Thread: Does Creation Science Give Comfort to the Enemy? Board: Oblivion / Ship of Fools.


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Posted by Christian Agnostic (# 14912) on :
 
As some of you know by now, I'm trying to foment a rebellion against the evangelical atheists [Help] , but I thought I'd bring up the topic of creation "science" and the damage it has done to the Christian cause and Christian apologetics [Mad] .
 
Posted by Trudy Scrumptious (# 5647) on :
 
All discussions of Creation vs. Evolution, Creationism, and Creation Sciences, belong on the Dead Horses board. That doesn't mean we can't have a lively and productive discussion of the topic there; just means a change of address. Please place your chair backs and tables in the upright position and enjoy your flight to DH.

Trudy, Scrumptious Purgatory Host
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
In a lot of ways Creationism is a "cargo cult" of modern science, adopting the trappings of scientific inquiry and scientific terminology in order to gain the respect accorded to scientific knowledge in our society. On a certain level it's a tacit admission that belief in miraculous happenings through faith alone is insufficiently convincing, even to adherents. If one considers faith to be crucial to Christianity, the Creationist search for proof or evidence would seem to undermine this.
 
Posted by brightmorningstar (# 15354) on :
 
To Creosos,
Thats a very good point imo. Whilst I have to accept that I think Creationism has at least exposed some very bad evolutionary science when it comes to evolution of species.
For example, as a former student of geology I know at the time of great interest in micro fossils that the macro fossil record was being doubted as reliable enough, and certainly not showing enough to support transitional fossils between species. And as for mutation, if one can't reproduce new species 'in tne lab' ist suggests that isnt how it happened in the past.

Darwin always felt the fossil record would as it grew expose transitional fossil record, yet one could argue it has proved the opposite.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by brightmorningstar:
To Creosos [sic],
Thats a very good point imo. Whilst I have to accept that I think Creationism has at least exposed some very bad evolutionary science when it comes to evolution of species.
For example, as a former student of geology I know at the time of great interest in micro fossils that the macro fossil record was being doubted as reliable enough, and certainly not showing enough to support transitional fossils between species. And as for mutation, if one can't reproduce new species 'in tne lab' ist suggests that isnt how it happened in the past.

Darwin always felt the fossil record would as it grew expose transitional fossil record, yet one could argue it has proved the opposite.

This illustrates the other main failing of Creationism, the failure to come up with a positive hypothesis. The assumption seems to be that if enough evidence is amassed to disprove descent with modification then Creationism gets to be right by default, which is an obvious bifurcation.
 
Posted by Josephine (# 3899) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Christian Agnostic:
As some of you know by now, I'm trying to foment a rebellion against the evangelical atheists [Help] , but I thought I'd bring up the topic of creation "science" and the damage it has done to the Christian cause and Christian apologetics [Mad] .

You're not the first to have this thought. About 1600 years ago, Augustine said:
quote:
It not infrequently happens that something about the earth, about the sky, about other elements of this world, about the motion and rotation or even the magnitude and distances of the stars, about definite eclipses of the sun and moon, about the passage of years and seasons, about the nature of animals, of fruits, of stones, and of other such things, may be known with the greatest certainty by reasoning or by experience, even by one who is not a Christian. It is too disgraceful and ruinous, though, and greatly to be avoided, that he [the non-Christian] should hear a Christian speaking so idiotically on these matters, and as if in accord with Christian writings, that he might say that he could scarcely keep from laughing when he saw how totally in error they are.

 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
The only answer is yes! Young Earth Creationism does huge harm to Christianity.
 
Posted by Hiro's Leap (# 12470) on :
 
I don't think Creation Science is a big problem but Young Earth Creationism is. Not many people have much opinion on Irreducible Complexity, but a 4004 BC creation and museums showing "dinosaur saddles" is a different matter.

I've recently been to two comedy gigs - Marcus Brigstocke and Eddie Izzard. Interestingly, both seemed to have recently become atheists (or perhaps much stronger atheists), and in both gigs:
It slightly dampened both evenings for me*. I kept wanting to yell "Try The Ship!"


(* But not as much as sitting on tiny hard seats, coming down with flu, and having a 280lb BNP supporter wedged next to me did. Never expected that at Eddie Izzard.)
 
Posted by Hiro's Leap (# 12470) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Hiro's Leap:
I don't think Creation Science is a big problem

Errata: That should read "Intelligent Design".
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Hiro's Leap:
quote:
Originally posted by Hiro's Leap:
I don't think Creation Science is a big problem

Errata: That should read "Intelligent Design".
They're the same thing. Just ask any cdesign proponentsists. [Big Grin]

Some wag suggested that typo was just a transitional fossil. [Snigger]
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Hiro's Leap:
quote:
Originally posted by Hiro's Leap:
I don't think Creation Science is a big problem

Errata: That should read "Intelligent Design".
I don't know. I've seen some pretty godawful stuff that, while not assuming a 6000 or so year old earth, was fairly horrible science.

The thing that bugs me about a lot of this so-called "intelligent design" is that it manages somehow to be neither scientific nor biblical (I'm not sure whether it even counts as theology.) Losing their moorings in either style, they seem to have wandered into some strange philosophical limbo where nothing really makes sense. I wonder if they are even aware of what they're arguing for.
 
Posted by MerlintheMad (# 12279) on :
 
I consider myself to be a "form" of IDer. But definitely not arguing for any biblical kind of ID. I separate empirical from metaphysical: and consign science to study of the empirical ONLY.

It is not possible to prove OR disprove God: by "God" I mean a Necessary Cause of Existence in the first place. Beyond that no one can go. The whole universe is a manifestation of the NC's Existence: our own intelligence proves that the NC is intelligent (because intelligence cannot arise from a cause that does not possess intelligence as a trait; that would be ex nihilo). So our existence is defacto proof of ID.

Purpose is another proof: we have purpose, ergo ID also has purpose. What purpose actually is, is the quest of every sapient soul....
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by MerlintheMad:
It is not possible to prove OR disprove God: by "God" I mean a Necessary Cause of Existence in the first place. Beyond that no one can go. The whole universe is a manifestation of the NC's Existence: our own intelligence proves that the NC is intelligent (because intelligence cannot arise from a cause that does not possess intelligence as a trait; that would be ex nihilo). So our existence is defacto proof of ID.

Purpose is another proof: we have purpose, ergo ID also has purpose. What purpose actually is, is the quest of every sapient soul....

This sort of confused mish mash is the biggest problem with Intelligent Design and is probably the kind of thing Bullfrog was complaining about. You start with the assertion that what you call the "Necessary Cause of Existence" is unprovable, and then proceed to assert the characteristics of this entity you claim not to be sure exists and do so in a way that invites an infinite regress. (Intelligence arises from an intelligent cause, therefor the NCE must be intelligent. Since the NCE is intelligent, it must therefore have an intelligent cause, which must also have an intelligent cause, which likewise . . . etc.) Then you do the same thing with "purpose", applying bald assertion to an ill-defined term.
 
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by brightmorningstar:
And as for mutation, if one can't reproduce new species 'in tne lab' ist suggests that isnt how it happened in the past.

Darwin always felt the fossil record would as it grew expose transitional fossil record, yet one could argue it has proved the opposite.

A - failure to reproduce doesn't show that. Not to mention that evolution rates in bacteria/other single-celled organisms are insane. Also, speciation has been shown even this year on finches in the Galapagos.

B - the expanded fossil record has shown many transitional species. They may not live up to what you hope to see, but given the odds of fossil creation, what we have is pretty damn impressive.

quote:
Not many people have much opinion on Irreducible Complexity
I'd have to disagree with you there. Atheist crowds at least online, and science-educated crowds in general, from what I've seen, have just as little respect for IC as they do for ID and YEC (the first two are basically synonomous, and almost so w/ the third).

IDs problem is that it tries to do science in the gaps between currently known things, and do this to disprove evolutionary theory. But, the gaps keep getting filled in a manner perfectly consistent with evolutionary theory. Whoever mentioned the lack of a positive hypothesis has it right.

Creation Scientists are also famously ill-trained in their "fields" - typically no rigorous scientific background. That, or they get a PhD, and rapidly leave "real" research for writing polemics about ID.

The biggest problem though is that the YEC stance (along w/ biblical literalism as far as I can see) requires us to deny the evidence of our own senses. There is no support for it, and much support against it. Faith overriding our senses (physical and common/horse/etc) *is* a huge problem for religion in general, and the Creation Science position/crowd show this in sharp relief.

This denial of what our senses and reason tell us is a beyond huge sticking point/damaging spear for the world vs. some (very vocal) Christians.

This isn't to say that a creation isn't impossible. I find the idea of a creation compelling, and it is the biggest thread tying me to Christianity still. I don't see how it can be postulated to any degree though, just a fairly absurd statement accepting things like Nick Bostrom's ancestor simulation theory, Slartibartfast and the Magratheans from Douglas Adams, a Matrix-style universe, or that creation could have happened 2 minutes ago.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
The only answer is yes! Young Earth Creationism does huge harm to Christianity.

Though, the OP asked about Creation Science. Whereas Young Earth Creationism isn't the same thing. Although I don't accept YEC, I can see the arguments for it having validity. It's based on an understanding of the nature of Scripture as divine revelation and literally inerrant (another view I don't hold), and in that view a Young Earth and Creator God are an obvious reading of the opening chapters of Genesis (though, not the only reading I might add).

YEC of the form that says "This is what I believe the Bible to teach" isn't a problem IMO. Especially if that's accompanied by an acceptance that the creation believed in must have included the 'evidence' of an old earth - ie: science is right, it's just that the evidence for an old earth and evolution was part of the recent creation. Of ocurse, there's a quaetion there about whether God deceived us in doing that - but one that can, I believe, be answered reasonably well in terms of a demand for faith.

Creation Science is a different issue. It attempts to create a pseudo-science that attempts, and entirely fails IMO, to make the evidence of an old earth and evolution become evidence for a young earth and fixed species.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Creation Science is a different issue. It attempts to create a pseudo-science that attempts, and entirely fails IMO, to make the evidence of an old earth and evolution become evidence for a young earth and fixed species.

Technically that's more of a problem for science than a problem for "the Christian cause and Christian apologetics" as stated in the OP.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
As an aside, in the Times Literary Supplement this year, the atheist philosopher Thomas Nagel (who should know better) chose a tome propounding intelligent design as a book of the year. Cue indignant exchange in the letters page.

(*) What its name was, I neither remembe nor care.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Creation Science is a different issue. It attempts to create a pseudo-science that attempts, and entirely fails IMO, to make the evidence of an old earth and evolution become evidence for a young earth and fixed species.

Technically that's more of a problem for science than a problem for "the Christian cause and Christian apologetics" as stated in the OP.
Why is it a problem for science? The vast majority of scientists, even in disciplines relevant to the discussion, work in total ignorance of Creation 'Science'. And, even when they're aware of what the Creation 'Scientists' claim it's not impacting their scientific work by simple virtue of being so totally way off base as science that it's irrelevant.

The only problems it can create for science is if it results in a near constant media demand for comments from scientists on the latest conjecture postulated by Creation Science, if they have to battle demands for Creation Science to get a place in the class room, or if they find their work misquoted in support of some form of idiocy (something I know has happened in relation to C14 dating, where papers reporting AMS performance, including background levels using fossil coal are used to give detection limits that would translate to 40-50k years are used to state that coal that's millions of years old is only a few 10s of thousands of years old).
 
Posted by Jessie Phillips (# 13048) on :
 
A few random thoughts (I'll try to stay on-topic-ish) ....

Croesus says
quote:
If one considers faith to be crucial to Christianity, the Creationist search for proof or evidence would seem to undermine this.
In my opinion, the question of whether "faith" is crucial for Christianity or not, or whether it is in conflict with "proof" or not, depends not just on how you define "proof" but also how you define "faith".

If "proof" is defined as "mathematical induction", then not only is impossible for the Bible to prove anything, it's also impossible for science or history to prove anything either. The word "proof" is often used to refer to results of experiments that, strictly speaking, aren't "proofs" but "demonstrations". But personally, I'm more interested in how "faith" is defined.

There are many different ways in which "faith" gets defined, it seems. For example, "faith" could be belief of idea that Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for all sins. Or belief that God made the world in seven days. Or it could be defined in terms of what James says about the sort of "faith" that has "works".

However, in my opinion, in the context of Paul's letter to the Romans, and 2 Maccabees 6-7, "faith" probably doesn't mean much more than belief in the idea that the martyrs and the saints have not died in vain, because they're going to rise from the dead to see the dawning of God's kingdom really soon. The reason none of us can be justified by law is because if we are still alive, and if we haven't died and risen from the dead ourselves, then we can't claim to have made the highest sacrifice that a human can make - that is, to sacrifice our lives for God - and therefore we can't truthfully claim to be more righteous than those who have. However, as long as we believe that the martyrs haven't died in vain, and that they really will rise from the dead, then we are justified by that faith. Or at least, that's what I think Paul is trying to get at in the letter to the Romans.

And - without putting too fine a point on it - if we are martyrs, then we will rise from the dead too. There's a difference between martyrdom and suicide, though, because, ultimately, our lives belong to God, and we are answerable to God on how we handle the gift of our lives. Hence what Paul says in Romans 12:1 about being a "living sacrifice".

But how is it possible for the martyrs to rise from the dead? That's where the reasoning of the mother of the seven brothers 2 Maccabees 7:27-29 comes in. Quoted in the NRSV:
quote:
But, leaning close to him, she spoke in their native language as follows, deriding the cruel tyrant: ‘My son, have pity on me. I carried you for nine months in my womb, and nursed you for three years, and have reared you and brought you up to this point in your life, and have taken care of you. I beg you, my child, to look at the heaven and the earth and see everything that is in them, and recognize that God did not make them out of things that existed. And in the same way the human race came into being. Do not fear this butcher, but prove worthy of your brothers. Accept death, so that in God’s mercy I may get you back again along with your brothers.’
The whole point is that we don't know how God created everything. All we know is that he did create everything, using methods that are mysterious to us.

Now if we were to insist that we do know exactly how God created everything, because Genesis tells us so - then I think we'd be implicitly denying that God is sovereign enough to be able to raise us from the dead.

But it's not as if Genesis contains a set of instructions by which we can all create worlds of our own, is it? Until the day comes when we can create and destroy complete worlds under controlled conditions, neither prehistory nor eschatology can be considered scientific. There is no such thing as a "scientific" account of how things came to be, or how they will end. This is also the reason why there can be no such thing as a "scientific consensus on global warming".

But even if "intelligent design" was "science" (which it isn't), it still wouldn't be "proof" - at least not in the "mathematical induction" sense of the word.

Joesphine says
quote:
You're not the first to have this thought. About 1600 years ago, Augustine said:

It not infrequently happens that something about the earth, about the sky, about other elements of this world, about the motion and rotation or even the magnitude and distances of the stars, about definite eclipses of the sun and moon, about the passage of years and seasons, about the nature of animals, of fruits, of stones, and of other such things, may be known with the greatest certainty by reasoning or by experience, even by one who is not a Christian. It is too disgraceful and ruinous, though, and greatly to be avoided, that he [the non-Christian] should hear a Christian speaking so idiotically on these matters, and as if in accord with Christian writings, that he might say that he could scarcely keep from laughing when he saw how totally in error they are.

Hmm. Unless I've got my history muddled up, the catalyst for Augustine trying to allegorise the eschatological stuff (and therefore, by extension, all time-bound stuff, including the creation story) was the fighting between the Catholics and the Donatists. Basically, Diocletian was a bloke who held high rank in the Roman empire's government and military structure, and he wanted Christians to stop being Christians for some reason. But he didn't want to make Christians into martyrs in the process, since he was aware that attempts to threaten to kill Christians for failing to renounce their faith had backfired in the past. So he pressurised Christians into handing over their scriptures, their relics, and the names and addresses of their church leaders, whilst backing off from forcing ordinary rank-and-file Christians to make sacrifices to pagan gods under threat of death.

A few Christians were martyred in the process - but a lot of Christians complied with Diocletian's orders. But many Christians were unhappy about the fact that some Christians complied, and started accusing them of selling out to Diocletian, and not being "proper Christians". These rebellious Christians separated from the "Catholics" to become the "Donatists".

Then Constantine came along and said that Christianity was going to be the new official Roman State Religion. The Catholics at first saw this as a sign that the millenarian kingdom of God on earth that they had read about in the books of Daniel and Revelation had finally come true - but the Donatists could not reconcile to the Catholics, so fighting between Catholics and Donatists continued. Augustine weighs in, and says words to the effect of "you know what? All this apocalyptic millenarian stuff in the books of Daniel and Revelation - perhaps let's not take it quite so literally after all. Yeah yeah I know it seems like the Second Coming of Christ is the whole point of the faith, and I realise that loads of saints and martyrs have sacrificed themselves for precisely this faith - but don't you think it would be better if we all stopped fighting and, um, just, loved each other instead? Especially now that the Roman empire seems to love us too. Well, I thought so anyway - so I've jotted down a few thoughts about this, you'll find it in my latest book, it's called 'City of God Against the Pagans', see what you think."

But Augustine certainly hasn't had the last word on the matter. Clearly not everyone is happy with the allegorisation - otherwise I don't suppose the Adventist or the Brethren churches would exist, regardless of what we think are the rights and wrongs of their doctrines.

Surely the whole point of the Christian faith is hope for the future, isn't it? So I think there's a limit to how far that scriptural reports of past and future events can be allegorised. Whilst I personally don't think that science contradicts Christian hope for the future, I'm aware that not everyone sees it that way. And whilst I don't think that belief in young earth creation is essential for Christian future hope, on the other hand, I think it can help to conceptualise the future hope. Put simply, the idea that God's kingdom is worth waiting for isn't so daft if you don't think the world is that old to start off with.

Alan Cresswell says
quote:
Creation Science is a different issue. It attempts to create a pseudo-science that attempts, and entirely fails IMO, to make the evidence of an old earth and evolution become evidence for a young earth and fixed species.
How are we defining "science"? In my opinion, "science" is the testing of a hypothesis that can be tested, and reporting the results, regardless of whether the results confirm the hypothesis or not. If the hypothesis can't be tested, then it's not "science".

However, the problem of calling things "science" when they're not is by no means peculiar to creationism and intelligent design. It also crops up quite a lot in government policy on education and criminal justice, all over the world. I recommend Richard Feynman's essay on Cargo Cult Science for more on this, it's still as true now as it was when he wrote it, in my opinion.

Indeed - there's no scientific evidence for the idea that a democratically elected government is any better for a nation's GDP-per-capita stats than a totalitarian regime. So why do we bother with democracy? Is it because it's somehow "scientific"?

So I think the problem is that too many people, both Christians and non-Christians alike, muddle "science" up with "appeal to authority".
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
Alan Cresswell says
quote:
Creation Science is a different issue. It attempts to create a pseudo-science that attempts, and entirely fails IMO, to make the evidence of an old earth and evolution become evidence for a young earth and fixed species.
How are we defining "science"? In my opinion, "science" is the testing of a hypothesis that can be tested, and reporting the results, regardless of whether the results confirm the hypothesis or not. If the hypothesis can't be tested, then it's not "science".
Yep, sounds like a not unreasonable working definition of science - though there would need to be a bit of fleshing out what is meant by "tested" or "confirmation" etc.

Now, in what way does that affect what I wrote? Geology, evolutionary biology, genetics etc makes testable hypotheses and reports advances in theoretical considerations, investigations and experimentations in peer-reviewed literature. And, haven't been found wanting. Creation 'Science' makes hardly any hypotheses at all, it's mostly attempts to discredit mainstream science and offer an untestable alternative, and doesn't report anything in readily accessible places.
 
Posted by MerlintheMad (# 12279) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by MerlintheMad:
It is not possible to prove OR disprove God: by "God" I mean a Necessary Cause of Existence in the first place. Beyond that no one can go. The whole universe is a manifestation of the NC's Existence: our own intelligence proves that the NC is intelligent (because intelligence cannot arise from a cause that does not possess intelligence as a trait; that would be ex nihilo). So our existence is defacto proof of ID.

Purpose is another proof: we have purpose, ergo ID also has purpose. What purpose actually is, is the quest of every sapient soul....

This sort of confused mish mash is the biggest problem with Intelligent Design and is probably the kind of thing Bullfrog was complaining about. You start with the assertion that what you call the "Necessary Cause of Existence" is unprovable, and then proceed to assert the characteristics of this entity you claim not to be sure exists and do so in a way that invites an infinite regress. (Intelligence arises from an intelligent cause, therefor the NCE must be intelligent. Since the NCE is intelligent, it must therefore have an intelligent cause, which must also have an intelligent cause, which likewise . . . etc.) Then you do the same thing with "purpose", applying bald assertion to an ill-defined term.
Not ill-defined: simply stated without definition.

There is no regression ("turtles all the way down") when you hold a concept of the Necessary Cause. It is in fact the only Cause that is not itself caused.

Existence in the first place is a FACT: it needs explanation: only the NC explains Existence in the first place.

For the NC to be accurately conceived in the mind, it must be larger than the greatest concept imaginable (the old, exclusive ontological argument -- which cannot be falsified by application to anything else BUT the NC).

For intelligence and purpose to not be ex nihilo, the NC must be (possess) both traits....
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by MerlintheMad:
There is no regression ("turtles all the way down") when you hold a concept of the Necessary Cause. It is in fact the only Cause that is not itself caused.

Existence in the first place is a FACT: it needs explanation: only the NC explains Existence in the first place.

If you believe that everything that exists requires an explanation, then either your NC doesn't exist or it requires an explanation. Hence the infinite regress. If you want to special plead against the need of an explanation of the NC you'll need something better than "because otherwise there'd be an infinite regression".

quote:
Originally posted by MerlintheMad:
For the NC to be accurately conceived in the mind, it must be larger than the greatest concept imaginable (the old, exclusive ontological argument -- which cannot be falsified by application to anything else BUT the NC).

How do you measure the size of a concept? For example, which is bigger: democracy or quantum mechanics? And what is the magnitude of the difference? How big is the biggest concept, and how much bigger must the NC be than this?
 
Posted by aggg (# 13727) on :
 
I don't think it does, particularly.

I agree with the distinction between YEC and Creation Science to a point, though they are very linked.

In both cases it helps to remember that the thinking proceeds from the point of believing that the bible is Truth. Hence you understand measurements of nature by that standard - and reject anything which doesn't fit it.

So great thicknesses of sphagnum peat or kilometers of sedimentary rock cannot be evidence of an old (-er than a few thousand years) earth because that would invalidate the biblical record. So there must be some other explanation, however imaginary or unlikely.

In terms of Creation Science, I'd say it is probably most damaging to the person that believes it then is challenged by evidence which cannot fit the worldview.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aggg:
In both cases it helps to remember that the thinking proceeds from the point of believing that the bible is Truth. Hence you understand measurements of nature by that standard - and reject anything which doesn't fit it.

But once you do that, you cease to be doing science. It's doing this and calling it "science" that is the problem.
 
Posted by MerlintheMad (# 12279) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
If you believe that everything that exists requires an explanation, then either your NC doesn't exist or it requires an explanation.

Existence requires explanation; not everything individually: that is the job of science.

quote:

Hence the infinite regress. If you want to special plead against the need of an explanation of the NC you'll need something better than "because otherwise there'd be an infinite regression".

Why "something better?" Unless we are talking about an infinitely expanding multiverse, an infinity of any lesser concepts is examination of obviously lesser concepts than what the NC must be.

quote:
How do you measure the size of a concept? For example, which is bigger: democracy or quantum mechanics? And what is the magnitude of the difference? How big is the biggest concept, and how much bigger must the NC be than this?
Other comparisons do not relate to the NC: it stands alone.

Anytime that you want to determine if a concept for the NC is accurate, you "fallsify" it with a greater concept: if you can't come up with a greater concept, then until you do, that greatest concept will stand as your "model" of the NC to you: it is all that is revealed to you, so far, in any case.

But to take ALL of our concepts of the NC would not even form a beginning of what the NC is; no amount of finite combinations can begin to define the infinite: at best, we can come up with a definition of what the NC is to us, i.e. how it manifests for us.

The one concept that cannot be exceeded, as far as I can tell at this point, is that the NC causes space-time yet Existence in the first place is not bound by it. The implication of this is that the NC perceives ALL as encompassed by NOW: yet within NOW space-time and the infinitely expanding multiverse exist. Also the VOID exists: Existence in the first place and nothing else....
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jessie Phillips:
Alan Cresswell says
quote:
Creation Science is a different issue. It attempts to create a pseudo-science that attempts, and entirely fails IMO, to make the evidence of an old earth and evolution become evidence for a young earth and fixed species.
How are we defining "science"? In my opinion, "science" is the testing of a hypothesis that can be tested, and reporting the results, regardless of whether the results confirm the hypothesis or not. If the hypothesis can't be tested, then it's not "science".
I am not convinced that testing is central to science. At least, I don't think palaeontology is more or less testable than archaeology, but one is science and the other isn't.

I'm suspect Kuhn had it right when it comes to science: science is a way of generating general empirical theories about the non-human world based on paradigmatic experiments or theories.

That might mean that creation science or intelligent design do qualify as science. After all, climatology explains some features of the climate (the mean global temperature going up) as the result of the action of intelligent beings. The problem with intelligent design theories isn't that they're not science; it's that as science they're done badly.

The book of Genesis is not science: it does not ask to be judged by the standards of science. It asks to be judged by other standards. It is a good example of something else.
Intelligent design and creation science not good examples of something else; they're incompetent, if not dishonest, examples of science.

[ 31. December 2009, 10:04: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
 
Posted by aggg (# 13727) on :
 
I find myself in the odd position of attempting to defend the indefensible.. however..

To use Myrrh's example from another thread, it is possible to posit a fairly science-based argument based on limited information. If you are coming from a position of imagining that the majority of scientists are wrong and operating in a huge conspiracy, it is not so difficult to believe that sea levels are constant worldwide or that CO2 molecules sink because they're heavy.

And further, it is not then difficult to imagine experiments which prove your point or to refuse to listen to anything else.

I'd still hesitate to say this isn't science. It is certainly operating from an alternative worldvision. It is certainly refusing to accept the validity of the majority of the data. But - I think - science as a method can still be followed fairly by someone who is operating from a false starting point. Of course, what is missing is any sort of peer review - because one does not accept the testimony of peers.

I'm just not sure it is fair to call it dishonest. It is operating from a point that others would not accept - ie that the bible is literally true and therefore anything that suggests otherwise must be wrong. From that point of view, it is arguably being entirely consistent and scientific.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
I am not convinced that testing is central to science. At least, I don't think palaeontology is more or less testable than archaeology, but one is science and the other isn't.


I would say that good science should include an element of prediction. Science takes a set of observations and draws up a hypothesis that explains those explanations. Of course, any finite set of data can be explained by several hypotheses. And, no set of data is entirely without uncertainties that opens the field for additional hypotheses that fit the data.

Scientists employ two methods to try and distinguish between different hypotheses that fit the data. The first is an Ockhams Razor test of simplicity. If I have a data set that says for x=1 I get y=1, x=2 y=2, x=4 y=4, x=10 y=10 then I can produce a large number of different lines that go through that data set, but I would prefer to simply say y=x. The second means of distinguishing between hypotheses is to use your hypothesis to make a prediction. In the above example, I would predict that if someone measured y when x=20 they should get y=20.

Both archaeology and paleantology generate hypotheses that fit the available data. Both make predictions based on those hypotheses. The sort of predictions made might include "fossil X looks like it's from an organism that evolved from Y. We predict that the fossils of X will be in younger rock than Y, with a possible period when both co-existed" or "this site contains artefacts at 50cm below the current surface associated with with a distant culture. We conclude that trade was extensive at the time, and other sites of the same date along possible trade routes will also contain similar artefacts."

A big difference between archaeology, paleaontology (and some other disciplines such as cosmology) and other sciences is that the predictions can only be tested against chance events that may never happen - species X and Y may have never been very numerous and there is only one example of each and others may never be discovered to allow an age distribution of the fossils to be constructed, all other sites of that age along the potential trade routes have been substantially redeveloped in more recent times destroying the archaeological record.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Oops, I was going to add a comment that that addresses the points aggg raised. I think it might be possible for Creation Science or Intelligent Design to genuinely be science. But, certainly as mostly practiced, both disciplines fail to reach that point.

My experience of both (and, picking up on the other example, climate change 'sceptics' are often in the same position, though there are soem notable exceptions in that field) is that they usually spend an inordinate amount of time trying to identify flaws in mainstream science. Often in the process failing to recognise some important aspects of scientific philosophy and methodology (though, to be fair a lot of mainstream scientists are no better at philosophy of science) such as the fact that multiple theories may explain the existing data (if theory Y explains the data that doesn't mean theory X, which also explains the data, is wrong - I've heard that argument from Creation Scientists, for example as a statement that the Flood explains the geological strata therefore the standard geological explanation is wrong) and failing to recognise the importance of Okhams Razor in determining the liklihood of each theory being correct. Another common failure is the assumption that a single observation that isn't in accordance with the established theoretical framework automatically falsifies that theory, often appealing to Popper - even though Popper himself recognised that it's as impossible to prove a theory false as it is to prove it to be true. Also, I've never come across any decent predictions for unobserved data from either discipline.
 
Posted by sanityman (# 11598) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by MerlintheMad:
There is no regression ("turtles all the way down") when you hold a concept of the Necessary Cause. It is in fact the only Cause that is not itself caused.

Existence in the first place is a FACT: it needs explanation: only the NC explains Existence in the first place.

If you believe that everything that exists requires an explanation, then either your NC doesn't exist or it requires an explanation. Hence the infinite regress. If you want to special plead against the need of an explanation of the NC you'll need something better than "because otherwise there'd be an infinite regression".
Indeed: it seems like you have a choice between stopping with an observable Fact (existence) or an unobservable Cause (your NC). Infinite regression doesn't help you chose between them. At the end of the day, you have to admit that only one of the above is unarguable.

- Chris.
 
Posted by Hamp (# 15362) on :
 
Shipmates,

If all this comes from a problem with the OT creation story, then take the OT as a fact and fiction history of the Jewish people put together over a lot of years. Everybody wants to know, when, who, how and why things got started so one of the OT authors gave them an answer, end of dead horse, no? Now you can concentrate on how does it all work, no?

Hamp
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:


- I've heard that argument from Creation Scientists, for example as a statement that the Flood explains the geological strata therefore the standard geological explanation is wrong) and failing to recognise the importance of Okhams Razor in determining the liklihood of each theory being correct.

But what if there was a flood. That would explain it right?
They have other arguments for challenging the standard geological column.
Doesn't the whole thing depend on your theological or philosophical premise..viz: There was a flood...or there wasn't?
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:


- I've heard that argument from Creation Scientists, for example as a statement that the Flood explains the geological strata therefore the standard geological explanation is wrong) and failing to recognise the importance of Okhams Razor in determining the liklihood of each theory being correct.

But what if there was a flood. That would explain it right?
They have other arguments for challenging the standard geological column.
Doesn't the whole thing depend on your theological or philosophical premise..viz: There was a flood...or there wasn't?

It wouldn't. A worldwide flood would create an entirely different set of strata than we see today.

The main problem with the argument from suppositions is that the suppositions drive the conclusions. While I don't think atheists are immune from that sort of thing, piling a supposition of the size of a global flood onto every scientific study seems a bit much. It also seems to go a bit beyond being a mere "philosophical premise."
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Flood deposits would result in a stratigraphy based on either totally random materials (if deposited in turbulant flood conditions) or by size (large boulders at the bottom with fine sediments at the top) if deposited in stiller water. It certainly wouldn't deposit material based on isotope geochemistry.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
Flood deposits would result in a stratigraphy based on either totally random materials (if deposited in turbulant flood conditions) or by size (large boulders at the bottom with fine sediments at the top) if deposited in stiller water. It certainly wouldn't deposit material based on isotope geochemistry.

Bearing in mind that creationist apologists challenge dating methods which I take it you are referring to by your reference to isotope geochemistry, doesn't it all devolve into an 'it is', it isn't' argument where each side calls the others liars and fools?
 
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on :
 
Except that one side has evidence, the other doesn't...
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
As Timothy notes, it's not so much a "no it isn't/yes it is" situation as "no it isn't/yes it is, and here's why . . . "

The typical creationist explanation as to why radio-isotope dating is wrong usually involves postulating much faster rates of radioactive decay in the past. Of course, if you postulate decay fast enough to accommodate an earth young enough to be to their liking (sixty to a hundred centuries) you're left with the problem of why that much extra energy over such a (relatively) short timespan didn't reduce the planet to a molten glob or cause it to explode. At that point they're left postulating a miracle, and if you're going to do that why not simply postulate the Miracle of the Orderly Flood, which took care to sort everything from isotopes to sediments to fossils in ways consistent with a much older earth?
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
creationist apologists challenge dating methods which I take it you are referring to by your reference to isotope geochemistry

There's a bit more to isotope geo-chemistry than just dating, though that's the most significant contribution to scientific knowledge of our world.

But, if we ignore the use of isotope geo-chemistry as a dating tool, it's still impossible to postulate a physical mechanism which sorts sediments in a flood event according to subtle variations in trace-elements.

And, yes, you could just declare "God did it" and reject any attempt to provide a scientific explanation that fits with a view derived from a particular understanding of the Bible. But, Creation Science tries to postulate such scientific explanations ... and inserting a specific action by God at every other step along a process chain does rather make any attempt to call it science laughable. Which Creation Scientists recognise, which is why they end up with postulating deeply implausible ideas such as the rate of radionuclide decay having been radically different a few millenia ago.
 
Posted by Marvin the Martian (# 4360) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by brightmorningstar:
And as for mutation, if one can't reproduce new species 'in tne lab' ist suggests that isnt how it happened in the past.

Dog breeders have been artificially creating new species for centuries.
 
Posted by Otter (# 12020) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Marvin the Martian:
Dog breeders have been artificially creating new species for centuries.

No, they've been creating new breeds within the sub-species Canis lupus familiaris.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
creationist apologists challenge dating methods which I take it you are referring to by your reference to isotope geochemistry

There's a bit more to isotope geo-chemistry than just dating, though that's the most significant contribution to scientific knowledge of our world.

But, if we ignore the use of isotope geo-chemistry as a dating tool, it's still impossible to postulate a physical mechanism which sorts sediments in a flood event according to subtle variations in trace-elements.

And, yes, you could just declare "God did it" and reject any attempt to provide a scientific explanation that fits with a view derived from a particular understanding of the Bible. But, Creation Science tries to postulate such scientific explanations ... and inserting a specific action by God at every other step along a process chain does rather make any attempt to call it science laughable. Which Creation Scientists recognise, which is why they end up with postulating deeply implausible ideas such as the rate of radionuclide decay having been radically different a few millenia ago.

I have no expertise at all in the field of Science but regarding the flood I am inclined to trust the scriptures. When you look at ancient history, the Gilgamesh epic for instance, we have another ancient flood story to coroborate scripture.

Now while some scholars will argue the Bible version derives from this, others will say no, they are parallel from a common source. Whatever, There was, in history, a flood.

"Of the combination of these into a whole,(the destruction of the Earth by water, the rescue of a single man and sed of animals by means of a boat etc)however, we may say without hesitation, it could not have arisen twice independently."

William Wundt, Elements of Folk psychology and quoted by A Rehwinkel, The Flood, Ch 10. 1951

Science has changed a lot since 1951..has history?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
"Of the combination of these into a whole,(the destruction of the Earth by water, the rescue of a single man and sed of animals by means of a boat etc)however, we may say without hesitation, it could not have arisen twice independently."

Does he mean the myth couldn't have arisen twice? I don't see why not. If you look at the myths of various lands there are tons of elements that are repeated. He may have no hesitation, but that says far more about him than about the truth of the flood myth.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
Isn't that one of the ingredients of legend-making? Taking a known occurrence (floods) and exaggerating it for effect (a worldwide flood that kills almost everyone). Given how many places in the world are prone to flood, I don't see why this would be such a difficult tale to come up with.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aggg:
In both cases it helps to remember that the thinking proceeds from the point of believing that the bible is Truth. Hence you understand measurements of nature by that standard - and reject anything which doesn't fit it.

Do you believe the sun turned back?
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
regarding the flood I am inclined to trust the scriptures. When you look at ancient history, the Gilgamesh epic for instance, we have another ancient flood story to coroborate scripture.

I have no problem with there having been a flood, and that Genesis includes a narrative that is based on a historical fact. I could imagine how a small group of people and some of their livestock survived on a boat while the world they knew was washed away in a flood.

But, that's a long way from believing that such a flood is a natural mechanism by which the geological column was created and calling it some form of "science" or "geology".
 
Posted by Petrified (# 10667) on :
 
I would expect the older bible stories to have been passed down as part of the oral tradition and, like Alan, have no problem with the idea that many may have their roots in a real occurence.
I recall reading a while ago that evidence had been found to support the flood story and have managed to locate it here
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
Big floods are really quite common. There are sunken cities all over the world. Even here in England. There are some sunken plains the sixze of whole countries that our ancestors walked around on - the best-known are the North Sea and (probably, most of) the Black sea but there are many others. The largest is the drowned land between Malaya, Sumatra, Java and Borneo.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by ken:
Big floods are really quite common. There are sunken cities all over the world. Even here in England. There are some sunken plains the sixze of whole countries that our ancestors walked around on - the best-known are the North Sea and (probably, most of) the Black sea but there are many others. The largest is the drowned land between Malaya, Sumatra, Java and Borneo.

I've heard theories that the cataclysmic flood that formed the Black Sea may have been the seed for the Mesopotamian flood myths. It certainly would've wiped out "the world" as they knew it.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
I've heard theories that the cataclysmic flood that formed the Black Sea may have been the seed for the Mesopotamian flood myths. It certainly would've wiped out "the world" as they knew it.

Like everything else, that theory has a Wikipedia page.

quote:
The Black Sea deluge is a hypothesized catastrophic rise in the level of the Black Sea circa 5600 BC due to waters from the Mediterranean Sea breaching a sill in the Bosporus Strait. The hypothesis made headlines when The New York Times published it in December 1996, shortly before it was published in an academic journal. While it is agreed that the sequence of events described did occur, there is debate over the suddenness and magnitude of the events. Two opposing hypotheses have arisen to explain the rise of the Black Sea: gradual and oscillating. The oscillating hypothesis specifies that over the last 30,000 years, water has intermittently flowed back and forth between the Black Sea and Aegean Sea in relatively small magnitudes.

 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
regarding the flood I am inclined to trust the scriptures. When you look at ancient history, the Gilgamesh epic for instance, we have another ancient flood story to coroborate scripture.

I have no problem with there having been a flood, and that Genesis includes a narrative that is based on a historical fact. I could imagine how a small group of people and some of their livestock survived on a boat while the world they knew was washed away in a flood.

But, that's a long way from believing that such a flood is a natural mechanism by which the geological column was created and calling it some form of "science" or "geology".

Without blinding me with science about which I am profoundly ignorant, how do you deal with 'the flood could have made the grand canyon' argument or the seemingly obvious idea that 'fossils need to be the result of the sudden immersion and compression created by sediment that is evidenced by floods.'?
 
Posted by Latchkey Kid (# 12444) on :
 
Surely the Grand Canyon requires river erosion. A flood would not cause it. If anything, it would silt it up.

Fossils are often caused by animals drowned in a flood that preserves them. But these could be similar to the devastating silt laden floods which bury animals that we experience today.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Without blinding me with science about which I am profoundly ignorant, how do you deal with 'the flood could have made the grand canyon' argument or the seemingly obvious idea that 'fossils need to be the result of the sudden immersion and compression created by sediment that is evidenced by floods.'?

To address the fossil question for a moment, a global flood would theoretically bury and fossilize everything together at the same time. Organisms would be buried and fossilized randomly, rather than in the cladistic order we see them in.

A rather clever creationist answer to this is that the more complex/intelligent animals sought higher ground during the Deluge and were thus burried last. Leaving aside the question of whether there couldn't have been a few older, slower mastodons that couldn't keep up with the velociraptors or why trilobites with more lenses in their eyes are faster than those with fewer, this does nothing to explain the sorting of fossilized plants, most of which were immobile in life. We are asked to believe that the Flood uprooted and then carefully sorted all plant matter by order of increasing complexity. Either that, or that prior to the Flood trees and flowering plants only grew above a certain elevation, which is the exact opposite of what we observe today.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
Is this the wrong place to ask why creationists need to believe the Genesis myth to be literally true?

I am no scientist but I can't pretend that what I see all around me isn't there.

Faith doesn't mean we suspend disbelief as if listening to a fairy story.

...
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Is this the wrong place to ask why creationists need to believe the Genesis myth to be literally true?

I am no scientist but I can't pretend that what I see all around me isn't there.

Faith doesn't mean we suspend disbelief as if listening to a fairy story.

...

If it is a myth there is no fall there is no original sin and consequently no need for redemption. The whole gospel becomes unnecessary.
Christ believed in the Genesis 'myth'. "He that made them in the beginning made them male and female..."
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Is this the wrong place to ask why creationists need to believe the Genesis myth to be literally true?

If it is a myth there is no fall there is no original sin and consequently no need for redemption. The whole gospel becomes unnecessary.
You see no room for any third option? Do you really believe that the choice is limited to either a literal interpretation or no need for redemption?
 
Posted by no_prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Without blinding me with science about which I am profoundly ignorant, how do you deal with 'the flood could have made the grand canyon' argument or the seemingly obvious idea that 'fossils need to be the result of the sudden immersion and compression created by sediment that is evidenced by floods.'?

Just jumping in as a new member of this ship of fools.

The argument that the grand canyon (and other sedimentary strata) were causes by a flood fails because the fossil record is shown by the progressive changes within the layers. "Descent with modification", meaning progressive adaptive change over time. "Adaptive" means better able to survive changing local conditions. Those which are better adapted survive and produce more babies/offspring. The bottom layers of rock show organisms that are the ancestors of the ones in higher layers. The way this is known is that it can be seen what the changes are subsequently in the organisms fossilized in higher layers. The whole thing resets periodically when the conditions that organisms were slowly adapting to change rather quickly, e.g., when there's an ice age, a comet hits the earth, or right now when humans mess up and warm the planet up.

Evolutionary theory has moved forward with molecular genetics. It has been shown, for example that there are genes that direct other genes, for example, to tell other genes to "make a finger here" or "make a vertebrae here", each time initiating the other genes that make the item (HOX genes). This is shown for other things, like eyes, teeth, and many other anatomical things across species. The changes in some of these genes that direct and are directed can be shown to have changed as species have differentiated by a "molecular clock", which has predictable time-based variation depending on whether the gene involved is involved in making something, or is silent (so-called junk DNA).

The bottom line for most people who do know about science is that the mechanisms are wondrous and wonderful, and they re-invigour the sense of wonder and mystery that simplistic and trite explanations of creationists and creation (non)science completely lack. If there is something in science that can tell me there is a mystery of faith, a magnificence in creation, it is this sort of thing.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
If it is a myth there is no fall there is no original sin and consequently no need for redemption. The whole gospel becomes unnecessary
So you see wo/man's need for redemption and this makes you unable to see that the creation stories could be ancient people's explanation of this need?

The fact that mankind is 'fallen' is due to our basic animal instincts imo

We become 'human' selfless Christlike etc when we work against natural, 'self seeking' animal instincts, I think.

no_prophet - I agree. The awe and wonder of creation is enhanced by science and discovery, not deminished by it.

[ 30. March 2010, 03:21: Message edited by: Boogie ]
 
Posted by no_prophet (# 15560) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt :
If it is a myth there is no fall there is no original sin and consequently no need for redemption. The whole gospel becomes unnecessary

The idea of original sin and a need for redemption for the evil deeds of some people we never met, in the specifics of the 'myth' can be fully rejected as a factual story, and as a very bad idea. Imagine a parent punishing a child for deeds of another child who was alive doing bad things before the other was born!

The need for redemption can be fully accepted as a description of the general fallen nature of all of us humans. I.E. We have not loved others as ourselves, we have not done what we ought and have done what we should not. Redemption is an ongoing, daily process. Least ways it seems to be in my life. And with the present day focus on consumption, brand names, markets and money, while materially rich people are so spiritually empty, it shows how much deeper we are in need redemption I think.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
I find very little to disagree with in what you post, no_prophet, other than the apparent attribution of the quote to me, which I hope can be fully rejected as something I posted. [Smile] I think you'll find that it was originally posted by Jamat, who I'm hoping will eventually stop by to elaborate.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I have plenty of sin to atone for without inheriting anybody else's.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
It may be worth having a seperate thread to discuss the Fall in relation to Creationism. To me, the argument is probably the strongest one there is for some form of special creation to be essential to a Biblically informed faith. Paul makes quite extensive use of the myth for developing a model for atonement - the death of one sinless man redeems us from the effects of the sin of one man.

I don't think it's an absolutely compelling argument, but it's the only one that keeps me contemplating whether historical accuracy of the Genesis narratives is a possibly valid approach.

The Fall myth serves several purposes. Probably the strongest is to address the question "why are we like this?" when contemplating the indisputable fact that we're all sinners. Why is it that we all fall short and we're all incapable of living sinless lives? One answer is that we in some sense 'inherit' sinfulness, that our natures inherited from our parents, and the society we live in (also 'inherited' from our ancestors as well as our peers), drives us towards being sinners. We simply can't help it. The Fall myth gives us an answer to the "when did this start?" question. Today, we're more likely to use a myth taken from evolution - we evolved from other animals, and inherit the drive to survive and reproduce. We might even use a myth of "selfish genes".

Another aspect of the Fall myth is that of an earlier Edenic innocence, from which we're now barred. With the promise that in Christ we will eventually reclaim our place in Paradise. I think that's an essential part of a myth that places the "when did this start?" question within human history. Modern myths would actually take that answer out of human history, and even put it as "it's always been this way", removing the need for any earlier perfect state from our mythology. Though we still tend to cling to the perfect future.

I believe it is entirely possible to describe the work of Christ in redeeming us within a modern mythological framework, where we're redeemed from our own personal sins that are in part a result of our inherited biological drives, in part the imperfect societies in which we live, in part our own stupidity and weakness.

What we need to do is answer the question of how the sacrifice of one man can redeem many. We can no longer rely on the argument Paul uses that if the sin of one man can condemn all, then the sacrifice of the one sinless man can redeem all. For Paul, addressing an audience for whom the Fall myth was a part of their worldview, it was a powerful argument. For us, where we no longer live in a world where the Fall myth makes sense, it's a much weaker argument. We need a new apologetic approach, rather than just regurgitating the approaches that worked in different circumstances.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
Alan, would our 'animal nature' not explain all this?
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Alan. You asked about the "Fall"/

How about this perspective?

The Genesis story of the “Fall” is the earliest Biblical attempt to answer the question, “How come evil?”. It was not intended as a once-for-all account of how evil came. It really answers the on-going question of how evil comes.


The basic insight of Gen 3 is that man’s pride will not allow him to be content with the status of creature (and therefore dependent on God). So man yields to the temptation to become god-like and seizes the opportunity to become like God. (The snake in the story is simply the personification of temptation; it is not to be identified with the Devil in later Hebrew thought.) This act of wilful disobedience had widespread consequences.


Does this ‘square’ with what science tells us today? Science uses the category of evolution to explain how things came to be and the Genesis story can be understood using this category of thought. However, it suggests that the “Fall” was not a declension from perfection to sinfulness; rather it is really a “failure to become”.


The argument in evolutionary terms suggests that, up to the point where man emerges as a self-conscious, moral being, all development is automatic and without moral content. When man emerges as a self-conscious being then an additional possibility is held out to him; he is called to attain to the image and likeness of God but this requires his response. The means by which he may do this is through “faith”. Insofar as man refuses to grasp, through faith, the opportunity open to him he is effectively choosing to live out his life at a purely biological level. It is at this level that the self-centeredness which characterises all sin predominates and so evil emerges.


Do these ‘scientific’ explanations square with the Bible? The answer is Yes. The NT uses two words for “life”. One is the word “bios”, from which we get biological. That describes the life we all share by virtue of creation. The other word used for “life” is “zoe” and it is the word used in St John’s gospel to denote “eternal life”. Eternal life is life of a different quality to biological life. Whereas we all have “bios” as a matter of inheritance “zoe” is a gift offered by God and it can only be appropriated by faith. We all have “bios”, like it or not. We do not all have “zoe”.


So Genesis 3 can be understood using scientific as well as Biblical categories of thought. Faithlessness is the common denominator in both accounts. In Hebrew thought faithlessness is shown in man’s refusal to accept the parameters God sets out. In evolutionary thought faithlessness is the rejection of that higher possibility on offer to us.


So the "Fall" is really a "failure to become" As paul says " all have sinned and fallen short" (Romans 3v23) John gives the solution. "to those who believed in His name He gave power to become children of God". How does this sound to you ?
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Alan, would our 'animal nature' not explain all this?

I doubt it. Most other animals don't seem to feel the need for a theological backstory.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Do these ‘scientific’ explanations square with the Bible? The answer is Yes. The NT uses two words for “life”. One is the word “bios”, from which we get biological. That describes the life we all share by virtue of creation. The other word used for “life” is “zoe” and it is the word used in St John’s gospel to denote “eternal life”. Eternal life is life of a different quality to biological life. Whereas we all have “bios” as a matter of inheritance “zoe” is a gift offered by God and it can only be appropriated by faith. We all have “bios”, like it or not. We do not all have “zoe”.

Why is the distinction between two different Greek words used in the New Testament relevant to the Genesis account? Wouldn't differences in the actual Hebrew words used there be more on point?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Alan, would our 'animal nature' not explain all this?

I doubt it. Most other animals don't seem to feel the need for a theological backstory.
Of course most other animals don't write creation myths either.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Alan, would our 'animal nature' not explain all this?

I doubt it. Most other animals don't seem to feel the need for a theological backstory.
Of course most other animals don't write creation myths either.
Indeed not, which is why I find appeals to our 'animal nature' as a reason for some theological necessity other animals do just fine without to be unconvincing.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
According to Christian understanding other animals don't have "souls." So requirements for us that the other animals don't share, while not necessarily part of our mythos, aren't totally unexpected either.

Or in other words, we're different from them why s shouldn't requirements and/or descriptions be different?
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
You missed my point.

I am saying that because we evolved from animals we - necessarily - have an 'animal' instinctual side to our natures. We need to overcome or override this to 'become' fully human or Christlike.

Animals are 'raw in tooth and claw' - as we are sometimes. But we can go beyond this and be moral, spiritual creatures.

So our falleness is a failure to become - not a fall from a previous perfection.

[ 31. March 2010, 21:31: Message edited by: Boogie ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
I am saying that because we evolved from animals we - necessarily - have an 'animal' instinctual side to our natures. We need to overcome or override this to 'become' fully human or Christlike.

I don't think this idea works. It looks much like the old body-soul dualism again. The old idea that evil stems from our bodies dragging down our souls is not that dissimilar from the idea that our animal nature is making us less Christlike. After all, our bodies are very much something we share with the animals.

I don't think that evil is at all the same thing as acting according to our animal nature. Caring for our children is something animal; spite and hatred and revenge seem to me peculiarly human.

Evil is I think specifically human; animals that can't make moral judgements can't be evil (or saintly either). Morality and evil seem to me bound up with language: the ability to refer to things that aren't present or to abstract concepts. And language and society are inherited. I don't think we can believe in a biological transmission of original sin, and the story of the apple is certainly not historical. But there must have been a point at which a group of apes turned their group cries and calls into a language - and with the linguistic ability we inherited from them we may well have inherited the twisted part of our social inheritance we call original sin.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Mitrochondrial DNA apparentrly suggests a common ancestress. Eve is a better option than lucy.

I don't think it is a myth. (creation and fall story) I think though that its a shimmering historical haze..but not a myth. I think Genesis tells us what we need to know not what we want to know. I think we can only respect the branches if the roots hold to the ground. I think therefore that evolution has to be wrong as it lets us off the hook morally. I think the prologue to John is a restatement of creation, a backstory to Christ , again based on what we need to know rather than what we'd like to know.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Mitrochondrial DNA apparentrly suggests a common ancestress. Eve is a better option than lucy.

I don't think it is a myth. (creation and fall story) I think though that its a shimmering historical haze..but not a myth. I think Genesis tells us what we need to know not what we want to know. I think we can only respect the branches if the roots hold to the ground. I think therefore that evolution has to be wrong as it lets us off the hook morally. I think the prologue to John is a restatement of creation, a backstory to Christ , again based on what we need to know rather than what we'd like to know.

I'm not sure evolution "lets us off the hook" so much as it generates a different morality, at least for those who think it could be the basis for morality. The need for continued survival does create an ethos. In some ways, it's not unlike the OT one, which seems to include all kinds of ethical problems resolved by the need to survive and continue the family line.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Mitrochondrial DNA apparentrly suggests a common ancestress. Eve is a better option than lucy.

I don't think it is a myth. (creation and fall story) I think though that its a shimmering historical haze..but not a myth. I think Genesis tells us what we need to know not what we want to know. I think we can only respect the branches if the roots hold to the ground. I think therefore that evolution has to be wrong as it lets us off the hook morally. I think the prologue to John is a restatement of creation, a backstory to Christ , again based on what we need to know rather than what we'd like to know.

It's always dangerous to start revising your version of reality based on personal philosophical preferences instead of actual observations. Using the same logic one could argue that we live in a geocentric universe, since any other model detracts from the world as the stage on which God played out his greatest drama. Plus it would create difficulties with certain scriptural passages if it's really the Earth moving around the Sun instead of the other way around. Just because it would be inconvenient for something to be true is no reason to automatically believe it to be false. Discarding observation for personal preference is an invitation to error.

Going to the specifics of the mitochondrial Eve hypothesis (please read the "Common Fallacies" part of this wiki page), since one of the primary tenets of evolution is common descent the existence of a common female ancestor isn't a problem for evolutionary theory. In fact, it would be something of a problem if there weren't.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I think therefore that evolution has to be wrong as it lets us off the hook morally.

I'm not sure evolution "lets us off the hook" so much as it generates a different morality, at least for those who think it could be the basis for morality. The need for continued survival does create an ethos.
But isn't the question why we needed Christ to redeem us? I wouldn't think the need for continued survival and any ethos it creates is sufficient to explain why we were so badly in need of redemption that it was necessary for the Word to become flesh and live among us. I have a different understanding of the fall from Jamat, but I think I understand his or her theological position. Do you have an idea of the fall that is compatible with evolution, or perhaps a way of reconciling the two?

[ 01. April 2010, 03:44: Message edited by: W Hyatt ]
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
If evil comes from language and the ability for abstract thought, then so does good. If an animal can't 'Love God and love neighbour' and we can then the failure to do so has been around ever since humans became human.

So in that sense the Genesis myth works. From (virtually) the start we have been self centred and trying not to be.

But why try?

People have often tried to produce selfish societies - but somehow good prevails - is this not the influence of God?
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Alan, would our 'animal nature' not explain all this?

Depending on exactly what is meant by 'animal nature' and how that is applied as an explanation, of course.

Which just illustrates one of the things I was saying. We've generally replaced one myth (based on Biblical narratives of the Fall) with another (based on biological evolution) to understand our less than perfect human nature.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Alan. You asked about the "Fall"/

How about this perspective?

The Genesis story of the “Fall” is the earliest Biblical attempt to answer the question, “How come evil?”. It was not intended as a once-for-all account of how evil came. It really answers the on-going question of how evil comes.

I generally agree. But, my main point was not so much with the Fall narrative in Genesis as the way that narrative is used by Paul in describing the redemption brought by Christ; that just as sin came through the disobedience of one man, so too redemption comes through the obedience of one man. As I said, it's about the only argument that comes close to implying a need to accept that the Fall is in some sense historical (and, therefore, the Genesis accounts themselves need to be more historical that I'd accept) ... though it doesn't quite get there for me.

If we take the Genesis accounts in a more metaphorical sense then we're left with a problem when we read Paul, or at least that particular apologetic Paul sets out. If there was no single man who because of his pride disobeyed God and so 'infected' the rest of humanity with sin, how then can the analogy that a single man who in humility obeys God 'cure' the whole of humanity work?

Of course, we could simply decide that the apologetic approach Paul adopted there worked in the context of a mythology of Creation and Fall, but doesn't work within the mythology that we have accepted based on biological evolution. And, we adopt apologetic approaches that do work in our mythological framework and ignore those that don't.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
If we take the Genesis accounts in a more metaphorical sense then we're left with a problem when we read Paul, or at least that particular apologetic Paul sets out. If there was no single man who because of his pride disobeyed God and so 'infected' the rest of humanity with sin, how then can the analogy that a single man who in humility obeys God 'cure' the whole of humanity work?

It seems to me that a fictional analogy works just as well as a historical analogy to explain how something works. I don't think Paul is saying that one man, Jesus, can redeem us only because sin came into the world because of Adam.
The point of Adam isn't really the historical individual, but the fact of humanity as a single entity having corporate responsibility.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Dafyd said that evil is specifically human and I agree. But that sidesteps the argument which is being made.

Teilhard de Chardin argued for a series of "thresholds" to be crossed in the evolutionary process. Evil is associated with the last of his thresholds, the threshhold of self-consciousness and community.

Unless we postulate a total disconuity between them then there must be some carry-over from one threshold to the next.

The argument here is that what, at the animal level, has survival value, has a destructive capacity at the humn / community level.

And I question whether Christ came to "redeem" us from anything. In my view he came to reveal what is possible for humanity to become. In itself that is a saving revelation. Being truly human himself he revealed what a Spirit-possessed person can become. If that redeems us from what we were ( or are) then great.

My reading of Genesis indicates that humankind does have a dual nature. "Created from the dust of the ground" indicates that we are one with the rest of the creatures. Having "the breath of God breathed into us" (which is the 2nd half of the Genesis verse) indicates that we are something more. That 'something more' is also, like the rest of creation, in process of becoming.
 
Posted by Lothiriel (# 15561) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I think therefore that evolution has to be wrong as it lets us off the hook morally.

I'm not sure evolution "lets us off the hook" so much as it generates a different morality, at least for those who think it could be the basis for morality. The need for continued survival does create an ethos.
But isn't the question why we needed Christ to redeem us? I wouldn't think the need for continued survival and any ethos it creates is sufficient to explain why we were so badly in need of redemption that it was necessary for the Word to become flesh and live among us. I have a different understanding of the fall from Jamat, but I think I understand his or her theological position. Do you have an idea of the fall that is compatible with evolution, or perhaps a way of reconciling the two?
In The Problem of Pain, CS Lewis attempts to reconcile evolution with a fall, in the chapter 'The Fall of Man'. He describes how over millenia, God might have formed the beings who, when they reached a certain stage of physical and mental capacity, were endowed with the image of God. Of the fall specifically he says
quote:
We do not know how many of these creatures God made, nor how long they continued in the Paradisal state. But sooner or later they fell. Someone or something whispered that they could become as gods--that they could cease directing their lives to their Creator . . . . We have no idea in what particular act, or series of acts, the self-contradictory, impossible wish found expression. For all I can see, it might have concerned the literal eating of a fruit, but the question is of no consequence.
The chapter 'Animal Pain' has some interesting speculation on a fall of creation separate from the fall of humankind, also intended to try to reconcile biblical theology with what we know of the history of life on earth.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I think therefore that evolution has to be wrong as it lets us off the hook morally.

I'm not sure evolution "lets us off the hook" so much as it generates a different morality, at least for those who think it could be the basis for morality. The need for continued survival does create an ethos.
But isn't the question why we needed Christ to redeem us? I wouldn't think the need for continued survival and any ethos it creates is sufficient to explain why we were so badly in need of redemption that it was necessary for the Word to become flesh and live among us. I have a different understanding of the fall from Jamat, but I think I understand his or her theological position. Do you have an idea of the fall that is compatible with evolution, or perhaps a way of reconciling the two?
I think you're assuming the problem in a way that most non-Christians (and more than a few Christians) wouldn't find reasonable. To an atheist (and someone correct me if this is off base) it's like telling a person they have to buy this cleaning product to get the invisible cooties out of their hair. It's absurd.

But since I am a Christian, I'll crawl out on a limb for a bit and see how long it takes someone else to break it down...

*starts crawling*

I tend to figure the fall has more to do with psychology than with biology. You could, I guess, examine the evolution of human self-consciousness and work from there, but that's not something I've fully worked out yet.

At some point, we developed (or was developed in us) a degree of self-awareness that separated us in a fundamental way from the rest of the world. This separation (for two things cannot be separated and remain truly equal) leads to a sense that the world is ours to possess and do with as we will (pride.) It's just an object to be manipulated for the maximization of our own personal well being. I figure a lot of the screwed-up-ness in the world comes of this, our overpopulation, exploitation of resources and each other, objectification of ourselves, etc. We fancy that we are like gods.

And I figure God is somehow complicit in this activity, too. Whether we can blame God or God can blame us...that could be a fun thread.

Anyway, this arrogating of authority is, I think, for most Christians, the origin of sin.

I suppose if there's a redemption it's when God enters the world in human form to both show and be the way for us to be in the world, consciousness and all. We should instead of objectifying the world as ours to manipulate, allow ourselves to become manipulated so that the world can fix itself and ourselves as well. It's realigning us, ideally, into a right relationship with the world in its ongoing perfection.

And why use the time and place that he did? One might as well ask why we evolved to exist at this time and not 3 million years before or 3 million years later (if it's possible to think in years once you're not thinking earth-time.) At this time, it is what it is. That could be another fun thread.

Those are some thoughts (not bad for before noon when I really should be wrapping up a sermon instead of being here, eh?)

*sits patiently and awaits the inevitable chainsaws*

ETA: FWIW, I hadn't read the post on CS Lewis or really any others before typing this.

[ 01. April 2010, 15:58: Message edited by: Bullfrog. ]
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
We should instead of objectifying the world as ours to manipulate, allow ourselves to become manipulated so that the world can fix itself and ourselves as well.
I like this Bullfrog. But I somehow think that it's the developed world which fails to do this. There are still a few tribes around who do live at one with creation - taking no more than they need. I doubt any are Chrsitian societies - the 'work ethic' seems to take over when society converts to Christianity.

I still don't think there was a fall to be explained. If our self awareness brought about our capacity for good and evil, then it's dealing with that 'advancement' which i the struggle - not a return to an imagined former 'perfection' Unless it's the primitive life I mentioned - living in harmony with creation, Early Native American style?

...

[ 01. April 2010, 16:23: Message edited by: Boogie ]
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
quote:
We should instead of objectifying the world as ours to manipulate, allow ourselves to become manipulated so that the world can fix itself and ourselves as well.
I like this Bullfrog. But I somehow think that it's the developed world which fails to do this. There are still a few tribes around who do live at one with creation - taking no more than they need. I doubt any are Chrsitian societies - the 'work ethic' seems to take over when society converts to Christianity.

I still don't think there was a fall to be explained. If our self awareness brought about our capacity for good and evil, then it's dealing with that 'advancement' which i the struggle - not a return to an imagined former 'perfection' Unless it's the primitive life I mentioned - living in harmony with creation, Early Native American style?

...

I'm not too keen on the protestant work ethic, myself. Like every Christian, there are bits I think are more necessary and bits I think are less necessary, the protestant work ethic and the whole European imperialism thing to me look more like temporary mutations rather than a necessary part of the DNA.

At the same time, I'm skeptical of the "noble savage" myth. Every human society bends the world around it, just like every animal society does. It's just that we tend to do it in a bigger way.

I'm not that attached to "the fall," especially as a discrete historical event, though I think there is something uniquely dysfunctional in or about humanity.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
I'm not sure evolution "lets us off the hook" so much as it generates a different morality, at least for those who think it could be the basis for morality. The need for continued survival does create an ethos.

I don't understand where this "need" comes from. There is no need for continued survival. Even if we accept the anthropomorphism, the "need" of an individual organism is to reproduce and (if possible) see that its progeny survives. But even there it's more "desire" than "need". Or say rather "hard-wired drive". But "continued survival" is a theoretical construct and certainly not the need of any animal. As such it's hard to see how it can create an ethos.

But I'm the skeptic who can't see how you can go from "this is" to "this should be". I've yet to see a good argument for that hat-trick.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
But I'm the skeptic who can't see how you can go from "this is" to "this should be". I've yet to see a good argument for that hat-trick.

I'm more concerned about what happens when you reverse that logic and insist "this should be, therefore it is", which seems to be the basis for most creationist arguments.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Croesus: "the existence of a common female ancestor isn't a problem for evolutionary theory"

Not a problem for creation either
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Croesus: "the existence of a common female ancestor isn't a problem for evolutionary theory"

Not a problem for creation either

Not a problem for anyone who knows as much genetics as they teach 13-year-olds and can do simple arithmetic. It is exactly what we'd expect.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
But I'm the skeptic who can't see how you can go from "this is" to "this should be". I've yet to see a good argument for that hat-trick.

I'm more concerned about what happens when you reverse that logic and insist "this should be, therefore it is", which seems to be the basis for most creationist arguments.
Although that step is usually left unspoken, isn't it?
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
I'm not sure evolution "lets us off the hook" so much as it generates a different morality, at least for those who think it could be the basis for morality. The need for continued survival does create an ethos.

I don't understand where this "need" comes from. There is no need for continued survival. Even if we accept the anthropomorphism, the "need" of an individual organism is to reproduce and (if possible) see that its progeny survives. But even there it's more "desire" than "need". Or say rather "hard-wired drive". But "continued survival" is a theoretical construct and certainly not the need of any animal. As such it's hard to see how it can create an ethos.

But I'm the skeptic who can't see how you can go from "this is" to "this should be". I've yet to see a good argument for that hat-trick.

I think for those outside of any religious tradition, "this is" dictates to an extent the limits of "what should be."

And I think you're right about the want verses need. In a humanist space, it's all wants. Nothing is absolutely necessary, for there is nothing that can safely be called "God."
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Unless we postulate a total disconuity between them then there must be some carry-over from one threshold to the next.

The argument here is that what, at the animal level, has survival value, has a destructive capacity at the humn / community level.

It depends on what the argument is.
There are four possibilities:
1) Has survival value at the animal level, and is destructive at the human level.
2) Has survival value at the animal level, and still has survival value and is creative at the human level.
3) Results from moving on from the animal level, and is creative at the human level.
4) Results from moving on from the animal level and is destructive at the human level.

So far your argument only recognises categories 1 and 3. And no doubt such categories are instantiated. I would say that all four categories are instantiated. What is more, I think more human evil falls into category 4 than category 1.

quote:
And I question whether Christ came to "redeem" us from anything. In my view he came to reveal what is possible for humanity to become. In itself that is a saving revelation. Being truly human himself he revealed what a Spirit-possessed person can become. If that redeems us from what we were ( or are) then great.
I have a number of difficulties with this scheme. It seems in an ahistorical way to detach Jesus from his human setting and project him into the future. Whatever Jesus was as a human being, he was as a first century Galilean Jew, not a twentieth century Jesuit, a twenty-first century writer of self-help books, or an anticipation of a Point Omega that has yet to arrive.
I'm not really impressed by claims that Jesus was so much morally better than Socrates or the Buddha, for instance, as to be in a completely different category. Our belief that Jesus was without sin follows from our belief that he is God incarnate come to redeem us. Not the other way around.
 
Posted by W Hyatt (# 14250) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by W Hyatt:
But isn't the question why we needed Christ to redeem us? I wouldn't think the need for continued survival and any ethos it creates is sufficient to explain why we were so badly in need of redemption that it was necessary for the Word to become flesh and live among us.

I think you're assuming the problem in a way that most non-Christians (and more than a few Christians) wouldn't find reasonable.
Yes, I was making implicit assumptions based on reading many of your posts. Thank you for taking the time to go out on that limb and respond to my question - there's much that I can agree with in what you posted.

However, in response to part of your later post:

quote:
Every human society bends the world around it ....
I would suggest that human societies do it to varying degrees and the ones that have done it less are the ones we're likely to know less about.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
[QUOTE]
If we take the Genesis accounts in a more metaphorical sense then we're left with a problem when we read Paul, or at least that particular apologetic Paul sets out. If there was no single man who because of his pride disobeyed God and so 'infected' the rest of humanity with sin, how then can the analogy that a single man who in humility obeys God 'cure' the whole of humanity work?

Then why not take them literally?

I think the problem we have (and I have fought my own mind for many years over the universe, )is that we are proud beings. God's message is essentially simple. He did something to create us, we did something to mar that and he intervened to correct that marring. QED. Paul was no fool neither was the author of John (who I believe was John,) Christ himself is recorded as believing in the original couple. All suggest the problem of sin derives from the taint of the fall, all posit Christ as the remedy,

All the twists and turns taken by mankind are flawed in that we are not nor cannot ever be objective. There is no escape from contingency, no genuine objectivity in Science or anything else.

There was only one choice for me; to fight the pride of my thinking and the power of my conditioning in order to humble my mind to what the scripture teaches. AKA That there was a special creation, a special redemption and plenty of people and spiritual powers with an agenda to discredit the scriptural message.

[ 02. April 2010, 07:03: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
[QUOTE]
If we take the Genesis accounts in a more metaphorical sense then we're left with a problem when we read Paul, or at least that particular apologetic Paul sets out. If there was no single man who because of his pride disobeyed God and so 'infected' the rest of humanity with sin, how then can the analogy that a single man who in humility obeys God 'cure' the whole of humanity work?


But that doesnt take into account the fact that Paul might also be using "man" in a generic way.

Just as sin entered via humans so it is overcome via a human.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
There was only one choice for me; to fight the pride of my thinking and the power of my conditioning in order to humble my mind to what the scripture teaches. AKA That there was a special creation, a special redemption and plenty of people and spiritual powers with an agenda to discredit the scriptural message.

You sweep pride out by the front door and it comes in again at the back.

I don't see what is so humble about assuming that the interpretation of what the Scripture teaches that occurs to you as you first read the Bible is correct. If there's no objectivity in science, there won't be any objectivity in Biblical interpretation.
Nor do I think it's humble to assume that all the scientists and others who believe in evolution are misled by spiritual powers while you have successfully humbled yourself.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
The idea that the Christian need for salvation is only valid if there was a literal Fall has always struck me as akin to arguing that the Christian commandment to "love your neighbor as yourself" is only valid if there was a literal, real world Good Samaritan, and that if it could be shown that no such event took place along the road from Jerusalem to Jericho, then it's every Christian for himself.

You'd think that Christians, of all people, would appreciate the value of a good parable.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Christ himself is recorded as believing in the original couple.

I would rephrase this to say that Christ is recorded as speaking in a way that implies belief in the original couple, which I assume was valid for his audience. What strikes me when reading the Gospels is how thoroughly rooted in the one particular culture Jesus was - he was clearly speaking to his immediate audience, starting from where they were.

As Croesus suggests, there is no real evidence to suggest that JC himself believed in the actual existence of Adam and Eve any more than he believed in the actual existence of the Good Samaritan.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Christ himself is recorded as believing in the original couple.

I would rephrase this to say that Christ is recorded as speaking in a way that implies belief in the original couple, which I assume was valid for his audience. What strikes me when reading the Gospels is how thoroughly rooted in the one particular culture Jesus was - he was clearly speaking to his immediate audience, starting from where they were.

As Croesus suggests, there is no real evidence to suggest that JC himself believed in the actual existence of Adam and Eve any more than he believed in the actual existence of the Good Samaritan.

Total cop out. To spin it like that you have to say black is white.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
As Croesus suggests, there is no real evidence to suggest that JC himself believed in the actual existence of Adam and Eve any more than he believed in the actual existence of the Good Samaritan.

Total cop out. To spin it like that you have to say black is white.
Indeed. Jesus said (in NIV translation) "A man was going down from Jerusalem to Jericho . . ." He could just as easily have said "Imagine a man going . . ." if He intended the story to be interpreted as fiction. He clearly believed in a literal Good Samaritan, which is the whole point his telling that story. Saying that the story is there to illustrate some larger point regardless of its fictional status is a 'cop out'
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
It doesn't matter whether he said 'imagine that' or not - he was telling a story to illustrate a point. The story of creation does exactly the same. It explains and illustrates the human condition beautifully and in wonderful poetry.

Is it literally true? - no way imo.

Jesus may have believed in a literal Adam(he was a man of his time) or he may not.

Science has moved on in 2000 years.

Jesus believed epilepsy was caused by demons - it doesn't mean that it was! - our understanding of many medical conditions has moved on a great deal in 2000 years.

...
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
He only believed in a real Good Samaritan because it was a scoop for the Jerusalem Sun on that particular day. It happened.

But Jesus used the story to make a point about the identity of "neighbour".

Whether it was fictional or not is beside the point.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
He only believed in a real Good Samaritan because it was a scoop for the Jerusalem Sun on that particular day. It happened.

But Jesus used the story to make a point about the identity of "neighbour".

Whether it was fictional or not is beside the point.

Not at all. As Jamat pointed out, if the story isn't literally true then any larger point derived from it is necessarily false as well. [Roll Eyes]
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
As I don't know anyone who takes the parables as being about real people in real situations, I'm bemused by the last couple of comments. It's well known that rabbis do and did teach by way of stories/fables that are not literally true. That's been the case since well before Jesus was born.

The idea that there has to be a literal Good Samaritan, or a real Prodigal Son makes as much sense as suggesting that there had to be a real tortoise racing in real time against a real hare for that one of Aesop's fables to convey something true.

John
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Agree with John Holding. ( He a cricket umpire by any chance?)

Nonsense to suggest that the incident must be historically true for a point to be made.

Else the genesis parables ( Chaps 1- 3) have got nothing to say
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:
As I don't know anyone who takes the parables as being about real people in real situations, I'm bemused by the last couple of comments. It's well known that rabbis do and did teach by way of stories/fables that are not literally true. That's been the case since well before Jesus was born.

The idea that there has to be a literal Good Samaritan, or a real Prodigal Son makes as much sense as suggesting that there had to be a real tortoise racing in real time against a real hare for that one of Aesop's fables to convey something true.

John

I think most people here would agree with that. Most of us would also agree with shamwari's last post.

The problem is that Jamat is insisting that Genesis must be literally true to convey something true and Croesus used the example of the parables to suggest that it ain't necessarily so.

If anyone can explain to me how proposing that Jesus did not believe that everything he said was literally true, is saying that "black is white", I would be grateful. [Confused]
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
No one denies metaphor; we live and breathe it. But it is contextually suggested. Jesus said "He who made them from the beginning made them.."

What did he say? He said... etc etc.

The problem is did he mean what he said? The burden of proof is on you who assert he didn't, to explain why.

It isn't such a good look to explain it by saying: "It inconveniences my theology" and my evolutionary preconceptions."

When he spoke in parables, the writer indicated it. Not the case here.(Matt19:4, Mk 10:6) In both cases it is a direct quote from Genesis. Ergo: Jesus beleved Genesis.

[ 05. April 2010, 23:41: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
No one denies metaphor; we live and breathe it. But it is contextually suggested. Jesus said "He who made them from the beginning made them.."

What did he say? He said... etc etc.

The problem is did he mean what he said? The burden of proof is on you who assert he didn't, to explain why.

Speaking in metaphor is not the same as not meaning what you say. Jesus meant what he said, as a metaphor.

quote:
It isn't such a good look to explain it by saying: "It inconveniences my theology" and my evolutionary preconceptions."
It's not a good look either to say it inconveniences your theology or your anti-evolutionary preconceptions.

quote:
When he spoke in parables, the writer indicated it. Not the case here.(Matt19:4, Mk 10:6) In both cases it is a direct quote from Genesis. Ergo: Jesus beleved Genesis.
That first sentence is not true. For instance, Luke 15-16. Only the verses of chapter 15, 4-6, is explicitly said to be a parable. Nothing of the rest is indicated to be a parable explicitly.

Let's add, if you're insisting on the literal accuracy of what Jesus is saying, that it's not true according to either Genesis account that humanity was made male and female "from the beginning of creation", as Mark has it. In the first Genesis account, there are at least five days between the beginning of creation and the creation of humanity. In the second account from which Jesus is quoting, Adam has time to name all the animals before God makes Eve.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
It isn't such a good look to explain it by saying: "It inconveniences my theology" and my evolutionary preconceptions."

When he spoke in parables, the writer indicated it. Not the case here.(Matt19:4, Mk 10:6) In both cases it is a direct quote from Genesis. Ergo: Jesus beleved Genesis.

Isn't your whole case against descent with modification that it inconveniences your theology?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
If it is a myth there is no fall there is no original sin and consequently no need for redemption. The whole gospel becomes unnecessary.

There's no indication that Jesus' story of the Good Samaritan is a parable. We can certainly infer that it's not a literal tale, but there's nothing in the text that says "this is a parable".
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
When he spoke in parables, the writer indicated it.

Not the case.

Matthew 5:13-16
Matthew 7:15-20
Matthew 7:24-27
Matthew 9:16-17
Matthew 16:5-12
Matthew 18:12-14
Matthew 19:24
Mark 8:14-21
Luke 10:25-37 (Good Sam)
Luke 11:33-36
Luke 13:18-21
Luke 14:15-24
Luke 16:1-15
Luke 16:19-31
Luke 17:7-10
John 12:24
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Parable? Is it not simply teaching by means of a story or an argument from analogy?

What's the deal? When there is a little story and a principle is extracted from it, an indication is being made by the writer. Is it not all part of the back story? Regarding Jesus' references to the original couple, there is no such back story, just an appeal to the authority of scripture. I repeat, Jesus believed in Genesis- inconvenient as it may be to some.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Parable? Is it not simply teaching by means of a story or an argument from analogy?

What's the deal? When there is a little story and a principle is extracted from it, an indication is being made by the writer. Is it not all part of the back story? Regarding Jesus' references to the original couple, there is no such back story, just an appeal to the authority of scripture.

No, Jesus is depicted as telling a story (God created gender) and extracting a principle (therefore don't divorce). It fits rather well with your description of how we recognize a parable in the Gospels.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I repeat, Jesus believed in Genesis- inconvenient as it may be to some.

You can repeat it all you want, but just repeating the same thing over and over isn't the same as making your case.

But supposing for a moment you're right and Jesus held the same literalist interpretation of Genesis you do, so what? If Jesus believed that there is a vast expanse of water above the sky or that the moon produces its own light instead of being the sun's mirror, does that necessarily make those things true?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Why in the hell would it be inconvenient to anybody?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
You suggest my hermeneutic implies that the one by whom the universe was created is under some misconception about how it operates? Is this not insulting your own intelligence?

The Bible is God's revelation. If it says something straightforward then one assumes that is true. Making a 'case' for what Jesus plainly states and implies is not necessary. He has made his own 'case'. It is our part to accept or reject it as we see fit in this time of God's grace.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
You suggest my hermeneutic implies that the one by whom the universe was created is under some misconception about how it operates? Is this not insulting your own intelligence?

He's not suggesting it. He's stating it outright. Your hermeneutic does imply that the one by whom the universe is created is under some misconception about how it operates. That's not a problem for us. That is a problem for your hermeneutic.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
When there is a little story and a principle is extracted from it, an indication is being made by the writer. Is it not all part of the back story? Regarding Jesus' references to the original couple, there is no such back story, just an appeal to the authority of scripture.

You keep saying that there is an indication, but you haven't given an example.
I put it to you: you think there's an indication where it's not inconvenient for your theology, and you think there isn't an indication where it is inconvenient for your theology. That is, your indication that a story is not literally true is simply its inconvenience for your theology. It is quite circular and depends entirely upon your presuppositions.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
You suggest my hermeneutic implies that the one by whom the universe was created is under some misconception about how it operates? Is this not insulting your own intelligence?

As Dafyd points out, if you acknowledge that your hermeneutic is insulting to everyone's intelligence, maybe there's something wrong with it.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
You suggest my hermeneutic implies that the one by whom the universe was created is under some misconception about how it operates? Is this not insulting your own intelligence?

As Dafyd points out, if you acknowledge that your hermeneutic is insulting to everyone's intelligence, maybe there's something wrong with it.
So, There is something wrong with believing Jesus actually meant what he said touching the creation story? And you base this on?
 
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on :
 
The "something wrong" is that the creation story is wrong. It didn't happen. So either Jesus was wrong, or he was being metaphorical. And those are the only two options. Period.

I assume that your view of Jesus presumes that he wasn't wrong. therefore he was speaking in parables. As he often did before, and after.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
I think that Jesus was a person of his time and circumstances - just as we are. His understanding of creation would be theological - not scientific.

God is the creator and sustainer of all things.

Science (begins to) explain how all things were created.

...
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
The "something wrong" is that the creation story is wrong. It didn't happen.

So perhaps you could tell us what did happen?

No, thought not.

The issue is the assumptions we begin with. If Christ is the one by whom the worlds were created, (John's gospel ch 1) My assumption is that he knew a thing or two.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
The "something wrong" is that the creation story is wrong. It didn't happen.

So perhaps you could tell us what did happen?

No, thought not.

It's incredibly bad form to ask someone a question and then answer it for them. Have you no manners?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The issue is the assumptions we begin with. If Christ is the one by whom the worlds were created, (John's gospel ch 1) My assumption is that he knew a thing or two.

Well, let's go through your argument as you laid it out.

1) Jesus was the omniscient, omnipotent Creator of Everything.

2) Jesus made an oblique reference to his belief that God created humans with gender.

3) This reference to gender can only be interpreted as an unconditional endorsement of the literal veracity of every aspect of the book of Genesis as it is known to us today.

It's this last one that seems to be a bit of conclusion jumping to most folks here, though I personally would dispute point #1 as well.

Anyway, the conclusions that can be derived from this set of axioms is fairly puzzling, as I mentioned in a previous post (which you seem to have ignored). It suggests questions like 'Why doesn't the Hubble Space Telescope break apart when it runs into the "water above"?' or 'Why does the omnipotent and omniscient Creator of Everything insist that the moon creates its own light when we can tell that it doesn't?' There are other points at which Genesis diverges from reality, but those seem like a good place to start.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Well, if we must plod...

What I assume is that the Scripture clearly states Jesus' role in the creation.

That Genesis is affirmed by Christ as authoritative as is the rest of the pentacheuch.

That the 'waters above' belonged to the antedeluvian world.

That scripture never teaches that the moon generates light.

My view is that one takes scripture at face value unless there is a clear editorial or contextual reason not to. One's theological or evolutionary preconceptions are not such a reason.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
That the 'waters above' belonged to the antedeluvian world.

You've got some sort of scriptural reference for deciding this, I presume? Would you care to share it?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
That scripture never teaches that the moon generates light.

My view is that one takes scripture at face value unless there is a clear editorial or contextual reason not to. One's theological or evolutionary preconceptions are not such a reason.

Well, when the moon is referred to as one of "two great lights", you'd think that the clear meaning is that it's a light. Given that the generation of light is pretty much the defining characteristic of a light, I'd say that, taking scripture at face value as you advocate, one would have to conclude that scripture does indeed teach that the moon generates light.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Now, that's just being nit picky.(about the moon, I mean.)

Genesis, with which I assume you have a modicum of familiarity, tells us that when the flood arrived the windows of heaven opened (Gen 7:11)and it rained for 40 days. In 'The Genesis Flood' by Whitcomb and Morris, it is suggested that this refers to a precipitation of a vapour canopy in the atmosphere which up until this time maintained a more or less constant temperature on the planet. The polar regions were temperate as suggested by the vast animal graves in Siberia. Tropical flora has been found in the systems of frozen mammoths.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Now, that's just being nit picky.(about the moon, I mean.)

What do you mean "nit picky"? At face value "light" means "light", but you apparently have found some editorial or textual reason to think in this case "light" means "rock" or "mirror". That certainly seems to go against your professed method of taking scripture at face value.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Genesis, with which I assume you have a modicum of familiarity, tells us that when the flood arrived the windows of heaven opened (Gen 7:11)and it rained for 40 days. In 'The Genesis Flood' by Whitcomb and Morris, it is suggested that this refers to a precipitation of a vapour canopy in the atmosphere which up until this time maintained a more or less constant temperature on the planet. The polar regions were temperate as suggested by the vast animal graves in Siberia. Tropical flora has been found in the systems of frozen mammoths.

Most modern translations use the term "floodgates" instead of "windows". Of course, the other source of water is said to be the "springs of the deep" or "fountains of the deep". According to Genesis the Deluge stopped when "the springs of the deep and the floodgates of the heavens had been closed". The King James Version, which you seem to favor, says "The fountains also of the deep and the windows of heaven were stopped", but the sentiment is the same. The Bible is not saying that either of these sources were emptied, just that they were blocked up again. Besides, if you were to conclude that the "waters above" were only an antediluvian phenomenon, wouldn't intellectual consistency force you to conclude the same about groundwater (i.e. "the springs of the deep")?
 
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
What I assume is that the Scripture clearly states Jesus' role in the creation.

That Genesis is affirmed by Christ as authoritative as is the rest of the pentacheuch.

Indeed. Let's ignore the mythical writing of Genesis. Let's also ignore the evidence of our senses which makes those stories out to be horse hockey.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Did the shadow go backwards?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Well, we do know that Hezekiah needed to adjust his calendar.

The ancient year was 360 days and when you look at the 70 weeks of Daniel, they make sense if seen as weeks of years each @ 360 days. The authority in this is Sir Robert Anderson founder of Scotland Yard who wrte a book called "The Coming Price" which lays it all out.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Genesis is affirmed by Christ as authoritative as is the rest of the pentacheuch.

Authoritative in what sense, and for what purpose?

In the example we've been looking at, Jesus cites the early chapters of Genesis that God created human beings male and female, and this is used in support of an argument against divorce. The most you can get from that is that humanity is created by God, and that gender and complementary relationships within marriage are part of the design of God ... there seems nothing that requires a particular mechanism for Creation.

There are, of course, other examples where Jesus cites the Pentateuch. Of course, it could be argued that in so doing he's affirming these books as authoritative within the context of discussions of ethics and theology. It could equally be argued that he was using the texts accepted as authoritative by his opponents to show that their views were contrary to the authoritative texts they accepted - which doesn't necessarily imply He accepted them as authoritative.

BTW, I accept the Pentateuch and the rest of Scripture) as authoritative, and that Jesus accepted them as authoritative. I just don't think that the use Jesus made of these texts necessarily supports that belief. Also, the authority of the Bible doesn't extend to particular interpretations of Scripture.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
The "something wrong" is that the creation story is wrong. It didn't happen.

So perhaps you could tell us what did happen?

No, thought not.

Astronomers, particle physicists, geologists, and palaeontologists between them can give a pretty good description of what happened and the order in which it happened - certainly in greater detail than in either the first Genesis story or the second Genesis story. But that's where we came in.
It's not as if we've got the two Genesis stories or nothing.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
My view is that one takes scripture at face value unless there is a clear editorial or contextual reason not to.

How about following one account of the creation with another account of the creation in which events happen in a completely different order? Would that count as a clear editorial or contextual reason not to?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
If you say the shadow did not turn back, then you place science over the clear, plain meaning of Scripture.

If you say it did turn back, then you say either:

(a) The earth kept turning in the same way, but God made it look like it turned back. In which case God is a liar.

(b) The earth stopped in its rotation and started spinning in the opposite direction, then stopped again and started spinning the right way again. And nobody noticed, nothing went flying through the air because it had momentum in one direction and the earth had stopped. No lurches in anybody's stomach. In short a planet the size and mass of the earth stopped and it had no effect on anything whatsoever except that one shadow moved backwards. Nobody anywhere else in the earth noticed this contrary motion of the shadows. This is cloud-cuckoo land.

The only conclusion is that sometimes science trumps scripture. And once you allow that foot in the door, all Hell breaks loose.

(to those not in the know: 2 Kings 20:9-11)
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
If you say the scripture is authoritive in terms of ethics and theology but not of history, and/or that it is not authoritative in support of 'particular interpretations', you are in effect deciding unilaterally what the rules are. You are saying if it offends me or if it cuts across my biases, preconceptions then I can ignore it.

That is no authority at all.

BTW Dafyd I see the two creation accounts as complementary. Many literary genres use the same facts in different ways. Jewish thinking was not linnear like mine or yours.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
So which is it?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
BTW Dafyd I see the two creation accounts as complementary. Many literary genres use the same facts in different ways. Jewish thinking was not linnear like mine or yours.

So what you're saying is that our thinking is linear and the Bible's thinking is non-linear, so we shouldn't take the Bible at what we think is face value?
For example, if the Bible says that flowers were made on day three and fish on day five, that doesn't necessarily mean that fish were made two days after flowers? It could mean that fish came into existence millions of years before flowers. Because the Bible is non-linear.

This is the same reason why when the Bible says that the moon is a light, this doesn't mean as we would take to be face value, that the moon is a light, but means that it reflects light - even though the Bible says nothing about reflecting.

[ 08. April 2010, 19:35: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If you say the shadow did not turn back, then you place science over the clear, plain meaning of Scripture.

If you say it did turn back, then you say either:

(a) The earth kept turning in the same way, but God made it look like it turned back. In which case God is a liar.

(b) The earth stopped in its rotation and started spinning in the opposite direction, then stopped again and started spinning the right way again. And nobody noticed, nothing went flying through the air because it had momentum in one direction and the earth had stopped. No lurches in anybody's stomach. In short a planet the size and mass of the earth stopped and it had no effect on anything whatsoever except that one shadow moved backwards. Nobody anywhere else in the earth noticed this contrary motion of the shadows. This is cloud-cuckoo land.

The only conclusion is that sometimes science trumps scripture. And once you allow that foot in the door, all Hell breaks loose.

(to those not in the know: 2 Kings 20:9-11)

This is indeed an interesting quandry. I believe the bible does not mislead us.

Your analysis of the situation that would occur if the sun in fact stood still is not necessarily accurate.

In 701BC there appears to have been a cataclysmic event, one of several, in which the ancients recorded.

Time forbids lengthy dicussion but if you are familiar with Velikovsky's 'Worlds in collision', you can check that he researched a change in the calendars of all ancient people groups at that time. Hezekiah appears to have doubled the month of Nisan in the year in question (recorded in the Talmud) and latterly, Jews simply added an extra month every few years to keep the lunar calendar accurate.

Cutting a long story very short, it is quite possible that Mars' and Earth's orbits came very close in that year. Remember, the ancients were terrified of the planets. This would have brought the two planets into a huge gravitational altercation resulting in both losing a bit of spin momentum.

The sun standing still as it did also in Joshua 10, could be accounted for by a shift in orbits and tilt. The earth wouldn't need to stop spinning.

[ 09. April 2010, 09:50: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
BTW Dafyd I see the two creation accounts as complementary. Many literary genres use the same facts in different ways. Jewish thinking was not linnear like mine or yours.

So what you're saying is that our thinking is linear and the Bible's thinking is non-linear, so we shouldn't take the Bible at what we think is face value?
For example, if the Bible says that flowers were made on day three and fish on day five, that doesn't necessarily mean that fish were made two days after flowers? It could mean that fish came into existence millions of years before flowers. Because the Bible is non-linear.

This is the same reason why when the Bible says that the moon is a light, this doesn't mean as we would take to be face value, that the moon is a light, but means that it reflects light - even though the Bible says nothing about reflecting.

I don't see your beef really.

I simply think the events happened and were recorded. Chronology does not necessarily matter
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Who recorded them?

As far as I know there were no tabloid reporters there (at least not until God created the Sun)
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Given the longevity of the antedeluvians, Many generations were alive concurrently. The creation story could easily have been preserved. Some speculate that Moses wrote by special revelation but it is worth remembering that Shem would still have been alive at the time of Abraham. Moses father in Law, Jethro, was a descendant of Keturah, Abraham's second wife. The 40 years in the desert could have been ample time for Moses to complete 'History of Mankind 101'.
 
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on :
 
Jamat, you're using Immanuel Velikovsky as a reference? Seriously? Seriously dude? seriously???? [Killing me]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
I'll take this nonsequitur tangent about orbital dynamics as an indication that you don't have any textual reasons to refute my prior point about the Biblical position on lunar luminosity or "the waters above". Moving on.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
If you say the shadow did not turn back, then you place science over the clear, plain meaning of Scripture.

If you say it did turn back, then you say either:

(a) The earth kept turning in the same way, but God made it look like it turned back. In which case God is a liar.

(b) The earth stopped in its rotation and started spinning in the opposite direction, then stopped again and started spinning the right way again. And nobody noticed, nothing went flying through the air because it had momentum in one direction and the earth had stopped. No lurches in anybody's stomach. In short a planet the size and mass of the earth stopped and it had no effect on anything whatsoever except that one shadow moved backwards. Nobody anywhere else in the earth noticed this contrary motion of the shadows. This is cloud-cuckoo land.

The only conclusion is that sometimes science trumps scripture. And once you allow that foot in the door, all Hell breaks loose.

(to those not in the know: 2 Kings 20:9-11)

This is indeed an interesting quandry. I believe the bible does not mislead us.

Your analysis of the situation that would occur if the sun in fact stood still is not necessarily accurate.

In 701BC there appears to have been a cataclysmic event, one of several, in which the ancients recorded.

Time forbids lengthy dicussion but if you are familiar with Velikovsky's 'Worlds in collision', you can check that he researched a change in the calendars of all ancient people groups at that time. Hezekiah appears to have doubled the month of Nisan in the year in question (recorded in the Talmud) and latterly, Jews simply added an extra month every few years to keep the lunar calendar accurate.

Cutting a long story very short, it is quite possible that Mars' and Earth's orbits came very close in that year. Remember, the ancients were terrified of the planets. This would have brought the two planets into a huge gravitational altercation resulting in both losing a bit of spin momentum.

You should have stuck with your earlier position.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Without blinding me with science about which I am profoundly ignorant . . .

Anyway, here's a back of the envelope calculation on the gravitational effects of a close Mars approach. The closest Mars gets to Earth, assuming current orbits, is if Earth happens to line up with Mars when Earth is at aphelion (furthest from the Sun) and Mars is both at perihelion (closest to the Sun) and crossing the ecliptic (the plane of Earth's orbit) at the same time. This is a distance of about 54.6 million km. At this distance, and given the masses of both planets, the attraction between the two bodies is about 8.59×10²² N or, to put it in perspective, about 0.04% of the force exerted on the Earth by its moon.

For further perspective, consider the maximum distance the Earth and Mars can be apart at closest approach. This situation has Earth at perihelion and Mars both at aphelion and its maximum separation from Earth's orbital plane (1.85°). This about doubles the distance of closest approach to 102.3 million km, which would mean the attraction for a near Mars approach would be about four times as big as for a distant Mars approach, but would still be about three orders of magnitude smaller than the monthly variations associated with the Moon moving from apogee to perigee, which doesn't seem to do much to reverse Earth's rotation or qualify as "a huge gravitational altercation".

Now, you may note the modifier I used above, "assuming current orbits". Unfortunately if you assume different orbits then you're back to mousethief's case (b), since disrupting orbits suddenly is just as calamitous as shifting rotation suddenly.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The sun standing still as it did also in Joshua 10, could be accounted for by a shift in orbits and tilt. The earth wouldn't need to stop spinning.

As noted above, moving the Earth's orbit over a short timespan would have similarly disruptive effects as changing its rotation.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
It should also be noted that detecting cosmic disasters by calendar variations is a dubious practice at best. One could just as easily use the same "reasoning" to argue for a massive orbital disruption around 1582.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Well, if you laugh Velikovsky out of court, you dismiss a huge raft of research. He trawled ancient records assiduously. His main thesis may or may not be correct, He wasn't there neither were any of us.

My purpose in quoting him is mainly to show a belief in ancient catastrophism is not simply lunatic fringe and that the uniformitarian assumptions of Immanual Kant that have been so thoroughly accepted, do not have truth status. Look for instance at the craters on the moon.

Incidentally, Croesos, I answered ypour queries..you disagree? So what.

There is a model created by Donald Paton, Ronald R Hatch and Lauren C Steinhauer who suggest that ancient catastrophes occurred quite often in the ancient world often in October and March around every 108 years or multiples thereof. Their model that Mars could at the point of 'Ahaz's sundial' come as close as 70 thousand miles. If so it would have been 50 times the size of the moon and accompanied by bolide and meteor showers, tidal waves and crustal tides of huge power. The cities would have been flattened. No wonder there are so many legends about Mars, the God of war.
 
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on :
 
Jamat, Velikovsky is as lunatic fringe as you can _get_. Come on now. The man had no scientific credentials, and he changed his hypothesis book-to-book. The man was a whack job, a nut case.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Incidentally, Croesos, I answered ypour queries..you disagree? So what.

No, you didn't. The question was whether you had any scriptural reasons for your assertion that the moon is not a "great light" as described in Genesis or that the "waters above" were strictly an antediluvian phenomenon, contrary to Genesis 8. You haven't provided any citations.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
There is a model created by Donald Paton, Ronald R Hatch and Lauren C Steinhauer who suggest that ancient catastrophes occurred quite often in the ancient world often in October and March around every 108 years or multiples thereof. Their model that Mars could at the point of 'Ahaz's sundial' come as close as 70 thousand miles. If so it would have been 50 times the size of the moon and accompanied by bolide and meteor showers, tidal waves and crustal tides of huge power. The cities would have been flattened. No wonder there are so many legends about Mars, the God of war.

I think you mean appeared to be fifty times the size of the moon.

So the theory is what? That Mars leaves its current orbit every century and for whatever reason comes between the Earth and its moon and then returns to the stable orbit we know? Or is it that Mars' orbit is wildly more eccentric than is currently reported (scientific cover-up!!!) and that it crosses (or nearly crosses) Earth's orbit regularly but only intercepts the planet itself every century or so? Is there some explanation as to why, since Mars is crossing inside the Moon's orbit, those two bodies have never collided? Or, for that matter, since at 113,000 km (70,000 miles) the attraction between Mars and Earth would be of the same magnitude as between the Earth and Sun why the two planets have never hit each other?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
There is no theory. The point of what I wrote is that I believe the Bible is accurate on the points of fact it contains. I believe it is not unreasonable to expect it to be so and I believe also that our human arrogance often leads is to presumptuous conclusions.

I do not exempt myself from this presumption. I could be quite wrong in the things I have stated they are only what I have read. The devastation caused by crustal tides of 80 feet is unimaginable. The fact that the last event of this nature was 701 BC may well have a naturalistic explanation but I do thank God for the basic promise to Noah that the Earth will be preserved in its seasonal patterns.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
There is no theory. The point of what I wrote is that I believe the Bible is accurate on the points of fact it contains.

Fine. If you want to play semantic games you can substitute your preferred word "model" for "theory" in my last post and go from there. The question is either where in the Bible does it say Mars approaches within 113,000 km of Earth or whether you consider Paton, Hatch, and Steinhauer to be part of the Bible. You're the one who advanced their model/theory as accurate, or at least plausible, so make your case!
 
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on :
 
Jamat,

You'd sound less loony with a simple "goddidit" than making up wild models (or supporting wild models) which further contradict everything we know about natural history and how the universe works. At least relying on a miracle is not disprovable.
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
I think Jamat means these people in his second last post. His spelling was a bit off.

quote:
Donald W. Patten, Ronald R. Hatch and Loren C. Steinhauer. The Long Day of Joshua and Six Other Catastrophes. Seattle: Pacific Meridan, 1973.
L.

[ 09. April 2010, 23:26: Message edited by: Louise ]
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I simply think the events happened and were recorded. Chronology does not necessarily matter

If you're going to say you're taking the Bible at face value, then chronology does matter. Because if taking the Bible at face value doesn't mean that you believe the events occurred in the same order as they're described then it begins to look like it doesn't mean anything.
If you're going to say that accepting the Bible means rejecting evolution, then chronology does matter. If you take the chronology out of the Bible account, what are you left with that contradicts evolution? Pretty much nothing.

You still haven't told Croesos or the rest of us why you don't believe there are windows above the earth holding the rain in even though Genesis repeatedly says they're there and there is no "clear editorial or contextual reason not to" take it at face value.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pjkirk:
Jamat,

You'd sound less loony with a simple "goddidit" than making up wild models (or supporting wild models) which further contradict everything we know about natural history and how the universe works. At least relying on a miracle is not disprovable.

Well, I just mention the models to make it possible to investigate what the guys wrote. I think 'Goddidit' as well. He is the great orchestrator in the sky after all.

Thank you Louise BTW. Well done on the spelling.

There is one detail to add to the 'looniness' you might find interesting. Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons. They did not become visible to astronomers until 150 years later. Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
Jamat, Velikovsky is as lunatic fringe as you can _get_. Come on now. The man had no scientific credentials, and he changed his hypothesis book-to-book. The man was a whack job, a nut case.

So what if he didn't have the 'high priest' status you obviously afford 'scientists'. Are we into junking personalities now? Bet you haven't read him.
 
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on :
 
"High priest status"????? The man was a charalatan!

And btw, I have read one of his books, a long time ago. I forget which one. I was young, but even then I could tell it was a crackpot theory. It doesn't take much.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Dafyd:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I simply think the events happened and were recorded. Chronology does not necessarily matter

If you're going to say you're taking the Bible at face value, then chronology does matter. Because if taking the Bible at face value doesn't mean that you believe the events occurred in the same order as they're described then it begins to look like it doesn't mean anything.
If you're going to say that accepting the Bible means rejecting evolution, then chronology does matter. If you take the chronology out of the Bible account, what are you left with that contradicts evolution? Pretty much nothing.

You still haven't told Croesos or the rest of us why you don't believe there are windows above the earth holding the rain in even though Genesis repeatedly says they're there and there is no "clear editorial or contextual reason not to" take it at face value.

Well to ancient Jewish writers, Chronological order was frequently scrambled. The Gospel of John is a case in point. It is the writer's agenda that dictates the order. The Bible is a collection of books, a library within itself. Each of the 40 writers makes selective and editorial decisions. As a discerning reader, one needs to be as aware of them as possible. For instance, genealogies often have holes. A man's son may in fact be his grandson. When I said chronology was unimportant, I was suggesting that facts are still facts even if scrambled somewhat. Sometimes, of course, it is important. Many written texts these days are similar in that they are chronologically skewed..not linnear narratives in other words.

I have never denied metaphor. Above, I affirmed it. The concept of the 'floodgates' or 'windows' of heaven is clearly a metaphor to describe what was probably a vapour canopy. The point is that scripture states that waters existed above the earth. That is what I think is true.

Incidentally, do we really have to revisit the moon thing? I mentioned nit-picky.. perhaps pedantic would be better.

[ 10. April 2010, 00:47: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:

There is one detail to add to the 'looniness' you might find interesting. Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons. They did not become visible to astronomers until 150 years later. Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?

No. The suggestion that Mars had two moons was first made and published by Kepler in 1610, long before Swift, and was well known in the early modern world. He made the suggestion to fit a geometrical theory which turned out to be quite wrong except for this one accident. When he learned of the observation of Jupiter's four brightest moons, and compared this with the Earth's one Moon, Kepler concluded that Mars must have two moons (by the geometrical progression 1,2,4...).

Of course Jupiter doesn't have four moons, at the last count, it had 63. Kepler's geometrical theories were barking up the wrong tree.

L.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
"High priest status"????? The man was a charalatan!

And btw, I have read one of his books, a long time ago. I forget which one. I was young, but even then I could tell it was a crackpot theory. It doesn't take much.

I don't necessarily buy his theory. His research into ancient stories is what he does well. It's a cheap shot to call him a charlatan.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Louise:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:

There is one detail to add to the 'looniness' you might find interesting. Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons. They did not become visible to astronomers until 150 years later. Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?

No. The suggestion that Mars had two moons was first made and published by Kepler in 1610, long before Swift, and was well known in the early modern world. He made the suggestion to fit a geometrical theory which turned out to be quite wrong except for this one accident. When he learned of the observation of Jupiter's four brightest moons, and compared this with the Earth's one Moon, Kepler concluded that Mars must have two moons (by the geometrical progression 1,2,4...).

Of course Jupiter doesn't have four moons, at the last count, it had 63. Kepler's geometrical theories were barking up the wrong tree.

L.

Asaph Hall 1877?
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Asaph Hall 1877?

Swift didn't possess some arcane knowledge that everyone else lacked until Asaph Hall in 1877. He knew a fashionable 17th-18th notion which, while being wrong on just about every other count, said that Mars had two moons, and was right on that purely by accident, despite the theory behind it being completely wrong.


Let's go over it bit by bit

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:

Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons.

This is quite simply false. Lots of people, including English contemporaries of Swift, such as William Derham, thought Mars had moons, and two was quite a common number suggested. It traces back to Kepler's theory of two moons which I mentioned. Drawing on Kepler, people thought that the further away from the sun it was, the more moons a planet should have.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?

No, he was simply showing off his knowledge of theories from his own time about Mars. 18th century person repeats popular 18th century theory is not some kind of miracle of prophecy.

cheers,
L
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
There is one detail to add to the 'looniness' you might find interesting. Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons. They did not become visible to astronomers until 150 years later. Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?

So you're postulating what? That Mars came really close to Earth shortly before 1726 and only Swift noticed it? Or that he was working from "ancient sources" of which no one knew except Swift, and the only use he had for his exclusive use of this ancient knowledge was a single throw-away line in Gulliver's Travels?

I'd also like to hear an explanation as to how Mars kept its satellites after repeated close exposure to Earth's much stronger gravitational field. Bear in mind that at a 70,000 mile approach the attraction between Deimos and Earth would be almost as great as between Deimos and Mars, depending on where Deimos was in its orbit at the time.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Well to ancient Jewish writers, Chronological order was frequently scrambled. The Gospel of John is a case in point. It is the writer's agenda that dictates the order. The Bible is a collection of books, a library within itself. Each of the 40 writers makes selective and editorial decisions. As a discerning reader, one needs to be as aware of them as possible.

So the Bible is to be taken literally, except when it's not. Very illuminating. [Roll Eyes] The practical application of this principle is that the "discerning reader" can simply discard whatever he doesn't like as metaphor while simultaneously promoting his own prejudices as God's revelation.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
For instance, genealogies often have holes. A man's son may in fact be his grandson.

Yes, I believe that man's name was Lot.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
When I said chronology was unimportant, I was suggesting that facts are still facts even if scrambled somewhat. Sometimes, of course, it is important. Many written texts these days are similar in that they are chronologically skewed..not linnear narratives in other words.

I have never denied metaphor. Above, I affirmed it. The concept of the 'floodgates' or 'windows' of heaven is clearly a metaphor to describe what was probably a vapour canopy. The point is that scripture states that waters existed above the earth. That is what I think is true.

The point is that scripture gives you no reason not to believe that a large body of water exists above the Earth right now. After all, if there were no more "waters above", why would God have to close the floodgates, as described by scripture. And if there are no more "waters above", wouldn't that also mean there are no more "fountains of the deep"?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Incidentally, do we really have to revisit the moon thing? I mentioned nit-picky.. perhaps pedantic would be better.

Yes, I would like to hear a clear, scriptural reason why "light" doesn't mean "light".
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
So you're postulating what? That Mars came really close to Earth shortly before 1726 and only Swift noticed it? Or that he was working from "ancient sources" of which no one knew except Swift, and the only use he had for his exclusive use of this ancient knowledge was a single throw-away line in Gulliver's Travels



Never suggested this. You are arguing dishonestly. Swift's reference may or may not be from an ancient source or, as Louise suggests it may just have been 18th Century parlance. It was interesting is all. Another piece of hstorical 'DNA' or not as may be.

quote:
I'd also like to hear an explanation as to how Mars kept its satellites after repeated close exposure to Earth's much stronger gravitational field. Bear in mind that at a 70,000 mile approach the attraction between Deimos and Earth would be almost as great as between Deimos and Mars, depending on where Deimos was in its orbit at the time.
I have no idea about orbital mechanics. The possibility of a Martian close-call was mentioned to suggest that 'Ahaz' sundial' could conceivably have happened.

quote:
So the Bible is to be taken literally, except when it's not. Very illuminating. [Roll Eyes] The practical application of this principle is that the "discerning reader" can simply discard whatever he doesn't like as metaphor while simultaneously promoting his own prejudices as God's revelation.
This strikes me as dishonest or dumbass. You clearly are out to mock and belittle. Perhaps the dead horse has been flogged enough.


quote:
The point is that scripture gives you no reason not to believe that a large body of water exists above the Earth right now. After all, if there were no more "waters above", why would God have to close the floodgates, as described by scripture. And if there are no more "waters above", wouldn't that also mean there are no more "fountains of the deep"?
I never suggested there was a body of water above the earth right now.

quote:
[Yes, I would like to hear a clear, scriptural reason why "light" doesn't mean "light".
This has been addressed already. Light, hopefully is available and evident to all whose heads are not totally up their anterior regions.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
So you're postulating what? That Mars came really close to Earth shortly before 1726 and only Swift noticed it? Or that he was working from "ancient sources" of which no one knew except Swift, and the only use he had for his exclusive use of this ancient knowledge was a single throw-away line in Gulliver's Travels



Never suggested this. You are arguing dishonestly. Swift's reference may or may not be from an ancient source or, as Louise suggests it may just have been 18th Century parlance. It was interesting is all. Another piece of hstorical 'DNA' or not as may be.

Jamat, meet Jamat.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
There is one detail to add to the 'looniness' you might find interesting. Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons. They did not become visible to astronomers until 150 years later. Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?

Yeah, you didn't "suggest" it, you merely mentioned evidence your position was correct. What was that about arguing dishonestly?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
I'd also like to hear an explanation as to how Mars kept its satellites after repeated close exposure to Earth's much stronger gravitational field. Bear in mind that at a 70,000 mile approach the attraction between Deimos and Earth would be almost as great as between Deimos and Mars, depending on where Deimos was in its orbit at the time.
I have no idea about orbital mechanics. The possibility of a Martian close-call was mentioned to suggest that 'Ahaz' sundial' could conceivably have happened.
Aren't questions like this important ones when trying to decide if something "could conceivably have happened"?

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
The point is that scripture gives you no reason not to believe that a large body of water exists above the Earth right now. After all, if there were no more "waters above", why would God have to close the floodgates, as described by scripture. And if there are no more "waters above", wouldn't that also mean there are no more "fountains of the deep"?
I never suggested there was a body of water above the earth right now.
Yeah, that was the question. There's a very clear scriptural reason for saying there are "waters above" today, and yet you insist that you can interpret Genesis literally and still dismiss this part of it. How do you do that? I'd like to hear your scriptural reason for this.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Yes, I would like to hear a clear, scriptural reason why "light" doesn't mean "light".
This has been addressed already. Light, hopefully is available and evident to all whose heads are not totally up their anterior regions.
"Now, that's just being nit picky" is not a scriptural quote that I'm familiar with. Chapter and verse, please?
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Well to ancient Jewish writers, Chronological order was frequently scrambled.

You're still missing the point.
Point 1) Saying that ancient Jewish writers scrambled chronology is a way of not taking Scripture at face value.

Point 2) What exactly about the Biblical account contradicts Darwinian evolution as understood by scientists once you've decided that the chronology of the Biblical accounts is scrambled? What exactly are you left with?

quote:
I have never denied metaphor. Above, I affirmed it. The concept of the 'floodgates' or 'windows' of heaven is clearly a metaphor to describe what was probably a vapour canopy.
No. It is only 'clearly' a metaphor because you are importing knowledge from outside scripture into scripture.
If someone brought up underground all their life read this passage of Scripture without independent knowledge of clouds they would see no reason in Scripture not to take this literally.

Let's set this out logically.

1) You take Scripture at face value, and you only take it metaphorically if there is an editorial or contextual reason to do so.
2) Scripture says that there are windows above our heads that let the rain through.
3) There is no editorial or contextual reason in Scripture to take 2) metaphorically.
A) (From 1-3) Therefore, you believe that there are windows above our heads that let the rain through.
4) You do not believe that there are windows above our heads that let the rain through.

Contradiction. Therefore, one of 1-4 must be false. 2-4 are all true. Therefore 1 is false.

You do not take Scripture at face value.

quote:
Incidentally, do we really have to revisit the moon thing? I mentioned nit-picky.. perhaps pedantic would be better.
If you assert that there is a rule that you follow, and you break that rule, then you don't follow that rule. You can say it's nitpicky or pedantic to point out that you've broken the rule; it doesn't matter. You've still broken the rule at some point when it suited you.

If you say that you believe what the Bible says without trying to explain it away, and you then explain away something that the Bible says, it doesn't matter how pedantic or nit-picky it is to point out the exception you've made. You were telling an untruth when you said you believe whatever the Bible says without explaining it away.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
No light shines merely by its own power. The fact that it doesn't does not disqualify it from being called a light. A mirror for instance can function as a light. I presume you've heard of semophore? Even the sun shines by virtue of the reactions continuously occurring in is core. For convenience, we call the result 'sunshine' but since the whole argument is 'moonshine' could we just move on?

The basic contention is about hermeneutics. But could you please noteI have not actually used the word 'literal' in any posts on this subject. I have used the term 'face-value.'Not a lot of difference I know but people here assume 'literal' is absurdly extreme.

Conservative scholars use four bases to interpret the Bible. Excuse me if you know this already but understanding it may avoid the petty point scoring game.

First the 'golden rule' One takes Biblical passages as read unless there is something in the text that indicates that they should be understood some other way. metaphor and symbolism are not precluded by this. but symbols are generally explained when such is intended by the writer.

Second is the 'law of double reference'. A passage may be referring to two different things separated by a time gap. An eg is Zech 9:9-10. Reference is made to both comings of the messiah here. V9=ist coming, vs10=2nd.

Third, is the law of recurrence. This is typified in the so called two creation accounts discussed in this thread. Basically, Gen 1 records the chronology of the creation days, Gen 2:4-25, goes back over the ground to provide added details. Many other egs are possible.

Lastly is the 'law of context'. A text without a context is normally a pretext. Taking a verse from context can let some people prove virtually anything.

This stuff is virtually straight from the Dallas Theological Seminary textbooks.

[ 12. April 2010, 04:47: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
No light shines merely by its own power. The fact that it doesn't does not disqualify it from being called a light. A mirror for instance can function as a light. I presume you've heard of semophore? Even the sun shines by virtue of the reactions continuously occurring in is core. For convenience, we call the result 'sunshine' but since the whole argument is 'moonshine' could we just move on?

I don't see how something with its own built-in nuclear reactor like the Sun can be said to not be shining by its own power.

I also tried your mirror suggestion, and it doesn't work. Try it yourself. Close yourself up in a room and eliminate all other sources of light. Now try to read by light emitted by your mirror.

You can try the same thing with a semaphore signaler, if you happen to have one handy, and the results will be the same.

It also seems that none of your four hermeneutic rules would indicate that "light" means anything other than "light" or that there are not literal floodgates in the heavens through which "the waters above" can pour. In fact, your "golden rule" would seem to require a straightforward, face value interpretation of these things, as there is nothing in the context to indicate otherwise.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
Jamat - I read your posts as saying -

'I want to believe it, therefore I will believe it - whatever I see or hear'

...
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Conservative scholars use four bases to interpret the Bible. ...

First the 'golden rule' One takes Biblical passages as read unless there is something in the text that indicates that they should be understood some other way.

It's probably the case that the discussion of Biblical interpretation may be better suited to one of the Inerrancy/Infallibility threads ... but, there's one big problem with this 'golden rule'. That is, once you admit there are some instances where the 'plain meaning' of the passage is an inadequate approach to understanding what it means, and need to use some other way of understanding it, then you need a significant framework for interpretation to say when you need to look beyond the 'plain meaning'. You need some means of deciding when a passage has a 'plain meaning' and when it doesn't. At that point you'll have some people deciding that a passage can be interpreted with a plain reading, and others that you need to interpret it differently ... all of whom are equally committed to your 'golden rule' of Biblical interpretation.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
All four "conservative" bases for interpreting scripture do not arise out of scripture but are imposed upon scripture.

Which is precisely what "liberals" are accused of doing.

And your insistence on context would make more sense if you kept to the context. In context Zech 9 referred to the imminent coming of Zerubbabel (who was of David's line) at the time of the Return from Exile.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
No light shines merely by its own power. The fact that it doesn't does not disqualify it from being called a light. A mirror for instance can function as a light. I presume you've heard of semophore? Even the sun shines by virtue of the reactions continuously occurring in is core.

I don't know that I have heard of "semophore". I know about semaphore but am totally unable to see the relevance of people communicating by waving flags at each other to the issue of whether the moon is a light or not. Can you please explain?
 
Posted by Otter (# 12020) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
I don't know that I have heard of "semophore". I know about semaphore but am totally unable to see the relevance of people communicating by waving flags at each other to the issue of whether the moon is a light or not. Can you please explain?

At a guess, Jamat was thinking of a heliograph system, another low-tech method of long-ish distance signalling.
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
First the 'golden rule' One takes Biblical passages as read unless there is something in the text that indicates that they should be understood some other way. metaphor and symbolism are not precluded by this. but symbols are generally explained when such is intended by the writer.

And at least some Christian writers, all through history, from St Augustine to the first Fundamentalists and the editors of the Scofield Reference Bible have looked at Genesis and not found a description of God creating the world in six calendar days.

Conservative Bible scholars have always had a range of positions on this. There have always been both Young-Earthers and Old-Earthers among people who take the Bible at face value.

The scientific discoveries of the 18th and early 19th centuries - that is observations made by faithful Christians looking at the God's world - proved beyond reasonable doubt that the Old-Earth Creationists were right, and the Young-Earth Creationists wrong. There is no serious doubt about it.

And so-called "Creation Science" is mostly the irrelevant witterings of people who simply don;t understand the real question. And when it isn;t it is mostly nothing but a miserable lie perpetrated by a few exceptionally dishonest Christians, Christians who should in the face of the judgment of almighty God have the moral fiber to know better.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
No light shines merely by its own power. The fact that it doesn't does not disqualify it from being called a light. A mirror for instance can function as a light. I presume you've heard of semophore? Even the sun shines by virtue of the reactions continuously occurring in is core.

I don't know that I have heard of "semophore". I know about semaphore but am totally unable to see the relevance of people communicating by waving flags at each other to the issue of whether the moon is a light or not. Can you please explain?
You are absolutely right, big 'Duh' for me! Should it be heliography?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
All four "conservative" bases for interpreting scripture do not arise out of scripture but are imposed upon scripture.

Which is precisely what "liberals" are accused of doing.

And your insistence on context would make more sense if you kept to the context. In context Zech 9 referred to the imminent coming of Zerubbabel (who was of David's line) at the time of the Return from Exile.

Read it again. Zerrubbabel was not a king. There is another herneneutic nevertheless that not all agree on. That is the so called 'law of double fulfillment' which suggests things can sometimes have both a local and a prophetic fulfillment.

The other thing to remember is that parts of a verse can be separate in meaning. Another eg Is Jesus' quotation in Luke 4:18, where he pauses in the midst of a verse. There is the 'acceptable year of the Lord,' proclaimed,but not yet his 'day of vengeance'.

Regarding 'imposing interpretations', that has become a bit of a pat answer to anyone who dares declare what a text means.

Basically, hermeneutic tools are decided upon by scholars in an effort to decipher what is being communicated. You cannot not have them if you want to engage in meaningful dialogue where people are on the same page. Your statement is in fact one since it contains presuppositions about what is a valid way to understand the meaning of text.

It is a negative argument though as it implies we cannot impose meaning on text. The problem is that accepting that leads to the conclusion that either texts are meaningless or we can individually decide what they mean
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Astounding.

The reason why Jesus didnt mention "the day of vengeance of our God" when quoting from Isaiah was because he didnt agree with vengeance. Nothing to do with spurious time-lag gaps dressed up in dubious theological language,

Jesus told us not to seek vengeance on any number of occasions. Why should he apply that concept to God whilst denying it to God's followers.?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:


It also seems that none of your four hermeneutic rules would indicate that "light" means anything other than "light" or that there are not literal floodgates in the heavens through which "the waters above" can pour. In fact, your "golden rule" would seem to require a straightforward, face value interpretation of these things, as there is nothing in the context to indicate otherwise.

Honestly, you are like a dog with a bone!

I never said light wasn't light; I never said there were literal floodgates in the sky and I never said scripture teaches either of those things nor do I believe them. The 'floodgates' reference is clearly metaphor and a light is something that shines and helps us see, normally when plugged into a power source. (God being the great exception 1 Jn1:5 teaches God is light.) A reflector, which the moon is, is still a light in my book.

BTW Metaphor, A direct comparison to emphasise one aspect of reality. In this case, lots of water fell fom the sky.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Astounding.

The reason why Jesus didnt mention "the day of vengeance of our God" when quoting from Isaiah was because he didnt agree with vengeance. Nothing to do with spurious time-lag gaps dressed up in dubious theological language,

Jesus told us not to seek vengeance on any number of occasions. Why should he apply that concept to God whilst denying it to God's followers.?

Excuse me, but are you not imposing your own hermeneutic on the text here?

The Quoted verse in Luke from Isaiah 61:1-2 suggests that he regarded the prophecy as authoritative since he claims to be its fulfillment. On what basis should he fulfill only the first part?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Jamat - I read your posts as saying -

'I want to believe it, therefore I will believe it - whatever I see or hear'

...

Fair comment. perhaps you are right.

I am neither a scientist nor a theologian. My understanding of how Science works is that someone has a good idea and tests it as best they can by whatever means possible. If your good idea is challenged, then you try to look at all the angles before you throw out the theory and start again.

The problem is that people have agenda. You can't look at your good idea in a moral and ethical vacuum.

Given that, my good idea is that God isn't likely to have led us astray if indeed he wants to communicate with us. My agenda follows; if the Bible seems unreliable, then it really isn't and we must find out why it seems so.

Normally, apparent anomalies are resolvable but, of couse no one has all the answers. One often ends up in a tangle but isn't that where faith come in?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Conservative scholars use four bases to interpret the Bible. ...

First the 'golden rule' One takes Biblical passages as read unless there is something in the text that indicates that they should be understood some other way.

It's probably the case that the discussion of Biblical interpretation may be better suited to one of the Inerrancy/Infallibility threads ... but, there's one big problem with this 'golden rule'. That is, once you admit there are some instances where the 'plain meaning' of the passage is an inadequate approach to understanding what it means, and need to use some other way of understanding it, then you need a significant framework for interpretation to say when you need to look beyond the 'plain meaning'. You need some means of deciding when a passage has a 'plain meaning' and when it doesn't. At that point you'll have some people deciding that a passage can be interpreted with a plain reading, and others that you need to interpret it differently ... all of whom are equally committed to your 'golden rule' of Biblical interpretation.
You are quite right. Nothing is straightforward. I guess that is why there needs to be all the other rules and hopefully the Holy Spirit as a witness in the church as a corporate body.

[ 12. April 2010, 20:46: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Louise:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Asaph Hall 1877?

Swift didn't possess some arcane knowledge that everyone else lacked until Asaph Hall in 1877. He knew a fashionable 17th-18th notion which, while being wrong on just about every other count, said that Mars had two moons, and was right on that purely by accident, despite the theory behind it being completely wrong.


Let's go over it bit by bit

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:

Jonathan Swift in 'Gulliver's Travels' mentions Mars has two moons. At the time no one thought Mars had moons.

This is quite simply false. Lots of people, including English contemporaries of Swift, such as William Derham, thought Mars had moons, and two was quite a common number suggested. It traces back to Kepler's theory of two moons which I mentioned. Drawing on Kepler, people thought that the further away from the sun it was, the more moons a planet should have.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Was he working from an ancient source? Did that suggest that some time in the past Mars was close enough for them to be visible with the naked eye?

No, he was simply showing off his knowledge of theories from his own time about Mars. 18th century person repeats popular 18th century theory is not some kind of miracle of prophecy.

cheers,
L

Well actually, I dispute Kepler discoverered the Martian moons.

Asaph hall in 1877 did so using a telescope of the US naval observatory.

Galileo in 1610 with his famous telescope, discovered the 4 moons of Jupiter and Saturn's rings.

William Herschel in 1721 found Uranus and its two moons and in 1789 he found the two moons of Saturn

In 1846 Laviere found Neptune and its moon

It was actually 151 years after 'Gulliver's Travels' was published that the two moons of Mars were established as there. Thery are apparently very small and non reflective.

If the knowledge was an 18th century commonplace, Why did not Herschel discover them? Why was it not in texts of the period?

Swift's facts also, are eerily close to the truth. He knew for instance, that the two spin in opposite directions and his comments about their orbits, though not correct are reasonable approximations. He said Phobos had a 10 hr orbit. In fact it is 7hhs 39 mins.

Bottom line?

Swift may well have had an ancient source based on an eye witness account. For that to happen, Mars would have had to had a very close fly by. the sort of thing that the bible suggests happened (though it is really all conjectural and circumstantial) in 701BC, which caused Hezekiah to alter the calendar.
 
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on :
 
Or Louise could be right in the first place. I suggest you read http://www.gullivercode.com/wiki/index.php/Swift,_the_Galileo_Code_and_the_Moons_of_Mars to get rid of a few wacky nutjob ideas floating in your noggin.

Not only does the mars idea you posit make no sense, and requires a vast reworking of orbital mechanics, but the impacts of it would be huge! Can you even imagine the impact of a "close fly by" of another planet? Tides would have destroyed cities!

I think you should study the KISS concept for a while....
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by pjkirk:
Or Louise could be right in the first place. I suggest you read http://www.gullivercode.com/wiki/index.php/Swift,_the_Galileo_Code_and_the_Moons_of_Mars to get rid of a few wacky nutjob ideas floating in your noggin.

Not only does the mars idea you posit make no sense, and requires a vast reworking of orbital mechanics, but the impacts of it would be huge! Can you even imagine the impact of a "close fly by" of another planet? Tides would have destroyed cities!

I think you should study the KISS concept for a while....

You write with amazing confidence. On what is it based? Kepler was a mathematician astronomer with more than the touch of astrologer about him.

It could indeed be as the great Wiki suggests...or not as the case may be. The fact remains that while Kepler predicted the existence of the martian moons, Hall discovered them and there is even in the Wiki entry an acknowledgement of the incredible accuracy of Swifts facts..Though not actually correct.

Describing the savants of Laputa, Swift writes:

"They have likewise discovered two lesser stars, or satellites, which revolve about mars, whereof the innermost is distant from the centre of the primary planetexactly three of his diameters, and the outermost, five; the former revolves in the space of ten hours, and the latter in twenty one and a half; so that the squares of their periodical times are very near in the same proportion with the cubes of their distance from the centre of Mars.."

In fact, the innermost, Phobos, is one and a half, not three times its diameter from the centre of Mars and Deimos is about three and a half not five diameters away...Where the time of revolution was concerned, swifts guesses were even closer, ten and thirty hours.

Really the choice is whether Swift had some ancient source or he was amazingly intuitive..some kind of psychic.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
You are quite right. Nothing is straightforward. I guess that is why there needs to be all the other rules and hopefully the Holy Spirit as a witness in the church as a corporate body.

Which basically means you can't take any passage "as read", because the first thing you ask when coming to the text is "how do I interpret this?" (ie: what mechanism do I use?). As soon as you ask "can I interpret this 'as read'?" you've put an interpretive layer on the text.

One of the more famous examples of the problem comes right from the start of the concept of Scripture having a "plain meaning". Martin Luther sought to liberate Biblical understanding from the intellectual elite (ie: the priesthood of the Church), and decided that ordinary people should be able to read and understand Scripture - ie: that the meaning should be obvious without the aid of scholarship. He got to Genesis 3 and ran into a problem ... "what was the snake?" He instinctively thought it couldn't be an actual snake (snakes being unable to talk and all that), and resorted to quoting Church Fathers in his commentary. Thus blowing his idea of a "plain reading" of Scripture right out of the water.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
To my simple mind there can be no such thing as a "plain reading" of Scripture. Just as there is no such thing as a purely 'objective' historical record. Everything comes via an interpretive lens.

This is true of the Bible. It was written "from faith to faith". Thus the Exodus record has Pharaoh recalling the first attempted flight of the Hebrews. "God hardened Pharaoh's heart" is the Biblical reason given. Much more likely is that Pharaoh had a change of heart when he saw his cheap labour force disappearing into the far distance. "Its the economics stupid" as someone once said.

The NT has Paul affirming "Christ died for our sins". That is interpretive (and may well be right). The only factual bit of the statement is that Christ died.

So we are left with deciding the principles of interpretation we bring to a plain reading of Scripture. Common sense might be one, though often lacking. My own predeliction is to opt for the affirmation that Jesus of Nazareth was the Word made flesh and not to identify that Word with the words of scripture. In other words to evaluate scripture in the light of the Word made flesh. This involves, at least, a recognition of a progressive revelation, and I do not take progressive to mean an inevitable upward curve with no downturns. Post-Exilic Judaism is one example of regression. So, too, are parts of Revelation in the NT.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Really the choice is whether Swift had some ancient source or he was amazingly intuitive..some kind of psychic.

Or, you could just read what Louise said quite plainly. Then you don't need to have any sort of ancient source or other esoteric knowledge. Just a well known and popular conjecture about the number of moons of different planets that by shear coincidence got the right number of moons for Mars, and just about everything else wrong.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Really the choice is whether Swift had some ancient source or he was amazingly intuitive..some kind of psychic.

Laputa is a satire. The whole of Gulliver's Travels is satirical. Swift is sending up the kinds of enterprise (scientific enquiry carried on without reference to common sense or empirical reality) he is talking about. Or did Swift have an ancient source that told him how to extract sunbeams from cucumbers?

Astronomers predicting the existence of moons of Mars on the basis of mathematics alone is a fairly typical example of what Swift is sending up here.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
Let's look at what's being postulated here. First, that there has been a massive scientific conspiracy stretching over centuries to misrepresent the orbit of Mars. Second, that there is/was some ancient source that accurately describes both Mars' real orbit and it's satellites. Third, that this hypothetical source was at some point translated into one of the languages Swift could read, most likely with a view towards propagating said work. Fourth, that despite this effort at putting this hypothetical work into wider circulation, no trace of it remains except a single, brief passage in a work of satirical fiction.

Now, even granting all this, what would such a work describe? Jamat has suggested a Martian approach of 70,000 miles (~112,700 km). I'm not sure why this exact figure and would appreciate some clarification, but that's what's been suggested. Anyway, what would Mars' moons look like at that distance?

Deimos, the smaller of the two, would have an angular diameter of 23 arc-seconds, about the equivalent of Mars (in its current orbit) on a good night. Phobos would be about 41 arc-seconds, about as large as Jupiter on a good night or Venus on an average one. In either case neither of Mars' moons would have a perceptible disk and, since they have albedos about 10% of Jupiter or Venus, would not be anywhere near as bright as either of these bodies.

So your hypothesis hinges on ancient astronomers noticing two fairly dim new "wandering stars" (what we call "planets") about the same time as this gigantic new moon appeared and recording it in such a way that would be intelligible after (at least one) translation to an Englishman with no particular astronomical background as describing two moons of Mars, but written in such an oblique fashion that this observation would escape everyone else who ever came across this writing.

Or we could simply note that the idea that Mars had two moons was a common urban legend in Europe at the time and Swift could simply have written about them as being small, low orbiting bodies as a means to explain why no one had observed them yet.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Swift may well have had an ancient source based on an eye witness account. For that to happen, Mars would have had to had a very close fly by. the sort of thing that the bible suggests happened (though it is really all conjectural and circumstantial) in 701BC, which caused Hezekiah to alter the calendar.

I'm curious as to which part of the Bible when taken as read at face value (the method you claim to favor) suggests the kind of orbital acrobatics you describe.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I never said light wasn't light; I never said there were literal floodgates in the sky and I never said scripture teaches either of those things nor do I believe them. The 'floodgates' reference is clearly metaphor ...

If the 'floodgates' reference is "clearly" not to be taken literally, why should the rest of the narrative(s) of Noah's flood?
 
Posted by ken (# 2460) on :
 
Look, Kepler, and many others, "predicted" the moons of Mars because he believed in a God-imposed regularity in the Universe. As we've got one, and Jupiter (they thought) had four, it made sense to speculate that Mars had two. As we now know there are indeed regularities, but that isn't one of them.

None of that stops Kepler from being the most brilliant astronomer of his time, and of many others. Certainly a lot better than Galileo.

There are other plausible but probably not very significant apparent regularities in the Solar System. Look up "Bode's Law" for another good guess that looks interesting but (almost certainly) isn't really true. OK, its sort of kind-of true some of the time perhaps - but not good enough to be a predictive tool. Lots of rules of thumb are like that from the Anthropic Principle to "ontongeny recapitulates phylogeny" to the strict dispensationalist interpretation of Bible history...
 
Posted by Apocalypso (# 15405) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
To my simple mind there can be no such thing as a "plain reading" of Scripture.

Or indeed much of anything else that's written down (and thank you, shamwari).

Look, my job is training direct care workers to serve people with disabilities. These workers generally have high school diplomas, occasionally a semester or two of college or trade school.

Our printed training materials use short, simple sentences with pictures. Procedures are given step-by-step. Explanations are basic and concrete. We repeat, we practice, we review.

Despite this, employees occasionally misinterpret simple, plain, metaphor-free instructions. What's more, these misinterpretations vary.

It's not because they're stupid or illiterate; we recruit and hire folks who are plenty smart, with or without much education. So how can this misinterpretation happen?

In reading anything, people bring themselves -- their version of the language, their vocabularies, their values and attitudes, and their personal histories -- into the reading. In short, no two people who read a text -- any text -- read the exact same text.

"Plain" or "face value" reading of anything will not automatically yield a single universally-held "correct" interpretation, with or without a hermaneutic.

Try an experiment next time you're in a small group: ask everybody to close their eyes. Tell them you're going to say a word out loud, and tell them you want them to summon that thing up in their mind's eye. Then offer some noun -- boat, or hammer, or kettle -- and "see" it thoroughly and carefully. Then ask them one by one to describe in detail the mental image they came up with. We do this with trainees to help them start tuning into how they're interpreting what we're covering. You'd be amazed at the differences in what people imagine based on a single word for a concrete physical object.

Later in training, when we start slinging around multiple words and metaphors and abstractions like "respect" and "individual rights" and "freedom to choose," all bets are off. I can't think the process is made clearer or easier when coping with scriptures written eons ago in several cultures in two or three other languages.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by JoannaP:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
I never said light wasn't light; I never said there were literal floodgates in the sky and I never said scripture teaches either of those things nor do I believe them. The 'floodgates' reference is clearly metaphor ...

If the 'floodgates' reference is "clearly" not to be taken literally, why should the rest of the narrative(s) of Noah's flood?
I suspect the real issue is the difference between metaphor and parable or metaphor and myth.

Metaphor serves to sharpen a point through one point of comparison between two otherwise unlike things. In other words, The floodgates are not literally 'gates', but a way of understanding that lots of water fell as rain. The use of metaphor emphasises the literal reality of the rain.

Parable OTOH never pretends to any literal reality, it is a story used as a teaching tool.

Myth is a different category or genre. I'm guessing but suspect it is most often used as an explanation for the way things presently are. In other words it is a conscious fiction created to help us deal with a truth whose origin is actually a mystery. In NZ a Maori myth is that the hero Maui, dragged the North Island of NZ to the surface of the sea when he caught it on his line while out fishing one day.

[ 15. April 2010, 02:45: Message edited by: Jamat ]
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
Yes.

And the creation myth in Genesis beautifully describes a deep, timeless truth - that God created and sustains all things.

No way does it, by any stretch of the inagination, describe HOW God did/does that.

..
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Boogie:
Yes.

And the creation myth in Genesis beautifully describes a deep, timeless truth - that God created and sustains all things.

No way does it, by any stretch of the inagination, describe HOW God did/does that.

..

So you say but that is the point of contention. Genesis does not fit the category of myth that snugly it is not fantastical enough; neither Adam or Eve are heroic and God in the story is precisely what you'd expect God to be. The issue in my mind is not myth but supernaturalism

The Babylonian origins myth is, (I think,) that we hatched out of an egg. I guess no one would argue for the literalness of that
 
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on :
 
And the OT myth is that we were created out of dust--seems pretty equivalent to me.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Timothy the Obscure:
And the OT myth is that we were created out of dust--seems pretty equivalent to me.

Mostly Carbon I think. Seems pretty accurate to me
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
The Genesis account was written by a person with a brilliant mind. Timeless and wonderfully written poetry - in explanation of the beginning of things. But it is theology, not science.

The fact that we are all made of stardust just enhances it for me.

...
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Genesis does not fit the category of myth that snugly it is not fantastical enough; neither Adam or Eve are heroic and God in the story is precisely what you'd expect God to be. The issue in my mind is not myth but supernaturalism

Who says that the characters have to be "heroic" for something to qualify as a myth??

My problem with the story in Genesis 2 is that God is not at all what I would expect God to be. Creating all the animals and birds in an attempt to find a helper for Adam and then discovering that none of them were up to the job sounds incompetent. Not to mention sticking a tree with nice-looking fruit in the middle of the garden and saying "do not eat". What did God think would happen? And then God's response sounds distinctly petty to me.
I find it very hard to accept that the deity in this story is the same one that was revealed in Jesus.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Not to mention sticking a tree with nice-looking fruit in the middle of the garden and saying "do not eat". What did God think would happen? And then God's response sounds distinctly petty to me.
It just sounds distinctly human to me. As these myths were, first of all, an oral tradition - people will have added to them as time went by. They put a human perspective - of course they did, however inspired.

...
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Mostly Carbon I think. Seems pretty accurate to me

Dust would be mostly silicates (silicon and oxygen), especially before any plants had rotted to form humus.
 
Posted by Nicolemrw (# 28) on :
 
I have read any number of creation mmyths from around the world, mythology is something of a hobby of mine. I haven't noticed a qualitative difference between the Genesis myth and any of the others.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
I have read any number of creation mmyths from around the world, mythology is something of a hobby of mine. I haven't noticed a qualitative difference between the Genesis myth and any of the others.

Have another look. Genesis has credible people, a credible human relationship; credible human weakness; no superpowers involved on the part of the humans; a credible human environment as in earth air,water and sky.

Now We also have supernaturalism but the supernatural being is not seeking to explain a human circumstance, He is not capricious, salacious or mendacious. He is a being apart from the human weakness depicted. He has a spiritual opposer, again, explicable in terms of supernaturalism rather than of mythical magic. This being uses the body of an animal. this is not so unusual to a supernaturalist. Jesus sent spirits into a herd of pigs after all.

Now, compare say the Phaeton myth. The sun is a literal chariot, Phaeton and Zeus have heroic qualities. Zeus is a supernatural being but with obvious human concerns; Phaeton is teenager who wants the car, yet he has the power to drive it across the sky.

Bottom line? Some very real genre conflict.
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Genesis does not fit the category of myth that snugly it is not fantastical enough; neither Adam or Eve are heroic and God in the story is precisely what you'd expect God to be.

Petulant?
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
This is just a very obvious circular argument, Jamat. Invent a lot of extra tailor-made qualifications for the definition of myth, and you can pretend that since Genesis doesn't meet your newly-coined definitions (made up specifically to exclude Genesis), it can't be a myth.


If you go around telling people that you can show the truth of the Bible through discredited writers like Velikovsky and monumental twits like whoever came up with that Jonathan Swift idea, all you're going to do is drag the Bible into disrepute by association. Your idea of bolstering the authority of Jesus by deciding anything in the Old testament he gave a mention to must be treated as some sort of fact, actually does the opposite. It ends up making the Bible seem to rest on a tissue of crackpottery.

Luckily for you, you're not doing much damage here, as there can't be many of us who haven't read the Bible and who don't know that it's more worthwhile to read than the sad stuff you are besmirching it with by association.

But if you met someone who'd never read the Bible, and started telling them this sort of thing, they'd be justified in thinking that Jesus must be as dodgy as David Icke, since you keep trying to show his trustworthiness from utterly untrustworthy sources which would make any sensible person think twice.

L
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
Jamat - when the writer/s of Genesis began to scribe these things, do you imagine that they thought-

"Now then, what genre should this be - I want people 1000s of years in the future to be sure which form I was writing poetry, legend, fable, myth, science or theology"?

...
 
Posted by Hawk (# 14289) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by Nicolemrw:
I have read any number of creation mmyths from around the world, mythology is something of a hobby of mine. I haven't noticed a qualitative difference between the Genesis myth and any of the others.

Have another look. Genesis has credible people, a credible human relationship; credible human weakness; no superpowers involved on the part of the humans; a credible human environment as in earth air,water and sky.

Now We also have supernaturalism but the supernatural being is not seeking to explain a human circumstance, He is not capricious, salacious or mendacious. He is a being apart from the human weakness depicted. He has a spiritual opposer, again, explicable in terms of supernaturalism rather than of mythical magic. This being uses the body of an animal. this is not so unusual to a supernaturalist. Jesus sent spirits into a herd of pigs after all....Bottom line? Some very real genre conflict.

Well, as Louise says, you’ve just made up these definitions of myth so they aren't proof of anything to anyone except you. But let’s address them anyway.

Credible people? We have an obvious ‘everyman’ figure whose very name means ‘mankind’ and a companion female created from his rib. Both of these people apparently are immortal – which is a superpower as far as I’m aware! They have no sickness or problems and a just-created Adam can name every animal as it’s brought, having obviously invented language (Ancient Hebrew we assume) all by himself in a very short space of time, and the means to record his decisions or the superpower to remember them all (millions of names) to pass on.

There is credible human weakness of course, hubris, arrogance, disobedience of simple instructions. But this is deeply mythological. Compare the command that everything will be ok except if Adam eats the forbidden fruit with myths the world over; from Persephone being allowed to leave Hades except if she eats one pomegranate seed and is doomed, to the modern-day Pan’s Labyrinth where the child is safe unless she eats the forbidden fruit on the table. It is a simple and widely-used mythological trope that points clearly to the author’s intention that Genesis 2 is not to be taken literally.

And a credible setting? We have a land where no animal eats any other, where there is no rain but everything is fertile and plentiful and water flows freely from the earth, where only two humans exist, without cold, or work, or hint of reality as we know it. This lost ‘golden age’ setting has been imagined by everyone from the Greeks to the modern day. It is as mythological as it gets.

And the supernatural being you describe is certainly different from the myths of the shallow and bickering Greek gods, but that doesn’t prove anything. The ‘God’ of this story is a clear anthropormorphic personification, walking in the garden in the cool of the day, as though the heat of noon is too much for him! Stationing guards at the gates of Eden, as though God needs gates and guards to stop humans going somewhere! This ‘God’ is represented as just an advanced human, a powerful supernatural King, not the all-powerful Lord we know Him to be.

And the spiritual opposer – taking the form of an animal to interact with humans and lead them astray. You claim this isn’t a formula of the myth genre! Have you even read any other myths? They’re packed to bursting with gods and demons taking the form of animals, from Zeus’ bull and swan activities, to Chinese fox-demons.

There is no genre conflict at all. Anyone who knows anything about myths can see the similarities. That’s because they’re supposed to be there. The author wasn’t intending to write a history, he was writing or recording a myth, and intending it to convey deeper and more spiritual truths than mere historical events could.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Louise:
This is just a very obvious circular argument, Jamat. Invent a lot of extra tailor-made qualifications for the definition of myth, and you can pretend that since Genesis doesn't meet your newly-coined definitions (made up specifically to exclude Genesis), it can't be a myth.


If you go around telling people that you can show the truth of the Bible through discredited writers like Velikovsky and monumental twits like whoever came up with that Jonathan Swift idea, all you're going to do is drag the Bible into disrepute by association. Your idea of bolstering the authority of Jesus by deciding anything in the Old testament he gave a mention to must be treated as some sort of fact, actually does the opposite. It ends up making the Bible seem to rest on a tissue of crackpottery.

Luckily for you, you're not doing much damage here, as there can't be many of us who haven't read the Bible and who don't know that it's more worthwhile to read than the sad stuff you are besmirching it with by association.

But if you met someone who'd never read the Bible, and started telling them this sort of thing, they'd be justified in thinking that Jesus must be as dodgy as David Icke, since you keep trying to show his trustworthiness from utterly untrustworthy sources which would make any sensible person think twice.

L

I don't go round telling people anything.

Those, on the other hand, who set themselves up in judgement of the Bible on the grounds that it doesn't suit the liberal humanist agenda cos 'OT Bible God' is sooo judgemental that he can't really be like that, aren't doing any damage?

I don't think God needs me or you or anyone else to justify him. My bottom line is that if we take off the blinkers, he's done that for himself.

If anyone thinks at all! (especially about things like the nature of myth,) surely that is good!Please note, my point is not that Genesis has no mythical elements, just that it is quite different to other mythical stories in some fundamental ways. I don't see how I'm being circular..overstating a point perhaps on the odd occasion...

As stated before, Velikovsky's theory is not the issue, it's his research into ancient stories that is impressive. I don't think he was religious at all.

BTW Croesus, there are many scriptures that suggest cataclysm on the earth in times past if you care to take them at face value. For starters check out Hab 3:3-15. Vs 11 is interesting. Habukkuk was apparently a contemporary of Isaiah and Hezekiah.
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Those, on the other hand, who set themselves up in judgement of the Bible on the grounds that it doesn't suit the liberal humanist agenda cos 'OT Bible God' is sooo judgemental that he can't really be like that, aren't doing any damage?



That's a really poor straw man, which also misses the point. If your cartoon-character evil liberal conspirator doesn't believe the OT, it doesn't somehow justify using bogus theories to advocate it.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Please note, my point is not that Genesis has no mythical elements, just that it is quite different to other mythical stories in some fundamental ways. I don't see how I'm being circular..overstating a point perhaps on the odd occasion...



No, it isn't different - try re-reading Hawk's post. You're not only inventing your own meaningless definitions, but even by those standards failing. You would be better off to say 'I just believe it'.

quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:

As stated before, Velikovsky's theory is not the issue, it's his research into ancient stories that is impressive.

No, alas, his research into the ancient world was just as flawed. For example his theories involve getting it badly wrong about the chronology of Egyptian dynasties too, so he's no more well regarded by ancient historians and archaeologists than he is by astrophysicists. Sorry.

cheers,
L.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
BTW Croesus, there are many scriptures that suggest cataclysm on the earth in times past if you care to take them at face value. For starters check out Hab 3:3-15. Vs 11 is interesting. Habukkuk was apparently a contemporary of Isaiah and Hezekiah.

The disaster story is a fairly popular theme and recurs a lot in tale telling. Hollywood devotes considerable resources to tales like that all the time. Doesn't necessarily make them true.

Your citation, detailing a God striding the earth and shooting people with arrows reminded me of something else.

quote:
So he spoke in prayer, and Phœbus Apollo heard him. Down from the peaks of Olympus he strode, angered at heart, bearing on his shoulders his bow and covered quiver. The arrows rattled on the shoulders of the angry god as he moved, and his coming was like the night. Then he sat down apart from the ships and let fly an arrow: terrible was the twang of the silver bow. The mules he assailed first and the swift dogs, but then on the men themselves he let fly his stinging shafts, and struck; and constantly the pyres of the dead burned thick. For nine days the missiles of the god ranged among the host . . .
I guess by your logic this means that Apollo is real, since we've got an ancient account of a disaster attributed to him.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Well, firstly the 'straw man'. Most who write in this forum have a rationalistic mindset and are deeply suspicious of any supernatural interventionist God. The problem then for them is that the Bible God both intervenes and supervenes. One weapon to discredit this is the character of the OT God. On this thread alone he's been called 'petty' and 'petulant'. In pointing out the presuppositions, sometimes one oversimplifies. Call it a straw man if you want to. However can you honestly deny that what I implied in the comment above is not true? I have come across it on SOF many times.

This brings me to 'myth'. You say I am inventing my own definition of it to exclude Genesis. Well maybe so. There are nevertheless,(and yes I read Hawk's post,) large differences between traditional myth and Genesis and indeed other Biblical stories such as the ascension and resurrection. That is not to say that the two genres, Biblical supernaturalism and Cultural mythology do not have elements in common. I acknowledge those. Genesis 6 to me has the most obvious mythical parallel in fact.

The point though is that the distinctions are also definite as I outlined them above. E.M. Blaiklock was a classical scholar and Professor, at Auckland University and he defines myth 'for Plato', as follows:

"A myth was his means of rendering a truth that evaded abstract or scientific expression."

He goes on after a couple of illustrations:

"The principles of such myth making appear to be that the story must be a good story in its own right, must fill some gaps of knowledge in better and more convincing fashion than could be achieved by direct exposition, and must contain detail of obvious fiction which will mark the story as something other than factual narrative or history."

While he is not dealing directly with Genesis but the NT,the distinction between myth and history, in his view, lies primarily in the author's intention.

The question then is what the writer (or Moses) thought he was doing. Was he making up a story to explain something? or writing history. I know what my answer ir and I suspect the answers of others her will differ but I think those answers are pretty well wholly dependent on ones preconceptions and world view.

Finally, Velikovsky. Well, Louise, In his book 'Ages in Chaos', right at the start on P 2, he actually numbers all the dynasties of Egypt in order. Now you say he is wrong. Can you document that in some way? He lists for instance:
neolithic then Old kingdom (pyramid building period) then he goes on to the first interregnum a dark age that then becomes the middle kingdom, the high point of the culture. This was followed the invasion of the Hyksos and finally the new kingdom which was the times of many of the named pharaohs are listed as part of the 18th dynasty and then the 19th. Where he doesn't know something, he admits it. For instance, he says: "The period of transition from the 19th to the 20th dynasties is obscure."

Perhaps you could look up the book and explain where he gets it wrong in your view.
 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Finally, Velikovsky. Well, Louise, In his book 'Ages in Chaos', right at the start on P 2, he actually numbers all the dynasties of Egypt in order. Now you say he is wrong. Can you document that in some way? He lists for instance:
neolithic then Old kingdom (pyramid building period) then he goes on to the first interregnum a dark age that then becomes the middle kingdom, the high point of the culture. This was followed the invasion of the Hyksos and finally the new kingdom which was the times of many of the named pharaohs are listed as part of the 18th dynasty and then the 19th. Where he doesn't know something, he admits it. For instance, he says: "The period of transition from the 19th to the 20th dynasties is obscure."

Perhaps you could look up the book and explain where he gets it wrong in your view.

Frankly, seeing as the dynasties are numbered from 1 (or 0 now) to 31, it is hard to see how even the nuttiest of nutjobs could get them out of order.
Amazon would only let me read up to page 28 and I admit that I found very little obviously factually wrong, bearing in mind that he was writing nearly 60 years ago. Nowadays I don't think many Egyptologists (if any) would say that the Hyksos were of an "unknown" race nor that they "ruled over Egypt without mercy", if only because it has been established that they did not rule over the whole country and it is now widely accepted that even the Ancients had imaginations and were capable of creating propaganda. [Eek!]
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
Joanna, Velikovsky starts 'Ages in Chaos' by giving the traditional dynasties and then their dates on pp.2-3. He produces his own bizarre dating system as the volume proceeds. You can get the whole text here and in a better format here.

He tries (and fails) in 'Ages in Chaos' to identify Hatshepsut with the Queen of Sheba (article by Egyptologist, David Lorton). To do that he has to move her chronologically out of place by about 500 years as he dates Solomon to the 10th century BC. He also tries to identify the Amalekites with the Hyksos, which involves a similarly large helping of chronological fudge. He goes for them being expelled from Egypt and turning up in 10th century BC Israel to fight Joab (Ages In Chaos p.99-101). Basically he has to move Egyptian history out by centuries, ignoring the findings of archaeology, to make his fudge work.

quote:
Needless to say, this reconstruction is entirely text-based. There is no stratigraphic evidence from Egypt or the Levant to back up these claims that not only down-date some pharaohs by as much as seven centuries but also reverse the sequence of numerous individuals. Some well-attested pharaohs (such as Ra‘messe VI, 1142-1135 BCE)) are dismissed as controlling only small oases in opposition to the Ptolemies (305-30 BCE); some (such as Psamtik I, 664-610 BCE) are downgraded to Persian satraps.

Even if (like Peter James) we accept that there is something not quite right with Egyptian chronology, it is unlikely to be this fundamentally wrong. Two centuries of archaeology have been devoted to working out the sequence of pharaohs... and although there may be room for squeezing and stretching individual reigns or altering the degree of overlap between contemporaneous rulers, there is not the latitude to make Ra‘messe III (1184-1153 BCE) a contemporary of Philip II of Macedonia (359-336 BCE)!

(Keith Fitzpatrick-Matthews and James Doeser website 'Bad Archaeology'

Velikovsky also tries to identify Akhenaton with Oedipus and move him and the 14th century BC Amarna period to the 9th century BC.

Now lets double check a few of those dates in some reference works, in case those naughty bloggers are making them up:

Hatshepsut - 1473-1458 BC Oxford History of Ancient Egypt, ed. Ian Shaw, 2002 not 10th BC as Velikovsky claims.

Hyksos - Velikovsky claims 10th century BC again but in fact the Hyksos period dates roughly 1660-1540 BC, (Charlotte Booth, The Hyksos Period in Egypt, Shire Egyptology 2005 see p.6) with the key date of expulsion at about 1570 BC

Akhenaten -Velikovsky claims 840 BC (Ages in Chaos p.182) the Oxford History of the Biblical world gives ca 1352-1336 BC. (ed. Michael D Coogan 1998)

(To cite journals I'd have to get behind paywalls - so I'm sticking to good reference sources for the moment)

These are just a few examples of how far out Velikovsky is historically. I'll return to other parts of Jamat's posts later since this has been a long one.


L

[ 18. April 2010, 02:29: Message edited by: Louise ]
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Jamat said - The question then is what the writer (or Moses) thought he was doing. Was he making up a story to explain something? or writing history. I know what my answer ir and I suspect the answers of others her will differ but I think those answers are pretty well wholly dependent on ones preconceptions and world view.
Exactly - and you are going into some incredibly tenuous detail to justify your world view.

Why would God hide in such obscure stuff?

I look out of the window and see a marvellous universe.

I feel deep, overpowering awe and wonder at love and life - and I want to give thanks.

I conclude that there is a 'special goodness' behind and through it all - I call this goodness 'God'

Then I look at the way the world works and see that it matches the simplest of scientific explanations in Primary school text books.

So I conclude that the 'God' of love is behind the creation of all things - and that science describes how s/he did it.

That's my world view - and it works well for me.

[Smile]
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
"The principles of such myth making appear to be that the story must be a good story in its own right, must fill some gaps of knowledge in better and more convincing fashion than could be achieved by direct exposition, and must contain detail of obvious fiction which will mark the story as something other than factual narrative or history."

Would that perhaps include any of the following, for example:

 
Posted by JoannaP (# 4493) on :
 
Louise,

Many thanks for that. I am aware that Velikovsky is not reliable (to put it mildly), which is why we do not have his books in the house. I was very surprised at how well he began but the index certainly suggested he went haywire later and I did not want to contaminate my computer by looking further.

Reading Jamat's post, I was reminded of David Rohl but V seems to distort things even further and presumably runs into the same problem that you cannot study Ancient Egyptian history in isolation. I only saw Rohl's first TV show yonks back (and my TV only just survived intact) but having moved Rameses II forward by several centuries, he completely failed to mention how this affected Hittite history

Identifying Akhenaten with Oedipus is a new one on me and excitingly batty. Perhaps I should add him to my collection of pyramidologists after all. [Big Grin]

Joanna
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
Well, firstly the 'straw man'. Most who write in this forum have a rationalistic mindset and are deeply suspicious of any supernatural interventionist God. The problem then for them is that the Bible God both intervenes and supervenes. ... Call it a straw man if you want to. However can you honestly deny that what I implied in the comment above is not true? I have come across it on SOF many times.

To come back to the OP on this thread

quote:
As some of you know by now, I'm trying to foment a rebellion against the evangelical atheists. I thought I'd bring up the topic of creation "science" and the damage it has done to the Christian cause and Christian apologetics
I think we've seen some classic examples of how that can happen. The problem with creation 'science' and as we now see, the kind of pseudo-history and archaeology that follow in its wake, is that you end up with - 'Come and see how good the Bible is - all these really ropey discredited theories support it!'.

The other problem is that education and learning get cast as 'the enemy'. Scientists are 'arch-priests', people who see real problems with the way the OT has been used and interpreted get attacked for a 'liberal humanist agenda' or 'rationalistic mindset'. People on the boards who most certainly do believe in a supernatural interventionist God, get lumped in with the board atheists (who they easily outnumber)- because they know how to work out whether something is bad science or bad history or dodgy theology.

What it ends up doing is opposing research/learning/education to religion - and this is exactly the paradigm which people like Richard Dawkins want to set up too. It plays right into their hands - 'Come and see the ignorance inherent in the religion! Look! Look! They're still citing Crackpot X!' (Remember his ridiculous idea of re-labelling atheists as 'Brights'?)

If people try to back up the veracity of the Bible by supporting the theories of Crackpot X or Y, then it ends up making Dawkins and co look like the guardians of reason and learning and sanity, which is exactly how they think of themselves and exactly how they want other people to see them.

I've often seen the phrase 'fundamentalist atheist', but in fact these people can't prosper without the kind of Biblical literalists they call 'fundamentalists' (and vice versa) - each potentiates the other.

L.

PS. Joanna, Yes, Velikovsky is basically the daddy of Rohl et al!

[ 18. April 2010, 21:45: Message edited by: Louise ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Louise:
I think we've seen some classic examples of how that can happen. The problem with creation 'science' and as we now see, the kind of pseudo-history and archaeology that follow in its wake, is that you end up with - 'Come and see how good the Bible is - all these really ropey discredited theories support it!'.

This is not a new problem for Christianity. St. Augustine commented on it in his own treatment of Genesis.

quote:
Usually, even a non-Christian knows something about the earth, the heavens, and the other elements of this world, about the motion and orbit of the stars and even their size and relative positions, about the predictable eclipses of the sun and moon, the cycles of the years and the seasons, about the kinds of animals, shrubs, stones, and so forth, and this knowledge he holds to as being certain from reason and experience. Now, it is a disgraceful and dangerous thing for an infidel to hear a Christian, presumably giving the meaning of Holy Scripture, talking non-sense on these topics; and we should take all means to prevent such an embarrassing situation, in which people show up vast ignorance in a Christian and laugh it to scorn. The shame is not so much that an ignorant individual is derided, but that people outside the household of the faith think our sacred writers held such opinions, and, to the great loss of those for whose salvation we toil, the writers of our Scripture are criticized and rejected as unlearned men. If they find a Christian mistaken in a field which they themselves know well and hear him maintaining his foolish opinions about our books, how are they going to believe those books in matters concerning the resurrection of the dead, the hope of eternal life, and the kingdom of heaven, when they think their pages are full of falsehoods on facts which they themselves have learnt from experience and the light of reason? Reckless and incompetent expounders of holy Scripture bring untold trouble and sorrow on their wiser brethren when they are caught in one of their mischievous false opinions and are taken to task by those who are not bound by the authority of our sacred books. For then, to defend their utterly foolish and obviously untrue statements, they will try to call upon Holy Scripture for proof and even recite from memory many passages which they think support their position, although “they understand neither what they say nor the things about which they make assertion.”
quote:
Originally posted by Louise:
The other problem is that education and learning get cast as 'the enemy'. Scientists are 'arch-priests', people who see real problems with the way the OT has been used and interpreted get attacked for a 'liberal humanist agenda' or 'rationalistic mindset'. People on the boards who most certainly do believe in a supernatural interventionist God, get lumped in with the board atheists (who they easily outnumber)- because they know how to work out whether something is bad science or bad history or dodgy theology.

What it ends up doing is opposing research/learning/education to religion - and this is exactly the paradigm which people like Richard Dawkins want to set up too. It plays right into their hands - 'Come and see the ignorance inherent in the religion! Look! Look! They're still citing Crackpot X!' (Remember his ridiculous idea of re-labelling atheists as 'Brights'?)

If people try to back up the veracity of the Bible by supporting the theories of Crackpot X or Y, then it ends up making Dawkins and co look like the guardians of reason and learning and sanity, which is exactly how they think of themselves and exactly how they want other people to see them.

I guess the question is whether Christianity is the sophisticated belief of academic theologians or the beliefs of the Christian masses, many of whom do hold anti-scientific and anti-education views.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
Or whether Christianity is an intellectual construct at all. I've heard some people who think that matters of doctrine are secondary to being in community. If I know someone who contributes to the church, takes part in the activities and life thereof, serves, and generally sees Jesus as someone worth following; simultaneously being doctrinally vague to the point of agnosticism, is that person a Christian?

I'm not one to say doctrine doesn't matter (obvious to anyone who reads my posting habits,) but I don't think it's really the sine qua non of Christian faith. I think there was a thread not too long ago about whether the ancient &pi&iota&sigma&tau&iota&sigmaf was really about having logical constructions or about being in relationship, and how logical constructions relate to relationship. Or to borrow a line from one Bill Williams (RIP,) I don't think one has to have a doctrine of salvation by doctrine.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Or whether Christianity is an intellectual construct at all. I've heard some people who think that matters of doctrine are secondary to being in community.

Isn't a community an intellectual construct?
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Or whether Christianity is an intellectual construct at all. I've heard some people who think that matters of doctrine are secondary to being in community.

Isn't a community an intellectual construct?
I don't think so.

ETA: And if it is (if one thinks that everything is an intellectual construct,) "we relate to each other" is a different manner of thinking than "I think that the world was made in seven days."

[ 19. April 2010, 15:25: Message edited by: Bullfrog. ]
 
Posted by Gildas (# 525) on :
 
Originally posted by Croesos:

quote:
I guess the question is whether Christianity is the sophisticated belief of academic theologians or the beliefs of the Christian masses, many of whom do hold anti-scientific and anti-education views.

Yes.

[ 19. April 2010, 16:31: Message edited by: Gildas ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Or whether Christianity is an intellectual construct at all. I've heard some people who think that matters of doctrine are secondary to being in community.

Isn't a community an intellectual construct?
I don't think so.

ETA: And if it is (if one thinks that everything is an intellectual construct,) "we relate to each other" is a different manner of thinking than "I think that the world was made in seven days."

If that's the case, then why has so much ink been spilled over who is in and who is out of the Christian community, and so much more ink spilled on how Christians should relate to each other? Seems like an awful lot of intellectual effort for something without any intellectual component.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Or whether Christianity is an intellectual construct at all. I've heard some people who think that matters of doctrine are secondary to being in community.

Isn't a community an intellectual construct?
I don't think so.

ETA: And if it is (if one thinks that everything is an intellectual construct,) "we relate to each other" is a different manner of thinking than "I think that the world was made in seven days."

If that's the case, then why has so much ink been spilled over who is in and who is out of the Christian community, and so much more ink spilled on how Christians should relate to each other? Seems like an awful lot of intellectual effort for something without any intellectual component.
People spend all kinds of ink studying nature, yet I don't think atheists think that, for instance, a tornado is an intellectual process.

Just because one can think about something doesn't mean that the thing is reduced to the thought.

Also, the fact that it's not intellectually cut and dried tends to give people more rather than less latitude to think about it.

Finally, I didn't say there was no intellectual component to it, just that it's not totally or fundamentally intellectual. Probably an easy thing to miss for folks who spend nearly all their time in purgatory, but I think that's the reality of it.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
If that's the case, then why has so much ink been spilled over who is in and who is out of the Christian community, and so much more ink spilled on how Christians should relate to each other? Seems like an awful lot of intellectual effort for something without any intellectual component.

People spend all kinds of ink studying nature, yet I don't think atheists think that, for instance, a tornado is an intellectual process.
But a tornado isn't created or maintained by a group of like-minded individuals deciding to form a collective community. Pretending that Christians have no more deliberate thought in their heads than air molecules is a degree of ridiucule even I wouldn't stoop to.

quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Just because one can think about something doesn't mean that the thing is reduced to the thought.

Also, the fact that it's not intellectually cut and dried tends to give people more rather than less latitude to think about it.

Finally, I didn't say there was no intellectual component to it, just that it's not totally or fundamentally intellectual. Probably an easy thing to miss for folks who spend nearly all their time in purgatory, but I think that's the reality of it.

Once again, we're talking about deliberate human decision-making. How is something produced in that way not an intellectual construct?
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
If that's the case, then why has so much ink been spilled over who is in and who is out of the Christian community, and so much more ink spilled on how Christians should relate to each other? Seems like an awful lot of intellectual effort for something without any intellectual component.

People spend all kinds of ink studying nature, yet I don't think atheists think that, for instance, a tornado is an intellectual process.
But a tornado isn't created or maintained by a group of like-minded individuals deciding to form a collective community. Pretending that Christians have no more deliberate thought in their heads than air molecules is a degree of ridiucule even I wouldn't stoop to.

quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Just because one can think about something doesn't mean that the thing is reduced to the thought.

Also, the fact that it's not intellectually cut and dried tends to give people more rather than less latitude to think about it.

Finally, I didn't say there was no intellectual component to it, just that it's not totally or fundamentally intellectual. Probably an easy thing to miss for folks who spend nearly all their time in purgatory, but I think that's the reality of it.

Once again, we're talking about deliberate human decision-making. How is something produced in that way not an intellectual construct?

Actually, I would. People aren't really logic machines when it comes down to it. Viewed from a certain distance, we may well resemble air molecules or something like that. It depends on where you're observing from.

Maybe I'm lazy or overworked or something, but I don't think every single action taken by my person every single hour of every day is "deliberately decided." Sometimes I just do stuff. Church is like that. It's not that it's completely thoughtless, but it's not like people go through every single thing thinking it out to the last possible detail before acting.
 
Posted by Dafyd (# 5549) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Maybe I'm lazy or overworked or something, but I don't think every single action taken by my person every single hour of every day is "deliberately decided." Sometimes I just do stuff. Church is like that. It's not that it's completely thoughtless, but it's not like people go through every single thing thinking it out to the last possible detail before acting.

I suppose that the difference in opinion is between point of view one (Croesos) that takes it that because humans are rational the rational faculty enters into everything we do, and point of view two (Bullfrog) that divides things we do into primarily intellectual on the one hand and primarily affective on the other.

There's a sense of 'intellectual' in which the decision to marry someone is intellectual (animals don't and can't do it, though some pair for life to a degree) - and a different sense in which the decision to marry might be more or less intellectual and normatively in Western society would be primarily not intellectual.

Both would appear to have a point. It just depends on how you want to use the distinction.

[ 19. April 2010, 20:10: Message edited by: Dafyd ]
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Actually, I would. People aren't really logic machines when it comes down to it. Viewed from a certain distance, we may well resemble air molecules or something like that. It depends on where you're observing from.

Maybe I'm lazy or overworked or something, but I don't think every single action taken by my person every single hour of every day is "deliberately decided." Sometimes I just do stuff. Church is like that. It's not that it's completely thoughtless, but it's not like people go through every single thing thinking it out to the last possible detail before acting.

Actually, what you're postulating is that it's completely thoughtless. Air molecules don't think, at any level. Under your theory its perfectly plausible for you to get up one day, go to Mosque for prayer services, and not realize until afterwards (if then) "hey wait a minute, aren't I a Methodist?"

Just because something isn't thought out in exact, mathematical detail doesn't mean that it's not an intellectual process.
 
Posted by Bullfrog. (# 11014) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Crœsos:
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
Actually, I would. People aren't really logic machines when it comes down to it. Viewed from a certain distance, we may well resemble air molecules or something like that. It depends on where you're observing from.

Maybe I'm lazy or overworked or something, but I don't think every single action taken by my person every single hour of every day is "deliberately decided." Sometimes I just do stuff. Church is like that. It's not that it's completely thoughtless, but it's not like people go through every single thing thinking it out to the last possible detail before acting.

Actually, what you're postulating is that it's completely thoughtless. Air molecules don't think, at any level. Under your theory its perfectly plausible for you to get up one day, go to Mosque for prayer services, and not realize until afterwards (if then) "hey wait a minute, aren't I a Methodist?"

Just because something isn't thought out in exact, mathematical detail doesn't mean that it's not an intellectual process.

Point, though the point I made above wasn't that it was totally without intellect, but that doctrine isn't the fundamental reason or reasoning in understanding Christianity. To be honest, I didn't think my way into Christianity, and I know very very few people who have, which leads me to think it's not necessarily about the kind of thinking of "well, there's this logical argument and that logical argument..." There's something else going on.

On another note, since you mention mosques, I definitely know people who are Christians, Methodists even by all external signs who wouldn't mind praying in a mosque that would welcome them. Heck, I've seen it done with my own eyes. Would you say this person was not a Christian? On what grounds?

Doctrine isn't irrelevant. I just don't think it's everything, or as important as you or the fundamentalists opine. A person's exegesis of Genesis 1, however disagreeable, doesn't give me the privilege to say that they are not Christian. The belief may be arguably Christian, and I will say it's not necessary for a Christian to have these beliefs, but I'm not sure having the wrong idea is by itself itself the sign of either Christianity or of non-Christianity.

This could be another thread. I might get around to starting it in a few days. If I post anything involved tomorrow it will be from a lack of discipline.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
Just referring to Louise's post above. Thanks for the links, they were very interesting. I took your original comment as suggesting Velikovsky was unaware of Egyptian chronology. You confirmed that as untrue, he just disagreed with it and had his own theory in an attempt to reconcile the history with the Bible chronology. I agree with your link that he pushes it way too far, but then I never was championing his theories.

All I have time for now.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Bullfrog.:
This could be another thread.

It is now
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Alan Cresswell:
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
"The principles of such myth making appear to be that the story must be a good story in its own right, must fill some gaps of knowledge in better and more convincing fashion than could be achieved by direct exposition, and must contain detail of obvious fiction which will mark the story as something other than factual narrative or history."

Would that perhaps include any of the following, for example:

Well It certainly includes supernatural events. The issue is what Moses thought he was writing. Do you not find it interesting that no other Biblical writer ,in referring to these events, considers them fictional?

[ 22. April 2010, 00:38: Message edited by: Louise ]
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
In what way would they show that they consider them fictional? If I say, "Harry Potter went to Hogwart's" have I said one way or another whether I think it's fictional? My lack of saying "but it's just a story innit" doesn't mean I don't realize it's fictional.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
The issue is what Moses thought he was writing.

Well, I don't know how we can know for sure what Moses was thinking. But, I very much doubt he was writing "factual narrative or history" (to quote from your definition of 'myth') in the sense we'd understand that, given that such genre of literature was unknown at the time. Even something like Luke/Acts which states it's written to given an orderly account wouldn't really qualify as a factual historical narrative in the modern sense.

quote:
Do you not find it interesting that no other Biblical writer ,in referring to these events, considers them fictional?
Again, it's difficult to know what other people thought when they wrote. I see little evidence that they considered the events to be factual either. With very few possible exceptions (IMO, Paul referencing the 'trespass of one man' in one of his descriptions of how the sacrifice of Christ saves us being the strongest, as I've said) whether the events referred to are historical fact or fiction (or a combination of both) is irrelevant to the argument developed from them.
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
I thought that there was dispute as to who wrote Genesis - that and the book is probably an anonymous and composite work.

If that's the case then it could have been quite a mixture of genres anyway.

...
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
spot on Boogie

a composite work as we have it today
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
This is something of a tangent, but does it actually say anywhere in the Bible that Moses wrote the Pentateuch, or any part of it?
 
Posted by sharkshooter (# 1589) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
This is something of a tangent, but does it actually say anywhere in the Bible that Moses wrote the Pentateuch, or any part of it?

Would you accept it as fact if it did?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by sharkshooter:
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
This is something of a tangent, but does it actually say anywhere in the Bible that Moses wrote the Pentateuch, or any part of it?

Would you accept it as fact if it did?
Wrong thread.
 
Posted by Crœsos (# 238) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by mousethief:
This is something of a tangent, but does it actually say anywhere in the Bible that Moses wrote the Pentateuch, or any part of it?

Given that Deuteronomy describes the death of Moses, his secret burial attended by no one but God Himself, and a few events that occurred afterwards I think it's safe to say that at least some parts of the Pentateuch were written by someone else.

Unless you want to postulate zombie Moses as the author.
 
Posted by sharkshooter (# 1589) on :
 
Biblical references to show that Moses wrote the Pentateuch:

quote:
What are the arguments for Mosaic authorship? First, there are numerous passages in Exodus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy that point to Moses as author. For instance, Exodus 34:27 says, "Then the LORD said to Moses, 'Write down these words, for in accordance with these words I have made a covenant with you and with Israel.'" In fact, there are references throughout the Old Testament (Joshua, 1 & 2 Kings, Ezra, Nehemiah, Daniel, and Malachi) that claim that Moses wrote the Pentateuch.

New Testament writers assumed that Moses wrote the first five books of the Bible as well. In Matthew 19:8 Jesus refers to laws regarding marriage in Deuteronomy and credits Moses with writing them. In John 7:19 Jesus says, "If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me." In Romans 10:5 Paul states that Moses wrote the law. It would be hard not to attribute either deception or error to Christ and the apostles if Moses did not write the Pentateuch.

There are many other internal evidences that point to Mosaic authorship. The writer of Exodus gives eyewitness details of the event that only a participant would know about. The author of Genesis and Exodus also portrays remarkable knowledge of Egyptian names and places. This knowledge is evident even in the style of writing used. One scholar has noted that the writer used "a large number of idioms and terms of speech, which are characteristically Egyptian in origin, even though translated into Hebrew."

Having received training in the most advanced literate culture of the day as well as having access to the Jewish oral tradition make Moses a remarkably able and likely candidate for God to use in documenting the founding of the Jewish nation.

Link
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
Sorry to create such a large tangent. I'll create a new thread. Sharks, will you please re-post your post in the new thread once I have created it?
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Alan Cresswell: Again, it's difficult to know what other people thought when they wrote. I see little evidence that they considered the events to be factual either.
Well since most references to the creation story are in the prophetic or apocalyptic parts of the bible you may have a point. There are a few references though.
2 Pet 2:4 and Jude 6 are usually connected with Gen 6, the angels' interfering with the human genealogical line which is often connected with the flood judgement.
2Pet 3:5 refers to the waters of creation. 2 Cor 11:3 refers to the deception of Eve by the serpent.
Hos 6:7 refers to Adam's sin as does Job 31;33. ISTM these references are meant literally.
Lk 3;38 takes the geneology of Christ back to Adam.
Ps 104 is often seen as a poetic version of the creation story and you'd have to say it is very like it.
 
Posted by Hawk (# 14289) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Alan Cresswell: Again, it's difficult to know what other people thought when they wrote. I see little evidence that they considered the events to be factual either.
Well since most references to the creation story are in the prophetic or apocalyptic parts of the bible you may have a point. There are a few references though.
2 Pet 2:4 and Jude 6 are usually connected with Gen 6, the angels' interfering with the human genealogical line which is often connected with the flood judgement.
2Pet 3:5 refers to the waters of creation. 2 Cor 11:3 refers to the deception of Eve by the serpent.
Hos 6:7 refers to Adam's sin as does Job 31;33. ISTM these references are meant literally.
Lk 3;38 takes the geneology of Christ back to Adam.
Ps 104 is often seen as a poetic version of the creation story and you'd have to say it is very like it.

Well, those are pretty spurious. Many of them only refer obliquely to the Genesis stories in order to make a rhetorical point. Just as Jesus used stories to make his points.

In any case the question always boils down to whether we believe that the writers were using divinely-given revelation as to the veracity of the historical fall or whether they were merely using a commonly known cultural story in order to make a rhetorical point. You can prooftext as much as you like but unless the writer explicitly states the literal historicalness of the story, rather than merely mentioning it in order to back up their theological point, you are shooting in the dark and it comes down to your personal pre-assumptions alone. In such cases there is no evidence either way whether the writer believed in the historical fall or not.

Personally though I would agree with you in that I expect the writers and thinkers of the time probably did believe in it, (though not in the same rationalistic way modern Creation Science believes). But whatever they personally thought about such matters we are forced to confront the question of whether their personal belief was divine truth or mere cultural assumption. We accept the apostles’ and prophets’ words on theological matters and questions of the nature of God, since such matters are divinely revealed to them, but they were still human beings and they must have been mistaken in many ways, not least of all to do with science, history and cosmology. They probably thought the world was flat and the earth was the centre of the universe as well since they didn’t know any better at that time. But if they betray these time and culture-bound preconceptions in their theological arguments, that does not lessen the impact of their theology (though their supporting rhetoric isn’t as powerful as it once was) or of the truths about God that they have revealed.
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Hawk: unless the writer explicitly states the literal historicalness of the story, rather than merely mentioning it in order to back up their theological point, you are shooting in the dark and it comes down to your personal pre-assumptions alone.
Well I'd like to know if others agree here. It seems that kind of bar would lead to very restrictive exegesis.
Its almost like you are looking for reasons you don't have to say the text implies something yet there are countless places we infer from the Bible on issues not directly stated.
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
Psalm 104 is also a pretty direct steal from an Egyptian hymn to the Aten, with some changes to reflect the reality of when it was incorporated into a book of hymns to Yahweh.

John
 
Posted by Jamat (# 11621) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:
Psalm 104 is also a pretty direct steal from an Egyptian hymn to the Aten, with some changes to reflect the reality of when it was incorporated into a book of hymns to Yahweh.

John

Isn't that another chicken and egg claim vis a vis the Genesis flood story is a 'steal' from the Gilgamesh epic?

Who actually knows these things?
 
Posted by mousethief (# 953) on :
 
I've always wondered about that. How do they date these things? How do we know how long something floated around in the oral tradition(s) before being committed to hide? Is it possible that the Epic of Gilgamesh and the stories in the Tanakh that it has in common are both from a common ancestor, and not one from the other?
 
Posted by Boogie (# 13538) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Jamat:
quote:
Originally posted by John Holding:
Psalm 104 is also a pretty direct steal from an Egyptian hymn to the Aten, with some changes to reflect the reality of when it was incorporated into a book of hymns to Yahweh.

John

Isn't that another chicken and egg claim vis a vis the Genesis flood story is a 'steal' from the Gilgamesh epic?

Who actually knows these things?

How much does it matter which came first?

...
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
The argument goes something like this ...

If the Biblical narratives are derived from earlier stories then they're less likely to be 100% factual, objective accounts of what really happened.

On the other hand, if the Biblical narratives can be declared earlier than similar narratives elsewhere then the other narratives can be declared corruptions of what really happened.
 
Posted by shamwari (# 15556) on :
 
Only the most rabid fundamentalist would want to claim that the events recorded in Genesis 1 - X1 are factual and objective accounts of what really happened.

If the writers were concerned with theology rather than history then it doesnt matter a hoot whether the Flood story is rooted in the Sumerian epic or not. It has a very different theological perspective which is the reason for its existence.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
This is a thread about Creation Science. Which postulates things like the geological layers being the result of deposition in a Global Flood, that the Earth is about 6000 years old etc. I think we can safely assume that people who accept Creation Science would consider the opening chapters of Genesis to be a fairly accurate account of what actually happened.
 
Posted by John Holding (# 158) on :
 
The origin of Psalm 104 matters because Psalm 104 was cited as evidence that the account in Genesis is more or less literally true.

The Hymn to the Aten dates from at least 400 years before David (not that I personally believe that David wrote more than a few of the psalms, but people who treat Genesis as roughly literal usually do). It also dates from well before the supposed date of Moses and the Exodus.

The Hymn to the Aten originated in Egypt during the 18th dynasty -- it's found on a tomb af one of the last kings of that dynasty. It might, of course be earlier.

If it reflects any creation myth, it's an Egyptian one.

Now you can (I would) accept that the Genesis acoount is not a special revelation to Moses, but the blending together of a number of stories from different civilizations over several centuries. But I rather doubt that's what biblical literalists are willing to accept.

Just as you can accept (I do) that whoever polished up the psalms for use over a period of several centuries gladly borrowed from what was used in Egypt and many other places over several centuries, to add to original work by any number of authors, one of whom may have been David.

John
 
Posted by pjkirk (# 10997) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by shamwari:
Only the most rabid fundamentalist would want to claim that the events recorded in Genesis 1 - X1 are factual and objective accounts of what really happened.

Well, that renders a very large percentage of americans into the rabid fundamentalist category. In 2005, more than half of the country (53%) believed that "God created human beings in their present form exactly the way the Bible describes it." 60% in 2004 believed "The story of Noah and the ark in which it rained for 40 days and nights, the entire world was flooded, and only Noah, his family and the animals on their ark survived" was a literal truth. 64% believed "The story about Moses parting the Red Sea so the Jews could escape from Egypt" to be literally true. [pollingreport.com]

Biblical literalism and YECism doesn't necessarily indicate rabid fundamentalism imo. I find them very sad, but many who hold these to be true do so with none of the passion that your words indicate.
 
Posted by Timothy the Obscure (# 292) on :
 
I would certainly agree that for many it's less about passion than inertia.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
On another topic entirely

There is some spin-off discussion on the Noah's Flood thread re rock-dating - see BHB's latest post there. I'm not a geologist but I found this link which struck me as a decent rebuttal of the BHB assertions in the other thread. The Mt St Helens "controversy" appears to be a bit of a put-up job.

DH Hosts may rule this an OK tangent for the Noah thread, meanwhile I thought I'd ask the assembled brains what they know of this issue and what they think of the link I found.
 
Posted by Alan Cresswell (# 31) on :
 
Sorry, I've not had time to read your link Barney.

But, perhaps I can comment anyway. There's a big question to ask, that is "why would anyone attempt to K-Ar date a recent eruption?". I'm pretty sure the data was collected by reputable scientists and not Creation Scientists (generally, Creation Science doesn't have the resources to fund that sort of measurement). I actually had a similar run-in re: 14C dating with the author of a different article in the TJ, in that case it was about 14C measurements of coal.

There is, actually, a very good reason to run K-Ar analysis of modern lava. And, there are very good reasons for making 14C measurements of coal.

It's a question of analytical accuracy and data quality. One of the big questions for K-Ar dating is how good the assumption of zero Ar at formation is. An easy way to do that is measure the K-Ar ratio of modern lavas, and assume that ancient lavas behaved the same. What you find is that for modern lavas there are very small residual Ar concentrations, which if you wanted to use those to determine an "age" would be equivalent to a few 100k years to a million or so; of course that isn't the age of the rock and no-one in their right mind would claim that it is. What you do now have, however, is a better estimate of the initial Ar content of the lava which allows for more accurate and precise measurements of the ages of ancient lavas.

With the 14C and coal, what you do is run the coal as a blank standard to determine the instrument background. If you took those numbers as "dates" then for a good AMS machine you'd get an "age" for the coal of 50k years or so. The author of the TJ article I mentioned (and it's such a load of dross I'm not even going to attempt to find it again for a link) then claimed on that basis that therefore coal beds were actually only a few thousand years old. He didn't seem to understand the concept of measurement of instrumental background, nor why an article in a scientific journal would give that data as part of a report on commissioning a new facility. The editor of TJ was also distinctly uninterested in issuing a retraction for the article in question nor allowing any sort of rebuttal to be published.
 
Posted by Barnabas62 (# 9110) on :
 
Actually, now I've deciphered the miscode in it, pjkirk's link on the Noah thread is much simpler and, to these eyes at least, is a quite conclusive refutation as well.
 
Posted by Louise (# 30) on :
 
I've given the dating method controversies their own thread and copied over Alan's post, so that can be continued there
cheers,
Louise
 


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