Thread: Is Standardized Spelling Elitism? Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I have read some people claiming that having and/or enforcing standard spelling, punctuation, etc. (orthography) is elitist, and serves only to separate "us" from "them." It's meaningless, the argument goes, to "make" people spell (and punctuate etc) things "properly" except to make them feel bad and let them know that they're not as good as people who have mastered the standard orthography.

It seems to me that what standardized orthography allows is untroubled and quick reading. Humans only have so much working memory. If you know a word by sight, you don't have to waste any cognition figuring out. Words you don't recognize, you have to puzzle out. When a word is spelled weirdly, you have to stop and puzzle it out. A big chunk of text with random spelling would take much longer to read than the same chunk with the normal, recognized spelling. If you've ever tried to read the original 1611 King James, or some other old book with familiar words in unfamiliar spellings, you know what I mean. Fluency in reading a text with odd (to the reader) spellings is near impossible.

Or so it seems to me. I tried to see if any research had been done on this, but all the research I could find seems to be about beginning readers, who of course don't have regular word forms memorized, so any old spelling works -- they have to sound everything out.

It also seems to me that making excuses for people using non-standard orthography is basically racist and patronizing, as it is often raised in defense of minority groups. "Those poor blacks/Latinos/whatever," the argument seems to say. "They can't possibly learn to spell as easily as whites do. It's not fair to make them try." It's insulting.

What do people think?
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
The bigger issue is one of practicality - if everyone writes what they consider to be a phonetic rendering of the word then I'm going to have awful trouble trying to read anything written by a Glaswegian even if I can work out the sounds they are trying to represent. Standard spelling allows for communication that doesn't depend on being able to understand accents. I understand Chinese is the extreme example, where written Chinese is mutually intelligible but the spoken dialects are largely incomprehensible to speakers of other dialects.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
Alphabets are always approximations, so standardized spelling is necessary. More so in English, which has neither a dominant dialect nor a language academy. Whatever influence "The King's English" might have had has waned.

In French the entire idea of non-standarized spelling is absurd; there is one way, the only way, and that is the French Academy way. Any deviation from that pushes you down the respectability scale.

As an English Canadian with French as my second language, I speak French with a Québecois twang; it works because I want to get a job in Montreal, not Paris.

France-Québec jealousies are another thread though. [Devil]
 
Posted by the giant cheeseburger (# 10942) on :
 
Surely there's a solution to that jealousy though - simply emigrate to France and get the rest of Europe thrown in as well
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
English, as my Nepali staff struggle with it, is notoriously difficult to acquire as a second language, and even for my staff who are native speakers, it's difficult to spell.

Precise communication in written English is tough enough WITH standardized orthography, punctuation, and usage. Without these, communicating in English would become a nightmare.

There are a few hundred (maybe 350) words in common use (most of them coming down to us from the language's Anglo-Saxon roots) which seem to comply with no spelling "rules." (As a one-time English major, I seem to recall that the now-silent "L" in "half," for example, was pronounced back in Chaucer's day; all that's changed is the pronunciation.)

Most people who practice reading and writing on a regular basis will encounter these 350-or-so words constantly. Suck it up and memorize 'em.

The problem with this approach, of course, is that we are rapidly becoming a post-literate society. During a brief stint at college teaching, I was appalled at the writing my students turned in. Some of their papers were incoherent, illogical, and just plain indecipherable -- and these were people who had secondary-school diplomas. Ye gods.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
The bigger issue is one of practicality - if everyone writes what they consider to be a phonetic rendering of the word then I'm going to have awful trouble trying to read anything written by a Glaswegian even if I can work out the sounds they are trying to represent. Standard spelling allows for communication that doesn't depend on being able to understand accents.

I don't know whether they still do it, but the journal of the International Phonetic Association used to be published in the International Phonetic Alphabet.

I once had occasion to read an article written by an Englishman in the 1930s. The only way I could understand it was to read it aloud and listen to my voice producing a weird parody of an RP accnt.

It took me at least five times as long to read the article as it normally would have.

Moo
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:

Most people who practice reading and writing on a regular basis will encounter these 350-or-so words constantly. Suck it up and memorize 'em.

That'll be 'memorise' - thank you.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:

Most people who practice reading and writing on a regular basis will encounter these 350-or-so words constantly. Suck it up and memorize 'em.

That'll be 'memorise' - thank you.
Actually -ize endings are a valid, if vulgar [Biased] , alternate form even in British English.
 
Posted by Olaf (# 11804) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I have read some people claiming that having and/or enforcing standard spelling, punctuation, etc. (orthography) is elitist, and serves only to separate "us" from "them." It's meaningless, the argument goes, to "make" people spell (and punctuate etc) things "properly" except to make them feel bad and let them know that they're not as good as people who have mastered the standard orthography.

This is a cop-out. In the world of education,
passages such as this one are passed around to teach poor, simpleminded, traditionalist morons of the errors of their ways... Yet, the simple fact is that the overwhelming majority of employers in professional and specialized fields will not hire people whose applications are full of errors.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Olaf:
This is a cop-out. In the world of education,
passages such as this one are passed around to teach poor, simpleminded, traditionalist morons of the errors of their ways... Yet, the simple fact is that the overwhelming majority of employers in professional and specialized fields will not hire people whose applications are full of errors.

I've never seen this used in any school to seriously suggest that spelling was unimportant. If anything the last decade has seen a re-emphasis on correct use of English across the curriculum. I know it comes up regularly in Physics lessons when I'm teaching.
 
Posted by the giant cheeseburger (# 10942) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Olaf:
Yet, the simple fact is that the overwhelming majority of employers in professional and specialized fields will not hire people whose applications are full of errors.

Very true. Even in non-specialised fields it is common for error-ridden application letters to be put straight in the bin, as a way of culling a pile with hundreds of applications down to a manageable number which can be considered properly. It might not be the best filter for that purpose, but to take hundreds of applications seriously simply isn't possible for the vast majority of businesses when time is money.

In customer-facing roles, I think there is still a general assumption that poor literacy (for example, in the notes on a computer repair job) is a good reason for customers to question the competency of the work done in the 'essential' areas of the job. Managers know and understand that there's a difference between that perception and the reality, but they also understand that they win and lose business (and therefore the funds to be able to employ workers) on the basis of perception rather than reality.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
This seems a very small tempest in a teacup.
A single way to spell is the mark of an elite that values ease of reading over the difficulty of learning. This was not a problem when only the upper class could read.

Near universal literacy has created a large group of people who read but not often. With the advent of movies, video and cell phones many people read less, so classical orthography may diminish in the way that the skill of writing longhand has.

I have read predictions on the future of English that the majority of English speakers will be speaking it as a second language. This leads to variant vocabularies and creoles but also a wider use of a common basic dialect. In the United States radio and television has lead to the diminishing of regional accents and vocabulary. The internet may do the same on a global basis. The current problem Hollywood producers struggle with is that comic dialog is not global the way explosions are so the pressure to simplify continues at the same time that the technology of publishing now allows regional versions. I suspect that the common literate dialect may be nudged into place by auto-correct computers. I see this when in this very editor when it protests about an American or British spelling variant.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

It seems to me that what standardized orthography allows is untroubled and quick reading.

This is the essence of standardisation.
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
I'm going to have awful trouble trying to read anything written by a Glaswegian even if I can work out the sounds they are trying to represent.

Take a news reader from the UK, America, Canada, Australia, etc. and we can all understand them as they speak in the "standard". And this why they do.
quote:
Originally posted by Olaf:
This is a cop-out. In the world of education,
passages such as this one are passed around to teach poor, simpleminded, traditionalist morons of the errors of their ways...

It is because we understand the "proper" spelling of the words that we can understand such a paragraph.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
... (As a one-time English major, I seem to recall that the now-silent "L" in "half," for example, was pronounced back in Chaucer's day; all that's changed is the pronunciation.) ...

In some dialects round here the silent 'l's are still pronounced, especially where it is in 'alm' as in 'calm' or 'Palmer'. It often appears as a sort of swallowed sound at the back of the mouth.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:

Most people who practice reading and writing on a regular basis will encounter these 350-or-so words constantly. Suck it up and memorize 'em.

That'll be 'memorise' - thank you.
Actually -ize endings are a valid, if vulgar [Biased] , alternate form even in British English.
Doesn't the OED use -ize?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
A single way to spell is the mark of an elite that values ease of reading over the difficulty of learning.

The problem is that if something is difficult to read, many people won't bother with it.

If it is important to someone that what he writes be read, understood, and acted on, unconventional spelling will greatly lessen the chance of this happening.

It's not just the elite who won't bother with unclear writing. I suspect the non-elite are even more likely not to bother.

Moo
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the giant cheeseburger:
Very true. Even in non-specialised fields it is common for error-ridden application letters to be put straight in the bin, as a way of culling a pile with hundreds of applications down to a manageable number which can be considered properly.

Rather like Van Halen's "no brown M&M" rider. Is someone who makes careless, sloppy errors on a job application likely to be someone who will pay attention to detail as an employee?
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Mousethief had it from the beginning. Standardised spelling arose in the first place because it made it easier to realise that someone was saying the same thing.

There are small variations present in English as it is (my computer is underlining 'realise' to tell me it should be 'realize' right this very moment), but the variations are quite limited and tend to occur at locations in words where they have the least impact on comprehension. Throw in more variation and it become distracting. Throw in enough and it perceptibly slows down your reading speed.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
If Aussies use British spelling, shouldn't it be "realise?" And as for "memorise," I'm on the wrong side of the Pond for that. When the Affordable Care Act ultimately collapses under the weight of damfool congresscritters and I flee to the UK for its NHS, I'll spell accordingly. Until then, I'll memorize my neighbor's theater program instead of memorising my neighbour's theatre programme, thank you.
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
Standardised spelling and punctuation. First things first, ban Yank spelling.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Aw, hell. You lost that war, guys. We won the right to develop our own vocab ("boot" and "bonnet," indeed) , and our own damn spelling. Not to mention being the first to chuck those funny-looking double esses that look like effs.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
If Aussies use British spelling, shouldn't it be "realise?"

That's the point. The computer, or its operating system, isn't Australian.

In any case the Macquarie Dictionary recognises both.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Standardised spelling and punctuation. First things first, ban Yank spelling.

Um, what is Yank and what is Brit? Every time we have these discussions, we find it is not completely clear.
 
Posted by Molopata The Rebel (# 9933) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:

Most people who practice reading and writing on a regular basis will encounter these 350-or-so words constantly. Suck it up and memorize 'em.

That'll be 'memorise' - thank you.
Actually -ize endings are a valid, if vulgar [Biased] , alternate form even in British English.
Doesn't the OED use -ize?
It does, of course calling the entire Oxford project into question.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
The problem is that if something is difficult to read, many people won't bother with it.

Exactly right.

I am dyslexic and have to work five times as hard to spell correctly as the average Joe. Some still slip through and I will still type 'here' for 'hear' with no help whatever from Mr Spellcheck. But it's essential to make the effort. There are many spellings I still do not know. I have to check every time. The dyslexic brain simply doesn't retain some stuff.

I am a Primary School teacher and give the dyslexic children no excuse - they have to put the work in, learn the spellings they can and check the ones they can't.
 
Posted by Higgs Bosun (# 16582) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
Aw, hell. You lost that war, guys. We won the right to develop our own vocab ("boot" and "bonnet," indeed) , and our own damn spelling. Not to mention being the first to chuck those funny-looking double esses that look like effs.

The long s is a matter of typography, not orthography.
 
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Standardised spelling and punctuation. First things first, ban Yank spelling.

Um, what is Yank and what is Brit? Every time we have these discussions, we find it is not completely clear.
Yes, that's true. I think 'ize' is an old form in British English, well, when I say 'old', I mean late medieval.

Thus, I think that 'realize' predates 'realise' in English. And pedants seem to insist that 'ize' goes back to the Greek. Struth, give me strength.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
That's pretty much it as I understand it. -ise and -ize come from the Norman French ancestry, and both came into English before orthography set in in either language. The OED using -ize is supposed to be on account of the Victorian obsession with classical heritage, but both have been used in British English, albeit with varying frequency at different times.

Actually - another point - many odd-looking spellings were originally phonetic - it's just that pronunciation has changed. Blood originally used to rhyme with food. Salvation isn't spelled salvashun because it used to be pronounced as a four-syllable word. As anyone singing a set of Tudor responses will know.
 
Posted by quetzalcoatl (# 16740) on :
 
Yes, my wife used to be an editor in publishing, and she says that 'ize' was common in English publishing before WWII, but then came to be seen as old-fashioned, not American, and 'ise' took over. Complicated story.
 
Posted by rufiki (# 11165) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
A single way to spell is the mark of an elite that values ease of reading over the difficulty of learning.

Doesn't standardized spelling make learning easier? If you come across a word you don't know, you can look it up. Same goes for people reading text in a foreign language.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by rufiki:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
A single way to spell is the mark of an elite that values ease of reading over the difficulty of learning.

Doesn't standardized spelling make learning easier? If you come across a word you don't know, you can look it up. Same goes for people reading text in a foreign language.
I would agree. Also -
quote:
This seems a very small tempest in a teacup.
A single way to spell is the mark of an elite that values ease of reading over the difficulty of learning. This was not a problem when only the upper class could read.

(Actually many upper class people did not read also.) But at this time, writing was phonetic. It no longer is in many instances. With the rise of many new dialects, that makes it way more difficult to guess what a non-standard spelling may mean.

While I'm here - what exactly does "elite" mean in this context?
 
Posted by Cara (# 16966) on :
 
Just chiming in to say I agree with mousethief and with what appears to be the majority view. Spelling is important, having a knowledge of it and of how to write is important, you'll still be judged adversely in many quarters without it, and it's patronising to assume anyone is too stupid to learn it.

Though of course I know, especially as I've taught English as a foreign language, how difficult it is for foreigners and for those who haven't grown up reading a lot. And I know it is much harder for people like Boogie who suffer from dyslexia--my hat's off to you!

But still. As has been said, the French don't pander to any relaxing of standards, and here I am in France trying my very best to write correctly when I write in French. And so I should.
 
Posted by bib (# 13074) on :
 
It has always seemed a strange argument that spelling and grammar don't matter. Imagine if the same attitude applied to mathematics - the entire economy and science would be in a shambles as accuracy is essential for correct calculations. The same can be said of correct spelling and grammar. I firmly believe that near enough is not good enough.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
I'm not sure that analogy holds. The better comparison is not accuracy of calculation but how you lay out your working. Poorly laid out mathematical work can be correct, and unconventional notation can still represent correct working, but it's a pain in the arse to figure out and increases the likelihood that mistakes won't be spotted. As a child (and now receive the same as teacher) I always argued that I didn't need to show any working so long as I got the answer right, which is probably the equivalent of the "spelling and grammar doesn't matter so long as you communicate your meaning".
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
...which is probably the equivalent of the "spelling and grammar doesn't matter so long as you communicate your meaning".

The thing is that with poor spelling and grammar you are much less likely to communicate your meaning.

Moo
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
...which is probably the equivalent of the "spelling and grammar doesn't matter so long as you communicate your meaning".

The thing is that with poor spelling and grammar you are much less likely to communicate your meaning.

Moo

I quite agree, but that is the argument made against, say, marking down poor spelling and grammar in history exams.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
... The problem is that if something is difficult to read, many people won't bother with it. ...

I couldn't agree more. If someone wants to tell me something, I take the line that I'm entitled to expect them to do so in a way that I can understand, and not expect me to have to puzzle out out what they might be trying to say.

I'm particularly likely to switch them out if they write verbose gobbledygook fully of fancy abstract words of the sort that people use if they think it will impress people.

I do the same with people who talk too fast.
 
Posted by no prophet (# 15560) on :
 
You guys have nothing on Canadians. Regularly, sometimes in the same document I will see colour/color, practice/practise, travelled/traveled, memorise/memorize. And we haven't even started on vocabulary.

I want to bring back some letters lost over the centuries, particularly thorn (þ), eth (ð), yogh (ȝ).

And we need a movement to pronounce everything phonetically, like Monty Python suggests with knight as kuh-nig-it.
 
Posted by Og: Thread Killer (# 3200) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
..

Precise communication in written English is tough enough WITH standardized orthography, punctuation, and usage. Without these, communicating in English would become a nightmare.

..

The internet seems to survive.


My issue with standardized spelling is not elitism, its Canutism.

The English language evolves as fast as culture evolves. To attempt to deny change within it is to attempt to deny the biggest strength of English - its ability to adapt quickly.

Might as well hold back the tide.
 
Posted by Horseman Bree (# 5290) on :
 
from the OP: Mousethief:
quote:
I have read some people claiming that having and/or enforcing standard spelling, punctuation, etc. (orthography) is elitist, and serves only to separate "us" from "them." It's meaningless, the argument goes, to "make" people spell (and punctuate etc) things "properly" except to make them feel bad
The people who complain about "elitism" often come from the group that either refused to participate in the attempt to "educate" them or were forced into submission by a system that did not deal well with them.

The former group were pushed by their peer group or community to avoid becoming educated, on the grounds that they might then leave the tribe; the latter were bullied by incompetent teachers into some form of submission, where they learned that they would not be allowed to become educated - which was OK when a man could get a job at 15 or 16 and learn "on the job" but doesn't work now. This is where the large group of presently-unemployable men are stuck, knowing that they can't work in the modern society.

The two groups form the basis of the various political groups that seem to take pride in being unruly and difficult. The view of "elitism" is just an expression of their alienation.

Pink Floyd did a pretty good description: "We don't need no education" to a good heavy beat.
 
Posted by irish_lord99 (# 16250) on :
 
My personal gut reaction* to calling standardized spelling "elitist" was, "Seriously, how low do you want to set the bar for our public education system?"**

Although I do see a particular element of elitism in general academia, this call to accept poor spelling without criticism seems more an invitation to laziness rather than a "line separating 'us' from 'them'."

IMO, it's such thinking that will ultimately create a lower-class of lazy and under-educated people that have even less of a chance of advancing up the ladder. "Don't want to learn to spell? Fine, well since I don't want to hurt your little feelings I'll pass you along anyway. Oh, you don't want to learn math either? Well that's why they invented calculators, isn't it? And you, in all your infinite teenage wisdom think that a third-grade reading level is satisfactory? Okay then, here's your diploma; good luck out there!"

Most people from my generation learned their work ethic in school. Even if every student doesn't walk out of high school a Rhodes Scholar, they should have at least learned how to dedicate themselves to achieving a goal: even if that's just learning how to spell most commonly used words properly.

_____

*At least regarding native speakers: I have all the sympathy in the world for those trying to learn English as a second language [Ultra confused]

**Disclaimer: I probably make as many spelling and grammar errors as anyone else. [Hot and Hormonal]
 
Posted by Desert Daughter (# 13635) on :
 
One of the joys (?) of my profession is marking essays. These are composed by university students from varying socio-economic backgrounds. And in the following discussion I exclude those with dyslexia or a migrant background where French is not their first language:

The French language is notoriously difficult to spell correctly. I know, because I learned French as third language and the spelling was one of the banes of my teenage years. What is worrying is that in France an astonishingly large part of the native (before anyone with PC-concerns squeaks: referring here to those born and raised in the country by native French speaking parents) population does not / cannot spell correctly.

What I have, however, observed over the years is that there is no apparent relation between the density of spelling mistakes in a text and the student's background. It is just that some students take the time and effort to think before they write and run their stuff through a spellchecker before sending it to me. The majority don't bother. Ditto with e-mails sent to me in the context of general student-professor interaction. I must say I am much more favourably disposed to those students who send me a correct e-mail in decent French with few, if any, spelling mistakes, as I take it as a sign of if not respect then at least consideration. This has nothing to do with snobbishness, and everything to do with trying to uphold a certain degree of civility, style and courtesy in communication. It's about civilised behaviour and showing respect. You don't need rich parents to learn the rules of grammar and good spelling (at least not in a country with free secondary schools), or at the very least use the spellchecker of your word processor.

Very often, it's a question of attitude, not of education.

[ 30. November 2013, 15:52: Message edited by: Desert Daughter ]
 
Posted by Carex (# 9643) on :
 
Clarity of communications: it comes down to the difference between

You know your shit.

and

You know you're shit.


Working in a technical field, especially with staff in distant countries where English is not their first (or even second) language, I find that spelling is very important. I don't always know who at the other end might have to be looking up my words in a dictionary to make sure they have the proper meaning, and that is much more difficult if I don't spell the word properly.

Not to say that my spelling is perfect, or that I can't understand sentences with poor spelling or grammar - I deal with that all the time (especially when auto-correct inserts the wrong word, or when text is auto-translated, which can cause some interesting terms in a technical paper - one paper in electrical engineering was full of sea urchins, but I was able to figure out what it meant.)
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Og: Thread Killer:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
..

Precise communication in written English is tough enough WITH standardized orthography, punctuation, and usage. Without these, communicating in English would become a nightmare.

..

The internet seems to survive.
Certainly it survives. It also purveys, along with a certain amount of accurate and/or interesting information, a great deal of badly-thought-out, inaccurately-spelled, incoherently-phrased, disorganized and illogical and utterly incomprehensible rubbish.

quote:
Originally posted by Og: Thread Killer:
My issue with standardized spelling is not elitism, its Canutism.

The English language evolves as fast as culture evolves. To attempt to deny change within it is to attempt to deny the biggest strength of English - its ability to adapt quickly.

Might as well hold back the tide.

Of course English changes, and must change, and you're right that its flexibility is one of its strengths as a language.

However, I'm not sure it's "change" that's the issue here. Certainly if the majority of English speakers agree to spell "see you later" as "c u l8r," no problem arises. But that's simply establishing a new, different standard: "c u l8r" becomes common usage, and people who deviate from that common expectation deviate from what has become the new standard.

Having everybody spell that phrase however they like -- "si yoo latre," "sea yu lattr," "c u l8tr," "see you later," etc. is what causes the problems and potentially interferes with the accurate communication of the writer's intentions (though probably not with this particular phrase).
 
Posted by SusanDoris (# 12618) on :
 
Clear communication needs correct spelling and grammar, e.g. should have plus past participle, not should of.*wince* I cannot think of 'easier' spelling which would improve communication. I'm slightly saddened by today's - I suppose one would call it 'return' - to words like re-occur instead of recur, and another similar lengthening of a word beginning with re, but which escapes my mind just at this moment.

I think I'm lucky, spelling came easily to me and errors jumped off the page at me. My ears have to spot them now, which I hope they do most of the time with Synthetic Dave's pronunciation of whatever is there.
 
Posted by Sober Preacher's Kid (# 12699) on :
 
Desert Daughter:

That is because French never uses one vowel where three will do. [Razz]
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Og: Thread Killer:
The internet seems to survive.


My issue with standardized spelling is not elitism, its Canutism.

The English language evolves as fast as culture evolves. To attempt to deny change within it is to attempt to deny the biggest strength of English - its ability to adapt quickly.

Might as well hold back the tide.

Agreed. Selfie is OED word of the year
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
But "selfie" does not contrevene the rules. It is a new word added, such as all laguanges do. Selfie demonstrates collective acceptance, not random illiteracy. In short, it is a demonstration of why rules matter, not the opposite.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
Exactly. When I see people giving examples of new words or new grammatical forms, I wonder if they've understood what the thread was about.
 
Posted by Alogon (# 5513) on :
 
Even if we Anglophones can read between the lines well enough to grasp the meaning behind a message couched in mis-spellings, let's have some mercy on foreigners and the computers they often use to help them. It's a big world now.

Pre-Web, I'd hang my head in shame when told that we Americans are a particularly sloppy and stupid lot, not knowing our own language. This may be true enough, but we are not alone! Take anything written by a French or German member of the hoi-polloi to Google Translate and see if it (or you) can make anything of it. One of my Facebook friends is a young Finn, and machine translators and I can't make sense of even the briefest of posts or comments from his page.

As for punctuation, a popular book on the subject is entitled Eats Shoots and Leaves. Misunderstandings can lead to fights.

[swapped html tags for ubb tags]

[ 01. December 2013, 06:07: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Interesting point about not being able to look up wrongly-spelled words in the dictionary to see what they mean. Random bad spelling has to be a worse nightmare for ELLs than standard spelling, which is horrific enough.

quote:
Originally posted by Honest Ron Bacardi:
While I'm here - what exactly does "elite" mean in this context?

Not meaning to speak for palimpsest, but often in conversations like this "elite" means "people who can do something I cannot."
 
Posted by the giant cheeseburger (# 10942) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alogon:

Pre-Web, I'd hang my head in shame when told that we Americans are a particularly sloppy and stupid lot, not knowing our own language. This may be true enough, but we are not alone! Take anything written by a French or German member of the hoi-polloi to Google Translate and see if it (or you) can make anything of it. One of my Facebook friends is a young Finn, and machine translators and I can't make sense of even the briefest of posts or comments from his page.

Wait, so you're saying that other people are stupid or sloppy just because automated translation software is still a work in progress than can only translate words rather than meaning?

This would have to be one of the dumbest things I've ever read on the Ship.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by rufiki:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
A single way to spell is the mark of an elite that values ease of reading over the difficulty of learning.

Doesn't standardized spelling make learning easier? If you come across a word you don't know, you can look it up. Same goes for people reading text in a foreign language.
The asymmetry is that it's easier to learn to read text with standardized spelling and harder to learn to write text with standardized spelling.

This view comes out of a discussion I had recently with some Arabic typographers who said that there is growing evidence that classical Arabic scripts are harder to read then ones with the classical contractions and optional diacritics filled in. This may be part of an asymmetry introduced by manual calligraphy; the contracted form may have been chosen for ease of writing rather than ease of reading. Printing changes the balance, since text becomes written once and read by many people.


When I mentioned elites, I was talking about people who work with written texts. I know this is a narrow definition and others might prefer a definition that references money or political power. [Biased]

My comment about "Selfie" is just how rapidly it became part of the language. It probably takes longer for new words to enter the common vocabulary if there's a standardized vocabulary. e.g. French and loan words from English.
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
<tangent>Finnish is complicated by having two versions - a spoken and a written form. The translators expect the written form; Finns talking informally between themselves use the spoken form, even in writing.

I have a couple of Finnish friends on Flickr / 365, even met one when she was over earlier this year. When they chat between themselves the translator gives up in disgust.</tangent>

Even using correct English the misunderstandings can be rife. I posted a comment on one of Finnish friends' pictures asking what the fledgling birds he'd photographed were because they looked like thrushes to me. He googled thrush and did not enjoy the resulting images. What I should have given him was the species name Turdus philomelus or Turdus viscivorus or specified song or mistle thrush. (The photograph was of fieldfares, Turdus pilaris)
 
Posted by Galilit (# 16470) on :
 
For many years I was way the best in my class at spelling...I guess that is another thing that made me the arrogant little (5-foot-4) "$^&*%" that I am today...
 
Posted by Desert Daughter (# 13635) on :
 
/Tangent/ Finnish does not fare well in google translate and other similar softwares because its syntax (participle constructions) and the fact that it is an agglutinative language makes it difficult to handle for automatic translation.

My own notions of Finnish are minimal, I understand more than I can speak, but I love that language precisely for its defiance of any notions of user-friendliness [Devil]
 
Posted by Higgs Bosun (# 16582) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Curiosity killed ...:
<tangent>Finnish is complicated by having two versions - a spoken and a written form. The translators expect the written form; Finns talking informally between themselves use the spoken form, even in writing.

I"m not sure this is a tangent. I think part of the problem about spelling, punctuation etc. is the failure to recognize that spoken and written language have become somewhat different, and should be treated differently. In most contexts when language is spoken, there is a lot of context to give the sentence meaning and to disambiguate potentially confusing items. I guess few of us habitually read out loud, whereas reading without speaking was rare some centuries ago.

When I read something which has confused, for instance, your/you're or whose/who's, there/their/they're, I often just cannot parse the sentence, it make no sense.

Punctuation is often necessary in order to make the meaning clear. For instance, here is the winning entry in a competition the Guardian had for haiku about apostrophes:

quote:

I've run out of food.
I'm going to eat the dogs.
What apostrophe?


 
Posted by Tortuf (# 3784) on :
 
We, hopefully, use written words to communicate. While there are other uses for written words, it seems to me that communication is the typical motivation for writing something.

If you wish to communicate you ought to be prepared to write words in a way that makes communication accessible and susceptible to only your intended meaning. That requires several things, including a communication that is spelled so that the target audience can read and comprehend the written words.

If you wish to communicate and feel that your spelling ought to triumph over the standard spelling for those same words you are demonstrating one of several things:

You are targeting an audience that shares your spelling proclivities;

You are so important that you need not use standard spelling. (In which case it is not necessary that your communication is hard to comprehend because it it highly likely to be bollocks anyway), or;

You never learned to spell, or you ignore your spell checker when using a computer.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:

My comment about "Selfie" is just how rapidly it became part of the language. It probably takes longer for new words to enter the common vocabulary if there's a standardized vocabulary. e.g. French and loan words from English.

We do have a standard vocabulary,* it is just not as rigid as some.
quote:
Originally posted by Tortuf:
or you ignore your spell checker when using a computer.

Yes! Spelling properly has never been more accessible and suddenly it is elitist?


* otherwise dictionaries would be near impossible.
 
Posted by The Rogue (# 2275) on :
 
My view has softened over the years. I can spell and grammar fairly naturally and I have been snobbish and put off by writing that wasn't.

Now I have realised that just because I might have to work a bit harder at understanding something it doesn't make it less worth reading. Sometimes "poor" writing can be interpreted in two contradictory ways in which case I will take my pick or go back to the author for clarity.

One exception is that part of my job is processing payroll and I insist in everything being given to me in writing and if there is the slightest possibly of ambiguity I will go back for clarification.

I can understand using poor spelling as a filter for job applications, purely because of the quantity that can come through. It is a shame but if someone hasn't even bothered to use a spell checker on a computerised cv that does say something about their possible attitude to the job. By the way, I recently advertised a cleaning position and thanks to spell checkers a lot of people had experience in Hovering.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
When I mentioned elites, I was talking about people who work with written texts.

Emails and text messages are written texts. Very, very few people in our culture do not work with written texts.
 
Posted by Desert Daughter (# 13635) on :
 
what's wrong with striving to emulate the "elite"?
 
Posted by SusanDoris (# 12618) on :
 
Years ago when I was teaching, I remember there was a book called 'The Bad Speller's Dictionary'. The children enjoyed using it!
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
When I mentioned elites, I was talking about people who work with written texts.

Emails and text messages are written texts. Very, very few people in our culture do not work with written texts.
That is now true. Universal literacy in the United States probably happened in the early 20th century. The most recent change is now a majority of people can produce typed or computer display text so bad penmanship is no longer the major hindrance to legibility.

This makes the complaints about elitism rather archaic. There's a huge amount of badly written text out there rather than a smaller amount of well produced text. An early crack in the wall was the switching of newspapers to photo-offset. Before that conversion one rarely saw a typographic error or misspelling in the New York Times. All those professional linotype operators quietly fixed it as they entered the copy. It's gotten better with spell checking, but there are many oddities that automated spell checkers will not catch, especially in verbatim text.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
But "selfie" does not contrevene the rules. It is a new word added, such as all laguanges do. Selfie demonstrates collective acceptance, not random illiteracy. In short, it is a demonstration of why rules matter, not the opposite.

Extremely rapid collective acceptance means readers have a tolerance for new words, new usage and variant spellings that they disambiguate by context. You end up using words before they have a canonical spelling.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Desert Daughter:
what's wrong with striving to emulate the "elite"?

That's not the relevant question. No one is complaining about people who try to spell words correctly. What's wrong with not striving to emulate the so-called "elite"?
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
Something interesting is happening in the split between the Spanish and the Portuguese language. In many words, when an l follows another consonant in Spanish (and ultimately in Latin), it is replaced by an r in Portuguese.

So, we get:
'White' = blanco (S) → branco (P)
'Town square'= plaza (S) → praça (P)

Apparently, this didn't happened historically all at once, but some words made this transition earlier than others. In the midst of this process, standardized spellings were introduced for both languages. At that time, not all words had made the transition yet.

So in the official spelling, we still have:
'Plant'= planta (S) = planta (P)

However, in rural Brazil and in popular neighbourhoods of the cities, people will say (and often write) pranta.

The question is: is this the wrong spelling, or is this the 'elitists' trying to stop a natural development of a language?
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by LeRoc:

However, in rural Brazil and in popular neighbourhoods of the cities, people will say (and often write) pranta.

The question is: is this the wrong spelling, or is this the 'elitists' trying to stop a natural development of a language?

My understanding is that much of Quebec French is viewed in France as some sort of archaic provincial dialect. I would be curious if this Brazilian rural usage is a new simplification of Portuguese or an old rural usage in Portugal. Other than that, I can only offer the factoid that in the Microsoft localization software Brazilian Portuguese is seen as sufficiently different then Portuguese that it has it's own set of hyphenation rules.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
But "selfie" does not contrevene the rules. It is a new word added, such as all laguanges do. Selfie demonstrates collective acceptance, not random illiteracy. In short, it is a demonstration of why rules matter, not the opposite.

Extremely rapid collective acceptance means readers have a tolerance for new words, new usage and variant spellings that they disambiguate by context. You end up using words before they have a canonical spelling.
Selfie follows conventional spelling pattern. It could have been selfy but the core self is retained. Regardless, even a new word such as pwned follows the rules of usage and acceptance. Online communication speed acceptance, but does not change the basic rules. I think one could make a case for it strengthening common spellings rather than the reverse.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
Selfie follows conventional spelling pattern. It could have been selfy but the core self is retained. Regardless, even a new word such as pwned follows the rules of usage and acceptance. Online communication speed acceptance, but does not change the basic rules. I think one could make a case for it strengthening common spellings rather than the reverse.

The precedent is that Radio and Television in the United States really reduced regional accents and word usage in favor of a national network standard. However that hasn't stopped rapid evolution of local idioms such as Valley speak. Increased technology comes with the propagation of variant spellings. "Pwned" may be in wide spread use, but so is the variant spelling "owned". [Smile] If you believe some of the many explanations in the frequently not suitable for work Urban Dictionary, it was the playful adaption of a misspelled word used in a computer game.
Similarly "teh gayz" is another example of a recent common satirically misspelled usage. Variant spellings and mock dialect words are enabled by the improvement in printed communication. The previous revolution gave us "Mr. Dooley on Ivrything and Ivrybody".

If you complain about how incomprehensible a variant spelling is, you're also going to miss out on the riffs of the playful or regional. You could complain that non-standardized spelling is elitism. [Smile]

[codefix]

[ 03. December 2013, 05:05: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
I am not complaining. I am saying that the variant spellings fall into accepted variations, therefore do not contravene convention. It is having a standard reference that makes the variations comprehensible.
Rhyming slang is a good example of how convention anchors the unconventional.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
That raises the interesting question of how unconventional misspellings are. Google usually can detect misspellings and this is mostly based on the data of prior misspellings of the same word. If some words are frequently misspelled in a few ways are these ways acceptable variants? If googling the misspelled word brings up the correct spelling and the dictionary definition does that define the word as an acceptable variant? (e.g. googling the word "googling").
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
Palimpsest: My understanding is that much of Quebec French is viewed in France as some sort of archaic provincial dialect.
I speak French well, and sometimes I have to work together with someone speaking Québécois all day. Sorry towards the Canadian Shipmates, but this gives me a headache in the evening that only a white wine will cure [Biased]

quote:
Palimpsest: I would be curious if this Brazilian rural usage is a new simplification of Portuguese or an old rural usage in Portugal.
No, I don't think it has much in common with rural Portugal usage. I often work in Lusophone countries in Africa, where the language is more similar to that of Portugal. What is spoken in Brazil is really quite different.

quote:
Palimpsest: Other than that, I can only offer the factoid that in the Microsoft localization software Brazilian Portuguese is seen as sufficiently different then Portuguese that it has it's own set of hyphenation rules.
Definitely. I'm using software in Brazilian Portuguese right now as I type [Smile] The difference between the language spoken in Portugal and Brazil is considerable, much bigger than that between the UK and the US, or between the Netherlands and Flandres. Portuguese is almost in the process of splitting up into two different languages. The question is whether the 'elitists' will let it [Biased]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
That raises the interesting question of how unconventional misspellings are.

Misspellings online seem to work because there is a standard.
Common =/= conventional.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
That raises the interesting question of how unconventional misspellings are.

Misspellings online seem to work because there is a standard.
Common =/= conventional.

In Google search, misspellings work because there are a lot of people using them, not because there is a single standard usage. The search results are pruned using context with other words and what results prior users found useful.

The unreasonable effectiveness of data reflects Google's conclusion that "simple models and a lot of data trump more elaborate models based on less
data" where elaborate models includes tagging as "the correct spelling". The standard spelling may be found by reverse dictionary lookup but it's not essential to the search; there are too many search targets that are not correctly spelled.

Bear in mind that when Google is talking about large data they are talking about large data. I heard a presentation on their work with semantic search where they are first trying to read every public web page on the web in order to get data. A lot of problems become noise when you have a million examples of a misspelling.
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
Desert Daughter:
quote:
The French language is notoriously difficult to spell correctly.
REALLY? Now, I always found French spelling a relief after grappling with the intricacies of English. The main reason I liked it was because once I'd learned the French rules for pronunciation I could read aloud any French word I liked and pronounce it correctly. Not so easy to do this in English...

I blame the Great English Vowel Shift myself. But trying to write down a language with between 15 and 22 different vowel sounds* using an alphabet with only 6 vowel letters doesn't help.

*depending on your dialect
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Standardised spelling is not elitist, it is essential and to pretend otherwise, especially basing such mis-belief on a manufactured "class" bias is foolish and wrong.

Why?

Well, English as a spoken language - thinking especially British English here - is a lazy language: we use only a small part of our lung capacity and our faces often lack mobility which restricts the variations in sound. As a result words with very different meanings can frequently sound the same.

Example: hyperglycaemia and hypoglycaemia. If mis-heard then the only hope is that someone is able to smell the breath of the person suffering from the first, because treatment for the second could be fatal.

Granted, this is an extreme example but there are other words which sound the same or very similar but have different meanings.

Of course, homophones can give amusement too:
The Reverend Wright decided to write of the right way to perform the right.

Teaching children correct spelling enables them to communicate on paper or screen with less risk of being misunderstood. This aim is not elitist.
 
Posted by la vie en rouge (# 10688) on :
 
In Metropolitan France, and especially in Paris, québecois is generally viewed as rather cute and parochial. The main differences are to do with vocabulary and accent though, rather than spelling of the same words.

However, and that being said, the main thing that makes writing correct French such a bloody nightmare is not actually spelling as such, but grammer*

To wit, the words

Donner
Donnez
Donnais
Donnait
Donnaient
Donné
Donnée
Donnés
Données

(myriad conjugations of the verb "to give")

are ALL pronounced more or less the same. Knowing which one you are supposed to use is a question of grammar, and if you don't use the right one you look a bit lazy and careless. Still, some very educated people get them wrong. Don't tell anyone [Smile] , but my boss (partner in a top law firm, so not a stupid or uneducated person by any means) is a terrible speller. This comes about because he writes down what he hears in his head instead of thinking through the grammar rules, and he's going too fast to make sure he's got it all right. Fortunately he has a good PA (moi) who goes behind him making sure it's corrected, because otherwise it doesn't make a fantastic impression on the client… Another example: my boyfriend teaches in a middle school. One of the kids' favourite occupations consists of trying to catch a teacher out making a spelling mistake on the board (usually a missing agreement - one of the last three in the list above).

*(unintentional) typo, but in the context of this thread I think I quite like the irony so I'm going to leave it there [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Higgs Bosun (# 16582) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by la vie en rouge:

However, and that being said, the main thing that makes writing correct French such a bloody nightmare is not actually spelling as such, but grammer*

To wit, the words

Donner
Donnez
Donnais
Donnait
Donnaient
Donné
Donnée
Donnés
Données

(myriad conjugations of the verb "to give")

are ALL pronounced more or less the same. Knowing which one you are supposed to use is a question of grammar, and if you don't use the right one you look a bit lazy and careless.

Which is why French educationalists love a dictation test in exams. Some years back I took the diplome exam for L'Alliance Française. It started with a nightmare dictation. Then (after one's feeble attempt had been collected in) the written paper arrived. The first question was a comprehension question, and there was a sinking feeling when you realised that the middle of the passage was what you had just had for the dictation, and you had not made head not tail of it. I did pass, but "sans mention".
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Higgs Bosun:
quote:

I've run out of food.
I'm going to eat the dogs.
What apostrophe?


That definitely gets a [Overused]


I've never heard of the word 'pwned' before. Was it a misprint or is it a Welsh word that has somehow acquired an English ending? If so, it's very surprising if it has migrated into English as far away from most Welsh speakers as Seattle.

On the confusion about 'thrush' in Finnish, I was half expecting the link to take one to medical illustrations of embarrassing skin infections.

La vie en rouge, it's nearly 50 years since my last school French lesson. Nevertheless, you can't imagine how cheering it is to learn that a lot of French people can't spell their language correctly either, particularly not being able to write down the right endings when they are all said the same.

Do they have problems remembering which gender goes with which noun? This is something we all found irrational, frustrating and difficult - so much for the French claim that their language was in some way more logical than anyone else's.

[ 06. December 2013, 11:09: Message edited by: Enoch ]
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I've never heard of the word 'pwned' before.

It's leetspeak for to be conquered (but to preserve hosts' sanity, please no leet here*).

French spelling has deteriorated noticeably with the advent of text messaging (which doesn't take kindly to accents either), and the agreements are too tortuous for a standard Word spell-checker to catch all of them. My colleagues who translate into French use Antidote. I have a particular inability to get preceding direct object agreements right - I think I must have been absent the day we did them in school.

Genders are rarely confused by native speakers though, with the possible exception of a few tricky words such as victime (which is feminine even though most generic nouns referring to people are masculine) and silence which "looks" feminine but is masculine and a couple I always have to look up, such as horaire (timetable).

A Nigerian I know who has recently arrived in France from Spain where he has lived for ten years says Spanish is much easier because it is always, consistently, pronounced as it is spelled, and I think he's right.

As to English, George Bernard Shaw famously said "fish" should be spelled "ghoti": "f" as in "tough", "i" as in "women" and "ti" as in "station".

*(While on the French theme, though, a prize to anyone who can spot the hidden leet in this ad for a geeky ISP - I actually have this exact router and very cool it looks too)

[ETA and I don't care what the OED says, that "z" in "standardized" in the title is getting to me. Especially as I have just had to complete a translation using that variant]

[ 06. December 2013, 11:28: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
I've just realised that "leet" is of course derived from "elite", which suggests that the answer to the OP is "no" [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by L'organist:
Teaching children correct spelling enables them to communicate on paper or screen with less risk of being misunderstood. This aim is not elitist.

And I think that's all that ever needs to be said on the subject, surely? (In fact it's anything but elitist because it is about removing barriers to clear expression and communication. )
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
...unless, of course, you're confusing it with a millstream...
 
Posted by ArachnidinElmet (# 17346) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
...As to English, George Bernard Shaw famously said "fish" should be spelled "ghoti": "f" as in "tough", "i" as in "women" and "ti" as in "station".

...

Yes, the author John Scalzi has a cat named Ghlaghghee (Fluffy) making the same point.
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
In the Netherlands, there is a group who wants to introduce a simplified 'scientific' spelling for the Dutch language.

For example, whenever a Dutch word ends in a d, it is pronounced with a t. So, the word hond ('dog') is pronounced hont. In practice this means that for every word that ends in a t sound, one has to learn whether it is spelled with a d or a t. For many Dutch children (as for foreigners) this takes quite an effort, and the mistakes are many.

The proposal of this group is that we just spell it hont, and dedicate the effort we put into learning the d/t difference to other things. Its opponents say that a hont spelling looks wrong, or even that it is childish.

Is the opponents' argument 'elitist'? It could be.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Speak to my old friend Lalage Cholmondeley who married a lovely member of the Marjoribanks family; the reception, hosted by her Leveson-Gower grandmother, was somewhere in Beauchamp Place, I think.

Spelling as things sound? Bah, humbug [Snigger]

[ 06. December 2013, 12:43: Message edited by: L'organist ]
 
Posted by la vie en rouge (# 10688) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
*(While on the French theme, though, a prize to anyone who can spot the hidden leet in this ad for a geeky ISP - I actually have this exact router and very cool it looks too)


Me me me!

The person typing the thing had the caps lock on and forgot turned their é into a 2 in the word "théorie" (é and 2 are the same key on a French AZERTY keyboard).

What do I win?
 
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by L'organist:
Speak to my old friend Lalage Cholmondeley who married a lovely member of the Marjoribanks family; the reception, hosted by her Leveson-Gower grandmother, was somewhere in Beauchamp Place, I think.

Spelling as things sound? Bah, humbug [Snigger]

Oh yes, I think I knew the Marjoribanks you're talking about, when he was up at Caius- or was it Magdalene? Norfolk family originally, somewhere Wymondham way, but by the time I knew them they were living in Marylebone.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Not Wymondham, Happisburgh surely?
 
Posted by Baptist Trainfan (# 15128) on :
 
Did they have Scottish relatives in Milngavie, or perhaps Strathaven?
 
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on :
 
Oh, that'd be his Uncle Menzies. Nice old boy.
Might have been Happisburgh, l'O: that or Stiffkey.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by la vie en rouge:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
*(While on the French theme, though, a prize to anyone who can spot the hidden leet in this ad for a geeky ISP - I actually have this exact router and very cool it looks too)


Me me me!

The person typing the thing had the caps lock on and forgot turned their é into a 2 in the word "théorie" (é and 2 are the same key on a French AZERTY keyboard).

What do I win?

I noticed that too, and just checked my physical Freebox - the mistake has been corrected. But that's not it. The geeky thing is the time, which is 1337.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
quote:
Originally posted by Desert Daughter:
what's wrong with striving to emulate the "elite"?

That's not the relevant question. No one is complaining about people who try to spell words correctly. What's wrong with not striving to emulate the so-called "elite"?
But we've covered that. Legibility.

quote:
The precedent is that Radio and Television in the United States really reduced regional accents and word usage in favor of a national network standard. However that hasn't stopped rapid evolution of local idioms such as Valley speak. Increased technology comes with the propagation of variant spellings. "Pwned" may be in wide spread use, but so is the variant spelling "owned". [Smile]
Would you say, then, that the distinction between slang and standard register has gone away? Would you write a business letter with "pwned" in it?

quote:
In Google search, misspellings work because there are a lot of people using them, not because there is a single standard usage. The search results are pruned using context with other words and what results prior users found useful.
I was under the impression that their engine compared the input words to the standard spelling using some kind of fuzzy logic. If I read you right they're instead using some kind of lookup table to get from the nonsense input to the real thing. You'll note that few websites actually have one of the misspellings as their title, with the exception of blogs, and there it's self-consciously done to be cutesy.

quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I've never heard of the word 'pwned' before.

It's leetspeak for to be conquered (but to preserve hosts' sanity, please no leet here*).
It may be leet speak, but it arose originally from a typo, as did filk.

quote:
Originally posted by ArachnidinElmet:
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
...As to English, George Bernard Shaw famously said "fish" should be spelled "ghoti": "f" as in "tough", "i" as in "women" and "ti" as in "station".

...

Yes, the author John Scalzi has a cat named Ghlaghghee (Fluffy) making the same point.
Except "gh" at the beginning of a word is never pronounced "f" so he missed a larger point.
 
Posted by the gnome (# 14156) on :
 
One problem with reforming spelling to reflect the actual pronunciation of words is that it's counterproductive if not everybody pronounces the same word the same way. Take, for instance, the word "schedule." We Americans pronounce it "skedjool" while many Brits pronounce it "shedyool." At present we have a single spelling to represent the word, which enables us to read each other's writing even in cases where we would find each other's speech nearly incomprehensible.

An extreme case of this is Chinese, which is a single language in its written form, but whose characters represent such wildly divergent pronunciations in different regions of the country that the different forms of spoken Chinese (Cantonese, Mandarin, etc.) are considered by linguists to be distinct languages, not merely dialects of a single language. For purposes of communication between speakers of different forms of Chinese, having a single non-phonetic writing system is quite useful.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
quote:
Originally posted by Desert Daughter:
what's wrong with striving to emulate the "elite"?

That's not the relevant question. No one is complaining about people who try to spell words correctly. What's wrong with not striving to emulate the so-called "elite"?
But we've covered that. Legibility.

quote:
The precedent is that Radio and Television in the United States really reduced regional accents and word usage in favor of a national network standard. However that hasn't stopped rapid evolution of local idioms such as Valley speak. Increased technology comes with the propagation of variant spellings. "Pwned" may be in wide spread use, but so is the variant spelling "owned". [Smile]
Would you say, then, that the distinction between slang and standard register has gone away? Would you write a business letter with "pwned" in it?

quote:
In Google search, misspellings work because there are a lot of people using them, not because there is a single standard usage. The search results are pruned using context with other words and what results prior users found useful.
I was under the impression that their engine compared the input words to the standard spelling using some kind of fuzzy logic. If I read you right they're instead using some kind of lookup table to get from the nonsense input to the real thing. You'll note that few websites actually have one of the misspellings as their title, with the exception of blogs, and there it's self-consciously done to be cutesy.

quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I've never heard of the word 'pwned' before.

It's leetspeak for to be conquered (but to preserve hosts' sanity, please no leet here*).
It may be leet speak, but it arose originally from a typo, as did filk.

.....

The argument that you should only use standardized spelling for the sake of legibility is as unconvincing as the argument that you shouldn't use uncommon words in your writing for the sake of comprehension. You judge your audience and their ability to understand spelling variations and typographical errors as well as their ability to know or lookup uncommon words. Most people have wide exposure to misspelled text and have learned to understand it.

I would say that in many places slang and "standard register" have become blurred. Many people now use non-standard text and don't care about any self regarding "elite". Then again, I live in Seattle which is a very informal town. Hip Hop, Gay slang and the cant of politicians is all over-reported in the media.

I rarely write many business letters. I do get a lot of business email and some of it at times has included the word "pwned". To be fair, that was describing the behavior of malware that was causing security breaches. Typographic errors can be understood and even cherished like Cinderella's glass slippers.

There are approximation filters that map a misspelled word to candidates for the correct spelling. This can provide likely correct spellings, but the search for desired results is not a compression to the standard vocabulary of standard dialect and a match against results with labels of standard terms. As the song goes:It ain't necessarily so.

The search is looking at for results from both standard spelling and non-standard spelling to include words like "xyzzy", proper names, slang and non-standard dialect. If a lot of people are looking for a non-standard spelling, that will be high on the returned results list.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
The argument that you should only use standardized spelling for the sake of legibility is as unconvincing as the argument that you shouldn't use uncommon words in your writing for the sake of comprehension. You judge your audience and their ability to understand spelling variations and typographical errors as well as their ability to know or lookup uncommon words. Most people have wide exposure to misspelled text and have learned to understand it.

So fuck everybody who can't? Dyslexics, people who need to look up words in the dictionary but can't find them because they're so badly misspelled, English language learners, fuck 'em all?

"Most" people can do a lot of things but that doesn't mean we should expect ALL people to be able to do them. THIS is elitism. THIS is also privilege.

[ 07. December 2013, 04:17: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
The argument that you should only use standardized spelling for the sake of legibility is as unconvincing as the argument that you shouldn't use uncommon words in your writing for the sake of comprehension.

Sorry, this argument does not stand. Context. the meaning of the uncommon words can be discerned by context. Unless one composes the majority of the communiqué in uncommon words, in which case one is a dick. Context can help with a few misspellings, yes. But if the majority of the text is misspelled, the meaning becomes less clear. Add regional accents, non-native speakers and this quickly becomes a nightmare.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
The argument that you should only use standardized spelling for the sake of legibility is as unconvincing as the argument that you shouldn't use uncommon words in your writing for the sake of comprehension. You judge your audience and their ability to understand spelling variations and typographical errors as well as their ability to know or lookup uncommon words. Most people have wide exposure to misspelled text and have learned to understand it.

So fuck everybody who can't? Dyslexics, people who need to look up words in the dictionary but can't find them because they're so badly misspelled, English language learners, fuck 'em all?

"Most" people can do a lot of things but that doesn't mean we should expect ALL people to be able to do them. THIS is elitism. THIS is also privilege.

So are you saying that ALL people should be expected to spell correctly or not write anything. That's an interesting definition of non-elitism.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
So are you saying that ALL people should be expected to spell correctly or not write anything. That's an interesting definition of non-elitism.

No. Those who really can't spell have no option, but there's a downside to that. But we do expect those who can spell, but can't be bothered to, to do so.

Also, if you're trying to get a message across, it's up to you to do so in a way that makes it easy for your readers/listeners to get it. It's not up to them to puzzle out what you're trying to say. So don't use words they're not like to know, or peculiar spellings.

So don't use 'pwned' outside your own subculture, and if 'xyzzy' is a word somewhere (is it or was that an example of an imaginary, made-up, word?), don't use it unless you're absolutely certain your reader/listener is from the same 'where' as you.
 
Posted by Curiosity killed ... (# 11770) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
On the confusion about 'thrush' in Finnish, I was half expecting the link to take one to medical illustrations of embarrassing skin infections.

I'm not so mean to the hosts - but it's what the poor guy found when he googled.

quote:
l'Organist posted
Of course, homophones can give amusement too:
The Reverend Wright decided to write of the right way to perform the right.

Surely he's performing a rite?

There a few misspellings I see so frequently on-line that I really have to think which one I want to use when I'm writing:
For those last two, the UK English spelling differentiates between the noun (c) and verb (s), unlike American English.

And then there all those sayings that have been adopted into every day speech but are based on technical language:
For some of these the incorrect spelling is replacing the traditional spelling
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by the gnome:
One problem with reforming spelling to reflect the actual pronunciation of words is that it's counterproductive if not everybody pronounces the same word the same way. Take, for instance, the word "schedule." We Americans pronounce it "skedjool" while many Brits pronounce it "shedyool." At present we have a single spelling to represent the word, which enables us to read each other's writing even in cases where we would find each other's speech nearly incomprehensible.

An extreme case of this is Chinese, which is a single language in its written form, but whose characters represent such wildly divergent pronunciations in different regions of the country that the different forms of spoken Chinese (Cantonese, Mandarin, etc.) are considered by linguists to be distinct languages, not merely dialects of a single language. For purposes of communication between speakers of different forms of Chinese, having a single non-phonetic writing system is quite useful.

Excellent point. And it can work in reverse too, with multiple spellings to represent the same phonetics. The first time I visited America, I noticed a Lebanese food shop selling "kabobs". It took me a little while to realise that they had used that spelling to get much the same spoken result that Lebanese people in Australia got from selling "kebabs" instead.

Because the simple fact is, Australian English doesn't have the concept of a long 'o' vowel that American English has. And an American seeing the letter 'a' for a long vowel thinks of a very different sound to an Australian long 'a'. Which is precisely why it's so amusing to try and adjust one's pronunciation of words like 'banana'.

[ 07. December 2013, 11:45: Message edited by: orfeo ]
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
'Kebab' hasn't got a long vowel. It has two short ones.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest
The argument that you should only use standardized spelling for the sake of legibility is as unconvincing as the argument that you shouldn't use uncommon words in your writing for the sake of comprehension. You judge your audience and their ability to understand spelling variations and typographical errors as well as their ability to know or lookup uncommon words. Most people have wide exposure to misspelled text and have learned to understand it.

The question is how much effort the reader is willing to put in. If the subject matter appears interesting or can possibly benefit the reader, he will expend far greater effort to understand. If it's something like an application for a job for which there are many other applications, the reader is likely to toss aside any application which is not easy to understand.

Moo
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest
The argument that you should only use standardized spelling for the sake of legibility is as unconvincing as the argument that you shouldn't use uncommon words in your writing for the sake of comprehension. You judge your audience and their ability to understand spelling variations and typographical errors as well as their ability to know or lookup uncommon words. Most people have wide exposure to misspelled text and have learned to understand it.

The question is how much effort the reader is willing to put in. ....
One should always assume the reader isn't willing to put in any effort. Why should they?

That's what I've been trying to say. If you think you have something to say, it's up to you to hold the reader's attention and get your message across.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
And it's a matter of processing. If I am having to read a book about a difficult concept AND plough through stupid spelling and grammar and punctuation errors, then I'm going to say "screw it" and go read a book by somebody who cares about me as a reader.

quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
So are you saying that ALL people should be expected to spell correctly or not write anything.

No, but they shouldn't expect to be read if they're writing for widespread public consumption.
 
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on :
 
Quite. It's a basic courtesy to put yourself in your reader's, or hearer's, place.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
'Kebab' hasn't got a long vowel. It has two short ones.

And then there's the British version. [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Sioni Sais (# 5713) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
'Kebab' hasn't got a long vowel. It has two short ones.

Someone who knows more Arabic than I do (and more about it) can probably say more, but while "vowels" exist in that language, they vary according to the consonants between which they exist, and as Arabic is used from Algeria to at least Iraq, pronunciation of those consonants varies. So 'kebab' probably will always have two short vowels, I doubt they will always be the same ones!

(btw, standardized spelling isn't elitist. It's spelling.)
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
'Kebab' hasn't got a long vowel. It has two short ones.

And then there's the British version. [Big Grin]
I can imagine someone like Loyd Grossman pronouncing 'kebab' with two long vowels.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Loyd Grosman pronounces everything with looooong vowels - you can't use him as an exemplar.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
And it's a matter of processing. If I am having to read a book about a difficult concept AND plough through stupid spelling and grammar and punctuation errors, then I'm going to say "screw it" and go read a book by somebody who cares about me as a reader.

quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
So are you saying that ALL people should be expected to spell correctly or not write anything.

No, but they shouldn't expect to be read if they're writing for widespread public consumption.
Well that is a moving of the goalposts. Many people do not write for widespread public consumption, even as they self publish on the web. That does sound like a requirement of an elite group.

I attended an interesting and gloomy panel on the future of the e-book. Someone who is a professional copyeditor lamented the lack of a viable financial structure in electronic publishing that pays for copyediting.
From her point of view, most authors need a copywriter to correct their work for publication. This certainly shows up in the many factual, spelling, grammatical and typographic errors in the e-books I'm reading. It's obvious that many of them were introduced during the publishing process after the manuscript left the author.

I would agree that one might take more care in writing a job application if it's not a fill in the blanks form. You might even have someone proof read it for you. In casual correspondence and blogging and invitations to the house one need not be so correct and many people are not. It's great to hear a well constructed speech or read a properly editing text. It's growing more uncommon. In the technical fields I work in a great deal of the research is being done by academics who are not native English speakers, since they are still being funded. If you wait for an interesting concept to be presented in a well written paper you may have a long wait.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Well that is a moving of the goalposts. Many people do not write for widespread public consumption, even as they self publish on the web.

[Splutter * Cough * Splutter]

I think people who self-publish on the, erm, World Wide Web and who are NOT also writing for widespread public consumption may be a couple of caramels shy of a taffy apple.

quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I attended an interesting and gloomy panel on the future of the e-book. Someone who is a professional copyeditor lamented the lack of a viable financial structure in electronic publishing that pays for copyediting.
From her point of view, most authors need a copywriter to correct their work for publication. This certainly shows up in the many factual, spelling, grammatical and typographic errors in the e-books I'm reading. It's obvious that many of them were introduced during the publishing process after the manuscript left the author.

Say what?

I must have missed something. Your editorial speaker wants more money for editing e-books, and yet the errors in e-books are introduced after said books leave the author?

Who, if not some form of editorial life, is introducing all these errors?
 
Posted by Lamb Chopped (# 5528) on :
 
[timidly raises a hand] I HAVE noticed some really, REALLY bad wordbreaks at the end of lines in ebooks (like, every other line in some cases). Things like breaking the word "you" so you get yo- on one line and u on the next. Or arse / nic. Just.ewwwww.

Those are not from the author, they are the result of a crappy publishing protocol that doesn't keep syllables together properly (as print publishing programs do). There are plenty of good ebooks that DO hyphenate appropriately, so either they were using a lousy program or they forgot to check a box somewhere when exporting for ePub.

And this reminds me I have to go yowl at my own e-publisher for bollixing up my hyperlinks...

ETA: Totally forgot about the idiots who re-publish authors' works from freakin' uncorrected OCR scans. You have no idea (okay, some of you do) how much damage a scanner can do to a perfectly written and edited text. Turned letters, mistaken letters, fncked-vp punatiou...

[ 08. December 2013, 01:50: Message edited by: Lamb Chopped ]
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
There are both author errors and publishing errors. A copywriter can fix the first. Some of the second can be fixed by a proofreader, either the author or someone else.


A great many of the spurious hyphenations in commercial e-books come from the fact that the book was hyphenated at a line break in the process of producing the hardcopy version and the hyphen was inserted as a hyphen rather than a discretionary hyphen. When the hardcopy text is reused and broken to the new measure of the e-book the old hyphen remains as a fossil.

There are similar artifacts from badly done drop capitals and bold first lines.

None of these are the authors fault. Misspelled words are frequently present. They may be bad OCR scans or the fact that the e-book version was entered and never saw a copy editor or proof reader before being distributed.

[ 08. December 2013, 03:58: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
Tangent alert
One of the 'best' hyphenating error I've ever seen was an advertisement in a local newspaper in the 1970s long before computers and IT ever existed. A person was advertising various services including "... therapist counsellor ..." but the line break and consequent hyphen had converted this into "the-
rapist counsellor"
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Well that is a moving of the goalposts. Many people do not write for widespread public consumption, even as they self publish on the web.

[Splutter * Cough * Splutter]

I think people who self-publish on the, erm, World Wide Web and who are NOT also writing for widespread public consumption may be a couple of caramels shy of a taffy apple.

Someone may publish for a small audience and not care if a larger audience hears it. One may speak to ones friends in the public square without bothering to learn rhetoric and oratory.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Right - just like the person we all love who insists on shouting into their mobile 'phone so we can all share the delights of their domestic arrangements.

Like the much-quoted person overheard on a train drawing into Guildford yelling "We're just getting near Liverpool now - I'll see you at the end of the week."
 
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on :
 
Well, yes, Palimpsest, one might. But we're talking about spelling here. The oral equivalent of that would, I think, be pronunciation. If you wish to be understood in speech, you'd be wise not to adopt an eccentric and perhaps haphazard pronunciation system of your own.

[ 09. December 2013, 08:21: Message edited by: Albertus ]
 
Posted by Martin PC not & Ship's Biohazard (# 368) on :
 
-ize is Oxford (1096), -ise is Cambridge (1209).

Oxford wins.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Sioni Sais:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
'Kebab' hasn't got a long vowel. It has two short ones.

Someone who knows more Arabic than I do (and more about it) can probably say more, but while "vowels" exist in that language, they vary according to the consonants between which they exist, and as Arabic is used from Algeria to at least Iraq, pronunciation of those consonants varies. So 'kebab' probably will always have two short vowels, I doubt they will always be the same
In Britain both the spelling and the pronounciation of "kebab" come to us from modern Turkish, not Arabic. Same goes for quite a few food names for which American English has been more likely to use Arabic or Greek words. Perhaps because so much of the fast food business in Britain has been run by Turks. Especially the late-night cheap and greasy end of things.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Albertus:
Well, yes, Palimpsest, one might. But we're talking about spelling here. The oral equivalent of that would, I think, be pronunciation. If you wish to be understood in speech, you'd be wise not to adopt an eccentric and perhaps haphazard pronunciation system of your own.

Unless the audience you care about also uses that eccentric pronunciation or understands it. If comprehension of misspelled words was as poor as is claimed here, why would people continue to use it?
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
posted by Palimpset
quote:
quote:
Originally posted by Albertus:
Well, yes, Palimpsest, one might. But we're talking about spelling here. The oral equivalent of that would, I think, be pronunciation. If you wish to be understood in speech, you'd be wise not to adopt an eccentric and perhaps haphazard pronunciation system of your own.

Unless the audience you care about also uses that eccentric pronunciation or understands it. If comprehension of misspelled words was as poor as is claimed here, why would people continue to use it?
But there are objections to that:
First, if your own accent naturally uses the same 'eccentric pronunciation' well-and-good, go ahead; but if not your audience might decide (correctly?) that they were being patronised.
Second, you ignore the fact that while some regional/national accents or dialects may be difficult to understand - even incomprehensible at times - standard RP English can be understood by everyone.

And the same holds good for standard spelling.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
RP is not understood perfectly everywhere. In healthcare Mrs Backslider found that elderly folk in Derbyshire would frequently not understand if asked whether they were able to use a "bahth" by themselves.

I don't think the problem there is one way. Nor do I think it's particularly serious - I can't think of a single dialect or accent used within the UK that's hard to understand - barring the odd "bahth/bath" issue which cuts both ways - unless the speaker's trying to be difficult, or choosing to use a very colloquial register.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Broad Glaswegian is pretty impenetrable...
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
And that's ANOTHER reason why standardized spelling is important.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers. (I think the cited exceptions are Gullah and Cockney although I'd believe Glaswegian is a problem if the movie Trainspotting is a reliable sample).

Pronunciation is an uphill battle because of the British coupling of accent and class. What percentage of the U.K. use Received Pronunciation all of the time? Why don't the others use it?

I believe that reading misspelled words is a lot easier than understanding extreme regional accents, but that may be my own personal strengths and weaknesses. A recent post on this thread was addressed to me, but misspelled my name. I was still able to figure out it was addressed to me and I think everyone else reading this was able to do so. People on here are usually able to comprehend the differences between British and American spellings and are more likely to trip over differences in word usage. Moaning about misspelling seems pedantic.

[ 10. December 2013, 21:54: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]
 
Posted by Lyda*Rose (# 4544) on :
 
Depends on how much misspelling is found in one round of writing. Wading through multiple misspellings is a bitch for me.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers. (I think the cited exceptions are Gullah and Cockney although I'd believe Glaswegian is a problem if the movie Trainspotting is a reliable sample).

Pronunciation is an uphill battle because of the British coupling of accent and class. What percentage of the U.K. use Received Pronunciation all of the time? Why don't the others use it?

I believe that reading misspelled words is a lot easier than understanding extreme regional accents, but that may be my own personal strengths and weaknesses. A recent post on this thread was addressed to me, but misspelled my name. I was still able to figure out it was addressed to me and I think everyone else reading this was able to do so. People on here are usually able to comprehend the differences between British and American spellings and are more likely to trip over differences in word usage. Moaning about misspelling seems pedantic.

Moaning about cross-pond spelling differences would indeed be tedious, but surely this is a matter of degree rather than straight black and white? The "can't be arsed" mindset is effectively disrespectful of any potential comprehension problems the reader may have (and who am I to say what those may be?). Trying to get it right at least raises the probability that my Deep Thoughts will get both read all the way through as well as understood.

Somewhere in the middle is the zone of tolerance we need to extend to the dyslexic, the learner, the person struggling with English as a foreign language etc.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Moaning about misspelling seems pedantic.

sigh No one is moaning about misspellings.
It is the quantity of, not the concept of.

quote:
Originally posted by Honest Ron Bacardi:
Trying to get it right at least raises the probability that my Deep Thoughts will get both read all the way through as well as understood.

Jack Handey, is this you?
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers. (I think the cited exceptions are Gullah and Cockney although I'd believe Glaswegian is a problem if the movie Trainspotting is a reliable sample).

Trainspotting is set in Edinburgh. That may not make it any easier to follow, but it is very important not to mix up Edinburgh and Glasgow. They are two different cities and very touchy about mistaken for each other. You indicate that you come from Seattle. Would you like me to assume you're just the same as a Canadian from Vancouver?
quote:
" "
Pronunciation is an uphill battle because of the British coupling of accent and class.

How familiar as you with the culture? Do you know enough about this to pronounce on it? How one speaks is also linked to how strongly one feels about one's own regional identity. Rowan Williams does not speak RP. He is easy to follow, even if some of what he says is difficult to understand.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I believe that reading misspelled words is a lot easier than understanding extreme regional accents, but that may be my own personal strengths and weaknesses.

Here's the thing: if everybody starts spelling words the way they want to, based on how the words sound to them, these two become exactly the same thing.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers. (I think the cited exceptions are Gullah and Cockney although I'd believe Glaswegian is a problem if the movie Trainspotting is a reliable sample).

I think you are confusing dialect and accent. Gullah is a dialect, Cockney an accent. People who speak Cockney mostly speak standard English, or something very near it. By definition dialects are versions of a language which have some reduced mutual intelligibility. If the intelligibility was reduced so much it became impossible for people to understand normal conversation then really we are dealing with a different language, not a dialect. So Jamaican "creole" or "patois" can be considered a different language from English - though almost everyone who speaks it can also speak English and there is a continuum between patois, and a Jamaican dialect of English, and Jamaican English, and standard English in a Jamaican accent that just about any Jamaican can navigate quite easily.


Also I think wherever you got the idea that Cockney is hard for most English speakers to understand must be very confused. its a pretty straightforward south-eastern English accent, not very far from RP (and even closer to standard Australian) Its also close to the normal urban south-eastern English accent that has now become the most widely spoken accent in Britain (what journalists call "estuary English" that is in some ways a compromise between Cockney and RP) Do Americans really have trouble understanding Michael Caine or Alan Sugar?

But yes its true. Almost all commonly sp0ken English accents are easily intelligible to speakers of all the others. British viewers on the whole didn't need help to understand The Wire (though as lots of the main actors were in fact British or Irish its possible the accents were watered down for TV). Most Americans and Australians seem quite able to cope with the wide variety of British and Irish accents used in Game of Thrones. I doubt if many English or American people have much trouble understanding Sean Connery, and his accent is much further from average than any Cockney is. Some British English accents might be so outlying as to be hard for Americans to understand (a few of them are hard for other Brits to understand) but very few of them, and certainly not Cockney. Cockney and RP and other south-eastern accents (and also Australian) are all closer to each other than they are to Midlands accents. And Southern and Midland and North-western English accents, along with Australian, Welsh, most American accents, and many Scottish and Irish accents are all closer to each other than they are to some of the accents of the north-east of England and the east coast of Scotland.

As others have said, Trainspotting is Edinburgh.

quote:

What percentage of the U.K. use Received Pronunciation all of the time?

All of the time? No-one knows, usual guesses are between 1% and 2%. Though plenty of people code-swtich towards RP in formal situations, without usually quite getting there.

quote:

Why don't the others use it?

Why the fuck should we? My parents didn't speak it, the other kids at my school didn't speak it, my neighbours don't speak it, very few of the people where I work speak it. (Of maybe 30 people in our department I think perhaps 2 have a clearly RP accent and another 2 or 3 are sometimes close to it - but this is in a university where just about everyone is well-educated and middle-class)

quote:

I believe that reading misspelled words is a lot easier than understanding extreme regional accents

Well, yes. Kind of obviously. Though I suppose it depends how extreme "extreme" is.

quote:

People on here are usually able to comprehend the differences between British and American spellings...

I doubt if any literate English speaker has any trouble with variant British and American spellings at all. There are very few of them, most of them are pretty obvious, and very often the supposedly British or American version also exists on the other side of the Atlantic.

quote:

Moaning about misspelling seems pedantic.

Yes, well, this whole thread is a bit of a meaningless straw man. OP says [Eek!] [Eek!] "OMG!!!!!! THE WORLD IS BEING TAKEN OVER BY EVIL MONSTERS FROM TEH DARK LAGOON WHO ARE TRYING TO DESTROY OUR SPELLING" [Eek!] [Eek!] And everyone who posts agrees sort of sensibly that using agreed spelling is in fact quite useful and it would be a bad thing if we stopped although its not exactly a barbarians-at-the-gates end-of-the-world scenario. Made me wonder what the real purpose of the OP was - those mysterious references to "some people" read very much like the start of a Daily Mail hate-fest.
 
Posted by Carex (# 9643) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers...

I've encountered a few where I had to work very hard to understand another speaker of English, and on a couple occasions had to translate English to English between two people who could not understand each other at all. (One I particularly remember involved English speakers from Australia and Hong Kong.) And that was just due to accent, not dialect.

Just as with spelling, the ability to understand an accent seems to depend on the amount of difference and the amount of effort that the receiver is willing to do to decode the information. For those close to the median (Estuary English, or the Californian melting pot commonly heard on American TV, for example) most other accents can be understood, but two people on separate fringes of the distribution may have more difficult understanding each other.

Context, which sets the expectations and importance of precision in communications, is important, too. For an evening at the pub where everyone is relaxing into their most comfortable speaking mode, it isn't as necessary to understand every word that someone else is saying. (We've managed that even when we didn't have any language in common.) But a scientific paper, or driving instructions, where detail is critical, often require not only more attention and effort on the part of the listener, but often more care on the part of the speaker to make sure that the information is conveyed correctly.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
Palimpsest, if it will cheer you up a bit, I was very grateful that the film, The Help, as issued in the UK on DVD had a subtitles option - sorry, but the system won't let me link to the wikipaedia entry as the web address has some brackets in it. Indeed, without the help of the subtitles, the whites were as difficult to follow as the black servants. To my ears, they all had the same accent and sounded the same.
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
Carex:
quote:
Just as with spelling, the ability to understand an accent seems to depend on the amount of difference and the amount of effort that the receiver is willing to do to decode the information.
Bingo.

I had no difficulty understanding a university friend who spoke Nigerian English (in fact it was quite exciting hearing someone speaking a dialect that our lecturers had been talking about!) but another friend (on the same linguistics course as me) did. Might have been because my native dialect is further away from Standard RP than hers is/was, so I was more used to code-switching.
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
Speaking as a German who has lived for one year in the USA, for close to eight years in Australia and now for close to three years in the UK, there are accents that remain very difficult for me to understand. But I've been stumped in the UK most, in the US less, and in Australia least. Furthermore, in the US it was largely a regional thing, though for some reason I struggled more with understanding women than men (perhaps a matter of pitch and speed). Whereas in the UK gender makes little difference for me, but in addition to regional variation it seems to be a "class" issue as well. It's not just vocabulary and grammar, there are some pronunciation differences there that for me make "lower class" people harder to understand with some frequency. (I really do not intend to be disparaging there, it's simply an observation from dealing with shop assistants, craftsmen, etc.)

As for English spelling, it certainly is a lot less systematic than for example German spelling. Though having memorized it perhaps more explicitly than native speakers, I find that I now spell better within my restricted vocabulary than many of them, even at the university level.

I think it would be terrible for foreigners if there was no "standard spelling" any longer. As horrible as English spelling can be, at least there is just one way to learn (or 1.001 ways, if you count the AE/BE difference). Coping with alternative spellings actually is a "higher skill", in my opinion, as it will rely largely on context and picking up cues of idiosyncratic preference. That's not something you can can expect from a foreigner plodding through a text, possibly word by word.

I think it may be worth thinking about a mild orthography reform. However, is there a desire among native English speakers for that? In the end, this would have to be pushed through by the government, mostly by using it in its own communications and by dictating it to schools as the new standard for their curriculum. That's only going to happen if the population actually thinks that the spelling needs some fixing, rather than treating it as a kind of achievement to know the more obscure ins and outs.

[ 11. December 2013, 17:13: Message edited by: IngoB ]
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Palimpsest, if it will cheer you up a bit, I was very grateful that the film, The Help, as issued in the UK on DVD had a subtitles option - sorry, but the system won't let me link to the wikipaedia entry as the web address has some brackets in it. Indeed, without the help of the subtitles, the whites were as difficult to follow as the black servants. To my ears, they all had the same accent and sounded the same.

I saw the film 'Endurance' and had a great deal of trouble understanding the speech of some of the crew members. I later rented the DVD which had subtitles.

Moo
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Palimpsest, if it will cheer you up a bit, I was very grateful that the film, The Help, as issued in the UK on DVD had a subtitles option - sorry, but the system won't let me link to the wikipaedia entry as the web address has some brackets in it. Indeed, without the help of the subtitles, the whites were as difficult to follow as the black servants. To my ears, they all had the same accent and sounded the same.

I saw the film 'Endurance' and had a great deal of trouble understanding the speech of some of the crew members. I later rented the DVD which had subtitles.

Moo

The ability to sort through accents is just that, ability. Some people have an easier time than others. My mother speaks more than one language, however her accent does not vary no matter which she speaks. She cannot shake her native accent and has a small difficulty sorting out some accents. Yet she sings a treat; very well understanding, and using, pitch and intonation. Go figure.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers. (I think the cited exceptions are Gullah and Cockney although I'd believe Glaswegian is a problem if the movie Trainspotting is a reliable sample).

Trainspotting is set in Edinburgh. That may not make it any easier to follow, but it is very important not to mix up Edinburgh and Glasgow. They are two different cities and very touchy about mistaken for each other. You indicate that you come from Seattle. Would you like me to assume you're just the same as a Canadian from Vancouver?
quote:
" "
Pronunciation is an uphill battle because of the British coupling of accent and class.

How familiar as you with the culture? Do you know enough about this to pronounce on it? How one speaks is also linked to how strongly one feels about one's own regional identity. Rowan Williams does not speak RP. He is easy to follow, even if some of what he says is difficult to understand.

Actually Washington State has it's own Vancouver on the border with Oregon. I wouldn't want to be misidentified as a resident of Vancouver, British Columbia, but I wouldn't be offended by the mistake. It's a wonderful city.

I'm well aware that British class issues have a lot of problems that I don't understand. Pointing out the connection between the arguments that everyone must speak Received Pronunciation and class problems is a disclaimer that it's not a great parallel because I don't understand the coupled class issues. However the example you cite about Rowan Williams makes my point exactly about our ability to understand variants in both spelling and speech.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
Rowan Williams makes my point exactly about our ability to understand variants in both spelling and speech.

Variants, not chaos. And because the variants are few, not because they exist.
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Palimpsest, if it will cheer you up a bit, I was very grateful that the film, The Help, as issued in the UK on DVD had a subtitles option - sorry, but the system won't let me link to the wikipaedia entry as the web address has some brackets in it. Indeed, without the help of the subtitles, the whites were as difficult to follow as the black servants. To my ears, they all had the same accent and sounded the same.

I've welcomed subtitles on some Manchester based films. I'm a good enough reader that reading English subtitles often gives me the illusion that I understand the spoken language for the duration of watching the film.
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I think it may be worth thinking about a mild orthography reform. However, is there a desire among native English speakers for that? In the end, this would have to be pushed through by the government, mostly by using it in its own communications and by dictating it to schools as the new standard for their curriculum. That's only going to happen if the population actually thinks that the spelling needs some fixing, rather than treating it as a kind of achievement to know the more obscure ins and outs.

(my italics)

Largely I agree, but with respect to the bit in italics, just exactly which government would you suggest had the authority to decree this mild orthographic reform among native English speaker -- vastly more of whom live outside the UK than live in it? (I'm not actually suggesting that you were proposing that the UK government could impose such a change, and that the rest of the world's native English speakers would even notice, much less pay attention.)

John
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
I have read that English is robust in that there are very few dialects which can not be understood by other English speakers. (I think the cited exceptions are Gullah and Cockney although I'd believe Glaswegian is a problem if the movie Trainspotting is a reliable sample).

I think you are confusing dialect and accent. Gullah is a dialect, Cockney an accent. People who speak Cockney mostly speak standard English, or something very near it. By definition dialects are versions of a language which have some reduced mutual intelligibility. If the intelligibility was reduced so much it became impossible for people to understand normal conversation then really we are dealing with a different language, not a dialect. So Jamaican "creole" or "patois" can be considered a different language from English - though almost everyone who speaks it can also speak English and there is a continuum between patois, and a Jamaican dialect of English, and Jamaican English, and standard English in a Jamaican accent that just about any Jamaican can navigate quite easily.


Also I think wherever you got the idea that Cockney is hard for most English speakers to understand must be very confused. its a pretty straightforward south-eastern English accent, not very far from RP (and even closer to standard Australian) Its also close to the normal urban south-eastern English accent that has now become the most widely spoken accent in Britain (what journalists call "estuary English" that is in some ways a compromise between Cockney and RP) Do Americans really have trouble understanding Michael Caine or Alan Sugar?

But yes its true. Almost all commonly sp0ken English accents are easily intelligible to speakers of all the others. British viewers on the whole didn't need help to understand The Wire (though as lots of the main actors were in fact British or Irish its possible the accents were watered down for TV). Most Americans and Australians seem quite able to cope with the wide variety of British and Irish accents used in Game of Thrones. I doubt if many English or American people have much trouble understanding Sean Connery, and his accent is much further from average than any Cockney is. Some British English accents might be so outlying as to be hard for Americans to understand (a few of them are hard for other Brits to understand) but very few of them, and certainly not Cockney. Cockney and RP and other south-eastern accents (and also Australian) are all closer to each other than they are to Midlands accents. And Southern and Midland and North-western English accents, along with Australian, Welsh, most American accents, and many Scottish and Irish accents are all closer to each other than they are to some of the accents of the north-east of England and the east coast of Scotland.

As others have said, Trainspotting is Edinburgh.

quote:

What percentage of the U.K. use Received Pronunciation all of the time?

All of the time? No-one knows, usual guesses are between 1% and 2%. Though plenty of people code-swtich towards RP in formal situations, without usually quite getting there.

quote:

Why don't the others use it?

Why the fuck should we? My parents didn't speak it, the other kids at my school didn't speak it, my neighbours don't speak it, very few of the people where I work speak it. (Of maybe 30 people in our department I think perhaps 2 have a clearly RP accent and another 2 or 3 are sometimes close to it - but this is in a university where just about everyone is well-educated and middle-class)

quote:

I believe that reading misspelled words is a lot easier than understanding extreme regional accents

Well, yes. Kind of obviously. Though I suppose it depends how extreme "extreme" is.

quote:

People on here are usually able to comprehend the differences between British and American spellings...

I doubt if any literate English speaker has any trouble with variant British and American spellings at all. There are very few of them, most of them are pretty obvious, and very often the supposedly British or American version also exists on the other side of the Atlantic.

quote:

Moaning about misspelling seems pedantic.

Yes, well, this whole thread is a bit of a meaningless straw man. OP says [Eek!] [Eek!] "OMG!!!!!! THE WORLD IS BEING TAKEN OVER BY EVIL MONSTERS FROM TEH DARK LAGOON WHO ARE TRYING TO DESTROY OUR SPELLING" [Eek!] [Eek!] And everyone who posts agrees sort of sensibly that using agreed spelling is in fact quite useful and it would be a bad thing if we stopped although its not exactly a barbarians-at-the-gates end-of-the-world scenario. Made me wonder what the real purpose of the OP was - those mysterious references to "some people" read very much like the start of a Daily Mail hate-fest.

There are various references to Cockney Speech as both an accent and a dialect due to the loan words from Yiddish, German and Romany and rhyming slang. Is possible that the accent is surviving in Estuary English while the vocabulary is dwindling?

We Americans don't trouble understanding Michael Caine but he thoughtfully changed his accent for Americans;
Michael Caine on his Cockney Accent
quote:
Then after I made Alfie, it was very popular, and then suddenly they said, “You’ve got to redo 122 lines,” because Alfie was being released in America. And that’s where my voice came from, the one I have now.

You changed your voice?
I had to make Cockney understandable to Americans. One of the main things about Cockney is, you speak at twice the speed as Americans. Americans speak very slow.

I had some difficulty with some of the accents in "The Wire", A lot of the actors were natives of Baltimore. I'm sure that the show was careful to keep the speech understandable to the dedicated watcher while trying to keep the regional flavor.

Your understandable umbrage at the question about why you don't use Received Pronunciation rather than a regional accent is worth noting. Those who insist that only standard correct spelling is acceptable may get the same umbrage although indifference is more likely. I agree with you that one should try to write clearly and try to be able to read most misspelled text and ignore the moaning from those who like to complain. To go back to the original straw man, those who tolerate variant spelling are unlikely to complain if the variant used is correct. They may resent the pedantry.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:

I think it may be worth thinking about a mild orthography reform. However, is there a desire among native English speakers for that? In the end, this would have to be pushed through by the government, mostly by using it in its own communications and by dictating it to schools as the new standard for their curriculum.

That's really not how the English language works. We're not German, and we're not French. Any such orthography reform would have to develop organically, by usage.

When a particular usage becomes generally acceptable, it will be marked as correct in examinations.
 
Posted by Desert Daughter (# 13635) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
We're not German, and we're not French.

...and we love you for it. [Big Grin]

but seriously, I think you are right in that this should not be something left to politicians. There was a spelling "reform" in Germany some years ago. It was a cheap populist exercise, a dumbing down of the language, another result of "culture" ministries pandering to the lowest common denominator. [Mad]

The German "newspell" just looks plain stupid and many people think it went too far. Now they're talking of a reform of the reform.
[Disappointed]
 
Posted by IngoB (# 8700) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:
(I'm not actually suggesting that you were proposing that the UK government could impose such a change, and that the rest of the world's native English speakers would even notice, much less pay attention.)

I'm not saying that you should do that (note my comment on whether enough native speakers would want it), but indeed I think that the UK could do that and that it would most likely work.

After all, foreigners are getting their standard of English that they teach from somewhere. And at least in Germany it is from the UK, not from the USA, and not from India either. We learn "behaviour" and "colour" in school, not "behavior" and "color". And since spelling is one of the problems foreigners face, an attempt by the UK to simplify it most likely would be popular among them.

The UK remains the lead culture on the English language, at least in Germany, and I would bet in Europe. I'm not sure how the Chinese would see this, but I wouldn't be surprised if they are trying to learn British English, too. I really think that you have the power to pull off a worldwide orthography reform - worldwide minus other English speaking countries perhaps.

The German orthography reform has been mentioned. No matter what one thinks of that, I bet if you learn German in the UK now, it will be with the "new" spelling. The situation with English is a bit different, but I think it would still essentially follow the same pattern with foreigners if the UK changed its ways.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
America had a spelling reform. That's precisely why their spelling isn't the same as UK spelling!
 
Posted by LeRoc (# 3216) on :
 
quote:
IngoB: The German orthography reform has been mentioned.
I still miss the ß in some words.
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
These recent posts also bring out the point that English has no authority over spelling (or indeed pronunciation). It should be fairly obvious that standards of acceptability are effectively crowd-sourced. Don't like -ize endings? Don't use them then. Don't like RP? Don't use it then.

It should be pretty obvious that there is also going to be pressure from both sides of this debate. There has to be. There is always going to be a fuzzy area of acceptability in spelling. Effectively, that sort of discussion is exactly what is going on here on this thread.

But looking at things this way also flags up the warning that the more inflexible spelling nazis and the let-it-rip-it's-elitist-not-to are both authoritarian projects. They care nothing for the debate and views of others in the public sphere. Not that anyone here as been in either of those two places, but they certainly exist as tendencies.
 
Posted by jbohn (# 8753) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I'm not sure how the Chinese would see this, but I wouldn't be surprised if they are trying to learn British English, too.

When I taught English there (admittedly, some years ago now), they were very much in favor of learning American English, as it is perceived as the language of international commerce.


[edited to fix coding cock-up]

[ 12. December 2013, 12:59: Message edited by: jbohn ]
 
Posted by Albertus (# 13356) on :
 
By contrast, when I taught Korean postgraduates at a UK university a few years ago, those who'd brought their families with them were pleased that their children would be speaking British English, which apparently has a higher social cachet in Korea- possibly becaue US English is otherwise the norm there.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
America had a spelling reform. That's precisely why their spelling isn't the same as UK spelling!

And any but the most hardened jingoist will admit that "jail" makes more sense than "gaol."
 
Posted by Honest Ron Bacardi (# 38) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
America had a spelling reform. That's precisely why their spelling isn't the same as UK spelling!

And any but the most hardened jingoist will admit that "jail" makes more sense than "gaol."
It certainly is a better word. Though oddly, English has apparently always had both forms running side by side. According to the OED they came into Middle English from the two different forms of the French word - northern and central French.

That's enough looking things up today I think!
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
America had a spelling reform. That's precisely why their spelling isn't the same as UK spelling!

When I was working on the history of various Ulster dialects, I noticed that many 19th century documents used the spelling honor rather than honour.

I suspect that rather than a conscious spelling reform, honor just came to be more widely accepted in America.

Moo
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
America had a spelling reform. That's precisely why their spelling isn't the same as UK spelling!

When I was working on the history of various Ulster dialects, I noticed that many 19th century documents used the spelling honor rather than honour.

I suspect that rather than a conscious spelling reform, honor just came to be more widely accepted in America.

Moo

Have you not heard of
Webster?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
The linked paragraph states some of his reforms and rejected others. IIRC, Webster wished to greatly simplify spelling to a more phonetic system. You may observe how successful that was.
Thus demonstrates the balance of imposed and accepted change.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
America had a spelling reform. That's precisely why their spelling isn't the same as UK spelling!

When I was working on the history of various Ulster dialects, I noticed that many 19th century documents used the spelling honor rather than honour.

I suspect that rather than a conscious spelling reform, honor just came to be more widely accepted in America.

Moo

Have you not heard of
Webster?

Do you believe the 19th century residents of Ulster took their spelling from Webster?

Moo
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Are you saying "honor" came to be the accepted spelling in America because of something that happened in 19th century Ulster?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
I am saying that many residents of 19th century America came from Ulster, and they brought their spelling with them.

Webster did not invent the spelling honor; he found it side-by-side with honour. He preferred the shorter form.

He did not simplify spelling; he standardized it.

Moo
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I am saying that many residents of 19th century America came from Ulster, and they brought their spelling with them.

Webster did not invent the spelling honor; he found it side-by-side with honour. He preferred the shorter form.

He did not simplify spelling; he standardized it.

Moo

You may be underestimating the power that Webster had on the American language. His "Blue Backed Speller" became THE book children in American public (tax-funded) schools learned their vocabulary from for nearly 100 years.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
You may be underestimating the power that Webster had on the American language. His "Blue Backed Speller" became THE book children in American public (tax-funded) schools learned their vocabulary from for nearly 100 years.

I am not denying his influence. I am talking about how he arrived at his standardization. He did not simplify the spelling of honour. He endorsed the already-existing form honor

Moo
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by IngoB:
I think it may be worth thinking about a mild orthography reform. However, is there a desire among native English speakers for that? In the end, this would have to be pushed through by the government, mostly by using it in its own communications and by dictating it to schools as the new standard for their curriculum. That's only going to happen if the population actually thinks that the spelling needs some fixing, rather than treating it as a kind of achievement to know the more obscure ins and outs.

I can only imagine the Fox News reaction to a proposal that American English be simplified to make it easier for immigrants and foreigners. The U.S. is still working on adapting the metric system. While this would make it simpler for foreigners, it would make it harder for those who claim that there's only one correct spelling and they already know it.

[ 12. December 2013, 23:34: Message edited by: Palimpsest ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
You may be underestimating the power that Webster had on the American language. His "Blue Backed Speller" became THE book children in American public (tax-funded) schools learned their vocabulary from for nearly 100 years.

I am not denying his influence. I am talking about how he arrived at his standardization. He did not simplify the spelling of honour. He endorsed the already-existing form honor

Moo

I'm not sure anyone is claiming that he invented the simplified spellings he endorsed.
 
Posted by orfeo (# 13878) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
He did not simplify spelling; he standardized it.

I said there was a spelling reform. Why are you excluding the word 'standardized' from a reform?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I said there was a spelling reform. Why are you excluding the word 'standardized' from a reform?

Because if he had been trying to create a genuine spelling reform he would have done something about the spelling of right and rough.

He dealt with the very small area where there were alternate spellings. To me reform means something much more sweeping.

Moo
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by orfeo:
I said there was a spelling reform. Why are you excluding the word 'standardized' from a reform?

Because if he had been trying to create a genuine spelling reform he would have done something about the spelling of right and rough.

He dealt with the very small area where there were alternate spellings. To me reform means something much more sweeping.

Moo

Do you pay words extra when you use them idiosyncratically?
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
Do you find it easier to respond in the register of Humpty Dumpty* than argue your case on the basis of a dictionary definition?

*"When I use a word," Humpty Dumpty said, in rather a scornful tone, "it means just what I choose it to mean—neither more nor less." (with a tip of the hat to Justinian who also quoted this recently)
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
My field is linguistics, and I have always heard 'spelling standardization' and 'spelling reform' treated as two separate concepts. I think it is a mistake to conflate them.

Moo
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
My field is linguistics, and I have always heard 'spelling standardization' and 'spelling reform' treated as two separate concepts. I think it is a mistake to conflate them.

Moo

It is. But Webster changed spellings as well as standardised them. One of his goals was to differentiate American English from British English. IIFC, he wanted much greater change than was accepted. Wimmin instead of women, for example.
Standards were certainly a part, but sure changing the language to differentiate would be reform, yes?
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
I know that when two forms existed side-by-side, such as honor and honour, he chose one and rejected the other.

Can you tell me of words with only one spelling which he changed?

There may be such cases, but I don't know of them.

Moo
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Wimmin for one. I can look for more. Whilst some of the alternate spellings he proposed existed, they were not common usage. It would be difficult to find an alternate that had not been used somewhere, given that local printers were often their own dictionary. IIRC, Webster was one of those wishing to simplify the lot.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
Did the form women not exist side-by-side with wimmin?

I know that Webster was intent on getting rid of alternate spellings.

Moo
 
Posted by Dave W. (# 8765) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
I know that when two forms existed side-by-side, such as honor and honour, he chose one and rejected the other.

Can you tell me of words with only one spelling which he changed?

There may be such cases, but I don't know of them.

Moo

I'm pretty sure many of these proposed changes involved introducing novel spellings:
quote:
Thus bread, head, give, breast, built, meant, realm, friend, would be spelt, bred, hed, giv, brest, bilt, ment, relm, frend.
[...]
Thus by putting ee instead of ea or ie, the words mean, near, speak grieve, zeal, would become meen, neer, speek, greev, zeel.

These and other examples of Webster's suggestions are found in this article.
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
I'm pretty sure many of these proposed changes involved introducing novel spellings:
quote:
Thus bread, head, give, breast, built, meant, realm, friend, would be spelt, bred, hed, giv, brest, bilt, ment, relm, frend.
[...]
Thus by putting ee instead of ea or ie, the words mean, near, speak grieve, zeal, would become meen, neer, speek, greev, zeel.

These and other examples of Webster's suggestions are found in this article.
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief
You may be underestimating the power that Webster had on the American language. His "Blue Backed Speller" became THE book children in American public (tax-funded) schools learned their vocabulary from for nearly 100 years.

Webster did not include these innovations in his Blue Backed Speller, and they do not appear to have had any effect on American orthography.

Moo
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Dave W.:
I'm pretty sure many of these proposed changes involved introducing novel spellings:
quote:
Thus bread, head, give, breast, built, meant, realm, friend, would be spelt, bred, hed, giv, brest, bilt, ment, relm, frend.
[...]
Thus by putting ee instead of ea or ie, the words mean, near, speak grieve, zeal, would become meen, neer, speek, greev, zeel.

These and other examples of Webster's suggestions are found in this article.
quote:
Originally posted by Mousethief
You may be underestimating the power that Webster had on the American language. His "Blue Backed Speller" became THE book children in American public (tax-funded) schools learned their vocabulary from for nearly 100 years.

Webster did not include these innovations in his Blue Backed Speller, and they do not appear to have had any effect on American orthography.

Moo

And the ones he did include, did. So? This proves what? Perhaps it shows the power of the BBS -- the things in it changed our spelling, and the things not in it didn't.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
The real problem, ISTM -- and GB Shaw ran up against the same issue -- is that English, to a greater extent than German or French of various languages -- has grown as much by adopting other languages' words as it has by creating neologisms. Where those languages use the same or similar writing systems, English tends to preserve the original spelling in its own usage.

Imposing a language-wide spelling system on the language's sounds at this point is probably impossible; there are vowel sounds used in Australia (as one example) I never hear in normal native American speech.

How would we standardize these?

Further, I think it would be a great loss not to be able to tell, from a word's spelling, where it probably originated from (and before anyone screams it's against the rules to end sentences with prepositions, the OED language police retired that rule in something like 1989).

[ 08. February 2014, 15:59: Message edited by: Porridge ]
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
Porridge
quote:
Imposing a language-wide spelling system on the language's sounds at this point is probably impossible; there are vowel sounds used in Australia (as one example) I never hear in normal native American speech.

How would we standardize these?

Surely the point of a spelling reform would be to allow the speaker to work out how the word is to be pronounced in his own accent. If a combination of (say two) vowels produced a different sound in another accent - so what? At least an Aussi would easily learn the reformed spelling.

Again, if an alternative spelling for a word was commonly defined and accepted, then those sitting in judgement could not complain.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
The problem is that sound use in different dialects is not isomorphic - it's not that one sound is universally substituted for another - but that sometimes the sounds are the same and sometimes different, and some dialects mix features common to other dialects. Take, for example, the "a" in path and hard. In my native dialect, those sounds are near enough identical. In a Northern English dialect they are not only different from mine but distinct from each other. Should they have different spellings to reflect the Northern pronunciation or the same spelling to reflect mine? The only way to have phonetic spelling is to have multiple standards to a far greater extent and possibly to the point of unintelligibility (remember that it is often difficult for speakers of local dialects to make themselves understood even within the UK; try getting an Essex girl and a Glaswegian docker to have a coherent conversation. Now imagine they couldn't even write a letter that the other could read).
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
Surely the point of a spelling reform would be to allow the speaker to work out how the word is to be pronounced in his own accent. If a combination of (say two) vowels produced a different sound in another accent - so what? At least an Aussi would easily learn the reformed spelling.

Again, if an alternative spelling for a word was commonly defined and accepted, then those sitting in judgement could not complain.

I'm not sure I follow. Are you saying that people should be able to spell words the way they sound in their own accents, without considering that those who read the words might have an entirely different accent?

I'm thinking of the song from My Fair Lady which is sung by Liza Doolittle: "Wouldn't it be Lovely"

The first lines are:

“All I want is a room somewhere
Far away from the cold night air”

To my New England ear, Liza's rendition could be spelled as follows:

"Oll Oi wont iz a rheum sumwheh
Fah Rawhey frem the coald noit aih"

People from my state might render it this way:

"Ahl I wunt iz a rum sumwheh
Faah 'away fr’m the cold nite aih"

People from the coastal south US might sing it as follows:

"All Ah wo-ant iyiz a ruom some whe-ah
Foh awah-y fr’m the co-ald naaht ai-ah"

In upper-class Brit-Speak, it might sound (from my point of reference) like this:

"Awl I wont iz a rheum somm wheh
Faah r’away from the coled nite eyuh"

And from the Ohio area, it might go this way:

"Orl I woant iz a rhum some wherrr
Farr away fr'm the cold nite errr"

It might be easier for individuals to spell as they (think) they speak, but it would render written communication -- which, after all, is what spelling is for -- far more complicated. Certainly it would slow our reading down.

There's overlap and similarities among these renditions, but I can't see how it helps us out with communicating easily and effectively.

If I've misunderstood, my apologies. Perhaps you're suggesting that opposite: that we each pronounce one spelling in our various ways.

But isn't that precisely what we do now?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Seems as good a reductio against spelling reform as one could wish.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
I can see how a spelling reform to a new standard might help in learning English.*
But to remove any standard of spelling would render communication near impossible.
I have witnessed two people speaking English with vastly different accent need to resort to spelling to effectively communicate.

*Not that I think this likely to happen.
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
Porridge
quote:
I'm not sure I follow. Are you saying that people should be able to spell words the way they sound in their own accents, without considering that those who read the words might have an entirely different accent?
I'm saying that the spelling would always be the same for the english word, but the pronounciation would always vary. It would be a very great loss (besides being an impossibility) if regional speech sounds were denigrated.

However I think that commonly agreed rules that indicate the sound of vowel combinations would easily define a good approximation to the correct rendering. At present spellings often give no clue.

lilBuddha
quote:
I have witnessed two people speaking English with vastly different accent need to resort to spelling to effectively communicate.
Very likely. But resorting to an easily read word is a plus.
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
Originally posted by shadeson:

quote:
At present spellings often give no clue.
In the closed thread on simple spellings, you included several words which took me a while to puzzle out, as the way they were spelled bore no relation to the way I pronounce them. - "vier", "advarnss" "arfter" "ideer." Fortunately I could work out which words you meant from the context.

In my accent, there is no "r" at the end of via, or idea, and no "r" in the middle of advance and after; Under your spelling children would have to learn a "silent r" rule - that some words would be spelled with an "r" but that "r" is silent.

You would simply replace one set of "idiotic" spellings with a different set.

How would you decide whether the spelling reflects a rhotic or a non-rhotic accent?
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
North East Quine
quote:
In the closed thread on simple spellings, you included several words which took me a while to puzzle out, as the way they were spelled bore no relation to the way I pronounce them. - "vier", "advarnss" "arfter" "ideer." Fortunately I could work out which words you meant from the context.

It seemed I had rushed in not knowing that the angels were somewhere else discussing if there was a door! As an example it was entirely off the cuff and just to make a point. If you had been taught what sound (in your own accent) 'i' and 'ee' made then you could work out the word and spell it.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
If you had been taught what sound (in your own accent) 'i' and 'ee' made then you could work out the word and spell it.

Yes - but the whole point is that reading can be quick and automatic if it's standardised. There is no 'working out' unless we come across a word which is new to us.

I teach dyslexic children, and I am dyslexic myself. It's hard enough to learn to spell as it is, without the spellings changing on a whim.
 
Posted by Firenze (# 619) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
If you had been taught what sound (in your own accent) 'i' and 'ee' made then you could work out the word and spell it.

But I have worked out how words are pronounced in my accent - an accent which has morphed over the years, as they do.

What I like about the current spelling regime is that nobody speaks like that. It is not an accurate transcription, AFAIK, of any specific dialect. Were a new scheme to be introduced it would have to take some one spoken version as the model. So is it not just RP all over again?
 
Posted by Jengie Jon (# 273) on :
 
Let me put it simply, rhymes do not work the same in all forms of English! What is more they change with time. While there are differences in the words that rhyme, there cannot be a consistent way of spelling English that is consistent in all forms of English.

Jengie
 
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on :
 
I have a question, not so much about spelling and grammar differences, but about meaning.

In British English 'alternate' = happening in
turns

and 'alternative' = offering a choice of two things

quite often in UK one sees these two words used wrongly
as in ROAD CLOSED USE ALTERNATE ROUTE

I suspect that this usage comes from American English,but wonder if the meaning is the same for the two words on the other side of the Atlantic.
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
I think the confusion is that "alternate" is in fact two words and not one - an adjective broadly synonymous with with the adjectival form of alternative, and a verb meaning "to switch back and forth". This is detectable (at least in my dialect) by the adjective being alTERnut and the verb being ALTernayt.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
In highway signs, in addition, the "alternate" saves space, energy (in electric signs), and therefore money.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Arethosemyfeet:
I think the confusion is that "alternate" is in fact two words and not one - an adjective broadly synonymous with with the adjectival form of alternative, and a verb meaning "to switch back and forth". This is detectable (at least in my dialect) by the adjective being alTERnut and the verb being ALTernayt.

My two editions of Fowler seem to take issue with this. The latest (3rd Ed., c. 1993) acknowledges that 'alternate' and 'alternative' are synonymous in some senses in American English, but not in British English.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
I also have a question unrelated to spelling. I keep hearing or reading about "well-paying jobs" and "good-paying jobs." To my ear, "well-paying" sounds very wrong, and good-paying a step or two better, but still not Quite Right. We are arguing about this at work, since we advertise often to fill vacant positions.

As the Designated Writer of this copy at my workplace, I currently duck this issue by writing "competitive wages" or "jobs that pay well" or some, er, alternative. Since my duckings take more space and cost more money, I'm under pressure to use (winces) "well-paying jobs."

Ammunition welcomed.
 
Posted by EtymologicalEvangelical (# 15091) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge
I'm not sure I follow. Are you saying that people should be able to spell words the way they sound in their own accents, without considering that those who read the words might have an entirely different accent?

I'm thinking of the song from My Fair Lady which is sung by Liza Doolittle: "Wouldn't it be Lovely"

The first lines are:

“All I want is a room somewhere
Far away from the cold night air”

To my New England ear, Liza's rendition could be spelled as follows:

"Oll Oi wont iz a rheum sumwheh
Fah Rawhey frem the coald noit aih"

People from my state might render it this way:

"Ahl I wunt iz a rum sumwheh
Faah 'away fr’m the cold nite aih"

People from the coastal south US might sing it as follows:

"All Ah wo-ant iyiz a ruom some whe-ah
Foh awah-y fr’m the co-ald naaht ai-ah"

In upper-class Brit-Speak, it might sound (from my point of reference) like this:

"Awl I wont iz a rheum somm wheh
Faah r’away from the coled nite eyuh"

And from the Ohio area, it might go this way:

"Orl I woant iz a rhum some wherrr
Farr away fr'm the cold nite errr"

It might be easier for individuals to spell as they (think) they speak, but it would render written communication -- which, after all, is what spelling is for -- far more complicated. Certainly it would slow our reading down.

There's overlap and similarities among these renditions, but I can't see how it helps us out with communicating easily and effectively.

If I've misunderstood, my apologies. Perhaps you're suggesting that opposite: that we each pronounce one spelling in our various ways.

But isn't that precisely what we do now?

I think this post qualifies as the best example of putting an issue to bed that I have seen on the Ship. AFAIAC, it completely debunks phonetic spelling reform, and the case for the maintenance of the status quo is unanswerable.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
If you had been taught what sound (in your own accent) 'i' and 'ee' made then you could work out the word and spell it.

The problem is, not everything I want to read is written by people with my own accent.
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
North East Quine
quote:
In the closed thread on simple spellings, you included several words which took me a while to puzzle out, as the way they were spelled bore no relation to the way I pronounce them. - "vier", "advarnss" "arfter" "ideer." Fortunately I could work out which words you meant from the context.

It seemed I had rushed in not knowing that the angels were somewhere else discussing if there was a door! As an example it was entirely off the cuff and just to make a point. If you had been taught what sound (in your own accent) 'i' and 'ee' made then you could work out the word and spell it.
My issue with those words is not the "i" and "ee" sounds, but with the rhotic and non-rhotic "r". I know what sound "r" makes in my accent; I pronounce "r" as in the first letter of "robot" or "red". In your spelling, there are "r"s inserted where they are not pronounced in my accent, hence, to make sense of these spellings, there would need a rule about a "silent "r" in the same way as we currently have a silent "k" at the start of knight or knee.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
I'm under pressure to use (winces) "well-paying jobs."

Ammunition welcomed.

"Pay" is a verb and as such is qualified by adverbs, as opposed to nouns which are qualified by adjectives. "Good" is an adjective and "well" is an adverb, so "well-paying" is grammatically correct.

That may not be the sort of ammunition you wanted (although FWIW I prefer any of your alternatives to having to choose between the two you are faced with).

In any case, I think the topic at hand here is really spelling rather than grammar.
 
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on :
 
In a similar context would you say ;
I'm paid well or I'm paid good ?
FWIW I would say this is a well paid job

If you wanted to use the present continuous tense,
would you say :

they are paying me well
or
they are paying me good ?

you might of course say :
they are paying me good money.
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
"Payed good" to my ear just sounds wrong. I would definitely say "payed well".

One that annoys me is when someone asks "how are you?" and the reply far too often is "I'm good". I'm tempted to reply "oh, you've been a good boy/girl then?". The correct reply, of course,is "I'm well".
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
I would suggest "high-paying" as an equally short alternative.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Thanks for responses.

"Well-paid" bothers me not at all, as it sounds (and AFAIK, is) correct; it's the "well-paying" version that sticks in my craw. When we call something a “paying” job (as opposed, I assume, to volunteer work), “paying” is an adjective; it modifies “job,” a noun. As noted by Eutychus, we use adverbs to modify verbs, though we also use them to modify adjectives. AFAIK, “He’s well thought of,” or “She’s well-spoken” are both correct usage. So, alas, “”well-paying” must be correct. I don’t know why I hate it so.

I’ll go with “well-paid.” How can the other managers complain? It’s even shorter than “well-paying.”

Back to spelling.

[ 09. February 2014, 17:49: Message edited by: Porridge ]
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
I also have a question unrelated to spelling. I keep hearing or reading about "well-paying jobs" and "good-paying jobs." To my ear, "well-paying" sounds very wrong, and good-paying a step or two better, but still not Quite Right.

The horrible grammar in "good-paying" has been described above.

"High-paying" to my ear doesn't mean the same - it is eminently reasonable to search for a well-paid job for a semi-skilled labourer, but you are unlikely to find a highly-paid one.

I prefer "well-paid job" in your context.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I'm not sure how "this job pays well" can be acceptable but "this is a well-paying job" not. Do you feel that way about other adverb-gerundive combinations? Rapidly-rising prices? Or other adverb-adjective combinations? Closely-held secret?

ETA: Well-paid job only makes sense if someone is paying the job. But you don't pay jobs; jobs pay you. So that makes no sense.

[ 09. February 2014, 19:32: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
I'm not sure how "this job pays well" can be acceptable but "this is a well-paying job" not.

Neither am I, but there it is. I'm not claiming the stance is reasonable or right; it's just my stance.

quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Do you feel that way about other adverb-gerundive combinations? Rapidly-rising prices?

Rapidly-rising prices sounds fine to me. Actually, I think the adverb-gerundive combo isn't all that common. Perhaps what gets up my nose is that "well" is one of those adverbs that doesn't take an "-ly" ending. I'd have, on reflection, the same reaction to a "well-cooking stove" or a "well-singing choir" but no issue at all with a "well-cooked meal" or a "well-sung song."

quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Or other adverb-adjective combinations? Closely-held secret??

Again, sounds fine.

quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
ETA: Well-paid job only makes sense if someone is paying the job. But you don't pay jobs; jobs pay you. So that makes no sense.

Quibble. While the individual filling the job gets the cash, it's the job that employers pay for. When Worker A slopes off in search of greener pastures, Worker B comes along and collects the same cash -- provided s/he does the job. Nothing wrong with your logic, of course -- but if languages operated on logic, we wouldn't be having this thread on English's crazy-quilt patchwork of spelling systems.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
I'm saying that the spelling would always be the same for the english word, but the pronounciation would always vary. ...

But isn't that the present situation, in which case why change it to a different version of the same thing? Or have I completely missed the point?
 
Posted by Jonah the Whale (# 1244) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Well-paid job only makes sense if someone is paying the job. But you don't pay jobs; jobs pay you. So that makes no sense.

That seems equally illogical to me. It is the employer who is doing the paying, not the job. Still, as mentioned above, when has logic been the final arbiter of anything to do with the English language.

Does that bring us back to the subject to standardised (-ized) spelling?

ETA: "to" is pretty standardized in any spelling system.

[ 09. February 2014, 22:49: Message edited by: Jonah the Whale ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jonah the Whale:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Well-paid job only makes sense if someone is paying the job. But you don't pay jobs; jobs pay you. So that makes no sense.

That seems equally illogical to me. It is the employer who is doing the paying, not the job.
"What does it pay?" asked of a job is pretty standard.
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
To reiterate:- "I'm saying that the spelling would always be the same for the english word, but the pronounciation would always vary. ... "

quote:
Originally posted by Enoch :
But isn't that the present situation, in which case why change it to a different version of the same thing? Or have I completely missed the point?

On reflection I meant 'often vary'. But I think you were not referring to this.

What I am getting at is that the spelling of many words gives no clue to their pronunciation e.g. 'thought' 'taut', whereas a simple combination of two vowels (a standardised version) would allow the reader (and speller) to at least have a good idea of how to say them even if it has a local accent.

The odd thing is that we change the meaning of words (viz 'issue' - an avoidance of saying 'problem', or even 'gay' for homosexual) without much hew and cry, but if a jot or tittle of spelling is changed we can fail a job interview!
 
Posted by North East Quine (# 13049) on :
 
Pronunciation goes beyond vowel sounds, though. The "t" at the start of "tractor" or "train" sounds different to the "t" at the start of "tuba" or "Tuesday." How would you spell "loch"? How would you distinguish between rhotic and non-rhotic "r"?
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:

The odd thing is that we change the meaning of words (viz 'issue' - an avoidance of saying 'problem', or even 'gay' for homosexual) without much hew and cry, but if a jot or tittle of spelling is changed we can fail a job interview!

In Germany they have spelling 'upgrades', which could be a good idea. But, for the sake of us very poor spellers if nothing else - keep the standardisation imo.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
What I am getting at is that the spelling of many words gives no clue to their pronunciation e.g. 'thought' 'taut', whereas a simple combination of two vowels (a standardised version) would allow the reader (and speller) to at least have a good idea of how to say them even if it has a local accent.

I don't get it. Whose local accent will be used to choose the vowels? How will that help someone whose local accent does not pronounce them that way? Are you presupposing that if accent "A" distinguishes certain vowels and pronounces them the same, that accent "B" will split up the vowel sounds the same way? What you write as æ in accent "A" will, even if not pronounced the same as in accent "A", will always be pronounced the same way as each other in accent "B"? That's most assuredly not the case, and can be seen quite easily in a simple, well-known example: In Pink Floyd's "Another Brick in the Wall Part II," Roger Waters sings, "No dark sarcasms in the classroom." The second "a" in "sarcasms" is pronounced æ, while the "a" in "classroom" is pronounced long. But in American English, they are both pronounced as æ. Thus if you give them separate symbols to reflect Roger's pronunciation, those two symbols will be pronounced the same in American, in those two words. If you give them the same symbol based on the American pronunciation, then that symbol will have two different pronunciations in wherever it is Roger is from. And there are of course vowels that go the other way. Just within the US, there are regional dialects in which "awed" and "odd" rhyme, and those in which they do not. Which dialect will drive the standard spelling?
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Pronunciation changes over time too, even within one dialect. Note the post above which claims that "blood" and "food" once rhymed.

It may be that, to simplify spelling, we have to develop a writing system which is not tied to sound, but to meaning. Some version of pictograms? I have no Japanese, but am given to understand that Japanese children have no trouble with what we call "spelling."

Alas, we are currently stuck with an alphabetic system which attempts to signify speech sounds.

It might also help if English stopped incorporating words from other languages and "grew our own," as the Germans tend to do. Presumably, most Germans can already spell their words for hair, wash, and method, So when a new substance arrives from India in the 1600s (or whenever) meant for washing hair, they dub it Haarwaschmittel. Not us English-speakers: we transliterate phonically from the Hindi and call it shampoo.

I'm afraid tinkering with the current system won't work either over the long haul, or over the umpteen varieties of English spoken both by native speakers and by second-language-users around the globe.

If I were you, shadeson, I'd work this problem from the other end: try to get people a little more accepting of understandable spelling errors.

[ 10. February 2014, 13:38: Message edited by: Porridge ]
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
Porridge:
quote:
It might also help if English stopped incorporating words from other languages and "grew our own," as the Germans tend to do.
[Killing me] You do realise we do both in English? Word-formation is alive and well - especially in management-speak.

And only dead languages are pickled in aspic. If we do change the spelling to reflect the way (some) 21st century people pronounce English, in a few hundred years' time I can guarantee the spelling system will be just as impenetrable.

Here's a famous example of a sound change that's taking place in North American English right now: the Northern Cities Vowel Shift

[ 10. February 2014, 14:02: Message edited by: Jane R ]
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
I like the English language as it is, that is, with all its oddities.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
It may be that, to simplify spelling, we have to develop a writing system which is not tied to sound, but to meaning. Some version of pictograms? I have no Japanese, but am given to understand that Japanese children have no trouble with what we call "spelling."

This is probably because the pronunciation of Japanese is very standard, and their spelling standardized after the pronunciation standardized. They tend to nipponify loan words to an great extent, to fit into their existing writing schemes.

They do have pictograms (called kanji) but much of their everyday writing is in the syllabaries katakana and hirigana. (In a syllabary, each symbol denotes a syllable rather than a phoneme or phoneme pair; thus there is one syllable for "la," one for "lo," one for "li," and so on.)

One of the very good things about having a rather abbreviated alphabet is that it makes keyboards wieldy. In a computer age, that is a very good thing. If you had a keyboard with every Chinese pictogram on it, it would be the size of a good-sized wall, even if the keys were much smaller than the ones on the laptop I am writing this on.

quote:
It might also help if English stopped incorporating words from other languages and "grew our own," as the Germans tend to do.
The glory of English is its gigantic vocabulary, made up in large part of loan words. When German grows its own words, they often grow far too large!

quote:
Presumably, most Germans can already spell their words for hair, wash, and method, So when a new substance arrives from India in the 1600s (or whenever) meant for washing hair, they dub it Haarwaschmittel.
Or Haarseife.

quote:
Not us English-speakers: we transliterate phonically from the Hindi and call it shampoo.
You will have to work long and hard to convince me that's a bad thing.

English spelling is largely based not on contemporary pronunciation, but on etymology. The spelling of "read" as the past tense of "read" marks it as part of the verb meaning to decipher squiggles into words; "red" the color is pronounced the same, but its spelling distinguishes it from the verb. Think of sight, site, and cite. A reasonably-well educated person can tell on sight which meaning or meaning family (sight can of course mean the faculty of vision, something to look at, or the part of a projectile weapon you look through to aim it) is meant. If we only had one spelling, it would be easier to know how to pronounce, but harder to decode. Trade-offs.

Is English hard to learn as a second language? Sure. So is Mandarin. Deal.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
They tend to nipponify loan words to an great extent, to fit into their existing writing schemes.

I should say their existing pronunciation schemes, since foreign words are often written in romaji, that is, the Roman alphabet.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
One thing I've never really understood about English is why we insist on using Anglicised names for other places and countries. Sometimes the word in English appears to have very little to do with the way that natives use the word.

For example, the Japanese word for Japan doesn't to me sound anything like the English word Japan.

I think we should stop this right away and make more effort to get our mouths around the words that people use to call themselves.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
I think we should stop this right away and make more effort to get our mouths around the words that people use to call themselves.

Seriously?!

Are you perturbed when you hear a Frenchman say 'Londres'?

[ 10. February 2014, 14:16: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I think it happens a lot less in other languages.

I suspect the words we call other people have a long history of racial slurs and mis-hearing by colonial masters.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
I see no reason why we shouldn't pronounce place names in our own language in ways that we find easy or are used to. I find the use of native place names in English a rather odd affectation, usually used by people to 'show off' that they know the native pronunciation.

I was at a dinner party last year where the man next to me kept pronouncing 'Strasbourg' with a French accent. I found it extremely irritating.

[ 10. February 2014, 14:25: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

ETA: Well-paid job only makes sense if someone is paying the job. But you don't pay jobs; jobs pay you. So that makes no sense.

Jobs don't pay anybody. Employers pay people to do jobs [Big Grin]
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
Innit. Quite why we had to start calling Bombay Mumbai and Peking Beijing, I'll never know.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:

ETA: Well-paid job only makes sense if someone is paying the job. But you don't pay jobs; jobs pay you. So that makes no sense.

Jobs don't pay anybody. Employers pay people to do jobs [Big Grin]
This is true and I was tempted to point it out myself, but let's make sure this thread doesn't veer any more off the topic of standardised spelling, or it runs the risk of getting sent to Heaven faster than you can say "alarmed door".

[ 10. February 2014, 14:36: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:

What I am getting at is that the spelling of many words gives no clue to their pronunciation e.g. 'thought' 'taut', whereas a simple combination of two vowels (a standardised version) would allow the reader (and speller) to at least have a good idea of how to say them even if it has a local accent.

On the other hand, without the spelling differences, it is harder work for the reader to determine whether you meant "taught", "taut", "tort", or "torte".
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Mousethief, I don't disagree with you. As I noted above, our current collection of spelling systems (the plurality necessitated by the fact that "champagne" is spelled as the French spell it, and "shampoo" is spelled as the Brits heard the Hindi word, etc.) can actually be helpful as a guide to spelling, once we know that words ending in the sound "sh'n" often come to us from Latin and usually get spelled "-tion", etc.

I personally wouldn't like to see us lose the historical info that our current words contain within them as a result of how they entered this language and how they're spelled. Or spelt.

However, I also take shadeson's point: there are jobs in which spelling ability plays no part at all, yet applications containing spelling errors often bar those applicants from the candidate pool. It seems a great waste.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:

I suspect the words we call other people have a long history of racial slurs and mis-hearing by colonial masters.

Well, that's part of it (compare, for example, the Native American tribes known to French colonists as "big stomachs" and "pierced noses"). But really, colonialism is only one small piece of the puzzle. Countries and cities in Europe have different names in different languages, but it's mostly because names of foreign places and people are corrupted by trade and traders, rather than by occupying armies or colonists. It's the same process that takes any ordinary word from a foreign language and adjusts it to fit the local tongue. And partly, of course, that Europe has more than a millennium of mutual war (with the occasional break to change ends and eat a wedge of orange) to ensure that everyone's tongue gets a chance to mangle everyone else's words.

Giving your own names to bits of someone else's country isn't some colonial aberration - it's the entirely normal process of language evolution.
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
I'm probably a snob, but I'm going to say that in many cases it's not terrible to narrow such people out. Now there are clearly exceptions, for instance many people do not have English as a first language. Everything I am about to say does not apply to them. There are almost certainly other exceptions too, for instance people with certain learning disabilities.
However, most people who can't spell just didn't bother to learn. They saw it as useless. If I were an employer, I don't think the ideal employee is one who decides not to do things that they can't be bothered to do. Also, misspellings on a job applications show not just that the applicant couldn't be bothered to learn spelling, but often that they didn't spell-check, and didn't ask anyone to look over their application letter. Any prospective employee who can't use spell-check, doesn't work with other people, and can't be bothered to spell? Yeah, probably not the top of my list. (Also, in many jobs communication is an important skill, and there are always people who are not easy to communicate with. If someone considers spelling a waste of time, do they rate other written-communication skills as important?)

[ 10. February 2014, 14:59: Message edited by: Gwai ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:

However, most people who can't spell just didn't bother to learn. They saw it as useless. If I were an employer, I don't think the ideal employee is one who decides not to do things that they can't be bothered to do. Also, misspellings on a job applications show not just that the applicant couldn't be bothered to learn spelling, but often that they didn't spell-check, and didn't ask anyone to look over their application letter. Any prospective employee who can't use spell-check, doesn't work with other people, and can't be bothered to spell? Yeah, probably not the top of my list. (Also, in many jobs communication is an important skill, and there are always people who are not easy to communicate with. If someone considers spelling a waste of time, do they rate other written-communication skills as important?)

That seems to me to be an odd thing to argue. Presumably one might think that someone who regularly breaks the speeding laws is unfit for any job which requires personal integrity. It seems to me that the only difference here is that you happen to know that this person has a characteristic you can infer from their poor spelling, whereas speeding is not something you can tell from an application form.

I was reflecting yesterday that someone I think is particularly articulate is not using Standard English. One could say the same about many great poets.

I think Rabbie Burns would have been a great person to have speaking in many different contexts. To reject his application for a public speaking job because his spelling was not standard seems... perverse.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:

Again, if an alternative spelling for a word was commonly defined and accepted, then those sitting in judgement could not complain.

But of course they would. There would be two "accepted" spellings - the one that marks you out as having been educated at the right school, and the one designed for stupid people. Your suggestion would seem to open up more avenues for elitism.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
That seems to me to be an odd thing to argue. Presumably one might think that someone who regularly breaks the speeding laws is unfit for any job which requires personal integrity.

One might think all sorts of things. Some are more rational than others.
quote:

It seems to me that the only difference here is that you happen to know that this person has a characteristic you can infer from their poor spelling, whereas speeding is not something you can tell from an application form.

Well, yes. That's rather the point. Are you arguing that I should ignore the evidence of the poorly-presented application because I can't know the applicant's attitude towards the posted speed limits?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
Well, yes. That's rather the point. Are you arguing that I should ignore the evidence of the poorly-presented application because I can't know the applicant's attitude towards the posted speed limits?

I think it depends on the job. It appears that often spelling is being used as a substitute to infer various things about a person. Some jobs may require good spelling and presentation, but maybe also people are being rejected for entirely spurious reasons.

I doubt speeding has much link to personal integrity and I doubt the way that people write on an application form has much relation to the way they would do a job. One can infer certain things, I think they're almost always going to be inaccurate.

[ 10. February 2014, 15:18: Message edited by: pydseybare ]
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
Agreed with everything LC said. To add:
I would say that if I wanted an absolute adherence to laws then I would pick someone without speeding tickets, as such a person is more likely to be absolutely lawful. However, if I wanted a person who knows when to break the laws, I would go against a person with many tickets but would not select against a person with say one. That person might have just made an error.

Is everyone who makes a spelling error on a job app a bad speller? Certainly not, but if one has to choose between qualified applicants, I have heard of far worse criteria being used at places I worked. "X won't get promoted under Y. Y has said she prefers people who dress in a more modern way." Note that X dressed completely professionally, and this was not a customer-facing job or anything like it.)
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Gwai:


Is everyone who makes a spelling error on a job app a bad speller? Certainly not, but if one has to choose between qualified applicants, I have heard of far worse criteria being used at places I worked. "X won't get promoted under Y. Y has said she prefers people who dress in a more modern way." Note that X dressed completely professionally, and this was not a customer-facing job or anything like it.)

So... one poor reason to refuse to promote someone means that another way to make judgements is justified? That's a daft argument.

Loads of people do not need to use standard English. In almost every situation I can think with, it is a positive bonus to be able to communicate effectively in non-standard English.
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
Generally, I would say that in a standard western professional office, there is one way to communicate, and anyone who cannot do so will be left out.

[ 10. February 2014, 15:41: Message edited by: Gwai ]
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
In almost every situation I can think with, it is a positive bonus to be able to communicate effectively in non-standard English.

I'd be interested to know what these situations are, because I can't think of how speaking in non-standard English could be considered a 'positive bonus'.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
I'd be interested to know what these situations are, because I can't think of how speaking in non-standard English could be considered a 'positive bonus'.

Politician
Policeman
Local housing officer
Anyone who has to answer the phone and speak to the public

and so on.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
In almost every situation I can think with, it is a positive bonus to be able to communicate effectively in non-standard English.

I'd be interested to know what these situations are, because I can't think of how speaking in non-standard English could be considered a 'positive bonus'.
Being able to communicate in non-standard English as well as standard English can certainly be an advantage. If one works in an environment in which people of varied background interact, speaking in a manner in which they are comfortable eases communication.
This goes well beyond words, of course, but that is beyond this thread.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
One thing I've never really understood about English is why we insist on using Anglicised names for other places and countries. Sometimes the word in English appears to have very little to do with the way that natives use the word.

For example, the Japanese word for Japan doesn't to me sound anything like the English word Japan.

I think we should stop this right away and make more effort to get our mouths around the words that people use to call themselves.

This is not a peculiarity of English. It's probably universal. Which do you regard as the right name to use when speaking English, Bratislava, Pressburg or Pozsony? Swansea or Abertawe? Rome or Roma? And if you look at some train timetables, you'll see that London and Manchester are both different in Welsh.

When speaking English, do you talk about Madreeth? Or, like most normal people, do you regard those that do as pretentious prats?

Unless you say Madreeth, Abertawe, Parree (complete with rolling 'rs'), Roma, and Wien, you should also stick to Peking, Bombay and Madras.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Innit. Quite why we had to start calling Bombay Mumbai and Peking Beijing, I'll never know.


 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:


Unless you say Madreeth, Abertawe, Parree (complete with rolling 'rs'), Roma, and Wien, you should also stick to Peking, Bombay and Madras.

Given English is one of the national languages of India, I think they might be entitled to rename their own cities.

Herein illustrates the problem.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:

Unless you say Madreeth, Abertawe, Parree (complete with rolling 'rs'), Roma, and Wien, you should also stick to Peking, Bombay and Madras.

Madrid and Paris are different to Bombay and Madras in that the former are pronunciation differences and the latter are completely different words.

Pydseybare,

RE Burns. He switched between full Scots, standard English and a light Scots. He illustrates the point I was attempting in my previous post.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
To return to spelling, here's an issue for Gwai:

Earlier, you exempted second -language users and dyslexics from your "rule." In a job app scenario, how does one do this? Perhaps it happens differently where you work; where I work, we get initial applications both by snail-mail and e-mail. Aside from knowing the person's name, address, and often (though not always) their gender, I know nothing about these people.

Given your exemption, when you see a spelling error on an application, how can you know why / how / by whom the error was made, when all you've got to go on is the app?

The applicant could be a second-language user.

The applicant could be dyslexic.

The applicant could, having just stumbled on the "help wanted" notice for The Perfect Job, be in a tearing rush to get the app in by deadline.

The applicant could be collecting unemployment compensation and doesn't give a toss about this particular job, but must submit proof that s/he's applying for jobs to continue collecting unemployment.

The applicant could be filling the app out while a parent / spouse / friend is chewing him/her out because s/he hasn't got a job, and is only half-attending to the app.

The applicant could be filling out his/her two-hundredth app that day in a desperate effort to secure employment and is dead-tired . . .

. . . and so on.

Even normally good spellers might make errors in such situations.

I'll grant (having seen what seems like thousands of apps), that I screen out those which are riddled with spelling, punctuation, and usage errors (one or more per line of text is my rule of thumb), because the job I'm trying to fill requires reading and writing abilities that are at least fair. I also screen out handwritten ones, because the job requires basic familiarity with keyboarding.

But if I have an app from someone (especially with relevant experience / background) who writes positively and respectfully about the work we want our staff to do, I will often overlook a spelling error or two.
 
Posted by Gwai (# 11076) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
To return to spelling, here's an issue for Gwai:

Earlier, you exempted second -language users and dyslexics from your "rule." In a job app scenario, how does one do this? Perhaps it happens differently where you work; where I work, we get initial applications both by snail-mail and e-mail. Aside from knowing the person's name, address, and often (though not always) their gender, I know nothing about these people.

Answered below, but note that I have never been the main person on a job search, so maybe my answers are idealistic or stupid. I am assuming here that these people are writing cover letters with their apps, as that is what is done in my field. If not, it gets much more complicated, and not just re spelling! Please also understand that I say this as someone who's written hundreds and hundreds of job apps already, as a freelancer and for full time positions. I know it's not easy, and that one totally does end up realizing too late one messed up something in an application. At least I've realized that more than once. I just immediately write those ones off as "Welp, there's one I won't get."

Given your exemption, when you see a spelling error on an application, how can you know why / how / by whom the error was made, when all you've got to go on is the app?

The applicant could be a second-language user.
And if that is clear from their application, I would probably overlook minor spelling/grammar issues that might otherwise have troubled me. After all, if my biggest concern about them is whether they can communicate with the rest of my staff, I could presumably find this out in the interview. If they don't say so in their letter, I can only presume they aren't asking me to take that into account, as I can't

The applicant could be dyslexic.And if they say so in their application, I could at least delay until the interview a question about how are you going to handle X and Y. As above if they don't say so.

The applicant could, having just stumbled on the "help wanted" notice for The Perfect Job, be in a tearing rush to get the app in by deadline.Well, frankly they probably should have waited and taken their time to get it right, as they should with any work they do for me. Which isn't to say I couldn't ever forgive a spelling error, but if comparing two similar candidates and trying to decide which to interview, it would definitely be relevant to me.

The applicant could be collecting unemployment compensation and doesn't give a toss about this particular job, but must submit proof that s/he's applying for jobs to continue collecting unemployment. Just as well that I'd probably cut that person then. I'd rather have an employee who does particularly want the job.

The applicant could be filling the app out while a parent / spouse / friend is chewing him/her out because s/he hasn't got a job, and is only half-attending to the app. Would be frustrating, but honestly that's time to tell the parent/spouse/friend to shut up and let you concentrate. Learning to manage distractions is part of life too.

The applicant could be filling out his/her two-hundredth app that day in a desperate effort to secure employment and is dead-tired . . . And that's what tended to make me make most of my errors. That or the one about rushing for the perfect job. Sigh.


But if I have an app from someone (especially with relevant experience / background) who writes positively and respectfully about the work we want our staff to do, I will often overlook a spelling error or two. And that does seem extremely reasonable. My line of work (writer and/or editor) is particularly nit-picky, so I don't think people do tend to overlook job app errors, but I agree that in general a single error often does not signify anything.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Peking, Bombay and Madras.

I don't agree with the last. Calling Chennai "Madras" or Mumbai "Bombay" is using a colonial-era name rather than an English name. It's like calling modern Istanbul "Constantinople".
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:


Unless you say Madreeth, Abertawe, Parree (complete with rolling 'rs'), Roma, and Wien, you should also stick to Peking, Bombay and Madras.

Given English is one of the national languages of India, I think they might be entitled to rename their own cities.

Herein illustrates the problem.

But who are 'they'? Bombay was renamed after a Hindu nationalist party (the sort that a lot of western liberals would frown on) took power in the city. As I understand it, many of Bombay's middle classes don't use the new term.

By the way, what do you call the country that lies north of Vietnam but south of Mongolia?
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Peking, Bombay and Madras.

I don't agree with the last. Calling Chennai "Madras" or Mumbai "Bombay" is using a colonial-era name rather than an English name. It's like calling modern Istanbul "Constantinople".
I do.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Peking, Bombay and Madras.

I don't agree with the last. Calling Chennai "Madras" or Mumbai "Bombay" is using a colonial-era name rather than an English name. It's like calling modern Istanbul "Constantinople".
Can these really be considered 'colonial-era' names? India was granted independence in 1947. Bombay didn't change its name until, I think, 1996. Madras was around the same time, if not later.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
As I tried to say before my ipad ate my post...

Beijing always was Beijing. At least since the 15th century.

The older transliteration of the name into English was something like Peiching. That got simplified into Pekin in the Roman alphabet version of the name used by Chinese postal services. The k got misread by English speakers as if it meant what we'd mean if we wrote a K, but it never meant that. It was the sound we'd write by J.

Our use of "j" and "ng" are rare amongst users of Roman-derived alphabets. The spelling "Pekin" was meant for French and Italian and so on (and maybe invented by French or Italian missionaries)

Something similar happened to Nanjing, which became spelled Nankin, and then was partially fixed (for English speakers) by moving to Nanking. The two ends are OK, the middle is not.

Mumbai/Bombay and Kolkata/Calcutta are different transliterations of the same word. Chennai/Madras is a bit of Hindu nationalism, an attempt to remove a Muslim name.

Myanmar is the same word as Burma as well. And it doesn't have an "R" in it - non-rhotic Englanders put it there to indicate long vowels. So both spellings might be misleading for, say, Canadians.
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
Leorning Cniht
quote:
On the other hand, without the spelling differences, it is harder work for the reader to determine whether you meant "taught", "taut", "tort", or "torte".
The context of both speech and writing usually makes this problem minimal.

quote:
There would be two "accepted" spellings - the one that marks you out as having been educated at the right school, and the one designed for stupid people. Your suggestion would seem to open up more avenues for elitism.
I don't get this idea of elitism. The whole world of communication is changing. If by general concensus a word is spelt in a shortened understood version - who can object. The dictionaries incorporate new words every couple of years or so.

No one seems to have a problem with 'lite' as opposed to 'heavy' .

And I notice that it is not spelt lyte. Why? Because the correct pronounciation is pretty obvious from the common spelling.

Without giving it much thought, surely most modern words are easy to read from the spelling.
Even DNA can be pronounced fairly well from the full word.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:

The applicant could, having just stumbled on the "help wanted" notice for The Perfect Job, be in a tearing rush to get the app in by deadline.

Possible, but unlikely. It is far more likely that the applicant has poor time management skills, and left completing the application until the last minute.

quote:

The applicant could be collecting unemployment compensation and doesn't give a toss about this particular job, but must submit proof that s/he's applying for jobs to continue collecting unemployment.

And if the applicant doesn't give a toss about my job, I am pretty certain I don't want to employ him.

quote:

The applicant could be filling the app out while a parent / spouse / friend is chewing him/her out because s/he hasn't got a job, and is only half-attending to the app.

Again, we'll file that under "not giving (enough of) a toss.

quote:

The applicant could be filling out his/her two-hundredth app that day in a desperate effort to secure employment and is dead-tired . . .

Sure - it's possible, but the odds are against it.

In practice, it seems unreasonable to assume that somebody who submits a careless job application will turn into a careful, detail-oriented employee.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
Leorning Cniht
quote:
On the other hand, without the spelling differences, it is harder work for the reader to determine whether you meant "taught", "taut", "tort", or "torte".
The context of both speech and writing usually makes this problem minimal.


It slows reading. It doesn't slow speech, because speech is slow anyway.


quote:

No one seems to have a problem with 'lite' as opposed to 'heavy' .

Really? I don't know anybody who thinks that "lite" is a word. It's a cutesy-misspelling term of art used on low-calorie foodstuffs and drinks. It's like "kwik".

And yes, if you used "lite" to mean something not very heavy in a job application, it would raise questions about your literacy in my book.
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
Anyone who uses "lite" needs a good whipping.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Anyone who uses "lite" needs a good whipping.

Except those of us who refer to "Sunday Lite" to describe the liturgy suggested by the Moore College school.
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
I'll have to think about that one. [Biased]

"Nite" and "donut" also deserve a good whipping, if you ask me.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
Leorning Cniht
quote:
On the other hand, without the spelling differences, it is harder work for the reader to determine whether you meant "taught", "taut", "tort", or "torte".
The context of both speech and writing usually makes this problem minimal.

One word in a paragraph. But what of 10? 20?
And the very needing of working out words changes the experience of reading.
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
Leorning Cniht
quote:
I don't know anybody who thinks that "lite" is a word
Oxford English Dictionary:
quote:
• informal; denoting a simpler or less challenging version of a particular thing or person:
Obviously derived from 'light' - who is being elitist? No problem with job applications in the appropriate context.

Anyway, this could go on for ever. My main point is that in the same way new words are coined, why shouldn't new spellings, if agreed and standardized?
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
I'll have to think about that one. [Biased]

"Nite" and "donut" also deserve a good whipping, if you ask me.

Isn't donut the correct spelling in North America?
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:


Anyway, this could go on for ever. My main point is that in the same way new words are coined, why shouldn't new spellings, if agreed and standardized?

This is how things are currently done.
 
Posted by Jane R (# 331) on :
 
Gwai:
quote:
The applicant could be a second-language user. And if that is clear from their application, I would probably overlook minor spelling/grammar issues that might otherwise have troubled me.
In my admittedly limited experience of reading job applications, second-language users often have better spelling than native speakers. I was on an interview panel for a cataloguing job once; we gave the job to the non-native speaker mainly because her spelling and grammar were better than any of the other candidates (being able to spell was a basic requirement of the job).

And I wouldn't be too sure that making the English writing system more like Japanese is the way to go - it takes years to become literate in Japanese.

[ 10. February 2014, 20:14: Message edited by: Jane R ]
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
I'll have to think about that one. [Biased]

"Nite" and "donut" also deserve a good whipping, if you ask me.

Isn't donut the correct spelling in North America?
Americans don't speak proper English.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Oh, come now. When did Dunkin' Donuts become the authority on American orthography? If I were referring to the above-named franchise, I'd use their spelling so a reader would know who/what I was referencing.

But "doughnut" is the preferred spelling, surely, regardless of whether one lives to the left or right of the pond?
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Americans don't speak proper English.

HL Mencken's observation about this is interesting (though I disagree with it).

[code]

[ 10. February 2014, 20:56: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
But "doughnut" is the preferred spelling, surely, regardless of whether one lives to the left or right of the pond?

I await correction, but I understood that 'doughnut' was not a word in North American English.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Americans don't speak proper English.

hosting/

Anything that looks like it might be trying to start a pond war, or put fuel on the fire, is pretty much guaranteed to attract adminly attention in short order. Desist.

/hosting
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
But "doughnut" is the preferred spelling, surely, regardless of whether one lives to the left or right of the pond?

I await correction, but I understood that 'doughnut' was not a word in North American English.
You do not await in vain. Here you go . . .

Although you did say North American. I speak only for those South of the Border; I've no idea how the Canadians handle this dilemma.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
The standard spelling here has been "donut" for many years, and my recollection of now distant childhood days is that even then, "doughnut" was viewed as being deliberately outdated.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
Although you did say North American. I speak only for those South of the Border; I've no idea how the Canadians handle this dilemma.

You are in Mexico?
I checked three American dictionaries. Two directly listed donut as a variant and one obliquely did by displaying a link to doughnut instead of a definition.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
Although you did say North American. I speak only for those South of the Border; I've no idea how the Canadians handle this dilemma.

You are in Mexico?
I checked three American dictionaries. Two directly listed donut as a variant and one obliquely did by displaying a link to doughnut instead of a definition.

Then you might also check the link I posted; and I did not claim "donut" wasn't used; I said it was the preferred form. At 1/3 "donut" to 2/3 "doughnut," that seems to be the case.

As to the border business, I was being playful. At my last check, there is a border between the U.S. and Canada. In Canada, English is spoken by many if not most of the citizenry as a first language (unlike Mexico, where I believe Spanish holds linguistic sway and wrangles about "donut" vs, "doughnut" probably don't come up all that often). I with my fellow Americans live south of the aforementioned border.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Sorry Porridge, the Mexico thing was intended to be playful as well.
The rest of the post was not aimed at you, but illustrating how, as spelling changes, official guidance does as well. Do(ugh)nut is captured in the midst of this.
I said as much, well, in my head I did. But I am sometimes frustrated with iPhone posting and cut short my posts.
 
Posted by Ariston (# 10894) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
I've no idea how the Canadians handle this dilemma.

According to The Authoritative Source on Canadian pastries and coffee, it looks like we should go with "donut." Which, for whatever reason, looks weird to me, even though I know it's probably the spelling I've seen most often on signs.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Yabbut.

What we see on signs are advertisements for brands. Neither Tim Horton's nor Dunkin' Donuts owns the English language.

Unless, of course, we hand it over to them. I may now officially be an old fart for saying so, but "donuts" looks like a low-life, no-class, drop-out, lazy, feckless, layabout word to me, albeit simpler to spell.

Besides, break the word down: "dough" plus "nut" equals a pastry product loaded with fat, like nuts. I grant you, the visual might be more like the fried leftover bit from punching out the hole in the middle which Dunkin Donuts calls a "munchkin," but still . . . what does "do" plus "nut" call up for us? Cracking open a pecan?
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
The word dougnut and donut are covered in Wikipedia. Bear in mind it was likely of Dutch settler origin, although I suspect a bit of Jewish influence given the hallmark of lavish use of oil.
The shape we still see as a filled doughnut precedes the ring doughnut so the "dough" "nut" explanation is plausible.
 
Posted by Augustine the Aleut (# 1472) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
But "doughnut" is the preferred spelling, surely, regardless of whether one lives to the left or right of the pond?

I await correction, but I understood that 'doughnut' was not a word in North American English.
Doughnut was how my grandmother spelled it in Renfrew, Ontario. I am not sure how it is spelled south of the border, but I see that others have contributions to make on this.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Palimpsest:
The word dougnut and donut are covered in Wikipedia. Bear in mind it was likely of Dutch settler origin, although I suspect a bit of Jewish influence given the hallmark of lavish use of oil.
The shape we still see as a filled doughnut precedes the ring doughnut so the "dough" "nut" explanation is plausible.

(Emphasis mine). I'm pretty sure that's a minority view of the spelling. I'll get my coat . . .
 
Posted by Palimpsest (# 16772) on :
 
My error in the url entry. I meant doughnut. Research on this topic has made me once again lament that Voodoo Doughnuts is in Oregon.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
O. M. G.

I had to google it. If I had lived for any length of time near a VooDoo Doughnut shop, I'd be dead now.

I want a maple bar. Keep those guys on your coast, please; I have all I can handle with the 17 Dunkin' Donuts they have here where I live (which is about one Dunkin's for every 2500 residents). Yikes.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
Peking, Bombay and Madras.

I don't agree with the last. Calling Chennai "Madras" or Mumbai "Bombay" is using a colonial-era name rather than an English name. It's like calling modern Istanbul "Constantinople".
No it's not. "Constantinople" is not a colonial-era name, nor is it associated with colonialism in any way. If anything it goes the other way.
 
Posted by Ariston (# 10894) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
Yabbut.

What we see on signs are advertisements for brands. Neither Tim Horton's nor Dunkin' Donuts owns the English language.

Unless, of course, we hand it over to them. I may now officially be an old fart for saying so, but "donuts" looks like a low-life, no-class, drop-out, lazy, feckless, layabout word to me, albeit simpler to spell.

Besides, break the word down: "dough" plus "nut" equals a pastry product loaded with fat, like nuts. I grant you, the visual might be more like the fried leftover bit from punching out the hole in the middle which Dunkin Donuts calls a "munchkin," but still . . . what does "do" plus "nut" call up for us? Cracking open a pecan?

However, they do reflect the language in use by the populace who read the signs, which, unless you're a prescriptivist who makes some appeal to a Higher Body to define your language, is probably how you're going to judge what the standards of the language of a certain society are. Not to go out on a limb or anything, but I'm guessing Timmy's/Dunkies/Daylight/etc. are going to use the vernacular, and, through use, enforce this variant as the most common in the vernacular. It's a self-reinforcing cycle, I suppose.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
For those who follow the Istanbul/Constantinople dispute (whether breaking in to song or not), what about Ankara/Angora? From there the whole range of names rendered into English in Latin script when the original was in a totally different language, perhaps even a different language group, in a different script. Then those written not in a script but ideographics.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
No it's not. "Constantinople" is not a colonial-era name, nor is it associated with colonialism in any way. If anything it goes the other way.

"Colonialism" isn't the point. The point is "this city used to be called X. It is now called Y."

Calling Chennai "Madras" isn't bad because "Madras" is what the nasty colonial oppressors used to call it, it's bad because the Indian people/government say "it's not called Madras any more, it's called Chennai."

And yes, there's an argument about Hindu nationalism in there, but to refuse to call the city by its official name is taking an explicit side in that dispute.

The default, neutral position (in so far as one exists) is to use the current official name of the city. For example, calling the city 500 miles north-west of Moscow "Leningrad" now carries strong political implications, as would having called it "Saint Petersburg" 30 years ago.

On the other hand, calling Moscow "Moskva" whilst speaking English is just silly.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
Leorning Cniht - but couldn't some say 'well, we've always called it Madras in English, we're going to go on calling it Madras whatever the Indians say'? That appears to be the thrust of some contributions to this thread.

To me it is about honouring and respecting other cultures. We might not be able to get our mouths around names in the same way as those who live there, but I think it is pretty offensive to continue to call something by an old name just because we've always done so.
 
Posted by Pearl B4 Swine (# 11451) on :
 
About spelling: I've always been a stickler about English spelling. However, when LOLcats struck me, I've gone down another path, having fun with spelling; which leads me to this: A few months ago I picked up "The Complete Poems of John Donne" at my local library sale for
fifty cents !. What a treasure. Donne was an interesting speller. Sometimes I have to puzzle over the context in order to figure out a word. And then it makes me smile. Spelling was free-style back then.

Second, about Istanbul/Constantinople: This is not a matter of changing a city name spelling! (like Peking/Beijing) Turkey changed the city name as part of de-Greeceing that area. It still leaves a nasty taste in Greek peoples' mouths, and many refuse to use the 'new' name.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:


On the other hand, calling Moscow "Moskva" whilst speaking English is just silly.

But what of croissant? Both crescent and cwasa pronunciations seem odd to me as one is wrong and I do not speak French. However, I do speak Spanish* and tend to pronounce those words as correctly** as I can. Not out of any pretentiousness, but as it is the correct pronunciation. Though I will admit to feeling awkward doing so in some places. Yet not doing so feels awkward as well, so....

*more or less
**this, of course, varies from place to place.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Leorning Cniht:
... Calling Chennai "Madras" isn't bad because "Madras" is what the nasty colonial oppressors used to call it, it's bad because the Indian people/government say "it's not called Madras any more, it's called Chennai."

And yes, there's an argument about Hindu nationalism in there, but to refuse to call the city by its official name is taking an explicit side in that dispute.

The default, neutral position (in so far as one exists) is to use the current official name of the city. For example, calling the city 500 miles north-west of Moscow "Leningrad" now carries strong political implications, as would having called it "Saint Petersburg" 30 years ago.

On the other hand, calling Moscow "Moskva" whilst speaking English is just silly.

None of that follows except for the last sentence. Indeed, if a place has already got an English name, what right has anyone outside England got to tell us what we should call a place in our own language. It's up to us. Brussels isn't Brussels in either of the two languages spoken there. It's either Bruxelles or Brussel. If the government of Belgium were suddenly to announce that in English, it should become something other than Brussels, IMHO we're entitled to say 'up yours' and carry on as before. Likewise if the Russians were to say we should say Moskva.

To return to one of my previous examples, I've no idea what the better name in English is for Bratislava/Pressburg/Pozsony. By current English usage it's probably Bratislava, but that's the name it had when it was in Czechoslovakia. I don't even know, since the country has split in half, whether that's still its name in Slovak.

I think I'd probably still talk of the siege of Leningrad, but would normally now refer to the city generally as St Petersburg. It's easier for a place to revert to a name it used to have than for it to acquire a completely new one. On Constantinople/Istanbul, I would take it that the current English usage is probably to call the city now Istanbul, but if the context is before about 1920 to call it Constantinople.

Whether 'Chennai' eventually catches on or not here, I'm not sure, but it's up to us, not the government of India. In a lot of these cases, I suspect there's a period when it depends how old you are whether you go on calling a place by the name you've always called it or not.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pearl B4 Swine:
Spelling was free-style back then.

To stave off the inevitable, "see, this is what we mean" it is important to note most people did not read at this time.
-------------------------
To avoid a triple post
History of Spelling: English Addition
An especially relevant portion:
quote:
Getting a pronunciation out of alphabetic writing requires people to analyze the sound string down to the level of component sounds. Yet this type of phonemic analysis is apparently not an obvious or natural one for humans; it needs to be taught intensively before it can be done fairly automatically and that is one reason why acquisition of literacy at an early age is stressed in cultures with alphabetic writing. It takes a lot of practice to reliably decode messages from alphabetic writing.

 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
None of that follows except for the last sentence. Indeed, if a place has already got an English name, what right has anyone outside England got to tell us what we should call a place in our own language. It's up to us.Brussels isn't Brussels in either of the two languages spoken there. It's either Bruxelles or Brussel. If the government of Belgium were suddenly to announce that in English, it should become something other than Brussels, IMHO we're entitled to say 'up yours' and carry on as before. Likewise if the Russians were to say we should say Moskva.

Why is it up to us? Because we're offensive Englishmen who continue using whatever terms we like for other peoples' countries/cities, no matter what they themselves think?


quote:
To return to one of my previous examples, I've no idea what the better name in English is for Bratislava/Pressburg/Pozsony. By current English usage it's probably Bratislava, but that's the name it had when it was in Czechoslovakia. I don't even know, since the country has split in half, whether that's still its name in Slovak.
Maybe we should - y'know - ask them what they want to be called. These names might mean 'shithead' in the local language, why should we insist on continuing to use a name that the locals do not want?

quote:
I think I'd probably still talk of the siege of Leningrad, but would normally now refer to the city generally as St Petersburg. It's easier for a place to revert to a name it used to have than for it to acquire a completely new one.
Easier to whom? What are you talking about?

quote:
On Constantinople/Istanbul, I would take it that the current English usage is probably to call the city now Istanbul, but if the context is before about 1920 to call it Constantinople.
I see. What you really mean is that the correct English name for foreign parts is whatever you say it is. Excuse me for thinking we might need a rather more sophisticated and diplomatic approach to our neighbours and other cultures.

quote:
Whether 'Chennai' eventually catches on or not here, I'm not sure, but it's up to us, not the government of India. In a lot of these cases, I suspect there's a period when it depends how old you are whether you go on calling a place by the name you've always called it or not.
Nope, no it isn't. English is a national language in India, they are allowed to call their cities whatever they like, and we should have the decency to respect their wishes.
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:

Whether 'Chennai' eventually catches on or not here, I'm not sure, but it's up to us, not the government of India.

This strikes me as very arrogant.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
Why is it up to us? Because we're offensive Englishmen who continue using whatever terms we like for other peoples' countries/cities, no matter what they themselves think?

It's up to us because we can speak our own language in whatever way we like. Are you put out by the fact that French people say 'Londres'?

quote:
What you really mean is that the correct English name for foreign parts is whatever you say it is. Excuse me for thinking we might need a rather more sophisticated and diplomatic approach to our neighbours and other cultures.


So to repeat my question above, what do you call the country that is north of Vietnam but south of Mongolia?
 
Posted by Forthview (# 12376) on :
 
Bratislava is the name in Slovakian of the city
which is the capital of Slovakia.
As part of the Austro-Hungarian Empire and very close to Vienna it was known in German as Pressburg.
However the city was in the Hungarian part of the Dual monarchy and was known in Hungarian as Poszony.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by lilBuddha:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:

Whether 'Chennai' eventually catches on or not here, I'm not sure, but it's up to us, not the government of India.

This strikes me as very arrogant.
Is it likewise arrogant of Tim Horton's or Dunkin' Donuts to change "doughnut" to "donut" for the sake of saving on signage?

I get that English operates on a sort of "by popular demand" basis (though in reality it's not so much "popular" as it is "what practices do most educated users of the language follow?").

Here, though, there's not much evidence that brands follow what educated users do; rather, they're serving a bottom line. Whether painted, formed, or electrified, signs with six letters are cheaper than signs with nine letters. Once the cheap signs begin dotting the landscape, users of the language are apt to follow their lead. So "donuts" is likely to become (eventually) the preferred spelling.

Alas, poor doughnut. We spelled him well.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
I think cities, countries and the like are in a different category because as proper nouns they carry a lot more cultural and political baggage than other words.

PS Myanmar and I claim my €5 (although I see Wikipedia begs to differ...)
 
Posted by Arethosemyfeet (# 17047) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eutychus:
I think cities, countries and the like are in a different category because as proper nouns they carry a lot more cultural and political baggage than other words.

PS Myanmar and I claim my €5 (although I see Wikipedia begs to differ...)

That would be because the name Myanmar was, if memory serves, imposed by the junta, and is not accepted by the pro-democracy movement in Burma.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
Well, the Economist, which is my default style guide in such matters, changed its position several years ago after holding out for a long while in favour of Burma. Now returning you to your regular standardised spelling debate - I'm pretty sure the Economist goes with -ised etc. too.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
And here is where we get into the bizarre position of deciding on a name based on whether we like the people or not. The BBC is particularly bad at this.

For years, the BBC has steadfastly referred to the country east of India as 'Burma', because the regime that changed the country's name is a nasty one. But they're softening up a bit now and the other day I heard on the Today programme a story about 'Myanmar' followed by 'and now to our correspondent in Yangon'.

During the Kosovo conflict, Slobodan Milosevic was referred to by the BBC as the 'President of Serbia'. After he left office, his successor, Vojislav Kostunica, was referred to as the 'President of Yugoslavia'. Very bizarre.
 
Posted by Eutychus (# 3081) on :
 
You have driven me to further research.

Commenting on its shift from Burma to Myanmar, the Economist says that in such matters its use follows "a strict policy of using official names for places"... " the one by which the country is known at the UN" - so it changed when the UN did.

The BBC's argument is that they use "what is most helpful to our audiences" and that as of 2012 (when the post was written) "most know the country as Burma, so, for now, that's what we continue to call it."

These two approaches could be said to encapsulate the approach to spelling reform. On the one hand, attempt the Académie Française approach of attempting to impose from the top; on the other, follow what seems to be the popular trend. The surprising thing about the Académie approach is that sometimes, it actually works.

[ETA for ultra-completelness, here is the Financial Times' defence of its change, also in 2012, on the grounds of "neutrality"]

[ 11. February 2014, 19:22: Message edited by: Eutychus ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
I think there are circumstances where repressive regimes impose name changes on populations - and where respected activists ask the rest of the world to continue using the original name for some political purpose.

It seems to me that this is the exception rather than the rule.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
On Constantinople/Istanbul, I would take it that the current English usage is probably to call the city now Istanbul, but if the context is before about 1920 to call it Constantinople.
I see. What you really mean is that the correct English name for foreign parts is whatever you say it is. Excuse me for thinking we might need a rather more sophisticated and diplomatic approach to our neighbours and other cultures.
A lot of the rest of your post is common sense, but this part misses the point completely. For 1600 or more years, the city was known as Constantinople. As a part of Ataturk's reforms, the name was changed to Istanbul. All Enoch is saying is that when referring to the city until then, we call it Constantinople; from then on, we call it Istanbul.

Then onto the difficult decisions, such as Brussels/Brussel/Bruxelle, or Florence/Firenze: what do we do there? And how did the Italianate name of Vienna creep into English use, rather than Wien?

As a complete aside, what about a Madras Curry at the local Indian restaurants? That name has not changed.
 
Posted by St Deird (# 7631) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
One thing I've never really understood about English is why we insist on using Anglicised names for other places and countries. Sometimes the word in English appears to have very little to do with the way that natives use the word.

For example, the Japanese word for Japan doesn't to me sound anything like the English word Japan.

I think we should stop this right away and make more effort to get our mouths around the words that people use to call themselves.

I completely disagree.

I've been learning Latin, recently. These days, the textbooks aim for a pronunciation as close to Classical pronunciation as they can get. Thus, I know two different pronunciations: Classical Latin, and what I think of as "English Latin".

In Classical Latin, I pronounce the name "Cicero" as if the Cs are hard: "KI-KEY-RO"
In English Latin, I pronounce the same name as if the Cs are soft: "SI-SER-O"

And Caesar? One way it's "KAI-SER"; the other it's "SEE-SER".

The reason I mention this is because I can quite happily read out an entire passage in Latin using the Classical hard-C Cicero, but if I'm talking in English, the soft-C Cicero is much easier to use – because it fits the way my mouth is already talking. Similarly, I can switch between talking in German and saying "Nurnberg" and talking in English and saying "Nuremberg" - but trying to do it the other way around is all but impossible, because the place names are designed to suit the language I'm saying them in.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Dunno why you're going outside the British Isles to find examples of the English habit if using their own names for places.

What about Swansea? The English called it that because there were swans at the mouth of the river - the proper name is Abertawe.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by L'organist:
Dunno why you're going outside the British Isles to find examples of the English habit if using their own names for places.

What about Swansea? The English called it that because there were swans at the mouth of the river - the proper name is Abertawe.

I don't think either of those statements are correct. On the authority of a good friend who comes from there and has lectured me on the subject, if you are speaking English, it is a serious solecism to call it anything else other than Swansea, and if you are speaking Welsh, it is likewise a serious solecism to call it anything else other than Abertawe. It's which language you are speaking at the time that determines what its name is.

Also, the inhabitants think that its English name isn't English and has nothing to do with swans. It's supposed to derive from Norse, Sweyn's Eye, or island, as in Nailsea, Mersea, Anglesey (Welsh Ynys Môn) etc. The football team, though, is 'the Swans' emblem, a swan.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
It's supposed to derive from Norse, Sweyn's Eye, or island,

Yes, I had always understood that Swansea was named for Sweyn Forkbeard.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Are you put out by the fact that French people say 'Londres'?

If there were a political flap in England about calling London "London" instead of "Londres" this might have something to do with this thread. As there isn't, it doesn't.

quote:
For years, the BBC has steadfastly referred to the country east of India as 'Burma',
How odd. I'd have thought they'd call it "Bangladesh."

[ 12. February 2014, 05:01: Message edited by: mousethief ]
 
Posted by PeteC (# 10422) on :
 
In regard to Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Kochi, Aluva*, Bengaluru, etc. etc. etc.

(formerly known as Madras, Bombay, Calcutta, Cochin, Alwaye*, Bangalore) etc. etc etc. etc.)

these place name changes have already taken place in India (Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata strongly, others less so).

In Chennai, the Madras High Court still exists, however. I suspect that this is because of the centuries of legal documents and laws referring to it). As for food named after such places (Madras curry powder, Bombay this and that), these things are still understood in India and the world.

*This is more a change in spelling. It has always been known as A-lu-wa.

In all these "new" city names, names and trademarks registered under the old name still exist.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Are you put out by the fact that French people say 'Londres'?

If there were a political flap in England about calling London "London" instead of "Londres" this might have something to do with this thread. As there isn't, it doesn't.


But this is my point. We accept that some foreigners have different names for places in Britain. I'm fine with that. I'm applying the same principle but in reverse.

quote:
quote:
For years, the BBC has steadfastly referred to the country east of India as 'Burma',
How odd. I'd have thought they'd call it "Bangladesh."
If they knew where Assam is, they probably wouldn't.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Burma? Myanmar? Myanma? I think I'd follow Aung San Suu Kyi's line. A bias I am happy to own up to.

I think she still believes (believed) that Myanma, rather than being more respectful of own language use, was in practice more than a little dismissive of the minorities in "Burma".

So I guess that once there is a truly representative government in "Burma" the name to use will get sorted out. Meanwhile, it looks as though we get to offend someone, whichever use we make.

Hence "follow Aung San Suu Kyi", wherever she goes, until there is such a government. The smart move.

Whatever you might think of that, "Burma" is an interesting test case of the sometimes complex moral and political issues involved in the naming of countries.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
Yes, we've all heard the theory about the Vikings being the source of Swansea: only problem is that the Viking settlements didn't include Swansea - and on the whole the norsemen didn't bother naming small, insignificant places they hadn't settled.

They've been searching for years for the signs of a serious Viking settlement around Swansea to back up this theory - no luck so far. The most they've come up with is possibly a temporary staging post to put into when shipping slaves from South Wales back to Dublin.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Are you put out by the fact that French people say 'Londres'?

If there were a political flap in England about calling London "London" instead of "Londres" this might have something to do with this thread. As there isn't, it doesn't.


But this is my point. We accept that some foreigners have different names for places in Britain. I'm fine with that. I'm applying the same principle but in reverse.

But you're not. You're bridging from an instance where there is no controversy (the French saying "Londres") and saying we should treat instances in which there is (e.g. "Mumbai" and "Bombay") the same way. The mere fact that something is okay when nobody is complaining doesn't mean it's okay when somebody is.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
But if, say, the editors of the Oxford English Dictionary and the Prime Minister wrote to the Academie Francaise asking that British place names should always be spelt as they are in English, do you think the French should take a blind bit of notice?
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Pearl B4 Swine:



Second, about Istanbul/Constantinople: This is not a matter of changing a city name spelling! (like Peking/Beijing) Turkey changed the city name as part of de-Greeceing that area.
It still leaves a nasty taste in Greek peoples' mouths, and many refuse to use the 'new' name.

"Istanbul" is a Greek name also. Just a different Greek name. And well over a thousand years old.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
But if, say, the editors of the Oxford English Dictionary and the Prime Minister wrote to the Academie Francaise asking that British place names should always be spelt as they are in English, do you think the French should take a blind bit of notice?

Depends. Why would they do that? One thing I notice is that there is little subjection/subjectee history between England and France, at least in the last 1000 years. India and Britain, way different story. Context matters. Lots.
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
Depends. Why would they do that? One thing I notice is that there is little subjection/subjectee history between England and France, at least in the last 1000 years. India and Britain, way different story. Context matters. Lots.

I don't accept your 'subjection history' argument, but you are also clearly not familiar with the history of this little corner of north western Europe since your start date of 1014 and the centuries of national animosities that history has generated.
 
Posted by Carys (# 78) on :
 
Just seen the form "paedofiles"* in a tweet, obvious example of spelling simplification "ph"=f, but made me thing of document storing because the etymology link is lost.**

Carys

*interesting that they didn't go for pedofiles as æ to e much further advanced

**though philia is not really a good term to use as it's not about love.
 
Posted by Augustine the Aleut (# 1472) on :
 
Some shipmates might enjoy the tale of how I ended up as a guest at a barbecue held by a workshop of Basque drama teachers (some of whome were very fetching) while pilgriming through the forests east of Guernica/Gernika. Among the many topics of our 2-hour conversation (there was wine on the table) we discussed identity, ideology, and placenames, all of which were very hot issues. I had been walking a few days previously through SAn Sebastian, and asked if it were permitted for me to use that name. Donostia is the Basque name, but no non-Basque knew what it meant. San Sebastian was the Castilian version and they felt that it was an acknowledgement of the centralist authority in Madrid. One of them thought that Saint Sebastian was the best for me to use, as the English was entirely neutral, and not an embrace of one side or the other.

Since then, a Belgian friend tells me that I am wisest using Antwerp as Anvers or Antwerpen would only get me grief from one side or the other.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
quote:
Originally posted by Pearl B4 Swine:



Second, about Istanbul/Constantinople: This is not a matter of changing a city name spelling! (like Peking/Beijing) Turkey changed the city name as part of de-Greeceing that area.
It still leaves a nasty taste in Greek peoples' mouths, and many refuse to use the 'new' name.

"Istanbul" is a Greek name also. Just a different Greek name. And well over a thousand years old.
It's nobody's business but the Turks',
It's nobody's business but the Turks'!

Abbreviated to make sure there's no copyright breach.

[ 13. February 2014, 01:27: Message edited by: Gee D ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I don't accept your 'subjection history' argument,

It's hard for imperial countries to accept the desires of their former colonies.
 
Posted by Gee D (# 13815) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Enoch:
I don't accept your 'subjection history' argument,

It's hard for imperial countries to accept the desires of their former colonies.
I thought that Enoch's original post was clear: he was referring not to the relationship between India and the UK, but rather to that between England and France. No doubt he had in mind the invasion by the Duke of Normandy in 1066, and the subsequent relationships between the English Crown and various duchies, counties and so forth which now form part of France.

Where Enoch's post is subject to some criticism is in 2 areas. The first is that the relationships I have referred to were between the Crown of only one portion of the present UK and the French territories. The second is that while the present French State is pretty clearly the successor to the Kingdom of France, in 1066 and for quite some time before and after then, the Kingdom of France was pretty effectively limited to the Ile de France and some surrounding territory.

And a bit of an aside is that the relationship between the UK and India was never, strictly speaking, that between an imperial power and a colony or even a group of colonies.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
French cities do not, as far as I know, have strong feelings about how their names should be pronounced in English, unlike in India - where English is a national language.

Also, just because we've done something for centuries is not in itself a good reason to continue doing it.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
...do you think the French should take a blind bit of notice?

Not sure you will be able to access this hilarious commentary on this point, but I hope so.

I do miss "Yes Prime Minister" ....
 
Posted by Ad Orientem (# 17574) on :
 
Personally, I'll call a place whatever I damn well like. So for me that's Bombay, Peking (in Finnish it is still called Peking), Constantinople and Bonkersland for America.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Finnish diplomacy, Ad O?

Or maybe just the finish of diplomacy?
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
Also, just because we've done something for centuries is not in itself a good reason to continue doing it.

Personally, I think that's an excellent reason to continue doing it. (Or at least to think very, very hard when thinking whether or not to stop doing it.)

quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Peking (in Finnish it is still called Peking).

And in German. I first realised this when watching Deutsche Welle, the German overseas television channel, which alternates English-language and German-language weather forecasts on the hour. In the English forecasts, the city is 'Beijing', in the German forecasts it is 'Peking'.

[ 13. February 2014, 08:25: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Personally, I think that's an excellent reason to continue doing it. (Or at least to think very, very hard when thinking whether or not to stop doing it.)

Even where someone else has specifically asked you to stop? I think that is pretty rude.
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Personally, I think that's an excellent reason to continue doing it. (Or at least to think very, very hard when thinking whether or not to stop doing it.)

Even where someone else has specifically asked you to stop? I think that is pretty rude.
I don't think it's rude to write one's own language in one's own way.

The government of the Ivory Coast has asked everyone to refer to the country as 'Cote d'Ivoire' regardless of language, and the government of the Ukraine would like everyone to drop the definite article when referring to the country. While these people can ask, I don't think it follows that everyone should fall into line.
 
Posted by Eliab (# 9153) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Personally, I'll call a place whatever I damn well like. So for me that's Bombay, Peking (in Finnish it is still called Peking), Constantinople and Bonkersland for America.

Ad Orientem, a thread on spelling seems an odd place to want to display an inability to read for comprehension, but as you were clearly asked by a host not to post anything that looked like an attempt to start a pond war, it seems that is what you are doing.

This is a violation of commandment 1 (trying to disrupt a thread with deliberately provocative comments) and commandment 6 (doing that after a host asks you to stop). Do not do this again.

Eutychus has already warned you that you were at risk of attracting adminly attention - I would suggest you heed that warning.


Eliab
Purgatory host
 
Posted by Erroneous Monk (# 10858) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
quote:
Originally posted by Anglican't:
Personally, I think that's an excellent reason to continue doing it. (Or at least to think very, very hard when thinking whether or not to stop doing it.)

Even where someone else has specifically asked you to stop? I think that is pretty rude.
I don't think it's rude to write one's own language in one's own way.

The government of the Ivory Coast has asked everyone to refer to the country as 'Cote d'Ivoire' regardless of language, and the government of the Ukraine would like everyone to drop the definite article when referring to the country. While these people can ask, I don't think it follows that everyone should fall into line.

It becomes even more loaded when it's people rather than countries. My mother once called my sister pretentious for pronouncing the name of Chilean writer Isabel as "ai-yen-day" rather than "al-en-dee". But surely no-one would insist on addressing that writer to her face using a mis-pronunciation?

Is it OK to willingly mis-pronounce the name of an absent famous person, but not a present famous person, or a present civilian?

At the other end of the spectrum, I probably would giggle if someone announced that they were going to Pareeee for the weekend...
 
Posted by Anglican't (# 15292) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Erroneous Monk:
Is it OK to willingly mis-pronounce the name of an absent famous person, but not a present famous person, or a present civilian?

I wouldn't have described Anglicisation as mis-pronounciation. To pronounce 'Don Quixote' as 'Don Kwiksot' rather than 'Don Kay-hote-tay isn't to mis-pronounce it, but to give it its Anglicised pronunciation. Using that pronunciation while speaking Spanish would be a little odd, admittedly.

quote:
It becomes even more loaded when it's people rather than countries. My mother once called my sister pretentious for pronouncing the name of Chilean writer Isabel as "ai-yen-day" rather than "al-en-dee". But surely no-one would insist on addressing that writer to her face using a mis-pronunciation?

Doesn't this happen all the time? If you listen to foreigners trying to pronounce English names they often put their own spin on it.

When Michael Schumacher is interviewed in English, he's called My-kel, not Meek-hay-el.

[ 13. February 2014, 13:10: Message edited by: Anglican't ]
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by EtymologicalEvangelical:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge
I'm not sure I follow. Are you saying that people should be able to spell words the way they sound in their own accents, without considering that those who read the words might have an entirely different accent?

I'm thinking of the song from My Fair Lady which is sung by Liza Doolittle: "Wouldn't it be Lovely"

The first lines are:

“All I want is a room somewhere
Far away from the cold night air”

To my New England ear, Liza's rendition could be spelled as follows:

"Oll Oi wont iz a rheum sumwheh
Fah Rawhey frem the coald noit aih"

People from my state might render it this way:

"Ahl I wunt iz a rum sumwheh
Faah 'away fr’m the cold nite aih"

People from the coastal south US might sing it as follows:

"All Ah wo-ant iyiz a ruom some whe-ah
Foh awah-y fr’m the co-ald naaht ai-ah"

In upper-class Brit-Speak, it might sound (from my point of reference) like this:

"Awl I wont iz a rheum somm wheh
Faah r’away from the coled nite eyuh"

And from the Ohio area, it might go this way:

"Orl I woant iz a rhum some wherrr
Farr away fr'm the cold nite errr"

It might be easier for individuals to spell as they (think) they speak, but it would render written communication -- which, after all, is what spelling is for -- far more complicated. Certainly it would slow our reading down.

There's overlap and similarities among these renditions, but I can't see how it helps us out with communicating easily and effectively.

If I've misunderstood, my apologies. Perhaps you're suggesting that opposite: that we each pronounce one spelling in our various ways.

But isn't that precisely what we do now?

I think this post qualifies as the best example of putting an issue to bed that I have seen on the Ship. AFAIAC, it completely debunks phonetic spelling reform, and the case for the maintenance of the status quo is unanswerable.
And yet - and yet - some languages, with as much diversity in pronunciation as English, do manage to have a far more phonetic spelling system.

It is true that a one to one grapheme to sound relationship that holds for all accents is likely to be impossible. However, a consistent grapheme to phoneme system is possible, and exists in a number of languages.

This is because whilst pronunciation of phonemes vary between accents, in the main they do so in a regular manner. Take for example the short 'u' in English. In the South this represents two different phonemes - the sound in "put", and the sound in "up". In the North this represents a single phoneme as the sound in southern "up" doesn't exist and the "put" sound is used in all positions.

Now if you try to base a reformed spelling system based solely on Northern English, you're going to have a problem. However, you could introduce two symbols to represent the two sounds; in some accents they'd be pronounced differently, in others the same, but the relationship would be consistent and the symbol would always carry the same sound for a particular speaker. It would not always be possible to predict spelling from the sound, if one's own accent doesn't differentiate, but it would always be possible to predict pronunciation (in one's accent) from spelling.

Similarly, it would be perfectly possible to always render the vowel phoneme in "write", "height" and "sigh", because regardless of how that vowel is realised in a particular accent, these words all contain the same sound within that accent. A west countryman doesn't need to respell it "oi", even if he pronounces it that way (to an RP ear), because the phoneme is always realised as that sound in his accent. So we could standardise and spell these words as "wreit", "heit" and "sei" (or whatever grapheme we choose) without having a problem with different accents. It can't be done naively, but English spelling certainly could be simplified. The status quo isn't the only option other than anarchy. It'd still be a standardised spelling, but it'd be a lot more logical and easy to learn that the current system, such as it is.

It works in Welsh, Spanish, Italian, Russian...
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
Changing the standard could work. Eliminating the standard, which is what the OP discusses, is madness.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
Standard spelling has to be based on a standard accent. And I want it to be mine of course.


Also we run out of vowels. English accents have anything from about 14 to about 28 vowels. We only have 5-8 letters to represent them. So either we invent a whole new alphabet or else set up loads of double-character symbols for vowels. Which means using 3 or 4 for diphthongs.

(5-8 because R, W, and Y often represent vowels. In my accent anyway. If they don't in yours, that just highlights the problem [Razz] )
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider:
It works in Welsh, Spanish, Italian, Russian...

Using Tuscan spelling in Italian to represent Roman or Venetian dialect is I think as contentious as using South East England spelling to represent Scots.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Standard spelling has to be based on a standard accent. And I want it to be mine of course.

OK, here's a suggested complete spelling reform! Just to show how unlikely it is to ever work, and how non-useful.

Some principles:

- See if we can make it work for SE English (RP, so-called "Estuary", London) and also General American
- use letters for their current meaning whenever possible
- when we have to use character pairs *either* use them in ways aklready familiar *or* invent new ones (i.e. don't try to re-use "th" or "ea" or "ng" to represent sounds they never represent already)
- recruit the redundant letters to do other things
- when a pair of characters represent a voiced or unvoiced consonant, use a pair for the other too (so we keep "sh" and "th" but add "zh" and "dh" to them)


First vowels, which are much harder to get right than consonants because standard English accents tend to differ by vowel shifts. splits, and mergers, with less diffeence between consomants. To deal with most varieties of standard English (we're not getting into dialects or very strange accents) you need to represent all the vowels from John Wells's "Lexical sets". The idea of this is that you and I may use different sounds to realise the vowel in the word "kit" but the chances are that whichever one we use there we will also use for "ship", "rim", "dim", and "spirit" (or own very close - probably no native speaker pronounces the two vowels in "spirit" exactly the same as each other)

Here is a list of them (mostly copied from that Wikip[edia page in the link): with Prof. Well's key words and a few examples of other words tht have the same or similar vowel (in my accent and others like it)



The last few in (brackets) because some over-zealous phoneticians think that all minimal-stress vowels in English are actually schwa. So they would use the same symbol for the "ou" in zealous and the "e" in "brackets". Which is perhaps going too far.

So all we need to represent all these vowels is to choose 28 characters, or character pairs, to represent them.

Start with the most common vowel in English: schwa, the one with no letter at all. As there is no character for it we recruit Y. (as in Welsh) That neatly allows us to use "YY" to represent the NURSE vowel which is a sort of stressed schwa (if such a monstrosity can be contemplated). A vowel character ({v}) followed by Y is a dipthong or glide ending in a schwa - so "Y" participates in no symbol pairs other than "YY"

Other single characters {v} represent their normal short vowel. Because rhotic accents still exist we need {v}R to represent a real consonantal R, so the non-rhotic long vowels need to be double characters. {v}R represents a real "r", not a non-rhotic's vocalised one

So that gives us something like:



OK, that means "air" has to be spelled "ey" ("SQUARE" vowel, something like an "e" followed by a schwa) but there you go. English is like that. I'll represent that change by "air"->"ey"

Consonants are much easier.

Most are as now (unvoiced,voiced pairs)


A pity we can't do dark L but its more or less vocalised in most British English anyway so may not matter much.

C can become "Ch" alongside "J" So "church"->"cyyc" (looks almost Welsh...)

H is as now, SX can be a voiced H, very rare in English these days but exists in a few loan words. And it makes for symmetry

"NG" is hard. It represents both the velar nasal "ing" (possibly followed by a /g/ or /k/) and the separate sounds /n/ /g/ And its different in different accents. Tempting to restrict "ng" to /ng/ but its so common we can't really. So ambiguity creeps in however hard we try.

So new or changed or double symbols:


Oh, and we need a glottal stop. "'" is traditional, but I don't want to use that, because it makes all the worlds look like bad namers from Anne McCaffrey books. So recruit Q.

So "A pint of bitter please" -> "Y paint yv bity pleez" in RP but "Y painq yv biqy pleez" in mine [Smile] North Americans mileage may vary.


[Edited - minor fix to code that was bugging me - Eliab]

[ 13. February 2014, 22:29: Message edited by: Eliab ]
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
There is no AA here up north.

Bath and cat rhyme [Smile]
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
There is no AA here up north.

Bath and cat rhyme [Smile]

That's the point! That's why an excercise like this prioves that spelling reform can;t work because no useful reform will piss off less than 60% of all English speakers.

For example in the best traditions of the other thread on much the same subject, here is a snippet of That Song in traditional orthography:

quote:

All I want is a place somewhere,
Far away from the cold night air,
With one enormous chair.
Oh, wouldn't it be loverly?

And in Kenreformed Superspelling (in the original Cockney):

quote:

Awl Ai wonq iz y pleis sumweyy,
Faa ywei from dhy coed nait eyy,
Wiv wun eenawmus ceyy.
Oe, wuudn iq bee luvyylee?

That would l;ook different if respelled by a Californian. Even using the same spelling system. at least the current version is mildly annoyimng for everyone.
 
Posted by Pancho (# 13533) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
So either we invent a whole new alphabet...

It has been tried before:

Behold the Shavian alphabet.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
The word “bath” is little problematic as a pronunciation guide, at least in Amerispeak. Where I live, most people pronounce this word with a vowel that sounds like the exclamation, “Ah!” Midwesterners pronounce “bath” with a vowel more like the one in “hat.” In the Boston area, where I was born, the same sound occurs in bath, can’t, laugh, and calf, but it’s a little different from the Boston Brahmin pronunciation (rarely heard any more), which is more like the exclamation “Aw!” and might be represented in your system with “o”. A larger issue is that many Americans pronounce “palm” and “calm” with that “aw” sound too. But let me give this a whirl (in my own accent, which many people here mistake for British, despite my decidedly rhotic r):

Ol Ai wont iz y ruum sumweyr
Faar ywey frum dhy coeld nait eyr

I can’t quite see how to spell the “wh” sound in “where.” I know many people now say these words as though there were no “h” there, but many others expel a little breath when saying the “w” sound, so “where” sounds different from “wear.”

Don’t know how far off this takes us (my accent is not typical) from the standard derived from your pronunciation.
 
Posted by RooK (# 1852) on :
 
[adminly attention]
quote:
Originally posted by Eliab:
quote:
Originally posted by Ad Orientem:
Personally, I'll call a place whatever I damn well like. So for me that's Bombay, Peking (in Finnish it is still called Peking), Constantinople and Bonkersland for America.

Ad Orientem, a thread on spelling seems an odd place to want to display an inability to read for comprehension, but as you were clearly asked by a host not to post anything that looked like an attempt to start a pond war, it seems that is what you are doing.

This is a violation of commandment 1 (trying to disrupt a thread with deliberately provocative comments) and commandment 6 (doing that after a host asks you to stop). Do not do this again.

Eutychus has already warned you that you were at risk of attracting adminly attention - I would suggest you heed that warning.


Eliab
Purgatory host

Commandment 6: violation.
Commandment 1: added to dossier.
[Shoves Ad Orientem overboard for 2 weeks.]

[/adminly attention]
 
Posted by Augustine the Aleut (# 1472) on :
 
I think that Pancho is correct; the double-lettering which English must use to represent sounds is only increased by most spelling reform advocates and the use of aa and q just makes at text seem like furniture assembly instructions in Somali. I had a copy of Androcles in Shavian many years ago but it has since disappeared. While I was able to read it fairly easily, my etymological self missed the word-origin aspects of much odd spelling in English. Another possibility is to import a few extra characters and supplement the 26 (as the Icelandics do).
 
Posted by Moo (# 107) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
I can’t quite see how to spell the “wh” sound in “where.” I know many people now say these words as though there were no “h” there, but many others expel a little breath when saying the “w” sound, so “where” sounds different from “wear.”

Phonetically, the sound is [hw].

Moo
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
That's all very well, but

a. Even in ordinary English, 'aisle' isn't quite the same vowel as 'price'. It's got an extra schwa sound in it.

b. The vowels in 'cure' and 'fury' are probably the same but the vowels in 'poor' and 'tour' aren't the same vowel as those two, and depending on who is speaking aren't always the same vowel as each other. There are a lot of different ways 'poor' is pronounced, but is there anywhere that 'poor' and 'pure' are pronounced the same?

c. Do you include the 'r' that is rhotic dialects or omit it, even though some people are pronouncing it and some are leaving it out? Under the Ken system, is 'part' spelt 'paat' or 'paart'? and

d. There's no 'l' in 'father' but round here, the 'l' in 'palm' and 'calm' is pronounced. And that's leaving aside completely whether there is an 'l' on the end of 'bra' or not.

As for 'a' and 'aa', there are parts of England where 'bath' is pronounced with a short 'a', parts where it has a long 'a' like 'ah' and parts where it has a sound more like the baa that a sheep makes. And even that's ignoring how various 'a's might be pronounced in the USA, Canada, Australia etc.

English spelling at the moment may be illogical, but at least you can read it. And at least we must be about the only language that has managed to produce a spelling system with no accents.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Moo:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
I can’t quite see how to spell the “wh” sound in “where.” I know many people now say these words as though there were no “h” there, but many others expel a little breath when saying the “w” sound, so “where” sounds different from “wear.”

Phonetically, the sound is [hw].
Local listings may vary.
 
Posted by Karl: Liberal Backslider (# 76) on :
 
Ken - I think the problem is that you're still aiming at a phonetic spelling system, rather than a phonemic spelling system. Moreover, as I said earlier, it's probably impossible to create a perfectly phonemic system as well, but I can see why folk might want something a bit less problematic (it's not problematic for me because my brain seems to be wired the right way, but it's definitely problematic for a lot of people) than what we have at the moment.

Even Gaelic has a better grapheme/phoneme correspondence than English [Biased]
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
We seem to be forgetting that words are primarily used to convey ideas not the sound. Ancient scripts made no attempt to convey the sound of a word.
True, it helps to know how the word sounds to interpret it.
However, if I see 'bath' and pronounce it 'barth' and a northern person makes it rhyme with cat we accept that as an accent difference and soon get to understand.
That might seem like a good reason for leaving the spelling of 'light' as it is. But children have to learn to read. A vast number of ghastly exceptions and rules could (or ought)to be swept aside to make this task easier even if it was limited only to the first thousand most commonly used words in the English language.
Since it was the ignorant that first defined the spelling of words a few simple revisions by the moderately literate would help a hell of a lot.
The professors of language worry about a method of defining pronounciation - it can't be done.
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:

The professors of language worry about a method of defining pronounciation - it can't be done.

OK, so if we're agreed that a) standardised pronounciation is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they pronounce words..

... why can we not also say that a) standardised spelling is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they spell words..?
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
pydseybare
quote:
.. why can we not also say that a) standardised spelling is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they spell words..?
Because unlike a spoken word, a written word cannot be enlarged upon by the speaker to convey what they mean.
So if someone cannot convey what they mean, in writing, we deem them as unable to write. This in commerce is a totally different catagory to accent which, by and large, is accepted
 
Posted by pydseybare (# 16184) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shadeson:
Because unlike a spoken word, a written word cannot be enlarged upon by the speaker to convey what they mean.
So if someone cannot convey what they mean, in writing, we deem them as unable to write. This in commerce is a totally different catagory to accent which, by and large, is accepted

I'm not sure it is about meaning, but about writing in a socially accepted way, where the social norms are dictated by shadowy and mythical figures who may have a point when discussing the finer points of Common Law but have no practical use to the rest of us.

And one can write using standard spelling whilst being impossible to understand. The one is not an indication of the other.
 
Posted by shadeson (# 17132) on :
 
pydseybare
quote:
And one can write using standard spelling whilst being impossible to understand.
An art in itself! [Smile]
 
Posted by Enoch (# 14322) on :
 
At the moment, one can read most things published in the last 400 years. There have been a few gradual changes but they don't cause too much of a problem. Words like 'public' no longer end with a 'k'. There will probably be others in the future. Will 'light' become 'lite' or will there still be two spellings, one for when it means an illumination, or 'not heavy' and the other for 'simplified but a bit facile', like at the moment? Will 'doughnut' become 'donut' which conceals its meaning, unless 'dough' becomes 'do' which would be spelt the same way as a word pronounced differently? Or perhaps 'do'nut'?

Don't both 'lite' and 'donut' get some of their verbal force precisely from the fact that they aren't the correct spelling and most people know that? 'Lite' means a lite version of light. 'Donut' is meant to convey that the product is a whizzo, fun sort of doughnut.

Suddenly changing spelling to Ken's model, which I don't think Ken really believes in, would cut everyone hereafter from all that has gone before. So I'd be against it.

[ 14. February 2014, 11:46: Message edited by: Enoch ]
 
Posted by lilBuddha (# 14333) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
OK, so if we're agreed that a) standardised pronounciation is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they pronounce words..

... why can we not also say that a) standardised spelling is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they spell words..?

Because a standardised spelling is practicable as has been demonstrated by the very usage said standardised spelling. Misspelling is more education than region.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
... why can we not also say that a) standardised spelling is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they spell words..?

For children or people just learning English as a second language, sure.

For native speakers in their 50s, fuck no.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
OK, so if we're agreed that a) standardised pronounciation is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they pronounce words..

But have we in fact agreed that? We've certainly demonstrated that pronunciation isn't standardized. I'm not persuaded that means it can't be. In fact, I'd argue that, within the U.S., pronunciation is becoming more standardized all the time. My great-uncle had a pronounced "up country" New Hampshire accent, and that accent was very common wherever I visited among my NH relatives and their friends. It was also very distinctive. That accent, or rather some features of it, have, 30-40 years on, disappeared. You'd be hard-pressed to find anyone these days who says "ayuh" the way that great uncle and others did. The sharply-pronounced terminal T-sound in words like "bite" or "eat" has vanished and been replaced by a sort of glottal stop.

While this is partly the result of "flatlanders" moving in-state, I suspect it's far more a product of mass communication, with its universal Middle-American speech coming at us from every television and radio. In my young adulthood, I recall having trouble in other parts of the country achieving mutual understandability due to differences in regional accents. I haven't encountered that problem in at least 20 years.

quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
... why can we not also say that a) standardised spelling is not practicable and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they spell words..?

But inferring things about the speller is not the sole issue. It's also about enabling a reader to accurately understand what the speller is trying to communicate. One of my staff people struggles with words that sound alike but are spelled differently, and it's sometimes hard to decipher what activities she assisted our client with from her reports as a result.
 
Posted by Leorning Cniht (# 17564) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pydseybare:
OK, so if we're agreed that a) standardised pronounciation is not practicable

Agreed.

quote:

and b) one should not infer anything about an individual by the way that they pronounce words..

But of course we infer things about people based on their accents - we identify their regional origins, and to some extent social background. And this is perfectly fine.

The problematic thing is, for example, assuming that someone who speaks with a broad regional accent is stupid or uneducated.
 
Posted by L'organist (# 17338) on :
 
...or that someone who speaks RP English is 'posh' and has a privileged lifestyle with plenty of money.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
In fact, I'd argue that, within the U.S., pronunciation is becoming more standardized all the time.

The Northern Cities Vowel Shift proves this wrong, at least as an absolute.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
In fact, I'd argue that, within the U.S., pronunciation is becoming more standardized all the time.

The Northern Cities Vowel Shift proves this wrong, at least as an absolute.
Doesn't this phenomenon rather prove the opposite? That a swathe of the population which originally sported different short a sounds now pronounce said vowel similarly, i.e. are developing a "standardized" accent?

Noted, though, that New England, save Connecticut, has failed to join up. That's New England for you.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Porridge:
Doesn't this phenomenon rather prove the opposite? That a swathe of the population which originally sported different short a sounds now pronounce said vowel similarly, i.e. are developing a "standardized" accent?

That's now how I read it. I read it as a vowel shift. A real change from the way the vowels were pronounced 50-100 years ago, but which the vast majority of the nation's population is not falling in line with.
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
. . . I read it as a vowel shift. A real change from the way the vowels were pronounced 50-100 years ago, but which the vast majority of the nation's population is not falling in line with.

. . . yet.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I see this is an evidence-free argument zone. [Disappointed]
 
Posted by Porridge (# 15405) on :
 
Well, it is if you're not going to accept your own evidence. What does your link show? That people who once spoke differently from one another began to speak like one another, apparently as the result of speaking together more often than they used to. If that's not the development of a new standard for pronunciation for those particular people, what is it?
 


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