
One thing that occurs to me on the dating of John: as far as I know, the Samaritan practice of worshipping at Mount Gerizim continued unabated when the Jerusalem temple was destroyed. Would this not point to John having written this passage before AD 66-70? Otherwise, the point of comparing one centre of worship with the other in favour of a third option (spirit and truth) rather falls flat, I would have thought. If the temple was no more, would there have been any point in wasting ink in making the comparison?

This doesn't seem to follow. It would make perfect sense to say these things if we assume that John was writing at any time. The knowledge that John assumes is that the Temple was not yet destroyed when Jesus spoke. The real point that Jesus makes in this speech is that of 4:23-24. The fact that John gives the speech a prophetic motif is a pretty suspect basis for claiming a date that is widely seen as decades too soon. It is perfectly reasonable for John to adopt this tone on literary grounds alone.

--Tom Clune
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
You could be right, Tom; it was a cuff remark!

The literary approach was what prompted me to skim the thought. I agree that the reference to Jesus being a prophet (at least as far as the Samaritan was concerned) wouldn't necessarily mean that the passage was written before the loss of the Temple. What occurred to me was the possibility that John wrote his work with an end in mind and planned each stage of the journey to that end with a view to effecting change in his audience. If, say, he wanted his audience to twig the 'Jesus is Messiah' theme and did this by drawing attention to the inadequacy of both the Judaic and Samaritan religious practices, then perhaps his argument worked better when both worship mountains were still in use.

It would be interesting to know what happened to the Samaritans during the revolt. Were they deprived of their worship centre, too? If they were, then of course the argument for pre-revolt authorship on the basis of this passage doesn't even get off the ground. Much less up a mountain.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 4:23-24
quote:
Yet a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth, for they are the kind of worshipers the Father seeks. God is spirit, and his worshipers must worship in spirit and in truth.
I pretty sure the subject of what "spirit and truth" means here has been discussed before in Kerygmania, but I can't remember where. There are some passages in the Jewish Scriptures that link to this saying and may be focus of Jesus' (or John's!) statement.

Perhaps in the context of the debate between Jews and Samaritans concerning which place of worship was the true one, Jesus is here emphasising the spirit aspect - and hence the reference to God being spirit (with no matching mention of God being truth).
 
Posted by Anselm (# 4499) on :
 
I wonder (off the top of my head) whether "spirit and truth" is a way of subtlety rebuking both Jew and Samaritan approaches to worship.

The "truth" is the rebuke to the Samaritans since they were heterodox in regards to the scriptures, and temple as the centre of worship.

The "spirit" is the rebuke to the Jewish arrogance, since their own faith acknowledged the inadequacy of (how shall I call it?) "Old Testament Judaism". The prophets, and hence their own faith, looked forward a new age, a new covenant, the Age of the Spirit, (eg Jer 31, Ezek 36, Joel 2). It won't be enough to be an 'orthodox' OT Jew, if you miss out on participating in the Age of the Spirit - the age to be ushered in by the Messiah.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
They are all about God pouring his spirit into the people, giving them new heart. But if you scroll down the Joel quote you find he's still banging on about Mount Zion and Jerusalem!

Perhaps Jesus had this prophecy in mind in the saying quoted by Matthew (7:21):

Not every one that saith unto me Lord, Lord will be saved; but he that doeth the will of my Father vthat is in heaven.

Joel had said:

And everyone who calleth on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

For Jesus, actions speak louder than words. For John, beliefs speak louder than anything. He repeats - or Jesus does - the remark about true believers in the face-off with Pilate in Chap.18

[ETA This is not meant in any way to criticise Anselm's interesting and informative post]

[ 17. December 2008, 04:03: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There's a couple of issues here that I guess will apply:-

1] Just what did the Samaritans believe? Given that they venerated the first five books (Torah) only, would they have discounted anything from the prophets as being un-godly propaganda from those schismatic Jerusalem Jews (even if the prophet was said to have been operating in the northern Kingdom)?

2] What approach was John taking as an author? Granting he was writing with the aim of effecting change in his audience, was he nevertheless recounting historical events with an eye to accuracy, or was he adapting the episodes he knew about to suit his aim, or was he making up the episodes? If he had an eye to accuracy, then presumably [1] above is an important issue. If not, then it may be that Jewish prophecies were part of the presupposition pool, because who in John's audience would have cared much for what the Samaritans thought?

I tend towards the belief that John did select historical events that suited his key aim. I suspect that it did matter to John that this episode involved a Samaritan, rather than anyone else, just as it mattered to him that Nathaniel was a 'true Israelite' (1:44-49) and Nicodemus a Pharisee on the ruling council in Jerusalem (3:1): Galilee, Jerusalem and now Samaria. Each with a distinctive view of who Jesus was - Son of God, Teacher, Prophet – and each one with antipathy towards the other.

Perhaps John is recording the need for believers to overcome parochial mindsets and go beyond mere geography (which links to Anselm's point), and that would imply the need to act on the basis of a different mindset (as pimple says). Recognition of Jesus seems to count for something here!
 
Posted by fusilli (# 2930) on :
 
If I could just add a little to Anselm's excellent post:

[spirit] is also a rebuke to the Samaritains as they "worship what you do not know" (v22) and it is the Spirit who reveals him;

[truth] is also a rebuke to the Pharisess because "salvation is from the Jews" (also v22) but the Pharisees, by their pervertion of the law made it very difficult for their fellow Jews to find salvation and almost imposible for anyone else.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Hard on the heels of spirit and truth comes this climax:

John 4:25-26
quote:
The woman said, “I know that Messiah (called Christ) is coming. When he comes, he will explain everything to us.”
Jesus replied, “I Am – the one speaking to you”.

It's not brought out in the English translations too well - and that may be because it isn't relevant) - but I adapted it in the above quote: Jesus' reply uses the “I am” phrase (ego eimi = εγο ειμι). It's an emphatic of saying “That's me” - and that may be all that's intended here - but John does record this phrase on Jesus' lips in other places. most notably in John 8:58, where it really does seem to be a link to God's personal name (Yahweh). Could be John is making a 'Messiah = Lord' thing here in chapter 4.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 4:27

quote:
At this point the disciples came back. They were shocked because Jesus was speaking with a woman. However, none of them asked what he wanted or why he was speaking with her.
My mother used to warn me about speaking to strange women, too.

John may be having a bit of fun at the disciples' expense here - actually, apart from that resurrection thing, what else do you find in common in the 4 gospels? - because in verse 26 Jesus makes that dramatic explanation about his speaking to her. The disciples miss it, either because they were not privy to the context, or because they were still behind the times in understanding Jesus and his mission. And perhaps they were more familiar with those Proverbs about strange women.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
John just doesn't strike me as a man of fun, I'm afraid. But the remark about what the disciples didn't say or do is typical - and interesting. There must be a reason for it. Without pre-empting discussion on another verse too far ahead, there is a parallel (possibly) in the "epilogue". When the disciples see the risen Jesus on the shore, they all recognise him, but nobody asks him who he is.

Is it fear? Awe? Or does John mean "....because they didn't have to" (nudge,nudge)?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Moving on, then? John 4:28-30

quote:
Then the woman left her water jar and went back to the city. She said to the people, "Come and see a man who told me everything I have ever done! He cannot be the Messiah, can he?" They left the city and were on their way to him.
She left the water jar there by the well! She was in a great hurry to share her discovery.
"...everything I have ever done" sounds a bit OTT - but perhaps that was the way it was, and John paraphrased the conversation for us. A perfectly normal , valid, reasonable thing for narrator to do. But what a pity!

[ 07. April 2009, 18:37: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Apologies, I didn't post on the earlier post, pimple.

I wonder if part of the background up to now has also been the expectations that this woman-at-the-well event was going to match the similar events in the Old Testament: e.g., Isaac and Rebekah (Genesis 24), and Jacob and Rachel (Genesis 29). Here a man (Jesus) meets a woman stranger at a well. Does it end up in marriage? The woman's conversation seems to suggest she was veering that way - but Jesus trumps things by referring to her previous husbands.

Anyway, rhetoric at work at the well. I wonder what the town people's expectations of a Messiah were? There doesn't seem to be any inhibitions on the part of the people to having the news broken to them by a woman. And at a well - with marriage in the air? Lots of little messianettes running around later? The plot could go anywhere!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Bump. See "Well well well" ?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
A difficul passage to split up follows. But shipmates may, of course, chew over each verse for as long as they like:

John 4:31-38

Meanwhile the disciples were urging him, "Rabbi, eat something". 32 But he said to them, "I have food to eat that you do not know about." 33 So the disciples said to one another,"Surely no-one has brought him something to eat?" 34 Jesus said to them, my food is to do the will of him who sent me and to complete his work.

35 Do you not say, 'Four months and then the harvest? But but look around you and see how the fields are ripe for harvesting. 36 The reaper is already receiving wages and is gathering fruit for eternal life, so that sower and reaper may rejoice together.

37 For here the saying holds true 'One sows and another reaps'. I sent you to reap that for which you did not labour. Others have labored, and you have enetered into their labour."


The metaphor seems a bit strained to me (but he would say that, wouldn't he? [Biased] but there's a very powerful message coming across here, which I think John has probably captured in spite of himself!

[ 05. May 2009, 11:56: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Somethiong got lost there in the editing process. Too rushed. Stupid fucking system. You sort it out! [Mad]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
( [Big Grin] )

(There, there...)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Well (an apt word for this passage), I got as far as v.31 “Eat something” and felt the Lord was leading me to the kitchen.

Time passed, and having wiped matters prandial from my mouth, I returned to the fray and noted Jesus' ability to turn the mundane into a riddle. I wonder if Jesus was like this all the time?
quote:
A guy walks into a pub and sees Jesus at the bar. “Hi there, J; how's it hanging?”

“I will hang for three days and will then draw the world to me.”

Pause while brain ticks over – and back again. “I'll have what he's having” (addressed to bartender). Turns back to Jesus: “So... nice day out, then?”

“My Father has days of eternal bliss.”

“Don't we all” said with a chuckle, broken abruptly while brain wonders at the appropriateness of that response, but unable to figure out just what would have been an appropriate response. “Nuts, perhaps?” Passing the tray along the bar.

“The time is coming when nuts will be ground down to dust and will be blown away by the wind.”

“Yeah, I'm allergic, too.” Sips thoughtfully at drink. Realises that this approach is unlikely to achieve philosophical nirvana, so adopts gulping at drink approach. “How's the old woman, then?”

“You have had seven women and the woman you have now is not a woman.”

A guy totters out of a pub...

Focus, Nigel, focus. The old proverb quoted in v.37 (“One sows and another reaps”) doesn't occur in this form in the Jewish Writings. It could be that Jesus is telling his followers that whatever they think has been taught (sown) in the minds of people outside of Israel, those people don't need to be initiated into a Judaic catechism before they can properly be 'saved.' They are ready for the Kingdom right where they are, if only the Kingdom apostle knows how to address them.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
John 4:31-38

Meanwhile the disciples were urging him, "Rabbi, eat something". 32 But he said to them, "I have food to eat that you do not know about." 33 So the disciples said to one another,"Surely no-one has brought him something to eat?" 34 Jesus said to them, my food is to do the will of him who sent me and to complete his work

My take on John's account is that he is portraying Christ as the new Moses. Clearer later in the loaves miracle but Jesus' metaphor of spiritual food and him as source of same harks back to the manna event in exodus.
Practically, he simply points out that We don't live by bread alone but by every word. The 'rhem' word (spoken) word suggests that when God speaks into us, we feed spiritually.This is
all most udoubtedly true (food for thought.)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
An intriguing phrase on Jesus' lips in verse 34:-
quote:
My food is to do the will of him who sent me and to finish/accomplish/bring to a conclusion his work
What did that mean? Jesus was to finish off God's work? Did he? Which work was finished? Or does it refer to something ongoing?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
An intriguing phrase on Jesus' lips in verse 34:-
quote:
My food is to do the will of him who sent me and to finish/accomplish/bring to a conclusion his work
What did that mean? Jesus was to finish off God's work? Did he? Which work was finished? Or does it refer to something ongoing?
Speculating here but since it was A Samaritan woman who is the relevant person here, he could be making a point that his calling was also ultimately to the gentile world. His work was 'complete' when his message, reached the wider world not just jews. This statement pre empted later events in other words.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, that's a possibility - Jesus as a model of the Jewish responsibility to be a light to the gentiles. He represents Israel as it was meant to be and goes into Samaria to 'gospel' a representative of the Samaritans.

I just wonder if that would really constitute bringing God's plan to a conclusion? I suppose reconciling the world to God could be the ultimate conclusion and Jesus sets the pace for his followers.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Yes, that's a possibility - Jesus as a model of the Jewish responsibility to be a light to the gentiles. He represents Israel as it was meant to be and goes into Samaria to 'gospel' a representative of the Samaritans.

I just wonder if that would really constitute bringing God's plan to a conclusion? I suppose reconciling the world to God could be the ultimate conclusion and Jesus sets the pace for his followers.

Agree, as if prefiguring Paul in Romans 8-10, the jews rejection is the Gentiles opportunity.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
John 4:39-46(a)

39 And from that city, many of the Samaritans believed in him because of the word of the woman who testified."He told me all the things that I have done."
40 So when the Samaritans came to him, they were asking him to stay with them, and he stayed there two days.
41 and many more believed because of his word.
42 And they were saying to the woman, "It is nolonger because of what you have said that we believe, for we have heard for ourselves and know that this one is indeed the saviour of the world."
43 And after two days he went forth from there into Galilee.
44 For Jesus himself testified that a prophhet has no honour in his own country
45 So when he came to galilee, the Galileans received him having seen all the things that he did in jerusalem at the feast for they themselves also went to the feast.
46 he came therefore to Cana of galilee where he had made the water wine....

This is a big chunk and a transitional passage.
One of the things that strikes me is how the Samaritans seemed to widely accept what the Jews would not accept, ie Jesus' Messianic claims. Yet he would not stay there and become identified with them. He has the record of moving through Gentile territory, but never staying long.

It is also interesting that in this instance, when he went to Galilee, his home area he was accepted, but for a different reason from the Samaritan acceptance. In Galilee, they were remembering his miracles done in jerusalem. The Samaritans, were convinced by his word.

Interesting.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Signs and Worders – the two halves to the gospel!

John 4:46b – 47
quote:
In Capernaum there was a royal official whose son was sick. When he heard that Jesus had come back from Judea to Galilee, he went to him and begged him to come down and heal his son, who was close to death.
If John is deliberate in his plot thus far, he has recorded Jesus engaging with a religious Jewish teacher (Nicodemus), a religious Samaritan woman, and now he brings on a senior civil servant. Is this administrative officer a Gentile? It would be neat move it he was – given that we would then be moving outwards from Jerusalem and the Jewish religious establishment, through Samaria and now on to the world (First we take Manhattan, then we take Berlin!), in a script reminiscent of the post-resurrection call to be witnesses to the good news “in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth” (Acts1:8, see also Luke 24:47). An echo of this here in John, perhaps?

The thing is, though, that John doesn't specify the ethnic origin of the administrator. Presumably he worked for Herod Antipas, the Tetrarch. Capernaum seems to have been a fairly cosmopolitan place, with a mix of Jews and Gentiles. Matthew and Luke record this place as the home of the Roman Centurion who asked Jesus to heal his servant (Matt. 8:5-13; // Lk. 7:1-10) and there has been some debate in the commentaries about whether that episode was linked to the John account.

So, perhaps a Gentile (Roman?) official, but not clear to us from John's account. Perhaps it was obvious to his audience and therefore not worth spelling out.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
What we know of Antipas is that he was religious, taking note of John the Baptist despite later having him executed.
As a politician and a religious Jew, it is perhaps likely that he would employ Jews as officials as this would be more acceptable to his constituents and his conscience.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
That's quite possible, though he was accountable to Rome and seems to have gone out of his way to curry favour with his political masters – e.g., building Tiberius as his capital and dedicating it to the emperor. Not an enviable position: balancing religious sensibilities with political realities.

John 4:48
quote:
So Jesus said to him, "Unless you people see signs and wonders, you simply will not believe."
Often wondered about this. Were the Jews wrong to insist on some validation of the claims by assorted leaders and Messiahs that kept popping out of the woodwork? How else to test the claims? Without a sign that the claimant was supported by God, wouldn't any old charlatan lead the people astray? From the religious leaders' point of view, they seem to be between a rock and a hard place. Unless John is on about something else...
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Do you think this reflects that John's account is selective and not chronological. If so, Jesus may well have done many miracles there already and is objecting to people wanting him to perform for the throng as if he was doing party tricks while they fail to see the messianic significance of what he is doing. The official may have been pushed to the fore by curious but uncommitted Jewish leaders as another of the 'tests' we read quite a lot about in the Gospel.

Mostly speculation I know.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'm sure he is selective – in fact he admits as much in respect of content in 20:30 (“Jesus did many other miraculous signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not recorded in this book.”), and I have wondered whether he is selective as to chronology as well. The tricky thing is that he makes liberal use of time markers to mark sections of material (which often coincide with geographical markers, too). For example:

1:29 - “The next day...” (after the prologue and the Baptist's witness), with location given in verse 28 as the other side of the Jordan;
1:35 - “The next day...”;
1:43 - “The next day...” where Jesus leaves for Galilee;
2:1 - “On the third day...” which might be the third day after arriving in Galilee (Cana)?;
2:12 - “After this...” Jesus goes to Capernaum;
2:13 - “Almost time for Passover...” Jesus goes to Jerusalem;
3:22 - “”After this...” Jesus goes to the Judean countryside;
4:1-2 - “When Jesus knew...” Jesus then leaves for Galilee;
4:40 - “When the Samaritans came to him...” Jesus stayed two days;
4:43 - “After the two days...” Jesus travels to Galilee.

There seems to be a deliberate time stamp to the narrative. The only exception to the rule is the introduction of Nicodemus in 3:1 - “Now there was a man...” This type of phrase usually introduces a new section and here it might also signal a break in the chronology. John might have introduced his work with an extended 'witness', running from the prologue to the Temple cleansing (which appears closer to the end of the narratives in the other three gospels). This larger section – 1:1 to 2:25 is about testimony: the Baptist's testimony features strongly and ends with the statement that Jesus did not need human testimony (2:25).

This might mean that chapter 3 signals the start of an 'out-of-chronology' larger section, running from chapter 3 to the end of 4, dealing with encounters with individuals representative of different backgrounds (possibly): Nicodemus, Samaritan woman, governmental official.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Originally posted by Nigel M:

quote:
There seems to be a deliberate time-stamp to the narrative
I always understood - or rather, was told - that this was indeed John's intent. And that's why it makes such good drama. There's a unity of time, place and action. Time: the week before the Passover. Place: Jerusalem ( or the journey to it) Action: Crucifixion and resurrection.

Some of the later insertions seem to subvert this, as do the long discourses towards the end. Maybe they only reason they don't work for me/us dramatically is that we don't have the time/patience for long speeches. Greek drama had longer ones (I think) and had 'em rooted to their seats.

[ 07. August 2009, 11:27: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
FWIW perhaps we could distinguish between a micro-chronology and a 'macro' one. IO Words, the gospel of John is filmically constructed (and constructed it certainly is). We have chronologically patterned scenes within a wider epic structure which in overall design may contain flashbacks or 'flashforwards'.

John does progress from Christ's baptism to his resurrection, and uses the Passover feasts of his ministry life as markers. However, the long dissertations and the famous encounters with, say Nicodemus and others, could have been inserted out of chronological order to fit John's literary design. Thus one has 7 'I am' statements and seven messianic signs.

What think you?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's certainly worth testing to see where it might end, Jamat. I've been wanting to test out a thought arising from your post, but haven't had the time to do it yet: Could the various references to Passovers be, in fact, just the one and same Passover feast, that John surrounds with his narratives from earlier occasions?

So, for example, chapter 2 has Jesus up for the Passover, performing signs and irritating the institutional religious leaders. This ends with a statement about 'testimony' and then John breaks away to another (prior) occasion with chapter 3. We catch up with the Passover narrative again towards the end of the Gospel.

Not sure how that pans out with the rest of John's Gospel yet, though...
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Perhaps the cleansing of the temple also is an event out of order since it is so different to the synoptics. One thinks John is seeking a very 'patterned' account.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
{BUMP}
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Another good thread that disappeared below the radar until the happy bump! The thread was halfway through an episode in John 4 - the healing of the official's son. Considering that the poor son has been close to death since August, I'll push on to provide the opportunity for posting, in case the poor son goes down another time.

John 4:49-50
quote:
The royal official said [to Jesus], "Sir, Come down before my son dies." Jesus replied to him, "Off you go; your son will live." The man believed the word spoken to him and departed.

 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
This is one of those verses that could be used to inspire faith or make someone feel really condemned for the lack of it. I have to admit that when I am doing well spiritually, reading this does inspire me to think that all things are possible with God. But whenever I hear it from the lips of a faith healing preacher, I always feel a little dubious, if not down right consternation - depending on how it‘s being used.

There are so many possibilities on how this verse is understood, I would love to hear what the shipmates think of this.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So the man trusted Jesus, and everything was ok. Compare this with Jesus's reassurance that Lazarus wasn't in mortal danger. They buried him anyway. Some people never learn!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Um, that isn't PRECISELY what Jesus told them... But wait till we get there (if we ever do).

Regarding the "He's okay, go home" bit, I think anybody who generalizes from this is asking for trouble. If Jesus says it, yeah, sure, you betcha. But if anybody else says it to me, I'm afraid I'd still be dragging them along by the ear until I saw it with my own eyes. And really, anybody who has a problem with that (the hypothetical faith healer) is sending up major red flags. I'd probably say, "Bud, you ain't Jesus."

That said--Jesus does seem to adapt himself to the faith maturity (or lack thereof) of the people he's dealing with. Some he simply says the word and sends them off; we hear of no cases where the person in question does what I would have done, and says, "Come along with me." So presumably Jesus judged these great-faith folk correctly (either that, or you can cook up a Gospel cover-up conspiracy theory, take yer choice).

To others, he goes along for the walk (Jairus' daughter comes to mind).

To still others, he actually "does" something--smooths mud on their eyes, sticks his fingers in their ears, whatever. No doubt he could have just "said the word" but apparently saw some specific value for the person in going further.

A good doctor, I'd say.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Amen to that. That and much more! [Smile]

[ 03. December 2009, 10:36: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry pardon - I jumped the gun with my earlier post. Here's the rest of the story - which I shall make no comment on, but eagerly await yours:

quote:
As he was going down, his slaves met him and told him that his child was alive.52 So he asked them the hour when he began to recover, and they said to him, "Yesterday at one in the afternoon the fever left him."53 The father realised that this was the hour when Jesus had said to him, "Your son will live." So he himself believed.54 Now this was the second sign that Jesus did after coming from Judea to Galilee.
[John4:51-54]

[ 18. December 2009, 13:30: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
One of those annoying facts about John's Gospel is that he sets the listener up to expect a series of 'signs', he even starts to count them, but then he leaves off! We have “the beginning of the signs” in 2:11 (water into wine at Cana), here we have “the second of his signs” (healing the official's son), but from here on we are left to count for ourselves. We have general references to signs in places, or requests from Jesus' opponents to perform signs, but nothing clearly signalled as part of a series. Assuming, that is, that John had intended to set out a series of signs.

All a reader might know thus far in the Gospel would be:-
1] The signs reveal Jesus' glory (2:11);
2] This might be a reference back to the Introduction at 1:14 (“We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only son...”);
3] The disciples had been told they would see great things associated with belief (1:51), including “the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man”;
4] And that is likely a link back to Dan. 7:13, where one like a son of man approaches the Ancient of Days to be given authority, but also back to Jacob's ladder (Gen. 28:12).

A couple of signs, then, pointing (it seems) at demonstrating Jesus' association with God's authority figure, who reveals glory and aims to prod people into belief. Nicely charismatic!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Can I start the introduction to Sign No.3? Maybe I should wait until after Christmas. That gives y'all a few days to add comments on the current verses.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
John 4;46-54
This is perhaps noted as a sign because it happened outside of Judea. The fact that it happened at Cana where the first sign occurred is interesting since that sign (water into wine) seems specifically performed for the disciples. It says and they believed on him as a consequence.

This second sign is more public since it is done for a prominent person. I think that Jesus was sending a message to the leaders whom he knew would hear about him. I think that his actions at this stage of his life, were calculated to force a decision to be made about him. He could not be ignored and must therefor be accepted or rejected. The leaders have a track record of sending deputations to observe and question. My understanding was that this was current practice in dealing with a prospective messiah. They did it with John the Baptist too. Jesus is forcing them to seek him out as well as blessing the official, who as was one of Antipas's people. The sign becomes therefore a political statement for him as well.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 5:1-3
quote:
After this there was a Jewish feast, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. Now there is in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate a pool called Bethzatha in Aramaic, which has five covered walkways. A great number of sick, blind, lame, and paralyzed people were lying in these walkways.
A fair whack of discussion has arisen out of these few verses. Which Jewish feast and does it matter? Is it really 'Sheep Gate' that is being referred to, or another – and where is it anyway? Does it matter? Is it Bethzatha, or Bethesda, or something else? Does it matter? Should it really be 'Aramaic' when the Greek says 'Hebrew'? Does it matter? Does the use of the present tense (“Now there is in Jerusalem...”) argue for a pre-AD 70 date for John's Gospel? Some later manuscripts add “waiting for the moving of the water” at the end of this passage and a few begin the following verse with a note that an angel of the Lord would pop down from time to time to stir things up, giving the opportunity for the first disabled person to get into the water and be healed. Does it matter that this was probably a later addition and therefore not part of what John had to say?

Such a dense passage (linguistic scholars do like the 'dense' word), packed with situational settings and a fair number of questions. But, really, does it matter?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
To whom? Do you mean should it matter?

I guess it depends on whether people are genuinely curious or just filibustering.

Everything matters to somebody, and "does it matter?" sounds most uncharacteristically dismissive from someone who delves deeper than most. Usually.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
To whom? Do you mean should it matter?

It does sound rather dismissive in the cold light of day! It was more a thinking out aloud as I read those few verses again - Thought: John packs a fair amount of geography into this section; presumably he meant to do so (i.e. he wouldn't waste valuable parchment space on boring his readers with a "And here's one of me with Granny at the seaside - and another one - and another one..."). So, why is it there? That's the question for me. Why did John think it worthwhile to keep his readers up to speed on location, location, location?

Strangely (to my ears-at-a-distance), John leaves out of this background section the fact that it was the Sabbath (it crops up later - there, now I've spoilt the plot!). He provides an enigmatic temporal fixing point: the "Jewish Feast," without being very specific on that, but then gives us GPS co-ordinates for the place. Is this significant, I wonders, yes I does. You're right - that could be broken down into:-
[1] Was this intended to be significant for John's intended audience?
[2] Is it significant for us today?

Number [2] above might depend on the answer to [1] to an extent, though it's always possible to find a significance in a text even if the author hadn't intended anything along those lines. The burgeoning tourist trade at the supposed location in Jerusalem, for example!

I haven't come across a 'Geography of John' piece of research to assess whether his desire to fix locations in such a way is thought to be significant. Commentaries struggle more with the textual variant issue - which might imply that copyists, even from earliest times, also struggled with these geographical references. Quite possibly once Jerusalem had been done over by the Roman armies, and as copies of the Gospel moved further afield, memories faded or were simply absent as readers/copyists struggled to work with place names they were not familiar with. That fact alone raises one of those "Does it matter?" questions because, although I doubt a major piece of dogma stands or falls on the precise location of a pool of water in Jerusalem, it highlights the question of veracity in the text as a Text from God.

More questions than answers, I'm afraid! But that's what I get when I haven't had my first cup of tea for the day. Time for a brew and, who knows, that might lead to the third miraculous sign for the day (the first being waking up, the second posting here without tea).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jolly decent of you, Sir! I thought I was the only one around here who thought out loud and posted before waking up proper... [Smile]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And now for a big, big, jump....

Right, with my believer's hat on I'd like to say that the question of veracity as a true text from God is a wonderfully intriguing one. Those who want to impart the good news (then and now) take great pains to get things exactly right. Do they/we sometimes try too hard?

God can surely take care of himself and speak for himself, and since the only way he speaks is through fallible human beings (?) then
it follows that when slips are made, the TROOF should shine through. This does not make the evangelist sub-stndard, merely human.

One thing a poet really likes is when a reader gets more out of a poem than the author puts in - provided she hasn't missed the point completely. How many evangelists can share this delight?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
The feast plus the location plus the sabbath adds up to quite a package. The net result was the huge controversy over the respect for the sabbath and the miracle seems to serve the purpose of provoking a response by the leaders to Jesus' messianic claims..one of a number of incidents that do so. regarding the location, it seems that John is structured around Jesus' visits to jerusalem culminating in the 'triumphal' entry.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
...the TROOF should shine through.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
...provoking a response...

The idea that John was following a model established by Jesus – that of provoking a response – is a neat one. I'm sure the same could be said of all the biblical writers, but John seems to be capable of knitting together a variety of styles to do this. He sets up a historical framework ('at a certain place in a certain time'), spins a good yarn (story-telling as narrative), weaves in tension (confrontation of Jesus with religious teachers), knits it together with theology (seamless cohesion between the plot and the bits where John makes a point about God and his ways of working), ties it off with some tidy metaphors (light v. darkness, receive v. not-receive, life v. condemnation...), and then to exhaust my knitting metaphor, he 'pulls the wool over our eyes' in a nice sense, of course, by having us think we were just reading a book only to stop us dead in our tracks afterwards when it dawns on us that he had successfully drawn us into another world and forced us (even if we were unaware of it) to decide for or against the message. Clever John, eh?

This is probably where God's truth lights up the darkness. A message by a human, in human words, cleverly arranged, causes rampant dislocation in our personal worlds because it allows God by the Spirit to challenge us.

Actually - it's also an interesting thought that we should try to read John (and other writers) as poets. Reading out loud probably helps here - though not a la church intonational monotone!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes. If you look at the Gospel of Thomas - just a haphazard collection of sayings at first sight, it is easy to see how the synoptic writers might have come by some of their material, and also the crying need for context, to avoid simply treating the sayings as "Holy Writ" to go all glossy-eyed over, rather than demands for action in the old prophetic tradition.

John takes the process one stage further. He does not feel constrained by the synoptists'
chronology, because the historical framework is just that, a framework, and not the chief point.

Why, I can hear him saying "Chronology? Does it matter?" [Biased]

Jamat's point about the way John structures the gospel - a week of visits to Jerusalem - each heightenng the tension, and seven (?) signs spaced out to emphasise both the enormity of what Jesus' enemies are about to do - which will be set against - ah, well, wait and see - we're not there yet. Something like that? is what I was taught too.

[ 27. April 2010, 19:12: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I do try to convince my bosses when I stroll into an office a few months after everyone else has gotten up that, really, chronology doesn't matter. “Take on board the approach to life adopted by African churches,” I reason, “a meeting at 08:30 in the a.m. is really a guideline, not a law...”

The time has come (Ha!) for me to move things on, seeing as it's down to me because I posted the first comment on the last verse entry (I need to keep up to speed on these rules!).

However, so as not to be greedy, I'll comment on the next verse before I post it. There's always a way around rules.

Actually, there is a bit of a dilemma here: the next verse (four and the last bit of three) may not have been one from John's pen. I'll let John step outside for a breath of fresh air at this point (he could do with a break) while I take a look at this enigma.

Some modern versions omit the uncertain text (set out below) without comment, some add the text in a footnote, others include them in the main text within brackets, yet others barge through the lot without comment. A sample of English versions can be found here. Additionally, the popular edition of the Jerusalem Bible includes the text without comment, the NET edition has it in a footnote, The KJV includes without comment, the New KJV includes it but adds a footnote concerning the uncertainty around the text, whereas the 21st Century KJV probably felt such a footnote gave too much away to devilish manuscripts because it reverts to the KJV approach. The Eastern Orthodox bible includes the text in main body, but with footnotes and brackets to indicate its provenance.

The problem is that the earliest manuscripts available do not have the text. It appears only in later copies.

So – a question I have come across before in the relation to this and similar texts (e.g., parts of chapters 8 and 21) is: If this text was not part of John's original writing, and therefore not part of the really early church's Scripture, should a Christian preach from it? Should any Christian be seeking to apply significances from this text to his or her life?

The relevant stretch of text at issue is as follows – following the list of types of disability in the first half of verse three:
quote:
John(?) 5:3b-4
...waiting for the water to move. For an angel of the Lord went down from time to time into the pool and stirred up the water. Whoever first stepped in after the stirring was healed from whatever disease which he suffered.


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well, if context is all (is it?) where's the context if we don't know why all those sick people gathered there?

I guess the first readers of John would not have had a problem with angels stirring the waters (an echo of Genesis?). My only "objection" would be the arbitrariness of the "first come, first (and only) served" rule. Sounds like Lear's (or Gloucester's) "Like flies to wanton boys are we to the gods..."

Perhaps some copyist who knew the oral tradition decided to put it back in the story after John had decided to leave it out as unhelpful.

Preach on the doubtful verses? As my old mentor would say, "Very interesting. Where's the gospel?"
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Missed the edit window. One positive aspect of the whole thing might be the incredible faith/indomitable hope of the people who went down to the pool. 38 bloody years, and he hadn't given up! (Oh, are we there yet?)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
...are we there yet?

“It's just round the next corner.”

“Mummy I need to go wee wee.”

It's certainly not easy to discuss the issues without the fuller context – so:
quote:
John 5:5-7
Now a man was there who had been disabled for thirty-eight years. When Jesus saw him lying there and when he realised that the man had been disabled a long time already, he said to him, “Do you want to become well?” The sick man answered him, “Sir, I have no one to put me into the pool when the water is stirred up. While I am trying to get into the water, someone else goes down there before me.”

Rather close to some healing events where you have to be well enough to get there...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which has a certain tragicomic ring to it. Jesus cuts to the chase "What do you want?" - and I expect John does too.

Pullman's take on the story is very subversive. Did the man really want to walk, or was he making a comfortable living from his sob-story? But that wouldn't necessarily undermine the miracle. What would be harder to do, say "Believe, and be well!" or to convince the man to take the harder option?

It's easy, of course, to think of begging as demeaning. I'm not sure beggars in Jesus' time might not have been seen as useful to the pious (and the genuinely charitable).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus asks the man "Do you want to become well?"
Assuming that he doesn't ask stupid questions just to pass the time, the question assumes either that he didn't know what the man wanted, (impossible if he was God?) or that he kne very well what the answer would, or should, be. It's not the only time Jesus asjed this question before performing a healing miracle. Could it be that the man himself had given up, in some way? That the man needed to as the question for himself. After 38 years he's still at the well. But his answer is evasive. It sounds awfully cruel to say this but "there's nobody here to put me in the water" sounds like a whinge.

I hope this doesn't earn me a Hell-call. I have a very good friend who happens to be a wheelchair user. He has been much abused by Christians who thinks that if he says his prayers properly God will instantaneously bridge the 25cm gap in his spine where the tumour was.

I don't think the cripple in this story had that sort of injury.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
There's also the possibility that after 38 years of waiting for healing, he might have gotten to the point where, "come to think of it, I really don't know what I'd do with myself anymore...."

Zachariah certainly seems to have done that. Prayed for a child for what, fifty years? and then when the angel announces he's going to get one, it's suddenly, "Whoa. Let me rethink this." [Snigger]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Killing me]
 
Posted by Squibs (# 14408) on :
 
I'm hoping it is OK to go back to a previous verse.

John 4:39 - "Many of the Samaritans from that town believed in him because of the woman's testimony, "He told me everything I ever did."

We are often reminded that the testimony of women was regarded as unreliable simply because they were women. What are we to make of this claim considering John 4:39? It seems that the Samaritans were happy to accept the claims of a woman. Does this undermine the traditional claim that women finding an empty tomb would be the last thing your would want to propagate a story - be it true or otherwise?

[ 15. May 2010, 20:05: Message edited by: Squibs ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Sorry for the delay in offering a response to this, Squibs. I too have heard that line (women not reliable witnesses in the culture) in the past and in the context of Jewish law. Unfortunately I haven't been able to find the references for that today, so can't provide the backing for the idea that the witness of a woman was worthless.

One thing that did occur to me, though, was that John may deliberately be tying in the Samaritan woman episode with Nicodemus and the current passage to demonstrate the way some folk move towards faith (or not). Nicodemus starts from an assumption regarding Jesus – that Jesus was a teacher. The resulting conversation and commentary in chapter 3 upsets that assumption. The Samaritan starts from no assumption about Jesus and is driven up the recognition scale to the point where even her neighbours believed. Then we have the sick man in chapter 5 – again no starting recognition, assumes Jesus is talking about mundane things, but then he believes enough to take up his mat and walk.

So perhaps John is playing on the fact that weaker elements in society stand a better chance of coming to faith, whereas leaders may have a torrid time because they have already tried to categorise Jesus.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Time to move on?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Absolutely! We've left the poor invalid lying at the feet of Jesus for long enough.

quote:
John 5:8-13
Jesus said to him, “Stand up! Pick up your mat and walk.” Immediately the man was healed, and he picked up his mat and started walking. (Now that day was a Sabbath.) So the Jewish leaders said to the man who had been healed, “It is the Sabbath, and you are not permitted to carry your mat.” But he answered them, “The man who made me well said to me, ‘Pick up your mat and walk.’” They asked him, “Who is the man who said to you, ‘Pick up your mat and walk’?” But the man who had been healed did not know who it was, for Jesus had slipped out, since there was a crowd in that place.

Is it me or is there an emphasis on picking up a mat and walking?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yep. So this is a tangent, perhaps. If the man didn't know who had healed him, how did anybody else? ( pace Lamb Chopped, who will say "Well, John saw him do it, stupid!"

Jesus slips away because there is a crowd. Not untypical of him. But what is John's point here? (Here I go again, laying myself wide open to "because, as John says elsewhere, Jesus' time had not yet come, and he was damn well not going to let himself get arrested until he was good and ready. Stupid.")

It has it attractive side, this quaint dramatisation. I'll leave the real pundits to do the heavy theologising.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Pimple, dude, you're a joy and delight. [Big Grin] How well you know me. [Snigger]

No, actually in my quaintly dramatic way, I'm going to point out that a wee bit later in the text Jesus finds the newly healed guy in the temple (nice gratitude, that, glad to see his mama taught him manners) and has a conversation with him. Which then allows the grateful but clueless healee to hand over Jesus' name to the authorities.

Mumbles: "It's all in John, all in John. What DO they teach them at these schools!"

Exit stage left.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[pops back on stage to pick up a forgotten cane, and to say]

By the way, if you want a Profound Theological Point from John, you might try asking why Jesus is hanging around the disability shelter incognito. Being who and what he is, he could have emptied the place with a word. Being KNOWN for who and what he is, he would have been mobbed (and drowned?) as the eager crowd attempted to force him to do just that.

But he doesn't. He shows up absolutely unnoticed, picks one apparently random guy, has an odd conversation, heals him and him alone--and runs off.

How like God today.

[Exeunt omnes.]
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Such a great story! It isn't so random when you see how Jesus seems to use it to confront the leaders over the sabbath.

But I love the way Jesus just picks the man and the moment no one would expect too!
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Such a great story! It isn't so random when you see how Jesus seems to use it to confront the leaders over the sabbath.

But I love the way Jesus just picks the man and the moment no one would expect too!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I hadn't noticed before, but the argument with the leaders over carrying the mat seems to have happened in Jesus' absence. I suppose the man who got healed told him about it during their temple encounter.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Arguments over the sabbath appear in the other gospels, too. But the one here seems to emphasise John's "them and us" stance. In the synoptics "them" seem to be the scribes and pharisees, whereas in John it's "the Jews" - in fear of whom the disciples cower in the upper room after the crucifixion.

I think R.E.Brown saw the Johannine community at one point at odds with the traditionl temple crowd who wanted to retain their "Jewishness".
But what does this say about the authorship of the fourth gospel? Were not the sons of Zebedee as Jewish as you get/got? So either that John didn't write the gospel or it was edited later?

The strict sabbatarians were certainly nit-pickers. In +Robinson's "The Priority of John" he goes on at some length about the sindoop (IIRC) used to tie up the jaw of a deceased person. This could be done on the sabbath, but not to raise the jaw - which would be work (!) -only to prevent it falling! Sheesh...

[ 12. July 2010, 20:30: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Such a great story! It isn't so random when you see how Jesus seems to use it to confront the leaders over the sabbath.

But I love the way Jesus just picks the man and the moment no one would expect too!

There is a sense here, isn't there, that Jesus picked the moment deliberately? It's a Sabbath and then Jesus - instead of just healing the man and moving on - specifically tells him to do something naughty on a Sabbath (walk around with his mat).

John even holds off telling us it's the Sabbath until Jesus does the good deed. Anyone at the time with a piously Jewish background reading John's message might be forgiven for going from "Ahhhhhh!" to "Uh-oh!" half way through verse 9. Sudden discomfort!

Jesus seems to have been itching for a confrontation with the religious leaders.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
That might be a wee overstatement--after all, Jesus could have had showdowns with the religious leaders any day of the week, it was always on the a la carte menu. And if he had really wanted to push their buttons, surely he could have left his name? the first time, I mean. Instead of trusting to providence/dumb luck to create a second meeting in the temple at which time he could pass along his identity and so instigate the very showdown he could have had so much more easily by just sticking around in the first place.

My head hurts.

I'm going to guess at another, more mundane issue. I suspect that the poor fool he healed was basically destitute--after all, he's spent 38 years by the pool totally disabled, he's not likely to have a healthy income. Even beggary on the street would pay better than lying in a crowd of other people all equally desperate for help.

So when Jesus says "take your mat and go home," he is specifically telling him to collect his (probable) only personal possession and TAKE IT WITH HIM--in spite of the fact that it is the Sabbath. I can easily imagine the guy thinking to himself, "Oh Lordy, I've just been healed by miracle, and I sure don't want to get on God's bad side here and now, guess I'll have to leave the mat or risk breaking the Sabbath--"

which of course would have meant that someone else would have snapped it up before he was five steps away. No WAY it would have lain there unclaimed till nightfall.

By giving specific instructions Jesus removes the man's dilemma and also provides him with a handy excuse ("the man who healed me said...") when questioned by the Morals Police. Very thoughtful. And reminiscent of other minor courtesies, such as reminding the awestruck people to unwind poor Lazarus, or to give the newly raised little girl something to eat.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I suspect I may be doing the 'John thing' and seeing it from the way he wrote it! As a plot, he offers little cues to the focus of the narrative. From the point of view of the scene on the ground, as it were (a mat's eye view), this could just be Jesus doing the good thing and not seeking to make a big deal of it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
John 5:14 (NET version)
After this Jesus found him at the temple and said to him, “Look, you have become well. Don’t sin any more, lest anything worse happen to you.”

This verse implies that Jesus was actively looking for the healed man. A rather – on the face of it – anomaly; the man is at the Temple, good little righteous man that he is apparently, yet Jesus strongly advises him on the subject of sinning. What is meant by this? Did Jesus refer to the man's paralysis as being a result of sin? There is little else in the narrative to give any clue, is there?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
No, not much clue what was going on there. And I agree, Jesus was looking for him.

I suppose his paralysis MIGHT have been the obvious result of some sin (obvious to Jesus, that is). I mean, supposing he managed to drop through a weak spot in somebody's roof while trying to burgle the house. Or the paralysis was the result of an unlucky blow his paramour's husband got in after catching them in bed. Or something. . .

If it isn't something like that, it doesn't fit well with the other occasions where Jesus got very sharp with people who thought sickness was a result of personal sin.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, it certainly feels as though we are missing some important piece of information here somewhere!

One thought - suppose the man, crippled for 38 years, had become accustomed to his condition and was not really wanting to be healed any more? Jesus' question to him - "Do you wish to get well?" (v.6) might have been a veiled criticism: "What? Don't you want to be healed?"

The man's answer is evasive, not a Yes or a No, but an excuse: "No point, mate; I'm always at the back of the queue." To which Jesus simply cuts to the quick with a metaphorical kick up the nether. Perhaps the sin was in not being prepared to seek or accept the chance of healing for such a long time, assuming that God wasn't in that business and that chance was all he had to go on.

Possibly.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Could be. But it's sort of subtle if Jesus expected the guy to understand all that. Of course, we may have only a single sentence of a whole long conversation, so...
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
No, not much clue what was going on there. And I agree, Jesus was looking for him.

I suppose his paralysis MIGHT have been the obvious result of some sin (obvious to Jesus, that is). I mean, supposing he managed to drop through a weak spot in somebody's roof while trying to burgle the house. Or the paralysis was the result of an unlucky blow his paramour's husband got in after catching them in bed. Or something. . .

If it isn't something like that, it doesn't fit well with the other occasions where Jesus got very sharp with people who thought sickness was a result of personal sin.

I am not sure what you are saying Lamb Chopped. Are you saying that because he was told "Don't sin anymore" that John is saying his sickness had been the result of sin, but that message contrasts with John 9:3 where John relates that sickness is an occasion to demonstrate God's action than be fault finding (my understanding)?
I would like to bring John's theology together here, but I don't know what to do with the 'sin no more' (who can do that?) or worse will befall you. It's a bit like the Matthean story of the demons returning to the house from which it was expelled with other demons.

(Actually, this is my first post in this thread and, having read the OP, I am not clear which verse(s) we are up to.)

A paraphrase that appealed to me is that Jesus said to him "Get a life!"
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think it's inarguable that SOME sickness is a result of sin, though doubtless a great deal less than many people suppose. For example, if I attack someone and he fights back, my injuries are a direct result of my sin. I'm only suggesting that in this one particular case, Jesus might have known that this explanation fit the facts, and warned the guy. E.g, "stop robbing banks or next time you won't just get shot, you'll be dead."
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
...I am not clear which verse(s) we are up to.

We've reached chapter 5:4, Latchkey Kid, – the last verse to be posted about 5 posts ago. The idea is that we move on about one verse at a time, which was the OP stipulation, although a later post conceded that there might be times when a bit more would assist with the context. The first person to make a comment on the verse then becomes responsible for moving it on again after a suitable pause to permit comments / discussions. And because I can't keep my fingers closed it will fall to me to move it on again in due course!

You hit the nail on the head about this verse. For a person reading John for the first time and coming across verse 4, he or she could quote reasonably assume that Jesus was making a link between sin and sickness. When that reader later comes to 9:3, he or she could then be rather confused by Jesus' breaking of that link.

Perhaps the difference is that in chapter 9 the blind man was born that way, whereas here the cripple – it would seem – was not. He had been an invalid for 38 years, rather than from birth.

Another factor to consider is that the word 'sin' in its Hebrew context only secondarily would mean to make a mistake. Slipping up is one meaning, but the primary meaning of the word was more significantly about rebelling against one's master. It was about commitment, rather than absolute perfection. Jesus may well have been making a reference to that meaning in chapter 5.

Not that really solves the problem you refer to; it simply pushes it back to another semantic domain: had this invalid been rebelling against God in any way? Is that between the lines here? I'm not sure if John deliberately sets up this paradox in order to make his readers think; perhaps he will explain the point later...
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Thanks Nigel. 5:14 it is.

[My background]I am interested in this "verse at a time" because I grew up in an environment where detached short passages were often used. For a while now I have been at the other end in a 'book at one go' and trying to understand the message the authors (particularly in the Gospels and Acts) are making. At the moment I am working on the assumption that each detail is there for a purpose, though we may be missing some the context which the intended audience would know.
Another view I have moved on from is that the letters are prescriptive and the Gospels descriptive, so I now look for message of how the church should be or a theology in these verses.
[/My background]

Perhaps the difference here from 9:3 is that here we put ourselves in the place of the sick man. How are we to act as people who have been healed by Christ.
In 9:3 we are to put ourselves in the place of the disciples. How are we, as one of Jesus' disciples and His representative, to act towards the sick of the world.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I agree that Jesus' exhortation to "sin no more" is problematical. But if it had been problematical to John's readers, he would have explained it - he was never shy on that point. So it made sense to John and he presumed it made sense to his readers (then).

It reminds me of the story of the woman taken in adultery. Everybody's judgmental bar Jesus. Then everyone (bar one voyeur, perhaps [Devil] ) slinks away in shame. And that's when Jesus tells her to sin no more. It's for her ears only.

Perhaps it's the same here - somebody overheard the remark in the temple and published it - bloody journalists - can they never distinguish between what is in the public's salacious interest and what is none of their damned business?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Pimple, dear, I'm infecting you. [Devil]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Help]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
An irruption of kebabs?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Snigger] My work here is almost done.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Better put up the next verse then [Biased]

I've just started reading a book on Yoga addressed to a class of students in 1904.

The author distinguishes between eastern and western ways of learning in his opening paragraph. In the west each point can be argued out by the student and has to be proved by the teacher before they can move on. In the east the student shuts up and listens. Is all. It doesn't mean he accepts the teacher as infallible, only as someone with more experience, whose wisdom will filter through - perhaps many years later

[ 05. September 2010, 17:20: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What on earth was all that about? Sorry. The next verse is - ?
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Yes, it certainly feels as though we are missing some important piece of information here somewhere!

One thought - suppose the man, crippled for 38 years, had become accustomed to his condition and was not really wanting to be healed any more? Jesus' question to him - "Do you wish to get well?" (v.6) might have been a veiled criticism: "What? Don't you want to be healed?"

The man's answer is evasive, not a Yes or a No, but an excuse: "No point, mate; I'm always at the back of the queue." To which Jesus simply cuts to the quick with a metaphorical kick up the nether. Perhaps the sin was in not being prepared to seek or accept the chance of healing for such a long time, assuming that God wasn't in that business and that chance was all he had to go on.

Possibly.

I've heard this explanation before, and it kind of makes sense...that he had given up asking for help, and Jesus was pointing this out.

Of course this gives a dandy excuse to the people ignoring him and stepping over him. Well, if he was just a squeakier wheel, he wouldn't be in this position.

Maybe Jesus saw that the worst part of the situation was that the man was being ignored, and by asking him if he wanted healing he was addressing that situation first. In other words, maybe he was just trying to treat him like a human being.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes. It may seem to be unkind to the bloke - but Jesus wasn't one to let sentiment get in the way of healing! A line from one of Richard Bach's books comes (imperfectly) to mind "Acknowledge/claim? your limitations - and they're yours."
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
I just got back at a stint at a public health clinic in california; if treating people like people is "sentimental, I'd happily welcome more sentimental people in the health care profession. [Biased]

What I was suggesting was that seeing the guy-- and letting him know he was seen-- was the first step in this particular healing That he was healing something more than a broken body.

And I'm sorry, Jesus did take pains to be polite to people--- particularly those who didn't usually merit politeness, in society's eyes.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, yes, and yes. Sorry if I misunderstood or misrepresented you.
 
Posted by Taliesin (# 14017) on :
 
are we still discussing the same verse?

I've always heard that 'do you want to be well?' line as a question about motivation - when I wanted my back to be better, I had to first give up all the advantages, because they were blocks to healing. And to give them up, they first had to be recognised and acknowledged. It was an essential part of the process.
it's another of those lines that so smack with reality - like the one about 'how will we feed these people' which (came earlier? comes later?) so I'll stop there. But which actual verse are we on now..?

ETA: sorry! 5:15 - sin no more... connected to the idea that the man was ambivelent about being healed, I thought. But people have already commented on that above...

[ 14. November 2010, 21:39: Message edited by: Taliesin ]
 
Posted by Taliesin (# 14017) on :
 
So I'd like to introduce the next verse:

John 5:16
quote:
So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jews persecuted him.
and ask the obvious question [touched on above] - who is the audience (or who is the writer) that 'the Jews' are referred to in such an alienating way?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I can't do more than speculate on that, and it's something I've wondered about for a while. "The Jews" seems to be often shorthand for "The Jewish leaders" or else for "those particular Jews who in this particular case are standing apart from Jesus and/or the young Jewish-Christian church." You see it gets messy when all or most of the participants are themselves through-and-through Jews, and that's usually the case. You've got to distinguish the two parties somehow.

So while I'm rummaging around for some parallel that might help me understand it, I start thinking of the way my Vietnamese congregation uses the word "American." It almost always means "those others." Not in a bad way--they can stand up and say things like "We're really grateful that the Americans are helping us in our congregation." But it's still a marker of difference between us and you/them.

To clarify, most of our Vietnamese immigrants are in fact American citizens. They have been here an average of what, ten to twenty years each? and have married, bought houses, learned English (tried, anyway)... If asked by a border agent to say where they belong, they would say "America, I am an American." And yet at home surrounded by Vietnamese, it's "[those] Americans."

I've even found myself saying it many a time, and some of my ancestry goes back to the Cherokee! And I can't name an ancestor who was an immigrant, so it must have been quite some time ago. I am a through-and-through American. And yet the Vietnamese number me among themselves (except when they are thinking of asking for homework help!) and when they count off "Vietnamese" and "Americans" in a mixed group, they number me among the Vietnamese. So it's all very confusing.

similarly I'm guessing that "Jews," "the Jews" and so forth became a handy moniker used to identify "the Jews who are not yet believers in Jesus Christ, as opposed to us Jews who ARE believers already." Not that John, Paul, Jesus, etc. ever denied their own Jewishness, but among themselves they seem to have spoken of themselves as "the believers" or "the disciples". Later, of course, "followers of the Way" and ultimately "Christians."

Historically it's clear they didn't shuck the Jewish identity overnight. Paul clearly gloried in it. Priscilla and Aquila, for example, got expelled from Rome for being Jews, and they were among the early church leaders. And it's clear that for a while the Roman government considered Christianity to be just another Jewish sect, and extended the same protections and, um, de-protections as they did to the parent group.

[ 14. November 2010, 23:59: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
I wonder sometimes if "The Judeans" might be a better translation than "The Jews" for some passages in John. The Greek does for both I think.

Because John is clearly describing a situation in which one lot of Jews is conspiring to do down another lot of Jews. Maybe it makes more sense to look on it as Judeans vs. Galileans.
 
Posted by Taliesin (# 14017) on :
 
But in chapter 9, when Jesus heals the man blind from birth, the Pharisees question the man and his parents, and the parents are described as being 'frightened of the Jews'. They couldn't have meant 'Judeans' because the (ex)blind man and his parents had clearly always lived there, since people knew him since his birth.

[ 19. November 2010, 14:22: Message edited by: Taliesin ]
 
Posted by Taliesin (# 14017) on :
 
And LC, sorry, but your parallel to the Vietnamese community doesn't make sense to me. When the ethnically Jewish Christians went to (say) Rome, it would make sense for them to say 'we're Romans' when they wanted the advantage of citizenship, but to refer to 'those Romans' when faced with cultural differences. But under what circumstance would I, as an English person in England, refer to 'the English' to make any point at all? Unless I was trying to disassociate myself and claim kinship as Welsh...

If I then moved away to mainland Europe, it would make sense to refer to 'the English' (especially if I lived in France [Snigger] )

But why did the author of John hate 'the Jews' and not 'The Jewish leaders' or 'those in authority' ? Or is it something to do with the translations we have? If I felt anything, it was the sense of struggle the Jews were having when confronted by Jesus.

[ 19. November 2010, 14:37: Message edited by: Taliesin ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
First, I don't think it's hatred, though I'll grant occasional hostility. But that's mostly in the book of Acts I think. But what I'm seeing is a group of people who have been taken out of their own culture in a major way--they have made the leap to seeing Jesus as Messiah, where the others haven't. That profound difference produces a need to come up with names to apply to the two groups--you can't discuss your experience without a name, after all. "Christian" wasn't available yet. There was apparently some dillydallying, though "believers" or "disciples" seemed most common to start. But for the other group--well, "Unbelievers" is rather harsh, don't you think? Let alone "children of Satan" or some such.

Maybe another analogy. When we and sixty others were thrust out of our old parish, we all regarded ourselves as members of St. X. In fact, we regarded ourselves as the true incarnation of St. X, and those left behind as a corruption of St. X. I can guarantee they felt the same in reverse.

Under the circs, we could hardly BOTH go on calling ourselves St. X's, could we? WE considered it, yes; but finally we decided that the name was too identified with the building (which they still possessed) and we tacitly gave up using it. We went nameless for a while, and now have a new name. But we still don't think of ourselves as a new congregation, rather as the same one in a different location.

I hope I'm not overstraining this! We refer to them as St. X's, the name that used to belong to all of us in common, and we ourselves have not relinquished; but to hear us talk, you'd think there was a clear division between us. (God knows what they call us; probably unprintable. [Devil] ) We have not disavowed them, but they have disavowed us. And that creates terminology problems.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
The Jews would be:

Quote
In 57-55 BCE, Aulus Gabinius, proconsul of Syria, split the former Hasmonean Kingdom into Galilee, Samaria & Judea with five districts of legal and religious councils known as ''sanhedrin'' (Greek: συνέδριον, "synedrion"): "And when he had ordained five councils (συνέδρια), he distributed the nation into the same number of parts. So these councils governed the people; the first was at Jerusalem, the second at Gadara, the third at Amathus, the fourth at Jericho, and the fifth at Sepphoris in Galilee."[31][32]


to distinguish them from the Idumeans (Herod) the Gentiles (like the Syro-phoenician woman) the Samaritans, the Seleucid Hellenists and the Romans.

HASMONEANS
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Not sure that'll work too well when the book of Acts is filled with references to expatriate iudaioi, most of whom doubtless went expat long before the divvying up of the province...
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Not sure that'll work too well when the book of Acts is filled with references to expatriate iudaioi, most of whom doubtless went expat long before the divvying up of the province...

But these were floating in and out of Jerusalem, right, like the Ethiopian eunuch? But I think you're right, ALL the Jews would have objected to Sabbath breaking.

But then again, John was written rather late, when the Christians had attained their own identity:

Terms Used for Non-Jewish Groups in the Ancient World:
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think R.E.Brown has one answer in "The Community of the Beloved Disciple" in which the various parts of the early church at different times all appear (a bit mixed up) in John's gospel. But it has been suggested that Brown himself retracted some of the statements he made in the book before he died.

IIRC The "break" from Judaism to a predominantly
gentile religion wasn't a particularly clean one and for some time there was bitter argument between those who wanted to retain "pure" Judaism - enlightened by the arrival of the Messiah - the group, that is, largely run by James - and those who were beginning to feel (as Paul did) that the Jews had had their chance and fluffed it.

Perhaps John was giving the "traditional" Jews one last chance by giving them the signs that traditional Judaism demanded, or perhaps he had already given up on them. But arguments between Paul and Peter in Acts, and the different versions of Paul's conversion, show us that the early Christian community was not a single homogeneic group,

[ 22. November 2010, 09:04: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Taliesin (# 14017) on :
 
quote:
... We refer to them as St. X's, the name that used to belong to all of us in common, and we ourselves have not relinquished; but to hear us talk, you'd think there was a clear division between us. (God knows what they call us; probably unprintable. ) We have not disavowed them, but they have disavowed us. And that creates terminology problems.


Thank you, that makes more sense.
In the NIV that I'm using now online, it clearly says 'the jewish leaders' rather than the Jews, and I wondered (to those of you who have the greek [Big Grin] ) is that pure poetic license to translate thus?

It's interesting that Jesus says, in verse 17, 'my father is always at work, and I too am working' but in the following verses speaks in the third person 'the father... the son' is that quoting somthing, or a specific device?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I wouldn't call it pure poetic license, though it's certainl more license than other translations (such as the ESV) take. I'm pretty sure the NIV is struggling with the same issue you are--how to translate hoi iudaioi/the Jews in a way that makes sense when everybody IN the scene is actually a iudaios/Jew, and when you don't want to add a needless extra air of hostility by obscuring that fact.

So they did what translators so often do when faced with a troublesome or even unknown word--they looked at the context to determine meaning. In this case, the context shows it's clearly not the rank and file getting after Jesus, but the leadership; and this is in fact a very common use of the term iudaioi in John. (To get the picture here, imagine going through the book of John blacking out the word every time it appears, and then handing it to a neutral reader who had no idea what you had blacked out; chances are very very good he/she would assume the missing word was "leaders" or equivalent, based purely on context.)

The trouble with translation is that plenty of words don't go neatly into the target language; you often wind up choosing between two terms (or more), one of which is technically accurate but gets the emotional atmosphere wrong, and the other one translates the atmosphere but is a rather "free" rendering of what the dictionary plodder would write!

I'm getting longwinded again. (as always [Razz] )

An example: There is a Vietnamese insult which I can only spell phonetically, "muk yai." This translates literally as "uneducated, illiterate." Okay, that's not a lovely thing to be called; nevertheless, it's a fairly mild insult in English, no?

Not in Vietnamese, where it has all the emotional force of "Motherfucker" with a side of "cunt" thrown in. Call someone "muk yai" and they may be forgiven for trying to strangle you.

Now tell me, how should I translate that word? Keep the literal meaning and lead my reader to assume a mild disagreement is in progress? Use the shocking equivalent and have someone pop up with a dictionary to point out that I am taking unwarranted liberties?

Grrrr. Who'd be a translator! [Biased]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Indeed. It's been a week. May I put up the next verse?

quote:
But Jesus answered them, "My Father is still working, and I also am working."
[John 5:17]

Before discussing how and why "the Jews" bridled at this, in the verse that follows, shipmates might want to examine the implications of what Jesus said - then, to his contemporaries, and now, to us.
 
Posted by Taliesin (# 14017) on :
 
...that it's a process? That it isn't finished yet?

It's very meaningful to me that God is still working - that he didn't sit back and watch us muck it up without doing anything, that he didn't 'set it in motion' then tie his own hands.

To the contempories of Jesus, I imagine it had the impact of putting people - and things one has judged important - above the law (in terms of importance to God.) I loved a teaching I read once, that the point of the great commandment is that, while a person can keep all the laws in order to try to be good, a person who loves God with all their strength and soul can do whatever they like and still be good.

[speeling]

[ 11. December 2010, 15:18: Message edited by: Taliesin ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Since, as Sir Thomas More (or Robert Bolt - or both of them) said, silence signifies assent, we all seem to be in agreement. Would someone like to post the next verse?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
For this reason the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because he was not only breaking the sabbath, but was also calling God his own Father, thereby making himself equal to God.

[John 5:18 (NRSV)]

So is John saying "The Jews were lying about Jesus" or "The Jews said Jesus put himself on a par with God (which Paul in Pilippians said was not something he exploited) - which he did - and he was right!" ?

I have a sneaking feeling that orthodox chappies don't like me posting on this thread because it was meant as a vehicle for devotion, not discussion. I've no problem with that. I'm happy to stand back and listen, and keep my heretical interventions to discrete texts elswhere.

But I think it would be a shame for the thread not to continue. No?

[ 20. January 2011, 12:45: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
The writer of John had more than one purpose in mind; to encourage belief in the resurrected Jesus and to enveigh against the Jewish authorities who he placed as being opposed to Jesus.

Although it is arguable that Jesus never considered himself as divine, the writer obviously was not in that group but wanted to ensure the (then) orthodox position that he was divine. By setting the Jews as opposing that he put words into their mouths.
 
Posted by TheVenomousBede (# 14932) on :
 
I think IconiumBound is right about the dual purpose.

I also think that John's emphasis that Jesus not only called God his father but that he made himself equal with God could have been a response to those who believed that Jesus was not fully God, or a subordiante of God in some sense.

However, that is conjecture on my part, I don't know if there is any evidence of such a belief at the time John is supposed to have been writing.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[bump]

Time to move on?
 
Posted by NJA (# 13022) on :
 
(Slightly off topic but why is it called the gospel of John?
It never says he wrote it, unlike Revelation.)
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Tradition, as for all the Gospels.
Revelation says it was written by some bloke called John.
There is insufficient evidence to say it wasn't.
 
Posted by BroJames (# 9636) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by NJA:
(Slightly off topic but why is it called the gospel of John?
It never says he wrote it, unlike Revelation.)

If you are interested in a more detailed study, then you might enjoy Martin Hengel's The Four Gospels and the One Gospel of Jesus Christ
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I missed this before...

Another explanation for "making himself equal with God" is based on the observation that the son of anything is of the same kind as its father. So the son of a fish is a fish, the son of a horse is a horse, the son of God...

Um. Er.

Certainly in that fiercely monotheistic culture the Greek idea, "Eh, he was a halfbreed, Zeus does it all the time" wouldn't fly. There were no comparable Jewish concepts, no way of straddling the divide between the Uncreated and the Created. God was God, and everything else was not. And now you have Jesus claiming sonship ... as they saw it, he was putting himself on the wrong side of that unbridgeable divide.

Which is of course what orthodox Christianity sees in his claims too, except we say it's the right side.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, good point well taken - but what about all those "sons of God" in the Old Testament? Bit of a tangent maybe. I think there was probably a lot of professional jealousy about. The clerical classes didn't like Jesus doing their job - and doing it more effectively. So they accused him of equating himself with God - something which in practice they were doing themselves?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Oh, I'm CERTAIN there was professional jealousy! But in this case they had something real to hang it on. He WAS making himself out to be equal to God (at least in nature, if not in status and glory, given his current state of humiliation). They saw that very accurately. Just as they got it right when they were muttering "Who can forgive sins but God alone?" Quite right, very acute, hit the nail on the head.

The problem, of course, is that they didn't take it one step further and consider whether he might, in fact, truly have been God.

As for the "sons of God" in the OT, that's always been mysterious, and I suppose the rabbis fell back on the same kind of explanations the Christians do--namely, that these were angels, or individuals (like judges) holding a certain God-given authority and therefore called by that title as a kind of honorary thing. But it's always in poetic or highly mysterious almost mythological contexts (Gen 6?), which makes it very different than Jesus' talk. Compare for example

quote:
when the morning stars sang together and all the sons of God shouted for joy?
Job 38:7

and even stronger,

quote:
I said, "You are gods,
sons of the Most High, all of you;
nevertheless, like men you shall die,
and fall like any prince." Psalm 82:6-7

to Jesus' much more straightforward (and clever! argument:

quote:
The Jews answered him, "It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God." Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I said, you are gods'? If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—-do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'? If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me; but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father." John 10:33-38
And for outright declaration,

quote:
Jesus answered, "If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, of whom you say, 'He is our God.' John 8:54
Again, there was nothing wrong with their intelligence, they saw what he was driving at perfectly clearly. It's what got him crucified.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This is not, I hope, a quibble. I found your post very interesting. But why did Jesus say "Is it not written in YOUR law....." (I can't do italics at the moment). I'm sure there's a satisfactory explanation but I don't know what it is.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
But why did Jesus say "Is it not written in YOUR law....." (I can't do italics at the moment). I'm sure there's a satisfactory explanation but I don't know what it is.

Jesus was pointing out to them that they were being inconsistent. "Is it not written in the law that you profess to uphold?" He was hoisting them with their own petard.

Moo
 
Posted by Evensong (# 14696) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
This is not, I hope, a quibble. I found your post very interesting. But why did Jesus say "Is it not written in YOUR law....."

Because by the time the Gospel of John was written, Christianity had become a separate entity from Judaism.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yes, what Moo said, and he does it elsewhere with "My Father--whom you claim as YOUR God--"
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks. John 5:19 starts a new section:

Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you the Son can do nothing on his own, but only what he sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, the Son does likewise..."

Several verses in this passes begin as this one does, with "Very truly...(Verily, verily, in KJV)" I think this is the Greek or Latin translation of "Amen, amen!" in Aramaic? Does the translation catch the tone of the original?
"So be it, so be it..." would sound rather strange. But does Amen, Amen have a particular meaning/usage in semitic languages?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, today we might be getting "Absolutely, I tell you..."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK. Is Jesus talking specifically, or exclusively, of things miraculous here?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I would say both, though it's hard to draw a line between the miraculous and the nonmiraculous (as Jesus sees it, I mean). For example, we tend to regard what happens when a person comes to faith as "normal", but Scripture clearly classes it as God's work, and basically a miracle. Same thing with the forgiveness of sins. So if Jesus is going according to this viewpoint (and I think he is), then he's probably talking of a range of "kingdom of God" activities, only some of which we ourselves would think of as "miraculous."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, mostly miracles here. I'm not sure what the context is yet. But he must, as a completely whole himan being, be able to make his own choices. Otherwise he's neither god nor man, but an automaton.

ISTM he's saying What God does. I do. What I do, you can do, too, or something like that.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I don't think he's saying he's an automaton either--more like an extremely good dancer (one of a pair--heck, a trio [Big Grin] ) who manage to coordinate their moves in a totally awe-inspiring way.

And of course, "He who has seen me has seen the Father." Which is a comfort when I get into a tizzy occasionally wondering what God thinks of me.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Um, I think I slightly pre-empted the next verse with my last post:

The Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself is doing; and he will show him greater works than these, so that you will be astonished... [John 5:20]

No I didn't - I misread that, and remembered that somewhere Jesus told his disciples that they would do bigger miracles than him. Back to the present. It's definitely miracles he's talking about and we are shortly to find out what particular miracles.

I expect this is going to be one of those passages where Jesus tells his disciples what's going to happen, so that when it does, they will remember that he told them it was going to.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, that sounds like him!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Quite. Is the next verse astonishing, or is it astonishing?:

quote:
Indeed, just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whomever he wishes
John 5:21
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry to double-post; just wanted to make sure I'd got the code right (thanks, Curiosity!)

I mean, it sounds so offhand somehow - as though he were talking about handing round toffees!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
yep, that sounds like him also! To be all tangent-y, the one that gets me is where apropos of nothing he says "I keep sending you prophets and wise men, and you kill them all off" (LC translation). I mean, DUDE. You're the one sending prophets into the world, and you can't even give it the dignity of a separate sentence to let us take it all in before you get accusatory.

But whatever.

[ 02. June 2011, 01:21: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Oh, like you've never been cranky. [Biased]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Killing me]

I don't think Jesus (or John) was being blasé. But he didn't expect any contradiction, or even undue surprise, at his words. I get the impression that raisng people from the dead was, in those times, while not a commonplace happening, not regarded as the world-shattering sort of thing that we would think it now.

Even the resurrection of Jesus himself was a local phenomenon, not immediately picked up by the world at large (Oh, I know they didn't have Times correspondents then, but news did get around.

So when Jesus talked about the people God had raised from the dead (all by himself!) he would have been talking about events the disciples all knew about, and accepted for what they were - miraculous resurrections, no?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Um. Cough, cough. Choke. [Big Grin]

I really can't imagine any world where raising the dead would NOT be earthshattering. I think it far more likely that what Jesus was referring to was the Old Testament resurrections, such as those associated with Elijah and Elisha, or even the vision of the dry bones (though I've no idea whether what he saw was a thing in the real world or not). The disciples would certainly have known about those. And so Jesus' own raising of the dead becomes another data point for his identity: like Father, like Son.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Perhaps. But wouldn't that be a bit abstruse for his hearers? I get the impression - which may of course be misguided - that Jesus is talking about resurrections that the disciples themselves have witnessed (even if only those performed by Jesus himself), and that the resurrections Jesus himself has seen he has seen with his own human eyes, rather than with his mind's eye on the Old Testament.

In other words, he's talking about something he has seen God the Father do, which he himself has repeated, and which he would like the apostles/disciples also to repeat.

There would have been no suggestion in those days of anything other than supernatural events taking place in these circumstances. The only question would be whether the supernatural agent was "good" or "bad" (i.e. a sorcerer)

Jesus was - in which gospel I can't remember -accused of working miracles under the influence of Satan. Any disciple following Jesus' example would lay himself open to the same scurrilous accusation. But they did - at least they tried, and on one occasion at least, succeeded. I'll post the links when the cramp goes out of my fingers.

[ 04. June 2011, 15:57: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I was assuming that any miracle Jesus was visibly involved with would fall under the "done by the Son" rubric. So if he's referring to resurrections done clearly and primarily by the Father (without obvious involvement by Jesus), I think you would have to either look for the OT examples or else for unrecorded non-Jesusian resurrections of Jesus' time, as I think you're suggesting.

The OT miracles wouldn't have been abstruse IMHO, since the Jews of that day were a heckuva lot better up on their national history/identity/religion than most of us are now. I mean, these stories got told and retold (in an era when there wasn't much else to do for entertainment in the evenings!), as well as preached on, and doubtless handled in Hebrew school. Which is all to say, I suspect the average Jew of that day would say "Oh yeah, those guys" when mention of resurrections came up, just as we in our culturally greater ignorance [Waterworks] still recognize the outlines of the story of Adam and Eve ("Hey Mom, wasn't he that guy that got nekkid? And something about a snake and an apple?")

Now as to the other option--resurrections the disciples might have heard of from a friend of a friend of a cousin--well, who knows? There have always been travelers' tales and urban legends, and there may well have been some of these stories going around that did not involve Jesus. But I think it's a bit of a jump from "maybe" to "yes, there were, and they were attributed to the Father." After all, as you rightly point out, miracle-working was sometimes attributed to the devil!

[ 04. June 2011, 19:16: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I think some of my first impressions (or thirty-first impresssions, or one hundred and...) may have led me down a blind alley or two. My memory certainly played me false in one respect. The failed attempt at miracle working by the disciples was an exorcism, not a resurrection.

But Peter was successful in raising Dorcas, in Acts, with words remarkably similar to those of Jesus - but that may be a coincidence.

Reading on a bit, it will become clear, I think, that this is the beginning of a rather complicated theological point about judgment, with the "resurrection" element being more concerned with avoiding damnation than avoiding death. I think I'll pass the discussion over here to people who can make more sense of it than I can - I'd very likely do no more than muddy the waters.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Muddy away! Please. or else there'll be nobody to play with at the playground. [Waterworks]

I think the point of Peter's miracle would be that Jesus was doing it through him (that is, through the power of his Name). But you could equally well make a case for it being the work of the Holy Spirit. Hard to sort the three of them out.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you for your patience. I'm not sure where to stop the next bit as it's all so intricately interwoven, but I think therfe's a natural pause after the next two verses:

quote:
The father judges no-one but has given all judgment to the Son,(23) so that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Anyone who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.
{John 5:22-23)

Of course it doesn't make complete sense without the context. But Jesus' self-declaration as God's regent (have I got that right?) sounds odd. Compared with other comments like "why do you call me good? Only God is good." But it must be an important point or John wouldn't have quoted it. [Help]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Something just occurred to me and although I take your point about the OT miracles, LC, why
should that be the default reasoning when Jesus talks about miracles he has seen his father do?
Surely the miracles his father did in his (Jesus') own lifetime, which others saw (there's no "maybe" about it - this was very much the age of miracles, wasn't it?) would be something the disciples would more easily relate to? They weren't a terribly bright lot, if we believe the evangelists!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Um, now I'm confused. What miracles are you referring to in Jesus' time that the Father was involved in, but not Jesus, and the disciples knew about them?

I thought "age of miracles" referred to Jesus' work in his own right and through the early church?

Have mercy on the clueless. [Biased]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
... sounds odd. Compared with other comments like "why do you call me good? Only God is good."

Because of my own beliefs, I take that as Christ carefully choosing words so as not to deny that he is God, or good, but rather to challenge his questioner to consider that very possibility. I base this on the belief that he was and is God and therefore would not deny being God, but also that he knew that his message would be rejected by virtually everyone if he openly declared himself to be God at that point in his ministry. So to me, the two passages seem to be very similar.

Even so, I can easily see why it makes sense to see the two passages as being at odds with each other.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Um, now I'm confused. What miracles are you referring to in Jesus' time that the Father was involved in, but not Jesus, and the disciples knew about them?

I thought "age of miracles" referred to Jesus' work in his own right and through the early church?

Have mercy on the clueless. [Biased]

Sorry to be unclear. I was harking back to Jesus' comment that he could only do what he sees the Father do. The emphasis seems to shift in the verse where he says God doesn't judge but has given the Son the power to do so. But I don't think this is meant to be some sort of partial abdication, is it?

There seem to be a number of internal contradictions in the passage. But I don't think we're meant to tear it apart - deconsctruct it, is that the term? The whole speech seems to be delivered in a sort of trance, and it's the general effect that matters - the numinous feelings instilled in the hearer by it.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, judging by Jesus' own practice, I'd say yes, we ARE meant to tear it apart. [Big Grin] It's exactly what he does when he's doing Biblical exegesis.
Sauce for the goose...

I agree about the numinous air. But I think there's a lot more than that. Partial abdication--well, yes, I think so, in the same sense in which a royal father might hand over certain kingly powers to his son the crown prince. And that kind of thing happened a lot in the history of the area, and the Jews would have been familiar with it. It was one way the father could communicate that THIS son and no other had his backing as heir, and everybody'd better bow to that.

[ 10. June 2011, 11:57: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
But it's not the Father who's doing the communicating - it's the Son himself!

P.S. Welcome (back?) to the discussion WH - I didn't mean to sideline you.

[ 10. June 2011, 16:24: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Pressing on, if I have your permission, with a view to having a discussion about the whole passage when we reach verse 29?

quote:
Very truly, I tell you, anyone who hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life, and does not come under judgment, but has passed from death to life...
[John 5:24]

Just as the word "belief" is found more in the fourth gospel than in the synoptics, so too is the expression "eternal life". And the two seem to go together. It is John's chief pre-occupation, and the very reason for his gospel.

Having stated the obvious, two questions. Do these words have a particular significance for particular christians, with regard to age, churchmanship, or any other factor?

And who was John himself particularly concerned about?

[ETA These are questions that interest me. They may not pertain to the most important aspects of the piece. So please ask (and answer!) your own if you think mine are a waste of time]

[ 12. June 2011, 20:28: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well perhaps I'm being impatient. Or perhaps the lovers of John feel their thoughts are too precious to share with an idiot like me. I'm OK with that, so I'll leave it another couple of days and if there are no more comments I'll put the next verse or two up.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
On another thread (?also in Kerygmania) where we were discussing the rich ruler (Matt 19:16-26), Jesus was asked what must be done to inherit eternal life and at the conclusion of the story Jesus says how hard it is for a rich man to enter the KOG (also Mark 10:17-31, Luke 18:18-30), so at the moment I am seeing eternal life and KOG/H as terms for the same thing. The Luke passage contrasts the rich ruler with Zaccheus who is reconciled to God as a son of Abraham and salvation comes to his house. So I am conflating eternal life, KOG/H, and salvation to make life simpler for me.

I would be interested to see if John's Gospel teases them apart for me. My thoughts on this are still plastic.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yo Pimple, "impatient" is the right answer. I dislocated a shoulder bellydancing and am in a sling. Be nice to me. [Two face]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I also see Kingdom of God/eternal life/salvation/Messianic age as being different names for the same thing--they just highlight different aspects of it. So one emphasizes the triumphant reign of God over everything, one the triumph over death, one the rescue motif, and one the fulfillment of the age-old promises. But still all the same thing.

quote:
Having stated the obvious, two questions. Do these words have a particular significance for particular christians, with regard to age, churchmanship, or any other factor?

And who was John himself particularly concerned about?

Pimple, you'll have to set me straight if I don't understand what you're getting at, I'll answer from where I stand. John is near and dear to the Lutherans (duh) for this very emphasis on faith/belief over and against works/actions done to merit God's favor. And for those of us who are temperamentally inclined to the terminal guilties over every breath we take, John is a lifesaving corrective. I just love that bit, "what must we do to be doing the works of God?" and they get the answer "believe on the one God has sent!" Slightly unexpected. And a great comfort to us who have failed yet again!

As for who John was concerned about, my understanding is that he is writing as the last of the apostles, a very old man, for a young church that is heading into the future without the eyewitnesses to Jesus who have by now mostly died off. I'm sure he was aware that other Gospels already existed; instead of just repeating their work he chooses to "do theology" and report with his focus primarily on the meaning of what Jesus said and did, rather than just saying "first he did this healing, then he told that parable, then he went off to Galilee yadda yadda."

This makes John the link between the eyewitness "Here's what we saw and heard" and the church councils and theologians who followed him and were asking "What does this mean?" And John is very clear on what it means: "... that you may believe, and that believing you may have life in His name." A very simple but deep message, rather like the sermon he is traditionally reported to have given umpty-zillion times as a very old man: "Little children, love one another." I think John had gotten to the point where his life had been so pared away that nothing but the key points remained.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Yo Pimple, "impatient" is the right answer. I dislocated a shoulder bellydancing and am in a sling. Be nice to me. [Two face]

[tangent]
[Votive]
So is this the post of one hand typing? Or do you have voice recognition?
[/tangent]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Both. [Razz]

No, I can use the fingers, just can't have the weight of the arm hanging free off the torn ligaments and bits. Therefore the sling. And lots of teasing at w*rk.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I assume "him who sent me" is the Father, but I have to wonder what it means to believe the Father. Is there anything in the Greek to shed light on that?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
LC I am melting with shame and admiration and trying hard not to laugh, Honest! Thanks for the long post, which was a great help. There oughter be box-of-chocolates smiley. Back tomorrow,
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Killing me]

As I said, I've been getting mocked at work. Somehow the image of me hurting myself bellydancing is ... um... never mind. [Snigger] Or maybe it's just the image of me bellydancing at all!

Thanks for the virtual chocs, my favorite. I will now endeavor not to dislocate my jaw.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
I assume "him who sent me" is the Father, but I have to wonder what it means to believe the Father. Is there anything in the Greek to shed light on that?

In context it must mean the Father but it's an odd thing to say. ould be that John, imagining Jesus speaking, makes something like a Freudian slip, but there's really no way of telling. All the way through this passage he is saying that he and the Father are effectively one, and the repeats and the switches are meant to reinforce that. I think.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
I assume "him who sent me" is the Father, but I have to wonder what it means to believe the Father. Is there anything in the Greek to shed light on that?

In context it must mean the Father but it's an odd thing to say. Could be that John, imagining Jesus speaking, makes something like a Freudian slip, but there's really no way of telling. All the way through this passage he is saying that he and the Father are effectively one, and the repeats and the switches are meant to reinforce that. I think.

 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Messed up the code, sorry. I think John was tying himself in knots. But the message gets through, no?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
I assume "him who sent me" is the Father, but I have to wonder what it means to believe the Father. Is there anything in the Greek to shed light on that?

In context it must mean the Father but it's an odd thing to say. ould be that John, imagining Jesus speaking, makes something like a Freudian slip, but there's really no way of telling. All the way through this passage he is saying that he and the Father are effectively one, and the repeats and the switches are meant to reinforce that. I think.
I think you're right. And I'm not sure John was tying himself in knots, I think Jesus was very carefully crocheting himself into knots on purpose. Himself. Themselves. Themself. Whatever.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The next few verses are of a piece with the ones just gone. NRSV seems to find a natural break at the end of v.29 so here comes John 5:25-29

I am going away tomorrow for a few days so I hope that the biblical wizards will give this all they've got, and that I'll be considerably enlightened when I get back.

quote:
v25. Very truly I tell you, the hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live.
The obvious question here is how the dead hear -is John talking about their (disembodied?) souls? That verse has already been quoted in the "Those who have no hope" thread. But the next one, not:
quote:
v26. For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son to have life in himself; 27 and he has given him authority to execute judgment, becaause he is the Son of Man.
Because he is the Son of Man - not because he is the Son of God. Don't geddit. The rest is in the other thread but I'll repeat it here for convenience:
quote:
v.28 Do not be astonished at this, for the hour is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice. 29 and will come out - those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation.
I have purposely not looked any further than this yet. All may become perfectly clear. But what is not clear at the miment is whether believers are happy with the idea that those who believe now have eternal life, but those who are already dead will have to have worked for it!

Boy am I looking forward to this holiday. Have fun!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
As for how the dead hear--in this particular verse I think we've got a reference to the same kind of set up that Lazarus had, namely, that the living voice of Christ called him/his dead body out of the grave, and the whole Lazarus, body and soul united, responded. (Heard a great joke about this once, suggesting that Jesus had to say "Lazarus, come out"--because if he hadn't used the guy's name, everybody in that graveyard would have responded!) [Big Grin]

Anyway, this scenario was repeated several times in Jesus' earthly ministry that we know of (Lazarus, Jairus' daughter, the young man of Nain) and doubtless many times we don't know of. It is a kind of foretaste of the Last Day when the Lord returns "with all his holy ones" and everyone has body and soul reunited, this time forever. I love Donne's description:

quote:
At the round earth's imagined corners blow
Your trumpets, angels, and arise, arise
From death, you numberless infinities
Of souls, and to your scattered bodies go ...

It's worth remembering that just as he created everything through the power of his word ("Let there be...") so we are getting the same thing in this new re-creation. "Hearing the voice of the Son of God" through whom all things were made is sufficient to reconstitute creation as it should be. Even inanimate matter runs to obey him!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
But the next one, not:
quote:
v26. For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son to have life in himself; 27 and he has given him authority to execute judgment, becaause he is the Son of Man.
Because he is the Son of Man - not because he is the Son of God. Don't geddit.
I think this is a reference to the fact that, as the Son of Man, he is therefore the head of the whole human race by right of kinship and not simply by right of creation. Therefore he has authority to deal with matters among his own family. A very delicate and courteous handling of our situation on the part of God the Father! (wouldn't you rather be dealt with by a fellow human being, even though the omni- stuff means that the judgment would be the same anyway? It's irrational, I know, but to me it just feels better)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
v.28 Do not be astonished at this, for the hour is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice. 29 and will come out - those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation.
I have purposely not looked any further than this yet. All may become perfectly clear. But what is not clear at the moment is whether believers are happy with the idea that those who believe now have eternal life, but those who are already dead will have to have worked for it!

Boy am I looking forward to this holiday. Have fun!

AND a triple post, forgive me for being greedy. [Hot and Hormonal] I am avoiding housework.

I don't think the Lord means to make a difference between the currently living and the currently dead as far as terms of life/salvation/etc. go. I mean, I think we all get judged/determined the same way, though in one verse he refers to it as "believing" and in another as "doing good." The two things come as a package or they don't come at all, as loads of places elsewhere make clear. Like that passage about a good tree producing good fruit. As somebody somewhere said, "Faith alone saves, but faith is never alone"--there are always good works growing out of it, you really can't help yourself, anymore than a pregnant woman can help getting bigger. It goes with the territory.

Of course this is going to spark a huge discussion about whether good works are possible to someone who does NOT believe in the Son of Man, and all sorts of people are going to get massively offended, and we'll probably wind up with a Hell thread on the subject, possibly with my name on it. [Tear] But the way we resolve this as Lutherans is by pointing to that verse "without faith it is impossible to please Him," meaning that somebody's works can be good, wonderful, awesome in human eyes (including mine) but from a divine perspective nothing's going to make the grade if that pinch of faith has been left out of it.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
As for how the dead hear--in this particular verse I think we've got a reference to the same kind of set up that Lazarus had, namely, that the living voice of Christ called him/his dead body out of the grave, and the whole Lazarus, body and soul united, responded. (Heard a great joke about this once, suggesting that Jesus had to say "Lazarus, come out"--because if he hadn't used the guy's name, everybody in that graveyard would have responded!) [Big Grin]

Anyway, this scenario was repeated several times in Jesus' earthly ministry that we know of (Lazarus, Jairus' daughter, the young man of Nain) and doubtless many times we don't know of. It is a kind of foretaste of the Last Day when the Lord returns "with all his holy ones" and everyone has body and soul reunited, this time forever. I love Donne's description:

quote:
At the round earth's imagined corners blow
Your trumpets, angels, and arise, arise
From death, you numberless infinities
Of souls, and to your scattered bodies go ...

It's worth remembering that just as he created everything through the power of his word ("Let there be...") so we are getting the same thing in this new re-creation. "Hearing the voice of the Son of God" through whom all things were made is sufficient to reconstitute creation as it should be. Even inanimate matter runs to obey him!
Indeed and perhaps my favourite poem. The explosion of energy, reciting the newly discovered sperical Earth, the tautology of "numberles infinities".... I could go on for several hours.

I have always understood the passage to mean that those who have been spiritually dead shall hear the Word and thereby become living. The idea that it simply refers to those who are physically dead seems too limiting.

[ 19. June 2011, 04:04: Message edited by: Gee D ]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
v25. Very truly I tell you, the hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live.
The obvious question here is how the dead hear -is John talking about their (disembodied?) souls?
I agree with Gee D - I don't see these verses as necessarily having anything to do with physical life and death, or with whether or not our physical ears are still working. If verse 24 has established that those who have passed from death to life are those who hear his word and believe "him who sent me," then it makes sense to me to take "the dead" in verse 25 as referring to those who have not yet passed from death to life, that is, who have not yet heard his word and believed. Furthermore, verse 25 seems to equate that with hearing the voice of the Son of God. Verses 28 and 29, though, seem to equate hearing the voice of the Son of Man with judgment, which determines between the resurrection of life and the resurrection of condemnation.

The picture I get from this is that the Son's incarnation as a human was for the purpose of bringing God's word to "the dead" (i.e. sinners and the unrighteous) in way that would allow them to hear and repent. As a human, he could approach mankind and be approached, and his words were an invitation to life offered to everyone. How people hear him seems to depend (according to verse 29) on whether they have done good or evil. Those who have done good hear his voice as being that of the Son of God, so they believe and have life, while those who have done evil hear his voice as that of a [mere] human to be rejected and ignored, so they do not believe and remain dead. So I don't see these verses as indicating that anyone merits eternal life as a reward for good works, but rather that one's choices in life determines one's attitude to and belief about Christ's words.

Of course, I would think that since it fits with Swedenborgian doctrine.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So we have one suggestion that Jesus's words are illustrated by the actual physical resurrection of Lazarus and others, and one that the death referred to is more of a spiritual thing and the unbelieving dead need not be regarded as coming out of real graves. And a certain level of consensus that we humans have separable souls. Is that straying into dead horse territory?

I don't wish to set any cats among pigeons here. Have I understood the above roughly correctly? And are there any other interpretations (orthodox or otherwise) of this passage (leaving aside total scepticism)?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Um, well, the two are somewhat combinable. I mean, I do think the primary reference is to the general resurrection at the end of the world. But there's a secondary ref I think to the spiritually dead hearing the voice of Christ and living. And I suppose one could argue over which reference was primary and which secondary. (I've got it this way around because Jesus is using the future tense, and the spiritually dead thing seems to have been happening then already)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Nothing to say for now, but somebody has to write reply number 666. [Devil] OK fellas. you're safe now...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Oh drat. [whine, sulk]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:

quote:
v26. For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son to have life in himself; 27 and he has given him authority to execute judgment, becaause he is the Son of Man.
Because he is the Son of Man - not because he is the Son of God. Don't geddit.
The shift between sons is interesting: why associate the act of judging with a son of man, but link other Godly functions with the Son of God (assuming all the references to 'Son' in vv.19-24 are to Son of God, on the basis of v 18 = “...not only was Jesus working on his day off, but he was calling God his 'father,' which put him on a par with him.”)

Thus far John has used the 'son of man' phrase in association with a someone who had access to God's presence (1:51 = “...you shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending on the son of man” and 3:13f = “No-one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven— the son of man. ... Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the son of man must be lifted up...”). The connotation with Daniel 7 seems reasonably clear.
quote:
Dan.7:13-14
In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshipped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.

In both books this son of man accesses God, and in both the context is of a courtroom at judgment time.

It's strange, though, the juxtaposition between this popping-into-heaven-for-a-moment-earthly-type-figure and the functional-equivalent-of-the-Father-godly-type-figure. Or at least it must have sounded strange to the Jewish theologians and that could be why they were amazed to the point of harassment.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, Nigel. Would the ordinary man in the street in John's day have picked up the Daniel reference, I wonder. Not that it matters. The gospel addresses itself to a wide variety of readers snd hearers - sometimes giving us simple, but very emotionally charged pictures, at others "getting theological" and at others quite "difficult" poetry.

I have tried to follow up the interesting replies to my query on the body/soul duality issue by referring to other threads. IngoB was useful up to a point, but not having the brain of a neuro scientist I think I must be content with the fact that a some form of duality, though understanding of it has changed through the centuries, is still a christian "given".
It's hard to square any idea of personal resurrection without it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I have tried to follow up the interesting replies to my query on the body/soul duality issue by referring to other threads. IngoB was useful up to a point, but not having the brain of a neuro scientist I think I must be content with the fact that a some form of duality, though understanding of it has changed through the centuries, is still a christian "given".
It's hard to square any idea of personal resurrection without it.

I've got a little hypothesis about the soul! It doesn't exist.

Well that needs explaining...

I think, from reading the thrust of the Jewish Scriptures, that the concept of 'soul' we western types are familiar with (heavily Platonic) was alien to the Jewish theologians who put together the Hebrew/Aramaic bible. They may have been aware of the version of 'soul' being worked up in some of the Greek states, but they worked with a different concept. Following on from that, as the NT is so heavily linked to those Jewish writings, I see that same Jewish understanding reflected in the Greek NT.

I know that some Jews wrote texts that attempted to work with Plato on his project (Philo being an example), but this interaction is found in the diaspora; it seems that Jerusalem theology remained steadfastly and biologically integrated, rather than dualistic.

This has led me to think that perhaps bible translators would be better off avoiding the use of the English word 'soul' and finding alternatives that don't fall so readily foul of western readers' ability to read Platonism into the bible at every available opportunity.

Of course none of this helps immediately to answer your question raised earlier:-
quote:
quote:
v25. Very truly I tell you, the hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live.
The obvious question here is how the dead hear -is John talking about their (disembodied?) souls?
John, of course, is the author who uses the most Greek of Greek terms in the Gospel, yet when he uses the word traditionally translated by 'soul' (psyche), it is predominately used to refer to sacrificing one's life to save another. Soul for John is the entire life - bar nothing - rather than a segmented eternal spark.

John doesn't spell out what he thinks happens to believers (Jewish or Christian) who died. We probably have to go to Paul for something slightly more defined. However, if we strip out the Platonic overtones from John and assume his roots to be in the Jewish Scriptures, then possibly he assumed (and assumed his readers assumed) that when a faithful believer dies, he or she enters a state where the whole life - a form of body included - awaits something. Judgment? Vindication? Recreation? This bit is vague, but whatever it is, it doesn't read like an eternal ethereal godly spark sunning it on one of heaven's beaches, or even floating blissfully on clouds twanging harpishly. The state, whatever it is, seems best summed up in Paul's word: asleep. I think this is more than a mere euphemism for 'death.' To be consistent with Jewish thought on this subject, I suspect Paul genuinely thought of the dead as being asleep, awaiting the call to awake. This might underlie John's expression in v.25 - the dead will hear the voice...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thanks, Nigel. Would the ordinary man in the street in John's day have picked up the Daniel reference, I wonder.

Yes.

It was an age of self-proclaimed Messiahs, and that particular title and reference were very clearly Messianic. The average guy in the street would probably have just about as much familiarity with the Son of Man as your average American evangelical does with the words "Left Behind." The concept is "in the air," it's everywhere.

Though in this particular case of Jesus using it I think for once he's referencing the human connection as opposed to the divine Messianic one. From the way the argument unfolds, I mean.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The argument continues, under the curious subtitle (in NRSV) of Witnesses to Jesus:

[quote]"I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge; and my judgment is just, because I seek to do not my own will but the will of him who sent me..."[quote] [John 5:30]

So begins the development of his point, with a repetition of much that has been said in the previous dozen verses. It starts with self-justification. It will be Jesus at his most confrontational.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It is indeed. A major turning point in John, where those who follow Christ around need to get off the fence and decide whether they are only in it for the moment, or whether it's a case of "Lord, to whom shall we go? You [and no one else] have the words of eternal life."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That sounds like the pitch for today's christians - and perhaps also for the readers of John. But Jesus doesn't sound like he's looking for converts here. He's beginning a finely tuned rant against those (Jews) who have accused him of blasphemy and are conspiring to kill him.

Hmm, looking ahead, Jesus does want his hearer's to be saved. But there's more stick than carrot. A bit at a time though. The passage was marked "witnesses to Jesus". These are not just human witnesses. But the big human one comes first:

quote:
"If I testify to myself, my testimony is not true. There is another who testifies on my behalf, and I know that his testimony to me is true. You sent messengers to John, and he testified to the truth..."
[John5:31-33]

I found the first sentence wierd but I'm sure it's an idea lost in translation. "If I blow my own trumpet, I must be lying" is not, I think, what he is saying, but something rather more like "If I write my own glove-puppet testimonial, it's worthless." Assuming that he knew the language we'd be using a millenium later... [Biased]

I had always assumed that the people who quizzed John the Baptist must have been the latter's followers. Maybe, maybe not. Perhaps a particular clique among John's gang - we'll see.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
That sounds like the pitch for today's christians - and perhaps also for the readers of John. But Jesus doesn't sound like he's looking for converts here. He's beginning a finely tuned rant against those (Jews) who have accused him of blasphemy and are conspiring to kill him.

Hmm, looking ahead, Jesus does want his hearer's to be saved. But there's more stick than carrot. A bit at a time though. The passage was marked "witnesses to Jesus". These are not just human witnesses. But the big human one comes first:

quote:
"If I testify to myself, my testimony is not true. There is another who testifies on my behalf, and I know that his testimony to me is true. You sent messengers to John, and he testified to the truth..."
[John5:31-33]

I found the first sentence wierd but I'm sure it's an idea lost in translation. "If I blow my own trumpet, I must be lying" is not, I think, what he is saying, but something rather more like "If I write my own glove-puppet testimonial, it's worthless." Assuming that he knew the language we'd be using a millenium later... [Biased]

I had always assumed that the people who quizzed John the Baptist must have been the latter's followers. Maybe, maybe not. Perhaps a particular clique among John's gang - we'll see.

I'm not too fussed about whatever heading the ordinary human editors of a Bible translation chose to stick over the section, honestly. I've been involved in a Bible editing project myself, take that stuff with a truckful of salt.

But as for Jesus not aiming at converts--

I agree with you on that. I think what's happened here is he's turned the corner in his ministry, so to speak, and is now looking ahead to the cross. It's been relatively easy flying so far, for Jesus and for his followers; but things are about to come to a much sharper choice. The road is getting narrower, the tight gate is coming into sight. Time to decide if you're in it for the long haul or not. If I'm right, this chapter serves much the same purpose as Peter's confession of faith and Jesus' immediate reply about the cross. It's as if he said, "Okay, the introductory part of this course is over. Now we're getting to the tough stuff, and if you want to bail out, your withdrawal form must be filed with the registrar's office by Monday." At which point half the composition class disappears. [Razz]

That's all I was trying to say.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'm intrigued by Jesus' basic defence in this section: If my Dad does it, then I must do it (or am permitted to do it).

Now that seems quite in line with the thinking that emerges in the Jewish bible where created humans are authorised to act as God's image – his representative at all times, and where the Father-Son relationship reflects ancient near eastern covenant functions. It also seems to be in line with messianic and (some) Son of Man themes. I must be obedient to God.

Despite this overarching scheme, however, the question that sprang to my mind during this section was: Where did Jesus get the idea from that 'working' on the Sabbath was a legitimate act? Was it purely a new God-given authority or did it already lie in the Scriptures somewhere?

The question is informed partly by the Leviticus thread, where not so subtle injunctions are a-plenty concerning work on the Sabbath. The message to Israel as a people at Mt Sinai was that the Sabbath was a day of absolute rest, something holy/sacred and completely different to the nations round about. No work. Lev. 23:3 is a prime example:-
quote:
NET Bible
Six days work may be done, but on the seventh day there must be a Sabbath of complete rest, a holy assembly. You must not do any work; it is a Sabbath to the Lord in all the places where you live.

The Greek translations use the noun ergon for 'work' and John's Gospel uses the verbal form ergazomai. On the face of it this is in direct conflict with the Sinai Law and the Jews in John 5 certainly took it this way.

Some possible answers:-
[1] The Jews' concern was less over a healing than with the carrying of a mat (John 5:10), something that could be allocated to the realm of 'quibble.' However, Jesus did not deal with this issue, his response is about work generally. Further, the Jews in 5:16 were confrontational not about mats, but about 'these things,' which implies a number of Sabbath-breaking acts of which 5:1-9 was just one example.

[2] Jesus was distinguishing between healing acts and the more general 'work' prohibition. I.e., he was saying that God never intended healing to be considered a prohibited act for the Sabbath. However, he does very clearly say that the Father works on the Sabbath (John 5:17). There does not seem to be any wiggle room between this statement and the motivation for non-work on the Sabbath – that God ceased from work and therefore so should his people.

[3] Jesus was abrogating Sabbath. Strong stuff. To say this is to undermine the very words of the Torah and if that goes, it risks contradiction: God doesn't do what he says – he says “Don't work” but then works. Unless, of course, Jesus was using a technique recorded in other Gospels – that of referring back to pre-Sinai conditions to find principles that trump the rules given to Israel at Sinai (“It was not like that from the beginning”).

Option [3] might be the more consistent, where it not for the fact that Gen 2:2-3 makes very clear links between God's ceasing and making the day different:-
quote:
Gen. 2:2-3 NET Bible
By the seventh day God finished the work that he had been doing, and he ceased [Heb = shabbat] on the seventh day all the work that he had been doing. God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because on it he ceased all the work that he had been doing in creation.

Against this Jesus argues “My Father has been working right up to now...”

I know there were debates within Judaism about the nature of God's ceasing work in creation (Did he stop for one day or cease creative work from then on? If the latter, how was it that some people die on the Sabbath, an indication that God was at work? Also how would God sustain the world on a day-today basis if he was not working?). Perhaps what Jesus was doing was to distinguish between ceasing the work of initial creation, and the sustaining type of work, which included healing. It still rather jars with the theme of ceasing from work every seven days, though. I'm not sure whether John is here bringing to the forefront a growing divide between Jewish and Christian practices, or whether this was a reflection of Jesus' understanding of how God worked, based on the Scriptures. If the latter, where did he get it from?!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think that pointing to the growing divide - possibly even within the church, is what Johm may well be doing (cheating here and reading on a bit!) Seems to me that here and in other places John branches out from his main theme of "Believe and be saved" and describes Jesus' words and actions not only for their own (historical) sake but for their relevance to his own troubled times. So, for instance, he alludes somewhere to Jesus' outburst against the Pharisees (I think) in the synoptics: "You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the wrath to come?"

Which begs the question - didn't God send his Son to save the vipers?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
P.S. Nigel, I appreciate your long point about the Sabbath, but I'm leaving it for someone with a bit more biblical nous (I mean a lot more nous generally) to engage with.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
One step back, and two steps forward, so to speak.
quote:
...You sent messengers to John, and he testified to the truth. Not that I accept such human testimony, but I say these things so that you may be saved...
[John 5:33-34]

All the gospels mention the importance of John the Baptist as "the forerunner". And also the fact that Jesus of Nazareth superceded him. It is interesting that John (the evangelist) so long after the event, continues to press the point so forcefully. Were there still J.Bap supporters around in AD 90 or thereabouts?

The phrase "Not that I accept such human testimony" would sound incredibly arrogant in the mouth of anyone other than Jesus, and even then, if he doesn't accept it, why does he point it out?

I think it's probable a Semitism that doesn't translate. It doesn't mean that human testimony is useless (after all. for us, now, what else is there?) but rather that the other, supernatural testimony he is about to refer to, is infinitely more valid (the opening phrase of the American declaration of independence comes to mind...)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
There were certainly J-the-B believers scattered around even what, twenty-thirty years after his death? Because we get passages like Acts 18 and 19, which refer to Apollos, who knew only the message of John until Priscilla and Aquila filled him in on later events; and a group of believers as far afield as Ephesus (!) who had only yet received the baptism of John. So maybe so.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's astonishing. To me. Somehow I got the impression that as soon as Jesus arrived on the scene, John - TB handed over the reins, so to speak, and that was that. Paul speaks of lots of divisions in the church, but I always thought they were between followers of Jesus. It all looks much more complicated now.

What was the essential difference between the two (apart from the small fact that Jesus was God(!) but even that was not universally accepted all at once, I guess)? John preached repentance, so it was all about the sinner's personal salvation. I think that Jesus' message was much broader. So broad that no one evangelist could "get it" all. And I still don't "get" John the evangelists's message entirely. At times it seems very simple, at others, too convoluted for words. I've been reading the early fathers of the church and I think it was Athanasius (among others) who said too much thinking means you're not trying hard enough, paradoxically. [Hot and Hormonal]

[ 19. July 2011, 15:11: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think a lot of it can be accounted for by people who heard JtB's message but weren't in town (so to speak) to hear Jesus' later on. I mean, we're told "all Jerusalem" went out to hear JtB at the Jordan, and if it was near any of the pilgrim festival times, that would include quite a few out-of-towners and even out-of-countryers. That might explain the Ephesian group, then.

I suppose too there were people who stayed with John out of personal loyalty or because they weren't ready for the next step. It would be a bit of a shock after so much ascetism to start following a guy who goes to weddings and dinner parties.

[ 19. July 2011, 23:08: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Smile]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus continues to berate his accusers:

quote:
He [John the Baptist] was a burning and shining lamp, and you [A] were willing to rejoice for a while in his light. 36But I have a testimony greater than John's. The works that the Father has given me to complete, the very works that I am doing, testify on my behalf that the Father has sent me. 37And the Father who sent me has himself testified on my behalf.[B] You [C] have never heard his voice or seen his form, 38and you do not have his word abiding in you, because you do not believe him whom he has sent.
[John5:35-38]

To whom is Jesus talking at [A]? Would JtB's followers have been so virulently opposed to Jesus - even if they hadn't yet switched their full allegiance to him? To what perticular testimony is Jesus referring at [B]?

At [C] it sounds at first like a truism - nobody has seen God. But Jesus point is that it is only his accusers who have not seen him - because of their lack of belief. Belief precedes sight. Blindness (in this context) is self-induced.

I'd really appreciate some help with this one!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:

I'd really appreciate some help with this one!

Wouldn't we all.

I take it that the "you" (plural) who chose to rejoice for a while in John's light is the crowd in general. They followed John around for a while, and now they're following the next Big Thing, Jesus. I don't think he's referring either to the religious leaders (who would have had issues with John too, and certainly would not have rejoiced in his light!) or to JTB's own disciples, because "You chose for a while to rejoice" sounds too casual for the commitment they made to John. Hey, some of them stuck by him to the bitter end (his burial). So I'm pretty sure A is the casually interested crowd.

As for B, that may be a reference either to the whole Old Testament (rife with Messianic prophecies and typology, and certainly held by Jesus to be the very Word of God) or to the divine voice heard by some at Jesus' own baptism (coincidentally, at the hands of John the Baptist!). You know, "This is my beloved Son," etc. It is not clear whether that voice was understood by everyone in earshot--John certainly heard and understood, and Jesus of course. But the crowds, well... we have records of other occasions where the Father spoke and "some said it had thundered." And Paul's lot on the road to Damascus heard the voice but couldn't make out what was said. What made the difference seems to have been openness to faith, at least on the first occasion and maybe the second. The voice at the baptism may have been similar, and would explain C.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
C may perhaps also be Jesus referring to himself? "You (the devout hearers) don't recognise God when you see him standing in front of you!"

These few verses make for an interesting comparison with 1:6-18
quote:
A man came, sent from God, whose name was John. He came as a witness to testify about the light, so that everyone might believe through him. He himself was not the light, but he came to testify about the light. The true light, who gives light to everyone, was coming into the world. He was in the world, and the world was created by him, but the world did not recognize him. He came to what was his own, but his own people did not receive him. ...

We saw his glory – the glory of the one and only, full of grace and truth, who came from the Father. John testified about him and shouted out, “This one was the one about whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is greater than I am, because he existed before me.’” ...

No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known.

All that talk of John, testimony, light, representing God...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'll poke forward with the stick, but happy for anyone to examine wasps from previous nests if they wish...

Having referred to testimony (or witness) from John the Baptist as a backup to his identity with God, Jesus turns to the prickly thorn of 'Scriptures' (the Writings):
quote:
John 5:39-40
You study the scriptures thoroughly because you think in them you possess eternal life, but it is these same scriptures that testify about me, yet you are not willing to come to me so that you may have life.

John doesn't make many direct references to OT passages compared to his Gospel colleagues, but he does pull together quotes and allusions from across the three main divisions of Scripture (Law, Prophets, and Writings). The only reference John uses (thus far) in the Jewish Scriptures to eternal life is in 3:14, a reference to Numbers 21:9, where Moses made a serpent of bronze and put it upon a pole; and whenever a serpent bit someone that person would look at the serpent of bronze and live. John uses this to support the idea of Jesus being lifted up so that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life. Not sure that this is the same reference here in 5:39f. Perhaps John is sweeping up a wider thrust of Scripture here, though it would be interesting to know what Jesus was referring to as support for the 'Son' providing eternal life.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, the whole passage from v30 on seems to be repeating the argument in Chapter 3. [The image of Jesus being lifted up like a snake on a stick is powerfullly poetic].

What disturbs me a bit about both passages is this. What is the bottom line? What is the essential message of the whole passage? Christians (and probably non-Christians too) all remember "God so loved the world..." but they seems to shy away from the context. Because Jesus (or John?) seems not to be offering salvation so much as explaining why some people have missed the boat. I can't imagine many people of any era responding positively to this sort of tirade.

I hope I've misread it.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I hope a postscript helps here. Don't worry too much about my oversensitivity (or ignorance, however you like to see it!) The fact that John's gospel has been abused down the centuries by anti-semitic christians cannot be laid entirely to John's charge.

Modern-day christians, however, need to be aware of the sensitivities of all non-believers, of whatever background.

Nevertheless, the last thing I want to do is derail this thread or usev it as a washing-line for my own hang-ups. I really would appreciate more input from ordinary, orthodox christians.

On a thread like this, silence is not golden - it's threatening! [Ultra confused]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm just not sure I understand what you're after, sorry! So I'm shutting up mainly. Do you mean the bit where Jesus is castigating them for reading the Scriptures, claiming to be God's people, etc. but then not following through by coming to him? Because I can see how that would be offensive. But I think he intended to be.

As Jesus saw it, "The scriptures testify to me." Therefore anyone who was really reading and accepting the message of the Scriptures would come to him in faith. That these folks did not do so Jesus saw as evidence that they'd gone seriously wrong somewhere.

Is that what you meant?

Or were you after a discussion of how, precisely, "the scriptures testify to me"?

Yours fuzzily and sleepily, LC
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
In an attempt to bolster your admirable courage and persistence, pimple, I can offer a few observations:

1) I was surprised to see that the verb translated "possess" in the beginning (verse 39) is the same verb that's translated "have" later (in verse 40). I don't see why the translation referenced would use two different English verbs. As a counter example, the NAS uses "have" for both verbs.

2) The phrase "scriptures that testify about me" brings to mind the road to Emmaus from Luke 24.

3) An important part of the essential message you ask about seems to me to be the idea that scriptures are not an end in themselves. Jesus seems to be saying that his audience has forgotten the original purpose for them to lead readers to life (or love of God as in verse 42) instead of them being life for readers.

What I don't understand is why such talk from Jesus (e.g. "I am the way, the truth, and the life) did not seem to his audience to be blasphemy. I'm sure I'm reading back into the text my post-conceived notions about Jesus being God, but I'd like to understand how his audience would have heard such claims.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for your help. I think they did regard it as blasphemy. But I need to get back to the text to find out exactly where we are again.

In general the passage seemed to me to start with Jesus defending himself against a charge of blasphemy - by working on the sabbath. But the work he does mainly on the sabbath id to perform healing miracles (which ought not to be agin the law - you were allowed to heave your neighbour's ox out of a (?)swamp on the sabbath.

But Jesus then seems to go on the attack (the best means of defence, so why not?) - saying that yes, he behaves as though he was God because he, and not his detractors, the guys fixated on sola scruiptura has seen God, and has come from God.

But they have not only failed to acknowledge this, but lack the ability to recognise it, because God is not in their hearts.

[All a lat-night paraphrase] I don't know why I shouls get so het up about this - it's just putting flesh, so to speak, on the earlier statement that he came to his own, and his own "received him not". It doesn't take Ph.D. to make that sound intransigently anti-semitic.

We'll get on to some happier bits in time.

[ 03. August 2011, 20:41: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Meh, it clear from elsewhere in John that SOME of his "own" (if you're defining that as the Jews) did receive him. And to muddle things further, he says "All those the Father gives me will come to me..." and "Other sheep I have, not of this fold..." so "his own" can be given a much greater range. No need to fuss about anti-semitism here, the charge can also be anti-humanity--or in a much narrower sense, anti-religious people.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Or just anti those who didn't buy in to John's (new, higher?) christology? Perhaps his vision was wide, but his churchmanship narrow? Or perhaps I'm too greatly influenced by modern sectarianism. Either way, you're right, LC. No need to fuss. Back later.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Picking up on W Hyatt's query about blasphemy and the attitude taken by those labelled 'the Jews' in this chapter, and also on pimple's point that John's language seems pretty provocative, I re-read the chapters up to this point again, wondering what reaction would have been expected of a first reader/hearer. Tricky, I know; there's been plenty of debate on who the intended audience would have been. Still, taking a bit of editorial licence with a pinch of salt, I'm opting for a reasonably typical first century follower of Jesus, seeking to know God and his will, familiar to only a general extent with the geography and customs of Israel though not necessarily based there, a disciple on the way and relying on the information passed on to him/her by teachers with greater knowledge of Jesus. So, a middle-of-the-pew dweller.

Thus far John (the author, not the Baptist) has referred to Jews from Jerusalem (1:19, oi Ioudaioi ex Ierosolumon = οἱ Ἰουδαιοι ἐξ Ἱεροσολυμων), who must be in a position of authority because they are able to dispatch learned practitioners of the faith off to remote parts to test and debate with those who make faith claims. Nothing remarkable in this, I would think; 'testing the spirits' would be an essential requirement for any spiritual leader. This accounts, I think, for the emphasis on testimony (witness) in the Gospel and the crucial and telling questions put to John (the Baptist, not the author) by the examiners: “Who are you?...What do you say concerning yourself?” (1:22).

From the middle of the pew, having reached chapter 5, the only reference to 'Jews' that I will have read/heard up to this point is that of those who lead on defining orthodoxy in Jerusalem. In particular the references have been loaded with temple associations. Pharisees have been mentioned separately, but 'the Jews' are those from Jerusalem in 1:19 sending priests and Levites, those associated with ritual in 2:6 and 3:25, those holding feasts in Jerusalem (note “The Passover of the Jews” in 2:13, rather than just simply “The Passover”), those reacting angrily to Jesus' clearing of the temple in 2:15-20, those who insist that the only valid worship is that which take place in Jerusalem (4:20), and those who hold a particular feast in Jerusalem (5:1). My assumption as a reader, then, is that these 'Jews' John has been talking about are the religious leaders based in the temple in Jerusalem. These were the ones who carried the heavy burden of being the shepherds of the flock in the absence of a king, minders of God's people, protectors of the faith and truth. This would explain, I think, the significance of the reference to them focussing on the Scriptures in 5:39. The Temple would have been not just the place for sacrifice and worship, but also the library and central seminary for the copy, study and dissemination of those writings.

So when I get to 5:31 I have in mind these religious and political leaders who are asking of Jesus the “Who are you?...What do you say concerning yourself?” questions. Jesus' response is to bat away this first person focus with the “What's the point of being a witness to myself? That's not valid”(5:31). Instead he (or John the author) refers back to the Baptist's witness and then God's witness. It seems that the crux of the Jews' concern according to the author is whether there was a Messiah in town. I get this from the Baptist's response to the questions in 1:19ff. He responds first of all with a reference to this Messiah figure. Cheating a bit as a reader, I know, but later on at Jesus' trial the issue for the Jews was that Jesus was making himself out to be God's anointed (his Son – the messiah figure).

If this is a valid reading, then 5:16-18 is all about who could legislate on belief and practice in Israel. The 'Jews' were the kings-in-absence for Israel: the ruling elite, teachers and guardians of lifestyles. Any claimant to the position of an anointed one was a direct challenge to leadership – a new king (kings were anointed). The Baptist had removed himself from that scene by denying he was a messiah. Jesus, on the other hand, was making indirect claims on the basis of what he did and taught. The issue, then, about blasphemy may not have arisen quite so directly in John's Gospel at this stage. The real issue may have been more about politics; Jesus had to be harassed by the Temple Jewish leaders with a view to being killed (5:16-18) because he was making himself a higher authority than those leaders. This is how I would understand the connotation of the phrase in 5:18 usually translated “...making himself equal with God.” The leaders were only shepherds.

Moving on to the language used in the Gospel, I suspect that the first reader/hearer would be well aware of the nature of debate and dialogue appropriate to the time. What we, in our less enlightened time, might regard as barbed and worthy of an apology if uttered on the Ship or in church (and I am surprised at the number of times I see righteous indignation in both fora at someone's use of rhetorical language, when said language use may be a cultural thing) may not have raised an eyebrow in context. Open debate was the norm, using whatever rhetorical devices were culturally acceptable. We are reading a series of debates in John – we have to imagine the accompanying gesticulations. The first reader may well have been caught up in the flow: “Aha! Yes! Good point! How do you answer that, eh?”

Probably helps to picture the give and take in John's record as taking place more in an Afghan market town than Plato's Academy. Or even more than taking place in a pulpit (unless in a church where the middle-of-the-pew are able to leap up and bellow "Amen! What answer is there to that!!!").
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ah yes, robust debate in the Middle East even now is hardly the stuff Mrs. Speaker would condone! And sometimes what seems like "You're talking rubbish man!" is in fact taken by the recipient as no more intense than "No, you still haven't got the point, old chap".

The quasi-political leaders Jesus had to contend with would have had no temple to operate from when the last gospel was finally written, so I suspect that John is also concerned about those who want to have their cake and eat it, the new gospel and the old traditions, even more precious when so much that was familiar to them must have been either destroyed or under threat.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Just to clarify that last point. I'm not suggesting John put ideas into Jesus' head (even though every dramatist puts words into the "actors" mouths), but that John's choice of Jesus' sayings/actions was probably influenced by contemporary concerns.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Taking Nigel's point about rhetoric makes the next few verses more digestible!
quote:
"....I do not accept glory from human beings. But I know that you do not have the love of God in you. I have come in my Father's name, and you do not accept me; if another comes in his own name, you will accept him."
[John 5:41-43]
Which, one might think, is a reasonable response from a sensible human being! But Jesus demands something more than a reasonable response. Or something different.

[ 06. August 2011, 04:20: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
"I know that you do not have the love of God in you."

"You are not far from the kingdom of heaven."

Words from the same mouth. Or are they? (I hear what you're saying Nigel, honestly! But honestly!)

[ 07. August 2011, 12:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, he (John/Jesus) has pretty much devastated the image of the Jewish leaders to date, hasn't he? They don't have God's word (v.38), they don't have life (v.40), and now they don't have God's love. He has rejected their acceptance of an individual’s self-testimony, which pretty much undercuts their authority by suggesting that they flit from leader to leader as and when they arise without checking their credentials properly: these Jewish leaders “chose to enjoy [John the Baptist's] light for a time” (v.35). These leaders sound a bit like Marie Celeste in search of a permanent harbour.

I've been wondering a bit about the translation in these verses:

“I don't receive/accept (lambano = λαμβανο) glory/honour/praise (doxa = δοξα) from people.” I assume this is a reference to people's testimony about one, so “I don't go on what others say about me” might be a good translation in this context, perhaps specifically as a reference to the Baptist's testimony and Jesus' point that he has a testimony of greater import than that given by John (v.26)

“I know that you do not have the love (agape = αγαπη) of God in you.” This is the first time John has played the 'love' card and I know that word is notorious as a translation. In English, 'love' is far too loose and semantically wide to be of use nowadays in translation work. Again, in the context of testimony and which type of testimony is really valid, this phrase might better mean “I'm fully aware that you [the Jewish leaders] don't even have God's testimony on your own behalf.” This would take agape virtually synonymous with doxa in this context.

And then we get “I, on the other hand, have been authorised by God to act on his behalf, yet you don't accept this. Strange; because you'll go along with any old so-called leader who authorises himself.”

The “not far from the kingdom of God” saying (Mark 12:34) is perhaps better seen as Jesus' response to one of the leaders who (against the grain, it seems) really was wise. Jesus' more standard response in Mark , similar to what we've been seeing in John, tends to be along these lines...
quote:
Mark 5:5-7 (NET Bible)
The Pharisees and the experts in the law asked him, “Why do your disciples not live according to the tradition of the elders, but eat with unwashed hands?” He said to them, “Isaiah prophesied correctly about you hypocrites, as it is written:
‘This people honors me with their lips,
but their heart is far from me.
They worship me in vain,
teaching as doctrine the commandments of men.”

Hypocrites, eh? He's such a josher!

quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The quasi-political leaders Jesus had to contend with would have had no temple to operate from when the last gospel was finally written, so I suspect that John is also concerned about those who want to have their cake and eat it, the new gospel and the old traditions, even more precious when so much that was familiar to them must have been either destroyed or under threat.

Thanks for that thought; I've often wondered why John would bother to focus so much on Temple and ritual if his work had been distributed post-AD70. I know he doesn't bother mentioning the Sadducees as a grouping and they (if Josephus is correct) drop out of view with the destruction of the temple, yet temple as a theme is still up there quite prominently in John.

John actually seems more friendly towards the Pharisees as a group than he does the ruling elite in Jerusalem. I wonder if some of the middle-of-the-pew readers were ex-Pharisees, or ex-Sanhedrin members? Another scrap of paper to pin on the pending file.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you for all of that. My memory was faulty over the "You are not far from the KoG" quote - the "wise" scribe was mirroring what Jesus had already said. Jesus commended him not so much for sucking up to him, but for being a good listener, I reckon.

But a sage scribe was too much for Matthew and he's not mentioned in the first (i.e. second) gospel. Perhaps in many places the scribes and pharisees were convenient hooks to hang criticism of society on. Because they had the privileges, theirs was the greater responsibility for any gross moral failures.
After all, the old prophets went straight for the jugulars of a king or two!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The next few verses [John5:44-47] - text to follow - bring the story of Dives and Lazarus to mind. But I've run out of time looking up the references, and have to go to work. Back later.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
There are references to Moses throughout all four gospels and in many of the epistles. There are more in John than in the synoptics, perhaps emphasising the increasing gap between the gentile church and its Jewish protagonists.

The earlier references seem to point to Moses as an authority, a prophet of the Messiah to come; later affiliations, or appeals to the authority of Moses are almost scorned as - what? futile? hypocritical?

quote:
How can you believe when you accept glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the one who alone is God? Do not think that I will accuse you before the Father; your accuser is Moses, on whom you set your hopes. If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me. But if you do not believe what he wrote how will you believe what I say?"
[John5:44-47]

It's that last question that calls to mind the parable of Dives and Lazarus in Luke. A suffering man in Hades, seeing one he has abused happy in the bosom of Abraham, appeals for clemency, if not for himself, for his five brothers still alive. "Warn them, he asks, so they don't come to torment too."

quote:
Abraham replied "They have Moses and the prophets. They should listen to them." He said, "No, father Abraham; but if someone goes to them from the dead, they will repent". He said to him, 'If they do not listen to Moses and the prophets, neither will they be convinced even if someone rise from the dead'.
[Luke:19 29-31]

There has been some shift of emphasis in the time between the two gospels, I think, but I can't quite put my finger on how

FWIW I think the Lucan parable works better for modern readers. I'm not sure now that in the passage from John above, we are hearing the complete works, so to speak. We don't know which Mosaic prophecy Jesus is referring to, or who the glory-mongers are that Jesus (or John) seems to feel threatened by. I get the impression we are hearing one side only of a very interesting conversation. It's a bit like having a view of only one side of the net in a tennis match.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The link with rich man and Lazarus (Luke 16) passage is interesting. There may be a further link in subject matter, too, if Jesus in John's gospel passage is still talking about how the serpent lifted up in the wilderness is symbolic of Jesus' death/rising from the dead. Perhaps the Jesus is criticising his harassers because they follow Moses, yet fail to believe that Moses' serpent episode could mean resurrection. Then Luke 16 is on similar ground: there are some who wouldn't recognise a resurrection when it happened, because they had become fixated on a particular interpretation of Moses.

I think you're right that yer typical modern reader (well, perhaps those immersed in the grouping called the 'West') will find it hard to figure out how Moses lifting a serpent image in a desert could in any way be taken to figure a bodily resurrection of someone.

I suppose Jesus is referring to the desert episode (Israelites had been naughty, God sent snakes to bite them so they decided naughtiness was not a good policy and wanted to be forgiven, so God tells Moses to put up a snake statue for them to look at and be healed) as a reference to his being the focus of his generation's forgiveness for their little naughtinesses. Not something that makes obvious reading. Why a snake, for instance?! This would be so much more simpler if Moses had been told to lift up a statue of a lamb!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Many thanks for taking a little time off from genocide, Nigel! [Devil]

I'M currently ensconced in my local library - the only boarding point for me at the moment as my computer is totally x4'@x*%4! and has been recycled. And I don't know where they keep their bibles here.

However, we are about to look at two closely linked parables, or "signs". Another shippie recently pointed out that the seven signs in John's gospel link to the seven "I am|" sayings.
The first, obviously is "I am the true vine..." and links to the wedding at Cana. The last one is "I am the resurrecetion and the life."

But I get a bit lost in the middle. Could some kind person please tabulate them for us, showing which goes with what - the background would help, I think - and I'm running out of time already. But it would be nice to come back and find we are all singing from the same, er, cliché
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The seven signs appear to be the following, but John doesn't tag them all with the label 'sign':-

[1] Turning water into wine (2:1-12)
[2] Healing the royal official's son (4:46-54)
[3] Healing a paralytic at Bethesda (5:1-14)
[4] Feeding 5,000 (6:1-15)
[5] Walking on water (6:16-21)
[6] Healing a man born blind (9:1-12)
[7] Raising of Lazarus (11:1-44)

There are seven “I Am” sayings, not exactly in concert with the above signs:-
[1] “I am the bread of life” (6:35)
[2] “I am the light of the world” (8:12)
[3] “Before Abraham was, I AM” (8:58)
[4] “I am the good shepherd” (10:11)
[5] “I am the resurrection and the life” (11:25)
[6] “I am the way, the truth, and the life” (14:6)
[7] “I am the true vine” (15:1)

I guess they would need reordering to make a fit with each other, but I wonder if this was what John intended? It might require a bit of a push to get them all to fit. Interesting exercise, though!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you. Things are never quite as simple as you want, are they?

We're beginning, if you all agree, Chapter 6.
quote:
After this, Jesus went to the other side of the Sea of Galilee, also called the Sea of Tiberias. A large crowd kept following him, because they saw the signs that he was doing for the sick.
[John6;1-2]

Not something Jesus really wanted? Or did he? John is meticulous in his scene setting in this chapter. We'll see why later!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Why a snake, for instance?! This would be so much more simpler if Moses had been told to lift up a statue of a lamb!

The snake thingy has to do with "God made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God." 2 Corinthians 5:21)

Also a little with "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, "Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree"... (Galatians 3:13).

The point of the bronze snake was that it WAS a snake, at least in form. And snakes traditionally stand for evil, and people are afraid of them for bringing death. But the bronze snake was different; though it looked like a snake, it gave life, not death. And of course it was "lifted up" just as Christ was on the cross... And anyone who simply looked at it, trusting God's promise, would live. Shades of salvation by grace, through faith...

Sorry to tangent, but you did ask!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Another tangent, I'm afraid. As well as the serpent who is going to bruise our heels ever since the Fall, snakes also have a long history as symbols of wisdom and healing. Is there no likelihood at all that this would have meant anything to the early church?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Sorry to tangent, but you did ask!

Teach me to read the NT without having the NT in mind, eh?!

I don't suppose we can know at the moment whether Moses and his troupe had in mind the Rod of Asclepius when he hoisted the bronze snake in the wilderness (Numbers 21), or even if Jesus and the other NT writers were aware of that symbolism. They may have been drawing on the concept of snake as curse.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Another tangent, I'm afraid. As well as the serpent who is going to bruise our heels ever since the Fall, snakes also have a long history as symbols of wisdom and healing. Is there no likelihood at all that this would have meant anything to the early church?

Someone hostly is probably going to come along and rap me on the nose, but I'll tangent a little further with thee, my dear...

Yes, the Hebrews and all their spiritual descendants were aware from the beginning of the association of the serpent with a) wisdom and b) death/evil. It's right there in the garden of Eden, where the snake is tempting them with the knowledge of good and evil. It's also there in the New Testament (har har) where Paul speaks of Christ crucified, the wisdom of God.

quote:
1 Corinthians 1:22-25: For Jews demand signs and Greeks seek wisdom, but we preach Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles, but to those who are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God. For the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of God is stronger than men.


The harping on wisdom, Christ crucified, and the Greeks, all in this one chapter, irresistably brings to mind the snake on a pole/Christ on the cross thingy for me. After all, nobody has ever considered the devil stupid, except in the eternal sense. But that's the most important sense. And because he's lacking it, the "real" snake has now been replaced by the healing Snake, our Lord Jesus himself. He is the true wisdom and true healing from God.

You'll notice this pattern elsewhere in the Scriptures as will. Periodically Jesus pops up to claim a title or symbol or image that once belonged to Satan. Essentially he is acting as King, taking back the former possessions of a traitor noble. So now it is Jesus who is the Light of the world, not the once-so-called "Lucifer" (=light-bearer); it is Jesus who is now the bright and morning star (Rev. 22). He is the true healing and wisdom represented by the snake crucified. And he is also the fulfillment of the Eastern dragon, which is more or less the same symbol as the snake--only with the emphasis placed on wisdom and life everlasting. (Which is why one of my embroidery projects is a stole which shows, not the snake on a cross, but a dragon on one--because our congregation is Asian and will get the symbolism.)

[ 10. September 2011, 14:36: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Back to John! Jesus has crossed the Sea of Galilee (or gone round to the other side - a longish walk?) but we are not told why.

Perhaps to get away from the crowds who are following him? Who seem not to be interested in healing per se but in the sensational way
in which the "signs" - AKA miracles - were performed.

Media circuses may be something new, but circuses are not modern phenomena, and the attraction of the sensational is timeless.

Is this why Jesus goes up in the hills to speak to his disciples (Sorry, we haven't got there yet. Could someone post the next verse and answer the question, please?)

[ 16. September 2011, 13:50: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Here we go!
quote:
John 6:3-4
So Jesus went on up the mountainside and sat down there with his disciples. Now the Jewish feast of the Passover was near.

A gap of time, it seems, after chapter 5. It will be interesting to see if the deliberate mention of the next Passover has any bearing on the understanding of what follows.

John doesn't say why Jesus popped over to the hilly country above Galilee's Sea, but perhaps he was avoiding further confrontation with the pesky preachers from Jerusalem. Perhaps also, getting ready for the Feast? And from John's point of view, setting the scene for another sign.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
not to mention cranking up the tension - his readers all knew what happened round about the time of the passover....

Mountains and hills have always been associated with gods and holy men, of course. A natural place to "get away from it all", or to commune with the deity, or with one's innermost hopes and fears.

Every time Jesus goes up a mountain we think of Moses, of Elijah (perhaps not as immediately as a Jew would). Whatever the reason he went there, it's an important place, and something significant is about to happen. Watch this space!
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
As usual John's place and timing is staged to meet his (John's) purposes. His prior chapters have focused on the "signs" that prove Jesus' credibility. Now he (John and Jesus) want to make his words credible.

The 'time of the Passover was near' is setting the importance for this climatic moment of Jesus' ministry.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
when he looked up and saw a large crowd coming towards him, Jesus said to Philip, 'Where are we to buy bread for the people to eat?
This is a pretty astonishing response to the crowd's approach. Clearly it would not be incumbent on Jesus and his followers to feed the multitude, however long you stretch the laws on hospitality! Yet their very basic needs seem to be his first concern.

What troubles me here is that, in a sense, that is the opposite of, or a distortion of, the truth.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I dunno, it seems pretty sensible to me. You've got a huge crowd of people, many of whom have doubtless walked AROUND the Sea of Galilee to catch up with him, others who are toting sick and paralyzed people along in the hopes of a healing... and the man has just gone up a mountain to boot, and they are apparently still following him!--which means that these are people who are most likely a) tired and hungry, b) crotchety, and c) unlikely to give up and go home anytime soon, at least not without getting what they came for--which will take hours, even days, to give them all.

Food is a good idea. Soothe the cranky beast and all that.

quote:
What troubles me here is that, in a sense, that is the opposite of, or a distortion of, the truth.
I'm not sure why, really. Jesus is a teacher, and the text says explicitly that he was asking this to "test" Philip--so it's artificial in the same sense in which I say to my son, "Now what is zero minus three?" The question is designed to provoke thought, not to elicit an answer that will help the questioner. He knows what he's going to do already.

Which makes me wonder, what should Philip have said to pass that test? I mean, he gives the startled deer-in-the-headlights reply that anybody would give. I doubt Jesus expected better, but it's fun to think about what Philip COULD have said to rock Him back on His heels. [Big Grin]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, LC, you've got to the nub of the matter, as usual!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry that got sent too quickly.
quote:
He said this to test him, because he knew, himself, what he was about to do
[John 6:6]
What he was about to do was conjure, virtually out of thin air, enough food to feed a large crowd of people. So there was no question of any concern about the people's hunger, or how to assuage it.

It's a cross-pond thing you know. In England, self-deprecation and understatement are nearer to godliness than cleanliness is. While blowing your own trumpet just isn't done, you know.

Americans cannot understand this. For a Brit, it would be all right for Jesus to say "I'm bout to show you how wonderful God is." But to say "I'm about to demonstrate that I'm God, actually" is, to say the least, somewhat infra dig.

Don't worry, I'll get over it! [Big Grin]

[ 22. September 2011, 15:04: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Killing me]

But I'm not so sure that the point of that miracle was, "Hey Ma, look at me, I'm God!" I mean, it can be used that way (since it is a small close-up recapitulation of God providing manna in the wilderness, and even more so, multiplying "bread" in every harvest since farming began). So you could certainly use the thing as a "sign" of who Jesus is.

On the other hand, possibly for the sake of your then-future British self-deprecation, [Biased] he declines to simply create bread out of nothing, and gives a little boy and his lunch a starring role instead; then he gets the disciples to hand it out [see parallel passages; in this one John glosses over the actual instrumentation, though a moment's thought is enough to show anybody that Jesus couldn't have done the distribution singlehandedly, though he was behind it all*]. As the miraculous bit seems to have been taking place literally within the disciples' own hands, every time they broke off a piece and still had plenty left, well... perhaps we can acquit Jesus of grandstanding. [Razz]

*
We do this kind of thing in speech all the time, e.g. "Mary got me a book" when in fact she ordered the thing over the Internet, it was packed by strangers and delivered by the postman, and Mary herself never laid eyes on it. She is the causative agent, though others are the instruments.

** and, in fact, if Jesus HAD been handing bread out with his own two hands, they would have been grabbed soon enough while Aunt Edith tried to get him to cure Uncle Monty.

[ 22. September 2011, 21:34: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Nah, not grandstanding. But John does indicate that Jesus knew exactly what was about to happen. It's a very small point, but even if he boasts to himself, it's still boasting! There's no "thy will be done" here is there? Oh, all right, I guess we don't know that. We don't have John's telepathic skills.

I'm away for a bit, so if someone would like to keep the story moving...?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Boasting? I dunno, if you KNOW you can do something, and equally well you know it's God's will (because you've been doing it for yonks now, and he's never said no once), ...

I'd be more disturbed if he'd looked up to heaven and said "if it be thy will?". It would be sort of like my son asking permission to get a glass of water. Hello, you've done it how many times before, you're asking me now why?...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
ok. Back one and forward two, for the convenience of those who don't have a bible handy:
quote:
When he looked up and saw a large crowd coming towards him, Jesus said to Philip, "Where are we to buy bread for these people to eat?" He said this to test him, for he himself knew what he was going to do. Philip answered him, "Six months' wages [Gk. 200 denarii] would not buy enough bread for each of them to get a little."
[John 6:5-7]

There is an interesting difference between this and the synoptic versions. Mark gives the fullest, probably earliest account, in which the problem of how to feed the crowd comes from the disciples. Jesus' response to the dilemma is to tell them "You feed them then - give them yours."
which seems to suggest that J wasn't prepared to do all the work himself!

Matthew gives an abbreviated version, while Luke, the "evangelist for the people" as one old Benedictine once told me, leaves it out entirely. (Someone correct me if I'm wrong it seems an odd ommission.

Now putting these accounts (or lack of them) next to John's is not for the purpose of settin g one witness against another. The differences need to be acknowledged. For some, they will pose problems; for others, it will only open us up to a wider range of possibilities.

So back to John, who always depicts Jesus in a pro-active, never a re-active role:

quote:
One of his disciples, Andrew, Simon Peter's brother, said to him, "There is a boy here who has five barley loaves and two fish. But what are they among so many people?" Jesus said, "Make the people sit down....[and although we know the story very well, we hold our breath. while John, the consummate dramatist, delays the action with a quite unnecesary comment about bloody grass!]
Now there was a great deal of grass in the place, so they sat down, about five thousand in all

[John6:8-10] Some commentaries point out that the five thousand was just the men!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
and although we know the story very well, we hold our breath. while John, the consummate dramatist, delays the action with a quite unnecessary comment about bloody grass!

{tangent alert}

I don't think John tells the story this way for dramatic effect. He was an old man, and when the elderly tell stories they frequently include extraneous detail. See John 11:1-3.

{/tangent alert}

Moo
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
What on earth is so out of line about someone saying that people sat on the grass?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Kelly Alves:
What on earth is so out of line about someone saying that people sat on the grass?

It's not essential to the narrative. In fact it slows the narrative down.

Moo
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Eh, young people these days, no patience.

Oh, and get off my grass. [Devil]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Kelly Alves:
What on earth is so out of line about someone saying that people sat on the grass?

It's not essential to the narrative. In fact it slows the narrative down.

Moo

My point exactly. Who said anything was out of line? Jeepers! Don't any of you read decent thrillers?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Perhaps the great deal of grass gives us the image of good pasture?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
I still think it's an old man rambling as he tells a story.

Moo
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Maybe it's just my family, because to me that's a refreshingly concise detail. Were my sister (not an old man at all) telling this story, it would be, "There was a lot of grass, and it was the really scratchy kind, and some of it was brown, not green, and there were goat-pies all over, and, I had such trouble getting up again..."

That's rambling.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Killing me]

quote:
Then Jesus took the loaves, and when he had given thanks, he distributed them to those who were seated; so also the fish, as much as they wanted
[John 6:11] Did anybody else feel a slight shiver at that verse? Perhaps it depends on your churchmanship. Now I haven't been to communion for years (not a boast, that) but there are bits of the Anglican ASB rite that was which will remain with me forever.

quote:
...who in the same night that he was betrayed, took bread, and blessed it...and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them, saying 'Take, eat; this is my body...
It occurred to me that this might have a biblical origin and was surprised, on checking to find that it's at Mark 14:23 - the institution of the Lord's Supper. Sometimes the similarities between John and the synoptics are as interesting as the differences.

Of ocurse, grace was routinely said at all meals until quite recently - even in pagan England! But I wonder if John here consciously knew what he was alluding to. After all, there is no Last Supper in John's gospel (though the foot-washing seems to have taken its place?)

Surely the eucharistic ritual was pretty firmly established by the time the fourth gospel was written? Or am I reading reading into this verse something that isn't really there?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[insert mildly skeptical, mildly agreeing noise here]

Yes, I get that shiver. And yet I can't help realizing that it's an extremely common phrase, and as you point out, such prayers would have been a matter of course. So if John mentions it (and why wouldn't he, it's Jesus he's describing after all), it would almost have to have been in the same words.

And yet...

I do take every phrase and every word of Scripture to be there for a reason, though whether the human author of any bit was aware of the reason when he/she wrote it, well, maybe not. And so did John intend it? Possibly not. Did God intend it? Oh, I think so.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
When they were satisfied, he told his disciples, "Gather up the fragments, so that nothing may be lost."
[John 6:12

Waste not, want not! There are remarkable similarities to the Marcan account, in spite of Mark's fuller account of the logistics, which he (Mark) clearly doesn't see as a problem.

I've done a few sums myself, and, based on the conjecture that a small barley loaf could be torn into ten pieces, and that a large basket could carry forty loaves, if everyone took three pieces of bread but only ate two, the remainder would indeed fill twelve baskets.

[I did this because at the outset it seemed that 12 wouldn't be nearly enough.] How's that for a Johanine gloss!

I guess the remainder is as significant as the large number of people fed:

quote:
So they gathered them up, and from the fragments of the five barley loaves, left by those who had eaten, they filled twelve baskets.
[John 6:13]

Twelve apostles? Twelve tribes of Israel? Any other thoughts?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think it likely. Twelve is one of those numbers that seems to be a stand-in for "completeness" and also pops up a lot in connection with "the people of God." Mind you, I'm NOT saying that John just inserted a faked-up symbolic number here for the sake of symbolism. It's just that I think God is fond of symbols, being a poet at heart.

On a mundane dull "thud!" note, twelve baskets likely means each of the apostles had one on his arm and went around filling it, and they all ended up with full baskets (to do what with? donate to the poor? I rather think so, seems too much for them to eat themselves).

I have also heard that 12 symbolizes the people of Israel and 7 (the number of baskets in the similar feeding story) symbolizes the nations of the Gentiles--but this seems a bit reaching to me.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
LC,
I think the 7 representing the gentle nations (isn't that 70) or completeness in Marks fits quite well. Jesus having just fed the 5000, why did the disciples think it was hard to feed the 4000? I think it's because Jesus had gone into Gentile territory and the crowd would have been Gentile. The disciples could understand Messianic abundance for the Jews but it did not occur to them that the Gentiles could also effectively receive mann from heaven.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK, here's a test. What is the main point of the feeding miracle? No prizes or brickbats.
I'm jumping the gun a bit, because I won't attempt to answer the question myself for another few verses. Watch this space!
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
For me, the main point of the feeding miracle is that we can trust in God to provide us with spiritual nourishment (as Jesus speaks of later in the chapter, but we'll come to that..) and that it will always go much further than we could possibly imagine. We're given the physical event which translates into a spiritual event.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Do you mean as an event or as a narrative within the greater narrative of John? Both are interesting.

As an event, I think the key lies in "They do not need to go away. YOU feed them... Bring them here to me," which is from a parallel passage (Matthew 14). It is underlining the fact that Jesus is the one in whom we have all that we need, whether for body or soul.

John omits this stuff, which leads me to think he's highlighting one of the other uses of this miracle. And given that this story appears in John 6 with the infamous "This bread is my flesh which I will give for the life of the world," I would say that the point for John has to do with Christ as our food--eucharistically, yes, but also as the ground, the foundation, the fuel that human nature is meant to live and flourish on.

Lately I've been having this image of myself as a flame and Jesus as the very large hunk of wood or other fuel that I feed on. The flame may be the most visible and eyecatching part, but the fuel is what makes the flame possible at all.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Interesting replies, thank you both.

quote:
When the people saw the signs that he had done, they began to say, 'This is indeed the prophet who is to come into the world.'
[John 6:14]
Why the future tense, "is to come" - or is it just a semitism? Prophet, not messiah, noy king, not God. Which suggests all sorts of things - chiefly that John thought people took an awful long time getting the message! Also, perhaps, that they weren't expecting someone who was a king already;

quote:
When Jesus realized that they were about to come and take him by force to make him king, he withdrew again to the mountain by himself.

[John 6:15]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
The odd phrasing is probably just an idiom--we'd say it, "hey! here's that prophet we heard about that was supposed to be coming!"

As for "prophet," this is a reference to Deuteronomy 18:

quote:
15 "The LORD your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your brothers—it is to him you shall listen— 16 just as you desired of the LORD your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly, when you said, 'Let me not hear again the voice of the LORD my God or see this great fire any more, lest I die.' 17 And the LORD said to me, 'They are right in what they have spoken. 18 I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. 19 And whoever will not listen to my words that he shall speak in my name, I myself will require it of him.
This is traditionally taken as a prophecy of the Messiah, who is the prophet par excellence--which is also why the leaders ask John "Are you the Prophet?" as if they had a specific one in mind. This is the one.
 
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on :
 
Interesting discussion the other night, during which someone pointed out that the jews were very conscious of kosher and the general provenance of their food, but that this feeding of the crowd didn't involve any mention of the ritual nature of the food provided. The fish had beenbrought from somewhere and the bread baked somewhere, both carried by "a boy" (who almost certainly was not ritually clean!), but, (miraculously?) there appeared to be no hesitation about sitting down and receiving this food.

Even the question of "who are we eating with?", which matters a great deal in Middle Eastern culure, doesn't seem to matter.

Was Jesus already such a wonder that ritual purity was not questioned at all?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Both bread and fish would be kosher by definition of the OT Mosaic Law. I doubt the average Jew (non-Pharisee) worried about much more at that time. Similarly, the boy would be most likely clean if he's out at a public event--he can't be in mourning or they'd have kept him home, he's likely too young to be coping with wet dreams or intercourse, and he's certainly not menstruating. Plus Jesus himself has accepted the food, and he's a well-known rabbi. I doubt anyone was fussed.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Staying with John 6:15 for a moment, I'd like to point out that it's very easy to swallow whole points of pure conjecture, when they are wrapped up in a convincing or interesting story:

quote:
When Jesus realised that they were about to take him by force [were they?]and make him king [again, were they, necessarily?], he withdrew agai n to the mountain by himself.
For the above to be true, we have to believe that John knew both the corporarte mind of the people and the mind of God. For many christians this is no problem whatsoever. But even they should be honest to recognise that this is a different sort of witness - the religious sort, that has its own unchallengeable rules. He is not witnessing here to what anybody said or (until Jesus goes to the mountain) did, but what they thought.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:


quote:
When Jesus realised that they were about to take him by force [were they?]and make him king [again, were they, necessarily?], he withdrew agai n to the mountain by himself.
For the above to be true, we have to believe that John knew both the corporarte mind of the people and the mind of God. For many christians this is no problem whatsoever. But even they should be honest to recognise that this is a different sort of witness - the religious sort, that has its own unchallengeable rules. He is not witnessing here to what anybody said or (until Jesus goes to the mountain) did, but what they thought.
We don't necessarily have the whole story. I don't think John included every detail. He must have told the disciples that he was not going with them, and they should go to the boat and cross the lake by themselves; otherwise they wouldn't have left.

If he told them to go without him, he probably told them why.

Moo
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
And on an even more humdrum level, large crowds of people get VOCAL. I've no doubt there was an upswelling of chatter and murmur and "Hey guys, let's make him king and we'll never have to work a day in our lives!" Easy enough for any or all of them to hear it coming.

I've always figured that crowd was one step away from a riot by the end. (The playwright D.L. Sayers thought so too--she has her Jesus character borrowing someone else's cloak and keffiyah to make a quick escape from the enthusiasts [Big Grin] )
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Mmm, yes, yes and yes!!

Of course we can't treat the story as straightforward narrative and, simultaneously, as as something far more symbolic. Yet both strands are there, aren't they?

If we say "The crowd's restlessness was in no wise assuaged by their full stomachs..." we might perhaps lose sight of the fact (for John) that the feeding and the walking on the water were very much part of the same event, though
hoi polloi weren't aware of it. I think Mark makes that point too, but I'm getting too far ahead, here.

quote:
When evening came, his disciples went down to the sea, got into a boat, and started across the sea to Capernaum. It was now dark, and Jesus had not yet come to them.
[John 6:16-17

So the disciples had given up waiting for Jesus, and gone on ahead. What for? I wish I had a map - I think this particular sea crossing is quite long, in comparison with what we might conjecture from the synoptic accounts.

But is it a crossing, strictly speaking, or a trip down the coast aways? Noy that it matters to us, particularly. I've been scared out of my tiny wits no m ore than a hundred yards off shore.

Why did they leave with darkness approaching? Perhaps that was the point - night crossing would have been scary - but they'd already left it too late anyway?

[ 24. October 2011, 10:29: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
No maps handy at the moment, must look a little later. The Sea of Galilee is basically a large lake though. You COULD walk around it, though it'd take you a fair amount of time.

My understanding from parallel passages is that Jesus told them to go on ahead--possibly in the common formula "If I'm not back with you by such-and-such a time, go on and I'll catch up with you later." What the disciples made of this I don't know--possibly that he intended to bum a ride off another boat owner, or even walking, though I think that'd be rather long.

As for the night crossing--well, several of the disciples were former fishermen on this very lake and presumably well used to night boating (as we see when they go night fishing after the resurrection). The problem wasn't the time so much as it was the weather that had swept down from Mt. Hermon--a well known but unpredictable problem they would have been well acquainted with. (I can just see Peter looking over at John and mouthing "Oh shit" when the wind first picked up.) But by that point they were probably far enough from land that it made just as much sense to keep going.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
The sea became rough because a strong wind was blowing. When they had rowed about three or four miles they saw Jesus walking on the sea and coming near the boat, and they were terrified.
[John6;18-19 - my bold]

Well, yes, terrified before Jesus appeared, no wonder he spooked them!

The following is not to set cats among pigeons, but to record a possible minority christian view:

In Vol.30 #4 of The Way, an issue devoted to Signs and Wonders, one writer suggests that the miracle of walking on the water arose from a linguistic misunderstanding in the transmission of the oral tradition to its final written form.
He suggests that the disciples saw Jesus by the sea, not on it - as they did after the resurrection.

I don't understand how it works in Greek, but in English and Latin a similar ambiguity exists with some prefixes. We do not go to Bexhill-on-Sea or Weston-Super-Mare and expect to come across floating towns...

But it was dark anyway, so that, added to their frightened state, would not help the disciples to get their bearings.

[ 25. October 2011, 13:46: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
I think it follows that the disciples would be terrified if Jesus was walking on the lake, but why should they be terrified if Jesus was walking by it? Surely they would be relieved to see Jesus, and the shore!

I know that some Christians have difficulty with accepting that miracles might have really happened, but this translation revision doesn't scan for me.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Big Grin] Sorry Pimple, but that one won't fly. (No, I realize it wasn't yours) Problem is, a basic rule of interpretation (which is based on human nature) is that when in doubt, you take the more difficult reading--which would be that Jesus was walking ON the sea. Because anyone making a mistake in transmission, literary or oral, would be bound to change to the easier/more comprehensible form. But nobody changes the self-explanatory "by the sea" to "on the sea". Well, unless they're deliberately messing with your head.

I also can't go for the idea that the disciples didn't know where they were. Half of them had basically grown up on that lake, they'd made their livings out of it night and day, I can't see them (even in a storm!) getting so kerfluffled that they ended up within eyeshot of the shore (at night!) without knowing it. Heck, you'd expect the mere wave pattern to tell them that, seeing there was a storm going on.

But it's an ingenious grasping at straws, and no doubt got published for just that reason.

(Come to think of it, there's another problem. If one WAS such a doofus as to temporarily mistake a man walking lakeside for something supernatural, the normal reaction to finding out the truth is to slap your forhead, turn beet red and swear off the drinks. Not to bow down in awe and worship.)
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Also, if they saw Jesus walking close to them and he was on the shore, they were in danger of grounding.When storms threaten, you want to be either in harbor or well away from shore.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which would be an even better reason (if "reason" had any bearing here) for being terrified, no?

LC. You're obviously a far better seaman than I am! [Smile]

[ 26. October 2011, 14:23: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Most kind but undeserved. I am extrapolating based on the Pacific Ocean I grew up next to, and at any moment someone who grew up to a REAL lake will pop in to toss me overboard. [Devil]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
...I can't see them (even in a storm!) getting so kerfluffled that they ended up within eyeshot of the shore (at night!) without knowing it.

The lake is less than ten miles wide and surrounded by mountains so I would guess that the whole shore was visible from any point on it.

On a clear night you could see the hills by moonlight or possibly silhouletted against even a dark sky. I imagine that if you were local and an experienced sailor that would be enough to tell where you were. Its not the sort of place you could get lost in easily.

Of course if it was overcast and raining you would have no chance. But then you wouldn't be able to see the shore from up close either.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
But he said to them, "It is I [Gk. lit.'I am']; do not be afraid." Then they wanted to take him into the boat, and immediately the boat reached the land toward which they were going.
[John 6:20-21]

So presumably they hadn't rowed three or four miles out to sea? Or are we meant to understand that as soon as Jesus appeared, the boat and all the people in it were instantaneously whisked to safety? I'm not mocking. The whole point of all this no-boat-available-for-Jesus stuff is to point out that what is going on is something mysterious, magical and holy - and nobody catches on.

Comparing this to the synoptic accounts makes it obvious that a literal account is simply not to be had. I asked earlier what the point of the five thousand feeding was and the answer is, I think, that we cannot possibly know. Mark ends his account of Jesus walking on the water with astonishment all round - because people hadn't understood about the loaves [nudge, nudge, wink, wink - let the reader understand! Most readers don't.]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry to double-post, but I forgot to mention that the versions in Mark and Matthew have Jesus going to their aid in the morning. Which makes sense and increases our awareness of just how frightening it all was for the sailors during the long, exhausting night hours.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm confused. what do you mean, a "literal account is not to be had"?

On the other point, you might find an answer to "what does it mean?" by considering the Greek you quoted. "I am" (Greek "ego eimi") is the Greek rendering of the personal Name of God (YHWH). It is also a phrase that you could easily avoid if you wanted to as a Greek speaker--no need to say "I" / ego when you have the verb there already. So the "I AM" here is clearly intentional, and in fact constitutes a claim to be the God of Israel. Which is what the earlier miracle was as well--providing food in the wilderness is one of the familiar OT credentials of the God of Israel.

I'm afraid you're going to think I'm saying Jesus is showing off again! [Big Grin] I really don't think so, even if this is (as I think) an identity claim. There are more reasons to make his identity clear to the disciples than to bask in shocked admiration.

In the case of Jesus, I think he is building up his disciples' awareness gradually through "YHWH provider of food in the wilderness" (Exodus 16) and "YHWH protector in the dangerous waters" (Isaiah 43:2) to his final self-identification as YHWH, "Israel's only Savior" (Isaiah 43:3) which of course is the point of the cross. And that only has its full shocking value when you realize that it is in fact YHWH himself hanging there for Israel's (and our) sins.

The crucifixion of a holy man is shocking enough; the crucifixion of YHWH--well, I rather expect that at any moment one of our more pious and squeamish shipmates will pop up to deny this horrifying idea. [Biased]

[ 27. October 2011, 23:20: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Missed a few plot developments here! Some random thoughts on the verses to date:

[1] 6:14f - “Now when the people saw the miraculous sign that Jesus performed, they began to say to one another, “This is certainly the Prophet who is to come into the world.” Then Jesus, because he knew they were going to come and seize him by force to make him king, withdrew again up the mountainside alone.”

There seems to be a link between 'the prophet' and 'king' here. An overlap between the two functions, perhaps? The Jews expected someone who fulfil not just the role of a revised Moses, but also that of a revised David? There seems to have been a penchant for overlapping roles; Nathaniel managed to call Jesus a Teacher, a Son of God, and a King, all in one verse (1:49)! Multitasking is, after all, one of the core skills needed for working in God's Kingdom.

[2] Jesus and bread. Can't seem to get away from these linked entities in John for long. The feeding of the 5,000 may be an introduction to the bread/food theme – linked to Passover by John. He sets up the theme with a sign, the sort of thing that people would marvel at, but only a few would understand the significance. Developments on the theme will follow in due course – with a bread and fish dessert in chapter 21.

[3] John has a fetching touch for imagining scenes to his readers. There was grass rather than dust on the ground. Earlier, in the Jerusalem healing scene (chapter 5), he describes the architecture. Even earlier, in chapter 4, it was high noon by Jacob's well. Unexpected details, but rather interesting. I'm not sure if they herald deep meaning or just plot colour. It does give an insight, though, into the author's rhetorical technique; he's not ethereal and neither is he mechanical.
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Someone I read said, "John is a mystic, but a logical mystic." (may have been Jim Powell.)

I was always drawn to the book of John as an early reader, and I think it was exactly these little descriptive touches that drew me in. To me, they lend intimacy to the narrative-- it's like you're standing beside him while things are happening.

Maybe he was just someone who enjoyed writing, and put some heart/ craft into it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It makes you wonder, if this is the John who was really close to Jesus, what little conversations they had in their down-times.

Jesus: That's a beautiful sunset over there, John.

John: Whoops, watch where you're standing - sheep droppings.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Big Grin]

I dunno, I expect that's always been part of Jesus' job description--standing in sheep droppings. When not hip deep in alligators.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think we have one or two gnostics aboard. Any thoughts from them about the "secret" meanings of the feeding and the water-walking?
 
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on :
 
I’m not a Gnostic, but I’ll contribute my thoughts.

I’ve been led to understand that the significance of walking on water is that it is an indication of divinity. This has already been brought up not long previously in John 5:18: ‘...he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.’

There are three instances in the Old Testament of God or The LORD being referred to as walking on water (all qq from ESV):
Job 9:8: ‘...who alone stretched out the heavens and trampled the waves of the sea...’
Ps. 77:19: ‘Your way was through the sea, your path through the great waters; yet your footprints were unseen’
Is. 43:16: Thus says the LORD, who makes a way in the sea, a path in the mighty waters...’

So for Jesus to walk on water was to claim by his action to have the same divine nature as God. (The only problem with that for me is that it provokes the question of why, in the account in Matthew’s gospel, does Peter also join Jesus in walking on the water? It’s not as if Peter was also divine... Hmmm...)

The miraculous multiplication of the loaves and fishes has been seen as a parallel to the story of God providing manna for the Israelites in the wilderness, but that seems to me to be a good deal less clear.

[tangent] Another action of Jesus that was described in the OT as the behaviour of God was his calming of the storm. The OT refs are:
Ps 89:8-9: ‘O LORD God of hosts, who is mighty as you are, O LORD, with your faithfulness all around you? You rule the raging of the sea; when its waves rise, you still them.’
Ps. 107:28-29: ‘Then they cried to the LORD in their trouble, and he delivered them from their distress. He made the storm be still, and the waves of the sea were hushed.’
That’s all the OT antecedents that I know of at the moment.
[/tangent]

Angus
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks Angus, that's very useful. I don't think there need be any problem with the different accounts here. John probably edits the story in order to point out just those OT references you mentioned. It's a theological point he's making, in a perfectly acceptable way.

quote:
On the next day the people who remained on the other side of the sea saw that there had been only one boat there, and that Jesus had not entered the boat with his disciples, but that his disciples had gone away alone.
[John 6:22]

Oh dear! Talk about lost in translation! You can't notice on Tuesday something that happened on Monday - not the way John puts it (I'm sure somebody's going to correct me there!) The only thing I'm not sure about here is whether the fault is John's or the editors of RSV. The obviously ludicrous statement could easily be corrected by saying "remembered" instead of "saw".
 
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
On the next day the people who remained on the other side of the sea saw that there had been only one boat there, and that Jesus had not entered the boat with his disciples, but that his disciples had gone away alone.
[John 6:22]
Oh dear! Talk about lost in translation! You can't notice on Tuesday something that happened on Monday - not the way John puts it (I'm sure somebody's going to correct me there!) The only thing I'm not sure about here is whether the fault is John's or the editors of RSV. The obviously ludicrous statement could easily be corrected by saying "remembered" instead of "saw".

It can be explained as an artefact of translation. The Greek word translated here as ‘saw’ can also carry the meaning ‘understood’. We do just the same in English – when you’ve had a complex situation explained to you, the response is very often: ‘Oh, I see...’. (Thus using the metaphor of vision to express mental comprehension.)

The RSV gives the usual meaning ‘saw’, but the NIV translates as ‘realised’, which I think conveys the meaning better. I was surprised to see that the ESV gives ‘saw’, presumably sticking to the literal sense (mistakenly, in my judgement). I think in this verse it might be a case where the usage in Greek allows for it to be understood in the metaphorical sense of intellectual enlightenment, whereas a direct translation into English produces a usage which we instinctively read as non-metaphorical actual vision.

Angus
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, that makes sense - I didn't have an alternative translation to hand. I think, though, that John makes the point rather clumsily - anticipating scepticism and meeting trouble half way. Perhaps realising that having Jesus walk out three or four miles (I think that's what is implied, isn't it?) Might be more than some people could swallow without concrete evidence! There seems to be a certain amount of inflation here and there in John's gospel - perhaps he had to try harder because there were growing concerns about the delay in the expected second coming?

[ 09. November 2011, 13:56: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I dunno about THAT, but it's true that NT Greek (except for perhaps Luke's) is inelegant and I gather downright painful to classical scholars. It's no surprise if John gets into a tangle now and then.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
What's ludicrous about it? I've never been there but as far as I know you can see across the lake. Maybe they looked and saw where the boats were?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
On the next day the people who remained on the other side of the sea saw that there had been only one boat there, and that Jesus had not entered the boat with his disciples, but that his disciples had gone away alone.
I think he means that if you take it over-literally, you have the people seeing (today) something that they really could have seen only yesterday (e.g. that Jesus hadn't gotten into the boat, and so forth). It's possible to realize that fact (after slowly gazing around bleary-eyed in the morning) but to SEE it suggests that it is happening right now--unless you have special TARDIS eyes or something.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's it - but A.Pilgrim has sorted it. For me, amyway.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Nice to see some more faces here. I'm in another library and I've found the Oxford Study Bible, which looks helpful. I'd like to set out the whole of the first paragraph of this section (going back a bit to start with) as it's very much of a piece. There's a great deal of repetition in these discourses, so there will be plenty of time to tease out any problems people may have or any pearls of wisdom to share.

quote:
Next morning the crowd were still on the opposite shore. They had seen only one boat there, and Jesus, they knew, had not embarked with his disciples, who had set off by themselves. Boats from Tiberias, however, had come ashore near the place where the people had eaten the bread over which the Lord had given thanks. When the crowd saw that Jesus had gone as well as his disciples, they went on board these boats and made for Capernaum in search iof him. They found him on the other side. 'Rabbi', they asked,'when did you come here?' Jesus replied, 'In very truth I tell you, it is not because you saw signs that you came looking for me, but because you ate the bread and your hunger was satisfied. You should work, not for this perishable food, but for the food that lasts, the food of eternal life.
[John 6:22-27]

First he feeds them, then he tells them off for expressing a very natural wonderment. Now he's going to deliver a sermon. On which I shall refrain from commenting, because I'd just like the faithful to explain it to me - when we get there. But what do you think of it so far?

[ 14. November 2011, 10:27: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, he's a teacher. [Biased] And so forever doing the unexpected, in hopes of prying open a mind or two by the shock.

Have you ever noticed the very ... abrupt way he has with inane questions? It's like he skips all the social waffle and skips the conversation ahead by six or seven exchanges. Like with Nicodemus, for example. Nic comes in with a nice complimentary opening and Jesus unhesitating blows it off and gets to what he sees as the meat of the encounter--throwing poor Nic badly off balance and leaving him gibbering.

I see Jesus doing much the same here. Otherwise the exchange might have gone something like this:

Crowd: "Rabbi, when did you come here?"
Jesus (rolling eyes): "Duh, last night, you know that already."
Crowd, disconcerted: "Um yes, we sort of figured that out. What we meant to say was, how did you get here without us seeing you?"
Jesus: "Does it really matter?"
Crowd: "Well no, I suppose not."
Jesus: "Was there something you really wanted to ask me, then?"
Crowd, warming up: "Well, yes, there is. You see, we're poor people, Lord, and you know what the economy is like lately, not so hot, and franky we don't know where our daily bread is coming from day to day. I mean, my cousin got a pink slip last Friday, and who's to say it won't be me next? And so we were thinking we could really use a good man in politics, someone who had some real solutions, 'cause the current crop of leaders are idiots, frankly speaking. And we happened to notice yesterday that you seemed to have the daily bread bit sorted out, at least, think what your abilities would do for the Social Security system, and we decided you're the only man for the job. And so..."

Jesus, putting his fingers in his ears: "AAAUUUGGGHHHHH! This is [i]exactly why I hate doing miracles. You people never get it, do you?" [and follow on with the text of Scripture as it currently stands]

Now I don't know about you, but I'd have found all that waffle as tedious to read as it was to write. [Razz]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
You know, that's what niggles me about religious people some times. If they don't understand the question, they call it stupid. If they feel threatened by it, they go for the jocular (in a friendly, jugular way, you understand)!

What the crowd is clearly asking - perhaps in a roundabout way because they do feel stupid - they've beemn tricked somehow, perhaps? - what they mean is how did you get here? There wasn't a boat - we remember they'd all gone, and we saw the disciples go off by themselves...but here you are.

Now what's inane about honest bafflement?

Maybe John, too thinks people shouldn't ask awkward questions?

[ 15. November 2011, 15:12: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Perhaps the question is what's important, and Jesus isn't telling them off for asking it but encouraging them to ask questions about God for which there's no easy answer. There is food that lasts.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
You know, that's what niggles me about religious people some times. If they don't understand the question, they call it stupid. If they feel threatened by it, they go for the jocular (in a friendly, jugular way, you understand)!

What the crowd is clearly asking - perhaps in a roundabout way because they do feel stupid - they've beemn tricked somehow, perhaps? - what they mean is how did you get here? There wasn't a boat - we remember they'd all gone, and we saw the disciples go off by themselves...but here you are.

Now what's inane about honest bafflement?

Maybe John, too thinks people shouldn't ask awkward questions?

Well, in that case I've clearly misrepresented Jesus and apologize to both of you. But I really do think he was trying to get their focus OFF the miraculous and on to what he was teaching--and going into any detail about how he got from point A to B was bound to further derail that conversation. I mean, can you see him saying "Well, actually I walked on the water"? that would have pretty much destroyed whatever concentration his listeners might have been able to muster up. It's a pity they had to remain baffled (at least until one of the disciples spilled the beans, if they ever did). But from a teaching standpoint, there are some answers that, if you give them, you're automatically guaranteed a destroyed teaching session. You might as well dismiss class at once, if you know what I mean. And Jesus truly believes that what he has to teach them is of far greater importance than a mere miracle.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
To follow up on Lamb Chopped's point a bit, there are two parts of Jesus' reply that particularly strike me. When I read (italics mine):

quote:
In very truth I tell you, it is not because you saw signs that you came looking for me, but because you ate the bread and your hunger was satisfied.
I take it as meaning that the primary purpose of his miracles was to encourage people to see that he was indeed the Son of God rather than to temporarily satisfy their physical needs. And when I read:

quote:
You should work, not for this perishable food, but for the food that lasts, the food of eternal life.
I notice that he exhorts them to work for their food. In response to miracles, I think we can tend to (a) focus on our material and temporal needs or desires and (b) become passive in our relationship with God, neither of which is the response he hopes for.

Of course, that still leaves the obvious question of what the food of eternal life actually is.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
You know, that's what niggles me about religious people some times. If they don't understand the question, they call it stupid. If they feel threatened by it, they go for the jocular (in a friendly, jugular way, you understand)!

What the crowd is clearly asking - perhaps in a roundabout way because they do feel stupid - they've beemn tricked somehow, perhaps? - what they mean is how did you get here? There wasn't a boat - we remember they'd all gone, and we saw the disciples go off by themselves...but here you are.

Now what's inane about honest bafflement?

Maybe John, too thinks people shouldn't ask awkward questions?

Well, in that case I've clearly misrepresented Jesus and apologize to both of you. But I really do think he was trying to get their focus OFF the miraculous and on to what he was teaching--and going into any detail about how he got from point A to B was bound to further derail that conversation. I mean, can you see him saying "Well, actually I walked on the water"? that would have pretty much destroyed whatever concentration his listeners might have been able to muster up. It's a pity they had to remain baffled (at least until one of the disciples spilled the beans, if they ever did). But from a teaching standpoint, there are some answers that, if you give them, you're automatically guaranteed a destroyed teaching session. You might as well dismiss class at once, if you know what I mean. And Jesus truly believes that what he has to teach them is of far greater importance than a mere miracle.
Apologies from me, too. I think I agree that Jesus didn't want to focus on the signs everyone was asking for. But John particularly, and the other evangelists to a degree, did.

In the Marcan account of these events, Jesus is even more scornful of the disciples inability to get the (coded) message - the significance of the numbers of baskets, the numbers of fish. But
that's probably better discussed at length on another thread.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
To follow up on Lamb Chopped's point a bit, there are two parts of Jesus' reply that particularly strike me. When I read (italics mine):

quote:
In very truth I tell you, it is not because you saw signs that you came looking for me, but because you ate the bread and your hunger was satisfied.
I take it as meaning that the primary purpose of his miracles was to encourage people to see that he was indeed the Son of God rather than to temporarily satisfy their physical needs. And when I read:

quote:
You should work, not for this perishable food, but for the food that lasts, the food of eternal life.
I notice that he exhorts them to work for their food. In response to miracles, I think we can tend to (a) focus on our material and temporal needs or desires and (b) become passive in our relationship with God, neither of which is the response he hopes for.

Of course, that still leaves the obvious question of what the food of eternal life actually is.

Yes - I hope someone will try to answer that question. Sometimes it appears to be something you work for, which makes sense to me, while more often in John it's something you merely have to believe in (merely!) That's much more metaphysical and for me, much more difficult.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
originally posted by pimple:
Yes - I hope someone will try to answer that question. Sometimes it appears to be something you work for, which makes sense to me, while more often in John it's something you merely have to believe in (merely!) That's much more metaphysical and for me, much more difficult.

The food of eternal life is the love which flows between God and us and us and God.

To love God with all of the heart, soul, mind and strength requires effort and focus.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I completely agree.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you. I inadvertently stopped a quote half way through the verse a few posts back. Here is the complete verse, and the two following it. Stop me if I'm galloping away too fast:

quote:
"Do not labour for the food which perishes, but for the food which endures to eternal life, which the Son of man will give to you; for on him has God the Father set his seal."28 Then they said to him, "What must we do, to be doing the works of God?"29 Jesus answered them, "This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent."
[John 6:27-29]

Who are "they" in verse 28? Yes, LC, it's an inane question! They are the people whom Jesus has recently fed. But is that all they are? Throughout this section Jesus interacts with more than one bunch of people.
We are about to discover that their answer to the above two verses seems to be positive - if hesitantly so! They seem to be well versed in the scriptures. When they say "our fathers..." do they include Jesus in that "our"?

Sorry. the 'our fathers' bit comes in v.31 - this is really hard to look at a couple of verses at a time. But I think the detail's important.

[ 18. November 2011, 15:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
I notice that he exhorts them to work for their food. In response to miracles, I think we can tend to (a) focus on our material and temporal needs or desires and (b) become passive in our relationship with God, neither of which is the response he hopes for.

I think so, too. John really does seem to be doing another his “let's see where we can go with this word/theme” devices here. He focuses on the 'seek-find-work-believe' collection of ideas.

The crowd sought Jesus (6:24) and found him (6:25). Jesus says they sought for the wrong reason (6:26). John then slips the referent from seeking to working: Don't waste time working for the wrong reason (6:27). The crowd pick up the change in language – How then do we go about working the work that God wants? (6:28). Jesus replies that the work is to believe.

I get the sense that John has equated 'seeking' with 'work', and 'finding' with 'believing.' The effort spent on chasing after the inanimate food would be better spent on chasing after the animate 'food' (Jesus). No further work was needed.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Raptor Eye:
quote:
originally posted by pimple:
Yes - I hope someone will try to answer that question. Sometimes it appears to be something you work for, which makes sense to me, while more often in John it's something you merely have to believe in (merely!) That's much more metaphysical and for me, much more difficult.

The food of eternal life is the love which flows between God and us and us and God.

To love God with all of the heart, soul, mind and strength requires effort and focus.

Your last sentence is deceptively simple. Would you like to enlarge on it, for the benefit of someone who's seriously interested?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Your last sentence is deceptively simple. Would you like to enlarge on it, for the benefit of someone who's seriously interested?

The way I see it, our relationship with God affects the whole of our lives. The first commandment confirms this. To love God with our strength means to show it in a physical way, through good works. To love God with our minds means to include God in our conscious thinking. To love God with our souls means to incorporate God into our emotional responses, so that it will show in our relationships. To love God with our hearts means to connect with God through prayer and silence, and to give our love expression through music, song, dancing, the arts etc.

It takes conscious effort and focus on God to live in this way. It's where the faith journey leads us, and what the scriptures teach us.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's very lucid and helpful. I can see why it's hard work! You make no mention of the second half of the Golden Rule - to love your neighbour as yourself. But neither does the first commandment, IIRC. But Jesus himself didn't omit it. (All this from memory - I may be quite wrong.

Nigel M, too, points out how John uses "work" in his wordplay. But his focus seems to be not so much love of God as belief in Jesus. Don't ask me to distinguish between the two. John doesn't!

But "This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent" seems to me to narrow the focus somewhat.

"Only believe, and thou shalt see
His joy and crown eternally" goes the hymn, and I'm not knocking it. But my gut reaction is "Is that really it? It describes a mindset that I have seen exhibited by devout parishioners wh in all seriousness ask a newly appointed vicar if he (it must be he) is a Christian - question that cannot be answered without admitting or denying a great deal of baggage that is, implied, but not stated, in the question.

[ 23. November 2011, 15:43: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
That's very lucid and helpful. I can see why it's hard work! You make no mention of the second half of the Golden Rule - to love your neighbour as yourself. But neither does the first commandment, IIRC. But Jesus himself didn't omit it. (All this from memory - I may be quite wrong.

Nigel M, too, points out how John uses "work" in his wordplay. But his focus seems to be not so much love of God as belief in Jesus. Don't ask me to distinguish between the two. John doesn't!

But "This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent" seems to me to narrow the focus somewhat.

"Only believe, and thou shalt see
His joy and crown eternally" goes the hymn, and I'm not knocking it. But my gut reaction is "Is that really it? It describes a mindset that I have seen exhibited by devout parishioners wh in all seriousness ask a newly appointed vicar if he (it must be he) is a Christian - question that cannot be answered without admitting or denying a great deal of baggage that is, implied, but not stated, in the question.

The second of the greatest commandments from the OT scriptures that Jesus selected, loving others as ourselves, naturally follows if we make the effort to focus on and love God in every aspect of our lives.

Belief in Jesus leads to the love of God, if the effort is made to focus and follow. Jesus shows us the way to God. Rather than narrow the focus, our eyes are opened. Therefore we know that it's the work of God.

Belief in Jesus without any effort to follow or focus may leave people at a standstill, making no progress on the faith journey and perhaps remaining in infancy spiritually. It's incumbent upon themselves as well as upon church leaders to do their best to see that they engage with God in all aspects of their lives, so that they grow in a balanced way. Sadly, too many church leaders seem to be focussed narrowly, and too many people seem to expect to receive passively, seeing activity as unnecessary.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks again, Raptor. I think ,maybe you're a bit hard on the passive receptors. You're not a teacher, are you? (Must try harder...) [Biased]

Many of my perrenial (perennial?) hangups are, I have just discovered, being engaged with on the faith v works thread, so - back to the fourth gospel.

quote:
So they said to him, "What sign are you going to give us then, so that we may see it and believe you? What work are you performing? Our ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness; as it is written, 'he gave them bread from heaven to eat.'"
[John6:30-31]

So far, so good, they want proof. But again, who are "they"? This is why I ask:

quote:
Then Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you, it was not Moses who gave you the bread from heaven, [who said it was?] but it is my Father who gives you the true bread from heaven. Fot the bread of God is that which comes down from heaven and gives light to the world."
[John6:32-33]

This where the sermon proper begins, and it works on both reason and the emotions. So I won't carp on the atrocious mixed metaphor in that last sentence of Jesus!

He is stating quite categorically that he does not share in the ancestral tradition that his onlookers claim. He is not a Jew! This is not antisemitism on John's part, it's just him portraying Jesus saying "I'm God." In a rather roundabout way. What follows should be read more as a meditation, I think, than anything else. It may or may not be historical. What, I think is unchallengeable is that the appeal of these discourses is the numinous feelings that they evoke. Reading them, you might well feel that you are being addressed by Jesus directly.

I have known one or two excellent priests who could do just that. Start off with a tale of holidays in France and the importance there of fresh bread, anf before you know where you asre he's talkinf about the bread of heaven, and you don't notice the join. Powerful stuff.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Beg pardon, but I don't see the "I'm not a Jew" bit at all--certainly not in favor of "I'm God." What I do see is their request for a miraculous sign to er, validate his credentials as a man-from-God in the tradition of Moses (whom I take to be the antecedent of "He" in the OT quotation). Might be worth noting the implicit threat in the example they chose--Jesus has in fact JUST given them the physical miracle bread they reference from Moses' career, but this one occurrence is apparently not enough for them. He's going to have to do it on an ongoing basis (as Moses did) to meet their high standards. Otherwise, they're outta here.

Jesus quite properly refuses to get into that, or to administer a well-deserved smackdown for bad manners and ingratitude. Instead he tries to refocus the conversation on God (again), by pointing out that God is the true miraculous bread-provider. Focusing on Moses as they are doing is technically right (he WAS the agent, but that's all) but completely wrong when it comes to emphasis, proportion, etc.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thanks again, Raptor. I think ,maybe you're a bit hard on the passive receptors. You're not a teacher, are you? (Must try harder...) [Biased]

Many of my perrenial (perennial?) hangups are, I have just discovered, being engaged with on the faith v works thread, so - back to the fourth gospel.

quote:
So they said to him, "What sign are you going to give us then, so that we may see it and believe you? What work are you performing? Our ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness; as it is written, 'he gave them bread from heaven to eat.'"
[John6:30-31]

So far, so good, they want proof. But again, who are "they"? This is why I ask:

quote:
Then Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you, it was not Moses who gave you the bread from heaven, [who said it was?] but it is my Father who gives you the true bread from heaven. Fot the bread of God is that which comes down from heaven and gives light to the world."
[John6:32-33]

This where the sermon proper begins, and it works on both reason and the emotions. So I won't carp on the atrocious mixed metaphor in that last sentence of Jesus!

He is stating quite categorically that he does not share in the ancestral tradition that his onlookers claim. He is not a Jew! This is not antisemitism on John's part, it's just him portraying Jesus saying "I'm God." In a rather roundabout way. What follows should be read more as a meditation, I think, than anything else. It may or may not be historical. What, I think is unchallengeable is that the appeal of these discourses is the numinous feelings that they evoke. Reading them, you might well feel that you are being addressed by Jesus directly.

I have known one or two excellent priests who could do just that. Start off with a tale of holidays in France and the importance there of fresh bread, anf before you know where you asre he's talkinf about the bread of heaven, and you don't notice the join. Powerful stuff.

[Big Grin] An observation may trigger a response in the hearer, but it doesn't turn the observation into a judgement. I'm hard on no-one, but we're often hard on ourselves.

Turning to the passage, I agree with LC in that I think that Moses was implicated in the demand for a sign, and Jesus reminds them that not only did God give the bread, but God gave light for the Israelites to follow in the exile in a pillar of fire. The symbols of the exile are woven through the whole Bible. Jesus is saying imv that the bread of God consists of all God gives us, it isn't confined to food that we physically eat.

Jesus was always fully a Jew, a very important aspect of his identity imo as he became the universal high priest (tangent). I don't see this passage as denying Jewishness nor of Jesus claiming that he is God. He's challenging them to see the truth in what's unpredictably happening in front of them rather than trying to squeeze the events into a prejudiced view of how things should predictably be where God is concerned.

I see the numinous appeal of these and other discourses within our lives as connected with the resonance of truth we're given as a gift by the living Christ.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
(Quote from 6:32)Then Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you, it was not Moses who gave you the bread from heaven, [who said it was?]

That's a good question. Even if people in the crowd had been quoting from Ps. 78:24 when they said, "As it is written, 'He gave them bread from heaven to eat'" it's hard to see how Moses could have been the 'He' there. In the Psalm the 'He' refers quite clearly back to 'God', not Moses. So why did Jesus state the seemingly obvious?

The only thing I can think of is that the crowd had drawn further on Deuteronomy 34:10-12 ...
quote:
No prophet ever again arose in Israel like Moses, who knew the Lord face to face. He did all the signs and wonders the Lord had sent him to do in the land of Egypt, to Pharaoh, all his servants, and the whole land, and he displayed great power and awesome might in view of all Israel.
That places Moses as an actor in the signs - without necessarily removing God as the first cause.

Possible, I suppose. And then Jesus is telling the crowd to note that whoever provided the manna, it was not Moses who just fed them on the other side of Galilee, but your man himself.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Points well taken. Of course, Jesus was not saying "I'm not a Jew" nor even "I'm not a Jew like you" - but I think the tone here and there is such that John, rather than Jesus himself, is trying to distance himself from the absolute Jewishness of Jesus - or perhaps he's just doing it without trying, by accident, as it were.

The talk continues with words of great hope and encouragement, with here and there an (?exasperated) warning to unbelievers:
quote:
They said to him, "Sir, give us this bread always." (35)Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life. Whoever comes to me will never be hungry, and whoever believes in me will never be thirsty.(36)But I said to you that you have seen me and yet do not believe.(37)Everything that the Father gives me will come to me, and anyone who comes to me I will never drive away.
[John6:34-37]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Jesus says that those who come to him and believe will never be hungry or thirsty.

In God's Kingdom on earth, here and now, we remain hungry and thirsty, our hunger and thirst satisfied by our daily bread as we're fed by the living Christ.

When will we never be hungry or thirsty? In life eternal? At the second coming, when all is made perfect?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm sure that whatever he means, it applies fully to eternity. But I think he also includes right now, as you can see if you look at what I THINK he was getting at below.

Briefly here are two uses of the phrase "you will never be hungry." The one is as you take it, "You will never experience a sense of hunger nor any desire to eat." The other (which is what I think Jesus intended) is "you will never GO hungry"--that is, immediately you feel hungry, there will be bread for you and you will be satisfied; immediately you thirst, there will be drink.

I prefer that arrangement myself, actually. If you know that your needs will certainly be satisfied and that right away, feeling the need is a pleasure rather than otherwise. It becomes suffering only when the fulfillment is denied. I don't WANT to lose my sense of need for God. I want it filled, not destroyed. I don't want to lose my thirst for his presence and love. I want it fulfilled.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
I'm with you LC, it would be disappointing to no longer have the hunger and thirst at all, so that we would be denied the pleasure of having them satisfied.

The promise of continued sustenance is spelled out by Jesus saying that we will never be driven away if we continue to come to him. Jesus has answered the crowd's demand with a proviso.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Points well taken. Of course, Jesus was not saying "I'm not a Jew" nor even "I'm not a Jew like you" - but I think the tone here and there is such that John, rather than Jesus himself, is trying to distance himself from the absolute Jewishness of Jesus - or perhaps he's just doing it without trying, by accident, as it were.

The talk continues with words of great hope and encouragement, with here and there an (?exasperated) warning to unbelievers:
quote:
They said to him, "Sir, give us this bread always." (35)Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life. Whoever comes to me will never be hungry, and whoever believes in me will never be thirsty.(36)But I said to you that you have seen me and yet do not believe.(37)Everything that the Father gives me will come to me, and anyone who comes to me I will never drive away.
[John6:34-37]
I wonder if there is more to that "Sir, give us that bread always". It seems to echo the response of the Samaritan woman at 4:15 -
quote:
The woman said to him, "Sir, give me this water, so that I may never be thirsty or have to keep coming here to draw water"
The request is not accompanied by any statement of faith, and I've always regarded it as somewhat arch - especially as Jesus promptly sends her off to find her husband (who isn't her husband, nudge, nudge). So it is simply an acknowledgment that what Jesus is offering is worth having - nothing more.

Similarly with the bread. The onlookers ask for the living bread, only to be told that they don't understand what they are asking for. Jesus/John goes on to explain (but I've lost the place and can't scroll back - can someone put up the next few verses, please?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think you're right to see the connection. And in the lady's case this fumbling confused "give it to me" is the permission Jesus needs and is waiting for before he actually starts in on the Gospel. You'll notice he tiptoes around with tantalizing statements until she basically hands him the house keys and says "come in;" at that point he starts dealing with a major painful issue in her life and how the Gospel affects that.

I reckon it's the same here. "Give us this bread every day" is sufficient permission, if you will, for Jesus to start doing some serious psyche excavation. He likes to be invited. Even if the inviter is still rather confused.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me.(39)And this is the will of him who sent me, that I lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up on the last day.(40)This is indeed the will of my Father, that all who see the Son and believe in him may have eternal life; and I will raise them up on the last day."
[John6:38-40]

To what end? None, obviously! Unless I have misunderstood what he means by "the last day". That must be it, surely. Perhaps someone will enlighten me?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
The last day is surely the 'Day of the Lord', the day of the final judgement when Jesus will return in the clouds and the world as we know it will end. A very appropriate verse to reflect upon in Advent!

There are a few current threads in which people are talking about salvation, both here and in Purgatory.

We're promised that those raised up on the last day will live in joy forever with God, while anyone evil will not be raised and will wail about it.

Jesus says that he's come to do the will of God the Father, and not to do his own will. This is interesting, as it implies that Jesus might want to do something else, but has to restrain himself so to do God's will, doesn't it?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I appreciate your help, but I'm still wallowing. Could you expand on "the end of the world as we know it" for me, please? Jesus' hearers would have a much different view of the (extent of ) the world than us. How do modern Christians think of the last day? The end of the planet? The end of the universe? The end of time?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I see the last day as referring to the end of the cosmos--"when the heavens shall be rolled up like a scroll," and all that. And of course replaced with the new and improved version...

I'm afraid I don't understand what you meant by "To what end? None, obviously!"

To what end what?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think you've answered my question and your own, LC. That the end of the Cosmos is not the end at all - just a transition point, leading to something better. If there were nothing after the end of everything we know (and much more besides) what would be the point of being "woken up" or lifted up to eternal life?

I think I can see why eternal life is attractive to many people. Me, I'm content with this one, brief though it is. But I'm one of the lucky ones, in many different ways.

quote:
"...It is written in the prophets, 'And they shall all be taught by God.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to me. (46)Not that anyone has seen the Father except the one who is from God; he has seen the Father.(47) Very truly, I tell you, whoever believes has eternal life. (48) I am the bread of life.
[John6:45-48]

It's a strange mixture of styles. Here, with the quote, Jesus sounds like he's having a discussion with another rabbi. Elsewhere it sounds polemical to modern ears - but the Jews were (and still are!) used to robust discussion. Overall, if you just sit and read the whole piece without interruption (you wish!) it has a soothing, almost hypnotic effect.

The Eucharist must be much in people's minds whenever Jesus is talking of bread and wine. Does this help or hinder our understanding of Jesus/John's original intent?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I really must expand on being "one of the lucky ones" which must have sounded atrociously smug. I merely mean that I am grateful for having been born where I was, when I was, and having, more by accident than any effort on my part, escaped many of the hardships and vicissitudes of suffering humanity around me.

I certainly don't think I'm lucky to be a sceptic. That's deliberate - and not always helpful, I know.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I think you've answered my question and your own, LC. That the end of the Cosmos is not the end at all - just a transition point, leading to something better. If there were nothing after the end of everything we know (and much more besides) what would be the point of being "woken up" or lifted up to eternal life?

I think I can see why eternal life is attractive to many people. Me, I'm content with this one, brief though it is. But I'm one of the lucky ones, in many different ways.

quote:
"...It is written in the prophets, 'And they shall all be taught by God.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to me. (46)Not that anyone has seen the Father except the one who is from God; he has seen the Father.(47) Very truly, I tell you, whoever believes has eternal life. (48) I am the bread of life.
[John6:45-48]

It's a strange mixture of styles. Here, with the quote, Jesus sounds like he's having a discussion with another rabbi. Elsewhere it sounds polemical to modern ears - but the Jews were (and still are!) used to robust discussion. Overall, if you just sit and read the whole piece without interruption (you wish!) it has a soothing, almost hypnotic effect.

The Eucharist must be much in people's minds whenever Jesus is talking of bread and wine. Does this help or hinder our understanding of Jesus/John's original intent?

It didn't sound smug to me in saying that you were 'one of the lucky ones', but interesting in that it implies that you may see eternal life as a promise worth holding onto only if someone is suffering in this life.

The 'bread of life' would have been inextricably connected with the manna from Heaven in the exodus in the minds of John and those he intended to reach imv. The symbolism of the Old Testament is threaded through the whole of the New, as with its reflection in the words of Jesus.

The message in the last 2 verses of the text imo was and is that if we believe and take in as food what God gives us (and we are often given a sense of peace when we receive it, as you found) we have eternal life with God. The joy of loving God that we're invited to know in part now will be complete and never ending. That may give us hope of life after death whether or not we're suffering now.

The symbolism in the Eucharist includes that of the manna, but extends far beyond it.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, many Christians I think read it as meaning that a person's belief and trust in Jesus grants them eternal life from that moment, i.e. not "jam tomorrow". This makes particular sense in places like the Lazarus story, where Jesus corrects, or rather augments, the sister's limited belief in a resurrection "at the last day". But I think John's first readers were still expecting an imminent Judgment Day. Was John speaking to that, do you think?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
If God is outside of time, our considerations of how time may affect any afterlife must stem only from the human perspective and imagination. They are of use to us if we accept that.

The repeated message of Jesus urging everyone to be ready for the last day as if imminent was important and remains so imv, hence John's inclusion of it. Apocalyptic literature was meant to help persecuted people to persevere, and to hold onto the hope of judgement so that the oppressors would receive what was due to them, while those who were taught by God within relationship, and followed the teachings they had been fed, were promised a place with God forever.

I agree that if the timing of the 'last day' was seen to be near, John's message might have encouraged courage, and take-up, by those who wanted to be raised and to have eternal life.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Our "time" only came into existence at the creation, and we can only talk of the timing of the creation by reference to our undertanding of time as it is today. We can say that the creation was 13 billion years ago, but that involves our concept of a year. We cannot say that the creation was on x in the way we can say that our observance of Easter this year was on 24 April. The same of course relates to the place of the creation.

To return to the post at the head of this page, the end of "time" will be the end of this universe.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I noticed John included a quote from Isaiah 54:13 (in v.45 = “...they will all be taught by God”) in support of Jesus' claim that God 'pulls' people to him to be raised up at the last day. I wonder if the context to Jesus' reference to the last day is, in fact, to be found in Isaiah 54 as a whole.

Isaiah does have an emphasis on a Day, but in the chapters around 54 the setting is less specific and more general, towards a promised future state of existence, when God will 'call you back' and 'bring you back' (54:6-7, mirrored in John 6:44 “...the Father draws them” perhaps?). This is dependent on God keeping to his promises in the well-being covenant (54:10, 55:3), which include benefits connoted by the metaphors of water and bread (55:1-2), figurative language that John majors on.

Additionally, of course, Isaiah 52-55 contain the suffering servant passage, something that Jesus might also have been referring to as the person who justifies (grants eternal life to?) many (Isa.53:11 = John 6:39-40, 47).

It would be interesting to see how far John may have intended the wider imagery from Isa. 54 and its surrounding context to be understood in these verses in chapter 6, and how it may relate to an understanding of 'the end / last day.'
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Many thanks for the link, Nigel (I knew there was something I had forgotten). Isaiah could be - perhaps is - a timeless message of hope for all people everywhere. "You will not be terrified again" is a brave promise and I take it as meaning "You will not be terrified of me again" - so what can there be to be afraid of any more? There will always be people around who try to frighten us - but they are weak, and we can withstand them. A good message to keep us warm at Christmas. Love to all Shippies.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
a P.S. to the above. I can't imagine John embracing the "Suffering Servant" imagery with regard to Jesus. Jesus is unrecognised, rejected, but overall it is his triumph and majesty that John majors on.

Is it time to move on yet (he says, sucking his lollipop in the back seat!)?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
It's in John's gospel that Jesus washes the disciples' feet in chapter 13, surely the most poignant demonstration of service.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Raptor Eye:
It's in John's gospel that Jesus washes the disciples' feet in chapter 13, surely the most poignant demonstration of service.

Especially since it was an unpleasant job usually done by servants. There was a lot of dung as well as dirt in the roads, and sandals provided very little protection.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Raptor Eye:
It's in John's gospel that Jesus washes the disciples' feet in chapter 13, surely the most poignant demonstration of service.

Of service, yes. Of suffering, no - not on the scale of Isaiah, surely? The washing of feet was a commonplace courtesy IIRC, and only in the houses of the rich would this have been done by servants.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
The interrogation, flogging, crown of thorns, rejection by the people, mockery and violence by the soldiers and the crucifixion itself reveals a great deal of suffering to me, such that it is Isaiah 53 rather than John which understates it.

The washing of feet would surely be carried out by the lowest person in the household.

The Isaiah chapters spell out once again the 'You've broken your promise, but I love you and I'll allow you to start afresh so that the future will be as good and better than you may ever hope' message repeated time and again in the Old Testament.

These and Jeremiah's 'new covenant' message (chapter 31) would have been familiar to John and to some if not all of those he aimed to reach, and fed into their hope of a Messiah. As such they would naturally inform the writing, particularly as the symbolism is repeated in the climax, ie the cross and resurrection.

As we know by the amount of leakage into common parlance by the King James version of the Bible, what we repeat becomes repeated. The scriptures of the time had been repeated orally for thousands of years.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Can't argue with that. It's useful to have one's subjective impressions challenged.

quote:
Your ancestors ate the manna in the wilderness, and they died.[50]This is the bread that comes down from heaven, so that one may eat of it and not die.
[John 6:49-50] "Your" - not "our" ancestors. He seems to be saying that those who believe in him will not die, like the ancestors died. All of them? Moses? Elijah? Ah, no he wasn't there at the Exodus, was he. But it is still not clear to me what is being said here. It can't be taken literally, can it? Because just as the ancestors died, so do we all, Christians or not. Is this not true?

One possibility is that, since believers will all be raised on the last day, they do not totally die in the meantime - just sleep. What we recognise as death, then, may be nothing of the sort for believers in Jesus Christ.

But clearly he means to distinguish this from the metaphorical sleep that is a Jewish commonplace "and so-and-so slept with his fathers," That this comforts people must be a good thing. But to me it is a puzzlement.

[ 31. December 2011, 20:39: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
While we are on this section ... the voice from the other back seat - “Daddy, I have to go pee-pee” - which tends to interrupt the journey's forward progress.

There's something of a chiasm in this section. It runs like this:-

(A) Manna as a sign of Jesus' heavenly origin (6:30-34)
...(B) Jesus is the bread of eternal life (6:35)
......(C) Seeing is believing (6:36)
.........(D) Jesus will raise up those who come to him, the Father's gives them to Jesus (6:37-40)
............(E) The Jews grumble: Jesus is a nobody (6:41f)
.........(D1)) Jesus will raise up those who come to him, the Father draws them to Jesus (6:44f)
......(C1) Seeing is believing (6:46)
...(B1) Jesus is the bread of eternal life (6:47f)
(A1) Manna as a sign of Jesus' heavenly origin (6:49-51)

At first sight it seems surprising that the focal point [line E] would be the objection to Jesus' heavenly origin. The grounds for the objection are that Jesus' immediate genealogy was known (his father, Joseph, and grandparents on Joseph's side). This, however, seems to be one of John's objectives – to present the evidence for Jesus' coming from God's realm, offsetting assorted claims to the contrary that rely on limited materialist grounds.

I have been wondering about the 'suffering servant' claim in that context. It is one of paradoxes in John that he trumpets the heavenly while at the same time furnishing the mundane. So much of John up to this point has been the somewhat heavenly – Jesus as sign giver, messiah, mirror of God, surpasser of Moses, rabbi, son of God, etc., etc. - and there is little of the earth to find. Even the language feels esoteric. Perhaps though we have had a little hint of something more earthy to come: in chapter 1 the Baptist calls Jesus the 'Lamb of God' (covered here), which could be a link to Isaiah 53:7-12
quote:
NET Bible
He was treated harshly and afflicted, but he did not even open his mouth.
Like a lamb led to the slaughtering block, like a sheep silent before her shearers,
he did not even open his mouth. He was led away after an unjust trial – but who even cared?
Indeed, he was cut off from the land of the living;
because of the rebellion of his own people he was wounded.
They intended to bury him with criminals, but he ended up in a rich man’s tomb,
because he had committed no violent deeds, nor had he spoken deceitfully.
Though the Lord desired to crush him and make him ill,
once restitution is made, he will see descendants and enjoy long life,
and the Lord’s purpose will be accomplished through him.
Having suffered, he will reflect on his work,
he will be satisfied when he understands what he has done.
My servant will acquit many, for he carried their sins.
So I will assign him a portion with the multitudes,
he will divide the spoils of victory with the powerful,
because he willingly submitted to death
and was numbered with the rebels,
when he lifted up the sin of many and intervened on behalf of the rebels.

Then there's the reference to the temple in chapter 2, where Jesus talks about the destruction of his body and it's being raised again in three days.

Strange to many ears today, this linguistic mix of earth and heaven. It's about to get even stranger, with talk of eating Jesus!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Cross-posted last with pimple's post. Honestly! You wait weeks for a post and then two come along at the same time!

RE: the 'sleep' idea, I wonder if John is making another of his double references here: the ancestors received a blessing (manna) yet died - both physically and metaphorically for eternal life - in the wilderness as a result of their rebellions. Those who come to (believe in) Jesus will be raised back to renewed life. Somehow. John is quiet on just how!
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Because just as the ancestors died, so do we all, Christians or not. Is this not true?

It seems to me that (as Nigel M points out) Jesus is referring to them (the ancestors who fled Egypt and ate manna in the wilderness) dying in the wilderness because they refused to enter the promised land of Canaan (which I take to represent heaven and eternal life). Numbers 14:32:

quote:
But as for you, your corpses will fall in this wilderness.
It doesn't make sense to me that he would be referring to their ancestors dying as a normal part of life.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you both. Especially the diagram, Nigel. I "get" a lot more when people draw pictures for me! You've whetted people's appetites with talk of how much more strange it.s going to get, so I'll put up the rest of the section:

quote:
I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Whoever eats of this bread will live forever; and the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh.
[6:50-51}
No wonder the Romans propagated rumours of cannibalism! I once thought such literal-mindedness was silly. I used to administer the bread at communion with the words "The body of Christ keep you in eternal life" and it seemed to me to be a great privelege to do that, and say that, even to people I didn't like very much.

quote:
The Jews then dicputed among themselves, saying, "How can this man give us his flesh to eat?"
[52] Jesus replies (though John does not say they disputed with him but, tantalisingly, does not answer the question:

quote:
So Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Those who eat my flesh and drink my blood abide in me, and I in them..."
[53-56]

Sending this while I go and check the Greek - this machine shuts itself off if I leave it for a couple of seconds.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I thought so. The "truly, truly" (verily, verily in KJV) sayings start with the (Hebrew) expression "Amen, amen..." which seems to serve more than one purpose (I hope a Hebrew scholar will put me right if I'm way off beam here).

Sometimes it seems to be said to emphasise the veracity of what is to come. But "Amen" on its own signifies acquiescence - "so be it".

Sometimes it appears to serve both functions at once. So that when the Jews are disputing among themselves he doesn't just barge in with a "shut up and listen" sort of attitude. It sounds to me more like "Yes, yes I know (what you're thinking/how difficult this is/what the traditions say) I hear all that (and understand) - BUT..."

As a further tangent, the amens spoken by Jews at the end of some formal prayers are rattled off at tremendous speed - nothing like the rather ponderous "verily verily" that we know so well.

[ 01. January 2012, 19:21: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Yes, my appetite has been whetted.

The chiastic shape and wording demonstrates the falling to rise message too, its lowest point unbelief, its highest faith with a hunger and thirst for God.

If eternal life begins before physical death, we enter into the enigmatic 'I in you and you in me' message and the symbolism of eating the flesh and drinking the blood of Christ.

Jesus was a firstborn male Jew, circumcised and clean, offered to the temple. Perhaps, by spiritually taking in his flesh, we inherit his cleanliness and adherence to the OT law while, as the adopted family of God, we are able to receive the Holy Spirit and eternal life.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thus far it has been learning by rote: eat bread, eat bread, bread eat, bread eat... yes, got it – then without a word of warning: eat my flesh. Whoa! What? Double take?!! Eat what???? Yuck! Seriously John, what are you doing here? You've put us in zombie territory!

I know those brought up on liturgy and all things trans-symbolic will know to read Eucharist/mass/lord's supper into this without missing a beat, but this isn't Eucharistic language. It isn't “eat my body [= soma, σομα],” this is the even more earthy “flesh” [= sarx, σαρξ]. What would John's first readers have made of this? Where they likely to read 'Eucharist' out of it, or something different? Where did John get this terminology from? Was it original to Jesus or did he take it up from somewhere in the OT?

John's use of 'sarx' up to this point has been interesting: only three instances to date -
quote:
But to all who have received him – those who believe in his name – he has given the right to become God’s children – children not born by human parents or by human desire [lit., will of the flesh] or a husband’s decision, but by God. Now the Word became flesh and took up residence among us. [John 1:13-14]

What is born of the flesh is flesh, and what is born of the spirit is spirit. [John 3:6]

He is setting 'flesh' against 'spirit' and referring to natural descent as opposed to Godly descent. 'Flesh' may not have quite the same negative connotation for John as it has for Paul, but it is still strange to hear Jesus say that he came down from heaven (“I am the bread from heaven”) and that whoever 'eats' from his natural human descent will live forever. That implies believing that Jesus did indeed have a natural human descent, yet his opponents had no problem with that concept! They believed that! It was the spiritual / heavenly side they were struggling with. Logically, if Jesus was promoting arguments for his heavenly descent, then the correct metaphor to use here would have been “eat of my spiritual body that came down like manna from heaven – that will get you saved.” Instead John has chucked a bucket of cold water over his audience and anticipated their reaction by recording the obvious objection as coming from the Jewish leaders.

As pimple noted, verse 52 has the Jews disputing among themselves about the objection, which implies there was mileage in having a discussion. Presumably the concept of 'eating flesh' was capable of interpretation a few ways and theologians, like good little philosophers, are never shy of an interpretation or two. Perhaps also lurking in the background are the prohibitions against eating blood in Leviticus and blood being the life of all flesh. Is that the target Jesus and John are aiming at here?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm certain Jesus was aiming to shock here. Not only does he use "sarx" (flesh) but he uses a word for eating that I understand is not precisely refined--something rather like "chomp" or "munch". And he repeats it again and again, as if to rub our noses in it. Why is the question.

Of course shock is one way for a teacher to make sure his hearers wake up and pay attention. But there's probably more going on here.

On the Eucharistic question, I'm sure Jesus is hinting at the Lord's Supper, though far more than that is going on. He does tend to talk on more than one level at once, and John has a fondness for recording that kind of thing.

Is it worth noting that this seems to be John's take on the Lord's Supper, just as John 13 is his somewhat veiled presentation of baptism? Otherwise he's got nothing on these sacraments, unlike the Synoptics.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Perhaps this language was used to stress the sacrificial aspect of Jesus's ministry, to engage with the language of sacrifice for sin. AFAIK, the sacrificial animal would be eaten and shared, and the people absolved from their sin.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Perhaps Jesus' use of the "unsophisticated" vernacular was a deliberate pre-empting of any clever-clever stuff from his audience. He did call a spade a spade on several occasions IIRC
(e.g. what defiles you aint what goes in your mouth, it's what comes out...)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
"...Just as the livinng Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so whoever eats me will live because of me.[58]This is the bread that came down from heaven, not like that which your ancestors ate, and they died. But the one who eats this bread will live forever."[59]He said these things while he was teaching in the synagogue at Capernaum.
[John6:57-59]

Is there any extant contemporary Jewish response to this extraordinary teaching?

We hear the disciples' response in the next verse. Would they have been in the synagogue at Capernaum, or is it more likely they received it from others who were?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Is there any extant contemporary Jewish response to this extraordinary teaching?

I can't think of anything contemporaneous to Jesus' time - though I'd like to do a search through the Dead Sea Scrolls to see if they contain any similar language use: 'crunching' or 'chewing' (as Lamb Chopped pointed out) on Jesus. Finding something would certainly throw some light on what John intended to be understood by the readers at this point. Either it was deliberately difficult to understand, or it was easy to understand and difficult to accept!

There is a reference in the Babylonian Talmud to 'eating (consuming) the Messiah in the time of Hezekiah' in the Sanhedrin text (at I.112), courtesy of Rabbi Hillel, but these texts were brought together a few hundred years after Jesus, so it's very difficult to tell if the figurative language was understood in any way by Jesus' contemporaries.

The early church writers (e.g., Hilary of Poitiers, Gregory of Nazianzus, Augustine, Chrysostom) focused less on what this 'crunching' meant in favour of expounding trinitarian or sacramental ideas.

From the text alone it would seem that John has compared Jesus' living because of the Father with the need for Jesus' followers to live because of Jesus. How to obtain this life? Perhaps the comparison is that Jesus 'chewed' on the Father – believed in? spent a long time meditating on? - and this forms a model for how the disciples were to 'chew' on Jesus. The verb used (= trogo, τρωγω) has something of a history in Greek literature (see the Perseus site here and click on the 'LSJ' link towards the top left) which might – just might – have implied more of a 'chewing over' intention, like the herbivore at work in the field of grass. Perhaps believing in Jesus also meant considering carefully his teaching, something that could fit quite well with the scene, teaching in the Capernaum synagogue.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Wow! Thank you for the mind-blowing Perseus link.
Your mention of the early Gregories et al sent me to "Part III" - an eighties compendium of post-biblical writings from St. Ambrose to Billy Graham. None of it helped with the current text under review, but it was all very enjoyable and some of it touchingly nostalgic.
 
Posted by NJA (# 13022) on :
 
Jesus would have fitted in with Old Testament "types and shadows".

The Passover lamb was to be eaten:

"they shall eat the flesh in that night, roast with fire, and unleavened bread; and with bitter herbs they shall eat it. Eat not of it raw, nor sodden at all with water, but roast with fire; his head with his legs, and with the purtenance thereof. (Ex. 12:8-9)

Not raw - Jesus cannot be digested naturally
Not sodden - do not attempt to add water "water down".
Roast with fire - through the Holy Spirit

Like many religious people, I tried to "digest" Jesus but couldn't get the strength that meat advertised ... until I received the Holy Spirit, then his Life became mine, my daily diet.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The is a link with Passover in this passage – the chapter kicks off with a time marker (in 6:4) to indicate that the Passover feast was near. It is a bit strange, though, that John would focus on the manna in the wilderness, rather than pick something to record about the actual passover remembrance with unleavened bread, if he was linking Jesus with the Passover 'bread of life' at this stage. That would have been a good link!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
But for the purposes of John's narrative, the Passover is an ominous presence, hanging over the life of Jesus like a Damocletian sword. Way back in 2.13 we are told that "The Passover of the Jews was near" and I'm not sure John was comfortable with the idea of Jesus as the paschal lamb. At the beginning of this chapter, too, he points out that the Passover is "the festival of the Jews" and "the Jews" however we interpret that phrase for our comfort, are seen as a continuing threat to John's community.

Much later on, we will encounter Jesus talking to the "Jews who believed him" - but even there the argument about the priority of Moses looms up again and Jesus turns on them - or John does.

[ 15. January 2012, 19:38: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What I'm trying to say here - not very clearly - is that Jesus seems to be presented here not so much as the Passover lamb as a substitute for it - that (metaphorically) eating him supersedes the old rite. Which is about as in-your-face as a gentile could possibly get. Yet John wasn't a gentile. Has he, like Paul, effectively abandoned his Jewish roots?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The fun of this approach to John – taking it in linear style as though one were part of the original audience hearing/reading it for the first time – includes wondering why John put things together in the way he did. I keep having to block out the “Oh yeah, I read this already; he gets resurrected in the end” spoiler in favour of taking John one piece at a time and chewing on his words of life!

John's introduction, where he sets out his main themes (1:1-18), gave a heads-up on some of the things we are coming across here. The concept of Jesus being flesh has a background in 1:14 - “The word became flesh and lived for a while...” That's fine, but the concept of 'lamb' has to wait for 1:29 and the Baptist's bellow: “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!” The question is: Is John making a link to the Passover lamb here, or doing something else? I rather suspect that he is at least linking to Isaiah 53:7 (“...he was led like a lamb to the slaughter...) because of the context of suffering and atoning, whereas the passover lamb had a different connotation. The Baptist has also just quoted from Isaiah (in 1:23), which also puts yer man the prophet in the frame.

Perhaps this is all part of the universal aspect or theme in John's message – the whole world is at stake here, not just the freeing of a community who followed God, something that would have made immediate sense if the link was to the Jews at the exodus from Egypt. Jesus as lamb in Isaiah 'bore the sins of many.' If so, then John keeps his roots in Judaism, but focusses on the world-wide remit that God has.

Then if I was a gentle gentile with christian tendencies reading this for the first time outside a first century taverna, I might be tempted to think, "Yes, he's talking about me here; I just wish he wasn't quite so graphic...."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Who told you I do all my homew*rk in the pub? [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The modern christian lifestyle follows a somewhat less symbolic reading of John's gospel: chewing food and slurping liquids while mediating on one's bible study material app. I do indeed declare loyalty to God, but if one were to investigate the contents of my wallet, one would be forgiven for thinking that my loyalties were hugely eclectic - judging by the number of coffee/tea shop loyalty cards therein.

Go on, tell me that they don't serve coffee in your library!
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
I admire Nigel's approach. I respect his scholarship and knowledege. But I suspect that, for him, it is all part of a "game" which he plays with great expertise and skill but without any commitment.

Which is a ssdness and a pity.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Shamwari. Wasn't that off-topic?
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Yeah, this is what the topic is at this juncture in this thread.

quote:
Originally posted by NJA:
Jesus would have fitted in with Old Testament "types and shadows".

The Passover lamb was to be eaten:

"they shall eat the flesh in that night, roast with fire, and unleavened bread; and with bitter herbs they shall eat it. Eat not of it raw, nor sodden at all with water, but roast with fire; his head with his legs, and with the purtenance thereof. (Ex. 12:8-9)

Not raw - Jesus cannot be digested naturally
Not sodden - do not attempt to add water "water down".
Roast with fire - through the Holy Spirit

Like many religious people, I tried to "digest" Jesus but couldn't get the strength that meat advertised ... until I received the Holy Spirit, then his Life became mine, my daily diet.

I don't see "Nigel's motivations and posting style" up there anywhere. And it certainly isn't something that should be the sole subject of a Kerygmania post. If you have any actual comments that Nigel made to attach your assessment to, Shamwari, go for it, but otherwise, this is not the place for an isolated character study.

And Latchkey Child, while I understand your irritation, next time express it in the form of a PM to a host.


Kelly Alves
Kerygmania Host.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Kelly, thanks for the update (creep!)But I think the Christian interpretation of Christ as the Paschal Lamb may have come later than John's Gospel. Nigel pointed out John (the Baptist's) recognition of Jesus as the "Lamb of God, who takes away the sins of the world" which is an older rite (isn't it?)

THere are two points about that sacrificial lamb - it is perfect and it is killed in place of the people - I think though I don't want to get into a long tangent about PSA.

That John should recognise Jesus as perfect is one thing - they were related, after all. But to recognize him as the sacrificial victim is pretty remarkable, right at the start of his (Jesus') ministry. I'm not sure if it's reasonable here to wonder if JBap had heard the prophecy of Mary's heartbreak to come?

[ 21. January 2012, 20:38: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
(creep!)

Pardon?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
[Kelly - I think the term pimple used is in its British slang sense rather than American, self-reflecting.]

RE: the Lamb reference again -

Is there any mileage in comparing its use here in John's gospel with the use in the book of Revelation?

If we start with the assumption that the author of one was the same author of the other, then perhaps the Revelation Lamb is one and the same as the Gospel Lamb. I know some are wary of making that assumption about authorship, but taking the thought forward...

The Revelation Lamb is something of an enigma to English ears. We think of those little bundles of joy that leap about the countryside each Spring, but the bundle in Revelation is more akin to a ram, barging into and destroying its enemies, revealing curse after curse, slain rather than sacrificed.

The Lamb of God – destroyed yet alive, harbinger of judgement to enemies and relief to allies. Interesting spin on John's take. “Behold the Lamb of God! Everyone – duck!!!”
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Sorry. Kelly, Nigel's right. (Creep!) = hark at me, sucking up to teacher!]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
That's why I said "Pardon?" [Big Grin] Thanks for the clarification.

[ 22. January 2012, 22:19: Message edited by: Kelly Alves ]
 
Posted by AristonAstuanax (# 10894) on :
 
I've been waiting for this section of John to come about for a time, time, and half a time—I was almost afraid I'd missed it!

I'd always heard this chapter, especially these verses, used as an argument either for or against transubstantiation—I know that Zwingli based his argument for memorialism on John 6, especially these passages, but I've also had Roman Catholic friends use them to justify transubstantiation. The hinge of the Zwingli's argument, as I understood it, was that cannibalism (literally eating Christ's flesh) was forbidden, and thus could not be commended by Christ; Christ was commanding his followers to eat and drink of his flesh and blood; thus, there must be some figurative significance to the words "flesh" and "blood." Furthermore, John 6:55, "My flesh is food indeed, and My blood is drink indeed," can seem to confirm this identification of Christ's flesh and blood with actual food and drink—actual food and drink stand in for His flesh and blood, but remain food and drink. Furthermore, in the Greek, the word translated "indeed" is "ἀληθής," usually translated "true" or "truly." Thus, Jesus is saying that the blood and flesh of His we eat in Communion is really and truly food and drink, not something else, like human flesh or blood, unfit for consumption.
Of course, the same passages seem to lend themselves to a transubstanianist (is that even a word?) reading. Christ is obviously telling his followers to eat of his flesh and drink of his blood; "unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in you;" therefore, Christ, having come to save us from death and the grave, must have instituted a way for us to eat/drink Him, lest his sacrifice be in vain. Thus, the elements of communion must become transubstantiated during the Mass. Furthermore, the above-cited "flesh indeed/drink indeed" passage affirms transubstantiation; rather than being mere mundane food or drink, the consecrated elements are true food and true drink.
It's so interesting to see a few chapters interpreted in so wildly divergent ways.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I love this passage. Can I throw in some wildly assorted thoughts?

1. There are other positions besides transubstantiationalism and memorialism. My own denomination coyly refuses to specify exactly what is going on Up There, but we do believe that Jesus' body and blood are in fact really and truly there, while at the same time we don't think the bread and wine have disappeared. So basically four "things" up there, if you will. Now ask "how can this be?" and Luther will answer with any or all of the above, depending on mood: a. "Who cares?" b. "None of our business" c. "Through the power of God's word" d. "If the Scripture doesn't tell us, I'm sure not going to specify." A few people have been bold enough to call it "consubstantiation", but we don't really go for that, because it sounds like we have an actual theory of what's going on--and we really don't dare go there.

Now as for John 6, we have to admit that it's all but impossible to avoid the Lord's Supper. And I do think John (Jesus) intended it this way, and John 6 is to communion what John 13 is to baptism and confession/absolution. But you have to sit loosely to it--you can't take every single statement in John 6 with complete literal exactitude and apply it to the Supper, anymore than you can take every detail of a poem or a parable and derive a geometric proof from it.

I take Jesus to be discussing two things at the same time, though on different levels. The most obvious and accessible level is faith. Eating and drinking his flesh and blood = having faith in him. So verses like "If you do not eat etc. you have no life in you" make perfect sense when read on that level. And that would have been potentially understandable to his listeners, even at that time before the Lord's Supper was instituted.

But on a deeper rhyming level you get all the Lord's Supper stuff which is just too close to be a coincidence. And here I have to believe that a) Jesus said it intentionally, knowing full well that we would see the Lord's Supper in it, and intending us to do so; and b) he also had in mind that his current hearers would NOT get it, and his disciples would not understand it till way later, but then would remember and record it (therefore the need for the Holy Spirit "to remind you of everything I myself have said to you"--I think that's in John 15 or 16 somewhere).

If this is correct, then you have to be careful about which verses you reference to the Lord's Supper, and just how literal/legalistic you get. I mean, it seems obvious to me that Jesus could not have meant "anybody who dies before taking communion is doomed," and so we can't take verse 53 to be strictly a reference to the Lord's Supper. That must be primarily about faith. So listening to Jesus becomes a bit of an exercise in agility--no clump, clump, clump of laborious interpretation here! He won't let himself be nailed down that way. (Ouch. Sorry. Hey, it's late here.)

[ 24. January 2012, 03:03: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Can I throw in some wildly assorted thoughts?
I expect I speak for everyone when I say "The more, the merrier. LC!"

This may be a useful time to note how difficult it was for some of the disciples to accept this teaching. Was John also addressing doubts among his own community?

quote:
When many of his disciples heard it, they said, "This teaching is difficult; who can accept it?[61]But Jesus, being aware that his disciples were complaining about it, said to them, "Does this offend you?[62]Then what if you were to see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?
[John6:60-62]

Why would the disciples' understanding of the teaching have offended them? The comment about seeing the Son of Man ascending rings bells but I'm not sure why.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It is interesting to see the range of significance that this larger passage throws up. The new verses throw in yet another apparent disconnect: what - if any - connection was being made between the chewing on Jesus' flesh / drinking his blood, and the son of man ascending? And why would the latter apparently be an even greater stumbling block to understanding (or believing) than the first?!!

A son of man entering the presence of God harks back to Daniel 7:13-14
quote:
I was watching in the night visions, and with the clouds of the sky one like a son of man was approaching. He went up to the Ancient of Days and was escorted before him. To him was given ruling authority, honor, and sovereignty. All peoples, nations, and language groups were serving him. His authority is eternal and will not pass away. His kingdom will not be destroyed.
To me this resonates again with Revelation and the victory of the Lamb theme. I wonder if the wilderness and manna link has to do with the followers of Jesus remaining loyal despite local difficulties, in view of the fact that they have a promised land ahead of them?
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
It is interesting to see the range of significance that this larger passage throws up. The new verses throw in yet another apparent disconnect: what - if any - connection was being made between the chewing on Jesus' flesh / drinking his blood, and the son of man ascending? And why would the latter apparently be an even greater stumbling block to understanding (or believing) than the first?!!

A son of man entering the presence of God harks back to Daniel 7:13-14
quote:
I was watching in the night visions, and with the clouds of the sky one like a son of man was approaching. He went up to the Ancient of Days and was escorted before him. To him was given ruling authority, honor, and sovereignty. All peoples, nations, and language groups were serving him. His authority is eternal and will not pass away. His kingdom will not be destroyed.
To me this resonates again with Revelation and the victory of the Lamb theme. I wonder if the wilderness and manna link has to do with the followers of Jesus remaining loyal despite local difficulties, in view of the fact that they have a promised land ahead of them?
Nigel, this throws up some very difficult questions. Who is the "son of man" in your own reference, and is that person the same as the Son of God? I suspect not. In your quotation from Daniel, is is important that the one approaching is like a son of man - and not the Son of Man. To me, this suggests that this is in fact Christ, who became incarnate, and was like a son of a man, just as you and I are. I agree that this resonates with the passages from Revelations to which you refer.

[ 27. January 2012, 00:41: Message edited by: Gee D ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Wow. A couple of great topics to munch on here!

I need to think a great deal further about AristonAstuanax's thoughts on a transubstanianist (surely that must be a word now!) reading. My encounter with the whole question of what happens during the sacrament took place in college three and a half yonks ago, and even then it was a quick skirmish with the issues followed by a “I'll leave that one well alone and do OT studies instead!” It would be massively interesting, though, to think through John's intention here and see what other's think (Lamb Chopped's wild assortment included).

Hardly past the kick-off on that topic, when Gee D launches another high ball into the field!

I'll start with the thoughts that came to mind on Gee D's 'son of man' / 'Son of God' theme in John, if I may.

I think John is rolling up a series of titles and names – along with their associations – into the figure of Jesus so that his readers can get a good grasp on who this Jesus is. I'm not so sure, though, that there is an intended difference between the one like a son of man and a separate Son of Man. I get to all of this from the following.

I'm starting from the view that John's background is Jewish and that he is drawing on Jewish thought and language, not Greek. Even though he is writing in Greek and kicks his gospel off with a somewhat stunning Greek philosophical term (Logos = ὁ λογος), I'm going to assume that he had no direct intention of invoking that particular background – possibly even for apologetic reasons. I think he was drawing on something else entirely and with a different end in sight. So, with that in mind...

John is keen to mention names or titles in his book. Cheating again by looking ahead of the current passage, he rounds everything up in 20:31 with
quote:
...these [miraculous signs] are recorded so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.
I think this summary and the introduction in chapter 1 are crucial for understanding John's intention in respect of the titles he uses. When I place the summary alongside the introduction and chapter 6 (among other places), I see some interesting links. John introduces the 'Christ' title in his introduction and provides a translation in 1:41 (= the messiah). The messiah was the God-appointed figure (symbolised by anointing) with the responsibility of stewarding God's creation and people. 'Son' was another title that had similar associations, it referred to someone who had authority and responsibility to act on God's behalf. When John the Baptist links the title 'The Son of God' with the other title 'The Lamb of God' in chapter 1 (vv 29-36), I think he is drawing on the theme in Isaiah – spelled out more fully in the book of Revelation – of a figure who suffers for his loyalty and who is vindicated as a result (to the woe of his enemies). Holding that thought in one hand for a moment...

What about the 'Word' title – that most Greek of Greek philosophical concepts? To remain consistent with John's approach, I find myself agreeing with those who argue for a background in the Jewish Targumim, where the Hebrew texts of the Jewish bible are translated into Aramaic. Here there are occasions when the translators had to cope with phrases that implied the existence of more than one person in the Godhead – particularly the phrase “The word of the Lord...” There are instances when the text implies a personality to this 'Word' and the Aramaic translation deals with this by personifying the 'Word' with the Aramaic title Memra (= ממרא). Reading the Targums, one gets the distinct impression that the translators had no issue with this second god-like figure in their belief system. By Jesus' time these translations may simply be reflecting an existing belief that there was another power on the block, totally loyal to the God of Israel.

This would mean that John's introduction, with its claim that the logos was with God in the beginning, is setting out something already familiar to his readers: the Memra as a second (deity?) figure in the presence of God. Holding that thought in the other hand for a moment...

What about the mention in the gospel of a 'name'? In chapter 6 we have the repetition of the theme from the introduction: believing in the name leads to real life, e.g. from 1:12f
quote:
But to all who have received him – those who believe in his name – he has given the right to become God’s children, children not born by human parents or by human desire or a husband’s decision, but by God.
I'm not sure that John here meant the proper name 'Jesus' as such. I think there's something more going on. I have been wondering if the referent is to the memra of God (equivalent to Word of the Lord) and through that a very close link to God the Father. The 'Name' Jesus has been given, as 'Word,' has been with God from the beginning (1:2) and was actively involved in creating life (1:3). This links nicely with the focus of chapter 6 – Jesus has been sent to bring real, full life, to those who believe.

Going back to other titles, there could be a link between this 'Word / Memra' as being very close to, yet still distinct from, the God character, and the title 'Son of God.' Still keeping to the idea that John's language thought base is Jewish rather than Greek, he would be using 'Son' in the sense of one chosen and appointed to fulfil a very responsible role for God. This would place it on a par with the title 'messiah.' Indeed that is what John does explicitly in his summary at 20:31.

So I'd like to suggest that when John mentions 'the name' in his gospel, he is not focussing on the proper noun 'Jesus,' but is rather bringing in a range of titles that would have the effect of situating Jesus firmly in the presence of God the Father as a man with a mission. This would be achieved by bringing to the forefront of his readers' minds the expectations associated with those titles.

If 'Son of God' equates to the 'Memra/Word' of God' and 'messiah' as the figure who is so loyal to the Father that he is prepared to suffer for his beliefs and actions, then there is a decent link the next title: 'son of man' (chapter 6:62). This figure, calling on the Daniel 7 reference, enters God's court, is vindicated by God, and is given the full authority of a complete messiah. Is this what John means when he introduces the title in 1:51? When Nathaniel affirms Jesus as Son of God and King of Israel (another nice link to an authority figure!), Jesus responds:
quote:
”...you will see heaven opened and the angels of God ascending and descending on [or to?] the Son of Man.”
Whether the correct reading is of angels travelling upon this figure, or travelling to heaven and then to the figure, the context would be of the Son of God / King person also being the point of contact between God's presence and the earth. The link between this figure and those other titles suggest to me that there was no intention to distinguish a Son of Man from Daniel's 'one like a son of man.' The attributes of both seem to be one and the same.

I've been trotting around John's houses here a bit, but coming back to 6:61 it would be possible to see John's concern to establish Jesus' credentials along pre-existing Jewish lines. This 'son of man' is the Son of God, the messiah, the Memra, and the 'name'. He has extraordinary power: he created everything (including all earthly powers) and supervises it all in God's 'name.' Such a huge bringing together of themes into this one person caused many to stumble, including some of those who followed Jesus initially. The call is, therefore, on to continue with the belief so that they do not miss out on the eternal kingdom.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I am surprised that "son of man" is read as a title in Daniel. In the dream as described in NRSV, the literal translation from the Aramaic is given as a footnote, while the text has "one like a human being...." which AFAIK is both accurate and sensible.

This does, though, beg the question "What did Jesus say/mean when he used the phrase?" Did he use the same term as that in Daniel?" We can't be sure; we don't have the original Aramaic in this case, and the nonsensical "What is truth?" should alert us to how easily things are lost and/or distorted in translation, The definite article is I believe understood in some semiticc constructs - Latin dosen't have it at all.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Hmm. Posted that before reading Nigel's long exposition above. Which I think is much more interesting to go with. But I'll steer clear of Revelation, if you don't mind, and leave that to those who can take it seriously (maybe one day I will).

The point about "life in his name" is interesting. Names were highly auspicious in biblical times. Some couldn't even be mentioned.
To be invited to be one of a group identified by a holy name that could not only be mentioned but regarded with great intimacy must have been more powerful an incentive than it's even possible to imagine today. I think.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I am surprised that "son of man" is read as a title in Daniel. In the dream as described in NRSV, the literal translation from the Aramaic is given as a footnote, while the text has "one like a human being...." which AFAIK is both accurate and sensible.

I think you're right about Daniel; it doesn't read like a title there. It seems to have made a transition to a title (with definite article) sometime after Daniel and before the writing of 1 Enoch 37-71 and 4 Ezra 13 (2 Esdras), which might just mean those later writers were referring back to Daniel - “The one who appeared in human likeliness to Daniel.”

Even Daniel's use might just be another way of saying “a man” in the same way he talks about the beasts earlier in chapter 7: “like a lion...”, “like a bear...” etc. In this way it is similar to the modern phrase heard scattered all over English, “some sort of...” - especially, it seems, in Star Trek episodes. “It's some sort of force field...” Well, either it is or it isn't, but there we are.

So perhaps Jesus' (and John's) usage is akin to saying in 6:62, “What if you see the human who appeared in Daniel's dream going up to where he had been previously?”

The Jewish interpretations of the Daniel passage from the century around Jesus' time all appear to equate this 'one in human likeness' as a (or the) messiah. Perhaps John was tapping into that stream when he pulled both figures together and tagged them onto Jesus.

Which still leaves the question of chewing on his flesh and how on earth that came to be so closely associated with all these figures. Anyone heard of a text from the time that has the faithful people of God chewing the messiah???
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
I would not have read the use in Daniel as a title. Rather, it is redolent of the incarnation of Christ and His taking His humanity back to the Father; the reconciliation of the Creator and His creation.

I confess to great wariness of Revelations. It is far too complex for my learning and I am fearful of falling into error.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
In answer to Nigel. That was a great help. Visions, paradoxically, are not always completely optical. What we see in our minds - both waking and sleeping - can sometimes be difficult both to recognise and to describe.

If God can produce an angel who looks like a man (or vice-versa!) he must equally be capable of cutting out the middle man (the optic nerve) so to speak. and appearing diectly to the brain. It's the interpretation that matters.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
I have been following this thread with interest but increasing alarm.

The debate assumes that the words recorded are the actual words of Jesus.

I have reason to doubt that. I take John's gospel as a deep theological reflection of what Jesus meant to John. The great " I AM" sayings being typical. But I cannot imagine Jesus ever saying such egotistical things. The more so since the Synoptic gospels report him as always pointing AWAY from Himself.

And when it comes to the Daniel saying about the Son of Man (immediately above) my take is that Daniel is reflecting the Vindication of a people persecuted and suffering. Jesus embodies that suffering and His quote from Daniel affirms his conviction that God would VINDICATE him.

Which is what happened. The Ascension is a story of Jesus, the Son of Man, coming TO God on the clouds of heaven. Jesus is VINDICATED, which, to me, is the meaning of resurrection and ascension.

Am I so far out?

[ 29. January 2012, 16:21: Message edited by: shamwari ]
 
Posted by Alex Cockell (# 7487) on :
 
Just found this thread...

quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
ok. Back one and forward two, for the convenience of those who don't have a bible handy:
quote:
When he looked up and saw a large crowd coming towards him, Jesus said to Philip, "Where are we to buy bread for these people to eat?" He said this to test him, for he himself knew what he was going to do. Philip answered him, "Six months' wages [Gk. 200 denarii] would not buy enough bread for each of them to get a little."
[John 6:5-7]

There is an interesting difference between this and the synoptic versions. Mark gives the fullest, probably earliest account, in which the problem of how to feed the crowd comes from the disciples. Jesus' response to the dilemma is to tell them "You feed them then - give them yours."
which seems to suggest that J wasn't prepared to do all the work himself!

Matthew gives an abbreviated version, while Luke, the "evangelist for the people" as one old Benedictine once told me, leaves it out entirely. (Someone correct me if I'm wrong it seems an odd ommission.

Now putting these accounts (or lack of them) next to John's is not for the purpose of settin g one witness against another. The differences need to be acknowledged. For some, they will pose problems; for others, it will only open us up to a wider range of possibilities.

So back to John, who always depicts Jesus in a pro-active, never a re-active role:

quote:
One of his disciples, Andrew, Simon Peter's brother, said to him, "There is a boy here who has five barley loaves and two fish. But what are they among so many people?" Jesus said, "Make the people sit down....[and although we know the story very well, we hold our breath. while John, the consummate dramatist, delays the action with a quite unnecesary comment about bloody grass!]
Now there was a great deal of grass in the place, so they sat down, about five thousand in all

[John6:8-10] Some commentaries point out that the five thousand was just the men!

Just as an aside - barley loaves were apparently "poor fare — tasteless, teeth-bending biscuits that were barely edible" - hardtack

So the kid's lunch was effectively a pack of Biscuits Brown and a tin of fish.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry - perhaps I'm in too much of a hurry. But the link is all about Gideon. I guess it's about what G fed his army on. Hard tack? I thought that was the (British) navy!

Shamwari. No need to be alarmed. You're not the only Christian who believes that the gospels should not - or cannot - be read literally. But unless there are going to be so many tangents based on the varieties of metaphorical interpretation placed on, or derived from, John, that we never get through the gospel at all, those of us with minority views might get more out of the discussion if we make some attempt to listen to the traditionalists. We don't have to agree with them, but our own understanding can be enlarged that way. This is only my personal opinion and not an attempt at sub-hosting.
 
Posted by Alex Cockell (# 7487) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Sorry - perhaps I'm in too much of a hurry. But the link is all about Gideon. I guess it's about what G fed his army on. Hard tack? I thought that was the (British) navy!

Shamwari. No need to be alarmed. You're not the only Christian who believes that the gospels should not - or cannot - be read literally. But unless there are going to be so many tangents based on the varieties of metaphorical interpretation placed on, or derived from, John, that we never get through the gospel at all, those of us with minority views might get more out of the discussion if we make some attempt to listen to the traditionalists. We don't have to agree with them, but our own understanding can be enlarged that way. This is only my personal opinion and not an attempt at sub-hosting.

Hardtack is a generic term to describe military-type biscuits - the Rakik is a type of cracker which could be seen as a barley flour version of wheat hardtack.

5 rakik crackers.... plain military biscuits are often packed in 5s or 6s...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you for the link Alex, I've put it on my desktop as an aide-memoire when I get to write the biblical blockbuster. It includes a reference to the importance of barley bread in ancient ritual which may also have been in John's mind, perhaps.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Time for just a quick post and then have to push off for another week...
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
The debate assumes that the words recorded are the actual words of Jesus...

It's a good point and we haven't really discussed this, or at least it's been a while since pimple also raised it as an issue. The following occurred to me:-

For myself, I think all points made on the thread thus far would still stand, even if nothing in the gospel could be traced back to "the very words" of Jesus. The reason would be that John (or whatever name the author or authors had) is within the historical cone, as it were, that has its originating focal point attached to the experience of being a follower of Jesus during his earthly ministry. John draws out significances that are firmly based on an authorial meaning. This is a similar point to the one you make, I know, but I don't see it as a block to significance.

Additionally to this, though, I think there is good evidence from within the gospel to show that John is drawing on the same foundational material that his synoptic partners had access to. Not necessarily the same documentary material (if that is what the synoptic writers were using), but the same record of preaching, teaching, and missioning that the first Christians were using. Given the nature of oral tradition - accurate presentation of core verbal material, subject to community validation - I think it historically reliable that John is indeed recording accurately the core material from Jesus. John may indeed be emphasising certain themes over others, but I can see the same origin of "I AM" sayings (for example) in the synoptic record of Jesus' condemnation for admitting being the Son of God.

I absolutely agree with the 'validation' point in Daniel - a great covenant theme, that! I would say that it would be quite reasonable to assume Jesus understood it that way, too, and used it accordingly.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This chapter really is remarkable for the variety of themes it encompasses. Feeding the five thousand, walking on the water, Jesus as the bread of life - which must be consumed by the believer, the inadequacy of reliance on tranditional Jewish beliefs, and the promise of eternal life for those who make the switch. It ends, ISTM, on a rather sour note, and one which seems to give good reason for doubting just how historically accurate the reported words of Jesus are. Traditional christians may take comfort in the bigger picture that John paints,
but for many the next few verses may be tough going:

quote:
[63]"...It is the spirit that gives life; the flesh is useless. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.[64]But among you there are some who do not believe." For Jesus knew from the first who were the ones that did not believe..
[John6:64-64a]

Which, according to John, included the Beloved Disciple, who did not believe until the resurrection. Is John, then - if the author is the BD, being humble, confessional, here - or merely careless?

And how does a non-believer become "that disciple whome Jesus loved"?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Meh, they get called "you of LITTLE faith" all over the place, not "you of no faith." The reference to "who did not believe" I understand to mean Judas. There is a difference between the disciples (well, eleven of them) and the unbelievers. Not that the disciples are very clueful, but even a little light is better than pitch dark. (they're dim lords, not Dark Lords.)

[ 05. February 2012, 23:05: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
You're in the wrong gospel, LC. Only Matthew and Luke. AFAIK, quote "ye of little faith". We're talking about belief here, not faith (in John there is surely a difference).

Judas Iscariot, though, is certainly one of John's targets:

quote:
[64b] For Jesus knew from the first who were the ones that did not believe, and who was the one that would betray him.[65]And he said, "For this reason I have told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted by the Father.
He seems to be saying that although he (Jesus) had chosen Judas (why - knowing him to be the betrayer?) the Father had blocked his choice.

quote:
[66] Because of this many of his disciples turned back and no longer went about with him.
Hardly surprising.
 
Posted by Balaam (# 4543) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Time for just a quick post and then have to push off for another week...
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
The debate assumes that the words recorded are the actual words of Jesus...

It's a good point and we haven't really discussed this, or at least it's been a while since pimple also raised it as an issue. The following occurred to me:-

For myself, I think all points made on the thread thus far would still stand, even if nothing in the gospel could be traced back to "the very words" of Jesus. The reason would be that John (or whatever name the author or authors had) is within the historical cone, as it were, that has its originating focal point attached to the experience of being a follower of Jesus during his earthly ministry. John draws out significances that are firmly based on an authorial meaning. This is a similar point to the one you make, I know, but I don't see it as a block to significance.

Even if you take the words which start "Jesus said" as authentic words, John's Gospel usually goes on to commentry. There are places, often further on in the same passage, where it is clearly John commenting on what has been said or what has happened. What is not clear is where the words of Jesus end and the words of John start.

In the end it does not really matter, all are words of the Gospel, and should be taken as such rather than explained away.

Jesus is the Good Shepherd; Jesus is the Way, the Truth and the Life etc. It is up to us to live out the reality of this in our lives.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Balaam:
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Time for just a quick post and then have to push off for another week...
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
The debate assumes that the words recorded are the actual words of Jesus...

It's a good point and we haven't really discussed this, or at least it's been a while since pimple also raised it as an issue. The following occurred to me:-

For myself, I think all points made on the thread thus far would still stand, even if nothing in the gospel could be traced back to "the very words" of Jesus. The reason would be that John (or whatever name the author or authors had) is within the historical cone, as it were, that has its originating focal point attached to the experience of being a follower of Jesus during his earthly ministry. John draws out significances that are firmly based on an authorial meaning. This is a similar point to the one you make, I know, but I don't see it as a block to significance.

Even if you take the words which start "Jesus said" as authentic words, John's Gospel usually goes on to commentry. There are places, often further on in the same passage, where it is clearly John commenting on what has been said or what has happened. What is not clear is where the words of Jesus end and the words of John start.

In the end it does not really matter, all are words of the Gospel, and should be taken as such rather than explained away.

Jesus is the Good Shepherd; Jesus is the Way, the Truth and the Life etc. It is up to us to live out the reality of this in our lives.

Couldn't agree more with your first paragraph. Not being a conventional christian I have reservations about the rest. But the significance of John's gospel is enormous - much too important to be left to conventional christianity! So welcome aboard, and don't mind my heterodox mutterings.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
We've got an example of the shift between speech and commentary here in the current verses – and it is a nice test case of the assorted 'worlds' involved:-

[1] The author's world: John states “For Jesus had already known from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.” The author steps on the stage to explain something - and thus reveals himself.

[2] The original world: Where Jesus, as reported, creates a zone of tension that forces a decision, by wrestling with his opponents over interpretation of the Jewish scriptures and the implications of his interpretation.

[3] The textual world: With specific actors on stage – deliberately chosen for a reason. E.g., outer circle of the crowd, inner circle of disciples (quite numerous at this stage), Jesus at the focal point, a secondary circle of opponents with power (labelled 'Jews' and standing to a side), and a core of followers labelled 'the twelve.' By the end of the section (not there yet – moving into chapter 7) the outer circle has dissipated, the inner circle has reduced, Jesus remains a focal point though his opponents are now more firmly placed opposite him, and we have a new tension – the devil in the detail (Judas).

[4] The implied author's world: how the author is perceived as the work unfolds. This aspect applies especially where there is no certainty over who the actual author was. Here is someone who has a knowledge of the scenery (Palestinian geography), social structures around the time of Jesus, the teaching method Jesus used, the themes that were considered important, etc. We build a picture of this author and, for better or worse, this picture informs the significance we draw from the piece as a whole.

[5] The implied audience's world: We also build a picture of the audience to this piece, which in turn may be close or not to pinning the tail on the donkey, but which will also impact on how we perceive the piece.

[6] Our world: Sneakily in the background while working through the above (whether consciously or not), we have been subject to an experiment of galactic proportions. The piece has been worming its way behind ours eyes to kick the tin cans of our presuppositions down the worldview street. We probably don't know it, but we are not the same person once the data of the piece has wormed its way into our software. Now we are intrigued, or frustrated, or bored, or annoyed. Something has happened. And now we have to double-take the worlds above to try and make conscious and obvious that which has snuck through our defences.


The theme of 'life for ever' and its source has been stressed in chapter 6. Several roundabout ways are played out for hinting that Jesus himself is the source and his authority is no less than God the Father. The style of address is not unlike that of the other gospels – parabolic. To my mind it is one of the demonstrations of the author's integrity that he retains this rhetorical style and then has to explain in parentheses that was meant, instead of cutting directly to the chase. The historical cone is also a megaphone through which Jesus speaks. The idea that belief is a requisite for life is not uniquely Johannine, neither is the idea that Jesus has been sent by the Father, or that he taught in Capernaum and had a secret dissenter in his immediate group of followers. I guess also that there arose a key point of decision for his general followers, some point in the ministry when many pulled away after stumbling over his words – again the other gospels reflect this.

The crucial block here, for me, is the inference that belief in Jesus is not enough unless one also believes in his words. Life through his words. There must have been a reason that caused the author to emphasis this point.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I'll need to print that off and keep it by me. Wonder what page of the thread we're on, printer-wise...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Will someone post the nest couple of verses? I just tried, and added a reasonable comment.
Then hit one of the delete buttons I can never find when I bloody look for one. Pissed off.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Pissed off.

...in the words of many of the disciples who no longer followed Jesus. So Jesus asked the Twelve, "Are you pissed off too?" Or in the vernacular...
quote:
So Jesus said to the twelve, “You don’t want to go away too, do you?” Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom would we go? You have the words of eternal life. We have come to believe and to know that you are the Holy One of God!”
John 6:67-69
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Killing me]

Now we have another title - "The holy one of God" - is it used anywhere else or is it just an expression of faith used by Peter on the spur of the moment? Is it equivalent to "the Messiah"? Or does "of God" carry even greater significance?

[Edited to remove half a page of "killing me" emoticons]

[ 15. February 2012, 15:39: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Balaam (# 4543) on :
 
I've always understood "the holy one of God" to be synonymous with the Messiah or the Christ, are there any other theories as to what it could mean?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
[Killing me]

Now we have another title - "The holy one of God" - is it used anywhere else or is it just an expression of faith used by Peter on the spur of the moment? Is it equivalent to "the Messiah"? Or does "of God" carry even greater significance?

[Edited to remove half a page of "killing me" emoticons]

Oh dear. I'm afraid the examples that leap to mind for me are cases where the demons are speaking (e.g. Mark 1). [Eek!]

But seriously, I take it to be more or less equivalent to "Son of God" or "Word of God"--that is, the One who comes forth from the Father. And that's based on the fact that the demons wouldn't particularly care about the human titles of glory (you never hear them popping up with "Son of David" or "King of Israel," for example) but would certainly be familiar with the Trinity, at least in a general knowledge way. Plus shooting their (borrowed) mouths off about his divine status is a pretty clear attempt to shred his human "cover"* before he was ready to have that announced to everybody in earshot.

* Before somebody says it, no, I'm not denying the human nature. Just pointing out that for Jesus' purposes (staying alive long enough for at least a couple of years to preach and do ministry), it was best to keep the human nature in the forefront and not run around shouting about the deity stuff like the demons did. After all, that's the claim what got him crucified in the end, wasn't it?

[ 16. February 2012, 23:13: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Some later manuscripts, books, and versions have different readings here. Tertullian has “the Christ.” Others read “the son of God,” while others – possibly playing safe – have “the Christ the son of God.” Even others push the boat out with “the Christ, the Son of the living God.” A few mix things with “the Christ, the Holy One of God.” Perhaps some scribes were influenced by Peter's confession in the other three synoptic gospels, where “the Holy One of God” does not appear. Fancy that. Tinkering with the Holy Word of God!

God is often referred to as 'the Holy One' in the OT and Isaiah uses the phrase 'the Holy One of Israel' quite often. As Lamb Chopped noted, it's the demons who readily associate Jesus with the title (in the synoptics). They, like Peter, 'know' that Jesus is the Holy One of (or from) God. John seems to use the word 'know' as a synonym for 'believe' – though whether that was also intended in the synoptics, I'm not sure. I suppose the demons could be declaring their complete that Jesus was indeed the Holy One from God, though there is a difference in believing that... and believing in...

Anyway, there seems to be clear break here in John – a crisis in Jesus' ministry, brought about by Jesus himself, it seems – where Jesus' followers have to make a clear choice. They cannot believe that there might be someone else to go to, they have to declare their loyalty to Jesus alone. John pulls in as many titles as he can in his work to make the point that Jesus is appointed and approved by God. Undivided loyalty is demanded – something that needed to be stressed before John introduces the next theme in the plot. But wait, dear reader! Less haste!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Big tangent, prompted by Lamb Chopped's talk of pre-emptively shredding the human nature and making the crucifixion happen too soon. An enormous "what if" comes to mind with regard to the resurrection. If Jesus had stayed around - on earth, that is, even as both God and man, wouldn't the authorities have wanted a second try? And his followers, in the light of the resurrection, would have no problem with that - they wouldn't expect him to accept a second cricifixion.

The (highly hypothetical) problem here is that the authorities wouldn't stand a chance against an intransigent risen God. But they'd make a right mayhem with his followers. I wonder if that is one of the reasons he returned to his Father fairly quickly - because, just as his crucifixion had to take place at the right and proper time, so also Armageddon, or The Day of the Lord, or whatever you want to call it, wasn't due yet?[/Tangent off - probably another thread needed]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Wrapping up chapter 6 - or rather, inviting wrappings-up:

quote:
Jesus answered them, "Did I not choose you, the twelve? Yet one of you is a devil." He was speaking of Judas, son of Simon Iscariot[parentage varies in different ancient texts], for he, though one of the twelve, was going to betray him.
[John6:70-71]

John being helpful again, most probably. Most modern christians have no problem with Jesus having chosen Judas as one of the twelve, though many might find it hard to swallow the inference that Judas was the only one who could be trusted with the treasurer's job [John scotches that idea, too, later on].

But it puts Jesus in an ambiguous position for John's hearers, a straightforward "Did I not choose you, the twelve?" People might ask "What about Judas? Didn't he know - ? Of course he knew says John.

Had he named the betrayer, of course, the other disciples would have kicked him out. But the biblical record is that they thought Judas was kosher right up to the last minute.

So would Jesus have made such a remark, without naming the actual miscreant? Not the best way to enthuse your troops, is it? They were an argumentative lot in the first place, and this sort of warning (so that they would remember what he said when it came to pass - a favourite explanation among christian spin doctors!) would only increase tension, anxiety and mutual mistrust among them.

So I suggest Jesus kept shtum, on that score, and John means well to meet possible objections half-way.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
You knew of course that I would differ. [Biased]

I think that Jesus did NOT in fact know who the betrayer would be until quite late in his ministry. He knew there would be one, both from prophecy and from common sense--take any twelve guys and subject them to the kind of trials and temptations that the Twelve underwent over a three year period, particularly at the end, and dollars to doughnuts you'll have at least one betrayer, if not more. It's human nature.

(tangent: much as Martin Luther King Jr. knew very well he would be assassinated. It didn't take the gift of prophecy to see that coming, no sirree).

I suspect that in the last couple months or so Jesus became certain--we see him making some efforts to reach out to Judas, both with Law and Gospel, though to no avail. I take this occasion you've referenced as one of those attempts--if you know one of your intimates is planning a betrayal, and you are nevertheless still concerned for that person's welfare, you would do your possible to warn them off. Jesus can't get much clearer without naming names here--and that would a) interfere with Judas' free will, and b) screw up prophecy, though again, given human nature, only for a short time--some other betrayer would arise soon enough.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Can't really argue with any of that, LC - and I really like the idea that he's warning Judas in a last-ditch attempt to save him (from himself, as it were) while knowing that he (Jesus) would inevitably be betrayed anyway.

Any more conjectures. anyone?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Strong language that – “...one of you is [the] devil.” Similar rhetoric to Jesus' retort to Peter in Matt. 16:23 - “Get behind me, Satan!”

More relevant from the point of view of the subject is Luke 22:3 - “Then Satan entered Judas, called Iscariot, one of the Twelve.” Somewhere along the line the followers of Jesus picked up the idea that what Judas did must have come from the devil. In John, suddenly his narrative turns to the dark side – we've climbed a gentle, sunny slope, and have come over the peak of a hill to stare down the further cloudy side into a shadowy valley where the sun don't shine.

Shoulder packs, everyone!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Is it possible that the evangelists - all of them - are writing with hindsight in their identification of Judas as the betrayer? It would explain quite a lot.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I would certainly think so. John tells us that everybody (but Jesus, and possibly Peter, whom Jesus had just told!) watched Judas go out the door at the Last Supper with no idea that he was up to anything improper. I rather think some of them may have greeted him in the garden later with pleasure--at least until they realized who he had at his back, and why!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Continuing with a section on "the unbelief of Jesus' brothers" (NRSV) -

quote:
After this Jesus went about in Galilee. He did not wish [other authorities say was not at liberty] to go about in Judaea because the Jews were looking for an opportunity to kill him.
[John7:1] It might be useful to get out of the way the problem (for some) of who Jesus' brothers were (or weren't). Without a gloss from the evangelist to say otherwise, we must assume he was happy with the idea of Mary having had other children besides Jesus.

Well, no. We mustn't assume anything, I guess. Any comments?

[ 27. February 2012, 16:21: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
No problem? On we go, then:

quote:
Now the Jewish festival of Booths [or Tabernacles] was near. [3]So his brothers said to him, "Leave here and go to Judaea so that your disciples also may see the works you are doing; [4]for no-one who wants to be widely known acts in secret. If you do these things, show yourself to the world." [5](For not even his brothers believed in him)
[John7:2-5]

What on earth's all that about?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Spite, malice and jealousy. Read it aloud with a snarky voice and you'll see.
 
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
It might be useful to get out of the way the problem (for some) of who Jesus' brothers were (or weren't). Without a gloss from the evangelist to say otherwise, we must assume he was happy with the idea of Mary having had other children besides Jesus.

Well, no. We mustn't assume anything, I guess. Any comments?

Sorry, I'm a bit slow off the mark here. This subject was thoroughly chewed over in the thread: Perpetual virginity of Mary? now residing in Oblivion, which I followed at the time of its creation. To save fellow Kerygmaniacs the trouble of reading all 6 pages, I would say that the case was 'not proven' either way.

In favour of the proposition in the thread title was the point that in the society of the time, the word translated as 'brothers' had a wider semantic range than 'brother' does today, and could be used to refer to a wide variety of male relatives. So it didn't prove beyond reasonable doubt that Mary had other children after bearing Jesus. There was some appeal to an argument that the use of Mary's womb for carrying the Holy Child rendered her womb hallowed, and therefore 'single-use-only', but I forget the basis for this argument.

Contrary to the proposition, Matt 1:25 was cited, where Joseph is said to have 'had no union with her until she gave birth to a son' (NIV); where the implication of the word 'until' was that after the birth of Jesus, Mary and Joseph did have a normal sexual relationship. But this was insufficient to convince the opposition, with arguments about whether the word 'until' implied a change at the time at which the 'until' condition ended, and the thread tailed off with no clear weight of evidence either way.

My own opinion is that I can see no objection to Mary and Joseph conceiving children after the birth of Jesus, not least because I see sexual union between husband and wife as holy, too. But I admit this is not enough to convince those whose opinion gives greater weight to other factors. I'm not sure that it's all that important...
Angus
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
There is also a three-page Kerygmania thread in Limbo.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Spite, malice and jealousy. Read it aloud with a snarky voice and you'll see.

I think I see what you mean, LC, though I might express it slightly differently - an example, perhaps, of the tone of the text (or even the subtext) surviving translation, and allowing us to read (cautiously!) between the lines - a not uncommon facet of biblical narrative, if you are open to it.

Moo and Angus, thanks for the links and the helpful resumé. I'm of the same opinion regarding the brotherhood. I think that in their brief appearance here, John may well be using them to explain Jesus' reluctance to "go public" earlier than he did:

quote:
[6]Jesus said to them, "My time has not yet come, but your time is always here.[7]The world cannot hate you, but it hates me because I testify against it that its works are evil.[8]Go to the festival yourselves. I am not going to this festival, for my time has not yet fully come" [9]After this, he remained in Galilee.
Well - for a bit, anyway. I just love the qualification "but your time is always here" - skittling any chance of his followers using the same excuse!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Spite, malice and jealousy. Read it aloud with a snarky voice and you'll see.

I think I see what you mean, LC, though I might express it slightly differently - an example, perhaps, of the tone of the text (or even the subtext) surviving translation, and allowing us to read (cautiously!) between the lines - a not uncommon facet of biblical narrative, if you are open to it.

Moo and Angus, thanks for the links and the helpful resumé. I'm of the same opinion regarding the brotherhood. I think that in their brief appearance here, John may well be using them to explain Jesus' reluctance to "go public" earlier than he did:

quote:
[6]Jesus said to them, "My time has not yet come, but your time is always here.[7]The world cannot hate you, but it hates me because I testify against it that its works are evil.[8]Go to the festival yourselves. I am not going to this festival, for my time has not yet fully come" [9]After this, he remained in Galilee.
Well - for a bit, anyway. I just love the qualification "but your time is always here" - skittling any chance of his followers using the same excuse!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Why is it that Flood Protection produces double posts? Some protection!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
FWIW, "My time has not yet come" is usually a veiled reference to the crucifixion. If Jesus had gone up openly to this particular mass gathering of Jews on holiday in the holy city, it might well have brought on the crucifixion early--and he still had work to do training his disciples and preparing them for the mother of all storms to come. The brothers, on the other hand, are at no personal risk whatsoever, wherever they go and whenever they go. Which makes their snarkiness all the more upsetting, as they have to have had at least a human inkling of the danger Jesus would be in if he took their advice and went off to make a public spectacle of himself. He was well-known to have enemies.

As it works out, Jesus does go, but in such a way that his enemies don't catch sight of him until he is in the temple itself, which is much too public a place for them to seize him.

(and since we were speculating about Jesus' knowledge or otherwise of who his betrayer would be, I wonder if that might not be the explanation for why he did not say to his brothers, "You go along first, I'll wait and see; it's a bit dangerous for me." Because (dreadful thought) the betrayer might have come from his own family, his own brothers--OT Scripture only specifies a man extremely close to him--and in that case, to say such a thing would be to alert precisely the wrong person to his plans at a dangerous time.)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John has mentioned 'brothers' before in 2:12
quote:
After this he went down to Capernaum with his mother and brothers and his disciples.
There seems to have been an element of family involvement in Jesus' movements; the way things are expressed suggests that mum and the gang were not a rare sight on the road with him. Socially, that makes sense; there was greater family cohesion then. The surprise element would more likely have been the times when Jesus was not in their presence, e.g., when he tells them to go to the feast without him. Whoa; we're not quite there yet... Anyway, I tend to agree that these are blood-brothers of Jesus, if only because I can't really see anything in the texts to suggest that the authors thought otherwise.

John reinforces a theme in his introduction: “He came to his own, but his own did not receive him” in a more specific sense with his comment “...even his own brothers did not believe him.”

So John has thrown at us provocative words, pissed-off followers, a devil of a student, and sibling angst. All in the space of a few verses. Pretty much like a typical British soap opera.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Right. This (0ccasionally) pissed-off student is going to the seaside for a few days. Meanwhile, back at the tents:

quote:
[10]But after his brothers had gone to the festival, then he also went, not publicly but [as it were] in secret.[11]The Jews were looking for him at the festival and saying "Where is he?"[12]And there was considerable complaining about him among the crowd.
[John7:10-12]

This is an arbitrary place to stop, but you have to pause for breath somewhere! "Complaining" might mean something in the nature of "arguing" in the context of the next couple of verses. But festivals everywhere and at all times have their star turns, and when the main event doesn't turn up, the crowd gets restless...
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
The lens of one's theology dictates but could vs 10 be an indication that Jesus return will be sudden, surprising and at the height of the feast of tabernacles in a prophetic sense? Everything jesus did being prophetic and everything John recorded shows him in the light of prophetic and messianic action.

If the church has kept,in a sense, the feasts of passover (salvation) and pentecost(a worldwide move of the Holy Spirit) then surely the feast of tabernacles id 'a feast of his appearing.'
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
The question I have is why did John go opposite of the Synoptics which have Jesus making a triumphal public entry into Jerusalem?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
This isn't that occasion, it's earlier and a different feast.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Little play again here – possibly intentional; Jesus was the light of the world, shining in the darkness, and his brothers goad him not to be a secret. However he sneaks up to the festival in secret. The crowd discuss him secretly. Has he withdrawn into being a fly-by-night insurgent, or...?

Don't miss next week's exciting episode...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Now read on:

quote:
[12b]While some were saying, "He is a good man," others were saying, "No, he is deceiving the crowd." [13]Yet no one would speak openly about him for fear of the Jews.
[John7:12-13]

"For fear of the Jews" is becoming a bit of a tedious mantra, and it's easy to see why it led to Jews going about "in fear of the Christians".

But at the time of writing it may have been, for the gospel writers/editors, a political necessity. The fear was still real enough, but the Romans were the biggest threat. Shifting the main blame from Pilate to "the Jews" would be a safer bet for a community that was becoming increasingly goy.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
what does 'speak openly' mean, and why would they not say openly that Jesus was deceiving the crowd?

I've always assumed that this was not included in what could not be spoken openly, but the text does not read that way.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Since the people (crowds) speaking are almost certainly Jews (duh, it's one of the three major pilgrimage feasts in Jerusalem, whaddya expect), this is one of the many cases where context pretty much forces us to take "the Jews" as meaning "the Jewish authorities." Which makes sense fine--I mean, the place is positively tense with anticipation/fear and lousy with soldiers (Roman and temple) for fear of an explosion in the holy city while the pilgrimage season is at its height. Under those circs, any smart person has dangerous discussions about dangerous people under his breath.

[ 13. March 2012, 11:53: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Meanter add: and you'd have those irresistable gossip fests under your breath regardless of whether you were for Jesus or against him--there were partisans on both sides, and you wouldn't want to fall foul of either. Particularly when it isn't quite settled yet whether this miracle worker is going to morph into a military Messiah.

Oh dear. must take my alliterative self to work and hope it washes away in the work.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Since the people (crowds) speaking are almost certainly Jews (duh, it's one of the three major pilgrimage feasts in Jerusalem, whaddya expect), this is one of the many cases where context pretty much forces us to take "the Jews" as meaning "the Jewish authorities."

Also, the koine word for Jew is the same as the word for Judean.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK - continuing - Jesus at the festival of Booths [NRSV]

quote:
[14]About the middle of the festival Jesus went up into the temple and began to teach.[15]The Jews were astonished at it, saying, "How does this man have such learning [or know his letters] when he has never been taught?
[John7:14-15]

This is John paraphrasing the attitude of some of the hearers. If here were totally untaught, I doubt he would be allowed to teach in the temple - unless they had such things as open mic sessions even in those days. But -

quote:
[16]Then Jesus answered them, "My teaching is not mine but his who sent me.[17]Anyone who resolves to do the will of God will know whether the teaching is from God or whether I am speaking on my own.[18]Those who speak on their own seek their own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him s true, and there is nothing false in him...
The problem is - how many people have said just that? It's the standard prophetic pitch: Thus saith the Lord...

The Jews loved to argue. It's the eastern mystical traditions which demand that you sit down shut up and listen. How hard it must have been for them!

[ 13. March 2012, 15:35: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think it a mistake to take "havỉng never studied" (or whatsit) as a reference to illiteracy, general ignorance, etc. After all, I suppose every village had its synagogue, and the Jews were big on basic education (at least for boys). More likely what they mean is "having never studied WITH US" (that is, he's never been a disciple of any rabbi, he doesn't spend hours at the temple every day cozily arguing with the other eggheads and ignoring the lowlifes, MY GOSH WHERE ARE HIS CREDENTIALS? And how dare he come in and teach with authority (and become popular with the great unwashed, oy vey) WHEN HE'S NOT ONE OF US? Academia can really get its panties in a twist over such things. In some circles the worst thing you can say of a fellow academic is that his books are popular...

As for

quote:
[16]Then Jesus answered them, "My teaching is not mine but his who sent me.[17]Anyone who resolves to do the will of God will know whether the teaching is from God or whether I am speaking on my own.[18]Those who speak on their own seek their own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him s true, and there is nothing false in him...
I don't see this as the standard "God spoke to me" pitch at all. I mean, you hear that, and it's usually followed up with "So send me buckets of money RIGHT NOW." (We have a very popular looneytunes prophetess of that sort not a long way from my home.) Same old, same old.

What Jesus is doing is challenging his hearers to observe him. Is he just another self-glorifying in-it-for-the-money-and-fame liar, or does he truly look out for God's kingdom first and leave his own personal advancement out of it? This is a damn good test.

It's easy to talk the "it's all about God" schtick, but when you start looking at people's bank accounts, cars (or not), home(s)--possibly multiple, with goldplated toilets--that's when you find out who is seeking God's glory, and who is all about himself.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I certainly take the point of your last couple of paragraphs, LC; but as for teaching in the temple, I thought it was the (synoptic?) tradition that Jesus did, in fact (if we can say "in fact" of anything about Jesus' early life) teach regularly in the synagogues, was a well known rabbi, and had probably sat at the feet of Gamaliel some time. But this is off the top of my head and I need to check it out - though it's perhaps no big deal. Peo[ple then, as now made assiumptions about the famlous, not allof which can be true.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Whatever the synoptics say, John is here making it quite clear that Jesus keeps his identity secret (7:10); and even when Jesus starts teaching the people refer to him as 'this man" (7:15); it is not until 7:25 that they start to realise that he is Jesus.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I certainly take the point of your last couple of paragraphs, LC; but as for teaching in the temple, I thought it was the (synoptic?) tradition that Jesus did, in fact (if we can say "in fact" of anything about Jesus' early life) teach regularly in the synagogues, was a well known rabbi, and had probably sat at the feet of Gamaliel some time. But this is off the top of my head and I need to check it out - though it's perhaps no big deal. Peo[ple then, as now made assiumptions about the famlous, not allof which can be true.

Um, actually it was Paul who sat at the feet of Gamaliel, not Jesus; and as far as his pre-baptism life, Jesus appears not to have done anything out of the ordinary barring a shenanigan when he was twelve. So I'm thinking "run the carpenter shop, assist widowed Mum to raise younger siblings, etc." Nazareth was not a hotbed of intellectual activity.

Now as for Jesus' post-baptism life, whether you take it to be one year or several years, yes, he clearly taught in the synagogues and basically anywhere else he found an audience. But that was not surprising. AFAIK it was customary for the local synagogue gathering to offer distinguished visitors a chance to teach; there was no clear line of division between those who oughtta listen and those who oughtta preach similar to the one found in many mainline Christian denoms today. (You didn't have to go off to seminary, get ordained, and receive a formal call before they'd hand you the mike. And such teaching had nothing to do with priesthood--that was something you were either born into or not, and if you were, your focus would be on the sacrificial center of the temple at Jerusalem, not on teaching centers like local synagogues.)

So to get invited to teach in a synagogue, you basically needed to be a) male, b) of good repute, and c) someone wanted to hear you. Witness the synagogue invitations to Paul & Co. even after their Christianizing and during their missionizing: "Brothers, if you have anything to say, please come on up." Might get stoned afterward, but hey, the floor is yours for now...

Now, on teaching in the temple--have you ever looked at a model or blueprint of that thing? Man, it was HUGE. You could hold any number of teaching sessions, prayer meetings, and polka dances in the temple courts, all at the same time. Which I take to be the location of Jesus' teaching--nobody was going to let him into the temple proper, which was just for priests and Levites. And him a Judahite!

But out in the courts, hey, as long as you're not scaring the animals... Oh dear. He DID do that, as I recall. [Snigger]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
"...[19]Did not Moses give you the law? Yet none of you keeps the law. Why are you looking for an opportunity to kill me?" [20]The crowd answered, "You have a demon! Who is trying to kill you?" [21]Jesus answered them, "I performed one work, and all of you are astonished..."
[John7:19-21]

Only one work? To which one work is he referring? Clever of John to meet the obvious reaction of the reader half way - "The man's paranoid!". Shakespeare would have approved.
The really clever bit, though, and one WS uses himself frequently, is not to answer the question. The device is merely used to acknowledge the reader's/hearer's incredulity.

["Was ever woman in such humour woo'd?//Was ever woman in such humour won?"](Richard III)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
All quiet on the christian front.

quote:
"...[22]Moses gave you circumcision (it is, of course, not from Moses, but from the patriarchs) and you circumcise a man on the sabbath.[23]If a man receives circumcision on the sabbath in order that the law of Moses may not be broken, are you angry with me because I healed a mon's whole body on the sabbath? [which I guess answers the question in the previous post - but it seems a long time away; perhaps in the editing process it got detached from the original story of the man healed on the sabbath?][24]Do not judge by appearances but judge with right judgment."
But this does not finish the argument about people (impotently) desiring to arrest him, as we shall see...

Interesting that John appears to correct Jesus' misapprehension of the historical facts! A typo, maybe.

[ 23. March 2012, 05:31: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Sorry, but I don't geddit. I mean, of course his life was in danger, just as he said. That was the whole reason for his rather stealthy way of entering Jerusalem. And as for the crowd contradicting him about it, this reminds me of something I've seen many a time, when everyone knows a particular unpleasant truth (Dad's drunk again, and etc.) but the first person to openly declare the fact gets shouted down. Bringing unpleasant truths out into the open, you see. Who wants that? Hush him up.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The correction I was referring to was in verse 22 - though it's possible I suppose that Jesus himself was talking in brackets!

Incidentally, what's the significance of circumcision coming from the patriarchs and not from Moses? I thought in my ignorance that Moses was a patriarch anyway. [Help]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, I talk in brackets, though I hope the Lord would do better. [Snigger] I don't suppose it really matters whether that is Jesus or John here, after all, Moses DID give them circumcision (for the second time, after they'd apparently given it up mostly during their time of slavery). So if John is being a tad pedantic, that's all right.

But it could easily be Jesus, since the point he is making is that even for them, something overrides the Law--and that happens to be an action of grace affecting one part of the body (circumcision), an institution which in fact predates the Law and therefore overrides it (as Paul points out later). Healing is also an action of grace, but this affects the whole body (and is therefore apparently even more urgent and appropriate, though I find the reasoning a tad peculiar! It appears to suggest that circumcision is a minor form of healing, which seems odd to me--saith the female!--but since it was the entry into membership in the people of God, much like baptism today, perhaps that's what he's after here.)

By the way, when they say "the patriarchs" they mean Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob/Israel, and occasionally the twelve sons thereof--the physical progenitors of Israel. But Moses doesn't qualify, though he gets termed a prophet on occasion.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The correction I was referring to was in verse 22 - though it's possible I suppose that Jesus himself was talking in brackets!

Actually, I think that's quite possible because I don't think it was a correction, I think it was a clarifying distinction.

quote:
Incidentally, what's the significance of circumcision coming from the patriarchs and not from Moses? I thought in my ignorance that Moses was a patriarch anyway. [Help]
Here's my take on it:

This whole section is about the Law, authority, and how much people were thinking about the original meaning of the Law vs. unthinkingly applying the Law in a legalistic way. Jesus was pointing out that the Law was written by Moses, but that in it, Moses was describing circumcision as something God instituted with Abraham as a sign of the original covenant. As another, later part of the Law, Moses described God commanding the Sabbath as a memorial to God's work of creation.

I think part of Jesus' point was that when these two parts of the Law conflicted with each other, people had already worked out which took precedence, even though that precedence was not explicitly in the Law itself. This was an example (that the people were already comfortable with) of people working out for themselves how to make sense of the Law based on what its purpose was (e.g. because commitment to the covenant was more important than remembering creation).

Jesus then compared circumcision (a sign of the covenant) taking precedence over the Sabbath (remembering God's creation) to healing taking precedence over the Sabbath. I think his implication was that his listeners should realize that healing and helping others was more important as part of the covenant than refraining from work as part of remembering the Sabbath, if only they would stop to think about why God had commanded the Sabbath. If they had thought about how the Sabbath related to other, similar laws, they would have realized that the point of the Sabbath was to remember that it was God who was providing everything for them, rather than thinking they were doing it all on their own. It was not meant to prevent them from healing and helping each other.

So I think Jesus was referring to Moses as a synonym for the Law, and to the patriarchs as a synonym for the original covenant, and that he was drawing a pointed distinction between the two. I think his message was that the covenant was bigger and more important than the Law, which came later and was subordinate.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes - I had got as far as remembering who the patriarchs were, but I'm grateful for your succinct explanations of what Jesus was on about.

The story continues with a third party confirmation that Jesus was not being paranoid, and the crowd wondering if this charismatic teacher might not be the Christ (Messiah):

quote:
[25]Now some of the people of Jerusalem were saying, "Is not this the man whom they are trying to kill?[26]And here he is, speaking openly, but they say nothing to him! Can it be that the authorities really know that this is the Messiah?..."
[John7:25-26]

But the tradition was, apparently, that the Messiah would appear [i]incognito[/]:
quote:
[27]"...Yet we know where this man is from; when the Messiah comes, no one will know where he is from."


[ 25. March 2012, 06:33: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yeah, I wonder what they meant. I mean, there were definite expectations that he would be of David s family and hometown, so not completely unknown. Diid they mean merely that he would have no obvious mundane backstory? I could imagine people being disappointed by the sheer ordinariness of Jesus younger years...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Quite - that's something that bugs some Christians, too - always did. It's crazy, when we're so ready to idolize our modern celebrities
(did anything any good ever come out of Tiger Bay?) [Devil]
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
It's a play on the word ” know” :

John 7:28 NET
Then Jesus, while teaching in the temple courts, cried out, “You both know me and know where I come from! And I have not come on my own initiative, but the one who sent me is true. You do not know him,

You do not ”know ” where the Messiah comes from because you do not ”know ” God.

Jews value life because they believe that doing mitzvah makes the world better. The more mitzvah done the more the world is blessed and you need living Jews to do mitzvah. That's why circumcision is even done on a Sabbath, to save the baby:

Exodus 4:26 NET
So the Lord let him alone. (At that time she said, “A bridegroom of blood,” referring to the circumcision.


11. The following three passages are applied to three different cases of circumcision: (i) And the uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin, that soul shall be cut off from his people (Gen. XVII, 14) — this applies to an adult whom his father did not circumcise as an infant. (ii) And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised (Lev. XII, 3) this is a command to the father of the child. (iii) Every male among you shall be circumcised (Gen. XVII, 10) — this is a general command, e.g., to the Beth din, for a child to be circumcised after his eighth day if not circumcised at the proper time.

Babylonian Talmud: Tractate Shabbath

Folio 132a

[ 26. March 2012, 12:56: Message edited by: footwasher ]
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
quote:
30 At this they tried to seize him, but no one laid a hand on him, because his hour had not yet come. 31 Still, many in the crowd believed in him. They said, “When the Messiah comes, will he perform more signs than this man?”

32 The Pharisees heard the crowd whispering such things about him. Then the chief priests and the Pharisees sent temple guards to arrest him.

Oops! Just read the first post! Apparently I can restart the study by saying ” start”. And I durn thought I had kilt the thread! So ” Start”!

I get the idea that this is another statement that has the Pharisees foaming at the mouth, renting their clothes and throwing dust in the air, in reaction to Jesus' claim of being divine. But hid in the midst of their righteous anger is jealousy:

Acts 13:42-45 NET
As Paul and Barnabas were going out, the people were urging them to speak about these things on the next Sabbath. When the meeting of the synagogue had broken up, many of the Jews and God-fearing proselytes followed Paul and Barnabas, who were speaking with them and were persuading them to continue in the grace of God.
On the next Sabbath almost the whole city assembled together to hear the word of the Lord. But when the Jews saw the crowds, they were filled with jealousy, and they began to contradict what Paul was saying by reviling him.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
John 7:33-36 NET

Then Jesus said, “I will be with you for only a little while longer, and then I am going to the one who sent me. You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come.”
Then the Jewish leaders said to one another, “Where is he going to go that we cannot find him? He is not going to go to the Jewish people dispersed among the Greeks and teach the Greeks, is he? What did he mean by saying, ‘You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come’?”

This is Jesus warning the Jewish people that His offer is for a limited period only, as He will be going away. We know now He is talking about the Ascension, but at the time this information just went over their head. John repeats this pattern throughout his Gospel, and it kind of puts his readers at ease, knowing that the teaching they received was as startling to the Apostles as it is now to them. "Yup, we heard and we didn't understand at first either! So don't worry, you'll soon be up to speed!"

[ 28. March 2012, 05:53: Message edited by: footwasher ]
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Teaching About the Spirit
7:37 On the last day of the feast, the greatest day, 101  Jesus stood up and shouted out, 102  “If anyone is thirsty, let him come to me, and 7:38 let the one who believes in me drink. 103  Just as the scripture says, ‘From within him 104  will flow rivers of living water.’” 105  7:39 (Now he said this about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were going to receive, for the Spirit had not yet been given, 106  because Jesus was not yet glorified.) 107 
Differing Opinions About Jesus
7:40 When they heard these words, some of the crowd 108  began to say, “This really 109  is the Prophet!” 110  7:41 Others said, “This is the Christ!” 111  But still others said, “No, 112  for the Christ doesn’t come from Galilee, does he? 113  7:42 Don’t the scriptures say that the Christ is a descendant 114  of David 115  and comes from Bethlehem, 116  the village where David lived?” 117  7:43 So there was a division in the crowd 118  because of Jesus. 119  7:44 Some of them were wanting to seize him, but no one laid a hand on him. 120 
Lack of Belief
7:45 Then the officers 121  returned 122  to the chief priests and Pharisees, 123  who said to them, “Why didn’t you bring him back with you?” 124  7:46 The officers replied, “No one ever spoke like this man!” 7:47 Then the Pharisees answered, 125  “You haven’t been deceived too, have you? 126  7:48 None of the rulers 127  or the Pharisees have believed in him, have they? 128  7:49 But this rabble 129  who do not know the law are accursed!”
7:50 Nicodemus, who had gone to Jesus 130  before and who was one of the rulers, 131  said, 132  7:51 “Our law doesn’t condemn 133  a man unless it first hears from him and learns 134  what he is doing, does it?” 135  7:52 They replied, 136  “You aren’t from Galilee too, are you? 137  Investigate carefully and you will see that no prophet 138  comes from Galilee!”

V 37 is linked with:

1"Ho! Every one who thirsts, come to the waters; And you who have no money come, buy and eat. Come, buy wine and milk Without money and without cost. Isaiah 55

10“And while they were going away to make the purchase, the bridegroom came, and those who were ready went in with him to the wedding feast; and the door was shut.Matt 25

Anybody going to be caught short?

13“If you then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to those who ask Him?” Luke 11
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Footwasher. Lot's of useful stuff here - but I can't keep up (it's my great age, you know). We've been taking this at a fairly leisurely pace up to now. No rigid rules, but we've been giving folk, after each post, a little while to read,understand, and possibly comment.

I'm still working on your post a few days back. I've found that "doing mitzvah" means carrying out religious observances in everyday life. Which is helpful because I always thought that the Jewish pre-ccupation with religious minutiae was largely pharisaical and academic.

Keeping God's many commandments in order to keep the wheels of the universe oiled is a much happier idea.

I haven't found out who the Beth din are/were yet, but I've got it on my list.

Welcome to the discussion! I hope you won't tire of it.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
P.S. Could you possibly explain to this ignoramus what all those other numbers are - 101 -137, etc. - thanks.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
P.S. Could you possibly explain to this ignoramus what all those other numbers are - 101 -137, etc. - thanks.

Sorry, on all counts. Lemme get the hang of it, yes?

And those numbers are superscript annotations:

http://net.bible.org/#!bible/John+7

Very useful. The Netbible tells us why they choose a particular meaning among a wide choice of meanings and what those choices are. Other Bibles make different choices but don't explain the reasoning behind those choices.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Many thanks. The NET bible is really impressive and I've now got a permanent shortcut to it. I like the way you can scroll text and notes independently.

The only reservation I have about using the annotation numbers here is that unlike on the original, the numbers, being of the same size and intensity as the text, become somewhat intrusive. Others may not agree. The point is that many shipmates look at this forum when they have no bible to hand - which is why we are asked to quote or give links to the text.
Having to follow links to the notes every other word feels like hard w*rk. But then, I'm lazy. [Hot and Hormonal]

This is only my personal opinion and I apologize if I've crossed the boundary into junior hosting. Junior? Dream on, pimple!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Would anyone like to explain, or comment on, John's belief that "the Spirit hadn't yet been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified"?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Haven't been able to post for a few weeks – apologies for running back over a number of verses here with scattered thoughts...

Who are “The Jews” and why not speak openly?
Along Lamb Chopped's lines, I assume that “the Jews” was John's shorthand for those associated with the Temple authorities – the high priest (who had civil powers vested in him by the Romans), his supporting council (some whom were co-opted Pharisees) and the state theologians based in the Temple complex (scribes, etc). Given that Rome expected them to take responsibility for keeping the peace in the realm, it would have been in their joint interests to manage expectations among the people. That probably meant having to pronounce opinion on every Tom, Dick, and Jesus who popped up to rock the boat. Fear of the consequences should they fail to keep to peace probably motivated “The Jews” (Romans stepping and sacking them - or worse); fear of the consequences should they fail to follow the official opinion probably motivated “The People” (Temple police stepping in and hauling them off for judgement).

Was Jesus ever a student?
There was a memory elsewhere of Jesus having discoursed in the Temple as a child with teachers and as having developed understanding as he grew up (Luke 2:41-52). There is evidence that the Temple was not just used for the ritual, but also housed the theologians and official teachers. The learning / student style here, I would assume, was that of teacher – disciple and probably took place daily in the courts. It's possible that Paul learned his theology here (possibly around the same time Jesus was in operation) under the guidance of the Pharisees.

The Jews and the crowd – two judgements
The Jews want to kill Jesus; as above I think John refers to the authorities here who are questioning Jesus' authority – Whose disciple was he? Where did he receive this learning? Has he a pedigree or is he just spouting off the top of his head??? If it was an established teaching from a known rabbi, then all was safe; one could engage in harmless philosophical debate among all the other harmless philosophical debates going on. If not established, then warning bells would clang...

Then the crowd think him paranoid; different audience here, this is the general people who would be quite used to hearing teaching going on in the Temple courts – 15 minutes of fame applied even then.

Right judgement
John's court metaphor coming to the fore! Against the judgement based on physical evidence alone (miracles, heritage), the authorities need to judge according to the principle of God's will – doing as God really wanted his people to do.

I think there's quite a bit more than meets the eye here; This section is important for John. It goes to the question of how it is possible to determine whether the claims Jesus made are really true.

Where does the Messiah come from?
Enigmatic statement in verse 27! Later on (v.42) John makes it clear that there was divided opinion on the messiah's origins. It seems that there could have been a number of 'messiahs' that were expected at the time Jesus was teaching: Davidic, Aaronic, and the basically zealot rebel. Perhaps that was why Jesus shied away from adopting the title among Jews; it was more trouble than it was worth. Here John records Jesus' focus on knowing God, rather than signs (including Scriptural 'signs' about where a messiah might come from).

Hellenistic Jews
Whether a memory or not, John's record of the authorities' bemusement over Jesus' statement that he would be going away provides a useful piece of historical insight. There's little record of the Jews being engaged in mission to non-Jews. They were happy to accommodate God-Fearers, but little else. Here the Jews make a reference to the diaspora Jews, now Hellenised. Josephus also mentions groups of Hellenised Jews who had formed slave labour in the past in the Greek empire and who had later retired back to Jerusalem. There seems to have some friction between the two groups of Hellenised (Greek-speaking?) Jews and Hebrew Jews (Aramaic speaking). Here we may have a note of concern by the Jerusalem authorities that this troublesome teacher, Jesus, might up and off to spread even more discord among those troublesome Greek-Jews.

When was Jesus glorified?
Oh boy. So much we could look at here. Well, in John (cheating here a bit!) the glorification refers to Jesus' death/resurrection/vindication – represented by his seating at God's right hand. Then he sends the Spirit. Its interesting why John felt the need to add this comment – or even better, why include the memory of Jesus' references to water. In chapter 4, with the Samaritan woman, John gives just an oblique hint of the link between water and Spirit. There Jesus talks about living water overflowing to eternal life. Only later in the conversation does Jesus refer to spirit, but a link to water as a metaphor might not have been understood. Here in chapter 7 we can hardly avoid the flying brick type hint from John!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Would anyone like to explain, or comment on, John's belief that "the Spirit hadn't yet been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified"?

Jesus' last discussion with his disciples at the last supper was very largely about this. As I recall, he said something along the lines of "If I didn't go away, the Holy Spirit would not come to you; but if I go away (=die), I will send him to you." He later goes on to talk of sending us "another Comforter" and so on, which has always been interpreted as a reference to Pentecost and the coming of the Holy Spirit to dwell permanently and intimately with all of us who believe.

And somebody (Paul or the writer to the Hebrews) regards this as the fulfillment of the OT prophecy, "When he ascended on high, he gave gifts to men."

Why not both Jesus bodily present and Spirit too at the same time? I really don't know. Maybe this is Jesus' "going away present"?

Not that the Holy Spirit has not been present and active in this world from before Day One. But Pentecost seems to mark a turning point, when the indwelling of the Spirit becomes permanent and much more profound--not just an occasional visitation to a chosen prophet or so, but a permanent gift to all God's people.

Oh, about the glorification bit--this most likely refers to his return to his former place of glory as the ruler of everything, "seated at the right hand of the Father." In other words, post-passion. Although one could argue that his glorification started at the cross itself, since John 17 has Jesus praying, "Father, the time has come. Glorify your Son..." which could almost be taken as saying that Christ's ultimate obedience (and mercy on us!) is his glory.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Right, that seems to wrap quite a lot up - including my trinitarian muddle-up (inspired by "conceived by the Holy Ghost, born of the Virgin Mary...").

The Holy Spirit always was, as Christ always was, but the former was not on-stream (so to speak) for believers until after Pentecost. Have I got that right?
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
John 7:39 NET
(Now he said this about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were going to receive, for the Spirit had not yet been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.)

The Epistles were written to explain how God had fulfilled His plan, as prophesied in the OT, the promise of making Abraham's Seed a blessing to the world:

Galatians 3:13-14 NET
Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us (because it is written, “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree”) in order that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham would come to the Gentiles, so that we could receive the promise of the Spirit by faith.

John's Gospel tells us the details of that redemptive act. It gives a basis to the teachings found in the Epistles and forms a written record for the purpose of preserving and passing of information to future believers , when witnesses to Jesus' deeds and teachings would no longer be around.

Excellent points, Nigel and Lamb Chopped!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Tangent alert] Paul's quote from Deuteronomy (cited above) is fascinating in it's own right. An executed criminal whose corpse is hung on a tree must not remain there overnight, because a corpse left overnight on a tree is cursed by God.

So the executed criminal is not by virtue of his punishment separated from God. But if he is left on the tree he is cursed - that is, the criminal, not the people who leave him there. Or perhaps it's implicit that they are cursed too.

But hang on a bit! Christ's body was not left on the tree overnight, so Jesus was not cursed. So WTF is Paul on about? [Tangent over]

Not that Paul's exegesis would get him many marks in a modern seminary, bless him!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Okay, a muddleicious reply after a LONG day at church.

I'm not sure what "on-stream" means--is it like "on tap," you know, like beer? I think the difference between how OT believers experienced Him and how NT and NT+ believers do is sort of the difference between the dating part of a relationship and the marriage.

I mean, the Holy Spirit is running around all over the OT, and it's very hard to deny that believers such as David etc. had the Holy Spirit in/with them in a way rather like what we do now. It's particularly hard if you're a Lutheran, and believe that all true Christian faith is a gift created and given by the Spirit.

On the other hand, he seems to sort of drop in and out all through the OT. I mean, he blazes into town, does a sort of drive by spritzing on the 70 elders of Moses' day, and then BAM! he's (apparently) outta there. And then a judge or prophet shows up, usually in the middle of a hellacious crisis, and WHAM! we're back in business, miracles, gifts, prophecy, everything. Until the guy/gal dies, and all is quiet again. And twenty years later he quirks a finger at some other nobody in a totally different tribe, and ...

But it just doesn't seem to last all that long. He's not predictable, and he's always passing through. Until Pentecost. When he finally moves in with all his tchotchkes and family photos, and we know he's here to stay. Quietly, noisily, whatever. He's home. With us. Finally.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
AND we drop with a hellacious CLANG! from the Spirit to the (dead) flesh, in the space of a double post. (mea culpa)

IMHO the thing about dead guys on a stick (as RooK so eloquently put it a few Easters back) is that dead bodies are defiled and defiling. That's just their nature. They are living (oops) proof of the reality of human sin, which ultimately brings forth death. And so the decent thing to do in every culture is to dispose of the corpse, one way or another. Bury them, burn them, do something--but get them decently out-of-the-way and private as soon as possible. (which is why we find preserved and exhibited corpses simultaneously revolting and fascinating, in a car wreck kind of way. But I digress.)

Okay, so corpse = defilement. All the more so if the corpse is a) publicly exhibited in defiance of all decency and b) the result of judicial execution--that is, the death was deserved. So God orders that anyone executed in such a shameful way be put decently underground (or whatever) as soon as possible, lest the land be defiled.

Now in Jesus' case we have a paradox, because you have the public, shameful execution (naked, even!) of someone who is simultaneously the most holy, innocent person ever, and the worst, most dreadful sinner and criminal ever (on account of his voluntarily taking on human sin). So that leaves us with a nice conundrum. Is the corpse of such a man defiling--or cleansing? Harmful, or healing? Which doesn't get properly sorted out until the Resurrection, at which point the verdict is clear. This is the only corpse that ever was, that ever could be, that takes away corruption. (ever notice how nobody in the Easter story, barring John before he believed, seems to take the least notice of the laws of Moses regarding contact with a dead body? No bathing and sacrifices for them. After the Resurrection the whole thing is academic. How I would love to hear the rabbis rule on that one.)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well done, Lamb Chopped! You deserve a rest after that. [Biased]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Hot and Hormonal] [Big Grin] [Snore]
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
[Tangent alert] Paul's quote from Deuteronomy (cited above) is fascinating in it's own right. An executed criminal whose corpse is hung on a tree must not remain there overnight, because a corpse left overnight on a tree is cursed by God.

So the executed criminal is not by virtue of his punishment separated from God. But if he is left on the tree he is cursed - that is, the criminal, not the people who leave him there. Or perhaps it's implicit that they are cursed too.

But hang on a bit! Christ's body was not left on the tree overnight, so Jesus was not cursed. So WTF is Paul on about? [Tangent over] Not that Paul's exegesis would get him many marks in a modern seminary, bless him!

I understand the text to mean any person hung on a tree is already cursed. Leaving of the body overnight leads to defilement of the LAND.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Lamb Chopped, non sequitur. After the Resurrection, it wasn't a corpse!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, it sure beats calling the Lord a meat puppet.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Well, it sure beats calling the Lord a meat puppet.

Yes Boss Lady, No Boss Lady, Three bags full, Boss Lady! See how easy it is!

Striped 'shrooms on the left, speckled 'shrooms on the right, shitakes in the centre, ol' McDonald had a farm...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
An interesting (and tangential?) episode follows:

quote:
Then each of them went home, while Jesus went to the Mount of Olives. Early in the morning he came again to the temple. All the people came to him and he sat down and began to teach them.
[John 7:53-8:2]NRSV

Nothing very odd about that. Except that it introduces the story of the woman taken in adultery, which has had a chequered history in the history of the bible's compilation.

Here's NRSV's footnote:

The most ancient authorities lack 7.53-8.11;
other authorities add the passage here or after 7.36 or after 21.25 or after Luke 21.38, with variations of text; some mark the passage as doubtful.


Its placing by some in Luke's gospel is particularly striking. The fact that it is missing in the most ancient texts doesn't mean, of course, that it didn't exist before, in the oral tradition or one of the evangelists' sources. I'd like to think it came to be incorporated in the fourth gospel along with the passages about the "beloved disciple" - but that's wishful thinking!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well that was surreal.

Never mind.

The reason I think the John 8 bit is genuine is because it SOUNDS so much like Jesus. Not just the compassion, but the way he lets the bastards blow themselves out while he doodles on the ground--and then stands up and totally devastates them with a single line. And goes back to doodling.

If I were going to fake a Jesus episode, I never would have had the genius to put in that kind of totally irrelevant detail. If it's not real, it should be.
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Sorry, LC, just trying to make you laugh:-( .

The passage probably existed as a standalone incident during the period. The compilers probably thought it was a good place to insert the story, along with other interaction with the Pharisees.

If you take it out, you'll see the rest of the text has continuity.

The words on the sand were probably "Mene, mene, mene,tekel, upharsin."

[ 04. April 2012, 04:25: Message edited by: footwasher ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Ah, I get it now. Reading for comprehension doesn't work too well in the middle of my personal IRL crisis! thanks.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Well that was surreal.

Never mind.

The reason I think the John 8 bit is genuine is because it SOUNDS so much like Jesus. Not just the compassion, but the way he lets the bastards blow themselves out while he doodles on the ground--and then stands up and totally devastates them with a single line. And goes back to doodling.

If I were going to fake a Jesus episode, I never would have had the genius to put in that kind of totally irrelevant detail. If it's not real, it should be.

Not sure how to take that "surreal".If that's trans-pond for "what a load of bollocks" I quite understand your frustration, LC. It sounds like the authentic Jesus to me, and it's one of my favourite stories, worth close reading.

quote:
The scribes and the Pharisees brought a woman who had been caught in adultery; and making her stand before all of them, they said to him,"Teacher, this woman was caught in the very act of committing adultery..."
[John 8.3-4]

My ultra-feminist knee-jerk reaction to this is to wonder how long the tossers watched (just to make sure). My second question is where is the bloke she was caught in flagrante delicto with? It was a man's world, no? Has anything changed much?

Calming down a bit, I have to acknowledge that the lascivious onlookers were in fact the respected (if not respectable) ones of their age - they are careful to remember the common courtesies - "Teacher..."

But they are about to make a vicious, very cleverly calculated attack on the man they fear so much.....

[ 04. April 2012, 11:38: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
They're jerks, plain and simple.

I'm fairly sure they knew when the er, assignation would be ahead of time, so they could be sure to show up in force and accidentally-on purpose "catch her in the act." Otherwise why weren't they off at their trades like decent people? Looks highly suspicious when a small crowd of teachers and Pharisees (not one or two!) shows up with a ready-made victim in tow--and NOT the male.

It almost suggests entrapment.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
RE: John 7:53-8:11
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
...the story of the woman taken in adultery, which has had a chequered history in the history of the bible's compilation.

Literary criticism is a bit like adultery. You find cheating texts in all the wrong places.

An oft-used question crops up here in the context of this episode in John: because the earliest and best manuscripts do not contain 7:53 – 8:11, should Christian preachers teach from it?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Depends on the teaching. I've heard good and bad from this text. Mysogynists will home in on the last verse (wait for it!).
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
What, "go and sin no more?" Jesus only said this eleventy-gabillion times, to men and women alike. I don't find it unusual.
 
Posted by tomsk (# 15370) on :
 
It'd be a bummer if the tale was ditched as 'let him who is without sin cast the first stone' is one of Jesus' best and most well-known sayings.

I gather there's a theory of unlikeliness in the Gospels meaning likely to be true. Otherwise, why put the unlikely thing in. This tale is salacious. Also, the New Testament has plenty of stuff about 'sexual immorality'. Wouldn't this story be a bit 'off-message' to be making up?

Footwasher - your mushroom stuff is referring to Lamb Chopped's other thread? I thought at first that you were making connections that few others could follow, but then I thought that might be me...


[Biased]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I think the story has an affinity with Jesus' teaching and could very well be part of the memory passed down orally among teachers and their audiences in the first generation set of Christians.

And I think there's enough clout in the fact that the majority of Christians accepted the story as valuable enough to disseminate and eventually include in the canon. Enough to warrant a preach or two.

Not sure I've ever come across a feminist reading of this passage, though. Is that because of the textual issues? If there haven't been any such readings, we'll have to invent one!
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by tomsk:


Footwasher - your mushroom stuff is referring to Lamb Chopped's other thread? I thought at first that you were making connections that few others could follow, but then I thought that might be me...


[Biased]

Yeah , I was playacting a suitable response to unreasonable behavior. Now I have to apologise to The Kebab again... SORR-eeeee-Y!
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
How about you just deal with the "Mushroom" issue on that thread, refer to Lamb Chopped by "Lamb Chopped' or "LC" if your in a rush, and just let her discuss the topic at hand, like she seems to want to?

Kelly Alves
Kerygmania Host
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Okay, and apologies.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Back to the text then?

quote:
"Teacher, this woman was caught in the very act of adultery. Now in the law Moses commanded us to stone such women. Now what do you say?"
Even today such executions are carried out in some places, but I think in Jesus' day a more liberal attitude prevailed. There seems to be evidence for this in Matthew's description of Joseph the carpenter's dilemma on finding Mary with child. Recognising Jesus as a gift of God (to Mary), he decides to make an honest woman of her to save her "from public disgrace". I don't think that's a euphemism for public stoning. Even the strict Mosaic law on divorce was a matter of debate.

Now although Jesus' (and the woman's) tormentors here didn't have access to Matthews gospel since it hadn't been written yet, it is reasonable to suppose that they had heard the slanders about Jesus' parentage. The fact that Mary had been found with child before her marriage was not in dispute - only its interpretation.

And that's why Jesus take his time to answer. Whatever his reply, they can turn it to his disadvantage with reference to his own mother. John's rather naive

quote:
They said this to test him, so that they might have some charge to bring against him
Hardly begins to describe the problem they present him with.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I would have ditched the pejorative "naive" for the neutral "understated" if flood protection hadn't fucked with me again.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The fact that Mary had been found with child before her marriage was not in dispute - only its interpretation.

My understanding is that, at the time, betrothal was as good as marriage as far as the legitimacy of the child was concerned, meaning that the only issue would have been whether or not Joseph was the father. If everyone assumed he was (which is what I would guess), then there would have been no problem at all.

Can anyone comment on the accuracy of this view of betrothal?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The issue is not one of chronology. It is reasonable to assume that the birth narrative in Matthew is based on fact. Sleaze was not invented by News International. Jesus' detractors would have seized on any pieces of malicious gossip they could dig up. And the open acknowledgment by Jesus' followers (Matthews's sources) that Joseph had grounds for publicly shaming Mary would have been seen as a gift by those who brought the adulterous woman to Jesus.

[ 07. April 2012, 03:59: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
Can anyone comment on the accuracy of this view of betrothal?

It certainly rings bells (wedding bells? Belles?). From memory the betrothal period could last for many months, during which both parties to the betrothal made plans and got their resources sorted out. No sexual intercourse, though; the female stayed at her father's house. The advent of a child during that period would have been a problem – though as pimple pointed out, Judaism was a very diverse religion during the period before the war of AD 66-70. There were many 'sects' and discussions over what was proper and what was not. I'm not sure if there was a point of view that would tolerate a pregnant betrothed without comment.
quote:
Originally posted by footwasher:
The words on the sand were probably "Mene, mene, mene,tekel, upharsin."

Interesting - I had not come across that as an option before. John doesn't hint, but I suppose Daniel's episode before the emperor might have come to mind among John's readers/hearers.

John sets up a typical temple setting here: the teacher (Jesus) comes to the temple courts to teach, no doubt along with many other teachers who cornered a corner with their disciples and onlookers. He thus sets himself up to be challenged or asked questions.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus considers his options:
quote:
Jesus bent down and wrote with his finger on the ground.
[John 8.6b]
Modern readers will recognise the question as one of several biblical precursors to "Morton's Fork" - taxed, or damned whether you say aye or no. But there is also the woman to consider. We do not know if stoning to death was practiced in Jesus' day. But from the woman's point of view. it hardly mattered. She would have been pretty confident that if Jesus had said "Do it" they would have done it.

They say actions speak louder than words. But sometimes words - or lack of them - are enough. Jesus had no need to look at the faces of his questioners, nor at the woman. By saying nothing, and "doodling" in the sand, he would have made his questioners uneasy, and perhaps given the woman some hope in the process.

[ 07. April 2012, 16:58: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by agingjb (# 16555) on :
 
For no reason except the fact that it's coming up in a chapter or so, I wonder about "I will weep".
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
What could possibly cause the accusers to slink away?

Their names would not matter: Jesus had no authority to impose a condition of the stoners to be sinless. A possible answer would be His writing reminded them of their misuse of God given power and its consequences

The leaders have already been accused of misusing the law for material gain, devouring widow's houses.

Peres: the kingdom is now to be taken from them and given to others (Daniel 5:28).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
We're not quite there yet, Footwasher - but we'll catch up, if you'd like to post the text, or a link, to the verses you're commenting on?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by agingjb:
For no reason except the fact that it's coming up in a chapter or so, I wonder about "I will weep".

Well, now you've made the titillating remark, you may as well enlighten us. The only "I will weep" I can find is at Isaiah22:4 and Jeremiah48:32. Are you referring to one of these?

The weeping to come - is that a reference to Lazarus? We'll get there, but it will be a while yet.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Perhaps it says something about John's rhetorical style that readers can't help but want to see what comes next! It's fun reading it from the point of view of someone of a first-time reader – located somewhere (hopefully) in the realm of a member of that little Jewish sect that was on the point of being booted out of the newly-defined mainstream Judaism.

This whole doodling thing has an impact on the reader, too. Enigmatic pause – reader cranes neck to try and peer over the shoulders of the listeners to see what Jesus was doodling. The last time Jesus gave an opinion on Moses he set the law in secondary position to the requirement to make people whole (7:22-24). What would his 'right judgement' be here on the subject of another law of Moses? Is his doodle anything other than mere dramatic tension or does it play a part in the actual plot? A written judgement, perhaps?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I certainly don't think the doodling is mere dramatic tension on John's part. Jesus does need time to think. But the way he deals with it - rather like "the man with no name" in the spaghetti westerns! - puts the questioners on the back foot. They probably realise quite quickly that they're holding a losing hand, but they'll lose face if they walk away at this stage. So they try to bluff - or bluster - it out:

quote:
When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, "Let anyone among you whi is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her." And once again he bent down and wrote on the ground.
[John 8.7-8]

Brilliant! He doesn't say do it. He doesn't say don't do it. They are forced to make their own decision - and not one based on the law of Moses or current practice or anything else. For if they decide to go ahead and stone her, they must first decide which one of them is perfect....

Footwasher's point is perfectly valid. Jesus is only asked for his advice, nothing more. They can just ignore it. But their own shame prevents them from seeing that. And the following verse will show how they make the best of a bad job.
I'm rather chuffed that it's the old git who gets the message first. [Snigger]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
There are references later in chapter 10, and in Luke 20, which indicate that they did still stone people to death at the time of Jesus.

I hadn't considered the possibility of their trying to bait Jesus by referring to his legitimacy as Joseph's son. My research on betrothal & marriage of the time (interestingly the question only catered for within Christian websites I found, not Jewish ones) threw up that betrothal was the legal ceremony during which the woman became the property of the man, who paid a bride price for her. They did not marry until he provided a place to live and then her family brought her to the home & they lived together. My guess & the implication within Matt 1 is that the marriage made Jesus legitimate.

I like to think that Jesus drew on the ground to spare the woman's feelings and by disinterest make it a non-event.

I love the wisdom in his answer when they pressed him. It says a lot to us today when we're ready to condemn people for not being perfect. I have ringing in my ears the comment 'they call themselves Christians......' [Disappointed] ...but it's not for me to condemn those who condemn......
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
This post from Myrrh in 2008 provides one possibility for what Jesus wrote in the sand (according to Orthodox tradition) which I found to fit quite well with the text and with responses from Jesus in other situations as recorded in the New Testament:

quote:
Orthodox tradition has it as retold by
quote:
St Nikolai Velimirovich:

...

Then the legislator of morality and human conduct stooped down to the ground, smoothed out the dust with the palm of His hand, and began to write (John 8:6). What did the Lord write in the dust? The Evangelist maintains silence concerning this and does not write of it. It was too repulsive and vile to be written in the Book of Joy. However, this has been present in tradition, and it is horrible. The Lord wrote something unexpected and startling for the elders, the accusers of the sinful woman. With His finger He disclosed their secret iniquities. For these pointers-out of the sins of others were experts in concealing their own sins. But it is pointless to try to hide anything from the eyes of One Who sees all.

"M (eshulam) has stolen treasures from the temple," wrote the Lord's finger in the dust.
"A (sher) has committed adultery with his brother's wife;
"S (halum) has committed perjury;
"E (led) has struck his own father;
"A (marich) has committed sodomy;
"J (oel) has worshipped idols."


And so one statement after another was written in the dust by the awesome finger of the righteous Judge. And those to whom these words referred, bending down, read what was written, with inexpressible horror.

(What Was Christ Writing on the Ground?)


(Link updated)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I have in the past been sceptical of those who "saw" what Jesus wrote on the sand. But I'm not so sure now. The questioners might be too scared to look, knowing that their own private sins were being recorded. It is possible Jesus knew some of his questioners.

On balance I still prefer Raptor's view - that concentrating on whatever he was writing deflated the questioner's self importance. as well as reassuring the woman that he wasn't to be stampeded into judgment.

[ 11. April 2012, 03:54: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
It could have been both.

Moo
 
Posted by la vie en rouge (# 10688) on :
 
I also like the idea that there is a connection with a previous occasion when God wrote something with his finger - at the giving of the Law (it says they were inscribed on the tablets by the finger of God).

Jesus bends down and writes with his finger to indicate that before the pristine standard of the Law all are guilty (compare his upholding of the law in Matthew where he says that a man who has looked at a woman to lust after has already broken the commandment in his heart). They all slink away condemned by the law that they were trying to use to catch Jesus out with (not to mention a nice side order of misogyny thrown in).

The woman who has been brought before him for humiliation is the one who goes away benefitting from his grace ("neither do I condemn you, go and sin no more").
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Not to nitpick, but "the finger of God" is normally understood as "by God's power":
19Then the magicians said to Pharaoh, "This is the finger of God." But Pharaoh's heart was hardened, and he did not listen to them, as the LORD had said. Exodus 8

If Moses writes the words which God dictates, it is still "by God's power". Which is what happened in all the instances of writing.

[ 11. April 2012, 17:49: Message edited by: footwasher ]
 
Posted by la vie en rouge (# 10688) on :
 
I was thinking of this, which sounds different to dictation to me.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Merci! That's another source needed on my desktop (there's a delicious irony in answering the pooter's question "do you wish to create a shortcut...?" After reading all those translations). I love the bit where they cannot look Moses in the face - a useful one to "pull" regarding the shamefaced Pharisees.

Footwasher, you're certainly not nit-picking. A lot of you are considerably more conversant with the Old Testament, which gives you an edge when it comes to understanding contemporary Jewish thought (contemporary with Jesus, I mean).

So here's the rest of the text, in case anybody else wants to add a final comment or two before we move on to "Jesus the Light of the World".

quote:
And once again he bent down and wrote on the ground. When they heard it, they went away, one by one, beginning with the elders; and Jesus was left left alone with the woman standing before him. Jesus straightened up and said to her, "Woman, where are they? Has no-one condemned you?" She said, "No-one, sir." And Jesus said, "Neither do I condemn you. Go your way, and from now on do not sin again."
[John8:8-11]

Quite long verses.

[ 12. April 2012, 11:57: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Would that be the same incident being discussed as this?

Deduction gives two alternative conclusions. Induction looks for probability!


[Smile]

Xpost with pimple.

[ 12. April 2012, 12:35: Message edited by: footwasher ]
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
I may be laboring the point, but the issue is this.

When Jesus said and did things, He was triggering associated issues. For example when He said one must be born of water and spirit to see the kingdom of God, He expected Nicodemus to immediately think about Ezekiel 36. When it didn't, it prompted a derisive snort: "You are a teacher of israel and you don't know these things?"

Similarly, when He wrote on the ground, they should have thought about Daniel's words to Belshazzar: "Your father knew that God had raised him, but he used his position to enforce elevation of himself to godhood. God made him eat grass till he came to his senses. You knew about this, but you took out the vessels stolen from the Temple for your drunken carousing, misusing your position in the same way. You are going to pay and in spades."

   30That same night Belshazzar the Chaldean king was slain. 31So Darius the Mede received the kingdom at about the age of sixty-two. Daniell 5

Jesus was telling the Pharisees that they had bigger problems than checking out his credentials. I'm sure the incident was making the rounds of the speakeasies of Jerusalem, with the common people chortling at the discomfiture of the leadership. It was too valuable to leave out of the narrative. Now to decide whether to fit it in within Luke or Mark.

[ 13. April 2012, 16:38: Message edited by: footwasher ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
This whole episode in John reminded me of Matthew's “You have heard it said...but I say to you...” record of Jesus' take on proper interpretation, particularly of Torah. There may be a link between the two.

Jesus is here up against the established (licensed to quill) theologians – the scribes and Pharisees. In Matthew, these two groups are also the aim of Jesus' warnings about interpretation, e.g., Matt. 5:20ff - “...unless your obedience goes beyond the standard of that of the Pharisees and law-teachers (scribes), you will never enter God's kingdom. You have heard it said...”

The interesting reference W Hyatt quoted above (from Myrrh a few years ago) may have been sparked by the verb used to describe Jesus' action with his finger. It's a stronger verb than simply “to write” and implies writing against – possibly in the form of an accusation (κατεγραψεν = kategrapsen). It would fit with the record of Jesus taking on the established theology and its hypocrisy.

Even without knowledge of what was written in the ground, though, Jesus' verbal judgement is accusation enough. The victim of a crime was the one entitled to throw the first stone in this form of execution. If the victim was not present (e.g., in a murder case) then the nearest relative or tribal representative was up first. There's not much evidence from the ancient near east as to who was expected to lob first in cases where there may not have been a clear human victim, but perhaps the state representatives on behalf of the people (and representing their god) would have been expected to pitch in. Here in John with the case of an adultery, those representatives are present, but Jesus' counter might imply not just that any sin would be sufficient to invalidate an executioner, but that the specific sin of adultery is being referred to. Only the one guiltless of having committed adultery himself can participate in this execution.

This has resonance with another of Matthew's recordings: Jesus' complaint against the law-teachers and Pharisees that they have the appearance of obedience to God, but whose private (inside) lives betray their real motivations (Matthew 23). They 'say,' but do not 'do.'

Perhaps this in turn picks up another of Jesus' references – to the Temple being used as a den of robbers (Matt. 21:12-13; John 2:13-16). This refers back to one of Jeremiah's accusations, also in the Temple courts, against the people who interpreted God's message in a way that suited them, while acting in a way entirely contrary to the intended meaning of that message (Jeremiah 7).

It's all relevant to the question raised by the whole episode in John: whether Christians should ever judge another person for sinning. It would be difficult to conclude that as a general rule, given that Jesus elsewhere refers to his followers as having a judging role - and the practice taken up by his followers (including Paul) after his resurrection. All in all, I think the episode has a different objective, more aligned with those passages about interpretation and what constitutes 'right' (obedient) living.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Many thanks to those who took the trouble to provide links to so much interesting material. Are we ready for "Jesus the Light of the World" now?

quote:
Again Jesus spoke to them, saying, "I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life."
[John 8.12 NRSV]

The rhetoric will follow the familiar pattern of the discourses in John's Gospel, with much repetition of previous declarations. It's such an abrupt switch from the previous passage that it's hard to see the story of the woman taken in adultery as part of the original gospel outline.
THat doesn't make it less important, on its own account, of course.
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
After reading this proclamatory statement (the origin and destiny of Jesus in the world), I went back to the beginning of this thread and reread what posters said about the nature of the light shining in the darkness, the light connected to the Logos as Word.

'The Stoics understood Logos as the animating power of the universe' as someone quoted at the start, 20 thread pages or so ago.

I don't read this statement as following on from the previous scene (except insofar as John's Jesus delivers a pronouncement over and above a Judaism that has betrayed itself, fallen away from the truth), but rather as echoing another trope or theme introduced much earlier. When I did biblical studies, we were taught that a statement such as 'I am the light of the world' is soteriological (saving) rather than cosmological. Light is not just illumination or insight but a destiny, and deliverance from blindness and death.

And a promise as well as a command: whoever follows me, Akolouein refers to the obedience of faith and the promise that whoever follows will be saved from the darkness of the world, will be able to walk in light and enter into the life of Christ.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
There are so many aspects to the word 'light':

Our lives rely on the light of day;
Sprouting seeds and plants always reach for the light;
Mystics speak of an inner light;
Near death experiences speak of a tunnel of light;
In the vision of John in Revelation the Lord God provides light in place of the sun (Rev.21:23, 22:5).

Here we're told that whoever follows Jesus won't walk in darkness but will have the light of life. Walking in the light implies understanding. In Matthew 5:14-16 Jesus says 'You are the light of the world.....let your light shine before others...'

If we follow Jesus, we're promised everlasting life. Light is connected with every part of this sentence, it's essential to our faith.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What significance, if any, should we attach to the change from "You are the light of the world" in the synoptics to John's "I am the light of the world"?

Different contexts, of course, but these are big statements, which don't depend on context for their "punch". Or do they?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
The reason for sending the disciples out as the light of the world was for others to give glory to the Father (Matt.5:16) - the light returns to the light from which it was sent. Everything sent out from God returns to God increased, that's what the Kingdom of God is about.

John was again using 'I am' to tell everybody that Jesus is the Son of God, the gift from God to light the way, so that we may follow and receive the light of the eternal God, as disciples.....
 
Posted by footwasher (# 15599) on :
 
Light is revelation. This is the real logos, the engine of the universe.

Whoever has seen me has seen the Father.

This is what we are, what we do.

Unless a seed falls into the ground and dies it cannot live.

Live as the Son lives, as the Father lives, as their Creation lives...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The idea that light, like everything else given by the Father, returns to Him, is a beautiful image.

But in the natural world, light does not return unless it meets a reflector. Most time it is deflected or refracted rather than reflected back to its original source. In the process it is partially absorbed by some surfaces and split by others into a myriad of colours - none of which is pure light. Seeing light partially doesn't necessrily mean seeing it grey or gloomy.

[ETA - the knowledge of which should enable us to enhance John's imagery, rather than question its scientific validity]

[ 24. April 2012, 19:20: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The idea that light, like everything else given by the Father, returns to Him, is a beautiful image.

But in the natural world, light does not return unless it meets a reflector. Most time it is deflected or refracted rather than reflected back to its original source. In the process it is partially absorbed by some surfaces and split by others into a myriad of colours - none of which is pure light. Seeing light partially doesn't necessrily mean seeing it grey or gloomy.

[ETA - the knowledge of which should enable us to enhance John's imagery, rather than question its scientific validity]

I can run with this. As people mirror Jesus the light is not only reflected back directly to its source from the individual, it's also reflected back indirectly as his light is refracted through others within the community.

The rainbow with its connection with Noah's Ark and the flood adds to our symbolism.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Moving on:
quote:
Then the Pharisees said to him, "You are testifying on your own behalf; your testimony is not valid." 14 Jesus answered, "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid because I know where I have come from and where I am going, but you do not know where I come from or where I am going. 15 You judge by human standards; I judge no one. 16 Yet even if I do judge..."
[John 8.13-16a] It's very much of its time I guess, this quasi-legal bickering, with Jesus (apparently) insisting on having his cake and eating it. I think I find it difficult because I once knew a priest who preached just like that; I'm sure other shippies will help me to take it more seriously.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Wait! I think maybe I've got it. "I judge no one, but even if I did, my judgment would be valid, because..." might be how it would appear in modern English. Is there no conditional clause in Greek?

[ 28. April 2012, 04:29: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
This isn't the easiest of passages, I agree.

The Pharisees are questioning Jesus' authority to speak of God as he does. He is not one of them, he has no authority in their eyes. Jesus in contrast is speaking of authority as coming to him because he knows his origin and destiny.

For the Pharisees, Jesus speaking alone and of himself is irrelevant and lacks credibility. Who is this man? The same question we hear again and again throughout the Gospels, often left unanswered or unanswerable. (And here I think of Bonhoeffer in Flossenberg prison, defining Jesus Christ primarily as 'the man for others'.)

Jesus comes from another place, from Otherness. And he reframes whatever questions are put to him. He will not and cannot reply to questions on the Pharisees' terms, just as he will not answer Pilate within the parameters set out by Pilate.

Jesus' self-understanding, his right to speak about himself, his right to bear witness, is grounded in his origin and destiny as inseparable from his Father, his God. Although in human terms he is seen as witnessing and acting alone, he is not alone. Although he witnesses to the Law, speaks of the Law, he also is the Law and embodies the full righteousness of the Law. He has been sent by God into a world of suffering, darkness and death; he will come into glory and eternal Oneness with the Father, he will save the world.

It is of course the language of mysticism we hear in this Gospel and not the discourse of legality as spoken by the Pharisees and to them the message of Jesus can only come across as madness or blasphemy. The language of transcendent indivisibility and not of human authority.

And the language of mystics is always the language of ecstacy and paradox, one reason I am both drawn to the Gospel of John and repelled by it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
In John's introduction, 'light' is used as a metaphor for lifestyle-leading-to-life, overcoming lifestyle-leading-to-death ('darkness' could not master it). That particular 'light' is the true light.

I've often wondered about the Greek adjective translated 'true' here – alethinos (= ἀληθινός), which is pretty much taken for granted in English (after all, everyone knows what 'true' means, don't they?!). I know the dangers of etymological word studies and so am walking warily at this point, but my wondering (and wandering) on this word often takes me here:

ἀληθινός as a negation of withholding information – a clearing in the forest where the sun douses the ground with clear light (as Heidegger put it). A clarity of view; un-hiding.

Would John have been recording Jesus as not just the banal true-as-opposed-to-false teacher, but also as the one who finally and conclusively opened up the way forward? Out of the dark forest of not just ignorance, but also of incorrect maps and dodgy paths. The dynamic way, not just a static statement that corresponds with reality (the other model definition of 'truth').

The possibility that this particular reading might be true(!) is bolstered if one sees the heritage of alethinos lying in the Hebrew equivalent 'emet, with its connotation of reliability and trustworthiness. If Jesus actually used the 'light' metaphor, speaking in Aramaic, his hearers would be more likely to understand him as claiming authority for the direction people should take in order to secure God's faithful reward. That does seem to have been a live issue for second temple folks: Just what exactly is it that I need to do in order to be sure? Which direction should I take in the face of so many competing signposts?

More down to earth, as it were, than some of the Greek philosophical trends which drive the common operating model for western thinking.

This might also have bearing on the testimony / judge section that follows in chapter 8: Jesus' judgement is said to be 'true' (8:16). He has the necessary authority for his teaching career and even though he is not judging people by human standards, should he do so (subjunctive mood) he would be making an judgement that clearly showed the direction required. He actually knows where he came from and where he is going; standing still is not an option – following is everything!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well I've chewed that over three times so far - twenty chews to every swallow. Still spitting out the bit about Greek philosophy, but I'm sure it will do me good if I keep on trying...

quote:
"...Yet even if I do judge, my judgment is valid; for it is not I alone who judge, but I and the Father [or "he"] who sent me. 17 In your law it is written that the testimony of two witnesses is valid. * 18 I testify on my own behalf, and the Father who sent me testifies on my behalf."
[John8.16-18]

* This is quite enlightening. I think John himself makes the same claim. At various points in the gospel I tend to stop and ask John "Oh, yes, who says such and such?" And the implicit answer from John is "Me and God," Which, of course, is a perfectly acceptable response from traditional Christianity. I'm not sure a Jew would agree.

[ 29. April 2012, 18:25: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry - that was pimple in curmudgeon mode.

quote:
Then they said to him, "Where is your Father?" Jesus answered, "You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also." He spoke these words while he was teaching in the treasury of the temple, but no one arrested him, because his time had not yet come.
[John 8.19-20]

Only two verses, but quite a lot of meat on the bones. Jesus is deliberately confrontational, and it's almost inconceivable that the people he's challenging would not want to lock him up - or worse. John acknowledges this, and both explains it by saying "his hour had not yet come" and in the same breath, so to speak, reminds us that it will.

Why is Jesus teaching in the treasury? Is this inspired by the synoptic accounts of the "cleansing of the temple" - driving out the money-changers? Or was this another part of the temple. Was it usual to use the treasury for teaching? If so, it doesn't look as though Jesus was teaching in one of the outer courts available to just anyone. And he is engaging in a remarkable tour de force of self-publicity, while the sceptics continue banging on about Abraham. People had more time for long speeches in those days, of course. Think of Paul and one of his hearers falling asleep and falling out of the window.
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
Pimple, your curmudgeonly post made me stop and think again about the dilemmas of hermeneutics, how we go about interpreting the Bible or any other text making truth claims in a religious or ethical sense. Contemporary Jewish readings of the Bible offer historical explanations and critiques of the Christian understandings. And I'm aware of reader reception theory, how we determine or dispute meanings from within differing contexts.

When I studied various Gospel texts, we approached them from the point of view of a committed believer working within either a liberal Protestant or Catholic position. I don't know the inerrancy understandings of fundamentalist evangelicals or the more traditional understandings of conservative Catholics.

If I were to look at the biblical texts as a feminist woman, it would be more polemical. If I commented as an agnostic, it would be again in a more questioning and historical way.

But, as with other texts that fall between myth and proclamation, I prefer here to comment 'as if' I could share that revealed faith in an uncomplicated way. I love the Gospel of John and find it opens a tiny crack for the possibility of belief.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I'll try that (harder!) [Biased]
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
Meant to get back here and post on the passage but I went off and ate poached salmon at a writers' festival planning lunch which put me into a secular stupor.

The passage:

[John 8.19-20]
Then they said to him, "Where is your Father?" Jesus answered, "You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also." He spoke these words while he was teaching in the treasury of the temple, but no one arrested him, because his time had not yet come.

Why was Jesus teaching in the treasury of the temple? John's Gospel differs from the Synoptics in that Jesus according to John's Gospel knew Jerusalem well. (I'm looking back to the work of Raymond Brown here for those who follow biblical scholars.) According to John, Jesus begins his ministry in Jerusalem and returns there for various festivals, notably the Passover. His ministry is challenged or spurned because the listeners do not know Jesus' Father, they are in darkness and excluded from the light.

This is a time of intra-Jewish factional dispute and Jesus enters the temple to challenge the leadership of the Pharisees and Sadduccees. Brown saw the Gospel of John as divided into a Book of Signs and a Book of Glory: the teaching of Jesus in the treasury points to the cleansing of the temple, the rejection of usury and the subsequent arrest and death of Jesus, the institution of a new order.

The Gospel of John has a 'realised eschatology', the glory established and already won. So the opponents of Jesus are unable to arrest him before the appointed time because the destiny of Jesus, like his origin, is unchangeable and fixed. Pnly those who know the Father can recognise that Oneness of Father and Son and the authority through which Jesus speaks.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Mary LA: you rightly say that John has a 'realised eschatology' in respect of eternal life and judgement inter alia. This fits well with Jesus' Manifesto of the Kingdom in Mark 1. "The Kingdom of God has arrived".

John is also very predestinarian as you also say.

I go fully with the 1st but cannot swallow the 2nd.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Isn't eschatology something to do with the Second Coming?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Sorry - that was pimple in curmudgeon mode.

quote:
Then they said to him, "Where is your Father?" Jesus answered, "You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also." He spoke these words while he was teaching in the treasury of the temple, but no one arrested him, because his time had not yet come.
[John 8.19-20]

Only two verses, but quite a lot of meat on the bones. Jesus is deliberately confrontational, and it's almost inconceivable that the people he's challenging would not want to lock him up - or worse. John acknowledges this, and both explains it by saying "his hour had not yet come" and in the same breath, so to speak, reminds us that it will.

Why is Jesus teaching in the treasury? Is this inspired by the synoptic accounts of the "cleansing of the temple" - driving out the money-changers? Or was this another part of the temple. Was it usual to use the treasury for teaching? If so, it doesn't look as though Jesus was teaching in one of the outer courts available to just anyone. And he is engaging in a remarkable tour de force of self-publicity, while the sceptics continue banging on about Abraham. People had more time for long speeches in those days, of course. Think of Paul and one of his hearers falling asleep and falling out of the window.

What follows is speculation, not certainty.

I suspect the "treasury of the temple" refers to the place where financial offerings were made, and not to the place (if any) where they were stored up. As you say, that kind of place wouldn't be accessible to the general public, and would be a mighty strange venue to use for teaching anyway! Besides, how would Jesus (a Judahite, not a priest or Levite) gain access to it? But if we are talking of the place where people (like the poor widow) made offerings, then All Is Explained. That would be a very likely spot to find the common people and priests alike.

I agree that he's being deliberately confrontational. And that is because his hour (the time of his death) is not far off, and he knows it, and it's time to get clear about the spiritual stakes involved here. His listeners haven't much time to make up their minds.

So he starts harping on the theme of his deity. The language is still rather elusive (he doesn't mean to be dragged out and stoned today, not just yet) but it's clear to anyone with ears to hear--which has been a theme of his teaching anyway all along. And even his enemies are picking up on it, though they are having trouble getting him to say something so utterly unambiguous that it would get him convicted at trial. (and of course that IS the climax of his trial, when he finally states his identity under oath, but that's for later.)

He's given them quite a lot to chew on, however. just in the past few verses, his father is "the one who sent me", and that sending is apparently significant enough that it forms the basis for Jesus' self-identity and gets mentioned twice in a breath. This is no ordinary sending.

His Father is also the one he "stands with," who is the reason he is "not alone," and who is the other witness to all his claims--even though to the eye Jesus is physically alone. That all strongly suggests an invisible ever-present presence, even if he doesn't come right out and say G-O-D. Which would get him stoned for blasphemy, but he's dancing awfully near that fate in this chapter, and he knows it, and they know it too, and are hoping he will lose his balance. As if.

If you don't mind, could I add something to the "If I judge" issue? I think part of what is going on here has to do with Jesus' present and future roles. He says now, "I pass judgment on no one," which is true. He is here as Savior right now, and persistently refuses to get involved in judging--whether that's people's sins ("Neither do I condemn you" and all that) or questions of property ("Man, who made me a judge over you?").

But he foresees a time when he will in fact BE judge, on the last day--and on that day his judgments will be true. Back to John 5 again:

quote:
22 Moreover, the Father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgment to the Son, 23 that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father, who sent him.
I think this might explain the rather odd conditional (and yes, Greek does have conditionals, though I haven't got the Greek text in front of me just now). But if the English is rendering the Greek correctly, you have a conditional which is NOT contrary-to-fact ("If I do judge"), one which strongly suggests that at some other time and in some other place, Jesus does/will judge, though he isn't doing so now. And that might explain why we aren't given a construction like "but if I DID judge" or "if I WOULD judge," which both imply a situation that isn't real. "If I DO judge" leaves the door open for Jesus to start doing so at some later point in time.
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
Lamb Chopped, I do like that explanation of the treasury in the temple. And shamwari, I don't know that my reading is the 'right' one but I am familiar with accepted readings and understandings of how the Gospel of John is structured and why.

pimple, 'eschatology' is about the 'end things'. It is a Renaissance term that refers to the end of the world or the Second Coming or the Day of Judgment. Some kinds of eschatology are pessimistic or dystopian, but traditional Christian understanding is utopian in that it refers to the return of the Messiah and the establishment of the Kingdom of God.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Then "realised eschatology" is something that already exists? Not something that will happen, historically, in the future? Something transcending time, or something like that?
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
As I understand it, pimple, the realised eschatology of John presents the Kingdom of God as established by the Resurrection. Many theologians reading John talk about the tension that exists between the 'already' (the Kingdom here, humanity saved and redeemed) and the 'not yet' (what remains to be completed, what is still future eschatology).

To give an example, you have the "I am" statements of Jesus indicating the fullness of God within the Son, that his presence and destiny is redemption: "I am the way, and the truth, and the life" (John 14:6).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Less than half way through the gospel, Jesus foretells his death:

quote:
21 Again he said to them, "I am going away, and you will search for me, but you will die in your sin. Where I am going, you cannot come."
[John 8.21]

I think Jesus is saying more than he is saying, here, if you follow me. Or less. He cannot surely be saying that everyone he is talking to will die unredeemed? Can he?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It's an almost word-for-word repeat of 7.34, which has already been dealt with, I'm sure.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by footwasher:
John 7:33-36 NET

Then Jesus said, “I will be with you for only a little while longer, and then I am going to the one who sent me. You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come.”
Then the Jewish leaders said to one another, “Where is he going to go that we cannot find him? He is not going to go to the Jewish people dispersed among the Greeks and teach the Greeks, is he? What did he mean by saying, ‘You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come’?”

This is Jesus warning the Jewish people that His offer is for a limited period only, as He will be going away. We know now He is talking about the Ascension, but at the time this information just went over their head. John repeats this pattern throughout his Gospel, and it kind of puts his readers at ease, knowing that the teaching they received was as startling to the Apostles as it is now to them. "Yup, we heard and we didn't understand at first either! So don't worry, you'll soon be up to speed!"

Yup. There it is.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
22 Then the Jews said, "Is he going to kill himself? Is that what he means by saying, 'Where I am going, you cannot come'?" 23 He said to them, "You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world.24 I told you that you would die in your sins, for you will die in your sins unless you believe that I am he."
[John 8.22-24]

Which also answers the question I put above. This totally uncompromising stance is quite a big part of the gospel which even some liberal Christians love so much.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Catching up on the week's offerings...

RE: John 8:16-18

There is that tension in the passage between the court setting, where legal parameters apply (two witnesses needed...) and the theological fact that one of the witnesses is claimed to be God himself. Surely the point of the legal rule was to ensure there were two 'earthly' witnesses to any Godly claim? Isn't it cheating by Jesus and John to claim “My message and I are from God” and then to whip out another claim – that God is sending the message and messenger? It's a claim about a claim, not a witness to a claim. Where is the testimony from God as a witness, if not from the words and deeds of Jesus, who is making the claim in the first place?

Things become even more bizarre if the allusion Jesus is making in John 8:17 (“The testimony of two men is true”) is to Deut. 17:6 and/or 19:15 -
quote:
[NET Bible]
Deut. 17:6 = At the testimony of two or three witnesses they must be executed. They cannot be put to death on the testimony of only one witness.
Deut. 19:15 = A single witness may not testify against another person for any trespass or sin that he commits. A matter may be legally established only on the testimony of two or three witnesses.

Jesus and A.N. Other versus the State in a judicial enquiry, where Jesus and A.N. Other are the two necessary witnesses – and also, apparently from the John context, the Judges.

It is not surprising that Jesus' testers respond with a “So where is your 'Father', then?” (v. 19). Obviously a second witness would need to be sensually present (i.e. capable of being perceived by at least two of the human senses). The response is on a par with Nicodemus' and the Samaritan women's responses to Jesus' startling sayings. They may seem pettish, but are actually very understandable. Jesus is just not playing by the rules!

I find it hard to believe that Jesus or John was being deliberately obtuse – or even incredibly naïve. There's more to this plot than meets the eye.

But what is it???
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
...and...

RE: John 8:19-20

Jesus and John pull the key saying out of the fire: If you want to get to the truth about my claims, you will need to 'know' me. Only then you will see the second witness (God). This might be asking too much because it requires committed alignment with the very thing one is investigating before one takes any rash decision. Perhaps Jesus is confronting the very need for investigation? If God's requirements have already canonised by the community of God, then what are the theologians doing challenging them? This sounds as though Jesus (and John) is arguing that only from a position of rebellion against God would someone seek to 'investigate.' Equally, only from a position of loyalty to God will one know which way to go.

Jesus is still doing the rabbi thing in the Temple precincts (he's been there since 7:14 – apart from the possible nightly sleeping bag retirements referred to in 8:1f). The 'two witness' reference rings closer now to Deut. 17:6 – we are in the presence of execution allusions. A time is coming...


RE: 8:21-24

“You will die in your sin”

Repeated a few times – must be important in the plot. Perhaps an allusion to Deut. 24:16 -
quote:
NET Bible
Fathers must not be put to death for what their children do, nor children for what their fathers do; each must be put to death for his own sin.

This would carry forward the theme Jesus has been alluding to thus far – that what is at stake here is judgement leading to sentence of death. The rebels will die as a result of their rebellion (sin) and will miss out on entering the promised land.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

There is that tension in the passage between the court setting, where legal parameters apply (two witnesses needed...) and the theological fact that one of the witnesses is claimed to be God himself. Surely the point of the legal rule was to ensure there were two 'earthly' witnesses to any Godly claim?

Actually, to any criminal claim--or to any claim in general (I'm thinking of testimony about disputed possessions right now). Godly claims didn't come into it, for the simple reason that they were not made (first commandment). Unless you count the numerous self-promoting prophets, and their judge was generally time, as in: "Did it come true? No? Okay, hand me a rock." [Eek!]


quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

Isn't it cheating by Jesus and John to claim “My message and I are from God” and then to whip out another claim – that God is sending the message and messenger? It's a claim about a claim, not a witness to a claim. Where is the testimony from God as a witness, if not from the words and deeds of Jesus, who is making the claim in the first place?

Well, you COULD see this as an allusion to the baptism of Jesus, and "This is my beloved Son. Listen to him!" Which was rather public, though disputed by many.

But I think something else is going on (see below).

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

It is not surprising that Jesus' testers respond with a “So where is your 'Father', then?” (v. 19). Obviously a second witness would need to be sensually present (i.e. capable of being perceived by at least two of the human senses). The response is on a par with Nicodemus' and the Samaritan women's responses to Jesus' startling sayings. They may seem pettish, but are actually very understandable. Jesus is just not playing by the rules! . . . There's more to this plot than meets the eye.

Very true. Me, I think he's messing with their heads. After all, this is NOT a formal legal setting, nobody is (officially) on trial here, and if Jesus chooses to mess around with the rules of procedure on such an occasion, who's to blame him? I think he's doing the usual good teacher thing, where you grab the moment, grab the handle the students are handing you (whatever that may be) and skillfully use it to bring the discussion round to what YOU want to talk about--for their own sake. It takes quick wits and a nimble tongue, but if you can do it, it works so much better than "hush up, you in the back row, I'm trying to talk about God here."
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
22 Then the Jews said, "Is he going to kill himself? Is that what he means by saying, 'Where I am going, you cannot come'?" 23 He said to them, "You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world.24 I told you that you would die in your sins, for you will die in your sins unless you believe that I am he."
[John 8.22-24]

Which also answers the question I put above. This totally uncompromising stance is quite a big part of the gospel which even some liberal Christians love so much.

Ouch, yes. He doesn't pussyfoot around. Which makes me wonder if some of the "gentle Jesus, meek and mild" fans have ever read these passages.

The "I am he" bit is of course his claim to be "I AM," the Lord, YHWH. Which puts him perilously close to being stoned.

The "dying in your sins" thing reminds me of several passages in the Law of Moses where various kinds of sin (such as incest) are mentioned with the punishment, "they will carry (or bear) their sins." I think it means that they will remain unforgiven--that as long as they stay in that state, no sacrifice will do them any good. Which is essentially to be separated from God both while living and dead. The OT passages mention this result with no other form of punishment imposed, as I recall--apparently the bare separation was hell enough.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
25 They said to him, "Who are you?" Jesus said to them, "Why do I speak to you at all? [or What I have told you from the beginning."]26 I have much to say about you and much to condemn; but the one who sent me is true, and I declare to the world that I have heard from him." 27 They did not understand that he was speaking to them about the Father.
[John 8.25-27]

The possibility of more than one translation of
verse 25b shows the complexity of getting to grips with what is going on here; if It sounds
more like a rant than a reasoned argument that may be no more than a hopeless desire for a bit of English sang froid in a totally inappropriate context!

Will have to leave it there - my mouse has St. Vitus' Dance.

[ 15. May 2012, 17:52: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Here is the passage in several translations.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, Moo. The NRSV version looks decidedly idiosyncratic alongside these.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Okay, this is what I'm digging up. My Greek NT has gone walkies for the moment, so I got this on Bible Gateway and consulted A Grammatical Analysis of the Greek New Testament because I'm crap with pronouns:


την αρχην / ο τι / και / λαλω υμιν
the beginning / the what / also, even / I say to you

or

entirely, at all / why / even / I speak to you


You can see how this single Greek sentence combines several words that, all by themselves, have a range of options. Put them together in one sentence and you get an unusual range of possibilities, and including "[I am] even what I told you from the beginning" all the way to "Why do I even speak to you at all?"

Greek is not usually this ambiguous. But any language can do this, witness the horrid example I ran across today:

quote:
He knew not to consult the Lord.
This occurred in some fake King-James-style writing where the author was consistently placing the "not" after the verb; so the meaning is therefore either

a. He didn't know [he ought to] consult the Lord,
or
b. He was smart enough to know he should not consult the Lord.

If English can do that kind of horror, I suppose I ought not to complain about the Greek.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ah! Not so idiosyncratic, then. But NRSV does give the more popular alternative, anyway.
quote:
28 So Jesus said, "When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will realize that I am he [Gk "I am"], and that I do nothing on my own, but I speak these things as the Father instructed me. 29 And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him." 30 As he was saying these things, many believed in him.
[John 8.28-30]

Seems to contradict any suggestion made by the synoptic accounts that Jesus could ever possibly think that God had abandaoned him - because he always did what his Father God told him to do.

Isn't this a clear example of belief driving the "facts"? (No, of course not, and someone will be along shortly to explain why!)

What it reminds me of is the Muslim belief that Jesus did not die on the cross. The same reasoning applies. Jesus was a perfect son. What mortal father, let alone God, would stand by and let such a thing happen?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, I don't mind obliging you... [Razz]

The point of Jesus' abandonment on the cross is precisely the point when we are told "he who knew no sin became sin, that in him we might become the righteousness of God." By your own reasoning, then, it makes sense that if Jesus is ever to experience abandonment, it would be precisely at the point where he steps into our shoes as a sinner...

No need to pit the Gospels against one another.

As for the other question, it tends to take us away from Keryg stuff and into substitutionary theology--want to start a new thread? Just my 2 cents. But I have a lot of trouble with any theology that presumes goodness is sufficient to keep one from suffering.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
But I'm not the one claiming that God would not abandon Jesus. Jesus - or rather, John is. Nor am I the one pitting one gospel against another. The evangelists do it themselves - not to destroy their antecedents, but to correct and amplify them.

[ 18. May 2012, 14:02: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Nevertheless I must stop suggesting that anything in John is "self-evident". Nothing is self-evident. I'm beginning to see how I can approach the Johanine discourses in a more positive frame of mind.

quote:
29...And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him." 30 As he was saying these things, many believed in him. 31 Then Jesus said to the Jews who had believed in him, "If you continue in my word, you are truly my disciples; and you will know the truth, and the truth will make you free."
[John 8.29-32]

I'm trying to read it like a libretto. All those repeats are like the simple phrases in Bach and Rachmaninov which build up one on another to produce a glorious tune. I never stop to think "Oh not that old one and a half tones up, semitone down, whole tone up nonsense again...."

[ 19. May 2012, 19:04: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Good! John is rather like Bach, I think. Or vice versa.

But if you want to step back to the old approach for just a sec, I'll point out that Jesus uses the perfect tense for the Father's action--He HAS not left me alone. This says nothing about the future, you'll note, only about the past up to this point. And it is a rather odd way of speaking--if you mean to describe a situation that is always and ever true (at least in English), you use the present tense ("He never leaves me alone"). Jesus does in fact use the present tense in the second half of the statement: "I always do what pleases him." This is the normal way of expressing something true yesterday, today and forever. Which leaves us to wonder just why he chose a non-eternal tense for the Father's leaving him alone... BWA-ha-ha-ha.

Thus speaketh the tense detective.

[Twirls mustache, disappears stage left]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Following Lamb Chopped's in-tense moment...

I noticed that John uses Greek verbs to signal a distinction between important and background material. In particular, the imperfect verb form is used to provide background, and the aorist foreground material of importance. There's a persistent tendency to associate the aorist with Jesus' actions and words, while relegating the questions from his opponents to the background. It's as though John is 'red-lettering' Jesus' words and actions for his readers. Quite in your face.

Word order and style is useful for tracking the important bits through a narrative. In this whole section (chapters 7-8) Jesus' words are thus highlighted, but so are a few other key points. For example, two opposing conclusions are played off against each other: the Jewish leaders “did NOT RECOGNISE [aorist] that he (i.e. Jesus) was speaking about the father” (8:27) and “while he was saying these things, many BELIEVED [aorist] in him” (8:30). These two outcomes appear to be important information that John wanted his readers to take on board.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And John wants his hearers to do the same. So he's quoting Jesus verbatim, as it were, in order to get the same result. It works. Even
today. Don't ask me (or tell me!) how.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Back to the sons of Abraham; continuing Jesus' discussion with those who "had believed in him".

quote:
33 They answered him, "We are descendants of Abraham and have never been slaves to anyone. What do you mean by saying, 'You will be made free'?" 34 Jesus answered them, "Very truly, I tell you, everyone who commits sin is a slave to sin. 35 The slave does not have a permanent place in the household; the son has a place there forever. 36 So if the Son makes you free, you will be free indeed...
The "Very truly" start of Jesus' reply is one of those Amen, Amen, sayings, which I believe refer as often as not to the previous speaker's remarks ("Yes, Yes, I know that, but....") - which shows him in a far more approachable light than the rather pompous-sounding (in English) "Verily, verily".

quote:
37 "...I know you are dewscendants of Abraham;yet..
See? I told you so!

[ 25. May 2012, 10:24: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
I seem to remember this passage is often read together with Genesis 21, the stories of Isaac as the free-born legitimate son who belongs in the household, as opposed to the slave-born son Ishmael who does not belong in the household and is driven out.

So the Jewish speakers here claim to be free sons of Abraham, descended by lineage from a free father or founder. But Jesus tells them they are slaves to habitual and persistent sin, unfree and born unfree into the slavery of sin.

From a very contemporary perspective, sin is described the way we would now speak of the slavery of addiction, what it is like to be trapped in habituation, repetition and cravings, self-destructive behaviour.

The only free son or descendant of Abraham and God is Jesus Himself and as the Son He is able to free those enslaved by sin, He can intervene because He is not just descended from Abraham but is God's Son and belongs in the Household of God..
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The allusion to Gebesis is interesting. I'm having second thoughts about Jesus still talking to the Jews who believed in him. I think that remark was probably meant to be seen as in parenthesis, and Jesus is still addressing the problems of those who have yet to be convinced.
He would hardly accuse new converts of wanting to kill him - oops - that's yet to come.

[ 26. May 2012, 03:59: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's a good question: Who is Jesus speaking to/about in this whole section?

We have “the Jews” (from 7:11), which is John's shorthand for those in authority – probably with a Temple base (in the wide sense, not just ritual, but academic). Then there are “the common people” (7:12), a term John uses to offset against the authorities. Those commoners are divided in opinion about Jesus' validity.

Then there follows a strange alternation between those two camps, with Jews and commoners swinging back and forth in opinion about Jesus' validity and asking quite a few questions.

In 7:25 we are introduced to “residents of Jerusalem.” Are these the Jews? The commoners? Or is John reflecting another distinction – perhaps between the traditional conservative city dwellers (not the authorities) and those attending the feast from elsewhere in the country (or even wider)? This latter may be the case, because in 7:30 those city dwellers are presupposed in the verb 'they sought [to seize Jesus]' whereas some of the commoners believed in him.

Then we are back to the authorities in 7:35 who are opposed to Jesus, while the commoners are divided in opinion again (7:40-43). John focusses on the authorities in chapter 8 – but then he upsets the cart in 8:31 by mentioning authorities [Jews] who had believed Jesus. Is he backing off to include all Judaeans – commoners and all? Or telling us that there had been at one time (past tense) some in authority who had indeed believed in Jesus, but who now were opposed? Or that there were indeed some in authority who had put their faith in Jesus and continued to do so?

Perhaps John is indeed throwing the latter in to the mix and is having Jesus prod them right where it hurts, as he did with previous group representatives (Samaritan woman, Nicodemus...). It would fit the style. In this case, Jesus provides an interesting test case for pastoral care in how to weed out veneer members of the community! Scratch the surface and you will be surprised what you find underneath!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
On the "never been slaves to anyone" bit--Mr. Lamb and I always roll our eyes when this comes up, as it completely overlooks four hundred years of slavery in Egypt, which is basically your nation's founding story, right? I want to say "Hello? HELLLLLOOOOOOOO????"

Not to mention assorted oppressions by Philistia, Midian, Moab, Assyria, Babylon, Persia, and OH HEY what about the Romans right now?

Think you forgot something?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
"We have never been anyone's slaves!" is certainly a strange claim to make. It would be surprising for residents of Jerusalem, of all people, not to remember their history and current affairs. There are records of Jews who had, as young men, been carted off to perform slave labour in the Roman empire for decades and who had only in recent years been released, permitting them in their more advanced age to settle in Jerusalem. Although they were by that stage Greek-speaking, their ordeal as Jewish slaves could hardly have been unknown to Jesus' conversation partners.

I wondered, therefore, if perhaps the slavery reference would be to something other than political domination and slavery. Jesus' response (sin being the slave master) might point in that other direction, as he does not pick up the idea of political slavery in his reply. Perhaps the reference to slavery was in the context of the promises to Abraham as a loyal follower of Yahweh? Those who were part of Abraham's family were God's people and this provided assurance of salvation. Abraham's descendants were free from the threat of being judged guilty by God – so long as they retained the practices of loyalty to God.

Then Jesus' response was that the promises to Abraham do not alone guarantee spiritual freedom. Rebellion against God is proof of slavery to rebellion itself. There's a harking back to some of the prophetic messages here: mere performance of correct practice in ritual would never be enough to cover disloyal practices in heart.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'd like to fill out verse 37, which pimple started above, if I may...
quote:
John 8:37
I know that you are Abraham’s descendants. But you want to kill me, because my teaching makes no progress among you.

The lack of understanding of - or better, resistance to - Jesus' explanations of God and his message links back to the theme in the Introduction: The light has been shining in the darkness, but the darkness has not mastered it (John 1:5).

The discussion around validity of Jesus - and that of his debating partners here - is getting touchy. It's beginning to get personal now.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
But it does make progress, doesn't it? But not, perhaps, where Jesus/John most wanted it to? At the time of writing (the fourth gospel), Paul had long ago given up on the Jews (after all, some of his compatriots did try to kill him!) and taken his message to the gentiles.

So why is John rubbing it in - the intransigence of "the Jews" - whoever they may be, set alongside the (?fragile) belief of the predominantly gentile Johanine community?

[ 03. June 2012, 05:01: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I think from the verbal aspects in verse 31 that Jesus is addressing those in authority (the Jews) who had until recently followed his teaching. They 'had been believing in him' in sense that this belief had now come to an end (perfect active participle of the verb “to believe”). Jesus urges them to 'remain in his word' - “If you would just stick with it” (aorist active subjunctive of the verb “to remain / stay”).

This might imply that this passage is addressing those who had broken faith with the community – fallen away, relapsed, gone off the rails, recidivists, traitors – whichever term suits best!

Perhaps John felt the need here to provide guidance for his readers on the test of who was 'in' and who was 'out'? The proof of real discipleship – and who really is a true disciple – lies in whether they continue to follow Jesus and do what he teaches: “If you would just stay in my teaching (remain in my word), then in truth you are my followers” (7:31b). Whether the readership was a specific community or wider Christianity in general, well, I suppose it could apply to both.

'Progress' in verse 37 can also mean a 'holding or making room for'. There's a sense here of Jesus' teaching having filled up a rather narrow space and is set to burst, for lack of room. The space had max'd out. John uses the word only three times in the Gospel: once to describe the capacity of the stone water jars in 2:6 (holding a maximum of 20 or 30 gallons); and again in 21:25 to describe the capacity of the world to contain a record of everything Jesus said and did. In v.37, then, Jesus is implying that the field of view among these Jews had been too narrow. They were too constrained and were not prepared to broaden their horizons – or admit the need for change. The teaching of Jesus had reached their limits. Any more and something would have to give. Under that pressure they had opted to throw it all out.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And thus lose their chance of eternal life - seen by many then, as it is now, as a promise of physical, mental and spiritual immortality?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
That does indeed seem to be the implication in what follows. The skewer is being stuck in by Jesus as he picks up the 'How's your father' theme in this passage. First...
quote:
John 8:38
Just as I speak what I have seen while with the father, so also you do what you have heard from your father.

This verse is capable of being translated in few different ways, but in light of how the conversation moves on I think Jesus is being recorded as making a distinction between his father (God) as author of his teaching, and his accusers' father (identity about to be revealed explicitly) who authors their teachings and actions. To show this I need to bring in the next few verses, with apologies for adding a chunk, but I'm not sure how else to show where this is going.
quote:
John 8:39-44a
They answered him, “Abraham is our father!” Jesus replied, “If you are Abraham’s children, you would be doing the deeds of Abraham. But now you are trying to kill me, a man who has told you the truth I heard from God. Abraham did not do this! You people are doing the deeds of your father.”

Then they said to Jesus, “We were not born as a result of immorality! We have only one Father, God himself.” Jesus replied, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I have come from God and am now here. I have not come on my own initiative, but he sent me. Why don’t you understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot accept my teaching. You people are from your father the devil, and you want to do what your father desires. ...

Jesus has been making the same distinction Paul makes later, between descendants (seed) of Abraham and children of Abraham. Children behave like their father – that is a more important category than those who may well be descended from Abraham, but who behave differently. They must have a different father. Jesus provokes the response: “We are not bastards” (or possibly, 'sons of whores'). There's likely an implied accusation against Jesus' heritage in this response – we aren't the illegitimate sons here! Jesus' response to this? These very Jews are in fact the illegitimate ones: their father is not Abraham, neither is it God; they are the devil's spawn. This neatly cuts them off from God's kingdom – and by implication those who John as author is getting at among his readership.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you for helping me over those tough few verses. How do those who love John's gospel cope with this? Do they feel they can, themselves, adopt the same - or a similar - stance, towards their neighbours?

[ 04. June 2012, 19:59: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I am one who loves John's gospel, and I have no problem with deciding not adopt the same stance. I know that as the Son of God, Jesus could speak with sure knowledge about the motivations of the individual people he was addressing whereas I cannot. I see my job to be assuming the best of people and leaving the judgment to God.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Suggest you compare this passage with 1 John, specifically his description of "those who went out from us" e.g. apostates--the same theme is reiterated there. "This is how we know thechildren of God and of the devil ... if theyhad been of us, they would not have gone out from us. True parentage will show itself in actions. One of which is staying with the rest of the family.

[ 05. June 2012, 05:24: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you. That's very revealing.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
How do those who love John's gospel cope with this? Do they feel they can, themselves, adopt the same - or a similar - stance, towards their neighbours?

Indeed, that's the Gurkha kukri* question, isn't it? Once we uncover the meaning of a passage (the author's intent that has a moral claim on us), what do we do with it? Can we shove it back into its canonical casing, hoping nobody notices, and go about our normal routine as though we had never made that discovery? Surely we are obliged honestly to tackle the issues that come out with the meaning.

There are plenty of readers – some on the Ship, I know – who do agree with the need to identify the author's meaning even though they risk finding the outcome unpalatable, and to tackle it honestly. One possible response is to place the finding in terms of historical development, i.e., the human author was a child of his times and the reading was been superseded by later understandings.

This particular approach, though, finds another issue in the way when the author is Jesus himself. For those who see Jesus as God's representative it is not so easy to dismiss the author's meaning to historical relativity. One way over the problem is to associate the meaning not with Jesus, but with the human Gospel writer. So, for example, in the current passage it is John who mistakenly records Jesus as saying such-and-such. Jesus in fact had a very different agenda.

This approach has its own issues. Firstly, what criteria could be used to make this distinction? Are there any publicly available principles to draw on that would validate such an approach sufficiently to offset the criticism that the reader is simply adopting personal preferences? Secondly, how does such an approach account for the canonical development of the texts, the process whereby passages such as this are accepted by the community of God and disseminated down the years?

Seeing that I haven't come across criteria sufficient to meet the above objections, I'm in the crew that has to lie in the bed I've made: having uncovered the author's meaning of a passage I am then obliged – if I am to stay a loyal member of God's family – to accept it and make it work.

Here it would be great to spend some time working through the implications of that (which would include making sure we have the broader spectrum of authorial intentions to hand from the bible, among others the texts Lamb Chopped referred to), but time and tide may be against us. One thought did occur to me from reading W Hyatt's post on the idea of acceptance: Judas may provide an interesting support. Why did Jesus tolerate Judas Iscariot among his close followers? After all, he knew at some point that this erstwhile disciple was going through a crisis of faith. Why not cut him off from the team and send him on his way? Wasn't Judas' activity contrary to the good of the community and counter to what was expected? Was he demonstrating himself to be a child of God, or a son of the devil (John 6:70)? There may be a lesson / principle here about accepting the existence of anti-christ elements within the community. How would church leaders react to this idea?

Food for thought. Anyway, I don't doubt that this principle – if it is one – would need setting against the principles elsewhere about discord in the community.


* according to popular legend, once drawn it cannot be sheathed without drawing blood.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thank you. That's very revealing.

Oh dear. Of Jesus, or me? Or John, I suppose.

I was on a Totally Unsuitable Device for posting then (I say now, as I commit hrboleile errrorrs, sigh) and will now wax more prolix. Sorry guys!

1 John goes around and around on how you can distinguish between the children of God and the children of the devil (or whatever handy term you wish to use), and mentions about a dozen characteristics. Staying with the family is just one of them, but it IS one. And he's not referring to people who wander away from home for a while, but to people who go and stay gone permanently. Though it's illegitimate to apply that to leaving a single congregation or denomination for another, since the whole body of Christ is meant.

W Hyatt upthread talked about the very important distinction between what God (Jesus) can do and what I as an ordinary Christian can do. Making judgements about the interior spiritual state of someone is God's realm. I'm not equipped for the job. But thanks to Jesus and John and others, the church is equipped to do a careful, trembling, tentative approximation of this for the purpose of protecting the church and those going off the rails only. So Mr. Lamb has had to put someone in a leadership position on discipline lately for divisiveness and immoral life after several warnings over a period of two years. We're not saying he's going to hell; we are saying that a) he doesn't meet the criteria for biblical leadership, and b) he's demonstrably hurting everybody else in the congregation. The relief in the congo has been tremendous. And the guy has the option of repentance and restoration at any time...

Jesus'/John's distinctions sound harsh but so does any wake-up call.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
As for Judas, the indications in the Gospel are that Jesus did notice something was up with him, and made multiple attempts to reach out to him. There was that rebuke after Judas got nasty about Mary's gift. Hey, a rebuke is no fun, but sometimes it's a lifesaver. And it's interesting that Jesus got very downright with him AFTER he did something that was clearly damaging another member of the believing community, and in public even...

Another reach-out attempt that is recorded would be the footwashing thing, which clearly involved Judas. And there was the honoring of him with the special morsel at the last supper. If you work out the seating (!) arrangements at the table that night, it appears Jesus had John to one side and Judas to the other, in the positions of honor, which was surely intentional. Peter was away down the table, and Judas preferred over him (which is why Peter couldn't hear any of the whispered conversations about "who is it" and had to make gestures at John to ask). I suspect there were a lot of other unrecorded attempts by Jesus to reach Judas. Pity none of them worked.

You have to make reach-out efforts in a situation like that, over and over, until the person either leaves of his own accord or you reach the point where the damage to the community is outweighing the increasingly-less-likely chance of regaining the person. All the church leaders I know err in the direction of tolerating damaging crap way too long, because they just can't handle the tough love thing. But it's probably better than erring in the opposite direction.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
W ell, I thought W Hyatt's admirably brief post said it all. But then Nigel's "Amen, amen..." reply and Lamb Chopped's (how do you pronounce that) anecdote gave me even more to think about.

I've always quite liked being preached to [Smile]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
You are from your father the devil, and you choose to do your father's desires. He was a murderer from the beginning and does not stand in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he lies he speaks according to his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. 45 But because I tell the truth, you do not believe me.
[John 8.44-45] I will check back a couple of posts in case I haven't been paying proper attention. Who, exactly, was a murderer from the beginning? The devil? From the beginning on what? Whom did he murder? Am I being particularly dense here?

[ 08. June 2012, 13:51: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
An alternative translation I found:

umeis ek tou patros tau diabolou este kai tas epithumias tou patros umōn thelete poiein ekeinos anthrōpoktonos ēn ap archēs kai en tē alētheia ouk estēken oti ouk estin alētheia en autō otan lalē to pseudos ek tōn idiōn lalei oti pseustēs estin kai ho patēr autou egō de oti tēn alētheian legō ou pisteuete moi

You are from the Devil as the father, and the lusts of your father you desire to do. That one was a murderer from the beginning, and he has not stood in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own, because he is a liar, and the father of it. And because I speak the truth, you do not believe Me. (John 8.44 – 45)

'That one' then refers to the devil as a murderer and the father of all lies. He was a murderer from the beginning because he destroyed Adam's innocence (Gen. 3, cf. Wisd. 2.24; Rom. 5.12.) and stood in opposition to God from the beginning of Creation. Jesus addresses those who have inherited lies from their father the devil, were born into lies and deceit through their father the devil and cannot discern truth. They are unable and unwilling to acknowledge the Truth in Jesus that He embodies.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It sounds very determinist. Is it?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Sin IS pretty determinist. I mean, it's like a bear trap. Before you step into it you've got all the freedom in the world. Afterwards, well...

Which is why we get the whole bit of "slaves to sin" and "If the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed."
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Mary LA:
quote:
'That one' then refers to the devil as a murderer and the father of all lies. He was a murderer from the beginning because he destroyed Adam's innocence (Gen. 3, cf. Wisd. 2.24; Rom. 5.12.) and stood in opposition to God from the beginning of Creation. Jesus addresses those who have inherited lies from their father the devil, were born into lies and deceit through their father the devil and cannot discern truth. They are unable and unwilling to acknowledge the Truth in Jesus that He embodies.
So what happened to "And God saw everything that he had made, and behold, it was very good." Are God and his works so fragile that another part of creation can totally destroy his good work? It seems to say Satan is nearly equal to God, which I believe is a far cry from the truth. And is Jesus saying this of everyone, that everyone is almost terminally resist to God's call? Or is he speaking to those who have shown themselves to be, those Jews who are arguing with him? I find it ironic that the same conversation starts with: "So Jesus said to the Jews who had believed him, “If you abide in my word, you are truly my disciples, 32 and you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free.” And now suddenly they are all arguing.
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
It is a very hard and intransigeant passage isn't it? Shades of Manicheanism.

I was thinking about this after I looked around through various translations that might help me get a closer understanding and it occurred to me (it's been a while since I wrestled or angsted over these passages) that what Jesus is addressing in such an uncompromising way is the tissue of lies that masks evil, the fact that these people cannot hear the truth or recognise the truth because they are so enmeshed in the lies that have blinded them since birth.

When I read historical accounts of the denialism of groups involved in inhumane wars or torture or abuse, I wonder why those self-serving lies were so pervasive and so totalised and triumphalist an ideology. Might Jesus have been addressing something as pervasive and Other?
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Good points, MaryLA.

What these Jewish folks were clinging to was their Jewish identity as descendents of Abraham and people of his covenant with God. And I think much of this comes from being brutalized by Roman occupation and memories of the Exile. That's why the Pharisees were so strict. If God were going to continue to be the Hebrew nation's protector, its own God, the people were going to have to keep their eye on the covenant. They would have to cross the Ts and dot the Is ritually to really set themselves apart from pagan worship. The nation had messed up before and if the Pharisees had any say in it, they wouldn't again.

They certainly weren't expecting a wandering prophet to demand they keep their eyes on him for ultimate salvation. That was waaaay out there in left field. It was too big a leap, even for those who "believed" him.
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lyda*Rose:
What these Jewish folks were clinging to was their Jewish identity as descendents of Abraham and people of his covenant with God. And I think much of this comes from being brutalized by Roman occupation and memories of the Exile. That's why the Pharisees were so strict. If God were going to continue to be the Hebrew nation's protector, its own God, the people were going to have to keep their eye on the covenant. They would have to cross the Ts and dot the Is ritually to really set themselves apart from pagan worship. The nation had messed up before and if the Pharisees had any say in it, they wouldn't again.

They certainly weren't expecting a wandering prophet to demand they keep their eyes on him for ultimate salvation. That was waaaay out there in left field. It was too big a leap, even for those who "believed" him.

[tangent] [Overused]

Recently my other half came across a book that looked at the OT through a sociological lens, which made a similar point to the one you are making here. There were parallels in the way that the Israelites behaved to modern day refugee communities. How to preserve the identity of the community was one of the common themes of concern. If this was what the Pharisees were trying to do, then one can understand why they thought they were doing the right thing and wouldn't give in to what Jesus had to say. The problem is that I am not sure the Bible did present the Pharisees in that light, so the question then is whether the Biblical writers were biased because they were trying to present a view, or the Pharisees really were just a bunch self righteous/power hungry people who thought they were better than everybody else, as I had been taught to believe over the years. [/tangent]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Does anyone know the background to Jesus' assertion that the devil was a murderer from the beginning? I understand the link to Genesis 3 (and off into chapter 4 with the murder of Abel), but in what sense was the devil a murderer, rather than just a deceiver?

The Greek phrase in John (anthropoktonos en ap arches = ανθρωποκτόνος ην απ' αρχης) suggests a 'manslayer', which is not the word used by the Septuagint for 'murderer' (phoneutes = φονευτής). Someone who brings death to a human may be acting unintentionally, or as the state's executioner, just as much as a murderer. This leaves me with the question: Did John intend to leave the issue somewhat wide so that he could squeeze Gen. 3 in here, of was there an existing tradition Jesus/John was drawing on and that Jesus' conversation partners would have recognised, concerning the devil's crimes?

I note that 1 John 3:15 makes a similar claim to John 8: “Everyone who hates his fellow Christian is a murderer [same word – anthropoktonos]...” This brings to mind Matthew 5:21-22 -
quote:
“You have heard that it was said to an older generation, ‘Do not murder [verbal form of phoneutes],’ and ‘whoever murders will be subjected to judgment.’ But I say to you that anyone who is angry with a brother will be subjected to judgment. And whoever insults a brother will be brought before the council, and whoever says ‘Fool’ will be sent to fiery hell.
Perhaps John was calling to mind that saying of Jesus when he wrote 1 John 3:15 and the use of a different Greek word is merely down to differences in translating from Jesus' original Aramaic saying.

Or...something else?

The only other possible relevant text I can find is one from the Wisdom of Solomon 2:24 - “...but through the devil’s spite death entered the world, and those who belong to his company experience it.” Not as strong an assertion as John's, but perhaps a clue that by Jesus' time there was a belief in circulation that the devil was at least indirectly responsible (prime mover?) for denying humans an automatic right to eternal life.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Maybe I'm being clueless, but isn't he called a murderer from the beginning because he tempted human beings in the Garden in a way that led to their death? (and that of all their descendants) That sounds like murder to me. And "from the beginning" I think doesn't mean "from the moment of creation," but rather "from way back at the very start of Things". So there's room for him to have been created good, once upon a time.

I'm no expert, but I think trying to make a difference between murder proper and manslaughter based on the Greek here is probably a step too far. I mean, in English we say "murder" when technically (legally) the charges would be voluntary manslaughter, or abuse and neglect, or what-have-you. What we mean is "causing someone else's death wrongfully through one's own evil behavior." I think it likely that Koine speakers also used apokteino a bit loosely.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
...I think trying to make a difference between murder proper and manslaughter based on the Greek here is probably a step too far.

That may be right and I understand the link to Gen. 3, but I was thinking that using 'murder' in English versions perhaps doesn't get the gist, or nuance, of John's intent here. I was wondering whether there existed in second temple Judaism a tradition associating the devil with that particular phrase that John was tapping into.

One of the reasons why I have concerns about the word 'murder' as a translation, is that Jesus' argument rests in part on the comparison between what the devil did/does and the example his opponents are following. They are seeking to kill Jesus (8:37, 40) – judicial execution – and this proves their heritage as killers of the truth (along the lines of the devil).

Of course, it may just be John's idiosyncrasy to use this word (his own idiolect). It occurs nowhere else in the NT (or LXX versions as far as I can tell) apart from the 1 John 3 passage, so we can't compare usage across the biblical text. There are a couple of instances in classical Greek literature: one referring to cannibalism and one to the dietary habits of the Cyclops. Little to go on, really (apart, obviously, from flesh!).

There is one possible benefit from that phrase as John uses it. It broadens the horizon in a way that use of mere 'murder' does not. Taking anthopos in its wider generic sense, the phrase could be taken to mean “Right at the start the devil proved himself to be the cause of death for all humans” (i.e., not just the murderer of Adam). However, this borders on speculation and doesn't fit very well with the few other uses of anthropoktonos elsewhere. Perhaps this is just another of those slips of paper to go on the spike awaiting another time (and convenient archaeological discovery!).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Some of them don't get it, do they?

quote:
"...Which of you convicts me of sin? If I tell the truth, why do you not believe me? Whoever is from God hears the words of God. The reason you do not hear them is that you are not from God."
[John 8.46-47]

A statement that only God himself could get away with, surely? Any human being would have that first question answered with "How about the sin of pride - 'I cannot possibly be wrong'?"

But they not only do not recognise him as from God - they think - or have heard rumours to the effect - that he isn't even Jewish!

quote:
The Jews answered him, "Are we not right in saying that you are a Samaritan and have a demon?"
[John 8.48]

While you're slinging mud, why not throw stones as well as well? The Samaritan jibe because he told a story about a good one? The demon jibe probably harks back to an exorcism in which Jesus was accused of using sorcery to heal - which in turn led to his remark about the only unforgveable sin (lying against the Holy Spirit).

What a passage! Over to you, shipmates.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, the thing about the sin of pride is that you're only guilty of it if you make Jesus' statement AND you're lying. From the sound of things, nobody did, and Jesus was confident nobody could. I can tell you, if I said the same thing, there'd be choruses of answers! (as the entire House of Lamb rises to shout each other down) [Snigger]

What I love is the tone of total exasperation in Jesus' voice. It's like "Get.A.Freaking.Clue, people." Or as he said earlier, "Why do I even bother to talk to you at all?" [Killing me] Love to see God being human.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Correction [to my post]: The unforgiveable sin was blaspheming against the Holy Spirit. The lying thing was Peter, not Jesus [/Tangent].

About pride. I have heard people claim that they speak with the unquestionable authority of God [Well, all the prophets did, didn't they?] But some of the most effectives vehicles of truth in the bible come quietly and without any preliminary fanfares. Dunno what that's got to do with anything... [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Well, the thing about the sin of pride is that you're only guilty of it if you make Jesus' statement AND you're lying. From the sound of things, nobody did, and Jesus was confident nobody could. I can tell you, if I said the same thing, there'd be choruses of answers! (as the entire House of Lamb rises to shout each other down) [Snigger]

What I love is the tone of total exasperation in Jesus' voice. It's like "Get.A.Freaking.Clue, people." Or as he said earlier, "Why do I even bother to talk to you at all?" [Killing me] Love to see God being human.

A small point, LC, but when it comes to the printed word, a tone of voice is almost always in the ear of the reader - especially when the text a third party account of something originally in another language. Don't you agree?

[ 14. June 2012, 12:23: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The whole passage thus far seems to be a peak in John's gospel. It's very intense. From the beginning of chapter 7 the issue has been whether Jesus really and truly is the Messiah/Christ, or whether his credentials come from the deceiver, the devil. Blow me down if there isn't something of a chiasm throughout chapters 7-8:-
quote:

(A): Jesus quietly slips up to Jerusalem and the temple (7:1-15)
(B): Jesus presents his credentials (7:16-19)
(C): Accusation of demon-possession and rebuttal (7:20-24)
(D): The issue – is Jesus really the Messiah? (7:25-8:47)
(C'): Accusation of demon-possession and rebuttal (8:48-53)
(B'): Jesus presents his credentials (8:50-58)
(A'): Jesus quietly slips away from the temple (8:59)

Section (D) (7:25-8:47) can also be broken down further.
quote:

(1): The issue that needs resolving – is Jesus to be accepted as the Messiah? (7:25-36)
(2): Jesus' claim – belief in him will result in life; water metaphor (7:37-39)
(3): Division among the commoners as a result of this claim (7:40-44)
(4): Division among the authorities as a result of this claim (7:45-52)*
(5): Jesus' claim – belief in him will result in life; light metaphor (8:12)
(6): Validity of Jesus' claim – Jesus and Father are two witnesses (8:13-20)
(7): Jesus' second claim – those who do not believe in him will die (8:21-30)
(8): The issue turned round – are the authorities to be accepted? (8:31-47)

* I've left 7:53-8:11 out from this (the woman caught in adultery).

Jesus/John successfully turns the issue around. Now the question is whether the religious leaders can be trusted. There is a question mark over their claims to validity. If they are not from God, who else can they be from, but the devil?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
A small point, LC, but when it comes to the printed word, a tone of voice is almost always in the ear of the reader - especially when the text a third party account of something originally in another language. Don't you agree?

Certainly; but as we experience even on this very Ship, you can often infer it with fair accuracy. [Devil]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Pax, LC [Smile] Hmph, Nigel. Yes, I suppose John is a far more more clever man than I took him for. KI mean, it's too neat not to be deliberate, ain't it? And I'm sure there are more of these to come.

Can't wait to go on holiday somewhere, to look at ancient illuminated gospels. I'll search for a "chi" in the margin somewhere near John 8.30
and when I find it, I'll grab the sleeve of the nearest monk and shout "Look, see! It's the pivot of the chiasmus, and your chappy in the scriptorum three/four/seven hundred years ago spotted it!"

Now I've lost my place. Please somebody, continue.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That should have been John 8.12 - hopeless short-term memory.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
So we've got to the point where Jesus has been accused of being a heretic (“A Samaritan are you, and have a demon!”).
quote:
John 8:50-51
Jesus answered, “I am not possessed by a demon, but I honour my Father – and yet you dishonour me. I am not trying to get praise for myself. There is one who demands it, and he also judges.

Sometimes it's possible to sense the struggle the translator had with John's phraseology. I get that sense occasionally when listening to the odd actor playing parts in Shakespearean plays – and also when hearing some reciters of the King James' Version. When it's not the first language, it can sounds strained and obviously unnatural. Actors need to work at making Shakespearean language sound natural – otherwise I for one end up wishing dear old Bill had just made his lines shorter.

Anyway, the point of that was to say I find John is prone to use a host of connectives in his reported speeches. It can all get somewhat confusing: 'I...but I...yet you...and I...the one..also...'

Blessed is the man who makes John sound natural, for he shall receive kudos, and will have his reward, but not out of pride, yet so as to be smugless, in case he maketh his head big, since that would be a sin, because it is obvious, whereas a small prize will go far, unless he taketh umbrage, so better not mention it after all.

Enough of this drivel. Back to brass tacks. Seeing that the discussion Jesus is having with these disillusioned former followers among the authorities has been going so well, I assume that the references to 'honour' in these verses carry the social connotation still to be found in near-eastern societies. Its opposite would be 'shame.' Jesus has been upholding the highest traditions of respect and can hold his head up in society as a result. On the other hand, his opponents have just shamed him, accusing him of heresy; his name is being dragged through the mud and his head should be bowed down in society.

Another backhanded insult: by accusing his accusers of shaming him for no reason, Jesus is able to shame them. He's not the one playing for his own glory (seeking praise for himself), rather there is another player doing the seeking – and Jesus ominously adds, also doing the judging. Agan, this whole section is ripe with tension. I can imagine the gesticulations, the 'in your face-ness' of it all, voices raised...

I can almost see it playing out in the Globe Theatre.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well, this is the gospel most often used for Passion Plays. And tension - yes. In one version the stage was set with someone blind or lame - saying nothing, doing nothing, just waiting.

After an interminable wait there were "noises off" - here he comes. And the rest of the scene was lost behind my floods of tears! That's tension, and the relief thereof. Powerful.
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
Yes, very dramatic. It seems to me that the antagonism is intensifying -- moving towards the attempted stoning of Jesus. He has been accused of being a Samaritan, an unclean heretic in apostacy, and possessed by a demon, therefore talking madness or demonic nonsense. To be named as a Samaritan is also a 'shaming' by association because Samaritans are despised and Other. I remember noticing that there are no exorcism narratives in John, so the casting out of demons is not of any significance here -- does this mean that to be a Samaritan was to be demon-possessed, to have an unclean spirit within? Samaritans then are a shamed and cast-out group, polluted and incoherent, ignominious and disgraced.

Nigel's mention of the contrast between shame/dishonour and honour helps with my understanding, a kind of exegetical key to unlock how Jesus chooses to confront these interlocutors and defend, not himself but the God he honours. The Greek word used is atimazo, meaning to shamefully insult or dishonour.

Jesus keeps gesturing elsewhere (that 'high Christology' in John we were taught about) to a higher authority than Abraham, emphasising his obedience to God and that he does not seek human praise or approval. He honours God alone and knows what God demands and how God will judge.

Jesus here is facing those who intend to kill him -- they are determined to shame him as a madman and a heretic and then stone him to death. Might this be a forefiguring of the approaching Passion? -- that God will glorify His Son and judge those who fail to do honour to the Son as to the Father.

[ 19. June 2012, 09:25: Message edited by: Mary LA ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I wouldn't be surprised if the first draft of the fourth gospel was totally focussed on the Passion. It's quite clear from John's comment at the end that he had to add other bits afterwards - so many authentic witnesses were queuing up to add to it - and just had to call a halt to that or the thing would never be finished.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think there's a verse missing from Nigel's quote above:

quote:
"...Very truly, I tell you, whoever keeps my word will never see death."
[John 8.51]

That requires some explanation, I think. Why is it not total, unequivocal - [choose your own expletive]?

[ 21. June 2012, 14:21: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, it's provocative, and meant to be. I assume you mean "will never see death" needs some explaining?

To pull a Clinton, it all depends on what "death" is, and even on what "see" means.

Obviously this doesn't mean we won't experience physical death. Lazarus who believed in him was about to do so in chapter 11, and the rest would follow sooner or later.

The usual thing is to refer this to spiritual death--the death that affects not only body but also spirit, the everlasting corruption that goes with being separated from God as an enemy of his. That we will certainly not see, not so much as an eyeblink of it.

But I suppose you could also see a reference to the temporary nature of physical death for the believer--we die, but we know that even our bodies will be raised. So whatever passing glimpse we get of that will be nothing in the sea of eternity--and given that we are "with Christ" when absent from the body, well...

But I do think Jesus meant to raise these very questions. Get the people arguing--at least it means they're paying attention.
 
Posted by Robert Armin (# 182) on :
 
(Sorry to butt in here but, Lamb Chopped, I tried to PM you but your box is full.)

[ 22. June 2012, 10:26: Message edited by: Robert Armin ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
LC, the one word which spoils your thoughtful, charitable post, is "obviously". It is far from obvious to many people that sometimes Jesus didn't mean his words to be taken literally,or that he was sometimes do misunderstood or mistranslated as to render the text virtually meaningless.

I think we're meant to appreciate the big picture here, without looking too closely at words expressed in anger (on both sides). The reaction of the Jews is hardly surprising:

quote:
The Jews said to him,"Now we know that you have a demon. Abraham died, and so did the prophets; yet you say, 'Whoever keeps my word will never taste death.' 53 Are you greater than our father Abraham, who died? Who do you claim to be?"
[John8.52-53]
Jesus' assertion is crazy enough, without the straw Abraham thrown in to the argument. But I sense another chiasmus coming on - or a coda to a previous one, in which the glorified (or yet to be glorified) nature of Jesus is reiterated.

[ 23. June 2012, 10:15: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thanks to pimple for restoring the famous missing verse (although it could have been my dodgy versification).

The Greek wording in verse 51 suggests a summary of Jesus' argument up to this point – it's loaded with emphasis:

“It is absolutely the case that [amen, amen.../ I swear by Almighty God...] whoever holds to MY teaching [as opposed to yours], death he will never, ever see.”

This is similar to the style of argument Jesus employs elsewhere – e.g., Nicodemus, Samaritan woman – where the surface wording appears to offer an outrageously and obviously impossible piece of logic. Jesus' conversation partners are brought up short: “Did he just way what I thought I heard him say?????!!!! Oh Come On!!! How can you be born a second time? / Where are you going to get this living water? / How can someone not experience death?”

Then Jesus follows up with a swift stab, showing by his response that his opponents are clearly not on the same intellectual level and have missed the point. In fact, they unwittingly open the door for Jesus to chuck his main point through. Here they may have kicked themselves after asking the question, “Who do you claim to be?” It's the crux question that they needed to ask in order to get to the conclusion of their investigation, but Boy does it carry the risk of getting more than they can chew in return.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Apologies about the PM box, I've decluttered a bit! Pimple, the "obviously" wasn't meant to be offensive. Just to indicate that this is the kind of statement that nobody is going to take in its most obvious literal sense unless a) they're nuts, b) HE'S nuts, or c) somebody has a whole heckuvalotta faith.

The Nicodemus example is another case, as Nigel explains so well! Also the "before Abraham was, I am" bit, which is nonsense if taken to mean "My mother gave birth to me before Abraham was born." Always gotta dig deeper.

[ 24. June 2012, 20:18: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
Yes on the digging deeper -- a few years ago I did a course on Jewish apocalyptic and New testament theology (Elizabeth Schussler-Fiorenza, Adele Yarbro Collins) and that sense of urgency amidst imminent looming catastrophe is perhaps part of what informs statements to do with those who will survive what is to come by faith, those will will not see 'death' even though everything they have known will end. Faith breaking in on a world about to end, a world in which all will perish unless they belong to the Kingdom.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I am grateful for the many people who are prepared to treat this text as (sometimes) something to be grappled with. Here's the end of the current bout:

quote:
Jesus answered, "If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my father who glorifies me, he of whom you say, 'He is our God,' though you do not know him. But I know him; if I would say that I do nor know him, I would be a liar like you. But I do know him and I keep his word. Your ancestor Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day [Heb.11.13]. He saw it and was glad." Then the Jews said to him, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?" Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I AM [my caps]." So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.
[John8.54-59]

If not another [i]chiasmus[/], then a similar rhetorical device. The verse from the letter to the Hebrews given in the NRSV concordance reads:
quote:

All of these died in faith without having received the promises, but from a distance they saw and greeted them. They confessed that they were strangers and foreigners
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Computer playing up -
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Verse 59 nicely rounds off John's chiasm, begun at the start of chapter 7. Jesus sneaked up to the temple then, and now he sneaks away again. It's almost as though he had a cloaking device, or one of those Harry Potter-style invisibility cloaks. Neat. The imagination runs into Monty Pythonesque mode: Temple officials in their holy garb bark: “Right! That does it! I'm up for a stoning here!” Cue scrabbling about for some decent left over masonry courtesy of the builders of the nearly-completed temple, about-swing the newly self-appointed stoning committee to find - - - no stonee.

It certainly pays to dig into John's language. The plot overfloweth. It also helps me to get past the sneaking suspicion held from early readings of John that this was a strange Jesus story, with theological, christological, and doctrinal propositions based on the following:

“I am God”
“No, you're not”
“Yes I am”
“No, you're not”
“Oh yes I am”
“Oh no you're not”
“My dad's bigger than your dad.”
 
Posted by Mary LA (# 17040) on :
 
Yes Nigel, I felt there was an element of Jesus being able to hide himself and depart invisibly from the temple -- it is not yet his time and therefore his enemies cannot touch him. His death is coming but only as prophesied and predicted in a destiny that stretches back beyond Abraham (the I Am) and forward to the Kingdom, not at the time or in the way his adversaries might want him to die. For now Jesus is untouchable. Some commentators believe the author intended to suggest this disappearance was supernatural: 'he was hidden' used in the reflexive mode, a passive construction, as ekrubên .
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It's way ahead of its time, isn't it - the invisibility stuff. There's plenty of straightforward disguise and deception in the Old Testament and the non-Jewish and secular traditions. But the idea that the "Man/God" can appear and disappear in an instant, either of his own volition or through some divine intervention is a whole new ball game (oh, stop trying to do a Nigel, pimple!).

I don't get the metaphysics too well - well, not at all, but it works on an actual, physical plane. This is a man whom some, sometimes, recognise as the Messiah, and at other times want to kill; this is a person they just cannot get to grips with mentally or physically, who brooks no argument yet doesn't always make obvious sense. A man of considerable power - a power that some would share, and others would steal, whose charisma can neither be ignored nor described adequately in simple, everyday language.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's been an enjoyable romp through these couple of chapters in John. With so much packed into the detail, one feels that a rest would be nice – let the plot slow down for a bit and glide, while the reader catches breath. So it comes as a bit of relief to read...
quote:
John 9:1
Now as Jesus was passing by, he saw a man who had been blind from birth.

Aha. Just what the doctor ordered. A nice, gentle, relaxing story of a healing just in time to restore one's equanimity and sence of balance. No in-depth theological issues to worry about.

And then comes...
quote:
John 9:2
His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who committed the sin that caused him to be born blind, this man or his parents?”

I mean. Dang!!!!!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And the question is from his disciples, not the Pharisees! I imagine one or two shipmates saying "Well, isn't that typical of blokes everywhere? Where did he pick these dimwits from?"

But hang on a bit. There are plenty of people in this so-called modern world of ours who can't manage the reality of undeserved suffering. There may even be one or two shippies who find nothing wrong or strange about the disciples' question.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, we deal with it all the time. It's why some Vietnamese families hide handicapped children at home so carefully that even the neighbors don't learn the child exists. They don't want to be accused of having done something Awful that made it happen.

The world is full of assholes.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I can see how this debate might have been a hot one (among many chargrilled potatoes) at the time. The Hebrew scriptures have two schools of thought on causes of untimely death:-

[1] Punishment for sins of the fathers - “He does not leave the guilty unpunished; he punishes the children and their children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation” (Ex. 34:7); and

[2] Punishment for individual sin - 'In those days people will no longer say, “The parents have eaten sour grapes, and the children’s teeth are set on edge.” Instead, everyone will die for their own sin' (Jer. 31: 29f).

I suppose the debate would have run something like this: Are we yet in the days foretold by Jeremiah, or are we still liable under Moses' law?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Meh, it's not the case that every (or even most) untimely OT deaths falls under the category of punishment. Miscarriage and stillbirth are spoken of (in Job, particularly) simply as things that happen, no reason, no punishment. Children die (like the Shunnamite's son) and although SHE imagines it is a punishment (very human of her), Elijah's action proves it is no such thing. Young people and children die of famine and war, and no blame in particular is assigned to them or their parents (though the nation as a whole is in trouble with God, but when are they not? Perhaps I should say "we") And when Job's children die, it is his so-called friends who place the responsibility for this on Job's shoulders--and it is God himself who tells them where they can stick their crap theology. In fact, that is perhaps the major theme of the book.

So while the disciples are asking a very common, even natural-to-humanity question, there is really no justification from the OT for it. A man born blind could not possibly have done anything (being not born yet, duh). And I can think of no example where a child was struck with blindness for a parent's sin. Even the deaths of David's son and Jeroboam's son were arguably done not for punishment, but to spare the child a worse fate.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I agree the OT tosses the issue about quite a bit - as you note there are quite a few examples where the initial reaction is the "Who's to blame?" one. Interestingly, though, the OT doesn't provide a completed one-off answer. We're hovering here between the question and the next verse, so I'll post it now:
quote:
John 9:3
Jesus answered, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but he was born blind so that the acts of God may be revealed through what happens to him.

Not even Jesus resolves the issue with a completed one-off answer. He focuses on this one man and on outcomes, not causes. A very OT answer to an OT issue.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Indeed. And something of a "Heads-up, pay attention to what's happening NOW. Stop your speculating, it's a waste of time and not your business anyway."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So here we go again. Things to watch out for in this chapter:

Physical blindness contrasted with spiritual blindness.

The apparent innate inability of some to believe.

Another aspect of Jesus - the light of the world.

And of course, at least one more chiasmus.

quote:
"...We [or 'I']must work the works of himwho sent me [/us] while it is day; night is coming when no-one can work. As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world."
[John9.4-5]

Not much is made of that claim at first, here, but it is to be developed later, notably in the Lazarus story ["Are there not twelve hours in the day...?]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus clearly foresees his own imminent death. But is there also a more general apocalyptic message here?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Still thinking about the sin-health-punishment issue and why it pops up here in John's gospel.

There was a preemptive strike on the issue back in chapter 5, where John records Jesus as sauntering up to a festival in Jerusalem and healing an invalid on the Sabbath. Unlike chapters 7-8, where Jesus' going to a festival and healing someone is interrupted by that intense debate over Jesus' validity, chapter 5 moves smoothly to the healing and only then brings in the rubbing point about Sabbath. Any other healer would not doubt have muttered: So why didn't someone inform me it was Sabbath back at the beginning of chapter 5 before I healed this man? Anyway, here we are: Jesus does the good deed, debates the Sabbath point, and moves on. Story could have stopped there.

But it doesn't. John makes a point of bringing healer and healee back together again for this parting shot:
quote:
John 5:14
“See! You've been healed! Now don't sin any more, in case anything worse happens to you.”

And John leaves it there. During the healing sequence John does not record Jesus as referring to sin at all; no “Your sins are forgiven, get up and walk” mantra here.

So inevitably questions arise. Did John intend to link 9:2 back to the 5:14 theme? I think there is a deliberate link and that it was a live issue at the time. The first man had been a cripple for 38 years, the second blind from birth. Someone outside the norm for that length of time is being linked to 'sin.' In chapter 5 Jesus accepts this and tells the man to stop sinning (or not to sin any more). The disciples (and John's readers following the plot) might still have that in mind when they reach chapter 9. Aha! Invalid! So Jesus, this must be about sin again.

We have to wait for this theme to unfold further in John. The start of the earlier discussion around the chapter 5 incident may be found here.

Back to 9:4.

The argument seems to be this: Jesus is the world's light (in the sense of providing light for the world, not light emanating from the world). While he shines there is time to work, but when he stops shining it is no longer possible to be out working. The metaphor (daylight for workers in the fields, presumably) implies that there will be a point when Jesus will no longer be supporting God's rule in the world. There is a potential apocalyptic ring to this, though I have reservations about the whole category 'apocalyptic' and how relevant it is to faithfully describing the intent of those who wrote using that particular language type.

I suppose at least we could say that there is a thematic link back to John, where Jesus is represented as creative light, bringing life, but who was not recognised by his own. Those who did recognise him, however, were accorded the status of God's children. Pushing John's metaphorical boat out a bit, 'Light' could be swapped with 'life' in these passages, so Jesus is also the life for the world. When death comes (night), it will be too late to appropriate life.

Which still leaves open the question: Does that night come with Jesus' death on the cross, or at a future point? When the light goes out, can no life be given?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I suspect that the earlier guy had some clearly-related to sin problem, like injuries suffered after trying to beat the crap out of an innocent bystander while dead drunk. I doubt Jesus would come across many clear cut cases like that, though--and i do like the way he waited for most of the gaping onlookers to disperse before having a quiet word with him.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I had wondered about the issue of whether the man - or men - wanted to be healed. Were both the cripple and the blind man beggars? Perhaps a significant source of family income? And where more profitable to beg than at the temple? And it would certainly have been sinful - not pious -for the (ex) cripple to continue to beg there once he was healed.

[ETA none of the above, however, really addresses the issue of John's purpose(s) in the telling if the stories.]

[ 22. July 2012, 05:54: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Perhaps John is demonstrating his linguistic skill again here by playing on double-meanings to reinforce the light/darkness theme he introduces in chapter 1: light/dark is being played off against sight/blind.

God's work will be displayed/revealed (9:3, with the double meaning of being brought to light = phanerothe). This can only happen during the 'day' (9:4) and Jesus is the 'light' (9:5).

So – day/light/display is contrasted by John with night/dark/[unwork]. There is no explicit mention of 'hide' as the opposite to 'display' and that may be because John doesn't intend to infer an active task of hiding. For him the starting point is the blindness, or already-hiddenness, of things. The topic is about actively moving from that start state to light/life, via Jesus' displaying of God's work. The opposite for John is not hiding, but the lack of an ability to display/work, i.e., the start state remains in place – blind/hidden. This all seems consistent with John's introduction, where light comes into an already existing darkness.

I would guess we can't assume that he believed darkness to be the fundamental state of things, as though God was preceded by darkness. John is starting from the point of view of a world already fallen (bedevilled by sin) and is dealing with how God provides a way back out again to the primal state of light/life (Jesus as Word being with God from the beginning).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Not sure what the fundamental state of the world is, in this scenario. Lit by God, but unlit by fallen angels/humanity? That would make the world, effectively, fallen in the very moment of its creation.. I must have something wrong there.

[ 22. July 2012, 16:08: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Judging from the way John narrates the plot, he gets the beginning stuff out of the way right from the go with his assertion that Jesus was with God from the start and everything was created through him - so that gets that out of the way. Then however, he skips the rest of history to get straight to the incarnation of light. He effectively assumes that darkness entered the world at some point without stipulating what or who caused that or when - perhaps he felt safe enough to assume his readers knew the background.

Somehow, 'sin' is wrapped up in the darkness bit. Perhaps all will become clear (displayed/light/life) as John goes on through his narrative!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
On we go?

quote:
When he had said this, he spat on the ground and made mud with the saliva and spread the mud on the man's eyes, saying to him, "Go, wash in the pool of Siloam" (which means sent). Then he went and washed and came back able to see.
[John 9.6-7]

The man is sent - to wash in the pool named after "the one who is sent"? - and the darkness is washed away from him?

In both synoptic and Johanine accounts of the healing of blindness, a process is involved. Jesus doesn't just snap his fingers. Some read a sacramental message in the paste, or mud, that Jesus uses.

This is a really, really big sign. John, to my impatient, modern mind, worries it to death! But you can see why, can't you? This man was blind from birth - he hasn't just been drinking dodgy water. The utter implausibility of such a healing (which John acknowledges later on in the mouths of sceptics) is what makes it so powerful to the faithful.

[ 24. July 2012, 11:07: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I dunno about sacramental--what I see here is God (to be specific, Jesus) using mud to re-create part of a human being, properly this time. In other words, a clear allusion to Genesis. And that in order to establish the identity of Jesus as the one who creates eyes in the first place, that is, God. Which is to say it's another Sign.

On the other hand there is that pool, and certain people I work with IRL see baptism behind every mention of water. So you may be right.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
On the Really Big Sign bit--I'm not so sure, most of Jesus' miracles seem to have been of this level or more. I mean, raising the dead and all that. But it's true this one gets more airtime than most of the others. However, I suspect that is because of the interplay between the local religious authorities and the newly sighted man, who does an extraordinary job of witnessing to Jesus' work and keeping to the key point (unlike his interrogators). I rather think John included the miracle mainly because it furnished the opportunity for the conflict that followed.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And conflict there is in plenty - wonderfully told. I began wondering how they (the disciples)knew the man was blind from birth (dumbo! he was a beggar, and a sign round his neck reading BLIND FROM BIRTH would evoke a lot more sympathy than the first century equivalent of dark glasses, wouldn't it? Except from the Pharisees, of course, who would feel obliged to
make some allowance in their offering for the obvious "sin" involved)

quote:
The neighbours and those who had seen him before as a beggar [including the disciles?] began to ask "Is this not the man who used to sit and beg?" Some were saying "It is he" . Others were saying "No, but it is someone like him." [Pre-empting the obvious sceptical attack]

[John9.8-9]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
To clarify that last remark - it was necessary to quote the whole argument because there would be sceptics among John's readers, just as there were at the time of the miracle.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It's possible that they may have known the man personally, possibly from past travels. It's also possible that there was a long conversation including the man and/or bystanders, which supplied the disciples with that info but which got edited down to the bare bones we now have in John. I mean, people do that sort of thing.

"Hey, there's that guy again, we saw him last time we went through here. Eddie something-or-other."
"Yeah, I think you're right. My mom knows his mom's cousin's hairdresser.[calling out to guy out mowing his lawn] Hey, you! Yes, you, excuse me, but is that Eddie?"
[Leaning on the mower] "Sure it is, everybody knows Eddie. He's been begging on that corner for 45 years."
"Really? How sad."
"Oh yeah, he was born that way. His mother nearly died of shame, Eddie's dad said it had to be her fault."
[Belligerently, from neighbor woman outside watering the petunias:] "Could've been his, couldn't it?"
"Well, I suppose..."
"Let's ask Jesus."

And there you go.

[ 26. July 2012, 00:47: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Almost as good as John! [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
However, I suspect that is because of the interplay between the local religious authorities and the newly sighted man, who does an extraordinary job of witnessing to Jesus' work and keeping to the key point (unlike his interrogators). I rather think John included the miracle mainly because it furnished the opportunity for the conflict that followed.

The blind guy certainly is a colorful character. We are used to Jesus being awesome, but this guy rocks. "Can't you just be happy for me, assholes?"
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Oh yeah, I just love that guy. I think John gives him so much space BECAUSE he's so awesome. (I always angle to get his part when we're doling out the reading aloud stuff)
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
Him and the lady at the well.* "Oh, now that you're THIRSTY, I'm worth talking to, huh?"

*Yes, I realize that warn't no lady.

[ETA because I can-- I think one of the themes of John is that Jesus digs smart mouthed people. Discuss.]

[ 27. July 2012, 10:00: Message edited by: Kelly Alves ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Here - hang on a bit - let me and John catch up!

quote:
He kept saying, "I am the man." But they kept asking him, "Then how were your eyes opened?" He answered, "The man called Jesus made mud, spread it on my eyes, and said to me, 'Go to Siloam and wash.' Then I went and washed and received my sight." They said to him, "Where is he?" He said, "I do not know."
[John9.9-12 and I'm still 22 verses behind the rabbit...]
 
Posted by Kelly Alves (# 2522) on :
 
[Big Grin] Sorry, sorry, sorry...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John's hold on drama is quite alluring; he's proving to be something of a master in the department of rhetoric. If I was a first-century reader/hearer, I would still be captured by his opening gambit to this current piece – the theme of 'sin.' I'd be thinking back to his introduction, with the provocative chorus-like frame to his play:

“Give ear to my tale, a story of a lively light that flashed across our stage, coming from the control room of heaven. This fiery power brought life to all and shone us a path to tread. It shines still – at no stage were wick-trimmers able to end the play... Look! He comes! The one who takes away our sins!...”

Among the themes John opens with is that 'takes away the sins of the world' announcement and here in chapter 9 he has titillated the fancy again by throwing out a line on sin. Will John resolve this, or not? Get on with it, man!

But meantime he keeps us in suspense with his comical aside concerning the newly sighted beggar and the crowd. I can almost see John considering an end to verse 23: “Where did he go?” “I don't know. I didn't see him go.” No; scratch that last sentence.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Oh, I do wish John had put in that last sentence ("I didn't see him go"). We could have been writing dissertations on wicked puns in the Bible.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
They brought to the Pharisees the man who had formally been blind.
[John9.13]

Who did?

What for?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think the Pharisees were more or less the local synagogue authorities--today, this might be the church council or the board of elders. If you'll forgive the indulgence, [Biased]

"Um, so what'd we do now, Joe?"
[scratching his head] "I dunno, Billy. S'pose we ought to report it?"
[doubtfully] "I guess..." [idea bulb goes on] "We'll take him to Elder Jones. He'll know what to do with this here miracle."
[Billy and Joe each take one of Eddie's arms, ignoring his protests] "Hey! Where you taking me! I'm off for a pint, and you're going to drag me away for what, bloody paperwork?"
"Ah hush up, Eddie, you know we'd never hear the end of it if we didn't get Them to rubberstamp it. We'll buy you one afterward."
[Grumbling] "All right, whatever..."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK. And when they get there, they find somebody has already snitched to the Sabbath Police - or perhaps the whole episode took place on the sabbath?

quote:
Now it was a sabbath day when Jesus made the mud and opened his eyes. Then the Pharisees also began to ask him how he had received his sight. He said to them, "He put mud on my eyes. Then I washed, and now I see." Some of the Pharisees said, "This man is not from God, for he does not observe the sabbath."
[John9.14-16a]

I wonder. Was it OK for the blind man to wash on the sabbath?

quote:
But others said, "How can a man who is a sinner perform such signs?" And they were divided. So they said again to the blind man, "What do you say about him? It was your eyes he opened." He said "He is a prophet."
[John 9.16b-17]

Prophet/Healer being synonymous, in this context.

[ 31. July 2012, 17:11: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Please ignore the spurious link above. It's virus I'm battling with.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm expecting the whole incident took place on the Sabbath, things tend to move quickly when there's an uproar (or unusual situation likely to produce an uproar). And by this late stage in Jesus' ministry the Pharisees were pretty much entrenched in their position as the offenderati, it seems to have been largely a knee jerk reaction for them to look for a reason to pick at him. All very human of course. And they'd already butted heads with him several times about his impious habit of healing people on the Sabbath, lo, sometimes in the middle of worship itself, dear me. [Big Grin]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
The Jews did not believe that he had been blind and had received his sight until they called the parents of the man who had received his sight and asked them, "Is this your son, who you say was born blind? How then does he now see?"
[John 9.18-19] Some might say the Jews employed a healthy scepticism. The parents do not recognize the implied slur in the questions put to them (i.e. "was he really born blind...?") but in taking the question at face value and answering it honestly, throw the questioners on the back foot:

quote:
His parents answered, "We know that this a our son [and not a stray beggar we thought we could make a ready buck out of] and that he was born blind; but we do not know how it is that now he sees, nor do we know who opened his eyes. Ask him. He is of age. He will speak for himself."
]John 9. to v21].

And what puts the seal on the veracity of this account, if not John's ridiculous explanation for the feistry parents' reply! [Big Grin]

[ 02. August 2012, 14:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Really? You see it that way? Because it seems all too natural to me that, realising their son has gotten into a major sticky mess with the powers that be, that they should wish to distance themselves. Which is cowardly and shameful, but I've seen it many times--in fact I 've been the one thrown under the bus on several occasions. I'm sure it didn't do the family relationship a bit of good for his folks to leave him in the lurch this way, but they had their own skins to consider. Good thing the son had the courage his folks so clearly lacked.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Lamb Chopped, I see it the same way. The parents' words, "Ask him, he is of age, he can speak for himself." make it clear that they don't want to touch this with a ten-foot pole.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Still disagree. I think John is reading his own community's "fear of the Jews" which does get aired rather frequently, back into the parents'
attitude. The story speaks for itself here, without John's scaremongering gloss.

Of course that's only my belligerent, not so humble opinion! [Big Grin]

[ETA - and why the gloss, anyway - if it's so obvious?]

[ 04. August 2012, 16:45: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, I rather think he's offering what excuse he can for parents who seem, uh, less than supportive? At a point when their son could really use someone in his corner. Particularly as this is building toward unjust excommunication really quickly--and where are his folks then? The only mention of them comes in a slur by the leaders upon his birth, which makes me wonder whether they gained very much after all by jumping back from the situation. Damned by association after all, maybe. At least in the eyes of the powers that were.

[ 05. August 2012, 03:26: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
DL Sayers handles the psychology of this story really well in her play The Man Born to Be King.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So I have heard. Thanks for the reminder; I'd like to read it - better still see it. Much of what we have been discussing runs into the next few verses, so perhaps somebody will be kind enough to put them up? I'm away for a few days.

But meanwhile, yes, looking ahead, the parents certainly get a raw deal, so they might have seen that coming.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Hear it--it's a radio play!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I have it, and have just read the piece about the man born blind. It's a remarkable work - of, and for, its time. And for its time very brave.

It has been much reprinted. Does anyone know when it was last broadcast?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Parents distancing themselves or reading back?

quote:
John 9:22
His parents said these things because they were afraid of the Jewish authorities. For the Jewish leaders had already agreed that anyone who confessed Jesus to be the Messiah would be put out of the synagogue.

Or perhaps both?

The plot level works to demonstrate the parents' natural reluctance to risk excommunication from the community (being 'put out of the synagogue' – a peculiarly Johannine phrase). After all, one is bound to be fearful of those who have the power of life and death over one – both physical and spiritual. Being expelled / shunned / anathematised meant being cut off from communal support, so a spiritual loss could very well lead to physical loss.

At another level (John's intention for his readers) the narrative works to touch raw nerves. John may well have included mention of the parents' reticence because his readers were also subject to excommunication. So there is indeed both a plot psychology and a narrative affectiveness (an illocutionary import, affecting readers directly).

Not surprising, really, given what appears to have been John's key message: if Jesus was the one and only God-appointed deliverer (only begotten son), then neither Abraham nor Moses were. Indeed, neither were the anointed kings nor prophets. That's quite a gospel to take to Jews. Pretty black and white, light and dark. No wiggle room. Bound to risk being ousted from the outraged community.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Slight tangent. I recently read an account of the excommunication (from the synagogue)of Spinoza. It was spine-chilling, and a shock to discover that this vicious and ungodly practice was not confined to Christianity. John's account of the treatment of the blind man's parents may have been decently understated.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
That's a great example to have in mind when trying to put oneself in the shoes of Johns' readers, assessing the impact of such a procedure. Especially if one lives in an environment where expulsion from a community could easily be met with "Humph! I'm better off without them!" or "I'll just join another golf club" or "I'll start up my own fellowship."

Anathema has become anemic!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
24 So for the second time they called the man who had been blind, and they said to him, "Give glory to God! We know that this man is a sinner." 25 He answered, "I do not know whether he is a sinner. One thing I do know, that though I was blind, now I see.
The man's just not playing their silly game, is he?

quote:
26 They said to him, "What did he do to you? How did he open your eyes?" 27 He answered them, "I have told you already, and you would not listen. Why do you want to hear it again. Do you also want to become his disciples?
[John9.24-25, 26-27]

So the man has already become a disciple of Jesus, believing him to be a prophet - but at a distance, so to speak - and Jesus keeps his ear to the ground, ready to step in later. It's a very long story, the way it's told here, which perhaps partly because of importance to John, but also perhaps because that was the way the story came to him - it sounds like a much-loved story told and retold in every detail.
Though John might edit it, his redaction doesn't usually, I think, run to leaving anything out (he is always faithful to his sources as well as to his central agenda. Everything's in, and some things are explained).

[Edited to excise greengrocer's apostrophe]

[ 15. August 2012, 17:56: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
You know, I just can't take that as completely innocent--"do you want to become his disciples too?" He has to know how they feel about Jesus by this point, they don't seem to be doing a very good job of hiding their feelings. I may be wrong, but I tend to hear this remark as the verbal equivalent of a middle finger up to the leaders--no wonder they got pissed off! And what guts he had to do it... [Big Grin]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's how I heard it too, which is why I thought his parents' initial reply was a curt brush-off rather than a fearful denial of involvement - like parents, like son.

Or you might take the son's remark as ironic more than in-your-face up-yours. If only we could have been flies on the wall, or even had the original (Aramaic?) version!

[ETA All of which gives a reader in the context of church services a problem. So many impassioned pieces are read deadpan, and straightforward statements (if there are such things) queenly overhyped.]

[ 16. August 2012, 04:00: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
28 Then they reviled him, saying, "You are his disciple, but we are disciples of Moses."
[John9.28]
Is that really how Jews described themselves? It sounds odd - calling yourself a disciple of someone long dead.

quote:
We know that God has spoken to Moses, but as for this man, we do not know where he comes from.
[John9.29]
As they said before. But the man gives as good as he gets.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I dunno, sounds like a self-aggrandizing title to me--disciples means "students" after all, and since they are supposedly focusing so much on the Torah, authored BY Moses, the title is not entirely unfounded. But really, it's rather like me claiming to be a disciple of [fill in great and glorious scholar of the past] because I want the glory of hanging on his coattails. Poor Moses! I expect this was said with a sniff and with noses in air.

Of course the whole point of their self-praise is "our teacher is greater than yours, nobody's ever heard of Jesus." Which is nicely ironic 2000 years later.

[ 19. August 2012, 21:58: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
30 The man answered, "Here is an astonishing thing! You do not know where he comes from, and yet he opened my eyes. 31 We know that GOd does not listen to sinners, but he does listen to one who worships him and obeys his will. 31 Never since the world began has it been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a person born blind. 33 If this man were not from God, he could do nothing." 34 They answered him, "You were born entirely in sins, and are you trying to teach us?" And they drove him out.
[John 9.30-34]
Not only has the man regained his sight; he has become at one stroke a world historian and a theologian capable of teaching the pharisaic grannies to suck eggs. No wonder they threw him out!

[ 20. August 2012, 10:02: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yeah, he's awesome. Wish the man would preach in my church some time, that's a real gift for clarity and calling a spade a spade.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Aha! Sin! At last! John brings that theme back into play for us. The ex-blind man provides us with the conundrum:

[1] God does not grant audiences to rebel petitioners [God will not hear sinners], only those who are loyal to God and behave that way will be heard.

[2] There has never been a recorded case of a blind person's eyes being restored. It would have to be an act of God to do this.

And yet here is a case of a man's eyes being restored. The way this is presented provides good support for seeing the standard theology of the day to be one where blindness is equated with sin and no doubt prompting plenty of fulfilling hours of debate on the finer matters (him? Or his parents?).

The problem for the religious authorities is that seeing is believing. It's quite fun to see them at the crossroads, facing a paradigm shift... But then they fall back into secure denial mode. The only answer they can stomach is that [1] above trumps [2]. Rebellion must have influenced this blind man before he was born (he was birthed completely in sin). So in answer to the disciples' question back up in verse 2, it must have been the man's parents who sinned.

Just to be on the safe side, though, this man is also expelled from the community.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Aha! Sin! At last!

You have no idea how desperately I want to post that in the Quotesfile. Out of context, of course. [Devil]

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
John brings that theme back into play for us. The ex-blind man provides us with the conundrum:

[1] God does not grant audiences to rebel petitioners [God will not hear sinners], only those who are loyal to God and behave that way will be heard.

[2] There has never been a recorded case of a blind person's eyes being restored. It would have to be an act of God to do this.

And yet here is a case of a man's eyes being restored. The way this is presented provides good support for seeing the standard theology of the day to be one where blindness is equated with sin and no doubt prompting plenty of fulfilling hours of debate on the finer matters (him? Or his parents?).

The problem for the religious authorities is that seeing is believing. It's quite fun to see them at the crossroads, facing a paradigm shift... But then they fall back into secure denial mode. The only answer they can stomach is that [1] above trumps [2]. Rebellion must have influenced this blind man before he was born (he was birthed completely in sin). So in answer to the disciples' question back up in verse 2, it must have been the man's parents who sinned.

Just to be on the safe side, though, this man is also expelled from the community.

You're probably right that most people's theology at the time included blindness or what have you as a punishment for sin. But I took "God does not hear sinners" to be a reference to Jesus, not to the blind man, meaning in effect that if Jesus had been the kind of wicked person the religious leaders were claiming, God would never have allowed him to do this miracle. Yet here the miracle is. Walking and talking and looking down its newly visible nose at the religious leaders.

I wonder if they HAD to throw him out for the same reason they contemplated re-killing Lazarus later in the book--because his mere presence did WAY too much to convert people to Jesus.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Context, eh? First to the wall come the revolution (which, I gather took place on day 13 of creation).

Re: Jesus as the referent to the one whom God hears, that's a possibility, yes. Perhaps John is doing one of his parallel universes here - using language that has one eye to the plot and another to the "and here's a message I prepared earlier" for his audience. Double meanings, sort of thing.

You know, I just bet 'sight' is going to become a metaphor for something....
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm confused. What's that about the revolution?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
That would be The Fall, LC. It seems Adam and Eve were influenced by The Snake to take God's words out of context. We've had no end of trouble with interpretation since then!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think maybe I geddit now, but it's 6 am, so bear with me...

Yes, that conversation is all about Jesus--what kind of a person he is (blasphemous "sinner" or man from God), what kind of authority he has as a result (if any), and what the proper response to him should be. The leaders' opinion can be summed up as sinner/no legitimate authority/get rid of him, while the no-longer-blind man's is the polar opposite, man of God/God-given authority even over nature/become his disciple. And the man has one irrefutable piece of proof for his position, which is his new eyesight. The best the religious leaders can muster up is a whine "but he did it on the Sabbath!" which is shaky on so many, many grounds. So they finally resort to insults and excommunication, the "argument from a big stick." Also known as "what to do when you're clearly losing the argument..."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Tangent] If it wasn't sin, what did cause the man's congenital blindness. There are still some people who dwell (rather lasciviously IMHO) on the transmission of blindness through STD's - a continuation of the old belief.

But it may be more likely that he suffered from Leber Congenital Amaurosis, which currently affects one in 30,000 newborns, or one in 80,000 depending on which DIY science source you read.

That no-one since the world began had heard of such people having their sight restored is very likely. Only recently (c.2008) has gene therapy proved to be (sometimes) successful. But somewhere in India there is a clinic which claims to be able to restore the sight of sufferers from LCA, glaucoma, macular degeneration and any other optical disorder you care to name, with micro-system acupuncture.

I doubt the modern miracle of gene therapy will threaten to upstage Jesus, but it may give some comfort to those who complain that God was rather random - and mean - with his biblical wonders.[/tangent]

[ 22. August 2012, 16:08: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
John 9:35
Jesus heard that they had thrown him out and he found him and said to him, “Do you yourself trust in the son of man?”

It seems that most English versions translate the quote from Jesus as “Do you believe...?” but this is ambiguous in English – it can mean something like, “Do you believe that the son of man exists?”, which is not what John is doing here. This is Jesus actively locating the man who had been rejected by his 'own' (perhaps a little Johannine precursor of Jesus as Word – from chapter 1 – coming to his own but being rejected by his own?), and setting up a context of a new relationship out of rejection. All sorts of pastoral lessons there!

Again we have the 'son of man' phrase/title in use here. Quite a few manuscripts have 'son of God' instead, a phrase taken up by those versions that take their lead from the Received Text (so, e.g., KJV). Text critics opt for the 'man' rather than 'God' as being more likely original.

John has used this 'son of man' phrase before (John 1:51; 3:13f; 5:27; 6:27; 6:53; 6:62; and 8:28). It seems to have been a phrase Jesus was happy to use, notably in the context of suffering and vindication – something that gets us close to the ex-blind man and what he was going through. The neatest link seems to be with chapter 5: a public healing on a Sabbath with Pharisees in critical attendance and Jesus talking about judgment.

Not that I'm looking ahead to the next few verses of course!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Causes of congenital blindness (Google is my fiend):

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella during pregnancy
Cataracts
Glaucoma
Agenesis of various bits of the visual apparatus
Lack of oxygen during childbirth
Genetic disorders

I'm sure I've missed out a few.

In the case of the blind man mentioned here, I'm suspecting cataracts, since they could have been obvious at birth, and most of these other things might take you a little while to catch on. If a newborn has normal appearing eyes, parents might not realize the blindness for quite a while.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
36 He answered,"And who is he, sir? Tell me so that I may believe in him." 37 Jesus said, "You have seen him, and the one speaking with you is he." 38 He said, "Lord, I believe." And he worshipped him.
Inwardly? Or by some act of obeisance? Does it matter?

[ 28. August 2012, 18:22: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
Whether the ex-blind man was worshiping inwardly or outwardly is not important to the Gospel's author. He is trying to convince the wavering Christians of his era of the reality of Jesus miracles.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Interesting though. And I'm not sure he means to convince them of the miracles so much as he is using the stories "so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ," the one God promised to send all those years ago. And here we get a man acknowledging that very thing by worship.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which really gets up the noses of the Pharisees:
quote:
39 Jesus said, "I came into this world for judgment so that those who do not see may see, and those who do see may become blind." 40 Some of the Pharisees near him heard this and said to him, "Surely we are not blind, are we?" 41 Jesus said to them, "If you were blind, you would not have sin. But now that you say 'We see', your sin remains.
[John9.39-41]

This passage on "spiritual blindness" ends the chapter. Jesus' opening words are puzzling, so John has a couple of conveniently placed Pharisees ask the question - what does he mean - is he pointing the finger at them?

Of course he is - comes the chorus of those Christians to whom the words of Jesus are always crystal clear. "Lord, we thank you that we are not like these Pharisees!" they pray. [Devil]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It certainly rounds off nicely the whole section, Jesus inverting the 'blind = sin' equation. The judgement theme mirrors chapter 5, too; Jesus' judgment - commissioned by the father - will result in reversal of expectation. It may be drawing also on Isaiah 6, particularly verses 9 and 10:
quote:
“Go and tell these people:
‘Listen continually, but don’t understand!
Look continually, but don’t perceive!’
Make the hearts of these people calloused;
make their ears deaf and their eyes blind!
Otherwise they might see with their eyes and hear with their ears,
their hearts might understand and they might repent and be healed.”

That passage moves on to some direct warnings of impending catastrophe.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, there are several references in the OT to God ordaining contrariness, and John's readers/hearers would probably have no problems with them. One of the points being made, I think, is that since God is all-knowing and all-powerful, he can afford to let us have a degree of autonomy - but only so far. The baddies are allowed enough rope to hang themselves pour encourager les autres. But the manifestation and self-declaration of Jesus in this role puts him on a par with the OT God, and trumps Abraham and Moses soundly.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Isn't it a more dignified version of the motherly "Fine! Be that way, then!" ?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
God as harrassed mother? An interesting theological perpective. Can't wait to read the book! [Biased]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Brings to mind Jesus' exasperated "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who kill the prophets and stone those who are sent to you! How often I have longed to gather your children together as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you would have none of it!" (Matt. 23:37)

God. The great big Hen in the sky.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Don't tempt me. One of you just gave me the idea, and the other the title. Wait for the dedication, now...
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Nigel wrote

quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
“Go and tell these people:
‘Listen continually, but don’t understand!
Look continually, but don’t perceive!’
Make the hearts of these people calloused;
make their ears deaf and their eyes blind!
Otherwise they might see with their eyes and hear with their ears,
their hearts might understand and they might repent and be healed.”

One emendation changes the whole sense and makes a lot of sense.

Change'otherwise' to 'unless'.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
But why bother with that? Say the whole thing in a frustrated, sarcastic voice, and it's clear as day.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
In which case, LC, you might like to punctuate the whole Biblical story indicating when or where to tonally indicate frustration, sarcasm. hyperbole.

Most people simply read the words as they stand.

J.Jeremias indicated that the emendation proposed is entirely legitimate and , if adopted, would make reading the words as they stand theologically defensible.

[ 01. September 2012, 16:44: Message edited by: shamwari ]
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Interesting though. And I'm not sure he means to convince them of the miracles so much as he is using the stories "so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ," the one God promised to send all those years ago. And here we get a man acknowledging that very thing by worship.

I find a lot of Christians see the performance of miracles as proof of God's existence or His working in the world. Because of this I prefer mostly to talk about signs rather than miracles, especially as miracles are now seen as breakings of the natural law.

My reading of the NT is that miracles were comparatively commonplace. Many people did them. The distinctiveness of Jesus is that his were signs that he was God's son or the Messiah. I think this is John's theology. I do not think that John is relating them to bolster wavering Christians' faith (viz post by IconiumBound).
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
In which case, LC, you might like to punctuate the whole Biblical story indicating when or where to tonally indicate frustration, sarcasm. hyperbole.

Most people simply read the words as they stand.

J.Jeremias indicated that the emendation proposed is entirely legitimate and , if adopted, would make reading the words as they stand theologically defensible.

This demonstrates where the written Word is rather poor at communication. "Reading the words as they stand" means being unaware of the cultural and theological baggage you/I bring with you/me.

J.J. provides one interpretation to suit his theology. The NetBible provides in an interpretative translation note 14
another one(click on it at the end of v 10), not necessarily in disagreement.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Interesting. Constable's notes point out John's reference to Isaiah (and that prophet's testimony to Jesus) but we haven't got there yet.
I never thought of it as sarcasm, but it "works".
These Semites have a funny way of putting things, though.

Another tangent. Some of these recent saying of Jesus remind me of those in the Gospel of Thomas. There, there is little or no context, and I sometimes wonder how many of the sayings were handed to "the four" independently of the narratives, so that the context had to be provided by intelligent guesswork.

I realise, of course that we think the gospel of Thomas is later, but it does bear witness to a love of collecting the sayings of great men, as being intrinsically holy on their own account.

[ 01. September 2012, 18:15: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
I have regarded the Gospel of Thomas in being deficient in giving us teachings of Jesus rather than the person and His actions, but like that aspect of their holiness you provide.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
In which case, LC, you might like to punctuate the whole Biblical story indicating when or where to tonally indicate frustration, sarcasm. hyperbole.

Most people simply read the words as they stand.

J.Jeremias indicated that the emendation proposed is entirely legitimate and , if adopted, would make reading the words as they stand theologically defensible.

You sound a bit frustrated.

As for "most people simply read the words as they stand," you should know from your time on SOF that simply "reading the words as they stand" results in major miscommunication a great deal of the time. People are often sarcastic, ironic, snippy, or just plain funny--in print as well as in person. That fact is responsible for the rise of the emoticon. You may prefer people to read everything straight, but that's just not how everybody writes. And I suspect that applies to the Scriptures as well.

I'm not dissing Jeremias. I had no idea he had a dog in this ... argument. But my personal tendencies are to avoid emendation unless there is either very strong textual evidence in favor of it (I'm not aware of any for this, though for all I know there may be) or unless there's no other way of making any sense of it at all. Lectior dificile and all that.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Time to move on to the Good Shepherd? Another discourse follows with no narrative introduction.
Anybody have any idea why?

quote:
"Very truly, I tell you, anyone who does not enter the sheepfold by the gate but climbs in by another way is a thief and a bandit."
[John 10.1]
[ETA Ignore any apparent link. I didn't post one - it's a recurrent virus]

[ 04. September 2012, 15:17: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
From my Jerusalem Bible it looks as though vv1-5 are themselves the introduction to 7-18. In my JB 7-18 is formatted as a poem.

Apart from that, perhaps John wants to move directly from the theme of blindness to being able to see the difference between true and false Shepherds.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The kick off line in chapter 10 (Truly, truly, I say to you...) is used by John elsewhere, often to preface a cryptic remark, as part of an ongoing conversation and never as an introduction to a new section. Thus far in the book we have encountered it at:-

1:51 God's angels ascending and descending on the son of man
3:3 Being born from above / born again
3:5 Being born of water and spirit
3:11 Testifying to what is known
5:19 Son doing what the father does
5:24 Crossing over from death to life
5:25 Dead hearing the son's voice
6:26 Motivation for seeking Jesus
6:32 The origin of real bread
6:47 Belief means life
6:53 Eating flesh, drinking blood
8:34 Slavery to sin
8:51 Obeying means life
8:58 “I Am” before Abraham

This being the case, it looks as though John did not intend the conversation here to be broken up. Best to ignore the chapter division and read Jesus' interaction with his fellow-religious interpreters in one sweep. Or, as here, a verse at a time...

What we might also have here is another of those times when Jesus cuts across one topic with a metaphor that, on the face of it, bears no resemblance to item on the agenda. We have another one of those “What's he on about?” moments. It will be an interesting test to see how herding sheep might fit with fixing sight.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Let's see, then.
quote:
2. "...The one who enters by the gate is the shepherd of the sheep. 3 The gatekeeper opens the gate for him, and the sheep hear his voice.
[John 10.2-3]
If the story is consistent, the ones who climb over the wall, being burglars, probably do so at night. Who is the gatekeeper? Does he see the shepherd in the dark? The sheep don't - but they hear his voice, and recognize him.

I can't help thinking about the next chapter, where someone, alone and frightened, in the dark, hears Jesus' voice. Is that a mere coincidence?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
If it's who I think you mean, he was first dead (therefore probably not scared) and second alive (but they'd already opened the door so there would have been plenty of light, very thoughtful of Jesus that). [Big Grin] But should we wait till we get to that very, very tempting chapter? Because if you get me going on it, I won't shut up. [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Better move on then...

quote:
3 "...the gatekeeper opens the gate for him, and the sheep hear his voice. He calls his own sheep by name and leads them out. 4 When he has brought out all his own, he goes ahead of them, and the sheep follow him because they know his voice..."
[John 10.3-4] From this insistence on the pastor's voice, I'm pretty sure this is happening at night. It's a fascinating account of a rural tradition at once familiar and at the same time far removed from our own experience. If the shepherd calls them all by name, it must be a fairly small flock - which is perhaps why they share a fold with someone else's sheep - perhaps its a common pound. The sheep recognize him not by sight but by his voice - important for John's readers/hearer's since they can no longer see the shepherd John is referring to.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
From Life on the Road,Athol Gill, 1992 on the parable of the lost sheep
quote:
A peasant family might own 10-15 sheep, at most forty. But when we are told that a person has a hundred sheep, we are awared that the reference is to a flock which belongs to an extended family or perhaps even to the village.
Does anyone think anything is being implied about the other shepherds, or the sheep which do not belong to the shepherd as a spiritual illustration?

The 'other sheep I have which are not of this fold' comes to my mind, but I have yet to decide if it is relevant.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I never thought about it being night--wouldn't that be the time you wanted to lead them home, rather than out? About the voice, I figured you called them because you had to get their attention--like kindergartners. And since all the sheep are probably roughly the same size, they might have trouble seeing over each other's backs?

I'm guessing it probably is a communal pen, since it would probably be built of rock (wood being in short supply in Palestine, and precious) and building rock walls is darn hard work and best done as a community. If everyone knows his/her own sheep and calls them by name, it doesn't matter if they all sleep communally, they'll come crowding up when they hear their shepherd's voice in the morning.

Heck, now you've got me wondering--it would be even easier if the local geography was decently furnished with caves, and all you had to do was built a barrier across the front. I know the Jerusalem/Bethlehem area is like this. But if you used a convenient cave for a sheepfold, there'd be all the more reason to call them by name rather than expecting them to catch on to visual football signals or something.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Good points, both of you. Perhaps we're just meant to get the general picture of a flock that knows its owner/shepherd. And I think John will have something to say ablut the other sheep shortly...
 
Posted by tomsk (# 15370) on :
 
The idea of Jesus being he good shepherd is familiar, but reading this made me think more of how we are like sheep. Sheep's vision is OK, but their hearing is better at pinpointing stuff, and (i think) recognition. Mother and lamb find one-another by bleating. Something about the need we have to recognise Jesus voice and the intimacy of that. Relying more on that when we can't see.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
"All we, like sheep, have gone astray, every one in his own way" is another aspect of this.

Shepherds lived with their flocks, and smelt of them. Sheep would know their true shepherd by his smell and his voice. And the shepherd was true to his flock in a multitude of senses, including hid fidelity to them. It's a passage packed with meanings.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus explains:

quote:
5 They will not follow a stranger, but they will run from him because they do not know the voice of strangers." 6 Jesus used this figure of speech with them, but they dis not understand what he was saying to them. 7 So again Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you [see Nigel's post above on the "very truly" sayings], I am the gate for the sheep. 8 All who came before me are thieves and bandits, but the sheep did not listen to them..."
[John 10.5-8]

I expect we'll hear who the thieves and bandits were later on. It's a bit comprehensive, that "all who came before me", isn't it?
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
It sounds comprehensive in English, but what about the Greek - does the word translated as "all" (Strong's #3956) have the same sense as it does in English? The notes from studylight.org indicate that very rarely does the Greek for "all" mean all persons, taken individually.

As for the text, I take Jesus to be using sheep to refer to the members of the church and the strangers / thieves / bandits to refer to the church leaders who were abusing their positions, but I'm puzzling over the reference to the gatekeeper in verse 3.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
The Greek there is "pantes," which is basically your basic "all." I mean, it's not like it's some highly esoteric word. I think we'd do better to look at how Jesus is using it, that is, colloquially rather than with scientific, painstaking exactitude. The "All who came before me" seems to me to be a reference to false Messiahs, Christs, pseudo-saviors, etc. etc. of which there were apparently quite a few. They were indeed "thieves and liars" because they were claiming to be what they were not--the God-appointed Messiah and Savior everybody had been waiting for for yonks. And anybody misled by them wound up in a world of hurt.

But Jesus tells us "the true sheep did not listen to them." I take this to mean that the false messiahs just didn't "smell right" to God's believing people. You know how you can meet someone for the first time and though you can't point to something obviously wrong, they just sort of give you a feeling that something is off? And then you hear a couple years later that they embezzled all the company's money and ran off to Acupulco with the boss's wife, and somehow it just doesn't surprise you. On some level you were picking up signals that he was a wrong 'un even before he proved it to the world. Although I think there's probably a supernatural aspect to this sort of intuition, too, when it comes to telling the difference between the real Christ and the fakes out there. A bit of help from the Holy Spirit?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I don't think the sheep can be identified strictly with church members--there are hypocrites in any given visible mass of Christians, and conversely God has his hidden, faithful "7000 who have not bowed the knee to Baal" even in the worst of times, in places where there is no chance of them being safely connected with a visible church body. So I'm taking the sheep to refer to all God's people wherever they may be--the believers, the ones who belong to Jesus. And ultimately the only one who can be absolutely sure who falls into that category is God himself, though we get pretty good indications sometimes from behavior etc.

As for the gatekeeper, we may be overthinking it if we try to ID this passing reference to a particular single person or institution. I think the point in this extended analogy is that the true Shepherd is recognized both by the sheep and by the lawful authorities, who duly open up the door for him. Being the true shepherd, Jesus has no need to sneak over the wall or come in by night time to avoid being seen. He is about his lawful business. Anybody else who is doing his/her own proper business (like a gatekeeper) will recognize him as a proper authority and let him get on with it.

If we do want to push the gatekeeper thing and pin it down, I'd suggest one or more of the following: a) the judges and prophets (Israel's temporary "keepers" until Messiah came), b) the Scripture written by/through them, or c) any proper pastor, teacher, parent, godparent who is keeping watch over others for their good, and who is therefore happy to see Jesus show up to aid in that task.

[ 11. September 2012, 03:13: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Great points - thanks!
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I particularly like option (b), although in an abstract way, all three options are similar.

I love having to struggle with a passage, particularly one from the Gospels.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Sitting here as someone trying to put myself in the shoes of one of the first hearers / readers of this work from John, I'm still hanging over the cliff left by him at the end of chapter 9. That daring, audacious, nay, (deliberately?) provocative rhetorical poke at the religious authorities is something of a camel in a bedsit. I'm still rather worried over where the bodily functions will land.

To tell the people in power “...because you say, 'We see', your sin / guilt remains” (9:41) is pretty strong stuff. And then we have this “And now I tell you the truth” phrase (10:1) which implies a move to the supporting evidence for such strong stuff. I wait with baited breath – only to be met with a metaphor: someone climbing over my courtyard wall to get at the sheep. I'd get the idea – only I as house owner can open the door for my hired shepherd to come in to my courtyard and collect the sheep; and a thief would have to climb in because I bar my front door. Fair enough.

So what conclusion am I to draw from this diverting diversion? That the Pharisees are the household owners, supposedly looking after the sheep (God's people of Israel)? That would match references in other literature to the way the religious leaders saw their role. Is Jesus then the shepherd? But if so, why would the Pharisees 'unlock the door' and let him in?

Perhaps then the householder is God. Also sustainable from other literature. Are the Pharisees the shepherds (also a traditional metaphor)? If so, then how does their role fit with Jesus' strong stuff saying about their being sinful / guilty? What's guilty about doing their approved role? And where does Jesus fit into the scenario (if indeed he intended himself to appear in this at all)?

So then, no wonder that by verse 6 they did not understand which side of the lunar cycle Jesus was on. 'Deep sigh' emanates from between the lines. Jesus strikes out with another “And now I tell you the truth so kindly pay attention everybody in the thruppenny seats.” I have to admit that locating Jesus as the courtyard door (v.7) was unexpected; usually the metaphorical link is to something animate. It also leaves the reader / hearer up another illogical alley: then who is the householder? And the sheep? And the shepherd???? And the thief??????????

An extraordinary metaphor to have to wind up, this. I can see why W Hyatt baulks! I take LC's advice – but am hoping that the narrative will close these loopholes before the actors disperse!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
I have to admit that locating Jesus as the courtyard door (v.7) was unexpected; usually the metaphorical link is to something animate.

As I understand it, a sheepfold did not have a gate/door; once the sheep were inside, the shepherd lay down at the entrance to prevent thieves or wild animals from getting to the sheep.

Moo
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
I have to admit that locating Jesus as the courtyard door (v.7) was unexpected; usually the metaphorical link is to something animate.

As I understand it, a sheepfold did not have a gate/door; once the sheep were inside, the shepherd lay down at the entrance to prevent thieves or wild animals from getting to the sheep.

Moo

That's my understanding, too. Sleeping and living with the flock is how the shepherd smells of them and they in turn recognise him. He knows the bleats of each, and they know his voice. The shepherd is truly guardian of his flock.

For us, the link to Psalm 23 is clear. Would it have been as clear then?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I suspect that some sheepfolds ( the bigger communal ones) did have standard gates, being intended for use every night by a heckuva lot of sheep belonging to several people, even a small village. But a cave or smaller pen intended for use by a single flock and shepherd, maybe during the months when the flocks roamed farther afield--those might not have been deemed worth putting real gates on (with labor and the cost of upkeep, even hardware of a sort). Much easier to leave the seasonally used ones with a man'sized opening and simply camp in it.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus begins to unravel it:

quote:
"...9 I am the gate. Whoever enters by me will be saved, and will comin and go out and find pasture. 10 The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy. I came that they may have life, and have it abundantly.
[John10,9-10]

That last sentence is one of my all-time favourite quotes. Like the Golden Rule, it's godly but not exclusively christian. I remember a quote from a Jewish writer (but not the writer's name, alas): God will hold you accountable for every one of his gifts that you refuse on your own account, or denigrate in others.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
As I understand it, a sheepfold did not have a gate/door; once the sheep were inside, the shepherd lay down at the entrance to prevent thieves or wild animals from getting to the sheep.

Yes, the idea of the shepherd as the guard to the sheep pen is one that there is evidence for across the ancient near east; I had been assuming that here in John, but I was intrigued by the terms and associated imagery he uses in this passage and it led me to think a bit differently.

For example: John uses the noun thura (= θυρα) for 'door', which generally speaking could refer to a portal rather than a physical barrier (the English 'door' rather than 'doorway'), but is far more often used to designate the barrier 'door' itself. John has only a few other uses of the term, where the physical barrier is intended (especially the 'locked door' in 20:19, 26). What clinched the idea for me of a physical barrier-style door, though, was the reference to the 'doorkeeper' (thuroros = θυρωρος) in verse 3 who opens the door. This led me to visualise the village-based house-cum-courtyard environment for the sheep, rather than the open countryside style of pen. The image would be of the typical household with a courtyard. The entrance to the house proper would have been into and through the courtyard itself. Presumably this is a household of reasonably well off people in a village; the head could afford to hire a shepherd and a doorkeeper. I was also aware that John separates 'shepherd' from 'door' in the parable, which made it difficult to picture the shepherd being both guard and the one who enters in through the guard.

If that's the correct image for the opening parable, then I suspect it would still have been intended to be in mind when Jesus starts to explain the parable in verse 7. He is the thura ('door'). Hence the idea that he is the physical barrier in the portal, which needs unlocking.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I have just been watching, on "Countryfile", hundreds and hundreds of sheep being brought down a precipitpous Swiss mountainside, in single file, in large groups, a shepherd at the head of each group, calling them on. A living parable. It continues next week for UK watchers, or people with satellite TV, I guess, anywhere.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The theme develops - and gets more complicated. Don't go away, Nigel, please!

quote:
11 "I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down his life for his sheep.12 The hired hand, who is not the shepherd and does not own the sheep, sees the wolf coming and leaves the sheep and runs away - and the wolf snatches them and scatters them..."
[John10.11-12]

So we started off with one shepherd and a load of bandits. Now it seems not all shepherds can be trusted - you can't even call the hired ones shepherds anyway. They are all cowards.

Much stereotyping of wolves and hirelings here.
But no big deal. As a hireling I always knew the christian gospel wasn't for me anyway - it's for the big guys with the crooks, innit? [Biased]

[ 19. September 2012, 12:25: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Huh? Unless you're a pseudo church leader only in it for personal gain, I can't see any way it applies to you, dear Pimple. [Big Grin]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What a relief! Getting back to our sheep, I think the term "laying down his life for the sheep" has several meanings here. Shepherds are tough guys and would certainly outface an odd wolf or two, but no shepherd would die deliberately inorder that his sheep might live.

Except for one, of course.

So the metaphor is perhaps a tad strained. The shepherds - good and bad - put their lives on the line but they are taking a calculated risk in the ultimate hope of personal gain. But that typically cynical attitude simply dissolves when I hear Bernstein's setting of the 23rd Psalm - which is juxtaposed with a harsh cry of anguish at the cruelty of one nation warring against another.

[ 19. September 2012, 19:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
But look ahead to the last chapter, where Peter is told to be a shepherd for the sheep, and where we are told that he also had to lay down his life. So is that a possibility for any leaders/shepherds in the church?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It's what you do, every day, unless you have an unusually easy and cushy pastorate. But it's a privilege.

I wonder if, regarding good shepherds laying down their lives--if we ought to take into account the fact that shepherds in that kind of setting (who are small-time owners of their own flock) tend to get personally attached to their sheep. I mean, here you are with a dozen or so sheep (probably not more unless you're rich, and if you were, why would you be hanging about on the cold hills watching sheep?) You are most likely going to keep them for wool and milk--meat can only be taken one time, and so you'd probably not eat any of your animals unless it was at the end of its lifespan anyway, or else due to the temple in sacrifice. So you're spending several hours a day with the same critters year in and year out, caring for all their needs, getting to know their quirks, healing them when they get sick. helping them give birth (and therefore developing a sense of "family" history--"Oh, Daisy? She's out of old Betsey, there, best ewe I ever had.") I can't imagine there's a great deal to do on a lonely hilltop or wilderness pasture, so you spend a lot of time thinking about the creatures. They are your company, not just your bread and butter. But they ARE your bread and butter--without them, your family doesn't eat (or at least not well)--and they are not cheaply replaceable. So if a lion or bear comes after them, you betcha you'll be there in the predator's face--not just for your financial investment, but because you've gotten fond of them.

We know people in Bible times DID make pets of a sort of them, at least occasionally--that's the whole point of Nathan's storytelling to David. So yes, I'm guessing there IS a real difference between the owner-shepherd and the hireling who only signed on for a month or a season. The real shepherd loves his sheep and will go to unreasonable lengths to protect them. The hireling would be just as happy picking tomatoes somewhere, and will protect the sheep, which are noisy smelly things to him, just as eagerly as he would the tomatoes. [Big Grin]

Returning to the pastorate for just a mo--you get to know those sheep too, if you stay long enough and make half an effort. And they're just as stinky and pushy and stupid and annoying as regular sheep. But much as you might fantasize about feeding them to the wolves, when push comes to shove, you DO love them, and you do go to the wall for them. And count it a privilege.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Re: LC 2nd para

Isn't that the point of the "I know them and they know me" coming up?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
All good stuff. And modern sheep farmers, too, have a much closer attachment to their animals than some of my earlier posts may have acknowledged. It's often a matter of staying up all night - even if you've got hundreds of sheep. And the image of the shepherd bringing back the one that was lost across his shoulders is just as valid now as it ever was!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Well. Of all the passages in John thus far, I admit this one is proving the most difficult to determine meaning. Just who exactly are the referents in the metaphor (10:6 – paroimia = a riddle?)?

Some options: [1] John was being deliberately mysterious; [2] his text was corrupted at some point after he wrote it; [3] it made sense to his audience then, but we don't get it today.

On the first option, it's true there is an element of textual mystery in parts of John's gospel; he does shift ground somewhat as he develops a plot or argument, but he does at least signal his direction and meaning in ways that even we can understand. Here, however, he records Jesus feinting the shepherd metaphor from a range of directions without hitting home on one distinct line of attack.

Option two – while there are a couple of textual variants of interest in this section, there's nothing to suggest a large scale mishap in the copying process. If anything, the indications are that the passage caused the same problems to some copyists that it is causing us and as a result a few attempts were made to tidy things up.

So did it make sense to John and his audience? We're only part way through the passage, so I'm trying to figure what might have been in their minds as things develop. The only reasonably obvious thing – somewhat high-level – is that 'sheep' indicates God's people and 'shepherd' is the authentic leader of those people. This comes from OT imagery.

The metaphor-riddle in chapter 10 appears to be dealing with the issue of knowing whether a leader is authentic or not. Two criteria are offered: the doorkeeper recognises him and permits entry, and the sheep recognise him and follow him. An inauthentic leader has to gain entry illegally and the sheep do not recognise him.

A possible setting by way of background could be Isaiah 42 to 49, which deals with God's people as the blind and deaf who need to see and hear correctly (e.g., 42:18-25 ). They need leading out (43:8) and the way to do this is to call them by name, e.g.:

Isa. 43:1 “I have called you by name, you are mine.”
Isa. 45:3 “...you may know that I am the Lord, the God of Israel, who calls you by name.”
Isa. 45:4 “I call you by name and give you a title of respect, even though you do not recognize me.”
Isa. 49:1 “...from birth he has made mention of my name.”

These sets of passages resonate with John 9 and 10. We have the blind man who receives sight and the 'blind' leaders who remain blind even though they claim they can see. We have reference to the authentic shepherd calling by name (10:3). The sheep recognise and follow him.

Perhaps, then, John has used Jesus' sayings here to reignite a memory of the heritage Isaiah was tapping into. Jesus sets up the imagery of shepherd/sheep and the threats and risks associated with that setting. He then taps into parts of the image in turn: he is the gate in the sense that.... he is the shepherd in the sense that....
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
As I understand it, a sheepfold did not have a gate/door; once the sheep were inside, the shepherd lay down at the entrance to prevent thieves or wild animals from getting to the sheep.

Yes, the idea of the shepherd as the guard to the sheep pen is one that there is evidence for across the ancient near east...
That seems plausible, but I'd love to know if we have any contemporary reference to it. Otherwise I'd worry that its another one of those nice sermon-illustration stories that someone made up once to explain away the text. (q.v. camels, eyes of needles, big and little gates, [/i]passim[/i])

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

A possible setting by way of background could be Isaiah 42 to 49, which deals with God's people as the blind and deaf who need to see and hear correctly (e.g., 42:18-25 ). They need leading out (43:8) and the way to do this is to call them by name, e.g.:

Isa. 43:1 “I have called you by name, you are mine.”
Isa. 45:3 “...you may know that I am the Lord, the God of Israel, who calls you by name.”
Isa. 45:4 “I call you by name and give you a title of respect, even though you do not recognize me.”
Isa. 49:1 “...from birth he has made mention of my name.”

These sets of passages resonate with John 9 and 10. We have the blind man who receives sight and the 'blind' leaders who remain blind even though they claim they can see. We have reference to the authentic shepherd calling by name (10:3). The sheep recognise and follow him.

Perhaps, then, John has used Jesus' sayings here to reignite a memory of the heritage Isaiah was tapping into. Jesus sets up the imagery of shepherd/sheep and the threats and risks associated with that setting. He then taps into parts of the image in turn: he is the gate in the sense that.... he is the shepherd in the sense that....

Yes of course. And the other prophets. They habitually use shepherds as metaphors for the rulers of Israel. Read Zechariah, especially chapters 10-13, which is specifically Messianic and has the Lord himself becoming a shepherd. In Jeremiah 23, the LORD will scatter the false shepherds and gather his scattered sheep and lead them home, and raise up a new king like David. And Israel's favourite foreign king, Cyrus or Persia, was called a shepherd as well as a Messiah, in Isaiah 44 & 45.

Ezekiel 34! There are true and false shepherds contrasted (and even some hirelings and wolves and so on) and then:
quote:

For thus says the Lord God: I myself will search for my sheep, and will seek them out. As shepherds seek out their flocks when they are among their scattered sheep, so I will seek out my sheep. I will rescue them from all the places to which they have been scattered on a day of clouds and thick darkness. I will bring them out from the peoples and gather them from the countries, and will bring them into their own land; and I will feed them on the mountains of Israel, by the watercourses, and in all the inhabited parts of the land. I will feed them with good pasture, and the mountain heights of Israel shall be their pasture; there they shall lie down in good grazing land, and they shall feed on rich pasture on the mountains of Israel. I myself will be the shepherd of my sheep, and I will make them lie down, says the Lord God. I will seek the lost, and I will bring back the strayed, and I will bind up the injured, and I will strengthen the weak, but the fat and the strong I will destroy. I will feed them with justice.

And half a dozen shorter passages in other prophets, or prophets quoted in other books.

And of course shepherds were metaphors for the rulers of Israel, not even metaphors, for the rulers and ancestors of Israel were shepherds. Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob were shepherds. Leach and Rachel were shepherds, as were their children, the founders of the tribes of Israel. Moses was a shepherd, so was his wife. David was a shepherd, and he sang that God was too: "The LORD's my shepherd I shall not want".

All that would have been known to Jesus and to John and most of their hearers, all part of the web of connotation and reference and subtext and multiple meaning of the parable and its explanation. It has more than one meant meaning, just as the prophets do - look at the Zechariah passage, how could you confine that to a simple univocal allegory? It doesn't only tell one story. There are at least three different kinds of shepherds in it.

And yes the writers of the New Testament were thinking about that prophecy - after all it has the King riding on a donkey, the Messiah as the chief stone of the corner, good and bad shepherds, thirty pieces of silver, and the inhabitants of Jerusalem weeping and wailing for the one they have pierced. All in the same four pages as each other. (The traders don't get expelled from the Temple until the next chapter)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
That seems plausible, but I'd love to know if we have any contemporary reference to it. Otherwise I'd worry that its another one of those nice sermon-illustration stories that someone made up once to explain away the text.

Peeling away received incrustations from received wisdom is certainly a worthy task; there is no shortage of reference to the sheep pen motif in shorter commentaries and sermons - and all without reference to evidence.

I think one strand of evidence for this particular setting comes from near contemporary (to us) accounts of life in the near/middle east (pre-modern technology), allied with testimony from those within the social setting to the effect that they have been doing what their ancestors always did, to draw a line back through time. One example of this setting account can be found in an early 20th century book by Abraham Mitrie Rihbany, The Syrian Christ and chapter 6 ("The Shepherd").

It goes without saying, of course, that anecdotal evidence of this type needs to be compared with other independent anecdotal sources to provide a check on likely regional accuracy.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Ken and Nigel M.:

Thank you both for your posts. Psalm 23 is one of the best known Biblical passages these days, one that even the unchurched know. Did it have that degree of fame in Our Lord's time please?

[ 25. September 2012, 22:30: Message edited by: Gee D ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
You mean, did the Jews read their bible, sing their psalms?
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Not that, Pimple, as they clearly did. My question is rather: did Psalm 23 have the same grasp then on the Jewish public mind s it does in modern Western society?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Apologies for the dumb misunderstanding! [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Ken noted the plethora of instances where the 'shepherd' metaphor was used to denote a leader. It was a common motif throughout the ancient near east, from Egyptian Pharaohs to Persian emperors. So much so, in fact, that I suspect that by the time Psalm 23 (22 in Septuagint) was composed, the metaphor had become close to dead; it was as much a title as a picture.

I'd like to suggest that the Psalm itself would have been read with a different emphasis to the way we have become accustomed to reading it. I assume most if not all Christians in the west will have read Psalm 23 to enjoy the extended metaphor: a quaint picture showing how God is like a shepherd - and we then love to read up on what shepherding was like 'way back then.' This reading emphasises the metaphor: God is a SHEPHERD.

In actual fact, I think the original author and audience intended the emphasis to lie on the subject: YAHWEH is shepherd. The emphasis is on Yahweh - placed first in the Hebrew sentence and treated along the same lines as other psalms relating to Yahweh in this part of the Psalter.

The aim would have been more polemical. Something like this:

"We all know that we call our leaders 'Shepherds.' Even the gods are called this. I want to make it plain to all that the God of Israel, our Yahweh, is Shepherd/Leader. Not any other god, just Yahweh. He's the one who leads me..."

In other words, the metaphor acts in a secondary manner to the principal focus. The writer is emphasising the primacy of his god over those of the surrounding cultures. This reading helps also to make sense of the bit Christians would much prefer hadn't been included in this lovely Psalm: the uncomfortable mention of enemies! If the focus is on Yahweh over other gods, then here it is the same Yahweh who holds the victory feast with his loyal servants so the other gods can see how less they have become.

This may still have been the understanding at the time of Jesus. If God (Yahweh) is the model shepherd/leader, then he (and by implication Jesus) are so alone. Anyone else was a mere thief or wolf.

Well, that doesn't really answer the question as to whether the Psalm was as popular in Jesus time as now! Still, perhaps it's useful to try and work out how it was understood then.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Thank you Nigel M. More aspects to consider in thinking of this Psalm.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Continuing with the text, but not wanting to stop any discussion of the passage as a whole - there's quite a lot of overlap:

quote:
13 The hired hand runs away because* a hired hand does not care for the sheep. 14 I am the good shepherd. Iknow my own and my own know me, 15 just as the Father knows me and I know the Father. And I lay down my life for the sheep
[J0hn10.13-15]*Because is one of John's favourite words. In that form and also as "for" or "since". He's especially fond of the Greek word "gar" (phonetically) which lends an air of mystery to the short ending of Mark's gospel.
John doesn't want mystery, but reasons.

I think I'll leave it there, before we get on to the enigmatic "other sheep". I don't know why, but the beginning of a verse in mid-sentence like that is unusual for the discourses. As if "just as..." were either a gloss or an afterthought by the evangelist, or something unintentionally left out and remembered later.
But did the evangelists do their own verse-numbering?

The hints of the crucifixion are getting stronger. Partly, perhaps, to emphasise the fact that Jesus is not just a shepherd who puts his life on the line, but one who deliberately, in tyhe face of apparently impossible odds, actually sacrifices himself.

I think also that it is important for John that Jesus should be seen as pro-active vis-a-vis the crucifixion - not only that, but that he himsielf chooses the time and place.

[I'm pre-empting here, my own temptation to say "So the hireling runs away - as Jesus does - several times. Pot. Kettle. Black?] There - I've said it anyway, but I've given you a handy reply!

[ 02. October 2012, 11:10: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I don't know why, but the beginning of a verse in mid-sentence like that is unusual for the discourses. As if "just as..." were either a gloss or an afterthought by the evangelist, or something unintentionally left out and remembered later.
But did the evangelists do their own verse-numbering?

Not only did they not do their own verse-numbering, they wrote entirely in capital letters with no punctuation. It's not always easy to determine where one sentence ends and another begins. This problem is especially acute when reading Paul's letters.

Moo
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, since you bring it up... [Biased] [Razz]

There IS a difference between the times Jesus "ran away" and the case of the hireling. The hireling is in the wrong, not for running away, but for deserting the sheep who need his protection, and who will certainly die without him. Jesus, on the other hand, only "went away and hid himself" when there was no life on the line but his--and he knew very well it was not yet time to die.

Since you've opened the door (hehehe) I'll mention that concern for his disciples and their welfare is a major mark of the arrest in Gethsemane. He allowed it to go forward, but only after making sure they were well out of it.
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
I know this is definitely a tangent but since we have been going on about shepherds, I wonder why Jesus never had any shepherds in his band of followers? It might have been because of their odors but then fishermen also smell bad. Should I start a new thread?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
It seems to me it's probably easier to take time off from fishing than from shepherding.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This is where I think we've got to:

quote:
16 "...I have other sheep that do not belong to this fold. I must bring them also, and they will listen to my vouice. So there will be one flock, one shepherd.
[John 10.16]

To whom is Jesus/John referring?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Gentiles. IMNSVHO.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
It seems to me it's probably easier to take time off from fishing than from shepherding.

Though part-time discipleship is not what the Gospels teach, IMO.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Gentiles. IMNSVHO.

I agree with you.

However, this raises a question for me in the types of translation/use of scripture.

In perhaps a universalistic approach, I now apply this to people who are not formally in Christian churches.

I take some comfort in seeing that the New Testament writers in their use of the OT do not have our concerns about being (in)consistent with the original context and the meaning that intended audience would understand.

If anyone is interested in this tangent I could start another thread. I call it a situational or cultural translation. I don't know if there is an agreed name for this type of translation but I have come across very little about it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I sense at least a partial resolution to the 'shepherd' enigma that John has thrown his readers; the reference to 'sheep of another fold' helps, but before that the bringing in of hired hands as opposed to proper shepherds, and of wolves opposed to the flock, makes we wonder if Jesus is here tapping into the memory of Israel as a nation of people who had been decimated so many times and scattered to the four winds on more than one occasion.

John quite possibly may have been using 'wolf' as a metaphor for the foreign empires from the Assyrians onwards who plundered weaker peoples. That's a metaphor used elsewhere, e.g., in Gen. 49:27 (“Benjamin is a ravenous wolf; in the morning devouring the prey, and in the evening dividing the plunder”).

Jesus' hearers then would probably have recognised what Jesus was on about. They would no doubt have agreed – once he tipped them off about the 'wolf' – that he was now on firmer ground, talking their language at last(!). They could agree that they always needed proper rulers (shepherds) to protect them, not mercenaries (hired hands) who would abandon them at the first sign of trouble. This could be Jesus playing one his dangerous linguistic games, criticising the foreign powers who ruled Israel for gain, not for justice, without actually naming the powers directly.

Then Jesus pushes on further than was perhaps comfortable for his immediate hearers: having argued that he is Israel's proper model leader, ready to die for his people, he also has people outside of Israel's house. Is he hinting at the possibility of bringing the wolf and sheep together along the lines of Isaiah 11:6 and 65:25?

The 'wolf' metaphor was taken up in Byron's poem The Destruction of Sennacherib with its opening line: “The Assyrian came down like the wolf on the fold...”


quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
I take some comfort in seeing that the New Testament writers in their use of the OT do not have our concerns about being (in)consistent with the original context and the meaning that intended audience would understand.

It may require another thread indeed; it is a very interesting topic. My take would be that in fact the NT writers were so immersed in their Jewish Scriptures that rather than mangle the text in the absence of context, they actually understood the original context better than perhaps our more modern commentators have done. This section in John could act as an example.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus continues:

quote:
For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life in order to take it up again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again. I have received this command from my Father.
[John 10.17-20]

So that's all right, then.

?

[ 18. October 2012, 13:34: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Speak, o master of the cryptic query? What's bugging you?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Not sure if this the same encryption algorithm as pimple's, but I was pondering what the Father's command / rule / law referred to in terms of extent: is the right to choose when and where to 'lay down one's life' limited specifically to Jesus (as one shepherd over one flock), or is there a suggestion in John's use of this verse to refer more generically to all of his followers? Are we all empowered (if that's the word) to stand our ground when the wolf comes?

Somewhat linked to this question is one from the end of the last verse: what is the entity coming into being as 'one flock' over which there is 'one shepherd'? Is this the world-wide church of God, or each individual local fellowship - or both? The answer to this issue probably determines the answer to the first question about application.

Door open here, I guess, to the question of John's intended readership and whether he was referring to a particular christian community or happy to be making universal christian claims.

I'll go searching for my decryption key, too.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Groping in the dark here, don't know if this is what is being asked or ???

I read this

quote:
For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life in order to take it up again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again. I have received this command from my Father.
As

quote:
My Father loves me, and I am my Father's beloved and gladly obedient son. This fact is evident in my actions. Specifically, in the fact that I have come for the purpose of dying to save humanity, and then rising again. I am in perfect accord with the Father on this, for we are of one heart and mind.

I am not being forced to do this--no one is taking my life away from me against my will. And that includes people on earth--nobody here has the power to kill me without my consent. Death has no power over me. But I give that consent freely, and so I will die when I choose--and I will rise again, when I choose. I have the power to do that, you know. And a good thing, too, because that is the mission my beloved Father has given me.


 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It certainly makes sense. Hang on, this is John, I retract!

What was prodding me irritatingly in this few verses was the wolf. I can understand Jesus saying he was in control of where and when he would die - not letting the world set the agenda there - but doesn't the idea of a wolf descending on the fold rather imply timing is out of one's hands? After all, a shepherd could see a wolf coming and think, "Well, my fate is in my hands and I just don't believe this is my right time and place, so I choose to nip away at this point." That would be consistent with the hired hand in Jesus' parable, yet here he is apparently saying that he will indeed decide when and where to lay down his life.

Even if the wolf is at the door?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Devil]

No, I really think at this point Jesus has left the constraints of the parable behind and is speaking more or less clearly about his mission. After all, to speak of a dying and rising shepherd is surely straining the boundaries of the earthly picture somewhat!
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Yes. Though we could claim to have the power to lay down our lives, we could not claim to have the power to raise it again.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It all provides a useful demonstration of one of John's techniques as a writer: he tends to proceed by overlapping his themes. It's as though he says, "I want to talk here about A-B-C-D. Now I want to talk about C-D-E-F. And now let's talk about E-F-G-H." As he proceeds, he takes part of what he has been talking about and then use it as the springboard for his next piece. A and B are left behind, but C and D are still in play.

It's like overlapping bricks that make a building stronger than simply layering bricks one directly on top of another. He has stapled his work together. This also has the effect of making it difficult to justify arguments that parts are from later writers. Re-pointing of the mortar, perhaps, but new bricks? Hmmm.

Of course, if I was John I would probably now discuss the builder who does the re-pointing. And then the builder's wife. And her pudding...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
Yes. Though we could claim to have the power to lay down our lives, we could not claim to have the power to raise it again.

Got it in one, Latchkey Kid! I am having trouble in squaring this (over)confident docetic/gnostic apparition, who regards his imminent death with complete equanimity (because he can die and live again as and when he chooses) with the real man in the next chapter who weeps at the predicament and suffering of his friends. Here he is all God - no man.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I am having trouble in squaring this (over)confident docetic/gnostic apparition, who regards his imminent death with complete equanimity (because he can die and live again as and when he chooses) with the real man in the next chapter who weeps at the predicament and suffering of his friends. Here he is all God - no man.

I'm like that sometimes. If I am dealing with a very difficult situation I veer back and forth between complete peace, because I'm sure God is in charge, and something verging on panic, because I know the situation is bad.

Moo
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I too have had difficulty for many a year in the interpretation of John's Jesus as a gnostic vapour floating three feet off the ground, and the more I read over chapter 10 the more I think something more profoundly physical is going on here.

I just can't ignore the fact that Jesus – and then John – have included in this rather extended sheep metaphor a focus on robbers, hired hands and wolf. I can't see these as peripheral niceties with nothing to add to the shepherd picture. In fact, I rather suspect many christians in the west have been blinded (had the wool pulled over their eyes, to keep the metaphor running) by teaching that has focussed on Jesus as Good Shepherd to the exclusion of the other facets in the imagery. That may be because we in the west are more removed from shepherding and find it interesting to prod and poke the imagery for all it's worth. At the time of Jesus and John though, and for centuries beforehand, the idea of shepherd as a picture of a leader was old hat and would have been understood as little more than a title – a dead metaphor.

That being the case, I think Jesus and John are doing something extraordinarily bold: they are undermining the political and religious foundations of contemporary power – mainly Jewish, but not exclusively so. Three starting points for me:-

[1] For John, to say that Jesus is the door into the sheep courtyard implies – as in fact he spells out – that all others are thieves and robbers.

[2] Also for John, to say that Jesus is the model shepherd (focus on 'model', not 'shepherd') is to imply – as he spells out – that all others are not. They are not committed.

[3] And for John, to say that Jesus is the model shepherd (focus on 'model', not 'shepherd') is also to imply – as he spells out – that he will remain committed to death when his (and they are his, not anyone elses) sheep are threatened by incoming powers (the 'wolf' as metaphor for political empire out for gain).

What is often missed here is the focus given by Jesus and John on the spelt out pieces. For Jesus' immediate hearers this is dangerous stuff. John also makes it one of his themes in his Introduction when he says (1:17): “Sure, the Law came through Moses, but if you are looking for the real gift from God and real truth, you will have to go to Jesus alone.” This understanding of that verse gels better with John's concept of light and darkness: to say that light has come into the world is to imply that all that came before was darkness. John then goes on in his work to offset Moses more fully against Jesus.

In effect, I think John for one is making the point that whatever one thinks of Moses' role, the outcomes from his activity produce only darkness, attempting to thieve and rob God's family. I don't think Jesus was referring only to his contemporary Jewish authority interpreters in this regard, but rather to the whole gamut of Jewish interpreters over time (“All who ever came before me were thieves...”) and the question opens up as to whether this was to include Moses as well – and Abraham even?

Looking wider, the fact that Jesus refers to a 'wolf' and also to having other sheep that need to be brought into the fold suggests his field of fire includes the world powers and peoples as well. Saying that he will lay down his life in both sets of texts (when the wolf comes, vv11-13; and on either side of the 'other sheep' in vv 14-18) does rather ram home the idea that his death has a political element: protection of the sheep when empires strike cannot be entrusted to those who are not in tune with the sheep (the 'hired hands') but only to the one (and only one) who is so committed.

There is a persistent buzz in the background to John that won't go away! It is more than mere validation of Jesus' credentials, though that is of course a key theme. It is also about Jesus being the true leader (king?) of God's kingdom – to the exclusion of all else. Strong stuff indeed.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, very uncompromising. Someone has borrowed my "Community of the Beloved Disciple" but I seem to remember Brown making a lot of the Secessionist element in the fourth gospel. But he thought IIRC, that the Johanine Community as a whole eventually made peace with the rest of the Church, while the hard-line Gonostics went their own way - taking the (4th) gospel with them as their primary inspiration.

What is generally regarded as the ugly head of anti-semitism cannot be ignored. How far is the gospel itself to blame for its mishandling by fanatical anti-Jews? Fear and hatred are very close companions. Neither blame nor esculpation is much use. How can we better understand why the fourth gospel was/is so much of a minefield?

[ 24. October 2012, 14:02: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Jesus and the apostles were Jews. When John refers to the Jews, he means the religious authorities and those who supported them mindlessly.

Unfortunately the church lost sight of this fact.

Moo
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, I think Moo hits the nail on the head; it would be hard to bracket John into the camp of anti-semitism, especially as in chapter 10 he seems quite happy to accept that Jesus was the leader of sheep already in the fold (i.e. Jews), while allowing for more to come in from elsewhere.

Interpretation is not easy when there are 2,000 years of cultural baggage to be aware of, with some red flag areas. It also becomes a nuisance when every attempt at interpretation needs to explain what it is NOT saying in case the interpreter finds him/herself strung up from the nearest lamppost!

I've just checked back over John's usage of the name 'Moses' and was somewhat more surprised than I expected to be to see that the best I could say about John's perception of Moses is 'neutral'. In a few places the text is negative. Now perhaps he is attacking Jewish interpretations of / accretions to the Law, but it does feel as though Moses was in some sense a problem for John and his readers. I wonder if his Jewish contemporaries were using Moses as the justification for orthodoxy in attacks on the new christian sect? Perhaps John had to swing a pendulum back to another extreme before it could settle into middle mode?

This chapter 10 is turning out to be something of a crux in John's work. Sort of way through - it may be a peak in the development of the plot.

Keep an eye out for a chiasm, eh?
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Jesus and the apostles were Jews. When John refers to the Jews, he means the religious authorities and those who supported them mindlessly.

Unfortunately the church lost sight of this fact.

Moo

[tangent]
I find a lot of passages where the religious establishment is railed against are interpreted to be railings against those out of the church. I read them as a "Watch out that your church doesn't get like this".
[/tangent]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I'm not in any way suggesting that John himself - or his gospel - is antisemitic. I just feel that it's unfortunate that John didn't - perhaps couldn't - foresee what a gift the gospel could be, with all its "fear of the Jews" and the repetitive perceived threats on the life of Jesus before the actual crisis, to those who were, and are.

And perhaps we shouldn't play down that fear. Rival groups of religious believers are renowned through the ages for murdering each other, and even acts of "divine punishment" on people of your own corner were accepted with equanimity.

[ 26. October 2012, 15:36: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm guessing that being himself a Jew, and being surrounded by a zillion other Jews who were following a Jewish Messiah, John really couldn't imagine a case where his Gospel would be twisted against the Jews. In fact, I expect he would have had a hard time imagining a mostly Gentile church, let alone one that would persecute members of Jesus' ethnicity.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The following completes the section about physical/spiritual blindness (and the chiasm?) and shepherding, looking back especially to Ezekiel (where the shepherd is God himself, not a subject king or a suzerain) and calculated to confront the establishment:

quote:
Again the Jews were divided because of these words. Many of them were saying, 'He has a demon and is out of his mind. Why listen to him?' Others were saying, 'These are not the words of one who has a demon. Can a demon open the eyes of the blind?'
Easy to see where that "mad, bad or God" trichotomy comes from, isn't it?
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
This brings to my mind Matt 10:24-25
quote:
‘A disciple is not above the teacher, nor a slave above the master; it is enough for the disciple to be like the teacher, and the slave like the master. If they have called the master of the house Beelzebul, how much more will they malign those of his household!
Should the John passage be read in this light; that it applies to us as well?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The following completes the section about physical/spiritual blindness (and the chiasm?)...

I'm going to keep an eye out for a possible chiasm as we plod on through John, because if he has set us up to climb (like shepherds) the mountain of chapter 10 then he may have had in mind a downhill run afterwards. We'll see... I may be setting this up to fail. Sort of a chasm, rather than chiasm.

There's a lot of to-ing and fro-ing between the mad, bad, or God thing in John. Nobody is settling for a "Ah, He's such a nice man!" option. Latchkey Kid's comment would probably apply to John, assuming John is referring to issues affecting his readers - they are mad or bad by way of association with Jesus.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
This brings to my mind Matt 10:24-25
quote:
‘A disciple is not above the teacher, nor a slave above the master; it is enough for the disciple to be like the teacher, and the slave like the master. If they have called the master of the house Beelzebul, how much more will they malign those of his household!
Should the John passage be read in this light; that it applies to us as well?
The whole of Matthew 10 is very pertinent, I think. Whereas in John, Jesus's "paranoia" (as the Jews see it), is restricted to one or two oft-repeated phrases, in Matthew we have it concentrated, as it were, in one apocalyptic outburst. The reference to Beelzebub is given out of context, but clearly refers to the time
when Jesus was accused of using sorcery to heal. This he regarded as the one unforgiveable sin, because it was essentially aimed mot at him, but at the Holy Spirit which he proclaimed as the wonder-worker.

But in fact such taunts were levelled at Jesus personally and his followers, and they smarted from it. Who wouldn't?

[fixed typos--Moo]

[ 01. November 2012, 11:37: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
This brings to my mind Matt 10:24-25
quote:
‘A disciple is not above the teacher, nor a slave above the master; it is enough for the disciple to be like the teacher, and the slave like the master. If they have called the master of the house Beelzebul, how much more will they malign those of his household!
Should the John passage be read in this light; that it applies to us as well?
It does apply to us, as anyone who's been slandered can tell you. We had a bad time about six years back where three loonies got together and drove us out of our old church, along with half the congregation. You would not believe the slanders they spread about us--and the only real defense to their crap was the same used for Jesus in the John passage: "these are not the words of one who commits adultery/steals the offering/has wild orgies/prostitutes him/herself/throws children out into the snow to die. Can a person who does those things also care for the dying/visit and nurse the sick/love the unlovable/feed the hungry/find jobs for the poor?"

It did help a great deal to know that Jesus had threatened er promised us we'd get the same crappy treatment he did, on a lesser scale. It wasn't wholly unexpected when it blew up out of nowhere.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
LC,

Sounds as though you got crucified for bearing your cross.

Thanks to you and pimple for the re-assurance. I grew up in a culture which was implicitly that The Letters are prescriptive and the Gospels descriptive. I've grown out of that and take the Gospels/Acts as stories/narrative theology for Christians, and the letters as situational application, but sometimes I wonder how many are with me on that.
 
Posted by Tortuf (# 3784) on :
 
I am, but I don't count.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
I think you count
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Only halfway now through chapter 10 and about halfway through John's complete work, and he signals for his readers something of a break in his performance. So, intermission over, is everyone sitting back down comfortably? Ice creams suitably spread over chin and shirt? Right. Take it away for part two, John. Curtains re-open...

John 10:22-23
quote:
The time had come for the annual Dedication-Renewal festival, which occurs in winter. Jesus was walking in the temple area known as Solomon's Colonnade.
A new setting - a temporal and spatial break in the performance. The setting John provides here is useful, but is it going to be significant for what follows? We may not know until we get into the 'what follows' and it may be purely circumstantial, but it is another example of John's use of geographical locations in his plot. He does like to specify the Jerusalem, and especially temple, positions. The 'Feast of Dedication' (as most English versions have it), Hanukkah, starts in winter, around the Nov/Dec time of the Gregorian year. This year (2012) it apparently starts on Saturday, 8 December. The NET Bible note has this to say about it:
quote:
The feast of the Dedication (also known as Hanukkah) was a feast celebrating annually the Maccabean victories of 165-164 – when Judas Maccabeus drove out the Syrians, rebuilt the altar, and rededicated the temple on 25 Kislev (1 Macc 4:41-61). From a historical standpoint, it was the last great deliverance the Jewish people had experienced, and it came at a time when least expected. Josephus ends his account of the institution of the festival with the following statement: “And from that time to the present we observe this festival, which we call the festival of Lights, giving this name to it, I think, from the fact that the right to worship appeared to us at a time when we hardly dared hope for it” (Ant. 12.7.6 [12.325]).
The colonnade John mentions faced into the temple area from the east side. It was something of a pre-Herodian structure. It had some significance for the early christians following Jesus' resurrection; it receives honourable mention in Acts 3:11 and 5:12.

So, although we may have to wait and see, John has announced a dedication theme, brought to fore the history of a succesful rebellion against an empire and a cleansing of God's house and land. More politics.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
My understanding is that Solomon's Colonnade was basically a gathering place for people, particularly for teachers and those who wanted to hear them. So it would make sense for Jesus to hang out there, and the apostles etc. after him.

Since it was roofed (though open to the unroofed court on one side) it would keep you out of both sun and rain, which would be an advantage if you were planning on hanging around the temple for more than a short time. Better than being smack dab in the middle of the open court.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
So the Jews gathered around him and said to him, 'How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.' Jesus answered, 'I have told you, and you do not believe. The works that I do in my Father's name testify to me; but you do not believe, because you do not belong to my sheep...'
[John 10.24-26]

Or is it 'You do not belong to my sheep because you do not believe...' From Jesus that would be outrageous, but I can understand John thinking/saying that. I'm being a bit mischievous there. I haven't got a concordance to hand. Is this the first actual mention of Jesus as Messiah in the gospel? Has the attitude of 'the Jews' changed from outright opposition to one of curiosity? Perhaps this is a different bunch of Jews - though they all looked forward to the coming of the Messiah, didn't they? Are this lost beginning to wonder if Jesus really is kosher? If they were, Jesus' reply is counter-productive, surely?

[ 09. November 2012, 14:25: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Is this the first actual mention of Jesus as Messiah in the gospel? Has the attitude of 'the Jews' changed from outright opposition to one of curiosity?

No, the first mention of Jesus as Messiah is when he spoke with the Samaritan woman at the well, in John 4:25-26
quote:
The woman said to him, ‘I know that Messiah is coming’ (who is called Christ). ‘When he comes, he will proclaim all things to us.’ Jesus said to her, ‘I am he, the one who is speaking to you.’
Many Jews would have said Jesus should not talk to any woman, much less a Samaritan. It is remarkable that he first announced his Messiahship to such a person.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, Moo. Remarkable, indeed. But not untypical!

quote:
'...My sheep hear my voice. I know them and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 What my Father has given me is greater than all else, and no-one canm snatch it out of the Father's hand. * 30 The Father and I are one.'
[John 10.27-30]

* There was a footnote here but I forgot to check it.

The comfort and reassurance this passage has given to people from all walks of life down the ages can hardly be overstated. We could argue for hours over the meaning of the phrase "eternal life" but to those whose mortal existence, here and now, is or was under imminent threat of extinction, it means simply that whatever happens, the believer is in the hands of a powerful, merciful and forgiving Father.

[ 15. November 2012, 14:52: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
here's the NRSV's footnote:

Other ancient authorities...My Father who has given them to me is greater than all, and no one can snatch them out of the Father's hands.

No one.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The 'Christ' theme resurfaces! It seems to balance the confusion about Jesus' credentials in chapter 7 – is or isn't he? I wondered where the passage in John was recording Jesus actually telling these Jewish authorities that he was the Messiah (Christ). I suppose we could look back to where Jesus went one further, by emphasising his extreme closeness to his father in chapters 8 and 10. And now he spells it out in words of (nearly) one syllable: “I and the father are one”, a statement that has had theologians scrambling for definitions over the odd thousand years or two!

The "What goes for him goes for me, too" argument is sufficient, according to John, to provide warrant for confident faith in the outcome of life: eternal living.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thanks, Moo. Remarkable, indeed. But not untypical!

The comfort and reassurance this passage has given to people from all walks of life down the ages can hardly be overstated. We could argue for hours over the meaning of the phrase "eternal life" but to those whose mortal existence, here and now, is or was under imminent threat of extinction, it means simply that whatever happens, the believer is in the hands of a powerful, merciful and forgiving Father.

I agree - powerful and reassuring words indeed. I'm talking with the senior Sunday School tomorrow on some of the names of Jesus - Bread of Life, Light of the World and Good Shepherd. This is one of the passages to which I shall be referring.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Moving on:

quote:
The Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus replied, 'I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these are you going to stone me?
[John 10.31-32]

[ 21. November 2012, 13:59: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
What would have been the justification for stoning Jesus? Is there a Levitical provision?
 
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
What would have been the justification for stoning Jesus? Is there a Levitical provision?

Probably because Jesus's statement in v.30 'I and the Father are one' is so close an echo of Deut.6:4 'Hear, O Israel, The LORD our God, the LORD is one' that it was taken as a claim to divinity. (Or so it says in the notes in my ESV [Hot and Hormonal] [Smile] )
Angus
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which seems to be confirmed here:

quote:
The Jews ansered, 'It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you, but for blasphemy, because you, though only a human being, are making yourself God.'
There then follows a short, quaint theological exchange (with the onlookers freeze-framed, so to speak, with stones held aloft....)


[John 10.33ff]
quote:
Jesus answered, 'Is it not written in your law, "I said you are gods?"
Well, I'm sure it is, but my time (at the library) is almost past. Could somebody kindly finish Jesus' reply and possibly find a link to the scripture he refers to?

[ 26. November 2012, 10:56: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK. Jesus continues:

quote:
'...If those to whom the word of God came were called "gods" - and the scripture cannot be annulled - can you say that the one whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said "I am God's Son"?'
Whoa, there! There's a world (or a heaven!) of difference between "I am God's Son" and "The Father and I are one".

But why is he arguing the toss with them anyway?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I had a ponder about Jesus' reference in 10:34 – “I said, 'You are gods'” - to Ps 82 (81 in LXX), an Asaphatic psalm (I like that word – sounds like a good wheeze). On the basis that a quote in the NT from an OT text is intended to open up the larger world (context) of that OT text, here it is, taken from the NET version:
quote:

God stands in the assembly of El;
in the midst of the gods he renders judgement.
He says, “How long will you make unjust legal decisions and show favouritism to the wicked?

Defend the cause of the poor and the fatherless!
Vindicate the oppressed and suffering!
Rescue the poor and needy!
Deliver them from the power of the wicked!
They neither know nor understand.
They stumble around in the dark,
while all the foundations of the earth crumble.

I thought, ‘You are gods;
all of you are sons of the Most High.’
Yet you will die like mortals;
you will fall like all the other rulers.”
Rise up, O God, and execute judgement on the earth!
For you own all the nations.

I think the visual setting is of a courtroom with God standing to pronounce his judgement following the evidential hearing (the judge standing to deliver judgement being the norm in many legal settings around the world). This courtroom is God's, but it is also where the other 'gods' meet in the divine assembly to seek judgements and authority for action. This setting seems to me to be the most natural in the context of the times and more so than other options proposed by some commentators (fearful, I suspect, of a threat to monotheism) such as the 'gods' here being a reference to human judges, or that Israel's God has somehow invaded the Canaanite pantheon's assembly to denounce them. These options raise too many complications in respect of this text.

These gods were the representatives of the nations, hearing the supreme God's judgements. Jesus picks up on the statement that they were 'gods' to whom those judgements came ('...the word of God came' – John 10:35). If they were entitled to that status, then how could the Jewish authorities not accord an even greater status to another representative of the nations – the anticipated 'son' who was entitled not just to hear judgements, but enact them? If they accept the one, they must logically accept the other.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, it's a bit obscure, certainly. Jesus identifies the "gods" as "those to whom the word of God came"--which to me anyway suggests human beings, particularly since he immediately goes on to say "so why are you getting so upset when I, a man, call myself Son of God?" The comparison just doesn't work IMHO if the "gods" are supernatural beings. Nor does it make sense for the psalmist to say such will die.

So I'm leaning toward the "gods" in the quotation being men, probably very powerful men--judges, leaders, kings, lords--people who ought to be enforcing justice and aren't. Then Jesus' comparison makes sense. Scripture calls such men "gods". So what's your beef with me, a man, calling myself by a similar or even lesser title, "Son of God"?

I admit the argument seems a trifle sophistical to me--the real problem (which Jesus seems to duck with this argument) is that he did and does in fact believe himself to BE God, and the Son of God, not just metaphorically but in actuality. On the other hand the scribes and Pharisees were well known for specious letter-of-the-text arguments, so it's maybe not surprising if he pays them back in their own coin.

And he certainly goes on to make it clear immediately that "Son of God" is no mere metaphor in his view, whatever the psalmist's use might be. Gets very obvious about it--"I and the Father are one." So IMHO it doesn't really matter if he plays word games here, no one has an excuse for misunderstanding his position. And who knows, maybe they'll start to think?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I was held back somewhat from matching the 'gods' with human rulers / judges by two things:-

[1] I've not come across (so far) any evidence from the ancient near east that placed human rulers / judges inside the divine assembly. They are indeed called 'sons' when they are in loyal relationship with their god, but actually in God's (El's) presence – that bit of the jigsaw puzzle hasn't come across my vision yet. There's pleny of evidence on the other hand for 'gods' being in that assembly and who liaise with the human rulers to bring order and peace to their country and who report back to El on their activities. There's a hint of that in the bible, too, with the entity named Michael being the divine representative for Israel. I have wondered if the commentators who prefer these 'gods' to be human rulers / judges are constrained by verses 6 & 7 (“...all of you are sons of the Most High. Yet you will die like mortals...”), which brings me to the second problem.

[2] The phraseology of the Hebrew here is not so much “You are mortals, therefore you will die” (a bit like the proverbial servant standing behind Caesar's throne to whisper in his ear that he was mortal), rather it's more “Just as a human, you are also going to be executed”, which rather implies 'human' is being used as the metaphor against which these 'gods' are compared. This is taken further in the next clause, “Just like other rulers, you will fall” where these other (human) princes are being offset against the 'gods'.

Whatever may be the case (and I wish scribes used footnotes more extensively) Jesus is certainly an interesting interpreter! He should have written a book.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Jesus finishes:

quote:
If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe, believe the works, so that you may know and understand that the Father is is me and I am in the Father." 39 Then they tried to arrest him again, but he escaped from their hands.
[John 10.37-39]

It's not that Jewish logic isn't precise -
it's just different...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe, believe the works, so that you may know and understand that the Father is is me and I am in the Father." 39 Then they tried to arrest him again, but he escaped from their hands.

[John 10.37-39]

My guess:

Having just wiped out their charge of blasphemy with a frivolous argument based on a really out there use of the Psalms, he then returns to the true issue of this encounter: Who do you say that I am?

And he says basically, "Look, if you won't believe me on my bare word (and they don't, they've just made that murderously clear), then at least check my ID--look at the works I am doing and see if they aren't the same ones that God does. I mean, hello? healing the sick, bringing life from death, calming storms, changing water into wine (and without even a grapevine involved, yet)... aren't these the things that God does every day among you on a much grander and therefore less noticed scale?

Heck, aren't these the same kind of miracles recorded in the Old Testament as well? Work it out, why don't you? If I am doing the same things that God does, what does that tell you about my ID?"

[waves hands in front of baffled faces, speaks.very.slowly.:]

"The reason I do what God does is because I am God. Got it now? I am in the Father and the Father is in me."

[rocks appear again]

Exit, stage right.

[ 07. December 2012, 00:17: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
(Nods head, slowly) Yuh, oh. Awright.

quote:
He went away again across the Jordan to the place where John had been baptizing earlier, and he remained there. 41 Many came to him, and they were saying "John performed no sign, but everything that John said about this man is true." 42 And many believed in him there.
[John 10.40-42]

Chapter ends. Someone might like to wrap it all up (succinctly - any volunteer miracle-workers?)
before we start on Lazarus.

Which I think would be more usefully discussed if we kept fairly close to the traditional understanding of the piece - there are many other responses to it, but most of them have been dealt with in other threads. Only a suggestion, mind.

[ 07. December 2012, 11:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Succinct?!!!!

Well, cue pantomime routine. "Jesus is equal to God."

"Oh no he isn't"

"Oh yes he is"

"Oh no he isn't - and to prove it I'm going to beat him over the head with a sausage. Now where did he go?"

"He's behind you!"


I've come across frequent reference in commentaries – and sure others have also – to a high-level structure in John's gospel along four lines: the prologue (1:1-18), the Book of Signs (1:19 - 12:50), the Book of Glory (13:1 – 20:31), and the epilogue (21:1-25).

After that, the more detailed breakdown tends to differ from commentator to commentator, some of whom concentrate on geography to provide breaks in the work, some on the feasts, some on Jesus' miracles, and so on.

As we've been plodding through the book, though, I've had a growing feeling that John may not have intended to divide so neatly his work into 'Signs' and 'Glory'. No doubt we'll see as we move along, but it occurred to me that John was using 'signs' as a means, not an end. Chapter 10 seems to be a peak in the narrative (which may be why we've spent so much time on it!) and there are chapters that build up towards it, then chapters that fall away from it on the other side. Dividing John's book up at the end of chapter 12 seems a tad premature. If anything, it obscures a major theme we've seen all the way through since at least chapter 5 – Jesus' validity and the evidence in support (with related issue of belief and unbelief). Anyway; we'll see.

A rough outline to date could be as follows:

Ch. 5 = healing that leads to confrontation over Jesus' authority (he breaks Sabbath and equals himself with God). Son gives life and judges people. Jesus provides evidence of testimony.
Ch. 6 = feeding crowd and walking on water, leading to confrontation over Jesus being greater than Moses, as 'bread' bringing eternal life. Followers divided over Jesus, Peter confirms Jesus to be Holy One of God.
Ch. 7 = Jesus teaches at feast, leading to confrontation over Jesus' authority and division among crowd. Is he the Messiah? Threat of execution. Jesus as 'water' – bringing eternal life.
Ch. 8 = Jesus as 'light', leading to confrontation over his authority. Greater than Abraham. Threat of execution.
Ch. 9 = healing leading to confrontation over authority.
Ch. 10 = shepherd metaphor leading to confrontation over authority. Threat of execution.

The key aim and objective of John's work in all that appears to be to supply supporting arguments for Jesus' validity in the face of opposition. Local colour is supplied by the odd miracle, the geology in the hands of Jesus' would-be executioners, and the crowd who divide along “Is he? – Isn't he?” lines.

And if that shoe fits then I must be Cinderella.

[ 07. December 2012, 16:20: Message edited by: Nigel M ]
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
Aren't the verses in play (John 10:40-42) consistent with the author's intent to argue for Jesus' authenticity over other competitors like John who still had followers even at the time of the Gospel's writing?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Makes sense. When Jesus got to his destination, I suppose the authorities were afraid to go after him - he was among friends. I'm not sure whether it is possible (or necessary) to establish exactly how far away from (a) Jerusalem) or (b) Bethany he was when this disturbing news reached him. It fits neatly into John's narrative but some scholars think the story was a later addition to the gospel:

quote:
Now a certain man was ill, Lazarus of Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha. Mary was the one who anointed the Lord with perfume and wiped his feet with her hair; her brother Lazarus was ill.
[John 11.1-2]

The details tell us how close a friend Lazarus was, but not the nature of his illness. It soon becomes very clear that it's a matter of life and death.
 
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on :
 
I remember when this thread started (goodness, have I been on the Ship that long?), but have never been interested before now. John always seemed the most esoteric of the Gospels, with very little storyline to make it interesting (like Alice in Wonderland's criticism of her sister's book: "all words and no pictures"). But I got assigned a piece of John to read on which to write a meditation for our church's Lenten booklet, and on reading it felt I needed a lot more context: so much context that I've in fact read the entire Gospel today, straight through. It felt actually very short and very tightly constructed, and even rather clear in what it says, although it still seems rather strange.

So here I am at the One Verse At A Time thread, looking for thoughts on this Gospel. Maybe I'll even have some thoughts (or certainly questions) of my own to add. But first you'll have to excuse me; I have 25 pages of thread to catch up on.

[ 17. December 2012, 20:18: Message edited by: Autenrieth Road ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IconiumBound:
Aren't the verses in play (John 10:40-42) consistent with the author's intent to argue for Jesus' authenticity over other competitors like John who still had followers even at the time of the Gospel's writing?

There must be something in this, given the space John (the author) devotes to John (the Baptist). Whether the author was concerned about the following that the Baptist had and saw this as competition, I'm not sure. It may well be – Josephus at any rate gives John a favourable write up and more space than Jesus* in his works, though that be because Jesus' death was associated with Rome (something Josephus may not have wanted to emphasise) whereas the Baptist could be safely fobbed off on Herod.

However, does John's gospel feel antagonistic to the Baptist? We do have the opening “He himself was not the light, he came only as a witness to the light” in 1:8, which might be a put down of sorts. Then there's the “[Jesus] must become greater and I must become less” in 3:30. On the other hand, there is a more positive “...all that John said about [Jesus] was true” quote at 10:41. Perhaps the author John was picking up on the idea of the human witness acting to validate Jesus' testimony, something in addition to the signs that reflected God's support, so that there are two witnesses available.

Anyway, chapter 11:2. John the author refers to something he hasn't recorded yet in his gospel – Mary the one who poured perfume on Jesus' feet. This receives formal entry at 12:3, but John knows his audience was already familiar with the story; it must have been a popular part of the gospel teaching during the years between Jesus' resurrection and John finally putting quill to parchment.


* There are far too many names beginning with 'J' around here!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I'd forgotten that the foot-washing comes later. Which could suggest simply that they knew the oral tradition, or that they'd already had an earlier draft of the gospel - without the Lazarus story in.

quote:
So the sisters sent a message to Jesus, 'Lord, he whom you love is ill'. But when Jesus heard it, he said, 'This illness does not lead to death; rather it is for God's glory, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it.'
[John 11.3-4]

Which is a pretty astonishing response!

(a) His close friends are worried about their brother's illness. He tells them (through the messenger) or us (through the gospel) that it's not about death, it's about his own glorification!

(b) If death is not the ultimate outcome, why raise the spectre of death here? For some Christians, John's explanation (wait for it!) is a perfectly satisfactory answer.

Note the way the sisters address Jesua as "Lord".

"...he whom you love..." Sonme Christians take this as an indication that Lazarus was, or may have been, the "Beloved Disciple" who appears briefly, later in the gospel. It's arguable, but it's a minority view, and a matter unlikely, without further evidence, to lead to a conclusion that satisfies everybody.

P.S. Autenreith Road. What a task you have ahead of you! I wish you well. I hope you're a fast reader!

[ 18. December 2012, 16:10: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on :
 
quote:
P.S. Autenreith Road. What a task you have ahead of you! I wish you well. I hope you're a fast reader!
I've read 8 pages: 1/3 of the way there.

Regarding Jesus bringing up death, I think this is another example of the Evangelist either foreshadowing things (in the positive view) or not quite being able to order his materials sequentially in a way that makes total narrative sense (in the negative view), or he's writing for an audience that already has heard these stories, so he can use all these ideas and bits without concern for strict narrative continuity (in the neutral view). This is like how he mentions Mary being the one to anoint Jesus' feet with nard, even though that story hasn't come up yet in the Gospel, or indeed how very early on in the Gospel he starts talking about the meaning of Jesus' death and resurrection (or something like that... I'll have to go back and find the precise reference that gave me that impression).

[ 18. December 2012, 17:05: Message edited by: Autenrieth Road ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, yes and yes. We could go off in all sorts of directions trying to grapple with consistency, historicity, and so on. Even where there is no self-advertised propaganda, as there is in John, we often have to treat stories gently. The best ones come down the ages virtually intact, and become sacrosanct. Even the pagan ones! I'm not sure how to navigate across to Oremus without losing this, so I'll be back later with the next verse or two.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
This Lazarus story has a look-back feel to the healing of the blind man in chapter 9 with the statement about purpose. In Lazarus' case the sickness is not for death, but concerns God's glory; in chapter 9 the blindness was not about sin, but so that God's work could be displayed.

I'm relieved to see that these two healing fall out so nicely on both sides of the central chapter 10!

Next two verses:
quote:

Jesus loved Martha, her sister, and Lazarus. When he heard that Lazarus was sick, he remained in the place where he was for two more days.

John 11:5-6

English translations are divided on whether to make verse 6 a consequent of v5, or oppositional. Is Jesus' staying away a result of the fact that he loved, or a contrast?
 
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on :
 
Maybe v.5 is meant to be reassuring: Jesus loved them, so don't be frightened by the unsettling thing you're about to hear in v.6.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, it could be. Verse 5 cuts into John's narrative flow somewhat; in his book he tends to use a string of verbs in the aorist tense to indicate a series of consecutive actions, but the “Jesus loved...” occurs in the imperfect tense. It breaks things up and rather indicates that John is signalling a little aside for his audience – some information they need to know related to, but apart from, the sequential action. It's the second time he's done this in these first few verses of chapter 11. The first time was to alert the reader to who Mary was in verse 2.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Then after this he said to the disciples, "Let us go to Judaea again." 8 The disciples said to him, "Rabbi, the Jews were just now trying to stone you, and are you going there again?"
[John11.7-8]

Never mind the over-literal "just now". What they mean is "not long ago". Although Jesus is now preaching and healing among friends and gathering more supporters, the memory of the mob is still very clear in the minds of the disciples.

Jesus' reply looks back to former references to blindness but there seems to be something missing between verses 8 and 9. Perhaps somneone was suggesting "Look if you must go back, we'd better do it quietly, at night."

[ 02. January 2013, 14:29: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on :
 
Here is John 1:9-10 so we can understand pimple's reference to v.9:
quote:
Jesus answered, ‘Are there not twelve hours of daylight? Those who walk during the day do not stumble, because they see the light of this world. But those who walk at night stumble, because the light is not in them.’
I don't think something is necessarily missing. I don't think Jesus is talking about literal day and night. I can't quite put my finger on what he is talking about, but something like "we'll be OK because God (metaphorically, light) is with us.". There may also be a rebuke intended for the disciples who have so quickly forgotten the implicit request from Mary and Martha to come help Lazarus.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you for putting up the new verses. I don't have any idea what Jesus means, but I doubt it's a rebuke. It was his idea to wait for a couple of days in the first place. And I still do not understand the reason for that, either.

He must have been aware of the disciples' understandable fear. Perhaps John is showing us here that Jesus had no fear himself, and was giving them some encouragement to go back.

We're getting scant help here from all those who claim to love this gospel - but it is a busy time of year. Maybe when all the turkey curry has been disposed of...?

[ 07. January 2013, 14:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on :
 
I thought the reason to wait a few days was so Lazarus would die, and then Jesus could show God's glory all the more by raising a dead man to life, rather than merely healing the sick man he would have found if he didn't wait.

Aren't the signs in John given "so that you might believe" (not sure where I'm quoting that from precisely, but it sounds Biblical -- maybe it's from the evangelist's comments at the end of John?)? So raising a dead man to life is a big huge whopping mega-sign, and Jesus waits a few days so he can deliver that sign. Doesn't he say something like that himself after raising Lazarus (or maybe before raising Lazarus)?

[Hmmm, looking at John and can't find either of those in quite the form I thought was there. But I still basically think what I said, so do you agree or am I wrong?]

[This comment is about the delay in going back, not about the 12 days of sunlight comment. I'll have to think more about what you said about the 12 days of sunlight; I'm not sure which I read it as, a rebuke or encouragement.]

[ 07. January 2013, 20:09: Message edited by: Autenrieth Road ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
About the two day wait--I can't quite work out the math, but I'm pretty sure from the data given that if Jesus had in fact set out immediately, he still would have arrived after Lazarus' death. Lazarus is four days dead by the time Jesus gets there--so am I right to take it that if he'd set out as soon as the message reached him, he'd have been there at two days past death? Still dead, anyway.

I suspect but can't prove that Jesus knew Lazarus had already died at the time the message came, and chose to wait longer at least partly because he knew things couldn't get any worse. Also, possibly, as some commentators say, that people might have taken a more immediate revivification as less powerful. I know the Vietnamese don't officially and publicly give up hope of a revival until the headband ceremony on the third day--perhaps something similar was in play.

As for the twelve hours of daylight, he does seem to be assuring them that they will be safe. But I suspect the daylight he speaks of is either saying "We are doing my Father's will, and any time you do that you are on the right track and not stumbling around in the darkness" or possibly "I am the light of the world, and while you walk with me, you are walking safely in the daylight. Don't be afraid."
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
But the disciples were not convinced about the safety, as Thomas and the disciples seemed resigned to their loyalty resulting in their death as well (v 16)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
True, but that's the disciples for you ( and me too)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK -to tie in some of the points above, here are verses 12-16:

quote:
The disciples said to him, "Lord, if he has fallen asleep, he will be all right." 13 Jesus, however, had been speaking about his death, but they thought that he was referring merely to sleep. 14 Then Jesus told them plainly, "Lazarus is dead. 15 For your sake I am glad that I was not there, so that you may believe [answers AR's query].But let us go to him." 16 Thomas, who was called the Twin, said to his fellow disciples, "Let us also go, that we may die with him.
Thomas the doubter, Thomas the realist. Thomas the faithful. Thomas the brave. Thomas behaves like a normal human being. Jesus does not. But John is hardly concerned, at times, with Jesus as a human being, or so it appears. He is only concerned with Jesus as God. Every strange thing that Jesus thinks, says, or does in this story can be explained by that simple phrase. He was God. End of problem. End of dialogue. Comments?

[ 08. January 2013, 15:39: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
OK -to tie in some of the points above, here are verses 12-16:

quote:
The disciples said to him, "Lord, if he has fallen asleep, he will be all right." 13 Jesus, however, had been speaking about his death, but they thought that he was referring merely to sleep. 14 Then Jesus told them plainly, "Lazarus is dead. 15 For your sake I am glad that I was not there, so that you may believe [answers AR's query].But let us go to him." 16 Thomas, who was called the Twin, said to his fellow disciples, "Let us also go, that we may die with him.
Thomas the doubter, Thomas the realist. Thomas the faithful. Thomas the brave. Thomas behaves like a normal human being. Jesus does not. But John is hardly concerned, at times, with Jesus as a human being, or so it appears. He is only concerned with Jesus as God. Every strange thing that Jesus thinks, says, or does in this story can be explained by that simple phrase. He was God. End of problem. End of dialogue. Comments?
I've always read Thomas as making a faithful, loyal, confused statement here, as in "I don't understand Jesus, but let's go die with Him." But now I ' m wondering if the tone wasn' t maybe sarcastic, and the referent of "die with him" was Lazarus.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Howver that may be, I'd like to respond to the " inhuman Jesus" thing ( if I can call it that) . It seems to me rather tgat John shows us Jesus as a fully healthy, strong, confident, un-marred human being-- in fact, as what any of us could be, would be, if it were not for the terrible warping that sin and evil have had on our nature. Occasionally I get a glimpse from afar (VERY afar) of what it would be like to live with such freedom from worry, self-doubt, murky motivations that run in self-contradictory ways..... and I suspect that this fully free humanity is what God intends to bring each of us to, given time, if we let him. I really don't see most of this portrayal as being about his godhead at all. Just that he was and is an un-self-conflicted personality, both as man and as God, and that some day we too will be just as whole--and joyful. There is a constant underwelling of joy to him.
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Autenrieth Road:

Aren't the signs in John given "so that you might believe" (not sure where I'm quoting that from precisely, but it sounds Biblical -- maybe it's from the evangelist's comments at the end of John?)? So raising a dead man to life is a big huge whopping mega-sign, and Jesus waits a few days so he can deliver that sign. Doesn't he say something like that himself after raising Lazarus (or maybe before raising Lazarus)?

[Hmmm, looking at John and can't find either of those in quite the form I thought was there. But I still basically think what I said, so do you agree or am I wrong?]

I think the idea you're getting at is expressed in both places: just before raising Lazarus "Jesus raised His eyes, and said, “Father, I thank You that You have heard Me. I knew that You always hear Me; but because of the people standing around I said it, so that they may believe that You sent Me” (John 11: 41, 42). He seems to make it pretty clear here that He prays aloud before raising Lazarus so that the onlookers will explicitly see the miracle as a sign of God's power demonstrated through Jesus.

The theme of Jesus performing miracles as "signs" to inspire belief is mentioned several times in John and is made quite explicit in the authorial or editorial comment at the end of chapter 20:

"Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name" (John 20: 30-31).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
When Jesus arrived, he found that Lazarus had already been been in the tomb four days.
[John.11.17]

Well, not immediately. John's anticipating the discovery a few verses on. The discovery, that is, that Lazarus had been buried. As LC pointed out, the chronology indicates that Jesus probably knew that Lazarus was dead at the outset - so perhaps his reassuring "this illness is not unto death" was a hint that no burial was yet necessary. Someone elso has already pointed out that there was a tradition that death could not be "certified", so to speak, for at least three days. Barnabas Lindars, SSF, in his Behind the Fourth Gospel [London, SPCK, 1971] suggests that this might have been John's answer to anyone who thought that Jesus was not truly dead before his "revival".

Lindars provides a cogent, plausible analysis of John's treatment of the Lazarus story, echoing - or rather, foreshadowing, many of the points made by shippies above. He is very well attuned to John's qualities as a dramatic writer, and points out that in several place in the Lazarus story he deliberately slows the action down, delaying the final outcome. This is essentially because it's not so much about Lazarus, whose actions after the miracle are largely ignored, but about the importance of the story in leading up to and reinforcing the account of Jesus' own resurrection.

So here, we are told he discovers that Lazarus is already buried - but his emotional reaction to this is delayed in order to allow other important material to be interposed, further cranking up the excitement.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Given the climate, immediate burial was I believe the norm.
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
Regarding the motives and/or reasons for Jesus' delaying his arrival and or Lazurus' state of decomposition, we must also consider the writer's main purpose of the whole gospel which I see as trying to revive/establish/promote the Resurrection as the crux of the whole story.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Given the climate, immediate burial was I believe the norm.

Yes, that makes sense. Better safe than sorry. But I think the "four day rule" - if there is/was such a thing, might refer to the time at which a person might be certified dead "officially" rather than when they can be buried. So my suggestion that Jesus was attempting to delay the burial may be totally wrong.

Iconium bound: yes, got it in one, I reckon -
and most (?) christian scholars would agree.
I'm not entirely convinced, however, that this is the main, or only, importance of the story for the (wo)man in the street.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Er, no, I'm not about to post some weird theory!

quote:
Now Bethany was near Jerusalem, some two miles [Gk:1stadia] away, 19 and many of the Jews had come to Martha and Mary to console them about their brother.
[John 11.18-19]

At last, a positive comment about the Jews! (I take it John doesn't mean, as he does elsewhere, "the Jewish authorities") [Two face]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think he does, actually. Presumably ALL of their visitors were Jews in the ethnic/religious sense, so the designation being used only for people from Jerusalem suggests to me that he's trying to indicate VIPs, folks who were bigwigs at the Temple and in other religious and governmental capacities.

My understanding is that Mary, Martha and Lazarus were fairly well-to-do and socially connected. (They must have been well-off if they could serve as hosts for 13 guys on a regular basis.) And they live just outside of Jerusalem. So yeah, I would expect that the big noises among the Pharisees and Saduccees centered out of the holy city would be wending their way Bethany-ward, to make appropriate ceremonial visits. (Notice that they are there on the fourth day, not the first, which is decent timing for the community leaders to show up. The first shock is over (when you'd only want family and the closest friends) and people have had some time to cook, clean, and prepare for crowds of visitors. I admit I'm drawing on my knowledge of Vietnamese funeral visiting customs here, but I suspect it's much the same, timing-wise.)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's an interesting viewpoint. Later on we discover them to be a mixed bag, some sympathetic, some sneering, so you may be right. Perhaps both friends and big nobs.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
when Martha heard that Jesus was coming, she went out and met him, while Mary stayed at home.21 Martha said to Jesus, "Lord, if you had been here, my brother would not have died.22 But even now I know that God will give you whatever you ask of him."
[John 11.20-22]

Here as elsewhere the women act independently. but I've forgotten where to find the passage where one of them does the washing up amd complains that the other just sits and listens to Jesus. [Help]

When Martha addresses Jesus as "Lord" is it just courtesy, or an act of worship?

Martha's "but..." sounds like moral blackmail, but perhaps she can't bring herself to ask him outright to bring Lazarus back to life. She presumably knew of similar situations where he had done that.

[ 25. January 2013, 15:13: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Here as elsewhere the women act independently. but I've forgotten where to find the passage where one of them does the washing up amd complains that the other just sits and listens to Jesus. [Help]

Here it is.

Moo
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I have nothing textual to go on, but I suspect that the reason Mary stays home is because while both women are deeply hurt by Jesus' turning up late, Martha is the kind of person who expresses that in action and words ("Lord, if you had been here..." etc.) while Mary withdraws until prodded. We have both types in my family, so I'm familiar with both responses.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
Yes. While the words of Mary and Martha to Jesus are identical, I imagine them spoken in two very, very different tones of voice. I have always pictured Martha's as an accusation and Mary's as a statement of faith. But it could be the other way around.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Funny, cause the opposite way is more or less how I see it. I imagine Mary having a major crisis of faith (and staying home out of hurt when he turns up finally) while her sister hears the news, thinks "Well FINALLY! Better late than never" and sets out to meet him, already half-mollified that he's at least had the decency to turn up, if all too late. I suspect at least one sister had to stay home no matter what, with all the visitors in the house. Not polite to just get up and leave (and when Mary finally does, the visitors decide she is understandably overcome by grief and heading for the tomb!).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Jesus ssid to her [Martha], "Your brother will rise again." 24 Martha said to him, "I know that he will rise again at the resurrection on the last day."
[John11.23-24]

Dialogue sounds a bit clunky here, but no matter. Martha's belief was shared by many but not all Jews, I think. Or was it only the Samaritams who did't believe in resurrection?
She's talking about the day of judgment, I guess "the Day of the Lord" that crops up in the OT. There's a lot of apocalyptic reference in the NT, but where does this particular
phrase - the last day - originate?

If it's not too greedy to grab another couple of verses while I'm here:

quote:
25 Jesus said to her, I am the resurrection [and the life]. Those who believe in me, even though they die, will live, 26 and everyone who lives and believes in me will never die. Do you believe this?
Verse 25 is quoted at the beginning of many a funeral, and guarantees eternal life to the believer. The second sentence of verse 26 seems to offer the added comfort that the belief may be by proxy. If Martha believes, Lazarus will walk. But perhaps there is still the sine qua non for (the risen) Lazarus that he must also believe for the promise to remain?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK - assuming silence signiffies assent (of sorts):
quote:
27. She [Martha] said to him, "Yes, Lord, I believe that you are the Messiah, the Son of God, the one coming into the world." 28. When she had said this, she went back and called her sister Mary, and told her privately, The Techer is here and is calling for you,"
Is verse 27 meant to hark back to 3.1-2, wher Nicodemus, and important Pharisee, comes to Jesus by night (thus showing himself, in John's cosmology, not to be on the side of the angels)?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
T save you scrolling back, Nicodemus declares, "Rabbi, we know that you are a teacher who has come from God..."

Being picky, is this a satisfactory translation? The literal word-order in Greek is "...you have come from God teacher." Without any inflection of the word teacher, or any preposition, I'd be inclined to put a comma betwee God and teacher.

But there's no ambiguity with Martha. She uses the definite article, which suggests that The Teacher is a formal title. AFAIK, nowhere else in the bible is this title used as a synonym for Christ/Messiah. But I may be wrong.

I certainly remember the title being used by a particular community whose apocalyptic expectations were expressed in this way, but |I'll be blowed if I can remember who it was. [Help]
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
But there's no ambiguity with Martha. She uses the definite article, which suggests that The Teacher is a formal title. AFAIK, nowhere else in the bible is this title used as a synonym for Christ/Messiah. But I may be wrong.

Do I understand correctly that you are you suggesting that addressing Jesus as Teacher is equivalent to addressing him as Messiah? Jesus is frequently called Teacher throughout the Synoptics, both directly and indirectly, so it must have been a common title for him during his ministry. I think when Martha refers to "the Teacher" when speaking to Mary, it's just that they were used to calling him that. (And that saying "The Messiah is calling for you" might have been a little confusing at that point.)

[ 11. February 2013, 03:39: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
And I am not sure that "The Teacher", although referring to Jesus, is used as a synonym for Christ/Messiah.
Does it indicate that she does not believe He is the Messiah and that raising Lazarus will give her the belief? She believes that God will grant Jesus what he asks, but perhaps that is not up to seeing Jesus as the resurrection and the life, i.e. being equal with God, The Word, I Am. Although Martha declared in v 27 Jesus to be the Christ, later in v40 Jesus implies a lack of belief.


Could this be like the theme in Mark where the disciples declarations of faith and understanding are immediately followed by a story of their lack of faith? (e.g. Mark 8:29-33, 10:32-45)

Re:
quote:
Verse 25 is quoted at the beginning of many a funeral, and guarantees eternal life to the believer. The second sentence of verse 26 seems to offer the added comfort that the belief may be by proxy. If Martha believes, Lazarus will walk. But perhaps there is still the sine qua non for (the risen) Lazarus that he must also believe for the promise to remain?
Or does this mean that Lazarus was believing and therefore will rise?

Do you know if the John's Day/Night symbolism regards death/asleep as night? I am new to this?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Mamacita. Many thanks for the link - I must be missing a whole page from my very old, old-fashioned concordance!

Latchkey Kid. Yes, a complete misapprehension on my part, I think. But the symbolism in John I was alluding to is not day/night as life/death, but day/night as good/evil. It's a matter picked up by some dog-in-a-manger clerics: Nicodemus comes at night, and Joseph of Arimathea worshipd in secret. Ergo both of them are worthy to be disparaged by said clerics who are much braver and open about their faith John is a much-abused writer.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What brought that irrelevant grump on? The "Teacher" reference I was thinking of was the "Teacher of Righteousness". Google it if you like, but I think it's a red herring.

The other "teacher" problem was caused by using Cruden's Concordance. A quick glance through KJV confirmed my suspicion that it translates didaskalos more often than not as "master".

In the Latin I guess it would be "dominus" which can be lord, master, or teacher, though the later might more often be "magister" in Latin.
But still, magistrates are there to teach us a lesson we won't forget, just as gurus and didacts everywhere.

It may be useful to remember that Jesus, though described as "teacher" in modern translations, didn't invite discussion. When people got things wrong, he scolded them, sometimes with sarcasm.

So I'm not sure how far modern christians are allowed to interrogate their "holy" scriptures.

Probably worth a thread on its own. Back to Lazarus now?

[ 16. February 2013, 10:08: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
The discussion has slid pretty quickly from verse to verse, with a bit of jumping-ahead, so I'm not clear exactly where we are. I think we've finished with v. 28 "When she had said this, she went back and called her sister Mary, and told her privately, ‘The Teacher is here and is calling for you." If I'm correct that puts us at John 11:29-31
quote:
29And when she heard it, she got up quickly and went to him. 30Now Jesus had not yet come to the village, but was still at the place where Martha had met him. 31The Jews who were with her in the house, consoling her, saw Mary get up quickly and go out. They followed her because they thought that she was going to the tomb to weep there.
Perhaps I'm biting off too big a chunk of text here, but it seems all of a piece to me. I see two things going on: (1) Mary's swift and silent, no-excuses response to the news that Jesus is calling for her. She goes, without explanation, such that (as Lamb Chopped pointed out upthread) the others misunderstood her motivation, or at least that's the way John paints it. It's as if Mary knows there's more going on here, that Jesus is going to offer her something, she doesn't know what, but there's an act of faith in the rapidity of her response. (2) I think the rest of the chunk exists pretty much to move the action forward, to get all the witnesses out of the house and onto the path where Jesus was, in order to set up the next exchange.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Why does v 30 say "The Jews"? Who else would there be? I checked the Greek to make sure it was there.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think that here as elsewhere in John's gospel, the Jews are those who have come out from Jerusalem with mixed motives. Unlike the close friends of Mary and Martha, they just don't 'get' what's going on. The sort of remarks these people make throughout the story are a mixture of innocence, envy, and plain old rubber-necking.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I can see what you mean about clunky dialogue if you read it straight, like most people do. But for years I've been reading it like this:

quote:
Martha said to Jesus [trying to keep the accusatory tone out of her voice], “Lord, if you had been here, my brother would not have died. [deep breath, squares shoulders] But even now I know that whatever you ask from God, God will give you.”

Jesus said to her [with compassion and reassurance], “Your brother will rise again.” [as in, NOW]

Martha said to him [cautiously, in case she's misunderstanding him--she really hopes he means what she THINKS he means!]: “I know that he will rise again--in the resurrection on the last day.” [mental addition: "That's what you meant, right? You aren't getting my hopes up here for something a bit more immediate, are you?"]

Jesus said to her, [No,] “I [heavy emphasis] am the resurrection and the life. [Not the end of the world--I who am standing right here, right now, dealing with this situation!] Whoever believes in me, though he die, yet shall he live, and everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die. Do you believe this?”

[Totally confused now, but very hopeful,] She said to him, “Yes, Lord; I believe that you are the Christ, the Son of God, who is coming into the world.” [Mental addition: "At least I know that much, whatever else you're going on about. And boy, I hope it's what I think you're planning to do. Must.get.Mary.now..."]


 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Then, as I mentioned a while ago about "the Jews" who had come to comfort them--I do think these are the Jerusalem bigwigs, who doubtless had social/economic contacts with this probably well-to-do household and are there to pay their respects. Nice, decent people, who are a bit surprised when Mary takes off for parts unknown but are going to do the neighborly thing and accompany her, rather than leave a grieving woman to her own devices.
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
Why does v 30 say "The Jews"? Who else would there be? I checked the Greek to make sure it was there.

Some translators (NT Wright, for one) translate "the Jews" in John as "the Judeans" -- in contrast to the Galileans, as Jesus and most of his followers would have been.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Trudy Scrumptious:
Some translators (NT Wright, for one) translate "the Jews" in John as "the Judeans" -- in contrast to the Galileans, as Jesus and most of his followers would have been.

Yes, the Greek word can mean Judean or Jew.

I have the impression that in John's gospel, it usually means Judean.

Moo

[ 19. February 2013, 12:06: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That makes sense - and certainly makes reading the gospel easier. Perhaps we've got so used to the disciples, post crucifixion, hiding in the upper room "for fear of the Jews" that it's difficult to accustom oneself to the more awkard -sounding "for fear of the Judaeans".
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
That makes sense - and certainly makes reading the gospel easier. Perhaps we've got so used to the disciples, post crucifixion, hiding in the upper room "for fear of the Jews" that it's difficult to accustom oneself to the more awkard -sounding "for fear of the Judaeans".

They may have been hiding for fear of the Judeans. The religious authorities were Judean, and the disciples were Galilean.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, but....
quote:
32 When Mary came where Jesus was and saw him, she knelt at his feet and said to him, "Lord, if you had been here, my brother would not have died." 33 When Jesus saw her weeping, and the Jews who came with her also weeping, he was greatly disturbed in spirit and deeply moved. 34 He said, "where have you laid him?" They said to him, Lord, come and see."
[John 11.32-34]

Are these the authoritarian bigwigs weeping with Mary, just for show?

Another point. Jesus asks where they have laid Lazarus. He is very disturbed, before he asks this question. What would have been the possible options? Both Jesus and Lazarus were laid in caves, or cave-like tombs, sealed with a stone - though probably not hermetically. Would this have been a foregone conclusion in the case of Lazarus? We know, or think, that the family was well off. But Jersus is seriously worried, no?
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
I don't know about the cave/grave thing, but in John 11 I read "the Jews" as "the Judeans" just in the sense of "the people who happened to be around there, who came out to mourn with the sisters." Mary, Martha and Lazarus, as well as everyone else in Bethany and Jerusalem, would all have been "Judeans" to Jesus' Galilean followers, wouldn't they? I could see hiding "for fear of the Judeans" as indicating the Judean religious authorities, but I think in some cases it might just be a regional designation. If we accept the author of John as the apostle John, son of Zebedee, he's presented as being a Galilean like Jesus, so he would no doubt have thought of all those southerner as "the Judeans."
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
So did it remind Jesus about how when he was killed/dead, he'd be shoved into a similar one? Did that make Him more and more likely to rescue His friend? Or was Jesus, quite a few times we've seen in the Bible about how Jesus has brought people alive again.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm having trouble understanding why "authoritative bigwigs" or any other mourners wouldn't weep with Mary and the rest. I mean, they care enough to attend the (post-)funeral, so it's likely they had some sort of ties with the family, at least warm enough to show up in person rather than just sending a wreath and official condolences (or whatever the custom then was). Being a VIP doesn't rule out friendship, to put it no higher. And tears are catching.

Of course "the Jews" doesn't have to refer to leaders here, but it does seem a reasonable reading in view of the way it's used elsewhere in the Gospel.

[ 21. February 2013, 20:25: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I don't think Jesus was disturbed about the tomb, four days after death you'd expect him to be entombed already so no surprise there. I think the disturbance was a normal human reaction to the mass grief all around him. He loves this family, and it hurts to watch people you love mourn, even if you know that it will all come right in an hour or two. Heck, speaking from a human point of view, perhaps Jesus regretted the extra pain his delay had caused them, avoidably or not. I'd be plenty disturbed by that!

But he does have to ask "Where?" because Jerusalem is surrounded by graveyards, and there's no particular reason Jesus would know where the family's tomb was.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Or what sort of tomb it was? Jesus as God knows that Lazarus will live. But wouldn't Jesus as a human being wonder how that was to happen - if Lazarus was six feet under the earth?

If he had no concerns of this sort, his humanity is difficult to appreciate - a common problem in John's gospel - and with decent theologians, not just weirdos like me!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
I have the impression that bodies were normally laid in caves. After enough time had passed that only the bones remained, they were put into clay containers called ossuaries.

Moo
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
That is my understanding as well.

I'm not sure how much Jesus would have dwelt on thoughts of his own burial. Clearly he knew he would die, by assassination or execution most likely. The bodies of those executed by crucifixion didn't necessarily make it to a proper burial.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
They must have an awful lot of caves.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Limestone tends that way. But if they were, as I think, a wealthy family,finding or carving out a cave/tomb would be no great shakes. And you only need one per extended family.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Looking ahead, here is John 19:31-42
quote:
Now there was a garden in the place where he was crucified, and in the garden there was a new tomb in which no one had ever been laid. And so, because it was the Jewish day of Preparation, and the tomb was nearby, they laid Jesus there.
Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And back to John 11.35:
quote:
Jesus began to weep [NRSV]
Or started to cry, or broke down, or burst into tears, depending partly on your christology, I guess. Anyone who has found him/herself in the position of having to be strong for other people in the presence of one's own grief might come close to understanding what's going on here.

Numerous scholars point out that the Greek verb used here has - or might have - some connotation of anger, as well as grief - though none AFAIK has dared conjecture what or who the focus of that anger might be. I doubt if one can be certain of the etymological significance here - or whether such significance was in the mind of John.

In the list of possible translations above, I left out KJV's "Jesus wept" - surely an example of something, for once, being added in translation, by virtue of its shocking, stark simplicity.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
The NetBible notes
quote:
The Greek word used here for Jesus’ weeping (ἐδάκρυσεν, edakrusen) is different from the one used to describe the weeping of Mary and the Jews in v. 33 which indicated loud wailing and cries of lament. This word simply means “to shed tears” and has more the idea of quiet grief. But why did Jesus do this? Not out of grief for Lazarus, since he was about to be raised to life again. L. Morris (John [NICNT], 558) thinks it was grief over the misconception of those round about. But it seems that in the context the weeping is triggered by the thought of Lazarus in the tomb: This was not personal grief over the loss of a friend (since Lazarus was about to be restored to life) but grief over the effects of sin, death, and the realm of Satan. It was a natural complement to the previous emotional expression of anger (11:33). It is also possible that Jesus wept at the tomb of Lazarus because he knew there was also a tomb for himself ahead.
illustrates how sometimes it is very hard to know the face value or intended meaning of a passage.
What internal emotion led to the weeping?
What is John trying to convey to his audience?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for the note, Latchkey Kid. How would you answer your own questions? They are certainly difficult ones. And since this is a christian website, any secular conjectures would be out of order here. I do find the standard christian assertions of what Jesus must be or cannot be thinking rather narrow. Because Jesus is God, some things are not permitted to be true.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Dunno about that. I think it was simple grief for a friend, no matter how temporary his death. Anyone who thinks grief goes by logic (such as the afore-quoted commentator) needs to get out in the real world more.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Dunno about that. I think it was simple grief for a friend, no matter how temporary his death..

I think it was grief, not just for Lazarus, but also for Mary and Martha and their grieving friends. It was grief for human suffering and bereavement.

Moo
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thanks for the note, Latchkey Kid. How would you answer your own questions?

I still think it was grief over the death of Lazarus and part of the communal grief.

I think that John is communicating to us the human nature of Jesus.

I have difficulty with John in not knowing its literary style or symbolism very well and so I see it through 20c eyes, but am aware that I may be missing something. However, I do not find the NetBible quotes convincing and it seems that there is a theological agenda behind each of the possibilities.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I agree with all of you here, I think. In other places Jesus weeps "for Jerusalem" or "for humanity". Here I think it's gut-wrenching, personal grief. Some of the bystanders seem to relate to this:
quote:
36 So the Jews said, [QUOTE]"See,how he loved him!"
Others re-act less sympathetically:
quote:
37 But some of them said, "Could not he who opened the eyes of the blind man have kept this man from dying?"
- which takes a bit of unpacking. Are these the words of blissfully (or not so blissfully) ignorant people covering their embarrassment in the presence of extreme emotional pain? Or the words of a bunch of evil, unbelieving scoffers? The answer has to take into account the fact that the hiding of raw emotion was never much lauded in the middle east, and also that if they are scoffers, their question admits the healing of the blind man - so where's the scoff?

What did John mean us to think of them? What do you think of them?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think it's just that people who really hate you (Jesus, here) will stoop to cheap shots even at a funeral.
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
It's just dear John setting up the the argument that Jesus isn't really God for rebuttal by raising Lazarus; the main thrust of his Gospel.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
38 Then Jesus, deeply moved again, came to the tomb; it was a cave, and astone lay upon it. 39 Jesus said, "Take away the stone."Martha, the sister of the dead man, said to him, "Lord, there will be an odour, for he has been dead four days." [RSV]
Verse 39 here follows KJV and many other translations in the past. NRSV has a significant change:
quote:
...."Lord, already there is a stink, because he has been dead four days."
- which is a more literal translation (the
Greek being "Lord, now he smells, for fourth it is." But is it a better one?

Both may be read as common-sense assumptions - don't open the tomb and let the stench out.
But the second can also be read by literalists as a statement of fact. In fact, Martha cannot
know there is a stench until the tomb is opened (if the stench is already apparent to everyone, there is no point in refusing to open the tomb).

The first is a plausible part of an actual event, IMHO. The second is an unnecessary and inaccurate dogmatic statement.

You may think I'm being picky. I am. As were the editors of NRSV.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Both may be read as common-sense assumptions - don't open the tomb and let the stench out.
But the second can also be read by literalists as a statement of fact. In fact, Martha cannot
know there is a stench until the tomb is opened (if the stench is already apparent to everyone, there is no point in refusing to open the tomb).

The first is a plausible part of an actual event, IMHO. The second is an unnecessary and inaccurate dogmatic statement.

You may think I'm being picky. I am. As were the editors of NRSV.

There is the possibility that some stench was apparent because the stone seal was not complete, so that it was clear that there would be much more if the tomb was opened.

If I understand you correctly, you're saying that a more literal translation is unnecessary and leads to a dogmatic statement. But is it a translator's job to anticipate and avoid dogmatic implications? Or to adapt the text to appear to be more consistent? I'd much prefer to know what the original text actually says.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, perhaps I'm being too picky! But before the recent not-very-subtle change in NRSV there was, I think, a general concensus that "No. Please don't. He stinks already - four (days)" was best translated as "There will be a stink." The reason being that literal translations aren't always best. What the speaker meant is sometimes lost that way, and it's the meaning that counts.

My beef is, if you want to believe that what climbed out of the tomb was a stinking corpse
(and NRSV does say "the dead man" came out, which is just plain silly) then that's nothing for me to argue with. Your beliefs are your own.
Just don't say you believe it "because the bible says so". It doesn't. Not in the Greek, anyway.

I don't wish to talk down the miracle itself.
It's a wonder to me that the synoptic writers
hadn't heard about it - or chose not to include it.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
... literal translations aren't always best. What the speaker meant is sometimes lost that way, and it's the meaning that counts.

I agree completely, but ...

quote:
My beef is, if you want to believe that what climbed out of the tomb was a stinking corpse
(and NRSV does say "the dead man" came out, which is just plain silly) then that's nothing for me to argue with.

... if the meaning of the original text really is that "the dead man" came out, then I want to know that. It might seem silly, or it might just be the way the text identifies which man came out (i.e. "the man who was dead" as opposed to any other man there). But I don't want a translator deciding to adjust the meaning based on ideas such as the text should never be silly, or that it needs to be more consistent. Ideas like that should be applied in our hermeneutics as we decide what the text means to us.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Trouble is, you can't expect a piece of living language to behave in a wholly logical fashion. If this story happened today, I could easily say in English "And the dead man came out" meaning "and the formerly-dead-but-not-now, Oy, you-know-what-I'm-talking-about! man came out"--and nobody would bat an eye. In fact, we start screaming "Pedant" on the ship when someone reads our posts this literally. So I think we've got to cut John's usage some slack too.

And translators know that. I mean, really. If you're going to translate everything with dead dictionary dullness, word-to-word across the language barrier, with no adjustments made to idiom and no attention paid to circumstance, phenomenology, or metaphor, then what will you do with all the OT texts where God gets angry? At least, that's how our Bibles translate it, but the literal Hebrew (which is an understood idiom!) says "God's nose got hot." Wouldn't you love to hear someone read that out on Sunday morning?

I would. I'd pay good money to hear it. [Devil]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It wasn't John I was complaining at, but the NRSV. And yes, there's plenty of room for different nuances in translation, so, for as long as I can manage it (don't hold your breath!) my pedant's hat now comes off.

Gotta go now. Library computer time is running out. Can somebody else put the next verse up please?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Pimple, I was actually replying to W. Hyatt. but no matter. I keep my pedant's hat handy at all times (it comes with a folding pack thingie, mostconvenient!) but I just meant to agree with you.

Will slink off to work now.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Sorry, Lamb Chopped, I wasn't sure if your penultimate post was replying to me and I'm still not sure whether we agree on this point or not.

I do understand that a translator's job requires a lot of knowledge and skill, and even the best translations cannot be completely faithful to the original text. Adjustments to the original are constantly necessary just to get things to fit in the target language and make any kind of sense at all. I do happen to have a stronger preference for more literal translations than most people*, but I don't take issue with less literal translations. The only thing I take issue with is a translator going beyond finding a good fit and adding even more adjustments because the result is not consistent or serious enough to suit the translator's expectations. In general**, the goal should be to produce in the minds of the target audience something as close as possible to what would have been in the minds of the original audience (to the extent that it can still be known).

If the original text says "the dead man came out" and "the dead man came out" is as good a way as any to translate it into English, then I'm not for deciding that the original should have been more consistent and translating it as "the man who had been dead came out." If the original is ambiguous, inconsistent, or silly, then I'd like the translation to preserve that as much as it can, within the general constraints of good translation.

I guess the main point I'm making is that I don't want translators to "fix" the original as part of their translation.

* Actually, I would like to see something like "his nose burned," but I also recognize that that would not constitute a good translation for a general audience.

** That is, unless there is an explicitly stated goal to do something other than a basic, up-to-date translation.

[ 12. March 2013, 03:41: Message edited by: W Hyatt ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Actually, "His nose got hot" worked great for the bunch of silly college students that we were!

I think we're pretty much in agreement. The question will be where to draw the line between necessary translation adjustments and unnecessary messing around, and it'll be different in every case. And your sense of your reading audience will play into your choices.

(I just got a copy of my new book manuscript back from one of the people I asked to read and mark it--this is someone with a high school ed and a wee bit of college, whom I was hoping would stand in for "Everyreader". I was taken aback to realize that some of the ordinary English constructions that come to me naturally when writing pop theology were so foreign to her that she marked them wrong. Not unclear or too difficult--just plain wrong. And I thought I was writing at a 12 year old reading level already!) [Waterworks]

[ 12. March 2013, 11:53: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Moving on:
quote:
Jesus said to her,"Did I not tell you that if you believed, you would see the glory of God?" 41 So they took away the stone. And Jesus looked upward and said, "Father, I thank you for having heard me...
and then goes on to explain to his Father why he is thanking him!!

quote:
...42 I knew that you always hear me, but I have said this for the sake of the crowd standing here, so that they may believe that you sent me." 43 When he had said this, he cried with a loud voice, "Lazarus, come out"
[John 11.40-43] Without which instruction, Lazarus might have been inclioned to stay where he was. Whom could he trust? He was ill. Now he is conscious and discovers that he has been buried. But the voice of his friend assures him that it is safe to come out into the open.

There is a strange strand of christian thought which believes that although Lazarus died, he continued to be fully conscious in some way. The renowned poet Elizabeth Bishop is one of several people I have read, wondering if Lazarus really wanted to come back - presumably from heaven, where his immortal soul watched the whole scene.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
According to one of the websites I trawled through recently while researching, it was thought by some that the soul hovered around the body for three days before being resurrected in paradise. The body must therefore be treated with respect, as the soul would be aware of all that happened to it, having not yet severed its attachment. (I'll try to find the site again and provide the link if anyone's interested).

This may throw some light on the four day time scale here, and add to the significance of the miracle?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Work has taken me away from base for a while so I've a fair bit of catching up to do – did Jesus just go and raise someone from the dead while I was away? Honestly. You turn your back for one minute...

While we've been reading John a small chunk at a time I've been keeping half an eye out for the “post-peak” thingy – seeing if he has indeed arranged his material around chapter 10 as a high point in his plot. If he did then we are going down the far slope where (hopefully) he would be throwing more light on some themes he outlined in his introduction (in chapter 1).

So...

I was interested to see if that strange statement in 11:9f (“Are there not twelve hours in a day? If anyone walks around in the daytime, he does not stumble, because he sees the light of this world. But if anyone walks around at night, he stumbles, because the light is not in him.” [NET Bible]) could be illuminated by what Jesus says before chapter 10. Back in 9:4f he is recorded as saying, “We must perform the deeds of the one who sent me as long as it is daytime. Night is coming when no one can work. As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”

Light and dark, of course, is a theme from the introduction, with Jesus as the light that the darkness cannot master. In chapter 9 Jesus is about to perform a healing (a similar state to chapter 11) and the issue of misunderstanding among the disciples provokes Jesus' response (again, just like Thomas in chapter 11). Then it was blindness and sight at stake; with Lazarus it is life and death. Perhaps John is telling us that the disciples were pretty fogged up at the time and just couldn't see what Jesus was on about. Theirs was a blindness of sorts and after chapter 10 John wants to emphasise that such a blindness will lead to death, if not checked. The link between chapters 9 and 11 here is made plain by John in 11:37 (“But some of them [the Jewish leaders] said, “This is the man who caused the blind man to see! Couldn’t he have done something to keep Lazarus from dying?”).

Then we have the resurrection theme. In 11:24 Martha replies to Jesus' statement (“Your brother will come back to life again”) with “I know that he will come back to life again in the resurrection at the last day.” If Jesus had concurred here, then we would indeed have a nice passage for funerals where the sense is often understood to be referring to some undefined point way off when, but that is not John's point because he immediately records Jesus' response – one of those 'No! You idiot! Pay attention!' moments: “I am the resurrection and the life. The one who believes in me will live even if he dies, and the one who lives and believes in me will never die. Do you believe this?”

We could be back in chapter 8 territory here; Jesus has already made the point that if a person keeps his word then that person will never, ever, see death (8:51). Those who are not loyal to Jesus will die and cannot be with him (8:21-24). I think John's point in both chapters 8 and 11 is to stress that the loyal one is already resurrected; at the point of death for the current body that person immediately passes into full life with Jesus. There is no 'last day' for those people – no waiting.

Martha didn't get it, despite Jesus' emphatic reply. She thought she understood / believed / saw the light, but she was still in fog when she complained about the likely stench in the tomb. So Jesus had to explain, “Didn’t I tell you that if you believe, you would see the glory of God?”

There's something very interesting about John's work at this point. Clearly he believes that Jesus will be involved in something familiar to Christians – a 'last day' at which Jesus' own will be raised up (see how often Jesus bangs on about this in chapter 6), but John has also kept a titbit aside to this point (chapter 11) – that Jesus' own will also be resurrected in Jesus at the point of earthly death. It's not fully realised eschatology; it's more akin to the 'already-and-not-yet' eschatology. John was clearly ahead of his time.


Raptor Eye: It would be interesting to find what the reference to the soul was in relation to. For some time I've come to question whether the Jews of Jesus' time (at least, those associated with the Jewish scriptures by then) ever really held to a concept that there was a soul independent to the body. They seem to use the term to denote the body in its fullness, in a way that clashes with the Platonic view.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
I couldn't find the site I originally saw, but I've found another which indicates much the same thing, Nigel, here.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thanks RE - I think the link may have broken somewhere along the line, but I did a bit of searching around the host site and wondered if this was an option?.

I'll have a look further a bit later...
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Thanks RE - I think the link may have broken somewhere along the line, but I did a bit of searching around the host site and wondered if this was an option?.

I'll have a look further a bit later...

Yes you've got it Nigel, and if I find the original later I'll try to post that too.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
My concern over the use of the word 'soul' in English versions arose out of two issues: firstly an awareness that the word carried a lot of Greek philosophical baggage and a questioning whether this was what the Hebrew authors had in mind, and secondly the way those authors used the Hebrew word nephesh (or its Aramaic equivalent). That Hebrew word (often translated by 'soul' in English) never refers to a disembodied entity that somehow inhabits the ultimately decaying physical body (a la Plato and Socrates). It refers to real, living and breathing creatures. Sometimes it expresses inner desires, but again the background is the vital 'breath' that is the life itself.

It's the association with 'breath' that intrigues me. It is God's breath that is breathed into humans to give them life (nephesh). These humans became breathing (= living) lives (= beings).

Ezekiel is a good example of how 'soul' may not be the best word to use in translation. Chapter 18 deals with the issue of individual responsibility for sins. The NIV translators decided to use the word 'soul' throughout this chapter. In it, the author rebuts the theory that judgement and punishment on one individual rebounds on others, as exemplified by the proverb: “The fathers eat sour grapes, but it's the children's teeth that are set on edge.” God counters this with (18:4):-
quote:

“All living-beings [= nephesh, in plural] belong to me. The life-being [= nephesh] of the father, the life-being [= nephesh] of the children; they all belong to me. The life-being [= nephesh] of the one who sins – that one will die.”

The NIV (and other translations using 'soul') trips over itself here, because it is not possible to be consistent. Either the 'soul' of the sinner dies – which makes a mockery of the Platonic concept of 'soul' – or the sinner dies, the real, life-and-blood sinner. If the latter is correct, then there is no place for a 'soul' in that passage.

I checked once on the number of times that 'soul' was used in bible translation and found that it has been diminishing over the years. For example, the KJV has 432 instances of 'soul', but the New KJV has only 302. Perhaps translators have become aware of the issue.

This brings us back to John, I guess, because the next question would be: Did the NT writers have the same view of nephesh as their forefathers? If they did, then a starting point for translating the Greek word psyche (itself a common translation of nephesh) in the NT would be to recognise that it connoted life in its fullness, rather than a distinct Platonic entity struggling to escape its corruptible captor, the fleshly body.

An interesting exercise would be to go through the entire bible and replace the word 'soul' with something more akin to 'living being' and see if that produces any anomalies. Spare time, any living-being?
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Nigel, (with whom I have frequently crossed swords) has been very helpful here.

I believe that the "soul" references as normally understood are far from Biblical and most people use them in a Platonic sense. We all have "immortal souls" which are distinct from mind and body.

Which does not square with the Biblical view. Immortality is "brought to life through the gospel" and is not inherent.
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:

An interesting exercise would be to go through the entire bible and replace the word 'soul' with something more akin to 'living being' and see if that produces any anomalies. Spare time, any living-being?

I personally don't have the spare time, but I will add that reading "soul" (nephesh or psyche) as "living being" is pretty standard Seventh-day Adventist practice, since we don't accept the Platonic separation of soul and body. However, we don't have our own Biblical translation so I've never looked at how the texts would read if you did that across the board. It's the reading I'm used to in Genesis 2:7 (where man doesn't "have" a soul; he "becomes" a soul) and the Ezekiel passage referenced above.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I have only just come to grips with the relatively simple task of cutting and pasting - the last few pages will be avidly devoured by one or two good friends in the days to come. Thanks to you all. Meanwhile:
quote:
The dead man came out, his hands and feet bound with strips of cloth, and his feet wrapped in a cloth...
Why just hands and feet - it must be an allusion to the hands and feet of the crucified Jesus, no? As is the cloth round the head - probably a napkin to prevent the dead man's jaw from falling - and a detail also found later in John's description of the empty tomb (J.A.T. Robinson made quite a meal of this in The Priority of John)
quote:
...Jesus said to them, "Unbind him and let him go."
[John 11.44]
"let him go" - would it be straining the metaphor too much to think of the Exodus here?

[ 20. March 2013, 14:53: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
And here I come to be a pain again... i suspect the reason for mentioning bound hands and feet is simply that these are the four limbs of the body, and saying they were bound (and presumably the attached arms and legs as well!) Gives a pretty clear pic of how difficult it was for him to move--which leads naturally to Jesus' helpfully prosaic reminder to untie him and let him go. Rather like the other occasions when folk are still gaping at the miracle and he helpfully suggests that maybe little Annie coukd do with a spot of breakfast.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
I like Lamb Chopped's take on this. We've read the story so many times it's easy to forget (at least it is for me) how completely gobsmacked the others would have been, standing there with their mouths hanging open, and probably afraid. Jesus is being both pragmatic and compassionate. And now that Lazarus is back among the living, it is the living's responsibility to care for him.

quote:
Originally posted by pimple:

quote:
...Jesus said to them, "Unbind him and let him go."
[John 11.44]
"let him go" - would it be straining the metaphor too much to think of the Exodus here?


If I were going to look for a metaphor here, it would be that death no longer binds Lazarus, and now, no longer binds any of us. It is that we are all set free from death's grasp. But it is possible that you and I are both over-egging the pudding. [Biased]

[ 21. March 2013, 14:32: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Just a quick note to say that two more threads are looking at this part of the gospel just now - "Mary nad Martha" and "An Awkward Moment" (the latter sounds like a TV candid camera game [Confused] )
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ans another quick note to apologise to Elizabeth Bishop for this:
quote:
There is a strange strand of christian thought which believes that although Lazarus died, he continued to be fully conscious in some way. The renowned poet Elizabeth Bishop is one of several people I have read, wondering if Lazarus really wanted to come back - presumably from heaven, where his immortal soul watched the whole scene.
And to hope that the real Elizabeth (in this case) - Elizabeth Jennings - has stopped turning in her grave. Jennings wrote two poems entitled Lazarus several years apart; in the first she asks the risen L why he didn't answer the questions she assumed people must have asked him, and in the second, why people didn't ask those questions in the first place. She was clearly puzzled and distressed by this. A devout catholic all her life, she was a victim of her religion's reluctance to answer questions - or even allow them to be asked. And for all her hurt, she constantly blamed herself. Jesus wept!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think we have reached here:

quote:
Many of the Jews therefore, who had come with Mary and had seen what Jesus did, believed in him. 46But some of them went to the Pharisees and told them what he had done.
[John 11.45-46]

But what had they seen, exactly? They saw a dead man come out of a cave in response to Jesus calling "Lazarus, come out!" I think that's right?
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
In recent years, I've become aware of the fact that Jesus was often accused of doing work when he healed people on the Sabbath, even though he is sometimes described as doing nothing more than speaking a few words. In order to accuse him of breaking Sabbath laws, his accusers had to implicitly acknowledge that he was in fact the one "doing" the miracles, which fact they would then ignore as a possible sign that he was operating under God's authority.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
In order to accuse him of breaking Sabbath laws, his accusers had to implicitly acknowledge that he was in fact the one "doing" the miracles, which fact they would then ignore as a possible sign that he was operating under God's authority.

That's an interesting point.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Indeed it is. The title of the Easter message in this month's parish magazine here is "Seeing is Believing".

It's a minor quibble, but seeing is seeing and nothing more. Believing involves interpreting what you are seeing. But I think John is trying, in the Lazarus story, to dot an i or cross a t in the account of Jesus' resurrection. Nobody saw Jesus leave the tomb. But people did see Lazarus do just that, which by association bolsters the more important resurrection account.
Especially bec ause of the references to the grave clothes of both of them.

[ 03. April 2013, 14:24: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I guess also that John is gearing up to his next episode - the political ramifications of Lazarus' resurrection. The mirror episode in chapter 9 (healing of a blind man) echoes what W Hyatt said above, that the Jerusalem authorities would much have preferred it if the healing had not taken place; rather the man remain blind than Jesus rock the boat. Here in chapter 11, rather Lazarus remain dead...
 
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on :
 
I’ve been thinking about the account of the resurrection of Lazarus, and it occurred to me to wonder whether the account could be viewed as an acted-out parable* of the spiritual resurrection that occurs at the time that someone comes to faith in Jesus – that is, the change that happens at the point of a non-believer becoming a believer. (A change also referred to by Jesus as being ‘born again / born from above’ earlier in John’s gospel – 3:3.)

So perhaps we can address all the classic Calvinist / Armenian questions to the account of the resurrection of Lazarus. One argument from the Calvinist POV is: how can someone who is spiritually dead respond to the gospel and decide to become spiritually alive? So, with Lazarus: how can someone who is dead hear Jesus calling to him to come out? (Total depravity.) Did Lazarus have to be brought back alive in order to hear Jesus’s call? And then, did Lazarus have any choice whether or not to obey Jesus? (Was the ‘call’ irresistible?) Could Lazarus have decided to stay where he was, refusing to come out? At this point, the fact that Lazarus had been acquainted with Jesus beforehand (John 11:1-5) starts to confuse the issue, and makes me wonder if the analogy is not as worthwhile as I first thought. However, John does point out (12:11) that many of the Jews did go away believing in Jesus because of the resurrection of Lazarus, so spiritual re-birth/resurrection was a consequence of the episode.

I haven’t continued the theme any further, but I thought that I’d bounce it into the arena for fellow Kerygmaniacs to give it a bit of a kick-around and see if you can score any goals with it, or alternatively puncture it and leave it deflated.

Angus

*That doesn’t mean that I regard the account as mythical, it can be both a historical account and have a deeper spiritual meaning.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Interesting thought, Angus!

I can see the difficulty you mention with Lazarus having already had a relationship with Jesus beforehand, which might scupper the analogy. However, if we place this episode alongside the chapter 9 incident of the man born blind, then perhaps there is something to be said for it. It would go a bit like this, I think:

Assuming John intended chapter 9 to counterbalance chapter 11 (in the sense of the blind man section balancing Lazarus's section), then we have two miracles by Jesus leading to a healing that overcomes impassable barriers for humans. Although Lazarus had known Jesus, the blind man text indicates that there was no such relationship before the healing. The blind man had been handicapped from birth (born in sin?), yet found himself healed by Jesus. Actually, the healing seems to have occurred entirely at Jesus' initiative – the blind man didn't ask for it. All he had to do was to wash – which in itself might indicate that although there was the offer of a healing and even first steps toward it, it still needed an act of faith by the blind man before the healing was completed.

So the blind man episode could lend itself to a spiritual analogy – coming to 'see.' If the link between this scene and the raising of Lazarus is valid, then we could also say that John was applying the same lesson: a man in a state that he of his own effort could do nothing to remedy; Jesus initiating a healing process; the man completing the process by responding to a command from Jesus.

Just a thought.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
- or three! I've been looking ahead at the political ramifications you mention. There could be another whole thread there, about the fourth gospel's politics (with a small 'p' as in 'pimple'......)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I suspect politics is an under-explored theme in John's work; or maybe I've been reading all the wrong books.

Having had a sneak preview of the upcoming section, I think politics is about to explode out from the text. Naughty, I know.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
OK. Take cover!

quote:
47 So the chief priests and the Pharisees called a meeting of the council, and sid, "What are we to do? This man is performing many signs. 48 If we let him go on like this, everyone will believe in him, and the Romans will come and destroy both our holy place [or 'temple' - Greek = just 'our place'] and our nation.
Possibly a justified fear? The Roman authorities (sometimes) being more tolerant than (some) early christians? The important thing being whether other beliefs posed a serious challenge to the status quo?

Politics or no politics, the Lazarus story poses problems for some christians, even today. I found this article by James Merrill Hamilton jr. a useful liberal christian overview of the issues involved - so if politics is not your coupe de the...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, the sordid world of politics arrives with a vote of censure. I suppose we shouldn't try to separate out religion from politics here in John any more than anywhere else – loyalty to land / temple and God was loyalty to state.

In support of this – and further championing the idea that chapter 10 in John is a peak – this next section has a nice mirror in chapter 8, where the Jewish authorities attempt to express their opinion of Jesus by way of a good public stoning. Then the issue appeared on the face of it to be religious: who the real children of Abraham are. The issue is broader however, because to Abraham was given the gift of the land, a very political thing, and to be denied heritage from Abraham meant denial of a right to own or manage that land.

Now on the other side of chapter 10 (and also bridging the two healings) is the fear of losing the land again. I can understand the fear: a crisis of faith is also here a crisis of policy. Jesus has created this situation: he said that the authorities did not deserve the land (chapter 8) and the authorities recognised that his ministry would create a crisis with people who were not loyal to God (the Romans). Double whammy against the norm!

I also wonder if John intended all the signs he records to be taken as political, not just religious? It is the signs that the Council regards as the catalysts for change.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks. I had never really considered the land question in that way - I assumed that the Romans would never do the Babylonian thing in Palestine, but would merely up the brutality of the occupation. But for the Jews it was once bitten, yes?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's an interesting point about Rome and Babylon. Roman policy with regard to Israel / Palestine doesn't ever seem to have included considering mass deportations. The real concern was more around keeping a compliant regime in place to ensure trade routes were secure. That was always a cheaper option for the Roman policy makers than having to relocate the population and move in to do the job themselves. Still, it's interesting that some Jewish writers would have identified Rome with being “the new Babylon.” It also highlights the concern in verse 48, that the Romans might “take away our nation (or people).” I don't think this is John necessarily putting words into mouths after an event; it feels like a real concern that authorities in Jerusalem at the time of Jesus would have had – that Rome would do some serious trampling under the foot if provoked too far.

The more I think about it, the more I can sympathise with these authorities in Jerusalem. John presents (whether he really meant to or not) a very realistic picture of the political issues Jews faced. It's good scene-setting for what follows:
quote:
John 11:49-50 NET Bible
Then one of them, Caiaphas, who was high priest that year, said, “You know nothing at all! You do not realise that it is more to your advantage to have one man die for the people than for the whole nation to perish.”

Certain lyrics from Jesus Christ Superstar come to mind.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I'm not sure whether or not that is a denial of the previous statement or just an amplification of it. It sounds like the sort of Jewish argument that starts like this:

A. Rabbi Hillel was a good man.

B. Nonsense! Rabbi Hillel was a holy man.

C. Stop talking out of your backsides, you two! Rabbi was a wise and brilliant teacher, of great and wonderful holiness, and a lot more common-sense than that Sh...

So in my view Caiaphas is dealing with their fear of the Romans rather than their fear of Jesus-worship, and offering a "practical" solution to the problem. And of course it's far more complicated than that. Over to the professional complication-unravellers...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
...and while we wait for them to come along, a note on the NET Bible caught my eye while thinking about the Numbers thread. And what does Numbers have to do with John, I hear you ask? I'm glad you asked that, because the uniqueness of the link stuck in my mind - hence this post here.

In Numbers 16:22 Moses and Aaron intercede for the naughty boys among the Israelites and urge God to reconsider his judgement that all Israel should be destroyed (apart from Moses and Aaron). They question the fairness of the judgement: "Will you be angry with the whole community when only one man sins?"

The NET commentator notes:
quote:
The appeal in the verse is that it is better for one man to die for the whole nation than the whole nation for one man (see also John 11:50)
I've no idea whether Caiaphas or John were conscious of the Numbers passage. It may be that Caiaphas believed he was invoking a brilliant biblical principle - attributed to no less an authority than Moses - when he determines that God (with a bit of human help, of course) would judge Jesus as a sinner apart from the rest of the community.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's really neat! Even though the threat in John's time would have been from the Romans, they would be seen as God's agents. So it's better for Caiaphas & Co to make a re-emptive bid for the agency, so to speak!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And the irony is, they succeed - doing the work of bringing the prophecies true, unaware how little of their action is really autonomous:

quote:
"...50 You do not understand that it is better for you to have one man die for the people than to have the whole nation destroyed." 51 He did not say this on his own, but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus was about to die for the nation, 52 and not for the nation only, but to gather into one the dispersed children of God. 53 So from that day on they planned to put him to death.
[John 11.50-53]

The "dispersed children of God" = the Diaspora?
I'm a bit lost here. Need to Google diaspora. When it was and when it wasn't.
 
Posted by A.Pilgrim (# 15044) on :
 
In response to Pimple; on verse 52 'and not for the nation only, but to gather into one the dispersed children of God.'

My guess is that John is referring to Israel when he writes 'the nation' and to the gentiles (or the elect of the gentiles, depending on your beliefs on election) when he write 'the dispersed children of God'.

This matches the pattern of Genesis 12:2-3 when God is speaking to Abraham: 'And I will make of you a great nation, and I will bless you and make your name great, so that you will be a blessing. I will bless those who bless you, and him who dishonours you I will curse, and in you all the families of the earth shall be blessed.' Blessing firstly to the tribe (later nation) of Israel, then the whole world. Just as Jesus came first to the lost sheep of the people of Israel, then to the gentiles.

Angus
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
For what it's worth, the Jews/Israelites were dispersed several times. Most notably at the Exile (from which most did not return), and then again after the fall of Jerusalem. There were Jewish communities all over the known world since, oh, Babylonian times. So John could easily have been referencing these people, or (as I think more likely) he was referring to "all whom the Lord our God will call," Jew and Gentile alike. The whole flock, not just the Jewish part of it.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks to both of you, If the fourth gospel was written after the fall of Jerusalem John might be reading that dispersion back to the time of Jesus. But the gentiles were dispersed, too, and we can't be sure exactly who he means by the children of God. Or can we? It's probably easier to figure out who it wasn't!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
“Dying for the nation” sounds like a highly-esteemed concept at the time: the memory of the Maccabean martyrdom wouldn't have been too far from mind – sometime during the same period the book of 4 Maccabees was written, reflecting on the events portrayed in 2 Maccabees. I would guess that not many readers would have raised too many eyebrows at the concept, and for John to tag the phrase to Jesus would only mean that here was another national hero who had died for the faith. Nothing too special in that, if only because there had been heroes aplenty during the years since Judas Maccabeus and more were to follow during the Jewish revolts of AD 66-70 and 135.

The interesting thing is what John does with the phrase. He develops it by adding the “children of God” expression to it. Jesus would die a martyred hero for the (Jewish) nation, yes; but not just that, he would extend his beneficial output to those diverse children of God and would gather them together.

I think the “children of God” phrase would best be understood as a reference back to 1:12-13, John's introduction, where he defines the expression as follows:
quote:
NET Bible
But to all who have received him—those who believe in his name—he has given the right to become God’s children — children not born by human parents or by human desire or a husband’s decision, but by God.

This follows hard on the heels of vv10-11 where John noted that Jesus had come to 'his own' but they had not accepted him. This feels like a tidy fit with where we are in John 11 – Jesus' 'own' are on the verge of taking the final irrevocable step of rejection.

Given the context of chapter 1, I think the phrase “children of God” must mean anyone – Jew or Greek (or barbarian) – who accepts Jesus. Those are all being gathered together “into one” according to John.

It's an important point John is making, I think. He is transcending national identity by taking Caiaphas' prophecy, accepting that it was perfectly reasonable for the high priest to prophecy like this, but interpreting it in a way Caiaphas never had in mind. The high priest wanted to save the nation and concluded that Jesus had to die for this reason. John says that the only way the nation could be saved was for Jesus to die, and further that this 'nation' was not the geographical entity centred in Jerusalem, but rather the people who chose to accept Jesus.

Some commentators say that verses 51-52 are parenthetical; even the NET Bible puts them in parentheses. This does rather give the impression that the verses are secondary, but that undersells them, I think. They are a peak in this section, explaining what's going on and linking back to the introductory themes.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think the parentheses would only indicate that these verses are John's comment on the historical facts, or on his source material. He does it pretty frequently. I don't quite see how this undersells his point - the parentheses don't work like a Shakespearian aside to hoi polloi!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, it's probably just me; when I see parentheses (like this) I (that would be me) tend to (rather than have an evidence base for) see them as indicating (probably intentionally) that the contents (inside, as it were) are not as important (parenthetical point) as the stuff outside of parentheses (not like this).

(And that's an important point to make).

Hang on. Did I just lump myself in the (parenthetical) set of Hoi Polloi???
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Killing me] [Killing me] [Killing me]
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Hang on. Did I just lump myself in the (parenthetical) set of Hoi Polloi???

As an act of solidarity with the hoi polloi, I've added this to the Quotes File!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
With the Jerusalem authorities decided on the action to take (that Jesus must die)...
quote:
John 11:54
Therefore Jesus no longer went around openly among the Jewish authorities, but went away from there to the region near the wilderness, to a town called Ephraim, and stayed there with his disciples.

Interesting little fact included by John, given that he could have marched straight from the decision to execute Jesus to the fateful Passover climax. John has emphasised that Jesus was in the habit of attending the festivals in Jerusalem, but here he has Jesus first ducking out of sight with his followers and eluding the authorities. No doubt the right time hadn't yet come for the handing over, yet John chooses not to get to that time just yet.

There doesn't seem to be any agreement on where this town called Ephraim was located, but is there any significance in the fact that Jesus is not far from a wilderness? Somewhere in the penumbra between civilisation and the wild – home of the devil and his cohorts....
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Now the Passover of the Jews was near [now where have we heard that before? and many went up from the country to Jerusalem before the Passover to purify themselves.56 They were looking for Jesus and were asking one another as they stood in the temple, "What do you think? Surely he will not come to the festival, will he?" 57 Now the chief priests nad the Pharisees had given orders that anyone who knew where he [Jesus] was should let them know, so that they might arrest him.
[John 11.55-57]

It sounds like a right little police state, doesn't it? Who actually had powers of arrest under the Roman occupation in (a) Jesus' day and (b) the elderly John's day?
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
This passage is a good example of the writer's use of stage setting for his main story. Here he has used the implied threat of Jesus being arrested by the Temple authorities or maybe by the Romans to set an atmosphere of suspense and foreboding.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Certainly something of deja vu here; a mirror of Jesus' actions in chapter 7 when he kept people guessing (“Will he? Won't he?”) about attending a feast in Jerusalem. So perhaps in the reader's mind is the question: Will he this time do what he did last time - attend secretly, given that the authorities are after his blood?”

I remember reading a while ago something of the context surrounding Roman delegated powers and who could do what in a judicial setting. Can't place where that information was now. From John's work, though, I guess the Jerusalem authorities could engage in a bit of local stoning if they felt in the theological mood, but for matters of more political import (especially the stability of the Roman peace), they would have to take suspects to the Roman representative for formal investigation and execution.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
The thing about stoning is you can always claim it was spontaneous mob violence--"nothing to do with us, your honor." While that's much more difficult in the case of a crucifixion.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
six days before the Passover Jesus came to Bethany, the home of Lazarus, whom he had raised from the dead. 2 There they gave a dinner for him. Martha served, and Lazarus was one of those at the table with him.
[John 12.1-2]
The episode which follows is John's take on an event already known to the community through the synoptic gospels. Shippies may also like to refer to a thread on this passage elsewhere in Keryg.
 
Posted by BroJames (# 9636) on :
 
Here are the links: John 12.5-6 thread and Mary and Martha thread

[PS Pimple, assuming you've got the address for your link, then just click the URL button under the "Instant UBB code" heading when you are creating your message, and it does the work for you.]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Er, thanks. The address being where?
 
Posted by BroJames (# 9636) on :
 
For a thread, the address is in the thread's title either viewed from the forum or shown at the top of the pages of the thread itself. Right click the title and choose 'Copy link', then it can be pasted into your post.

For an individual post the address is found by right clicking the little page icon to the left of the date and time information for the post. Hope this helps.

[ 11. June 2013, 15:52: Message edited by: BroJames ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Not quite so secret a move towards Jerusalem – a dinner given in Jesus' honour. Mark and Matthew both place this at a home of someone named Simon the Leper, though neither name the woman as Mary who is about to do something very extravagant.
quote:
John 12:3
Then Mary took half a litre of expensive aromatic oil from pure nard and anointed the feet of Jesus. She then wiped his feet dry with her hair. The house was filled with the fragrance of the perfumed oil.

I'll have a look to see how this passage (as it goes on) might reflect a mirror on the previous side of chapter 10 (following the idea that chapter 10 is a linch-pin or peak in John's piece.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Meanwhile

quote:
But Judas Iscariot, on of his disciples (the one who was about to betray him) said. 5"Why was this perfume not sold for three hundred denarii and the money given to the poor?"
6 (He said this not because he cared about the poor, but because he was a thief; he kept the common purse and used to steal what was put into it.)

[John 12.4-6]

Other interesting versions in the synoptics.

Edited to replace the forgotten tell-tale parentheses!

[ 21. June 2013, 15:42: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
7 Jesus said,"Leave her alone. She bought it so that she might keep it for the day of my burial. 8 You always have the poor with you, but you do not always have me."
[John 12. 7-8]

The Greek has it thus: "Leave her alone so that she might keep it for the day of my burial..."

This seems to make more sense to me than the NRSV amplification. A case of res ipse loquitur perhaps. If it's not broke, domn't fix it. If it's not overly obscure, don't over-tanslate it?
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Is there a structure in this pericope starting with Lazarus in vv1&2 and ending with Lazarus in vv 10&11?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The first thing that struck me (well maybe not the first; I'm sure I'm being struck all the time) was the mention of Judas both here on the cusp of a Jerusalem festival and back around the beginning of chapter 7, also on a festival cusp. Here at the beginning of chapter 12 John's focus is on Judas (the narrative so far in John 12 has been background – use of aorist verbs in the mainline. His protest in v.4 breaks into the present tense). This makes Judas' question all the more pronounced: What about the poor, eh?

On the face of it a reasonable question, but dangerous. It can carry with it overtones of emotional blackmail and is still one cause for merry debate today: “Why is the government spending all that money on such-and-such a [insert tone of voice to imply 'frivolous'] project when the money could have been used to build a hospital?” And so on. Does John open up a difficult issue here? Do what appear to be irrefutable arguments on the face of it actually hide something more self-seeking?

In both chapters John is keen to point out that young Judas was the one, yes, that one, who was going to betray Jesus (even parenthetically speaking!). Interesting take on Judas from both passages – Jesus had chosen him yet Judas did not believe (6:64), implying that appointing / anointing (including in a messianic sense) did not itself guarantee loyalty. Jesus put up with this from Judas, living with a devil in the camp (6:70f). The wet kipper in the face for Judas was Jesus' assertion that he would not always be around. Judas' income would shrivel up, the gravy train was reaching a destination, no more blood for the leech.

Strike number two was the whole nard thing. I like the slimmed down reading from the Greek (pimple's post above). Massive investment in death; Mary has treasured it for the burial day. Interesting take on how to use the riches one has - and even what to invest in.

Strike three... and I'm out. I see Latchkey kid has just posted so I'll put kettle on toot and engage think mode again.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Latchkey Kid:
Is there a structure in this pericope starting with Lazarus in vv1&2 and ending with Lazarus in vv 10&11?

There's a possible structure – though I'm not sure whether it was a conscious intent by John – based around the following:
quote:

12:1 – It's to the place where Lazarus lived that Jesus came; John reminds his readers that Lazarus was the one raised from the dead by Jesus

12:4 – Judas interrupts the flowing narrative with his spoiler; John reminds his readers that Judas is the one who will betray Jesus

12:9 – Lots of people came to see Lazarus (not just Jesus); John reminds his readers that Lazarus was the one raised from the dead by Jesus

There could be a play off between Jesus raising Lazarus from the dead and the fact that Jesus would be handed over to die. Perhaps raising an expectation that Jesus' death may not necessarily be the end of the story?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And now for another interesting detail:

quote:
9 When the great crowd of the Jews learned that he was there, they came not only because of Jesus but also to see Lazarus, whom he had raised from the dead. 10 SO the chief priests planned to put Lazarus to death as well, 11 since it was on account of him that many of the Jews were deserting and believing in Jesus.
[John 12. 9-11]

It's clear that the "crowd of the Jews" does not mean the "Jewish authorities" here. It's the genuine interest of ordinary people. This is not the only place where John assumes an unpleasantly dog-in-a-manger attitude to wannabe christians with the wrong credentials.

Does this reflect an actual event or events? Were there, in fact, attempts on the life of Lazarus? The bible doesn't answer that. And who would benefit from the death of Lazarus? Forget I asked that (hastily stowing my Dan-Brown-channelling hat under the table). More likely, the "plot" is part of some first or second-century conspiracy theory (plus ca change...) but useful to add weight to John's message.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
This is not the only place where John assumes an unpleasantly dog-in-a-manger attitude to wannabe christians with the wrong credentials.

You've lost me there - can you elaborate?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Could I put a word in for the chief priests and their allies in this section? I think John may still be using the term 'Jews' to refer to the authorities in Jerusalem, and what we have here with the phrase “a crowd from the Jews” (ὄχλος πολὺς ἐκ τῶν Ἰουδαίων) is a reference to those present in Jerusalem who traditionally had been loyal to the established authorities in the city.

There are a couple of reasons I think this to be the case.

Firstly, some of this loyal group are said to be withdrawing (or leaving, pulling away from) “the Jews” (v.11), which implies there was a recognised group from which people were departing (obviously the Jews as a people were not leaving the Jews as an ethnicity, so there must be another grouping involved). Also the phraseology suggests that this departing was a desertion: many of the Jerusalem crowd are said by John not just to be leaving, but to be putting faith in Jesus. They were renouncing loyalty to one group in favour of another. This would fit quite well with the fact that the authorities needed to dispose of their rival, Jesus.

Secondly, from the angle of seeing chapter 10 as a peak in John's narrative, this section balances the episode toward the end of chapter 6 where many of Jesus' disciples desert him. John seems to be letting his readers know that just as some leave Jesus' community, there are others always coming in from opposing camps.

If this is right – that John is still using the term “Jews” to refer to the Jerusalem authorities – then it may shed some light on one of the reasons prompting John's need to write this work. It suggests a battle of validity between loyalty to Jesus as the only reliable way into God's community, and the way represented by those who seek an alliance between temple and politics. Whether this has any bearing on the date of John's composition (pre- or post-AD70), I'm not sure, but it's something for the “To Do” spike.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
You mean I made a hasty judgment? What? MOI?!!

W Hyatt. Yes of course you deserve some elaboration of my nasty little remark. I was thinking particularly of a similar crowd to the above who, after Jesus had crossed the water without a boat (after the feeding of the five thousand) asked, in what I read to be innocent (though admittedly incredulous) curiosity "How did yo get here?"

Jesus/John turns on them and accuses them of
being more interested in the free bread than anything else. It's clearly a rebuke that makes Jesus look uneasy. So was it Jesus? Or is this a refection of a similar question put to John?

Heck, I'm not that enamoured of John, however important the fourth gospel is. But I should try to be more charitable. See my new sig soon.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
12 The next day the great crowd that had come to the festival heard that Jesus was coming to Jerusalem.
How? The disciples had been very wary even about coming as close as Bethany (when Jesus received the news of Lazarus's illness). But now they seem to be living it up. Lazarus has become some sort of local celebrity on his own account. But Bethany is not Jerusalem. The synoptics describe how Jesus sends the disciples on ahead to book the four-legged taxi for the trimphal entry. but John jumps straight to the event itslf.

quote:
So they took branches of palm trees and went out to meet him, shouting,
"Hosanna!
Blessed is the one who comes in the
name of the Lord -
the king of Israel!"

[John 12.12-13]

Which Jesus and his disciples seem to have encouraged - all their fears gone. But Jesus is more realistic than his disciples, as we are shortly to discover...

[ 10. July 2013, 13:38: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
P.S.Bible version NRSV. Typography by Microsoft.
Proofreading doesn't always fixit. So there!
 
Posted by Autenrieth Road (# 10509) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
And now for another interesting detail:

quote:
9 When the great crowd of the Jews learned that he was there, they came not only because of Jesus but also to see Lazarus, whom he had raised from the dead. 10 SO the chief priests planned to put Lazarus to death as well, 11 since it was on account of him that many of the Jews were deserting and believing in Jesus.
[John 12. 9-11]

It's clear that the "crowd of the Jews" does not mean the "Jewish authorities" here. It's the genuine interest of ordinary people. This is not the only place where John assumes an unpleasantly dog-in-a-manger attitude to wannabe christians with the wrong credentials.

Does this reflect an actual event or events? Were there, in fact, attempts on the life of Lazarus? The bible doesn't answer that. And who would benefit from the death of Lazarus? Forget I asked that (hastily stowing my Dan-Brown-channelling hat under the table). More likely, the "plot" is part of some first or second-century conspiracy theory (plus ca change...) but useful to add weight to John's message.

I don't see the dog-in-a-manger attitude. On the contrary, John is showing lots of people not-us (many from the great crowd of the Jews) coming over and joining us. (And yes, it is odd that the Jews are portrayed in contradistinction to the followers of Jesus, since all followers of Jesus were Jews at that time, but that viewpoint is part and parcel of the whole of John's Gospel and we may as well understand what John is saying in a positive way rather than getting wholly stuck on the underlying illogicality of it.)

John doesn't criticize them either for only coming to see Lazarus, instead he says that in fact many came to believe in Jesus because of Lazarus.

[ETA: I'm speaking from the point of view that "great crowd of the Jews" means from the populace as a whole, and not just from the authorities as Nigel M suggests. But even if I read it Nigel M's way, I still don't see a dog-in-the-manger attitude, although it does remove my parenthetical comment about the oddity of the contrast between the Jews and the Jesus-followers, since contrast between the Jewish authorities and the Jesus-followers is clear throughout all four Gospels.]

[ 10. July 2013, 16:37: Message edited by: Autenrieth Road ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Point taken, AA. Must try harder (to be positive) - always a better way.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John's pretty good at raising the temperature – he's slowed the pace down by having Jesus approach Jerusalem bit by bit, having the crowd come out to meet him, keeping the Lazarus theme running... yet he does indeed omit the bit about the disciples fetching the donkey. Perhaps not enough interest in the plot John is running with.

Is there a reason John records those particular words the crowd were shouting?
quote:
”Hosanna!” (Yahweh, please save us!)
Blessings on the one coming in the Lord's name!

Those words are pretty close to the Greek translation of the Hebrew (LXX) text of Psalm 118:25-26 (Ps. 117:25-26 in the Greek version). There is a resonance with the wider context of that Psalm, with its focus on God's faithfulness and loyalty to the covenant, leading to his coming to deliver his people from oppression. The temple theme – not far off in John – is present there, too.

The actual Psalm kicks off with a series of reminders that Yahweh's loyalty is never-ending: “His covenant-love (hesed) lasts forever!” Then we get to the reason for the flattery (v5 on):
quote:
From the distress I cried out “Yah!”
Yah answered me and put me in a wide open place.
Yahweh's for me, I'm not afraid! What can humans do to me?
Yahweh's for me as my helper; I, yes I, will stare triumphantly at those who hate me!

[Then follows tale of oppression with God's deliverance, followed by these links to the temple:]

Open for me the gates of justice!
I will enter through them and give thanks to Yahweh.
This is Yahweh's gate - the godly enter through it.
I will give you thanks, for you answered me, and have become my deliverer.
The stone which the builders discarded has become the cornerstone.
This is Yahweh's work. We consider it amazing!
This is the day Yahweh has brought about. We will be happy and rejoice in it!

Please Yahweh, Save us! Please!
Please Yahweh, Prosper us! Please!
Blessings on the one who comes in Yahweh's name!
On you we'll pronounce blessings in Yahweh's house.

And so on. The wider context of the Psalm fits quite well with John's plot; I think he may well have expected his hearers / readers to have picked up on the link. Very political.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I'm sure they picked a great deal of that up. Sounds like one of my favourite psalms of long ago. I must try and find a version that doesn't sound as though it's addressed to my e-mail provider!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Given the problems Jesus had with managing peoples' expectations, the service provider metaphor sounds quite apt!

[Phone rings]
“Good day and thank you for calling Zion Saves may I please take your name?”
“Ah, Hello, yes, it's Jesus Davidson.”
“Ah yes thank you Mr Davidson my name is Shmuel and I see we have put you on our SuperMessiah account how may I help you?”
“Yes, it's about that account, actually, I wondered if it wasn't a bit too risky for me really...”
“The SuperMessiah account offers you instant access to social media such as crowdsourcing around Jerusalem and we throw in Galilee too for no extra charge on a roaming account and you can also benefit from following international celebrities such as Annas and Pilate and even get to meet them under our partner account although they probably do lay charges for that.”
“Um, Yes, but I don't think it quite meets all of my needs and my current lifestyle objectives so...”
“Ah of course you would be looking for an upgrade to our King account which ensures first class access to all Festivals and insurance coverage in the event of any damage caused to furniture and fittings on market days not that a special customer such as yourself would ever upset your clients ahahaha.”
“Um, Well, the problem is that I may need to cancel the account in a hurry...”
“It would be a real shame to lose so special a customer as yourself Mr Davidson but I understand if you are someone who is not tied down and likes to travel so we can offer you a short term contract with our stakeholders on an account known as the ZealforReal which has been tailored for international jet-setters just as yourself who live life in the now and on a knife edge.”
“No really, that's also not really who I am...”
“We do have a unique offer on at the moment for people transitioning lifestyles that sounds just right for you it's our Prophet account and it caters for the outsize communicators who have been stuck for far too long on our competitors' stifling accounts and need to be released into all that a wide area stand up and be noticed don't sit on the fence account can offer for people who have loud points of view.”
“Errrr... I actually have some longer-term ambitions in mind beyond the lifespan of the contract...”
“Fantastic Mr Davidson we have just the thing for you it's the Eternity account that lasts for as long as you can last batteries not included and has a warranty for 30 days to cover any initial unexpected denial of service in your life and permits you to choose your own avatar and tag...”
“30 days? Great! That's the one for me. I'll take it. Can I pick it up in Jerusalem tomorrow and have you a parking space for my donkey?”
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Nigel. Sir. Behave!

My interlinear concordance (in NRSV) also draws attention to Ps.118.25-26, vis-a-vis John 12.13, but there's a further connection to be found in verse 27 (of the psalm):

quote:
The Lord is God,
and he has given us light.
Bind the festal procession with branches,
up to the horns of the altar

There it is again - light!

A footnote adds that the meaning of the last phrase (in Hebrew) is uncertain. Blessed is he who can say "I'm not quite sure..."
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
Behave? On the contrary. I thought it was genius!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mamacita:
Behave? On the contrary. I thought it was genius!

I thought so too.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Mamacita:
Behave? On the contrary. I thought it was genius!

I thought so too.

Moo

Does THIS help? [Biased]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
the meaning of the last phrase (in Hebrew) is uncertain...

Don't you just hate it when that happens?!

There seems to something going on about God approaching Jerusalem to enter the temple to fiddle about with something, yet for some reason John has parked the story of the temple clearance way back in chapter 2. Interesting. It would - on the face of it - have been natural to put it where his fellow gospellers put it, here after the entrance.

I suppose there's a reason, John.

Anyway...
quote:
John 12:14-15
Jesus found a young donkey and sat on it, just as it is written, “Don't be afraid, people of Zion; look, your king is coming, seated on a donkey’s colt!”


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
His disciples did not understand these things at first, but when Jesus was glorified, then they remembered that these things had been written of him and had been done to him.
[John 12.16]

Ah, what a blessing hindsight is! And a sceptic might look askance at John's ability to know what they thought then, and what they thought afterwards, not to mention the ability of the simple disciples to make such theological connections.

Yet this sceptic and many others who received a basic education under the aegis of the good old C of E had learned vast tracts of scripture by heart long before they reached puberty - so why wouldn't the descendants of the guys who wrote the stuff?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, I wonder if the ability to put 2 and 2 together had been clouded by alternative interpretations from the Jewish authorities that had permeated the land via the priests / levites and scribes during their time away from temple duties, when they fulfilled their other more local duties, including teaching.

I've been thinking about John's plot and in particular why his work doesn't include the temple clearance round about here (in the way the other gospellers do).

There are links between what John does here (in chapter 12) and the temple clearance episode in chapter 2. Both refer to the disciples not understanding the significance of biblical quotes until later, both occur in the run up to Passover, and both include the context of raising from the dead.

I had a thought when we encountered chapter 2 way back when (winter 2006/07!!!) that perhaps the placing of the temple clear-out there was a deliberate act, designed to set a scene. After Jesus reveals his glory (sign of changing water into wine) his disciples put their loyalty in him (2:1-12). Then right into the readers' faces John shoves the confrontation theme between Jesus and the Jerusalem authorities, which sets the scene for so much that follows. John signals that the thrust of his work is going to be about the struggle between 'light' and 'dark' and which will master which (a theme introduced in 1:5-13). Related themes are that of the proper interpretation of the Jewish biblical texts and the glorification of Jesus – again appearing in both chapter 2 and 12.

Zechariah seems to be an important link here.

In John 12:15 we have “Do not be afraid, people of Zion; look, your king is coming, seated on a donkey’s colt!”, which is a reference to Zech. 9:9, a quote from God: “Rejoice greatly, daughter of Zion! Shout, daughter of Jerusalem! Look! Your king is coming to you: he is legitimate and victorious, humble and riding on a donkey — on a young donkey, the foal of a female donkey.”

For those interested, the relevant texts are:
John 12:15 = μὴ φοβοῦ, θυγάτηρ Σιών· ἰδοὺ ὁ βασιλεύς σου ἔρχεται, καθήμενος ἐπὶ πῶλον ὄνου
Zech 9:9 LXX = Χαῖρε σφόδρα, θύγατερ Σιων, κήρυσσε, θύγατερ Ιερουσαλημ, ἰδοὺ ὁ βασιλεύς σου ἔρχεταί σοι, δίκαιος καὶ σῴζων αὐτός, πραῢς καὶ ἐπιβεβηκὼς ἐπὶ ὑποζύγιον καὶ πῶλον νέον
MT =
גִּילִי מְאֹד בַּת־צִיּוֹן הָרִיעִי בַּת יְרוּשָׁלִַם הִנֵּה מַלְכֵּךְ יָבוֹא לָךְ צַדִּיק וְנוֹשָׁע הוּא עָנִי וְרֹכֵב עַל־חֲמוֹר וְעַל־עַיִר בֶּן־אֲתֹנוֹת

Then in the John 2 temple clear-out we have John 2:17 - “Zeal for your house consumes me” which is said to be a quote from Ps. 69:9 (versification in English versions).

Again for those interested, the relevant texts are:
John 2:17 = ὁ ζῆλος τοῦ οἴκου σου καταφάγεται με
LXX (68:10) = ὅτι ὁ ζῆλος τοῦ οἴκου σου κατέφαγέν με
MT (69:10) =
כִּי־קִנְאַת בֵּיתְךָ אֲכָלָתְנִי


Although the link to the Psalm is quite tight, there is another reference of note - Zechariah 8. In 8:2 God who rules over all says “I am extremely zealous for Zion.”

Texts:
LXX = Ἐζήλωσα τὴν Ιερουσαλημ καὶ τὴν Σιων ζῆλον μέγαν
MT =
כִּי־קִנְאַת בֵּיתְךָ אֲכָלָתְנִי

I suspect that John is framing the crisis in Jerusalem (using the temple clear-out in chapter 2 and the entry into Jerusalem in chapter 12) with a reference – direct or indirect – to Zechariah 8-9. It's a long piece, but relevant parts are that God is so attached to Jerusalem/Zion that he just has to return to it and his make his word prevail there (8:2-3). His people will be brought back to live with him there (8:7-8) and they will enjoy well-being (8:12). The condition of this is that they must behave properly (8:16-19) and then they will even see the nations coming to them for support (8:23). God will defend his house against attack (9:8) and the sign of this change in fortune is that God's appointed representative (king) is arriving in Jerusalem (9:9). He will be the peace-enforcer for the whole world (9:10b).

If this is correct, then John is packing a huge significance into this short episode in chapter 12, with Jesus as the 'king' from God, coming to cleanse God's location from darkness and bad teaching that imprisons people's minds and actions.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's a long link, and I haven't had time to study it properly yet, here's the top and bottom layers of the sandwich, so to speak. Zechariah delivers the promise that Jerusalem will be the city of truth (cf - "I shall not leave you orphans. I will leave you the spirit of truth....")

and a reallu quaint view of paradise:
quote:
For what comeliness and beauty will be theirs! Grain will make the young men flourish, and new wine the virgins.
No comment! But there's lots of serious stuff in the sandwich filling. See you next week.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Hmmm. NRSV has city of faithfulness IIRC and the virgins are young women.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Actually I think "truth" is the better translation. Jerusalem as the city of truth and God being the people's God in truth.

It works well also with John's emphasis on the theme of truth. Perhaps that was one reason why he likes Zechariah.

As for the young women, I think 'virgin' would have been understood as part of that state. I did have an "Aha!" moment here - was this picture of paradise a feeder into the Islamic picture? Something picked up as part of Mohammed's interaction with Jews in his early days?

Anyway - that's by the by. I wonder what the disciples actually understood by the references? It took a glorification for understanding to come. Is this a case of Jesus' mission being validated by the Jewish scriptures once the ultimate sign was delivered - God raising him from the dead and giving him ultimate authority?
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
And a lot of what John writes is what Jesus's mother has told him, since she lived with him later. They were not killed as many were.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
So the crowd that had been with him when he called Lazarus out of the tomb and raised him from the dead continued to testify.* 18It was also because they heard that he had performed this sign that the crowd went to meet him. 19The Pharisees then said to one another, ‘You see, you can do nothing. Look, the world has gone after him!’
[John 12.17-20]John really squeezes every last ounce of worth out of the Lazarus story. I'm about to be squeezed out myself - my session is up in seconds...

[ 28. August 2013, 15:13: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The poor Pharisees are really on the back foot. Common people should be seen, but not heard, really. How can one deal with the important things in life when the uninitiated keep running off after every little sign? Honestly.

Any other Messiah might have seized the day and gone for glory - co-opting the crowd to take over control of the city. Perhaps John deliberately oils the Lazarus point just to raise the point in peoples' minds that there is a difference with this Messiah.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
And a lot of what John writes is what Jesus's mother has told him, since she lived with him later. They were not killed as many were.

For the sake of any uininitiated lurkers, the above post alludes to the belief among some (but not all) Christians that the fouth gospel was written by John, son of Zebedee, who was also the Beloved Disciple, who was told by Jesus at the crucifixion to look after his (Jesus') mother.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John 12:20-22 NET Bible
quote:
Now some Greeks were among those who had gone up to worship at the feast. So these approached Philip, who was from Bethsaida in Galilee, and requested, “Sir, we would like to see Jesus.” Philip went and told Andrew, and they both went and told Jesus.
Philip already gets special mention in chapter 1:43-51. He is introduced there as Philip from Bethsaida, the same home town for Andrew and Peter. He introduced Nathaniel to Jesus at that point. Here he discusses with Andrew what to do about the Greek request. Perhaps he was a bit of a networker, or perhaps he preferred to check things out with others before taking action. He seems to have been a personable fellow for the Greek pilgrims to pick on him to be their advocate. And he has such a nice Greek name.

Why introduce the Greek pilgrims into the narrative at this point?

John specifically mentions Greeks only once before, at 7:35 (which falls out nicely in the scheme where chapter 10 is the focal peak of John's work). There Jesus is again at the temple and his signs are causing much debate. The text from 7:32-36 runs:
quote:
The Pharisees heard the crowd murmuring these things about Jesus, so the chief priests and the Pharisees sent officers to arrest him. Then Jesus said, “I will be with you for only a little while longer, and then I am going to the one who sent me. You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come.”

Then the Jewish leaders said to one another, “Where is he going to go that we cannot find him? He is not going to go to the Jewish people dispersed among the Greeks and teach the Greeks, is he? What did he mean by saying, ‘You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come’?”

This might be important for John – that Jesus and his disciples were to have a role in mission to the world.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Slight tangent (with Simon Schama in mind). Where would the Jews dispersed among the Greek be dispersed from? Or is this
semi-prophetic?

[ 09. September 2013, 14:58: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
There were Jews all over the place and had been for centuries. Largest group probably in Egypt.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
Nigel M wrote:
quote:
...Why introduce the Greek pilgrims into the narrative at this point?
...This might be important for John – that Jesus and his disciples were to have a role in mission to the world.

I think that is right, but also more than that. John has Jesus pointing out several times earlier that his hour has not yet come. If you had chosen to include v23 in this group, it goes straight on to say..
quote:
Jesus replied "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified."
So it is the appearance of the gentiles who want to see Jesus that signals that Jesus' period of earthly ministry is now drawing to a close. It follows a fairly regular expression in the OT that on the arrival of the age to come, the nations will recognise the one who is to come, and rejoice and be glad (as for example in the messianic psalm 72).
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Picking up on the 'Greek' point and for completeness, here are the three verses (20-23, NET Bible) together:
quote:
Now some Greeks were among those who had gone up to worship at the feast. So these approached Philip, who was from Bethsaida in Galilee, and requested, “Sir, we would like to see Jesus.” Philip went and told Andrew, and they both went and told Jesus. Jesus replied, “The time has come for the Son of Man to be glorified.
A rather significant shift in tenses occurs in the narrative at this point. John has made liberal use of the aorist tense to mark the passage of events, split occasionally by other tenses when he wants to highlight something. Here he glides smoothly from aorist to imperfect and then into the present tense with the verbs. It's a useful signal in a text that – along with all the biblical and non-biblical texts from antiquity – would have been designed to be read out loud. The shift would have alerted the reader (speaking as part of reading, whether singly or in a group) to something important, something close up and personal, in your face, present tense. It puts the reader in with the actors on the stage.

Thus we are set up for another of Jesus' lengthy speeches, directed as much to the reader/hearer as the audience in the plot.

Difficult to break the speech down, but Jesus kicks off with three statements, linked in some way:

John 12:24-26
quote:
I tell you the solemn truth, unless a kernel of wheat falls into the ground and dies, it remains by itself alone. But if it dies, it produces much grain.

The one who loves his life destroys it, and the one who hates his life in this world guards it for eternal life.

If anyone wants to serve me, he must follow me, and where I am, my servant will be too. If anyone serves me, the Father will honour him.


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I haven't read on from there yet - library computers have been undergoing overhaul (or overgoing underhaul...) and I tend to get timed out before I find my place. Hmm. Don't (yet_ see the connection between these sayings and suspect they may be from a collection of sayings of Jesus such as we find in the Gospel of Thomas. Certainly the individual sayings have been quoted elsewhere before - in the other gospels? Will have to look up the concordance.

He who loses his life will save it rings a particularaly loud bell and I think I've always regarded as being something other than a literal requirement - following on from something like "Don't lay up treasure for your slef here - they won't lengthen your life by a minute. But is that Jesus or Ecclesiastes or a senile garble of both? Out of practice. Back soon. My time has almost come....
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Honest Ron Bacardi:
So it is the appearance of the gentiles who want to see Jesus that signals that Jesus' period of earthly ministry is now drawing to a close.

This.

The Gospels (can't recall if it's John in particular) make it clear that Jesus' earthly ministry is primarily to the "lost sheep of Israel," and the Gentiles he so conspicuously picks up are nevertheless more or less accidents. By which I mean, he isn't actively searching them out. The Jews first, and THEN the Gentiles... which is where the work of the Church picks up. We get that emphasis in the Matthew 28:19-20 commission and in the key turning points in Acts (Peter with Cornelius, Philip with the Ethiopian, and of course Paul, who made it his lifework).

So IMHO when the Gentiles show up as a semi-organized group and formally approach Jesus through his disciples, Jesus takes it as a clear sign that the time of the Church is about to begin, and his own direct personal ministry is over. So clear, in fact, that I'm not all that sure whether the poor Greeks ever got to see him on this occasion or not! (I hope so)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Nattering on, then...

quote:
Now some Greeks were among those who had gone up to worship at the feast. So these approached Philip, who was from Bethsaida in Galilee, and requested, “Sir, we would like to see Jesus.” Philip went and told Andrew, and they both went and told Jesus. Jesus replied, “The time has come for the Son of Man to be glorified. I tell you the solemn truth, unless a kernel of wheat falls into the ground and dies, it remains by itself alone. But if it dies, it produces much grain. The one who loves his life destroys it, and the one who hates his life in this world guards it for eternal life.
If anyone wants to serve me, he must follow me, and where I am, my servant will be too. If anyone serves me, the Father will honour him.

Notice the word "replied". Jesus' words are in some sense an answer to the fact of the Greeks coming. Jesus sees this as evidence that the time of his death is at hand. I'm not sure if Jesus is using "to be glorified" to mean "to die" (because the cross is paradoxically his glory) or if he is referring to his resurrection and ascension shortly afterward. But that whole complex of events is clearly in view.

He then compares his death to that of a single kernel of wheat falling into the ground to be "buried" and paradoxically produce a huge crop of living wheat (=believers, whom he will bring to life through faith in himself). Which naturally flows into a reminder of an important spiritual principle--that the only way anyone "keeps" his life is by being willing to sacrifice it to something more important. This applies equally to Jesus (who is a man, after all) and to his human followers. I don't know if he was talking to himself here, or to us, or both. (I do think a great deal of his life and struggles here were lived by faith and not by easy Godly "knowledge," which would have been rather unfair. So maybe this could be a case of self-talk and not simply preaching to us, though it does that too.)

In either case, it's an easy and natural thing to turn to the case of us, his servants, and remind us that his fate will be our own. If he is to suffer, we too will suffer; if he dies, we can expect to die too, whether through the martyrdom of the body or through the thousand deaths-to-self that the world rarely notices, painful though they are. But we have this for our comfort: just as he has glory to look forward to, so do we. "If anyone serves me, my Father will honor him." Which is the joy set before us, so that we may endure our crosses as he did.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Good luck with the book.

Looking back a bit. 12.23 with its themes of Jesus' time having come, and glorification, are to be repeated in 13.1, 13.32, and 17.1 if anybody wants to look ahead. But my concordance also send me "back" to the first (chronologically speaking) gospel of Mark:

quote:
And going a little further, he threw himself on the ground, and prayed that, if it were possible, the hour might pass from him
[Mk 14.35]

Is John trying to put the record straight? Look at verse 27 [in a moment]. And
quote:
He came a third time to them and said to them, "Are you still sleeping and tyaking your rest? Enough! The hour has come; the Son of Man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.
[Mk 14.41

My guess is that neither of these accounts (Mark's and John's] should be seen as absoltute historical truths. Both authors are using witness accounts to propagate their own agendas, so the fact that they might seem to contradict one another is not really significant. Two people looking at the same man at different times and in different places. Perhaps Mark, given the chance to revise his gospel fifty years later, might have had a different view of things.

My concordance gives references to Matthew, Mark, Luke and 1 Thessalonians on verses 25-26. Clearly John was on well-trodden ground.
But he passes over Jesus' troubled spirit rather too glibly in the following, I think:
quote:
Now my soul is troubled. And what should I say - 'Father, save me from this hour? No, it is for this reason that I have come to this hour. 28 Father, glorify your name. Then a voice came from heaven, "I have glorified it, and I will glorify it again.

 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'd been hoping to get a chance to look further at the three sayings in 12:24-26, but time and tide...

I suppose there could be a process running through all three: [1] death; [2] eternal life; [3] loyalty as a result. This could be why Jesus considers the alternative – run away – but rejects it as a negation of the whole point of his activity.

John does focus on the glory and purpose of Jesus' mission compared to Mark and even Luke, who speaks of Jesus' anguish. Perhaps it is part of the process in deciding what to include in a work, guided by the themes one wants to get across.

The point about the Greeks coming to the disciples as a cue for Jesus to recognise his time has come is a good one. While there are still a few hiccups to come (like Peter's denial), it does seem that the disciples have reached a sufficient level of maturity and confidence to take the initiative.

The “I have glorified it – and will glorify it again” bit is somewhat enigmatic. To which occasion is God referring when he said he had glorified his name? If Jesus had not yet been glorified, then what was that past event? The statement by God also sounds as though he is correcting Jesus!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
29 The crowd standing there heard it and said it was thunder.* Others said "An angel has spoken to him." 30 Jesus answered, "This voice has come for your sake, not for mine. 31 Now is the judgment of this world; now the ruler of this world will be driven out. 32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself." 33 He said this to indicate the kind of death he was to die.
[John 12.29-33]

Sorry for the longish quote, but I couldn't find a sensible place to stop. It's such a wierd mixture of reportage, fiction, and dramatic hyperbole that I can't offer anything constructive as comment. I enjoy drama and fiction and am normally more than ready to suspend disbelief for the sake of the larger truth. But the larger truth eludes me here. Over to you.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John is being at his most idiosyncratic, language-wise, here. I keep thinking he is talking about one thing, only for him to clarify he is talking about something else entirely. I mean, he goes on about glory and it's tempting to think about resurrection, vindication etc., but instead John talks about judgment. Then he quotes Jesus saying that he (Jesus) will draw all to himself – a major thing to say – only to add that Jesus' main point was about crucifixion. Parallel universes.

Perhaps most dramatic in the passage is the “Now” word, which is rather emphatic in what has been going on so far: “Now I am totally stressed...” (v.27), “Now, judged is this world” and “Now the ruler of this world will be thrown out” (v.31). Along with 'glory' there are themes here that have not been fully defined by John so far. We get hints here and there, but I think John is being deliberately vague so he can keep any denouement up his sleeve. Something of a mystery writer, our John.

Tempting to wonder what his audience made of his writing style. Did they try guessing as they read through the piece: “Ah! The butler did it, I bet.” “Oh, OK, perhaps not the butler then.” “Colonel Mustard in the Billiard Room, yes?” “No? Oh.”
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thank you. The NOW word certainly must have resonated with biblical readers. It reminds me of the use of TODAY in the bible and in liturgy:

Today, if ye will hear my voice, harden not your hearts...

Thomas Blackburn uses the word, ironically, twice, in Hospital For Defectives; seeing in an abused mental patient a clear comparison with Isaiah's "suffering servant" he asks God (though writing in the days of strict blasphemy laws, he calls him Lord of he Images): What's that about? Tell me TODAY - I want to know NOW! [Tangent ends]

[ 28. October 2013, 10:14: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
If one of the things John was doing with his work was countering criticisms of Christianity, then here's another one he brings up:
quote:
John 12:34
Then the crowd replied to Jesus, “We have heard from the law that the messiah [Christ] will remain forever. So how can you argue that ‘The Son of Man must be lifted up’? What kind of 'Son of Man' are you talking about?”

Presumably “the law” here refers more widely to the whole Jewish scriptures, not specifically the first 5 books, as there is no direct reference to “the messiah will remain forever” in the latter. The nearest comes from Psalm 89:35-37...
quote:
Once and for all I have vowed by my own holiness,
I will never deceive David.
His seed [offspring] will last forever.
His throne will endure before me, like the sun,
it will remain stable, like the moon,
his throne will endure like the skies.”

Or perhaps the crowd were summarising the scripture's overall take on messiahs.

So here is the problem Jesus' followers faced after Jesus' death: The authoritative writings say that God's chosen one will always have a future, yet Jesus died – and without issue – so how can his line continue?

Back in verse 23 Jesus said that the time had come for the Son of Man to be glorified. He then immediately talked about death and being 'lifted up'. I suspect the vast majority of Christians today don't blink at this – the hindsight of a resurrection rather clouds the issue – but it was a stumbling block: How could God rescue the world from its fate by killing (or permitting the killing of) his appointed representative? Isn't that a defeat? John spends some time on this issue here.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Yes it appears as if John is at pains to point out that Jesus' "glory" is his crucifixion. And (to your earlier point Nigel M) this is not what people are expecting. Surely a gruesome death is defeat not "glorification". But John seems to be saying - things are not always what they seem on the surface....
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There's a link back to John's introduction, as well: where he opens the theme of 'light' and its coming into the world...

John 1:9-11
The true light, who gives light to everyone, was coming into the world. He was in the world, and the world was created by him, but the world did not recognize him. He came to what was his own, but his own people did not receive him.

This is something he prods at during the gospel – something that should have been so blatantly obvious (such as the world's creator) was visibly present among his own people, but amazingly those very people failed to recognise him. It's as though the Christian response to the criticism that God would not allow his chosen one to be crucified is one of astonishment: “How can you be so blind?! God's own image – his representative – his light and glory – was actually walking and talking among you, yet you failed to recognise him!” Perhaps the argument is that once one accepted Jesus, anything that followed was purely secondary. If one agreed that he was indeed God's representative to the world, then the mere fact that he had died was no inconvenience.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Yes and in v35-36 Jesus says the light is going to vanish for a while (and then as if to emphasise this he disappears from public view). v36 seems to round off the first section of the gospel and it clearly links back to the ongoing theme of light but especially those verses in ch.1
(Note: assuming v37-50 are a summary of that whole section rather than an extension of the discussion in the rest of ch 12; before John start Part II in Ch 13)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
In those next two next verses Jesus' response to the questions about the Son of Man contains another useful link back to the introduction. Here are the verses:
quote:
John 12:35-36
Jesus replied, “There's only a little time of light left with you. Keep going while you still have light so that the darkness may not master you. Anyone walking in darkness doesn't know where he is going, so as long as you have light trust in it and you will become sons of light.”

Then Jesus went away and hid himself from them.

What struck me was the repetition of the verb katalambano (to master / seize / overpower = καταλαμβάνω) here in verse 35 and back in 1:5 - “The light is shining in the darkness and the darkness has not mastered it.”

The idea of darkness mastering / seizing / overpowering also plays well with John's argument that the authorities who claimed Moses as their teacher were in fact blind to the truth; they could not 'master' (or 'grasp' as a double meaning in John, it seems: both 'overwhelm' and 'understand') the truth and as a consequence were in darkness. If they had seen the light, they would have become sons of light, or as John puts it in his introduction: children of God.

Then, as you say, John has Jesus pop off the scene to add dramatic effect to a sunset and light disappearing over the hill.

I often wondered about the division of John into the two main parts, with part 2 kicking off in chapter 13. As we've plodded along through this book I've been struck by how well chapter 10 acts as a peak in the narrative, with a move uphill on the first side then a descent of themes afterwards. It may be that we are about to come up to a piece of closure here in chapter 12, what with these references back to the introduction; we'll have to see.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Nice. I wasn't aware of that. Not much of a Greek scholar I'm afraid. Maybe I need to katalambano a bit more Ancient Greek. [Smile]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Are we OK to move on?

The next verse is:
quote:
John 12:37
Even after Jesus had performed so many signs in their presence, they still would not believe in him.

This feels like John starting a summary on everything that has gone on before - the seven signs he's recorded - and the rejection Jesus has experienced. Again there's the link back to chapter 1:
quote:
John 1:9-11
The true light, who gives light to everyone, was coming into the world. He was in the world, and the world was created by him, but the world did not recognize him. He came to what was his own, but his own people did not receive him.

Or maybe it's not a summary it's a parenthetical note (like this) because (looking further up the thread) I saw how popular these were!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
That's an epic task – reading back over the thread!

So we have something of a wrap-up at this point, with John making the point that Jesus had provided more than enough evidence in support of his appointed role, but some – especially those with leadership responsibility and training to interpret the Jewish religious constitution into practice – seemed doomed to blindness. John seems to be saying, Jesus did more than was really necessary to convince his audience: “This is what I have been appointed to do, here are my credentials, what more could you possibly need?”

Yet one can sense the reason for incredulity: the leaders would probably argue that they had seen a host of would-be messiahs popping up and then coming a cropper, so they had to investigate very carefully the claims made so that the people could be advised appropriately. There was also the political situation to consider and the threat to continued existence in the land. Good reasons for caution, but not good enough for John's argument. A bit of a stand off: Not enough evidence to convince the leaders, and not enough resisting reason to convince John.

And he has authoritative support!:
quote:
John 12:38-41
Isaiah said, “Lord, who has believed our message, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?” For this reason they could not believe, because again Isaiah said, “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, so that they would not see with their eyes and understand with their heart, and turn to me, and I would heal them.”

Isaiah said these things because he saw the messiah's glory, and spoke about him.

Interesting. Is John proposing that these poor leaders hadn't a hope in heaven of belief because God had cut off the faith-line-of-communication to them?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Nigel M - you are totally going to get me going off on a tangent on one of my favourite subjects. I love Isaiah!

So first off you quoted
Isaiah 6:9-10
For me the end of v10 is important. God's desire is that the people do turn and be healed and yet he recognises their stubborn refusal to see what is in front of them. The whole seeing and understanding and listening and hearing is an ongoing motif in Isaiah. It also appears frequently in Jesus ministry ("he who has ears let him hear") and makes me think Jesus spent a lot of time meditating on Isaiah.

Finally I am fascinated by the fact that John quotes v1 of Is 53 but this seems to be more because the words of that verse fit with his point "who has believed?" and not so much the fact of the rest of Is 53 which explains the whole "suffering Messiah" theme that John is literally about to embark on next! Maybe it's an example of a verse implying a reference to a whole passage. It surprises me that Is 53 is not more widely quoted in the NT - maybe it was just taken as read.

[ 09. November 2013, 13:28: Message edited by: Jammy Dodger ]
 
Posted by IconiumBound (# 754) on :
 
I have read somewhere that John is a book of signs. That is, he is emphasizing the miraculous acts of Jesus as proof of his divinity. There are 14 times when John uses the word and most are followed by "believe in me because of these signs" or some similar wording.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Isaiah's text certainly has the feel of irony, in fact it seems that God was telling Isaiah to preach until he was blue in the face and the people become so hardened. If that was John's understanding of Isaiah's text here as well then it sheds some light on his own work: perhaps he saw Jesus as having to go through his earthly ministry engaging until he was blue in the face. Jesus had to engage with those who were opposed to his teaching, even if that meant frustration, and knowing that the end result would still be desolation. I'll pop the fuller text from Isaiah 6 here:
quote:
Isaiah 6:9-12 NET Bible*
He said, “Go and tell these people:
‘Listen continually, but don’t understand!
Look continually, but don’t perceive!’
Make the hearts of these people calloused;
make their ears deaf and their eyes blind!
Otherwise they might see with their eyes and hear with their ears,
their hearts might understand and they might repent and be healed.”
I replied, “How long, sovereign master?” He said,
“Until cities are in ruins and unpopulated,
and houses are uninhabited,
and the land is ruined and devastated,
and the Lord has sent the people off to a distant place,
and the very heart of the land is completely abandoned.

Perhaps that was the 'world' of understanding that John was evoking in his audience.

And on that 'world' point, it could be that John knew that his audience was very familiar with Isa. 53 and that by quoting just the snapshot (v.1) he was bringing to the forefront of their minds the whole section. If that is the case, then John would have just introduced a theme of suffering into his argument about non-belief.

All of which leaves us with more questions – the first to occur to me was “What was John's argument about here?” “Where is his logic going?” This links with the observation IconiumBound makes about signs, because if John wanted to prove somehow that Jesus was a messiah on the basis of miraculous signs (like those John records), then wouldn't Isaiah 53 (and 6) have been the last places to come to mind in support? What have they to do with the kind of signs Jesus was performing?

On the face of it, John's argument skips about like a doe in spring time. He plugs Jesus' miracles as signs, notes that these cut no mustard with the authorities in Jerusalem, records Jesus' response to this as one of “Enough is enough! I'm off!!” and then offers his own take on it by reference not to a signs-support-for-messiah text, but to God's frustration and his servant's suffering.

Mind you, I'm a bit stuck on what passage in the OT John could have used in support of signs. There isn't much of the “Behold! My servant will turn water into wine!” out there. That being so, I wonder why he thought it a killer argument to focus on the miracle signs in the first place? How do they support the claims of a messiah?


* John doesn't follow the Greek LXX translation of Isa. 6 here – he is in fact closer to the Hebrew BHS text, though again not mirroring it. This could be one of those examples of an occasion when a NT writer provides his own translation of a text (from Hebrew).
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
All of which leaves us with more questions – the first to occur to me was “What was John's argument about here?” “Where is his logic going?” This links with the observation IconiumBound makes about signs, because if John wanted to prove somehow that Jesus was a messiah on the basis of miraculous signs (like those John records), then wouldn't Isaiah 53 (and 6) have been the last places to come to mind in support? What have they to do with the kind of signs Jesus was performing?

Interesting question. I wonder if actually it is all connected and John is really pointing to the suffering of Christ as an uber-sign of who he is? So his logic is: well I've told you all the signs that Jesus did and the people/leaders still didn't believe. (Just like they didn't believe Isaiah). So now I'm going to tell you about the ultimate sign that shows Jesus as Isaiah's Suffering Servant??
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Mind you, I'm a bit stuck on what passage in the OT John could have used in support of signs. There isn't much of the “Behold! My servant will turn water into wine!” out there. That being so, I wonder why he thought it a killer argument to focus on the miracle signs in the first place? How do they support the claims of a messiah?

Been thinking about this too. Maybe it is simply that they are miraculous.
In terms of OT basis for this I am wondering about the "signs of a prophet" in Deuteronomy. Unfortunately many of these are negatively expressed and are warnings against being led into idolatry but for example Deuteronomy 13:1-3 specifically mentions signs and wonders:
quote:
If a prophet, or one who foretells by dreams, appears among you and announces to you a sign or wonder, 2 and if the sign or wonder spoken of takes place, and the prophet says, ‘Let us follow other gods’ (gods you have not known) ‘and let us worship them,’ 3 you must not listen to the words of that prophet or dreamer. The Lord your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul.
So maybe there is also then an expectation that the message of a true prophet would also be accompanied by signs and wonders.
This maybe reflected in John 14:11 (and apologies for jumping ahead in John) where Jesus says:
quote:

Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the works themselves.

The works here appearing to refer to the miraculous signs.

Alternatively maybe in Jewish culture clear "expectations" of a Messiah had grown up and there were expected boxes for a would-be Messiah to tick. We might not know what those were but maybe they were of the time and the signs in John address these in some way. I have a vague recollection of the Essenes or similar having something like this. My point being that John maybe addressing an expectation of his time and this is why he doesn't draw on OT references for support of them?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It would be interesting to know what the idea of 'signs' as pieces of evidence in support of a claim played at the time of Jesus. The word is common, but seems to be used elsewhere mainly as a warning – signs of the end, as it were. That's different to the way John uses it. I'm not sure of the history of the term in second temple Judaism.

For fun, I had a look through the instances of the noun 'sign' (semeion = σημεῖον) in its various states in the Greek version (LXX) of the Jewish scriptures. There is one possibly tenuous link. Given that John's introduction evokes the creation account of Genesis 1 (“In the beginning...”) and mentions light in separation from darkness, there may be an intended link to Gen. 1:14-18 where creation order is defined by light, and where the lights are signs of such order:
quote:
Gen. 1:14-18 (attempted translation from Göttingen edition of LXX)
And God said, “Let lights come into being in the heavenly expanse [firmament] to lighten up the earth as a way to split in half [distinguish completely?] the day from the night. These will act as signs to mark seasons, both days and longer periods of time. They will provide light for the earth from their heavenly position." And so it was – God made the two great sources of light: the greater light controlling the day and the lesser light controlling the night, and the stars. God set them in their ordained place in the heavenly expanse so that they would lighten the earth, to control day and night and to split in half light and darkness. God saw that this was good.

Quite a few interesting things could be said about this, for example how darkness was something that had a defined place and was to be controlled, just as much as light. There was to be no encroaching of boundaries – darkness was not permitted (ordained) to try and take over the place occupied by light.

Now how much of that – if any – was intended as a reference by John? As I say, it's tenuous.

On the pro side, John does use the light/dark theme and implies a separation of the two. He even uses the same terminology as the Genesis LXX for 'light,' 'dark,' and 'signs.' He opens his work with a copy of the Gen. 1 account.

On the con side, John does not seem to imply that darkness is a proper thing with its own place. It doesn't play a part in marking time sequences, for example.

Still, perhaps he sees light and dark as necessary states during the time before God comes to judge the world, with some people needing to be separated out into the light sphere (believing and understanding) and others in the dark (unbelieving and misunderstanding), and never the two should mix. This might throw some light on the state of the Christians forming his audience.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Really interesting idea. I think you might be on to something. You are absolutely right that John frequently uses the darkness/light motif and I think the idea of the lights in the darkness being signs is great.

I don’t think your “con” is necessarily a problem
quote:

On the con side, John does not seem to imply that darkness is a proper thing with its own place. It doesn't play a part in marking time sequences, for example.

The great bit about the connection to Genesis is that the signs (in terms of the stars which are used for navigation and to give direction) appear at night in the darkness. So I can absolutely see the analogy of the lights (signs) shining in the darkness – pointing the way to Christ.

The things that take part in marking time sequences are always lights (regardless of whether they appear in the day - the sun or at night moon & stars). So there is no contradiction with darkness not being "a thing in itself" - well in my mind anyway.

I think John uses darkness (back to Isaiah 6) in the sense of a lack of understanding. And a choice by people not to read the signs they can see. Even though they are in darkness – the light has come and there are lights (signs) pointing to the truth but still they are seeing but not perceiving.

So I really like this. Whether or not this was in the mind of John when he wrote who knows!

Gets back to the point though that staying in darkness or following the light is the choice that John is laying out.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Also (before we move on) interested by v41...
quote:
41 Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus’ glory and spoke about him.
I know this has caused people to wonder in exactly what way Isaiah saw Christ's glory.
I wondered whether on the basis that at this point in the narrative John is equating Jesus "glory" with his coming suffering that what John means here is that Isaiah saw that the Messiah was to suffer (which reinforces the quotation of Isaiah 53). So John is identifying Jesus as Isaiah's suffering servant?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
Also (before we move on) interested by v41...
quote:
41 Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus’ glory and spoke about him.
I know this has caused people to wonder in exactly what way Isaiah saw Christ's glory.
I wondered whether on the basis that at this point in the narrative John is equating Jesus "glory" with his coming suffering that what John means here is that Isaiah saw that the Messiah was to suffer (which reinforces the quotation of Isaiah 53). So John is identifying Jesus as Isaiah's suffering servant?

Well, Handel certainly does! But I can see why that's a problem for the Jews, many of whom see battered and beleaguered Israel as the victim.

The biggest problem I see for modern Christians accepting John's (or Handel's) interpretation of the Suffering Servant poem is that Isaiah's scapegoat is universally hated, and regarded as being afflicted by God as punishment for some unmentionable sin.

But Jesus was not universally misunderstood. John makes it quite cjear that Jesus suffered at the hands of the "baddies" - the non-believers, the ones who walked intransigently in their own darkness. My description here is probably as mixed up here as John's, but do you see (roughly) what I mean?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The biggest problem I see for modern Christians accepting John's (or Handel's) interpretation of the Suffering Servant poem is that Isaiah's scapegoat is universally hated, and regarded as being afflicted by God as punishment for some unmentionable sin.

But Jesus was not universally misunderstood. John makes it quite cjear that Jesus suffered at the hands of the "baddies" - the non-believers, the ones who walked intransigently in their own darkness. My description here is probably as mixed up here as John's, but do you see (roughly) what I mean?

I see the point you are making but I don't quite see Is 53 that way. I don't think Isaiah's Suffering servant is universally hated - nor that the text requires that. (For example Isaiah says "he was rejected by men" not "rejected by all men"). So I don't see any requirement for Jesus to be universally misunderstood for the Suffering Servant to apply to him. Having said that I doubt that anyone including the disciples had the foggiest idea what was going on at this point - not until afterwards did they get an inkling - so in that sense Jesus is universally misunderstood at this juncture - even by his followers.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
Also (before we move on) interested by v41...
quote:
41 Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus’ glory and spoke about him.
I know this has caused people to wonder in exactly what way Isaiah saw Christ's glory.

I am feeling very over my head in all this. I take "Isaiah saw Christ's glory" to be a straightforward reference to his vision of the Lord in the temple (Isaiah 6 again). When Isaiah saw the Lord that day, he saw specifically the second Person of the Trinity. And when that Person commissioned him to a frustrating and largely fruitless ministry, he did so knowing that his own personal ministry was going to be the same thing but more so. And yet both went ahead with it. Which is pretty much the pattern of God' interaction with humanity from the very beginning, isn't it? He reaches out, we screw up the response, he rolls his eyes and starts again...
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
I am feeling very over my head in all this. I take "Isaiah saw Christ's glory" to be a straightforward reference to his vision of the Lord in the temple (Isaiah 6 again).

You may be right. John is quoting both Isa 6 and 53 at this point so either or both seem valid to me. I was just interested by the fact that earlier in John 12 Jesus is talking about his "glorification" appearing to refer to his imminent crucifixion. Hence the reason I was interested in John referring to Isaiah seeing Christ's glory. Did he mean Christ's Majestic Glory or his suffering and death. Either appear reasonable interpretations so apologies for any confusion I created.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Not your doing mine--and possibly the pain meds!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The biggest problem I see for modern Christians accepting John's (or Handel's) interpretation of the Suffering Servant poem is that Isaiah's scapegoat is universally hated, and regarded as being afflicted by God as punishment for some unmentionable sin.

But Jesus was not universally misunderstood. John makes it quite cjear that Jesus suffered at the hands of the "baddies" - the non-believers, the ones who walked intransigently in their own darkness. My description here is probably as mixed up here as John's, but do you see (roughly) what I mean?

I see the point you are making but I don't quite see Is 53 that way. I don't think Isaiah's Suffering servant is universally hated - nor that the text requires that. (For example Isaiah says "he was rejected by men" not "rejected by all men"). So I don't see any requirement for Jesus to be universally misunderstood for the Suffering Servant to apply to him. Having said that I doubt that anyone including the disciples had the foggiest idea what was going on at this point - not until afterwards did they get an inkling - so in that sense Jesus is universally misunderstood at this juncture - even by his followers.
You may be right, but I think to translate "rejected by men" as "rejected by some men" rather waters down the point Isaiah is making. I've always taken it as meaning "rejected by mankind/his fellow men." Perhaps a Hebrew scholar can help. The more important point is that the suffering servant doesn't answer back - he doesn't raise his voice in the street, whereas the Johanine Jesus gives as good as he gets in verbal terms.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
You may be right, but I think to translate "rejected by men" as "rejected by some men" rather waters down the point Isaiah is making. I've always taken it as meaning "rejected by mankind/his fellow men." Perhaps a Hebrew scholar can help. The more important point is that the suffering servant doesn't answer back - he doesn't raise his voice in the street, whereas the Johanine Jesus gives as good as he gets in verbal terms.

Sorry yes I think your phrase "rejected by mankind/his fellow men" sums it up nicely. I just don't think that a generalisation like that means necessarily every single person rejected him. Though as I said above in practice even his disciples abandoned him even if they didn't "reject" him.
On your other point: true, Jesus doesn't shy away from full-on confrontation with the authorities. But, again I don't see that as incompatible with the suffering servant who "was silent like a sheep before it's shearers" when actually this was exactly how Jesus was in his trial. Having confronted the authorities head-on in the lead-up to his arrest when it comes to his trial he just clams up and doesn't even defend himself.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I wouldn't be surprised if John was doing two things at once (again) with his “glory” theme. The association of glory with light permits one to think of victory in terms of creation: defeat of darkness, resurrection, vindication, ruling from the throne of heaven, and so on. That's the bit where darkness could not overcome light. On the other hand, association of glory with suffering open up images of Isaiah: the darkness not being able to understand the light, of being incapable of reconciling Jesus' approach with that of an appointed rescuer from God.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Looks like we've exhausted the glory debate so moving on...

quote:
John 12:42-43
Nevertheless, even among the rulers many believed in him, but because of the Pharisees they would not confess Jesus to be the Christ, so that they would not be put out of the synagogue. For they loved praise from men more than praise from God. NET Bible

There seems to be a mixed message here - on the positive side more people actually believed in Jesus that might've appeared but then actually the phrasing makes those who did believe but didn't speak out sound gutless.

I remember someone who visited Eastern Europe a lot after the end of the Cold War saying that there were issues for Christians who claimed to have been Christians all along but had not done anything to bring themselves to the notice of the authorities and therefore had not suffered any persecution. Those that had endured persecution regarded them with suspicion or as somehow not proper Christians as they hadn't suffered. I wonder if John has something similar in mind.

(PS I note that the NET Bible notes refer back to John 9:22)
quote:
(His parents said these things because they were afraid of the Jewish religious leaders. For the Jewish leaders had already agreed that anyone who confessed Jesus to be the Christ would be put out of the synagogue.

 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
Looks like we've exhausted the glory debate so moving on...

I remember someone who visited Eastern Europe a lot after the end of the Cold War saying that there were issues for Christians who claimed to have been Christians all along but had not done anything to bring themselves to the notice of the authorities and therefore had not suffered any persecution. Those that had endured persecution regarded them with suspicion or as somehow not proper Christians as they hadn't suffered. I wonder if John has something similar in mind.


Sounds like a revival of the heresy of donatism.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Sounds like a revival of the heresy of donatism.

I've no idea what the heresy of donatism is but it sounds painful! [Biased]

I've probably given the wrong impression though - I wasn't trying to make a theological point about what was true or not; more - just a practical question of whether Christians in John's time had similar issues... anyway it's probably a tangent not relevant for this thread so happy to drop it. Ignore me - move on [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Donatists said that no-one who had in even the slightest way compromised with the secular authorities in the days of persecution could be accepted into the Church after Constantine's conversion. Augustine was one of those who preached against it.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gee D:
Donatists said that no-one who had in even the slightest way compromised with the secular authorities in the days of persecution could be accepted into the Church after Constantine's conversion. Augustine was one of those who preached against it.

Thanks for clearing that up for me. [Smile]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Might be a bit of a tangent anyway, since John is talking about people who never made that first decisive step into the Kingdom to start with (whether you want to call that baptism, or verbal confession of Christ, or ...). They are not lapsed believers, like the people in the controversy we've been discussing.

Basically these are guys who are no longer in a state of honest doubt--they have, and they know they have, sufficient evidence that Jesus is the one they ought to be following/believing, BUT the likely consequences for their personal lives are scaring them away. Somebody called this a state of "dishonest doubt"--where you know what you ought to do, but for emotional/pragmatic/or even just-plain-sinful reasons (e.g. cowardice, laziness), you fail to follow through.

[ 19. November 2013, 22:40: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Another tangent]I think the dog-in-amanger attitude towards those who believed in Jesus but weren't hounded for it - having the best of both worlds, so to speak, still exists today.

If you're not a martyr you're not kosher? Presumably Joesph of Arimathea comes under this heading - without whose intervention the body of Jesus might have been dumped in a common grave? Yet I have heard one ordained prat denigrate him "When all is said and done, what did he do but bury his Lord?" was his final sneer.

[ 20. November 2013, 09:55: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
If you're not a martyr you're not kosher? Presumably Joesph of Arimathea comes under this heading - without whose intervention the body of Jesus might have been dumped in a common grave? Yet I have heard one ordained prat denigrate him "When all is said and done, what did he do but bury his Lord?" was his final sneer.

In fact, we don't know what he did, aside from providing a tomb. The gospels do not provide a detailed biography of everyone whose life touched Jesus'.

Moo
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
But I don't think John is being dog-in-a-manger. To be that, you have to be envious of the other party. John has no desire to be among the undeclared, whom he believes to be heading down the easy road to hell. ("loving the praise of men more than that of God" is a clear statement of idolatry, which was/is basically Sin. No. 1 in both Testaments.

You'd be right, I think, to say he has contempt for them. But not envy. More the attitude a professional soldier/writer/athlete etc. has to the armchair idiots who say, "Oh, I could do that easily, I just can't be bothered." They won't take the leap, or even try.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yep. Dog in a manger not appropriate for John, perhaps. And the rest off topic. Sorry.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Hadn't twigged this before – one of the advantages of plodding through each verse in detail – but most English versions (including, sadly, the NET Bible) render verse 43 to include the English word “praise,” as in: “they loved praise from men more than praise from God.”

This could cloud what John was doing, because he uses the theme word “glory” here: “they loved human glory rather than God's glory.”

That puts the saying smack on the button with his other 'glory' statements – John's faithful colleagues and audience had seen Jesus' glory (1:14), even Isaiah had seen his glory (12:43), and those who had so seen were confessing it. I wonder if that throws some light on the reason for these verses? Were those who failed to confess their loyalties openly in danger of more than just excommunication from the Jewish community? Were they also in danger of de facto loyalty to darkness, basking in human pseudo-light (glory) rather than the legitimate light?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Hadn't twigged this before – one of the advantages of plodding through each verse in detail – but most English versions (including, sadly, the NET Bible) render verse 43 to include the English word “praise,” as in: “they loved praise from men more than praise from God.”

This could cloud what John was doing, because he uses the theme word “glory” here: “they loved human glory rather than God's glory.”

That puts the saying smack on the button with his other 'glory' statements – John's faithful colleagues and audience had seen Jesus' glory (1:14), even Isaiah had seen his glory (12:43), and those who had so seen were confessing it. I wonder if that throws some light on the reason for these verses? Were those who failed to confess their loyalties openly in danger of more than just excommunication from the Jewish community? Were they also in danger of de facto loyalty to darkness, basking in human pseudo-light (glory) rather than the legitimate light?

Nothing to add. Just [Overused]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Very likely. And since excommunication in those unenlightened days wasn't just a case of "you can't come to church/synagogue any more" but "you are damned to hell and so is anybody else who even speaks to you", I find it hard to understand how John's countering one sort of viciousness with another - and havingb the effrontery to call it godly - can be eqated with any understanding of christian love.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
OK to move on Shipmates?

The next verses are:

quote:
John 12:44-46
But Jesus shouted out, “The one who believes in me does not believe in me, but in the one who sent me, and the one who sees me sees the one who sent me. I have come as a light into the world, so that everyone who believes in me should not remain in darkness. NET Bible

I wasn't sure where to break as this section to the end of 13 feels like a summary of Jesus' message before John moves on. It's not clear to me what the occasion of these words were or even if they are one pronouncement by Jesus or several packaged together by John as a summary. Anyway the initial statements in these verses flow naturally from the darkness/light discussion above. But also show the importance of the relationship between Jesus and the Father and Jesus showing what the Father is like. I've never spotted this but there is a link into the discussion between Jesus and Philip in 14:9 (oops sorry jumping ahead, rewind).

Thoughts?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for keep ing the "proper" discussion going. As well as reiterating the relationship of Jesus with the Father, this and many other passages like it also repeat the uncompromising inference that "He who doesn't see me/believe in me doesn't not see me/believe in me, but the one who sent me."

In a sense, this sort of statement always leaves me in the dark. For John, the important thing is to say (and mean) "I believe in Jesus/God."

But how can an inquirer/non believer say that if (s)he has serious doubts about what such an admission means to the evangelist? The evangelist might think the convert is saying "I believe what the evangelist believes". But the evangelist is just as human as the (would be) convert, and, frankly, just as fallible.

This is the first time I've noticed that Jesus is shouting here. Why do you suppose that is?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
This is the first time I've noticed that Jesus is shouting here. Why do you suppose that is?

I imagine this to be in the context of Jesus teaching in the temple - or more accurately debating with the religious leaders. In my mind Jesus probably utters these words at some point in the week leading up to his death & resurrection - Jesus gives various discourses in the Temple - many directly challenging the establishment. (I think it might've been noted upthread that Jesus switches from withdrawing and staying out of trouble to directly confronting the authorities from the Triumphal Entry onwards.)
So, in my imagination, Jesus is in one of these sparring matches with the religious leaders and causes uproar - everyone is talking across everyone else. At this point Jesus shouts across everyone - making his declaration: "If you don't believe me, then you do not believe the one who sent me". A powerful and controversial claim: basically: "you claim to believe in God, but you refuse to believe me - someone who is from God"...

...IMHO. Maybe I just have a vivid imagination! [Biased]

(Not ignoring your other question but I'll ponder it a bit before responding further)
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
As well as reiterating the relationship of Jesus with the Father, this and many other passages like it also repeat the uncompromising inference that "He who doesn't see me/believe in me doesn't not see me/believe in me, but the one who sent me."

In a sense, this sort of statement always leaves me in the dark. For John, the important thing is to say (and mean) "I believe in Jesus/God."

But how can an inquirer/non believer say that if (s)he has serious doubts about what such an admission means to the evangelist? The evangelist might think the convert is saying "I believe what the evangelist believes". But the evangelist is just as human as the (would be) convert, and, frankly, just as fallible.

I think I see what you mean, based on John's intention in writing, as in John 20:30-31:
quote:
Now Jesus performed many other miraculous signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not recorded in this book. But these are recorded so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name. NET Bible
I guess knowing what was in John's mind when he wrote is supposition. But rather than him meaning: "I want you to believe what I believe about Jesus" maybe it is more relational than that? "I want you to meet Jesus through my writing, to encounter him and what he was like, to see for yourself that he was who he claimed to be. Once you have had that encounter everything else will follow on."...?
Sorry if I've missed what you were getting at!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
...I find it hard to understand how John's countering one sort of viciousness with another...can be eqated with any understanding of christian love.

I suspect John is doing what all his compatriots did: draw (consciously or unconsciously) on the worldview of covenant to support the idea that staying in a community required the attribute of loyalty, whereas anti-social behaviour required rendition!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I've just had a look at the instances where John uses the verb for "shout." He doesn't scream much, just on four occasions. Apart from the current passage, there are a couple where Jesus is in the Temple and John has him bellow: “You both know me and know where I come from! And I have not come on my own initiative, but the one who sent me is true. You do not know him, but I know him, because I have come from him and he sent me” (7:28), followed up a few days later, still in the Temple, by “If anyone is thirsty, let him come to me, and let the one who believes in me drink.”

Then there's John the Baptist (in 1:15) with “This one was the one about whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is greater than I am, because he existed before me.’”

It does fit with Jesus (and the Baptist) needing to grab people's attention in a noisy environment, but perhaps also John is using the verb as a device to grab his readers' attention – “Pay attention now, this next bit is important for everybody!”

The important bit, I guess, would be the link to John's opening statement that the Word was God. To see one was to see the other; to believe in one was to believe in the other.

The last sentence in the current section is intriguing (...so that everyone who believes in me should not remain in darkness). I was wondering what the impact of the verbal qualifier “should” would have been. Does John mean that belief in Jesus automatically results in removal from darkness? Or does the phrase imply that belief provides the opportunity for coming out from darkness, but that it is still possible for someone to opt to remain in darkness – they should be lit, but perhaps not always...? The verbal state is strange (to me, at any rate): John uses the subjunctive mood for the verb “to remain.” That in itself is not unusual – the NT is littered with the verbal subjunctive in association with a negative particle – but why here? The option of a person remaining in darkness even though he or she believes seems counter-intuitive: the whole point of the light/dark metaphor is to paint a picture of darkness being overwhelmed by light; one can't be still in the dark when the light comes on. So....

It may simply be a phrase thing, describing the state whereby a situation would not be allowed to exist: In darkness they will not be permitted to remain any longer; or, The situation will no longer arise when they would be in darkness.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
In haste and without checking the Greek (forgive me)--isn't just that you have a conditional, and the second half requires the subjunctive? Off to the doc....
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, NT Greek makes me want to go to the doctor, too.

It certainly is acting as a purpose clause: "I as light to the world have come, in order that all who believe in me in the darkness [might? should?] not remain."

It might be indicating the aim of an action - as in John 1:7 ("He came as a witness, [in order to / with the following aim: to] bear witness to the light") where the verb 'to bear witness' is also in the subjunctive mood. So here in 12:44 Jesus came...in order that...not remain...

Yet it feels a bit surprising that John didn't just come out with a positive - Jesus came...in order that...all believers be in the light.

'Not remaining in darkness' somehow leaves open a strange uncertainty, as though leaving darkness for light is conditional.

Or I'm jut seeing UFOs.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I may be wrong but the passage that immediately sprang to mind for me was 1 John 1:5-7 about walking in the light.
quote:
Now this is the gospel message we have heard from him and announce to you: God is light, and in him there is no darkness at all. If we say we have fellowship with him and yet keep on walking in the darkness, we are lying and not practicing the truth. But if we walk in the light as he himself is in the light, we have fellowship with one another and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin. NET Bible
So are Jesus words here where this idea comes from for (1) John that Jesus says, "I am the light, I have brought the light of God, you now need to live in the light of that" (pun intended). I.e. Jesus has provided us the means to walk in the light (his intent is that we should not/need not/will not walk in darkness) but there is an element of choice on our part to live this out and walk in the light (or not and stay walking in the darkness).
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
That's a useful link, JD. This again might throw light on a reason why John bothered to pick up parchment and stylus in the first place: his audience needed reminding about their status and consequent responsibilities. It's as though he is saying: Christianity is about black and white, but some white is black.

Or something like that. Now I've muddied the waters enough.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So I'll muddy them a bit more. I think the "should not walk in darkness" bit may hark back to the passages in Isaiah we were looking at before. And I've noticed, reading Isaiah again (not all of it!) that the servant whom God "upholds" isn't always suffering, isn't always silent. I've been brainwashed by Handel, I think. I'll try to find the bits I mean shortly, where the forthright, self-affirming servant of God does in fact make a very likely model for John's no-nonsense Jesus. Hmmm...
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Sounds good pimple - look forward to reading that (and thanks for bumping this thread up!). Meantime your comments made me think of a very familiar verse for this time of year from Isaiah:
quote:
The people walking in darkness
see a bright light;
light shines
on those who live in a land of deep darkness.
Is 9:2 NET Bible


 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The passage just before Isaiah 9 is also interesting – 8:11-22 (the versification is different in Hebrew MT and Greek LXX for the end of chapter 8) provides the reverse side of the positive coin and is linked to what follows in chapter 9.

In chapter 8 we have the people of Jerusalem regarding God as a “trap and a snare” as well as a “stumbling stone and tripping stone.” Resonates rather well with John's presentation of the authorities in Jerusalem who consistently misinterpret the scriptures and regard the real truth as an evil to be avoided. Because they cannot find God, they end up with false interpretations – a spiritual darkness – and their end is to be thrown into complete darkness, that other theme in John.

John does indeed seem to be well versed in Isaiah.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I agree. It is easy to forget that the early church didn't have the NT as we have it and hence the OT were their Scriptures and they were well versed in it (and in seeing the Christological references much better than we are I suspect!)

So, Isaiah chapter by chapter Keryg thread anyone?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
We might have to go at it syllable by syllable to get the most out of it!
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
We might have to go at it syllable by syllable to get the most out of it!

Much as I would love to do that it would take centuries! Anyway interested to see what pimple comes up with....
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think it was this I had in mind, from Isaiah 50. Just after the servant declares that he didn't turn his face from spitting:

from insult and spitting.


7 The Lord God helps me;
therefore I have not been disgraced;
therefore I have set my face like flint,
and I know that I shall not be put to shame;
8 he who vindicates me is near.
Who will contend with me?
Let us stand up together.
Who are my adversaries?
Let them confront me.
9 It is the Lord God who helps me;
who will declare me guilty?
All of them will wear out like a garment;
the moth will eat them up.


10 Who among you fears the Lord
and obeys the voice of his servant,
who walks in darkness
and has no light,
yet trusts in the name of the Lord
and relies upon his God?
11 But all of you are kindlers of fire,
lighters of firebrands.*
Walk in the flame of your fire,
and among the brands that you have kindled!
This is what you shall have from my hand:
you shall lie down in torment.

But now I'm not quite sure who it is that is walking in darkness. Help!
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Yes this image of "walking in darkness" is very different to the image in 1 John.

Personally this passage feels like a very real experience of someone choosing to trust God even in the absence of any visible indication of his presence and/or guidance. Those times when God feels absent and silent. But the servant continues to trust God - without trying to artificially "make light".
This for me is why the firefighters and firebrands are condemned here because in the absence of direction from God they make their own light rather than patiently waiting on The Lord until his light shows the way.
So the servant here maybe the prophet himself and/or a foreshadowing of how Christ felt in Gethsemane or on the cross?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Err.. are we OK to move on? No-one's posted for a few days..

Next couple verses are:

quote:
John 12:47-8 (NET)
If anyone hears my words and does not obey them, I do not judge him. For I have not come to judge the world, but to save the world. The one who rejects me and does not accept my words has a judge; the word I have spoken will judge him at the last day.

Echoes of John 3:17-18?

quote:
For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world should be saved through him. The one who believes in him is not condemned.
Thoughts?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Apologies - I was hoping to get a chance to do more on the Ship this weekend. Plough on, though; I'll catch up!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The thoughts we've been having about Isaiah's influence on John made we wonder if anyone had done a study of the links. Commentaries note in passing that John may have used this or that phrase / verse from Isaiah, but I'm not aware of any commentator making a case for a broader link that might indicate whether or not John was drawing on Isaiah's themes throughout his work.

Quick search on the internet threw up a monograph by James Hamilton, which opens with a series of useful footnotes (and not much room for actual body text!), but again the works cited tend to focus on specific quotations from Isaiah, rather than a search for any persistent themes.

Hamilton lays a ground for further work by pulling together the texts in John where Isaiah is directly quoted plus some other indirect quotes or allusions (including the light/dark theme we noted). He ends up with a helpful chart of passage comparisons to stimulate further research.


Back to the current verses (47-8). It used to be fashionable to draw a distinction (in John's Gospel, at least, but also wider) between two words used in Greek that can be translated by one word in English: the word “word” itself. Haven’t heard this mentioned for some time – others may have – but the argument runs something like this:

“Greek has two words for “word”: logos (= λόγος) and rhema (= ῥῆμα). The former refers to the totality of God's inspired 'word' or message to humans (both Jesus and scripture) and the latter to specific utterances that may be used by the Spirit to inspire us to act in certain ways in certain contexts.”

John uses both in these verses:
quote:
If anyone hears my words [rhema in plural] and does not obey them, I do not judge him. For I have not come to judge the world, but to save the world. The one who rejects me and does not accept my words [rhema in plural] has a judge; the word [logos] I have spoken will judge him at the last day.
So I suppose the question arises: Is there anything significant in John's use of the two Greek words here? Or is this just a stylistic thing – John worrying that he has flogged rhema to death in the verse and decides not to bore his audience any more?

Whichever way it goes, there is also the question: Just exactly what 'Word' is it Jesus refers to that would be the judge? It's something he says he has spoken. Where? Which? Is it the totality of his message?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Hmm. Really interesting question. As you have figured out by now Nigel M I am no scholar but I did wonder when I read your post whether the final "Word" that will judge people - is the Logos himself - Jesus. In other words: the character of God as expressed in Jesus.

So is Jesus saying: "You will not be judged against the words I have spoken whilst I am with you (even though they are inspired by my Father) but if you do not believe then ultimately you will be judged against the full character of God as expressed in my whole life - is that what you want? cos that's what'll happen?"
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John does have a predilection for associating logos with Jesus, most obviously in his introduction, so that could mean he is referring to Jesus' being / character – including the sum total of all he said and did on earth.

There is something of a restriction, though, in Jesus saying “...the word I have spoken...”, which sounds as though it knocks away anything not spoken. An actual message, perhaps. I've had a look at how John uses logos in his work and he does seem at times to refer to a self-contained message (the content of a group of words, in effect). An example is in 5:32, where Jesus says: “I tell you the solemn truth, the one who hears my message [logos] and believes the one who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned, but has crossed over from death to life.”

Then there's a usage that suggests John is referring to something close to “interpretation,” as in 2:18-22
quote:
So then the Jewish leaders responded, “What sign can you show us, since you are doing these things?” Jesus replied, “Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up again.” Then the Jewish leaders said to him, “This temple has been under construction for forty-six years, and are you going to raise it up in three days?” But Jesus was speaking about the temple of his body. So after he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this, and they believed the scripture and the saying [logos] that Jesus had spoken.
Perhaps this is about Jesus acting as the message-bearer from God, one who also interprets that message for his hearers. That might explain the link with God as judge – it's his message and he will judge on the basis of people's response.

Just don't shoot the messenger...
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Fair point. It was a bit of a gut reaction rather than a well thought through argument [Biased]

Interesting that the "logos" Jesus had spoken of in that chapter referred to his death & resurrection. Maybe that is getting to the difference between the rhema word and the logos word. So that is why John uses both in the original verses. Its the difference between "my words" in the sense of a specific debate/command, and "my ultimate word" - which is the gospel (good news of my death & resurrection). Or something like that anyway. Maybe I'm over-analysing which is dangerous for someone who doesn't know Ancient Greek and where this was almost certainly uttered originally in Aramaic! [Smile]

[ 21. December 2013, 19:10: Message edited by: Jammy Dodger ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I'd not thought about that, JD - how the Hebrew/Aramaic background might have coloured the logos/rhema distinction.

I did wonder whether the well-known phrase "Word of the Lord" stood behind anything here in John. For example, did Jesus draw on that phrase and then John intend his audience to latch onto it by focussing deliberately on logos with reference to Jesus?

The problem is that there are a couple of words in Hebrew/Aramaic for “word” and the Greek translations don't match them up on a word for word basis (far too many words here...). The two words in Hebrew are dabar and 'emer in their assorted cases. There is no clear cut link between these two and one or other of the Greek equivalents – the translators of the Septuagint mix and match, bless 'em. So despite the phrase “word of the Lord” being consistent in Hebrew in carrying dabar, the Greek translators use both logos and rhema to translate that in different places. Seems to have depended on their fancy. So, for instance, the translator of Jeremiah prefers logos, but Ezekiel rhema.

So we are thrown back on John's usage. This may be one of those limited occasions where a NT writer may have drawn his vocabulary from a non-Jewish setting to make a deliberate point.

Which is a rather long-winded way of saying I still don't know what the point was!
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I see what you mean. Going back the the light/dark metaphor not sure how much light we are casting [Smile]

Anyway - personally I take great encouragement from Jesus words: "I came to save the world, not condemn it". Also for me judgement is best left to the expert - God (whether Father, Son or Spirit) but certainly not me.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
Nigel M wrote:
quote:
So we are thrown back on John's usage. This may be one of those limited occasions where a NT writer may have drawn his vocabulary from a non-Jewish setting to make a deliberate point.
I suspect that's the case.

If you want Isaiah, here's some more:-
quote:
A shoot will come up from the stump of Jesse;
from his roots a Branch will bear fruit.
2 The Spirit of the Lord will rest on him—
the Spirit of wisdom and of understanding,
the Spirit of counsel and of might,
the Spirit of the knowledge and fear of the Lord—
3 and he will delight in the fear of the Lord.

He will not judge by what he sees with his eyes,
or decide by what he hears with his ears;
4 but with righteousness he will judge the needy,
with justice he will give decisions for the poor of the earth.
He will strike the earth with the rod of his mouth;
with the breath of his lips he will slay the wicked.

(Isaiah 11:1-4, NIV)

This is of course the famous "Root of Jesse" reading that is all over the place at Advent and Christmas. I have chosen the NIV version as it's fairly typical of most translations. But the interesting point is that the LXX has "the word (λόγῳ) of his mouth".

I think this is relevant, the context being judgement.

John is writing in Greek, and it seems fair to assume that his audience will be familiar with the LXX version, so perhaps this linkage may have been more automatic for them. "Jesus is God's word, and he will be the judge" seems to be John's message, if we take this understanding.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Honest Ron Bacardi:
...the interesting point is that the LXX has "the word (λόγῳ) of his mouth".

That is interesting, HRB, given the Hebrew word isn't 'word' but 'stick / rod.' I wonder where the Greek translator got 'word' from here?

Certainly the logos aspect matches judgment quite well here - especially verse 3 and the reference to not judging on the basis of appearance, but rather on the basis of righteous / loyal acts.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
quote:
That is interesting, HRB, given the Hebrew word isn't 'word' but 'stick / rod.' I wonder where the Greek translator got 'word' from here?
To be honest, I would be surprised if we ever found out. It may simply be that the LXX is following another tradition at this point, and translated faithfully. I checked the Isaiah scroll from Qumran, which has a number of points of variance with the (later) Masoretic, and which often follows the LXX on those points. But it too has "rod" at this point.

Or conceivably, the translator just thought "rod of his mouth" sounded too weird in Greek. I assume it is a continued metaphor from the previous chapter, where Isiah has God issuing a word of woe to the Assyrians - "the rod of my anger" (10:5), and how the people who live in Zion are not to be afraid of the Assyrians who "beat you with a rod" (10:24) - i.e. judgement of the righteous one would be a very different kind of rod.

But this is getting away from John...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
...and moving back to the agenda...
quote:
John 12:49-50 (NET Bible)
For I have not spoken from my own authority, but the Father himself who sent me has commanded me what I should say and what I should speak. And I know that his commandment is eternal life. Thus the things I say, I say just as the Father has told me.”

Rounds off another chapter and emphasises the Jesus-as-herald (or authorised messenger) from God. So Jesus speaks God's words.

Another sneaky word in there – God's 'commandment' is eternal life. His commandment? Which? Where?!!!!
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
Gen 2: 8-17 ?

[ 28. December 2013, 10:47: Message edited by: Honest Ron Bacardi ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Here is the text of Genesis 2:8-17.

Please remember to post a link to the text you are discussing.

Moo, Kerygmania host
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Here is the text of Genesis 2:8-17.

Please remember to post a link to the text you are discussing.

Moo, Kerygmania host

Moo - my fault entirely - apologies. Festive wooziness is my only excuse.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
...and moving back to the agenda...
quote:
John 12:49-50 (NET Bible)
For I have not spoken from my own authority, but the Father himself who sent me has commanded me what I should say and what I should speak. And I know that his commandment is eternal life. Thus the things I say, I say just as the Father has told me.”

Rounds off another chapter and emphasises the Jesus-as-herald (or authorised messenger) from God. So Jesus speaks God's words.

Another sneaky word in there – God's 'commandment' is eternal life. His commandment? Which? Where?!!!!

OK might be totally off beam here but is this just a bit of parallelism/repetition?
According to a very quick skim of Blue Letter Bible online the Greek word used in v49 and v50 is the same.
I.e. Jesus says that "what I should say and what I should speak" are God's "commandment" (in the sense of being commanded by God). Thus God's commandment and Jesus words are synonymous. Therefore that phrase in v50 can be understood as Jesus saying "my words are the words of eternal life" (because they originate with the eternal Father).
C.f. John 6:68:
quote:
John 6:68 (NIV)
Simon Peter answered him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have the words of eternal life.


 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Honest Ron Bacardi:
Gen 2:8-17?

An interesting thought. I wondered though whether John would have signalled Genesis more if he was referring back to the Eden event. I know he uses Genesis as his opening gambit in the introduction (“In the beginning...”), but I'm not sure how far it would have been active in his audience's mind here in chapter 12. If Isaiah was being front-and-centered in this chapter, would Genesis have been uppermost in the mind? I know Isaiah is a good commentator on Genesis' creation account, but whether people would have worked back from John through Isaiah to Genesis here...

Part of the problem is that the word (verbal and nominal) for 'commandment' is a common one in the LXX. If there is an OT referent it might have come from a number of places. It's quite popular in John's idiolect as well. There's another related use in John 10:18 -
quote:
“No one takes it [my life] away from me, but I lay it down of my own free will. I have the authority to lay it down, and I have the authority to take it back again. This commandment I received from my Father.”
It feels as though John uses it in the sense of “providing authority for,” as part of an authorised mission to accomplish something. Jesus is given the power to do something on behalf of God.
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
is this just a bit of parallelism/repetition?

I think you're right about the parallelism – and possibly this parallel pushes further back to explain the logos term a bit: God commands [gives a command = entole] Jesus to pass on God's message [logos] to the world. This message offers two outcomes – eternal life for those who accept it, judgement for those who don't. In this case, the commandment results in life, rather than just “is” life.


The John 10 reference (quoted above) sparked a thought off: if that chapter acts as a peak in John's gospel, then perhaps there's something going on in chapter 12 that links back. Chapter 10 is a crunch point, where Jesus creates a crisis of decision making by making some outrageous claims: he is the real leader (the authorised and authoritative messiah), not the Jerusalem authorities; he represents God and indeed is understood to claim to be God; his signs support the claims he made. People had to decide for or against.

If that's the peak, then John's work falls out on either side in related fashion. A good mirror for the chapter 12 passage we are reading could appear in chapter 5:36-46. It's a bit of a mouthful, but worth quoting in full here:
quote:
...the deeds that the Father has assigned me to complete—the deeds I am now doing—testify about me that the Father has sent me. And the Father who sent me has himself testified about me. You people have never heard his voice nor seen his form at any time, nor do you have his word residing in you, because you do not believe the one whom he sent. You study the scriptures thoroughly because you think in them you possess eternal life, and it is these same scriptures that testify about me, but you are not willing to come to me so that you may have life.

“I do not accept praise from people, but I know you, that you do not have the love of God within you. I have come in my Father’s name, and you do not accept me. If someone else comes in his own name, you will accept him. How can you believe, if you accept praise from one another and don’t seek the praise that comes from the only God?

“Do not suppose that I will accuse you before the Father. The one who accuses you is Moses, in whom you have placed your hope. If you believed Moses, you would believe me, because he wrote about me. But if you do not believe what Moses wrote, how will you believe my words?”

Some interesting similarities. Jesus is sent by God and doesn't come to judge, but there is one who will judge: Moses (or more specifically, the words that Moses wrote).

Is there a parallel here with the end of chapter 12? The writings speak of Jesus, they were written by Moses who received them from God, God also sent Jesus and gave him the words to speak. Bit of a circle.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Yes I can see that. John seems to have lots of threads of ideas that are constantly woven and interwoven together so I can see how John's use of a word or idea elsewhere helps illuminate the current use. Jesus definitely seems to be getting across that his authority comes not from himself but from his Father.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
There's a strong element or recapitulation about this last bit, isn't there?

I found myself nodding to much of the suggestions here, which may just mean I am easily persuaded, or perhaps (hopefully) that there is an element of "both/and" about this part.

The only minor query I have is about this bit -
quote:
I think you're right about the parallelism – and possibly this parallel pushes further back to explain the logos term a bit: God commands [gives a command = entole] Jesus to pass on God's message [logos] to the world. This message offers two outcomes – eternal life for those who accept it, judgement for those who don't. In this case, the commandment results in life, rather than just “is” life. (Nigel M)
No disagreement at all with the first bit. But in the last sentence I am wondering if there is more to it. My thought runs along these lines...

The verb here is estin. My understanding of the Greek usage of the verb "to be" is that it is more emphatic than English. It at least carries a connotation of identity, and would be unlikely to be used in the broader way we use it in English. And John ramps that up by several degrees with his emphatic I AM statements which are surely ontological. So my ears started twitching when John used the verb "to be" here. Or in other words I suspect if John had been intending to convey the message that God's command or Jesus' words led to or brought eternal life, he would have not used this flat-out bald statement. After all, there is plenty of OT reference to God's commands bringing life - albeit understood rather differently.

I'm wondering if this passage is also a fore-echo of one of the other great I AM statements that Jesus will soon make -
quote:
Jesus replied, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me." John 16:6 (NET)
It does seem to fit into the general nexus of statements about God and Jesus that amount to the same thing on comparing.

Perhaps this bit looks both ways.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The “both/and” aspect is certainly appealing. I know we aren't yet at the 16:6 bit yet and should postpone discussion until we get there, but seeing as we have our fingers bookmarking it already and my fear that once we get there I will have forgotten about this bit (I'm due to be senile by the year 2040, just practising now), may I indulge in some questions I would have wanted (will want to have wanted?) to raise about 16:6?

So – first off. The Biggie. There used to be a scholarly consensus around the assumption that John's Gospel is all Greek – in the philosophical sense. It's easy to see why: his use of the Logos language and the resonance of that with Platonic and other Hellenistic thought waves; also his phraseology, which reads like nothing under the Gospel sun, being less narratival and more reflective than his gospeller cousins. A classicist from the 18th to mid 20th centuries reading John's Gospel would be forgiven for thinking, “John writes in Greek, his style is Greek, ergo he thinks Greek.”

In recent decades, though, a fair amount of focus has been on John's reliance on his Hebrew background, e.g., the drawing on Jewish scriptures, his word order (which reflects a semitic language background rather than classic greek), the geographical references – particularly in Jerusalem – and the narrative flow that does occur around the speech. There seems to have a been a swing of the pendulum from “John is a philosophical Greek” to “John talks Greek but betrays his Hebrew roots.”

That being the case I suppose the question here is, When John uses Greek words or phrases that have technical meanings in Greek philosophical tradition, is he in fact pulling in the world of philosophical meaning associated with his Greek neighbours, or is he really still drawing on Hebrew thought background?

Or is he perhaps doing a peculiar John-thing and working on double-meanings? For example, is he appearing to be talking 'Greek' in order to take captive Greek notions in service of Hebrew thought? Is he a Hebrew in Greek clothing?

Secondly and linked to this, more narrowly, is then the question of the “I Am” sayings. John could be understood as making an ontological statement. Perhaps however he is drawing not only on the Hebrew name for God (YHWH, however pronounced), but also on that name's meaning, rather than anything imported from Greek philosophy. He could be taking the more dynamic view of God's name, understood from its setting in Exodus 3:12-15 (NET Bible)
quote:
[God – El] replied, “Surely I will be with you, and this will be the sign to you that I have sent you: When you bring the people out of Egypt, you and they will serve God [El] on this mountain.”

Moses said to God [El], “If I go to the Israelites and tell them, ‘The God [El] of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they ask me, ‘What is his name?’—what should I say to them?”

God [El] said to Moses, “I am that I am.” And he said, “You must say this to the Israelites, ‘I am has sent me to you.’” God [El] also said to Moses, “You must say this to the Israelites, ‘The Lord [YHWH] —the God [El] of your fathers, the God [El] of Abraham, the God [El] of Isaac, and the God [El] of Jacob—has sent me to you. This is my name forever, and this is my memorial from generation to generation.’

In that context we have the supreme god El, god over all gods, known across the ancient near east, known and worshipped by Israel's fathers, now confirming that he will not be known just as the absentee landlord who appears once in a while to blast the earth if it appears to be getting out of control, but as the El who will be with the Israelites. This seems to be a more contextual understanding of the “I Am” phrase in verse 14 – it builds on the use of the same verb in verse 12 (highlighted in bold above); the 'name' means “I am going to be with you.” This also maps nicely on to Isaiah's reminder to Israel of God's name in 7:14, “...his name will be Immanuel”, the “God [El] is with us” name.

I'm desperately clinging here to John's verb “to be” in 12:50 in the hope that we are still in the right bookmark! It comes down to wondering what John might be doing with that estin in 12:50 (“and I know that his commandment eternal life is”). Was he being ontological in outlook, or perhaps signposting a dynamic link to a dynamic God who was with his people and did things with them?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Ok, honestly not sure if I followed all that, but...

1. I think it is much more likely that John as a Jew through and through is redeeming Greek terminology for gospel uses and more likely to be using them with Hebrew cultural references and thought-patterns in mind.

2. In terms of your last point I once heard that "eternal life" is more about a quality of life associated with the "eternal" nature of God rather than it meaning purely everlasting. That would link to your dynamic life related to a dynamic God idea.

[ 31. December 2013, 17:16: Message edited by: Jammy Dodger ]
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
Yes, I agree. However you want to express it, John is rooted in Jewish thought, however much he appreciates and is cognisant with Greek philosophical ideas. I think for him, these ways of looking at things simply "hit the spot", and are consequently an excellent way of explaining things.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Dynamically moving on into chapter 13 (but if there's more to say around chapter 12, please feel free...)

John 13:1 (NET Bible)
quote:
Just before the Passover feast, Jesus knew that his time had come to depart from this world to the Father. Having loved his own who were in the world, he now loved them to the very end.
Unusual to have just the one verse to post!

How big is the gap between this verse and what went before? A number of commentators (most?) see this as the beginning of a second major section in the Gospel, prompting major divisions in their commentaries; there's been an intermission, ice-cream has been sold, the punters have had a chance to mingle in the foyer, the fashionably late have just arrived, the bell goes for the second half, the orchestra returns from the bar and burps its way into the pit...

And yet. John has been harping on about the Passover for a few chapters already. Chapter 11 has a similar way of starting, yet it is not taken as a new major section. The theme of “the hour to depart” has been broached before. Yes I suppose one wouldn't expect there to be an entirely new play in Act two; the chief characters would remain and unfulfilled tensions would need to be resolved.

Personally I am hanging on to the idea of chapter 10 being a peak and that this current chapter should balance out something at a similar level in an earlier chapter. Not sure what yet, though!
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I have to say that on a casual reading the last few verses of ch.12 feel like a summary and this first verse in ch. 13 feels like an introduction to the Passion to me.
So I think there is definitely a "section break" in John's mind - how significant this is intended to be, I'm not sure but John spends considerable time on Jesus' discussion with his disciples in the Upper Room so there is certainly a hint for me of "significant material coming up people!". Doesn't mean that ch. 10 is not the "hinge" chapter though Nigel M.

Having said all that I don't think there is any indication of a significant lapse of time since the end of ch.12 - as the beginning of ch. 12 is only "six days before Passover" anyway. Surely no more than a day or so?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think it is a significant jumping off spot nonetheless, for chronological reasons even if one leaves out literary reasons. Chapter 13 marks the last desperate sprint to the end. From this time forward, Jesus will not sleep, eat (bar this last meal), teach publicly, or do any of the everyday things that have made up his life up to this day. No more temple visits. No more crowds (except for those shouting "Crucify!") No more preaching--now he is noted for staying silent. No more healing.*

Chapter 13 begins a sequence that will not rest until Jesus himself rests in the tomb.

* Yes, there is the last small act of kindness to an enemy in the Garden of Gethsemane, but you'll notice John does not report it, and it isn't a big splashy deal anyway--almost an unnoticed kind gesture from one who is in the habit of doing such things on a daily basis.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Well, after nearly 8 years on John's gospel, I could do with an intermission!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's nearly dinner time here, which links neatly with the next verse...

John 13:2
quote:
The evening meal was in progress, and the devil had already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon’s son, that he should betray Jesus.
John seems to run to a different timetable around the final Passover compared to the synoptic gospels, but he does single out this meal as something more than just a regular evening meal between Jesus and his disciples. The standard term for the daily family-type meal refers to simply taking bread (where 'bread' had become a synonym for what we call 'meal' – though I guess for many the staple crop was the meal). Here in verse 2 we have a deipnon (= δεῖπνον), which is something more formal, though not usually used for important full-blown banquets. Such a meal was often used in someone's honour.

The theme of satan as a prompter of action is interesting. John 6:70f provides a pre-emptive strike for this verse: “Didn’t I choose you, the twelve, and yet one of you is the devil?” Now he said this about Judas son of Simon Iscariot, for Judas, one of the twelve, was going to betray him.

The end of chapter 6 and beginning of chapter 7 may provide the counter balance to the current chapter (the betrayal, the hour...)
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Very pleased indeed to see that your intermission was so brief Nigel M.

Interested that the NET Bible translation says "the devil" rather than "a devil" (other translations, e.g. NIV) - which if I've understood the Gk words is down to the use of "diabolos" (devil) vs "daimonion" for demon. Not sure I get the subtleties of the argument but if John uses diabolos in both 6:70 and 13:2 that might reinforce the idea they are intended to be connected?

Clearly John is at least referring back to an idea that he set up in John 6:70 (though we probably shouldn't over interpret that as Jesus said to Peter "get behind me Satan").
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I don't think satan is promoting the action - that would dilute the message of Jesus being in total control - oh, I see, promotion could be seen as temptation I guess.

Yes I see the necessity for pre-emptive comment. Even though this isn't "the last supper" in quite the same way as the synoptics (is it?) it won't do to have the betrayer appearing to hoodwink his master, and being treated as on a par with the righteous ones (who abandoned him).
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
It must seem awful for people to be bad to Jesus.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ithinjk it would be difficult to do the next bit verse by verse. But don't let me rush any comments on this:
quote:
and during supper [3]Jesus,knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he had come from God and was going to God..
We think we know what John meant Jesus thought, yes?

quote:
...[4] got up from the table [Gk = from supper] took off his outer robe, and tied a towel round himself. [5] Then he poured water into a basin and began to wash the disciples' feet and to wipe them with the towel that was tied around him.
[John13.3-5]
This would I believe standard practice - a normal courtesy for visitors. to have a servant wash their feet. But The disciples aren't visitors and Jesus is not a servant. The fact that he acts like one is totally lost on Peter - and I don't think he [ever] gets it, frankly!

This is the beginning of John's re-working of a tradition found in Luke and probably elsewhere.

In the Lucan version, it starts with the disciples arguing among themselves about which of them should be regarded as the greatest. Jesus gives them a short homily on the subject of service:
quote:
For who is greater? The one who is at the table or the one who serves? Is it not the one at the table? But I am among you as one who serves...
[Luke 22.27 - but you need to read on a bit to get Luke/Jesus' complete point. It's rather complicated]

The passage deals with three things all at once - the coming crucifixion, with Peter's denial and the unknown disciple's betrayal, and the need to stop the squabbling over power. It fell on deaf ears, of course.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
To your first point yes John appears to be saying he knows what Jesus was thinking. Presumably this was from subsequent conversations (post resurrection).

But I find it an amazing statement: with a full realisation of who he was - his divine identity - Jesus deliberately takes the role of a servant - acting out Mark 10:45:

quote:
For even the Son of Man did not come to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.”

Jesus as ever is modelling how he wants is disciples to behave. Guess it's not just Peter that's failed to get the point over the centuries....
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And this is pertinent, I think:

Philippians 2:6-11
King James Version (KJV)

6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

This was written before the gospels, and is sometimes regarded as, possibly, an early Eucharistic prayer.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Totally. I find the whole thing incredibly humbling, particularly when I think of what I'm like!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It certainly is a major contrast here: the main person of honour at a meal, no less a representative of the King (sent by God) and carrying the King's authority ('given' or 'handed' all...), having concluded the King's business and preparing to return to the King's palace, suddenly goes through the actions associated with a servant's role. John spins it out – Jesus gets up, takes off his main garment, takes a towel, ties it round himself... the sequence of actions works to drive home the contrast.

The role reversal in the context of coming and going finds a mirror in chapter 6 (also where Judas is linked to the devil). In 6:62 Jesus, being aware that the disciples were struggling to understand his statement that they needed to 'eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood', asked them “Does this cause you to be offended? Then what if you see the Son of Man ascending where he was before?”

There is a hint here of something basic. The basic meal in chapter 6 (bread) that leads to eternal life has a mirror in chapter 13 – the meal of honour where the honourable guest turns slave.

And, yes, in neither passage do Jesus' followers quite follow!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Continuing:
quote:
John 13.6-106He came to Simon Peter, who said to him, ‘Lord, are you going to wash my feet?’ 7Jesus answered, ‘You do not know now what I am doing, but later you will understand.’ 8Peter said to him, ‘You will never wash my feet.’ Jesus answered, ‘Unless I wash you, you have no share with me.’ 9Simon Peter said to him, ‘Lord, not my feet only but also my hands and my head!’ 10Jesus said to him, ‘One who has bathed does not need to wash, except for the feet,* but is entirely clean. And you* are clean, though not all of you.’
Nudge, nudge! It really does get to John, the fact that Judas was there at times when Jesus (knowing Judas's intentions) and/or the disciples [who knew he was a thief??] should have chucked him out. There's so much light/dark, sight/blindness faith/doubt them/us in John. Judas is a disturbing grey area (and so, possibly, is the Beloved Disciple) and he has to keep the meassage clear and simple. Isn't that the problem with so much religion, now as then?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
It really does get to John, the fact that Judas was there at times when Jesus (knowing Judas's intentions) and/or the disciples [who knew he was a thief??] should have chucked him out.

That's definitely one of the biggie issues in the whole disciple thing: Why was Judas tolerated? We don't get a convincing answer in any of the gospels. If it really was the case that (at least) Jesus knew that Judas was going to be problematic, why retain him in the company?

John does make something of a comment back in chapter 10, that Jesus lays down his life of his own accord - no one takes it from him (10:17-18). Jesus remains in control of his destiny, perhaps even to the point of allowing Judas to have his head of steam. A type of 'suicide by cop'?!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Why did God retain the rebellious human race in his creation, rather than chucking us out once we'd gone bad? I suspect the answer to why Jesus retained Judas is the same. Though I'm not wholly clear on what it is...
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
That's definitely one of the biggie issues in the whole disciple thing: Why was Judas tolerated?

I think I'm with Lamb Chopped. Why are any of us tolerated? I actually take comfort from the fact that Jesus put up with Judas. If he can put up with Judas he can put up with me [Biased]

quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
Jesus remains in control of his destiny, perhaps even to the point of allowing Judas to have his head of steam. A type of 'suicide by cop'?!

Hmmm. I've heard the suicide by cop thing before and in one sense I get it. I agree Jesus is in control of his destiny - everything he does is very deliberate and I believe he knows full well what the outcome will be. But not quite the same thing as suicide by cop. I don't think Jesus wanted to die - the Garden of Gethsemane would indicate that. But he did want to obey his Father. In that sense both Father and Son are equally culpable. It is their plan to accomplish whatever really happened in that cosmic transaction that occurred between Father and Son on the cross.
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
In a way then, suicide by sin? Almost as if to point to what sin does to people or to God or to the humanity in people? I don't know. IANA theologian whatsoever, but I somehow think it's interesting how God often uses irony to teach us lessons, be it by letting us somehow comfort someone with similar issues like ourselves and thus getting insight into our own situation (as was the case when I stumbled upon this thought), or by using our greatest sin to redeem us from sin itself. I suppose it could be a sort of "come at me, bro" of divine nature...?

But I do digress from the text itself. Not sure what it means that Jesus points it out that not all are clean - or that there is no real reaction to that statement.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Okay, I'll put this up here so y'all can shoot at it. [Razz]

I take the footwashing to be an acted-out parable, not simply about service (though that is there too) but in particular about the forgiveness of sins. Jesus gets up, washes a bunch of nasty stinky feet, and then gets to Peter, who blurts out what everyone else is thinking, no doubt: "You shall never wash my feet!" And Jesus says, "You don't understand what I am doing now, but later you will... If I do not wash you, you have no part with me."

What kind of washing is so important that not receiving it constitutes not belonging to Jesus? That'd be the washing away of sins, wouldn't it?

And Peter flies to the opposite extreme (somehow I can't help hearing whatsisname crooning in the background, "All of me... why not take alllllll of meeeee..."). At which point Jesus says, "Anyone who has had a bath (= baptism) needs only to have his feet washed ( = the daily repentance and forgiveness of sins we all need in our Christian life) in order to be fully clean. And you are clean, but not all of you." Meaning Judas, who is the only one at the table in a state of deadly, unrepented and faithless sin.

Jesus finishes up by saying, "Do as I have done to you. No servant is greater than his master. If you know these things, blessed are you if you do them." If I'm right about this, he isn't just admonishing us to serve one another. He's requiring us to forgive one another all the stinky little sins we commit against each other on a daily basis.

As for why there's no immediate obvious reaction, I think the key is in what Jesus said to Peter: "You don't understand what I am doing now, but later you will." Something big was obviously going down--something inextricably connected with the cross he would hang on only a few hours later--but at this point in time, they just didn't get it. Yet.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Not quite my take on it, but certainly nothing there I want to shoot down, either!
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Nice link between the foot-wshing and forgiveness Lamb Chopped.
Agree with pimple - nothing I would want to shoot down.
The disciples really struggle to "get it" over the next few chapters of discourse. Every time Jesus tries to move the discussion on they say "woah, hold the phone, go back to that last bit again..."....
But I'm seriously jumping ahead so must stop!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thinking further about the possible reasons John (author*) might have had for presenting the whole Judas theme in the way he did, I did the rhetoric thing and went back to the constitution (in this case, John's overture/introduction), where the main themes of the work are set out – John 1:1-18.

In this opening, one of the themes John emphasises for later development is that of non-acceptance. For example:

“And the light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not mastered it.” (1:5)

“He was in the world, and the world was created by him, but the world did not recognize him. He came to what was his own, but his own people did not receive him.” (1:10-11)

Obviously we've been seeing how that plays out in the body of the work with respect to Jesus' struggle with the Jerusalem authorities (John labels these “The Jews”) over his credentials. But perhaps John also intended the Judas theme to be included in this light-versus-darkness tussle as well.

There is a difference, though, that I think impacts on how we see our role in Jesus' community. The engagement with the authorities over interpretation and validity involved a bit of mud-flinging – not unusual in the rhetorical style of the times – including the allegation that Jesus was possessed by a demon (δαιμόνιον = daimonion, see e.g. 7:20; 8:45-50; 10:20-21). Jesus' response was to shift things up a gear: he alleged that the authorities were heavily influenced by the devil (διάβολος =diabolos) and set out the characteristics of this devilish heritage in 8:44-47.
quote:
”You [the authorities] are from your father the devil, and you want to do what your father desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not uphold the truth, because there is no truth in him. Whenever he lies, he speaks according to his own nature, because he is a liar and the father of lies. ... You don’t listen and respond, because you don’t belong to God.”
If this was Jesus' definition of someone under the influence of the devil, then I think it likely that John intended this same set of attributes to be in play when he records Judas as being under the same influence.

In other words, Judas wanted to do what the devil desired, had murder in mind, did not uphold the truth, was a liar by nature, and did not belong to God. Strong stuff.

So how does that relate to us? My thought is that when it comes to comparing our role in the community with that of Judas, we actually fit better with the likes of Simon – desperately desiring to be loyal, but from time to time bumbling along and not quite getting it. We make mistakes, but genuinely do not want to be disloyal to God. We find forgiveness in that state.

But Judas? Unless we equate ourselves with the attributes listed above, I'm not so sure that we are in the same camp. We would have to be committed to disloyalty, to undermining the community and betraying Jesus again. Paul and Matthew were of a mind to have people like that thrown out of the community, before they caused great damage. I take the point about there being an analogy with God sticking with his creation, though even there the rebels were ousted from their positions of power and responsibility in Eden, whereas Judas seems to have stayed in charge of the purse. Still seems a strange state of affairs for Jesus to tolerate.

Anyway, we'll probably get to more on this as John reveals this themes more.


* Accepting that not all are comfortable with the idea that there is one identifiable author of this gospel; still the name 'John' is a useful tag to have to hand as the shorthand for “the author of the form of the text that has been identified as the best text we have to hand currently, in whatever form it may have had in its literary development – including the possible oral settlement over decades as a set of teaching sermons, who put this text together using the words and phrases he used in the way that he used them to achieve a desired rhetorical effect in affecting an audience and persuading them to adopt a particular stance in relation to overt issues, and in the process reflecting whether consciously or not the worldview and mindset of his context.” Now while there may be a scintillating acronym in there somewhere, I'm not going to search for it; I'm just going to stick with 'John.'
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Thanks for that Nigel M. Thorough as always and also encouraging to hear you think we compare better to Simon Peter than Judas!

I like the referring back to the author's intent but I do find it difficult to really attribute motive to Judas as we don't know really what was in his heart and and which point along the way he took seriously a wrong turn (though John has some hints). True his betrayal of Jesus was a deliberate act against Jesus (which he later regretted). Not trying to portray him as innocent - he is right in that light/dark battle. But what really was his intent or motivation?

(ps quite happy with John as the author by the way and even for those who aren't there isn't really a better shorthand)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
You're absolutely right, JD, we can't get inside the mind of Judas. All we have to go on is the record of John. The whole Judas affair must have made waves in the early Christian church, given that each of the gospel writers felt they had to include the fact of his betrayal in their work, it's not ignored or swept under the carpet. Was it an inconvenient truth that had to be faced up to? Or was it just accepted as part of the history? I suspect the answer lies somewhere in between the two: e.g. the fact of the betrayal was widely known and questions were being asked about it, so the gospel authors addressed the issue – somehow...

Matthew, Mark and Luke accept the fact, but record Jesus as saying “Woe to the one who betrays the Son of Man! It would be better for him if he had not been born!” Little room for manoeuvre there. John comes at things from a different angle – although we're not quite through with his approach in the text yet. I haven't thought about this before, but I wonder if the foot washing episode is placed deliberately between references to Judas and his betrayal. How that works - especially with the saying Lamb Chopped quoted above (“Unless I wash you, you have no part with me”) - I’m not quite sure.

Which is annoying, because now I will have to engage brain again!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
The apostles, including John, all seem to be vastly circumspect whenever they talk about Judas--as if they thought constantly, "There but for the grace of God go I." Even Peter in his speech in Acts 1 only says that Judas "left to go to his own place." Very proper, IMHO!

John records the bare facts known to him: that Judas was one of the twelve and shared in their ministry; that he handled the moneybag and was suspected of being a thief, at least by a couple of disciples; that he had a bit of a set-to with Jesus over his attitude toward Mary of Bethany and her "waste" of good (and expensive!) ointment, and was publicly rebuked for it; and that he received the sop (an act of honor) from Jesus at the last supper, and immediately went out to do nobody-knew-then-what, sped on his way by Jesus' "What you do, do quickly." Since some speculated he was going to pay for Passover needs or to give alms to the poor, he must have been still in fairly good odor with the followers of Jesus as a whole--if his malfeasance with the money had been openly known, the minute he got up from table everyone would have assumed The Worst. So I'm guessing the rottenness at the core of the man was only noticed by Jesus and perhaps one or two of the more clearsighted apostles, who may have been in considerable doubt right up to the moment of betrayal.

The thing that bothers me and possibly bothered the other apostles is the fact that, if it had not been Judas, it so easily could have been one of them. A man in Jesus' situation, making Jesus' claims, gaining the kind of enemies Jesus had, and surrounded by so many followers--it is a virtual certainty that at least one of those followers at some point is going to betray him to his enemies. It takes no special foreknowledge to see it coming, any more than Martin Luther King Jr. needed the gift of prophecy to know his enemies were going to kill him sooner rather than later. Human nature makes it a certainty.

So if Judas had been out of the picture--hit by a Jerusalem bus, say, on the way to the temple--the betrayal would still have happened. It just would have been somebody else, perhaps a little later. And since the seeds of that weakness, that temptation to evil, are in pretty much everybody, it could have been any of them. Reason enough to walk very, very carefully around the subject of the man who did actually do it, thinking, "It could have been me."

As for the footwashing, I take it 1) that it really did happen just before the betrayal, and 2) that it was Jesus' last attempt to save Judas from himself--that and the sop of honor. Here you have God almighty, or if you prefer, your beloved master, on his knees before you, washing your stinky feet, giving you honor and food to eat, driving home the intimacy of your relationship to him in every possible way--will you still, after all that, go out immediately and betray him? Jesus made the choice as clear and unmistakeable as possible. And Judas, knowingly, made the wrong choice. [Frown]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I really like the point about "if it hadn't been Judas..."

Since the gospels were written some time after the event, we have no way of knowing exactly when the disciples decided that Judas - and only Judas - was the betrayer. Were others suspected?(I think that's possible but the evidence comes much later so I won't ebnlarge on it now.

Nigel has pointed out (quoting R.E.Brown, I think) that the only concrete thing we have to go on is the gospel in its final form, as we have it now, and conjecture as to what might have been said and thought previously, but left out, isn't a very profitable line of enquiry.

But some variations in the witnesses may be more significant than others. It is sometimes possible to separate historical fact from theological reflection or didactics.

Simply treating Judas as a human being, however flawed, is a tremendous advance on the early church's identification of him as devil's spawn, with all the disastrous consequences for Jewry that brought about.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Lots of thoughts sparked by this passage! I wonder if that was also the case in the decades following the events?

I have been having a think about the whole scheme here of the footwashing and Judas plot and have the following theory, begging pardon for repeating quotations from the passages already looked at, but it helps to see the flow:

Issue
John recognises that he needs to deal with the question of Judas' role in the betrayal of Jesus. I don't know the specifics of the issue that caused this need, but whatever it was, it warranted space in all four gospels. If I had to guess what the question being asked was, I would say (based on how the gospel writers handled it) that it was something like, “What was Jesus' stance towards Judas, knowing Judas was going to betray him?” And perhaps behind that was the real issue: What stance should we, the followers of Jesus, take towards those who have renounced Jesus in the community?

John's Approach
To answer the issue raised, John organises this current section of his work as follows:
[1] Scene setting – 13:1-2
quote:
Just before the Passover feast, Jesus knew that his time had come to depart from this world to the Father. Having loved his own who were in the world, he now loved them to the very end. The evening meal was in progress, and the devil had already put into the heart of Judas, Simon Iscariot's son, that he should betray Jesus.
This section acts as an orienter for the audience. It demonstrates the intensity of the moment. Jesus knows the time, the 'very end' is near, there is a meal in honour underway and we have the protagonists on stage (devil and Judas). Jesus continues to demonstrate loyalty (the proper meaning of the English word 'love').

[2] The footwashing part 1 – 13:3-10a
quote:
Because Jesus knew that the Father had handed all things over to him, and that he had come from God and was going back to God, he got up from the meal, removed his outer clothes, took a towel and tied it around himself. He poured water into the washbasin and began to wash the disciples’ feet and to dry them with the towel he had wrapped around himself.
Then he came to Simon Peter. Peter said to him, “Lord, are you going to wash my feet?” Jesus replied, “You do not understand what I am doing now, but you will understand after these things.” Peter said to him, “You will never wash my feet!” Jesus replied, “If I do not wash you, you have no share with me.” Simon Peter said to him, “Lord, wash not only my feet, but also my hands and my head!” Jesus replied, “The one who has bathed needs only to wash his feet, but is completely clean.”

The rationale for the footwashing episode is given: it is because God has authorised Jesus to act with all power and that he was now going back to God.

At this point we move on in the passage from where we had got to earlier.

[3] Judas theme revisited – 13:10b-11
quote:
“And you [the disciples] are clean, but not every one of you.” For Jesus knew the one who was going to betray him. For this reason he said, “Not every one of you is clean.”
Partaking in the meal, sharing the loyal service from Jesus, even following in his most close circle; none of this was enough to guarantee acceptance by God (and Jesus?). The word 'clean' (καθαρός = katharos) is crucial here. It's used extensively in the LXX (for the Greek translations of the Hebrew texts) to pick up on the concept of ritual purity and innocence. I think John is picking up on this, too: by 'clean' he means 'innocent.' Not clean = guilty.

[4] The footwashing part 2 – 13:12-17
quote:
So when Jesus had washed their feet and put his outer clothing back on, he took his place at the table again and said to them, “Do you understand what I have done for you? You call me ‘Teacher’ and ‘Lord,’ and do so correctly, for that is what I am. If I then, your Lord and Teacher, have washed your feet, you too ought to wash one another’s feet. For I have given you an example—you should do just as I have done for you. It's absolutely the case that the slave is not greater than his master, nor is the one who is sent as a messenger greater than the one who sent him. If you understand these things, you will be blessed if you do them.”
Now the impact the footwashing should have on the disciples. Loyal service is service.

[5] Judas theme revisited (again) – 13:18-20
quote:
“What I am saying does not refer to all of you. I know the ones I have chosen. But this is to fulfil the scripture, ‘The one who eats my bread has become my enemy.’ I am telling you this now, before it happens, so that when it happens you may believe that I am he. I tell you the solemn truth, whoever accepts the one I send accepts me, and whoever accepts me accepts the one who sent me.”
John's take on things. He records the fact that not all are loyal; not all will truly serve. He backs this up with the quote from Ps. 41:9 [LXX 40:10; MT 41:10] (“Even my close ally whom I trusted, he who shared meals with me, has turned against me.”). The Hebrew wording is interesting: the 'close ally' is 'a person of my peace' with ramifications of a loyal agreement (covenant) between them; and 'turned against' is 'made his heel great against me' with the ramifications of utter shame and dishonour being shown to the speaker – showing one's heel in the culture being a sign of intense disgust to the other. Dirty soles of feet being shown; not clean, not footwashed.

The text goes on, but I've trespassed enough into the following verses so will stop there. John has arranged the material after his introduction with a flow: Footwashing – Judas – Footwashing – Judas. I think the point he is making is that Judas stands condemned in the most strong terms. He proved to be disloyal and the consequence is that, despite being in the fellowship and having his feet washed, he remains dirty and dishonourable. The ultimate implications of that will be spelled out later in the gospel.
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
Nigel M, I'm really fascinated with the motif of service/being served that comes to me reading your last post and your mentioning of the phrase "loyal servant". To some degree, there is a very interesting paradox in the devil's pride* of wanting to be served rather than to serve, and Christ offering Judas precisely that - a master but one who serves/offers service.

To some degree, I suppose this could as well be tied in with Jesus offering Mary the service of allowing her to wash him with the perfume, rather than to make her serve by selling it to give money to the poor... But I'm stretching this pretty far and speculating quite a lot - I'll just leave it here for now and let you brighter minds pick up on it should it trigger something of worth.

*I refer to some vague idea of the devil's original sin being excessive pride, although I can't really trace the idea very far.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I hadn’t thought of the perfume offering, JFK; it's there (John 12:3-8) indeed that Judas appears again (and John once again mentions betrayal in the same breath as “Judas”). Judas' corruption is presented as self-service, he helped himself to the expense account instead of using it to serve those in need.

Although John doesn't include it in his work, another reference point is Jesus' temptation, which provides support for that idea of the devil and his pride – one of the conditions the devil set was for Jesus to worship him. Serving Satan in return for power. In Luke 4 (and Matt 3) this particular temptation has the devil offering control of the nations on the basis that he owned them. John's take is a bit different: he says that God has ultimate control of everything, not Satan. I don't know if John was aware of the temptation event, but if he knew that Satan had claimed control of the world, I suspect John's response would be to point to something he did record Jesus as saying to the Jerusalem authorities (8:44): "You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father’s desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies."

Nigel
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

John 13.21-38
Jesus Foretells His Betrayal21 After saying this Jesus was troubled in spirit, and declared, ‘Very truly, I tell you, one of you will betray me.’ 22The disciples looked at one another, uncertain of whom he was speaking. 23One of his disciples—the one whom Jesus loved—was reclining next to him; 24Simon Peter therefore motioned to him to ask Jesus of whom he was speaking. 25So while reclining next to Jesus, he asked him, ‘Lord, who is it?’ 26Jesus answered, ‘It is the one to whom I give this piece of bread when I have dipped it in the dish.’* So when he had dipped the piece of bread, he gave it to Judas son of Simon Iscariot.* 27After he received the piece of bread,* Satan entered into him. Jesus said to him, ‘Do quickly what you are going to do.’ 28Now no one at the table knew why he said this to him. 29Some thought that, because Judas had the common purse, Jesus was telling him, ‘Buy what we need for the festival’; or, that he should give something to the poor. 30So, after receiving the piece of bread, he immediately went out. And it was night.

How dramatic is that? Interesting, that those present did not, at the time, think there was anything untoward.

Suppose they were right? Suppose he was going out to distribute alms? Of course, when he returns, it's with a bunch of heavies. So it's obvious, isn't it, that Judas brought them with him.

Only it's not.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Fingers and thumbs problems, sorry. You'll probably want to take that passage in much smaller chunks - there's a lot of meat there!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Lots of meat indeed! Some things that caught the eye for starters:

The whole betrayal thing according to John was getting to Jesus, what with his being 'agitated' (v.21) and saying that this betrayal was absolutely certain and that one of the disciples would have to betray him. It's as though he sees no way out of an inevitable situation.

Then there's the issue that has attracted much comment – the disciple loved by Jesus – who gets the scoop on the identity of the betrayer, but who (apparently) does not pass the info on immediately to the rest of the group, not even to Simon who had prompted him in the first place to seek out the identity.

Something of a peak in this section occurs with John's terse statement in v.27, “And with the piece of bread, then there entered into him [Judas] the satan.” This is the only time that John refers to the satan by that title, so why now and why here? Seems important. Also important would be the link between this entry and Judas' taking of the bite-sized bread chunk. Is there any deliberate link between this and the communal celebration of Eucharist / Lord's Supper? If so, is John picking up on a warning that joining in with the meal when influenced by the devil could lead to being completely occupied by the devil? That might be straining the event and perhaps reading back later ritual into the episode, but there was a theme that Paul learned about taking the supper unworthily. It's in 1 Corinthians 11:23-34...
quote:
For I received from the Lord what I also passed on to you... For this reason, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. A person should examine himself first, and in this way let him eat the bread and drink of the cup. For the one who eats and drinks without careful regard for the body eats and drinks judgment against himself. That is why many of you are weak and sick, and quite a few are dead. But if we examined ourselves, we would not be judged. But when we are judged by the Lord, we are disciplined so that we may not be condemned with the world...
...which might mean that this Judas / bread event carried significance among the disciples after the event.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I think it is incredibly difficult to get into the mind of the disciples at this point because (as John hints in v28) they have absolutely no idea what is going on or what is about to happen. we are so conditioned to the story because we know what happens next. We know Jesus is about to suffer and die but at this juncture, as I think John is keen to point out throughout his account, the disciples did not. They failed grasp what Jesus was saying and the implications - until afterwards.

I think this explains a lot about the confusion around Judas at this point. These guys have lived in each other's pockets for the last three years and would think they knew each other really well. None of them clearly thought Judas was capable of what he did. Even if John and Peter did understand that Jesus meant that Judas would betray him how would they know when or how? I can't believe either would've dreamt what was around the corner.

Perhaps Judas didn't even realise the full implications of what he was doing as his later remorse might indicate.

As for the bread/communion connection that's an interesting angle. Is there something about it being the wrong bread or the bread at the wrong time or in the wrong way rather than the bread Jesus broke when instituting the Eucharist. Aren't there several 'breaking of bread' moments in the Passover I wonder at what point in the meal this was and whether that has any significance?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
p.s. The last sentence in v30 feels really significant too: "and it was night". John emphasising the light/dark motif again - Judas is definitely "walking in darkness".
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
p.s. The last sentence in v30 feels really significant too: "and it was night".

This seems related to John 9:4:
quote:
We must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming when no one can work.
Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So, as I understand it (from R.E.Browns's last introduction), we are now embarked on the second main division of the gospel - the Book of Glory (the Book of Signs having ended with the story of Lazarus and its aftermath, and Jesus' last public discourse (in 12:23-36)).

Brown's editor, Francis J.Maloney takes up the baton at this point (Brown having tragically choked to death before the work was finished). He claims that most scholars would accept a fourfold general outline (of the Book of Glory) with an Epilogue to the gospel as a whole:

1. Jesus' final encounter with "his own" (13:1-17:38

2. The arrest, trials, passion and death of Jesus (18:1-19:42)

3. The empty tomb and the encounters with the risen Jersus (20:1-29)

4. Conclusion (20:30-31)

5. Epilogue (CHapter 21 - of which more when we get there.)

Maloney sees in Part 1 of the Book of Glory, which he titles The Last Encounter that careful structure which Nigel has already introduced us to way back (and whose Greek name escapes me), in which a series of points or themes, leading to a climax or pivot, 1s repeated in reverse order.

In this scheme, 13:1-38, Making God Known (posted above), which includes the footwashing, will be mirrored in 17:1-26, which includes Jesus' final prayer askingb the Father for his own glorification.

What follows now in 14:1-31 ( Jesus' departure and its consequences will return in 16:4b-33.

But before I put that up, you may wish to pause for breath - I know I do! I have consulted the library's guideliones vis-á-vis copyright and believe we're well within allowable limits here.

[ 24. February 2014, 09:42: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
IIRC the Greek name escaping you is chiasm.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks. To be pedantic, I think it's CHIASMUS but I wouldn't put my shirt on it (on it my shirt I'd decline to put, but!)

[ 24. February 2014, 15:49: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I'm sure your shirt is correct [Smile]
 
Posted by JFH (# 14794) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Thanks. To be pedantic, I think it's CHIASMUS but I wouldn't put my shirt on it (on it my shirt I'd decline to put, but!)

I think you're grasping for Khiasmos, Chiasmus being the latinized form. To be pedantic. [Biased]

[ 25. February 2014, 09:24: Message edited by: JFH ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Touché [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
OK to move on? Pimple got us to 13v30. Here are the next two verses:

quote:
John 13:31-32 (NET)
When Judas had gone out, Jesus said, “Now the Son of Man is glorified, and God is glorified in him. 13:32 If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and he will glorify him right away.

So we saw Jesus talking about "glorification" in ch 12 apparently in reference to his death. What do people make of these two verses?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Do we detect a hint of the theme of 'glory' being embedded subliminally in these verses?!

John is quite taken with the word. Some 19 instances of the word in its nominal form (doxa) and 23 in the verbal (doxazo) scattered throughout his gospel. They are pretty common in the book of Revelation as well. The question that seems to have kept commentators busy is to what this terminology refers.

John 1:14 introduces the theme: “Now the Word became flesh and took up residence among us. We saw his glory—the glory of the one and only, full of grace and truth, who came from the Father.” From then on the 'glory' continues to be closely associated with both God and Jesus – you almost can't have one without the other. Could it refer to the whole vindication of Jesus, achieved through his death and resurrection, with consequent overtones of God being vindicated as well?

One thing John does here is resolve one of the tensions in his plot. Up to now John has kept his audience waiting - the time for Jesus to be glorified is not yet, still not yet, wait for it... - and then in 13:31-32 he looses the starter's gun - "NOW! ... AT ONCE!!" Mind you, having launched this, he then holds off from any action for the next few chapters. Talk about toying with his audience.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
I am sorry but I find Nigel's posts a bit OTT.

John is not playing games of hide and seek. In retrospect you can find all sorts of sub-plots going on and John can be made to look like an author playing with his audience; hinting at this; anticipating this; suggesting this.

Its all a bit too academic and retrospectively tantalising to me. Interesting. Illuminating in part. But academic.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Does an academic approach lead to problems? It doesn't change how I approach the text myself, but it does provide me with some new insights.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
I am sorry but I find Nigel's posts a bit OTT.

John is not playing games of hide and seek. In retrospect you can find all sorts of sub-plots going on and John can be made to look like an author playing with his audience; hinting at this; anticipating this; suggesting this.

Its all a bit too academic and retrospectively tantalising to me. Interesting. Illuminating in part. But academic.


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Pressed send too soon, sorry. Shamwari, not all readers/posters here are academics/believers/sceptics/prophets/posers. I'm stll a student and I find many of Nigel's posts difficult to grasp. Butv I think the effort is worth it. I am not a believer inn the traditional sense, but I do think the gospels are far too important to leave totally in the hands of Christians!

That said, I have no problem with engaging, where I can, with people who wish to use threads like this as a place for purely devotional purposes - nobody owns this thread, after all.

If it's all too academic for you, give us something less academic to think about - but please don't go away. Everybody's input, as I see it, is valuable.

And evrso 'umble apologies for amateur hosting!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There is indeed a risk, shamwari, that an academic approach to the biblical texts could result in the (Christian) reader missing out on the spiritual benefits of reading, and thereby missing out on developing an ever closer relationship with God – by which is meant taking responsibility in the world as the rightful image of God.

My concern though is the risk that lies on the other side of the balance scales, that the reader might not properly understand what the text is saying and thereby worship the wrong God, or wrongly worship the right God. The reader might believe that he or she is a Christian, but risks holding beliefs that are not Christian by virtue of misunderstanding the texts. It also risks a collapse into gnosticism.

It is a balancing act for those who are in the Christian community and has been one that created great tensions since the Enlightenment with the drive to place Biblical Studies firmly in the Academy and away from considerations of doctrine or theology, which it was argued belonged in the Seminary. The ideal is that one should feed off the other, though as pimple pointed out, the division leaves the field clear for general (whether religious or not) public investigation into the texts in the attempt to answer the basic question: Why is that there?

It is because of that open field that part of Christian mission needs to be academic – study of the text in the public arena is a missionary activity; to engage with those outside of the Christian community who have got stuck into the basic question. It is also a Kingdom activity, because loyal defence of the kingdom requires a knowledge of where the enemy is coming from (if that is not too warlike a metaphor upon which to draw).

For reasons like these I wouldn’t want to concede the field to academic studies that should be challenged and tested for validity. Failure to do that simply allows bad ideas to put down roots, to gain momentum, and in the end to the taken as gospel truth by the faithful in the pew. Some ideas may indeed be valid, but they should always be tested.

Perhaps, though, the issue is one more of posting style, or presentation?
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
[Tangent]

Shamwari, I take it that you assumed Nigel was saying John was playing games because he said John was toying with his audience? I think when Nigel said John was toying with his audience he was trying to make his own post a little more light hearted precisely because the content of his post can be dense. At least that's how I understood it anyway. If I am right, then it is rather ironic that his attempt to make his post lighter has become the ground of your complaint. It seems that he can't win any which way.

quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:

Its all a bit too academic and retrospectively tantalising to me. Interesting. Illuminating in part. But academic.

If 'Interesting. Illuminating in part.' is not good enough for you, then please join in and do better. Personally, I do appreciate an academic approach instead of people just making assertions without being able to back them up with either a social, historical or literary context. I think it is a good practice for learning how to justify one's beliefs.

Apologies to hosts and other shipmates for this tangent. As you were. [/Tangent]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And so:

quote:


John 13.33-3433 Little children, I am with you only a little longer. You will look for me; and as I said to the Jews so now I say to you, “Where I am going, you cannot come.” 34I give you a new commandment, that you love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also should love one another.

"Little children" ? "And as I said to the Jews..." When? Haven't got a concordance handy.

[ 06. March 2014, 15:01: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
John 8:21, that very contentious dialogue.

ETA: in which "Jews" appears to equal "Pharisees", if you look at the context and antecedent chain.

[ 06. March 2014, 17:27: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks, LC - here's the relevant passage in full I think. I am still mystified:

quote:


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

John 8.16-2116Yet even if I do judge, my judgement is valid; for it is not I alone who judge, but I and the Father* who sent me. 17In your law it is written that the testimony of two witnesses is valid. 18I testify on my own behalf, and the Father who sent me testifies on my behalf.’ 19Then they said to him, ‘Where is your Father?’ Jesus answered, ‘You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also.’ 20He spoke these words while he was teaching in the treasury of the temple, but no one arrested him, because his hour had not yet come.
Jesus Foretells His Death21 Again he said to them, ‘I am going away, and you will search for me, but you will die in your sin. Where I am going, you cannot come.’


 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
On that chiastic thing (to not mention any pedantry), John does it again in the 13:31-32
quote:
(A) Now is the son of man glorified
(B) God is glorified in him
(C) If God is glorified in him*
(B') God will also glorify the son in himself
(A') and will do it at once

* not all early manuscripts have this line.

John's rhetoric is not atypical of language use in the semitic language family, though not typical to western ears. There is a sense here of John wanting to emphasise that this 'glory' – to whatever event it may eventually refer – will involve immediate association of God with Jesus, the one in the other and vice versa. It gels well with the idea spelt out more fully in John's letters, of “we in him and he in us.”

The “(little) children” phrase (13:33) is another one from John's idiolect, or at least it too crops up in the letters. Still, it's used only the once in the gospel (here) and 7 times in 1 John. It's as though we are entering a much more intimate part of the narrative and overhearing a conversation between a particularly close team of people. Probably didn't apply while Judas was around.

The “where I am going you cannot come” also crops up in 7:33-34 (“I will be with you for only a little while longer, and then I am going to the one who sent me. You will look for me but will not find me, and where I am you cannot come”), again with the Jerusalem authorities at hand. The reader would have to wait for a bit after 13:33 to find out what Jesus meant by his children not being able to be where he was.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
And so:

quote:


John 13.33-3433 Little children, I am with you only a little longer. You will look for me; and as I said to the Jews so now I say to you, “Where I am going, you cannot come.” 34I give you a new commandment, that you love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also should love one another.

"Little children" ? "And as I said to the Jews..." When? Haven't got a concordance handy.
Not sure about the mystification, but I'll give it a shot. "Little children"--this is a term of endearment. You'll notice he refers occasionally to other adults in this way, particularly those in great trouble--the woman who had been bent over for sixteen years (severe osteoporosis or scoliosis?) comes to mind, he called her "daughter."

The endearment is very much in keeping with his realization that he has only a couple of hours left with them at this point.

"Where I am going, you cannot come"--I think this is a fairly straightforward (in hindsight!) reference to his death. He is "departing," as Luke puts it when speaking of his death in 9:31. The same metaphor is used for death in 2 Timothy 4:6 and in 2 Peter 1:15. In Jesus' case, the idea can also refer to his more permanent visible, tangible departure at the Ascension. At most they have 43 more days with him before things shift to the invisible faith/not sight-based way we live with him now. And so he urges necessary, absolutely urgent stuff on them while he/still has the chance: In the case of the Jews/Pharisees, that they repent and believe. In the case of the disciples (who already do), that they love one another. Given the history of the church since then [Frown] , I think he had the right priority.
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
Our family children, and when I was very little, sing "Jesus loves me this I know, for the Bible tells me so. Little ones to Him belong, they are week and He is strong. Yes, Jesus loves me! Yes, Jesus loves me! Yes, Jesus loves me - the Bible tells me so." And there are also 3 verses.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
Our family children, and when I was very little, sing "Jesus loves me this I know, for the Bible tells me so. Little ones to Him belong, they are week and He is strong. Yes, Jesus loves me! Yes, Jesus loves me! Yes, Jesus loves me - the Bible tells me so." And there are also 3 verses.

I remember that chorus, daisymay; though I can't remember the verses now!
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
"Jesus loves me He who died, heavens gates to open wide. He will wash away my sin, let his little child come in."
"Jesus loves me, He will stay close beside me all the day. And his little one will take up to heaven for His dear sake."
And always, "Jesus loves me this I know for the Bible tells me so."

Does that remind you?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
Does that remind you?

I have a sneaky suspicion that my Sunday School teachers kept that a deep secret from me. Or perhaps memory retention was an early challenge!

Thanks for the information, though.
Nigel
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by daisymay:
"Jesus loves me He who died, heavens gates to open wide. He will wash away my sin, let his little child come in."
"Jesus loves me, He will stay close beside me all the day. And his little one will take up to heaven for His dear sake."
And always, "Jesus loves me this I know for the Bible tells me so."

Does that remind you?

I never knew there were verses! Like NigelM, I've only ever heard the refrain.

You learn something new on the Ship every day! [Smile]

(edited for top of page)

[ 07. March 2014, 22:19: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by daisymay (# 1480) on :
 
I missed the other verse!

"Jesus loves me!
Loves me still,
When I'm very week and ill;
From His shining throne on high
Watches with me when I lie."

and it's composed by Anna Bartlett Warner 1820-1915
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thanks again, daisymay. That verse prompted to me look up the composer, because the verse seemed quite dark in a comforting way compared to the other verses. Apparently the original was a poem that Anna Warner used in one of her story books where it is spoken to a child who is dying. Quite poignant. Here in John 13 Jesus tells his 'children' that for a bit they cannot be where he is, but of course there is a fuller explanation to come to comfort those children with the knowledge that a time is coming when they will indeed be with him. And a death in between.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Thank you Daisymay, that was nostalgic, comforting and much appreciated at the moment.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
From "Jesus loves me" to Jesus command to "love one another". (v34).

I'm interested by the fact that Jesus describes this as a "new commandment". It makes me think of his summary of the Law and Prophets as:

quote:
Jesus said ..., “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.’ This is the first and greatest commandment. The second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’ All the law and the prophets depend on these two commandments.” Matt 22:37-40 (NET Bible)
Which I know is not in John, but whilst these two commandments are in the Law and summarise the Law (old commandments); Jesus describes "love one another" as a new commandment. Even tho' love one another could be regarded as simply another way of saying "love your neighbour as yourself". Is there a hint here of a new dimension? We have love for God (up), love for neighbour (out) and love for those within the community/church (in)? Or am I reading too much into this?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Want to throw 1 John into the mix?

quote:
7 Beloved, I am writing you no new commandment, but an old commandment that you had from the beginning. The old commandment is the word that you have heard. 8 At the same time, it is a new commandment that I am writing to you, which is true in him and in you, because[a] the darkness is passing away and the true light is already shining. 9 Whoever says he is in the light and hates his brother is still in darkness. 10 Whoever loves his brother abides in the light, and in him[b] there is no cause for stumbling.
I can't resist adding the verse which so horrified my sister when I sang it at her:

Jesus loves me when I'm good,
When I do the things I should;

[look of horror as she expects it to go on and whack all the bad kids]

Jesus loves me when I'm bad,
Even though it makes him sad.

[look of relief, then narrowed eyes as she contemplates coming after me with a broom]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Hi Lamb Chopped. Sorry to be dense but not 100% I took the right thing from that quote - are you saying a "new" commandment is simply a fresh reminder of an old one?

(PS very much enjoying your posts on other threads in Purg but conversation moves on too quickly for me to applaud)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm frankly not sure what John means in the second passage myself, except it was interesting to me how something could be both old and new at the same time. But the why--because the light is now shining etc.--I'm not grasping the logic very well. I'm sure it's there, but my brain is mush at the mo.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Could the "new" part of "new commandment" relate to the "as I have loved you" rather than the "love one another" part? That is, could Jesus have meant something along the lines of "if you are wondering what the Law and the Prophets mean when they teach the commandment to love one another, all you have to do from now on is follow my example."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What seems new to me is the "one another" bit. The golden rule quoted by Jesus in the synoptics refers to "neighbours", and as the Samaritan parable that follows points out, that was meant to be comprehensive. Perhaps the disciples were so bitchy with one another that they needed something less tough to chew on.

But its modern use, I'm sure, doesn't do justice to Jesus' - or the evangelists' - intentions. I mean, the idea of looking after one another, the gang, the in-crowd, the corporation, the school, the regiment; don't make waves, don't rock the boat, keep the skeletons locked in the cupboard at all costs - these may be christian (and secular) practice, but they're not Christian principles, are they?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
W Hyatt's thought made me think that we are entering into one of John's key moments with this “love (each) other” passage. It is going to link to Jesus' death and a take on that which is not perhaps as clearly announced in the other gospels and Paul (it is there, but it doesn’t feature as highly). Jesus' time had come, glory is to be shown, this glory involves dying on behalf of others, in turn this demonstrates what loyalty requires – being prepared to die on behalf of other loyal members.

In John's usual style, he links Jesus' love with God's love by opening in 3:16 with “For this is the way God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son...” God 'loved' by giving up his inheritance for his creation; Jesus 'loved' by giving up his life for his followers; now those followers are being urged to 'love' by giving up everything as well.

This theme might have been prompted by the onset of persecution for the Christian community perhaps? If so, then another perhaps – it could have been opposition from Jewish religious leaders that was the threat. That would explain John's explosive opening statement in his introduction that the followers of Jesus had seen God's face, something that had been granted only to Moses (“We saw his glory....” 1:14). Something like that was bound to cause offence to the Jewish leaders.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Apologies everyone - can I pop back to 13:31-32 about glory for a minute. There's been something rattling around in my brain and it's just crystallised about these two intertwining themes of "glory" and "love" and I want to test out my thinking.

So first the "glory" bit. My rudimentary understanding of Jewish thought in Jesus' day is that they had a bit of a problem. They were looking forward to the restoration of Israel according to Deut 30 - God renewing the covenant with them. The promise was that if they disobeyed God they would be scattered to the four corners of the earth but if they returned to God he would restore them to their land and former relationship with him. One aspect of this is the Shekinah glory in the tabernacle/Temple. This was the proof of "God dwelling with his people". The trouble was, although after the exile to Babylon they had returned and were now back in their land, the Shekinah glory had not returned to the Temple and Israel was still subject to ("slaves of") other nations - currently Rome. So some groups were still looking for how they could usher in the kingdom and groups like the Pharisees saw keeping Torah (the Law) as the way of upholding their part of the covenant so that God would uphold his. I probably haven't explained that well but I think it's the general gist.

Now to John and glory. Back to v1:14 again.
quote:
John 1:14 Now the Word became flesh and took up residence 36 among us. We saw his glory – the glory of the one and only, full of grace and truth, who came from the Father. (NET)
If I've understood it correctly "took up residence" is a translation of tabernacled. So God had once again "taken up residence in the tabernacle" with his people. The tabernacle was filled with the glory of God but this time the tabernacle/temple was Jesus' body. So is that one of John's reasons for writing to show that Jesus' coming was a fulfilment of the return of the Skekinah glory to Israel?

But then I'm still interested by the fact that this "glory" theme and the "love" theme are intertwined in these verses (and I guess throughput John's gospel).

If I have understood jt correctly Middle Eastern culture is an honour/shame culture. Children aren't told off for being "naughty" (in the wrong) they are told "shame on you" when they do something wrong. Actions are seen as bringing honour (glory?) or shame to the family name. The same sort of theme seems to occur in the OT where passages talk of God acting for his glory or the glory of his Name. Similarly those acting for God bring him glory (or glory to to his Name). In other words, bring "honour" to the family name. So "glory" is directly connected with action. Actions bring glory or shame.

So, back to v31-32 where again John appears to be referring to glorification as related to Jesus' impending death. Why? from the outside it appears the exact opposite of vindication. "Cursed (not glorified) is everyone who hangs on a tree". But this is where John sees God acting in supreme self-sacrificial love is the ultimate act to bring him glory. The act which brings glory is self-sacrificial love. And thus our actions in "loving one another" similarly bring glory to God by bringing honour to the family Name. Hence the intertwining of the two themes of love and glory.

OK. I hope some of that made sense. Would appreciate people's thoughts.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There's a lot in what you way that makes sense JD.

My thoughts...

I think it's one of John's strengths as a rhetorician that he is able to pack so much into so little. He makes good use of metonymy to pack one word or phrase with a whole package of meanings. That word 'glory' is one example. It was used in Jewish literature in the run up to Jesus' time to connote God's actual presence – his 'face' (which is probably another metonym for presence), and John uses it to portray Jesus as God's presence, greater even than Moses. There's an overlap with 'light' here as well; God-cum-Jesus shone for all to see. And of course 'logos / word' is another metonym.

That 'word / glory' pitched his tent among humans. 'Tent' looks very like a deliberate reference to the wilderness tabernacle, certainly in 1:14 John uses the Greek verbal form of the noun used in the Septuagint version and associates it closely with 'glory' (i.e. God's presence).

By the time we get to chapter 13, we have John embedding the glory theme into the wider “I-in-God-and-God-in-me” theme. That closeness supports the presence idea, with Jesus reflecting God's presence / glory by virtue of his closeness with him. You see one when you've seen the other.

So what's the relationship with 'love' here? Is 'love' simply another way of saying that Jesus was close (bound up in) God and that this enabled Jesus to fully reflect God's presence? John records Jesus' love as something he did, or was about to do, with and to his disciples. On the face of it this seems a bit removed from 'glory' because 'love' for John was something active, whereas 'glory' is often taken to refer to something static – presence.

Still, I wonder if the Hebrew conception of 'glory / presence' was quite so static. God's presence in Job, for example, was one of major dynamism. I suspect that 'love' for John was a way of describing glory-in-action. God's presence is active – it is ruling a kingdom. This could be a way of saying that self-sacrificial love is a demonstration of God's presence (his glory).
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
OK thanks for that Nigel M. I hadn't thought of the love being glory-in-action (especially makes sense for me if you think of glory as light) as being just as valid as glory being love-in-action. Maybe it is just that God/Jesus-in-action is both loving and glorious? Anyway thanks for the reflections.

[ 16. March 2014, 20:49: Message edited by: Jammy Dodger ]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
So I believe we had got up to v34. So the next verse is:
quote:
John 13:35
Everyone will know by this that you are my disciples – if you have love for one another.” NET Bible

Thoughts? Interesting that the community of disciples (the kingdom of God?) is to be characterised and recognisable by love - loving one another is the USP as it were.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, there is much talk of love in the fourth gospel - very probably why it is so popular. And then there's this sudden switch back to Jesus' earlier words:

quote:
Simon Peter said to him, "Lord, where are you going?" Jesus answered,"Where I am going [i.e. to his Father in heaven] you cannot follow me now, but you will follow afterward." [i.e. Peter, too, will die one day] Peter [totally missing the point, as usual] said to him, "Lord, why can I not follow you now? I will lay down my life for you."
[John 13.36-37 Peter's pride is staggering, and I'm sure he has no idea what he is saying. "Anywhere you can go, I can go. Anything you can do, I can do." Never trust a man who promises too much, topo easily! Jesus will let him down as lightly as he can, but Peter needs to know the truth about himself. Did he ever ? Some say he got there in the end]

[ 26. March 2014, 10:47: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
The thing that interests me here is that there is a two-speed conversation going on.

If you read this section in 13 on through 14 and beyond. Jesus, knowing his time is short is trying to convey really important final messages in his final hours. It seems like he wants to cram in as much as he can and so is going very quickly.

All the way along the disciples are constantly interrupting the flow as they are struggling to keep up. So for example here:

v31-33: Jesus takes the opportunity with Judas leaving to start his final urgent messages. He reminds them that his 'glorification' is about to happen and that this means he is leaving.
v34-35: Jesus then introduces his main theme: love. In paraphrase. "Guys, as I am leaving I want the community you create in my name to be characterised by love. Remember love one another...". You get the impression that Jesus would've carried on (he returns to the theme of love later). But the disciples aren't catching on.
v36-37: Peter interrupts: "Hold the phone! What do you mean you are leaving? Where can you possibly be going that means we can't follow you! I'd follow you anywhere even if that meant death!"
I'm not convinced that Peter understood what Jesus was saying and the imminent nature and manner of Jesus death. How could he? We know because we know how the story ends but John is recounting how it was before they understood. So he interrupts Jesus' flow and Jesus has to then gently correct (and warn) Peter and then go on to start reassuring all the others.
I think we'll see this pattern of Jesus trying to move the conversation on and the disciples pulling it back again in Ch. 14.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yep. I feel another chiasmic thing coming on...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Just a minute, I'll fetch the basin!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So to finish the chapter:

quote:
Jesus answered, "Will you lay down your life for me? Very truly, I tell you, before the cock crows, you will have denied me three times.
[John 13.38]

Whereupon John inserts one of the most moving passages in the gospel. For which I suggest we'll need a proper degreee of seriousness.

I can't see John interrupting the narrative here just for dramatic effect. It's probably the other way round, isn't it? Jesus's comforting discourse is the stuff of the fourth gospel, but he has to include the story of Peter's denial somewhere, to make sense of the so-called reinstatement of Peter in Chapter 21. So it's the stitching in of the the denial prophecy I find awkward here, rather than the comfortable words after it.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:

I can't see John interrupting the narrative here just for dramatic effect. It's probably the other way round, isn't it? Jesus's comforting discourse is the stuff of the fourth gospel, but he has to include the story of Peter's denial somewhere, to make sense of the so-called reinstatement of Peter in Chapter 21. So it's the stitching in of the the denial prophecy I find awkward here, rather than the comfortable words after it.

I'm not sure I see the interruption here? This feels like a natural part of a back-and-forth conversation. I don't see any need to regard it as stitched in. What makes you think this pimple?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
May have got it wrong. Doesn't Ch.14 start immediately after this? Could someone put up the next couple of verses - my time's running out again.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Here we go (dragging in the next verse, dropping it onto the table, and handing pimple another coin for the PC meter):
quote:
John 14:1
“Don't be stressed out; you all believe in God – believe also in me.”

Jesus speaking.

I don't know if it helps, but the flow to date (after Judas has left the room) has gone like this, Jesus speaking to begin with (NET Bible version):
quote:
“Now the Son of Man is glorified, and God is glorified in him. If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and he will glorify him right away. Children, I am still with you for a little while. You will look for me, and just as I said to the Jewish religious leaders, ‘Where I am going you cannot come,’ now I tell you the same.

“I give you a new commandment—to love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. Everyone will know by this that you are my disciples—if you have love for one another.”

Simon Peter said to him, “Lord, where are you going?” Jesus replied, “Where I am going, you cannot follow me now, but you will follow later.” Peter said to him, “Lord, why can’t I follow you now? I will lay down my life for you!” Jesus answered, “Will you lay down your life for me? I tell you the solemn truth, the rooster will not crow until you have denied me three times!”

...and then we have the 14:1 part.

There's this constant theme of the closeness – almost oneness – in Jesus' identification with God. The import for John seems to be that belief in one follows logically from belief in the other. This argument seems to have been the main motivation for placing John's Gospel at the end of the queue of Gospels in time – such an apparently staggering claim must (surely?) have been a later development in the history of Christological thought. I appreciate that a discussion around this would probably hold the thread up for the decades it is argued such a thought must have developed over, but I just wanted to register a query as to whether such a close relationship between God and his chosen-appointed-and-anointed servant was really a Christian novelty that grew up only in Christian circles. I suspect it had roots in Jewish soil before the time of Christ.

Anyway, back to the upper room – if that's where John thought the meal was taking place (I don't think he specifies).

Back in 13:18 Jesus tells his followers that someone is going to betray him. Jesus is then stressed out. Simon-Peter arranges for insider information as to who would be the betrayer, but it's not clear that he gets an answer or understands it. In 13:33 Jesus tells his followers he is going away – Simon-Peter appears to get the point that this is a reference to death, and gallantly affirms his undying-until-he-dies loyalty to Jesus. Jesus replies with a suggestion that it is Simon-Peter himself who will be the betrayer.

Perhaps Simon-Peter (and the others) thought as much and thus we have Jesus noticing a rise in stress levels and his “Calm down!” moment in 14:1.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
I agree with your summary Nigel M. I think there is a natural flow in this if you regard Jesus as being constantly interrupted or sidetracked by the disciples questions.

Referring back to Nigel's quotes from John 13:
quote:
When Judas had gone out, Jesus said, "Now the Son of Man is glorified, and God is glorified in him. If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and he will glorify him right away.

In other words, now that Judas has left my betrayal is imminent. The hideous death awaiting me will actually be a glorious victory for God. But it is only hours away....
quote:
Children, I am still with you for a little while. You will look for me, and just as I said to the Jewish religious leaders, ‘Where I am going you cannot come,’ now I tell you the same.

So I want to leave you with some important words that you won't understand now but will make sense later. I can see how distressed you are but there are some important things I need to share now.
quote:
“I give you a new commandment—to love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. Everyone will know by this that you are my disciples—if you have love for one another.”

I want to talk about love. I want your love for each other in the new community you will build in my name to be its defining characteristic. {Jesus is just introducing this theme when he is interrupted by Peter}
quote:
Simon Peter said to him, “Lord, where are you going?”

Hold the phone. What do you mean you are only with us for a little while. Where on earth are you going?
quote:
Jesus replied, “Where I am going, you cannot follow me now, but you will follow later.”

{patiently}Don't worry about that now Peter you'll be following me soon enough. Now I was saying about love one another...
{But Peter imagining Jesus is off to another country or just planning to go into hiding jumps in with both feet (as usual). }
quote:
Peter said to him, “Lord, why can’t I follow you now? I will lay down my life for you!”

Jesus is a little firmer this time...
quote:
Jesus answered, “Will you lay down your life for me? I tell you the solemn truth, the rooster will not crow until you have denied me three times!”
You don't know what you are saying Peter but I know what it around the corner and your bravado now will fail you...
{At this point Jesus looks around the room and sees the worried faces, every disciple starting to panic...what is going on? why is he talking like this?
So Jesus says....}
quote:
“Do not let your hearts be distressed. You believe in God; believe also in me. There are many dwelling places in my Father’s house. Otherwise, I would have told you, because I am going away to make ready a place for you.

OK let's deal with your worries first - then we'll get back to that really important message I had about love one another...

On your point about the closeness of Christ and God I agree that this is central to John's purpose in writing. I don't necessary see this as a late" edition after the other gospels but maybe there were reasons why John felt it important to especially emphasise this. Jesus wasn't just a Saviour, not just the Messiah - God's anointed one to usher in the new kingdom and the new covenant he was in fact God.

[ 09. April 2014, 19:03: Message edited by: Jammy Dodger ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
...now that Judas has left my betrayal is imminent. The hideous death awaiting me will actually be a glorious victory for God. But it is only hours away....

I like the way John has drawn things into a tight spot here. Up until the middle of chapter 13 he has portrayed Jesus in the open, in almost constant battle with the Jerusalem authorities and in addition there has been the undercurrent of betrayal; all was not well in the camp of his followers. The darkness was always pushing against Jesus from people inside and out.

In verse 13:30 Judas leaves the followers and John adds the deliberate note – it was night. The audience knows that things are coming to a climax, there's a sense of claustrophobia now in that room, Jesus' head is slipping into a noose, darkness is outside and will soon come crashing in. Still, for the moment Jesus has time to address his true followers and John slows time right down to allow for the next few chapters' worth of teaching.

The pause-for-breath-point before the final showdown comes as soon as Judas leaves. I get the sense of Jesus heaving a relieved puff of breath and then getting on with the “Now...!” It's as though John has him saying: “At last! We're finally alone without darkness in the midst. Now we can get on with the stuff I really need to tell you, my loyal followers.”

So although up to now John has focussed on Jesus' tussles with disloyalty and debates over what following God means in the public arena, now he can focus on the things that apply to his community as a community.
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
On your point about the closeness of Christ and God I agree that this is central to John's purpose in writing. I don't necessary see this as a late edition after the other gospels but maybe there were reasons why John felt it important to especially emphasise this.

Yes, I think the way the gospel has been crafted indicates that this is not something that comes later; the written form of the text is simply a final point of the work - it is built on years of teaching this stuff. The oral tradition that underlies written works at the time has been somewhat underestimated, methinks!
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
The pause-for-breath-point before the final showdown comes as soon as Judas leaves. I get the sense of Jesus heaving a relieved puff of breath and then getting on with the “Now...!” It's as though John has him saying: “At last! We're finally alone without darkness in the midst. Now we can get on with the stuff I really need to tell you, my loyal followers.”

yes - totally agree. But the disciples keep going off on a tangent.... [Biased]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Nothing new there, then !
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, useful thing about the gospels in general - their willingness to portray those who would become leaders as learners. John really does emphasise the point here, doesn't he, by taking the time at this climactic point in his work to add the human touch? Perhaps he knew he had to deal with learners as well.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Starting into the meat of the teaching block...
quote:
John 14:2
In my Father’s house there are many dwellings. If that wasn't the case I would have told you because I'm off now to get a place ready for you.

When growing up, this little passage with its picture of a 'house' simply connoted a large physical building with many rooms. The image meant – I thought and was not disabused at the time – that heaven was a bit like that. God had plenty of room for his followers in heaven and that (if one pushed the analogy a bit) we would all have our own little 'bedroom' or such like to ourselves. Places of responsibility, sort of thing.

Later, what with the contextual epiphanies that appeared as a result of the linguistic turn from the 1960s onwards, I realised that the term 'house' would more likely have been understood as a reference to an extended family and headed by its biological leader, usually a patriarchal figure (the Hebrew bet av = “father's house”). It was more biological than material, though of course even patriarchs needed bedrooms (or tent space) to lay their heads. So John was more probably making a reference here to Israel as an entity (metaphorically as an edifice). God's Israel, his 'house' or family, has many places to stay, or has room enough for plenty.

This may link back to chapter 10 and Jesus' reference to other sheep that were not strictly speaking part of “this pen” of Israel, but that needed to be brought safely in (10:16). That section is also very close to death references – Jesus lays his life down (10:17-18) – just as with chapter 14. Ultimately of course John has provided a heads-up for the theme in his introduction: “To all who received him...he gave the right to become children of God...” (1:12-13).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This was my late sister's favourite verse - in KJV: "In my Father's house there are many mansions...."

It doesn't sound so odd to me now, having spent Holy Week in the Britannia Adelphi in Liverpool!

The other mansions included both Cathedrals, and a feeling of much relief that the Lutyens ubercathedral ran out of funding. "Paddy's Wigwam" was a haven of peace after the Gethsemane episode of the Anglican Passion Play, with all the disciples in choir red - except Judas, of course, dressed in black. Why didn't they give him a hooked nose as well? But the rest of it was good, and all well meant. "Love Unknown" was sung, very beautifully, with one of the verses missing.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
This was my late sister's favourite verse - in KJV: "In my Father's house there are many mansions...."

It doesn't sound so odd to me now, having spent Holy Week in the Britannia Adelphi in Liverpool!

I can't now remember, but is that the hotel that was designed for passengers booked on the packet ships to the New World? I stayed there once and having found the front door to my room - which opened outwards rather than in, to allow large chests to the dragged in - I spent a happy half-hour opening and closing inside doors trying to find the actual bedroom.

I hope the renewed creation has signs on its doors.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[The new creation keeps outward-opening doors and other nautical features on the first-floor rooms.]

And the lifts are (still?) idiosyncratic.

One thing I forgot to mention. The 14 STATIONS OF THE CROSS in the Metropolitan Cathedral are in stark contrast to the lovely blue glass. A useful/frightening/awesome reality check.

[/tangent]

Over on the "trigger for the crucifixion" thread someone pointed out that the trigger in John was the death and resurrection of Lazarus. We have an obvious parallel in the next few verses. When Jesus is told by Martha that, in effect, he's too late, he stops to comfort her. "Even though he's dead..." which suggests that even if they opened the tomb and found a dead body, there was still hope? And here, Jesus, knowing that he himself is about to be caught and killed, his prime concern is that the disciples should not feel that he is about to abandon them.

Sorry for jumping the gun a bit.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Firing the gun a bit more...
quote:
John 14:3
And if I go and make ready a place for you, I will come again and take you to be with me, so that where I am you may be too.

Not sure how important this is for John's message, but that little phrase, “I will come again”, could be an eye opener for his audience. After all, if Jesus was going to die in obedience to his father’s will so that God's family could be revived and brought back into a proper relationship with him, then it would have been enough to say: “I go and make ready a place for you, then I will take you to be with me”. No need, surely, for the 'come again' statement. That raises some interesting questions around second comings. We've probably been taking a second coming for granted, but I wonder how much of a new thing that might have been for the early Christians. God was going to bring his kingdom into play again, he was going to achieve this through Jesus (his obedience through suffering, death, and resurrection), but that was not going to be total deal. There was a recognition that a second event would be needed – Jesus was going away, his followers couldn't go with him, so he would have to come back some day for them. “Again I will come.” Obviously this quickly became a major topic of hope for the Christians.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Especially if John's first readers were experiencing the fun of having both "Jews" and Romans on their backs, after the revolt.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It would be enough to give one a persecution complex, don't you think?

A few verses together next. Jesus speaking to begin with:
quote:
John 14:4-7
“You know the way where I am going.”
Thomas said, “Lord, we don’t know where you are going. How can we know the way?”
Jesus replied, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. If you have known me, you will know my Father too. And from now on you do know him and have seen him.”

John sweeping up one of the themes again from his introduction (1:14 - ...the Word became flesh and took up residence among us. We saw his glory—the glory of the one and only, full of grace and truth, who came from the Father). He links the word 'truth' with a few other concepts in his work, such as light and spirit.

The section contains one of the most controversial statements in the bible, to modern western ears at least. No one comes to the Father except through Jesus. It's not just here, of course; John has been arguing the point consistently that Jesus and the Father are as one – you see one, you see the other – he in him and him in he (if that makes sense), etc. I'm sure it was equally controversial to devout Jewish ears because it effectively cut out Moses and Torah as the true way of living (something John's introduction also makes clear). No doubt Romans and Greeks alike were also put out by the line.

How to win friends and influence people; though it certainly does force decision making!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It does do that; though the verse I'm struggling with the most is "He who has seen me has seen the Father." I mean, the sense of it seems clear enough, but speaking as a Christian with some major father problems, I'm clinging to this verse to help me make emotional sense of God-the-Father. Jesus is in the sunlight for me--but the Father? I instinctively shy away--and I need help here.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It certainly throws up the power of, and inherent dangers in, language as metaphor. When language works well, it does so because it uses pictures that provide a simple way in to concepts – and 'father' is one such powerfully simple picture, inherent to all humans and present in every generation. Of course, such a picture only works well if it functions as intended. If the experience of the metaphorical picture of 'father' has been warped in any way, then it no longer overlaps the intended concept and will give a distorted result.

It's a bit of a slog going the long way round, asking what the original writers would have understood by a term such as 'father' so that the picture can be dropped in favour of the intended concept, but that seems to be the only way round a distorted result.

It seems that the expectation behind the concept was that loyalty ran both ways in a covenant relationship, where the useful term 'father' referred to the person with the senior responsibility and who had the job of protecting those in the junior role and of ensuring peace and stability. Those in the junior role could quite rightly raise objections to the senior partner if he was not keeping up his side of the bargain – as some of the Psalm writers do when they complain directly to God when God was not keeping the peace, despite the writer's loyalty.

So a 'father' was only being a proper father when he fulfilled the role expected of him. If he failed to do so then the junior could rightfully conclude that the relationship was off and look elsewhere for protection. If the junior chose to remain in the relationship, showing loyalty in the face of the odds, then he did so of his own free will. Equally, if the junior failed, then the senior could choose to remain loyal or go elsewhere. The good news, of course, is based around the fact that the senior partner – God – has so chosen to remain loyal in the face of disloyalty.

Transferring the concept to the term 'father', a biblical significance could be that an abusive parent has, by failure to live up to expected responsibilities, annulled any expectation of loyalty on behalf of the junior member of the family. It would be entirely up to that junior member to decide whether to show any loyalty in the future or not. If he or she did, it would not be out of any familial expectations or responsibilities, it would be a free choice based on different criteria. The bible provides some such criteria. A bit of a cliche, I guess, but John's take seems to be that Jesus was showing his followers what true loyalty looked like - what a 'father' role really involved.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think I see what you're getting after--but IMHO "father" is exactly what you describe (or ought to be) EXCEPT the role is not chosen or end-able by either party. The whole "you can't choose your relatives" thing. Which in a mostly good relationship, actually adds stability to the family. No matter how angry Dad is with you, you know he's not going to fire you, and things can be rebuilt.

I see this much in my son's relationship to my husband. LL feels free to throw a totally unreasonable hissy fit, knowing that neither of us are going to end the relationship, though we do roll our eyes. I never dared be anything but sweetness and light with my own father. I knew I could be "fired".

I'm trying to react to God as reliable, and not as someone who could fire me at any time--but old habits die hard.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I guess in creation terms the role/relationship is not chosen either: God is the creator of all and therefore all - whether all likes it or not - starts from the point of being in the relationship. The prodigal parable suggests that even if one party ends the relationship, there is always a sense in which that relationship can fall back to its creation origin. The son who upped and offed had the clean break 'divorce', as it were, having received his father's allocated inheritance, yet creationally he remained a son and found that the father opted to retain the relationship.

Seeing as we've got to this bit in John, I'll just add the next bit - though not intending to cut off discussion of the block so far:
quote:
John 14:8-9a
Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father, and we will be content.” Jesus replied, “Have I been with you for so long, and you have not known me, Philip? The person who has seen me has seen the Father!


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
One of the ways people who have difficulties with "No-one comes to the Father but by me" deal with it is to say that the words are put into Jesus' mouth by the evangelist, on the premise that Jesus must have said that, or something like it - and Jesus is unlikely to have spoken in chiasms!

The problem with arguments over Jesus actual words is further complicated by the fact that there were people around long before Jesus' time who could take down long speeches in a very efficient form of shorthand. Julius Caesar was an adept, for example, and fifty years after his death many more short forms had been added. So if Jesus did repeat himself in his discourses, it would have been very easy to devise abbreviations for the most common phrases.

I'm not sure this helps though. For some, if the words were quoted accurately, it simply adds fuel to the argument that Jesus became a deluded megalomaniac towards the end of his ministry.

It's more than someone the likes of me can sort out. Whatever the truth of the matter, my respect for the man is not diminished.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What I mean is, on the pattern of Indians and sandals, nobody should diss Jesus until they've walked a mile with his cross on their back.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The “See me, see the father” idea must have made an impression on Jesus' followers quite early on, because Paul seems quite at home the same or similar concept. E.g., Col. 1:15-20 with its “He [Jesus] is the image of the invisible God … God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in the Son”.

I've been slowly working my way through N. T. Wright's latest missive (Paul and the Faithfulness of God) and he notes how Paul quite casually treats some massive christological themes. It's as though even by the time he was writing his letters the churches had already taken for granted things that commentators a couple of generations ago or so would have assumed were second or third generation developments. Paul simply assumes his readers are already familiar with them and does not bother to explain or provide support, he simply mentions them and then gets stuck into the application.

Which leaves me with the question: Was there something already existing in Judaism that laid the ground for the type of christology we see in John (and Paul, etc), or was it something entirely new that Jesus did and which he reinforced in his followers, over and over again, during his ministry? I get the impression that N. T. Wright's take is the latter – it was something “radically different” in his words. I think I would prefer it if it was more along the lines of Jesus saying, “See? This is how you should have been interpreting something that was there all the time!” To which the followers clap their hands to their foreheads and exclaim, “Oh! Of course! It's so obvious when you point it out!” But for that to hold water, I would have to find the texts in and/or out of the Jewish scriptures to support it. I don't think I've found them yet (although perhaps all I need is Jesus to bellow in my ear, “See? This is how you should have been interpreting...!”)

Perhaps if I slip on a pair of worn out sandals...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I do think Jesus said this ("No one comes to the Father except through me"), and I totally see why it is offensive to lots of people. Still, it's a statement about truth. Either the statement is true or it is not. Offensiveness really doesn't matter compared to the question of whether it is true--there are lots of things that are both true and offensive, and in such a case we just have to get on with life and suck it up.

And yes, I do think he was speaking the truth.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
If there is one God: Father, Son and Holy Spirit, surely it follows that no-one can come to the Father and yet avoid the Son and the Holy Spirit?
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Sorry for jumping in but RL has been a bit busy.

Intrigued by some of the threads at the moment.

With you on the "No-one comes to the Father except through me" Lamb Chopped. I have to say I see no reason not to take John's words that "this is what Jesus said" as he was there after all.

On the if you have seen me you have seen the Father I have more sympathy with the disciples struggling to come to terms with unfamiliar concepts.

The Father is YHWH, I-WHO-AM-IN-VARIOUS-TENSES-WITH-YOU, as I think you coined the phrase Nigel M. Surely someone for the disciples who is far-off, unreachable, remote. Can only be approached once a year by the high priest, etc.

Now Jesus has been referring to him all the way through his ministry as "my Father" but surely this is still an unfamiliar concept.

Now Jesus is reinforcing that he and the Father are one, if you've seen one you've seen the other. Surely for Jews brought up on the Shema (The Lord our God is one) this is tough to get your head around. I know Jesus has been talking about this stuff all the way through his ministry but I'm sympathetic to the disciples struggling with it all!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jammy Dodger:
Now Jesus is reinforcing that he and the Father are one, if you've seen one you've seen the other. Surely for Jews brought up on the Shema (The Lord our God is one) this is tough to get your head around.

That sparked another link in my mind to N. T. Wright's take on what Paul did. Wright focuses quite a bit on the Shema as a core element in Paul's theology. For Paul (argues Wright) Jesus' life, death and resurrection is what God's long awaited return actually looked like. God returned in and through Jesus (the overlap here with John's Jesus-and-the-Father-are-one theme). The question arises then, Does this new view clash with the fundamental Jewish monotheism that can be found throughout the second-temple literature? Wright suggests it doesn't; the one creator God had promised to return to his people and had in fact now done so. He did it in and through Jesus, which did not diminish his divine uniqueness.

It does wrap up nicely with John 10:9 and Jesus' statement that only those who enter through him are saved (or kept secure and at peace). God's return to his people would bring security and peace (and justice, etc.).

Another thought occurred: John may be making another point against reliance on Moses here. Phillip's request (John 14:8) to see the Father could have a link to Moses' request to see God (Exodus 33:18ff). In that episode God showed Moses his name, but not his face. In John, Jesus is God's face.

Another thought... No. Coffee time.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The comment has been made before that the disciples often don't seem to 'get it' (as it's said). I noticed that a number of the close followers of Jesus make a verbal appearance in John's gospel, though not spending much time individually, perhaps being named just the once.

So far John has got through: Andrew (1:40, 6:8f, 12:22), Simon-Peter (1:41f, 6:68f, 13:6-11, 13:24, 13:36f, etc.), Philip (1:43f, 6:5-7, 12:21f, 14:8), Nathaniel (1:45ff), Judas son of Simon Iscariot (6:71, 12:4-6, 13:2, 13:26-30, etc.), Thomas Didymus (11:16, 14:5, etc.), Judas (not Iscariot; 14:22).

And then, of course, the enigmatic little follower-loved-by-Jesus (13:23-25 and later).

They each have a short verbal piece in the gospel. John may be doing this to spread the load, as it were; bringing different followers into the plot to move things along while not appearing to focus too much on just one or a handful. He may also be doing some of his typical picture-building exercises, providing a little insight into the character of individual followers as he goes along, just popping a new one in every now and then. It's an effective way of making sure the gospel doesn't become sectarian – and those little pen-pictures are not all entirely negative. Some rather humorous, in fact.

I'm aware that some commentators have argued for seeing John's gospel as a sectarian writing, but although I'm sure it was aimed originally at a specific group with specific needs, I'm not so sure this naturally means a separate 'church' setting from others. Why would John choose to include those particular followers and not others? Why not be more scathing about those he included if he believed them to represent other (less loyal) branches of Christianity?

Anyway – thought for the day.

Jesus continues his reply to Philip...
quote:
John 14:9b-10a
“How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in me?

Rhetorical question following from the last statement. Expects the answer, “Yes, of course I do believe!”
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which is followed, here by a long, deafening silence!
quote:
John 14.9-129Jesus said to him, ‘Have I been with you all this time, Philip, and you still do not know me? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, “Show us the Father”? 10Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own; but the Father who dwells in me does his works. 11Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; but if you do not, then believe me because of the works themselves. 12Very truly, I tell you, the one who believes in me will also do the works that I do and, in fact, will do greater works than these, because I am going to the Father.
- perhaps because people are looking ahead and wondering? What sort of questions are being begged here? If Jesus is going back to his Father, and expecting his work not only to be continued, but improved/enlarged by those who he has taught and trusted, what sort of status do they have? It's an awesome responsibility. And I don't think he's talking about saying their prayers and expecting their kudos to be enhanced by a miracle or two. What do you think?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Their status is apostolic--"sent-out ones", people sent out as missionaries into the harvest fields of the world. And I think the works he refers to will be apostolic as well--not that they will do flashier miracles (hard to imagine what those could be), but that they will reach people for God, building up the church, just as Jesus himself did; and their efforts will succeed, because they will have Jesus himself working behind them and through them.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I still don't understand in what way the work of the apostles will be greater. Perhaps it's in the Greek. Does he mean greater individually, or greater in number? Or both?

Or perhaps they will be greater because they won't have J's physical backup - because he is going to his Father?

It's interesting that he does not anticipate his coming resurrection as a continuing physical presence in the world. Or does he?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I've been interested in the way John uses the word 'glory' (doxa) throughout his gospel. It's a significant word used to translate the Hebrew kabod in the Jewish writings and although often refers to the worship or praise given to God, it can also be used as a stand-in term for God's actual presence, in the way that “God's glory filled the temple” is another way of saying “God resided in the temple.”

John appears to use it with both senses. It can refer to the praise given to individuals (e.g., Jesus rejects the notion that he is looking for men's praise in 5:41-44), and it can also refer to seeing God (e.g., Jesus said that if you believe, you would see the glory of God – 11:40).

So when John set out his main themes in his introduction and made the point that he and others had seen The Word's glory (1:14) when it resided among them, I wonder if he always intended his hearers to understand that just as they saw God in and through Jesus (i.e. face to face), so the world should see God through Jesus' followers. At the moment in these early verses of chapter 14 he has simply repeated the point that the disciples could see God in Jesus (Who has seen me has seen the father – 14:9), but he's going to make the consequent link later about the world seeing God through the community of believers.

If this is the case, then perhaps Jesus' continued presence (and therefore God's continued presence) in the world will be guaranteed by virtue of the upcoming spirit-in-the-disciples, which will be God's glory in the community.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Here comes part of that guarantee:
quote:
John 14.13-1713I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 14If in my name you ask me* for anything, I will do it.
The Promise of the Holy Spirit15 ‘If you love me, you will keep* my commandments. 16And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Advocate,* to be with you for ever. 17This is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him. You know him, because he abides with you, and he will be in* you.

It puts a great deal of trust in those Jesus leaves behind (including Judas? - John will have to answer that, and I'm sure he will. I can see, now, why there had to be only one apostate).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Haven't enough time lieft to sort that out. sorry. Cutting and pasting Oremus doesn't indicate where the subject heading are. Will be more careful in future.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I assume “in my name” here is equivalent to saying “with my authority” rather than applying a verbal formula that by simple virtue of its usage (in English?!) guarantees delivery. I'm probably not the only who has heard the idea taught that so long as you (simply) ask for anything whatsoever in Jesus' name (i.e. make sure you park the word 'Jesus' in the prayer), Jesus will give it to you.

Of course moving the reference to the question of authority doesn't remove the question, How do I know I'm asking for something with Jesus' authority? How do I ensure I have that authority from Jesus in the first place before making the request?

John's answer appears to be that the Father resides in the person and works through him or her. The person has to be loyal to Jesus (“if you love me...”) - that also appears to be a precondition for effective and affective prayer. John, however, doesn’t go into the detailed process for ensuring that the classic paper clip can be moved across the table by prayer alone!

And commandments. What commandments? To what is our John referring here?
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I can see, now, why there had to be only one apostate).

Do tell! Why?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Hmm. Those commandments slipped under my radar.

Why only one apostate? Because it's about as much as we can swallow if Jesus is talking about not losing any of his followers (and even one is a problem for John, I think - because it undercuts Jesus' divine power). But I think the problem is only one for John and not for Jesus.

I would not be surprised if there were others. In fact, I'd be very surprised if there were not others. It's just too glib to think of all the disciples as goodies except Judas, the devil, and I think Jesus prbably knew better than they did themselves, the limits of his followers' faith.

[ 13. June 2014, 17:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, I see how the more than one traitor in the camp could convolute the plot beyond comprehension! I wonder if John included detail about Judas because he had in mind similar more contemporary 'traitors' in the camp?

In fact, I wonder what John's stance would have been towards those who, while not being traitors in the Judas category, nevertheless just slipped away and stopped being in the light. He refers to this happening during Jesus' ministry (6:66) when many disciples turned back and stopped following Jesus. The issue seems to have been Jesus as the route to eternal life (his blood and flesh, not the manna in the wilderness). In 6:64 John notes that Jesus had known who of his followers would not believe and would 'betray' him. That sounds as though John considered all who fell away to be traitors.

On the commandments bit, given one of John's themes being Jesus versus Moses as the route to life, there could be another link here. God gave commandments through Moses, so there would have to be a similar balancing activity here: God gives commandments in and through Jesus. Could that be a reference to Torah, or to another set of commandments, a new and better 'Torah'? Hmmm.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
I assume “in my name” here is equivalent to saying “with my authority” rather than applying a verbal formula that by simple virtue of its usage (in English?!) guarantees delivery. I'm probably not the only who has heard the idea taught that so long as you (simply) ask for anything whatsoever in Jesus' name (i.e. make sure you park the word 'Jesus' in the prayer), Jesus will give it to you.

Of course moving the reference to the question of authority doesn't remove the question, How do I know I'm asking for something with Jesus' authority? How do I ensure I have that authority from Jesus in the first place before making the request?

John's answer appears to be that the Father resides in the person and works through him or her. The person has to be loyal to Jesus (“if you love me...”) - that also appears to be a precondition for effective and affective prayer. John, however, doesn’t go into the detailed process for ensuring that the classic paper clip can be moved across the table by prayer alone!

And commandments. What commandments? To what is our John referring here?
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I can see, now, why there had to be only one apostate).

Do tell! Why?
The commandments--well, I take the passage to answer that question itself, here:


quote:
“This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. Greater love has no one than this, that someone lay down his life for his friends. You are my friends if you do what I command you. No longer do I call you servants, for the servant does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all that I have heard from my Father I have made known to you. You did not choose me, but I chose you and appointed you that you should go and bear fruit and that your fruit should abide, so that whatever you ask the Father in my name, he may give it to you. These things I command you, so that you will love one another. (John 15:12-17)
This would make the commandments = love one another, and bear the lasting fruit of love. Which is both an old and a new commandment, because while he's saying it here very clearly as a sort of "last words" before dying, it has been the theme of his whole ministry.

The "ask in my name" stuff--

That confuses me, too. I'm sure it means "over my signature, in my delegated authority"--so we can probably extrapolate enough to say that if we ask for anything Jesus himself would NOT sign off on, we are wasting our breath and will get nothing but a no. (so no pink Cadillacs, etc.) Since the promise is crammed into the context of instructions on what to do as the Christian movement goes forward, after Jesus' visible presence has been removed, I think it is fair to suppose he is referring to prayers made for the sake of the mission--that is, prayers that are made by people who are out and about Jesus' mission, and who run into situations where they need divine help to accomplish it. In other words, "Lord, we need some help with this ministry challenge here" but not necessarily "Lord, give me a baby/spouse/job/other personal need". We can certainly still pray for those things, but the promise here may not apply, if my reasoning is correct. And in fact, that is what we see in Jesus' own ministry--the miracles he does are always done for the sake of others, never his own personal needs (stone into bread and all that). And his miracles serve to advance Jesus' mission, rather than just being great glowing pictures of WTF. So the closer our requests get to that pattern--being for the service of God's mission and our neighbor, and being things that Jesus himself would sign off on if visibly present--the more likely it is that this promise applies, and therefore that God will give what is asked.

As for the one apostate business--

I think Jesus is referring specifically to the twelve when he says that stuff about "all but the son of perdition." Obviously there were plenty of ordinary followers who dropped away along the path, but in that part of the John 17 prayer, the focus is very clearly upon the twelve, who are about to become the seed for the missionary Christian movement.
 
Posted by Jammy Dodger (# 17872) on :
 
Totally agree on the commandment Lamb Chopped. I was going to quote John 13:34
quote:
“I give you a new commandment – to love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another. NET Bible
This seems to me to be the main thrust of what Jesus is trying to get over - love one another. Everything else revolves around that.

On the "in my name" thing I struggle with this too. Self-evidently all of our prayers that we pray saying "in Jesus' name" or similar are not answered (at least not in the positive).

Yet I have seen answered prayer in all sorts of ways over and over again. For me it is not just the delegated authority thing (though agree with that - close correlation with the great commission in Matthew, All authority is given me therefore go...)

But names in the Bible often seem closely connected to character. Therefore asking for something in Jesus name is asking for something that would be consistent with his character (and therefore by extension from this passage, the Father).

Ultimately though, for me, it always boils down to:
Your kingdom come, your will be done....

Ultimately it is about aligning our will to God's not the other way around......
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I had a ponder. I wondered if John used that word 'commandment' (entole = ἐντολή) in a way that could imply a side reference to the Law, Torah, but it's difficult to say. He uses entole about 7 times in the gospel in various ways. So I’m not sure if someone hearing John's work for the first time back then would have made the association when the reader got to 13:34. I'll park that aside and pick up the next query. Jesus had given this new commandment to the remaining disciples once Judas had left into the night. Why just to the loyal disciples? JD pointed out back when we were looking at 13:34 that there was a resonance with Matt. 22:37-40 and the “Love your God / love your neighbour” being a neat summary of Torah. There it was public, here in John it is private. The neighbour is the leadership team of the (re-)new(ed) faithful community.

It seems to mirror what John says in his letters, too (LC quoted one such passage back at 13:34) about those in the light.

It was interesting if only from the point of view of who John was aiming his gospel at.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I was about to post up the next verse when I realised we hadn't yet considered something rather important in the current passage: the Spirit.

There's so much that could be explored about the Spirit theme in John. In a sense we are only just embarking on the key passages here, but John had already signalled something about the Spirit back in 7:39 when Jesus used the metaphor of water to explain the Spirit's role in life and John noted that “Jesus said this about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were going to receive, for the Spirit had not yet been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.”

John had also made the point that although this Spirit was yet to come, it had already appeared in the person of Jesus. In 1:32 John the Baptist said that he had seen the Spirit descend on Jesus – and stay there.

Potentially interesting point about how the Spirit is an essential prerequisite for successful mission. Jesus' ministry did not begin without it and the disciples seemed somewhat at sea about their mission before they received the Spirit.

John (gospel author) also links the idea of not receiving the Spirit with that of not receiving Jesus. Here in 14:17 he says that the world, defined as that which (including those who) cannot see and recognise the Spirit, will not receive the same. Back in 1:10 John introduced that idea that the world could not recognise Jesus. So John seems to be gearing up his audience to note that the closeness between God and Jesus had a match with the Spirit.

I was snared by a question around 14:15-16.
quote:
“If you love me, you will obey my commandments. Then I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Advocate...”
This is phrased as a conditional. If you should love me...then I will...” That's interesting. It suggests that a disciple had first to obey the commandments and that this was a pass/fail requirement for receiving the Spirit. Obey my rules, then and only then will I send you the Spirit.

Seems counter-intuitive to Christianity, where the point is more often made that we blessed Christians, poor and miserable sinners that we are, desperately need the Spirit's help before we can even hope to love that witch who occupies pew number 14b each Sunday. What hope had the disciples to obey the commandments under their own steam, especially as Jesus was about to leave them, without God's help? Not even Israel could fulfil the Torah! Why would the disciples need a Spirit if they could, in fact, fulfil the essence of Torah?

Perhaps this is about John's emphases on the Spirit as a(nother) Paraclete (= παράκλητος), not a term that made an appearance to date in John's work. But if so, what is it about? Is it linked to John's use of the 'truth' word (here, the Spirit of truth - aletheia = ἀλήθεια)? A Spirit that reveals things (a-letheia as a disclosing, uncovering), an interpreter? This would then refer to the giving of the Spirit as a speaker of interpretations, one who provides the correct interpretation of scripture and God's message. What the disciples received later, in other words, was the mouth of God, as it were, in opening up what God had told his people in past times.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Quick note--the conditional is all in verse 15, "If you love me... you will keep/treasure my commandments." The "then" in verse 16 (Then I will ask the Father...) is a mistranslation in my opinion--the Greek is κἀγὼ, which is a run-together contraction of kai and ego, meaning "And I". While you COULD render it "then," you'd only choose to do so if you already had the preconceived idea that there was a cause-and-effect thing going on here. Otherwise you'd just use "And," which is the default translation. IMHO this is what the translator SHOULD have done.

Also, on that conditional--there is an "if" but not an explicit "then" in the Greek. The second verb is a future tense indicative τηρήσετε, meaning "to keep or treasure." It is not an imperative. So you could translate this conditional equally well as a mere statement of observable fact, similar to "if the dog is barking, there will be someone at the door": "If you love me, you will keep/treasure my commandments." In other words, it doesn't have to imply any coercion or "do-this-or-else" attitude. It could equally well be a bare prediction or statement of what always happens. If X, then Y.

Both of these readings would change the interpretation pretty dramatically. Instead of a "Keep my commandments, or else I will know you don't love me and I won't send the Spirit either," you get a much more gracious "If[almost 'because'] you love me, you will treasure and keep my commandments. Oh, and one more good thing--I will ask the Father, and he will send the Spirit..."

But as so often, the presuppositions you [general you] bring to the text will affect the way you translate it.

ETA: for more scholarly stuff on this, see http://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/4232/is-the-statement-about-love-and-obedience-in-john-1415-an-imperative-or- an-indi. Sorry,can't do URL links here.

[ 22. June 2014, 17:06: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thanks LC – useful stuff. What draws me to query what John is up to is his use of the language here. Although the conditional starts in v.15, the kago flows as part of it. It would have been understandable if John had drawn a nice full-stop equivalent after v.15: “Should you love me you will keep my commandments. In addition, I will...” That kago rather spoils things with its sequencing; I would have expected John might have used something less connected, as it were, if he didn't really intend to do that, perhaps use de instead?

I think it's right to take the τηρέω verb in the indicative state in v.15, rather than the imperative. That matches the usage elsewhere of eav + subjunctive verb + indicative verb, such as in Matt. 9:21 (“If only I could touch his garment, I will be healed”). There is this cause-effect here: If one could just do 'A', then 'B' will follow. With John it does rather read as If 'A', then 'B' and 'C' will follow. I know it doesn't sound right.

I'll have a check on how John uses kago elsewhere when I get a moment; he is quite a heavy user of it so there's a decent chance we should get a feel for his idiosyncrasy.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I take John's (Jesus') use of initial kai (or κἀγὼ) to be a Hebraism--just a carryover into his second language, Greek, of the ubiquitous "And" that starts off what, 70 percent or so of the sentences in the Old Testament? Some huge amount, anyway.

And if that's correct, we can't put very much weight on it in terms of meaning. The Hebrew initial "and" has grammatical purposes, but in terms of the sentence's meaning it's virtually a stutter. Similar to "like" when I was growing up. "So I was like, don't go there, and she was like, why not? and like, she wouldn't listen..."
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Probably wider than just Hebrew - in Arabic it was/is considered good style to start a sentence with "Wa" - and - and unmannerly not to.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I suspect the Hebrew background of the narrative sequence, using the conjunction waw + verb (called the waw-conversive or waw-consecutive) and translating into Greek with the conjunction kai, might increase our problem, because the use of the Hebrew conjunction to indicate a temporal sequence of actions would mean that kai here in John is being used to link a series of actions that occur in a narrative sequence.

So just as in English we might set out a sequence of events that occur one after another – Mary woke up, she got up, she washed, she dressed, she ate her breakfast, she caught the train...etc., - and in Hebrew this would have been presented as a temporal sequence with each verb prefixed by the waw conjunction, so in John 14 this would be: If you...then you...and then I will ask the father, and then he will give... The implication would be that the giving of the Spirit cannot occur until Jesus asks, and Jesus cannot ask until the previous activity has completed (i.e., the disciple is obedient). That would be the sequence of temporal events in a narrative.

As far as the conditional element goes, I can see it makes sense to limit it to v.15. I like the idea that there's an element of statable fact about things, that if a disciple is loyal to God, then he or she will already be motivated (or empowered, or will desire) to be loyal to one's community. It's as though Jesus was saying to his disciples, “You won't to worry about your ability to fulfil those commandments; your desire to be loyal to me and to God will mean that you find yourself motivated to do so.”

Given that, then we are left with this residual issue of the kai + pronoun [ego] in v.16. I did a check on the uses of kago (= καγὼ) in John' gospel. There are 76 occurrences.

An example of the common use of [kago] in the sequential sense can be found in 6:44, where Jesus says, “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him, and I [kago] will raise him up at the last day.” First one, then afterward the other.

However there are instances where John uses [kago] with different senses. For example, in 1:31 John the Baptist says “This is the one about whom I said, ‘After me comes a man who is greater than I am, because he existed before me.’ I [kago] did not recognize him...” This one is interesting, because the sense is less a sequential conjunction and more an adversative - “Surprisingly, I didn't recognise him.”

The same effect is found in 1:32-3. “I saw the Spirit descending like a dove... And I [kago] did not recognize him...

In the next verse (1:34) we have the term being used as a conclusion: “I [kago] have both seen and testified that this man is the Chosen One of God.” This seems less temporally sequential and more logical, the final point being made on the basis of points made earlier.

5:15 provides another usage – Jesus speaking: “My Father is working until now, and I [kago] too am working.” The sense here is of 'So, too, I...' where the first clause is supplemented by the second: 'firstly this, and also this'.

10:15 provides yet another sense. Jesus says, “Just as the Father knows me and I [kago] know the Father...” and the sense here is 'as one, so also the other (at the same time).' Slightly different to the last sense in that there doesn't seem to be a progression here, the two clauses are complementary without development.

So we have a variety of sense in which John uses that term. Normally that would be a cause for doom and gloom, but here it's good news! It means that we can't really conclude that John had in mind a consecutive action in 14:16. It could have been intended as complementary, non-chronological, or logical.

And another thing(!). Another Advocate. A lot has been written about this as a term to describe the Spirit. What do people think about it? It could tie in nicely with John's description of Jesus as 'Word' (logos) – both terms imply a message; Jesus and the Spirit as speakers in some sense. But then John uses the term parakletos (= παράκλητος) instead of “another Word.” He does use the term of Jesus in one of his letters (1 John 2:1), “If anyone sins we have a paraclete with the Father, Jesus Christ the Righteous One”, which might suggest John intended the comparison to be drawn in his gospel between parakletos and logos.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Onwards...
quote:
John 14:18-19 NET Bible
I will not abandon you as orphans, I will come to you. In a little while the world will not see me any longer, but you will see me; because I live, you will live too.


 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I like this. So simple and such comfort.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Sometimes I think I know this truth, that I see Jesus and I live,
But it is a slippery truth, only true if I am in the right frame of mind: true in the moment, but not when the moment is talked about. A deep truth that can be experienced, but not reduced to propositions.
Perhaps a lot of John is like that; and why it called the spiritual gospel, though I think the others are also spiritual.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yup. What the last two said. All the gospels are self-admitted propaganda. But there do seem to be times when God (if there is a God!) just cuts through all the pathetic human inadequacy to speak for Himself. In today's world we need all the eyes-wide comfort and hope we can get.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's very fitting for the enclosed room, with the darkness shut out for a while - safe and sound. Reminds me of a father reading a night-time story to the kid before he falls asleep.

The night will hold no terrors for you, me lad.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Continuing:

"In a little while the world will no longer see me, but you will see me; because I live, you also will live. On that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you.." [John 14.18-20]

Have we discussed this already? I'm struggling with a new machine.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
We hadn't done verse 20 yet, which is a tricky triangle to get one's head around: I in Father, You in me, I in You. Ripe for Greek philosophical speculation, that! I wonder if that is how John or his early audience approached it, though...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
In R.E.Brown's Introduction (Ed. F.J. Maloney), Georg Richter is cited as regarding v.14.20 as one of several examples of an early re-working of the gospel by one part of the Johanine community who were developing a "Son-of-God Christology" (which was not universally adopted at the time. Brown elsewhere talks about Wisdom literature in the context of Christians "inhabiting" Jesus - or the other way round.

Google grundschrift if you haven't got indigestion already...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm having a hard time approaching that verse other than experientially. I don't understand Greek philosophy or the German stuff, my brain doesn't work that way... but "I in you and you in me and I in my Father"--well, that just works for me. It gives me a sense of both family closeness and of utter safety--nobody is going to get to me without literally going through Jesus. It's an image of nested circles, or even of pregnancy and the warm safety of that enclosure of love. That comforts me. It reminds me that I am never alone.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
"They who have my commandments and keep them are those who love me; and those who love me will be loved by my Father, and I will love them and reveal myself to them."
[John 14.21]

Well, I think I want to take issue with that. I can vouch personally for the fact of Jesus revealing himself to those who love him. But I refute unequivocally any idea that this happened (in my case) as a result of any moral rectitude on my part. John (not Jesus!) is way off here.

[ 08. August 2014, 16:38: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
"They who have my commandments and keep them are those who love me; and those who love me will be loved by my Father, and I will love them and reveal myself to them."
[John 14.21]

Well, I think I want to take issue with that. I can vouch personally for the fact of Jesus revealing himself to those who love him. But I refute unequivocally any idea that this happened (in my case) as a result of any moral rectitude on my part. John (not Jesus!) is way off here.

[Big Grin] Are you sure that you've understood him correctly?

"They who have my commandments and keep them [Greek: treasure them, cherish them] are those who love me." Well, yes. If you love someone, it is reasonable to expect that his commands (wishes, desires, preferences) will be dear to you. I don't feed my husband mustard, and I pretty much refrain from makeup because my little guy objects to it. My husband urgently desires (commands, if this weren't the U.S. in the 21st century) that I get my job applications done this week. These things I do out of love, not fear or coercion. Jesus' commands (including the one about believing in him, and about loving my neighbor!) are similar. They are not burdensome because they are done for love. Never perfectly, but then that's not a requirement, is it? The cross has done away with that notion.

And in fact, obedience to Christ is pretty much our only useful way of expressing our love for him. I mean, it's a case of putting our money where our mouth is, right? Any number of people have claimed to love me; but it's the ones who clean up after me when I'm sick who really love me. The rest? words, words, words.

"and those who love me will be loved by my Father, and I will love them and reveal myself to them." I don't think you had a problem with this bit, but I'll just say that this is the good news--our love is requited, nobody's going to be left to languish and sigh while the Beloved finds someone else. Our love story has a happy ending, and we have his promise on that.

(ever notice how Jesus promises us rewards that nobody else would want EXCEPT someone who loved him? "I will love them and reveal myself to them... they will be loved by my Father." I can think of any number of people who would not consider this a reward at all--rather a bore, or even a threat. [Ultra confused] But to those who love him, he's basically saying, "You'll get what you want, never fear.")
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
I understand this in light of 1 John 2
quote:
Now by this we may be sure that we know him, if we obey his commandments. Whoever says, ‘I have come to know him’, but does not obey his commandments, is a liar, and in such a person the truth does not exist; but whoever obeys his word, truly in this person the love of God has reached perfection. By this we may be sure that we are in him: whoever says, ‘I abide in him’, ought to walk just as he walked.

Beloved, I am writing you no new commandment, but an old commandment that you have had from the beginning; the old commandment is the word that you have heard. Yet I am writing you a new commandment that is true in him and in you, because the darkness is passing away and the true light is already shining. Whoever says, ‘I am in the light’, while hating a brother or sister, is still in the darkness. Whoever loves a brother or sister* lives in the light, and in such a person* there is no cause for stumbling. But whoever hates another believer is in the darkness, walks in the darkness, and does not know the way to go, because the darkness has brought on blindness.

It is not moral rectitude but loving our brothers and sisters that is commanded. Or is it a "commandment" since how can love be commanded? Being and acting lovingly can be done, so in some circumstances this may be all that can be hoped.

Of course, in other places in scripture we are are commanded to love our enemies and those who do evil to us, not just our fellow Christians.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I suppose this covers an issue that John and his audience faced: How does one know who is a loyal member of the Christian community?

Answer (on a parchment or two by John): The one who holds and keeps guard of Jesus' commandments is the one demonstrating loyalty to God.

There may be more here than just following the rules. Having and holding the commandments could also mean studying, interpreting, copying, disseminating... and even in the face of argument and persecution. It would then be about living the life and teaching others to live it too, unto death.

Such a one will be looked after by the Father, says John, and will also be subject to Jesus' revelation. That's interesting. I assume that this refers to the appearance of Jesus in person to the one showing loyalty – presumably an initial reference to the appearances to the disciples “in that day” (verse 20) after the resurrection, but surely John would also want to say that the appearance would happen to anyone showing loyalty.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Latchkey Kid says that it is not moral rectitude but loving our brothers and sisters that is commanded.

I think that in this context it is loving our fellow believers that is commanded, and what is important is what we believe as much as what we say or do. There is quite a large body of Christian believers who, I think, would be reluctant to regard many liberal Christians as authentic believers. It sounds to me like a backs-against-the-wall job, and not only is moral rectitude demanded (by the believers) but a particular set of moral attitudes which not all Christians (same sex couples, for instance) may want to espouse ( and 'espouse is a very apt word here, isn't it?)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Shakes head dizzily]

I think you're heading down a rabbit hole (or a dead horse hole, if there such a thing)

Jesus commands us to love our neighbors (including our enemies), which is clearly a matter of action, words, and attitude. The warm fuzzy feelings may or may not exist, but that's okay. They are not the heart of it. One can love without liking someone. And their moral rectitude or lack of it has nothing to do with our requirement to love them. Nor do their opinions or behavior.

He also commands us to believe in him ("What should we be doing, to doing the work that God commands?" the crowd asked. Jesus replied, "This is what God commands: that you believe on the one he has sent.")

None of this is possible without the Holy Spirit living in us. But all of it IS possible with him.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Fine. Points taken. Feel free to ignore my little white scut disappearing down the hole and carry on!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
oh dear. I've googled scut and can't find an appropriate meaning... [Eek!]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Little white rabbit tail. See my address below!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Little white rabbit tail.

Which is especially conspicuous when the rabbit is hightailing it away.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Bouncing back:

quote:



Judas (not Iscariot) said to him, ‘Lord, how is it that you will reveal yourself to us, and not to the world?’ Jesus answered him, ‘Those who love me will keep my word, and my Father will love them, and we will come to them and make our home with them. Whoever does not love me does not keep my words; and the word that you hear is not mine, but is from the Father who sent me.

[John14.22-24]

Is this the first time we encounter "Judas (not Iscariot)"? And is the disclaimer in parenthesis in the original source? I doubt if we can know, for sure. But what is most likely? There are loads of Simons in the bible, but AFAIK, none of them is referred to as "Simon (not Peter)".
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
I don't know if Greek had such a thing as a parenthesis, but, intrigued by your question, pimple, I played around with the Oremus Bible's search function. It seems that when the name Judas is used, the writer makes it clear as to whether it's Judas the betrayer or not. It makes sense to me that the name Judas would have been so "loaded" that a writer would take pains to relieve other Judases of that association.

However, looking into the use of Simon/Peter, there's a similar effort by the John writer.

References to Simon. These tend to differentiate between Simon Peter and Simon Iscariot, Judas the betrayer's father. (Interesting linkage there.)

References to Peter will typically name him as Simon Peter or name him in conjunction with his brother Andrew. If it isn't specified in the verse itself, there will have been a reference to it a few verses before, so the reader is well aware from the context.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
No, no parentheses in ancient Greek, though the text would still be there. But as Mamacita shows so well, there is a common practice of distinguishing two people with the same name--either by their relatives (son of whoever) or their home village or their political association (Simon the Zealot). By the way, I'm pretty sure that is who the writers are trying to keep readers from confusing Simon Peter with--there were two Simons among the apostles, as well as two Johns and two Judases. I don't think Simon Iscariot comes into the picture at all--he may well have been dead by this time. But Simon the Zealot was alive and in the same circle, a real candidate for confusion.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And Judas (not Iscariot) would according to tradition be Thaddeus? There must be some rationale for this - or is it conjecture?

I quite understand the need to distance the good Judas from the bad one, but isn't there a less negative way of doing it - like, for instance, naming the good Judas's father?

I cannot help wondering if "not Iscariot" might be an edit, of the original story, written with hindsight. After all, Judas who was Iscariot was a bona fide apostle right up to the time of Jesus' arrest.

[ 17. August 2014, 21:01: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's not at all clear - what I mean is that many of the stories of Jesus' sayings and doings must have pre-dated the writing of the gospels, no?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Sorry – I was still down the hole with Alice. I was wondering in that wonder land whether to EAT ME or DRINK ME. I'm assuming that John took material from Jesus' teachings that best suited the purpose he had in writing – the issue or issues that he really, really wanted to tackle. What he needed was to get through that keyhole (the issue) as much of his material as he could squeeze.

Can't remember now if it was EAT ME or DRINK ME that made Alice shrink, but I think John is crowding his stage here with as much as he hopes his audience can consume, and that this means we are at a nub in his argument. You'll know who the Real Followers of Jesus are by their behaviour. Such a person will be so tied up in loyalty to Jesus and God that it will be hard to distinguish one from the other: God-Jesus-Spirit-Believer.

It's a good question (to reappear above ground again) why John chooses to “not-Iscariot” this Judas. Usually the identifier is indeed by origin, name of father or tribe or region. Mr J. Iscariot seems to have got under John's skin to some great extent. It almost feels as though John was burned by Judas' behaviour.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes. But gracious, I should complain! Sometimes I think my own hang-ups far outweigh John's. The discourses get more and more repetitive and more and more - what? Effective, I think. He's channelling Jesus, and you don't actually have to be an apostle or an Evangelist to do that. Let the good guy do his work, pimple, and stop whingeing about his human fallibility!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Okay, feeling like Captain Obvious here. Surely, if he does have a beef with Judas, it is humanly understandable?

Still, be that as it may, I see nothing in the mere identification (Judas, the one who betrayed him) to force us into that idea. The fact is, whether you have emotions about the act or not, Judas Iscariot IS the guy who betrayed Jesus, and will forever be best known for that fact. People tend to identify others by their best known quality. Thus you get some ID'd by more well-known relatives, some by village, some by occupation--and some by action. Abraham Lincoln was many things, but his most obvious quality is that of having been president. Therefore anyone looking for a quick way to distinguish which Lincoln he's talking about will likely say, "You know, the president." And that includes people who are still refighting the Civil War and loathe and despise the man. Similarly, John W. Booth will always carry the tag "the guy who shot Lincoln." That tells you nothing about whether the speaker approves of Booth's action or not. It simply identifies his most famous characteristic.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry, but you've totally missed my (badly put?) point. John was quoting a remark, not by Judas Iscariot, but by the "good" Judas. Are you saying that the one thing he was famous for was not being Iscariot?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm sorry to say this, but yes, it probably was. Think for a moment: Suppose your name was Leonardo da Vinci but you were NOT the artist/inventor, although you lived at roughly the same time. How do you think people would describe you in, say, letters to people who had never met you personally?

Yep. "Yesterday I ran into Leonardo da Vinci--no, not that one, another guy--and ..."

It's really annoying to be constantly defined as NOT the more famous person of your name; but it's almost impossible to stop other people from doing it, because it's the most salient point in most people's minds. John was simply doing what people do all the time.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Onwards and upwards?

John 14.25-28


‘I have said these things to you while I am still with you. But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you everything, and remind you of all that I have said to you. Peace I leave with you; my peace I give to you. I do not give to you as the world gives. Do not let your hearts be troubled, and do not let them be afraid. You heard me say to you, “I am going away, and I am coming to you.” If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going to the Father, because the Father is greater than I.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I just love it - definitely uplifting!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
What would the disciples have understood by the expression "I am going to the Father" ?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think they would have been confused. But maybe more to the point, what DID Jesus mean by "going to the Father"? Is this a simple reference to his death, or to the whole death/resurrection/ascension complex? I tend to think the latter.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Yes, especially since he said they would rejoice about it.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
If it had simply been to death on the Cross, there would not have been any glory. The glory comes from the resurrection and ascension. The words were to comfort as well as inform.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry, but there seems to be something like a bit of corporate autism going on here. The idea that Jesus meant by "I am going to the Father" that he was going to be crucified, resurrected from the dead and returned for a brief while to the disciples as the Risen Son, before returning once more to the Father, though without entirely abandoning them.....

may or may not be true. Let's suppose that it is. There is a vast gulf between what we (or you - the church) know with hindsight to be true, and the perceptions of people on the ground at the time - that is, Jesus' contemporaries, not John the evangelist's. I think I go with LC's first conjecture - that they were confused, as well as comforted. But to suggested that they - the disciples, back then - were comforted by a complete knowledge of what was to come just stretches my credulity to breaking point.

Basically, I think that present-day Christians are concerned primarily with their own need for comfort, with a very limited capacity for appreciating that of others, then or now.

(Will he never stop grousing...?)
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I don't think anybody was suggesting that the disciples then and there had it all figured out. Jesus, yes; disciples, no. But Jesus had a habit of saying things that would only make full sense long afterward. Very annoying it must have been sometimes, I think, but no doubt they got used to it.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Basically, I think that present-day Christians are concerned primarily with their own need for comfort, with a very limited capacity for appreciating that of others, then or now.

That is indeed a big hurdle for readers of the bible (ditto all texts): to put oneself in the shoes of the original author/audience so as the more fully understand what was being said. It's one of the right questions to ask - What would the followers of Jesus have understood by the phrase "I am going to the Father"? A parallel question is the same one in respect of John's audience. Would they have understood the same thing as those in that nighttime before the arrest?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
It's so difficult to know exactly the circumstances of John's audience. So much can happen in a generation or two, even in times when the pace of ordinary life seems slow compared to our own.

John 14.29-31


And now I have told you this before it occurs, so that when it does occur, you may believe. I will no longer talk much with you, for the ruler of this world is coming. He has no power over me; but I do as the Father has commanded me, so that the world may know that I love the Father. Rise, let us be on our way.


That last sentence really does sound as though the words were taken in shorthand by some unknown scribe. Thinking back to the situation in Jesus' lifetime, where are they about to go?

And back to John's time again. There must have been a great deal of anxiety about lost friends, I think - So much of this last discourse continues to give comfort in the context of funerals today.

Then suddenly, we're on our way - but get nowhere, because we are plunged straight into another discourse, on the true vine.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
They're on their way outside the city walls, across Kidron, to Gethsemane. The vine etc. I take to be what he said while they were walking.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry to be picky but I don't think John mentions Gethsemane. However, it may be a reasonable assumption. John's description of what happens there is - ah, perhaps we'd better wait. Another couple of discourses and many repetitions on the theme of Jesus going to the Father, first. But people might want a rest before starting on the true vine discourse?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
'I am the true vine, and my Father is the vine-grower. He removes every branch in me that bears no fruit. Every branch that bears fruit he prunes to make it bear more fruit.
You have already been cleansed by the word that I have spoken to you. Abide in me as I abide in you. Just as the branch cannot bear fruit by itself unless it abides in the vine, neither can you unless you abide in me.

[John 15.1-4]

There's a great deal of 'meat' in this. As a gardener I find myself biting my tongue. And "You have already been cleansed" seems to hark back to the foot-washing. What's it got to do with viticulture?

I expect there are allusions here to the purification metaphors in the old testament, the corn being winnowed, the molten gold being purified. Can someone simplify it for me? Or would that be totally the wrong approach?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
The same word katharo can be translated either as "to cleanse" or "to prune." He's playing on words.
 
Posted by Hart (# 4991) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
The same word katharo can be translated either as "to cleanse" or "to prune." He's playing on words.

I'd never really thought about this before, but really, at its heart, the word means "to cleanse." It gets used in Greek as a technical term for pruning, but that's an extension of the basic meaning. It's not really a pun, where a word is ambiguous between two meanings and the word-play takes advantage of this. It's more that pruning is understood in Greek as the vinicultural equivalent of cleansing in most other spheres.

We have to use a different word in English, but really Jesus is just talking about cleansing in different contexts, including viniculture where 'cleansing' happens not to involve water but scissors.

Does that make sense?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
It does indeed!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So it is an extension of the foot-washing metaphor. The physical cleansing of the disciples by washing their feet is also a symbol of his having cleansed - or purified - them spiritually, so that they can continue the work (bear fruit in the vine metaphor) given to Jesus by his Father.
And the example of service he gives to them in the former example is a sort of add-on freebie and not the main point?

They were fishermen mostly, not vine-growers. I wonder what they made of it all? It makes no sense to a reasonable modern person now to think of "false vines" as opposed to the true vine. The poor bloody vine is only as good as the gardener. But in Jesus' day all creation seems to have had some sort of soul, so that when Jesus curses an unproductive fig tree and it dies, the wise heads of the faithful nod in approval.

We are still light-years away though (possibly) in understanding how little control over our instinctive and intuitive thoughts and actions are. This good boy/bad boy simplification just won't wash any more, but we still cling to it. Saves us the trouble of thinking...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
So it is an extension of the foot-washing metaphor. The physical cleansing of the disciples by washing their feet is also a symbol of his having cleansed - or purified - them spiritually, so that they can continue the work (bear fruit in the vine metaphor) given to Jesus by his Father.
And the example of service he gives to them in the former example is a sort of add-on freebie and not the main point?

No, I think it's an example of forgiveness--an acted out parable. He says to Peter, "you folks have already had a bath and need only to have your feet washed--except for one", which makes sense if the bath = one-time baptism and the footwashing = the everyday repentance and forgiveness of daily sins. In that case, the footwashing is something where we should "do as I have done to you"--that is, forgive one another. That way the whole community stays clean, healthy, and fruitful.

quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
They were fishermen mostly, not vine-growers. I wonder what they made of it all? It makes no sense to a reasonable modern person now to think of "false vines" as opposed to the true vine. The poor bloody vine is only as good as the gardener. But in Jesus' day all creation seems to have had some sort of soul, so that when Jesus curses an unproductive fig tree and it dies, the wise heads of the faithful nod in approval.

You'll notice the passage isn't about true vs. false vines, but rather about fruitful vs. fruitless vine branches. False vines aren't even mentioned. You can say they're implied, but you could just as easily say that "true vine" is another way of saying "the spiritual reality that natural vines mirror, just as the sun and moon are mirrors of God's true eternal light."

[ 06. September 2014, 01:40: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Hart (# 4991) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
You'll notice the passage isn't about true vs. false vines, but rather about fruitful vs. fruitless vine branches. False vines aren't even mentioned. You can say they're implied, but you could just as easily say that "true vine" is another way of saying "the spiritual reality that natural vines mirror, just as the sun and moon are mirrors of God's true eternal light."

I'd be inclined to go this way. There are good shepherds and bad shepherds in John, but there's only really one vine in this symbolic universe, and it's true, ie. reliable. The question is how deeply we're rooted in it (to mix the metaphor a little!)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks for your help. I must say my post came out somewhat unedited (euphemism alert!)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Could some kind person please put up John 15.5-7
(MY fumbled link to Ortemus - AND the attempted edit - failed miserably) and answer the following question for me:

How do Christians know when they are abiding in Jesus?
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
John 15:5-7

quote:
I am the vine, you are the branches. Those who abide in me and I in them bear much fruit, because apart from me you can do nothing. Whoever does not abide in me is thrown away like a branch and withers; such branches are gathered, thrown into the fire, and burned. If you abide in me, and my words abide in you, ask for whatever you wish, and it will be done for you.
I suppose the facile answer to pimple's question would have something to do with bearing fruit, but that seems to easy and too short-term. ("Look! Results! Jesus is with me!") Whereas "abiding" seems to be a long-term thing, at least to me.

[ 15. September 2014, 15:10: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think I put the cart before the horse again!

1. How would the disciples have known they were or were not abiding in Jesus. What, specifically, was Jesus demanding they should do or not do?

2. How would John recognise, publicly and/or privately, those of his readers who were abiding in Jesus?

3. Did anyone then, and does anyone now, have the authority to judge who may or may not be abiding in Jesus?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Cracking questions - covers the three aspects of biblical interpretation: validation of the original sense, the authorial intent in the work aimed at an audience, and application for today.


Right. That's my insight on this.

Actually I need to get closer to the weekend to get a fuller response. Two days of tea in a week is nowhere near enough.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
1. How would the disciples have known they were or were not abiding in Jesus. What, specifically, was Jesus demanding they should do or not do?

It's not a direct link in the Gospels, but I would think it's a fairly straight-forward indirect link to Jesus' statements that loving him means following his commands.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
* post * n the knowledge that there * s a R * SK assoc * ated with what * say at th * s time of year, when a pre-Hallowe'en sp * r * t stalks the n * ght on the Sh * p

quote:
Crap spouted by pimple:
1. How would the disciples have known they were or were not abiding in Jesus. What, [* ]specifically[/* ], was Jesus demanding they should do or not do?

2. How would John recognise, publicly and/or privately, those of his readers who were abiding in Jesus?

3. Did anyone then, and does anyone now, have the authority to judge who may or may not be abiding in Jesus?

Number [1] is the hardest one to answer, given the post-Enlightenment notions of how texts were put together. There's that suspicion about any claim to make a historical link between what's in the text and what was in the historic event the text purports to represent. The issue is whether any text from the past can be taken seriously as a source of historical information. John's gospel is quite overt in stating that it has a reason and purpose for its existence, which causes some to back away from treating it as in any sense historical. Still, one does have faith in the oral and community tradition theory, that when someone like John takes material and presents it in public this way, he puts it up for scrutiny to be tested by those who were witnesses and who could besmirch what he wrote if they thought he was taking liberties with history. John seems to have survived the cull of public scrutiny.

So We (royal 'we') are more confident in saying that at some point Jesus told his immediate followers that the test of loyalty was their life in obedience to their master – an abiding.

John, in his turn, is quite taken by this theme of abiding (remaining, residing...). It pops up all over the place in his work. He seems to want to have his hearers obey on a regular basis – a lifestyle that is best described by saying it is like someone living permanently at an address. He extends the picture language by using another metaphor, that of the vine. So a loyal believer is like one who lives at a permanent address, which in turn is like being a branch attached to the main vine stalk. You can tell who's living the life by virtue of their being like the stalk, or having a personalised home. Their lifestyle, speech, and so on all feel alike. There is no mask, or sense of detachment, to what they say and do – to who they are.

There is something else, though, in John; he is working up to something in this passage and is spending some time on this before he gets there.

As to the judging aspect – the high-level answer would probably be that God does the judging. A lower-level answer would be that Jesus has been authorised by God to judge as well. An even deeper-level answer would also have to take account of those hints in the NT that the believers have also been authorised to judge.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
There is certainly a big point coming:
quote:
8 My Father is glorified by this, that you bear much fruit and become [or 'be'] my disciples. 9 As the Father has loved me, so I have loved you; abide in my love. 10 If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love, just as I have kept my Father's commandments and abide in his love. 11 I have said these things to you that my joy may be in you, and that your joy may be complete.
[John 15.8-11]
I think we can pause here. He knows that he will very soon be dead, and the talk is all of joy!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yes. His own joy. Great point.

I think it's because the great rescue will soon be complete. The people he loves will be forever safe, forever blessed, forever his. Which makes the death worthwhile.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I think I put the cart before the horse again!

1. How would the disciples have known they were or were not abiding in Jesus. What, specifically, was Jesus demanding they should do or not do?

2. How would John recognise, publicly and/or privately, those of his readers who were abiding in Jesus?

3. Did anyone then, and does anyone now, have the authority to judge who may or may not be abiding in Jesus?

I'm going to try to take a whack at this, though it's probably unwise as my brain is fuzzy from headache etc.
[Razz]

First, question 2. How would John recognize who was or was not abiding in Jesus--I think the answer here is that he wouldn't, not with 100% accuracy. A newly cut branch looks just fine for a while--a short while, granted, but then who's to know exactly when the cut came? As long as it's still hanging there supported by the rest of the branches, you could walk right past it and never notice the cut connection--until it wilts.

I suspect a newly-cut off Christian would be much the same--the wilt would not be apparent right away, it would take a while. And so John would wisely refrain from judgement.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Now question 3--

quote:
3. Did anyone then, and does anyone now, have the authority to judge who may or may not be abiding in Jesus?
The answer is yes. Jesus has this authority, and he has clearly delegated it (for certain values of "delegated") to the church. Meaning the church as an assembly or group, not as a single individual, no matter what his office. Matthew 18 lays out the procedure.

[And yes, I'm relying on non-Johannine documents for this discussion. I believe with all my heart that Scripture interprets Scripture. Sue me. [Razz] }]

Okay, let's go into "for certain values of "delegated." This does not mean "Anyone a church body condemns is going to hell, no appeals allowed." When someone delegates his authority, this does NOT mean that he thereby gives up any right to overrule his appointed delegate. If my employer asks me to review another employee and I do a crap job of it, my own boss can and will look at what I wrote, overrule it, and discipline me into the bargain. I have the authority to do things right, but not to impose my mistakes, accidental or deliberate, on anyone else. So with the church. If the church wrongly censures or excommunicates somebody, the Lord will certainly overrule that judgement. If it was done on purpose, the ones who misused their delegated authority will be up for judgement themselves.

Okay, now the "how" of judging whether someone is abiding in Jesus:

This is an authority to be used with fear and trembling and a great deal of consultation (witness Matthew 18) and when in doubt, refrained from. The purpose of this authority (we Lutherans call it the Office of the Keys) is to protect both the individual and the church as a body. Consider the case of a guy who is absolutely, glaringly, repeatedly, unrepentantly, breaking all ten of the Commandments to smithereens--not just once, but as a clear, ongoing, longstanding pattern of behavior. He beats his wife and kids. He steals from his job. He's having multiple affairs, some of them with underage girls. He lies like a dog about his best friends and betrays their confidence, destroying their marriages and their jobs. Etc. etc. etc...

And yet he goes to church on Sunday, he holds the position of elder (God knows how he got it, someone really screwed up there) and he advertises himself to the world as a Christian.

So now what? To let him continue in this way is to help him commit spiritual suicide. If you care about his wellbeing at all, you must warn him. More than that, you must do what lies in your power to turn him from this path. Not that very much lies in your power, after all--each individual soul makes its own choices--but you (as a group) have the delegated authority of the Keys, and in this case you clearly must use them or be guilty of negligence. Otherwise his blood will be on your hands.

You also have a responsibility to the body of Christ, the church. Should such a man be allowed to continue to puff himself off as a member in good standing of the body of Christ? What of the people he has under his care as an elder? What of the children who are watching his example? What of the wife he abuses, the sons and daughters he beats, the people he has betrayed? Should not their harm be taken seriously? Should you not prevent further harm insofar as you can?

Finally, you have a responsibility to the world. Such a man is a walking lie so long as he advertises himself to be a Christian. He will put innumerable people off the Christian faith by his hypocrisy, and if the church fails to discipline him, the church will be guilty of hypocrisy as well.

So it's got to be done? How? Short answer is Matthew 18. Which is a multi-step, group project aimed at bringing the person to repentance and restoration. It may not succeed, but as a church, you're going to give it every shot. Because unlike grape vine branches, a cut Christian branch can actually be restored and become fruitful again. But it takes people who care enough to try.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Now question 1. (I can triple post, me!)

quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
1. How would the disciples have known they were or were not abiding in Jesus. What, specifically, was Jesus demanding they should do or not do?

It's not a direct link in the Gospels, but I would think it's a fairly straight-forward indirect link to Jesus' statements that loving him means following his commands.
I agree with this, with the added stuff from upthread that "keeping my commands" in the Greek is perhaps better translated as "cherishing, treasuring" with the add-on note that naturally that's going to include trying to do them. But the main emphasis is not on some kind of bare order, but is more in tune with doing things because the person you love is made happy by that. Similar to "Dad would have wanted me to do things this way." The attitude of a child, not a slave.

Of course, none of us manages this perfectly, and maybe that's a good thing to keep in mind, as it keeps us humble and we don't take our "abidingness" in Jesus for granted. Someone who feels their weakness and is always wanting to draw closer is IMHO safer than the person who is so certain of himself that he never gives another thought in life to whether he actually is abiding in Jesus or not.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
We are fast approaching the apex of the current chiasmos, after which all that has been said from the beginning of chapter 13 will be repeated in reverse order. It's formality takes nothing from its power to comfort and convince. The phrases are almost liturgical, as though Jesus were composing his own eucharistic prayer to the Father.

Reminds me of some of the rhythms of the old ASB (the anglican Alternative Service Book), much maligned in its heyday, and much missed by this old duffer.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thought occurred on that pruning/cleansing of the vine image and the judging role in the Christian community.

There seems to be a distinction between the function of removing unfruitful branches, and a separate function of destroying those branches. Verse 6 goes:
quote:

“If anyone does not remain in me, he is thrown out like a branch, and dries up; and such branches are gathered up and thrown into the fire, and are burned up.”

This may be pushing the picture language too far, but was Jesus saying that there is a role for Christians in casting out of the community any who do not match loyalty with actions, but that ultimate destruction remains God's prerogative? He is the one, in other words, who gathers up the dry branches that have already been cast out.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Simon Peter take note? Vis-à-vis Ananias and Sapphira?

Or perhaps I'm totally wrong and Peter just pointed the finger, and God did the business - Peter being a better God-manipulator than Jonah?

Now there I go, being judgmental again. And me not even a bona-fide born-again...

A and S are perhaps not relevant to John's Gospel - but I reckon this snippet of John might be relevant to that nasty little piece of Christian history. And I won't let it go. Not yet.

[ 24. September 2014, 18:19: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Whatever floats your boat!

But as for shoving out the fruitless branches--

I think the beginning of this passage attributes the cutting bit to God the Father when it calls him the "vinedresser," which is basically the guy who does the pruning (harvesting and manuring too, I suppose). Still, the pruning is going to be the majority of what he does during the year as he keeps the vine in good shape. By analogy, then, any "cutting" of unfruitful Christian branches is ultimately the work of God the Father. He may, if he chooses, work through the local congregation; but he need not, and he can overrule them too.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which brings us deftly back on track. And I apologize for not giving links to my tangential outburst. Will try harder next time!
I must not blame Windows 8
I must not blame Windows 8
I must not...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
'This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. No one has greater love than this, to lay down one's life for one's friends, You are my friends if you do what I command you. I do not call you servants any longer, because the servant does not know what the master is doing; but I have called you friends, because I have made known to you everything that I have heard from my Father. You did not choose me but I chose you. And I appointed you to go and bear fruit, fruit that will last, so that the Father will give you whatever you ask him in my name. I am goving you these commands, so that you may love one another.'
[John 15.12-17]

This is powerful stuff. Powerful religion can be difficult to cope with. Or argue with. Or demand explanations of. So I will sit down, shut up and listen. And hope...
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
'This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. No one has greater love than this, to lay down one's life for one's friends, You are my friends if you do what I command you. I do not call you servants any longer, because the servant does not know what the master is doing; but I have called you friends, because I have made known to you everything that I have heard from my Father. You did not choose me but I chose you. And I appointed you to go and bear fruit, fruit that will last, so that the Father will give you whatever you ask him in my name. I am goving you these commands, so that you may love one another.'
[John 15.12-17]

This is powerful stuff. Powerful religion can be difficult to cope with. Or argue with. Or demand explanations of. So I will sit down, shut up and listen. And hope...

Powerful stuff indeed, the very core of Christianity. Without love, forget it. Without love we're not doing what God wants of us. Without love, we can't bear the fruit that will last. Why would we grow in patience, in kindness, in gentleness? Why would we be faithful? God will give us everything we need to enable us to love one another, if we yearn for it and ask for it, which we will if we love and trust God and want to serve God's purposes, knowing that they're good.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
This is the one passage where I am tempted to tell Jesus he's wrong. "Greater love has no one, than that he lay down his life for his enemies," as Jesus should know! But maybe he was just being modest. [Razz]
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
Or else He's counting even His enemies as friends, which is just the sort of thing He would do.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yeah, yeah, he's just the kind of guy who'd wiggle out of things that way. [Big Grin]

No, seriously, I think you are right. But the counterstatement smacks me between the eyes every time I read it. Which is probably good for me.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Indeed. Doesn't Jesus, in one of the synoptics, greet Judas as "friend" at the very moment of his betrayal?
 
Posted by Hart (# 4991) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Indeed. Doesn't Jesus, in one of the synoptics, greet Judas as "friend" at the very moment of his betrayal?

Matt 26:50
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, I think this little passage is the wallop that Jesus / John is leading up to, once the audience has finished hacking its way through the vines. The loyalty that Jesus is about to demonstrate is to die in furtherance of God's plan to restore people to their intended place as children of God (Jn. 1:12), and this carries implications for the loyalty of Jesus' followers. They too must be prepared to die willingly for their friends (if 'friends' in English does justice to the Greek – its antonym is 'slave' in this passage – if 'slave' does justice to the Greek!!!) and this in turn is a completion of joy (15:11). Love-joy-death; interesting triangle. Again, English probably doesn't do it justice.

This might also form the background to the upcoming denial and restoration episode with Peter. Not to mention him by name, of course.

Thinking a bit further on the 'friends' point: What does it do to the concept when we have one 'friend' commanding another? Perhaps we need to think more in terms of Jesus' intention to move his followers away from the slave (or trusted servant) status to something higher, but not quite egalitarian. It's still hierarchical in a sense. The master still commands and appoints.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
From love to hate in the twinkling of an eye:

quote:
"If the world hates you, be aware that it hated me before it hated you. If you belonged to the world, the world would love you as its own. Because you do not belong to the world, but I have chosen you out of the world - therefore the world hates you...
Them and us.

Will post chapter and verse in a minute.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
John 15.18-19
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
What does John mean by 'hate' here? Or perhaps better: Does the English word 'hate' really cover off the meaning of the Greek word John used?

My preference is to go with the Hebrew background and say that the meaning is closer to 'not accepting' or 'not choosing' (an antonym of 'love' = choose to accept, along with the associated responsibilities of being committed to). Of course it's possible for someone who does not choose to accept something to slide along the spectrum towards something more akin to the meaning of 'hate' in English.

A sense of 'choosing not to accept' does seem to fit John's earlier note in his introduction that the Jesus' own did not receive him (1:11).
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Hostility and rejection were directed toward Jesus. I would combine these to bring meaning to the word 'hate' here. There remains hostility to and rejection of his teaching in a world which still doesn't advocate love for one another in the sense of seeing each other as family, and still doesn't recognise the poorest people as equal in value to the richest.
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
What does John mean by 'hate' here? Or perhaps better: Does the English word 'hate' really cover off the meaning of the Greek word John used?

My preference is to go with the Hebrew background and say that the meaning is closer to 'not accepting' or 'not choosing' (an antonym of 'love' = choose to accept, along with the associated responsibilities of being committed to). Of course it's possible for someone who does not choose to accept something to slide along the spectrum towards something more akin to the meaning of 'hate' in English.

A sense of 'choosing not to accept' does seem to fit John's earlier note in his introduction that the Jesus' own did not receive him (1:11).

I rather like this approach for a translation that recontextualises the meaning for what many of us encounter today. I would go so far as to say that "finding irrelevant" is what many would say about our faith.

PS. There are some who hate, but more from what is called Post Traumatic Church Disorder, rather than hating Christ.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I think there is much in this passage which becomes unnecessarily alienating because of the various idiomatic variations in translation. I've heard the whole lot preached as though it were all literally understandable and written in modern English (or even worse, in "God's language" - that of KLJV!)

quote:
Remember the word that I said to you, "Servants are not greater than their master." If they persecuted me, they will persecute you; if they kept my word, they will keep yours also...
[John 15.20]

The rhetoric almost becomes absurd here. It seems to say "If they did what I told them to do, they will do what you tell them to do." So it's all about power then? Surely not!.

quote:
But they will do all these things to you on account of my name, because they do not know him who sent me.
[John 15.21]

The paranoid innuendo in that phrase "they will do all these things to you" is typical of frightened modern cults or people who adhere to a very rigid set of beliefs and adopt a siege mentality when, for instance their racist or homophobic remarks are criticised or punished. Indeed, some of them find validation for their bigotry in the martyrdom they see themselved enduring.

But It's not, to my mind, what John's gospel, at heart, is about.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Tertullian, I think, said that the blood of the martyrs was the seed of the church, or something like that. I used to sing about "the noble army of martyrs"

I don't think of them as noble any more - and not just because of the Islamist exremists.

Martyrdom is witnessing, isn't it? I can see the nobility in witnessing to simething good, but not in deliberately provoking something bad - discord or death - even one's own death, without good reason. Just sayin'!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Yes, I think there is much in this passage which becomes unnecessarily alienating because of the various idiomatic variations in translation. I've heard the whole lot preached as though it were all literally understandable and written in modern English (or even worse, in "God's language" - that of KLJV!)

quote:
Remember the word that I said to you, "Servants are not greater than their master." If they persecuted me, they will persecute you; if they kept my word, they will keep yours also...
[John 15.20]

The rhetoric almost becomes absurd here. It seems to say "If they did what I told them to do, they will do what you tell them to do." So it's all about power then? Surely not!.

Actually, we're back to tireo, to "treasure, keep, heed" one's word. In this case it does not refer to obedience, but to hearing and believing the Gospel. If they had listened to Christ, they would have listened to the disciples also. Since they refused to listen to Christ, what surprise is there if they reject the disciples' message also?

quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
But they will do all these things to you on account of my name, because they do not know him who sent me.
[John 15.21]

The paranoid innuendo in that phrase "they will do all these things to you" is typical of frightened modern cults or people who adhere to a very rigid set of beliefs and adopt a siege mentality when, for instance their racist or homophobic remarks are criticised or punished. Indeed, some of them find validation for their bigotry in the martyrdom they see themselved enduring.

But It's not, to my mind, what John's gospel, at heart, is about.

there's nothing paranoid about it. it's prophetic. Jesus knew very well (and needed no divine power to foresee) that these people whom he was sending out "as sheep among wolves" were going to get treated very, very badly. Early church history bears this out. Modern missionary experience also bears this out. There's something about Jesus' message that causes an allergic reaction in some people. The "offense of the cross," I think they call it. And I have met this offense in people I dearly love and know well (family members, yeah).

Here's a really stupid and minor but hurtful example (and no, this is not persecution, it doesn't rise to that level, but the same rejection dynamic is at work in miniature). My brother married a Jewish girl and converted, and they have two lovely children about my son's age. My son loves his cousins and wants to play with them any chance he gets. We went camping together over Shavuoth (Pentecost) and they held a Friday night ceremony and candlelighting to which we were invited. My young son asked a lot of fascinated questions ("what does the Hebrew mean? Why do you use candles?" etc.), was totally respectful, and asked what the connection was to Pentecost. We did our damndest to avoid offending my brother and sister-in-law, because family.

Next morning my brother decided to keep his daughter pretty much confined to the tent, so she could not play with LL before everyone went fishing. What was the problem? We found out later through the family grapevine. He was afraid that somehow, someway (How?) LL was going to convert her. Although the only discussion had been on Jewish topics of their own bringing up, and the name of Christ was never spoken.

Say what? cue headshaking all around. but my son lost a playmate as a result.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks - especially for the explanatory trans. and many commiserations. The fear of "poaching" is probably found in all religions. Decades ago, long before I met Mrs P, a girlfriend engaged in the well-meant but essentially naughty moral blackmail of quoting Paul to me - she had read that she should not be "unequally yoked with an unbeliever."

It was a blessing in disguise, as it turned out!

I think most people either love John's gospel or hate it - and I sometimes think that Jesus doesn't get a look in in the ensuing arguments.
Forgive me when I sound off - I am not antogonistic to either of them.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The phrase “keeping [or obeying] my word” in v.20 reminds me of the 'hearing my voice and following me' theme in chapter 10 – that central peak of the Gospel where Jesus puts clear water between himself and the religious authorities. There must have been real issues for John's audience around authority and implications of following Jesus. The 'world' chooses its own route and has its own followers, but Jesus' followers have to follow a different route, like sheep following a different shepherd.

Interesting phrase in v.21: “they will do all these things [persecutions] to you on account of my name.” The impact of Jesus 'name' as the cause of trouble. Not sure how much to read into that. Does to simply refer to the actual name – Jesus, or Christ – as the recognised founder of the new movement (“Ah! She's one of those Jesus followers. Kill! Kill!), or more significantly as the representative of God, a powerful 'name'?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
In the Scriptures, God and his Name seem to be the same thing at times. There's certainly a really close identification there. And to do something in someone's name (i.e. to pray or ask) is to do it over their signature, or in their authority, sort of as a delegate. So the disciples are "little Christs" living under the real Christ. They share in both his suffering and his joy.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Any opinions on how valid it might be to interpret references to Jesus' name as references to the qualities he embodies? Doing so allows the passages to make a lot more sense to me.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
What would that link look like, do you think?
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I'm thinking in particular of John 3:18:

quote:
16. "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. 17. "For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him. 18. "He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
It makes no sense for God to give His only-begotten Son out of love and a desire to save the world, and then constrain the effect based on a belief in a literal name. (What does believing in a literal name mean, anyway?) It makes somewhat more sense to constrain it based on a belief in the Son who bears the name, but it makes a lot of sense (to me) that the effected salvation would be inherent in a belief in the Divine qualities the Son embodies. It also makes a lot sense to interpret the last part of the quoted passage as saying that anyone who does not believe in those qualities (e.g. love, compassion, righteousness, mercy) judges themselves rather than being judged by someone else.

Basically, it seems to me that a belief in a literal Divine name would be an intellectual belief only, but that a belief in Divine qualities involves one's intellect, one's will, and one's life.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I guess as well that the theme of authority would play a part; Jesus' 'name' being a synonym for authority. There are passages such as:
quote:
Matt. 7:22
“On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and expel demons in your name, and perform many miracles in your name?’”

Mark 16:17
And these signs will accompany those who believe: in my name they will expel demons, they will speak in new tongues...

Lk. 24:47
...repentance and the forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in his name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem

Phil 2:10
...at the name of Jesus every knee should bow


 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Yes, it's easy to see how references to Jesus' name would include the concept of his authority. Modern usage still includes that link and my guess is that it was probably far stronger a couple of millennia ago.

I'm really hoping someone can briefly outline any scholarly arguments there might be against (or for) the validity of interpreting NT references to Jesus' name as references to the qualities he embodies. I'm not even sure if it's a new or old idea, or how mainstream it may or may not be. It appeals to me, but I'd like to know how firm a footing I have when I adopt that viewpoint.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
With regard to authority, speaking in the name of the ultimate authority you recognise gives some sort of power to writer, reader, and anyone who quotes him. Every - or nearly every - sura of the Koran begins "In the name of God, the Merciful, the Compassionate..."

[ 30. October 2014, 15:12: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
I'm really hoping someone can briefly outline any scholarly arguments there might be against (or for) the validity of interpreting NT references to Jesus' name as references to the qualities he embodies.

Looks as though the Qu'ran is the place to go!

I don't know if anyone has studied and published work in this area. Much has been written from certain groups in Christianity on the names of God – listing the titles given to God in the Old Testament and seeking to apply attributes on the basis of those titles, but I don't think that is what you are after. Rather than the title pointing to a quality, you need evidence of the actual word 'name' pointing to a quality.

An interesting artefact was studied and the results published in 1991* - a curse bowl, containing script in Babylonian Aramaic that constitutes a curse against a certain individual. The writing concludes with a reference to God (Yahweh) and Jesus: “In (or by) the name of I-am-that-I-am [yhwh sb’wt] and by the name of Jesus, who conquered the height and the depth by his cross, and by the name of his exalted father, and by the name of the holy spirits for ever and eternity. Amen amen selah.”

Here it appears that the name was considered authority enough to invoke a curse. The dating and context of this particular bowl is not known (it was acquired at an auction), so it's a bit speculative to say that John, or any other biblical writer, had the same understanding of the name, though invoking it (the trinity in this bowl's case) seems to be to invoke power enough to secure the validity and effectiveness of a commission.

* Levene, Dan, '"... and by the name of Jesus ..." An Unpublished Magic Bowl in Jewish Aramaic' in Jewish Studies Quarterly, Vol. 6, No. 4 (1999), pp. 283-308, Published by: Mohr Siebeck GmbH & Co. KG

[Edit - added publication reference]

[ 01. November 2014, 16:06: Message edited by: Nigel M ]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
Very interesting - thanks.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Where were we? I think

quote:
"If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not have sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin. Whoever hates me hates my Father also. If I had not done among them the works that no one else did, they would not have sin. But now they have seen and hated both me and my Father. It was to fulfil the word that is written in their law, "They hated me without cause".
[John 15.22-25]

But there must have been many in the land who neither heard nor saw Jesus directly. Therefore, it only makes sense for John to quote it if he appeals to his own authority, and those of (accredited) witnesses, who have seen and heard him. The inference is that those who hate me (John/Peter/a modern priest, bishop, believer) hate Jesus, and those who hate Jesus hate God.

It doesn't actually work, does it? Popes sire bastards, priests bugger choirboys, drunken christian soldiers smash their wives' faces in...

Of course. Not all of them. Not many of them. Only a few. Or, over time, a few hundred, a few thousand. Because being Christians doesn't make them any less human than anybody else.

But because it doesn't always work doesn't mean we can stop trying - Christians and non-Christians alike.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
I wonder whether Jesus is speaking about consciousness of sin. We might follow the instruction of someone else in good faith, especially if they're leaders in the church / temple etc. Jesus made it clear that some scribes and Pharisees were leading others astray. If they refused to take notice of the words of Jesus, that was no excuse. They had heard him, therefore they were guilty.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes. Please don't take me as seriously as I take myself! Two glasses of red wine and I see, or imagine I see, all sorts of horrors quite clearly, while totally losing sight of the delete button. A depressingly unoriginal sin. Thanks for getting us back on track.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Where were we? I think

quote:
"If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not have sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin. Whoever hates me hates my Father also. If I had not done among them the works that no one else did, they would not have sin. But now they have seen and hated both me and my Father. It was to fulfil the word that is written in their law, "They hated me without cause".
[John 15.22-25]


I didn't see any of that (not sure I understood) at all. What I saw was basically this (LC's expanded version):

quote:
"If I had not come [as God incarnate walking the earth as a man] and spoken to them [a man speaking to men face to face, rather than in a remote way like inspiring a text or sending an angel with a message], they would not have sin [= that is, I would not judge them guilty of sin, I would not blame them]; but now they have no excuse for their sin [because, frankly, I've bent over backwards to win them back, I've done everything I can think of now, and there's nothing else I can do, no matter how hard I try]. Whoever hates me hates my Father also [because we are one, and there's no getting over it. They've seen me, they've seen the Father. They've hated me, well...]. If I had not done among them the works [=miracles clearly derived from God's power] that no one else did, they would not have sin [= I wouldn't blame them even though I talked to them as God face to face! But heck, I even did miracles so they'd know who I am!]. But now they have seen and [still, in spite of everything I tried,] hated both me and my Father. [What a pity, but it's not unexpected. After all, we knew they were going to be that way from the beginning.] It was to fulfil the word that is written in their law, "They hated me without cause". [Still, I had to try, didn't I?]
[John 15.22-25]

One note: I don't think at all that Jesus is saying he talked to everybody individually, did miracles in front of everybody individually, etc. What he's saying is that he MET the criteria so many people have for believing in God. "If God came down from heaven right in front of me, I would believe." "If God did a miracle so I could see it, I would believe." Jesus is calling bullshit here. He did do all of those things, and faith was not the result for the vast majority.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Points taken. The criteria required by modern sceptics are more various and more involved - but that's too big a tangent for here, I think.

quote:
"When the Advocate comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, he will testify on my behalf. You also are to testify because you have been with me from the beginning."
[John 15.26-27]

This was always one of my favourite Johanine verses, the promise of TRUTH available to all honest believers, straight from he horse's mouth, so to speak. Of course I no longer read it quite so naively. Could a proper theologian enlarge on who the Advocate was/is, how (s)he is seen now, and whether this helps us with the thorny old problem of the Trinity?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Points taken. The criteria required by modern sceptics are more various and more involved - but that's too big a tangent for here, I think.

quote:
"When the Advocate comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, he will testify on my behalf. You also are to testify because you have been with me from the beginning."
[John 15.26-27]

This was always one of my favourite Johanine verses, the promise of TRUTH available to all honest believers, straight from he horse's mouth, so to speak. Of course I no longer read it quite so naively. Could a proper theologian enlarge on who the Advocate was/is, how (s)he is seen now, and whether this helps us with the thorny old problem of the Trinity?

Will you accept an improper theologian?
[Biased]

I am no doubt naïve; but I read it this way:

quote:
"When the Advocate [=Holy Spirit] comes [=at Pentecost], whom I will send to you from the Father, [that is,] the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, he will testify [to you and all who are willing to listen] on my behalf. You also are to testify [to the world] because you have been with me from the beginning [and therefore you are my eyewitnesses]."
[John 15.26-27]

I do believe that if you really want to know, in the end, you will. "If you would know of the teaching, do the will of the Father." But I must admit that for me personally, even as a Christian there are plenty of times when I am half-consciously or unconsciously squinching my eyes shut and saying "La la la, I can't hear you!" to God--because some part of me senses that the moment I shut up and listen, I'm going to hear something I don't want to hear.

And then I'll have to act on it. Brrrrrrr.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The Advocate: another one of John's idiolectsyncraticneologisms (there, I've just made up my own new word!).

Although the Greek word (parakletos = παράκλητος) is rare in the bible and absent in LXX in that form, it does carry the sense of someone who speaks for another even if the term doesn't quite carry the technical sense of a legal court advocate. Is this, then, a “truthful spirit” (John 14:16) that speaks on behalf of God as Jesus did, correctly interpreting his message and combating those who misinterpreted that message? John's usage suggests he intended something more than a 'comforter' as some English versions put it.

The nearest Greek equivalent to this word in the LXX is in Job, used of the 'friends' who come to converse with Job. In the LXX they are described by him as parakletores (= παρακλήτορες), a word which translates a Hebrew verbal participle of naham (= נחם) and which can mean 'comforter', so the early English translators may well have transferred that meaning into John from Job. In John's sense, though, it looks less like a comforter called alongside and more like a force that carries the disciple along with it as it confronts falsehood.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Why "it" and not "he"?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
To back away from preconceptions imposed by hundreds of years of thought on this subject; sometimes it helps to do this so that the text can be viewed on its own terms again. Gender could cloud the issue here! In this verse (15:26) John relies on a title with a definite article (the paraclete), which he then clarifies by use of another definite clause (the truthful spirit) and follows up with a reference to an emphatic “that one” rather than “he” (or “she”). It appears John wants to focus on a function rather than a person here. That seems interesting to me.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And if the comforting, helpful truth has anything to do with Wisdom - well that was always "her" wasn't it? [Devil]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I wasn't trying to dig up the old his/her fight again; just wondering about the impersonal pronoun.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

John 16.1-4
16‘I have said these things to you to keep you from stumbling. 2They will put you out of the synagogues. Indeed, an hour is coming when those who kill you will think that by doing so they are offering worship to God. 3And they will do this because they have not known the Father or me. 4But I have said these things to you so that when their hour comes you may remember that I told you about them.

And you'll be able to say "we told you so..."? Well no, not those of you who are dead, obviously.

[ 13. November 2014, 09:21: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

John 16.1-4
16‘I have said these things to you to keep you from stumbling. 2They will put you out of the synagogues. Indeed, an hour is coming when those who kill you will think that by doing so they are offering worship to God. 3And they will do this because they have not known the Father or me. 4But I have said these things to you so that when their hour comes you may remember that I told you about them.

And you'll be able to say "we told you so..."? Well no, not those of you who are dead, obviously.
Why so negative? "When their hour comes," that is, "when all these things happen to you that I've just been describing," you'll be able to say, "Ah yes, I remember Jesus told us this would happen. No need to freak out, God is still in control even though it looks like everything's going to hell in a handbasket right now. But he knew, he warned us, he told us the truth--and so we can trust him when he tells us it won't last forever and things will get better, too."

It's the same principle as why doctors and nurses warn you "Now this is going to hurt a bit." They don't want the suffering to take you by surprise. They don't want you to panic and assume things are spinning out of control.

This happened to me when they put the chest drain in last spring to deal with my collapsed lung. "Now this is going to hurt," they said, "I'm sorry, but it won't take very long, just trust us." And when the pain came and I was yelling SHIT shit shit shit shit, I was at least not trying to surge off the table or punch somebody out. I had been warned.

Though I'll say God is a bit more straightforward than most doctors I have known ("some discomfort" bah).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ah! I misread "When their hour comes" for "When they get their cum-uppance". Thank you for the correction.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Interesting question: To whom does that pronoun refer? It looks as though John's use of “they” (often by use of the third person plural in verbs) in the passage refers all the way back to 15:18 and the reference to “the world”. John refers to the world six times in verses 18 and 19, then it's “they” from then on in. It does rather look as though the 'they' in 16:1-4 goes back to that world reference.

If that's the case, then the “their hour” would refer to those doing the persecuting. Presumably that 'hour' refers back the mention of 'hour' in 16:2 – a time is coming when the world's representatives will even kill you...and when that happens you'll remember what I said about them.

Something else rather interesting in here: doing something in the earnest belief that one is actually doing what God wants (“...those who kill you will think that by doing so they are offering worship to God”). I suspect there are members a-plenty on the Ship who have been at the sharp end of a kicking by those with authority in the Christian community and for whom this saying resonates. Questions surface immediately, of course: Which party is in the right and how can you tell? We know Jesus is the good chap in the confrontation with those with religious authority in his day, but how would the average person in the Temple courts have known that? How should Christians deal with instances of this kicking – do as Jesus did and engage in a 'in-your-face' challenge (a la Stephen in Acts) even though that kind of rocking the boat can lead to expulsion if not from the church then at least from the inner clique?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, I just traced "their" to the nearest plural antecedent ("things") and thus my interpretation. But if it refers to "those guys who are opposed to me" (the world, the flesh & the devil) then we still can't take it to mean "when they get their comeuppance," because "their hour" in Johannine language means "the hour of their power." Cf. "Now is your hour, and the power of darkness," said by Jesus to those who were arresting him.

I'm guessing the Greek won't differentiate for us, though I'm too bushed to check right now. Anyway, in either case "their hour" has no snarkiness about it. Which is good, because it's really uncharacteristic of Jesus to promote schadenfreude!


quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:


Something else rather interesting in here: doing something in the earnest belief that one is actually doing what God wants (“...those who kill you will think that by doing so they are offering worship to God”). I suspect there are members a-plenty on the Ship who have been at the sharp end of a kicking by those with authority in the Christian community and for whom this saying resonates. Questions surface immediately, of course: Which party is in the right and how can you tell? We know Jesus is the good chap in the confrontation with those with religious authority in his day, but how would the average person in the Temple courts have known that? How should Christians deal with instances of this kicking – do as Jesus did and engage in a 'in-your-face' challenge (a la Stephen in Acts) even though that kind of rocking the boat can lead to expulsion if not from the church then at least from the inner clique?

There are, of course; and this would probably make a great separate thread. My guess is that you have to play it by ear. If there's any chance of persuading those who are kicking you that they've mistaken God's will, I suppose you have to try. But if that's clearly a lost cause, then use the forum they've given you to do whatever good you can--even if that means being "in your face" to them. Stephen's speech, for instance, did not persuade any of his persecutors AFAIK; but it seems to have had a powerful effect on a minor onlooker and approver, Saul of Tarsus.

So if they're stoning you, and you can't persuade them, you might look around for the people on the edge of the crowd you might yet do some good to--before the rocks take you out.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
NRSV now inserts the title of a new theme half way through verse four: The Work of the Spirit.
quote:
"...I did not say these things to you from the beginning, because I was with you [understood = to help you personally] 5 But now I am going to him who sent me [?understood = I am going to die];
Yet none of you asks me 'Where are you going?' [because the inference is fairly obvious?] 6 But because I have said these things to you, sorrow has filled your hearts. 7 Nevertheless, I tell you the truth; it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Advocate will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. [But who would not have preferred by far the continued presence of Jesus himself?] 8 And when he comes, he will prove the world wrong about sin and righteousness and judgment:

[John 16.4b-8]

I've stopped here because the last three points in this passage leave me utterly flummoxed, and I'd like somebody else to put them up and make sense of them for me - after we've finished with the above, of course.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm going to chop off the last bit you had in your passage ('cause it leads into something else that confuses the heck out of me, and I'd love it if we could get some concentrated light on it together afterward) and use the ESV below.


quote:
“I did not say these things to you from the beginning, because I was with you. 5 But now I am going to him who sent me, and none of you asks me, ‘Where are you going?’ 6 But because I have said these things to you, sorrow has filled your heart. 7 Nevertheless, I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you. But if I go, I will send him to you.
This is how I read it, rightly or wrongly (most likely, naively (is that a word?)).

"I did not say [all these terrible, scary] things [about people persecuting you in the future] to you from the beginning, because I was with you [and therefore I took he brunt of it on myself, esp. on the cross. But from now on you'll be facing the brunt of it without my physical presence, and you need to be prepared.]

"But now I am going to him who sent me [that is, to God the Father], and none of you asks me, ‘Where are you going?’" [which is strictly speaking, not true, because they've just asked that question at the beginning of this discourse. But I take Jesus to mean here "None of you is taking an interest in the destination where I'm going and what that will mean for me and you--the fact that I'm going to the right hand of the Father, the place of all authority and power. All you can think about is how sad you'll be when I'm gone."] 6 "But because I have said these things to you, sorrow has filled your heart."

7 "Nevertheless, I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you. But if I go, I will send him to you."
Here Jesus tries to refocus them on the REASONS for his leaving, the benefits that will come to them as a result of it--and the one he focuses on right here is the coming of the Holy Spirit. Jesus appears to consider the Spirit's indwelling presence in the disciples a much better bargain for them than Jesus' own physical presence; and I hate to say it, but he's probably right. In his physical, visible presence, Jesus can only be in one place at one time, and the number of people he can teach/protect/care for is limited. You can only shout so loud.

But the third person of the Trinity, the Holy Spirit--he can do all that stuff and more because he's not physically limited as Jesus Christ-on-earth was. He can indwell and teach, strengthen, protect all the disciples at once--and continues to do so even today, when we're up to what? a billion of us alive at once?

My reading is perhaps childish; but I think the overall tone of these chapters is childish in that Jesus is talking to his disciples in the same way you speak to beloved children before you must leave to do something scary and dangerous--in much the same way I spoke to my son before going into the hospital for surgery, which totally freaks.him.out. Lots of repetition, lots of comfort, lots of focus on the coming benefits... He's doing his best to get them ready for the crushing events to come.

[ 15. November 2014, 17:45: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
No way is it childish, but aren't these discourses part of John's Passion narrative? If so, Jesus is comforting his disciples before the crucifixion. That's why I glossed the "because I was with you" bit meaning - as you so rightly said "I was taking the flak for you" - including the worry of how things might turn out in the (distant?) future - but now, he's going to the Father (some time soon) so you can't say he has already taken the brunt of their troubles on the cross already. Except in some weird metaphysical timeless way. Do you see my problem here?

[ 15. November 2014, 22:15: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yeah, but I don't think we need to get into the weird timeless stuff to deal with this one. Speaking in a purely human sense, he's taken a lot of crap from the PPs (persecutin' people). He's been confronted, yelled at, heckled, not-quite-stoned (he made himself scarce), put on the national "Wanted" list, had his disciple corrupted into a betrayer, and is now facing arrest and death in less than 24 hours. What's more, he knows it--anyone would know it, given the social/political/emotional buildup during the past week, never mind month, and the decisive choice and exit of Judas from the dinner table. Takes no divine foreknowledge.

And Jesus knows that it isn't going to end with his own death--his disciples were quite right to hide behind locked doors, and to get their butts back to Galilee for a while. The PPs will be after them too--witness Jesus trying to guarantee their freedom at his arrest in Gethsemane ("If I am the one you are after, let these go"), which of course was not respected (see the little episode where they grab that poor kid and he runs away naked).

It takes no more than human foresight to know that the disciples are going to be alone facing persecution very soon now. And therefore he gives them these promises and comforts, ones that were unnecessary when he was still going to be around to take the brunt of it.

(Seems to have worked fairly well, too. At least, we don't see Peter chickening out after Pentecost the way he did this very night. Nor John, nor Stephen, nor any number of ordinary folk who met in the very courts of the temple to hear the apostles preach. Whatever Jesus said and did to prepare them for heavy weather, it seems to have worked.)

[ 15. November 2014, 22:35: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Taking the opportunity to reflect back before we plough on.

John doesn't fail to surprise with his choice of words. His work kicks off with an enigma that the reader/hearer would want to understand – that logos (= “Word” or something like that) and in this current 'calm-before-the-storm' section he introduces the paracletos (= “advocate/counselor/helper” or something like that). I don't think these two words were randomly chosen by John; I think they mirror each other and go some way to defining each other, too. A study in itself, that – how they bounce off each other and how they overlap and fit with the content of John's work more generally.

Then back in 15:18ff Jesus talks about something that John reckoned was important enough to refer to in his introduction: the 'world' did not accept Jesus and this is why it is unlikely to accept his disciples (1:10f, “...the world did not recognise him...”). That must have been one of the issues John wanted to confront by pulling together in this work the material he had been using. There may also be another reason, linked to this one, reflected in 16:1. That's the reference to 'falling away' (skandalizo = σκανδαλίζω), which John uses only once elsewhere in his work – 6:61, when Jesus is aware that some of his disciples are struggling to accept Jesus' teaching and asks them, “Does this cause you to stumble / fall away?”

I couldn't help but plod back to chapter 10 – that peak in John's narrative – to see how that might impact here and there in the first part of the chapter 10 is the reference to sheep following the shepherd's voice, being called by name. This is repeated in 10:27-30 and linked to receiving eternal life (again, a link to the theme in chapter 1 for those who believe in his name being children of God?). A community that follows the 'Word', like sheep following the shepherd's voice, and which rejects other voices.

How does this all fit together? I'm thinking that John is writing at a point in time when the fledgling Jesus Association has reached the splitting point from mainstream Judaism. Those loyal to Jesus were being ejected from the synagogue community, in effect being disowned by their own people. Given the similarities between John and Paul's writings I don't think this has to be post AD 70, in fact I think we are on a par here with Paul's point of no return when he, too, was no longer accepted into synagogues. As with Saul/Paul's approval of Stephen's execution, so John is warning his hearers that judicial execution awaits some. John doesn’t have to focus much on encouraging his hearers to be followers of Jesus (that much seems to be a given), but he is keen to ensure that as they 'message' God's message, they maintain their opposition to the interpretations that were in vogue among the Jewish authorities and be the 'Word', empowered in this by the 'Advocate', arguing the case for God's message even though this means rejection in the name of God from their Jewish community. In this context perhaps 'falling away' refers to an unwillingness to be rejected and a choice to remain with the Jewish Association (synagogue).

I suppose John might also have had in mind the idea that Jesus' execution was a 'sign' of God's rejection, at least in the minds of the Jewish Association (cursed is the one hanging on the tree, sort of thing) and that John felt the need to offer 'signs' that Jesus was in fact God's appointed / anointed one. There's a real sense of a struggle going on in the Christian community to prove not just their innocence, but also the truth of the interpretation of God's law that Jesus had passed on to them.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
How would the disciples have understood those references to the Paraclete when first confronted with them? Is/was it a term generally understood by Jews and Christians alike, or only Christians, or only some Christians - those heading, say, towards gnosticism?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It's an interesting question, especially given that the term parakletos is unique to John. Presumably Jesus spoke to his disciples (and other Jews) in Aramaic and so did not use that Greek term (or logos for that matter), so John is either using something in translation, or he is bringing something new to the table. We don't have a history of usage for parakletos in the Greek version (LXX), so it's not easy to see where John was getting it from – or to what function he may have been referring - which could rule out the option that John was using something in translation.

The nearest approach probably is to track how the other gospel writers saw the Spirit’s function (on the assumption that parakletos in John does refer to the Holy Spirit - there was a theory at one point, wasn't there, that parakletos here could refer to John himself?). There we do have some common indications, e.g., assistance before one's accusers and a continuing presence. What we may have in John is a technique of introducing a term and then providing the definition later. So John's hearers may have heard the term as John was read to them, wondered “What does that mean?” and then had their tickle scratched later. Sneaky technique by John – tangle your audience by their toes before setting them right side up again.

I'm not sure how wide the term would have been understood across the Christian community. It rather fits my thought that John's gospel is an early work that terms like parakletos and logos could have been used somewhat as metaphors, but not requiring traction for the long run.

Until, that is, later Christians accorded them the status of titles and thus fossilised the metaphors.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Going back a bit, two of the synoptics made much of that word derived from skandalon(a stumbling-block or snare - you mentioned it here:

quote:
Then back in 15:18ff Jesus talks about something that John reckoned was important enough to refer to in his introduction: the 'world' did not accept Jesus and this is why it is unlikely to accept his disciples (1:10f, “...the world did not recognise him...”). That must have been one of the issues John wanted to confront by pulling together in this work the material he had been using. There may also be another reason, linked to this one, reflected in 16:1. That's the reference to 'falling away' (skandalizo = σκανδαλίζω), which John uses only once elsewhere in his work – 6:61, when Jesus is aware that some of his disciples are struggling to accept Jesus' teaching and asks them, “Does this cause you to stumble / fall away?”
It came in the passages about cutting your leg off or even casting out an eye 'if it scandalizes you = causes you to sin.' A problem passage for some people because it involved not just self-mutilation but cutting yourself off from the synagogue - and even in a metaphorical sense that's very harsh [See Matthew 18.8ff and Mark 9.43ff]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Which was a tangent of little import, perhaps. Onwards and upwards?
quote:
And when he comes, he will prove the world wrong about sin and righteousness and judgment: about sin, because they do not believe in me; about righteousness, because I am going to the Father and you will see me no longer; about judgment, because the ruler of this world has been condemned.

I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth; for he will not speak on his own, but will speak whatever he hears, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. He will glorify me, because he will take what is mine and declare it to you.

[John 16.8-14]Which promises have been kept? Or are being kept? Or will be kept? In the first two cases, if applicable, there must be many examples of how. Could shippies come up with one or two?

[ 21. November 2014, 17:05: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Which was a tangent of little import, perhaps.

Frankly, I just didn't understand what you were talking about. Hoped someone wiser would chime in.
Sorry.

As for this passage, I'd like to figure out what it means first, before I even ask whether it's come true or whatever. It confuses the heck out of me.

quote:
And when he comes, he will prove the world wrong about sin and righteousness and judgment: about sin, because they do not believe in me; about righteousness, because I am going to the Father and you will see me no longer; about judgment, because the ruler of this world has been condemned.
The phrase "prove the world wrong about" is translated in other versions as "convict the world of" or even "convince the world of". I'm also finding "rebuke" and "reprove" or "judge." The Greek is ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ. I'm sticking the whole difficult passage below for future reference.

quote:
8 καὶ ἐλθὼν ἐκεῖνος ἐλέγξει τὸν κόσμον περὶ ἁμαρτίας καὶ περὶ δικαιοσύνης καὶ περὶ κρίσεως· 9 περὶ ἁμαρτίας μέν, ὅτι οὐ πιστεύουσιν εἰς ἐμέ· 10 περὶ δικαιοσύνης δέ, ὅτι πρὸς τὸν [e]πατέρα ὑπάγω καὶ οὐκέτι θεωρεῖτέ με· 11 περὶ δὲ κρίσεως, ὅτι ὁ ἄρχων τοῦ κόσμου τούτου κέκριται.
ἐλέγξει is the future form of ελέγχει, which is the word that is giving my brain conniptions. It's weird, because the Spirit is going to ἐλέγξει the world about three things, one of them definitely positive (righteousness) and the other two negative or possibly so (sin and judgement). I can't bend my brain around a concept that would work equally well for all three.

I did try to mess with the "because" in each phrase ("because they do not believe in me;... because I am going to the Father and you will see me no longer; ... because the ruler of this world has been condemned.")

I thought, maybe Jesus is saying something like this?


quote:
When he comes, the Spirit will convict the world about sin--the Spirit's doing that job because they wouldn't listen to me, didn't believe me, so now they have to deal with the Spirit; he will convict them about righteousness, because I'm going to the Father and won't be around to be the living example of righteousness for all eyes to see, so now that's the Spirit's job too; and last, he will convict them about judgement because.... because....
and that's where it all falls apart again.

Help.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Going back a bit, two of the synoptics made much of that word derived from skandalon...

Catching up again! That 'scandal' language in the bible is dramatic, somewhat extreme, and very tense. It's drawn from the Jewish scriptures, where the literal sense was of a baited snare or of being lured into a trap. It was also used metaphorically to connote something that leads to the destruction of a person. The route to that destruction is rebellion against God's rule (sin). So something attractive was being used to entice people away from the path they should follow and into a trap from which they could not escape until the gamekeeper came along and killed them. Some examples:
quote:
Ex. 10:7. Pharaoh's advisers advising Pharaoh on Moses' demand to let the Hebrews go out from Egypt:
“How long will this man be a snare (moqesh = מוֹקֵשׁ) to us? Release the people so that they may serve their God, Yahweh. Do you not know that Egypt is destroyed?”

Ex. 23:32f. God's warning to his people not to mingle with Canaan's inhabitants:
“You must make no covenant with them or with their gods. They must not live in your land, lest they make you sin against me, for if you serve their gods, it will surely be a snare to you.”

Isa. 8:12-15. God encourages Isaiah not to be swayed by conspiracy theorists:
“Do not say, ‘Conspiracy,’ every time these people say the word. Don’t be afraid of what scares them; don’t be terrified. You must recognize the authority of the Commander in Chief - Yahweh. He is the one you must respect; he is the one you must fear.

He will become a sanctuary,
but also a stone that makes a person trip
and a rock that makes one stumble to the two houses of Israel.
A trap and a snare to the residents of Jerusalem.

Many will stumble over the stone and the rock, and will fall and be seriously injured, and will be ensnared and captured.”

Amos 3:5f.
“Does a bird swoop down into a snare on the ground if there is no bait?
Does a trap spring up from the ground unless it has surely caught something?
If an alarm sounds in a city, do people not fear?
If disaster overtakes a city, is the Lord not responsible?”

There's a lot more of that language use in the OT and it must have formed a powerful and present image in the minds of Jesus' contemporaries. Fear of being trapped by something alien, something superficially attractive, that would result in destruction at the hands of God. In no small part of explains the sincere desire of the Jewish authorities to investigate each and every teaching that sprang up, in case it turned out to be – from their understanding – a snare. They were empowered by God to root these snares out and keep the people on the right path. They felt that by engaging in verbal investigation with the potential trapper they could winkle out the trap – taking seriously the likes of Proverbs 12:13 - “The evil person is ensnared by the transgression of his speech, but the righteous person escapes out of trouble.”

And thus comes Jesus, offering a snare and requiring investigation to see if he would trip himself up by his words.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well, thank you for all that, though I'm now a bit confused as to what Isaiah is getting at - Yahweh being both sanctuary and snare?

It all seems to be part of the idea that God is actually in charge of everything, good and evil - in other words, nobody pulls the wool over God's eyes - you you think you can outwit him but you're just falling into his trap - which he sets in front of the sanctuary to catch all the nasty people. Or something.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Actually, I think that Isaiah bit is different from the rest because God, who should be safety, has become a "snare" to at least part of Israel--and the irony of that is precisely the point. Israel has become so messed up, spiritually speaking, that what should be life to them has become a trap. It's a testimony to their own hard-won perversity. No fault of God's.

And this is the passage I suspect is at the back of Jesus' "Have you never heard 'the stone the builders rejected has become the cornerstone'? He who stumbles over it will be broken, but he on whom it falls will be crushed." Again, an image of God (here Jesus) becoming a snare, a scandal, a harmful thing to perverse people, rather than the blessing he rightfully is.

Or as somebody says somewhere else, "With the pure you show yourself pure,with the upright, you show yourself upright, with the crooked you show yourself ... shrewd/crooked(?)" With God, it's sometimes GIGO--if we put garbage in to the relationship, we'll get garbage back out.

Apologies for the rough quotes from memory with no citations--I'm being mugged by a three-year-old with a stuffed bear.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
...which probably leads neatly into the next bit (a stuffed bear is the advocate? No, hang on...). So the 'world' wants to ensnare the disciples as it tried to snare Jesus (or have him snare himself with his words). Now another advocate is coming to carry on the counter-ensnaring work. This seems to fit rather well with what John says the Spirit's work will be – a work of investigation, evidence gathering, case building, charge presenting, proof-of-wrongdoing-demonstrating...

That verb – elencho (= ἐλέγχω) – comes with that almost forensic sense, the court case where the evidence is presented. It's a bringing of someone to account. Perhaps, then, the three clauses relating to sin, righteousness, and judgement, should be read “in (the sense) that...” (with the particle hoti providing the link.
quote:
The advocate will present evidence sufficient to secure a conviction on an indictment containing three counts:

On the first count, that the world stands accused of treason (sin), in that (hoti) it did wilfully and with malice aforethought levy war against the sovereign God;

On the second count, that the world stands accused of acts contrary to God's justice, in that it did murder God's lawfully appointed representative; and

On the third count, that the world stands further accused of treason, in that it did adhere to the sovereign God's enemy who had been subject to sentence following conviction of crime.

Or in other words, that the world is indeed being mugged by a stuffed bear.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
15 All that the Father has is mine [!] For this reason I said that he will take what is mine and declare it to you. 16 A little while, and you will no longer see me, and again a little while, and you will see me.' 17 Then some of his disciples said to one another, 'What does he mean by saying to us, "A little while, and you will no longer see me, and again a little while, and you will see me"; and "Because I am going to the Father"?' 18 They said, 'What does he mean by this "a little while"? We do not know what he is talking about [the pimples go back a long way...] 19 Jesus knew that they wanted to ask him, so he said to them, 'Are you discussing among yourselves what I meant when I said, "A little while, and you will no longer see me, and again a little while, and you will see me"?
This is how stories are told in times when there is time to listen to them - at bedtimes, perhaps. This is how whole dialogues are remembered, and woe betide any parent who tries to alter a word of it! Compare and contrast this homely style with the learned commentaries written about it.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yes--well, this is a big part of the reason why John 13-17 is my favorite part of the Bible, and it's the bit I return to whenever I'm under extreme stress. It is VERY much like the kind of talking a parent does to a beloved child who is afraid. And it is easily memorizable, maybe on purpose, and maybe because that's the way you talk when you're comforting someone--in very, very simple language with clear content.

Which reminds me, I've got to go revisit this now that my friend's facing cancer again. [Tear] Back to grabbing Jesus around the ankles again, toddler style, and wailing into his skirts.

[ 25. November 2014, 16:51: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Slipping in another question on the last section...

In 16:11 John records Jesus as referring to “the prince of this world” who now stands (or then stood) condemned.

The Who?

Commentaries move easily here to make the referent Satan. Well, OK.... John refers to Satan (or the satan) only the once directly in 12:37 when that character entered Judas. But is that the same for John as the “darkness” in 1:5 that could not master the light? Or the ruler of the world in 12:31 (“Now is the judgment of this world; now the ruler of this world will be driven out”)?

Is this ruler (and / or the satan) the same character as the “devil” John refers to in 8:44 and 13:2?
quote:
8:44 (Jesus speaking)
“You people [i.e. the Jewish authorities] are from your father the devil, and you want to do what your father desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not uphold the truth, because there is no truth in him. Whenever he lies, he speaks according to his own nature, because he is a liar and the father of lies.”

13:2
The evening meal was in progress, and the devil had already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon’s son, that he should betray Jesus.

These terms may all be substitutes for the same entity (whether metonymy or synonyms) in John's book, as references to Satan / the satan.

Or is John using the “ruler of the world” term to refer to something different? Rome, perhaps?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Yes, I take all of these references ("ruler of this world," "Satan," "prince f this world," etc. as referring to the devil. For me, it's a case of why not?

I can't see it being Rome, as John's concerns seem to be way more cosmic in scope than the Roman empire, however mighty. That reference to darkness, for instance. It is treated as a person, not a thing, and therefore I would have no trouble with someone who identified it with Satan. (I would also be happy with someone who just called it a personification--IMHO John doesn't rule out either interpretation.)

I don't see it as a problem unless someone has a priori ruled out the possibility of Jesus (and John) speaking of a real evil spiritual entity.

And to rule out such a thing a priori is IMHO to distort the clearest meaning of the text, and also to fail to take into account the social and cultural milieu of the Gospel. John and his contemporaries would have had no trouble with such a concept--it was all over the place. It is our modern more materialist cultures that have trouble with it, and wish to reject it.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
But in what sense does the Devil/Satan rule in John's world. I knew a cleric once who was fond of telling us that Christians were in the world but not of it. He was himself not what I would describe as "other-worldly".

Does John - or do the gospels as a whole - claim that the world was literally in the thrall of evil until the death and resurrection of Jesus?

If so, wouldn't that beg the question of God the Father's historical responsibility? Did he sacrifice his only son to atone for his own impotence/incompetence/
indifference?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
But in what sense does the Devil/Satan rule in John's world. I knew a cleric once who was fond of telling us that Christians were in the world but not of it. He was himself not what I would describe as "other-worldly".

Does John - or do the gospels as a whole - claim that the world was literally in the thrall of evil until the death and resurrection of Jesus?

If so, wouldn't that beg the question of God the Father's historical responsibility? Did he sacrifice his only son to atone for his own impotence/incompetence/
indifference?

As an arch-rebel "rules" a usurped territory. In other words, by sheer terrorism and nastiness, and on a temporary and non-authorized basis. It's no reflection on the rightful King--anyone can be rebelled against, as long as free will is part of the equation. What matters is that God took steps to set it right. And mercifully arranged it so that the worst of the suffering would fall on himself.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
But in what sense does the Devil/Satan rule in John's world.

That is one of the crucial questions here and I think LC is right about this being understood by John's audience in the context of rebellion. That opens up new vistas on John – and perhaps not just on him, but also on how the first Christian community saw its place in the grand scheme of things.

John is quite clear about Jesus' engagement with the Jewish authorities (the “rulers” - he used the same term as that used in “ruler of this world”), but less clear about the function or role of the world ruler. I assume this is because that function was already well known and didn't need foregrounding. It is an itch of a question: How did John understand the place of that ruler and of the ruler's relationship to the other rulers Jesus encountered?

John doesn't include a particular parable common to the other gospels that might throw some light on how that context was viewed. It's worth quoting in full here, this version from Luke 20:9-19 (NET version – also in Mark 12:1-12 & Matt. 21:33-46):
quote:
Then he began to tell the people this parable: “A man planted a vineyard, leased it to tenant farmers, and went on a journey for a long time. When harvest time came, he sent a slave to the tenants so that they would give him his portion of the crop. However, the tenants beat his slave and sent him away empty-handed. So he sent another slave. They beat this one too, treated him outrageously, and sent him away empty-handed. So he sent still a third. They even wounded this one, and threw him out.

Then the owner of the vineyard said, ‘What should I do? I will send my one dear son; perhaps they will respect him.’ But when the tenants saw him, they said to one another, ‘This is the heir; let’s kill him so the inheritance will be ours!’ So they threw him out of the vineyard and killed him.

What then will the owner of the vineyard do to them? He will come and destroy those tenants and give the vineyard to others.” When the people heard this, they said, “May this never happen!” But Jesus looked straight at them and said, “Then what is the meaning of that which is written: ‘The stone the builders rejected has become the cornerstone’? Everyone who falls on this stone will be broken to pieces, and the one on whom it falls will be crushed.”

Then the experts in the law and the chief priests wanted to arrest him that very hour, because they realized he had told this parable against them. But they were afraid of the people.

This parable seems quite clear – the immediate referent of 'tenants' is what John would have termed the Jewish authorities (or 'Jews' in his language). Two things occurred to me:

[1] Although John doesn't use this parable, he does record Jesus' view of his opponents in 8:44 - “You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father's desire....” The relationship Jesus had to his father (I and the Father are one – Jn. 10:30) mirrored that of the rulers to their father. We have two opposing sets of relationships. I suspect John would – along with his Christian contemporaries – have seen the Christian mission as being one of opposing the incorrect interpretations that were pulling people astray (what 8:44 calls 'lies') and in the process of taking on the father of these lies.

[2] Jesus saw his mission as a commission from his father to complete an activity: as rightful ruler of the world and entitled to recognition and service (a portion of the harvest). God had been engaging with his people along the lines expected within a covenant relationship, but had been rejected, on the basis that his messengers, the prophets, had been rejected.

Why send Jesus? I don't see any of the later theological niceties around the topics of atonement or whatever, but rather God's expectation that his wayward people would surely not take this rebellion so far as to reject his anticipated anointed and appointed son. God isn't set up in the parable as someone out to complete a ritual, or to complete a victorious campaign, but rather as one who was still trying to maintain the covenant relationship with his people, perhaps even hoping against hope that the people would come to their senses before they went too far.

There's still the question worth looking at around whether the ruler of this world had been defeated in John's view or was still in charge. Still, for now this seems to me to be how the early Christians saw things. Perhaps there is a lesson there for Christians now!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
On that question of the power of the world's ruler, I dipped back on the thread to John 12:31 to find the answer – and discovered that we all had cleverly ignored the issue. Sneaky, eh?

So, when was the Ruler of This World thrown out? 12:31 reads:
quote:
”Now is the judgement of this world; now the ruler of this world will be driven out.”
Two tenses there: judgement NOW (bellow: When do we want it?), but being thrown out as a process beginning NOW but not being complete until some indefinable point in the future.

1 John 5:18f says:
quote:
We know that everyone fathered by God does not sin, but God protects the one he has fathered, and the evil one cannot touch him. We know that we are from God, and the whole world lies in the power of the evil one.
That suggests John was not being too idealistic in his view of contemporary events. The Christian community is protected, but everyone else is still (post-Jesus' resurrection) established under the Ruler's power.

If the tenant parable in the synoptics referred to above applies to that Ruler in addition to the Jewish rulers, then it implies that God will come to defeat and throw out the ruler(s). This sounds like a different event to Jesus' death / resurrection / ascension. John could well have accepted that there was a 'Now but not yet' aspect to cosmic time, in line with his other Christian contemporaries that acquired acceptance into what became the Christian canon.

That also simply pushes out the question of exactly when the throwing out will occur to another verse. Possibly in another book.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
"...20 Very truly, I tell you, you will weep and mourn, but the world will rejoice; you will have pain, but your pain will turn to joy. 21 When a woman is in labour, she has pain, because her hour has come. But when her child is born, she no longer remembers the anguish because of the joy of having brought a human being into the world. 22 So you have pain now; but I will see you again, and your hearts will rejoice, and no-one will take your joy from you.
[John 16.20-22]Jesus (and John) were men of their time. Neither would have heard of post-natal depression, cruelly exacerbated by the expectations put on all mothers by blissfully ignorant men.

But those, I hope, are the exceptions, and the men here mean well enough, and succeed, long after their deaths, in giving great comfort to the afflicted, ignorant men and suffering women alike

[ 01. December 2014, 21:25: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Eek!]

No, seriously, I think we can give John (and Jesus!) a pass on this one. I think Jesus is referencing the fact that it's normally hard or impossible to remember physical pain once it's over--particularly if the outcome is joyful. I can think of just two pains I could remember in their fullness after they passed--one was a dislocated shoulder, and the other (oddly enough) was labor. (Sorry, Lord! [Biased] )

Still, the memory even of those pains fades after a while. Witness the fact that the human race manages to continue. If every woman retained full and vivid memory of labor for a lifetime, we'd see a lot more one-child families (and probably a lot of Bobbetized husbands [Big Grin] ).

[ 01. December 2014, 23:53: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I must admit that when I read this longer section from v,12 onwards I do wonder why John chose to focus on the 'going away' theme rather than the preceding bit where tightly packed together is Father, Spirit, and Jesus. Jesus is glorified (honoured? vindicated?) by the Spirit / Advocate's speaking the truth to the disciples. The advocate gets that truth from Jesus who, it seems, gets it from the father. “It's the father's,” says Jesus, “and it's mine,” he goes on, “and it's the Spirit's who takes it from me.”

Fertile ground, of course, for keeping theologians off the streets for some centuries. But – to slip effortlessly into anachronism mode – if I was there as the chap just to the left of Jesus in the fetching green outfit in Leonardo's Last Supper*, my “I haven’t a clue what he's on about” would occur right after verse 15. I wouldn't have waited for verse 16 and what seems to be a separate theme (Jesus going away). I'd want to know if something had been slipped into the product from the Judean vineyards (which the chap just to the left of Jesus plainly is goggling at and shying away from) that had caused Jesus' remarkable take on divine metaphysics. I'd also want to pull my bible out of a handy fold in the tunic to see if it was all kosher.

So I suspect the whole Father-Son-Spirit thing was not an issue for his audience when he was writing. He felt the need to address Jesus' absence instead and dwell on it with that birthing metaphor. Still, I often wonder if John had a well-thought out history underlying this Father-Son-Spirit theme that was already embedded into Christian understanding.

Incidentally, how does that metaphor work in the context of Jesus going away and coming back? Is the point simply about the pain and joy, or was the choice of child-birthing more significant? If it was, to what does the birthing actually refer?


* Tried to link to it, but Ship doesn't seem to be accepting URL links at the moment
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Continuing:

quote:
"...23 On that day you will ask nothing of me.* Very truly, I tell you, if you ask anything of the Father in my name, he will give it to you.* 24 Until now you have not asked for anything in my name. Ask and you will receive, so that your joy may be complete. 25 I have said these things to you in figures of speech. The hour is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figures, but will tell you plainly of the Father. 26 On that day you will ask in my name. I do not say to you that I will ask the Father on your behalf; 27 for the Father himself loves you, because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God.* 28 I came from the Father and have come into the world; again, I am leaving the world and am going to the Father."
[John 16.23-28]

I have copied out this from Oremus, including three asterisks which I presume indicate that there are footnotes, but I can't find any.

"Figures of speech" sounds both strangely modern and strangely academic - as though some at least of the disciples were grammarians!

I think I am beginning to "get" the point of all this "going to the Father" business. Jesus must know that he is going to die. But he probably knows that the bald fact would spook his followers. They need encouragement.

Verse 28 seems to be saying "I'm leaving the world and going back to the Father in the same mysterious way that I came into the world from the Father...

Which may sound obvious to Christians soaked in the traditional beliefs of the church. But it leads me to think on. Was he, in fact, expecting to die in the way he did, or was he, in his incarnate mind, expecting to be miraculously lifted off the earth? And how and when did he come to know that he had not been born in the normal human way? That he was a gift of God?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I haven't a clue when he found out about the nativity stuff, though in my obviously limited experience "how you were born" (with occasional adaptations) is a favorite bedtime story for little ones. (don't tell them about the 48 hour labor)

But yeah, I'm certain he knew he was going to die, and the basic outlines of it--betrayed, crucified, etc.) Not only is it there in OT prophecy, but it's clearly shaping that way with regards to the social atmosphere he walked through--the rising enmity of the Jewish religious authorities, the disaffection of Judas (which apparently became overt after the ointment incident), the well-known fact that pretenders to the throne who were not Roman citizens tended to wind up nailed to a cross. It really didn't take supernatural powers to see it coming at all, and truly, I think even the disciples in their incredible cluelessness were beginning to see it too--and would have done so much more clearly if they hadn't been dazzled by their dreams of an earthly kingdom. Heck, even the men-in-the-streets were watching the train-wreck unfold:

quote:
55 When it was almost time for the Jewish Passover, many went up from the country to Jerusalem for their ceremonial cleansing before the Passover. 56 They kept looking for Jesus, and as they stood in the temple courts they asked one another, “What do you think? Isn’t he coming to the festival at all?” 57 But the chief priests and the Pharisees had given orders that anyone who found out where Jesus was should report it so that they might arrest him.


I don't think Jesus was letting the disciples down gently, either. The time for that was long since past. This is the same man who said things like "take up your cross and follow me" and "the Son of Man will be betrayed, handed over to his enemies, and killed. On the third day he will rise." There was also all that scary apocalyptic teaching we see in places like Matthew 24 etc., none of it pulling any punches.

come to think of it, He seems to have started in telling them about his death right after Peter's confession (Matthew 16 and parallel passages):

quote:
5 “But what about you?” he asked. “Who do you say I am?”

16 Simon Peter answered, “You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God.”

17 Jesus replied, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, ...."

21 From that time on Jesus began to explain to his disciples that he must go to Jerusalem and suffer many things at the hands of the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and on the third day be raised to life.

It's almost as if Jesus had two things he wanted to drive into their thick heads: 1) who he was, and 2) what he was going to do. Once they had 1) correct, he moved on immediately to 2). Which they really didn't grasp hardly at all until it happened.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I don't think you can use sayings selected by the synoptic writers to confirm your understanding of Jesus' saying and actions in John. They just don't harmonize. And the nonsense with the ointment is a very obvious exercise in character assassination. Earlier accounts don't point the finger at Judas, do they? Once a scapegoat is established, people with axes to grind and unresolved stuff on their consciences can heap all manner of **** on them, with complete impunity.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I don't think you can use sayings selected by the synoptic writers to confirm your understanding of Jesus' saying and actions in John. They just don't harmonize. And the nonsense with the ointment is a very obvious exercise in character assassination. Earlier accounts don't point the finger at Judas, do they? Once a scapegoat is established, people with axes to grind and unresolved stuff on their consciences can heap all manner of **** on them, with complete impunity.

Well, you say so. My experience as a reader is that they harmonize very well. And character assassination, seriously? Where precisely in the earliest church do you see anybody heaping nasty shit on Judas? What I see (in Paul, Acts, etc.) is an awed, frightened silence--and when they can't avoid mentioning him, they very carefully tiptoe around it ("He went to his own place," not "that motherfucking son of a bitch done killed our Jesus and we gonna see him FRY in hell!").

Really, my general impression is they were all thinking, "There but for the grace of God go I."

But I suspect this could all spin into a tangent quite easily.

Back to your main point. AFAIK, nobody made a rule on this thread that we couldn't use the Synoptics to understand what's going on in John. It has certainly been the historic practice of the Christian Church. I am of course aware that I am in a minority here for holding to this, but that ought to make me a piece of rare and refreshing fruit to y'all (bananas, maybe, but still).
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Sorry. Something's happened to my reply - hit the wrong key.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Wasn't worth saying twice anyway. You're probably right, LC.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[Eek!]
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:

Back to your main point. AFAIK, nobody made a rule on this thread that we couldn't use the Synoptics to understand what's going on in John. It has certainly been the historic practice of the Christian Church. I am of course aware that I am in a minority here for holding to this, but that ought to make me a piece of rare and refreshing fruit to y'all (bananas, maybe, but still).

There certainly is not any such rule on this thread, speaking from a Hostly perspective.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Who said there was? I was attempting to point out an unworkable approach - as I saw it - not a rule. LC took me too literally I think, but it's not a point I wish to defend to the death anyway. Can we just get on with it - the thread I mean? ( This is not meant to be in any way critical of a hostly comment - just a clarification which really ought not to have been necessary.)
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
I didn't really think you meant that that was a hard-and-fast rule on this thread or anywhere else, and I didn't mean that as a serious Hostly call (which is why I didn't sign it with the Host signature). However, the conversation did make me curious enough to go back and check out the early posts on this thread (which started long before my tenure as a Kerygmania Host) to see if there had initially been any suggestions made about confining the conversation to John itself and whether or not it was appropriate to bring in the synoptics. So, it was more a matter of satisfying my own idle curiosity about whether any such parameters had ever been set around the discussion.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Good. We're all friends then. That's comforting. So is this:

quote:
His disciples said, "Yes, now you are speaking plainly, not in any figure of speech!Now we know that you know all things, and do not need to have anyone question you; by this we believe that you have come from God."
[John16.29-30]

I don't understand what Jesus has just said that is plainer than what he has said before, or even what figures of speech he had previously used - it's a semantic problem that doesn't interest me greatly. But all of a sudden his listeners "get it" and realise that they don't have to ask any more questions - they can just leave everything to him and they'll be fine. It's a beautiful moment - savour it - because Jesus is about to scotch any misapprehensions of that sort!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There is indeed something remarkable about John's preferred use of language. It's not as though Jesus has been entirely opaque during his mission; his opponents seem to have understood what he was saying – or at least the insulting bits!

One thing that John seems to be getting at is this business of 'asking'. A day is coming when the disciples will not ask Jesus anything, but rather will ask the Father directly on the authority of Jesus (16:23). This fact has been presented in a figure of speech – a dark saying, akin to treading a parallel route to the main path, and which is not as easy to tread (paroimia = παροιμία) – but is now being explained openly and boldly. So perhaps what the disciples are getting – and presumably what John wants his audience to get – is that the focus of attention should be on the Father and not stop at Jesus. There is no need for the disciples to go through Jesus every time they want to ask of the Father – Jesus does not intend to be an intercessor for this. The disciples can go direct to the Father to ask.

Ask what?

I think what John is on about here is not “Ask anything in my name including a new house, car, healing from the common cold, etc.”, but “Ask for explanations / interpretations from the Father.” When there's a need for discernment, get thee to the Father, mate. That seems to be a unique theme in Jesus' teaching and one that validates his ministry. He didn't set himself up as the be-all and end-all. Rather the truthfulness of his claim that he came from God is that he points the way to God, not to himself. Hence the verse 30 burst from the disciples.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
31 Jesus answered them, "Do you now believe? 32 The hours is coming, indeed it has come [?], when you will be scattered, each one to his home,and you will leave me alone. Yet I am not alone because the Father is with me. 33 I have said this to you, so that in me you may have peace. In the world you face persecution, but take courage; I have conquered the world!
[John 16. 30-33]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Can't quite relate "I have conquered the world" with current news - but that's been the case for Jews - and many others -for centuries.

Don't let it spoil your - or your children's -Christmas. Peace and goodwill must always be a serious aim, even when it feels like a forlorn hope.

[ 18. December 2014, 15:29: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I would say that a conquered world is not a perfect world, it's a world put back in balance, with good put back in equilibrium with evil.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
... and I would say that a conquered world is not necessarily a "okay, gotcha, it's time to stop fighting and be peaceful now" world. I mean, how long did it take after D-Day before the peace papers were signed? There comes a point in any war when the outcome is clear to everybody participating, but there's still plenty of turmoil and even dying ahead before it's done, dusted and in the history books. I think we're in that stage now.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Not quite clear what you mean by that LC. How long have we been in that stage?
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
This is another point of interest – the tension between the apparently emphatic statements such as “There! I've done it! I've conquered the enemy!” and the “Hang on a mo; I'm being duffed up here and my boss hasn't come to help me!”

It's common in the Psalms, where some present everything as at peace - God is in his heaven and all's right with the world - and others offering distinct complaints about the state of things. So its certainly possible to draw a biblical theology out based on the 'Already and not yet' theme.

Still – while that's fine – it can risk a withdrawal into an abstract spiritualism that doesn't become the bible. It's all too easy to say that God has conquered the spiritual domain, but that the battle continues in the physical. That smacks of certain Greek philosophical assumptions, but also of defeat in the face of materialism.

It's a good question to ask what John's readers (and indeed John) would have understood by Jesus' statement that he had conquered (perfect tense – completed action, not ongoing) the world. Would it have been understood purely in a spiritual sense, or was there a political, outward-facing, aspect?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Not quite clear what you mean by that LC. How long have we been in that stage?

Roughly two thousand years so far.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's what I was afraid of.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Could be worse. At least this way we know somebody's got it under control. Even if it isn't us.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Another thought – John records Jesus as saying that he (Jesus) had already conquered the world before the crucifixion and resurrection. Something had happened that had already resulted in complete victory. Was it during Jesus' earthly mission up to this point? If so, what? For example, was it the mere fact that the disciples had now 'got it'? Was that the factor that caused Jesus to tell them that, thankfully, because they had finally understood what he had been going on about, Jesus' battle with 'the world' had been won. The world had now failed to master him (Jn. 1:6-10).

I think John was making a point along these lines, and perhaps a bit wider. Jesus' had been engaged in a struggle for God's Word (in the sense of interpreting the biblical texts correctly). This was the battle in which the darkness had been trying to master the light. Jesus probably realised that the path he was treading would culminate in his demise before he could publish a 6-volume tomic series on Systematic Theology, so he needed a group of followers to carry on his mission. Only when they understood the mission Jesus was engaged in could he say that his work was done. He could also encourage his followers with the thought that they would not be alone as they continued the fight against the dark world outside. They would be teaching the same message Jesus taught and would, therefore, be teaching in the power of the same Spirit.

It would then mean that this victory is continuously being realised as Christians tackle today's bad or ugly interpretations, whether religious or otherwise.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Interesting. I take the perfect tense in "I have overcome the world" a bit differently--I think he's referring to the cross, and using the perfect tense right now because a) he's going to be too busy (suffering/dying/dead) to say much about it at the precise moment, and b) because it's so absolutely truly going to be happen, he might as well announce it in a past tense.

The a) explanation holds true for "It is finished" (Greek perfect tetelestai) which he said from the cross probably a couple of minutes ahead of the time it actually was finished, which I take to be the moment of his death. And there's a practical reason for saying it early, of course. Can't talk when you're dead! So this earlier perfect tense "I have overcome the world" is in my opinion an earlier example of the same thing.

The b) explanation explains a few passages in Paul, where he gives lists, and the last item is clearly still in the future (e.g. Romans 8:30, "And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.") To Paul the matter is so sure you might as well go ahead and say it in a past tense.

On a much more mundane level, you can hear ordinary people doing the same sort of time shifting whenever they are playing a team sport with their friends and announce to the group, "I've got this" as they scurry in to catch the ball or whatever. Technically they haven't "got this" until after the ball is caught; but the remark is made early for practical reasons of planning and busyness, and because they are certain it will come to pass.

[ 21. December 2014, 13:35: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It could do that - looking at life through proleptic eyes!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Ingenious isn't (quite) the word for it.

LC, do you ever not have a ready answer for your little ones?

If that's too personal, forget I said it [Devil]
But you sometimes seem to me to be more worried than you need to be. A strong faith can shoulder (apparent) awkward inconsistencies and I'll not trust a person who can never say "I don't know" or "I don't understand".
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I say "I don't know" all the time.

This is LL posting: Uhhh... What she said...

LC again: I think he's agreeing with me in teenage-speak. Anyway...

It's hard to read people over the internet. If I seem to have a lot of ingenious answers, and pop up with them at the drop of a hat, it's not because I am worried or trying to be a know-it-all. It's simply because I'm a geek. A completely nerdy geek, of the type that wears Spock ears to conventions and recognizes the caffeine molecule on a T-shirt a block away. The kind that writes "butyl mercaptan" on a particularly bad piece of writing.

And unfortunately my geekery is at its height (depth?) with the Scriptures. I read commentaries for fun, and I learned Greek and Hebrew mainly because I wanted to (a couple other reasons but the real one is geekish pleasure). I'm sorry. I try not to be too much of a pain.

ETA: As for my faith, it is what it is. I don't suppose I can judge how strong or weak it is with any kind of accuracy, and there's certainly no reason why you need to be impressed by it. I'm not.

[ 21. December 2014, 20:57: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I still find this way of working through John quite helpful – the slow but steady approach forces a focus on things that would probably otherwise slip under the radar. Some things on our radar are not even picked up in commentaries, which gives me pause to think that even though we've gone through John this way, we've still probably only scratched a few inches below the surface (inch = about one hin's worth of a cubit).

So once we've reached the end of John, shall we start up a thread to do John one verse at a time?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
I say "I don't know" all the time.

This is LL posting: Uhhh... What she said...

LC again: I think he's agreeing with me in teenage-speak. Anyway...

It's hard to read people over the internet. If I seem to have a lot of ingenious answers, and pop up with them at the drop of a hat, it's not because I am worried or trying to be a know-it-all. It's simply because I'm a geek. A completely nerdy geek, of the type that wears Spock ears to conventions and recognizes the caffeine molecule on a T-shirt a block away. The kind that writes "butyl mercaptan" on a particularly bad piece of writing.

And unfortunately my geekery is at its height (depth?) with the Scriptures. I read commentaries for fun, and I learned Greek and Hebrew mainly because I wanted to (a couple other reasons but the real one is geekish pleasure). I'm sorry. I try not to be too much of a pain.

ETA: As for my faith, it is what it is. I don't suppose I can judge how strong or weak it is with any kind of accuracy, and there's certainly no reason why you need to be impressed by it. I'm not.

What can I say? Thank you? Sorry? Yeek? Good to know take yourself less seriously than I do me
(sound of grammarians rushing to the toilet...)

Nigel has a point, didn't he? We all - aach, mustn't say that. I have more axes to grind than I have honing stones. So i's bloody marvellous that we can still "talk" through this strange and frustrating medium - almost as difficult as first-century Geek sometimes. I mean G - oh, I don't know...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
I still find this way of working through John quite helpful – the slow but steady approach forces a focus on things that would probably otherwise slip under the radar. Some things on our radar are not even picked up in commentaries, which gives me pause to think that even though we've gone through John this way, we've still probably only scratched a few inches below the surface (inch = about one hin's worth of a cubit).

So once we've reached the end of John, shall we start up a thread to do John one verse at a time?

Only if I can somehow dump my disbelief in supernatural miracles and pray for an extra twenty years! (You never know)
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Well, Happy New Chapter!

John 17:1-2
quote:
Jesus spoke these things, raised his eyes to the skies, and then said:

“Father! The hour has come. Glorify your Son, so that your Son might glorify you, just in the same way as you have given him authority over all people so that to those you have given to him he can give eternal life.”

Unpacking the phraseology here – we've got another couple of those perfect tenses: The hour has come, ...those you have given him. Do they refer to activities that have been completed by the time Jesus was speaking, or an activity to be completed in the future?

I'm intrigued by the way John uses tenses here. He asks his Father to glorify him (presumably something he wants to happen that has not yet happened). Once this does happen, it opens the door to other activities that are dependent on it: Jesus in return glorying the Father, and apparently the giving of eternal life to other people.

There's a lot of stuff in these two verses. Does John use “hour” as a reference to a concept already existing in Judaism (and if so, what is implied)? What is the 'glorification' that Jesus refers to here? What authority? Is eternal life a universal thing, or does John move swiftly from “all people” to a limited range (those given to Jesus) with respect to eternal life? Does that reference to the father 'giving' people to Jesus imply God has chosen not to give some (and if so, what are the implications)?

I'm inclined to anchor these two verses in John's introduction in chapter 1 when it comes to answering these questions. Call me safe...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think this mixture of tense has come up before, but I can't remember how the matter was resolved. It sounds to me "listening" to John that sometimes he makes "asides" in a very modern -sounding way - well modern being from Shakespeare onwards. One second he's talking as Jesus, the next he looks straight through the "fourth wall" to to comment e.g. Jesus; The time will come...
John: (indeed, has come already...)

But that's just the old drama queen fantasizing again, I expect!

[ 02. January 2015, 20:16: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think we had the perfect tense thingy within the last month. No resolution, though several theories.

Re the passage--in John Jesus always seems to use "the hour" to refer to the time of his death. It starts in John 2 ("My hour is not yet come") and IIRC, we get several similar statements and then finally this one, where the hour IS come.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The next few verses, too, seem to be anchored in John's introduction:

quote:
And this is eternal life, that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. 4 I glorified you on earth by finishing the work that you gave me to do. So now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed
[John 17.3-5]

I've never heard that read out in church, have you? It would be very, very difficult, to do it well and not have one's head turned by it. An uncompromising declaration of his unique authority, spoken like a really well-crafted eucharistic prayer, uplifting in all the best senses of the word.

But John's introduction, the climax of nearly every service of Nine Lessons and Carols at Christmas, is received in a spirit of wonder at the birth of Jesus and of hope for peace to all people of goodwill.

Here it is spoken Before the crucifixion, with that awesome fate hovering over them like a damocletian sword. Yet Jesus says his work is done - which means, I think, that in accordance with John's Christology, he has set everything in motion himself, already - including his death. Nothing that happens to him from now on will happen without his prior knowledge and - what's the word - setting in motion.

And all this is said that people later will remember that he said it. How much later?

What idea of the existence of a yet-to-be-incarnated being could the disciples have had?

There is also the possibility that the context of this discourse may have been shifted by the final redactor. Perhaps it was delivered post-resurrection. That would certainly make more sense. But when did John's gospel ever make that sort of sense? [Shakes old shaggy head glumly].
 
Posted by Pooks (# 11425) on :
 
It struck me that during the years that I have attended church, I have never heard any Christian ask God to glorify him or her. Perhaps because of the fear that it would be seen as 'not humble'. Hmm... So much for 'What Would Jesus Do' then. [Biased]

More to the point though, putting aside the difficulty of asking for glorification of oneself , I somehow come to the understanding (rightly or wrongly) that when Jesus asked the Father to glorify him in this passage in John, he probably meant it in the sense of God's vindication for the work that he had done in the face of the persecution and betrayal that was around him (as opposed to 'glorification' in the sense that manisfests itself in paintings of Jesus with a golden halo around his head or such like).

In the English translation that Pimple posted, Jesus seems to think that his work is already finished even though crucifixion has yet to happen. So I do wonder whether Jesus' understanding of his finished work, especially given his Jewish background, is the same as that which we later understand to be the finished work of Jesus - i.e. his crucifixion being the requirement for the redemption of the world.

As to Pimple's more scholarly questions on whether this is the result of redaction and what the disciple's understanding of what was said would have been, I will leave it to you scholars out there to answer. I will certainly read with interest.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I've never heard that read out in church, have you?

At my church, it was once the practice that the whole Farewell Discourse from John's gospel was read by candlelight at the end of our Maundy Thursday dinner, and then we would walk in silence into the church for Communion.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I agree these verses are rooted in John's introduction – the definition of the term 'eternal life' is important for his work because, I guess, it assists in answering a key question that must have been fluttering around in early Christianity: Just who, exactly, are God's children?

Back in the introduction, John had noted that God's own people had not received God's Message / messenger (Jesus). Those who did receive him, however, had the right to become God's children.

That rings bells with the debates Paul had over who constituted the children of God (the letter to the Galatians is particularly taken up with this); it must have been a real bone of contention between the first of Jesus' followers and the Jewish authorities both nationally and locally in the synagogues. The Jews were supposed to be Abraham's children and therefore God's children. Now these upstarts had come along claiming that they were in fact the true children – implying that the right to be children did not in fact lie with those authorities.

Actually, I've been using the word 'right' here, but I think the better translation would be 'authority' (in John 1:12, exousia = ἐξουσία), which fits with the judicial / legal overtones in John's gospel and his language use. The implication is that whatever quasi-legal status God bestowed on Abraham's descendants applied to those who remained loyal to God and his authority. Only God had the authority to define his family, mere assertion (by Jewish authorities) had no authority at all. I can sense the battle being played out in the early years of Christianity between the two sides as they struggled for control, in effect, of the synagogue. I don't think the question had been resolved by the time John's gospel was written – the followers of “The Way” were still engaged in this debate with their opponents and had yet not left or been cast out to become the separate Christian movement. Hence the focus on this question in John the definition of life – loyalty to one true God and his representative, the messiah Jesus.

I think Pooks is right about the vindication aspect of 'glory' in verse 4; it relates to Jesus having remained loyal to his calling during his earthly ministry. He could now call on God to fulfil his side of the covenant bargain and return the favour. I suppose this is about already having the authority to be a child of God. Verse 5b is a howitzer of a statement to follow what went before: “Glorify...with the glory I had with you before the world was”. As in so many of Paul's letters, what used to be called 'high christology' is being passed off here with barely the bat of an eyelid.

So many questions! I don't think we got to the bottom of what 'glorify' means. Outside of biblical literature the word (doxazo =δοξάζω) has the sense of holding an opinion, or thinking about / imagining something. That doesn't quite resonate with the context in which it is used in the bible, though (I assume)! Vindication fits better – which could also involve a raising up or exalting.

And then there's the pre-existence thing going on. Fits with John's introduction again, which is nice. That must also have been important when John was getting this stuff down. Jesus pre-dates Moses and Abraham – yes that would be important when it came to status of authority. But before creation? Pre-dates Adam though I don't think John makes even a side-reference to him anywhere (does he)? So why was it important to state this pre-creation aspect? What issue could have been rolling around the hills that motivated John to expend chemicals on parchment in this way? My suspicion is that it links to the same question of the definition of God's children in some way.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
"I have made your name known to those whom you gave me from the world. They were yours, and you gave them to me, and they have kept your word. [A] 7 Now they know that everything you have given me is from you, for the words which you gave to me I have given to them, and they have received them and know in truth that I came from you; and they have believed that you sent me..."
[John 17.6-8]
It's probably difficult if not impossible to say much about this without the context of the verses that follow on, which sound very weird and modern - as though John were "channelling" Jesus (is that the right term?

[A] It's nice to see that John doesn't jump in with exceptions here - the prayer Jesus offers up seems to be on behalf of all the disciples.

[tangent] Thanks for your kind thoughts. I have a temporary reprieve until next week. Don't let this thread die![/tangent]

[ 02. February 2015, 21:23: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[startled look] Are you all right? Did I miss something in All Saints?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Fine thanks. Operation pending. Nothing life-threatening (I hope).
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
(Getting all All-Saintsy here for a minute) pimple, I'm sure I can speak for all the Kerygmaniacs in saying I pray that it all goes well, and that you're quickly on the mend. And we will take good care of the John thread as we await your return.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Much appreciated [Smile]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Quick thought on the cusp of another week...

I was interested here by the chronology of faith, as it were, that John focusses on: Jesus calls people to follow him as disciples; those that do follow, initially are OK about Jesus, but it takes time for them to realise that Jesus is only the channel – he passes on what God his Father has given him. So accepting Jesus is only part of the journey – it should end with a recognition that it all comes from God. That in turn can increase the disciples' opinion of Jesus yet further.

There's a sermon in there...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Let's have it, Nigel! Have plenty of time on my hands being homo intacto once more but needing to take things easy.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Well, cutting through the hymns, prayers, readings, collection, notices, the dispatch of children to their appointed doom, the wheezing trip up the stairs to the pulpit, and back down to collect the forgotten notes, eventually I came to...

...the thought that evangelicalism in early Christianity may have followed the sequence John lays out. First, make known the person of Jesus and his authority; second explain the derivation of that authority as coming from the God that Israel knew about, third introduce that God to the audience as the owner of creation, then adjourn for tea (or the equivalent).

Gasp way back down pulpit stairs, back up to collect the forgotten order of service, closing hymn, prayer...

In some ways if not all, John has recorded Jesus doing the chapter 1 Introduction thing. By “I have made your name known to those whom you gave me from the world” (17:6) Jesus has done John 1:1-5 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was fully God. The Word was with God in the beginning. All things were created by him, and apart from him not one thing was created that has been created. In him was life, and the life was the light of mankind. And the light shines on in the darkness, but the darkness has not mastered it.” And by referring to “...they know that everything you have given me is from you, for the words which you gave to me I have given to them, and they have received them and know in truth that I came from you” (17:7) we have 1:12 “...to all who have received him—those who believe in his name—he has given the right to become God’s children.”

And so on. I guess for many Christians the route is the same – introduction to God via Jesus. Which may leave open the question in John's audience's mind: So what happens to Jesus in the grand scheme of things if his aim was to point our eyes in the direction of his Father, God? Is what follows John's attempt to answer that question by a reference to Jesus having an intercessory role?
quote:
John 17:9
I am praying on behalf of them. I am not praying on behalf of the world, but on behalf of those you have given me, because they belong to you.


 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Certainly seems so. The next few verses are all of a piece:
quote:
All mine are yours, and yours are mine; and I have been glorified in them [difficult to see how that works, exactly]. And now I am [effectively] no longer in the world, but they are in the world ,and I am coming to you. Holy Father [I haven't noticed that form of address before - no longer "abba"?0] protect them in your name that you have given me [?], so that they may be one, as we are one. While I was with them I protected them in your name that you have given me [?] I guarded them, and not one of them was lost except the one destined to be lost,[Gk: except the son of destruction] so that the scripture might be fulfilled...
[John 17.10-12]

Three long verses, all about keeping his followers safe (or most of them) when He goes to the Father. The betrayal is hinted at, but the betrayer is not named. Presumably Jesus also knew that Peter would deny him, but Peter is not predestined for Hell - perhaps because
He knew that Peter would repent and Judas would not. Only somewhere I seem to have read that Judas did while Peter's repentance is assumed by the church on account of his reinstatement (also presumed) in Chapter 21.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
The “I have been glorified by/in them” could refer to Jesus being honoured by his disciples. Perhaps a result of their getting to grips with Jesus' message and role, they are now able to carry the mission further and so confirm (honour) Jesus. There may be nothing esoteric about what John is saying here. Perhaps.

“Holy Father” is a bit of an enigma in that the phrase used as an address to God appears just the once here in the NT. “Father” is used often by John to describe God, though, so perhaps this is his preferred recollection.

Just after that address, John throws out “...keep them safe in / by your name that you have given me, so that they may be one just as we are one.” Interesting connection between 'keeping safe' and its purpose – to promote unity. Is 'name' here being used to denote God's identity, authority, or power, or what?

“Son of destruction” - a rather extreme term. 'Destruction' and 'lost' in this verse are from the same word form and the phrase could read: “Not one of them was destroyed except the one destined for destruction...” It's the Greek term used to translate the Hebrew word associated with complete destruction without mercy. 'Lost' is a bit too weak in English, really. It does throw some light on the disciples' view of Judas' final outcome. Even if he show remorse over his act of betrayal, John at least was convinced that Judas was irrevocably damned.

The remorse bit is found in Matthew 27:13 - “When Judas, who had betrayed him, saw that Jesus was condemned, he was seized with remorse and returned the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and the elders.”
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Remorse and repentance are a wee bit different. Both include the change of mind and the judging of the previous action to be wrong and evil, but repentance has a forwarding-looking, almost hopeful element that simple remorse lacks.

"Do you wish to amend your sinful life?" is one of the standard questions in pastoral examination round here, aimed at repentance. Judas seems to have had no such wish or hope. As soon as he realized he wasn't going to be able to undo the deed itself, he put an end to his life altogether, suggesting total despair. Poor guy.

Note: None of this is intended to say that suicide is de facto despair, or that it sends someone straight to hell, or any of that nonsense. Every suicide is different. I'm just noticing the apparent difference between Judas' attitude and resulting actions and those of Peter, who was also burdened with grave sin and shame. I do wish Judas hadn't given up hope.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
“Son of destruction” - a rather extreme term. 'Destruction' and 'lost' in this verse are from the same word form and the phrase could read: “Not one of them was destroyed except the one destined for destruction...” It's the Greek term used to translate the Hebrew word associated with complete destruction without mercy. 'Lost' is a bit too weak in English, really. It does throw some light on the disciples' view of Judas' final outcome. Even if he show remorse over his act of betrayal, John at least was convinced that Judas was irrevocably damned.

The remorse bit is found in Matthew 27:13 - “When Judas, who had betrayed him, saw that Jesus was condemned, he was seized with remorse and returned the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and the elders.”

Here's where I differ from you two--I don't think most or all of this is John's wording, John's concepts, John's choice of presentation. Particularly in this prayer, I think it is Jesus's, and John is reporting what he heard and recalls, with the help of the Holy Spirit, naturally. I can't help wondering whether the focus on John is becoming a way to get Jesus off the hook for unpleasant things he said or did. Not that anyone is doing this intentionally, but the concern does creep in. Forgive me.

As for "son of destruction"--I think Jesus was calling a spade a spade, as he always did, with those he loved most deeply as well (including his mother, Peter, and Martha, among others). I don't doubt that he loved Judas. But he saw where Judas' self-chosen trajectory was taking him, despite Jesus' efforts to head him off (various warnings, the footwashing, honoring Judas at the Passover supper, and so forth). "Son of destruction" is unfortunately apt. That is what he made of himself--what we all could be, God forbid.

It seems to me that the New Testament writers, and the apostles portrayed in Acts, are remarkably circumspect in what they say about Judas. There is a deep, fearful, decent silence drawn over what he did, with the sole exception of Peter's remarkably discreet reference in Acts 1 ("he left this ministry and went to his own place"). No tirades, no execration, no boasting by comparison. Judas doesn't even wind up as a sermon illustration.

I'm trying to learn from that example when I'm tempted to gossip about the really over-the-top villainy we sometimes see from people in our community. To remember that it could so easily be me.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
If the bible is infallible, I can't really fault you, LC, though I think sometimes your analogies are a bit cute. The problem is that however reliable the Holy Spirit might be, we can never be sure that it doesn't tell us things

in spite of the evangelists, none of whom were gods.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Confused. Is cute a good thing or a bad thing or ...? Never mind. As for the evangelists, nobody I know (including inerrantists) thinks that the gospel writers were infallible in themselves, or that they weren't just crappy as the rest of the human race in every other aspect of life bar the actual Gospel writing. The contention is that that one particular activity was closely supervised by the Holy Spirit in a way other areas of life are not.

But enough of this. We'll be in the pasture of Dead Horses soon!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
In John's case it looks as though Equus ferus caballus is alive and kicking still, because he is claiming some things about veracity. In his introduction he wants to convince his audience that there is a truth to be made aware of – this entity he calls the word that has a very close relationship with the God that his audience wants to know, the same entity that he calls the true light, who sets out claims that are to be believed if one wants eternal life with that God.

It's all very interesting, this question of how far an author can be trusted. Most of Christian history has focussed on divinity and only in the past couple of hundred years or so on humanity, when it comes to Jesus and also to the message recorded by the biblical authors. I think we may be entering a time when there is a recognised need to do something about balancing the equation more. We've been through the modern period when those emphasising divinity were criticised for taking too much for granted and not coming up with the goods when it came to evidence in support of claims relating to the divinity of Jesus and the Bible, now we are in a post-modern period when the same criticisms have been levelled at those emphasising the humanity of the same.

So when John says that Jesus (as word) was full of mercy (giving life) and truth (1:14-17), he is pointing to a theme he will develop and that might offer a model of a balance between divinity and humanity. There is a divine truth claim: that God had a message for the world about who he was and how he wanted his people to live, a claim that was in opposition to others available at the time. Then there is a human truth claim: that John (among others) was a reliable witness to the divine truth claim and could be trusted when he spoke about it. However, John (among others) on his own could have bellowed his human claim as much as he liked, but without effect, because he was just one human among many making human truth claims.

What was needed was an entity in the middle, a route by which the divine met the human. Enter Jesus. For his mission to be a success he had somehow to be the bridge between divine and human, only in that way could he make God (and his message) known. He had to be more than just another human truth claim. Hence the rather dramatic truth claims he makes and which John records in chapter 10 – Jesus being the divinely authorised route to life and all that 'he in him and him in he' stuff.

I tend to think that John's Gospel was itself alive and kicking by the time Paul was writing his letters. Both have similar theologies and christologies, both concerned with the same issues surrounding non-acceptance by Jewish communities. Whether the Gospel existed in the same written form we now have access to is another question, but I think the author had the themes already under his belt and was teaching them as par for the course by, say, AD 45-50. It puts the human truth claim back into the orbit of a witness who was significantly impressed by the divine truth claim.

There's a bunch more that could be explored here, and it's an area that has interested me for a few years, but where the hooves of the odd-toed ungulate mammal belonging to the taxonomic family Equidae hit the ground for me is that I want to take John's humanity seriously in order to understand his language, rhetoric, themes, etc. so as to better understand his intention, while keeping the balance with the divine message lying at the core. This could be a way of saying that the human author, with all his foibles, was sufficiently impressed by the divine/human sensation named Jesus that his senses were driven in a particular direction and expressed accordingly. The author's language and style is a vehicle, but driven in the service of the occupant message.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well, to quote herself , that's me told then! [Biased]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Oh Dear! What I meant to say was that there's merit in taking seriously both the human and the divine, in... Oh Look! Isn't that a nice bunch of flowers over there..

[Swiftly flees out the door]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think this is where we have got to:

"...13 But now I am coming to you, and I speak these things in the world so that they may have my joy made complete in themselves. 14 I have given them your word, and the world has hated them because they do not belong to the world. 15 I am not asking you to take them out of the world but I ask you to protect them from the evil one. 16 They do not belong to the world, just as I do not belong to the world. 17 Sanctify them in the truth; your word is truth. 18 As you have sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world. 19 And for their sakes I sanctify myself so that they may also be sanctified in truth..."

[John 17.13-19]

Sorry to post such a large piece at once but I think it's necessary to get the effect of the whole mesmerising ritual.

I can appreciate how comforting, in one way, these words must have been, addressed quite obviously to a terrified bunch of disciples.

But I have to say that I find the encouragement to see themselves as a very exclusive elite a tad disturbing. This may because of my own baggage. Towards the end of my confirmation preparation I was given the same sort of encouragement and I didn't find it complimentary - just rather creepy. I couldn't get away from the feeling that the world this guy was telling me to cut myself off from was peopled with a great many people who were far more attractive to me than my unpleasant mentor. An encouragement to stick together for mutual help is one thing. An encouragement to regard anyone who doesn't share your narrow viewpoint as demonic I find impossible to accept. Would I have accepted the words from Jesus, had I been there at the time? Possibly, had I been scared enough of the alternative.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Well, first of all, it's a prayer. Jesus isn't addressing the disciples at all. He's really, truly, asking his Father to do something. (Which puts him one up on certain pray-ers I've met, who seem to have forgotten Whom they're addressing!)

Now as for the elite thing--He says just two things about the disciples: that they do not belong to the world, and that he is sending them out into the world. Neither of those are clearly "you're so awesome" statements. If anything, the overall tone seems to be "you're in such danger"! Which is why he's begging the Father to look after them. They will be at risk both physically and spiritually.

These are not then a group of people who have been chosen to be elite. They are a group of people who have been chosen to serve even at the price of suffering. He says flat out that they're going to be hated (big surprise there) and that they won't belong. No wonder the listening disciples needed his earlier encouragement, "Take heart! for I have overcome the world."

They are emphatically NOT to cut themselves off from the world; they are to go out into it. Jesus sends them. Their adversaries are characterized NOT as people they should hate and reject, but rather as people who will tend to reject them. In spite of that, they are still sent out--sent out to serve those very people. What was it Bonhoeffer said? "When Christ calls a man he bids him come and die."

Nor does Jesus characterize "the world" as demonic. "The evil one" does refer to Satan, yes, but he is clearly someone different and separate from the world, however he tries to influence it. Here we have two of the traditional trio: the world, the flesh, and the devil. As Jesus sends the disciples out into the world, he asks the Father to protect the disciples against all three--that "sanctify them in your truth" is probably aimed against the temptations of the flesh as well as other sorts.

[ 26. February 2015, 00:58: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
@pimple: I have a hard time seeing that the text itself portrays Jesus as encouraging elitism, although I can understand how it could have been twisted into that by your mentor.

Jesus said elsewhere that he came to serve, and while this text only says so indirectly, I think he was commissioning the disciples to serve with him, which sounds to me like the opposite of elitism.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, LC - the prayer thing. Absolutely. It looks so modern. You can imagine seeing Jesus there - in a film version, saying nothing, but with the prayer as a voice-over
W Hyatt - got it in one, I'd say. But that's one of the problems with the gospels - John's particularly. Nobody reads them with a totally innocent ear, so to speak. Already interpretations in themselves, readers, listeners, and further interpretations can do much harm. That's probably why the RC - and not exclusively them, prefer to control how the bible is propagated, read, and understood.

[ 26. February 2015, 13:29: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm maybe not getting something. Looks modern? Perhaps it's my naivete, but this is how I see it.

You have a bunch of tired, keyed-up, scared guys round a table after a long meal. (I assume all the womenfolk, kids, etc. you'd normally have running in and out during Passover have gone out now--though there may be an odd child or two asleep in a corner) Jesus has already indicated the end of the meal ("Come, let's be going") and their next stop is Gethsemane, a place they've been many times before and which is on their way back to Bethany, where they've been staying (and probably STILL think they'll be returning tonight). I don't know, they may even BE on their way to Gethsemane while the latter part of this discourse is going on, and the prayer in John 17 may take place at Gethsemane. I wonder.)

Jesus, of course, knows that his time is very very short. Judas has already left to betray him, Jesus knows that Judas knows Gethsemane as their meeting spot, so Jesus is anticipating that's probably where everything is going to come crashing down. (At least it won't be at the home of this hospitable family where they've had dinner, nor at Mary, Martha and Lazarus' home. Jesus is nothing if not considerate.)

Knowing this, he seizes the last few minutes he'll ever have with the whole group of disciples to pray for them. He entrusts them to his Father, as urgent and concerned for their welfare as any mother leaving her children home alone. Within an hour or two they will be like sheep without a shepherd, as Jesus goes off alone to suffer and die. And even after the resurrection, it won't be like the old days--they will need to learn to depend on the Holy Spirit, the Comforter, rather than having Jesus visibly and audibly there to lead them. And so you can hear the depth of feeling in this prayer. He loves these people, and he is leaving them. More than that, he is sending them out, ready or not, to become his witnesses, his missionaries, his church in a hostile world. This is graduation day. And they are still so unready.

Jesus prays out loud--well, they did everything out loud in those days, praying was no exception. And so we have these last words before the group gets split up--first with Jesus taking the three closest further to pray, then when he leaves even the three to pray by himself. And then, of course, the arrest and flight.

I'm glad his last words while they were still all together were a prayer for them. And us, too.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Those nasty little prepositions are rearing their heads again in this passage! What is John trying to get across here (and do the English versions help him to do that)?
quote:

“...these things I speak in the world” (ταῦτα λαλῶ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ)

“...because they are not out of the world, just as I am not out of the world” (ὅτι οὐκ εἰσὶν ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου καθὼς ἐγὼ οὐκ εἰμὶ ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου)

“...I am not asking you to take them out of the world...” (οὐκ ἐρωτῶ ἵνα ἄρῃς αὐτοὺς ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου)

“...but that you keep them out of the evil [one]” (ἀλλʼ ἵνα τηρήσῃς αὐτοὺς ἐκ τοῦ πονηροῦ)

“They are not out of the world just as I am not out of to the world” (ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου οὐκ εἰσὶν καθὼς ἐγὼ οὐκ εἰμὶ ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου)

“Just as you sent me into the world, so I sent them into the world” (κἀγὼ ἀπέστειλα αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸν κόσμον)

John is somewhat ambivalent about the concept of “world” in his Gospel; he states it was all created by God (through Jesus), but that it did not recognise him. So when John records Jesus saying that he is speaking 'in' the world, is that significant, or just another way of saying “I'm not dead yet...”?

It feels as though, in a roundabout way, John is trying to draw a distinction between coming into the rebellious creation ('world' in its more negative sense), while not being of, or aligned to, that creation. Jesus and his followers are something of a fifth column, albeit a rather boisterous one, in operation behind enemy lines. They are not citizens of the rebellious state (out of the world, out of the evil [one]), but have to remain in that state, going into it while not being of or out of it.

I'm sure it all works out well in the end.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
So how is a specially selected, close-knit fifth column at work in a society perceived as hostile not some sort of elite task force?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
So how is a specially selected, close-knit fifth column at work in a society perceived as hostile not some sort of elite task force?

Well, first of all, if anybody can join it. See "Christian church" [Biased] . That sort of knocks the "elite" right out of it. Second, when the fifth column (not my choice of words, but whatever!) is acting on behalf of the ordinary citizens and against their oppressors.

I suppose the closest analogue would be the French resistance to the Nazis.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The rest of the prayer:

"...20 I ask not only on behalf of these, but also on behalf of those who will believe in me through their word, 21 that they may all be one. As you, Father are in me and I am in you, may they also be in us [or 'one in us'], so that the world may believe that you have sent me. 22 The glory that you have given me I have given them, so that they may be one, as we are one, 23 I in them and you in me, that they may be completely one, so that the world may know that you have sent me and have loved them even as you have loved me. 24 Father, I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I a to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.

25 Righteous Father, the world does not know you; but I know you, and these know that you have sent me. 26 I made your name known to them, and I will make it known, so that the love with which you have loved me may be in them, and I in them."
[John 17.20-26]

I cannot imagine, LC, why you are so confused about my comment about this prayer sounding modern. I have sat through a number of intercessions just like this in church. Indeed, it was why I left one of them. Private prayers should be private, between the supplicant and God - didn't Jesus say so himself somewhere? And this is a long hike away from
the Paternoster, isn't it. I just don't think it's something h
hoi polloi - of which I'm one - should be eavesdropping on this stuff.

[ 01. March 2015, 00:18: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm confused because I honestly have no idea how prayers of any time would sound different from each other. I mean, isn't it like breathing or making love-- a basic human process that is going to be recognizably the same through all generations? Augustine's prayers are similar, and Moses', and my own-- the differences I see from my own seem to stem from the pray-er being either clearly more holy or more of a natural poet or both, but other than those differences, I got nothing. I mean, my first thought was that you expected Elizabethan English or something, but I quickly put that aside as too silly. So yes, I really don't know what you mean by modern.

As for personal-- it's certainly heartfelt, but I don't see it as inappropriate, especially given the events just unfolding. I guess I 'm wondering-- why the hostility?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Baggage again, probably. The Jesus of John is so unlike the Jesus I grew up to love. And that's part of why I'm hanging out here. To deal with John properly I have to read it it and read it all and not give up.

One good way of doing that is to write it out and this is a convenient place to do it. I started out with the very condescending attitude that of all those good Christians who claim to love the gospel of John, I doubt if many of them have read the whole thing (crediting them with my own impatience, perhaps). And it seemed to me that a
clever way of testing whether they did really love it - all of it - would be to keep he thread going and see just how many of them can stomach it. Where are the hoards of loving Christians ("love" appears more in John's gospel than in any other) eager to share their delight in it? Are they not significant by their absence? Or have I frightened them all away? Perhaps they think scepticism is dangerous - something they might catch from someone unsound in the faith? All I'm hostile to, LC, is the smug, self-satisfied attitude of those who want to regard ten scattered verses of a gospel or two as slam-dunk evidence for the justification of their narrow perspectives.

I'm not really that nasty. I get carried away...
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
No. It's more like this. If this were a film, a silent Jesus with (his) prayer as a voice-over would be very moving - and possibly, no probably very effective evangelizing. But you're right in objecting to my description of the scene as modern because this isn't a film script.

Some things, some very personal things - such as the treatment of Jesus by the soldiers before his execution - are best left inexplicit. The gospels largely recognize tis, I think.

So help me out with this. Why is it when reading Chapter 17 of John's gospel I see in my mind's eye not Jesus praying to the Father, but John and some of my former friends praying to the gallery - like the Pharisees Jesus was so scornful about?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
No. It's more like this. If this were a film, a silent Jesus with (his) prayer as a voice-over would be very moving - and possibly, no probably very effective evangelizing. But you're right in objecting to my description of the scene as modern because this isn't a film script.

Some things, some very personal things - such as the treatment of Jesus by the soldiers before his execution - are best left inexplicit. The gospels largely recognize tis, I think.

So help me out with this. Why is it when reading Chapter 17 of John's gospel I see in my mind's eye not Jesus praying to the Father, but John and some of my former friends praying to the gallery - like the Pharisees Jesus was so scornful about?

Okay, let me start here. (We're really having difficulty connecting, maybe this will do the trick.)

Where you apparently see someone praying to the gallery, this is what I see.

I see a man who knows he's about to die. A man with human passions and fears and loves, a man who is in no way enjoying the thought of what comes next, however necessary it may be. He is about to go through the hardest and most painful experience of his life, and in fact it has already started, with the betrayal of a close friend he loves and has spent the last three four years living with. (Think about that one for a moment. Jesus chose this guy to be with him, and Jesus is not a coldblooded man in any way, as we can see from his weeping, his welcome to the children, his compassion on the crowds, his heart overflowing for the mother of the dead man at Nain---etc. etc. etc. Now Judas. Jesus loved him, he trusted him, he gave him a responsible position in the group--which has also been betrayed. Have you ever had this happen to you? I have, and it's a hell like no other--to see someone you love deliberately pick up the knife to stab you in the back, not in the heat of the moment, but with premeditated planning. It happened to me. It was planned for months ahead of time. And the ones who did it were people we loved, we had chosen, we hand-selected for positions of leadership, we had dreams about handing over the future of our work to. So.

Emotionally, Jesus has to be reeling from this. (And no, knowing it's coming doesn't help much. We had a certain amount of advance notice too before the knife came down.) He still loves Judas--you don't stop loving someone just because they've betrayed you--if you did, it'd be so much easier, emotionally speaking. And it is carrying THIS most painful raw and bloody wound that Jesus turns to comforting and preparing the remaining disciples, most of whom have no clue what just happened or what's about to happen in the next eight hours.

Jesus talks. Jesus gives them his own body and blood in the Supper, though I doubt they understood much of what was going on at the time. And then he does the only thing left to him--the last act of any believing, loving, about-to-die human being--which is to entrust his family--yes, his family--to God's care. Since he won't be around to do this personally anymore! (Yes, it's hubris. deal with it. [Biased] )

Now I'm wondering--have you ever been present for THAT sort of prayer? The prayer of a family around a deathbed. The prayer of an immigrant leaving family behind that he may never see again. The prayer of a missionary about to return home, leaving the people he loves and has had his life entwined with for years and years.

There is no room for playing to the gallery in such a prayer. There IS no gallery present anyway. Just a man (or woman) and the dearly beloved people he/she is leaving behind. Close kin, closer than blood and breath, how can he bear to go and leave them? But he must. Immediately. And so he gathers them for the last best thing he can do--to pray and entrust them into the hands of the God who will watch over both while they are separated.

Most of the prayers I've been in of this sort have involved what is basically a group embrace. People standing in a circle, heads bowed, arms around their neighbors, while the engine of the car or plane warms up. People forming a circle around the head of a hospital bed, touching foreheads or hands or knees through the blanket, hanging on to the last moments together, entrusting the ones they love to the Lord.

I have no idea whether it was like that for Jesus and the eleven. It wouldn't surprise me, really. It's a human pattern repeated in all generations. Such prayers are usually simple in wording (this one is, too) and they are always said out loud, because those gathered are drawing comfort from their union in the Lord. Both the prayers and the prayees find that comfort. Which can only happen if they hear it, of course.

You may say I'm reading a lot into it--that nothing specifically says Jesus was feeling such-and-such an emotion at the time, or was deliberately taking leave of his loved ones in prayer. That's okay. I recognize the genre of this prayer, because I've been there for these prayers, I've prayed them myself with those I love. That's why I think I'm correctly supplying the emotional context for John 17. It's so very very familiar. And the events of Jesus' passion surrounding the prayer only confirm my impressions from the words.

Nobody grandstands or plays to the gallery under those circumstances. About to die, with nobody present but the eleven friends you've been sleeping and eating and bathing with for several years-there's nobody around to impress. They know you, right? They've seen you changing your underwear (well, loincloth or whatever). They know you snore and fart and burp. They've seen you Sunday, yes, and Monday and Tuesday and Friday night as well. It's a waste of time to try to impress them. Particularly when you're about to die and there's nothing to be gained from ego-stroking anyway.

That is why I don't see this as the playing-to-the-gallery crap your old acquaintances apparently pulled on Sunday mornings. That kind of shit only works when a) you expect to be around long-term to take in all the ego-stroking benefits of having people impressed with you ("oooh, what a great church leader!"), and b) nobody ever gets close enough to you (on Monday, Tuesday, Friday night at the club) to discover that you have embarrassing human weaknesses too. Neither of those are the case with Jesus in John 17.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Baggage again, probably. The Jesus of John is so unlike the Jesus I grew up to love. And that's part of why I'm hanging out here. To deal with John properly I have to read it it and read it all and not give up.

One good way of doing that is to write it out and this is a convenient place to do it. I started out with the very condescending attitude that of all those good Christians who claim to love the gospel of John, I doubt if many of them have read the whole thing (crediting them with my own impatience, perhaps). And it seemed to me that a
clever way of testing whether they did really love it - all of it - would be to keep he thread going and see just how many of them can stomach it. Where are the hoards of loving Christians ("love" appears more in John's gospel than in any other) eager to share their delight in it? Are they not significant by their absence? Or have I frightened them all away? Perhaps they think scepticism is dangerous - something they might catch from someone unsound in the faith? All I'm hostile to, LC, is the smug, self-satisfied attitude of those who want to regard ten scattered verses of a gospel or two as slam-dunk evidence for the justification of their narrow perspectives.

I'm not really that nasty. I get carried away...

Well, first let me say that I don't mind the attitude. I may call you on it once in a while, but it doesn't disturb me personally. Better an engaged person with attitude than a half-asleep "whatever you say" deadhead in the pew. You know?

And then I'm a missionary. I LIKE people who are unconverted, half-converted, de-converted, whatever. I don't do well in a Christian fishbowl.

Now as to those who claim to love John. I can't speak for others, duh, but I'm one of them, and I'm here. And I'm here largely because John IS my favorite Gospel, and that particularly because of the love I see in Jesus, both in action and in words, in this Gospel. (I like Luke a lot too, but we're talking about John right now.)

[You know, one reason you may not see much action on this thread may have nothing to do with John at all. It's simply that the thread has been going on since what, 2010? Take a look at the "Torah Nonstop" threads and see how tired out everybody is. It's just human to get that way, no matter how fascinating the subject.]

But back to John.

Here's some of what I see in John that makes me love this Gospel. In no particular order.

There's the wedding at Cana--Jesus attending an ordinary human celebration of the sort that many sages would turn up their noses at, complete with wine and merrymaking and noise. And look how kindly and unobtrusively he steps in to make sure the party continues. (the humor with his mother is a nice touch--she knew she was going to get her way, ha). And nobody even realizes what he's done but the servants, not till way afterward. He lets the bridegroom take the credit. [Big Grin]

Nicodemus coming to Jesus by night--but how kind of Jesus, don't you think? I mean, here's this big important Sanhedrin type who is apparently too scared of his peers to show up at a decent hour to talk to Jesus, so he does this hugger mugger routine that both disturbs Jesus' sleep and is in a certain sense a bit of an insult to him. But Jesus doesn't refuse him. He has a nice little theological discussion with him (ha! shades of the seminary [Big Grin] ) and leaves the man going what? but still greatly impressed. Enough to become a follower later on, and bury Jesus in spite of the dangers attached to that.

Then there's the woman at the well. Jesus is again tired (sort of a theme in the Gospels, isn't it?) but he makes time to talk to this halfbreed social outcast female with a bit of a mouth on her (and think how his Jewish male compatriots would take that! horrors). He treats her with as much respect as he would any respectable Jewish matron, and entrusts her with the secret he's spoken openly to no one else: "I am the Messiah." [and Jesus' behavior, remarkable as it is for a man of his times, is apparently so characteristic of him that his disciples already know better than to ask him why he's talking to her. That's just the way Jesus is, shrug.

Here comes a desperate father. To him Jesus gives the one thing that matters most: "Your son will live." Short and sweet.

Now a man who's been sick for 38 years, lying on a pad hoping for a miracle at the pool of Bethesda. Well, he gets one (and apparently him only of the whole crowd, which is odd). Even more odd, because Jesus goes out of his way to find him later on and warn him to mend his ways lest something worse happen to him. Which sounds very much as if his original problem had been a direct result of some sin, something Jesus never implies with anybody else. Why pick such a man as your sole example of healing that day? Love? Compassion, certainly. And it was repaid as usual--the man goes off like a fool and lets Jesus' enemies have a little more rhetorical ammunition to use against him. Sigh. Not that I think Jesus regretted the healing! But if it had been me, I'd have been very cross.

The chapters of argumentation are interesting, though the emphasis on love is more or less in the background--or rather, that love is expressed through the strongest possible warning to people Jesus regards as being in mortal danger. Enough said. But would you want a wimpy Jesus?

We come to Lazarus and his sisters. However you slice it (and I know your views are nontraditional), here you have a man who cares deeply for this family, who attempts to help in time of need, and who is not ashamed to be seen weeping for them. And they naturally reciprocate--Martha cooks and cleans for Jesus and the group, and Mary does that lovely thing with the perfume over his head--which immediately pulls a discordant note from Judas. [Frown] But Jesus defends Mary, and publicly praises her (yes, another humble woman) in spite of the fact that one of his chosen twelve (and a man!) is making pious noises in her disfavor. That took guts.

Now his actions to Judas. First the warning about his attitude which we see in the episode with Mary. Then, though he certainly became aware of Judas' intentions sometime before the Last Supper, he makes no effort to expose him or, er, to neutralize him. (You know he could have had a word with Simon the Zealot if he'd been so minded.) No, Jesus gives Judas time to change his mind. He gives him another very clear warning at the last supper itself, and honors him with the sop. Judging by who was able to talk sotto voce to whom, it appears Jesus even gave Judas the place of honor right next to him. He washed his feet. None of it mattered. But is this not love?

Then we get the final words of Jesus during the supper, and these are the ones I return to again and again when I'm in deep distress and need to hear the sound of love. He comforts them; he promises them they will not be left alone; He promises to return; his very words place them not as his servants but as his friends, his brothers. And having said all that he can say, with time running out, he uses his last minutes to pray for them. To entrust them to the Father, who will continue to guard them as Jesus can no longer do.

This is love. And this is why I seek out John's gospel--no, Jesus as I see him IN John's gospel--again and again and again.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
Thank you Lamb Chopped - a very moving post and I agree entirely with you. Then John goes off to Patmos, has his community, and alone of the original 12 (we don't know what happened to Matthias) dies a natural death at a ripe old age.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Where are the hoards of loving Christians ("love" appears more in John's gospel than in any other) eager to share their delight in it? Are they not significant by their absence? Or have I frightened them all away? Perhaps they think scepticism is dangerous - something they might catch from someone unsound in the faith?

I'll admit that I'm not much of hoard, but I take great delight in John's gospel - it's pretty much my favorite book of the Bible because it sings to me every time I read it. As for sharing that delight, I'd love to, but posting to do only that would be pretty boring. Your skepticism is by no means dangerous or frightening - you and I just have very different ways of approaching the text and it leaves me with very little that I can contribute.

Reading (and enjoying) without responding is not the same as absence, and I hope you'll continue your efforts to keep the thread going.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I wish people like you would contribute more - it would make for a far more balanced discussion. I go on far too long and far too way out when I'm given my head!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
And thanks from me too, LC, for taking so much time and trouble. We may never agree on some issues but it's good that both of us can say what we think and feel freely. I'm not a Quaker - never have been - but I admire their stance, often practised on these boards, that it is important to accept what people say, without hindrance or interruption, however much you disagree, however much it hurts. Though silence in this sense does not indicate agreement, and understanding is not the same as condoning.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
You see, this is just what worries me. AM I causing you pain in some way? And where did the condoning thing come from--that word is usually used when someone is doing harm. My only intent on this thread is to enjoy John's gospel and to share that pleasure with others. If I discover I'm actively causing harm to somebody, it's time for me to reconsider what I'm doing. Give me a clue, here?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Oh dear no! All I was doing was praising the freedom of "speech" we have on these boards and comparing it with a similarly charitable attitude found at Quaker meetings. You have never hurt me. I share your horror at the thought of hurting others.

I can just about manage fictionalised violence as a means of not living with my head in the sand and helping me to manage threatening situations IRL but deliberate personal attacks on the ship are pretty rare outside of Hell, no?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Not really, I'm afraid. Thus the common hostly admonishments to "take it to Hell."

But I was worrying more about the inadvertent hurt I might be causing you--I don't think either of us has ever deliberately set out to cause pain to the other.

How about this: Since we obviously have some communication gaps going, and that's not likely to change in the near future, if you ever perceive me as having said/done anything personally hurtful to you, say it flat out so I'll know? "LC, that hurt me." Then, if I don't see those words, I'll assume that everything's fine and we're just having rhetorical fun.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
LC, you have never hurt me. Made me think and made me feel - and nothing wrong with either of those - but not hurt me. Like you, I love John's Gospel - full of thought, full of joy and passion, a book to be read and enjoyed.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Thanks. I love that book.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Good. So back we come to it. At a very appropriate time, with Easter not far off. Jesus' betrayal and arrest:
quote:
After Jesus had spoken these words, he went out with his disciples across the Kidron valley to a place where there was a garden, which he and his disciples entered.
[John 18.1]

Visits to the Holy Land are very popular in Europe at this time of year. At least among Christian communities. It's a lot more expensive for Americans of course, but I expect many make it. American or European or Asian or African, is there anyone on the ship who can set the scene for us? I don't just mean a GPS reference. Has anybody seen the Kidron Valley? In former times we were reliant largely upon out imaginations - and John is very good at keying in to this on an emotional level. But for materialists like me (though I do have some imagination)- what's it like?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Google is our friend! Here you will find 10 evocative shots of the Kidron Valley - where in Jewish lore the general resurrection of the dead was expected to start...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Looks very like Southern California, where I grew up. We even had the olive trees!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Now Judas, who betrayed him, also knew the place, Because Jesus often met there with his disciples.
[John 18.2]

Of whom Judas was one. Just sayin'
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
So Judas brought a detachment of soldiers together with police from the chief priests and the Pharisees, and they came there with lanterns and weapons and torches.
[John 18.3]

The details of Jesus' arrest in John's gospel differs in several respects from that in the synoptics. But all are agreed that Judas led the arresting party to the place where Jesus and the apostles were hiding. Presumably Jesus, although he knew his time had come, would have preferred to be arrested in broad daylight But there were still enough people about who would have remonstrated against that, so a night-time arrest was more convenient for the authorities.

In the synoptics Judas seems merely to have been a guide. But here "Judas brought..." almost sounds as though he were in charge of the arresting party. John's inclusion of the torches and weapons heighten the drama.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I'm curious--why do you think he would have wanted to be arrested in daylight?

It seems to me that his chief goal at this point is to make sure the disciples don't suffer along with him--and a quiet night-time arrest with no riots and plenty of shadows to slip away in seems most likely to produce that result.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's an interesting question. I think it might be answered later on in the text. The authorities were scared of a day-time arrest, weren't they - because of the possibility of a pro-Jesus riot. I'm sure I read that somewhere.

As for protecting his followers, that's also ambiguous. The synoptics have Jesus wanting his disciples to stay awake to pray with him, and also giving would-be adherents the uncompromising charge of "anyone who wants to save his life must lose it" and "take up his cross and follow me".

I don't see that as a big problem. Different sayings at different times. Even different sayings sometimes almost in the same breath ("he's asleep/he's dead") And different witnesses, and copyists, God-knows how many different axes to grind, then as now!

[ 08. March 2015, 09:34: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
That's an interesting question. I think it might be answered later on in the text. The authorities were scared of a day-time arrest, weren't they - because of the possibility of a pro-Jesus riot. I'm sure I read that somewhere.

I'm sure you're right about this--there's a verse somewhere when they determined to wait till after the Passover for just the same reason. Not that they did actually end up waiting, but the logic was sound.

quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
As for protecting his followers, that's also ambiguous. The synoptics have Jesus wanting his disciples to stay awake to pray with him, and also giving would-be adherents the uncompromising charge of "anyone who wants to save his life must lose it" and "take up his cross and follow me".

I don't see that as a big problem. Different sayings at different times.

Certainly. And referring to different issues. The "take up your cross" bit refers to a lifelong attitude which may or may not lead to actual physical martyrdom at some point. But as for the week of Jesus' passion, Jesus clearly didn't want his disciples to die right then (see: "If it's me you want, let these people go"). There was a mission to continue and a church to start. Who would be there to do that if the key trained leaders had all bitten the dust at the same time?

So yeah, I think Jesus was intent on protecting the disciples at that point in time. All but one of them would go on to be martyred later in life, so the protection wasn't permanent. But very much needed, given the fact that Pentecost was only fifty days away.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
4 Then Jesus, knowing all that was to happen to him, came forward and asked them, "Whom are you looking for?" 5 They answered, Jesus of Nazareth" [Gk Jesus the Nazorean] Jesus replied, "I am he." [Gk "I am"] Judas, who betrayed him, was standing with them.
The footnotes proliferate here - just the NRSV editors being honest here, I think. They're not adding much, just trying to capture the tone, the atmosphere, as well as the baldly-stated words, (which won't be enough for modern Christians to "get" - or which they might be tempted to embellish (perish the thought!) independently!
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
I'm not sure what you mean by that last sentence, pimple; would you be willing to clarify?

There are two things I find interesting in this passage. One is the repetition of the modifier, "Judas, who betrayed him." The writer wants to be sure we don't forget who did it. The level of enmity towards Judas seems considerable!

But earlier in the sentence, we have Jesus, "knowing all that was going to happen to him." Jesus the Christ, the pre-existent Word, omniscient: John leaves no doubt.

[ 10. March 2015, 01:15: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Mamacita:
I'm not sure what you mean by that last sentence, pimple; would you be willing to clarify?

There are two things I find interesting in this passage. One is the repetition of the modifier, "Judas, who betrayed him." The writer wants to be sure we don't forget who did it. The level of enmity towards Judas seems considerable!

But earlier in the sentence, we have Jesus, "knowing all that was going to happen to him." Jesus the Christ, the pre-existent Word, omniscient: John leaves no doubt.

Yes, I was rather coy, wasn't I? What I meant was (from my lofty intellectual perch, you understand!) that whereas Jesus, as quoted by John, simply keeps repeating "I am" - a highly significant phrase without any embellishment (I am the true vine, the way, I am the way, the truth and the life etc) The NRSV says "I am he" then "I
told you I am he" - all quite unnecessary and actually tending to obscure John's rather laboured theological point!

I nearly mentioned your very point about the repeated reference to Judas as the betrayer -then I remembered there was another Jude who wasn't the betrayer, and the original witness might have been keen to make it quite clear who he was talking about.

[ 10. March 2015, 11:58: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
The point of the footnote about "I am" vs the English rendering "I am he" is that "I am" is the Name of God, YHWH, and under certain circumstances could be taken as a claim to deity. Jesus had already gotten into trouble several times for using that phrase in a context which suggested--heck, way more than suggested, he was claiming to be God. Take a look at John 8:58, for instance--it nearly got him killed. Given the odd behavior that is about to ensue in this Gethsemane story, I think it likely that he was in fact proclaiming his own deity here, as well as simply answering "I'm here."

So his answer can be taken two ways--as the straightforward "I'm the one you're looking for," and as "I am YHWH." But in English we don't say simply "I am" when someone asks for us, we add a word as in "I'm here," or "I'm him/her." Since they couldn't preserve the double meaning through simple translation, they made it as English as they could, but left the other information in a footnote for those interested.

[ 10. March 2015, 13:08: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
6 When Jesus said to them, "I am he", they stepped back and fell to the ground. 7 Again he asked them "Whom are you looking for?" And they said, "Jesus of Nazareth". 8 Jesus answered, "I told you that I am he" [Gk "I am"] So if you are looking for me, let these men go." 9 This was to fulfil the word that he had spoken, "I did not lose a single one of those you gave me."
[John 18. 6-9]

Except, of course - as we have been told several times before - Judas, who doesn't count. That's not a sarcastic snipe, by the way, it's a serious objection to John's avowed insight into the mind of Jesus. We have testimony in this very gospel, as well as in the synoptics, I think, that there were followers who fell away. The obvious answer to this from some Christians would be "Ah well, then, the apostates obviously weren't among those God the Father had given to His Son."

Frankly, it's no more convincing than saying "This motorbike is guaranteed never, ever to break down. If it does, it must be the fault of the rider. And it only broke down once."

[ 10. March 2015, 18:20: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Come on, it's a short quote of a bit he said just a chapter ago, where he went into all sorts of fine persnickety detail about Judas. All this is here, is a reminder tag. If John's readers/hearers are as forgetful as all that, he's in deep trouble.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Of course.
quote:
10 Then Simon Peter, who had a sword, drew it, struck the high priest's slave, and cut off his right ear. The slave's name was Malchus.
This is the sort of fine detail that does make John convincing. We don't know who the Beloved Disciple was (pace those who think they do!) but we have the name of the high priest's slave. (Priest's had slaves? Oh, I guess everybody did).

The stuff about the sword puzzles many people. Why were they armed? Did or did not Jesus authorise it? And why was Peter not arrested on the spot, regardless of the fact that Jesus was the prime target?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Pretty hard to arrest a man when the primary evidence for his attack has vanished. (And whining "but Jesus HEALED him!" would tend to undermine their other case, which is a prosecution for blasphemy. Since when does God give blasphemers divine gifts of healing?) [Two face]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
The stuff about the sword puzzles many people. Why were they armed? Did or did not Jesus authorise it? And why was Peter not arrested on the spot, regardless of the fact that Jesus was the prime target?

That was discussed on this thread. This post helps clarify the matter.
quote:
The context of the time (based on similar settings today) suggests that the carrying of a personal utility bladed device would have been advantageous when it came to preparing food, particularly for a team on the move. I doubt food came pre-prepared much at the time, more likely fish needed filleting, lambs needed beheading, etc. And in remoter areas the threat from wild animals might also motivate the carrying of something by way of protection.
<snip>
I suspect, then, that Simon “The Blade” Peter had about his person the sort of knife / dirk that a fisherman would carry in case he came upon a severe case of a fish that needed a good fillet. When it came to Jesus' arrest, I imagine this would suit better a hand-to-hand grappling type of activity, where the guard laid hands on Jesus and Peter laid hands on him, one thing led to another... If a full-blown sword had been used I'd have thought a severed ear would have been the least of the guard's worry: skewered skull or sliced shoulder blade would have been on the menu as well.

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
Pretty hard to arrest a man when the primary evidence for his attack has vanished. (And whining "but Jesus HEALED him!" would tend to undermine their other case, which is a prosecution for blasphemy. Since when does God give blasphemers divine gifts of healing?) [Two face]

Sorry, LC - I haven't the foggiest idea what you're on about here.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I have a friend who was educated in Ireland. She writes in an almost illegible hand because she still cannot bring herself to use her left hand to write. If she did so at school the nuns would rap her knuckles.

Everybody knew there and then that left-handed people were devils - or inspired by devils.

I feel very strongly about this, because I, too am left-handed.

And so was poor old Peter, if he really did fillet Malchus's right ear. Unless, of course, Malchus was running away from him at the time...
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
You asked why Peter wasn't arrested on the spot. I suggested it was because the possible-arresting-officer looked at the situation, realized it would be damned hard to even charge him without looking like a loon ("but what do you MEAN he cut off Malchus' ear? Malchus still seems to have two of them as far as I can see"), figured Jesus' case was more important, and blew Peter off.

For what it's worth, I'm lefthanded too. Though I don't know why you brought it up here--is there some evidence Peter was lefthanded?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Think about it [Biased] But don't try it at home!

The arguments about a personal utility device are quite ingenious but the same word for the implement is used a couple of time in Matthew's gospel, once in Matthew 10 (forgotten the verse) where Jesus says he has not come to bring peace but a sword. Doesn't sound quite as effective if you substitute "filleting knife" here - nor in Matthew's version of the arrest, where Jesus stops the violence with the assertion that "he who lives by the sword will die by the sword.

"He who lives by the personal utility device..."

Nah, I don't think so.

But the other explanation given a few posts above is far more sensible. When Jesus said he came to bring not peace, but a sword, he was obviously talking metaphorically. But it would be quite in character for some of the disciples to take him literally, and certainly in character for Peter to think that what Jesus can do, he can do. No, Peter, whatever, or whoever Jesus may be Peter, you certainly aint God!
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
If it's his aim you mean, I don't think you can deduce anything from that unless you know who he was intending to whack, and just where. Could easily have been the guy next to Malchus. Peter's a fisherman, not a swordsman.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Jesus said to Peter, "Put your sword back into its sheath. Am I not to drink the cup that the Father has given me?"
[John 18.11]

Equates to the synoptic "Not my will but Thine be done" - an impossible thing even to imagine in John's Christology, because the will of the Son and the will of the Father are indistinguishable.

The Son still prays to the Father, of course, but not here. I wonder, did John's readership equate fear with cowardice? Worse, might they have confused bravado with courage? More likely, they were just in need of buoying up, and John does seem to do that very well for some people.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
So the soldiers, their officer, and the Jewish police arrested Jesus and bound him. First they took him to Annas, who was the father-in-law of Caiaphas, the high priest that year. Caiaphas was the one who had advised the Jews that it was better to have one person die for the people.

[John 18.12-14]

Reading this and the synoptic accounts, I'm beginning to wonder whether it really was the disciples who fled, or the crowds - the mob, apart from the authorised arresting party. That might be why John says they all fell back. Only Matthew says it was he disciples who ran away. Mark seems to imply it, perhaps - because of the guy in the loin-cloth. But Luke doesn't have anybody running away - unless it's somewhere else and I've missed it.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I wouldn't expect any crowds in the garden late at night after a festival. Normal folks would be at home sleeping it off--or possibly camped ditto.

I took the "they all went back and fell to the ground" to be a response, natural or supernaturally inspired, to Jesus' use of the Divine Name "I am". And the point of having it happen at all would be to make it clear that at this crisis moment Jesus was in command, as ever, of his own destiny. "No one takes my life from me... I lay it down of my own accord." If his mere word has enough power to provoke this kind of response, there can be no doubt that he went willingly to his death. Who could compel him?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, I think that's almost certainly John's point.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Simon Peter and another disciple followed Jesus. Since that disciple was known to the high priest, he went with Jesus into the courtyard of the high priest.
[John 18.15]

There's a lot more going on here than the synoptics mention. All three claim that Peter followed "at a distance" - but right into the courtyard. There is no mention of another disciple. But here there is no mention of Peter's understandable caution. And he only gets into the courtyard, we find in a moment, on the say-so of the other, unnamed, disciple.

So who was he? We know of three disciples who had dealings with the Jewish authorities - Nicodemus,
Joseph of Arimathea, and Judas Iscariot. It could have been any one of them. But the most likely candidate is one I haven't yet mentioned - though I might have named him unwittingly - the disciple "whom Jesus loved". Who, in his few appearances at the end of John's gospel, is more often than not in the company of Peter.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I take the usual view, that it is John speaking of himself. And I suspect that John is known to the high priest (or more likely, the high priest's household) because of the family business--it appears the Zebedee family was in the fish business in a big way (see John and James' call when they leave Dad with the servants--apparently losing both sons was not a fatal blow to the family business!). All we really need to account for is how the guy got past the doorkeeper, since the high priest himself is otherwise occupied--and if there are longtime business connections, that's easily explained.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
It's not Judas, who has absconded at that point. I doubt it's Joseph of Arimathea. We don't see him until verse 19:38, where he's described as "who was a disciple of Jesus, though a secret one because of his fear of the Jews," in other words, unlikely to be stepping up at this point in the narrative. I tend to agree with Lamb Chopped.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think Judas is probably not a favourite here, but how do we know exactly when he absconded? The chronology of events in both the old and new testaments does shift around a bit.

The idea that it's John talking about himself seems strange to me (that's as polite as I can get about it). There is considerable disagreement among respected theologians concerning the authorship of the fourth gospel and the identity of the "beloved disciple".

My own (conjectural) take is that it must have been the beloved disciple who let Peter in; that the fact is not mentioned in the synoptic gospels because the material given to the final redactor of the fourth gospel regarding the beloved disciple was not available to the synoptic writers; and that he is not mentioned by name here because "John" simply didn't know who he was, any more than I do. But there's always a possibility of further evidence coming to light on that score.

[ 19. March 2015, 21:42: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Mamacita. With regard to Joseph of Arimathea. I know you can't be implying that he didn't actually exist before verse 19.38, but what exactly are you implying? That he wasn't brave enough? I mean, just about everybody - including Peter - was scared out of his wits around this time. You have a point though - if it was J. of A. why not name him? So the beloved disciple is still the most likely candidate, I think.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
This prayer of chapter 17 is foreign sounding to many Western ears. Apart from the concepts that John repeats (e.g., “I in them and you in me” which gets too close for me to ignore to “I am he as you are he as you are me and we are all together...I am the Walrus...”), there is the feeling that we are eavesdropping on what should be a private prayer. Still, this is 'other' literature, so I'm going with the flow. Perhaps prayer was the routine of a day – the worry beads.

There is an interesting bit about Judas in 18:2-6 – the logical flow in the text:

[1] Judas secures an official team from the Jewish authorities
[2] Jesus comes out to meet them and confirms his identity - “I Am”
[3] Judas the betrayer is standing there with them
[4] So they fall back.

How does [4] follow on from [3]? In what way does Judas' being there with the arresting team relate to the retreat when Jesus says “I Am”?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Nigel, I think it's a parenthetical remark. (Being remarkably prone to parentheses myself (particularly onboard the Ship (as you've no doubt noticed)), I suspect John wanted to throw in that fact (but was handicapped by the lack of punctuation in the Greek of that time) and simply decided to go for it anyway (as you do).)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
This prayer of chapter 17 is foreign sounding to many Western ears. Apart from the concepts that John repeats (e.g., “I in them and you in me” which gets too close for me to ignore to “I am he as you are he as you are me and we are all together...I am the Walrus...”), there is the feeling that we are eavesdropping on what should be a private prayer. Still, this is 'other' literature, so I'm going with the flow. Perhaps prayer was the routine of a day – the worry beads.

There is an interesting bit about Judas in 18:2-6 – the logical flow in the text:

[1] Judas secures an official team from the Jewish authorities
[2] Jesus comes out to meet them and confirms his identity - “I Am”
[3] Judas the betrayer is standing there with them
[4] So they fall back.

How does [4] follow on from [3]? In what way does Judas' being there with the arresting team relate to the retreat when Jesus says “I Am”?

I think the inference is that Judas falls back with them, rather than the mob alone falling back and leaving Jesus and Judas face to face. It's a clumsy theological point IMV, making it clear - as if John hadn't done so enough already, that Judas separates
himself from Jesus, thus validating Jesus' claim that he didn't lose a single one of the ones God had given him. Doesn't like to leave any stone unturned, does he - John, I mean.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I think that's really stretching it, sorry.

There's a very practical reason for Judas to be there. It's not all that easy to identify one out of twelve guys in the dark in an olive orchard under the trees, no matter how famous the man may be. You want to bring someone who can guarantee you've got the right man.

For that matter, I'm sure the high priests etc. wanted Judas to visibly "finish the job"--no sneaking off to Tarshish or wherever with the money while the soldiers get sent on what just MIGHT turn out to be a wild goose chase after all. After all, they ARE trusting the word of a traitor as to where Jesus is. And what if he's turned his coat twice? Best to verify.

[ 21. March 2015, 00:21: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
On the parentheses thing in 18:5, I suspect John is doing something more than popping in some background material here. He has already mentioned Judas as the betrayer in 18:2 (and the NET Version puts that in brackets as well). So we have:-

18:2 (Now Judas, the one betraying him, knew the place too, because Jesus had met there many times with his disciples) [= Ἤιδει δὲ καὶ Ἰούδας ὁ παραδιδοὺς αὐτὸν τὸν τόπον, ὅτι πολλάκις συνήχθη Ἰησοῦς ἐκεῖ μετὰ τῶν μαθητῶν αὐτοῦ]
18:5 (Now Judas, the one betraying him, was standing there with them) [= εἱστήκει δὲ καὶ Ἰούδας ὁ παραδιδοὺς αὐτὸν μετʼ αὐτῶν]

I did a couple of analyses around how English translators approached the parentheses point in English Versions and then what Greek connectives are used by John at points where parentheses are used in the Versions. The results are below, but to short cut what could be tedious reading, the conclusion is inconclusive. It comes down to a judgement call, with little technical assistance.

The Greek construction in 18:2 and 18:5 is very similar. I think this indicates John was making a point. Judas is very active in this episode; he knows the place, he collects the soldiers, he stood with them. This is no worried person who guides the police from a distant car with a brown bag over his head and who after the event disappears into the witness protection programme. I sense that the arresting party were probably not convinced that Judas was on the right track at that time of night and it took determination on Judas' part to get them there. He couldn't simply point them in the right direction, he had to be there with them, urging them on, as it were. So when Jesus confronted them all and confirmed his identity, the surprise was that things had worked out so easily.


[1] English Versions
Some English versions agree that John makes frequent use of parentheses as a tool to separate out background from foreground material. I did a quick pot shot at 8:5 to see which versions bracket the sentence “Now Judas the betrayer was standing there with them” and came up with the following: CEB, Easy-to-Read Version, Lexham English Bible, New Century Version, NIV, NET.

I'm not surprised that the KJV and its derivatives (including ASV and ESV) doesn't add parentheses, given one of its objectives being to deal with the text, the whole text, and nothing but the text. Use of parentheses seems to be a more modern thing. There are a few exceptions to that rule: Amplified Bible, Complete Jewish Bible, CEV (which takes the liberty of dropping that sentence entirely from its translation work, as does the Living Bible, the cowards!), Darby, Good News, Jubilee Bible, Modern English Version, The Voice, World English Bible.

The Message takes an interesting route. No parentheses, but “Judas, his betrayer, stood out like a sore thumb.” I guess that's an interpretation that takes John's use of language to be an emphasis on Judas as last man still standing.

So a mixed bag, really.

[2] Greek connectives
I thought it might be useful to see what connecting words John uses in his work at points where use of parentheses might be taken as read. I took the NET Version as the basis, seeing as it is not shy in asserting “This is a parenthetical note by the author”, and came up with the list below. I stopped when I reached chapter 11 because I think the point was made well enough by then.

1:24 (Now they had been sent from the Pharisees) [= Καὶ ἀπεσταλμένοι ἦσαν ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων]
1:38 (which is translated Teacher) [= ὃ ⸂λέγεται μεθερμηνευόμενον⸃ διδάσκαλε]
1:41 (which is translated Christ) [= ὅ ἐστιν μεθερμηνευόμενον χριστός]
1:42 (which is translated Peter) [= ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος]
1:44 (Now Philip was from Bethsaida, the town of Andrew and Peter) [= ἦν δὲ ὁ Φίλιππος ἀπὸ Βηθσαϊδά, ἐκ τῆς πόλεως Ἀνδρέου καὶ Πέτρου]
2:9 (though the servants who had drawn the water knew) [= οἱ δὲ διάκονοι ᾔδεισαν οἱ ἠντληκότες τὸ ὕδωρ]
3:24 (For John had not yet been thrown into prison) [= οὔπω γὰρ ἦν βεβλημένος εἰς τὴν φυλακὴν ὁ Ἰωάννης]
4:2 (although Jesus himself was not baptizing, but his disciples were) [= καίτοιγε Ἰησοῦς αὐτὸς οὐκ ἐβάπτιζεν ἀλλʼ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ]
4:8 (For his disciples had gone off into the town to buy supplies) [= οἱ γὰρ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ ἀπεληλύθεισαν εἰς τὴν πόλιν ἵνα τροφὰς ἀγοράσωσιν]
4:9 (For Jews use nothing in common with Samaritans) [= οὐ γὰρ συγχρῶνται Ἰουδαῖοι Σαμαρίταις]
4:25 (the one called Christ) [= ὁ λεγόμενος χριστός]
4:44 (For Jesus himself had testified that a prophet has no honor in his own country) [= αὐτὸς γὰρ Ἰησοῦς ἐμαρτύρησεν ὅτι προφήτης ἐν τῇ ἰδίᾳ πατρίδι τιμὴν οὐκ ἔχει]
4:45 (for they themselves had gone to the feast) [= καὶ αὐτοὶ γὰρ ἦλθον εἰς τὴν ἑορτήν]
5:9 (Now that day was a Sabbath) [= Ἦν δὲ σάββατον ἐν ἐκείνῃ τῇ ἡμέρᾳ]
5:45 (I do not accept human testimony, but I say this so that you may be saved) [= ἐγὼ δὲ οὐ παρὰ ἀνθρώπου τὴν μαρτυρίαν λαμβάνω, ἀλλὰ ταῦτα λέγω ἵνα ὑμεῖς σωθῆτε]
6:1 (also called the Sea of Tiberias) [= τῆς Τιβεριάδος]
6:4 (Now the Jewish feast of the Passover was near) [= ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων]
6:6 (Now Jesus said this to test him, for he knew what he was going to do) [= τοῦτο δὲ ἔλεγεν πειράζων αὐτόν· αὐτὸς γὰρ ᾔδει τί ἔμελλεν ποιεῖν]
6:10 (Now there was a lot of grass in that place) [= ἦν δὲ χόρτος πολὺς ἐν τῷ τόπῳ]
6:17 (It had already become dark, and Jesus had not yet come to them) [= καὶ σκοτία ἤδη ἐγεγόνει καὶ οὔπω ἐληλύθει πρὸς αὐτοὺς ὁ Ἰησοῦς]
6:46 (Not that anyone has seen the Father except the one who is from God—he has seen the Father) [= οὐχ ὅτι τὸν πατέρα ἑώρακέν τις εἰ μὴ ὁ ὢν παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ, οὗτος ἑώρακεν τὸν πατέρα]
6:64 (For Jesus had already known from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him) [= ᾔδει γὰρ ἐξ ἀρχῆς ὁ Ἰησοῦς τίνες εἰσὶν οἱ μὴ πιστεύοντες καὶ τίς ἐστιν ὁ παραδώσων αὐτόν]
6:71 (Now he said this about Judas son of Simon Iscariot, for Judas, one of the twelve, was going to betray him) [= ἔλεγεν δὲ τὸν Ἰούδαν Σίμωνος Ἰσκαριώτου· οὗτος γὰρ ἔμελλεν παραδιδόναι αὐτόν, εἷς ἐκ τῶν δώδεκα]
7:5 (For not even his own brothers believed in him) [= οὐδὲ γὰρ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ αὐτοῦ ἐπίστευον εἰς αὐτόν]
7:22 (not that it came from Moses, but from the forefathers) [= οὐχ ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ Μωϋσέως ἐστὶν ἀλλʼ ἐκ τῶν πατέρων]
7:39 (Now he said this about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were going to receive, for the Spirit had not yet been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified) [= τοῦτο δὲ εἶπεν περὶ τοῦ πνεύματος ὃ ⸂ἔμελλον λαμβάνειν οἱ πιστεύσαντες εἰς αὐτόν· οὔπω γὰρ ἦν πνεῦμα, ὅτι Ἰησοῦς οὐδέπω ἐδοξάσθη]
8:6 (Now they were asking this in an attempt to trap him, so that they could bring charges against him) [= τοῦτο δὲ ἔλεγον πειράζοντες αὐτόν, ἵνα ἔχωσιν ⸂κατηγορεῖν αὐτοῦ]
8:20 (Jesus spoke these words near the offering box while he was teaching in the temple courts. No one seized him because his time had not yet come) [= Ταῦτα τὰ ῥήματα ἐλάλησεν ἐν τῷ γαζοφυλακίῳ διδάσκων ἐν τῷ ἱερῷ· καὶ οὐδεὶς ἐπίασεν αὐτόν, ὅτι οὔπω ἐληλύθει ἡ ὥρα αὐτοῦ]
8:27 (They did not understand that he was telling them about his Father) [= οὐκ ἔγνωσαν ὅτι τὸν πατέρα αὐτοῖς ἔλεγεν]
9:7 (which is translated “sent”) [= ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται ἀπεσταλμένος]
9:14 (Now the day on which Jesus made the mud and caused him to see was a Sabbath) [= ἦν δὲ σάββατον ἐν ᾗ ἡμέρᾳ τὸν πηλὸν ἐποίησεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς καὶ ἀνέῳξεν αὐτοῦ τοὺς ὀφθαλμούς]
9:22f (His parents said these things because they were afraid of the Jewish religious leaders. For the Jewish leaders had already agreed that anyone who confessed Jesus to be the Christ would be put out of the synagogue. For this reason his parents said, “He is a mature adult, ask him”) [= ταῦτα εἶπαν οἱ γονεῖς αὐτοῦ ὅτι ἐφοβοῦντο τοὺς Ἰουδαίους· ἤδη γὰρ συνετέθειντο οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι ἵνα ἐάν τις αὐτὸν ὁμολογήσῃ χριστόν, ἀποσυνάγωγος γένηται. διὰ τοῦτο οἱ γονεῖς αὐτοῦ εἶπαν ὅτι ἡλικίαν ἔχει, αὐτὸν ἐπερωτήσατε]

So another mixed bag. It seems that the NET translators at least were not guided by John's use of connective words to signpost parenthetical material, but rather by feeling. They probably asked themselves: Does this sentence feel more like foregrounded material, or is it background that supports a better understanding of the foreground?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
I think that's really stretching it, sorry.

There's a very practical reason for Judas to be there. It's not all that easy to identify one out of twelve guys in the dark in an olive orchard under the trees, no matter how famous the man may be. You want to bring someone who can guarantee you've got the right man.

For that matter, I'm sure the high priests etc. wanted Judas to visibly "finish the job"--no sneaking off to Tarshish or wherever with the money while the soldiers get sent on what just MIGHT turn out to be a wild goose chase after all. After all, they ARE trusting the word of a traitor as to where Jesus is. And what if he's turned his coat twice? Best to verify.

Not sure who's post your are answering, LC - or how.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Nigel. Wow! Thank you - that was a labour of love. Certainly a good idea to stop at Chapter 11 - you don't want to set me off again (for that matter, 1 don't want you to set me off again ) [Big Grin]

Now we are getting into serious Beloved Disciple territory, I must try not to get planked for crusading. Nor wind up LC with her widely-held views about the BD. I mean wind her up with my NOT very widely held views. I doubt there can be many who would even consider the possibility that the disciple whom Jesus loved might have been the disciple whom Peter hated. That's not a valid tangent here or even another thread. It's got to be a book, and I doubt I have the wit or the energy or the time to write it.

[ 21. March 2015, 23:38: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
16 but Peter was standing outside at the gate. So the other disciple, who was known to the high priest, went, spoke to the woman who guarded the gate, and brought Peter in.
[John 18.16]

Another Johannine detail, not found elsewhere, AFAIR. A female bouncer, no less!
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Mamacita. With regard to Joseph of Arimathea. I know you can't be implying that he didn't actually exist before verse 19.38, but what exactly are you implying? That he wasn't brave enough? I mean, just about everybody - including Peter - was scared out of his wits around this time. You have a point though - if it was J. of A. why not name him? So the beloved disciple is still the most likely candidate, I think.

Sorry to be replying late, pimple. All I was intending to convey is that J of A had not at that point been mentioned anywhere in Jesus' story, so I find it unlikely that he was the unnamed disciple in this episode. (J of A does not appear until after the crucifixion in John or the Synoptics.) I'll hold off on discussing the rest of it until we get to 19:38.

[ 26. March 2015, 17:20: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Perfectly reasonable point, Mamacita.

With reference to the latest verse, the reference to the woman as "guarding" the door, does seem rather an idiosyncratic rendition; the old RSV interlinear calls her a maidservant, a doorkeeper - more concierge than bouncer.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
quote:
Simon Peter and another disciple followed Jesus. Since that disciple was known to the high priest, he went with Jesus into the courtyard of the high priest.
[John 18.15]

So who was he?

That other disciple: There was an intriguing theory (referred to in the notes of the NET Version) that this unidentified disciple was actually Judas (yes, him of the betraying trend), on the basis that he had dealings with the High Priest and that it was unlikely for Galilean fishermen to be known to the High Priest. It's a thought.
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:

Another Johannine detail, not found elsewhere, AFAIR. A female bouncer, no less!

Until you pointed it out the significance had passed me by. After all, I mean, where will it all end? Women Chief Priests? Universal Suffrage???

To try and block images of female Ninjas appropriately clad, or Amazon warriors less appropriately clad, zealously guarding the entrance in the manner of the angel at Eden, or a receptionist at the GP clinic, I took a look at the Greek verbage. The lady is described as a doorkeeper and in the following verse she is described using a term that probably means she was a slave girl. Not sure whether that term or the term 'servant' works better.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
(Clutches head) for gosh sakes, people. This is the high priest's residence and therefore a quasi-governmental building. They could have put ANYBODY on the gate, no muscle needed. If there was any trouble, it would have been a case of calling across the courtyard, "yo! Soldiers! A little help, please?"
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
17 The woman said to Peter, "You are not also one of this man's disciples, are you?" He said, "I am not." 18 Now the slaves and the police had made a charcoal fire because it was cold, and they were standing around it warming themselves. Peter also was standing with them and warming himself.
[John 18.17-18]

Whereat John cuts to another scene. Everybody knows what's going to happen, of course, but the jump/cut racks up the tension. Give John the Golden Dagger award!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
There's a bit of confusion in this chapter around Annas and the High Priest (identified earlier in John and the other Gospels as Caiaphas). We're in the high priest's courtyard, which, as LC noted, is probably the official residence in Jerusalem, part of the authority estate. Annas is the initial investigator and he seems to be the power behind the throne, having been a High Priest himself a few years earlier and keeping the role in the family. Who's who gets a bit tricky in the next verses. But that's for another day.

John seems to be a man of the people, doesn't he? He takes time to give a bit of detail about folk in all positions of society, as he does with assorted inanimate objects. Helps with the imagination; here we are several years down the line and yet we can almost walk through the same doors, sniff the same odours, warm hands at the same fire, cut the tension with the same filleting knife Peter had to hand...

And that servant doorkeeper – she's a bit of cheeky civil servant, isn't she?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The confusion over the high priests could simply be an indication of an editorial slip-up or a copier's error. This all we have - copies of copies, and unless you believe John had his words dictated to him in the manner of Muhammed, we shouldn't be too fazed by minor inconsistencies.

quote:
19 Then the high priest questioned Jesus about his disciples and about his teaching.
[John 18.19]

If only we knew what those questions were, precisely! Jesus' responses might then less difficult for someone like me. The default attitude in John is that nobody - priest or common man, has the right to question Jesus about anything, and anybody who does must do so from evil intent. Transferred paranoia. perhaps.

But I'll go with the flow for now and simply accept that if Jesus is God, normal rules don't apply. An innocent man may respond to his accusers in many different ways, from total silence. to outrage, to "I don't accept the jurisdiction of this court" - all of which can be (mis)interpreted as evidence of guilt. When you're in a situation which you can't win, who's to judge the victim? And in his shoes, who wouldn't trade insults with the oppressor?

quote:
20 Jesus answered, "I have spoken openly to the world; I have always taught in synagogues and in the temple [[Not true, actually - unless the synoptic writers were lying], where all Jews come together. I have said nothing in secret. 21 Why do you ask me? Ask those who heard what I said to them; they know what I said."
Today is Palm Sunday? What happened to this event in John's narrative? I've had it explained to me some time ago, but I can't remember the reason.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I don't understand. You think Jesus should have traded insults with the high priest?

As for the confusion over high priests, that's easily explained. The office was supposed to be lifelong, but in Roman times it became a political football, a reward tossed from man to man for staying in the good graces of Rome. And also, likely, to keep them dependent on Roman power and insure nobody had sufficient time to "grow into the office" and become a natural focus point for rebellion. I've read (rightly or wrongly) that one way this was insured was by keeping the high priestly regalia (needed for the day of atonement) locked up under Roman control, and handing it back only when required. Certainly having a Roman fortress snugged up to the temple itself would have a dampening effect on any rebellious ideas a high priest might get.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
John makes the point that Caiaphas was High Priest “for that year”, which might reflect the time constrained element imposed from outside. Annas used to be High Priest and was apparently forced to give up that post by the Roman administrators when they took over direct control of Palestine / Israel. The Gospel writers probably reflect the confusion that remained as Annas retained the people's respect and a significant behind-the-scenes control over policy and operations. Luke especially refers to Annas and Caiaphas as both being High Priests. This approach is not unknown in subservient cultures – one can fulfil the rules of empire while still keeping the 'real' power going behind the scenes.

Even so, John records Caiaphas as being responsible for the “better one dies for the people” policy, whether or not Annas may have been the man behind the mouth.

In the back of my mind has been the interesting section by John back in chapter 1:19-26...
quote:
NET Version
Now this was John’s testimony when the Jewish leaders sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, “Who are you?” He confessed—he did not deny but confessed—“I am not the Christ!” So they asked him, “Then who are you? Are you Elijah?” He said, “I am not!” “Are you the Prophet?” He answered, “No!” Then they said to him, “Who are you? Tell us so that we can give an answer to those who sent us. What do you say about yourself?”

John said, “I am the voice of one shouting in the wilderness, ‘Make straight the way for the Lord,’ as Isaiah the prophet said.” (Now they had been sent from the Pharisees.) So they asked John, “Why then are you baptizing if you are not the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?”

John answered them, “I baptize with water. Among you stands one whom you do not recognize, who is coming after me...

I think the line of questioning used here against John the Baptist may well be similar to that used against Jesus at this trial. “Who are you?”

Equally interesting is the suggestion that Jesus may well have been among this crew from Jerusalem that came down to see John the Baptist. They question him, he responds directly to them and says “Among you stands one...” I tend to think that Jesus did grow up with time in the Temple, not just for the ritual and feasts, but for training. He did hit the ground with his feet running when his mission started; he knew the Scriptures and was good at interpretation, and he knew the approach the authorities would take when he was questioned during that mission. So now at this trial I think he would have understood what was going on and his responses were planned, designed to deflect the attack. It's as though he was forcing his interrogators out of any chance of a compromise.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's how it seems to me - though deflecting the attack and forcing a direct confrontation sounds contradictory - I probably misunderstood the exact nature of your point. But it all sounds like a very reasonable conjecture - given that, with only one side of the conversation at our disposal, conjecture is what it must remain.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
And a third point of view--it seems to me that most of what Jesus is doing before Caiaphas / Annas is standing on his rights only insofar as any ordinary innocent man might do in the same situation. Thus he refuses to testify about his activities because this will let them off having to bring in witnesses; he refuses to speak to what the witnesses disagree on, because again, this will let them off finding two or three AGREEING witnesses. He will not lift a finger to enable their kangaroo court proceeding; but neither will he appeal to his divine nature, rights or powers to avoid it. He's hewing to the exact letter of the law. And what's amazing is how far it gets him--the high priest has to finally charge him in God's name to speak (which I understand was illegal) in order to get any rule-able evidence at all. How infuriating it must have been for them all.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
22 When he had said this, one of the police standing nearby struck Jesus on the face, saying, "Is that how you answer the high priest?" 23 Jesus answered, "If I have spoken wrongly, testify to the wrong. But if I have spoken rightly, why do you strike me?" 24 Then Annas sent him bound to Caiaphas the high priest.
[John 18.22-24]

Meanwhile, back outside by the brazier...

quote:
25 Now Simon Peter was standing and warming himself. They asked him, "You are not also one of his disciples, are you?" He denied it and said, "I am not." 26 One of the slaves of the high priest, a relative of the man whose ear Peter had cut off, asked, "Did I not see you in the garden with him?" 27 Again Peter denied it, and at that moment the cock crowed.
After which we expect some reaction from Peter, but John switches immediately to Jesus' continued interrogation. And there is something missing here, surely? Annas has sent Jesus bound to Caiaphas, but what happens between Caiaphas and Jesus?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
I assume more of the same, which is why John doesn't bother to record it.

This is all my mental image and probable total hooey, but the way I visualize this scene has Jesus showing up at the house of the high priest. Annas is present but Caiaphas is delayed for some reason or another (on the pot? who knows?) and Annas, though not OFFICIALLY the high priest at that moment, can't resist sticking his oar into his son-in-law's business, just for a bit, especially since he still holds much of the power and honor of the position, and nobody's going to stop him...

so he gets on with interrogating Jesus (in a very slovenly, shockingly unlawful manner) and manages to bollix things up pretty thoroughly before Caiaphas arrives on the scene, with the properly bribed witnesses to make it all look legal, and probably pretty pissed off to find Dad's been meddling ... [Killing me] And of course he can't say anything, because they have to stick together.

But of course, I could be entirely wrong.
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nigel M:
John makes the point that Caiaphas was High Priest “for that year”, which might reflect the time constrained element imposed from outside.

I might be wrong, but I thought that Caiaphas was High Priest for some years. As has already been pointed out upthread, the Romans made this position a political football, hence the fact that whilst being High Priest should have been "for life", there were a number of ex-High Priests knocking around at the time.

My understanding is that Caiaphas seems to have been successful in keeping the Romans pleased, and hence remained in his position for some time.
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Meanwhile, back outside by the brazier...

quote:
25 Now Simon Peter was standing and warming himself. They asked him, "You are not also one of his disciples, are you?" He denied it and said, "I am not." 26 One of the slaves of the high priest, a relative of the man whose ear Peter had cut off, asked, "Did I not see you in the garden with him?" 27 Again Peter denied it, and at that moment the cock crowed.

I find it interesting how the scene with Peter changes subtly from one gospel to another.

In Mark, Peter is the courtyard, sitting with the guards beside the fire. The servant girl twice accuses him of being a follower of Jesus. Finally, it is pointed out that he is a Galilean. Peter curses and denies knowing Jesus. The cock crows a second time, and Peter breaks down and weeps.

In Matthew, Peter is again in the courtyard (though there is no mention of a fire). This time, two different servant girls accuse him of being a follower of Jesus. Finally, it is pointed out that it is his accent which has betrayed him. The cock crows (only once), Peter leaves, weeping bitterly.

In Luke, it is very similar to Matthew, although there are elements of Mark (the fire is there and the explicit mention of his accent is missing).

In John, we have Peter being brought in by the other disciple (that's new). Again we have the first two questions, fairly similar to the other gospels. But then the final accusation is based not on his Galilean accent, but that he was seen in the garden of Gethsemane. More over, the one accusing him is a relative of the man whose ear he has cut off (again - only John makes this point).

What may also be interesting is that John doesn't mention anything about Peter being distraught when the cock crows. Again, perhaps he presumes that the readers will already know this. He also doesn't mention the bit about Peter curses and making oaths. All in all, it is far less dramatic scene than in the other gospels.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
I assume more of the same, which is why John doesn't bother to record it.

This is all my mental image and probable total hooey, but the way I visualize this scene has Jesus showing up at the house of the high priest. Annas is present but Caiaphas is delayed for some reason or another (on the pot? who knows?) and Annas, though not OFFICIALLY the high priest at that moment, can't resist sticking his oar into his son-in-law's business, just for a bit, especially since he still holds much of the power and honor of the position, and nobody's going to stop him...

so he gets on with interrogating Jesus (in a very slovenly, shockingly unlawful manner) and manages to bollix things up pretty thoroughly before Caiaphas arrives on the scene, with the properly bribed witnesses to make it all look legal, and probably pretty pissed off to find Dad's been meddling ... [Killing me] And of course he can't say anything, because they have to stick together.

But of course, I could be entirely wrong.

You're talking about the "properly bribed witnesses" again. This must be mighty confusing to some people. We are supposed to be studying the fourth gospel here. If you are going to drag the synoptics in you ought to reference them, and say why they are relevant. You are regarded as a competent bible scholar after all - but not all your readers are!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Meanwhile, back outside by the brazier...

quote:
25 Now Simon Peter was standing and warming himself. They asked him, "You are not also one of his disciples, are you?" He denied it and said, "I am not." 26 One of the slaves of the high priest, a relative of the man whose ear Peter had cut off, asked, "Did I not see you in the garden with him?" 27 Again Peter denied it, and at that moment the cock crowed.

I find it interesting how the scene with Peter changes subtly from one gospel to another.

In Mark, Peter is the courtyard, sitting with the guards beside the fire. The servant girl twice accuses him of being a follower of Jesus. Finally, it is pointed out that he is a Galilean. Peter curses and denies knowing Jesus. The cock crows a second time, and Peter breaks down and weeps.

In Matthew, Peter is again in the courtyard (though there is no mention of a fire). This time, two different servant girls accuse him of being a follower of Jesus. Finally, it is pointed out that it is his accent which has betrayed him. The cock crows (only once), Peter leaves, weeping bitterly.

In Luke, it is very similar to Matthew, although there are elements of Mark (the fire is there and the explicit mention of his accent is missing).

In John, we have Peter being brought in by the other disciple (that's new). Again we have the first two questions, fairly similar to the other gospels. But then the final accusation is based not on his Galilean accent, but that he was seen in the garden of Gethsemane. More over, the one accusing him is a relative of the man whose ear he has cut off (again - only John makes this point).

What may also be interesting is that John doesn't mention anything about Peter being distraught when the cock crows. Again, perhaps he presumes that the readers will already know this. He also doesn't mention the bit about Peter curses and making oaths. All in all, it is far less dramatic scene than in the other gospels.

Thank you for taking the trouble I was too lazy to go to. The differences between the synoptic accounts and John are substantial and significant. The accounts neither "prove" their validity by the bits that agree, nor "disprove" anything on account of the apparent discrepancies. They are different views from different communities and individuals at different times, and they are all interesting.
As John himself states later on, you could fill a library with all the different accounts of the life and death of Jesus. We have probably lost a considerable number of insights due to the church's obsession with unity, sameness, orthodoxy.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
You're talking about the "properly bribed witnesses" again. This must be mighty confusing to some people. We are supposed to be studying the fourth gospel here. If you are going to drag the synoptics in you ought to reference them, and say why they are relevant. You are regarded as a competent bible scholar after all - but not all your readers are!

Pimple, remember--you don't get to decide that posts based on material from the synoptics is out of bounds here. We had a ruling on that, remember?

As for me being a competent Bible scholar, I told you before I'm a geek. I hold no theological degrees, I sit on no seminary faculty, and there's no reason anyone should take my posts for anything more than they are in themselves. And I did clearly mark that particular post as my general impression, written in response to a question about a historical vacuum (what did Caiaphas do?) and possibly just hooey as well.

Really, if you're going to require me to stick to John-and-only-John unless clearly signposted in every single post, I might as well quit the thread now. My mind is not that organized. It is a lost sock basket of data, impressions, quotations, and what-was-that-again? And there's no way with my current workload that I'm ever going to be able to comb the four gospels to determine which particular lost sock came from which Gospel every time I post.

Besides that, I trust the other people interested in this thread. They are not my students. They are adults capable of making their own judgments. They can totally ignore me if they like. They can ask questions if they want to know where I got random-concept-of-the-day from, and I will try to dig it up for them, if I have time.

Seriously, if I irritate you that much, call me to hell. It's a good week for it, as it gets harrowed this Saturday. [Biased]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Absolutely nothing hellworthy here, AFAIS. I wasn't suggesting that you shouldn't refer to the synoptics on this thread - I've done it myself, on several occasions. My beef was about including material which is exclusively synoptic in a comment on a passage in John, as though the two were inextricably intertwined. It doesn't irritate me, I just don't find it very helpful in getting to grips with what John's gospel is all about - it's difficult enough on its own.

I think the differences are both significant and interesting and I don't see any point in pretending they don't exist. I agree entirely that many of John's readers may have been acquainted with the earlier gospels. But why did John write his own if the former three were perfectly adequate and comprehensive. After Mark, all the other gospel writers leave stuff out and put stuff in, but the new testament wasn't written by a committee.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Back to the task in hand?

quote:
28 Then they took Jesus from Caiaphus to Pilate's headquarters [Gk The praetorium]It was early in the morning. They themselves did not enter the headquarters, so as to avoid ritual defilement and to be able to eat the Passover. 29 So Pilate went out to meet them and said, "What accusation do you bring against this man?" 30 The answered, "If this man were not a criminal, we would not have handed him over to you." 31 Pilate said to them, "Take him yourselves and judge him according to your law." The Jews replied, "We are not permitted to put anyone to death." 32 (This was to fulfil what Jesus had said when he had indicated the kind of death he was to die.)

[John 18.28-32]

Were the Jews prohibited from carrying out capital punishment? That doesn't seem to have been the case when the synoptics were written ("Let him who is without sin first cast a stone...") Could this, if it is true - and John is famous for getting his local facts right, I believe - this might be evidence of a later date for the writing of the fourth gospel.

Any helpful historians about?
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
Interesting question. I don't have an immediate answer here.

One answer off of the top of my head is that especially during Passover, the Romans were very twitchy about the possibility of uprisings. Allowing the Jewish authorities to summarily execute someone would not be a good idea. Stepping for a moment outside the purely Johannine account, it is clear in all the gospels that taking Jesus to Pilate was an essential step and seems to have been (from the view point of the Jewish authorities) a wise move. Getting the Romans onboard (as it were) would help to prevent any violent backlash.

I think it is also worth noting that John seems to go out of his way to emphasise that the Passover had NOT already happened:
They themselves did not enter the headquarters, so as to avoid ritual defilement and to be able to eat the Passover.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
Absolutely nothing hellworthy here, AFAIS. I wasn't suggesting that you shouldn't refer to the synoptics on this thread - I've done it myself, on several occasions. My beef was about including material which is exclusively synoptic in a comment on a passage in John, as though the two were inextricably intertwined. It doesn't irritate me, I just don't find it very helpful in getting to grips with what John's gospel is all about - it's difficult enough on its own.

Look, if you don't find it helpful, just scroll by. You're obviously interested in John qua John, its differences from the other gospels, ways of deconstructing the text, and so on. That's fine. I am interested in John not so much as an author but because of what he reports about Jesus, and therefore I'm naturally going to add that to what I already know of Jesus from the Synoptics.

We can coexist, really, we can. But it'll be a lot more comfortable for the two of us if you'd be kind enough to stop calling me out every time you get a whiff of the Synoptics, simply because they are Synoptics. It's one thing to start a discussion because you're interested in something that grows out of some comment I (or someone else) made about John vs. the Synoptics; there's some meat to that. But if you're going to simply signpost every mention of Synoptic material along with a declaration that you personally dislike it and find it unhelpful, look, she's doing it again! (frantic pointing) well, that just gets frustrating.

Scroll on by, man. Scroll on by.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Picking up several things here:

On Caiaphas; I suppose it's possible that John's reference to a year could mean that Caiaphas was chief priest during the year John is talking about (and was chief priest during other years as well), it's just that John's wording seems more specific – he uses the same phrase a few times in respect of Caiaphas (11:49, 11:51, and 18:13): tou eniatou ekeivou [= τοῦ ἐνιαυτοῦ ἐκείνου], which emphasises a single year as opposed to two, or three, etc. It reads more like “he was chief priest for that single year”. Josephus' account of the chief priests during the period starts off with a yearly change, but is not clear on whether Caiaphas was in power for longer than a year or was in and out more than once.
quote:
Antiquities of the Jews, chapter 2
Valerius Gratus...deprived Ananus [the Annas of the NT] of the high priesthood, and appointed Ismael, the son of Phabi, to be high priest. He also deprived him in a little time, and ordained Eleazar, the son of Ananus, who had been high priest before, to be high priest; which office, when he had held for a year, Gratus deprived him of it, and gave the high priesthood to Simon, the son of Camithus; and when he had possessed that dignity no longer than a year, Joseph Caiaphas was made his successor. When Gratus had done those things, he went back to Rome, after he had tarried in Judea eleven years, when Pontius Pilate came as his successor. ...

A while later, Josephus records,
quote:
Chapter 4
[Vitellius] deprived Joseph, who was also called Caiaphas, of the high priesthood, and appointed Jonathan the son of Ananus, the former high priest, to succeed him.

That might imply Caiaphas hung on for a few years, or because Josephus wanted to talk about other historical events, perhaps it was coincidence that Caiaphas was in office when Josephus gets back to Jerusalem in his narrative.

While on the subject of Josephus, in the same work he mentions the high priestly garments:
quote:
Chapter 4
Vitellius came into Judea, and went up to Jerusalem; it was at the time of that festival which is called the Passover. Vitellius was there magnificently received, and released the inhabitants of Jerusalem from all the taxes upon the fruits that were bought and sold, and gave them leave to have the care of the high priest's vestments, with all their ornaments, and to have them under the custody of the priests in the temple, which power they used to have formerly, although at this time they were laid up in the tower of Antonia... [T]he Romans, when they entered on the government, took possession of these vestments of the high priest, and had them reposited in a stone-chamber, under the seal of the priests, and of the keepers of the temple, the captain of the guard lighting a lamp there every day; and seven days before a festival they were delivered to them by the captain of the guard, when the high priest having purified them, and made use of them, laid them up again in the same chamber where they had been laid up before, and this the very next day after the feast was over. This was the practice at the three yearly festivals, and on the fast day; but Vitellius put those garments into our own power, as in the days of our forefathers, and ordered the captain of the guard not to trouble himself to inquire where they were laid, or when they were to be used; and this he did as an act of kindness, to oblige the nation to him.

On the capital punishment point, there isn't a clear reference in records to the Romans imposing a law on the Jews preventing them from carrying out an execution – and the mention of stonings here and there suggest that the Jews had the power. What the gospels seem keen to point out, though, is that the case of Jesus was being presented as a political act threatening imperial peace, rather than a strictly religious affair limited to the confines of Judaism. Jesus had to be seen to be executed by Rome, for the sake of the Jewish nation. The Jewish authorities had to get Rome to accept that Jesus was a pretender, in effect, to Roman rule (perhaps even a threat to Causer’s rule?).

I don't suppose it's a coincidence that we are approaching the crucifixion on Good Friday, so I'll nudge it on a bit...
quote:
[b]John 18:33-40
So Pilate went back into the governor’s residence, summoned Jesus, and asked him, “Are you the king of the Jews?” Jesus replied, “Are you saying this on your own initiative, or have others told you about me?” Pilate answered, “I am not a Jew, am I? Your own people and your chief priests handed you over to me. What have you done?”

Jesus replied, “My kingdom is not from this world. If my kingdom were from this world, my servants would be fighting to keep me from being handed over to the Jewish authorities. But as it is, my kingdom is not from here.”

Then Pilate said, “So you are a king!” Jesus replied, “You say that I am a king. For this reason I was born, and for this reason I came into the world—to testify to the truth. Everyone who belongs to the truth listens to my voice.”

Pilate asked, “What is truth?” When he had said this he went back outside to the Jewish leaders and announced, “I find no basis for an accusation against him. But it is your custom that I release one prisoner for you at the Passover. So do you want me to release for you the king of the Jews?” Then they shouted back, “Not this man, but Barabbas!” (Now Barabbas was a revolutionary.)

Given the politically charged atmosphere, the irony over Barabbas is heavy.
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
It is noticeable that Jesus is much more verbal here than in the other gospels, especially Mark.

But it is also worth noticing some of the similarities between John and the Synoptics. First of all, there is Pilate's repeated insistence that "I find no basis for an accusation against him". And secondly, there is this reference to the custom of Pilate to release someone (only Luke omits this and makes the crowd suggest it to Pilate).

With reference to this custom - do we have any external confirmation of it? WAS it Pilate's custom?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
Just a quick note re stoning--given the nature of the activity, and where it usually took place, it would be fairly easy for leaders to argue that it was simple mob violence and none of their concern. Crucifixion or beheading, not so much.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Then Pilate took Jesus and had him flogged. 2 And the soldiers wove a crown of thorns and put it on his head, and they dressed him in a purple robe. 3 They kept coming up to him, saying, "Hail, King of the Jews!" and striking him on the face. 4 Pilate went out again and said to them, "Look, I am bringing him out to you to let you know that I find no case against him." 5 So Jesus came out, wearing the crown of thorns and the purple robe. Pilate said to them "Here is the man!" 6 When the chief priests and the police saw him, they shouted "Crucify him! Crucify him!" Pilate said to them, "Take him yourselves and crucify him. I find no case against him." 7 The Jews answered him, "We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has claimed to be the Son of God."
[John 19.1-7]

[ 03. April 2015, 16:37: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Pilate comes across as the reluctant one left with the hot potato, but it was his order in the end which set the torture and death of Jesus in motion. Was he less responsible for the crucifixion than the chief priests?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Pilate isn't just reluctant - he's terrified:

quote:
8 Now when Pilate heard this, he was more afraid than ever. 9 He entered his headquarters again and asked Jesus, "Where are you from?" But Jesus gave him no answer. 10 Pilate therefore said to him, "Do you refuse to speak to me? Do you not know that I have power to release you, and power to crucify you? 11 Jesus answered him, "You would have no power over me unless it had been given you from above; therefore the one who handed me over to you is guilty of the greater sin."
Which seems to answer your query as to where the greater responsibility lay. Pilate now tries to avoid crucifying Jesus - but not, in this account anyway, from any sense of justice but from cowardice. "Even more afraid than ever, we heard, but John doesn't say anything about him being afraid before, so it's reasonable to assume that for John's readers, Pilate already had a reputation for cowardice as well as cruelty.

Unless the point is that

anyone put in the position of having to face the Son of God and pass judgment on him would de facto be shitting himself.

quote:
12 From then on Pilate tried to release him, but the Jews cried out, "If you release this man, you are no friend of the emperor. Everyone who claims to be a king sets himself against the emperor."


[ 03. April 2015, 19:22: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I guess that Pilate was pushed into a corner - he realised he had to act when the Jewish authorities charged Jesus with using the "Son of God" title - something that was being used of some members of the Caesar family (Julius and Augustus, for example). Cunning ploy by the Jerusalem faction!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
13 When Pilate heard these words, he brought Jesus outside and sat [or seated him] on the judge's bench at a place called The Stone Pavement, or in Hebrew [that is, Aramaic], Gabbatha. 14 Now it was the day of Preparation for the Passover; and it was about noon. He said to the Jews, "Here is your King!" 15 They cried out "Away with him! Away with him! Crucify him!" Pilate asked them, "Shall I crucify your king?" The chief priests answered, "We have no king but the emperor." 16 Then he handed him over to them to be crucified.
Handed him over to whom? His own soldiers presumably, not the chief priests. But you can see, can't you, why for so long , today, Good Friday, was the traditional time for Jew-baiting by pious Christians dazed from fasting and with a limited understanding of the scriptures.

[ 03. April 2015, 22:22: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I find John's treatment of Pilate actually quite sympathetic – and the more I read John's approach to the trial, the more the political element comes out. John had made it clear in his introduction that one of his themes was going to be the rejection of Jesus by 'his own.' By chapter 10 John has drawn the red lines over interpretation of God's will and work for the world. What takes things up a level is how the Jerusalem authorities (the 'Jews') respond; they appear to have lost the battle over interpretation and ownership of the scriptures, and conclude that they cannot deal with Jesus according to those scriptures, so have to manipulate their political overlords, the Romans, into getting rid of him.

John notes the excuse the authorities settled on for getting rid of Jesus:
Caiaphas - “Consider this: it's better for one man to die [for the people] than for the entire nation to be destroyed” (11:50, 18:14).

The authorities know that the Romans would not sanction hearing a case that involved just their own religious issues (and John makes his audience aware of this fact in 18:31 - Pilate told them, “Take him yourselves and pass judgment on him according to your own law!”).

The authorities had clearly thought through what they needed to do. They brought a charge that the Roman overlords would understand: in effect, treason. Jesus had made political claims in opposition to the Caesar family. He (Jesus) was claiming to be God's only authorised representative on earth. For Pilate the immediate issue was whether this was a challenge to Rome's perceived right to impose rulers over the Jewish nation. He is not convinced.

With all this going on, I wonder whether John is doing something daring with his plot. When Pilate takes to his Judge's Seat,* I don't think it is background material (annoyingly called 'parenthetical notes by the author' in the NET Bible) when John equates 'Stone Pavement' to its Aramaic equivalent in 19:13 (Gabbatha). Personally I think these notes are not background – they are a deliberate foregrounding of material designed to highlight something of importance in the text. If so, then it may be possible that John intended his audience to do what Paul did in his letters where he refers to the Judgement Seat of God / Christ (e.g., Rom. 14:10, 2 Cor. 5:10) and draws on the likes of Isa. 45:23...
quote:
By myself I make this oath — what I say is true and cannot be rescinded.
Surely every knee will bow to me, every tongue will swear allegiance.

Similarly, although the relevance of the word Gabbatha in the verse is debated, its etymology suggests the idea of 'elevation', which is what was going to happen to Jesus. I like the idea that John might have been doing this deliberately.

John's masterpiece, though, is the record of how Pilate's mocking of the Jewish authorities causes them to do what their Law expressly forbids them to do – upon pain of death – swearing allegiance to the Caesar dynasty rather than to God.

Job done, eh?


* There is an alternative reading here – that Pilate had Jesus sit on the Seat. This is a nice idea; it fits with the mock presentation of Jesus as King earlier and now with Pilate presenting Jesus to the crowd, “Look! Your King!”
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, very neat. I didn't know that phrase "every knee shall bow" came from there. And I did wonder if the Stone Pavement might be an allusion to Christ as a corner-stone.

Well, today, Jesus, as Lamb Chopped says, is harrowing hell - whatever that means. I don't think we're going to get to the resurrection before tomorrow morning, but we have to eat our bread and butter first, so we may as well get on with it:

quote:
So they took Jesus; 17 and carrying the cross by himself, he went out to what is called the Place of the Skull, which in Hebrew [Aramaic] is called Golgotha. 18 There they crucified him and with two others, one on either side, with Jesus between them. 19 Pilate also had an inscription written and put on the cross. It read, "Jesus of Nazareth [or the Nazorean], the King of the Jews. 20 Many of the Jews read this inscription, because the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, in Latin, and in Greek. 21 Then the chief priests of the Jews said to Pilate, "Do not write
'The King of the Jews', but, 'This man said, I am the King of the Jews.'" 22 Pilate answered them, "What I have written, I have written." 23 When the soldiers had crucified Jesus, they took his clothes and divided them into four parts, one foe each soldier. They also took his tunic; now the tunic was seamless, woven in one piece from the top. 24 So they said to one another, "Let us not tear it, but cast lots for it to see who will get it." This was to fulfil what the scripture says,
"They divided my clothes among
themselves,
and for my clothing they cast lots."
25 And that is what the soldiers did.

[John 19.16b-25b]

Standard first century exegesis of the OT?
[Scrolling on!]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
We're in a race against death! Let's see if we can't beat the old Skull. I'm sure we will have time – years, in fact, if not even eternity – to go back over the no doubt plenteous material we've moved over in the race.

In fact, we could write books on the little sections of John's work showing how he takes his audience on the journey. Here's a title for the section we're in – From Gabbatha to Gologtha: Jesus' route from height to height.

Pilate's stand over the notice he ordered to be placed on the cross suggests to me at any rate that this was in fact his court judgement – what he had formally concluded at the end of the trial. Not something that he could easily rescind or amend.

The NT use of the OT is a fascinating subject. For those who don't get out much, I mean. It keeps me indoors for hours and hours. As the scripture says, “There is a time for everything” and “Sluggards do not plough in season.” Elsewhere the Law says “Do not plough with an ox and a donkey yoked together” and in a place the prophet says “A wild donkey accustomed to the desert, sniffing the wind in her craving – in her heat who can restrain her?”

Mind you, I have to admit that I've heard a wide and wild range of exegetical approaches in a wide and wild range of churches!

The quotation in John comes from Ps 22:18. The full Psalm is a bit of a long one, link here.

I tend to see these quotes in the NT as a device for opening up the whole section they come from, in this case the whole of Ps 22. Taken that way, it's interesting that the opening is also used in connection with the crucifixion: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Should have pushed on...
quote:
John 19:25-27
Now standing beside Jesus’ cross were his mother, his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. So when Jesus saw his mother and the disciple whom he loved standing there, he said to his mother, “Woman, look, here is your son!” He then said to his disciple, “Look, here is your mother!” From that very time the disciple took her into his own home.

Something peculiarly Johannine.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Startling. Beguiling. If all the disciples scarpered, who saw the group at the cross, including (apparently) the only disciple who had the courage, or the compunction, to watch the crucifixion? Or something else. It has prompted libraries full of conjecture. It has been cited as evidence for Mary Magdalene being the Beloved Disciple, for instance. Not one of the most likely candidates, in my own view.

But my own, very, very subjective view is less orthodox than that. Here we have the disciple whom Jesus loved, who is often in the company of Peter. But not here. No other disciples, apart from the women. Has he left their company in order to be with his friend - or has he left them because doesn't feel comfortable in their company? He goes fishing with Peter later, of course, but here he is visiting his friend, lord, and master on his own.

I am increasingly coming to the belief that the disciple whom Jesus loved to death may have been one the other disciples had far more negative feelings about. And I don't mean Judas - though that possibility did occur to me somewhere along the way. Right, that's my baggage out of the way. Returning to our sheep:

quote:
28 After this, when Jesus knew that all was finished, he said (in order to fulfil the scriptures)"I am thirsty." 29 A jar full of sour wine was standing there. So they put a sponge full of the wine on a branch of hyssop and held it to his mouth. 30 When Jesus had received the wine, he said, "It is finished." Then he bowed his head and gave up his spirit."
Thank you, Nigel, for reading my mind. I'm sure we're going to get there!
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
As if it's not enough to beat someone up, flog him, mock him, stick thorns in his head and nail him to a cross leaving him there to dry out until he dies, just as he's about to depart from this world you shove a sponge of sour vinegar into his face, using a pungent hyssop branch, commonly used for cleaning purposes.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Consciously or not, all this feels as though John is still in the world of Psalm 22:
quote:
I am a worm and not a man,
scorned by everyone, despised by the people.
All who see me mock me;
they hurl insults, shaking their heads. ...

I am poured out like water,
and all my bones are out of joint.
My heart has turned to wax;
it has melted within me.
My mouth is dried up like a potsherd,
and my tongue sticks to the roof of my mouth;
you lay me in the dust of death.

Not sure if the concern for his mother was prompted by another bit of that Psalm:
quote:
Yet you brought me out of the womb;
you made me trust in you, even at my mother’s breast.
From birth I was cast on you;
from my mother’s womb you have been my God.

Then John broadens the world out with details associated with the treatment of the Passover lamb and the need for cleansing, apposite given the proximity of hyssop:
quote:
John 19:31-37
Then, because it was the day of preparation, so that the bodies should not stay on the crosses on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was an especially important one), the Jewish leaders asked Pilate to have the victims’ legs broken and the bodies taken down. So the soldiers came and broke the legs of the two men who had been crucified with Jesus, first the one and then the other. But when they came to Jesus and saw that he was already dead, they did not break his legs. But one of the soldiers pierced his side with a spear, and blood and water flowed out immediately. And the person who saw it has testified (and his testimony is true, and he knows that he is telling the truth), so that you also may believe. For these things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled, “Not a bone of his will be broken.” And again another scripture says, “They will look on the one whom they have pierced.”

That last quote from a passage in Zech 12-13...

And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child … On that day a fountain will be opened to the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem, to cleanse them from sin and impurity.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I think it's Jesus who is in the world of Psalm 22, and I'm not at all sure that John is comfortable with it. (That's not a criticism, LC - I think John is so determined to give his readers/hearers a message of unadulterated hope, that he plays down the humiliation of Jesus. He reports the attempts at humiliation in great detail, but Jesus is shown very much "bloody but unbowed".)


quote:
38 After these things, Joseph of Arimathea, who was a disciple of Jesus but a secret one because of his fear of the Jews, asked Pilate to let him take away the body of Jesus. Pilate gave him permission; so he came and removed his body. 39 Nicodemus, who had at first come to Jesus by night, also came, bringing a mixture of myrrh and aloes, weighing about a hundred pounds. 40 They took the body of Jesus and wrapped it with the spices in linen cloths, according to the burial custom of the Jews. 41 Now there was a garden in the place where he was crucified, and in the garden there was a new tomb in which no-one had ever been laid. 42 And so, because it was the Jewish day of Preparation, and the tomb was nearby, they laid Jesus there.

"according to the burial custom of the Jews..."
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
Another interesting (and yet subtle) contrast with the Synoptics. John makes it clear that Joseph and Nicodemus anoint Jesus' body in accordance with Jewish burial customs. But Mark and Luke specifically report that Mary and the other women were going to the tomb with the spices in order to do the ritual anointing.

(Interestingly, Matthew doesn't say anything about the women preparing spices.)

So who anointed the body? And if (as I tend to prefer) it was the women, why does John got out of his way to remove that from them? What other reason is there for Mary to go to the tomb so early that morning?

(I might be wrong here, but I thought that anointing the body for burial was typically the responsibility of women. Regardless of whether John is "factual" here or not, is it not unusual/significant for men to be taking on this task?)
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
We hear a lot about the women, not so much about the two men who take the body down, carefully prepare it, and lay it in the tomb which has never been used before. The tenderness here contrasts with the brutality until now.

I like the symbolism of the burial in the garden, from which the new life will emerge....


Cross- posted.

[ 04. April 2015, 19:38: Message edited by: Raptor Eye ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I've been thinking about Nicodemus and all that Myrrh and aloes. 100 pounds! With Jesus' own body-weight - no doubt much wasted, that would have taken some lifting. As to the anointing, I'm not sure John meant us to think the men did it. Think about it - the body was taken down as a matter of some urgency, and Jewish days begin in the evening, not the morning. So there would hardly have been time to prepare and embalm the body. Since the tomb was close by, Jesus was probably wrapped (with decent haste) together with the spices and carried to the tomb and left there for the ministrations of the women after the festival.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Though John did say the proper burial rites were carried out - I forgot that.

Just a note about Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea - the secret disciples of Jesus (and two more candidates for the title of The Beloved Disciple). There is a strand of Christianity which regards "secret" discipleship as unworthy of the name of discipleship at all. Those who didn't support him openly - or don't now, are regarded as beneath contempt. I quote the last words of a sermon I heard once, verbatim:

"When all is said and done, what did Joseph do, but bury his Lord?"

I should have stood up then, and said to his face, "And what do you do, but sneer and denigrate those whose feet you are not worthy to wash?" Well, it's easy with hindsight, isn't it?
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
I've been thinking about Nicodemus and all that Myrrh and aloes. 100 pounds! With Jesus' own body-weight - no doubt much wasted, that would have taken some lifting. As to the anointing, I'm not sure John meant us to think the men did it. Think about it - the body was taken down as a matter of some urgency, and Jewish days begin in the evening, not the morning. So there would hardly have been time to prepare and embalm the body. Since the tomb was close by, Jesus was probably wrapped (with decent haste) together with the spices and carried to the tomb and left there for the ministrations of the women after the festival.

I agree completely that the timescales concerned argue against the proper preparations for burial. Although John is very vague about the time of the death of Jesus, the other gospels place it very firmly at 3pm. There is no doubt that the body would have remained on the cross for some time after death. Sunset at that time of the year in Jerusalem would be about 7pm. So the body would have been taken down from the cross and hastily placed into the tomb before 7pm - the start of the Sabbath.

So we come back to the unlikely nature of Jesus being properly anointed before being placed in the tomb. Let us not forget that the anointing was only part of the activity. There would have been special prayers included as well. Does anyone know how long a "normal" preparation for burial would take?

So what point is John making here? And what is the significance (if any) of the 100lbs of spices? Was that a usual amount? My suspicion is that this is far too much. Does this also hint (like Mary's pound of nard) at the extravagance of the devotion to Jesus?
 
Posted by Brenda Clough (# 18061) on :
 
If it were an Egyptian-style of burial (which Lazarus seems to have had, wrapped so tightly in strips of linen that Jesus had to tell them to let him loose) then a hundred pounds of spices/ointment might not have been very much out of the way. Jewish custom would not have gone for the full mummification, but it may well have been a hybrid -- wrapping the deceased in strips of linen and working the spices/myrrh in as you go.
 
Posted by Oscar the Grouch (# 1916) on :
 
I've been reflecting on Joseph and Nicodemus and the 100 pounds of spices. I've come up with two possible meanings, although they are rather different.

a) Joseph and Nicodemus are "hidden" disciples, At no point do they declare faith in Jesus. And yet they, like Mary, go to great lengths of devotion to anoint Jesus' body, whilst the "real" disciples are nowhere to be seen.

b) The second meaning also starts from their status as "hidden" disciples, and brings in the way that one of the ongoing themes of John's gospel is how people believe and grow in their believing. Joseph and Nicodemus show great devotion to Jesus, but no faith. They anoint his body for burial, rather than prepare it for the resurrection, We never hear of them again in the gospel - they are not part of any of the resurrection accounts. (Indeed, we don't hear from them again in any part of the New Testament.) They reveal a "failed" form of discipleship - whereas the disciples come a deeper, fulfilled faith.

Does any of this make sense?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Welcome to the thread, Brenda!

quote:
Early on the first day of the wee, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene came to the tomb and saw that the stone had been removed from the tomb. 2 So she ran and went to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one whom Jesus loved, and said to them, "They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have laid him." 3 Then Peter and the other disciple set out and went toward the tomb. 4 The two were running together, but the other disciple outran Peter and reached the tomb first. 5 He bent down to look in and saw the linen wrappings lying there, but he did not go in. 6 Then Simon Peter came, following him, and went into the tomb. He saw the linen wrappings lying there, 7 and the cloth that had been on Jesus' head, not lying with the linen wrappings, but rolled up in a place by itself. 8 Then the other disciple, who reached the tomb first, also went in. and he saw and believed; for as yet they did not understand the scripture, that he must rise from the dead. 10 Then the disciples returned to their houses.
[John 20.1-10]

Happy Easter, everyone!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Oscar the Grouch:
I've been reflecting on Joseph and Nicodemus and the 100 pounds of spices. I've come up with two possible meanings, although they are rather different.

a) Joseph and Nicodemus are "hidden" disciples, At no point do they declare faith in Jesus. And yet they, like Mary, go to great lengths of devotion to anoint Jesus' body, whilst the "real" disciples are nowhere to be seen.

b) The second meaning also starts from their status as "hidden" disciples, and brings in the way that one of the ongoing themes of John's gospel is how people believe and grow in their believing. Joseph and Nicodemus show great devotion to Jesus, but no faith. They anoint his body for burial, rather than prepare it for the resurrection, We never hear of them again in the gospel - they are not part of any of the resurrection accounts. (Indeed, we don't hear from them again in any part of the New Testament.) They reveal a "failed" form of discipleship - whereas the disciples come a deeper, fulfilled faith.

Does any of this make sense?

Yes, I think so. But we have just read that the Beloved Disciple was a non-believer too, until he saw the empty tomb - and neither he nor Peter had understood the resurrection prophecies. It is tempting to wonder if either of them would have had the opportunity, or whether there would have been any church at all, without the intervention of Nicodemus and Joseph.

On the other hand, Paul was preaching "Christ, and Him crucified", some time before the gospel writers with their greater emphasis on a bodily resurrection, and none of his converts would have had the benefit of seeing an empty tomb, much less a physical appearance.

But in between - between the empty tomb and the written gospels, we have Paul's account of an appearance to 500 people at one go. They were strange and wonderful times...
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
Happy Easter pimple, and everyone.

I think that it was important that Jesus revealed himself to so many people in different ways after the resurrection. His appearance to Paul was not the same as his appearance to Mary and to the disciples, his bodily form was one which could take in food and yet walk through walls, he was a physical Jesus but not in the physical form people recognised as Jesus until he showed them the wounds or spoke......

It reminds me of angels who were often revealed in human form but who were suddenly not there. Jesus must be seen to have a heavenly form, not a ghostly form and not the form of a mortal, so that people would be convinced that he really was and is risen from the dead, the Messiah.
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
I have of course run ahead......

Here, the beloved disciple takes in the scene and the penny drops: Jesus has risen on the third day, as he said he would. This doesn't necessarily mean that he was a nonbeliever before, he may have already accepted Jesus as the Messiah.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Was the idea of resurrection linked together with the idea of the Messiah in Judaism at that time?

Moo
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
11 But Mary stood weeping outside the tomb. As she wept, she bent over to look into the tomb; 12 and she saw two angels in white, sitting where the body of Jesus had been lying, one at the head and the other at the feet. 13 They said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping?" She said to them, "They have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid him." 14 When she had said this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing there, but she did not know that it was Jesus. 15 Jesus said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping? Whom are you looking for?" Supposing him to be the gardener, she said to him, "Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away." 16 Jesus said to her, "Mary!"
[John 20.11-16a]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
[Internet connections intermittent]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
Was the idea of resurrection linked together with the idea of the Messiah in Judaism at that time?

Moo

I had a flick through N.T. Wright's The Resurrection of the Son of God to see what his research came up with. He couldn't find any reference in Judaism up to the time of Jesus to a messiah doing the sort of things Jesus did, let along being crucified and resurrected. Wright is keen to emphasise the point throughout his works that early Christianity was thoroughly messianic, so it opens up the question: Where did those early followers of Christ get the idea from of amalgamating 'messiah' with 'resurrection'?

Probably the only coherent answer is that they got it from Jesus. He pulled the teaching on the suffering servant from the Jewish scriptures (the gospels make that point), so it would be interesting to see where this became allied to teachings on the messiah.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
One to ponder on, and I'm sure we'll come back to it. Meanwhile:

quote:
16 Jesus said to her, "Mary!" She turned to him and said in Hebrew [i.e. Aramaic], "Rabbouni!" (which means Teacher). "Jesus said to her, "Do not hold on to me, because I have nor yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and say to them, "I am ascending to my Father, and your Father, to my God and your God." 18 Mary Magdalene went and announced to the disciples, "I have seen the Lord!"; and she told them that he had said these things to her.
It's hardly surprising that people react in strange and different ways to the sight and sound of someone they "know" is dead. It was often a mixture of horror and fear at the outset, in spite of Jesus' efforts to calm them. Peter and the Beloved Disciple, having seen the grave clothes in the empty tomb, go home - each to his own apparently. No mention of their telling the other disciples. Mary Magdalene is given a message for Jesus' brothers (is the inference here that his sisters might get hysterical?) but she goes instead to the disciples. Probably a wise move. And many interpretations have been given to "Noli me tangere!" - Don't touch/cling to/hold on to me the Latin Bible. Do we have the Aramaic equivalent anywhere?

Does Jesus know that he died on the cross? He finds himself now a whole man, eating, speaking, walking - did the Romans botch it. He has already told the disciples (before the crucifixion) that he is going to his Father - wasn't that a common euphemism for dying? But now he is sending back a message that this hasn't yet happened. But it is still going to happen. That's the rational explanation for his words, the interpretation that is not permitted to be true.

It won't be long before he appears in the eyes of all his followers with a glowing halo, floating six inches off the ground he tries so hard to keep their feet on.

But the traditional Christian Easter message has a lot going for it, and the fact that I can't "see" it is not really important. I could never get those clever pictures where one moment you're looking at a field of buttercups and the next a galloping white horse appears. Now you see it, now you don't, and people can feel very miffed when they can't - I know I did. God did not give us all the same eyes or the same brains - thank goodness.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Look. I am drunk. Very drunk. So I ought not to be posting at all. I have just been compiling a few notes on the betrayal. The betrayal of the beloved disciple. Deliberately ambiguous, that title.

I think perhaps that I am scared. Not of ridicule. Not of dogshit through my letter box, or death threats on"the media" (Who am I kidding? who's READING THIs ANYWAY? wE HAVE THOUSANDSOPF SHIPPIES , BUT WHERE ARE TYEY?

Nigel/ Lamb chopped. Raptor's Eye. Forgive me.I am sentty-eight, and in reasonably
fine fettle for someone who has had his guts radically rearraged recently

Whew! I have trouble ,mamaging thid momster even when I'm sober.
Previoedw ppost? yOU;VEG OT TO BE BLOODY JI9KING.

tHIS ISN'T ,MEANT to be funny.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Normally I have to wait for the odd weekend before I can get into Ship posting, which is why responses from me tend to be interspersed with hiatus (hiatuses? hiatusii??). When I joined the Ship it became clear to me that I wouldn't have time to engage across other boards; I would see an interesting new thread start up in, say, Purgatory of a morning before heading off into the brave new world, then 12 hours later I would look again at the thread only to find it had gone to 6 pages, Purgatory being more like a conversation whereas Kerygmania is more like an email exchange.

I'm also hoping we can retrace steps over the material John wrote about the run up to Easter, including the whole betrayal thing. He crowded the stage with quite a lot of stuff covering a short period of historical time; I suspect there's reams of meat in there. Where to start??!!!!

Hiatus follows...
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Where to begin? Chapter 13 is one option; it has a neat temporal header to set it off from what goes before (“Just before the Passover feast...”) and Jesus is now alone with his inner circle – his own. It is also from this chapter on that we have references to that “beloved disciple” in John, six times (three to date on this thread - 13:23, 19:26, 20:2). In relation to this last bit, we also have a rush of references to Judas from chapter 13 onwards (not exclusively, but mostly so), which raises the interesting question in respect of John's intention: Did he intend his audience to play Judas off against the unnamed disciple? John does become a bit repetitive about the two of them – Judas-and-just-in-case-you-forgot-he's-the-betrayer, and He-who-is-not-named-but-was-really-really-close-to-Jesus. Is it a case of The Rejecter versus The Loyal One as a picture of the simple choice faced by humanity: to be in Jesus or to be out?


Incidentally, this isn't intended necessarily to stop the onward march through John; it's just me going back over the scenery.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
That's an interesting possibility - I had never thought of the two being linked in any way.

If, as I believe (conjecture alert!) the final redactor of the fourth gospel did not himself know who he-who-Jesus-was-very-close-to was, then he would be aware of the temptations of his readers to jump to the wrong conclusions (whenever he thought that possible, he'd explain - he said/did that because...)

And the most awkward conclusion/conjecture likely would be that the "Beloved Disciple" - who is never described in that way without the addition of his attachment to Jesus - might have blotted his copy-book in some way.

After all, he-who-may-not-be-named is either too holy (i.e. God) to be named, or too heinous. The standard anathema, I expect, would include a ban on speaking to, responding to, or even mentioning
the heretic/apostate/betrayer.

So John is at pains to keep his audience aware that he-whom-Jesus-loved should not be confused with he-who-betrayed-Jesus. Not because he has any knowledge of the matter, but simply to pre-empt idle gossip which would muddy the waters.

Maybe.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
The pimple household is in chaos, but I've found a dog-eared KJV. The resurrection appearances continue:

quote:
19 Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you. 20 And when he had so said, he shewed them his hands and his side. Then were the disciples glad, when they saw the Lord.
[John 20.19-20]

Here the disciples are glad to meet the risen Christ. In the next chapter we shall discover that the disciples at the "picnic" were terrified - scared even to ask who he was. Just sayin'.
 
Posted by Meike (# 3006) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:

Here the disciples are glad to meet the risen Christ. In the next chapter we shall discover that the disciples at the "picnic" were terrified - scared even to ask who he was. Just sayin'.

Huh?!

In my annotated Bible, chapter 21 is an appendix to John, with a commentary that the picnic may have happened before chapter 20, and was possibly the first appearance, in chronological order.

But then, Thomas was present at the picnic, so why does he doubt in the previous passage?

I’m officially confused.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Yes, the (possibly) altered chronology partly explains the problem. Another possibility is that the disciples' joy in chapter 20 is the aspect John wishes to promote, at a time when his own community feels under threat (not necessarily from the Jews). Then he's given another (witnessed) account - in writing which he cannot leave out, and it would be untrue to his source to change a single word of it. Oral tradition can be very precise too, but there's something about chapter 21 - well, perhaps we'd better wait until we get there!

The other thing, of course, is that with a number of different sightings at different times, the evangelist has to put them in some sort of order, and we need not assume that precise chronological accuracy is uppermost in his mind.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thought occurred on the burial (back in 19:38ff) and the bit...
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
"according to the burial custom of the Jews..."

I assume that the vast majority of people did not have the means to be buried is such style, with well worked spices and a dugout rock tomb. Also, commentators usually deal with John's use of the word "Jews" in the gospel to say that John uses it in different ways in different places. I'm not so sure. I think he means to refer to the Jerusalem authorities when he uses that term, those Jews who were trained in the theologies and politics of the capital city and who had misinterpreted God's message in the scriptures.

This would mean that John was still referring to those powers in the burial passage. Jesus was buried in a tomb that had been assigned to one of the leaders, in the style (or custom) associated with those leaders. Even in death, Jesus was pinching their space.

That was then. Back the literary present...
quote:
John 20:21-23
So Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. Just as the Father has sent me, I also send you.” And after he said this, he breathed on them and said, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone’s sins, they are forgiven; if you retain anyone’s sins, they are retained.”

Commissioning, empowering/authorising, and the strange case of - what? Bringing people back into God's family and shutting out others? Does John here map onto the synoptic gospels quotes from Jesus about forgiving and rejecting?
 
Posted by Raptor Eye (# 16649) on :
 
By receiving the Holy Spirit, the disciples would be able to fully serve God, so that if the Holy Spirit guided them to, they could declare someone's sins forgiven, or not. They would live in the kingdom of God while living on earth, whole in spirit, mind and body.

It doesn't give anyone the right to forgive or retain sins by their own will, as no one has authority over God.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
What would be the point John as author was trying to get across to his audience here? When reading verse 23 a parallel certainly popped into my mind – most closely in Matthew:

Matt 16:19
“I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven. Whatever you bind [verb δέω] on earth will have been bound in heaven, and whatever you release [verb λύω] on earth will have been released in heaven.”

Matt 18:18
“I tell you the truth, whatever you bind [verb δέω] on earth will have been bound in heaven, and whatever you release [verb λύω] on earth will have been released in heaven.”

John's version is -

John 20:23
“If you forgive [verb ἀφίημι] anyone’s sins, they are forgiven; if you retain [verb κρατέω] anyone’s sins, they are retained.”


The parallel is quite clear, as the style of the saying is quite similar in both sets, even though the verbs used are different. This difference in verbs may just be down to a difference in the author's preferred terminology – their personal verbal preference, or idiolect, in 'translating' to their audiences the same saying of Jesus. It may refer to different times in Jesus' ministry when Jesus said these things using different terms. Or it may refer to two completely different events and meanings.

While the style is similar, the contextual setting is different. Matthew's setting is before the resurrection (though may refer to a state beyond it), John's is afterwards – and immediately associated with the receipt of the Spirit and mission to the world.

John's use of 'Spirit' suggests it/he has a judging role. The Spirit teaches truth and does what Jesus did, engaging in countering wrong interpretations of God's message to the world. It/he generates a crisis point in people where a decision has to be made: to agree with the Spirit and turn to the truth, or to reject the Spirit and be rejected by God in turn.

That also gives the Christian a 'judging' role. The Christian would be at the least a conduit for God's judgement (if that Christian was engaging in the mission John talks about), or would even be the judge, acting on God's behalf as his image, by virtue of the message he or she brings to the world.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
"And after he said this, he breathed on them."

I'm sorry to be really mundane here, but what does that mean, exactly?

No. it's not obvious. I know of no ritual, Christian or otherwise, involving one person breathing on another. From how far? perhaps there was such a ritual - like a formal kiss, perhaps?

Some rituals introduced by Jesus - like the foot-washing, for instance - a normal act by a host or his servant, made more significant by the status of the washer , have been imitated by the clergy or even kings and princes,as a gesture of humility. But breathing on your guests/friends? It does sound rather odd.
 
Posted by Qoheleth. (# 9265) on :
 
It only seems odd because we've lost contact with the underlying presumptions: Insufflation.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
I am almost as amazed at all that insufflation and exsufflation - in and out of Christendom - as I am at the depth of my own ignorance! Thank you for the link.

[ 18. April 2015, 21:39: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
"And after he said this, he breathed on them."

I'm sorry to be really mundane here, but what does that mean, exactly?

The Greek word for 'breathe', πνεω, pneo, has the same root as the word for 'spirit' πνευμα, pneuma.

Here is the full text of John 20:22
quote:
When he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, ‘Receive the Holy Spirit.
Moo

[ 18. April 2015, 23:18: Message edited by: Moo ]
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
What Moo said. And it harks back to Genesis, when God breathed life into human beings.

The breath thing is a pun found in both Greek and Hebrew, where the same word is used for breath and for spirit. As in, the Holy Spirit.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Moo and Lamb Chopped, thank you both, too. But please take a look at that Insufflication -or whatever it's called - link. It was a real eye-opener, for me, to discover that priests, bishops, medicine-men and gurus and all actually blew - presumably into people's faces or even perhaps down their throats, both to chase out evil and to breathe in good (i.e. the Holy Spirit). And to think we up-tight Anglicans (some of us) even blush to shake hands during The Peace!

[ 19. April 2015, 09:41: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
This is where I think we are:

quote:
24 But Thomas (who was called Didymus - The Twin), one of the twelve, was not with them when Jesus came. 25 So the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord." But he said to them, "Unless I see the mark of the nails in his hands, and put my finger in the mark of the nails, and my hand in his side, I will not believe."
[John 20.24-25]

Speaking as someone who has had extensive abdominal surgery recently, I cannot help finding this ludicrous. If he were able to put his hand in Jesus' side all it would prove would be that "Jesus" was a phantom. But we don't need to quibble here about the literal words of Thomas. Clearly, he doubted, and the gospel redactor, equally clearly not there at the time, over-eggs the pudding.

quote:
26 A week later the disciples were again in the house,and Thomas was with them. Although the doors were shut, Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you." 27 Then he said to Thomas, "Put your finger here nad see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it in my side. Do not doubt but believe." 28 Thomas answered hime, "My Lord and my God" 29 Jesus said to him,"Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have come to believe."
[John 20.26-29]

Well if Jesus can pass through walls, I suppose people can put their hands through his body - but we're still describing phantoms here, and I think John quite unnecessarily shoots himself in the foot - just as he does by his insistence earlier that only the Son of God could have turned water into wine or walked on water. He just doesn't credit his readers with enough nous to accept a strange and wonderful truth without a silly and self-contradictory "proof".

Anyone who relies for his/her faith in the resurrection on the fact of Thomas having handled the scars are in virtually the same position as "doubting Thomas" - they are insisting on some sort of physical proof by proxy.

I believe there is some real historical basis for this story - but Jesus wouldn't have to walk through walls for the terrified disciples suddenly to find their Master standing among them.
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
responding to a minor point--I too had major surgery and afterward they found they had to put in a chest drain (shudder!) while I was awake. It was pulled out ten days later, and I assure you, you could easily have put your hand (well, a couple fingers) in the hole where it had been. Took some stitches and heavy bandaging to close the wound up again.

I imagine a Roman spear would create a much larger wound.
 
Posted by Jack o' the Green (# 11091) on :
 
I don't see anything in the narrative to suggest that Jesus walked through the walls, simply that he appeared to them I.e. materialised in the room. This would correlate with the Emmaus story in Luke. A common theme in the gospels seem to be that Jesus post resurrection was neither just a dead person reanimated, or simply a ghost. His being alive was more transformation than simply reanimation.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Lamb Chopped:
responding to a minor point--I too had major surgery and afterward they found they had to put in a chest drain (shudder!) while I was awake. It was pulled out ten days later, and I assure you, you could easily have put your hand (well, a couple fingers) in the hole where it had been. Took some stitches and heavy bandaging to close the wound up again.

I imagine a Roman spear would create a much larger wound.

Hmm, that's a point. Poor you! Would the preparation of Jesus (crucified) for burial have involved any bandaging - well yes, that would be part of the embalming process, but would the wound have been stitched? If not - oh horrors!
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jack o' the Green:
I don't see anything in the narrative to suggest that Jesus walked through the walls, simply that he appeared to them I.e. materialised in the room. This would correlate with the Emmaus story in Luke. A common theme in the gospels seem to be that Jesus post resurrection was neither just a dead person reanimated, or simply a ghost. His being alive was more transformation than simply reanimation.

Yes, I think that's how Paul saw the resurrection. I wonder what he would have thought about the gospel accounts?

For that matter, I wonder what Jesus would have thought about them! Too much inadequately-informed explanation, in my view, and too little wonder. But that's also true about how we understand- or fail to understand - the minds of the witnesses.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
...would the wound have been stitched?

I'm not sure they stitched wounds in those days. Even if they did it to the living, I can't see the point of doing it to the dead.

Moo
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It must have been a matter of interest to those hearing the gospel for the first time (or, for late developers like me, for the umpteenth time) to know just what Jesus looked like, immediately post-resurrection. Paul had to field a resurrection issue when he answered the questions “How are the dead raised? With what kind of body will they come?” in 1 Corinthians 15:35-53. I wonder what John thought about it and whether his understanding matched that of Paul?

We don't have much to go on in John. Jesus didn't want Mary to touch him because he had not yet ascended to the Father (20:17), yet he was content for Thomas to touch him. Jesus 'was ascending' (present tense, active indicative – “I am ascending...”). He retained evidence of his wounds when he appeared to the disciples, though whether that was temporary as part of his intermediate state (between resurrection and completion of ascending) is not clear. Paul's view is more that the resurrection body is a perfection, which doesn't suggest that injuries and wounds would remain. Of course, we may be looking, as it were, at a different type of resurrection body when it comes to Jesus, but then again Paul was keen to model our resurrection experience on Jesus', so stand by to keep unsutured wounds!
 
Posted by Brenda Clough (# 18061) on :
 
All the gospels are astonishingly light on the description that any modern reader would demand. It was simply not one of the conventions of writing at the time.
 
Posted by Jack o' the Green (# 11091) on :
 
I think I am right in saying that Jesus'statement to Mary is better translated as "Stop clinging to me." rather than simply "Don't touch me." and that it carries a sense that Mary needs to get used to Jesus not being physically present to her anymore. Mary's holding into Jesus carries a very different emotional connotation to Thomas' touching Jesus' wounds.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Yes, a sense of 'Don't hold me' fits nicely, though there is still the touch element. The rationale for not hanging on to Jesus is also interesting - he had not yet ascended. There is this intermediate state that doesn't seem to be implied anywhere else as applying to the rest of humanity.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
There is also the sense that Jesus considers his earthly ministry complete. However he understands his ascension to come - still being a standard enough human being to eat and drink - he knows that it must be necessary to hand over the reins to his followers.

The traditional Christian belief is that he does this formally in the next chapter at his his rather tense argument with Peter (Peter being the one who's tense, I mean).

There will probably be more assertions/denials that Chapter 21 is an afterthought. I think it's much more involved than that. Though additional material undoubtedly finds its way into the gospel as we know it now (some early versions don't have the story of the woman taken in adultery, for instance), I think there may have more than one late witness; also that the document containing the final resurrection appearance may have included other material which has been incorporated earlier in the gospel. In other words, there wasn't just one extra bit waved in the evangelist's face with "what about this, then?" and tacked on at the end.
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
I was reminded recently of a theory about John's signs where eight were accounted for – the last one being the resurrection – and how those signs tied in with the seven days of creation plus a first day of a new creation week. It sounds interesting and obviously links nicely to John's introduction and the “In the beginning...” theme. Whether John intentionally did this is another question, of course.

Thinking about it, here in chapter 20 John has kicked off with a time stamp: On the first day of the week, which places the resurrection in a new week. A new creation, possibly.

However, while the idea of the parallel with creation is nice, it's difficult to see how John's signs map to the themes in the creation days. The first seven signs in John are usually taken to be:
1] Changing water into wine
2] Healing the royal official's son in Capernaum
3] Healing the paralytic at Bethesda
4] Feeding the 5000
5] Jesus walking on water
6] Healing the man born blind
7] Raising of Lazarus

These don't look like what happened in the seven creation days. Still, I suppose Jesus' death cry, “It is finished” (19:30) could be a parallel to the sixth day – God saw that all was good, completed, perfected. So John could be bookending creation, rather than trying to find exact parallels for each day: “In the beginning … It is finished!” If so, then could the period from Jesus' death to resurrection be paralleled by Gen.3 – human rebellion (Fall)? Was John intentionally trying to make his audience think back to that rebellion as the threat to God's creative mission / Jesus' re-creative mission? Even here there is a problem, because John knows that Jesus is battling rebellion during his earthly mission - during the creation week, in effect, which again doesn't fit well with the tone of Gen 1, where all is good.

Anyway, there's God, just done with creation and putting his feet up to have a nice cup of tea, when the front door bangs open and in comes his kid, Jesus, back from college - “Hi Dad, I'm home!” and of course he has all his clothes washing to be done and – what's that? What on earth has he done with his hands????
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
That last bit was wicked [Big Grin] and is going to the Quotes File. I also imagine the laundry room scene: "Look at your clothes, Son! They're practically in shreds! I don't know why I bother buying you nice things...."

Anyway. I would tend to agree with your suggestion that
quote:
John could be bookending creation, rather than trying to find exact parallels for each day
For sure, there are echoes of creation and light/dark themes weaving throughout John's gospel, which folks have come back to during the nine years (!!) that this thread has been running. So yes to the bookends, but I think if one pushes the Genesis structural analogy (or metaphor, I get the terms mixed up) too far it will break down sooner or later, and probably sooner.

Similarly, I too have read about the "eight signs" notion, and see it just as another echo rather than a deliberate structural device of the John writer. After all, John himself says in 20:30

quote:
Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book.
(Not meaning to push us into the next verse prematurely - if folks still want to work through verse 29, have at it.)
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
"Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have come to believe."

Which means a few billion people. Nice.

Leap-frogging verse 30, which looks like the original ending of at least one version of the book, we come to the picnic scene, the stranger on the shore whom none of the disciples recognise (at first).

quote:
After these things Jesus showed himself again to the disciples by the Sea of Tiberias; and he showed himself in this way. 2 Gathered there together were Simon Peter, Thomas Didymus (The Twin), Nathaneal of Cana in Galilee, the sons of Zebedee, and two others of his disciples.
[John 21.1-2]

Lots of interesting stuff here. [Conspiracy alert!] who were the other unnamed disciples? We learn later that the Beloved Disciple was one of the company - but that would only account for one of them. The other one in my view would have been the one who could write. End of conspiracy hint for this thread!]

So there are seven of them gathered together, and we are about to discover (for the first time?) that all of them are fishermen. And this bunch includes most of the main players.

But because they were fishermen (and not very good ones, by all accounts) that doesn't mean they were dumb. After all, Jesus at various times explains to them the prophesies which he sees as referring to himself, and it seems pretty clear at the outset of the gospel that they were not ignorant of the Torah - and they were expecting a Messiah. I think religious observance there and then must have been very widespread and they may well have had a better appreciation of education than some areas of the Christian church later on. Why are they all gathered by the seaside? Well, they're fishermen, stupid!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Thinking about the end of chapter 20 -
quote:
20:30-31
Now although Jesus certainly did many other miraculous signs in the presence of the disciples, these are not recorded in this book. But these are recorded so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ [Messiah], the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.

Plenty of debates in the past about whether John was writing for the benefit of non-believers (that you come-to-believe – treating the verb 'believe' as an aorist subjunctive), or to believers (that you may-continue-to-believe – treating the verb as a present subjunctive). The debate seems to have settled in favour of the latter; John was writing to Christians. It does seem to fit better with what John says in his introduction: “...to all who received him he gave the right to become God's children; to those believing in his name.” He's writing that to those who have already believed.

This would support the idea that John had been facing an urgent problem in the Christian community – something akin to Paul's concerns with the churches he knew of. Something was threatening the belief and action was needed to mitigate the risk that people would disbelieve, for want of a better aorist subjunctive, with the outcome being loss of eternal life. The theme of 'life' keeps cropping up in John (36 times).

Then we get to pimple's cloak and dagger theme!

Chapter 21 is sometimes described as an Epilogue, a balance to what is called the Prologue. However it doesn’t really tie off the main themes in that Prologue, so I prefer to think of John's opening gambit as an Introduction and chapter 21 as something unrelated. There are links between this chapter and earlier bits, such as the writer's focus on a few named disciples (and one or two not named!), or that John is the only biblical writer to refer to the Sea of Galilee as 'Tiberius' (see chapter 6 for a couple of other references). It leaves an interesting question about authorship here. Whoever wrote chapter 21 must have had a good reason for doing so – another issue arising that needed to be addressed? If so, what issue?
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Well the cloak-and-=dagger issue would be the reinstatement of the (reputation of) the Beloved Disciple! But that would not be an issue for the evangelist, only a desire for justice on the
part of the BD's friends. From the evangelist's point of view, this is not an "issue". He comes into possession of a set of stories which include those where the BD is involved, particularly at the crucifixion and resurrection.

These are just not another bunch of stories about "what Jesus did" which by this time would have been two a penny. For someone who wants to encourage or sustain belief in Jesus as Messiah, these are impossible to leave out. They are authenticated in a way that many of the ones in the synoptics - or even the early chapters of John, are not.

And here's the really neat bit for whoever wants to write the blockbuster: from the point of view of Bd's surviving friends, it's essential for the stories' acceptance that the BD's actual identity should remain secret.

Or- one of many alternatives - the material was passed on by some person or persons who themselves had no idea who the BD was.

Remember that the "Epilogue" was obviously collated when both Peter and the Beloved Disciple were dead. Peter being dead makes the material safe to produce, and the BD being dead means there can't be any come-back for him if somebody identifies him by name.

[ 02. May 2015, 16:01: Message edited by: pimple ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Something I should have added on the close of chapter 20 – a link back to what I think is a peak in John's work: chapter 10. John wraps the chapter up with that strong statement: “...so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.”

John equates the term 'messiah' (Christ) with that of 'son of God'. I'm pretty sure that when John used these terms he was using them in the way they would have been understood by those with a Hebrew background in the ancient near east – to describe a function, not as a static title. But what was that function? That's a wide-ranging question, but I think John's focus was brought out in chapter 10, where he records the time when Jesus went toe-to-toe with the Jerusalem authorities. Up to this point John as played his audience with assorted signs and had them ask the question: Who is this Jesus? Then John brings his actors into the same play (10:22-42); the authorities ask, How long are you going to keep us in suspense?

The key bit in that passage is where Jesus answers the question about whether he was the messiah by referring to Psalm 82 to support the extraordinary statement that he and the father were one. The background is the worldview of covenant, and within that the concept of a divine council of gods (divine beings) who rule the nations under the one supreme God, El. It seems to me that the only likely interpretation of John's use of Ps. 82 here is because it meant that Jesus had been in God's divine council, was commissioned to carry out a mission by God, and was unique in that council. In effect Jesus did what the Jews had done by fusing the idea of a local national deity, Yahweh, with that of the supreme deity, El. The nations around about would have understood it if Israel had just stuck with a national god, separate from El. That would have been understood. To claim however that the national god was none other than El himself, well, that was just rude! It broke with convention and made people unhappy.

Now here is Jesus, claiming the same thing. If the divine council contained gods, then how much greater is the one whom El set apart as his very unique own and commissioned to carry out his most important mission?

Hmmm. I wonder how that plays out with the idea of a Beloved Disciple as the one charged with a mission from Jesus? And that thought might feed support for the line in conspiracies!
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pimple:
...who were the other unnamed disciples?

It is strange that the author doesn't specify here who these two are.

John does know there are 12 main disciples (he mentions that number in 6:67-71 and 20:24), but he doesn't name them all. Apart from Judas the betrayer, John names Simon-Peter, his brother Andrew, Philip, Nathaniel, another Judas, and Thomas. These few have roles to play in the gospel. In chapter 21 the sons of Zebedee are referred to (named James and John in other gospels).

John also refers to Joseph of Arimathea as a 'secret' disciple, so John was aware that a larger group of people were disciples, even if they did not form part of the inner crew. I suppose that the other two in chapter 21 could be two of that larger group, possibly also fishermen by trade, given the context of fishing. Another option might be that Andrew and also possibly Philip were the other two, but then were does the disciple whom Jesus loved fit in?

There does seem to be mileage in the idea that chapter 21 – assuming it was added to John's gospel later – was written by someone who did not have first-hand knowledge of the events.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
Link to another Keryg thread that discusses John 21.
 
Posted by Mamacita (# 3659) on :
 
It is interesting that the death of one, and possibly two, of the disciples is mentioned in this last chapter of John.
quote:
[Jesus said to Peter,] "Very truly, I tell you, when you were younger, you used to fasten your own belt and to go wherever you wished. But when you grow old, you will stretch out your hands, and someone else will fasten a belt around you and take you where you do not wish to go."(He said this to indicate the kind of death by which he would glorify God.) (John 21:18-19)
and
quote:
When Peter saw him [the Beloved Disciple], he said to Jesus, "Lord, what about him?" Jesus said to him, "If it is my will that he remain until I come, what is that to you? Follow me!" So the rumour spread in the community that this disciple would not die. Yet Jesus did not say to him that he would not die, but, "If it is my will that he remain until I come, what is that to you?" (John 21:21-23)
With regards to the first text above, it seems reasonable to assume that the Johannine community knew that Peter had been martyred by this time. And thus, that it might be some comfort to know that Jesus knew this would happen.

I wonder if vv. 21-23 suggest that the Johannine community knew by this time of the death of the Beloved Disciple and needed an explanation as well?

[ 03. May 2015, 17:20: Message edited by: Mamacita ]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
It does assist in answering the question, What was the purpose of writing chapter 21? There may be an overlap with the purpose of the rest of the work, if after an initial flush of enthusiasm there began to be a realisation that faith may actually be for the long haul and might have to cope with the gamut of life and death. Not an unusual issue facing new churches, or even attempts to get fit.

I don't think it would have taken long, either. Paul had barely established new Christian communities when he was having to write to them about sticking the course and not giving up. John's gospel could work well – if not always as a successful evangelistic tool – as an aid to those who are fairly recent converts to belief in Jesus. I wonder how God felt on Day Two of creation? After the initial burst of energy, did his shoulders droop at the recognition that he had another commute to work to do? Well, perhaps he had a different motivation, but the average disciple seemed to need a fillip or two.
 
Posted by pimple (# 10635) on :
 
Thanks Mamacita for linking the other Keryg thread - it'll stop me repeating myself ad nauseam if you're lucky!

Meanwhile please carry on without me for a while [like you need my permission?!]

I want to check back Nigel's and others' remarks vis-à-vis the pivotal Chapter 10 and I'm having lots of fun locating the bits I want in a thread that currently runs to 650+ pages.

I recommend it to shippies for a wet weekend. Read all about Lamb Chopped's brave struggle with.....belly dancing, for instance! [Devil]
 
Posted by Nigel M (# 11256) on :
 
Trying to picture belly dancing as a metaphor for something in John, but can't remember which passage it was where Jesus said that he was God's abdominal movement. I'm sure it's in John somewhere.

I think the verse we had reached was:
quote:
John 21:3
Simon Peter told them, “I'm going to fish.” “We will go with you,” they replied. They went out and got into the boat, but that night they caught nothing.

Still part of the background to Jesus' appearance to this group of disciples. Presumably they (including the unnamed ones) were fishermen by trade, which is whey they had decamped to the Sea of Tiberius and were all prepared to go out fishing. John isn't bother to tell us where the other disciples were, or how Jesus might have interacted with them after the resurrection.

It sounds as though these fishermen were holed up in a house somewhere near the Sea; they leave the premises and got into 'the boat'. Not sure if there is any significance in specifying a single boat with the definite article – a personal property of Simon's, perhaps?
 
Posted by Pyx_e (# 57) on :
 
"A right time for birth and another for death."

The hosts have asked me to add the final post to this 9 year adventure.

Thank you and well done! to everyone who contributed and the hosts for keeping it on course. It has been for me a touch stone and source of great pleasure to see it progress, and now end

One of the things I have learnt on the ship is that I am not good at written theology. I can (and do) talk about what the Bible means to me with fellow Christians. To read your wit, your insight, your passion has left me a little envious.

To abide by the rules I set out in May 2009:

Stop.
 


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