Source: (consider it)
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Thread: Purgatory: Christus Victor
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
I think I might as well post this preliminary question as well. From the link above I find this excerpt.
quote: Likewise, the expulsion of Adam and Eve from Paradise and the angel standing guard with the flaming sword is not an act of divine retribution but a compassionate and merciful provision lest we eat of the second tree, the Tree of Life, and die eternally. The fruit of this tree, if we had eaten it, would have condemned us forever.
What Genesis 3 v 22 says is this - Blue letter Bible, giving AV Hebrew and Septuagint.
These two statements seems to contradict. [ 20. February 2008, 08:28: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
Great, more secondary sources
If man at that state became immortal, this would mean the perpetuation of a sad state with no potential of salvation. Our mortality is a great opportunity, and the fact that we can be forgiven is connected with our mortality. Demons do not repent and angels do not sin, yet men can repent and get forgiven exactly because we are mortal. I think that's what fr. Gregory means, but we will wait for him to clarify.
Getting created mortal with a potential of deification is what the Greek speaking fathers taught, and it is fully compatible with Genesis.
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
Well, here's the Patristic comment from the same link.
quote: Listen to St. John Chrysostom:-
"Partaking of the tree, the man and woman became liable to death and subject to the future needs of the body. Adam was no longer permitted to remain in the Garden, and was bidden to leave, a move by which God showed His love for him … he had become mortal, and lest he presume to eat further from the tree which promised an endless life of continuous sinning, he was expelled from the Garden as a mark of divine solicitude, not of necessity."
[Hom. in Gen XVIII, 3 PG 53 151]
Whereas Genesis says simply "unless he eat, and live for ever".
I don't think Chrysostum makes things any better.
Here is an issue I see for the understanding that death is the progenitor of sin, coupled with the immaturity of Adam. If Adam eats the Tree of Life he is freed again from the curse of death. So his sin of immaturity will not be repeated. He will have learned from his mistake. And his immortality will free him from future sinful tendencies. His eating of the Tree of Life will free him from the curse of death and the temptation towards an endless life of sin. Solution, not problem! And in contradiction to Chrysostum's forecast of an endless life of sinning.
You don't get that problem with the other explanation. The Tree of Life really is a danger to Adam because of his sin - if he eats of that he really is condemned to an endless life of sinning. Freedom from the power of death doesn't cure his sinful nature. And if not for him, then not for us. I don't think you can have "special rule" for Adam. For as "in Adam" all die.
Anyway, all of this may just be my ignorance. It is just the way things look. And I appreciate the dangers of pushing the logic of these Creation stories too far.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Barnabas62: So his sin of immaturity will not be repeated.
On the contrary, he will lose the potential of becoming mature! It's not the sin of his immaturity the problem here. It's the way he walked in his immaturity.
In his immaturity he could walk the way to maturity, by entering a dialog with God. The whole creation in Orthodoxy is seen as a logos of God, to which man is to respond with another logos into a dialogos. Creation is the dialogos of God and man, it is not something fixed. We are being created, we are not created yet. So, our response has an effect in our creation.
Instead of Adam getting mature through that dialog (and getting eventually created) he chose the opposite way.
It's not the sin he made that was the problem. It was not irreparable. In fact, for Orthodoxy God asking Adam where he is and what he did and why he did it was God giving a chance to Adam and Eve to get back in a constructive relationship with him.
For the Orthodox, were Adam to say "God, I sinned. Eve is innocent, I am to blame. Forgive Eve." or Eve "God, I am to blame. Forgive Adam. He is not to blame" God would have forgiven them and embraced them and the sin would not be an issue.
But they chose a different way. "The woman You gave me is to blame" and "the serpent is to blame" leads to them not being able to accept God's forgiveness and God. They chose a way apart from God and God can't overrule their freedom.
Their response shows that they did not want to give place in their hearts for the other. I did nothing wrong. The woman. And you gave her to me, so you are to blame. I did nothing wrong. The serpent. And I don't care about Adam.
Loving each other, living in each other, like the three divine persons live in each other would have been their redemption...
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Sean D
Cheery barman
# 2271
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Posted
I find that to be contradictory. If the point of the incarnation, cross and resurrection is to deal with death - not with sin, why not just allow us to eat of the tree of life? That would overcome death. But clearly it would not overcome sin. Hence Christ's life, death and resurrection must have to do with overcoming sin not only by overcoming death but by tackling sin head-on as well, surely?
Fr Gregory, I appreciate your explanation. I understand the concept a little better now, I think. What I am still uncomfortable with is the biblical basis for it. As yet I don't see where Scripture suggests that it was the fear of death that prompted sin - if anything it is a lack of proper fear of the death which God warned of when he forbade Adam to eat the fruit.
-------------------- postpostevangelical http://www.stmellitus.org/
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Freddy
Shipmate
# 365
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Barnabas62: I think I might as well post this preliminary question as well. From the link above I find this excerpt. quote: Likewise, the expulsion of Adam and Eve from Paradise and the angel standing guard with the flaming sword is not an act of divine retribution but a compassionate and merciful provision lest we eat of the second tree, the Tree of Life, and die eternally. The fruit of this tree, if we had eaten it, would have condemned us forever.
What Genesis 3 v 22 says is this - Blue letter Bible, giving AV Hebrew and Septuagint. These two statements seems to contradict.
I'm sort of amazed at this idea from Ireneus, since this is precisely what the New Church teaches.
The contradiction with the words of the text is explained when you consider the context.
The context of the statement is that Adam and Eve have sinned and disobeyed God, which they were told would cause them to die. The imagery of them then taking of the Tree of Life and living forever implies that they would live despite being in disobedience and opposition to God. In other words it means that they would persist in their disobedience - a state of living death, since no one can live apart from God. Or another way to see it is that they would become gods in their own right - independent of, and opposed to, God Himself, an impossible state and one that is consistently called "death" in the Bible.
So "live forever" really means "die forever", or to live forever in a state of living death, which is hell. Ezekiel put is this way: quote: Ezekiel 13:18 You hunt souls for My people, and you keep souls alive for yourselves, and have desecrated Me among My people, to slay souls that will not die, and to keep alive souls that will not live.
There is much more to the explanation, but it only makes sense if you accept the idea that Adam and Eve were not literal individuals. Instead, according to this idea, they represented our earliest ancestors taken collectively for the purpose of giving an account of humanity's spiritual history. Myths and legends were the ancient way of describing and handing down these kinds of concepts.
So the expulsion from the Garden was a merciful act, protecting Adam and Eve from "living death."
-------------------- "Consequently nothing is of greater importance to a person than knowing what the truth is." Swedenborg
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Sean D: I find that to be contradictory. If the point of the incarnation, cross and resurrection is to deal with death
Oh no, the point of the Incarnation is NOT to deal with death... The Incarnation takes place Fall or not Fall... The point of the Incarnation lies in us becoming what God is. This is the potential of the Incarnation that we all become by grace what God is by nature.
Man, to quote Saint Maximus the Confessor, is potentially infinite, potentially uncreated, potentially eternal...
As we walk our way to maturity God allows us to become Gods. In the Incarnation creation is received into God, God enters creation to deify creation and we get the potential of becoming what Jesus Christ is.
The death of Christ might deal with death, but that's not the point for the Incarnation.
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Johnny S
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# 12581
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by andreas1984: You are using a text which Paul himself says he writes it that way because he speaks to spiritual babies, and not grown up men, and calls it spiritual milk and not solid food, and then you take Paul's word's on slavery literally... Dear Lord!
God does not want slaves, but sons, and the whole point of the Economia is for us to finally become what we are called to be, sons of God.
Of course Paul is using 'slave' as a metaphor - He makes that point explicitly in verse 19. No one takes that literally. However, it is a metaphor of something, something which you are either completely ignoring or twisting to fit your systematic theology.
quote: Originally posted by andreas1984: That said, and to speak in Paul's terms, enslaving yourself either to sin or to God presupposes your own personal free will. You enslave yourself to either God or sin. You. And that you means your free and personal will. It's not a "middle" position, but what makes Paul's use of words possible in the first place. It's what makes the gospel possible. You were sinners, Paul says. Now choose to leave all that behind you. Make a choice. Follow Christ and stop living the way you did. Get the new life Christ offers.
Have you read Romans 6? The 'slavery' metaphor of the second half of the chapter balances the 'united with Christ' picture in the first half.
Whatever 'slavery' to sin --> 'slavery to God' means it must be analagous to dying and rising with Christ.
Why watch TV when you have the entertainment of watching Andreas try to draw 'choice' out of death and resurrection? Dead people don't choose anything, and they certainly cannot 'choose' to rise again. [ 20. February 2008, 10:22: Message edited by: Johnny S ]
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GreyFace
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# 4682
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Posted
Is it not the case that for Christ to save us, death in both the physical and the spiritual sense must be dealt with?
I can only really make sense of Genesis if eating (prematurely if you like, I accept the Orthodox argument here) of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil causes spiritual death - separation from God and a dead end as far as theosis goes, and then we are barred from the Tree of Life not as a kind of accidental consequence but as a deliberate act of mercy by God and a first step in our redemption because eating of it would have resulted in physical or eternal or existential immortality, and that combined with spiritual death is Hell.
That being the case I just can't see the argument that Christ's victory is over physical/existential death. That would just be allowing access to the Tree of Life without resolving the spiritual death and as Barnabas asks, why bar it in the first place? It seems to me that it must be the spiritual death - sin - that Christ dealt with on the Cross thereby opening the way for the bar to the Tree of Life to be removed.
Orthodox thoughts on the matter greatly appreciated.
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by GreyFace: Is it not the case that for Christ to save us, death in both the physical and the spiritual sense must be dealt with?
I think we need to examine what salvation means.
For the Orthodox salvation is union with God, God's presence. And God's presence, which deifies us, is not something man can get by himself. This is why Pelagianism has nothing to do with Orthodoxy. Even a mature Adam, an Adam that did not fall but walked the way to maturity, still needs to "get saved" by the Incarnation.
It is the limitation that being created comes with, that is lifted (as a potential for us all) in the Incarnation.
Since we have not inherited a spiritual death from Adam, sin is not the big problem. If we sin, we can repent and ask for forgiveness. God will forgive. But even when we are forgiven we remain humans. We need the next step towards becoming sons of God and this is where the Incarnation comes to play.
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Freddy: The imagery of them then taking of the Tree of Life and living forever implies that they would live despite being in disobedience and opposition to God. In other words it means that they would persist in their disobedience - a state of living death, since no one can live apart from God.
Yes, Freddy, but if eating the Tree of Life is the cure for death (and thereby the cure for sin - see earlier arguments) then they would not persist in their disobedience and opposition. Freed from the threat of death, they would see instantly the error of their ways.
The alternative is that sin really is the "deadliness" of death. Freedom from the threat of physical death does not cure sin. The Tree of Life is only bad news if sin persists despite immortality. Then it is precisely the bad news to which you point.
That central issue has been on the table for the last page or so of this thread.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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Myrrh
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# 11483
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by andreas1984: quote: Originally posted by GreyFace: Is it not the case that for Christ to save us, death in both the physical and the spiritual sense must be dealt with?
I think we need to examine what salvation means.
For the Orthodox salvation is union with God, God's presence. And God's presence, which deifies us, is not something man can get by himself. This is why Pelagianism has nothing to do with Orthodoxy. Even a mature Adam, an Adam that did not fall but walked the way to maturity, still needs to "get saved" by the Incarnation.
This is straw man argument against Pelagius. He was arguing against Augustine's new doctrine of Original Sin in which we are born damned, estranged from God, born sinful, unable to turn to God without free will and so on - we cannot judge Pelagius' beliefs outside of this context.
For example, Pelagius did not believe we had lost God's grace and so Augustinian arguments that we need God's grace to do good is meaningless to him, it's obvious we, he said, that we are able not to sin because God wouldn't have given us the commandments otherwise.
You deny Christ's teaching, 'if you would enter into life keep the commandments' and so on, by bringing in incarnational theology into an argument Pelagius wasn't having.
The council of Orange instigated by Augustinians was specifically against those like Cassian who argued that we have a synergistic relationship re free will and God, the same Orthodox position we hold today, it confirms Augustine that we have no free will to do good. That Cassian and others believed Pelagius was saying we don't need grace is to argue from the Augustinian view against Pelagius who criticised OS for presenting something that had no precedent in the Church, that is, a non-existent grace in the first place.
That Augustinians and confused synergists like Cassian brought their weight against Pelagius and had him declared a heretic through political clout is no reason for us doing the same. Pelagius was cleared by two Church councils and Augustine's doctrines found flawed. That much we know.
How would you argue against such a novel idea as Augustine's? To deny that we need such a 'grace' to do good? To support Augustinians who claimed that Pelagius denied we need grace is to get trapped in their reasoning. Pelagius was denying the whole of OS which created a new relationship with God of an already damned and estranged automaton humanity. That is not the Church's teaching and Pelagius was arguing for the Church.
Myrrh
Here's some Augustinian arguments against Pelagius: (OS against Pelagius)
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
Dear Myrrh
We have available a history on Orange and the Christianity of that region, and nowhere is Augustine mentioned. On the contrary, the Christians who lived there were influenced by the spirit of Saint Basil's monasticism via Saint Cassian.
Augustine's influence as far as original sin is concerned, I feel, came much later, when the Franks knew Christianity via Augustine.
Anyway, that's historical speculation from my part.
While Augustine was mistaken, so was Pelagius. I am astonished as to why you defend him, especially since we don't have much of what he wrote available. But then, we have available pieces quoted in the works of those who wrote against him, and you might agree with those parts, I don't know.
It's been a long time since I last read those anti-Pelagian works, so I can't remember exactly what he wrote. If you insist, I could re-examine them.
As for my part, I accept Cassian's explanation that Pelagius was a Nestorian and that's why he was condemned by the same ecumenical council that condemned Nestorius himself.
What is salvation? What is Grace? God. God's presence. Can man in isolation from God attain that? No. In fact, there can be no pure isolation from God, because he is the very foundation for our being. Only non-being is isolated from God. Everything that is partakes to some extent to God.
So, to consciously and fully partake in God we need two partners. God and man. God to be present, and man to be present in and with God.
Let's say Adam never fell. And let's say that he became mature. He still would not be God. He still would not be what Jesus Christ is. To be able to become what Jesus Christ is, the Incarnation is needed. Do you disagree with this? If you do, on what basis?
Would you mind us continuing discussing Pelagius on a different thread?
P.S. a) Was Cassian condemned by name by anyone? Who would have dared such a thing? b) I would have dealt with Augustine's mistakes differently... I would bring the same arguments the ninth ecumenical council brought against his teachings (although they were not aware at the time that they were his!)
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Freddy
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# 365
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Barnabas62: Yes, Freddy, but if eating the Tree of Life is the cure for death (and thereby the cure for sin - see earlier arguments) then they would not persist in their disobedience and opposition.
I see. Is there really any biblical reason to see the Tree of Life as the cure for sin? Certainly the leaves of the Tree are for the healing of the nations, but we are speaking of its fruit.
-------------------- "Consequently nothing is of greater importance to a person than knowing what the truth is." Swedenborg
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
Freddy
The issue is why should eating the fruit of that Tree be dangerous to Adam? What is clear from the Genesis story is that if you eat the fruit of it, you will live forever. This must not be allowed, says God in the Garden.
Now andreas and Fr Gregory are arguing that the primary cause of sin in all people since Adam is death. Here is Fr G.'s earlier post quoting John Meyendorff's essay, which says this.
quote: Mortality, or "corruption," or simply death (understood in a personalized sense), has indeed been viewed since Christian antiquity as a cosmic disease, which holds humanity under its sway, both spiritually and physically, and is controlled by the one who is "the murderer from the beginning" (Jn 8:44). It is this death, which makes sin inevitable and in this sense "corrupts" nature.
And andreas argues that death is "ontologically" prior to sin and says this is how the Fathers in Orthodoxy teach it.
So it seems not at all unreasonable to argue that on basis of these claims the Tree of Life is a solution to sin. Take away death and according to Meyendorff you take away the inevitability of sin and the corruption of nature. Eating the fruit of the Tree of Life gives eternal life and removes the propensity to sin again on the basis of these claims
Chrysostum's argument however, also quoted, says the consequence of eating the Tree of Life will be endless sinning. But that statement is inconsistent with death being ontologically prior to sin and it is also inconsistent with the Meyendorff statement. It is of course consistent at least in part with an Augustinian view of Original Sin and the Fall. But it almost seems rude to point that out.
Anyway, I hope this makes my understanding of the argument clear. It's not the only one, I guess!
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
Errr... Adam already was "in sin". The difference is made by the fact that the people that are born in Adam are not born "in sin". No "Original sin", just "Ancestral Sin"...
What does afflict creation? Pain, suffering, death. This is the great problem. And not sin, because we are born like Adam was created and we are free to choose, and even when we sin, we can choose to repent. But death cannot be undone. (well, it was not possible for death to be undone, till the Resurrection)
Were God to "eternalize" Adam, Adam would have become like Satan, because eternalization means that one does not change his attitude towards God. (Which is why in the eschata the wicked will be in hell, and the righteous in paradise; no change of heart will take place.)
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by andreas1984: Errr... Adam already was "in sin".
Which makes no difference to the efficacy of the Tree of Life. On the basis of your own argument.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
I don't get it. I spoke of death being the cause for sin, not for life undoing sin.
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
Dear Barnabas62
The Tree of Life is not a "saving tree" .... it is simply the tree of immortality. To eat of that IN SIN would indeed be ETERNAL damnation. Better to die and be denied access temporarily to Paradise so that salvation history might proceed from Eve to Mary and from Adam to Christ. Since the Incarnation ... and through to ... the Ascension / Gift of the Spirit ... the door of Eden has been reopened. This is, however, a new Eden with the desired fruit of theosis. The serpent wasn't wrong about the promise of being like God ... he deceived about the way that was to be achieved. That's the thing about the devil, he hooks you with half a truth (just like the heresies).
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
Father G
Of course it isn't a saving tree! I know that. But that has not been my point. You have been consistently arguing that death causes sin. I'm simply pointing out an apparent consequence of that argument. It leads to an absurdity.
I think Greyface expressed it well here.
quote: Is it not the case that for Christ to save us, death in both the physical and the spiritual sense must be dealt with?
I can only really make sense of Genesis if eating (prematurely if you like, I accept the Orthodox argument here) of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil causes spiritual death - separation from God and a dead end as far as theosis goes, and then we are barred from the Tree of Life not as a kind of accidental consequence but as a deliberate act of mercy by God and a first step in our redemption because eating of it would have resulted in physical or eternal or existential immortality, and that combined with spiritual death is Hell.
That being the case I just can't see the argument that Christ's victory is over physical/existential death. That would just be allowing access to the Tree of Life without resolving the spiritual death and as Barnabas asks, why bar it in the first place?
Now there is very likely a misunderstanding here and I'm happy to accept it is all mine! My arithmetic in on the table. Please get out your red pencil. [ 20. February 2008, 16:08: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
So it's the significance of physical death you are talking about in the salvation schema?
OK. Death is not good but it is preferable to eternal damnation.
The resurrection addresses both. Spiritual death (eternal damnation) is extinguished for Christ has dealt with sin. Physical death has no more dominion over us for Christ is risen.
We must be saved also from that which FORMERLY was necessary to protect us ... and so we may eat from the Tree of life for death (both physical and spiritual) is no more.
I really don't see the problem.
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Barnabas62
Shipmate
# 9110
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Father Gregory: So it's the significance of physical death you are talking about in the salvation schema?
Not me. You - or to be completely accurate John Meyendorff and you. Here is the Meyendorff quote again
quote: Mortality, or "corruption," or simply death (understood in a personalized sense), has indeed been viewed since Christian antiquity as a cosmic disease, which holds humanity under its sway, both spiritually and physically, and is controlled by the one who is "the murderer from the beginning" (Jn 8:44). It is this death, which makes sin inevitable and in this sense "corrupts" nature.
And you said in an earlier post
quote: Human sin is a voluntary and case by case submission of either terror or evasion from the legacy of death as a conscious and God-alienating awareness.
Which makes human sin subordinate to the legacy of death, by any reasonable interpretation. I think I might be forgiven the speculation. Take away the legacy of death and where are the causes of sin?
quote: Originally posted by Father Gregory:
The resurrection addresses both. Spiritual death (eternal damnation) is extinguished for Christ has dealt with sin. Physical death has no more dominion over us for Christ is risen.
That is common to all of us - the issue on which we disagree is how Christ has dealt with sin. But your quoted statement is in no way dependent on any particular relationship between sin and death.
quote: Originally posted by Father Gregory:
I really don't see the problem.
The problem was originally created by your explanation (and andreas') that there was something both distinctive and significant in the way the Orthodox saw the relationship (both historical and ontological) between sin and death. Well, after this canter round the course, I really don't see the significance!
But what the heck! We appear to have ended up with substantial agreement on essentials. That'll do for me. [ 20. February 2008, 16:57: Message edited by: Barnabas62 ]
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
Shipmate
# 9313
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Barnabas62: Take away the legacy of death and where are the causes of sin?
Are you suggesting that sin will carry on after death has been crashed? Because as far as I can tell, the end of death will mean the end of sin as well (and of Satan's affecting the rest of creation)...
ETA: This blog post might be worth reading. Grrrr. Yet another secondary source.
By the way, I drop my use of the term "ontological" since they are not actual onta (beings)... I will just change that for cause-effect relation. [ 20. February 2008, 17:55: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
andreas, I'm not trying to tell you anything. I've just been trying to make sense out of what you and Father G have been telling me.
There is a promise in scripture in Rev 21, that there will be a time and a place when and where there will be no more death or mourning or crying or pain, for the old order of things has passed away. But even then and there, there will be some who experience "the second death" in a fiery lake. Who am I to speak for their eternal state of mind? (Actually, I really don't know what to make of that last bit, but it doesn't bother me greatly.)
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
After that ironic twist, with the "second death" reference from the Revelation, I'd like to ask you guys to explain a bit what you mean by substitutionary atonement.
If Jesus substituted us on the Cross, does this mean we were to get crucified? If Jesus' death is substitutionary, then why do we still die? Was God expecting something from us, something we wouldn't give, so Christ had to substitute for us? What was that? And why was a substitution necessary? How it works?
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Freddy
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# 365
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Barnabas62: Now andreas and Fr Gregory are arguing that the primary cause of sin in all people since Adam is death.
Having read the posts since you posted this, I just want to add that this argument, however andreas and Fr. Gregory mean it, or don't mean it, is unrelated to my own reasons for keeping Adam and Eve away from the Tree of Life.
I hope that no one actually thinks that we are talking about literal magic trees in a literal magic garden with a talking snake, animals individually named by Adam, and a God that walks around in it.
-------------------- "Consequently nothing is of greater importance to a person than knowing what the truth is." Swedenborg
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Freddy: quote: Originally posted by Barnabas62: Now andreas and Fr Gregory are arguing that the primary cause of sin in all people since Adam is death.
Having read the posts since you posted this, I just want to add that this argument, however andreas and Fr. Gregory mean it, or don't mean it, is unrelated to my own reasons for keeping Adam and Eve away from the Tree of Life.
I hope that no one actually thinks that we are talking about literal magic trees in a literal magic garden with a talking snake, animals individually named by Adam, and a God that walks around in it.
Thought so Freddy, hence my post. And I think we agree on your last para as well. We're sifting truth from Creation stories, is all.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
I skimmed through the Wikipedia article.
I'd like to discuss substitutionary atonement with you.
Is it your view that God expected us to do something to get atoned, but we wouldn't do it, and Christ did something instead of us, in our place? Or God expected us to do something we couldn't do? And why expect us to do something we can't do in the first place?
If I understand the Wikipedia article right, the reason why substitutionary atonement is incompatible with Orthodoxy is because for us Orthodox salvation is Jesus Christ Himself, the Godman, Divinity entering and taking upon itself creation, the mingling of the two, or rather the assumption of creation unto the Godhead. I know I said it before, but this is why don't see works as bringing salvation, because we only see God's presence bringing salvation.
It seems to me a strange construct: First men cannot do meritorious works, and salvation does not come through works, but then Christ does a work that is meritorious and brings salvation through works! A very strange construct...
Also strange is the focus on the Cross as if that was the whole point for the Incarnation... While the Orthodox see death being dealt on the Cross, and Love being manifested to the entire creation through the Cross, we believe the deifying potential to come through the Incarnation itself and get sealed with the Resurrection...
Please guide me if I mistook the whole thing. [ 20. February 2008, 19:29: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
Amen to that Andreas.
Freddy ... after demythologising let's reconsttruct a meaning. I am, of course, going to follow the Orthodox interpretation.
What is it that we find ourselves outside in the condition of sin and death?
For Eden read a creation in intimate communion with God. This is why the anthropomorphisms are important in Genesis 2. It reflects that intimacy .... soon to be lost. What is NOT lost in human freedom ... even after the expulsion.
Back in the Garden, what to make of ...
(1) The snake? .... ancient primal fear of the mammal toward the reptile .... this could go back a LONG way in the archetypes of the psyche. The meaning though concerns the temptations we feel to use our freedom for autonomy from and not intimacy with God. There is no possibility of deification without God.
(2) The tree of the knowledge of good and evil? .... sacred trees are as old as, well, Adam! Fecundity, synergy between the animal and plant worlds ... again, an ancient archetype. The meaning? The fruit of moral discrimination .... the sort that is in the image of God in us and the freedom to choose the good. WITH GOD eating this tree is fine ... BUT first we must not eat ... that is we must learn to grow in intimacy with God so that our maturity will match the gift. It's a bit like a child not experimenting with matches. When you have an intimate knowledge of matches, THEN you can "play."
(3) The tree of life. Once intimacy with God is established with God in maturity we are ready to taste of the tree of life for we already by then have life (God) and the longed for process of deification can begin in earnest.
All of this could have happened in "Eden" but primal man messed up by trying for deification without God. From that point death was necessary to halt the decline into damnable permanence. With death destroyed in the resurrection and God and humanity reunited (deification) repentance is the only gateway to theosis and "Eden" returns ... but with new "flowers."
What does it REALLY mean though to say that "death is destroyed"? We still die after all. Consider St. Lazarus ... the one who died twice! The first raising proleptically placed Lazarus in a different plane of being. He got kingdomised (!) so that although he had to die again, his second death was swallowed up in the victory of Christ and he had and has the life of Paradise. His immortality therefore was conditional on Christ's own resurrection and that happens both in and DESPITE this world which must eventually dissolve away for the New Creation fully to be born. (You can speculate about the Big Bang and the possible Big Crunch if you like at this. It's not necessary but it is entertaining).
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
Damn the time limit on the edits!
In the penultimate paragraph for "deification" read "Incarnation." I lost the subject orientation of that sentence, which, of course is Christ. The EFFECT of that though (as Andreas said) is the possibility of deification for us, (St. Athanasios .... at last Andreas ... a primary source!
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Johnny S
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by andreas1984: It seems to me a strange construct: First men cannot do meritorious works, and salvation does not come through works, but then Christ does a work that is meritorious and brings salvation through works! A very strange construct...
You haven't quite got Protestantism yet Andreas.
The construct that is usually opposed to Christ's work is the natural human desire to try to reach salvation by good works - which is not seen as a good thing but rather a form of idolatry from which we need to be saved. Like you we think that salvation is something God does for us in Christ.
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Freddy
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# 365
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by Father Gregory: Freddy ... after demythologising let's reconsttruct a meaning. I am, of course, going to follow the Orthodox interpretation.
I agree with your approach. I will explain the New Church version, which is somewhat similar. quote: Originally posted by Father Gregory: For Eden read a creation in intimate communion with God. This is why the anthropomorphisms are important in Genesis 2.
Yes, that's it. Eden is the intimate communion with God enjoyed by the people of the Golden Age.
The trees are the things they know, the animals are the things they feel. Everything is in perfect harmony.
The serpent, however, is the very lowest kinds of feelings, the sense impressions themselves. The impulse to obey the suggestions of the senses gradually had an influence on the earliest people.
To eat of all the trees but not the Tree of Knowledge meant that it was good to know things from God, but not good to think from the senses apart from God. To eat of that tree meant to want to understand good and evil from themselves and to prioritize the knowledge learned through the senses ahead of that learned from God. This, of course, is what the serpent wants.
Having eaten this, the Tree of Life becomes dangerous. The reason that it is dangerous is that more than anything else in the Garden this tree represents communion with God and the reception of His life. But the desire to become wise apart from God is fundamentally incompatible with what that tree is. The tree would therefore torture and destroy the person, because God's intimate presence would be unbearable to the person and they would perish in eternal death.
The meaning of the person then being protected by being sent out of the Garden is that to the extent that anyone eats of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil they are simply unable to grasp the intimate knowledge that the Tree of Life represents. It is walled off from them.
The one to break down the wall, or provide the way through it, is Christ. This is why this is the point when the first messianic prophecy is given.
-------------------- "Consequently nothing is of greater importance to a person than knowing what the truth is." Swedenborg
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
I don't think I'll be able to contribute much from now on, because classes will take much of my time. So, I'd like to thank all for the discussion. It has been quite revealing, and I got to understand things better as a result of it!
I'd also like to make a few short notes...
First of all, I'd like to say that this sounds like the sola fide issue to me. I have heard that the only time the Scriptures mention "faith alone", is to say that through faith alone man will not be saved. Something like that it seems to me to be the issue of why Christ died. In Hebrews 12 (a chapter mentioned earlier) it is said that since we die, Christ died as well, to destroy the one who uses the power of death, Satan.
Satan uses death to lead to sin to lead to death (to echo fr. Gregory). Of course, this is conditioned on man's free will. So, with the death and resurrection of Christ, we are shown not to be afraid, and if we want, we can follow Jesus Christ showing no regard for death. The whole point of course is to be able to freely choose Jesus Christ who presents us with a positive way of living.
Secondly, I think that it is very probable that the differences between the Orthodox and the non-Orthodox Christians stem from a different view on what salvation is and how man gets saved (per hesychastic councils). Salvation does not come through God's works, because it is not a work. Rather, it is the presence of God in a humble and loving heart. God appears, and a humble heart mellows and experience joy, peace, and wholeness. Joy, peace and wholeness not of this world, that is.
It's not an issue of works, which is why substitution is meaningless. It is an issue of love and Love, and on the Cross we can see God's Love manifested. Because He has proved to be meek and gentle and loving and humble. Which is why the meek, the gentle, the loving and the humble can receive Him. Blessed they are, truly!
Was there anything else I would like to say? I don't remember... Anyway. Gaudete! Jesus Christ has been born! Walk the Way and fear not. Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us. For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
I'll be off line for a couple of days. All the best with the studies, andreas.
You are right to emphasise love. Greater love has no-one than this, that he lay down his life for his friends. Substitution needs more unpacking, but only in the shadow of that agreed overarching understanding. Later.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
Dear Freddy
Spot on from an Orthodox point of view. Your reconstruction is much more lucid than mine. We do have differences of course, (especially on the Trinity), but here (again) we are one.
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Myrrh
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# 11483
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Posted
quote: Originally posted by andreas1984: Dear Myrrh
We have available a history on Orange and the Christianity of that region, and nowhere is Augustine mentioned. On the contrary, the Christians who lived there were influenced by the spirit of Saint Basil's monasticism via Saint Cassian.
Andreas - I really can't understand how you get to this. It was a council called by Augustinians, those who believed in his basic Original Sin doctrine, against the semi-Pelagianism of those like Cassian. This is well known in the Augustinian West.
(The Canons of the Second Council of Orange (529)Dennis Bratcher, ed.)
quote: Augustine's influence as far as original sin is concerned, I feel, came much later, when the Franks knew Christianity via Augustine.
Anyway, that's historical speculation from my part.
Not so, Augustine created his OS doctrine and during his lifetime fought to impose it on the Church, he succeeded in the West as first Pelagius was condemned by his supporters and then the semi-Pelagian view.
What I'm trying to say, and I'm struggling, is that viewing Pelagius re grace from Augustinian arguments against him is straw man, because no one until Augustine said that mankind was without it.
It is usually said that Pelagius claimed we don't need grace to do good, (Augustine said we can't do good because we've lost grace), but this is against Augustine saying we need grace (obtained in baptism) to do good. Orthodox have to agree with Pelagius here...
Put another way, with Pelagius we say mankind has the ability to do good (denied by Augustine), so it's obvious then that if we 'need' grace to do good, then we haven't lost it.
quote: While Augustine was mistaken, so was Pelagius. I am astonished as to why you defend him, especially since we don't have much of what he wrote available. But then, we have available pieces quoted in the works of those who wrote against him, and you might agree with those parts, I don't know.
I defend him because you and other Orthodox malign him, most not even knowing how heretical Augustine's doctrines are for us.
Pelagius was arguing specifically against Augustine's Original Sin doctrines - we mustn't extrapolate his arguments out of this very specific context which is: against a novel heresy. He was found by two Eastern Councils to be Orthodox.
quote: It's been a long time since I last read those anti-Pelagian works, so I can't remember exactly what he wrote. If you insist, I could re-examine them.
As for my part, I accept Cassian's explanation that Pelagius was a Nestorian and that's why he was condemned by the same ecumenical council that condemned Nestorius himself.
I thought Nestorian didn't agree with Pelagius? So for what was Pelagius condemned?
quote: IX. Nestorianism and Pelagianism It is here that Nestorianism is connected with Pelagianism. Pelagius, who lived at the same time as Nestorius, taught, as we shall see, that man is born free from stain or defect, that he is consequently able to resist sin without the help of Divine grace, and that he does not necessarily need redemption. It has been well said that the Nestorian Christ is a fit saviour for the Pelagian man; and so the followers of Pelagius, condemned in the West, were welcomed at Constantinople by Nestorius, but were condemned by the Council of Ephesus. (See pp.154-7.) (THE CHRISTIAN FAITH: AN INTRODUCTION TO DOGMATIC THEOLOGY By CLAUDE BEAUFORT MOSS, D.D.)
quote: What is salvation? What is Grace? God. God's presence. Can man in isolation from God attain that? No. In fact, there can be no pure isolation from God, because he is the very foundation for our being. Only non-being is isolated from God. Everything that is partakes to some extent to God.
So, to consciously and fully partake in God we need two partners. God and man. God to be present, and man to be present in and with God.
But this is what Pelagius was defending against Augustine who denies it.
quote: Let's say Adam never fell. And let's say that he became mature. He still would not be God. He still would not be what Jesus Christ is. To be able to become what Jesus Christ is, the Incarnation is needed. Do you disagree with this? If you do, on what basis?
OK, what I'm trying to say here is that we set limits to God's creation of man in Genesis I by rejecting that man is already created in His image and likeness. Adam already is God, even though there is a distinction between the uncreated and the created Adam cannot be other than the uncreated God, created.
As far as I know, Orthodox teaching is that we are created in Christ's image; this is as much in Christ's image before the incarnation as it is after (otherwise we deny Genesis I).
Myrrh
quote: Would you mind us continuing discussing Pelagius on a different thread?
Not at all, have you the time with your work-load?
quote: P.S. a) Was Cassian condemned by name by anyone? Who would have dared such a thing? b) I would have dealt with Augustine's mistakes differently... I would bring the same arguments the ninth ecumenical council brought against his teachings (although they were not aware at the time that they were his!)
I don't think Cassian was mentioned at all, and although his semi-Pelagianism was condemned I think he was still seen as a 'father' of the Church in the West. But not really sure - I may be thinking of something much later. Will have a look for it.
Myrrh
-------------------- and thanks for all the fish
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
I've read quite a bit around this issue while away and want to try something out in this thread before getting back to the questions andreas raised re the nature of "Substitution" in Substitutionary atonement.
There is a well known passage in 1 Corinthians which seems to me to highlight the issue of the significance of the cross. It is this one.
And from it I want to emphasise two phrases
quote: 17(b)...lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power.
23(b) ...but we preach Christ crucified: a stumbling block to Jews and foolishness to Gentiles, 24but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God
What is this power of the cross to which Paul refers? And why this emphasis on preaching Christ crucified (note not crucified and resurrected)?
I would be grateful for an Orthodox view. I've realised it is pretty impossible to discuss this subject unless protestants like myself get a handle on the huge significance Orthodoxy gives to the Incarnation as an act of salvation, particularly the idea of Christ assuming both fallen and unfallen nature by being made man. Kallistos Ware, for example, argues that when Paul talks about Jesus being "made sin", this is what he means; by being born a man he understands from within what it is like to be human in a sinful world.
While I can see that argument, I think the real distinctive of the protestant world view is that we see Christ "made sin" specifically on the cross. That for us is a huge element of the power of the cross and that is why we preach Christ crucified. We do not just preach Christ crucified, of course, and we certainly see such preaching as foolishness, as Paul says. But we see it as the "foolishness of God"(v 25 in 1 Cor 1). Substitionary ideas are means of coming to terms with, of grasping, this foolishness. And we may often end up looking foolish when we push these models (which really are imperfect versions of the real thing) to their logical conclusion. But this grasping of God's foolishness is pretty central to mainstream protestantism, I think. No conversation about substitution will be worth much without grasping that, even if you do not agree with it.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
Dear Barnabas
If you want to find out what Orthodoxy says on Scriptures, by all means get the books by people like John Chrysostom or Cyril Alexandreia where they comment on the Scriptures. They wrote on all the epistles of Paul and all the New Testament in general and a big deal of Old Testament as well. Much of what the fathers wrote is lost, but, at the same time, much of what they wrote is still preserved.
Grab a book and start reading their exegesis. Orthodoxy sees things the same way.
Now, for Christ being made sin. We had this discussion before, in Kerygmania. It was not until I read Chrysostom's and Cyril's explanation on Paul that I found out that the Protestant take on that verse you proposed is radically different from what the Church was teaching throughout the centuries.
For the ancients Christ being made sin means that he took up the mortal nature of man. And by virtue of his taking for himself that mortal nature, that mortal flesh, on the Incarnation, he died on the Cross. And because he died, we say that he was made sin.
Now, from an Orthodox point of view, on the Cross Jesus Christ loved the entire humanity. God's love is entirely selfless and humble. And it remains a secret many cannot grasp. But for those who receive this secret, Love transforms them and gives them eternal life. The power of the Cross is God's Love which was made manifest. Instead of a god that resembled human kings, we saw real God, who is Utter Humility and Powerlessess. Those seeking power will lose themselves, but those who seek the other people's good and seek no power for themselves shall be exalted.
Jesus Christ: Man's foolishness, God's Wisdom. Man's powerlessness, God's Power. Man's death, God's Life. Man's hatred, God's Love.
You guys are so keen on discussing the Scriptures. And you revere some of the ancient fathers, since you accept the credo and some of the ecumenical councils. Why don't you read their commentaries on the Scriptures? Why prefer people who did not shed their blood and sweat for Christ and for Christ's children over the ones that did?
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
In the light of Andreas' comments, an icon that has always had a profound impact on me in relation to the cross is that of the Extreme Humility.
Extreme Humility
A label should be put underneath ... "This is God."
That is the true power of God. It is an entering into our death even as WE kill Him. Why? Because even in that "place" God shows us personally his self-abasing love for all. This is what destroys death. It is a resurrection power infinitely stronger than the Big Bang ever was.
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
I think Paul shed enough blood to satisfy your criteria, andreas. Personally, I find his meaning in 1 Cor 1 to be quite transparent. Anyway, to save you or anyone else the trouble, I will look at the Chrystostum commentaries to start with (actually I've a feeling I've read at least some of them already, but a revisit won't do any harm.)
I treat everyone's opinion with respect, andreas, (certainly initially) but particularly those of the writers of the inspired scriptures. And there is a very great deal of scripture which really does not need the interpretation of others, no matter how learned they might be or how sacrificial their lives. It is not a code book.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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# 9313
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Posted
Cool. So, some of us today, *cough* the Protestants *cough* understand Paul because, after all, what he wrote is clear, well some of it, but the Universal Church just couldn't *get it* and was teaching differently than Protestantism for two thousand years.
And those Saints who protected the world, and because of whom the entire cosmos continued to exist up to our days, are secondary to the Protestant reading of Paul. I mean, sure, their relics might be healing two thousand years later, but Paul is very clear and we must adhere to what Paul said...
Like those Jews were thinking Moses is very clear (and indeed he is...)
Dear Barnabas, I do applaud your reverence and loyalty to Paul. I wouldn't ask you to do anything less than that. However, I do think that what you view as apparent is only apparent to those who share the same tradition you do, and here I am saying that it's not apparent universally.
If you are confident that what Paul says is obvious, then you would expect the Universal Testimony of the ancient Church to back up your exegesis. That's all I am saying.
By the way, much of what's preserved today from Chrysostom's homilies on the New testament can be found in CCEL... First and Second Corinthians Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Thessalonians, Timothy, Titus, and Philemon Hebrews, and the gospel according to John The gospel according to Matthew
I'm off (and sorry for my use of irony!) [ 24. February 2008, 17:28: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
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Barnabas62
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Thanks for the links, andreas. I knew I had seen them before (and read at least some of the homilies). And I am delighted to be able to say that I find Chrystostum's homilies speaking very clearly to me in terms that I understand and agree. Both in the 1 Cor 1 areas that I flagged - and even more so in 2 Cor 5:21 (the "made sin verse).
Here's the link to Homily XI re 2 Cor. The whole context for Chapter 5 v 21 is worth reading, particularly as Chrysostum makes it clear that Christ is "made sin" on the Cross. But here is the quote which sticks out for me.
quote: If one that was himself a king, beholding a robber and malefactor under punishment, gave his well-beloved son, his only-begotten and true, to be slain; and transferred the death and the guilt as well, from him to his son, (who was himself of no such character,) that he might both save the condemned man and clear him from his evil reputation and then if, having subsequently promoted him to great dignity, he had yet, after thus saving him and advancing him to that glory unspeakable, been outraged by the person that had received such treatment: would not that man, if he had any sense, have chosen ten thousand deaths rather than appear guilty of so great ingratitude?
Again, footnote 702 to this verse is worth reading in its entirety because it illustrates a crucial difference with Augustine. But here is a remarkable extract
quote: (From a quote by Beet) "By laying upon Christ the punishment of our sin, God made him to be a visible embodiment of the deadly and far-reaching power of sin.” But Chrysostom shows by his comments his acceptance not only of the vicarious atonement, but also of the gratuitous justification, as set forth concisely yet distinctly in this pregnant utterance. There are passages in these and other Homilies which look as if the author held to justification by works, but here he is outspoken to the contrary. Justification comes by grace, not merit, and the righteousness required is the free gift of God.
Spurgeon could hardly have put it better! Perhaps you can put a paper thickness between vicarious atonement and substitutionary atonement if you want to be picky? But basically, Chrysostum and I believe the same stuff about this Pauline utterance. (I vaguely remember discovering things like this before in Chrysostum).
Of course this may all be a piece of ignorant misconstruing on my part - but I reckon Chrystostum believed in substitutionary (vicarious if you like) atonement demonstrated by the death of Christ on the Cross - that story is as substitutionary as you can get. I think he also believed in the centrality of the Cross in Christian preaching. He could have preached the essence of that homily on v 21 in my church this morning - and been very welcome.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
Sorry Barnabas but this is beginning to annoy me. It's ChrysostOM not ChrysostUM. (St. John might be nice as well. Who wants simply to be called "Golden-Mouthed.")
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Barnabas62
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# 9110
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Posted
Apologies. How about the substance, rather than the spelling?
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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Father Gregory
Orthodoxy
# 310
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Posted
Thankyou Barnabas.
I think Andreas and I may differ here. I have never denied that there is a place for the courtroom in St. Paul's theology. Forensic atonement it is not .... existential yes. However, I do disagree that, from the perspective of the whole witness of the Fathers as to the synthesis of Scripture, this is a the central and all illuminating truth about redemption. It cannot serve thus because it only deals with one albeit important element ... our acquittal as guilty persons. Nonetheless God did this out of love for his creation, NOT to "calm himself down" so to speak. This is where (particularly) forensic atonement and divine necessity lead and it ain't Orthodox by any standard, St. John Chrysostom or otherwise.
Vicarious sacrifice in juridical terms also has no place for the resurrection. For this reason alone it cannot serve as the governing metaphor of what is happening on the cross.
On my salvation page I wrote the following ...
quote: JUSTIFICATION
The language here, the metaphor, is that of the court but not like any mere human court of law. The metaphor sees Man standing as it were "in the dock," hopelessly condemned by his failure to maintain the covenant relationship with God. The remedy enacted by God, however, cannot simply be understood in terms of the theory of "substitutionary atonement," that distorted but much beloved doctrine of our Protestant brethren.
According to this theory, all Christ has to do is to substitute himself for us, take our punishment for sin, and allow us to walk free. This degraded version of justification is unsatisfactory because it glosses over in some sort of cheap legal transaction the human and sacrificial elements of the death of Christ that are so vital to its converting power. Justification means, "making righteous." We lose sin and gain righteousness not in legal transactional terms but in a personal inward manner that involves a titanic struggle against the evil forces that enslave humanity. If, therefore, justification remains connected to the historical dimension of sacrifice, (as it does in St. Paul’s letters), then the legal metaphors are very useful. However, justification by itself cannot provide both the key and the context to a holistic understanding for the same reason that sacrifice cannot. The resurrection is not an integrated part of the vision of man made whole in this scheme either.
REDEMPTION
There are two different words for redemption in the New Testament. The first, lytro-o, (lutrow ) means to "buy off" or "ransom." It has three applications: -
1. ransoming from captivity … as in the release of prisoners. Christ has forgiven our sins by his sacrificial death.
2. ransoming from debt … as in the forgiveness of money owed. Christ has dealt with what we owe God from whom we have estranged ourselves.
3. ransoming from slavery … the meaning of this is clear. Christ has set us free from the curse of our own moral helplessness and the death that is its due.
Unlike sacrifice and justification, ransom is much more focussed on the goal of salvation being our liberation from sin, suffering, evil and death by the victory of Christ. It embraces the resurrection as the crowning glory of Christ’s justifying sacrifice for our freedom. Not unsurprisingly, therefore, it is redemption that is most often used by the Church Fathers as the key and context to the experience of salvation in the Church; precisely because it incorporates the other biblical ideas connected with sacrifice and righteousness in a paschal frame of reference. The great deliverance of humanity from the grip of evil and death was secured at the resurrection but it will not be manifest in its entirety until the Last Day, the Judgement and the New Creation.
This is the link ...
"The Death and Resurrection of Christ" [ 25. February 2008, 11:00: Message edited by: Father Gregory ]
-------------------- Yours in Christ Fr. Gregory Find Your Way Around the Plot TheOrthodoxPlot™
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Johnny S
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quote: Originally posted by Father Gregory: We lose sin and gain righteousness not in legal transactional terms but in a personal inward manner that involves a titanic struggle against the evil forces that enslave humanity.
How do you square that with passages like Romans 4 and Ephesians 2 where very strong language is repeatedly used to stress that 'grace is a gift' and that 'this is nothing of ourselves'?
Indeed (whether or not Paul wrote Ephesians ) it seems that one of the major themes of his writings is this point that salvation is 'nothing of ourselves'.
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Barnabas62
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I don't like cheap grace either, Father Gregory, and it was one of the reasons why I was much taken with St John Chrysostom's explanation of 2 Cor 5 v 21. It reminded me very much of the powerful Pauline asserion in Romans 3:31. "Do we then nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law". I'm not just a "Crosstianity" Christian either!
You catch me at present looking at St Cyril's commentary on St Luke's gospel - there is a scanned in version available on line. Unlike St John, I had not read St Cyril before and am finding his commentary on the Passion profound. We might do better to use the term "vicarious", because "substitutionary" is now loaded, but I am beginning to think St Cyril sees vicarious sacrifice on the cross as well. I do appreciate how important the Incarnation is for any full understanding of St Cyril. More perhaps later on that.
As you've probably read from my previous posts, I'm not a great enthusiast for pushing the logic of these forensic understandings of atonement too far. They can easily separate us from the power of the resurrection, without which we are all still in our sins. I'm much taken by the great prayer in Ephesians 1 which has much to say on the matter.
Thanks for the link to your sermon, I appreciate it, as I did the rest of your response.
-------------------- Who is it that you seek? How then shall we live? How shall we sing the Lord's song in a strange land?
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El Greco
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quote: Dear Barnabas
Out of necessity, I will make two posts. In this post I will address all the verses you have already referred to. In the post that will follow I will address the quote you just made, because I want to read the whole text first.
quote: Let's get started...
2 Cor. 5.21: God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
Here's what St. John Chrysostom says about that:
quote: For had He achieved nothing but done only this, think how great a thing it were to give His Son for those that had outraged Him. But now He hath both well achieved mighty things, and besides, hath suffered Him that did no wrong to be punished for those who had done wrong. But he did not say this: but mentioned that which is far greater than this. What then is this? “Him that knew no sin,” he says, Him that was self-righteousness “He made sin,” that is suffered as a sinner to be condemned, to die as one cursed.
I note that a) he doesn't say that God gave His Son instead of us, or in our place, but for us, that is for our benefit. There is atonement here, but not substitutionary atonement. Just like the Credo says. "For us and for our salvation" b) "made sin" refers to Jesus Christ's death.
In a like manner, St. Cyrill of Alexandreia explains the verse: When you hear that he became sin, do not think that he did sin. Rather that for our sin he was given by God the Father, and he is called sin like the sacrifices for sin under the Law of Moses they called sin.
Note that both these fathers said nothing about Jesus Christ experiencing a so called separation from God the Father which is the alienation we sinners experience and this is why he is called sin. They say nothing of the sort, even though you Barnabas have given that explanation for the verse. On the contrary, they explain that the verse refers to Jesus Christ's death on the Cross.
quote: Romans 5.12: Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, in which all sinned
What does this mean "in which all sinned" asks Saint John Chrysostom? After he fell (Adam), and those that did not eat from the tree became from him all mortal. Again, no mention of Original Sin, just the basic understanding of the ancestral sin, in which with Adam's personal sin death enters creation.
quote: 1 Cor. 15.22: For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive.
Saint Cyril explains it thus: Just like in Adam all were condemned, since the human nature "suffered" death, so after we get justified in Christ when we will put aside sin we will also put aside the death that came from it. The "condemnation" for the Saint has always been death. Again, no mention of Original Sin, just Ancestral Sin which brought death...
Saint John is even more revealing (which is natural, since we have fragments from Saint Cyril while we have whole books from Saint John):
What then? Tell me, have we all died the death of sin? How then was Noah righteous in his generation? How was Abraham? How was Job? How were the all rest? And what does it mean that we will all find life in Christ (if you interpret the death to mean a death of sin)? Where are then those that will go to Gehenna? If this word (verse) have been said on the body, then it stands. If it has been said on righteousness, it does not stand.
Which is exactly the opposite, Barnabas, you have been saying!
quote: To conclude: A) In the "made sin" verse the fathers understand Jesus Christ's human death and not a spiritual alienation from God the Father which is the result of sin. B) "In which all sinned" refers to death which entered creation because of the ancestral sin. The verse is not understood by the fathers to refer to what we now call Original Sin. C) "in Adam all die" is understood to mean human death and not sin. In fact, the very notion of an Original Sin is condemned strongly by the fathers!
quote: I hope I covered all the verses from Paul that were mentioned, and I didn't miss anything. I also hope that the translations from the two fathers I gave show that they had nothing to do with the explanations put forth today for those verses.
Barnabas, what do you say? Those verses have been mentioned. You have explained how you understand them, I have explained how I understand them. Now we see how two Saints understood them. Is it clear that they did not understood the verses the way you propose, but the way I proposed? It would be a big step if we got that clarified...
[ 25. February 2008, 11:51: Message edited by: andreas1984 ]
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El Greco
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OK, I read the text Barnabas quoted from earlier.
quote: If one that was himself a king, beholding a robber and malefactor under punishment, gave his well-beloved son, his only-begotten and true, to be slain; and transferred the death and the guilt as well, from him to his son, (who was himself of no such character,) that he might both save the condemned man and clear him from his evil reputation and then if, having subsequently promoted him to great dignity, he had yet, after thus saving him and advancing him to that glory unspeakable, been outraged by the person that had received such treatment: would not that man, if he had any sense, have chosen ten thousand deaths rather than appear guilty of so great ingratitude?
This passage says NOTHING of a substitution! On the contrary, it says everything about Atonement.
God gives His Son so that we get saved. We sinned and perished following our ways, but God sends His Son to get us back, to save us, to give us dignity. He is not slain "in our place" or "on our behalf", but he is slain "for us and for our salvation".
Nobody denies the importance of the Cross. Nobody denies that Jesus Christ has been slain. What we debate here is why this happened, and I don't see John Chrysostom saying he died to substitute us. After all, we still die... And sin... but through Jesus Christ we have the power to trample death in the Resurrection, not to be afraid of death in this life, and to change our lives so that we become righteous to the glory of God. Many have changed their lives. It is possible. Wickedness is not inevitable, Righteousness is available and many have grabbed it.
Now that I re-read the passage, to see why Barnabas thought it suggests substitution, I think here's why:
The Saint says "transferred the death and the guilt as well". What he means here is that while through Adam's sin all die, God is Life Itself, so he is not supposed to die. Yet, God, to save man, He becomes mortal and subject to death, and dies for us, as if he was guilty himself, so that we can be reconciled with God. Not because God demanded anything from our part to forgive us, but because we were blind to His forgiveness and love, which is manifested on the Cross, thus drawing some men towards Him, and those men and women get to experience God's salvation after they responded to Jesus Christ by turning to Him and leaving their old ways back and for good.
-------------------- Ξέρω εγώ κάτι που μπορούσε, Καίσαρ, να σας σώσει.
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